Advanced Problem Package Kinematics of A Particle & Motion in Two Dimension
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SachinAdvanced Problem Package Kinematics of A Particle & Motion in Two Dimension
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SachinVidyamandir Classes
Kinematics of a Particle &
Advanced Problem Package
Motion in Two Dimension
SINGLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE
Each of the following Question has 4 choices A, B, C & D, out of which ONLY ONE Choice is Correct.
1. A car moves rectilinearly from station A to the next station B (rest to rest) with an acceleration varying according to the
law f = (a – bx), where a and b are constants and x is the distance from the station A. The distance between the two
stations and the maximum velocity are :
a a b a 2a b 2a a
(A) , (B) , (C) , (D) ,
b b 2a b b a b b
2. The displacement-time graph of a moving particle with constant
acceleration is shown in the figure. The velocity-time graph is given by
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
3. Acceleration (a) displacement (s) graph of a particle moving in a straight line is as
shown in the figure. The initial velocity of the particle is zero. The v-s graph of
the particle would be :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
APP | Physics 1 Kinematics of a particle
Vidyamandir Classes
4. Two balls are thrown from an inclined plane at angle of projection α with the plane, one up the plane while other down
the inclined plane (as shown in figure). In the figure u1 and u2 are the speeds when the line of motion of the particle is
parallel to the inclined plane and h1 and h2 are maximum displacements perpendicular to inclined plane respectively.
u 2 sin 2 α 2u sin α
(i) h1 h 2 (ii) T1 T2 T
2g cosθ g cosθ
(iii) R1 R 2 gsin θ.T 2 (iv) u1 = u2
The correct choice is :
(A) All are true (B) Statements (i) and (ii) are true
(C) Statements (i), (ii) and (iii) are true (D) Statements (i), (ii) and (iv) are true
5. A particle is thrown with an initial velocity v0 at an angle α to the horizontal. The ratio of radius of curvature at the
highest point of its path to the maximum height is :
1 1
(A) cot α (B) 2cot 2 α (C) 2cot α (D) cot 2 α
2 2
6. The distance between two moving cars A and B at a particular time is d. Their relative velocity is V with the component
along AB being u and perpendicular to AB being v. The time that elapses before they arrive at their nearest distance is :
du dv d u v dV
(A) (B) (C) (D)
u v
2 2 2 2
V V V
7. Two particles positioned at A(5, 3) and B(7, 3) are moving with constant velocity 2iˆ 3jˆ and xiˆ yjˆ respectively.
After 2s they collide, then the values of x and y are respectively
(A) 2, 2 (B) 1, 3 (C) 3, 2 (D) 1, 1
8. Three particles A, B and C are projected with initial velocities v A , vB and vC (in
vertical plane) as shown in figure. The particles collide at highest point of A. Then
v A : v B : v C is :
(A) 1: 2 : 3 (B) 3 : 2 :1
(C) 3 :1: 2 (D) Data insufficient
9. The acceleration of a particle which moves along the positive x-axis
varies with its position as shown. If the velocity of the particle is
0.8 m/s at x = 0, the velocity of the particle at x = 1.4 is : (in m/s)
(A) 1.6
(B) 1.2
(C) 1.4
(D) None of these
APP | Physics 2 Kinematics of a particle
Vidyamandir Classes
10. A ball is hit by a batsman at an angle of 37° as shown in figure. The man standing
at P should run at what minimum velocity so that the catches the ball before it
strikes the ground. Assume that height of man is negligible in comparison to
maximum height of projectile.
(A) 3 ms–1 (B) 5 ms–1 (C) 9 ms–1 (D) 12 ms–1
11. A ball is thrown from a point on ground at some angle of projection. At the same time a bird starts from a point directly
above this point of projection at a height h horizontally with speed u. Given that in its flight ball just touches the bird at
one point. Find the distance on ground where ball strikes
h 2h 2h h
(A) 2u (B) u (C) 2u (D) u
g g g g
12. A ball is projected normally from point P (which is on an inclined plane) with
x
speed 10 m/s strikes the wall normally. If all the collisions are perfectly elastic, 90
then the time period of periodic motion is : [Take g = 10 m/s2] y P 90
(A) 2 sec (B) 2 2 sec
(C) 3 2 sec (D) 4 2 sec 45
13. A particle is projected with velocity u at an angle with the horizontal as shown in the figure. h, T and R are
maximum height, time of flight and range respectively.
(A) magnitude of average velocity between A and B is u cos h
A
(B) time required to go from A to B is T/3 u B
(C) Magnitude of average acceleration between A and B is 2g h/2 h/2
(D) Instantaneous velocity at A and B will be same
O
14. A particle is projected from point A at an angle of 53 with horizontal. At the same time wedge starts from rest and
moves with constant acceleration a as shown. The value of a for which the particle strikes the plane perpendicular to it
4
3
at point P is : tan 53 g 10 m / s 2 a
(A) 10 m/s2 (B) 100 m/s2 P
(C) 26/3 m/s2 (D) 140 m/s2
53 wedg 45
15. A
The radii of the front and rear wheels of a carriage are a and b respectively and c is the distance between the axles. A
dust particle driven from the highest point of the rear wheel is observed to settle on the highest point of the front wheel.
The velocity of the particle with respect to the carriage is :
c b a c a b a b c a b c
(A) g (B) g
4 b a 4 b a
a b c a b c c b a c a b
(C) g (D) g
4 b a 4 b a
MULTIPLE CORRECT ANSWERS TYPE
Each of the following Question has 4 choices A, B, C & D, out of which ONE or MORE Choices may be Correct:
16. A ball of mass m is projected from the ground with an initial velocity u making an angle θ with the horizontal. Then
choose the correct statement(s).
(A) the change in velocity between the point of projection and the highest point is u sin θ ˆj (downward)
(B) the average velocity averaged over the time of flight is u cosθiˆ (horizontal)
(C) the change in velocity in the complete projectile motion is 2usinθjˆ
(D) the rate at which momentum of the ball is changing is constant
APP | Physics 3 Kinematics of a particle
Vidyamandir Classes
17. A particle has initial velocity 10 m/s. It moves due to constant retarding force along the line of velocity which produces
a retardation of 5 m/s2. Then
(A) the maximum displacement in the direction of initial velocity is 10 m
(B) the distance travelled in first 3 seconds is 7.5 m
(C) the distance travelled in first 3 seconds is 12.5 m
(D) the distance travelled in first 3 seconds is 17.5 m
18. A train starts from rest at S = 0 and is subjected to acceleration as shown : a(m/s)2
(A) Change in velocity at the end of 10 m displacement is 50 m/s. 6
(B) Velocity of the train for S = 10 m is 10 m/s.
(C) The maximum velocity attained by train is not greater than 14 m/s
(D) The maximum velocity of the train is between 15 m/s and 16 m/s. S(m)
30
19. Two swimmers A and B start swimming from different positions on
the same bank as shown in figure. The swimmer A swims at angle y
900 with respect to the river to reach point P. He takes 120 seconds 30m P
to cross the river of width 10m. The swimmer B also takes the same x
time to reach the point P 10m
(A) Velocity of A with respect to river is 1/6 m/s
(B) River flow velocity is 1/4 m/s
(C) Velocity of B along y-axis with respect to earth is 1/3 m/s A B
(D) Velocity of B along x-axis with respect to earth is 5/24 m/s 5m
20. A rocket is fired vertically up from the ground with a resultant acceleration of 10 m/s2 upward. The fuel is finished in 1
minute and it continuous to move up (g = 10 m/s2)
(A) The maximum height reached by rocket from ground is 18 km.
(B) The maximum height reached by rocket from ground is 36 km.
(C) The time from initial in which rocket again at ground is 240 s.
(D) The time from initial in which rocket again at ground is (120+60 2 )s.
21. In a situation, a board is moving with a velocity v with respect to earth,
while a man A is running with a velocity 2v with respect to earth and the
A B v
man B is running with a velocity -2v with respect to earth. If both men are
running from the opposite ends of the board at the same time, as shown.
Length of the board is L. If they meet after time T, then :
(A) Value of T is L /4v (B) Value of T is L/2v
(C) Displacement of man B with respect to board in time T is 3L/4
(D) Displacement of man A with respect to board in time T is L/4
22. A jeep runs around a curve of radius 0.3 km at a constant speed of 60 ms–1. The jeep covers a curve of 600 arc.
(A) Resultant change in velocity of jeep is 60 ms–1
(B) Instantaneous acceleration of jeep is 12 ms–1
(C) Average acceleration of jeep is 11.5 ms–1
(D) Instantaneous and average acceleration are same in this case
23. Take the z-axis as vertical and xy plane as horizontal. A particle A is projected with speed of 4 2 m/s at an angle 450 to
the horizontal in the xz. Particle B is also projected at same instant but with speed 5 m/s at an angle tan –1(4/3) with
horizontal in yz plane, then which of the following statement/s is/are correct? (g = 10 m/s2)
(A) Magnitude of relative velocity of A with respect to B is 5 m/s during motion
(B) Particle A and B again hit the ground at the same instant
(C) The separation between A and B when they hit the ground is 4 m
(D) The path of A with respect to B is straight line
APP | Physics 4 Kinematics of a particle
Vidyamandir Classes
24. Two particles A and B are projected from the same point with the same velocity of projection but at different angles
and of projection respectively, such that the maximum height of A is two-third of the horizontal range of B. Then
which of the following relations is(are) incorrect?
(A) 3 1 cos 2 8 sin 2 (B) Range of A = maximum height of B
1 3 u2
(C) Maximum value of is sin 1 (D) Maximum horizontal range of A
2 4 g
25. A truck has to move to a diametrically opposite point on a circular track which surrounds a field. The speed of the truck
along the track is 2v0 . While that in the field is v0 . The driver plans to move along an arc of a circle and then along a
straight line as shown.
(A) To reach P in shortest time, Q must be equal to 60°
R
(B) The minimum time required to reach P is 3
v0 6
(C) The distance travelled to reach P in shortest time is R 3
3
(D) The angle will not depend on the value of v0
26. The co-ordinates of a particle moving in a plane are given by x(t) = acos (pt) and y(t) = bsin (pt) where a, b (< a) and p
are positive constant of appropriate dimensions. Then
(A) The path of the particle is an ellipse
(B) The velocity and acceleration of the particle are normal to each other at t
2p
(C) The acceleration of the particle is always directed towards a fixed position
(D) The distance travelled by the particle in time internal t = 0 to t is ‘a’
2p
27. In a projectile motion let vx and v y are the horizontal and vertical components of velocity at any time t and x and y are
displacements along horizontal and vertical from the point of projection at any time t. Then
(A) v y t graph is a straight line with negative slope and positive intercept
(B) x – t graph is a straight line passing through origin
(C) y – t graph is a straight line passing through origin
(D) vx t graph is a straight line
28. Two particle P and Q move in a straight line AB towards each other. P starts from A with velocity u1 and an
acceleration a1. Q starts from B with velocity u2 and acceleration a2 . They pass each other at the midpoint of AB and
arrive at the other ends of AB with equal velocities.
2(u2 u1 )
(A) They meet at midpoint at time t
(a1 a2 )
4(u2 u1 )(a1u2 a2u1 )
(B) The length of path specified i.e., AB is 1
(a1 a2 )2
(C) They reach the other ends of AB with equal velocities if (u2 u1 )(a1 a2 ) 8(a1u2 a2u2 )
(D) They reach the other ends of AB with equal velocities if (u2 u1 )(a1 a2 ) 8(a2u1 a1u2 )
APP | Physics 5 Kinematics of a particle
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29. Three particles A, B and C and situated at the vertices of an equilateral triangle ABC of side of length l at time t = 0.
Each of the particles moves with constant speed u. A always has its velocity along AB, B along BC and C along CA.
2l
(A) The time after which they meet is
3u
2l
(B) Total distance travelled by each particle before they meet is
3
3u
(C) Average velocity during the motion is
2
3u
(D) Relative velocity of approach between any two particles is
2
30. A motor boat is to reach at a point 30° upstream on other side of a river flowing with velocity 5 m/s. Velocity of motor
boat with respect to water is 5 3 m/sec. The driver should steer the boat at an angle of
(A) 30° up w.r.t. the line of destination from the starting point
(B) 60° up w.r.t. normal to the bank
(C) 150° w.r.t. stream direction
(D) None of these
31. A man in a boat crosses a river from point A. If he rows perpendicular to the bank her reaches point
C(BC = 120 cm) in 10 minutes. If the man heads at a certain angle to the straight line AB (AB is perpendicular to the
banks) against the current he reaches point B in 12.5 minutes.
(A) The width of the river is 300 m
(B) The width of the river is 200 m
(C) The rowing velocity is 20 m/min
(D) The rowing velocity is 30 m/min
32. At the instant a motor bike starts from rest in a given direction,
a car overtakes the motor bike, both moving in the same
direction. The speed time graphs for motor bike and car are
represented by OAB and CD respectively. Then
(A) At t = 18 s the motor bike and car are 180 m apart
(B) At t = 18 s the motor bike and car are 720 m apart
(C) The relative distance between motor bike and car
reduce to zero at t = 27 s and both are 1080 m far
from origin
(D) The relative distance between motor bike and car always remains same
33. A particle moves with an initial velocity v0 and retardation v, where v is velocity at any time t.
v0
(A) The particle will cover a total distance
1
(B) The particle will come to rest after time
(C) The velocity will continue to move for a long time
v0 1
(D) The velocity of particle will become after time
e
APP | Physics 6 Kinematics of a particle
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34. The velocity of a particle along a straight line increases according to the linear law v v0 kx, where k is a constant.
Then
(A) The acceleration of the particle is k (v0 kx )
1 v
(B) The particle takes a time loge 1 to attain a velocity v1
k v0
(C) Velocity varies linearly with displacement with slope of velocity displacement curve equal to k
(D) Data is insufficient to arrive at a conclusion
35. A particle is fired from a point on the ground with speed u making an angle with the horizontal. Then
u 2 cos 2
(A) The radius of curvature of the projectile at the highest point is
g
u 2 sin 2
(B) The radius of curvature of the projectile at the highest point is
g
(C) At the point of projection magnitude of tangential acceleration is g sin
(D) At the point of projection magnitude of tangential acceleration is g cos
Paragraph for Questions 36 - 39
A ball of mass m is thrown at angle 37° with horizontal with a speed of
20 m/s without air resistance. When ball reaches at highest point, the
wind start blowing horizontally which imparts a constant horizontal
acceleration ‘a’ to the ball in opposite direction.
36. If air does not blow then the time of flight is T and due to blowing of wind the time of flight become T’ then:
(A) T’ > T (B) T’< T (C) T’ = T (D) Depend upon ‘a’
37. Find the value of a so that ball will fall exactly below the highest point of trajectory.
(A) 26.6 m/s2 (B) 10 m/s2 (C) 16.6 m/s2 (D) None of these
38. In question 2 if the speed of the ball at the time of hitting the ground is V then, choose the correct option.
(A) V > 20 m/s (B) V = 20 m/s (C) V < 20 m/s (D) cannot be predicted
39. The co-ordinate of a moving particle at a time t, are given by, x = 5 sin10 t, y = 5 cos10t. The speed of the particle is :
(A) 25 (B) 50 (C) 10 (D) None of these
Paragraph for Questions 40 - 41
Raindrops are falling with a velocity 10 2 m / s making an angle of 45° with the vertical . The drops appear to be falling
vertically to a man running with constant velocity. The velocity of rain drops change such that the rain drops now appear to be
falling vertically with 3 times the velocity it appeared earlier to the same person running with same velocity.
40. The magnitude of velocity of man with respect to ground is :
(A) 10 2 m / s (B) 10 3 m / s (C) 10 m / s (D) 20 m / s
41. After the velocity of rain drops change, the magnitude of velocity of raindrops with respect to ground is :
(A) 20 3 m / s (B) 10 m / s (C) 10 3 m / s (D) 20 m / s
APP | Physics 7 Kinematics of a particle
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MATRIX MATCH TYPE
Each of the following question contains statements given in two columns, which have to be matched. Statements in Column
1 are labelled as (A), (B), (C) & (D) whereas statements in Column 2 are labeled as p, q, r, s & t. More than one choice from
Column 2 can be matched with Column 1.
42. MATCH THE FOLLOWING :
Column 1 Column 2
Position
(A) Particle moving with constant speed (p)
time
Position
(B) Particle moving with increasing acceleration (q)
time
Velocity
(C) Particle moving with constant negative acceleration (r)
time
Position
(D) Particle moving with zero acceleration (s)
time
43. Column-1 gives some graphs for a particle moving along x-axis in positive x-direction. The variables v, x and t
represent speed of particle, x-coordinate of particle and time respectively. Column-2 gives certain resulting
interpretation. Match the graphs in Column-1 with the statements in Column-2.
Column 1 Column 2
v
(A) (p) Acceleration of particle is uniform
x
v – x graph
v2
(B) (q) Acceleration of particle is non-uniform
x
v2 – x graph
v
(C) (r) Acceleration of particle is directly proportion to ‘t’
t
v – t graph
v
(D) (s) Acceleration of particle is directly proportional to ‘x’
t2
v – t2 graph
APP | Physics 8 Kinematics of a particle
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44. As shown in the figure there is a particle of mass 3 kg, is projected 10ms–1
with speed 10 m/s at an angle 30º with horizontal (Take g = 10 m/s2) then
match the following :
A 30º B
Column 1 Column 2
Average velocity (in m/s) during half of the time of flight 1
(A) (p)
is 2
The time (in sec) after which the angle between velocity 5
(B) (q) 13
vector and acceleration vector becomes /2 2
(C) Horizontal range (m) (r) 5 3
1 1
Change in linear momentum (N-s) when particle is at At an angle of tan from
(D) (s) 2 3
highest point
horizontal
45. A particle is moving along a circle of a fixed radius and gaining speed in a uniform manner. Match Columns I and II.
Column 1 Column 2
(A) Tangential acceleration is (p) zero
(B) Radial acceleration is (q) A non – zero constant value
(C) Angular acceleration is (r) Variable
(D) Angular momentum is (s) g(10 m/s2)
SUBJECTIVE INTEGER TYPE
46. In the figure shown, the two projectiles are fired simultaneously.
What should be the value of ‘n’ if initial speed of the left side projectile is
2
n m/s for the two projectile to hit in mid-air ?
3
47. A ball is thrown from the origin in the x-y plane with velocity 28.28 m/s at an
angle 45° to the x-axis. At the same instant a trolley also s2tarts moving with
uniform velocity of l0 m/s along the positive x- axis. Initially, the trolley is
located at 38m from the origin. Determine position with respect to end of B
trolley at which the ball hits the trolley.
48. The accelerator of a train can produce a uniform acceleration of 0.25 ms 2 and its brake can produce a retardation of
0.5 ms 2 . The shortest time in which the train can travel between two stations 8 km apart is x minutes and 10 s, if it
stops at both stations. The value of x is.
49. On a two-lane road, car A is travelling with a speed of 36 kmh1. Two cars
B and C approach car A. In opposite directions with a speed of 54 kmh1.
each. At a certain instant, when the distance AB is equal to AC, both being 1
km, B decides to overtake A before C does. What minimum acceleration of
car B (in m /s 2 ) is required to avoid an accident?
APP | Physics 9 Kinematics of a particle
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50. A train starts from station A with uniform acceleration a1 for some distance and then goes with uniform retardation a2
for some more distance to come to rest at station B. The distance between stations A and B is 4 km and the train takes
1 1
1/15 h to complete this journey. Acceleration are in km/ min 2 unit. If x, find the value of x.
a1 a2
51. A stone is dropped from a height h. Simultaneously another stone is thrown up from the ground with such a velocity so
h
that it can reach a height of 4h. The time when two stone cross each other is where k =
kg
52. In the given figure, the angle of inclination of the inclined
plane is 30°. A particle is projected with horizontal velocity
v0 from height H. Find the horizontal velocity v0 (in m/s) so
that the particle hits the inclined plane perpendicularly. Given,
H = 4m, g 10 m /s 2
V1
53. The slopes of wind screen of two cars are 1 30 and 2 15 respectively. At what ratio of of the velocities of
V2
the cars will their drivers see the hail stones bounced back by the wind screen on their cars in vertical direction assume
hail stones fall vertically downwards and collisions to be elastic
54. A projectile is launched at time t = 0 from point A which is at height l m
above the floor with speed v m/sec and at an angle 45 with the floor. It
passes through a hoop at B which is 1m above A and B is the highest point of
the trajectory. The horizontal distance between A and B is d metres. The
projectile then falls into a basket, hitting the floor at C a horizontal distance
3d metres from A. Find l (in m)
55. A particle is projected from a stationary trolley. After projection, the
trolley moves with velocity 2 15 m /s. For an observer on the trolley, the
direction of the particle is as shown in the figure while for the observer on
the ground, the ball rises vertically. The maximum height reached by the
ball from the trolley is h metre. The value of h will be.
56. A body is projected up from the bottom an inclined plane with a velocity 3 3 m / sec which makes an angle 60° if the
horizontal. The angle of projection is 30° with the plane then the time of flight when it strikes the same plane is 0.1x.
Then the value of x is.
57. A student is standing on a train travelling along a straight horizontal track at a speed of 10 m/s. The student throws a
ball into the air along a path, that makes an initial angle of 60° with the horizontal along the track as observed by the
student. The professor standing on the ground observes the ball to rise vertically. What will be the maximum height (in
m) reached by the ball.
58. A man can throw a stone with a speed of 10 m/s. The maximum horizontal distance to which he can throw the stone in a
room of height 2m is x . Find the value of x.
59. A balloon moves up vertically such that if a stone is thrown from it with a horizontal velocity v0 relative to it the stone
always hits the ground at a fixed point 2v02 /g horizontally away from it. If the height y of balloon as function of time is
kv02
y (1 e gt /2 v0 ). Then find k?
g
60. A cat, on seeing a rat a distance d = 5m, starts with velocity u 5 ms 1 and moves with acceleration 2.5 ms 2 in
order to catch it, while the rat with acceleration starts from rest. For what value of will the cat overtake the rat? (in
ms 2 )
APP | Physics 10 Kinematics of a particle
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Advanced Problem Package Dynamics of a Particle
SINGLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE
Each of the following Question has 4 choices A, B, C & D, out of which ONLY ONE Choice is Correct.
1. In the adjoining figure if acceleration of M with respect to ground is a, then,
(A) Acceleration of m with respect to M is a
(B) Acceleration of m with respect to ground is asin α / 2
(C) Acceleration of m with respect to ground is a
(D) Acceleration of m with respect to ground is a tan α
2. A rectangular block weighing 150 N, is lying on a rough inclined plane with inclination
angle 45º as shown in the figure. The block is tied up by a horizontal string which has a
tension of 50 N to keep the block just in equilibrium, then the coefficient of friction
between the block and the inclined surface is :
(A) Zero
(B) 0.33
(C) 0.5
(D) 0.7
3. A plank is held at an angle to the horizontal (figure)
on two fixed supports A and B. The plank can slide
against the supports (without friction) because of its
weight Mg. With what acceleration and in what
direction, a man of mass m should move so that the
plank does not move.
m M
(A) g sin 1 down the incline (B) g sin 1 down the incline
M m
m M
(C) g sin 1 up the incline (D) g sin 1 up the incline
M m
4. For the arrangement shown in figure the coefficient of friction
between any two surfaces is 0.5. Which of the following graphs
shows correct variation of frictional force/between the 2 kg block
and floor with the applied force F. (Take leftward direction of F
as positive)
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
APP | Physics 11 Dynamics of a Particle
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5. A rod AB is shown in figure. End A of the rod is hinged on the ground.
Block is moving with velocity 3 m/s towards right. The velocity of end
B of rod when rod makes an angle of 60º with the ground is:
(A) 3 m/s (B) 2 m/s
(C) 2 3 m/s (D) 3 m/s
6. A trolley C shown in the figure is driven with an acceleration a = 3 m/s2. The
ratio of acceleration of the bodies A and B of masses 10 kg and 5 kg
respectively is: (assume pulleys are massless and friction is absent
everywhere)
(A) 2:1 (B) 1:3
(C) 1:1 (D) 2:3
7. In the system shown in figure, all the surfaces are smooth. Rod is moved by
9 m/s2
external agent with acceleration 9 m/s2 vertically downwards. Force exerted
on the rod by the wedge will be :
(A) 120 N (B) 200 N 10kg
(C) 135/2 N (D) 225/2 N
37°
8. In the situation shown in figure all the string are light and inextensible and pullies are light. There is no friction at
any surface and all blocks are of cubodial shape. A horizontal force of magnitude F is applied to right most free end
of string in both cases of figure 1 and 2 as shown. At the instant shown, the tension in all strings are non zero.
Let the magnitude of acceleration of large blocks (of mass M) in figure 1 and figure 2 are a1 and a2 respectively.
Then:
Figure : 1 Figure : 2 m
m
M
M
m 2
1 F
F
Smooth horizontal surface Smooth horizontal surface
(A) a1 a2 0 (B) a1 a2 0 (C) a1 a2 (D) a1 a2
9. An inclined plane makes an angle 30 with the horizontal. A groove (OA) of length
5 m cut, in the plane makes an angle 30 with OX. A short smooth cylinder is free Cylinder
to slide down the influence of gravity. The Time taken by the cylinder to reach A
from A to O is : (g = 10 m/s2)
30
(A) 4s (B) 2s O X
(C) 2s (D) 1s
10. A particle of mass m = 0.1 kg is released from rest from a point A of a wedge of
mass M = 2.4 kg free to slide on a frictionless horizontal plane. The particle slides
down the smooth face AB of the wedge. When the velocity of the wedge is 0.2 m/s
the velocity of the particle in m/s relative to the wedge is :
(A) 4.8 (B) 5.77
(C) 7.5 (D) 10
APP | Physics 12 Dynamics of a Particle
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MULTIPLE CORRECT ANSWERS TYPE
Each of the following Question has 4 choices A, B, C & D, out of which ONE or MORE Choices may be Correct:
11. In the given figure, a block A rests on a smooth triangular block B and the
block B is given an acceleration of a = 2 m/s2 along the plane.
(A) normal force on block A due to block B is m(g – a)
(B) acceleration of block A relative to block B is a cos
(C) If friction is present between block and A and B, the coefficient of
a
friction should be greater than cos , for no relative motion
g
between A and B
(D) If friction is present between block and A and B, the coefficient of friction should be greater than
a cos
, for no relative motion between A and B
g a sin
12. Two blocks each of mass 1 kg are placed as shown. They are connected by a string which passes over a smooth
(massless) pulley. There is no friction between m1 and the ground and the coefficient of friction between m1 and m2
is 0.2. A force F is applied to m2. Which of the following statements is/are correct.
(A) The system will be in equilibrium if F 4 N .
(B) If F 4 N the tension in the string will be 4N.
(C) If F 4 N the frictional force between the block will be 2N.
(D) If F = 6N the tension in the string will be 3N.
13. In the given figure, all surface are frictionless and strings and
pulleys are massless, then :
(A) acceleration of block B is g/2
(B) acceleration of block B is zero
(C) acceleration of block wedge is zero
(D) acceleration of block wedge is g/2
14. A block P of mass 4 kg is placed on horizontal rough surface with coefficient of friction = 0.6. And two blocks R
and Q of masses 2 kg and 4 kg connected with the help of massless strings A and B respectively passing over
frictionless pulleys as shown, then (g = 10m/s2)
(A) acceleration of block P is zero.
(B) tension in string A is 20 N.
(C) tension in string B is 40 N.
(D) contact force on block P is 20 5 N.
15. Two blocks A and B each of mass 1/2 kg is connected by a massless
inextensible string and kept on horizontal surface. Coefficient of friction
between block and surface is shown in figure. A force F = kt (where k = 1
N/s and t is time in second) applied on A. Then (g = 10 m/s2)
(A) work done by friction force on block B is zero in time interval t = 0 to t = 3s.
(B) work done by friction force on block A is zero in time interval t = 0 to t = 3s.
(C) work done by tension on B is also zero in time interval t = 0 to t = 3s.
(D) speed of blocks at t = 10s is 27.5 m/s.
APP | Physics 13 Dynamics of a Particle
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16. A chain of length L is placed on a horizontal surface as shown in figure. At any instant x is the length of chain on
rough surface and the remaining portion lies on smooth surface. Initially x = 0. A horizontal force P is applied to the
chain (as shown in figure.) In the duration x changes from x = 0 to x = L, for chain to move with constant speed.
Choose the incorrect option(s):
(A) the magnitude of P should increase with time
(B) the magnitude of P should decrease with time
(C) the magnitude of P should increase first and then
decrease with time
(D) the magnitude of P should decrease first and then increase with time
17. Two blocks of masses 10 kg and 20 kg are connected by a light spring as shown. A force of 200 N acts on the 20 kg
mass as shown. At a certain instant the acceleration of 10 kg mass is 12 ms-2 towards right direction.
(A) At that instant the 20 kg mass has an acceleration of 12 ms_2.
(B) At that instant the 20 kg mass has an acceleration of 4 ms-2.
(C) The stretching force in the spring is 120 N.
(D) The collective system moves with a common acceleration of 30 ms-2
when extension in the connecting spring is the maximum.
18. An arrangement of the masses and pulleys is shown in the figure. Strings connecting masses A and B with pulleys
are horizontal and all pulleys and strings are light. Friction coefficient between the surface and the block B is 0.2
and between blocks A and B is 0.7. The system is released from rest. (Use g = 10 m/s2)
1 kg
(A) The magnitude of acceleration of the system is 2 m/s2 and there is no slipping between block A and block
B.
(B) The magnitude of friction force between block A and block B is 42 N.
(C) Acceleration of block C is 1 m/s2 downwards.
(D) Tension in the string connecting block B and block D is 12 N.
19. A block B of mass 0.6 kg slides down the smooth face PR of a wedge A of mass 1.7 kg which can move freely on a
smooth horizontal surface. The inclination of the face PR to the horizontal is 45º. Then :
(A) The acceleration of A is 3g/20
(B) The vertical component of the acceleration of B is 23g/40
(C) The horizontal component of the acceleration of B is 17g/40
(D) None of these
20. In the figure, the pulley P moves to the right with a constant speed u. The
downward speed of A is vA and the speed of B to the right is vB.
(A) vB = vA (B) vB = u + vA
(C) vB + u = vA
(D) the two blocks have accelerations of the same magnitude
APP | Physics 14 Dynamics of a Particle
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21. A block of mass m is placed on a wedge. The wedge can be accelerated in four manners marked as (1), (2),
(3) and (4) as shown. If the normal reactions in situation (1), (2), (3) and (4) are N1, N2, N3, and N4 respectively and
acceleration with which the block slides down on the wedge in situations are b1 , b2, b3, and b4 respectively then:
(A) N3 N1 N 2 N 4 (B) N 4 N3 N1 N 2
(C) b 2 b3 b 4 b1 (D) b 2 b3 b1 b 4
22. A solid block of mass 2 kg is resting inside a cube as shown in the figure.
The cube is moving with a velocity v̂ 5tiˆ 2tjˆ m / s. Here t is time in
second. The block is in rest with respect to the cube and coefficient of
friction between the surfaces of cube and block is 0.5. Then [ take g = 10
m/s2]
(A) force of friction acting on the block is 10N
(B) force of friction acting on the block is 4N.
(C) the total force exerted by the block on the cube is 14 N
(D) the total force exerted by the block on the cube is 26 N
23. A rope AB of linear mass density is placed on a quarter vertical fixed disc of radius R as shown in the figure.
The surface between the disc and rope is rough such that the rope is just in equilibrium. Gravitational acceleration is
g. Choose the correct option(s).
(A) Coefficient of static friction between rope and disc is 1
1
(B) Coefficient of static friction between rope and disc is
2
(C) Maximum tension in the rope is at the top most point A of the rope
(D) Maximum tension in the rope is Rg ( 2 1)
24. Two blocks of masses 2 kg and 4 kg are placed over each other as shown in the adjoining figure. The coefficient of
kinetic and static friction are as shown in the figure. A variable force F 4t starts acting on the 4 kg block as shown.
Choose the correct option from the following. ( a4 and a2 represent the accelerations of 4 kg and 2 kg blocks,
respectively.)
(A) (B) (C) (D)
APP | Physics 15 Dynamics of a Particle
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25. A body of mass 10 kg is kept at horizontal rough surface as shown in the figure. The coefficient of friction between
body and the surface is 0.05. At t 0, body is given velocity 10 m/s along positive x-axis , simultaneously, a force of
15 N starts acting along negative x-axis continuously through the motion of body. Choose the correct graph(s).
(Physical quantities along positive x-axis, are considered as positive)
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
26. A massless inextensible string rests on a stationary wedge forming an angle with the horizontal as shown in the
figure. One end of the string is fixed to the wall at point A. A small block of mass m is attached to the string at point
B. The wedge starts moving to the right with a constant acceleration a due to an external force (not shown in the
figure). Then choose the correct result(s) (Assume all contact surface to be smooth)
(A) Acceleration of block B is 2a cos / 2 with respect to ground
(B) Acceleration of block B is 2a sin / 2 with respect to ground
(C) Normal reaction applied by the wedge on the block B is
N mg cos ma sin
ma(1 cos )
(D) Normal reaction applied by the wedge on the block B is N mg cos
sin
27. A block of mass s10 kg placed in contact with the vertical wall of a box which is acceleration in horizontal direction
with acceleration 20 m / sec 2 . Friction coefficient is 0.6 (Take g 10 m / sec 2 )
(A) Acceleration of block is 20 m / sec2 as ween by observer on ground
(B) Friction force on the block is 100 N
(C) Contact force between wall and block is 100 5(N)
(D) Contact force between vertical wall and block is only
electromagnetic in nature
APP | Physics 16 Dynamics of a Particle
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28. At t = 0, a force F at 2 is applied to a small body of mass m at an angle resting on a smooth horizontal plane.
mg 3
(A) Velocity of the body at the moment it breaks off the plane is
9a tan 2 sin
mg 2
(B) The distance travelled by the before breaking off the plane is
12a sin tan
(C) Its acceleration at the time of breaking off the plane is g cot .
mg
(D) Time at which it breaks off the plane is
a sin
29. A block of mass m is released from rest on a wedge of mass M as shown in the figure, ax is the horizontal
acceleration of wedge and N is the ground reaction, N1 is normal reaction between block and wedge Mark the correct
statements.
N
(A) N ( M m) g (B) g acm
( M m)
N1 sin
(C) ax (D) N1 mg cos
M
30. A rough L-shaped rod is located in a horizontal plane and a sleeve of mass
m is inserted in the rod. The rod is rotated with a constant angular velocity
in the horizontal plane. The lengths l1 and l2 are shown in the figure. The
normal reaction and frictional force acting on the sleeve when it just starts
slipping are ( coefficient of static friction between the rod and the sleeve)
(A) N m2l1 (B) f m2 l2
(C) N m g 2 2l12 (D) f N
Paragraph for Questions 31 - 33
Block A of mass m and block B of mass 2m are placed on a fixed triangular wedge
by means of a massless, inextensible string and a frictionless pulley as shown in
figure. The wedge is inclined at 45° to the horizontal on both sides. The coefficient
of friction between block A and the wedge is 2/3 and that between block B and the
wedge is 1/3. If the system of A and B is released from rest, find
31. The acceleration of A :
(A) 2 m/s2 (B) 3 m/s2 (C) 5 m/s2 (D) Zero
32. Tension in the string,
2 2 2
(A) mg (B) mg (C) 2mg (D) mg / 2
3 3
33. The magnitude and direction of the force of friction acting on A.
mg mg mg mg
(A) downward (B) downward (C) upward (D) upward
2, 3 2, 2, 3 2,
APP | Physics 17 Dynamics of a Particle
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Paragraph for Q.34 - 36
In the following figure both the pulleys and the string are massless and all the surfaces are
frictionless.
Given : m1 1kg , m2 2kg , m3 3kg .
m1 m2 m3
34. The tension in the string is :
120 240 130
(A) N (B) N (C) N (D) None of these
7 7 7
35. The acceleration of m1 is :
40 30 20
(A) m / s2 (B) m / s2 (C) m / s2 (D) None of these
7 7 7
36. The acceleration of m3 is :
40 30 20
(A) m / s2 (B) m / s2 (C) m / s2 (D) None of these
7 7 7
MATRIX MATCH TYPE
Each of the following question contains statements given in two columns, which have to be matched. Statements in
Column 1 are labelled as (A), (B), (C) & (D) whereas statements in Column 2 are labeled as p, q, r, s & t. More than one
choice from Column 2 can be matched with Column 1.
37. In the given figure, coefficient of friction between the 2kg
and 3kg blocks are S = 0.3 and K = 0.2, between the 5kg
and surface are S = K = 0.1 and between 3 kg and
surface is S = K = 0, (g = 10 m/s2) .
Column 1 Column 2
(A) For F1 = 0, F2 = 15 N (p) acceleration of all blocks will be same
(B) For F1 = 25/4N, F2 = 0 (q) acceleration of any two blocks will be
different
(C) For F1 = 8 N, F2 = 10 N (r) frictional force between 2kg and 3kg block
is less than maximum static friction
(D) For F1 = 16 N, F2 = 9 N (s) contact force between 3kg and 5kg block is
less than 10 N.
38. The system shown below is initially in equilibrium
m A m B 3 kg
mC mD mE 2 kg
Column 1 Column 2
(A) Just after the spring 2 is cut, the block D (p) accelerates up
(B) Just after the spring 2 is cut, the block B (q) accelerates down
(C) Just after the spring 1 is cut, the block A (r) momentarily at rest
(D) Just after the spring 1 is cut, the block D (s) has acceleration g
APP | Physics 18 Dynamics of a Particle
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39. Two blocks of mass m1 and m2 (m2 > m1) are placed in contact with each
other on an inclined plane as shown in figure. The co-efficient of friction
between m1 and surface is 1 and between m2 and surface is 2.
Column 1 Column 2
(A) 1 = 0.3, 2 = 0.2 (p) Acceleration of both blocks is different.
(B) 1 = 0.2, 2 = 0.3 (q) Acceleration of both blocks is same.
(C) 1 = 0.3, 2 = 0.3 (r) Normal reaction between both the blocks is zero.
(D) 1 = 0.3, 2 = 0.2 and the inclined plane starts (s) Normal reaction between both the blocks is non-zero.
moving up with acceleration g/2.
SUBJECTIVE INTEGER TYPE
40. A heavy spherical ball is constrained in a frame as shown in figure.
The inclined surface is smooth. The maximum acceleration with
which the frame can move without causing the ball to leave the 30° a
n
frame is . Find value of n.
3
41. The velocities of A and B are shown in the figure. Find the speed
(in m/s) of block C. (Assume that the pulleys and string are ideal)
42. A 1 kg block B rests on a bracket A of same mass as shown in figure.
Constant forces F1 = 20N and F2 = 8N start acting at time t = 0. The
distance of block B from pulley is 50 m at t = 0. Determine the time (in s)
when block B reaches the pulley.
43. A 20 kg block B is suspended from an ideal string attached to a 40 kg
block A. The ratio of the acceleration of the block B in cases (i) and
(ii) shown in figure immediately after the system is released from rest
3n
is . Find value of n. (Neglect friction)
2 2
44. A man of mass 50 kg is standing on one end of a stationary wooden plank
resting on a frictionless surface. The mass of the plank is 10 kg, its length
is 300 m and the coefficient of friction between the man and the plank is
0.2. Find k if shortest time (in s) in which the man can reach the other end
of the plank starting from rest and stopping at the other end is 10 k.
45. A particle of mass 2.5 kg is moving in gravity free space with velocity of 3iˆ m/s. At t = 0, a force of magnitude
67.5 N starts acting on the particle such that it is always perpendicular to its instantaneous velocity. Find x if
2
minimum time (in ms) after which the particle has the same velocity as the initial is seconds.
x
APP | Physics 19 Dynamics of a Particle
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46. A monkey of mass ‘m’ climbs up to a rope hung over a fixed pulley with
an acceleration g/4. The opposite end of the rope is tied to a block of mass
M lying on a rough horizontal plane. The coefficient of friction between
the block and horizontal plane is . Find the tension in the rope and if
M (5m 4M )
T Mg. Find value of k?
k (M m)
47. Find the minimum force required to keep a block of mas m in equilibrium on a rough inclined plane with inclination
mg (sin cos ) 1 k 2
and coefficient of friction ( tan ) and if Fmin . Find k?
1
48. In the system shown in the figure, a bead of mass m can
slide on the string. There is friction between the bead
and the string. Block B has mass equal to twice that of
the bead. The system is released from rest with length l
= 18.75 m of the string hanging below the bead.
Assuming the pulley and string to be massless. Find the
distance (in meter) moved by the block B before the
bead slips out of the thread.
49. A cyclist rides along the circumference of a circular horizontal track of radius r. The coefficient of friction
r
0 1 where 0 0.8 is a constant, R 2 and r is the distance from the centre of the circle. Calculate the
R
maximum velocity of the cyclist.
50. The block C shown in the figure is ascending with an acceleration a = 3 m/s2 by means of some motor not shown
here. Find the acceleration of the bodies A and B of masses 10 kg and 5 kg respectively in m/s2, assuming pulleys
are massless and friction is absent everywhere. If a A a and aB b then find a + b?
51. In the figure shown masses of the blocks A, B and C are 6 kg, 2 kg and 1 kg respectively. Mass of the spring is
negligibly small and its stiffness is 1000 N/m. The co-efficient of friction between the blocks A and the table is
0.8. Initially block C is held such that spring is in relaxed position. The block is released from rest. Find the
maximum distance moved by the block C in cm.
APP | Physics 20 Dynamics of a Particle
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52. Two particles of mass m each are kept on a horizontal circular platform on two mutually perpendicular radii at equal
distance r from the centre of the table. The particles are connected with a string, which is just taught when the
platform is not rotating. The coefficient of static friction between the platform and block is (now if angular speed
of platform m is slowly increased). Find the maximum angular speed () of platform about its centre so that the
1
blocks remain stationary relative to platform. (If , r 2.5 m and g 10 m /s 2 )
2
53. Two blocks of masses 0.2 kg and 0.5 kg, which are placed 22 m apart on
a rough horizontal surface ( 0.5), are acted upon by two forces of
magnitude 3 N each as shown in figure at time t = 0. Then, the time t at
which they collide each other is:
54. A circular tube of mass M is placed vertically on a horizontal surface as shown in the figure. Two small spheres,
each of mass m just fit in the tube are released from the top, as shown in the figure. If gives the angle between
radius vector of either ball with the vertical, obtain the value of the ratio m/M for which the tube breaks its contact
with ground when 60 (Ignore any friction).
55. A plank is rotating in a vertical plane about one of its ends with a constant angular velocity 2 rad/s. A block
of mass m = 2 kg is placed at a distance l = 1 m from its end A (see figure) which is hinged. The block starts sliding
down when the plank makes an angle = 30° with the horizontal. If coefficient of friction between the plank and
the block is and given that 2 k /25. Find the value of k.
56. A cylindrical massless cork of length l = 10 cm and radius r = 3
cm is slowly extracted from the neck of a bottom opened bottle. If
the normal pressure between the bottle and un-extracted part of
105
the cork at any instant is constant and equal to P N /m 2 ,
find the work done (in Joule) in extracting it completely. The
coefficient of friction between the cork and bottle is 0.3.
APP | Physics 21 Dynamics of a Particle
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57. A bead of mass m is fitted onto a rough rod of length of 30.6 m and can move along it only. At the initial moment the
bead is in the middle of the rod. The rod moves with the constant acceleration a 5 m/s2 as shown in the figure. Find
the time when the bead will leave the rod if the coefficient of friction between bead and rod is 0.2 (Neglect
gravity)
58. A stick with mass m and length 2R is pivoted at one end on a vertical wall. It is held horizontal, and a disk with mass m
and radius R is placed beneath it, in contact with both it and the wall, as shown in figure. The coefficient of friction
between the disk and the wall is w , and the coefficient of friction between the disk and the stick is s . If the
objects are released, what are the minimum values of w and s for which the system doesn’t fall? Mark your
answer as minimum value of s w .
59. A flexible drive belt runs over a frictionless pulley as shown in figure. The pulley is rotating freely about the
vertical axis passing through the centre O of the pulley. The vertical axis is fixed on the horizontal smooth surface.
The mass per unit length of the drive belt is 1kg and the tension in the drive belt 8 N. The speed of the drive belt is 2
m/s. Find the net normal force applied by the belt on the pulley in newton.
60. Three identical balls A, B and C each of mass m = 3 kg are connected by strings AB and BC as shown in the figure.
The whole system is placed on a smooth horizontal surface. Now the ball B is given an initial velocity v0 3 m/s,
perpendicular to the strings and along the horizontal surface. Find the tension (in Newton) in the string just before
the balls A and C collide.
APP | Physics 22 Dynamics of a Particle
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Advanced Problem Package Energy & Momentum
SINGLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE
Each of the following Question has 4 choices A, B, C & D, out of which ONLY ONE Choice is Correct.
1. An external agent moves the block m slowly from A to B, along a B
smooth hill such that every time he applies the force tangentially.
Fagent
Find the work done by the agent in this interval.
m2 g 2 H 2 mgH 2 Smooth H
(A) (B) Hill
L L
(C) mg (H + L) (D) mgH A
L
2. A 2 kg block is gently pushed from rest at A and it slides down along the fixed
A
smooth circular surface. If the attached spring has a force constant k = 20 N/m.
What is unstretched length of spring so that it does not allow the block to leave
B
the surface until angle with the vertical is = 60°.
R=2m
(A) 1m (B) 1.5 m
(C) 0.5 m (D) 0.8 m
3. A small block of mass m is released from A inside the frictionless circular groove of radius 2 m on an inclined plane
as shown in figure. The contact force between the block and inclined plane at point B is
(A) 28 mg (B) 2.5 mg
28
(C) mg (D) 18.5 mg
2
4. Two blocks of masses m and 4m lies on a smooth horizontal surface connected with a spring in its natural length.
Mass m is given velocity v0 through an impulse as shown in the diagram.
Which of the following is not true about subsequent motion
(A) Kinetic energy is maximum in ground frame and centre of mass
(COM) frame simultaneously
(B) Value of maximum kinetic energy & minimum kinetic energy is same in COM frame & ground frame
(C) Minimum kinetic energy is zero in COM frame but non zero in ground frame
1 2
(D) Maximum and minimum kinetic energies of m in ground frame is respectively mv0 and zero
2
5. DAs shown in the figure a body mass m moving horizontal with speed 3m / s hits a fixed smooth wedge and goes
up with a velocity vfin the vertical direction. If of wedge is 30 , the velocity vf will be :
vf
(A) 3 m/ s
(B) 3 m/s m
1
(C) m/ s
3 30
(D) this is not possible
6. In the figure shown, a particle P of mass m strikes the inclined smooth plane of wedge of
mass 4m horizontally and rebounds vertically. The wedge is on a smooth horizontal plane. m
P
Assume no toppling of the wedge. If the angle is 60 , then the co-efficient of
4m
restitution is:
7 1 7 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
12 3 4 3 3
APP | Physics 23 Energy and Momentum
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7. The ends of a spring are attached to blocks of masses 3 kg and 2 kg. The 3kg block rests on a horizontal surface and
the 2 kg block which is vertically above it is in equilibrium producing a compression of 1 cm of the spring. How
much more must the 2 kg mass be compressed so that when it is released, the 3 kg block may be lifted off the
ground ?
2 kg
3 kg
(A) 1.5 cm (B) 1 cm (C) 2.5 cm (D) 3 cm
8. Two particles are inter connected by an ideal spring (see figure). The spring is compressed and system is projected
in air under gravity. If the acceleration of m1 is a find acceleration of m2.
m2
g
m1
m1 g m1a m1 g m2 g – m1a
(A) g (B) ga (C) (D)
m2 m2
9. A particle of mass 15 kg has an initial velocity vi iˆ 2 ˆj m/s. It collides with another body and the impact time is
0.1s, resulting in a velocity v f 6iˆ 4 ˆj 5kˆ m/s after impact. The average force of impact on the particle is
(A) 150(5iˆ 6 ˆj 5kˆ ) (B) 15(5iˆ 6 ˆj 5kˆ)
(C) 150(5iˆ 6 ˆj 5kˆ) (D) 15(5iˆ 6 ˆj 5kˆ)
10. When you pull a tablecloth out from under a set of dishes, it's important to pull the cloth as fast as possible because
(A) the work done on the dishes by the cloth is proportional to the time during which the cloth pulls on them.
(B) the weight of the dishes on the cloth is proportional to the time during which the cloth is moving.
(C) the force of sliding friction that the cloth exerts on the dishes is proportional to the time during which the
cloth is moving.
(D) the momentum transferred to the dishes is proportional to the time during which the cloth pulls on them.
MULTIPLE CORRECT ANSWERS TYPE
Each of the following Question has 4 choices A, B, C & D, out of which ONE or MORE Choices may be Correct:
11. A ball of mass 1 kg bounces against the smooth ground as shown in the figure.
The velocity just before collision is 25 m/s and the velocity after just after
hitting the ground is 15 2 m/s. Select the correct alternative(s)
(A) Magnitude of Impulse = 5 Ns
(B) Magnitude of Impulse = 35 Ns
(C) Coefficient of restitution, e = 0.75
(D) Coefficient of restitution, e = 0.25
APP | Physics 24 Energy and Momentum
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12. A particle of mass m makes a head-on elastic collision with another particle of mass 2m initially at rest. The
velocity of the first particle before and after collision is given to be u1 and v1and the velocity of second particle after
the collision is v2. Which of the following statements is true in respect of this collision?
(A) For all values of u1, v1will always be less than u1 in magnitude.
8
(B) The fractional loss in kinetic energy of the first particle is
9
th
8
(C) The gain in kinetic energy of the second particle is of the initial kinetic energy the first particle.
9
(D) There is a net loss in the kinetic energy of the two particle system in the collision.
13. A tennis racket (held firmly in the hand) moving at a speed u1 hits a small ball moving towards it at a speed u0.
(A) The maximum possible speed of the ball after it is hit is u0 + 2u1.
(B) Magnitude of impulse on ball due to tennis racket is 2mu1.
(C) Work done by tennis racket on ball is 2mu1 (u0 + u1)
(D) Work done by tennis racket on ball is zero.
14. A man of mass M is carrying a ball of the mass M/2. The man is initially in
the state of rest at a distance D from fixed vertical wall. He throws the ball
towards the wall with a velocity V horizontally with respect to earth at t = 0.
As a result of throwing, the man also starts moving backwards. The ball
rebounds elastically from the wall. The man finally collects the ball.
Assuming friction to be absent.
2V
(A) the velocity of the man + ball system after the man has collected the ball is
3
MV
(B) Impulse by ball on man is
3
MV
(C) Impulse by ball on man is
6
4D
(D) He catches the ball again at t =
V
15. Consider a situation in which a ball collides horizontally with a wedge as shown in figure. All surfaces are smooth.
It is observed that after collision ball starts moving on the incline as shown in figure.
v0 m v1
v2
Before collision After collision
Which of the following statement(s) is(are)NOT correct for this situation.
(A) Collision between ball and wedge is perfectly inelastic (e = 0)
(B) Momentum of the ball can be conserved only along incline just before and after collision.
(C) Momentum of system (ball + wedge) can be conserved along any direction just before and after collision.
(D) Momentum of system (ball + wedge) can be conserved only along initial direction of motion of the ball.
APP | Physics 25 Energy and Momentum
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16. A ball of mass 1kg is dropped from a height of 3.2m on smooth inclined plane. The coefficient of restitution for the
1
collision is e = . The ball's velocity become horizontal after the collision.
2
1 3.2m
(A) The angle = tan–1
2
(B) The speed of the ball after the collision = 4 2 m/s
(C) The total loss in kinetic energy during the collision is 8J
(D) The ball hits the inclined plane again while travelling vertically downward.
17. A ball collides elastically with an another identical ball B with velocity 10 m/s at an angle of 30 from the line
joining their centers C1 and C2, then A
(A) velocity of ball A after collision is 5 m/s 10 m/s
C 30
(B) velocity of ball B after collision is 5 3 m/s 1
(C) both the balls moves at right angles after collision
(D) KE will not be conserved here, because collision is not head on. C2
B
18. In figure, a block of mass m is released from rest when spring was in its natural length. The pulley also has mass m
but it is frictionless. Suppose the value of m is such that finally it is just able to lift the block M up after releasing it.
M Rod
(A) The weight of m required to just lift M is g
2
M
(B) The tension in the rod, when m is in has zero accelerationg String
2 m
M
(C) The normal force acting on M when m has zero acceleration g
2
M
(D) The tension in the string when displacement of m is maximum possible is Mg
19. A bob of mass 10m is suspended through an inextensible string of length . When the
bob is at rest is equilibrium position, two particles each of mass m strike it as shown.
The particles, stick after collision. Choose the correct statement from the following :
(A) Impulse in the string due to tension is 2mu m m
60 60
u 3
(B) Velocity of the system just after collision is v
14 3u u
137 137
(C) Loss of energy is mu 2 (D) Loss of energy is mu 2 10m
28 56
20. Three identical discs A, B and C rest on a smooth horizontal plane, the disc A set in motion with velocity v along
perpendicular bisector of line BC joining centre of disc. Distance between the centers of disk B and C is 2 times
of the diameter of each disc. A stops after collision and all collisions are elastic, then which of the following
statements is(are) correct : B
(A) Net impulse on A is 2 (mv)
(B) Net impulse on A is mv A
(C) Impulse on B due to A of same magnitude as impulse 2d
on C due to A v d=diamte
(D) Total kinetic energy of system (A + B+ C) before collision is mass(m)
equal to total kinetic energy of system(A + B + C) after
collision
C
APP | Physics 26 Energy and Momentum
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21. Inside a hollow sphere of mass M, a rod of length R 2 is released from the state of rest.
The mass of the rod is same as that of the sphere. If the inner radius of the hollow sphere
is R then find out its horizontal displacement with respect to ground in time in which the
rod becomes horizontal.
R R R Assume friction to
(A) (B) (C) (D) R completely absent.
2 4 2 2
22. Two equal spheres of mass m are in contact on a smooth horizontal table. A third identical sphere impinges
symmetrically on them and reduces to rest, then:
2
(A) Coefficient of restitution is e
3
1
(B) Loss of kinetic energy mu 2 where u is velocity before impact
6
u
(C) After the collision, velocity of equal mass sphere is
3
1 2
(D) Loss of kinetic energy mu
3
23. A pendulum bob of mass m connected to the end of an ideal string of length l is released from rest from horizontal
position as shown in figure. At the lowest point, the bob makes an elastic collision with a stationary block of mass
5m, which is kept on a frictionless surface. Mark out the correct statement(s) for the instant just after the impact.
(A) Tension in the string at lowest point just after collision is (17/9) mg
(B) Tension in the string at lowest point just before collision is 3 mg
(C) The velocity of the block is 2 gl /3
(D) The maximum height attained by the pendulum bob after impact is (measured from the lowest
position 4l/9
24. A body of mass m moving with a velocity v in the x direction collides with another body of mass M moving in y
direction with a velocity V. They coalesce into one body during collision.
(A) The magnitude of momentum of the composite body [(mv )2 ( MV )2 ]1/2
2 2
mM v V
(B) The fraction of initial K.E. transformed into heat is 2
m M mv MV 2
mM
(C) Decrease in kinetic energy is (v 2 V 2 )
2(m M )
(D) None of these
APP | Physics 27 Energy and Momentum
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25. A particle of mass 1 kg is moving along X-axis. Its velocity is 6 m/s at x = 0. Acceleration time curve and potential
energy-displacement curve of the particle are shown.
(A) The work done by all the forces is 704 J
(B) The work done by external forces is 350 J
(C) The work done by external forces is 384 J
(D) The work done by conservation forces is 300 J
26. A block of mass 1 kg moves towards a spring of force constant 10 N/m. The spring is massless and unstretched. The
coefficient of friction between block and surface is 0.30. After compressing the spring, block does not return back:
(g = 10 m/s)
(A) The maximum value of speed of block for which it is possible is 3.8 m/s
(B) The maximum value of speed of block for which it is possible is 4.2 m/s
(C) If Ei and E f are initial and final mechanical energy, which is sum of kinetic energy and potential energy,
the work done by friction on a system is ( Ei E f )
(D) Statement in option (C) is wrong
27. The alternative that gives the conservative force of the following is.
(A) F1 2 xyi x 2 j (B) F 2 y 3 i xy 2 i
(C) F 3 yi x j (D) F 4 xy 2 i x 2 i
28. A man is standing on a plank which is placed on smooth horizontal surface. There is sufficient friction between feet
of man and plank. Now man starts running over plank, correct statement is/are:
(A) Work done by friction on man with respect to ground is negative
(B) Work done by friction on man with respect to ground is positive
(C) Work done by friction on plank with respect to ground is positive
(D) Work done by friction on man with respect to plank is zero
29. A small sphere of mass m suspended by a thread is first taken a side so that thread forms the right angle with the
vertical and then released, then
(A) Total acceleration of sphere as a function of measured from the vertical is g 1 3cos 2
(B) Thread tension as a function of measured from the vertical is T 3mg cos
(C) The angle between the thread and the vertical at the moment when the total acceleration over of the
sphere is directed horizontally is cos 11/ 3
(D) The thread tension at the moment when the vertical component of the sphere’s velocity is maximum will be
mg
APP | Physics 28 Energy and Momentum
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30. A particle P is initially at rest on the top pf a smooth hemispherical surface which is fixed on a horizontal plane. The
particle is given a velocity u horizontal. Radius of spherical surface is a.
a ga
(A) If the particle leaves the sphere, when it has fallen vertically by a distance of ,u
4 2
3 ag
(B) If the particle leaves the sphere at angle (fig) where cos , then u
2 3
2
(C) If u = 0 and the particle just slides down the hemispherical surface, it will leave the surface when cos
3
(D) The minimum value of u, for the object to leave the sphere without sliding over the surface is ag
Paragraph for Q.31 - 33
A ball of mass ‘m’ is suspended by massless string of length ‘ ’ from 2m
fixed point. A particle of mass 2m strikes in the direction 45 45
from horizontal and sticks to it ( radius of ball) : m
31. What should be minimum initial velocity of 2m mass, so that the system can complete vertical circle.
5g
(A) 3 2g (B) 3 (C) 3 5g (D) 5 g
2
32. If 60 , the string is cut, what will be the velocity of combined mass at highest point of trajectory :
g 1
(A) (B) g (C) 2 g (D) 5g
2 2
33. In the previous question, what will be maximum height achieved by the combined mass from the initial position of
ball ' m' .
3
(A) (B) (C) (D) 2
2 2
Paragraph for Q.34 - 35
4m 4m
Three masses m, m and 2m are held stationary as shown in
the figure with all the strings taut. Now, the mass 2m is 2m
released and it starts falling vertically downward.
34 Velocity of masses m at the instant 2m touches the ground is : 3m
5 5
(A) 10 m/s (B) 15 m/ s m m
13 17
5 5
(C) 10 m/ s (D) 6 m/ s
17 17
35. The maximum height reached by masses m (in metre is)
(A) 0.78 (B) 1.53 (C) 2.16 (D) None of these
APP | Physics 29 Energy and Momentum
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MATRIX MATCH TYPE
Each of the following question contains statements given in two columns, which have to be matched. Statements in
Column I are labelled as (A), (B), (C) & (D) whereas statements in Column II are labeled as p, q, r, s & t. More than one
choice from Column II can be matched with Column I.
36. Assume that 2 bodies collide head on. The graph of their velocities with time are shown in column-1 match them
with appropriate situation in column-2
Column 1 Column 2
v (1) (2)
m1 m2
(A) (p)
m 1 < m2 0 < e < 1
t
v (1) 2nd body is large
wall
m1
(B) (q)
(2)
t
2
v (1)
(2)
putty ball
(C) t (r)
v (1) v1 v2
(2)
(D) t (s) m1 = m2 e=1
v1 > v2
m1 m2
(t)
m1 > m2 e=1
37. In the figure shown, upper block is given a velocity 6m/s & lower block a velocity 3m/s. When relative motion
between them stops. (Here block 2 Kg is very long)
Column 1 Column 2
(A) Work done by friction on 1 kg block (p) 3 Joule
(B) Work done by friction on 2 kg block (q) negative
(C) Net work done by friction (r) positive
(D) Loss in K.E. of system (2kg + 1kg block) (s) 7 Joule
SUBJECTIVE INTEGER TYPE
38. Board A is placed on board B as shown. Both boards slide, without moving with respect to each other, along a
frictionless horizontal surface at a speed 6 m/s. Board B hits a resulting board C "head-on". After the collision,
boards B and C stick together and board A slides on top of board C and stops its motion relative to C in the
position shown on the diagram. What is the length (in m) of each board? All three boards have the same mass,
size and shape. The coefficient of kinetic friction between boards A and C and between boards A & B is .
(Take g = 10 m/s2)
APP | Physics 30 Energy and Momentum
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39. An inclined plane is placed on a horizontal smooth surface. The plane is struck by an small
elastic ball whose velocity is horizontal just before the impact. The ball bounces off the inclined
plane and then lands on it again at the point of first impact. Find the ratio of the masses of the
ball and the inclined plane. (Angle = 30°)
40. Two massless strings of same length hang from the ceiling very near to each other as shown
in the figure. Two balls A and B of masses 0.25 kg and 0.5 kg are attached to the string.
The ball A is released from rest at a height as shown in the figure, so that its velocity is 3
m/s before collision. The collision between two balls is completely elastic. Find the speed
(in m/s) of ball A just after the collision.
41. A small ball is projected from point P on floor towards a wall as shown.
It hits the wall when its velocity is horizontal. Ball reaches point P after one bounce on
the floor. If the coefficient of restitution is the same for the two collisions, find the
value of its reciprocal. [All surfaces are smooth]
42. A small ball of mass 2g is attached to a string of length whose other end is fastened to m
an upright vertical rod fixed on a wooden board resting on a horizontal table. The
combined mass of the board and rod is 1kg. The friction coefficient between the board
and the table is µ. The ball is released from rest with the string in a horizontal position.
While the ball swings, the board does not move.
What is minimum value that µ must have to prevent the board from moving to the left while the ball swings down ?
Using necessary approximation, express your answer as x × 10–3 and find x.
43. A block of mass m placed on a smooth horizontal surface is attached to a spring and
is held at rest by a force P as shown. Suddenly the force P changes its direction
opposite to the previous one. Find the ratio l2/l1, where l2 is the maximum extension
in the spring and l1 is the initial compression.
44. Block A of mass 1kg is placed on the rough surface of block B of mass 3kg. Block B is placed on
smooth horizontal surface. Blocks are given the velocities as shown. Find net work done by the frictional force.
[in (–) veJ]
45. A Block of mass 2kg is placed on an inclined plane of
angle 53°, attached with a spring as shown.
Friction coefficient between block and the incline is 0.25.
The block is released from the rest and when spring is in
natural length. Find maximum speed of the block it
acquires after the release in cm/s is found to be nearly 5n.
Find ‘n’ (Take g 10 m /s 2 )
46. The sphere at P is given a down ward velocity v0 and swings in a
vertical plane at the end of a rope of l = 1m attached to a support at
O. The rope breaks at angle 30° from horizontal, knowing that it
can withstand a maximum tension equal to four times the weight of
the sphere. Then the value of v0 will be ( g 10 m /s 2 )
APP | Physics 31 Energy and Momentum
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47. An observer and a vehicle, both starts moving together from rest with
accelerations 5 m/s 2 and 2 m /s 2 , respectively. There is a 2 kg block
on the floor of the vehicle, and 0.3 between their surfaces. Find
the work done by frictional force on the 2 kg block as observed by the
running observer, during first 2 seconds of the motion.
48. A block of mass m is placed inside a smooth hollow cylinder of radius R
kept horizontally. Initially system was at rest. Now cylinder is given
constant acceleration 2g in the horizontal direction by external agent. Find
the maximum angular displacement of the block with the vertical.
49. Two balls with masses m1 3 kg and m2 5 kg have identical velocity V = 5 m/s in the direction shown in figure.
They collide at origin. Find the distance of position of C.M. from the origin 2 sec after the collision.
50. A plate of mass M is moved with constant velocity ‘v’ against dust particles moving with velocity ‘u’ in opposite
direction as shown. The density of the dust is and plate area is A. Find the force F required to keep the plate
moving uniformly is A(u v) N , then N is
51. A simple pendulum is suspended from a peg on a vertical wall. The pendulum is pulled away from the wall to a
horizontal position and released. The ball hits the wall, the coefficient of restitution, being (2/ 5). What is the
minimum number of collisions after which the amplitude of oscillation becomes less than 60°?
52. A small particle of mass m = 2 kg moving with constant horizontal
velocity u = 10 m/s strikes a wedge shaped block of mass M = 4 kg
placed on smooth horizontal surface on its inclined surface as shown in
figure. After collision particle starts moving up the inclined plane.
Calculate the velocity of wedge immediately after collision.
53. Three identical balls, ball I, and II and ball III are placed on a smooth floor
on a straight line at the separation of 10 m between balls as shown in figure.
Initially balls are stationary. Ball I is given velocity of 10 m/s towards ball
II. Collision between ball I and II is inelastic with coefficient of restitution
0.5 but collision between ball II and III is perfectly elastic. What is the time
interval between two consecutive collisions between ball I and II?
APP | Physics 32 Energy and Momentum
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54. Three objects A, B and C are kept in a straight line on a frictionless horizontal surfaces. These have masses m, 2m
and m respectively. The object A moves towards B with a speed 9 m/s and makes an elastic collision with it.
Thereafter, B makes completely inelastic collision ‘C’. All motions occur on the same straight line. Find the final
speed in m/s of the object ‘C’.
55. The friction coefficient between the horizontal surface and each
ofthe blocks shown in the figure is 0.2. The collision between the
blocks is perfectly elastic. Find the separation between them (in
cm) when they come to rest. (Take g 10 m /s 2 )
56. Two particle of equal masses 4 M are initially at rest. A particle of
mass M moving at speed u collide elastically with one of the larger
balls. How many collisions occur?
57. A ball leaves the track at B which is at 3m height from bottom most point of the track. The ball further rises upto 4m
height from the bottom most point before falling down. Find h (in m), if the track at B makes an angle 30° with
horizontal.
58. A block of mass 0.18 kg is attached to a spring of force-constant 2 N/m.The
coefficient of friction between the block and the floor is 0.1, initially the block
is at rest and the spring is un-stretched. An impulse is given to the block as
shown in the figure. The block slides a distance of 0.06 m and comes to rest for
the first time. The initial velocity of the block in m/s is V = N/10. Then N is.
59. A ball collides at B with velocity 10 m/s at 30° with vertical. There is a flag at A and a wall at C. Collision of ball
with ground is perfectly inelastic (e = 0) and that with wall is elastic (e = 1). Given AB = BC = 10 m. Find the time
after which ball will collide with the flag.
60. A small ball of mass m is attached to the end of the string of length = 1m whose other end is fixed. From its lowest
position, the ball is given a kinetic energy mg/5. The net acceleration (in m/s2) of the ball at the instant when the
string makes an angle of 37° with the vertical is __________.
APP | Physics 33 Energy and Momentum
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Advanced Problem Package Rotational Motion and Gravitation
SINGLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE
Each of the following Question has 4 choices A, B, C & D, out of which ONLY ONE Choice is Correct.
1. A thin wire is bent in form of a helix of radius R and height H. The pitch of helix is H and mass per unit length of
2
wire is λ. Moment of inertia of wire about the axis of helix is:
(A) λHR 2 (B) 2λR 2 H 2 4πR 2
(C) R 2 H 2 16 2 R 2 (D) None of these
2. Consider a uniform rectangular plate of mass M and dimensions (a × b). Its moment of inertia about one of the
diagonal is:
Ma 2 b 2 Ma 2b 2 Ma 2 b 2
(A) (B) (C) (D) None of these
6 a 2 b2
3 a2 b2
12 a 2 b 2
3. A uniform smooth rod of mass m = 1kg and length L is balanced in the vertical
position as shown in the figure. When a horizontal force F is applied at end A, the B
acceleration of top point Bat this instant is:
(A) 2m/s2to right L
(B) 1 m/s2 to left
F = 1N A
(C) 1 m/s2 to right
(D) None of these
4. A body is rolling without slipping on a horizontal plane. If the rotational energy of the body is 40% of the total
kinetic energy, then the body might be:
(A) Cylinder (B) Hollow sphere (C) Solid cylinder (D) Ring
5. A sphere of mass m is given some angular velocity about a horizontal axis
through its centre, and gently placed on a plank of mass m as shown in the
figure. The coefficient of friction between the two is µ. The plank rests on m
a smooth horizontal surface. The initial acceleration of centre of mass of
the sphere relative to the plank will be m
7
(A) zero (B) µg (C) µg (D) 2µg
5
6. A rod of length L is held vertically on a smooth horizontal surface. The top end of the rod is given a gentle push.
At a certain instant of time, when the rod makes an angle with horizontal the velocity of COM of the rod is v0.
The velocity of the end of the rod in contact with the surface at that instant is :
(A) v0 cot (B) v0 cos (C) v0 sin (D) v0 tan
7. A uniform bar AB of mass m and a ball of the same mass are released from
rest from the same horizontal position. The bar is hinged at end A. There is L m m
gravity downwards. What is the distance of the point from point B that has the A B C
same acceleration as the ball, immediately after release?
2L L L 3L
(A) (B) (C) (D)
3 3 2 4
APP | Physics 34 Rotation and Gravitation
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8. A uniform bar of mass M and length L collides with a horizontal surface.
Before collision velocity of centre of mass was v0 and no angular velocity. Just v
after collision velocity of centre of mass of bar becomes v in upward direction
as shown in the figure. Angular velocity of the bar just after impact is :
v0
6 v0 v cos 6 v0 v cos
(A) (B)
L L
Before After
(C)
v0 v cos (D)
v0 v cos collision collision
L 6L
9. A light thread is wound on a disk of mass m and other end of thread is connected
m
to a block of mass m, which is placed on a rough ground as shown in the
diagram. Find the minimum value of coefficient of friction for which block
remain at rest:
m
1 1 1 1 r
(A) (B) (C) (D)
3 4 2 5
10. A satellite is projected with velocity 5 / 6 times its escape speed from earth’s surface. The initial velocity of the
satellite is parallel to the surface of earth. The maximum distance of the satellite from the centre of earth will be :
(A) 3R (B) 4R (C) 5R (D) 8R
11. Two satellites S1 and S2 revolve around a planet in coplanar circular orbits in the same sense. Their periods of
revolution are 1 hour and 8 hours respectively. The radius of the orbit of S1is 104 km. When S1 is closest to S2, the
angular speed of S2 as observed by an astronaut in S1 is :
(A) rad/hr (B) 2 rad/hr (C) / 3 rad/hr (D) / 2 rad/hr
12. A thin uniform annular disc of mass M has outer radius 4R and inner radius 3R as shown in the figure. The work
required to take a unit mass from point P on its axis to infinity is :
4R
3R 4R
2GM 2GM GM 2GM
(A)
7R
4
2 5 (B)
7R
4 2 5 (C) 4R
(D)
5R
2 1
13. Two point masses of 0.3 kg and 0.7 kg are fixed at the ends of a rod of length 1.4 m and of negligible mass. The
rod is set rotating about an axis perpendicular to its length with a uniform angular speed. The point on the rod
through which the axis should pass in order that the work required for rotation of the rod is minimum, is located at
a distance of :
(A) 0.42 m from mass of 0.3 kg (B) 0.70 m from mass of 0.7 kg
(C) 0.98 m from mass of 0.3 kg (D) 0.98 m from mass of 0.7 kg
14. At what distance from the centre of the moon is the point at which the strength of the resultant field of earth’s and
moon’s gravitational fields equal to zero ? The earth’s mass is 81 times that of moon and the distance between
centres of these planets is 60R where R is the radius of earth.
(A) 6R (B) 4R (C) 3R (D) 5R
APP | Physics 35 Rotation and Gravitation
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15. When a satellite in a circular orbit around the earth enters the atmospheric region, it encounters air resistance to its
motion. Then which of the following is incorrect :
(A) it loses mechanical energy (B) its kinetic energy increases
(C) its kinetic energy decreases (D) its angular momentum about the earth decreases
16. Gravitational field due to uniform thin hemispherical shell at point P is I, then the P
magnitude of gravitational field at Q is : (mass of hemisphere is M. radius R).
C 2R
GM GM
(A) 2
I (B) I
2R 2R 2
GM GM 2R
(C) I (D) 2I 2
4R 2R Q
17. A particle is projected form the earth’s surface with an initial speed of 4 km/sec. What will be the maximum height
attained by the particle in km:
(A) 382.6 (B) 914.3 (C) 435.2 (D) 637.6
18. A body placed in a capsule will be weightless with respect to the capsule, when the capsule, in the gravitational field
of the Earth is :
(A) free falling vertically
(B) a projectile near the surface of the earth
(C) falling with a constant acceleration
(D) projected from the surface of the earth with an escape velocity
19. A satellite is orbiting around the earth in a circular orbit of radius r. A particle of mass m is projected from the
satellite in a forward direction with a velocity v 2 / 3 times the orbital velocity (this velocity is given w.r.t.
earth). During subsequent motion of the particle, its minimum distance from the centre of earth is :
r 2r 4r
(A) (B) r (C) (D)
2 3 5
20. A rocket is launched normal to the surface of the Earth, away from the Sun, along the line joining the Sun and the
Earth. The Sun is 3 105 times heavier than the Earth and is at a distance 2.5 104 times larger than the radius of
the Earth. The escape velocity from Earth's gravitational field is ve 11.2 kms 1 . The minimum initial velocity
vs required for the rocket to be able to leave the Sun-Earth system is closest to
(Ignore the rotation and revolution of the Earth and the presence of any other planet)
(A) vs 62 kms 1 (B) vs 42 kms 1 (C) vs 72 kms 1 (D) vs 22 kms 1
APP | Physics 36 Rotation and Gravitation
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MULTIPLE CORRECT ANSWERS TYPE
Each of the following Question has 4 choices A, B, C & D, out of which ONE or MORE Choices may be Correct:
21. A tunnel is dug along a chord of earth at perpendicular distance R/2 from the earth’s centre. The wall of the tunnel
may be assumed to be frictionless. A particle is released from one end of the tunnel. The pressing force by the
particle on the wall, and the acceleration of the particle vary with x(distance of the particle from the centre)
according to :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
22. An orbiting satellite will escape if
(A) Its speed is increased by 41%
(B) Its speed in the orbit is made (1.5) times of its initial value
(C) Its KE is doubled (D) It stops moving in the orbit
23. Which of the following statements is(are) true
(A) Work done by kinetic friction on a rigid body may be positive
(B) A uniform sphere rolls up an inclined plane without sliding. The friction force on it will be up the incline.
(only contact force and gravitational force is acting)
(C) A uniform sphere rolls down an inclined plane without sliding. The friction force on it will be up the
incline. (only contact force and gravitational force is acting)
(D) A uniform sphere is left from rest from the top of a rough inclined plane. It moves down the plane with
slipping. The friction force on it will be up the incline always.
24. A thin bar of mass M and length L is free to rotate about a fixed horizontal axis through a point at its end. The bar
is brought to a horizontal position and then released. The angular velocity when it reaches the lowest point is
(A) Directly proportional to its length and inversely proportional to its mass
(B) Independent of mass and inversely proportional to the square root of its length
(C) Dependent only upon the acceleration due to gravity and the length of the bar
(D) Directly proportional to its length and inversely proportional to the acceleration due to gravity
25. A rod bent at right angle along its centre line, is placed on a rough horizontal fixed cylinder
of radius R as shown in the figure. Mass of rod is 2 m and rod is in equilibrium. Assume that A
frictional force on rod at A and B are equal in magnitude.
R
(A) Normal force applied by cylinder on rod at A is 3mg/2. B
(B) Normal force applied by cylinder on rod at B must be zero.
(C) Frictional force acting on rod at B is upward.
(D) Normal force applied by cylinder on rod at A is mg.
APP | Physics 37 Rotation and Gravitation
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26. A disc of mass m and radius r is gently placed on another disc of mass 2m & radius r. The disc of mass 2m is
rotating with angular velocity 0 initially. The disc is placed such that axis of both are coincident. The coefficient
of friction is for surfaces in contact. Assume that pressure on disc is uniformly distributed. Find the correct
statement.
1 2 2
(A) Loss in kinetic energy of system K = mr 0 .
3
1 2 2
(B) Loss in kinetic energy of system K = mr 0 .
6
2
(C) The common angular velocity is .
3 0
4
(D) The common angular velocity is
3 0
A
27. A uniform cubical block of mass M and side ‘a’ is as shown in the figure Mark the correct statement(s).
(A) The moment of inertia about axis A, passing through the centre of
1
mass is IA = Ma2 D
6
(B) The moment of inertia about axis B, which bisects one of the
5
cube faces is IB = Ma2
12 a
(C) The moment of inertia about axis C, along one of the cube edges M
2
is IC = Ma2
3
(D) The moment of inertia about axis D, which bisects one of the
7
horizontal cube faces is Ma 2
12 B
C
28. A disc is given an angular speed 0 and released from a certain height (as shown in
the figure). Motion of disc is observed after collision with the rough surface. Released from rest
Velocity of centre of mass of ball and direction of is shown in the figure after the
0
collision. Mark possible path(s) of disc can follow after the collision.
v
0
v Rough Surface
(A) (B)
v v
(C) (D)
APP | Physics 38 Rotation and Gravitation
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29. A massless spool of inner radius r, outer radius R is placed against vertical wall and tilted split floor as shown in the
figure. A light inextensible thread is tightly wound around the spool through which a mass m is hanging. There
exists no friction at point A, while the coefficient of friction between spool and point B is µ. The angle between two
surfaces is .
(A) the magnitude of force on the spool at B in order to maintain equilibrium is
2 2
r r 1 g R
Mg 1 r
R R tan 2 B
C
(B) the magnitude of force on the spool at B in order to maintain equilibrium is
r 1 A
mg 1
R tan
cot O
(C) the minimum value of µ for the system to remain in equilibrium is
(R / r) 1 m
tan
(D) the minimum value of µ for the sysem to remain in equilibrium is
(R / r) 1
30. A solid sphere is given a angular velocity and kept on a rough fixed incline plane as shown
in the figure. Then choose the correct statement.
(A) If = tan then sphere will be in linear equilibrium for some time and after that pure
rolling down the plane will start.
(B) If = tan then sphere will move up the plane and frictional force acting all the time
will be 2 mg sin.
tan
(C) If = there will never be pure rolling (consider inclined plane to be long enough.)
2
(D) If incline plane is not fixed and it is on smooth horizontal surface then linear momentum of the system
(wedge and sphere) can be conserved in horizontal direction.
31. A billiard ball initially at rest is given a sharp blow by a cue stick. The force is horizontal and is applied at a
distance 2R/3 below the centre line, as shown in the figure. The initial speed of the ball is v0 , and the coefficient
of kinetic friction is k . ( k is small) :
R y
2R
3
x
(A) Initially kinetic friction acts in iˆ direction (B) Initially kinetic friction in iˆ direction.
5 v0
(C) Ball instantaneously starts pure rolling. (D) Initial angular velocity of ball is
3R
32. A student Amir of mass m is standing on the edge of an horizontal disc of radius R. The disc is free to rotate about
a frictionless vertical axis passing through its centre. Initially the student and disc are at rest. At t = 0 the student
starts to run at his maximum velocity v relative to disc. He runs along the circumference of the disc towards his
friend Salman in anticlockwise sense. Salman is stationary on ground. Moment of inertia of disc is I.
R I
(A) Time taken to reach Salman is 1 .
v mR 2
R
(B) If disc were considered massless time taken to reach Salman is .
v
(C) If disc were considered massless Amir can never reach Salman.
(D) Time taken will be minimum if Amir instead of running along circumference runs along diameter
towards Salman.
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33. Two satellites S1 and S2 of equal masses go round a heavy planet in coplanar circular orbits of radii R and 4R.
(A) The ratio of periods of revolution of S1 and S2 is 1 : 8
(B) Their speeds are in the ratio 2 : 1
(C) Their angular momenta are in the ratio 1:2
(D) None of these
34. A massive uniform sphere has an eccentric spherical cavity inside it, with the centre of cavity at a distance of
from the centre of massive sphere. A small particle placed inside the cavity will experience a gravitational force :
(A) of zero magnitude
(B) a magnitude and direction different at different positions in the cavity
(C) constant irrespective of its position
(D) of magnitude proportional to
35. A particle is rotating in a conical pendulum with help of a string of length as shown in the
figure. The speed of the particle is constant and angle is also constant with time. It can be
said that
(A) Angular momentum of the particle about the point of suspension is not constant.
(B) Only the direction of angular momentum of the particle about the point of
suspenstion is constant.
(C) Only the magnitude of angular momentum about the point of suspension is constant.
(D) Net torque on the particle about the point of suspension is zero.
36. In the adjacent figure a uniform rod of length and mass m is kept at rest in
horizontal position on an elevated edge. The value of x (consider the figure) is such
that the rod will have maximum angular acceleration , as soon as it is set free.
g 3
(A) x is equal to (B) is equal to
2 3 2
g 3
(C) is equal to (D) x is equal to
3
37. In the adjacent figure, a uniform disc of mass 2m and radius / 2 is lying at rest on a
smooth horizontal surface. A particle ‘A’ of mass m is connected to a light string of length
. whose other end is attached to the circumference of the disc. Initially strign is just taut
and tangential to the disc, particle A is at rest. In the same horizontal plane another particle
B of same mass m moving with velocity v0 perpendicular to string collides elastically with
A. Just after impact which of the following statements will be true
2 mv02 v02
(A) Tenstion is the string is (B) Acceleration of the centre of the disc is
5 5
mv02 2v 2
(C) Tension in the string is (D) Acceleration of the centre of the disc is 0
5 5
38. A cylinder is rolling without sliding on a smooth horizontal surface as
shown. O is origin, B and A are two points on y-axis C and D are topmost
and bottom most point of cylinder at the given instant. Mark the correct
statements.
(A) Angular momentum of body about C and D will be same in magnitude
(B) Angular momentum of cylinder wil be minimum about A among the given points
(C) Angular momentum will be minimum about B
(D) Angular momentum about O and C will be same in magnitude
APP | Physics 40 Rotation and Gravitation
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39. A rod AB of mass M and length L lies on a smooth horizontal table. An impulse J
is applied to end A as shown in the figure immediately after imparting the impulse:
8
(A) The radius of curvature of trajectory of A as seen from the ground is L.
9
2
(B) The radius of curvature of trajectory of B as seen from the ground is L.
9
(C) The instantaneous axis of rotation is at a distance of L/6 form the mid-point of the rod.
(D) The mid-point of the rod will move along a straight line.
40. A uniform rod of length l and mass m is rotating about a fixed axis perpendicular to the paper (xy-plane) and
passing through its one of the end A. At the instant shown in the figure rod’s angular velocity is and velocity of
the centre of mass of the rod is vcm . The moment of inertia of the rod about an axis passing through point A and
kinetic energy of rod respectively.
ml 2 1 2 1 2
(A) L A I A I cm , K mv cm I cm
4 2 2
1 1
(B) L A I A mr cm v cm I cm , K mv 2 cm I cm 2
2 2
2
ml 1 2
(C) L A I A I cm , K I A
4 2
1
(D) L A I A mr cm v cm I cm , K I A2
2
41. A small disc of mass in is released on a parabolic curve in a vertical plane such that gravity acts along negative y-
2a
axis. The equation of parabolic curve is x 2 y, where ‘a’ is a positive constant. Frictional force between disc
3
and curve are sufficient for pure rolling. When disc is reached at x = a then choose the correct option(s).
(A) Acceleration of disc along the trajectory is 3g
g
(B) Acceleration of disc along the trajectory is .
3
mg
(C) Frictional force between disc and curve is .
2 3
mg
(D) Frictional force between disc and curve is .
3
42. A small object is placed on a smooth table at a distance r0 from a hole in the centre of table. An ideal inextensible
chord is attached to the object through this hole. The object is set into motion with initial velocity of magnitude
v0 at right angle to the chord and at the same time, the chord is pulled through the hole at uniform speed c m/s.
Initially object is at point A(0, r0 ) and at any time t, it is at point P(r cos , r sin ) . Neglect the dimension of
object. Choose CORRECT option(s)
mr02v02
(A) Tension in the chord at any time t is
(r0 ct )3
2mr02v02
(B) Tension in the chord at any time t is
(r0 ct )3
2r0 v0
(C) Angular speed of the object at any time t is
(r0 ct )2
r0v0
(D) Angular speed of the object at any time t is
(r0 ct )2
APP | Physics 41 Rotation and Gravitation
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43. A thin rigid uniform circular disc rolls without slipping on a horizontal rigid
surface (or the ground). At a certain instant, its position w.r.t. ground frame is as
shown in the figure.
(A) Sector ABC has greater kinetic energy than sector ADC w.r.t. ground frame
(B) Sector BO’C has greater kinetic energy than sector CO’D w.r.t ground frame
(C) Sector BO’C has the same kinetic energy as sector AO’B w.r.t. ground frame
(D) All the sectors AO’B, BO’C, CO’D and AO’D have same kinetic
energy w.r.t. the centre of mass frame
44. A disc of mass M and radius r has massless string wrapped over it with one end fixed on disc and other end
connected to block of same mass M. Initially system is held at rest. Now system is released from rest.
Immediately after system is released (assume there is no slipping at any contact surface).
2 ˆ 2ˆ
(A) Acceleration of block in ground frame is gi j
5 5
2 2
(B) Acceleration of block in the frame of centre of disc is giˆ ˆj
5 5
2ˆ
(C) Acceleration of block in ground frame is j
5
(D) Tenstion in string is 3 mg/5
45. A disc is given an initial angular velocity 0 and placed on rough horizontal surface as shown. The quantities
which will not depend on the coeffcient of friction is/are
(A) The time until rolling begins.
(B) The displacement of centre of mass of the disc until rolling begins.
(C) The veocity when rolling begins.
(D) The work done by the force of friction.
46. A uniform ring is connected to a light axle with light spokes so as to from a wheel. The wheel is placed on a
horizontal surface with its plane vertical and a constant horizontal force F is applied to the axle. Surface AB is
rough and surface right to B is smooth. The wheel does not slip when it moves from A to B and takes time T to
move the distance d between A and B.
(A) Rotational KE remains constant right of B
(B) Energy is dissipated from A to B
(C) Linear acceleration of centre of mass of the ring right of
B is more than linear acceleration left of B
(D) Linear acceleration of centre of mass of the wheel undergoes constant non-zero acceleration to the right
of B.
47. A uniform wheel is rolling without slipping on a horizontal surface. At a certain
instant, its centre of mass has velocity ‘v’ and acceleration ‘a’ of P, Q and R are three
points on the rim of the disc as shown in the figure. Acceleration of.
(A) P is vertically upwards
(B) Q may be vertically downwards
(C) R cannot be horizontal
(D) Some point on the rim may be horizontal leftwards.
APP | Physics 42 Rotation and Gravitation
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48. A rod CD of length L and mass M is placed horizontally on a frictionless horizontal surface as shown. A second
identical rod AB which is also placed horizontally (perpendicular to CD) on the same horizontal surface is moving
along the surface with a velocity v in a direction perpendicular to rod CD and its end B strikes the rod CD at end
C and sticks to if rigidly. Then,
v
(A) Velocity of centre of mass of the system just after impact is .
4
3v
(B) The (angular speed) of system just after collision is .
5L
v
(C) Velocity of centre of mass of the system just after impact is .
2
5v
(D) The (angular speed) of system just after collision is .
3L
49. Planck’s constant h, speed of light c and gravitational constant G are used to form a unit of length L and a unit of
mass M. Then the correct option (s) is(are) :
(A) M c (B) M G (C) L h (D) L G
50. A double star is a system of two stars of masses m and 2 m rotating about their centre of mass only under their
mutual gravitational attraction. If r is the separation between the two starts then their time period of rotation about
their centre of mass will be proportional to :
3 1 1
(A) r 2 (B) r (C) m2 (D) m 2
Paragraph for Q. 51 - 53
A particle A is attached through an ideal thread to a point B on the circumference
of a smooth vertical cylinder as shown in the figure. Thread is horizontal and the
V0 C
particle can slide on a smooth horizontal plane. The particle is now given a R
horizontal speed V0 perpendicular to thread as shown. For the subsequent motion,
answer the following questions: (l = length of thread, R = radius of cylinder): A l B
51. Angular momentum of particle is conserved about point:
(A) B (B) C (C) Midpoint of BC (D) None of these.
52. From start upto the moment particle strikes the cylinder, external torque required to keep the cylinder in
equilibrium:
(A) It always zero (B) Continuously increases
(C) First increases then decreases. (D) Remains constant.
53. If the motion starts at t = 0, the time at which particle strikes the cylinder is:
l2 l2 l2
(A) (B) (C) (D) None of these
RV0 2 RV0 3RV0
Paragraph for Q. 54 - 55
A uniform rod AB is hinged at the end A in a horizontal position as shown in the
figure. The other end of the rod is connected to a block through a massless string as
shown. The pulley is smooth and massless. Masses of the block and the rod are same m
and are equal to ' m' . A m
B
54. Then just after release of block from this position, the tension in the thread is :
mg 5mg 11mg 3mg
(A) (B) (C) (D)
8 8 8 8
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55. Then just after release of block from this position, the magnitude of reaction exerted by hinge on the rod is :
3mg 5mg 9mg 7mg
(A) (B) (C) (D)
16 16 16 16
Paragraph for Q. 56 - 58
Consider a hypothetical planet which is very long and cylindrical. The density of the planet is and its radius is R.
56. What is the possible orbital speed of the satellite in moving around the planet in circular orbit in a plane which is
perpendicular to the axis of planet?
G
(A) R G (B) 2R G (C) R 2G (D) D
2
57. If an object is projected radially outwards from the surface such that it reaches upto a maximum distance of 3R
from the axis then what should be the speed of projection?
2 4 2
(A) R G (B) 2 R G ln 3 (C) R G (D) R G ln 3
3 3 3
58. Assume that the planet is rotating about its axis with time period T. How far from the axis of the planet do the geo
synchronous tele-communications satellite orbit?
G
(A) RT G (B) 2RT G (C) RT 2G (D) RT
2
MATRIX MATCH TYPE
Each of the following question contains statements given in two columns, which have to be matched. Statements in
Column I are labelled as (A), (B), (C) & (D) whereas statements in Column II are labeled as p, q, r, s & t. More than one
choice from Column II can be matched with Column I.
59. A particle P strikes the uniform rod R normally, elastically at a distance x
from hinge as shown in the figure. The rod of length l is suspended vertically
with upper end hinged.
Column I(Arrangement) Column II(For the collision)
(A) l (p) Linear momentum of (P+R) system increases
If x = , elastic collision
2
(B) If x = l, elastic collision (q) Linear momentum of (P+R) system decreases
(C) l (r) KE of the particle P decreases
If x = , P sticks to R
2
(D) If x = l, P sticks to R (s) Angular momentum of the (P+R) system is conserved about hinge.
60. Match the column
Column I Column II
(A) Geostationary satellite (p) Circular orbit
(B) Total energy of earth satellite system is constant in (q) Elliptical orbit
(C) Angular momentum of satellite about centre of earth is constant in (r) Equatorial plane orbit
(D) Orbital speed of satellite may be constant (s) Non-equatorial plane orbit
APP | Physics 44 Rotation and Gravitation
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SUBJECTIVE INTEGER TYPE
61. A spaceship is sent to investigate a planet of mass M and radius R.
While hanging motionless in space at a distance 5R from the centre of
the planet, the spaceship fires an instrument package of mass m, which
is much smaller than the mass of the spaceship. For angle the
package just graze the surface of the planet? If
1 8GM
sin 1 1 2 , find K.
K 5V0 R
62. A bullet is fired vertically upwards with velocity v from the surface of a spherical planet. When it reaches its
maximum height, its acceleration due to the planet’s gravity is 1/4th of its value at the surface of the planet. If the
escape velocity from the planet is vesc v N , then the value of N is __________. (Ignore energy loss due to
atmosphere)
63. Distance between centres of two stars is 10 a. The masses of these stars are M and 16M and their radii are a and
2a, respectively. A body is fired straight from the surface of the larger star towards the smaller star. Its minimum
3 KGM
initial speed to reach the surface of the smaller star is find value of K.
2 a
64. A rod of length R and mass M is free to rotate about a horizontal axis
passing through hinge P as shown in the figure. First it is taken aside such
that it becomes horizontal and then released. At the lowest point the rod M R
hits the block B of mass m and stops. If mass of rod is 60 kg, find P
mass of the block if it just complete the circle.
m
65. A uniform rod of length = 1m is free to move and rotate in gravity-free space. When an impulse is given to one
end of the rod, perpendicular to its length, its centre of mass moves with velocity v = 1 m/s. What will be its
angular velocity (in rad/s) about its centre of mass.
66. A solid sphere of radius R / 2 is cut out of a solid sphere of radius R that the
spherical cavity so formed touches the surface on one side and the centre of the
sphere on the other side, as shown. The initial mass of the solid sphere was M.
If a particle of mass m is placed at a distance 2.5R from the centre of the
KGMm K
cavity. If the gravitational attraction on the mass m is 2
, find .
100 R 23
67. A point mass m is released from rest at a distance of 3R from the centre
of a thin-walled hollow sphere of radius R and mass M as shown. The
hollow sphere is fixed in position and the only force on the point mass
is the gravitational attraction of the hollow sphere. There is a very
small hole in the hollow sphere through which the point was falls as
shown. The velocity of a point mass when it passes through point P at
nGM
a distance R/2 from the centre of the sphere is , find n.
3R
APP | Physics 45 Rotation and Gravitation
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68. A uniform rod AB of length 4m and mass 12 kg is thrown such that just
after the projection the centre of mass of the rod moves vertically upwards
with a velocity 10 m/s and at the same time it is rotating with an angular
velocity rad/sec about a horizontal axis passing through its mid point.
2
Just after the rod is thrown it is horizontal and is as shown in the figure.
Find the acceleration (in m/sec2) of the point A in m/s2 when the centre
of mass is at the highest point. (Take g = 10m/s2 and 2 = 10)
69. A disc of mass M and radius R is placed on a rough horizontal surface. A
light rod of length 2 R is fixed to the disc at point A as shown in the figure
3
and force Mg is applied at the other end. Find the minimum value of
2
10 where is coefficient of friction (upto one decimal place) between
disc and horizontal surface so that disc starts to roll without slipping.
70. A uniform cylinder of mass m and radius r rolls on a fixed cylindrical
surface of radius R. At a certain instant, the line OC has an angular
velocity and angular acceleration . Find:
Ifthe acceleration of point of contact P of the cylinder with respect to the
7 R( R r )2
surface is
kr
Then find value of k.
71. A uniform rod of length 2 and mass m is suspended from one end by
inextensible string and other end lies on smooth ground. The angle made
by rod with vertical is sin 1 (1/ 3). If N1 and N 2 represents the
contact force from ground on rod just before and just after cutting string
then find the ratio of N1 / N 2 .
72. A rigid triangular fram consists of three massless rods of length 2.5 m each and
point masses of mass m each at vertex B and C respectively. Frame is haning vertically
from point A about which it can rotate freely about an axis xx’ which is perpendicular to
plane of frame as shwon in figure. Point of suspension of frame, i.e. A, is accelerating
with constant acceleration a 3 g / 4 in horizontal direction and initially frame is at rest
w.r.t. support A. Minimum initial angular velocity x(3)1/4 (in rad/s) provided to
system, so that it can complete vertical circular motion in the frame of support A.
Calculate the value of x. (take g 10 m/s 2 )
73. A uniform rod of length 12 metre and mass m is hinged at midpoint and lies
horizontally at rest. Rod is free to rotate in vertical plane about hinge O. A particle of
mass m is released from height h as shown in figure. Particle collides with end A and
sticks to it. Calculate minimum height h (in metre) so that system can complete
vertical circular motion.
APP | Physics 46 Rotation and Gravitation
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74. If a car is moving rightward with acceleration a g k m/s rightward as shown in the figure. Find the value of k
so that, rod maintains its orientation as shown in the figure. Neglect the friction and mass of the small rollers at A
and B.
75. For identical rods, each of mass m are welded at their ends to form a
square, and the corners are then welded to a light metal hoop of radius r. If
the rigid assembly of rods and hoop is allowed to roll down the inclined
rough surface. If the minimum value of the coefficient of static friction
k
which will prevent slipping is . Find the value of k.
10
76. A small particle is given an initial velocity v0 10 m/s along the tangent to
the brim of a fixed smooth hemisphere bowl of radius r0 15 2 m as
shown in the figure. The particle slides on the inner surface and reaches
point B, a vertical distance h = 15 m below A and a distance r from the
vertical center line, where its velocity v makes an angle with the
horizontal tangent to the bowl through B. If 15K . Find the value of
K. (take g = 10 m/s2) Vertical centre line
A
77. A uniform iron ribbon of mass 3m and length 3d is bent
at B as shown in the figure and placed on a horizontal 2d
table in vertical plane. A fly of mass m is sitting at point
A. Angle is at which the ribbon is just about to topple?
Find 8cos . B C
d
78. The gravitational potential energy of a satellite revolving around the earth in circular orbit is 4MJ . Find the
additional energy (in MJ) that should be given to the satellite so that it escapes from the gravitational field of
earth. Assume earth’s gravitational force to be the only gravitational force on the satellite and no atmospheric
resistance.
79. A binary star consists of two stars A (mass 2.2Ms) and B (mass 11Ms), where Ms is the mass of the sun. They are
separated by distance d and are rotating about their centre of mass, which is stationary. The ratio of the total
angular momentum of the binary star to the angular momentum of star B about the centre of mass is :
80. Gravitational acceleration on the surface of a planet is 6 11 g , where g is gravitational acceleration on the
surface of the earth. The average mass density of the planet is planet is 2/3 times that the earth. If the escape speed
on the surface of the earth is taken to be 11 Kms–1, the escape speed on the surface of the planet in Kms–1will be:
APP | Physics 47 Rotation and Gravitation
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Advanced Problem Package Liquids
SINGLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE
Each of the following Question has 4 choices A, B, C & D, out of which ONLY ONE Choice is Correct.
1. A vessel of uniform cross section (open at the top with an orifice at the bottom contains oil Oil
5m
(relative density 0.8) on top of water. Water flows out of the vessel. The initial speed of water for
the values given in the figure is nearly. (Take g = 10 m/s2) Water 10m
(A) 10.0 m/s (B) 8.0 m/s
(C) 16.7 m/s (D) 5.0 m/s
2. Two communicating vessels contain mercury. The diameter of one vessel is n times than the diameter of the other.
A column of water of height h is poured into the left vessel. The mercury level will rise in the right-hand vessel
( s relative density of mercury and density of water) by
n2 h h
(A) (B)
n 1 2
s n 1 s
2
h h
(C) 2
(D)
n 1 s n2 s
3. Three liquids having densities 1 2 and 3 are filled in a U-tube. Length
of each liquid column is equal to , 1 2 3 and liquids remain at rest
(relative to the tube) in the position shown in the figure. It is possible that :
(A) U-tube is accelerating leftwards
(B) U-tube is accelerating upwards with acceleration g
(C) U-tube is moving with a constant velocity
(D) None of the above
4. A sphere of solid material of specific gravity 8 has a concentric spherical cavity and just sinks in water. The ratio of
radius of cavity to that of outer radius of the sphere must be :
71 / 3 51 / 3 91 / 3 31 / 3
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 2 2 2
5. In the figure shown the velocity and pressure of the liquid at the small cross section (2) are given by : (If P0 is the
atmospheric pressure).
hg hg
(A) 2hg , P0 (B) hg , P0
2 2
h
hg 3 hg hg 3 hg
(C) , P0 (D) , P0
2 4 2 4
6. A cubic block of side a is connected with two similar vertical springs as shown. Initially,
bottom surface of the block of density touches the surface of the fluid of density 2
while floating. A weight is placed on the block so that it is immersed half the fluid, then the
weight is :
K
(A) a a 2 g
2
(B)
a K a 2 g 2
2
a a
(C) a K g
2
(D)
2
K a 2 g
APP | Physics 48 Liquids
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7. A hollow sphere of mass M and radius R is immersed in a tank of water
density w . The sphere would float if it were set free. The sphere is tied to the
bottom of the tank by two wires which makes angle 45 with the horizontal as shown
in the figure. The tension T1 in the wire is:
4
R3 w g Mg
3 2
(A) (B) R 3 w g Mg
2 3
4 4 3
(C) R 3 w g Mg (D) R w g Mg
3 3
8. A body of density is dropped from rest at a height h into a lake of density where > . Neglecting all dissipative
forces calculate the maximum depth to which the body sinks before returning to float on the surface.
h h h h
(A) (B) (C) (D)
9. A tube of length L is filled completely with an incompressible liquid of mass M and closed at both the ends. The tube is
then rotated in a horizontal plane about one of its ends with a uniform angular velocity . The force exerted by the liquid
at the other end is :
(A) M2L/2 (B) M2L (C) M2L/4 (D) M2L2/2
10. A solid sphere of radius r is floating at the interface at the interface of two immiscible liquids
of densities 1 and 2 (2 1 ), half of its volume lying in each. The height of the upper
liquid column from the interface of the two liquids is h. The force exerted on the sphere by
the upper liquid is (atmoshperic pressure p0 and acceleration due to gravity is g):
2 2
(A) P0 r 2 h r r 21 g (B) h r r 21 g
3 3
2 3
(C) r 1 g (D) P0 r 2
3
11. A cylinderical wooden float whose base area S and the height H drifts on the water surface. Density of wood d and
density of water is . What minimum work must be performed to take the float out of the water?
Sdg 2 H 2 Sgd 2 H 2 Sgd 2 H 2 Sgd 2 H 2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
4 2 3
12. Figure shows a metal ball suspended by thread of neglible mass from an upright cylinder that floats partially submerged
in water. The cylinder has height 6 cm, face area 11 cm 2 on the top and bottom and density 0.5 g/cm 3 . 4 cm of
cylinder’s height is inside the water surface. If density of the metal ball is 8 gm/cm3 then its radius is equal to:
(w 1gm/cm3 )
1/3 1/3
3 3
(A) 8 cm (B) 4 cm
1/3 1/3
6 5
(C) 8 cm (D) 11 cm
13. An isolated and charged spherical soap bubble has a radius ‘r’ and the pressure inside is atmospheric. If ‘T’ is the
surface tension of soap solution, then charge on drop is:
2rT 2rT
(A) 2 (B) 8r 2rT 0 (C) 8r rT 0 (D) 8r
0 0
APP | Physics 49 Liquids
Vidyamandir Classes
14. Consider a small water drop in air. If T is the surface tension, then what
is the force due to surface tension acting on the smaller section ABC ?
(A) 2 TR (B) 2 TR sin
(C) 2 TR sin 2 (D) 2 TR sin 3
Sh
15. In the figure shown, a light container is kept on a horizontal rough surface of coefficient of friction . A very
V
small hole of area S is made at depth ‘h’. Water of volume ‘V’ is filled in the container. The friction is not sufficent to
keep the container at rest. The acceleration of the container initially is:
V
(A) g (B) g
Sh
Sh
(C) zero (D) g
V
MULTIPLE CORRECT ANSWERS TYPE
Each of the following Question has 4 choices A, B, C & D, out of which ONE or MORE Choices may be Correct:
16. Figure shows a container filled with a liquid of density . Four points A, B, C and D
on the vertices of a vertical square. Points A and C lie on a vertical line and points B
and D lies on a horizontal line. Choose the correct statement(s) about the pressure at
the four points.
(A) PD = PB (B) PA PB PD PC
PC PA PC PA
(C) PD PB (D) PD PB
2 2
17. A liquid flows through a horizontal tube. The velocities of the liquid in the
two sections, which have areas of cross section A1 and A2 are v1 and v2
respectively. The difference in the levels of the liquid in the two vertical
tubes is h. Then
(A) The volume of the liquid flowing through the tube in unit time is A1v1
(B) v2 v1 2 gh
(C) v22 v12 2 gh
(D) The energy per unit mass of the liquid is the same in both sections of the tube
18. A rectangular vessel of dimension l b h and mass M contains a liquid of
density . The vessel has an orifice at its bottom at a distance c from the rear
wall as shown in the figure.
(A) The maximum volume of the water that can be stored when the vessel is
accelerated is hcb/2
(B) The maximum volume of the water that can be stored when the vessel is
accelerated is hlb/2
hcb hg
(C) Force F that must be applied when maximum water stored is M
2 c
hcb lg
(D) Force F that must be applied when maximum water stored is M
2 c
APP | Physics 50 Liquids
Vidyamandir Classes
19. A wooden block is floating in a water tank. The block is pressed to the bottom. During the process, a work is done.
Which of the following statements are false?
(A) Work done is equal to work done against upthrust exerted by the water
(B) Work done is equal to work done against upthrust plus loss of gravitational potential energy of the block
(C) Work done is equal to work done against upthrust minus loss of gravitational potential energy of the block
(D) Work done is equal to loss of gravitational potential energy of the block
20. The mass of block is m1 and that of liquid with the vessel is m2. The block is suspended by a string
(tension T) partially in the liquid. The reading of the weighting machine placed below the vessel.
(A) is (m1 + m2) g
(B) is greater than (m1 + m2) g
(C) is equal to (m1g + m2 g T)
(D) is less than (m1 + m2) g
21. A body floats on water and also on an oil of density 1.25. Which of te following is/are true?
(A) The body loses more weight in oil than in water
(B) The volume of water displaced is 1.25 times that of oil displaced.
(C) The body experiences equal upthrust from water and oil
(D) To make the body just sink, one will need 1.25 times load in case of oil than in case of water
22. Each of the following system begins moving upwards with a constant acceleration. Select these cases in which quanity
will change due to this upward acceleration :
(A) time period of simple pendulum
(B) fraction of floating body submerged in a liquid
(C) tiem period of a spring block system
(D) pressure on the base of a container containing liquid
23. Two tubes of uniform cross-section are held vertically. u A and u B are the velocities of fluid
flow at A and B respectively, and p A and pB are pressure at A and B respectively. Arrow
show the direction of fluid flow.
(A) In case I, u A uB and p A pB
(B) In case I, u A uB and p A pB
(C) In case II, u A uB and p A pB
(D) In case II, u A uB and p A pB
24. A rectangular narrow U-tube has equal arm lengths and base length, each equal to l. The vertical arms are filled with
l
mercury up to and then one end is sealed. By heating the enclosed gas all the mercury is expelled. If atmospheric
2
pressure is P0 , the density of mercury is and cross-sectional area is S, then : [Neglect thermal expansion of glass and
mercury]
5l
(A) Work done by the gas against the atmospheric pressure is P0 S
2
7
(B) Work done by the gas against the gravity is S gl 2
4
(C) Work done by the gas against the atmospheric pressure is P0 Sl
(D) Work done by the gas against the gravity is S gl 2
APP | Physics 51 Liquids
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25. The container carrying some liquid shown in the diagram is given some small acceleration a.
(A) If a is directed upwards, PA PB increases
(B) If a is directed towards right, PA PB decreases
(C) If a is directed downwards, PA PB remain same
(D) If a is directed towards left, PA PB remain same
26. Two solid spheres A and B of equal volumes but of different densities
d A and d B are connected by a string. They are fully immersed in a fluid of
density d F . They get arranged into an equilibrium state as shown in the figure
with a tension in the string. The arrangement is possible only if:
(A) d A dF (B) dB dF
(C) d A dF (D) d A d B 2d F
27. Water jet is projected at an angle to the horizontal. At the point of projection, the area of the jet is S1 and at the highest
point, the area of the jet is S2 . The initial velocity of projection is u.
S
(A) The angle of projection is cos 1 1
S2
2u 2 S1 S2
(B) The range on the level ground is 1 1
g S2 S 22
2u 2 S12
(C) The maximum height reached from the ground is 1
g S22
(D) The rate of volume flow is S2u
28. Oil enters the bend of a pipe in the horizontal plane with
velocity 4 ms1 and pressure 280 103 Nm 2 as shown in
figure. (Take specific gravity of oil as 0.9 and sin 37 0.6 )
(A) the pressure of oil at the point Q, ( P2 ) 172 103 N/m 2
(B) the pressure of oil at the point Q, ( P2 ) 388 103 N/m 2
(C) the force required to hold the bend in the place is 63 103 N
(D) the force required to hold the bend in the place is 76 103 N
29. A tank having a hole at bottom, water is filled upto height H , area of hole is AH and area of top is AT choose the
correct statements.
(A) The ratio of time taken to empty Ist half and IInd half is directly
A
proportional to the ratio of T
AH
(B) It is independent of the ratio of area of hole and top
A
(C) It is inversely proportional to the ratio T
AH
( 2 1)
(D) This ratio is equal to
2
APP | Physics 52 Liquids
Vidyamandir Classes
30. In the figure shown, there is a conical shaft rotating on a bearing of very small clearance t .
The space between the conical shaft and the bearing, is filled with a viscous fluid having
coefficient of viscosity . The shaft is having radius R and height h. If the external torque
applied by the motor is and the power delivered by the motor is P working in 100%
efficiency to rotate the shaft with constant . Then :
2 R 3 R 2 h2 R3 R 2 h2
(A) P (B)
2t 2t
R3 h R 3 h2
(C) P (D)
2t 2t R 2 h 2
Passage For Questions 31 - 33
A cylindrical tank has a hole of diameter 2r in its bottom. The hole is covered
h1
with a wooden cylinder block of diameter 4r , height h and density / 3 .
Process 1 : Initially, the tank is filled with water of density to a height such that the
height of water above the top of the block is h1 (measured from the top of the block).
Process 2 : The water is removed from the tank to a height h2 (measured from the bottom of the block), as shown in the figure.
The height h2 is smaller than h (height of the block) and thus the block is exposed to the atmosphere.
31. Then the minimum value of height h1 (in process-1), for which the block just starts to move up is :
2h 5h 5h 5h
(A) (B) (C) (D)
3 4 3 2
32. The height of the water level h2 (in process 2), for which the block remains in its original position without the
application of any external force is :
h 4h 2h
(A) (B) (C) (D) h
3 9 3
33. In process 2, if h2 is further decreased, then :
(A) Cylinder will not move up and remains at its original position
h
(B) For h2 , cylinder again starts moving up
3
h
(C) For h2 , cylinder again starts moving up
4
h
(D) For h2 , cylinder again starts moving up
5
Passage For Questions 34 - 36
A cube made of wood having specific gravity 0.4 and side length `a is floated in a large tank fullof water.
34. Which action would change the depth to which block is submerged?
(A) more water is added in the tank (B) atmospheric pressure increases
(C) the tank is accelerated upwards (D) none of these
35. If the cube is depressed slightly, it executes SHM from it’s position. What is it’s time period?
a 5a 2a 4 a
(A) 2 (B) 2 (C) 2 (D)
g 2g 5g 5 g
APP | Physics 53 Liquids
Vidyamandir Classes
36. What can be the maximum amplitude of it’s vertical simple harmonic motion?
a
(A) (B) 0.4 a (C) 0.6 a (D) 0.2 a
2
Passage For Questions 37 - 39
Two ice cubes of side 10 cm, having cavity of volume 20 cm3 at centre of cube but filled with different materials A and B
respectively. The specific gravity of material A is 4.9 and specific gravity of material B is 1.9. Now these cubes are placed in
two different vessels of same base area as shown in figure. The water level before putting blocks in vessels are same. Assume
that ice melts uniformly from all sides and with same constant rate in both the vessels. (specific gravity of ice = 0.9)
37. Find the ratio of initial submerged volumes of the blocks containing A and B respectively :
49 49
(A) (B) 1:1 (C) (D) 4:1
46 19
38. Choose the correct statement :
(A) Both cubes sink simultaneously
(B) A and B sink only after complete melting of ice
(C) A sinks prior to B
(D) B sinks prior to A
39. Choose the correct graph showing the variation of heights of water-level in two vessels with time :
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Passage For Questions 40 - 42
You may have heard of g -LOC. In simple terms, it is gravity induced loss of consciousness. This seems surprising. How can
gravity lead to a loss of consciousness. For this, we have to remember that brain functions properly when the heart maintains a
proper blood pressure in the brain. The brain is higher than heart by about 30 cm, so blood pressure at brain is less than that at
the heart. When there is a sudden change in acceleration, the pressure at heart changes. If this decreases the pressure in brain, the
brain system can stop functioning. This decrease in pressure can be fatal.
It is seen that when the effective acceleration due to gravity is 3 g , the person can undergo g-LOC. For this problem, we can
assume that density of blood 1 103 kg/m3 .
40. Assume that a pilot flying a plane takes a horizontal turn with a speed of 100 m/s. What is the minimum radius he can
take?
1000 250
(A) m (B) 250 2 m (C) 250 m (D) m
3 3
41. What is the pressure difference between heart and brain when there is g-LOC?
(A) 1000 Pa (B) 3000 Pa (C) 6000 Pa (D) 9000 Pa
42. In which of the following cases, a person can undergo g-LOC?
(A) A person falls down vertically (B) A person jumps with a parachute
(C) A person slides on a slide (D) A person sits in a rocket fired vertically up
APP | Physics 54 Liquids
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MATRIX MATCH TYPE
Each of the following question contains statements given in two columns, which have to be matched. Statements in Column
1 are labelled as (A), (B), (C) & (D) whereas statements in Column 2 are labelled as p, q, r, s & t. More than one choice from
Column 2 can be matched with Column 1.
43. The vessel has two sections of areas of cross-section A1 and A2 . A liquid of density fills
both the sections, up to a height h in each. Neglect atmospheric pressure.
Column 1 Column 2
(P) The pressure at the base of the vessel 2h gA2
1.
(Q) The force exerted by the liquid on the base of vessel 2h g
2.
(R) The weight of the liquid is less than h g A2 A1
3.
(S) Download force on the liquid by the walls of the vessel at 2h gA1
4.
the level X
Codes :
P Q R S P Q R S
(A) 2 1 1 3 (B) 2 1 4 3
(C) 4 1 1 3 (D) 2 1 3 4
44. MATCH THE FOLLOWING :
Column 1 Column 2
(P) Hydrostatic force on the side wall of the cubical vessel, = density of 1. A v 2
liquid
(Q) Buoyant force on the cube, = density of liquid 2. 1
A v 2
2
(R) Impact (reaction) force on the vessel by the liquid coming out of the 3. ghA
vessel, = density of liquid
(S) Aerodynamic force acting on the flat roof surface of area A, = density 4. 1
ghA
of air 2
APP | Physics 55 Liquids
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Codes :
P Q R S P Q R S
(A) 4 3 2 1 (B) 4 1 1 1
(C) 4 3 1 2 (D) 4 2 1 3
45. MATCH THE FOLLOWING :
A cylindrical piston of length l and radius R is rotated with constant velocity in a cylindrical tube of radius R h
(where h R ) filled with oil.
Column I Column-II
2l R 2
(A) Shearing stress (p)
h
2lR 3
(B) Force (q)
h
R
(C) Torque (r)
h
22 lR3
(D) Power (s)
h
SUBJECTIVE INTEGER TYPE
46. The side wall of a wide vertical vessel of height h 75 cm has a narrow vertical slit running all
the way down to the bottom of the vessel. The length of the slit is l 50 cm and the width
b 1.0 mm. With the slit closed, the vessel is filled with water. Find the resultant force of
reaction of the water flowing out the vessel immediately after the slit is opened.
47. A wooden plank of length 1 m and uniform cross section is hinged at one end
to the bottom of a tank as shown in the figure. The tank is filled with water up
to a height of 0.5 m. The specific gravity of the plank is 0.5. If is the angle
that the plank makes with the vertical equilibrium position. (Exclude the case
1
0 ). Find the value of .
cos 2
48. n drops of water, each of radius 2mm, fall through air at a terminal velocity of 8 cm/s. If they coalesce to form a single
drop, then the terminal velocity of the combined drop is 32 cm/s. The value of n is __________.
49. Cylindrical vessel of height H( > 10 m) has an orifice (small hole) at its bottom. The orifice is initially closed and water
is filled in it up to height H. Now the top is completely sealed with a cap and the orifice at the bottom is opened.
Some water comes out from the orifice and the water level in the vessel becomes steady with height of water column
being (n + 4) in m. Find n.
[Take atmospheric pressure = 1.0 105 N/m2, density of water = 1000 kg/m3 and g = 10m/s2. Neglect any effect of
surface tension.]
50. A body floats with (1/3) of its volume outside water when submerged in water and (5/9) of its volume outside another
liquid when submerged in another liquid. If density of liquid is n 103 (kg/m3 ), find n.
APP | Physics 56 Liquids
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51. A fixed cylindrical tank having large cross-section area is filled with two liquids of densities and 2 and in equal
h
volumes as shown in the figure. A small hole of area of cross-section a 6 cm 2 is made at height from the
2
bottom. Find the area of cross-section of stream of liquid in cm 2 just before it hits the ground.
52. A cube (density 0.5 gm/cc) of side 10 cm is floating in water kept in a cylinderical beaker of base area 1500 cm 2 . When
a mass m is kept on wooden block the level of water rises in the beaker by 2 mm. Find the mass m (in gm).
53. In a tank of horizontal cross-sectional area 1 m2 , a spring with force constant 2000 Nm 1 is fixed in vertical position
upto the height of the water as shown in figure 1. A block of mass 180 kg is gently placed over the spring and it attains
the equilibrium position as shown in figure 2. If base area of the block is 0.2 m 2 and height 60 cm, then find
compression in the spring in cm in equilibrium position. (Take g 10 m/s2 , w 1000 kg/m3 )
54. A ballon has a volume of 0.09 m3 below the surface of the water (density 103 kg/m3 ) at a depth of 40 m. If the
temperature remains constant, what is its volume in m3 when it is at the surface where the pressure is 1105 N/m 2 ?
55. A rectangular bar of soap has density 800 kg/m3 floats in water of density 1000 kg/m3 . Oil of density 300 kg/m3 is
slowly addes, forming a layer that does not mix with the water. When the top surface of the oil is at the same level as
the top surface of the soap, what is the ratio of the oil layer thickness to the soap’s thickness, x / L ?
56. Two spheres of volume 250 cc each but of relative densities 0.8 and 1.2 are connected by a string and the combination
is immersed in a liquid in vertical position as shown in figure. The tension in the string is (in N) ( g 10 m/s2 )
57. A barometer of length 0.99 m reads 0.76 m. The volume of air measured at atmospheric pressure to be introduced into
space to cause the length of mercury column to drop to 0.57 m is in cm3 (the cross-section of the barometer tube is
0.1cm 2 )?
58. A sphere of radius 10 cm and density 500 kg/m3 is under water of density 1000 kg/m3 . The acceleration of the sphere
is 9.80 m/s 2 upward. Viscosity of water is 1.0 centipoise. If g 9.81m/s 2 , the velocity of the sphere in m/s is _____.
APP | Physics 57 Liquids
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59. A soap bubble is being blown on a tube of radius 1 cm. The surface tension of the soap solution is 0.05 N/m and the
bubble makes an angle of 60° with the tube as shown. The excess of pressure over the atmospheric pressure in the tube
is______ (in Pa)
60. A thin horizontal movable plate is separated from two fixed horizontal plates P1 and P2 by two highly viscous liquids of
coefficient of viscosity 1 and 2 as shown, where 2 41. Area of contact of movable plate with each fluid is same.
If the distance between two fixed plates is h, and the distance of movable plate from upper fixed plate such that the
movable plate can be moved with a constant velocity by applying a minimum constant horizontal force F on movable
plate is h, then h/h1, is ____. (assume velocity gradient to be uniform in each liquid)
APP | Physics 58 Liquids
Vidyamandir Classes
Advanced Problem Package Properties of Matter
SINGLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE
Each of the following Question has 4 choices A, B, C & D, out of which ONLY ONE Choice is Correct.
1. A uniform rod rotating in gravity free region with certain constant angular velocity. The variation of tensile stress with
distance x form axis of rotation is best represented by which of the following graphs:
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2. Ice at 0C is to be added to 200 g of water initially at 70C in a vacuum flask. When 50 g of ice has been added and
has all melted the temperature of the flask and content is 40C. When a further 80g of ice has been added and all it
melted, the temperature of the whole content is 10C. Calculate the specific latent heat of fusion of ice.
Take S w 1 cal / gm C.
(A) 3.8 105 J / kg (B) 1.2 105 J / kg (C) 2.4 105 J / kg (D) 3.0 105 J / kg
3. The specific heat of a metal at low temperatures varies according to S = aT3 where a is a constant and T is the absolute
temperature. The heat energy needed to raise temperature of unit mass of the metal from T = 1 K to T = 2 K is:
15a 2a 12a
(A) 3a (B) (C) (D)
4 3 5
4. A thin copper wire of length L increase in length by 1% when heated from temperature T1 to T2. What is the percentage
change in area when a thin copper plate having dimensions 2L L is heated from T1 to T2?
(A) 1% (B) 2% (C) 3% (D) 4%
5. A rod of length 2m at 0C and having expansion coefficient 3 x 2 10 6 C 1 where x is the distance (in cm)
from one end of rod. The length of rod at 20C is :
(A) 2.124 m (B) 3.24 m (C) 2.0120 m (D) 3.124 m
6. A cylinder of radius R made of a material of thermal conductivity k1 is surrounded by a cylindrical shell of inner radius
R and outer radius 2R made of a material of thermal conductivity k2. The two ends of the combined system are
maintained at different temperatures. There is no loss of heat from the cylindrical surface and the system is in steady
state. The effective thermal conductivity of the system is:
k1k2 1
(A) k1 k2 (B) (C) k1 3k2 (D) 3k1 k2
k1 k2 4 4
7. A rod of length L and uniform cross-sectional area has varying thermal conductivity which changes linearly from 2K at
end A to K at the other end B. The end A and B of the rod are maintained at constant temperature
100C and 0C, respectively. At steady state, the graph of temperature : T = T(x) where x distance from end A will be
:
(A) (B) (C) (D)
APP | Physics 59 Properties of Matter
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8. A long solid cylinder is radiating power. It is remolded into a number of smaller cylinders, each of which has the same
length as original cylinder. Each small cylinder has the same temperature as the original cylinder. The total radiant
power emitted by the pieces is twice that emitted by the original cylinder. How many smaller cylinders are there?
Neglect the energy emitted by the flat faces of cylinder.
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6
9. A black body calorimeter filled with hot water cools from 60C to 50C in 4 min and 40C to 30C in 8 min. The
approximate temperature of surrounding is :
(A) 10C (B) 15C (C) 20C (D) 25C
10. A uniform rod of mass m and length is rotating with constant angular velocity about an axis which passes through
its one end and perpendicular to the length of rod. The area of cross section of the rod is A and its Young’s modulus is Y
(neglect gravity). The strain at the mid point of the rod is :
m 2 3m 2 3m 2 m 2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
8 AY 8 AY 4 AY 4 AY
2 8
11. A steel wire with cross section 3 cm has elastic limit 2.4 10 pa. The maximum upward acceleration that can be given
to 1200 kg elevator supported by this cable if the stress is not to exceed 1/3rd of the elastic limit is : (g = 10 m/s2)
(A) 9ms 2 (B) 10ms 2 (C) 11ms 2 (D) 12ms 2
12. Two metallic spheres S1 and S2 are made of the same material and have got identical surface finish. The mass of S1 is
thrice that of S2. Both the spheres are heated to the same high temperature and placed in the same room having lower
temperature but are thermally insulated from each other. The ratio of the initial rate of cooling of S1 to that of S2 is:
1/ 3
1 1 3 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
3 3 1 3
13. A clock with an iron pendulum and periodic time 1 sec keeps correct time at 10C. The error in seconds per day if the
temperature is 20C is : (Take = 10 106/C)
(A) 4.32 sec (B) 8.64sec (C) 2 sec (D) 1 sec
14. The temperature of a well stirred liquid kept open to a cold surrounding is plotted against time. The value of sec2 1 is:
(A) 1 9 tan 2 2
(B) 1 tan 2 2
(C) 1 3 tan 2 2
(D) 3 tan 2 2
15. Select the correct statement on the basis of the given graph :
(A) Young’s modulus of A is greater but it is less ductile
(B) Young’s modulus of A is greater and it is more ductile
(C) Young’s modulus of A is less and it is less ductile
(D) Young’s modulus of A is less but it is more ductile
APP | Physics 60 Properties of Matter
Vidyamandir Classes
MULTIPLE CORRECT ANSWERS TYPE
Each of the following Question has 4 choices A, B, C & D, out of which ONE or MORE Choices may be Correct:
16. Which of the following are correct ?
(A) The bulk modulus of an incompressible liquid is infinity.
(B) Bulk modulus of a perfectly rigid body is infinity.
(C) According to Hooke's law, the ratio of the stress and strain remains constant.
(D) None of the above
17. The water equivalent of a copper calorimeter is 4.5 g. If the specific heat of copper is 0.09 cal / g / C
(A) mass of the calorimeter is 0.5 kg (B) thermal capacity of the calorimeter is 4.5 cal / C
(C) heat required to raise the temperature of the calorimeter by 8C will be 36 cal
(D) heat required to melt 15 g of ice at 0°C placed in the calorimeter will be 1200 cal
18. A composite rod consists of a steel rod of length 25 cm and area 2A and a copper rod of length 50 cm and area A are
joined end to end. The composite rod is subjected to an axial load F. If the Young’s modulus of steel and copper are in the
ratio 2:1, then:
(A) The extension produced in copper rod will be more.
(B) The extension in copper and steel parts will be in the ratio 2 :1.
(C) The stress in the copper rod will be more.
(D) No extension will be produced.
19. Four rods A, B, C, D of same length and material but of different radii r, r 2 , r 3 , and 2r respectively are held
between two rigid walls. The temperature of all rods is increased by same amount. If the rods do not bend, then
(A) The stress in the rods are in the ratio 1: 2 : 3: 4.
(B) The force on the rod exerted by the wall are in the ratio 1: 2 : 3: 4.
(C) The energy stored in the rods due to elasticity are in the ratio 1: 2 : 3: 4.
(D) The strains produced in the rods are in the ratio 1: 2 : 3: 4.
20. Heat is supplied to a certain homogenous sample of matter, at a uniform rate. Its temperature is plotted against time, as
shown. Which of the following conclusions can be drawn?
(A) Its specific heat capacity is greater in the solid state than in the liquid state
(B) Its specific heat capacity is greater in the liquid state than in the solid state
(C) Its latent heat of vaporization is greater than its latent heat of fusion
(D) Its latent heat of vaporization is smaller than its latent heat of fusion
21. One end of a conducting rod is maintained at temperature 50C and at other end, ice is melting at 0C. The rate of
melting of ice is doubled if :
(A) The temperature is made 200C and the area of cross-section of the rod is halved
(B) The temperature is made 100C and length of rod is made four times
(C) Area of cross-section of rod is halved and length is doubled
(D) The temperature is made 100C and the area of cross-section of rod and length both are doubled.
APP | Physics 61 Properties of Matter
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22. Two metallic spheres A and B are made of same material and have got identical surface finish. The mass of sphere A is
four time that of B. Both the sphere are heated to the same temperature and placed in a room having lower temperature
but thermally insulated from each other.
(A) The ratio of rate of heat loss of A to that of B is 24/3.
(B) The ratio of rate of heat loss of A to that of B is 22/3.
2 / 3
(C) The ratio of the initial rate of cooling of A to that of B is 2
(D) The ratio of the initial rate of cooling of A to that of B is 24 / 3.
23. Iron floats over mercury because density of mercury is more than the density of iron. Coefficient of volumetric
expansion of iron and mercury are 35 10 6C 1 and 180 10 6C 1 . Now consider an iron cube floating in a bowl of
mercury at 0C . When temperature is increased upto 25C , then choose the correct options.
(A) Cube is submerged more at 25C
(B) Cube is submerged less at 25C
(C) Percentage change in the fraction of volume submerged is about 1%
(D) Percentage change in the fraction of volume submerged is about 0.4%
24. A sample A of liquid water and a sample B of ice of identical mass are kept in two
neighbouring chambers in an otherwise insulated container. The chambers can
exchange heat with each other. The graph of temperatures of the two chambers is
S
plotted with time. Sice water .
2
(A) Finally the contents in sample A is water
(B) Equilibrium temperature is freezing point of water
(C) Ice melts partly
(D) Finally the contents in sample B is ice only
25. Two surfaces of same nature and area but of different material are heated to same temperature. They are allowed to cool
dQ d
down in same surroundings. If represents rate of loss of heat and represents rate of fall of temperature, then
dt dt
initially for both :
dQ dQ d d
(A) is same (B) is different (C) is same (D) is diferent
dt dt dt dt
26. Four identical rods which have thermally insulated lateral surfaces are joined at
point A. Points B, C , D and E are connected to large reservoirs. If heat flows
into the junction from point B at rate of 1 W and from point C at 3W inside,
flows out from D at 5W , which relation(s) is/are correct for temperature of
these points?
(A) TA TE (B) TB TC (C) TC TD (D) TB TE
27. There is a rectangular metal plate in which two cavities in the shape of
rectangle and circle are made, as shown with dimensions. P and Q are
centres of these cavities. On heating the plate, which of the following
quantities increase ?
(A) r2 (B) ab
(C) R (D) b
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28. The two ends of a uniform rod of thermal conductivity k are maintained at different but constant temperatures. The
d
temperature gradient at any point on the rod is (equal to the difference in temperature per unit length). The heat
dl
flow per unit cross-section of the rod is I then which of the following statements is/are correct :
d
(A) is the same for all points on the rod
dl
(B) I will decrease as we move from higher to lower temperature
d
(C) I k
dl
(D) All the above options are incorrect
29. A bimetallic strip is made up to two metals with different :
(A) On heating, it bends towards the metal with high
(B) On heating, it bends towards the metal with low
(C) On cooling, it bends towards the metal with high
(D) On cooling, it bends towards the metal with low
30. Two spherical black A and B, having radii rA and rB 2rA emit radiation with peak intensities at wavelength 400 nm
and 800 nm respectively. If their temperature are TA and TB respectively in Kelvin scale, their emissive powers are
E A and EB then :
TA TA EA EA
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 8 (D) 4
TB TB EB EB
Paragraph for Q. 31 - 33
Figure shows three containers. The leftmost container contains water (heat Heater
capacity = 5cal / C), initially at temperature 100 C. The middle container
contains water maintained at 80 C with the help of a heater. The container at
A B
the right handside contain ice at 0C . There are two heat conducting rods A
and B both having thermal resistance equal to 10C sec/cal. Discard any heat Water at100 C
Water at 80 C ice at 0 C
loss in the surrounding (Latent heat of fusion of ice = 80 cal/gr)
31. Initially what is the power of heater required to maintain the temperature of middle container at 80 C .
(A) 12 cal/sec (B) 6 cal/sec (C) 18 cal/sec (D) 20 cal/sec
32. Find the rate with which ice melts in the rightmost container.
(A) 0.1 g/sec (B) 1 g/sec (C) 10 g/sec (D) 8 g/sec
33. The temperature of water in the leftmost container decreases with time. The rate with which the ice melts in the
rightmost container :
(A) will decrease with time (B) will increase with time
(C) will remain steady (D) will increases and then decrease
Paragraph for Q. 34 - 36
A body cools in a surrounding of constant temperature 30°C. Its heat capacity is 2 J/°C. Initial temperature of the body is 40°C.
Assume Newton’s law of cooling is valid. The body cools to 36°C in 10 minutes.
34. In futher 10 minutes it will cool from 36°C to :
(A) 34.8 °C (B) 32.1 °C (C) 32.8 °C (D) 33.6 °C
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35. The temperature of the body in °C denoted by versus time t is best denoted as :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
36. When the body temperature has reached 36°C, it is heated again so that it reaches to 40 °C in 10 minutes. Assume that
the rate of loss of heat at 38 °C is the average rate of loss for the given time. The total heat required from a heater by the
body is:
(A) 7.2 J (B) 0.728 J (C) 16 J (D) 32 J
Paragraph for Q. 37-39
Figure shows the relationship between tensile stress and strain for a typical material. Below the proportional point A, stress is
directily proportional to strain which means Young’s modulus (Y) is a constant. In this region the material obeys Hooke’s law.
Provided the strain is below the yield point `B the material returns to its
original shape and size when the force is removed. Beyond the yield point, the
material retains a permanent deformation after the stress is removed. For
stresses beyond the yield point, the material exhibit plastic flow, which means
that it coninues to elongate for little increases in the stress.Beyond C a local
constriction occurs. The material fractures at D (i.e., breaking point).
The graph below shows the stress-strain curve for 4 different materials.
37. Material which is good for making wire making wires by stretching, is:
(A) Material-I (B) Material-II (C) Material-III (D) Material-IV
38. Material which is most brittle, is:
(A) Material-I (B) Material-II (C) Material-III (D) Material-IV
39. If you bought a new shoe which bites in the beginning and later on fits perfectly, then the material used to making the
shoe is:
(A) Material-I (B) Material-II (C) Material-III (D) Material-IV
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Paragraph for Q. 40-42
At 20 °C a liquid is filled upto 10 cm height in a container of glass of
length 20 cm and cross-sectional area 100 cm 2 . Scale is marked on the
surface of container. This scale gives correct reading at 20 °C. Given
L 5 105 k 1 , g 1 105 C 1
40. The volume of liquid at 40 °C is:
(A) 1002 cm (B) 1001 cc (C) 1003 cc (D) 1000.5 cc
41. The actual height of liquid at 40 °C is:
(A) 10.01 cm (B) 10.006 cm (C) 10.6 cm (D) 10.1 cm
42. The reading of scale at 40 °C is:
(A) 10.01 cm (B) 10.004 cm (C) 10.006 cm (D) 10.04 cm
MATRIX MATCH TYPE
Each of the following question contains statements given in two columns, which have to be matched. Statements in Column
1 are labelled as (A), (B), (C) & (D) whereas statements in Column 2 are labeled as p, q, r, s & t. More than one choice from
Column 2 can be matched with Column 1.
43. A bar of cross-sectional area A is subjected to equal and opposite tensile forces at its ends. Consider a plane section (PS)
of the bar, whose normal makes an angle with the axis (axis is along the length) of the bar.
Column I Column II
(A) Shearing stress on PS (p) F
cos 2
A
(B) Tensile stress on PS (q) 0°
(C) The tensile stress is maximum for (r) F
sin cos
A
(D) The shearing stress is maximum for (s) 45°
44. Consider a wire of length l, cross-sectional area A and Young's modulus Y and match Column 1 with Column 2 :
Column-1 Column-2
(A) If the wire is pulled at its ends by equal and opposite forces of (p) Young's modulus Y
magnitude F so that it undergoes an elongation x, according to
Hooke's law. F kx , where (k) of the wire will depend on
(B) Let us suspend the wire vertically from a rigid support and (q) Elongation (x)
attach a mass m at its lower end. If the mass is slightly pulled
down and released, it executes S.H.M. of a time period that will
depend on
(C) If the given wire is fixed between two rigid supports and its (r) Length (l)
temperature is decreased thermal stress that develops in the
wire will depend on.
(D) Work done in stretching the wire to a new length (l + x) will (s) Area of cross-section (A)
depend on
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45. In column-I, certain situations are depicted where steam at 100°C is used to melt ice at 0°C by means of a conducting
body which is insulated to prevent heat losses to surrounding. Match the numerical value of question asked in each
entry to the corresponding entry I column-II. Symbols have usual meaning.
Column I Column II
(A) (p) 10
Find temperature of interface of two rods in °C.
(B) (q) 20
Find total rate of heat transfer through the two
rods in SI units.
(C) (r) 30
Find thermal resistance in SI units
(D) (s) 40
Hollow cylinder of k W/mk
10
Find temperature gradients in SI units.
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NUMERICAL VALUE TYPE
46. Two opposite forces F1 = 120 N and F2 = 80 N act on an elastic plank
of modulus of elasticity Y 2 1011 N / m 2 and length l = 1 m
placed over a smooth horizontal surface. The cross - sectional area of
the plank is S = 0.5 m2. The change in length of the plank is
x 109 m . Find the value of x.
47. A ring of radius r made of wire density is rotated about a stationary vertical
axis passing through its centre and perpendicular to the plane of the ring as shown
in the figure. Determine the angular velocity (in rad/s) of ring at which the ring
breaks. The wire breaks at tensile stress . Ignore gravity. Take / = 4 in SI
unit, and r 1 m .
48. 2 kg of ice at 15C is mixed with 2.5 kg of water at 25C in an insulating container. If the specific heat capacities of
ice and water are 0.5 cal / g C and 1 cal / g C find the amount of water present in the container (in kg) ?
49. Four cylindrical rods of same material with length and radius , r 2 r 2 2r and 2r are connected
between two reservoirs at 0C and100C . Find the ratio of the maximum to minimum rate of conduction in them.
50. In two experiments with a continuous flow calorimeter to determine the specific heat capacity of a liquid, an input
power of 16 W produced a rise of 10 K in the liquid. When the power was doubled, the same temperature rise was
achieved by making the rate of flow of liquid three times faster. Find the power lost (in W) to the surrounding in each
case.
51. A solid sphere of radius R made of material of bulk modulus K is surrounded by a liquid in a cylindrical container. A
massless piston of area A floats on the surface of the liquid. When a mass m is placed on the piston to compress the
liquid, the fractional change in the radius of the sphere R / R is given by mg/nAK. Where n is :
52. A clock with a metallic pendulum at 15C run faster by 5 s each day and at 33C , runs slow by 10 s. Find the
coefficient of liner expansion of the metal. (nearly in 105 / C )
53. A body is cooled in 2min in a room at temperature of 30C from 75C to 65C . If the same body is cooled from
55C to 45C in the same room, find the time taken (in minute).
54. Three conducting rods of same material and cross-section are shown in figure. Temperature
of A, D and C are maintained at 20C, 80C and 0C respectively. Find the ratio of length
BD and BC if there is no heat flow in AB.
262
55. In a container of negligible heat capacity, 200 gm ice at 0°C and gm steam at 100°C are added to 200 gm of water
3
that has temperature 55°C. Assume no heat is lost to the surroundings and the pressure in the container is constant 1.0
atm. ( L f 80 cal / gm, Lv 540 cal / gm, sw 1 cal / gm C). Find the amount (in gm) of the steam left in the system.
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56. A heating curve has been plotted for a solid object as shown in the figure. If the mass of the object is 200 g, then latent
n
heat of vaporization for the material of the object, is 106 J/kg. [Power supplied to the object is constant and equal to
2
1 kW]. Find the value of n.
57. A 30.0 cm long metal rod expands by 0.0650 cm when its temperture is raised from 0°C to 100°C. A second rod of
different metal and of the same length expands by 0.0350 cm for the same rise in temeprature. A third composite rod,
also 30.0 cm long, is made-up of pieces of each of the above metals placed end to end and expands by 0.0580 cm when
temperature is increased from 0°C to 100 °C. Find the length of the smaller portion of the composite bar (in cm) at 0°C.
58. A block is hung by means of two identical wires having cross-sectional area A (1 mm 2 ) as shown in the diagram. If
temperture is lowered by T (10 °C), find the mass (in kg) to be added to hanging mass such that junction remains at
initial position. Given that coefficient of linear expansion 2 105 / C and Young’s modulus Y 5 1011 N/m 2
N
for the wire. If your answer is N , find the value of .
3
59. Liquid cools from 50°C to 45°C in 5 minutes and from 45°C to 41.5°C in the next 5 minutes. Calculate the temperature
of surrounding.
60. A body which has a surface area 5.0 cm 2 and a temperature 727°C radiates 300 J of energy each minute. What is its
emissivity? Stefan constant 5.67 10 8 W / m 2 K 4
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Advanced Problem Package Gaseous State & Thermodynamics
SINGLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE
Each of the following Question has 4 choices A, B, C & D, out of which ONLY ONE Choice is Correct.
1. For a given thermodynamic process, the P – V diagram is as shown below:
Which of the following is the V – T diagram for the process?
A B
A B : isobaric
B C : adiabatic
P C C A : isothermal
V
C C
C C
B
B B A
V V V V
A A B A
T T T T
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2. An insulated container is divided into two equal portions. One portion contains an ideal monoatomic gas at pressure
P and temperature T, while the other portion is a perfect vacuum. If a hole is opened between the two portions, the
change in internal energy of the gas is
(A) zero (B) equal to work done by the gas
(C) equal to work done on the gas (D) 3RT/2
3. A cyclic process ABCD shown in V-P diagram with two adiabatic and two isothermal process for n mole of
Pb
monoatomic gas is shown in the figure. The ratio of is : V
Pc Vb
b
1
Pa Pa Vc c
(A) (B)
Pd Va a
Pd Vd d
Pd Pd
(C) (D)
Pa P
Pa Pb Pa Pc Pd
4. When the state of a system changes from A to B adiabatically the work done on the system is 322 Joule. If the state
of the same system is changed from A to B by another process, and 100 Joules of heat is required then work done
on the system in this process will be
(A) 222 Joule (B) 38.2 Joule (C) 15.9 Joule (D) 15.9 Joule
5. If a monoatomic gas undergoes a thermodynamic process for which its molar heat capacity is equal to the universal
gas constant. The process in terms of V and T is
(A) VT-1/2 = constant (B) VT1/2 = constant
(C) V2 T2 = constant (D) VT = constant
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6. An ideal gas is initially at a temperature T and volume V. Its volume is increased by V due to an increase in
V
temperature T , pressure remains constant. The quantity varies with temperature as :
VT
T T T T
(A) (B) (C) (D)
7. The average degree of freedom per molecule of a gas is 6. The gas performs 25 J of work, at constant pressure. The
heat absorbed by the gas is
(A) 75 J (B) 100 J (C) 150 J (D) 125 J
8. An ideal gas has molar heat capacity Cv at constant volume. The gas undergo the process T T0 1 V where
, T0 is constant and V is volume. Then molar heat capacity of the gas is :
R R
(A) CV 1 V (B) CV 1 V
V V
R R
(C) CV 1 V (D) CV 1 V
2V 2V
9. A gaseous mixture consists of 2 moles of O2 and 4 moles of Ar at a temperature T. Neglecting all vibrational moles,
the total internal energy of the system is
(A) 4RT (B) 15RT (C) 9RT (D) 11RT
10. Figure shows two processes A and B in a system. Let Q1 and Q2 be heat given to the P
system in processes A and B, respectively, then A
(A) QA > QB (B) QA = QB i f
(C) QA < QB (D) QA QB B
V
11. The pressure and density of a diatomic gas ( = 7/5) change adiabatically from (P,) to (P,). If / = 32, then
P/P should be:
(A) 1/128 (B) 128 (C) 32 (D) None
12. The relation between internal energy U, pressure P and volume V of a gas in an adiabatic process is
U a bPV where a and b are constants. What is the value of the ratio of the specific heats ?
a b1 1 b
(A) (B) (C) (D)
b b
13. In the figure, the gas does 5J of work along isothermal process ab and 4 joule of work
along adiabatic process bc. Then the change in the internal energy of the gas if the gas
follows the straight path from a to c is :
(A) 9J (B) 9J
(C) 4J (D) None of these
14. The velocity of sound in a gas at NTP is 0.68 times the rms velocity of the gas molecule at NTP. The number of
degrees of freedom of the molecules is :
(A) 5 (B) 6 (C) 3 (D) 4
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15. A cylinder made of perfectly conducting material closed at both ends is divided into two equal parts by a heat proof
piston. Both parts of the cylinder contain the same masses of a gas at a temperature t0 = 27 and pressure
P0 = 1 atm. Now if the gas in one of the parts is slowly heated to t = 57 C, the distance moved by the piston from
the middle of the cylinder will be (length of the cylinder = 84 cm)
(A) 3 cm (B) 5cm (C) 2 cm (D) 1 cm
MULTIPLE CORRECT ANSWERS TYPE
Each of the following Question has 4 choices A, B, C & D, out of which ONE or MORE Choices may be Correct:
16. Two gases have the same initial pressure, volume and temperature. They expand to the same final volume, one
adiabatically and the other isothermal.
(A) the final temperature is greater for the isothermal process
(B) the final pressure is greater for the isothermal process
(C) the work done by the gas is greater for the isothermal process.
(D) all the above options are incorrect
17. The molar heat capacity for an ideal gas
(A) is zero for an adiabatic process
(B) is infinite for an isothermal process
(C) depends only on the nature of the gas for a process in which either volume or pressure is constant
(D) is equal to the product of the molecular weight and specific heat capacity for any process
18. A system undergoes a cyclic process in which it absorbs heat, Q1 and gives out heat, Q2. The efficiency of the
process is and the work done is W.
W Q2 Q2
(A) W Q1 Q2 (B) (C) (D) 1
Q1 Q1 Q1
19. An ideal gas is taken from the state A (pressure P, volume V) to the state B Y
(pressure P/2, volume 2V) along a straight line path in the PV diagram. Select A
P
the correct statement (s) from the following P
(A) The work done by the gas in the process A to B exceeds the work that P/2 B
would be done by it, if the system were taken from A to B along the
isotherm.
(B) In the TV diagram, the path AB becomes a part of parabola. O V 2V X
V
(C) In the PT diagram, the path AB becomes a hyperbola.
(D) In going from A to B, then temperature T of the gas first increase maximum value and then decrease.
20. Two adiabatic processes bc and ad for the same gas are given to intersect two isotherms at T1 and T2 (as shown).
Then
a
P b
T1
d c T2
Va Vd Vb Vc
V
1
Va T2 Va T1 Vb T2 1
(A) (B) (C) (D) VaVc VbVd
Vb T1 Vd T2 Vc T1
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21. The diagram shown depicts three different states 1, 2 & 3 for an ideal gas. It is
also known that temperatures at states (1) & (2) are same. Then:
(A) 1 2 is an isothermal expansion process
3
(B) 13 is an expansion process and is accompanied by cooling
2
(C) 3 2 is an expansion process accompanied by cooling
(D) internal energy must increase in process 1 3
22. 2 moles of He are mixed with 2 moles of H 2 in a closed adiabatic container. Initially the mixture occupies 3 liters
3
at 27°C. The volume is suddenly decreased to liters. Choose the correct option(s) ( H 2 and He can be treated
2
as ideal gases) :
3
(A) for mixture is
2
(B) final temperature 300 2K
(C) CP for mixture is 2R
(D) Work done in compression is totally converted into internal energy
23. A closed container is fully insulated from outside. One half of it is filled with an ideal gas X separated by a plate
P from the other half Y which contains a vacuum as shown in figure. When P is removed, X moves into Y .
Which of the following statements is correct ?
(A) No work is done by X (B) X decreases in temperature
(C) X increases in internal energy (D) X pressure becomes half
7 4
24. Two moles of O2 at temperature T0 and 3 mole of CO2 at temperature 2T0 are allowed to mix
5 3
together in a closed adiabatic vessel. The resulting mixture finally comes in thermal equilibrium. Then :
23T0
(A) Final temperature of the mixture is
14
31T0
(B) Final temperature of the mixture is
19
14
(C) Adiabatic exponent of the mixture formed is
5
19
(D) Adiabatic exponent of the mixture formed is
14
25. Figure shows various processes in the PV -plane for an ideal gas. The process
ADC is an adiabatic, AB is an isotherm, and BC is a constant-volume
process. The heat added to the gas along AB is 400 cal. The change in internal
energy from C to A is + 1000 cal and the work done from D to C is 150 cal
(A) work done by the gas from A to B is 400 cal
(B) heat added to the system from B to C is –1000 cal
(C) the change in internal energy from C to D is 150 cal
(D) work done by the gas from D to A is 850 cal
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P2
26. During experiment, an ideal gas is found to obey a condition constant [ = density of the gas]. The gas is
iminitially at temeprature T , pressure P and density . The gas expands such that density changes to .
2
(A) The pressure of the gas changes to 2P
(B) The temperature of the gas changes to 2T
(C) The graph of the above process on the P-T diagram is parabola
(D) The graph of the above process on the P-T diagram is hyperbola
27. One mole of an ideal monoatomic gas is taken through process AB given by P V 2 (where and are
positive constants) on P -V diagram. Which of the following is the correct statement regarding the given process?
(A) Temperature is maximum at V
3
(B) Temperature is minimum at V
3
(C) At point A rate of increase of temperature of gas with volume is more than at point B
(D) Rate of increase of temperature of gas with volume is maximum at V
28. Two moles of helium gas is taken through the cycle ABCDA as shown in
the figure. If TA 1000 K , 2PA 3PB 6 PC .
(A) work done by the gas in the process A to B is 3741 J
(B) heat lost by the gas in the process B to C is 10600 J
(C) temperature TD is 2000 K
(D) None of the above
29. One mole of monoatomic gas is taken through cyclic process shown below.
TA 300 K . Process AB is defined as PT constant.
(A) Work done in process AB is 400 R
(B) Change in internal energy in process CA is 900 R
(C) Heat transferred in the process BC is 2000 R
(D) Change in internal energy in process CA is 900 R
30. A sample of ideal gas of some mass is taken through the cyclic process shown in the figure. The temperature of the
gas at state A is TA 200 K , and at state C is TC 1800 K . Choose the correct option :
VA 1 VA 1 PAVA 1 PAV A 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
VC 3 VB 9 PCVC 3 PCVC 9
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Paragraph for Questions 31 - 32
When we look at the sky in a clear night, we find the sky full of stars, filling every portion of the sky almost uniformly. But
on a very careful observation through highly sophisticated instruments, one would observe dark areas in portions of the
observable universe devoid of stars. Such a region is known as a dark nebula. A dark nebula is basically a cold gas cloud in
interstellar space that contains enough material to block out light from stars behind it. A typical dark nebula is about 20 light
years in diameter and contains about 50 hydrogen atoms per cubic centimeter (monatomic hydrogen, not H2) at a temperature
of about 20 K. (A light year is the distance light travels in vacuum in one year and is equal to 9.46 1015m.)
31. What would be the RMS speed of monatomic hydrogen?
(A) 653 m/s (B) 689 m/s (C) 703 m/s (D) 741 m/s
32. What would be the pressure inside a dark nebula?
(A) 1.4 1012 Pa (B) 2.8 1014 Pa (C) 2.8 1012 Pa (D) 1.4 1014 Pa
Paragraph for Q.33 - 35
A conducting piston divides adiabatic cylinder of volume V0 into two equal parts
as shown in the figure. Both parts contain ideal monatomic gases. The initial P0, T0 2P0, 2T0
pressure and temperature of gas in left compartment are P0 and T0 while that in
right compartment are 2P0 and 2T0. Initially the piston is kept fixed and the system
is allowed to acquire a state of thermal equilibrium.
33. The pressure in left compartment after thermal equilibrium is achieved is :
3 4
(A) P0 (B) P0 (C) P0 (D) None of these
2 3
34. The heat that flown from right compartment to left compartment before thermal equilibrium is achieved is :
3 3 2
(A) P0V0 (B) P0V0 (C) P0V0 (D) P0V0
4 8 3
35. If the pin which was keeping the piston fixed is removed and the piston is allowed to slide slowly such that a state
of mechanical equilibrium is achieved. The volume of left compartment when piston is in equilibrium.
3 V0 V0 2
(A) V0 (B) (C) (D) V0
4 4 2 3
Paragraph for Questions 36 - 37
An ideal diatomic gas is filled in a piston. The number of moles is n. An unknown process `P the coefficient of volume
3
expansion is found to depend on absolute temperature T as per the relation .
T
36. For process `P the molar specific heat of gas would be:
7 9 11
(A) R (B) R (C) R (D) None of these
2 2 2
37. If from initial state A, the gas is expanded via process `P to double its volume and reach state B. Then volume is
changed isobarically to reach state C and then via isothermal compression the gas is brought back to state A. Thus
a cyclic process is created, and if a heat engine uses such a process. The efficiency of such an engine would be:
(Given : ln 2 = 0.7, (2)1/2 1.4 )
(A) 7.2 % (B) 12.5 % (C) 20.5 % (D) 25.2 %
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Paragraph for Questions 38 - 39
A piston enclose some diatomic gas in the cyclindrical vessel with horizontal longitudinal axis as shown in the drawing. The
initial pressure of the air is equal to the external atmospheric pressure of 105 Pa. The cross-sectional area of the piston is
0.03 m 2 . An originally unstreted spring with spring constant 2000 N/m is attached to the piston. The walls of the vessel and
the piston are perfectly insulated. The initial volume of the enclosed air is 0.024 m3 and its initial temperature is
300 K. The air is heated to 360 K with a heating filament built into the vessel.
38. Find the displacement of the piston caused by the heating.
(A) 0.1 m (B) 0.2 m (C) 0.5 m (D) 0.3 m
39. Find the energy delivered by the heating filament.
(A) 1000 J (B) 1200 J (C) 1400 J (D) 1510 J
Paragraph for Questions 40 - 42
An ideal gas with the ratio of its specific heats , undergoes a process in which its internal energy U is given by
U aV where a and are constants.
40. If the internal energy of the gas increases by U , find the amount of heat Q, needed to be given :
U 1
(A) Q U (B) Q (C) Q U 1 (D) Q U 1
41. The work W performed by the gas when its internal energy increased by U :
U ( 1) U
(A) W U (B) W (C) W (D) W 0
42. The molar specific heat C of the gas during the process :
R R Cv R R
(A) C (B) C (C) C (D) C
1 1
MATRIX MATCH TYPE
Each of the following question contains statements given in two columns, which have to be matched. Statements in
Column 1 are labelled as (A), (B), (C) & (D) whereas statements in Column 2 are labeled as p, q, r, s & t. More than one
choice from Column 2 can be matched with Column 1.
43. The diagrams below depict different processes for a given amount of an ideal gas. Match Column-I and II:
P P P P Ft
i Ft tF
(i) (ii) (iii) i (iv) i
Ft
i (1/V) T T
(V)
Column 1 Column 2
(A) In fig.(i) as the system proceeds from the initial state to the (p) Temperature will remain constant
final state
(B) In Fig. (ii), as the system proceeds from the initial state to (q) Pressure will decrease
the final state
(C) In fig. (iii), as the system proceeds from the initial state to (r) Volume must increase
the final state
(D) In fig. (iv), as the system proceeds from the initial state to (s) Temperature may increase, may decrease
the final state or may first increase and then decrease
APP | Physics 75 Gaseous State & Thermodynamics
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44. Heat given to process is positive, match the following option of column I with the corresponding option of column
II
P(atm)
J
30
20 M
10 L
K
10 20 V(m3)
Column 1 Column 2
(A) JK (P) W > 0
(B) KL (Q) Q < 0
(C) LM (R) W < 0
(D) MJ (S) Q>0
45. One mole of an ideal monatomic gas is taken round the cyclic process ABCA as shown in the figure. Calculate ;
P
B
3Po
Po C
A
Vo 2Vo V
COLUMN 1 COLUMN 2
(A) The work done by the gas (p) 5/2 P0V0
(B) The heat rejected by the gas in the path CA; (q) 25P0V0
8R
(C) The net heat absorbed by the gas in the path BC (r) P0V0
(D) The maximum temperature attained by the gas during the cycle. (s) P0V0
2
SUBJECTIVE INTEGER TYPE
46. Two identical containers A and B with frictionless pistons contain the same ideal gas at the same temperature and
the same volume V. The mass of gas A is mA and that in B is mB. The gas in each cylinder is now allowed to
expand isothermally to the same final volume 2V. The change in the pressure in A and B are found to be P and
1.5P respectively. Then value of mA (in kg) is _______ if mB = 3kg.
47. Two cylinders A and B fitted with pistons contain equal amounts of an ideal diatomic gas at 300K. The piston A is
free to move, while that of B is held fixed. The same amount of heat is given to the gas in each cylinder. If the rise
in temperature of the gas in A is 30K, and rise in temperature of the gas in B is T the value of T/6 is ____.
APP | Physics 76 Gaseous State & Thermodynamics
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48. A cylindrical tube of uniform cross-sectional area A is fitted with two air tight frictionless pistons. The pistons are
connected to each other by a metallic wire. Initially the pressure of the gas is P0 and temperature is T0. Atmospheric
pressure is also P0. Now the temperature of the gas is increased to 2T0, if the tension in the wire is K P0A then the
value of K is ______.
Wire
49. If 2 moles of an ideal monoatomic gas at temperature T0 is mixed with 4 moles of another ideal monoatomic gas at
temperature 2T0, then the temperature of the mixture is ______. (T0 = 3)
50. In the given figure, an ideal gas changes its state from state A to state C by two paths ABC and AC. The internal
energy of gas at A is 30 J and the amount of heat supplied to change its state to C through path AC is 210 J. If the
internal energy of gas at C is U then the value of U/90 (In J) is ______.
P B
8 Pa C
4 Pa
A
2 V(m3) 12
51. In previous problem if the internal energy of gas in state B is 60 J and if the amount of heat supplied to the gas to go
from A to B is Q then the value of Q/10 is ______.
52. A diatomic gas of molecular weight 30 gm/mole is filled in a container at 300 K. It is moving at a velocity 100 m/s.
10 x
If it is suddenly stopped, the rise in temperature of gas is K , where R is universal gas constant. Find the
R
value of x in joule/mole.
53. One mole helium in a vessel gets the heat from outside and starts expanding to make its volume 2 times the original
R
volume. The heat capacity of the gas in this process is constant and is . What is the final temperature of gas (in
2
K)? Initial temperature is 200 K and initial pressure is 40 kPa.
R 1
54. Heat leads into a vessel containing 1 mole of an ideal monoatomic gas at a constant rate of Js where R is the
4
dV V
universal gas constant. It is observed that the gas expands at a constant rate 0 where V0 is the initial
dt 400
volume. The initial temperature is given T0 40 K. The rate of change in temperature of the gas at t 0 is
K/s, then find the value of .
20
55. A cylindrical vessel is divided in two parts by a fixed partition which is perfectly heat conducting. The wall and
piston are thermally insulated from surroundings. The left side contains 0.5 moles of gas with Cv 2 R at
temperature of 300 K. The right side contains 4 moles of mixture of gas with Cv 1.75 R at same temperature of
V
300 K. The piston compresses slowly the right side from volume of V0 to 0 . Find the total change in internal
4
25
energy of gases. If U n 104 J, fill n in OMR sheet. (Take R S.I. unit )
3
APP | Physics 77 Gaseous State & Thermodynamics
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56. Between two isotherm we have a cycle as shown. Find the work done by the gas during the cycle. (in J)
[Take T1 127C, T2 16C, n 1 mole]
57. A cylinder is fitted with a piston as shown in figure contains
0.001m3 gas at a pressure of 105 Pa. The cross-sectional areas of
the piston is 0.05 m 2 . Initially the spring does not touch the piston
but atmospheric pressure of 105 Pa acts on the piston. The gas is
slowly heated till the volume is increased to three times the original
value. If the force constant of the spring is 25 kN/m, calculate the
work done (in joule) by the gas.
58. Figure shows an ideal gas. Its pressure, volume and temperature are P0 , V0 and T0 respectively. Thin U-tube
contains mercury. It was observed that there was a difference of 40 cm in the level of mercury column in two limbs.
Now the gas is heated to temperature 1.5 T0 and simultaneoulsy mercury was added in limb B to maintain the
level of mercury in limb A at its original poistion. Find the new difference in the level of mercury in limb A and B
(in cm). [Take : Patm 76cm of Hg ]
59. A glass tube has fixed length 76 cm above the mercury level. There is some space above mercury column in the
tube that contains 103 moles of air at 300 K. Atmospheric pressure remains constant at 76 cm of Hg. If the
temperature of the air column slowly decreases by 10 K, find the net heat lost by the air column. Given air 1.4.
Neglect the effect of surface tension. [Take R 25/3 J/mol-k]
60. A monoatomic gas undergoes a process in which it uses 50% of heat in work done by gas. If the process equation of
gas is VP k constant then value of k will be.
APP | Physics 78 Gaseous State & Thermodynamics
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Advanced Problem Package Simple Harmonic Motion
SINGLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE
Each of the following Question has 4 choices A, B, C & D, out of which ONLY ONE Choice is Correct.
1. A pendulum makes perfectly elastic collision with block of m lying on a
frictionless surface attached to a spring of force constant k. Pendulum is slightly
displaced and released. Time period of oscillation of the system is k
m
m
m m
(A) 2 (B)
g k g k
m
(C) 2 (D) 2
g k
2. A simple pendulum with length L and mass m of the bob is vibrating with an amplitude ‘a’. The tension in the
string at the lowest point is (assuming a << L)
a 2 2 2
a a
(A) mg (B) mg 1 (C) mg 1 (D) mg 1
L 2L L
3. Two simple pendulums of length 1m and 16 m respectively are both given small displacement in the same direction
at the same instant. They will again be in the same phase after shorter pendulum has completed vibrations. The
value of is
(A) 5 (B) 4 (C) 1/4 (D) 4/3
4. A mass m is suspended from a spring of force constant k and just touches
another identical spring fixed to the floor as shown in the figure. The time
period of small oscillations is :
m m m
(A) 2 (B)
k k k/2
m m m
(C) (D)
3k / 2 k 2k
5. A particle of mass m is performing SHM along line PQ with
2a
amplitude 2a with mean position at O. At t = 0 particle is at point R 2a a R
P Q
(OR = a) and is moving towards Q with velocity v a 3 m/sec.
The equation can be expressed by : va 3
(A) x a 3 sint cos t (B) x 2a 3 sint cos t
(C)
x 2a sint 3 cost (D)
x a sint 3 cos t
6. Vertical displacement of a plank with a body of mass ‘m’ on it is varying according to law y = sint + 3 cost.
The value of for which the mass just breaks off the plank and the moment it occurs first after t = 0 are given by
g 2 g 2 g 2 2
(A) , (B) , (C) , (D) 2g ,
2 6 g 2 3 g 2 3 g 3g
7. If the potential energy of a harmonic oscillator of mass 2 kg in its equilibrium position is 5 joules and the total energy
is 9 joules when the amplitude is one meter then the period of the oscillator (in sec) is :
(A) 1.5 (B) 3.14 (C) 6.28 (D) 4.67
(Hint : Total energy = U (0) + 1/2 kA2)
APP | Physics 79 SHM
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8. A particle executes a simple harmonic motion between x = –A and x = +A, the time taken for it to move from x = 0
A A A
to x is T1 and to move from to is T2, then
2 2 2
(A) T1 < T2 (B) T1 = T2 (C) T1 = 2T2 (D) T2 = 2T1
9. The equation for a particle in SHM with amplitude A and angular frequency considering all distances from one
extreme position is:
A
(A) x = A + A cos t (B) x= – A cos t (C) x = 1 + A cos t (D) x = 1 – A cos t
2
10. A simple pendulum has a time period T1, when on earth’s surface and T2 when taken to a height R above the earth’s
T2
surface. R is the radius of the earth. The value of is
T1
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 4 (D) 2
MULTIPLE CORRECT ANSWERS TYPE
Each of the following Question has 4 choices A, B, C & D, out of which ONE or MORE Choices may be Correct:
11. Which of the following quantities are always negative in a simple harmonic motion?
(A) F a (B) v r (C) a r (D) F r
12. Acceleration-time graph of a particle executing SHM is as shown in the figure. Select the correct alternative(s).
a
1
4
t
2
3
(A) Displacement of particle at 1 is negative. (B) Velocity of particle at 2 is positive.
(C) Potential energy of particle at 3 is maximum (D) Speed of particle at 4 is decreasing
13. Density of liquid varies with depth as = h. A small ball of density 0 is released from the free surface of the
liquid. Then
(A) the ball will execute SHM of amplitude 0/
(B) the mean position of the ball will be at a depth 0/2 from the free surface.
(C) the ball will sink to a maximum depth of 20/
(D) all of the above
14. A particle starts SHM at time t = 0. Its amplitude is A and angular frequency is . At time t = 0 its kinetic energy is
E/4. Assuming potential energy to be zero at mean position, then displacement-time equation of the particle can be
written as
(A) x = A cos [t + (/6)] (B) x = A sin [t + (/3)]
(C) x = A cos [t (2/3)] (D) x = A cos [t (/6)]
15. A particle moves along the x-axis according to the equation x = 4 + 3 sin(2t), here x is in cm and t in second.
Select the correct alternative(s).
(A) The motion of the particle is simple harmonic with mean position at x = 0
(B) The motion of the particle is simple harmonic with mean position at x = 4 cm
(C) The motion of the particle is simple harmonic with mean position at x = 4 cm
(D) Amplitude of oscillation is 3 cm
APP | Physics 80 SHM
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16. A block of mass m is attached to a massless spring of force constant k, the other end k
of which is fixed from the wall of a truck as shown in the figure. The block is placed m
over a smooth surface and initially the spring is unstretched. Suddenly the truck starts
moving towards right with a constant acceleration a0. As seen from the truck
m
(A) the particle will execute SHM. (B) the time period of oscillations will be 2
k
ma0 m2 a02
(C) the amplitude of oscillations will be (D) the energy of oscillations will be
k k
17. A particle is executing SHM on a straight line. A and B are two points at which its velocity is zero. It passes
through a certain point P(AP < BP) at successive intervals of 0.5 sec and 1.5 sec with a speed of 3 m/s.
(A) The maximum speed of particle is 3 2 m/s (B) The maximum speed of particle is 2 m/s
AP 2 1 AP 1
(C) The ratio is (D) The ratio is
BP 2 1 BP 2
18. Two particles undergo SHM along the same line with the same time period (T) and equal amplitudes (A). At a
particular instant one particle is at x = A and the other is at x = 0. They move in the same direction. They will
cross each other at
x = A x=0 x = +A
(A) t = 4T/3 (B) t = 3T/8 (C) x = A/2 (D) x= A 2
19. A spring mass system as shown in figure is suspended in a constant electric field E.
A charge q is given to the mass. Then the time period of oscillation of the system is
k
m m
(A) 2 (B) 2
k 2k E
m,q
mg qE qE mg
(C) 2 (D) 2
k k (mg>qE)
20. The potential energy of a particle of mass 0.1 kg moving along the x-axis is given U = 5x(x 4)J, where x is in
meters. It can be concluded that :
(A) The particle is acted upon by a constant force
(B) The speed of the particle is maximum at x = 2 m
(C) The particle executes simple harmonic motion
(D) The period of oscillation of the particle is / 5 second
21. For a simple harmonic motion with given angular frequency , two arbitrary initial conditions are necessary and
sufficient to determine the motion complete. These initial conditions may be :
(A) Initial position and initial velocity (B) Amplitude and initial phase
(C) Total energy of oscillation and amplitude (D) Total energy of oscillation and initial phase
22. An object of mass m is performing simple harmonic motion on a smooth horizontal
surface as shown in the figure. Just as the oscillating object reaches its extreme
position, another object of mass 2m is dropped on to oscillating object, which sticks
to it. For this situation mark out the correct statement(s).
(A) Amplitude of oscillation remains unchanged
(B) Time period of oscillation remains unchanged
(C) The total mechanical energy of the system does not change
(D) The maximum speed of the oscillating object changes
APP | Physics 81 SHM
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23. The given figure (a) shows a spring of force constant k fixed at one end and carrying a mass m at the other end
placed on a horizontal frictionless surface. The spring is stretched by a force F. Figure (b) shows the same spring
with both ends free and a mass m fixed at each free end. Each of the spring is stretched by the same force F. The
mass in case (a) and the masses in case (b) are then released. Which of the following statements are true?
(A) While oscillating, the maximum extension of the spring is more in case (a) than in case (b).
(B) The maximum extension of the spring is same is both cases
(C) The time period of oscillation is the same is both cases
(D) The time period of oscillation in case (a) is 2 time that in case (b)
24. Two blocks connected by a spring rest on a smooth horizontal plane as shown in the given figure. A constant force
F starts acting on block m2 as shown in the figure. Which of the following statements are not correct?
(A) Length of the spring increases continuously if m1 m2 .
(B) Blocks start performing SHM about centre of mass of the system, which moves rectilinearly with constant
acceleration.
(C) Blocks start performing oscillations about centre of mass of the system with increasing amplitude.
(D) Acceleration of m2 is maximum at initial moment of time only.
25. A block of mass m is suspended by a rubber cord of natural length l = mg/k, where k is force constant of the cord.
The block is lifted upwards so that the cord becomes just tight and then block is released suddenly. Which of the
following will not be true?
(A) Block performs periodic motion with amplitude greater than l.
(B) Block performs SHM with amplitude equal to l.
(C) Block will never return to the position from where it was released.
(D) Angular frequency is equal to 1 rad/s.
26. When the point of suspension of pendulum is moved, its period of oscillation
(A) Decreases when it moves vertically upwards with an acceleration a
(B) Decreases when it moves vertically downwards with acceleration greater than 2 g
(C) Increases when it moves horizontally with acceleration a
(D) All of the above
27. A linear harmonic oscillator of force constant 2 106 N / m and amplitude 0.01 m has a total mechanical energy of
160 J. Its:
(A) Maximum potential energy is 100 J (B) Maximum kinetic energy is 100 J
(C) Maximum potential energy is 160 J (D) Minimum potential energy zero
28. A spring of spring constant K is fixed to the ceiling of a lift. The other end of the spring is attached to a block of
mass m. The mass is in equilibrium. Now the lift accelerates downwards with an acceleration. Now the lift
accelerates downwards with an acceleration 2g :
(A) The block will not perform SHM and it will stick to the ceiling.
(B) The block will perform SHM with time period 2 m / K .
(C) The amplitude of the block will be 2 mg/K if it perform SHM.
(D) The min. potential energy of the spring during the motion of the block will be 0.
APP | Physics 82 SHM
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29. Simple pendulum is kept suspended vertically in a stationary bus.
The bus starts moving with an acceleration a towards left. As
observed inside the bus : (Neglect frictional forces on pendulum
and assume size of the ball to the very small.) :
l
(A) Time period of oscillation of the pendulum will be 2 for any value of a
a g2
2
l
(B) Time period of oscillation of the pendulum will be 2 only when a << g
a g2
2
a
(C) Angular amplitude of oscillation will be tan 1 for any value of a
g
a
(D) Angular amplitude of oscillation will be tan 1 only when a << g
g
A
30. A particle is executing SHM with amplitude A. At displacement x , force acting on the particle is F, potential
4
energy of the particle is U, velocity of particle is v and kinetic energy is Ka. Assuming potential energy to be zero at
A
mean position. At displacement x .
2
(A) Force acting on the particle will be 2F (B) Potential energy of particle will be 4U
4
(C) Velocity of particle will be v (D) Kinetic energy of particle will be 0.8 K
5
31. A coin is placed on a horizontal platform, which undergoes vertical simple harmonic motion of angular frequency
. The amplitude of oscillation is gradually increased. The coin will lave contact with the platform the first time
(A) At the mean position of the platform (B) At the mean position of the platform
g g
(C) For an amplitude of 2
(D) For an amplitude of
32. A simple pendulum consists of a bob of mass m and a light string of length l as shown in the given figure. Another
identical ball moving with the small velocity v0 collides with the pendulum’s bob and sticks to it. For this new
pendulum of mass 2m, mark out the correct statement(s)
l
(A) Time period of the pendulum is 2 .
g
v0 g
(B) The equation of motion for this pendulum is sin t.
2 gl l
v0 g
(C) The equation of motion for this pendulum is cos t .
2 gl l
2l
(D) Time period of the pendulum is 2
g
33. A simple pendulum is oscillating between extreme position P and Q about the mean position O. Which of the
following statements are true about the motion of pendulum?
(A) At point O, the acceleration of the bob is different from zero.
(B) The acceleration of the bob is constant throughout the oscillation.
(C) The tension in the string is constant throughout the oscillation.
(D) The tension is maximum at O and minimum at P or Q
APP | Physics 83 SHM
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34. A horizontal spring-block system of mass 1 kg executes SHM of amplitude 10 cm. When the block is passing
through its equilibrium position another mass of 1 kg is put on it and the two move together
(A) amplitude will remain unchanged (B) amplitude will become 5 2 cm
(C) the frequency of oscillations will remain same (D) the frequency of oscillations will decrease.
35. A constant force F is applied on a spring block system as shown in the figure. The mass of the block is m and spring
constant is k. The block is placed over a smooth surface. Initially the spring was unstretched. Choose the correct
alternative(s).
k
F
m
(A) The block will execute SHM (B) Amplitude of oscillation is F/2k
m F
(C) Time period of oscillation is 2 (D) Maximum speed of block
k mk
Paragraph for Q.36 - 37
A device used to print large maps, drawings, graphs, etc. is known as plotter. A plotter contains a printing head and a drum
through which the paper comes out. The plotting pencil is held in a block which in turn is held by a system of four springs as
shown.
L=1m
The spring constants of the four springs are k1 = 20 N/m, k2 = 30 N/m, k3 = 60 N/m V
and k4 = 30 N/m. k1 x=0 k4
Initially, the pencil is in the middle, i.e. at x = 0 and all the springs are in natural length. k3
k2
+x
The velocity of paper coming out is v0 = 0.2 m/s. The block is set up in motion by
y
giving a velocity v = 1 m/s towards right. The mass of the pencil block with pencil is v0
m1 = 0.7 kg.
The friction is assumed to be absent in the system.
Answer the following questions in view of the above passage.
36. What is the force constant of SHM performed by the pencil?
(A) 104.58 N/m (B) 70 N/m (C) 150 N/m (D) It is variable.
37. Which of the following represents the graph produced by the plotter most correctly? y is the direction of motion of
paper.
x
0.3 0.5 0.1 0.3 0.5
O
0.1 0.2 0.4 y y
O 0.2 0.4 0.6
(A) (B)
x
0.1 0.3 0.4
O 0.2 0.4
0.2 0.5 y y
O 0.1 0.5 0.6
0.3
(C) (D)
Paragraph for Q.38 - 39
A 2 kg block hangs without vibrating at the bottom end of a spring with a force constant of 800 N/m. The top end of the
spring is attached to the ceiling of an elevator car. The car is rising with an upward acceleration of 10 m/s2. When the
acceleration suddenly ceases at time t = 0. (g = 10 m/s2)
38. The amplitude of the oscillations is :
(A) 7.5 cm (B) 5 cm (C) 2.5 cm (D) 1 cm
APP | Physics 84 SHM
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39. The initial phase angle observed by a rider in the elevator, taking downward direction to be positive extreme
position, is equal to (after the elevator ceases)
(A) zero (B) / 2 rad (C) rad (D) 3 / 2 rad
a
Paragraph for Q. 40 - 41
A particle is performing SHM along x-axis. The graph a = 2m/s2
between the acceleration of particle and its x-coordinate is
shown. Using the graph answer the following question:
x = 2m
40. The time period of SHM will be : x
(A) 2 sec (B) 1 sec (C) sec (D) None of these
41. What will be change in kinetic energy of the particle when it moves from x = 0 to x = 2 and mass of particle is 2kg.
(A) 2J (B) 4J (C) 1J (D) 2J
Paragraph for Q.42- 44
Two particles A and B are performing SHM along x-and y-axis respectively with equal amplitude and frequency of 2cm and
1 Hz respectively. Equilibrium positions of the particles A and B are at the coordinates (3cm, 0) (0, 4cm) respectively. At t =
0, B is at its equilibrium position and moving towards the origin, while A is nearest to the origin and moving away from the
origin.
42. Equation of motion of particle A can be written as :
(A) x (2 cm) cos 2t (B) x (3cm) (2 cm) cos 2t
(C) x (2 cm) sin 2t (D) x (3 cm) (2 cm)sin 2t
43. Equation of motion of particle B can be written as:
(A) y (2 cm) cos 2t (B) y (4 cm) (2cm) cos 2t
(C) y (2cm) sin 2t (D) y (4cm) (2 cm) sin 2t
44. Minimum and maximum distance between A and B during the motion is:
(A) 5 cm and 61 cm (B) 3 cm and 7 cm
(C) 1 cm and 5 cm (D) 9 cm and 16 cm
MATRIX MATCH TYPE
Each of the following question contains statements given in two columns, which have to be matched. Statements in
Column 1 are labelled as (A), (B), (C) & (D) whereas statements in Column 2 are labeled as p, q, r, s & t. More than one
choice from Column 2 can be matched with Column 1.
45. Figure (A) shows potential energy as a function of x for a particle that is moving in the x-direction under a
conservative force.
Figure (B) shows potential energy as a function of x for another particle that is moving in the x-direction under a
conservative force.
Figure (C) shows interaction potential energy as a function of x for a system of two particles that could move in the.
x-direction under the mutual conservative force.
u u
u
Positively
direction
Positively
direction
Positively
direction
x2 Positive x
x1 x3
direction
O x2 x1 x3 x O x
O x2 x1 x3 x
Positive x direction Positive x direction
(A) (B) (C)
APP | Physics 85 SHM
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Column 1 Column 2
(A For the system in figure (A) (p) equilibrium position will be x = x1 and
equilibrium is unstable
(B) For the system in figure (B) (q) equilibrium position will be x = x1 and
equilibrium is stable
(C) For the system in figure (C), let one of the (r) force on the particle for x < x1 is in the
particles be at x = 0 and consider different negative x-direction and fro x> x1, it is in the
positions of the other particle, say, x1, x2 and x3. positive x-direction.
Keeping in view the force acting on the other
particle at x1, x2 and x3
(D consider a particle that performs S.H.M. along (s) Force on the particle for x x1 will be the
the x-direction with x = x1 as the mean position. negative x-direction
x2 and x3 are two other values of x such that x2 <
x1 and x3 > x1; then
SUBJECTIVE INTEGER TYPE
k
46. Find the natural frequency of the system as shown in the figure. The pulleys are
massless and frictionless.(take numerical value of k/m=484/49 in MKS unit.)
47. Let the period of oscillation of mercury of mass m = 200g poured into a bent tube x
whose right arm forms an angle = 300 with the vertical is T. The cross-sectional area
of the tube S = 0.50 cm2. The viscosity of mercury is to be neglected. Find value of
10T.(in sec)
48. A ring of mass m and radius a is connected to an inextensible string which passes
over a frictionless pulley. The other end of string is connected to upper end of a
massless spring of spring constant k. The lower end of the spring is fixed. The ring
can rotate in the vertical plane about hinge without any friction. If horizontal m
position of ring is equilibrium position then find angular frequency (Rad/Sec) of a k
small in oscillations of the ring. (Take K/m = 24 in mks unit)
49. A pendulum has time period T in air. When it is made to oscillate in water, it acquired a time period T = 2T .
The specific gravity of the pendulum bob is equal to _______.
50. An object of mass 0.2 kg executes simple harmonic motion along X-axis with frequency of 25/ Hz. At the position
x = 0.04 m, the object has kinetic energy of 0.5 J and potential energy of 0.4 J. if The amplitude of oscillation in meter
is equal to A then the value of 100A will be_______. m
51. A block of mass m attached with a spring and held by a person such that the spring is in natural
length 0 . Now the man releases the block, if the ratio of maximum compression in the spring in 0
the given situation, to that of the compression at equilibrium position is K then find K.
APP | Physics 86 SHM
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52. A weightless rigid rod with a small iron bob at the end is hinged at point A
to the wall so that it can rotate in all directions. The rod is kept in the
horizontal position by a vertical of length 20 cm, fixed at its mid-point. The
bob is displaced slightly, perpendicular to the plane of the rod and string.
X
Find period of small oscillations of the system in the form sec, and fil
10
value of X. ( g 10m / s 2 )
53. A solid uniform cylinder of mass M performs small oscillations due to
the action of two springs, each having stiffness k. If time period of
aM
these oscillations in absence of any sliding is T 2 , then find
10 k
the value of a. (Springs have their neutral length initially)
54. A particle executes SHM along a straight line with means position at x = 0, period 20 sec and amplitude 5 cm . Find
the shortest time taken by the particle to go from x = 4 cm to x = –3 cm in seconds.
55. When the system shown in the diagram is in equilibrium, the right spring is
stretched by 1 cm. The coefficient of static friction between the bottom
block is 0.3. There is no friction between the bottom block and the
supporting surface. The force constants of the springs are 150 N/m and 450
N/m (refer figure). The blocks have equal mas of 2 kg each. Find the
maximum amplitude (in cm) of the oscillations of the system shown in the
figure that does not allow the top block to slide on the bottom.
56. A cylindrical block of height 1 m is in equilibrium in a breaker as
shown. Cross-sectional area of cylindrical block is one fourth of
cross-sectional area of breaker. Density of cylindrical block is one
third of liquid. Determine the time period of small oscillation (in
seconds). (Given : g 2 m / s 2 )
57. A solid cylinder is kept over a rough plane which is oscillating along
x-axis according to equation x = A cos (10) t, where x-axis according
to equation x = A cos (10)t, where x is in metre and t is in second. If
coefficient friction between cylinder and plank is 0.3, then find
maximum amplitude of plank (in cm) possible, so that cylinder
never slips on plank.
58. Two identical metal balls connected at the ends of a light spring of foe
constant k form a dumbbell like spring of force constant k form a dumbbell
like structure. The dumbbell rests on a frictionless horizontal floor and
third identical ball is placed at distance l from the right ball of the
dumbbell. All the three balls are in a line. A fourth identical ball moving
with velocity u collides with left ball of the dumbbell. If all collisions are
elastic and rightmost ball aquries a velocity u. the minimum value of l is
m
u . Find x.
xk
APP | Physics 87 SHM
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59. A block of mass m is tied to one end of a string which passes over a
smooth fixed pulley A and under a light smooth movable pulley B as
shown in figure. The other end of the string is attached to the lower end of
a spring of spring constant k2 . Find the period of small oscillations of
mass m about its equilibrium position.
60. A pipe in the form of a half ring of radius r is placed on a horizontal
surface as shown in figure. If is rotated through, a small angle, and
then released. Assuming that it rolls without sliding determine the
period of oscillation
APP | Physics 88 SHM
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Advanced Problem Package Wave Motion
SINGLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE
Each of the following Question has 4 choices A, B, C & D, out of which ONLY ONE Choice is Correct.
1. In a sonometer wire the fundamental frequency of the wire is 260Hz. In a sonometer the tension is maintained by
suspending a 50.7 kg mass. When the suspended mass is completely submerged in water fundamental frequency
becomes 240 Hz. The suspended mass has a volume
(A) 0.002 m3 (B) 0.0075 m3 (C) 0.004 m3 (D) 0.006 m3
2. A closed organ pipe resonates in its fundamental mode at a frequency of 200 Hz in O2 at a certain temperature.
If the pipe contains 2 moles of O2 and, 3 moles of Ozone is now added to it, then what will be the fundamental
frequency of same pipe at same temperature?
(A) 268.23 (B) 172.7 (C) 149.45 (D) None of these
Ei
3. What will be the ratio of amplitudes of the reflected wave to the incident wave
in case a sinusoidal wave produced in a stretched string gets reflected and
loses 36% of its energy in getting reflected from the fixed end of the string?
Er
(A) 6 : 10 (B) 8 : 10 (C) 1:1 (D) None of these.
4. A sinusoidal wave (longitudinal or transverse) is propagating through a medium in the direction of ve x-axis.
The parameters of the waves are A, and k. The particle at x = /4 executes the motion y(t) = A sint. Possible
equation of the wave is :
(A) y(x, t) = A sin[t kx + (/2)] (B) y(x, t) = A sin[t + kx + (/2)]
(C) y(x, t) = A sin[t kx (/2)] (D) y(x, t) = A sin[t + kx (/2)]
5. A railway engine whistling at a constant frequency moves with a constant speed. It goes past a stationary observer
standing beside a railway track. The frequency (n) of the sound heard by the observer is plotted against time (t).
Which of the following best represents the resulting curve?
n n n
n
(A) (B) (C) (D)
t t t t
6. A stationary observer receives sound waves from two tuning forks, one of which approaches and the other recedes
with the same velocity. As this takes place, the observer hears beats with frequency 2 Hz. What is velocity of each
tuning fork if their oscillation frequency is o = 680 Hz and the velocity of sound in air is vs = 340 m/s
(A) 5 m/s (B) 0.5 m/s (C) 15 m/s (D) 50 m/s
7. A man holding a sound source at the top of a tower emitting frequency of sound as
= 1000Hz. Suddenly it slips from his hand and falls down with ‘g’ acceleration. The sources of frequency of
sound heard by the man at t = 4 sec. (Velocity of sound = 320 m/s, g = 10 m/s2)
(A) 889Hz (B) 890Hz (C) 894Hz (D) 892Hz
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8. A plane wave of light is incident normally onto the left face of a composite 1 2
slab as shown in the figure. The oscillation at x = 0 are represented by
0 , t A sin t . Then the oscillation of the wave for x 1 2 is given 1 2
by : (Speed of light in vaccum is c and 1 , 2 are R.I.) x=0
11 2 2 1 2
(A) (1 + 2, t) = A sin t (B) (1 + 2, t) = A sin t
c c
2 2
(C) (1 + 2, t) = A sin t 1 1 (D) None of these.
c
9. A train moves towards a stationary observer with 34 m/s. The train sounds a whistle and its frequency registered by
the observer is f1. If the train’s speed is reduced to 17 m/s. The frequency registered is f2. If speed of sound in air is
f1
340 m/s, then the ratio is:
f2
(A) 18/19 (B) 1/2 (C) 2 (D) 19/18
10. The displacement time graph for two sound waves A and B are shown
in the figure. Then the ratio of their intensities IA/IB is equal to:
(A) 1:4
(B) 1 : 16
(C) 1:2
(D) 1:1
11. The diagram shows a wave train of amplitude A at time t = 0 sec. The phase Y
difference between the oscillation of the particle at x = 0 and x = x1 is . The particle
at x = x1 is moving upward with velocity v1. Which of the following equations
represent the wave equation correctly ? X
tv1 x v1 X1
(A) A sin x (B) A sin t
A x1 A sin
x v1 x tv1
(C) A sin t (D) A sin t
x1 Acos x1 A
12. In the given arrangement a source is placed at the fixed end of the spring with spring constant 100 N/m and the
receiver is attached to the moving end of the spring, which in turn is connected to a box of mass 4kg, which is
oscillating horizontally with an amplitude of oscillation 2m. If the source emits a frequency of 990 Hz then : (Speed
of sound = 330m/s)
(A) Maximum frequency received by the receiver is 990Hz receiver
source
k
(B) Minimum frequency received by the receiver is 990Hz
M
(C) Frequency band width received by the receiver is 960Hz – 1020Hz.
(D) Maximum and minimum frequencies are received at the extreme positions
13. A pure frequency note is played by two speakers in phase , distant 2 m apart, Along a line 3 m in front of the
speakers, the intensity is heard as a minimum immediately in front of each speaker and there is only one maximum
between these points. The frequency of the note is : [Take velocity of sound = 350 m/s]
(A) 286 Hz (B) 128 Hz (C) 512 Hz (D) 275 Hz
14. A train of sound waves is propagated along a wide pipe and it is reflected from an open end. If the amplitude of the
waves is 0.002 cm, the frequency 1000 Hz and the wavelength 40 cm, the amplitude of vibration at a point distant
10 cm from open and inside the pipe will be
(A) 0.004cm (B) 0.001cm (C) 0 (D) 0.002 cm
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15. L1 and L2 are two small loud speakers which emit sound waves of the same amplitude but with a phase difference of .
A small receiver M moves along the perpendicular bisector of L1L2 in the direction as shown in the figure.
The intensity of the sound recorded in the receiver is :
(a) continuously decreasing tending to zero at a very large distance
(b) alternates between a constant maximum and zero minimum
(c) alternates between a diminishing maximum and increasing minimum
(d) remains constant equal to zero
MULTIPLE CORRECT ANSWERS TYPE
Each of the following Question has 4 choices A, B, C & D, out of which ONE or MORE Choices may be Correct:
16. Displacement of particles in a string in x-direction and is represented by y. Account the following expression for y,
those describing wave motion are
(A) cos kx sin t (B) k 2 x 2 2t 2 (C) cos 2 kx t (D)
cos kx 2 2 t 2
0. 8
17. y x, t represents a moving pulse where x and y are in meter and t in seconds. Then
4 x 5t 2 5
(A) Pulse is moving in + x direction (B) In two seconds it will travel a distance of 2.5 m
(C) It’s maximum displacement is 0.16 m (D) It’s a symmetric pulse
18. Two sound waves of equal intensity I, generates beats. The intensity of sound Is produced in beats will be
(A) I (B) 4I (C) 2I (D) 0 < Is < 4I
2 x
19. The equation of transverse displacement of a string clamped at both ends is y = 0.06 sin cos 120 t , where
3
x, y are in meters and t is in second. The length of the string is 1.5 m and its mass is 3 102 kg . Then
(A) wavelength, frequency and speed of progressive waves are 3 m, 60 Hz and 180 m/s, respectively.
(B) tension in the string is 648 N
(C) amplitude at a distance x = 0.375 m is 4.2 cm at any time t.
(D) wavelength, frequency and speed of progressive wave are 3 m, 80 Hz and 240 m/s
20. A wave pulse moving in the positive x-direction along the x-axis is represented by the wave function
2.0
y x, t , where x and y are in centimeters and t is in seconds. Then :
x 3.0 t 2 1
(A) The speed of particle at time t = 1 sec. and x = 3 cm is zero
(B) The speed of particle at time t = 1 sec. and x = 3 cm is 2 cm/s
(C) The speed of the pulse is 3.0 cm/s (D) The speed of the pulse is 0.33 cm/s
21. Two whistles A & B each have a frequency of 500 Hz. A is stationary and B is moving towards the right (away
from A) at a speed of 50 m/s. An observer is between the two whistles moving towards the right with a speed of 25
m/s. The velocity of sound in air is 350 m/s. Assume that there is no wind. Which of the following is/are true ?
(A) the apparent frequency of whistle B as heard by A is 437 Hz approximately
(B) the apparent frequency of whistle B as heard by observer is 469 Hz approximately
(C) the difference in the apparent frequencies of A and B as heard by the observer is 4.5 Hz
(D) the apparent frequencies of the whistles as observed by each other are the same
22. The equation of motion of a longitudinal wave is y = 0.15 sin[4t-x] Where x & y are measured in meters an t in
second.
(A) The distance between two successive points having phase difference is 1m
(B) The wave travels along negative x-axis
(C) The frequency of the wave is 2Hz
(D) At 20 cm. Displacement of the particle, kinetic energy of the latter is zero. At t = 4 sec.
APP | Physics 91 Wave Motion
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23. Along the straight line joining two consecutive displacement-nodes in a pure stationary sound wave, at different points.
(A) the S.H.M.’s will be in different phases (B) the velocities are in phase
(C) the accelerations are in phase (D) the frequencies are equal
24. Mark out the correct statement(s) w.r.t. wave speed and particle velocity for a transverse travelling mechanical
wave on a string.
(A) The wave speed is same for the entire wave, while particle velocity is different for different points at a
particular instant.
(B) Wave speed depends upon property of the medium but not on the wave properties.
(C) Wave speed depends upon both the properties of the medium and on the medium and on the properties of
wave.
(D) Particle velocity depends upon properties of the wave and not on medium properties.
25. Let a disturbance y be propagated as a plane wave along the x-axis. The wave profiles at the instants t = t1 and
t = t2 are represented respectively as : y1 f ( x1 vt1 ) and y2 f ( x2 vt2 ) . The wave is propagating without
change of shape.
(A) The velocity of the wave is v (B) The velocity of the wave is v ( x2 x1 ) / (t 2 t1 )
(C) The particle velocity is v p vf ( x vt ) (D) The phase velocity of the wave is v
26. A wire of 9.8 10 3 kg/m passes over a frictionless light pulley fixed on the top of a frictionless inclined plane
which makes an angle of 30 with the horizontal. Masses m and M are tied at the two ends of wire such that m rests
on the plane and M hangs freely vertically downwards. The entire system is in equilibrium and a transverse wave
propagates along the wire with a velocity of 100 m/s.
m 1 m
(A) m = 20 kg (B) M = 5 kg (C) (D) 2
M 2 M
27. Three simple harmonic waves, identical in frequency n and amplitude A moving in the same direction are
superimposed in air in such a way, that the first, second and the third wave have the phase angle , ( / 2) and
( ) , respectively at a given point P in the superposition. Then as the waves progress, the superposition will
result in .
(A) A periodic, non-simple harmonic wave of amplitude 3A
(B) A stationary simple harmonic wave of amplitude 3A
(C) A simple harmonic progressive wave of amplitude A
(D) The velocity of the superposed resultant wave will be the same as the velocity of each wave
28. A sonometer string AB of length 1 m is stretched by a load and the tension T is adjusted so that the string resonates
to a frequency of 1 kHz. Any point P of the wire may be held fixed by use of a movable bridge that can slide along
the base of sonometer.
(A) If point P is fixed so that AP : PB : : 1 : 4, then the smallest frequency for which the sonometer wire
resonates is 5 kHz.
(B) If P be taken at midpoint of AB and fixed, then when the wire vibrates in the third harmonic of its
fundamental, the number of nodes in the wire (including A and B) will be totally seven.
(C) If the fixed point P divides AB in the ratio 1 : 2, then the tension needed to make the string vibrate at 1 kHz
will be 3T. (neglecting the terminal effects)
(D) The fundamental frequency of the sonometer wire when P divides AB in the ratio a : b will be the same as
the fundamental frequency when P divides AB in the ratio b : a.
APP | Physics 92 Wave Motion
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29. Two speakers are placed as shown in figure.
Mark out the correct statement(s)
(A) If a person is moving along AB, he will hear the sound as loud, faint, loud and so on
(B) If a person moves along CD, he will hear loud, faint, loud and so on
(C) If a person moves along AB, he will hear uniform intense sound
(D) If a person moves along CD, he will hear uniform intense sound
30. A radio transmitter at position A operates at a wavelength of 20 m. A second, identical transmitter is located at a
distance x from the first transmitter, at position B. the transmitters are phase locked together such that the second
transmitter is lagging / 2 out of phase with the first. For which of the following values of BC – CA will the
intensity at C be maximum.
(A) BC – CA = 60 m
(B) BC – CA = 65 m
(C) BC – CA = 55 m
(D) BC – CA = 75 m
31. A source S of sound wave of fixed frequency N and an observer O are located in air initially at the space points A
and B, a fixed distance apart. State in which of the following cases, the observer will NOT see any Doppler effect
and will receive the same frequency N as produced by the source.
(A) Both the source S and observer O remain stationary but a wind blows with a constant speed in an arbitrary
direction.
(B) The observer remains stationary but the source S moves parallel to and in the same direction and with the
same speed as the wind.
(C) The source remains stationary but the observer and the wind have the same speed away from the source.
(D) The source and the observer move directly against the wind but both with the same speed.
32. A source of sound and detector are moving as shown in the given figure at t = 0. Take velocity of sound wave to be
v.
For this situation mark out the correct statement(s)
(A) The frequency received by the detector is away greater than f 0
(B) Initially, frequency received by the detector is greater than f 0 , becomes equal to f 0 and then decreases
with the time.
(C) Frequency received by the detector is equal to f 0 at t d cos 0 / (2 v0 )
(D) Frequency received by the detector can never be equal to f 0
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33. A sonic source, located in a uniform medium, emits waves of frequency n. If intensity, energy density (energy per
unit volume of the medium) and maximum speed of oscillations of medium particle are, respectively, I, E and u0 at
a point, then which of the following graphs are correct?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
34. In the figure shown, an observer O1 floats (static) on water surface with ears
in air while another observer O2 is moving upwards with constant velocity
V1 V / 5 in water. The source moves down with constant velocity
Vs V / 5 and emits sound of frequency ‘f’. The velocity of sound in air is
V and that in water is 4V. For the situation shown in figure.
4V
(A) The wavelength of the sound received by O1 is
5f
V
(B) The wavelength of the sound received by O1 is
f
21V
(C) The frequency of the sound received by O2 is
16 f
16V
(D) The wavelength of the sound received by O2 is
5f
35. A sinusoidal wave yi a sin(t kx) is reflected form a rigid support and the reflected wave superposes with the
incident wave, yi . Assume the rigid support to be at x = 0.
(A) Stationary wave are obtained with antinode at the rigid support
(B) Stationary wave are obtained with node at the rigid support
(C) Stationary wave are obtained with intensity varying periodically with distance
(D) Stationary wave are obtained with intensity varying periodically with time
Paragraph for Q. 36- 38
A long string having a cross-sectional area 0.80 mm2 and density 12.5 g / cm3 is subjected to a tension of 64 N along the x-
axis. One end (at x = 0) of this string is attached to a vibrator moving in transverse direction at a frequency of 20 Hz. At t =
0, the source is at a maximum displacement y 1.0cm .
36. Find the speed of the wave travelling on the string.
(A) 20 m / s (B) 10 m / s (C) 80 m / s (D) 40 m / s
37. Write the equation for the wave.
(A) y (1.0 cm)cos[(40s 1 )t { / 2 m1 ) x}] (B) y (1.0 cm)cos[(40s 1 )t { / 2 m 1 ) x}]
(C) y (1.0 cm)cos[(40s 1 )t { / 4 m1 ) x}] (D) y (1.0 cm)cos[(40s 1 )t { / 4 m1 ) x}]
38. What is the displacement of the particle of the string at x 50 cm at time t 0.05 s ?
1 3 1
(A) cm (B) 2 cm (C) cm (D) cm
2 2 3
APP | Physics 94 Wave Motion
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MATRIX MATCH TYPE
Each of the following question contains statements given in two columns, which have to be matched. Statements in
Column 1 are labelled as (A), (B), (C) & (D) whereas statements in Column 2 are labeled as p, q, r, s & t. More than one
choice from Column 2 can be matched with Column 1.
39. Consider a situation (i) that two sound waves, y1 = (0.2m) sin 504 (t x/300) and y2 = (0.6m) sin 496 (t x/300),
are superimposed. Consider another situation (ii) that two sound waves, y1 = (0.4m)sin 504(tx/300) and
y2 = (0.4m) sin 504(t + x/300), are superimposed.
Column 1 Column 2
(A) In situation (i) (p) Stationary waves are formed
(B) In situation (ii) (q) There will be the phenomenon of ‘Beats’
(C) When two waves of same frequency and amplitude (r) Amplitude of the resultant wave will
and travelling in opposite directions superimpose vary periodically with position
(D) If the intensity of sound alternately increases and (s) Amplitude of the resultant wave will
decreases periodically as a result of superposition of vary periodically
waves of slightly different frequency
40. Referring to the above question, match Column-I and II:
Column 1 Column 2
(A) Frequency of resultant wave in situation(i) in Hz will be (p) 0.8 m
(B) Maximum amplitude of the resultant wave in situation (ii) will be (q) 250
(C) In situation (i), in a time of 1 sec, intensity of sound at a point will (r) 4
become maximum on how many occasions?
(D) Ratio of maximum and minimum intensities situation (i) will be (s) zero
SUBJECTIVE INTEGER TYPE
1
41. The amplitude of a wave disturbance propagating in the positive x-direction is given by y at t = 0 and
1 x2
1
by y at t = 1s, where x and y are in metres. The shape of the wave disturbance does not change
2 2x x2
during propagation. Find the velocity (in m/s) of the wave propagation.
42. A tuning fork P of unknown frequency gives 7 beats in 2 seconds with another tuning fork Q. When Q is moved
towards a wall to the right with a speed of 5 m/s it gives 5 beats per second for an observer located left to it. On
filing, P gives 6 beats per second with Q. If frequency of P is f, then find the value of {(f/100)+0.33} Assume
speed of sound = 332 m/s.
43. A band playing music at a frequency f is moving towards a wall at a speed vb. A motorist is following the band with
a speed vm. If v is the speed of sound, find the beat frequency heard by the motorist. (vb = vm = 20 m/s , Speed of
sound in air 320 m/s, f = 30 Hz)
44. A block having mass 8 kg, is suspended from a support through a string having linear mass density
20 10 4 kg / m . Find the speed (with respect to the string) with which speed (in cm/s) a wave pulse can proceed
at the bottom of the string if the point of support moves with an acceleration 8ˆi 4 ˆj . Take g = 10 m/s2.
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45. A string fixed at both ends is vibrating in its lowest mode of vibration for which midpoint has maximum
displacement. Frequency of vibration in this mode is 1 Hz. What will be the frequency (in HZ) of vibration, when
it vibrates in the next mode such that this point again has maximum displacement?
46. In a stationary wave pattern which is formed after reflection of a wave from an obstacle. The ratio of the amplitude
at an antinodes to the amplitude at node is 4. If X percentage of energy is reflected, then find the value of X/9.
47. Two waves given by following equation travels in a same string
y1 x, t 2 A sin kx t
y2 x, t A cos t sin kx
if the maximum displacement in the string is KA then find K.
48. A stationary source is emitting sound at a fixed frequency f0, which is reflected by two cars approaching the source.
The difference between the frequencies of sound reflected from the cars is 1.2% of f0. What is the difference in the
speeds of the cars (in km per hour) to the nearest integer ? The cars are moving at constant speeds much smaller
than the speed of sound which is 330 ms 1 .
49. A string of length 20 cm and linear mass density 0.40 g/cm is fixed both ends and is kept under a tension of 16N. A
wave pulse is produced at t = 0 near an end as shown figure which travels towards the other end.
When will the string have the shape shown in the figure again? (in 102 s )
50. A 4.0 kg block is suspended from the ceiling of an elevator through a string having a linear mass density
19.2 10 3 kg / m . The speed (with respect to the string) with which a wave pulse can proceed on the string if the
elevator accelerates up at the rate of 2.0 m / s 2 is 12.n. What is the value of n? Take g 10m / s 2
51. A plane progressive wave is given by x (40 cm) cos (50 / t 0.02y ) where y is in cm and t in s. The particle
1
velocity at y = 25 m in time t s will be 10 n m / s . What is the value of n .
100
52. A travelling wave is given by
0.8
y
(3 x 2 24 xt 48t 2 4)
where x and y ae in metres and t is in seconds. Find the velocity in m/s.
53. An ant with mass m is standing peacefully on top of a horizontal, stretched rope. The rope has mass per unit length
and is under tension F. Without warning, a student starts a sinusoidal transverse wave of wavelength
propagating along the rope. The motion of the rope is in a vertical plane. What minimum wave amplitude (in mm)
will make the ant feel weightless momentarily? Assume that m is so small that the presence of the ant has no effect
on the propagation of the wave.
[Given: 0.5 m, 0.1 kg / m, F 3.125 N , t ake g 2 ]
54. A tuning fork of frequency 200 Hz is in unison with a sonometer wire. How many beats are heard in 30 s if the
tension is increased by 1% (in terms of × 10)
55. A closed and an open organ pipe of same length are set into vibrations simultaneously in their fundamental mode to
produce 2 beats. The length of open organ pipe is now halved and of closed organ pipe is doubled. Now find the
number of beats produced.
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56. The average power transmitted across a cross-section by two sound waves moving in the same direction are equal.
The wavelengths of two sound waves are in the ratio of 1:2, then find the ratio their pressure amplitudes.
57. Loudness of sound from an isotropic point source at a distance of 70 cm is 20 dB. What is the distance (in m) at
which it is not heard.
58. An ambulance sounding a horn of frequency 264 Hz is moving towards a vertical wall with a velocity of 5 ms 1 . If
the speed of the sound is 330 ms 1 , how many beats per second will be heard by an observer standing a few meters
behind the ambulance?
59. The intensity of sound from a point source is 1.0 10 8 W / m2 at a distance of 5.0 m from the source. What will be
the intensity at a distance of 25 m from the source? (in 1010 W / m2 )
60. A string 120 cm in length sustains a standing wave, with the points of the string at which the displacement
amplitude is equal to 3.5 mm being separated by 15.0 cm. Find the maximum displacement amplitude. To which
overtone do these oscillations correspond?
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Advanced Problem Package Electrostatics
SINGLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE
Each of the following Question has 4 choices A, B, C & D, out of which ONLY ONE Choice is Correct.
1. S is a solid neutral conducting sphere. A point charge q = 1× 10–6 C is placed at point A. C is the centre of sphere
and AB is a tangent BC = 3 m and AB = 4 m. A B
(A) The electric potential at B due to induced charge on the sphere is 1.2 kV.
(B) The electric potential at B due to induced charge on the sphere is –1.2 kV.
(C) The electric potential at B due to induced charge on the sphere is –0.45 kV. C
(D) The electric potential at B due to induced charge on the sphere is 0.45 kV.
S
2. Consider a uniformly charged hemispherical shell shown below. Indicate the directions (not magnitude) of the
electric field at the central point P1 and an off-centre point P2 on the drumhead of the shell.
(A) ; (B) ; (C) ; (D) ;
3. On an imaginary planet the acceleration due to gravity is same as that on Earth but there is also a downward electric
field that is uniform close to the planet’s surface. A ball of mass m carrying a charge q is thrown upward at a speed v
and hits the ground after an interval t. What is the magnitude of potential difference between the starting point and the
top point of the trajectory?
mv gt mv gt mv 2 mv
(A) v (B) v (C) v gt (D) ( v gt )
2q 2 q 2 2q q
4. A system consists of a uniformly charged sphere of radius R and a surrounding medium filled by a charge with the
volume density = /r, where is a positive constant and r is the distance from the centre of the sphere. Find the
charge of the sphere for which the electric field intensity E outside the sphere is independent of r.
(A) /2 0 (B) 0 (C) R (D) None of these
5. Between two infinitely long wires having linear charge densities and – there are two points A and B as shown in
the figure. The amount of work done by the electric field in moving a point charge q0 from A to B is equal to :
q0 2 q0
(A) ln 2 (B) – ln 2
2 0 0
2 q0 q0
(C) ln 2 (D) ln 2
0 0
6. Figure shows two conducting thin concentric shells of radii r
and 3r. The outer shell carries charge q and inner shell is
neutral. The amount of charge which flows from inner shell to
the earth after the key K is closed, is equal to:
(A) –q/3 (B) q/3
(C) 3q (D) –3q
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y
7. A uniformly charged rod is kept on y-axis with centre at origin, as shown. Which
of the following actions will increase the electric field strength at the position of
the dot which lies at right bisector of rod.
(A) make the rod longer without changing the charge
dot
(B) make the rod shorter without changing the charge x x’
r
(C) make the rod shorter without changing the linear charge density
Charged rod
(D) rotate the rod about yy'
8. A circular disk of radius ‘a’ has uniform surface charge density on one side.
The potential at a point P on the circumference is: y’
a 2 a a 4 a
(A) (B) (C) (D)
0 0 2 0 0
9. Four point charges, +q, +q and –q, –q are placed on the vertices of a regular tetrahedron of edge length a. Each vertex
has one point charge. The magnitude of equivalent dipole moment of the tetrahedron is:
(A) Zero (B) qa 2 (C) 2qa (D) Not Defined
10. Positive charge Q is distributed uniformly over a circular ring of radius R. A particle having a mass m and a negative
charge q, is placed on its axis at distance X (x R) from the centre. The particle is now released from rest. Then
the time period of oscillation of the particle will be. (Neglect gravity)
1/ 2 1/ 2 1/ 2 1/ 2
4 3 0 mR3 8 3 0 mR3 32 30mR3 16 3 0 mR3
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Qq Qq Qq Qq
11. Three concentric metallic spherical shells of radii R, 2R, 3R, are given the charges Q1, Q2, Q3 respectively. It is found
that the surface charge densities on the outer surface of the shells are equal. Then, the ratio of the charges given to the
shells, Q1 : Q2 : Q3 is :
(A) 1:2 :3 (B) 1:3:5 (C) 1:4:9 (D) 1 : 8 : 18
12. A conducting shell having inner radius R1 and outer radius R2 contains a
charge +q which is placed at a distance x from its centre. Field at an exterior +q
P
point P which is situated at a distance r from centre of shell ( r R2 )
R1
(A) Depends on x (B) Depends on R1 and R2 r
(C) Depends only on r (D) None of these R2
13. A solid conducting sphere of radius 2R, carrying charge Q is surrounded by two
Q
point charges Q and 2Q as shown in the figure. The electric field at point P due to
Q R 2Q
the induced charges on conducting sphere is :
7 KQ 1 KQ O P
(A) 2
towards right (B) towards right
16 R 8 R2 3R 3R
KQ
(C) towards right (D) Zero
R2
14. Two small electric dipoles of dipole moment p j and pi are situated at (0, 0, 0) and (r, 0, 0) respectively. The
r 3r
electric potential at a point , , 0 is :
2 2
(A)
p
3 1
(B) 0 (C)
p
(D)
p
2
8 0 r 2
2 0 r 8 0 r 2
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15. The centres of two identical small spheres are 1 m apart. They carry charges of opposite kind and attract each other
with a force f. When they are connected by a conducting wire of negligible capacitance they repel each other with a
force f/3. Find the ratio of charges carried by the spheres initially.
(A) 4:1 (B) 3:1 (C) 2:1 (D) 1:1
MULTIPLE CORRECT ANSWERS TYPE
Each of the following Question has 4 choices A, B, C & D, out of which ONE or MORE Choices may be Correct:
16. A particle of mass m and charge q is thrown in a region where uniform gravitational field and electric field are
present. The path of particle (Neglect relativistic effects)
(A) may be a straight line (B) may be a circle
(C) may be a parabola (D) may be a hyperbola
17. For the situation shown in the figure, mark out the correct statement(s)
q
(A) Potential of the conductor is q B
4 0 ( d R ) d
q
R
(B) Potential of the conductor is
4 0 d Hollow neutral conductor
(C) Potential of the conductor can’t be determined as nature of distribution of induced charges is not known
qR
(D) Potential at point B due to induced charges is
4 0 ( d R ) d
R
18. A spherical conductor of radius 2R has a spherical cavity of radius . The cavity does not enclose the centre of
2
sphere. Charges Q1 and Q2 are placed as shown in figure. Q2 is at the center of cavity. An additional charge Q3 is
given to the sphere.
KQ1 K (Q2 Q3 )
(A) The potential of the sphere is
3R 2R
R
(B) The potential inside the cavity at a distance rr from the center of cavity is
2
kQ1 2kQ 2 kQ 2 kQ 3 kQ2
3R R r 2R 2 R
k (Q2 Q3 ) kQ1
(C) The value of potential outside the sphere at a distance r from the center of sphere is where
r r
r’ is the distance from Q 1
2Q1
(D) The charge that will flow into ground if the sphere is grounded Q2 Q3
3
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19. Two large conducting plates having surface charge densities + and –,
respectively, are fixed ‘d’ distance apart. A small test charge q of mass m is
attached to two identical springs as shown in the adjacent figure. The charge q is
now released from rest with springs in natural length. Then q will [neglect gravity]
2k
(A) perform SHM with angular frequency
m
q
(B) perform SHM with amplitude (C) not perform SHM, but will have a periodic motion
2 k 0
(D) remain stationary
20. Imagine a dipole is at the centre of an imaginary spherical surface. If magnitude of electric field at a certain point on
the surface of sphere is 10 N/C, then which of the following cannot be the magnitude of electric field anywhere on
the surface of sphere
(A) 4 N/C (B) 8 N/C (C) 16 N/C (D) 32 N/C
21. When positively charged sphere is brought near a metallic sphere, it is observed that a force of attraction exists
between two. It means:
(A) metallic sphere is necessarily negatively charged.
(B) metallic sphere may be electrically neutral
(C) metallic sphere may be negatively charged (D) nothing can be said about charge of metallic sphere.
22. Which of the following aspects is correct, when an uncharged metal sphere is placed
in a uniform electric field & electrostatic condition has been achieved
(A) The metal sphere will become charged now.
(B) The induced charges appearing on the surface of the sphere produce an electric field, at each point within the
sphere & outside sphere.
(C) The electric field lines, just outside the sphere are normal to the spherical surface.
(D) The electric field lines in the spherical region decrease, as soon as the sphere is placed.
23. Three equal point charges (Q) are kept at the three corners of an equilateral triangle ABC of side a. P is a point
having equal distance a from A, B and C. If E is the magnitude of electric field and V is the potential at point P, then
3Q 6Q 3Q 3 6Q
(A) E= (B) E= (C) V= (D) E=
40 a 2
40 a 2 40 a 40 a 2
24. Figure shows three spherical shells in separate situations, with each 1 4 7
shell having the same uniform positive net charge. Points 1, 4 and 7 2 8
5
are at the same radial distances from the centre of the their 3 6 9
respective shells; so are points 2, 5 and 8 ; and so are points 3, 6 and
9. With the electric potential taken equals to zero at an infinite
distance, choose correct statement.
(A) Point 3 has highest potential (B) Point 1, 4 and 7 are at same potential
(C) Point 9 has lowest potential (D) Point 5 and 8 are at same potential
25. Figure shows an arrangement of four identical rectangular plates A, B, C and D each of a b c
area S.Ignoring the separation between the plates in comparison to the plate dimensions,
the correct option(s) are : +Q1 +Q2
(A) Potential difference between plates A & B is independent of Q1.
(B) Potential difference between plates C & D is independent of Q1.
(C) Potential difference between plates A & B is independent of Q2.
(D) Potential difference between plates C & D is independent of Q2.
A B C D
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26. Choose the correct statement(s)
(A) Electrons in a conductor have no motion in the absence of a potential difference across it.
(B) Two identical metallic spheres of exactly equal masses are taken. One is given a positive charge Q coulombs
and the other an equal negative charge. Their masses after charging are different.
(C) A line of force in an electric field is the path traced by a unit positive charge, free to move in that field.
(D) The energy of a charged conductor is stored partly inside the conductor and partly outside the conductor.
27. In a uniform electric field, when we move from origin to x = 1m, the potential changes by 10V. Which of the
following can be a possible magnitude of the electric field.
(A) 10 V/m (B) 15 V/m (C) 5 V/m (D) 20 V/m
28. Figure shows a neutral metallic sphere with a point charge +Q placed near its surface. Electrostatic equilibrium
conditions exist on metallic sphere. Mark the correct statements:
Plane that divides
Gausian surface Spherical Gaussian surface
in two halves
+Q
Neutral metallic sphere
(A) Net flux through Gaussian surface due to charge Q is zero
(B) Net flux through Gaussian surface due to charges appearing on the outer surface of metallic sphere must be
zero
(C) If point charge Q is displaced towards metallic sphere, magnitude of net flux through right hemispherical
closed Gaussian surface increases.
(D) If point charge Q is displaced towards metallic sphere, charge distribution on outer surface of sphere will
change
29. Mark the correct statement(s) for the situation shown :
(A) If a point charge q is placed inside the cavity but not at centre, then
q
potential of the conductor is
4 0 R
(B) If a point charge q is placed at the centre of cavity, then potential of the
conductor will be zero
(C) If a point charge q is placed inside the cavity but not at centre the then
q 1 1 1
potential of the conductor will be
4 0 R r r1
(D) If a point charge q is placed inside the cavity but not at centre, then potential at the center of the conductor
q
due to charges on the outer surface of conductor is .
4 0 R
30. There is a fixed positive charge Q at O and A and B are points equidistant from O. A positive charge
+ q is taken slowly by an external agent from A to B along the line AC and then along the line CB.
(A) The total work done on the charge is zero Q
C
(B) The work done by the electrostatic force from A to C is negative O
(C) The work done by the electrostatic force from C to B is positive
(D) The work done by electrostatic force in taking the charge from A
to B is dependent on the actual path followed.
B
A
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31. An electron is placed just in the middle between two long fixed line charges of charge density + each. The wires are
in the xy plane (Do not consider gravity)
(A) The equilibrium of the electron will be unstable along x-direction
(B) The equilibrium of the electron will be neutral along y-direction
(C) The equilibrium of the electron will be stable along z-direction
(D) The equilibrium of the electron will be stable along y-direction
32. A wire having a uniform linear charge density, is bent in the form of a ring of a1
radius R. Point A as shown in the figure, is in the plane of the ring but not at the
centre. Two elements of the ring of lengths a1 and a2 subtend very small same angle r1
at the point A. They are at distances r1 and r2 from the point A respectively. A
(A) The ratio of charge of elements a1 and a2 is r1/r2.
(B) The element a1 produced greater magnitude of electric field at A than
r2
elementa2.
(C) The elements a1 and a2 produce same potential at A.
(D) The direction of net electric field at A is towards element a2. a2
33. Two thin infinite non-conducting plane sheets A and B are shown in the figure.
The surface charge densities on A and B are (2/) × 10–9 C/m2 and (–1/) ×
10–9 C/m2 respectively. C, D, E are three points where electric fields (in N/C)
are EC, ED and EE respectively.
(A) EC = 18, towards right (B) ED = 54, towards right
(C) ED = 18, towards right (D) EE = 18, towards left
34. The figure shows, two point charges q1 = 2Q (>0) and q2 = –Q. The charges divide the line joining them in three
parts I, II and III
(A) Region III has a local maxima of electric field
(B) Region I has a local minima of electric field
(C) Equilibrium position for a test charge lies in region (II)
(D) The equilibrium for constrained motion along the line joining the charges is stable for a negative test charge in
region (III).
35. In the case of an isolated charged conducting hollows sphere, the
(A) charge is uniformly distributed
(B) charge is not uniformly distributed
(C) field inside the sphere is zero
(D) potential of every point of the sphere is the same
36. The given charged particle of charge q and mass m is in circular
motion in vertical plane. String is massless and it’s one end is fixed at
point O. Velocity of projection is minimum so that it just completes
vertical circle. Electrical field is uniform, horizontal and in the plane
of vertical circle qE0 mg :
(A) Minimum velocity during the circular motion is 2g
(B) Difference between minimum and maximum tension is 6 2mg
(C) At the position of maximum tension angle made by the string with the vertical is 45°
(D) Maximum velocity during this circular motion is 10g
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37. Small identical balls with equal charges are fixed at the vertices of a regular polygon of N sides, each of length d. At a
certain instant, one of the ball is released. After a long time interval, the adjacent ball to the previous one is released.
The difference in kinetic energies of the two released balls is K at a sufficiently long distance from the polygon.
(A) Final kinetic energy of the first ball is greater than that of the second ball
(B) Final kinetic energy of the second ball is greater than that of the first ball
(C) Charge on each ball is 20 dK
(D) Charge on each ball is 40 dK
38. A point charge q is placed at the mid point on the axis of the given cylinderical surface which is open at it's end
points. (Length of the cylinder is 8R and diameter is 6R)
q
(A) Flux through two circular surfaces is
50
(B) Flux through curved surface is 8 times more than that through one
circular surface.
(C) If q is at shifted to center of one circular end then flux through cylinder will be q/2ε0
(D) All the above statements are correct
39. A ring has charge Q and radius R. If a charge q is placed at its centre then the increase in tension in the ring is
(A) Directly proportional to Q q (B) Inversely proportional to R2
(C) Inversely proportional to R3 (D) Independent of R
40. A conducting disc of radius R is rotating with an angular velocity . Assuming mass of electrons is m and charge is
e, the potential difference between the centre of the disc and the edge will be:
(A) Directly proportional to ω2 (B) Inversely proportional to R2
(C) Directly proportional to R2 (D) Inversely proportional to e
Paragraph for Q.41.–42.
r C2
A cylindrical cavity runs inside a uniformly positively charged solid cylinder of radius R
such that the axis of cavity is parallel to axis of cylinder. Radius of cavity is r and a
C1
separation between the axis of cylinder and cavity is a. The figure shows cross-section R
view such that plane of cross-sectional area is perpendicular to the axis of cylinder. The
volume charge density for the system is . Now answer the following question :
41. Consider any point P inside the cavity in a cross-sectional plane as shown in figure given in the above passage.
Direction of field at point P is :
(A) From point C1 to C2 (B) From point C2 to C1
(C) From point C1 to P (D) From point C2 to P
42. Magnitude of electric field intensity inside the cavity is :
a R r R
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 0 2 0 2 0 2 r
Paragraph for Q. 43.–47.
A rigid insulated wire frame in the form of a right-angled triangle ABC, is set in a
vertical plane as shown figure. Two beads of equal masses m each and carrying
charges q1 and q2 are connected by a cord of length and can slide without
friction on the wires. The beads are stationary.
43. The value of angle is:
(A) 30° (B) 45° (C) 60° (D) 75°
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44. The tension in the chord is :
q1q2 q1q2
(A) mg (B) (C) mg (D) zero
40 2 40
45. The normal reaction on bead P is :
(A) 2 mg (B) 2 mg (C) 3 mg (D) 3 mg
46. The normal reaction on bead Q is:
(A) mg (B) 2 mg (C) 2mg (D) 3 mg
47. If the cord is cut, the magnitude of the product | q1 q2 | of the charges for which the beads continue to remain
stationary is:
mg 2 3mg 2
(A) (B) (C) 3 (40 )mg 2 (D) (4 0 )mg 2
40 40
MATRIX MATCH TYPE
Each of the following question contains statements given in two columns, which have to be matched. Statements in
Column 1 are labelled as (A), (B), (C) & (D) whereas statements in Column 2 are labeled as p, q, r, s & t. More than one
choice from Column 2 can be matched with Column 1.
48. In the following diagrams, all the charges have equal magnitude
Column 1 Column 2
(A) + (P) The potential is zero at the centre ‘x’
+ +
Equilateral triangle
(B) + + (Q) The electric field is zero at the centre ‘x’
×
– –
Square
(C) + – (R) The electric field at a point on the axis
passing through the centre ‘x’ perpendicular
× to the plane of the figure is parallel to the axis
– +
Square
(D) + + (S) The electric field at a point on the axis
passing through the centre ‘x’ perpendicular
×
to the plane of the figure is perpendicular to
– – the axis.
Rectangle
(T) The potential energy of the system is
negative.
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49. In the figure shown two identical small charged balls having mass m and charge 'q' are suspended with the help of
two light inextensible silk strings each of length 'l'. At equilibrium the angular separation between the strings is ''
Column 1 Column 2
(A) If is very small then charge 'q' is proportional to (P) 3/2
(B) Tension T in string is proportional to (Q) l
(C) If system is taken in a satellite. Then tension T is (R)
proportional to
(D) Angular separation between the charges (at equalibrium) (S) l–2
in the satellite is
50. A thin uncharged spherical conducting shell of radius 'R' is shown in figure.
Two point charges +q and –2q are fixed at point A (inside shell) & point B
outside shell as shown in figure :
Column 1 Column 2
Kq
(A) Electric potential at 'O' (P) –
R
Kq
(B) Electric potential at 'O' due to charge (Q) +
R
induced on inner surface of shell
(C) Electric field strength at 'O' (R) zero
(D) Electric field strength at 'O' due to (S) cannot be calculated easily
charge on outer surface of shell
SUBJECTIVE INTEGER TYPE
51. The figure shows a conducting sphere 'A' of radius 'a' which is surrounded by a
neutral conducting spherical shell B of radius 'b' (>a). Initially switches S1, S2 and
S3 are open and sphere 'A' carries a charge Q. First the switch 'S1' is closed to
connect the shell B with the ground and then opened. Now the switch 'S2' is closed
so that the sphere 'A' is grounded and then S2 is opened. Finally, the switch 'S3' is
closed to connect the spheres together. Find 5Q if Q is the heat (in Joule) which is
produced after closing the switch S3. [Consider b = 4 cm, a = 2 cm and Q = 8 C]
Q Q
52. Three balls of equal mass m are connected by light insulating inextensible threads
m A B m
of lengtheach and kept on a level smooth non conducting ground. The balls A
and B are given charge Q each. The strings are all taut. The string connecting A
and B suddenly snaps. What is the maximum speed (in m/s) of C during the
resulting motion? Q = 1µC, = 1.5 m, mass m = 1 gm.
C
m
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53. The electric field strength depends only on the x, y and z coordinates according to the law
a( xiˆ yjˆ zkˆ)
E= ,where a = 280 Nm2/c is a constant. Find V0/4 if V0 is the potential difference between (3, 2,
2 3/2
x 2 2
y z
6) and (0, 3, 4) (in volts).
54. If a charge q (1 mc) is moving towards the centre of an earthed conducting sphere of radius 1m with a velocity 2mm
s–1. Find 4i if i is the current (in A) flowing in the ammeter shown in figure, when q is at a distance 2m from centre
of sphere. Ammeter is ideal ?
• .C
+q A
R
E
55. Two mutually perpendicular infinite wires along x-axis and y-axis carry
charge densities 1 and 2. The electric line of force at P is along the Y
2
1 P
line y = x , where P is also a point lying on the same line then find O
3 x
1
2 /1.
56. A particle is uncharged and is thrown vertically upward from ground level with a speed of 5 5 m / s . As a result, it
attains a maximum height h. The particle is then given a positive charge +q and reaches the same maximum height h
when thrown vertically upward with a speed of 13 m/s. Finally, the particle is given a negative charge -q. Ignoring air
resistance, determine the speed (in m/s) with which the negatively charged particle must be thrown vertically upward,
so that it attains exactly the same maximum height h. Consider a uniform electric field in downward direction.
57. The potential inside a charged ball depends only on the distance from its centre as=ar2+b, where a and b are
constants. Find n if the space charge density(r) inside the ball is -n0a.
58. A charge Q is located some where inside a hemisphere such that depth of charge from base of hemisphere is d. it is
2Q
found that flux associated with the hemisphere is . If the charge is raised vertically through a height 2d, then
3 0
Q d
flux is , what is value of
3 0 Q
59. A rod AB of mass m and is positively charged with linear charge density coulm. It is pivoted at end A and is
hanging freely. If a horizontal electric field E is switched on in the region, the initial angular acceleration of the rod
E
is X times of then X is
2M
60. Two identical beads each have a mass m 1.6 K 3 SI units. Where
1
ke 9.0 109 Nm2 / C 2 and charge q = 1C .When placed in a fixed
40
hemispherical bowl of radius R with frictionless, nonconductive walls, the beads
move, and at equilibrium the distance between them is R = 2 m. Determine the
charge in C on each bead:
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61. A solid sphere of radius ‘R’ is uniformly charged with charge density in its
R
volume. A spherical cavity of radius is made in the sphere as shown in the figure.
2
nR 2
The electric potential at the centre of the sphere is . Find the value of n.
12 0
62. The volume charge density as a function of distance X from one face inside a unit cube is varying as shown in the
figure. Then the total flux (in S.I. units) through the cube if 0 8.85 10 12 C / m3 is :
63. A ring of radius (R = 6ε0 )m having a linear charge density ( = 2/ π) C/m moves
R
towards a solid imaginary sphere of radius , so that the centre of ring of ring
2
passes through the centre of sphere. The axis of the ring is perpendicular to the line
joining the centres of the ring and the sphere. The maximum flux through the sphere
in this process is:
64 A non-conducting spherical ball of radius R contains a spherically symmetric charge with volume charge density
kr n , where r is the distance from the center of the ball and n is a constant. What should be n such that the
electric field inside the ball is directly proportional to square of distance from the centre.
65. A uniform surface charge of density = 20 ε0 SI units, is given to a quarter
of a disc extending upto infinity in the first quadrant of x-y plane. The centre
of the disc is at the origin O. Find the potential difference between the points
(0, 0, 1) & (0, 0, 2)
66. Four infinite line charge each of charge density λ = 1 × 10 -9 C/m
kept perpendicular to x-y plane and passing through corners of square
of side length ‘a = 18 m’. O is the centre of square (see figure).
The value of electric field at point M (mid-point of one of the side) is:
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67. Eight point charges are placed at eight corners of a cube as shown in
figure. If maximum value of flux passing through one of the surface
nq
of cube is . Find the value of n.
240
68. In a certain region of space a uniform and constant electric field is present. A proton is fired from a point 'A' in the
field with speed v 4 104 m/s at an angle of with the field direction. The proton reaches a point B in the field
sin
where its velocity makes an angle with the field direction. If 3 . The electric potential difference between
sin
the points A and B is X times of 4V. Find X, taking m p (mass of proton) 1.6 1027 kg and e (magnitude of
electronic charge) 1.6 1019 C .
69. A thin rigid insulating ring of mass m = 0.1 kg and radius R = 1 m is free to rotate about a fixed vertical axis O,
perpendicular to the plane of the ring (see Figure). Ring uniformly charged in length and its charge is Q = 100π C . A
very small piece of the ring in the area of point A cut so that you will get a gap of length l =0.1 m. A uniform electric
field E = 4 N/C is applied parallel to 'l' and the ring is released from rest.
The maximum angular velocity ω of the ring in the subsequent motion will be :
70. A point dipole of dipole moment piˆ is placed on x-axis at (4m, 0, 0). The region is having an electric field intensity
given by E 3x 2 iˆ 6 xyjˆ 3z 2 kˆ the force experienced by the dipole is X times of 6 piˆ , where X is
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Advanced Problem Package DC Circuits and Capacitors
SINGLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE
Each of the following Question has 4 choices A, B, C & D, out of which ONLY ONE Choice is Correct.
1. If certain number of bulbs rated as (P1 watt, V volt), (P2 watt, V volt) .....are connected in series across a potential
difference of V volt, then power 'P' consumed by all bulbs is given as:
1 1 1 1
(A) P = P1 + P2 + P3........... (B) ...........
P P1 P2 P3
P2 = P1 P2 P3 ............
2 2 2
(C) (D) None of these
2. In the given circuit, the galvanometer G will show zero deflection if:
+ –
R1 R2 R3 R4
(A) R1R2 = R3R4 (B) R1R3 = R2R4 (C) R1R4 = R2R3 (D) none of the above
3. Two scales on a voltmeter measure voltages up to 20.0 V and 30.0 V. The resistance connected in series with the
galvanometer is 1680for the 20.0 V scale and 2930 for the 30.0 V scale. The resistance of the galvanometer and
the full scale current are respectively
(A) 320 and 8 mA (B) 70 and 10 Ma (C) 820 and 10 mA (D) 820 and 8 mA
4. The equivalent resistance between A and B in the r
arrangement of resistance, as shown, is : r
(A) 4r 2r r r
(B) 3r A B
(C) 2.5r r r r
(D) r 2r r
5. A conductor of resistivity and resistance R, as shown in the figure, is connected across a battery of emf V. Its radius
varies from 'a' at left end to 'b' at right end. The electric field at a point P at distance x from left end of it is:
Vl 2ρ 2Vl 2ρ
(A) 2
(B) 2
πR la (b a) x πR la (b a) x
Vl 2ρ
(C) 2
(D) none of these
2πR la (b a) x
6. A piece of conducting wire of resistance R is cut into 2n equal parts. Half the parts are connected in series to form a
bundle and remaining half in parallel to form another bundle. These bundles are then connected to give the maximum
resistance. The maximum resistance of the combination is
R 1 R R 1
(A) 1 2
2 n
(B)
2
1 n2 (C)
2(1 n 2 )
(D) Rn
n
7. A milli ammeter of range 5 mA and resistance 0.5Ω is joined in a circuit as shown. 0.5Ω 5mA
Find the value of current for which meter gives full scale deflection when A and B are
used as terminals : 0.1Ω 0.2Ω 0.3Ω
(A) 50 mA (B) 5mA
(C) 100 mA (D) 1A B C D
A
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8. Two batteries one of emf 3 V, internal resistance 1 ohm and the other of emf 15 V,
internal resistance 2 ohm are connected in series with a resistance R as shown. If the p.d.
between a and b is zero, the resistance of R in ohm is:
(A) 5 (B) 7 (C) 3 (D) 1 R
9. In the circuit segment shown, the potential difference VB – VA = 11 V at an instant when the Q = 16 C. What can be
said about the capacitor at this instant?
(A) it is absorbing power at the rate of 20 mW
(B) it is delivering power at the rate of 9.3 mW
(C) it is delivering power at the rate of 20 mW
(D) it is absorbing power at the rate of 9.3 mW
10. In the given circuit, the capacitor of capacitance C is charged by closing key K at t
= 0. Find the time required to charge the capacitor upto maximum charge for the
given circuit, if it were to be charged with the constant initial charging rate at t = 0
in the given circuit.
RC 2 RC 2 RC 5RC
(A) (B) (C) (D)
3 5 3 3
11. A metal sphere of radius ‘a’ is surrounded by a concentric metal sphere of radius ‘b’ (b > a). The space between the
spheres is filled with a material whose electrical conductivity varies with the electric field strength E according to
relation = kE, where k is a constant. A potential difference V is maintained between two spheres. The current between
the spheres is:
4πkV 2 2πkV 2 πkV 2 8πkV 2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
n b / a 2 n b / a 2 4 n b / a 2 n b / a 2
12. Charge on capacitor in steady state :
(A) CV
R
(B) CV/2 V
1 O
(C) CV 1 C R
2R
(D) Zero
13. From a supply of identical capacitors rated 8 µF, 250 V, the minimum number of capacitors required to form a
composite 16 µF, 1000 V capacitor is :
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 16 (D) 32
14. Five identical capacitor plates are arranged such that they make four 10V
capacitors each of 2F. The plates are connected to a source of emf. 10 V.
A
The charge on plate C is B
(A) +20 C (B) +40C C
(C) +60C (D) +80C D
E
15. The plates of a parallel plate capacitor are given surface charge densities +, . A dielectric slab of dielectric constant
‘’ is introduced between the plates. If the area of plates is A, then the force by a capacitor plate on the facing dielectric
surface is :
2 1 A 2 1 A 2 1 A 2 1 A
(A) (B) (C) (D)
20 2 0 2 0 202
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MULTIPLE CORRECT ANSWERS TYPE
Each of the following Question has 4 choices A, B, C & D, out of which ONE or MORE Choices may be Correct:
16. A source of constant potential difference is connected across a
conductor having irregular cross-section as shown in figure. Then:
(A) Electric field intensity at P is greater than that at Q
(B) Rate of electrons crossing per unit area of cross-section at P is less than that at Q
(C) The rate of generation of heat per unit length at P is greater than that at Q
(D) Mean kinetic energy of free electron at P is greater than that at Q
17. In the figure, a conductor of non-uniform cross-section is shown. A steady current I flows in it.
(A) The electric field at A is more than at B.
(B) The electric field at B is more than at A.
(C) The thermal power generated at A is more than at B in an element of small width.
(D) The thermal power generated at B is more than at A in an element of small width.
18. Potential difference between points A and B (i.e. VA VB) is
(A) 4V (B) 6V (C) 4V (D) 6V
19. In the potentiometer circuit of given figure, the galvanometer reveals a current in the
direction shown wherever the sliding contact touches the wire. This could be caused by
(A) E1 being too low (B) r being too high
(C) a break in PQ (D) E2 being too low
20. The galvanometer shown in the figure has resistance 10 .It is shunted by a series combination of a resistance S = 1
and an ideal cell of emf 2V. A current 2A passes as shown. Then:
(A) The reading of the galvanometer is 1A
(B) The reading of the galvanometer is zero
(C) The potential difference across the resistance S is 1.5 V
(D) The potential difference across the resistance S is 2 V
21. In the circuit shown in figure, E1 and E2 are two ideal sources of unknown
emfs. Some currents are shown. Potential difference appearing across 6 2.00A R
resistance is VA – VB = 10V.
(A) The current in the 4.00 resistor is 5A. E1 E2
A
(B) The unknown emf E1 is 36 V.
(C) The unknown emf E2 is 54 V. 4.00 3.00 3.00 6.00
(D) The resistance R is equal to 9 . 3.00A
B
4.00
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22. In the circuit shown, R1 = R2 = 10 and resistance per unit length of wire PQ = 1/cm and length PQ =10 cm. If R2 is
made 20 then to get zero deflection in galvanometer: (S is midpoint of wire PQ). R
(A) The jockey at P can be moved towards right 2 cm. R1 R2
(B) The jockey at Q can be moved towards right 2 cm.
12V
(C) The jockey at S can be moved towards left a distance 5/3 cm. P Q
S
(D) The jockey at all positions fixed and R1 should be made 20
G
R R1 R2
23. The diagram shows a modified meter bridge, which is used for measuring two
unknown resistance at the same time. When only the first galvanometer is
used, for obtaining the balance point, it is found at point C. Now the first G G
galvanometer is removed and the second galvanometer is used, which gives B
A
balance point at D. Using the details given in the diagram, find out the value C D
of R1 and R2.
2
(A) R1 = 5R/3 (B) R2 = 4R/3 AB = L; AC = L/4 and AD =
(C) R1 = 4R/3 (D) R2 = 5R/3 3
24. Choose the correct statement(s) :
(A) The 10V battery is getting discharged
(B) The 5V battery is getting charged
(C) The 5V battery is getting discharged
(D) The 10V battery is getting charged
25. If the switch at point P is opened (shown in the figure), choose the correct option:
(A) the current in R1 would decrease.
(B) the potential difference between point X and the ground would increase
(C) the current provided by the battery would increase
(D) the Potential difference across the battery (assumed to have no
internal resistance) would change.
26. A battery of emf 0 5V and internal resistance 5Ω is connected across a long uniform wire AB of length 1 m and
resistance per unit length 5Ω m–1. Two cells
of 1 1V and 2 2V are connected as
shown in the figure. Then:
(A) The null point is at A
(B) If the jockey is touched to point B the current in the galvanometer will be flowing towards B
(C) When Jockey is connected to point A no current is flowing through 1 V battery
(D) The null point is at distance of 8/15 m from A
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27. All bulbs consume same power. The resistance of bulb 1 is 36 .
(A) Resistance of bulb 3 is 9
(B) resistance of bulb 4 is 4
(C) Voltage output of the battery if the power of each bulb is 4W is 16 V
(D) None of these
28. In the circuit shown in figure, E1 and E2 are two ideal sources of
1A R
unknown emfs. Some currents are shown. Potential difference
appearing across 6 ohm resistance is VA VB = 10V. E1 E2
(A) The current in the 4.00Ω resistor in between C and D is 5A A
(B) The unknown emf E1 is 29 V
(C) The unknown emf E2 is 51V 4 3 3 6
(D) The resistance R is equal to 22Ω 2A
B
C 4 D
29. For the circuit shown:
(A) Current across AC is 0.98A (B) Current across CD is 0.34A
(C) Current across DB is 2.41A (D) Current across AD is 2.75A
30. When the key K is pressed at time t = 0, which of the following statements about the current I in the resistor A of the
adjoining circuit will be true?
(A) I = 2 mA at t = 0 (B) I oscillates between 1 mA & 2 mA
(C) I = 1 mA finally (D) at t = 0, I = 2 mA and with time it decreases to 1 mA
31. In the figure shown, C1 = 11F and C2 = 5 F, then at steady state :
(A) the potential difference across C1 is 5V
(B) the potential difference across C2 is 2V
(C) the potential difference between points a and b is –4V
(D) the potential difference between the terminals of 15 V battery is 9V
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32. Two identical capacitors are connected in series as shown in the figure. A dielectric slab ( > 1) is placed between the
plates of the capacitor B and the battery remains connected. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct following
the insertion of the dielectric?
(A) The charge supplied by the battery increases.
(B) The capacitance of the system increases.
(C) The electric field in the capacitor B increases.
(D) The electrostatic potential energy decreases.
33. A capacitor of capacitance C is connected to two voltmeters A and B. A is an ideal voltmeter having infinite resistance,
while B has resistance R. The capacitor is uncharged and then the switch S is closed at t = 0.Then: A
(A) Readings of B and A will be and zero at t = 0 B
(B) During time interval (0 t ) readings of B and A are changing C
(C) Reading of A and B will be equal at t = RC ln 2
(D) None of these S
34. Capacitor C is initially uncharged. X is joined to Y for a long time, during which H1 heat is produced in resistance R. X
is now joined to Z for a long time, during which H2 heat is produced in R. Then:
(A) H1 = H2
(B) H1 = 2H2
(C) Energy supplied by cell during charging equals 2H2
(D) Energy supplied by cell during charging equals H1 + H2
35. Figure shows a network of capacitors and resistances in steady state.
Potentials of some of the points are given. Then :
(A) Potential at M = 2.6 V
(B) Potential at N = –1.6 V
(C) Charge across 2f capacitor is 8.4 C
(D) Charge across 2f capacitor is 4.2C
36. Consider the circuit shown, where C1 6 F , C2 3 F and V = 20V.
Capacitor C1 is first charged by closing the switch S1. Switch S1 is then opened,
and the charged capacitor is connected to the uncharged capacitor C2 by closing S2. V C1 C2
Then:
(A) Total charge that has flown through the battery is 120 C
(B) Final charge on C2 after opening switch S1 & closing switch S2 is 80 C S1 S2
(C) Final charge on C2 after opening switch S1 & closing switch S2 is 40C
(D) Total heat produced after closing switch S2 is 1.8 mJ
37. Three uncharged parallel plate capacitors are connected in the given figure. Now charge Q is given to point A with the
help of some external source. Then choose the correct statements:
(A) Charge on capacitor C1 is 2Q/3 (B) Charge on capacitor C2 is 2Q/3
(C) Charge on capacitor C3 is 2Q/3 (D) Potential at point A is 2Q/3C.
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38. The capacitor 'C' is initially uncharged. Switch S1 is closed for a long time
while S2 remains open. Now at t= 0, S2 is closed while S1 is opened. All
the batteries are ideal and connecting wires are resistance less.
E
(A) At time t = 0 (just after S2 is closed), reading of ammeter is
5R
(B) At time t = 0 (just after S2 is closed), reading of ammeter is zero
9
(C) Heat developed till time t = 5 RC ln2 in resistance 3R is CE2
40
(D) After time t > 0 charge on the capacitor follows the equation CEe t /5 RC
39. In the given circuit diagram, initial charge on capacitor is zero.
Choose correct option(s):
(A) Current through battery just after closing of switch is 12 Amp.
(B) Current through capacitor just after closing of switch is 8 Amp.
(C) Switch is closed and when steady state of current is achieved the current through battery is 9 Amp
(D) Switch is closed and when steady state of current is achieved the current through 6 is 4.5 Amp.
40. An uncharged capacitor is connected in circuit as shown in figure. Power ratings
of bulbs are given. At t 0 , switch is closed:
3P0
(A) At t 0, power consumption in circuit is
2
P0
(B) After a long time power consumption in circuit is
2
(C) Brightness of B1 decreases with time
(D) Initially brightness of B2 is less than B1, but later B2 will be brighter
41. A parallel plate capacitor is dipped in a dielectric liquid vertically, so that half of capacitor is in liquid. Plates of
capacitor are joined to an ideal battery of emf . A, B, A and B are four points on plate at facing surface as shown.
Which of the following is/are correct?
(A) VA VB V A VA
(B) VA VB VB VA
(C) Electric field around A in air = Electric field around B in liquid.
(D) Electric field around B in liquid = Electric field around B in liquid.
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42. In the circuit shown, all the switches are open initially and all capacitors are uncharged. Now first only S1 is closed and
opened when steady state is reached, then S2 is closed and open when again steady state is reached, after this S3 is
closed and open when steady state is reached, this process is repeated continuously.
The charge on capacitors is:
(A) After closing S1, charge on C = 27CV
(B) After closing S2 , charge on 2C 18 CV
(C) After closing S3 , charge on 4C 12 CV
(D) After closing S4 , charge on 8C 8CV
43. The instantaneous charge on a capacitors in two discharging RC circuits is plotted with respect to time in figure. Choose
the correct statement(s) (where E1 and E2 are emf of two DC sources in two different charging circuits).
C
(A) E1 2 E2 if C1 2
2
R1 C 2
(B)
R2 C1
(C) R1 R2 if E1 E 2
E2 E1
(D)
C1 C2
44. An uncharged capacitor C is charged upto steady state by using a battery of emf E connected through a resistor R. If PR
= rate of heat being dissipated in resistor and PC = rate of energy being stored in the capacitor and PE is rate of work
done by battery, then.
(A) PE PC PR at every instant (B) PR has maxima at t 0
1
(C) PE = PC PR just before steady state (D) PC dt PR dt 2 PE dt
0 0 0
45. A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance 10 F is connected to a cell of emf 10 Volt and fully charged. Now a dielectric
slab (k = 3) of thickness equal to the gap between the plates, is completely filled in the gap, keeping the cell connected.
During the filling process:
(A) The increase in charge on the capacitor is 200 C.
(B) The heat produced is zero.
(C) Energy supplied by the cell = increase in stored potential energy + work done on the person who is filling the
dielectric slab.
(D) Energy supplied by the cell = increase in stored potential energy + work done on the person who is filling the
dielectric slab + heat produced.
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Paragraph for Q. 46. to 48.
A circuit is shown below.
A
B
R R
reading of C
46. If A is an ideal ammeter, B an ideal Battery of voltage V, and C an ideal voltmeter, what will be the ?
reading of A
R
(A) R (B) 2R (C) (D) 0
2
47. If A is a capacitor, B is an ideal ammeter and C is an ideal battery of voltage V, what is the voltage across the capacitor?
V
(A) V (B) (C) 2V (D) 0
2
48. If B is an inductor of inductance L, A an ideal battery of voltage V and C an ideal battery of voltage 2V each connected
so that the anode is facing left, what is voltage across B as soon as the circuit is connected?
V 3V
(A) (B) V (C) (D) 0
2 2
K
Paragraph for Q. 49 - 51 E1 E2
A B
In the circuit shown initially capacitor is charged through E2 C
R1 R2
49. Just after the switch K is closed, the magnitude of current in amperes through resistance R1 is :
E1 E2 E2 E1 E2 E1 E2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
R1 R2 R1 R2 R2 R1
50. VA and VB are potential of points A and B respectively. After the switch K is closed the potential difference VB VA
(A) Remains constant (B) Decreases
(C) Increases and then becomes constant after long time
(D) Decreases and then becomes constant after long time
51. Long after the switch K is closed, the magnitude of charge on the capacitor in steady state is :
1 2 1 R2 2 R1 1 R1 2 R2
(A) C (B) C (C) C (D) C
R1 R2 R1 R2 R1 R2
K1
Paragraph for Q.52. – 54.
In the circuit shown, AB is a 10Ω uniform 50cm long slide wire. E1 is 2 V
accumulator of negligible internal resistance. R1 and R2 are 15Ω and 5Ω E1 = 2V
respectively. When k1 and k2 are both open, the galvanometer shows no deflection R1 = 15 Ω
when AJ = 31.25. When k1 and k2 are both closed the balance length AJ = 5 cm
J
A B
52. The emf of the cell E2 is:
E2 G
(A) 0.5 V (B) 1V
(C) 1.5 V (D) 2V K2
R2 = 5 Ω
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53. The internal resistance of the cell E2 is:
(A) 7.5Ω (B) 8Ω (C) 10Ω (D) 2Ω
54. The balance length AJ when k2 is open and k1 is closed is:
(A) 12.5 cm (B) 13.5 cm (C) 14.5 cm (D) 15.5 cm
Paragraph for Q.55.- 57.
Three identical large metal plates a, b and c each of area A are placed at a separation as c
shown. Plate C is initially uncharged, while plate a and b are given initial charge
R 2d
Q and Q respectively. A resistance R is also connected with a switch S. Initially switch b
S is open. Switch S is closed at time t = 0. At any time t, charge on upper face of plate b is S d
q1 and charge on lower face of plate b is q2. a
0 A
(Given Q 60 C , 6 F , R 1000Ω )
d
55. Before closing switch S, the energy stored between the plates a and c are :
(A) 100 J (B) 200 J (C) 300 J (D) 450 J
56. Value of q1 is (in C):
(A)
20 1 e 500t (B)
30 1 e500t (C) 40 20e500t (D) 20e 500t
57. Long time after the switch S is closed the value of q2 is :
(A) 10C (B) 20C (C) 30 C (D) 40C
MATRIX MATCH TYPE
Each of the following question contains statements given in two columns, which have to be matched. Statements
in Column 1 are labelled as (A), (B), (C) & (D) whereas statements in Column 2 are labeled as p, q, r, s & t. More
than one choice from Column 2 can be matched with Column 1.
58. Column 1 has some conductor across which battery is connected as shown. Variation of resistivity is also indicated.
Which of the quantities in column 2 remain constant throughout the volume of conductor.
Column 1 Column 2
(A) (p) Magnitude of electric field
(B) (q) Magnitude of current density
(C) (r) Electric power dissipated per unit volume
(D) (s) Drift speed of free electron
(t) None of these
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59. On a parallel plate air capacitor of capacitance C0 having plate separation d, following steps are performed in the order
as given in column 1.
(A) Capacitor is charged by connecting it across a battery of EMF V0.
(B) Dielectric of dielectric constant k and thickness d is inserted
(C) Capacitor is disconnected from battery
(D) Separation between plates is doubled
Column1 Column 2
(Steps performed in order) Final value of Quantity (Symbols have usual meaning)
C0V0
(A) (a)(d)(c)(b) (p) Q=
2
kC0V0
(B) (d)(a)(c)(b) (q) Q=
k 1
kC0
(C) (b)(a)(c)(d) (r) C=
k 1
V0 ( k 1)
(D) (a)(b)(d)(c) (s) V=
2k
60. In the given circuit, initially capacitor has some charge. The switch is closed at t = 0.
Column 1 : Variables Column 2 : Possible graphs
(A) Charge v/s time (p)
(B) Current v/s time (q)
(C) Charge v/s current (r)
(D) Energy stored in capacitor v/s time (s)
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61. In the circuit shown in each situation of column-I, all cells are ideal, resistance of ammeter is 1ohm and resistance of
voltmeter is 600 ohm. Match each situation in column-I with corresponding voltmeter and ammeter reading given in
column-II.
Column I Column II
200
100 V 299 1
V
(A) (p) Ammeter reading 6 A
A
199
(B) 100 V 300 V (q) Voltmeter reading is 50 V
A
V
300
100 V 199
600
(C) A
(r) Voltmeter reading is V
11
300
100 V 299 1
(D)
A
(s) Ammeter reading is 4 A
V
SUBJECTIVE INTEGER TYPE
62. The circuit consists of resistors and ideal cells. I1 and I 2 are current through branches indicated in the figure.
I2
VA and VB are the potential at points A and B on the circuit. The value of is:
I1
63. A resistance R of thermal coefficient of resistivity is connected in parallel with a resistance 3 R, having thermal
x
coefficient of resistivity 2. The value of eff is . Calculate x ? ( is very small)
4
64. A beam of fast moving electrons having cross-sectional area A = 1 cm2 falls normally on a flat surface. The electrons
are absorbed by the surface and the average pressure exerted by the electrons on this surface is found to be P = 9.1 Pa. If
the electrons are moving with a speed v = 8×107 m/s, then find the effective current (in A) through any cross-section of
the electron beam. (Mass of electron = 9.1 ×10–31 kg)
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V1 V2
65. In the circuit shown in the figure, the electromotive force of the battery is 9 V and
its internal resistance is 15 . The two identical voltmeters can be considered
ideal. Let V1 and V1' be the reading of 1st voltmeter when switch is open and 10 20
closed respectively. Similarly, V2 and V2' be the reading of 2nd voltmeter when
V2 V1
switch is open and closed respectively. Find . 15
V2 V1 9V
66. In the circuit shown below, all the three voltmeters are identical and have very high resistance. Each resistor has the
same resistance. The voltage of the ideal battery shown is 9V. Find the reading of voltmeter V3 (in volts).
67. In the given circuit, find the value of R so that thermal power generated in R will be maximum.
68. The figure shows a portion of an electric circuit. Resistors are known and are indicated on the diagram and the
voltmeters are identical. If the voltmeters V1 and V2 read 7.5V and 5.0V respectively. Find the reading of voltmeter V3
(in volts)?
69. Calculate the energy stored in the capacitor of capacitance 2 F , at the instant when the voltmeter 'V' gives a reading of
15V and the ammeter A reads 15 mA. Resistance of voltmeter is unknown and ammeter is 999.
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70. A cylindrical tube of length L has inner radius a and outer radius b
as shown in the figure. The resistance of the tube between its inner and
b
outer surfaces is X times of In . [Assume resistivity of
2 L a
material be .] X will be ___________.
71. Figure shows a part of circuit at t 0, change on capacitor as a function of time is given by q 3(1 e t ) coulombs. At
t 0, Current through branch containing capacitor in Amp is _________.
5
72. Five identical large conducting plates each of area A are placed parallel to each 4 d
other at separation d. Plates 1 and 3 are connected by thin conducting wire and plate 3 d V
2 and 5 are connected by another thin conducting wire. The junction of plate 1 and 2 d
3 and plate 4 are connected by a battery having emf V as shown. 1 d
The system is in steady state. Now, Plate 4 is moved upward slowly so, that it comes in contact with plate 5. The amount
0 A
of work done by battery during motion of plate 4 is x mJ (Here 30 F , V = 10 volts). Find the value of x.
d
73. The equivalent capacitance is X times C µF between A and B. [Assume each conducting plate has A area of plates and
A > > d and C = ]: Then X is ________.
74. In the figure shown, the equivalent capacitance between A and B is X F. Then find the value of X.
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75. A network of six identical capacitors, each of value C is made as shown in the figure. Equivalent capacitance between
points A and B is X times C, where X is ________.
76. The net charge flown between points A and B when the switch is closed in the given circuit is given by X CE. Where X
is [given that initially all capacitors are uncharged]
77. ABCD is a square frame made from different wires of same length and each
having different uniform resistance per unit length. Resistances of wires forming
sides AB, BC, CD and DA are 100, 400 , 500 and 200 respectively. An
ideal cell is connected across B and D. A straight conducting wire containing a
resistance and a galvanometer in series starts rotating about pivoted point A
from initial position as shown with uniform angular velocity rad/sec.
360
One end of the straight wire (rotating) is pivoted at A and other end always in sliding contact with a side of the square.
The time after starting when galvanometer shows zero deflection is X times 37 sec. X is_________.
78. In the given circuit diagram, the reading of ideal ammeter connected between point A and B its reading is 5A.If
ammeter of resistance 3 is connected between A and B, its reading is 3A. What will be reading of ideal voltmeter if it
is connected between A and B?
79. The equivalent resistance of network between terminals 1 & 2 is X times R. X is
_______. (All resistances are equal to R.)
80. The capacitor is charged by closing the switch S . The switch is then
opened and the capacitor is allowed to discharge. Let 1 and 2 be the
time constant of the circuit during the charging and discharging of the
capacitor respectively. Take R1 R2 R3 R (Battery is ideal and
1 2
connecting wire has negligible resistance). Ratio of is . Find the
2 n
value of n .
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Advanced Problem Package Magnetic Effect of Current
SINGLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE
Each of the following Question has 4 choices A, B, C & D, out of which ONLY ONE Choice is Correct.
1. A conductor of mass m and length l is placed perpendicular to a horizontal uniform magnetic field B.
Suddenly a certain amount of charge is passed through it, and it is found to jump to a height h. The
amount of charge that passes through the conductor is :
m gh m gh m 2 gh
(A) (B) (C) (D) None of these
Bl 2 Bl Bl
2. The segment AB of wire carrying current I1 is placed perpendicular to a long straight
wire carrying current I2 as shown in figure. The magnitude of force experienced by the
straight wire AB is :
0 I1I 2 0 I1I 2
(A) ln 3 (B) ln 2
2 2
2 0 I1I 2 0 I1I 2
(C) (D)
2 2
3. A tightly-wound long solenoid has n turns per unit length, radius r and carries a current i. A particle
having charge q and mass m is projected from a point on the axis in the direction perpendicular to the
axis. The maximum speed for which particle does not strike the solenoid will be :
0 qrni 0 qrni 2 0 qrni
(A) (B) (C) (D) None of these
2m m 3m
4. If the acceleration and velocity of a charged particle moving in a constant magnetic region is given by
v = b i + b k . [a1, a2, b1 and b2 are constants], then choose the wrong statement :
a = a i + a k,
1 2 1 2
(A) Magnetic field may be along y-axis (B) a1b1 a2b2 0
(C) Magnetic field is along x-axis (D) Kinetic energy of particle is always constant
5. A uniform solid non conducting sphere of radius R and total charge q rotates about its diametric axis with
constant angular speed . The magnetic moment of the sphere is :
1 2 2 2 1 2 2 2
(A) qR (B) qR (C) qR (D) qR
3 3 5 5
6. The magnetic field at the origin due to the current flowing in
the wire as shown in figure below is :
I
(A) 0 i k
8 a
0 I
(B)
2 a
ik
0 I
(C)
8 a
i k
0 I
(D)
4 a 2
i k
APP | Physics 125 Magnetic Effects of Current
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7. Two infinitely long linear conductors are arranged perpendicular to each other
as shown in figure. If I1 = 2A along the y-axis and I 2 = 3A along negative z-
axis and AP = AB = 1 cm, the value of magnetic field strength B at P is :
(A) 3 105 T j 4 105 T k
(B) 3 10 T j 4 10 T k
5 5
(C) 4 10 T j 3 10 T k
5 5
(D) 3 10 T j 4 10 T k
5 5
8. There exists a uniform magnetic and electric field each of magnitude 1 T and 1 V/m respectively along
positive y-axis. A charged particle of mass 1 kg and of charge 1 C is having velocity 1 m/sec along x-axis
and is at origin at t = 0. Then the co-ordinate of particle at time seconds will be:
(A) (0, 1, 2) (B) (0, 2 / 2, 2 ) (C) 2, 2
/ 2,2 (D) 0, 2
/ 2,2
y
9. A current carrying loop is placed in a uniform magnetic field pointing in negative z direction. P
Branch PQRS is a three quarter circle, while branch PS is straight. If force on branch PS is F,
force on branch PQR is : x
Q S
F F
(A) 2F (B) (C) (D) 2F R
2 2
10. A particle of mass m and positive charge q enters a region of magnetic field with
speed v. There is a region in which the magnetic field is absent, as shown. The
particle after entering the region collides elastically with a rigid wall. Time after
which the velocity of particle becomes anti-parallel to its initial velocity is :
v
m m
(A) 4 (B) 2
2qB qB mv mv Wall
m m 2 qB 2 qB
(C) 4 (D) 2 3
4qB 4qB
11. A particle (mass m and charge q) is at rest at origin. An electric field E 10kˆ units and magnetic field
B 8ˆi 6 ˆj units is switched on in the region. Speed of the particle as function of its z-coordinate is :
10 qz 20 qz 30 qz 40 qz
(A) (B) (C) (D)
m m m m
12. A metallic rod PQ is hinged at point P and it can rotate about point P in vertical plane as shown in B
the figure. If mass of rod is m and length , then the current in PQ, such that it remains in i1
equilibrium as shown is : (Separation between P and current currying conductor AB is very small) P m , Q
2mg mg mg mg A
(A) (B) (C) (D)
0 i1 20 i1 40 i1 0 i1
13. Figure shows a spiral path of a particle which has entered a resistive medium where a uniform magnetic field acts
perpendicular to the plane and into the plane of the spiral. Then the particle is :
(A) positively charged and entering at P
(B) positively charged and entering at Q
(C) negatively charged and entering at P
(D) negatively charged and entering at Q
APP | Physics 126 Magnetic Effects of Current
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14. A battery is connected between two points A and B on the circumference of a uniform conducting ring of radius r
and resistance R. One of the arcs AB of the ring subtends an angle at the centre. The value of the magnetic
induction at the centre due to the current in the ring is :
(A) zero, only if = 180 (B) zero for all values of
(C) proportional to 2 (180-) (D) inversely proportional to r
15. The magnetic induction in vacuum at the centre of any square coil (of one turn) of side ' a ' and carrying a current I is
kI / a where k is independent. The magnitude of the induction at X, Y, Z are B1, B2 and B3 respectively. Then :
(A) B3 > B1 > B2 (B) B2 > B3 > B1 (C) B2 > B1 > B3 (D) B1 > B2 > B3
MULTIPLE CORRECT ANSWERS TYPE
Each of the following Question has 4 choices A, B, C & D, out of which ONE or MORE Choices may be Correct:
16. When a current carrying coil is placed in a uniform magnetic field with its magnetic moment anti-parallel to the
field, then :
(A) torque on it is maximum (B) torque on it is zero
(C) potential energy is maximum (D) dipole is in unstable equilibrium
17. If a long cylindrical conductor caries a steady current parallel to its length, then :
(A) the electric field along the axis is zero (B) the magnetic field along the axis is zero
(C) the magnetic field outside the conductor is zero
(D) the electric field outside the conductor is zero
18. An infinitely long straight wire is carrying a current I1. Adjacent to it there is
another equilateral triangular wire having current I2. Choose the wrong
options.
(A) Net force on loop is leftwards (B) Net force on loop is rightwards
(C) net force on loop is upwards (D) net force on loop is downwards
19. A charged particle revolves in circular path in uniform magnetic field after accelerating by a potential difference of
V volts. Choose the correct options if V is doubled.
(A) kinetic energy of particle will become two times
(B) radius in circular path will become two times
(C) radius in circular path will become 2 times
(D) angular velocity will remain unchanged
20. A long thick conducting cylinder of radius R carries a current uniformly distributed over its cross section. Choose
correct options.
(A) The magnetic field strength is maximum on the surface
(B) The magnetic field strength is zero on the surface
(C) The strength of the magnetic field inside the cylinder will vary as inversely proportional to r, where r is the
distance from the axis.
(D) The energy density of the magnetic field outside the conductor varies as inversely proportional to r2, where
‘r’ is the distance from the axis.
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21. A nonconducting disc having uniform positive charge Q, is rotating about its axis in anticlock wise direction with
uniform angular velocity . The magnetic field at the centre of the disc is :
0Q
(A) directed outward (B) having magnitude
4 R
0Q
(C) directed inwards (D) having magnitude
2 R
22. A charged particle of charge q, mass m is moving with
initial velocity ‘v’ as shown in figure in a uniform magnetic
field B k . Select the correct alternative/alternatives.
(A) velocity of particle when it comes out from magnetic
field is v v cos60i vsin 60 j
(B) time for which the particle was in magnetic field is
m
3qB
mV
(C) distance travelled in magnetic field is
3qB
(D) the particle will never come out of magnetic field
23. A particle of charge ‘q’ & mass ‘m’ enters normally (at point P) in a region of magnetic field
with speed v. It comes out normally from Q after time T as shown in figure. The magnetic
field B is present only in the region of radius R and is constant and uniform. Initial and final
velocities are along radial direction and they are perpendicular to each other. For this to
happen, which of the following expression(s) is(are) correct ?
mv R
(A) B (B) T
qR 2v
m
(C) T (D) None of these
2 qB
24. From a cylinder of radius R, a cylinder of radius R/2 is removed, as shown.
Current flowing in the remaining cylinder is I. Magnetic field strength is:
(A) zero at point A
(B) zero at point B
0 I
(C) at point A
3 R
0 I
(D) at point B
3 R
E l
25. Consider three quantities x , y 1 / 0 0 and z . Here, l is length of a wire, C is a capacitance and R
B CR
is a resistance. All other symbols have standard meanings.
(A) x, y have the same dimensions
(B) y, z have the same dimensions
(C) z, x have the same dimensions
(D) none of the three pairs have the same dimensions
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26. A conductor ABCDE, shaped as shown, carries current I. It is placed in
the x-y plane with the ends A and E on the x-axis. A uniform magnetic
field of magnitude B exists in the region. The force acting on it will be :
(A) zero, if B is in the x-direction
(B) BI in the z-direction, if B is in the y-direction
(C) BI in the negative y-direction, if B is in the z-direction
(D) aBI , if B is in the x-direction
27. A horizontal rod of mass 2 kg is kept touching two vertical parallel rough rails, carrying 1m
current. There is a magnetic field B = 2T present vertically downward. The rails are
connected to battery of 100 V at t = 0.
B
The resistance of the circuit is 5Ω and starts to increase at constant rate 0.5 Ω / s. g
The coefficient of friction between the rails and rod is = 3/4 and separation between
the rails in 1m. Then : (g = 10 m/s2)
(A) The friction force acting on the rod at t = 0 is 20 N
(B) The friction force acting on the rod at t = 0 is 30 N
(C) Acceleration of rod at t = 0 is 5m/s2
(D) At t = 5 sec, rod is about to start sliding 100Volt
28. Consider a solid cylinder of radius R and very large length, with volume charge density (charge/volume).
Cylinder is rotated with constant angular velocity about its axis. Choose correct alternative(s).
(A) Magnetic field at the axis of cylinder is zero
(B) Magnetic field at the axis of cylinder is non zero
(C) Magnetic field at a point outside the cylinder is zero
(D) Magnetic field at a point outside the cylinder is non-zero
29. Consider two rings of copper wire. One ring is scaled up version of the other, twice large in all regards (radius,
cross sectional radius). If current around the rings are driven by equal voltage source then choose the CORRECT
alternative(s). Assume that cross-sectional radius is very small as compared to radius of rings.
(A) Resistance of larger ring is half of the smaller ring
(B) Current in the larger ring is two times that in the smaller ring
(C) Magnetic field at their centres are same
(D) Magnetic field at centre of larger ring is twice as that at the centre of smaller ring
30. The figure contains an infinite slab having current per unit area of
J Jkˆ between the infinite planes at x b and x b.
1
Slightly to the right of x b, an infinite thin sheet is kept. It
carries a current per unit length k2 2bJ ( kˆ). Choose the
correct option(s):
(A) The field due to sheet at any point is 0 Jb
0 Jb
(B) The field due to sheet at any point is
2
(C) The magnetic field due to slab at a point inside the slab must be independent of y co-ordinate and y
component of field must be odd function of x.
(D) Magnetic field at a point (x, y) inside slab, due to slab is 0 Jx
APP | Physics 129 Magnetic Effects of Current
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31. A uniform square wire frame of mass 4M and side ‘a’ is placed on horizontal frictionless surface (assumed to be
X Z plane). The square contains a anticlockwise current I 0 as seen from positive Z axis. A uniform magnetic
field B B0iˆ exists in the entire region. Initially system is held stationary by some external agent and system is
released from rest at time 0.
3I 0 B0
(A) Initial angular acceleration of wire frame is
2M
(B) Centre of mass of wire frame will perform uniform circular motion.
(C) Centre of mass of wire frame will perform non-uniform circular motion.
(D) The loop will start rotating due to magnetic torque. Torque due to gravity and normal force by horizontal
surface on wire frame about its centre of mass is zero.
32. In a region having an electric field and a magnetic field, a positive point charge is released with the below given
parameters
E aiˆ
B biˆ cjˆ dkˆ
v xiˆ yjˆ
(A) For a 0 speed of particle remains constant
(B) For c 0, d 0, y 0 charged particle may move along straight line with increasing speed
(C) For c 0, d 0, y 0 charged particle moves along helix of varying pitch
(D) For a 0, v B 0 charged particle may moves along circle
33. A particle having charge 1C and mass 1 kg enters a region having magnetic field of strength `2T with a speed of 12
m/s, as shown in figure. Then the correct statement(s) is/are:
4
(A) The time for which the charge particle remains in magnetic field is s
3
(B) The velocity of charged particle becomes parallel to x-axis 6 times during its motion
(C) The distance between the point where the charge particle enters the uniform magnetic field and the point
where it emerges out is 6 m
(D) The deviation of the charge particle when it emerges out of the magnetic field is rad
3
APP | Physics 130 Magnetic Effects of Current
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34.
A particle of specific charge ` is projected from origin at t 0 with a velocity V V0 iˆ kˆ in a magnetic field
B B0 kˆ. Then : (Mass of particle = 1 unit)
(A) at t , velocity of the particle is V0 (iˆ kˆ)
B0
(B) at t , speed of the particle is V0
4B0
2 2V0
(C) at t , magnitude of displacement of the particle is more than
B0 B0
2 2 2V0
(D) at t , distance travelled by the particle is less than .
B0 B0
35. A 10 metre long wire is bent in the shape shown in figure. Then the magnetic field at the centre of the circular path,
if the current in the wire is 20 ampere will be.
(A) Zero due to straight elements
(B) Will be outward with the plane of paper
40
(C) Magnitude of B is 107 T
9
(D) Will be inward with the plane of paper
Paragraph for Q.36 - 38
In a certain region of space, there exists a uniform and constant electric field of magnitude E along the positive y-axis of a
coordinate system. A charged particle of mass m and charge q (q 0) is projected from the origin with speed 2v at an
angle of 60° with the positive x-axis in x-y plane. When the x-coordinate of particle becomes 3mv 2 / qE , a uniform and
constant magnetic field of strength B is also switched on along positive y-axis.
36. Velocity of the particle just before the magnetic field is switched on is :
3v ˆ 3v ˆ 3v ˆ
(A) viˆ (B) viˆ j (C) viˆ j (D) 2viˆ j
2 2 2
37. x-coordinate of the particle as a function of time after the magnetic field is switched on is :
3mv 2 mv qB 3mv 2 mv qB
(A) sin t (B) sin t
qE qB m qE qB m
3mv 2 mv qB 3mv 2 mv qB
(C) cos t (D) cos t
qE qB m qE qB m
38. z-coordinate of the particle as a function of time after the magnetic field is switched on is :
mv qB mv qB
(A) 1 cos t (B) 1 cos t
qB m qB m
mv qB mv qB
(C) 1 cos t (D) 1 cos t
qB m qB m
Paragraph for Q.39 – 40
A small particle of mass m = 1kg and change of 1C enter
perpendicularly in a triangular region of uniform magnetic field
of strength 2T as shown in figure.
APP | Physics 131 Magnetic Effects of Current
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39. Calculate maximum velocity of the particle with which is should enter so that it complete a half-circle in magnetic
region:
(A) 2m / s (B) 2.5 m / s (C) 3m / s (D) 4 m/s
40. In previous question, if particle enters perpendicular with velocity 48 m/s in magnetic region. Then, how much time
will it spend in magnetic region.
11 7 13 17
(A) sec (B) sec (C) sec (D) sec
360 360 360 360
Paragraph for Q.41 – 43
An infinitely long wire lying along z-axis carries a current ‘I’,
flowing towards positive z-direction. There is no other current,
consider a circle in x-y plane with centre at (2 meter, 0,0) and
radius 1 meter. Divide the circle in small segments and let d
denote the length of a small segment in anticlockwise direction,
as shown.
41. The path integral B d of the total magnetic field B along the perimeter of the given circle is :
0 I 0 I
(A) (B) (C) 0 I (D) 0
8 2
B
42. Consider two points A(3,0,0) and B(2, 1, 0) on the given circle. The path integral B d of the total magnetic field
A
B along the perimeter of the given circle from A to B is:
0 I 1 0 I 1 0 I 1
(A) tan 1 (B) tan 1 (C) sin 1 (D) 0
2 2 2 2 2
43. The maximum value of path integral B d of the total magnetic field B along the perimeter of the given circle
between any two points on the circle is:
0 I 0 I 0 I
(A) (B) (C) (D) 0
12 8 6
MATRIX MATCH TYPE
Each of the following question contains statements given in two columns, which have to be matched. Statements in
Column 1 are labelled as (A), (B), (C) & (D) whereas statements in Column 2 are labeled as p, q, r, s & t. More than one
choice from Column 2 can be matched with Column 1.
44. A beam consisting of four types of ions A, B, C and D enters a region that contains a uniform magnetic field as
shown. The field is perpendicular to the plane of the paper, but its precise direction is not given. All ions in the
beam travel with the same speed. The table below gives the mass and charge of the ions.
APP | Physics 132 Magnetic Effects of Current
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The ions fall at different positions 1,2,3 and 4, as shown. Correctly match the ions with respective falling positions.
Column 1 Column 2
(A) A (p) 1
(B) B (q) 2
(C) C (r) 3
(D) D (s) 4
45. A particle with change Q is moving in fields of combination given below. Match for the possible path(s).
Column 1 Column 2
(A) Uniform E (p) Straight line
(B) Uniform B (q) Parabola
(C) Uniform E uniform B (r) Non uniform right circular cylindrical helix
(D) Uniform E uniform B (s) Uniform right circular cylindrical helix
(t) None
SUBJECTIVE INTEGER TYPE
46. A uniformly charged ring of radius 10 cm rotates at a frequency of 104 rps about its axis. The ratio of energy density
of electric field to the energy density of the magnetic field at a point on the axis at distance 20 cm from the centre is
9.1×10a. Find a.
47. Assume linear parts to be very long and the curved part
has radius R. Current in wire is i. If i = 10 A and R = 10
cm, then magnitude of the z component of magnetic field
strength at O in tesla is 10–a. Find a.
1
48. The magnetic field at a distance x on the axis of a circular coil of radius R is th of that at the centre. If x equals
8
R K , find K.
49. A square loop of side 6 cm carries a current of 30 A. The magnitude of magnetic field at a point P lying on the axis
of the loop and a distance 7 cm is 2.7×10–K T. Find K.
50. In the figure a charged small sphere of mass m and
charge q starts sliding from rest on a vertical fixed
smooth circular non-conducting track of radius R from
the position shown. There exists a uniform perpendicular
Magnetic Field. Then the maximum force exerted by
track on the sphere is Xmg qB YgR The Value of
X Y is .
APP | Physics 133 Magnetic Effects of Current
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51. Three rings, each having equal radius R, are placed mutually perpendicular to each other end each having its centre
at the origin of co-ordinate system. If current 'I' is flowing through each ring then the magnitude of the magnetic
X I
field at the common centre is times of 0 . then X + Y will be
Y R
52. The magnetic field shown in the figure consists of two uniform regions. The width of the first part is 5 cm and the
magnetic induction here is 0.001 T. The width of the other part is also 5 cm, with the direction of the induction
being opposite in direction and 0.002 T in magnitude. The minimum speed of the electron arriving from the
direction indicated in the figure so that it can come out through the magnetic field II into region III is X times
4 31
107 m/s then X will be (Mass of electron 9 10 kg )
9
53. Figure shown a square current carrying loop ABCD of side 10 cm and current i 10 A
The magnetic moment M of the loop is (0.05) iˆ xkˆ A m 2 . Calculate x ?
54. Semicircular loop of mass per unit length kg/m can rotate freely about fixed axis XY is placed on a horizontal
10
surface with its plane parallel to the surface in a uniform magnetic field of magnitude 1 tesla as shown in figure.
Find the minimum amount of current (in Amp) that should be passed in the loop can be rotated about side XY .
55. A charged particle enters a uniform magnetic field with velocity vector at an angle of 45° with the magnetic field.
p
The pitch of the helical path followed by the particle is p. The radius of the helix will be X times where X is
2
56. The current density inside a long solid cylindrical wire of radius a is in the direction of the central axis and varies
r
linearly with radial distance r from the axis according of J J 0 . If the magnetic field inside wire is given by
a
0 J 0 r x
then find value of x + y.
ya
APP | Physics 134 Magnetic Effects of Current
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57. A long thick wire has an inner radius a, an outer radius b. The total current circulating inside the wire is I. this
current is uniformly distributed over the cross-section. Find the magnetic field (in T ) at a distance r from the axis
of wire, (a = 1 cm, b = 2 cm, I = 5.5 A, r = 1.1 cm)
58. Two coaxial long solenoids of equal lengths have currents i1 , i2 , number of turns per unit length n1 , n2 and radius 3
m, 5 m respectively. If n1i1 n2i2 250 (in SI unit) and the two solenoids carry current in opposite sense, find the
magnetic energy stored per unit length (in SI unit). (Take 2 10 )
59. A particle of charge q and mass m starts moving from the origin under the action of an electric field E Eiˆ and
xmv0
magnetic field B Biˆ with a velocity v v0 ˆj . The speed of the particle will become 2v0 after a time t .
qE
Find the value of x.
60. A neutral atom of atomic mass number 100 which is stationary at the origin in gravity free space emits an -
particle (A) in z-direction. The product ion is P. A uniform magnetic field exists in the x – direction. Disregard the
electromagnetic interaction between A and P. If the angle of rotation of A after which A and P will meet for the first
12n
time is radians, what is the value of n?
25
APP | Physics 135 Magnetic Effects of Current
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Advanced Problem Package EMI and AC Circuits
SINGLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE
Each of the following Question has 4 choices A, B, C & D, out of which ONLY ONE Choice is Correct.
1. Two ends of an inductor of inductance L are connected to two parallel
conducting wires. A rod of length l and mass m is given velocity v0 as
shown. The whole system is placed in perpendicular magnetic field B.
Find the maximum current in the inductor. (Neglect gravity and friction)
mv0 m
(A) (B) v0
L L
mv02
(C) (D) None of these
L
2. A rod is rotating with a constant angular velocity about point
O(its centre) in a magnetic field B as shown. Which of the
following figure correctly shows the distribution of charge
inside the rod ?
3. In the figure magnetic field points into the plane of paper and the
conducting rod of length l is moving in this field such that the lowest point
has a velocity v1 and the top most point has the velocity v2(v2 > v1). The
emf induced is given by :
(A) Bv1l
(B) Bv2l
1
(C) B v2 v1 l
2
1
(D) B v2 v1 l
2
4. A metallic ring of mass m and radius r with a uniform metallic spoke of same mass m and
length r is rotated about its axis with angular velocity in a perpendicular uniform
magnetic field B as shown. The central end of he spoke is connected to the rim of the wheel
through a resistor R as shown. The resistor does not rotate, its one end is always at the
centre of the ring and other end is always in contact with the ring. A force F as shown is
needed to maintain constant angular velocity of the wheel. F is equal to (the ring and the
spoke has zero resistance) :
B 2 r 2 B 2 r 2 B 2 r 3 B 2 r 3
(A) (B) (C) (D)
8R 2R 2R 4R
APP | Physics 136 EMI and AC Circuits
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5. A closed circuit consists of a resistor R, inductor of inductance L and a source of emf E connected in series. If the
inductance of the coil is abruptly decreased to L/4 (by removing its magnetic core), the new current immediately
after this moment is : (before decreasing the inductance the circuit is in steady state)
E E
(A) zero (B) E/R (C) 4 (D)
R 4R
6. A small circular wire loop of radius a is located at the centre of a much larger
circular wire loop of radius b as shown (b >> a). Both loops are coaxial and
coplanar. The larger loop carries a time (t) varying current I = I0 cos t , where I0
and are constants. The magnetic field generated by the current in the large loop
induces in the small loop an emf that is approximately equal to which of the
following ?
0 I 0 a 2 0 I 0 a 2
(A) cos t (B) sin t
2b 2b
0 I 0 a 0 I 0
(C) sin t (D) cos t
2b 2 2b 2
7. A square loop of side a and a straight long wire are placed in the same plane as shown
in figure. The loop has a resistance R and inductance L. The frame is turned through
180° about the axis OO . What is the electric charge that flows through the loop ?
0 Ia 2a b 0 Ia b
(A) ln (B) ln
2 R b 2 R b 2 a 2
0 Ia a 2b
(C) ln (D) None of these
2 R b
8.
A flat coil of area A and n turns is placed at the centre of ring of radius r r 2 A and resistance R. The two are
coplanar. When current in the coil is increased from zero to i, the total charge circulating in the ring is :
0 nAi 0 n 2 Ai 0 nAi 0 n 2 Ai
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2rR 2rR 2 r 4 rR
9. PQ is an infinite current carrying conductor. AB and CD are smooth
conducting rods on which a conductor EF moves with constant velocity
V as shown. The force needed to maintain constant speed of EF is :
2
1 μ 0 IV b μ 0 IV b 1
(A)
VR 2π
ln (B) 2π ln a R
a
μ IV b 2 V μ 0 IV b
(C) 0 ln (D) 2π ln a
2π a R
10. Figure shows a square loop of side 1 m and resistance 1 . The
magnetic field on left side of line PQ has a magnitude B = 1.0 T. The
work done in pulling the loop out of the field uniformly in 1 s is :
(A) 1J
(B) 10J
(C) 0.1 J
(D) 100 J
APP | Physics 137 EMI and AC Circuits
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11. An inductor L and a resistor R are connected in series with a direct current source of emf E. The maximum rate at
which energy is stored in the magnetic field is :
E2 E2 4E 2 2E 2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
4R R R R
12. If the reading of v1 and v3 are 100 volt each then reading of v2 is:
(A) 0 volt
(B) 100 volt
(C) 200 volt
(D) cannot be determined by given information
13. What is the amount of power delivered by the ac source
in the circuit shown (in watts) ?
(A) 500 watt
(B) 1014 watt
(C) 1514 watt
(D) 2013 watt
14. Consider a pair of smooth metallic rails joined at one of the ends. Rails are parallel and are inclined at 30 with
horizontal. A jumper of mass m, length and resistance R slides down the rails with constant speed v. Magnetic
field in the region is vertical. Strength of magnetic field is :
mgR 2mgR B
(A) (B) Jumper
2 2
3v 3v
30
3mgR 3mgR
(C) (D)
v 2 v 2
15. For the circuit shown here, keys k1 and k3 are closed for 1 second. Now
2V k1
keys k1 and k3 are opened and key k2 is closed at the same instant.
Maximum charge on the capacitor after key k2 is closed is :
0.5
1 2F
(A) 4 1 C
e k2
2H
1
(B) 4 2 1 C
e k3
1
(C) 8 1 C 2
e 4V
(D) Zero
VL VC
16. In the circuit shown, the reading of ammeter is 10 A and that
of VC = 200 V. The reading of VL is : A B
(A) 200 V L 100 C
(B) 200 2 V A
(C) 200 1000 2 V
(D) Zero
1000 2 sin t
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17. A rectangular loop with a sliding connector CD of length 1.0 m is situated C
in uniform and constant magnetic field B = 2T perpendicular to the plane of
loop. Resistance of connector CD is r = 2 ohm. Two resistances of 6 ohm and 3 6Ω 3Ω
ohm are connected as shown in figure. The external force required to keep the v = 2m/s
connector moving with constant velocity v = 2 m/s perpendicular to CD and in
the plane of the loop is : D B
Uniform and constant magnetic
(A) 6N (B) 4N field (Normal to plane of paper)
(C) 2N (D) 1N
18. A conducting wire of length L fixed at both ends is vibrating in its fundamental mode with angular frequency and
maximum amplitude A. there exists a uniform and constant magnetic field of induction B perpendicular to the plane
of oscillations of the wire. The maximum emf induced in the wire is:
BA L BA L 2BA L BA L
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 2
19. The adjacent diagram shows a circular non-conducting track kept concentric to a magnetic field of magnitude B
which exists in a cylindrical region of radius r r R . If the magnetic field is switched off then the specific
charge of the particle if it just completes a vertical circle is :
2 3g 1 2g
(A) (B) g
B R B R R
2 5g 2 3 x
(C) (D) q
m
B R B R
20. In the given AC circuit, if amplitude of current is independent of R then which of the following is correct ?
1
(A)
LC
1
(B)
2LC
1
(C)
5LC
1
(D)
2 LC
MULTIPLE CORRECT ANSWERS TYPE
Each of the following Question has 4 choices A, B, C & D, out of which ONE or MORE Choices may be Correct:
21. In a R-L-C series circuit shown, the reading of voltmeters V1 and V2 are
100 V and 120 V. Choose the correct statement(s).
(A) Voltage across resistor, inductor and capacitor are 50 V, 86.6 V and 206.6 V
respectively
(B) Voltage across resistor, inductor and capacitor are 10 V, 90 V and 30 V respectively
5
(C) Power factor of the circuit is
13
(D) Circuit is capacitive in nature
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22. Current in an AC circuit is given by i 3sin t 4cos t . Then :
(A) rms value of current is 5A
6
(B) mean value of this current in positive one-half period will be A
(C) if voltage applied is V= Vsinωt then the circuit must be containing resistance and capacitance
(D) if voltage applied is V = Vm cosωt , then the circuit may contain resistance and inductance only
23. In an AC series circuit it is given that R 10 , X L 20 and X C 10 . Then choose the correct options.
(A) voltage function will lead the current function
(B) Total impedance of the circuit is 10 2
(C) phase angle between voltage function and current function is 45°
1
(D) power factor of circuit is
2
24. In the circuit shown in figure,
(A) VR = 80V (B) X C = 50 (C) VL = 40 V (D) V0 = 100 V
25. In LCR series AC circuit,
(A) If R is increased current will decrease (B) If L is increased current will decrease
(C) If C is increased current will increase (D) If C is increased current will decrease
26. A conducting rod of length l is moved at constant velocity ‘V0’ on
two parallel, conducting, smooth, fixed rails, that are placed in a
uniform constant magnetic field B perpendicular to the plane of the
rails as shown in figure. A resistance R is connected between the
two ends of the rail. Then which of the following is/are correct:
(A) The thermal power dissipated in the resistor is equal to
rate of work done by external agent pulling the rod
(B) If applied external force is doubled then a part of external power increases the velocity of rod
(C) Lenz’s law is not satisfied if the rod is accelerated by external force
(D) If resistance R is doubled then power required to maintain the constant velocity V0 becomes half
27. In the figure shown, ‘A’ is a fixed conducting ring of negligible resistance and radius ‘a’. PQ is a uniform rod of
resistance r. It is hinged at the centre of the ring and rotated about this point in clockwise direction with a uniform
angular velocity . There is a uniform magnetic field of strength ‘B’ pointing inwards, ‘r’ is a stationary
resistance. Choose correct options.
(A) Current through ‘r’ is zero.
2 B a 2
(B) Current through ‘r’ is
5r
(C) Direction of current in external ‘r’ is from centre to circumference
(D) Direction of current in external ‘r’ is from circumference to centre
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28. A series circuit consisting of a constant e.m.f. ‘E’, a self inductance ‘L’ and a
resistance ‘R’ is closed at t = 0. The relation between the current I in the circuit
and time t is as shown by curve ‘a’ in the figure. When one or more of parameters
E, R and L are changed, the curve ‘b’ is obtained. The steady state current is same
in both the cases. Then it is possible that:
(A) E and R are kept constant and L is increased.
(B) E and R are kept constant and L is decreased
(C) E and R are both halved and L is kept constant
(D) E and L are kept constant and R is decreased
29. In the circuit diagram shown :
(A) time constant is L/R
(B) time constant is 2L/R
2
(C) steady state current in inductor is
R
(D) steady state current in inductor is
R
30. A conducting loop rotates with constant angular velocity about its fixed diameter in a uniform magnetic field,
whose direction is perpendicular to that fixed diameter. Choose correct statements.
(A) The emf will be maximum at the moment when flux is zero
(B) The emf will be ‘0’ at the moment when flux is maximum
(C) The emf will be maximum at the moment when plane of the loop is parallel to the magnetic field
(D) The phase difference between the flux and the emf is
2
31. An infinitely long wire is placed near a square loop as shown in figure. Choose the correct option(s).
0 a
(A) The mutual inductance between the two is ln 2
2
a2
(B) the mutual inductance between the two is 0 ln 2
2
(C) If a constant current is passed in the straight wire in upward direction and
loop is brought close to the wire then induced current in the loop is clockwise
(D) In the above condition, induced current in the loop is anticlockwise
32. Choose the correct option(s).
(A) SI unit of magnetic flux is henry-ampere (B) SI unit of coefficient of self-inductance is J/A
volt-second
(C) SI unit of coefficient of self inductance is
ampere
(D) SI unit of magnetic inductance is weber
33. In the circuit shown in figure, switch is closed at time t = 0. At time t = ln(2) second,
(A) Rate of energy supplied by the battery is 16 J/s
(B) Rate of heat dissipated across resistance is 8 J/s
(C) Rate of heat dissipated across resistance is 16 J/s
(D) Va – Vb = 4V
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34. Two circular coils are placed adjacent to each other. Their planes are parallel and currents through them i1 and i2
are in same directions. Choose the correct option(s).
(A) When A is brought near B, current i2 will decrease
(B) In the above process, current i2 will increase
(C) When current i1 is increased, current i2 will decrease
(D) In the above process, current i2 will increase
35. A coil of area 2 m2 and resistance 4 is placed perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field of 4T. The loop is
rotated by 90° in 0.1 second. Choose the correct option(s).
(A) Average induced emf in the coil is 8 V
(B) Average induced current in the circuit is 20 A
(C) 2C charge will flow in the coil in above period
(D) Heat produced in the coil in the above period can’t be determined from the given data
36. Magnetic field in a cylindrical region of radius R in inward direction is as shown in figure. Choose correct options.
(A) An electron will experience no force kept at (2R, 0, 0) if magnetic field increases with time
(B) in the above situation, electron will experience the force in negative y-direction
R
(C) If a proton is kept at 0, ,0 and magnetic field is decreasing, then it will experience the force in
2
positive x-direction
(D) If a proton is kept at (–R, 0, 0) and magnetic field is increasing, then it will experience force in negative
y- direction
37. In the figure shown, q is in coulomb and t in second. At time t = 1 s,
(A) Va Vb 4V (B) Vb Vc 1V
(C) Vc Vd 16 V (D) Va Vd 20 V
38. An equilateral triangular conducting frame is rotated with angular velocity in
uniform magnetic field B as shown. Side of triangle is l. Choose the correct option(s).
Bl 2
(A) Va Vc 0 (B) Va Vc
2
Bl 2 Bl 2
(C) Va Vb (D) Vc Vb
2 2
39. AB is a resistanceless conducting rod which forms a diameter of a conducting
ring of radius r rotating in a uniform magnetic field B as shown. The resistor
R1 and R2 do not rotate. Then current through the resistor R1 is:
B r 2 B r 2
(A) (B)
2 R1 2 R2
B r 2 B r 2
(C) R1 R2 (D)
2 R1R2 2 R1 R2
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40. In the given circuit, the AC source has 100 rad / s . Considering
the inductor and capacitor to be ideal, the correct choice(s) is(are) :
(A) The current through the circuit, I is 0.3A
(B) The current through the circuit, I is 0.3 2 A
(C) The voltage across 100 resistor 10 2V
(D) The voltage across 50 resistor = 10V
41. In the diagram shown, a uniform magnetic field is present perpendicular to the
plane of the paper both the rings are identical and have a constant resistance per
unit length. The left ring has been kept fixed at its position and the right ring is
slide uniformly on the left ring towards the right hand side. Which of the
following statements is/are true?
(A) The emf induced in the left ring is zero
(B) The emf induced in both the rings is non zero
(C) The magnetic force acting on each small part of the right ring is zero
(D) The magnetic force acting on each small part of both the rings is non-zero
42. The ideal inductor is connected in circuit as shown:-
(A) Just after switch is closed, potential difference across L is V/2
(B) Long time after switch is closed, potential difference across A (a
particular resistance see figure) is V/3.
(C) After a long time, switch is opened again, just after switch is
opened, potential difference across L is 2V / 3.
(D) Potential difference across A (a particular resistance see figure) just after switch is opened (as in option C)
is V / 2.
43. In the circuit shown the value of L is 5H and power factor of circuit is 0.8. It is also given that voltage drop across
2
the capacitor is time the voltage drop across inductor :
5
(A) Impedance of circuit is 1570 .
(B) Impedance of circuit is 1256 .
(C) Value of R is 1256 .
(D) Value of R is 502 .
1 1
44. In LCR series circuit, the value of L H, C F and variation of current amplitude with angular
25 100
frequency of source is shown in figure. The difference of angular frequency at which current amplitude is
I0
is 250 rad/s. Then : (where : I 0 maximum current amplitude)
2
(A) The value of resonating frequency is 25Hz (B) The value of R is 5
(C) The value of R is 10 (D) The value of 1 2 is 10 650
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45. Two identical solenoids each of self inductance L are joined and placed
coaxially and overlapping in such a way that they carry equal and opposite
current. This arrangement is joined to a resistance R and battery of emf .
Switch is closed at t 0. Identify the correct statement(s):
(A) Energy stored in the magnetic field increases with time.
2L
(B) Time constant of the circuit is
R
(C) Time constant of the circuit is zero.
(D) Power delivered by battery remains constant.
46. In the circuit shown source may be AC or DC. At t = 0 switch S is closed. Choose the correct statement(s):
(A) After a long time charge on the capacitor will be zero if source is DC
(B) After a long time charge on the capacitor will be zero if source is AC
(C) After a long time charge on the capacitor will not be constant if source is DC
(D) After a long time charge on the capacitor will not be constant if source is AC
47. An infinite solenoid has radius R and n turns per unit length. The current grows linearly with time, according to
It Ct , in the solenoid. Here C is some constant. Let the induced electric field at distance r from axis of solenoid is
E. Choose correct alternative(s).
(A) E r for r R (B) E 1 / r for r R
(C) If an infinite line charge having uniform linear charge density is placed along the axis, then electrostatic
field produced by line charge and induced electric field are perpendicular to each other
(D) The induced field and electrostatic field produced by line charge placed along axis of solenoid can be
added vectorically to get net electric field at a point.
48. In the given circuit initially capacitor is uncharged and no current through inductor:
(A) Current through battery just after closing of switch is 12 A
(B) Current through capacitor just after closing of switch 8A
(C) Switch is closed and when steady state of current is achieved the
current through battery 9A
(D) After steady state switch is re-opened just after reopening of
switch the ratio of current through inductor and capacitor 1A
49. Consider a metal wire frame falling freely under gravity enters in a uniform
magnetic field region as shown in the figure. Then mark the correct statement as
the loop enters the region?
(A) The speed first decreases then increases
(B) The speed continuously increases
(C) The speed may increase or decrease initially but it will definitely
increase afterwards
(D) The speed may decrease continuously
50. Initially key was placed on (1) till the capacitor got fully charged. Key is placed on
(2) at t = 0. The this system will be similar to spring mass system where
(A) Time when the energy in both capacitor and inductor will be same
4 LC
(B) Inductor play the role of mass and Capacitor plays the role of 1/K
(C) q is same as displacement and i is same as v.
(D) None
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Paragraph for Q. 51 - 53
A uniform but time varying magnetic field B = 2t 3 24t T is
present in a cylindrical region of radius R = 2.5 cm as shown in
figure.
51. The force on an electron at P at t = 2.0 s is :
(A) 96×10–21 N (B) 48×10–21 N (C) 24×10–21 N (D) zero
52. The variation of electric field at any instant as a function of distance measured from the centre of cylinder in first
problem is :
53. In the previous problem, the direction of circular electric lines at t = 1 s is :
(A) clockwise (B) anticlockwise
(C) no current is induced (D) cannot be predicted
Paragraph for Q.54 - 56
A steady current 4A flows in an inductor coil when connected to a 12 V dc source as shown in figure 1. If the same coil is
connected to an ac source of 12 V, 50 rad/s, a current of 2.4 A flows in the circuit as shown in figure 2. Now after these
observations, a capacitor of capacitance 1/ 50 F is connected in series with the coil and with the same AC source as shown
in figure 3:
54. The inductance of the coil is nearly equal to :
(A) 0.01 H (B) 0.02 H (C) 0.04 H (D) 0.08 H
55. The resistance of the coil is:
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
56. The average power supplied to the circuit after connecting capacitance in series is approximately equal to:
(A) 24 W (B) 72 W (C) 144 W (D) None of these
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MATRIX MATCH TYPE
Each of the following question contains statements given in two columns, which have to be matched. Statements in
Column 1 are labelled as (A), (B), (C) & (D) whereas statements in Column 2 are labeled as p, q, r, s & t. More than one
choice from Column 2 can be matched with Column 1.
57. A square loop of conducting wire is placed near a long straight
current carrying wire as shown. Match the statements in column
1 with the corresponding results in column –2.
Column 1 Column 2
If the magnitude of current I is Induced current in the loop will be
(A) p.
increased clock wise
If the magnitude of current I is Induced current in the loop will be
(B) q.
decreased anticlockwise
If the loop is moved away from the
(C) r. Wire will attract the loop
wire
If the loop is moved towards the Torque about centre of mass of loop is
(D) s.
wire zero due to magnetic force
58. Match the physical quantities given in column 1 with their dimensions given is column 2.
Column 1 Column 2
(A) Magnetic induction p. [MT–2A–1]
(B) Coefficient of self induction q. [L2T–2]
(C) LC r. [ML2T–2A–2]
(D) Magnetic flux s. None of these
1
59. In an L-C oscillation circuit, L = 1H, C F and maximum charge in capacitor is 4C. Match the following two
4
columns. Note that in column 2 all values are in SI units.
Column 1 Column 2
(A) Maximum current in the circuit p. 16
Maximum rate of change of current in
(B) q. 4
the circuit
Potential difference across inductor
(C) r. 2
when q = 2C
Potential difference across capacitor
(D) when rate of change of current is half s. 8
its maximum value
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60. In the circuit shown in figure, switch S remains closed for a long time. It is opened at time t = 0. Match the
following two columns for t = (ln2) second.
Column 1 Column 2
(A) Potential difference across inductor p. 9V
(B) Potential difference across 3 resistance q. 4.5 V
(C) Potential difference across 6 resistance r. 6V
(D) Potential difference between points b and c s. None of these
SUBJECTIVE INTEGER TYPE
61.
The magnetic flux through a metal ring varies with time t according to B 3 at 3 bt 2 Tm 2 with a = 2.00 s–3
and b = 6.00 s–2. The resistance of the ring is 3.0 . Find the maximum current (in ampere) induced in the ring
during the interval from t = 0 to t = 2.0 s.
62. Two capacitors of capacitances 2C and C respectively are connected in series with
an inductor of inductance L. Initially capacitors have charge such that
VB –VA = 4V0 and VC –VD = V0 . Initial current in the circuit is zero.
The potential difference across each capacitor at the instant, maximum current
flows in the current is KV0. Find K
63. An LCR series circuit with 100 resistance is connected to an ac source of voltage 200 V and angular frequency
300 rad/s. When only the capacitance is removed, the current lags behind the voltage by 60°. When only the
inductance is removed, the current leads the voltage by 60°. Calculate the rms current in ampere in the circuit.
64. In the figure shown, the reading of voltmeters are V1 = 20V,
V2 = 20V, and V3 = 5V. Find the rms current in amperes.
65. In the circuit diagram shown, initially there is no energy in the
inductor and the capacitor. The switch is closed at t = 0. If
kt
L V LC
R and current I is given as I e . Find k.
C R
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66. A rectangular loop with a sliding connector of length 0.5 m is located in
a uniform magnetic field perpendicular to loop plane. The magnetic
induction is equal to B. The connector has an electric resistance R, the
sides ab and cd have resistance R1 and R2. Neglect the self inductance of
the loop. The connector is moving with a uniform velocity V. Given
R 0.1 , R1 R2 0.2 , B = 2.0 T , V = 1 m/s. Find the current
flowing in the connector in ampere.
67. In the figure shown, i 10e 4t where i is in ampere and t is in seconds. Find the magnitude of the potential
1
difference across the inductor at t ln10 s.
4
68. Figure shows the top view of a rod of length 1.2 m that can slide without friction. The resistance R 6.0 and a
2.5 T magnetic field is directed perpendicularly downward into the paper.
Find the force F in newton required to move the rod to the right at a constant speed of 2.0 m/s.
69. A uniform but time varying magnetic field B C Kt , where K and C are positive constants and t is time
(in seconds), is applied perpendicular to the plane of a circular loop of radius ‘a’ and resistance R. Find the total
charge (in coulomb) that will pass through any point of the loop by the time B becomes zero. [Given a = 2m,
R Ω , C = 2T]
70. In the given A.C. circuit the voltage leads the current. The instantaneous
1
voltage is times the maximum value and increasing, when current is
2
zero. The value of angular frequency of the A.C. is X times 100 rad/sec.
Where X is:
71. A rod of mass m 2 kg slides without friction along two parallel rails (at distance
d 1.2 m from each other); see figure. The rails are joined by a resistor to a
resistance R 0.16 and placed in a vertical magnetic field of induction
B 0.4T . The rod is pushed with velocity v0 2.88 m/s. Find the distance (in m )
covered by the rod until it stops. (frame is kept in horizontal plane)
72 A resistance less rod of length 3m is being pulled in a uniform vertical
magnetic field of magnitude 0.8 T with constant speed of 5 m/s. The
resistance of circuit is 4 and capacitance is 6F . Initially there is no
charge on the capacitor. What is the current (in A) in circuit when charge
on capacitor becomes 24C ?
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73. A ring made of a superconductor is placed into a homogeneous magnetic field whose intensity grows from zero to
B0 2T . The plane of the ring is perpendicular to the force lines of the field. The induced current appearing in the
1
ring is 1/x (amp). The radius of the ring r cm and its inductance L 1mH. Find x.
74. A DC ammeter and an AC thermal ammeter are connected to a circuit in series. When a DC is passed through
the circuit, the DC ammeter shows I1 6 A. When an AC flows through the circuit, the AC ammeter shows
I 2 8 A. What will the difference in final readings (in amp) of ammeters, if the DC and the AC flow
simultaneously through the circuit?
75. A loop is formed by two parallel conductors connected by a solenoid with
inductance L 103 H and a conducting rod of mass m 1gm which can
freely slide (without friction) over a pair of conductors. The conductors
are located in a horizontal plane in a uniform magnetic field B 4T in the
direction soon. The distance between conductors is equal to 1m. At
the moment t 0, the rod is imparted an initial velocity V0 to the right.
Determine angular frequency (in rad/s) of oscillation of rod.
76. In figure X is closed box with two electric contacts. The box contains an
inductance with resistance in series. The external resistance r 1 ohm. For
E 5V (DC) the ammeter reads 1A. For E 20V (AC) at a frequency of 20
rad/s it reads 2A. Value of resistance is R in Ohm and inductance is L in H. then
L R2 is ? Assume that ammeter can read both AC and DC.
77. An ideal efficient transformer has primary power input of 10 kW. The secondary current when the transformer is on
load is 25 A. If the primary : secondary turns ratio is 8 : 1, then the potential difference applied to the primary coil is
X times 800 V where X is
78. A 50 Hz, 20 volt source is connected to a resistance of 100 ohm, an inductor and a capacitor, all in series. The time
in sec when the resistance (thermal capacity) = 2 joule/°C) will get heated by 10°C is:
[Power factor for circuit is 1]
79. A homogeneous field of magnetic induction B is perpendicular to a track of gauge which is inclined at an angle
30 to the horizontal. A frictionless conducting rod of mass m straddles the two rails of the track as shown in
mgR
the figure. If maximum speed of the conductor is . Then find n
nB 2 2
80. A coil with inductance L and resistance R is connected to an alternating source. The capacity of a capacitor
1
connected in series with the coil such that active power of circuit does not change is given by C . Find
n2 L
value of n.
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Advanced Problem Package Ray Optics and Wave Optics
SINGLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE
Each of the following Question has 4 choices A, B, C & D, out of which ONLY ONE Choice is Correct.
1. A uniform horizontal light beam is incident upon a prism (quarter cylindrical
shape) as shown in the figure. The radius of the prism is R and the cylinder
2
material has a refractive index . A patch on the table for a distance d from the
3
surface of the cylinder is unilluminated. Find the value of d in terms of R.
(A) R/2 (B) R
(C) 3R (D) 2R
2. In the figure shown, the focal length of the two thin convex lenses is the same f.
They are separated by a horizontal distance 3f and their optical axis are displaced
by a vertical separation ‘d’ (d << f ), as shown. Taking the origin of coordinates
O at the centre of the first lens, the x and y coordinates of the point where a
parallel beam of rays coming from the left finally get focused, are given by :
(A) 5 f , 2d (B) 6 f , d / 2 (C) 4 f , 2d (D) 2 f , 4d
3. A convex lens of focal length 15 cm is placed at the origin with its optical axis
x
coinciding with the x-axis. A ray of light given by y 1 is incident on
3
the lens. The equation of refracted ray is (x and y are in cm)
(A) y 0.2 x 3 (B) y 0.3 x 2
(C) y 0.4 x 1 (D) y 0.1x 4
5. A double slit, S1 S2 is illuminated by a light source S emitting light of wavelength . The
slits are separated by a distance d. A plane mirror is placed at a distance D in front of the slits
and a screen is placed at a distance 2D behind the slits. The screen receives light reflected
only by the plane mirror. The fringe-width of the interference pattern on the screen is
D 2D
(A) (B)
d d
3D 4D
(C) (D)
d d
5. A light ray is reflected by a mirror. If unit vectors along the incident and normal direction are
1 ˆ 1 ˆ 1 ˆ
Iˆ i j k and Nˆ iˆ, then unit vector, R̂ along reflected direction is.
3 3 3
1 1 ˆ 1 ˆ 1 ˆ
(A)
7
2iˆ 2 ˆj 3kˆ (B)
3
i
3
j
3
k
1 ˆ 1 ˆ 1 ˆ 1 ˆ 1 ˆ 1 ˆ
(C) i j k (D) i j k
3 3 3 3 3 3
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6. A portion of straight glass rod of diameter 4 cm and refractive index 1.5 is bent into an
arc of circle of radius R cm and a parallel beam of light is incident on it as shown in the
figure. Find the smallest R which permits all the light to pass around the arc.
(A) 6 cm (B) 12 cm
R
(C) 24 cm (D) None of these
7. A ray of light l is incident on a thin film. Two reflected rays R1 and
R2 and two transmitted rays T1 and T2 for the incident ray l are shown
in the figure. If the rays R2 and T2 undergoes a phase change of due
to difference in refractive index of the mediums, then select the
correct order of refractive indeces.
(A) 1 2 3 (B) 1 2 3
(C) 1 2 3 (D) 1 2 3
8. White light is used in a Young’s double slit experiment. The slit width is d and the separation between the slit plane
and the screen plane is D D d . Some wavelength are missing on the point on the screen in front of both the
slits. Select the missing wavelength.
d2 d2 d2
(A) (B) (C) (D) None of these
2D 4D 3D
9. A ray beam of width 1 cm is incident from air to air-water boundary at an angle of 45°. What is the width of the
refracted beam in water? (Refractive index of water = 2)
1 1 3
(A) cm (B) cm (C) 1 cm (D) cm
2 2 2
10. Two coherent narrow slits emitting wavelength in the same phase are placed at
(0, 0, 0) and (3, 0, 0) in an x-y-z space as shown in the figure. The light from
the two slits interfere on a screen S which is parallel to y-z plane and is placed at
a distance D D from the origin. Find the distance y of the nearest point
on the screen from the centre of the screen P, where intensity is equal to that at P
5D
(A) D (B) 3D (C) (D) 5D
2
11. A light ray incident along vector 2iˆ 4 ˆj 5kˆ strikes on the x-z plane from medium I of refractive index 3 and
enters into medium II of refractive index is 2. The value of 2 for which the value of angle of refraction becomes
90°, is :
4 3 3 3 2 3 3
(A) (B) (C) (D)
5 5 5 5
12. A point source of light ‘O’ is kept on the principal axis of a thin plano-convex lens of radius X
of curvature 20 cm as shown. The refractive index of material of lens is 3/2, then medium O n2 4/3
towards right of plane surface is water of refractive index 4/3 and the medium on the left side Air Water
of curved surface of lens is air. Considering only paraxial rays, the distance ‘x’ of the point
n1 3 / 2
source ‘O’ from the lens such that the rays become parallel on entering the water will be:
(A) 10 cm (B) 20 cm (C) 40 cm (D) None of these
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13. The minimum value of refractive index n of a cylindrical solid rod placed air
in air, so that the light entering through the flat surface of the rod does not
cross the curved surface of the rod is : i
3
(A) (B) 2 (C) 2 (D) 3
2
14. In the figure shown in a YDSE, a parallel beam of light is incident on the slits from a medium of refractive index n1.
The wavelength of light in this medium is 1 . A transparent slab of thickness ‘t’ and refractive index n3 is put
infront of one slit. The medium between the screen and the plane of the slits is n2. The phase difference between the
light waves reaching point ‘O’ (symmetrical, relative to the slits) is : n1 n3
n2
2 2
(A) n2 n3 t (B) n3 n2 t
n11 1 O
2 n1 n3 2 n1
(C) 1 t (D) n3 n2 t
22 1 n2 1
15. In a Young’s double slit experiment D equals the distance of screen and d is the separation between the slits. The
distance of the nearest point to the central maximum where the intensity is same as that due to a single slit, is equal
to
D D D
(A) (B) (C) (D) 2D
d 2d 3d
MULTIPLE CORRECT ANSWERS TYPE
Each of the following Question has 4 choices A, B, C & D, out of which ONE or MORE Choices may be Correct:
16. The gap between the slit plane and the screen is filled with water and a
parallel beam of monochromatic light of wavelength, = 0.25 mm and the
intensity I0 is incident at an angle 30° with the horizontal. A slab of
thickness 0.5 mm and refractive index s = 1.5 is placed before S1. Choose
the correct option(s).
(A) central maxima is observed above O
(B) central maxima observed below O
(C) intensity at O is 4I0
(D) 3rd order maxima is at O
17. If white light is used in a Young’s double-slit experiment,
(A) bright white fringe is formed at the centre of the screen
(B) fringes of different colours are observed clearly only in the first order
(C) the first-order violet fringe is closer to the centre of the screen than the first-order red fringe
(D) the first-order red fringe is closer to the centre of the screen than the first-order violet fringe
18. In Young’s double slit experiment two wavelengths of light are used simultaneously where 2 = 21. In the fringe
pattern observed on the screen
(A) maxima of wavelength 2 can coincide with minima of wavelength 1
(B) fringe width of 2 will be double that of fringe width of 1 and the nth order maxima of 2 will coincide with
2n order maxima of 1.
(C) nth order maxima of 2 will coincide with 2nth order maxima of 1.
(D) None of the above
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19. A particle moves towards a concave mirror of focal length 30 cm along its axis and with a constant speed of 4
cm/sec. At the instant the particle is 90 cm from the pole
(A) velocity of image is 1 cm/sec (B) velocity of image w.r.t. particle is 5 cm/sec
(C) particle and image move towards each other
(D) as the particle approaches pole, velocity of image increases
20. The minimum value of d so that there is a dark fringe at O is dmin.
For the value of dmin, the distance at which the next bright fringe is
formed is x. Then :
D
(A) dmin D (B) dmin
2
dmin
(C) x (D) x d min
2
21. Two point monochromatic and coherent sources of light of wavelength are each placed as shown in the figure
below. The initial phase difference between the sources is zero O. (D >> d). Select the correct statement(s) :
7
(A) If d , O will be minima
2
(B) If d = , only one maxima can be observed on screen
(C) If d = 4.8, then a total 10 minimas would be there on screen
5
(D) If d , then intensity at O would be minimum
2
22. The slit 1 of a Young’s double slit experiment is wider than slit 2, so that the light from slits are given as
A1 A 0 sin t and A 2 3 A 0 sin t . Then resultant amplitude and intensity at a point where the path
3
difference between them is zero, is A and t respectively, then :
(A) A 13 A0 (B) A 4 A0 (C) I 16 A02 (D) I 13 A02
23. Two transparent parallel plates are stacked face to face. The plate whose thickness t 1 4.5 cm has a refractive
3 4
index n1 while the other plate whose thickness t2 2 cm has a refractive index n 2 . A narrow light beam
2 3
is incident on the first plate at an angle i 37 to the normal. The lateral shifts of the beam emerging from the
second plate into air space due to I plate only, due to II plate only, and due to both the plates are d1 , d 2 and d
respectively, then :
(A) d 1 0.5 cm (B) d 1 1.129 cm (C) d 1.5 cm (D) d 2 cm
24. A ray of light is incident normally on one face of 30° – 60° – 90°
prism of refractive index 5/3 immersed in water of refractive index
4/3 as shown in figure.
5
(A) The exit angle 2 of the ray is sin 1
8
5
(B) The exit angle 2 of the ray is sin 1
4 3
5
(C) Total internal reflection at point P ceases if the refractive index of water is increased to by dissolving
2 3
some substance
5
(D) Total internal reflection at point P ceases if the refractive index of water is increased to by dissolving
6
some substance
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25. The figure shows a ray incident at an angle i . If the plot
3
1
drawn shown in the variation of r i versus k , (r = angle
2
of refraction)
2
(A) the value of k1 is (B) the value of 1
3 6
(C) the value of 2 (D) the value of k2 is 1
3
26. A reflecting surface is represented by the equation
2 L x
Y sin , 0 x L. A ray travelling horizontally becomes
L
vertical after reflection. The coordination of the point (s) where this
ray is incident are
L 2L L 3L 3L 2 L 2 L 3L
(A) , (B) , (C) , (D) ,
4 3 4 3
27. A convex lens forms an image of an object on a screen. The height of the image is 9 cm. The lens is now displaced
until an image is again obtained on the screen. The height of this image is 4 cm. The distance between the object
and the screen is 90 cm.
(A) The distance between the two position of the lens is 30 cm
(B) The distance of the object from the lens in its first position is 36 cm.
(C) The height of the object is 6 cm.
(D) The focal length of the lens is 21.6 cm.
28. In displacement method, the distance between object and screen is 96 cm. The ratio of length of two images formed
by a convex lens placed between them is 4.
(A) Ratio of the length of object to the length of shorter image is 2
(B) Distance between the two positions of the lens is 32 cm
(C) Focal length of the lens is 64/3 cm
(D) When the shorter image is formed, distance of the lens from the shorter image is 32 cm
29. In the figure light is incident at an angle which is slightly greater than the critical angle. Now, keeping the
incident fixed a parallel slab of refractive index n3 is placed on surface AB. Which of the following statements are
correct : C n1 D
n1 n1 n2
(A) Total internal reflection occurs at AB for n 3 n 1 A B n3
A B
(B) Total internal reflection occurs at AB for n 3 n 1 n2 n2
(C) The ray will return back to the same medium for all
values of n 3
Fig. (A)
Fig. (B)
(D) Total internal reflection occurs at CD for n 3 n 1
30. A thin lens of material of r.i. = 1.4 is formed with radii of curvatures of bounding surfaces 16 cm and 24 cm. Then
:(A) the focal length of the lens is 3 cm, if it is a bi-convex converging lens
(B) the power of the lens is 5/6 D, if it is a concavo-convex converging lens
(C) the focal length of the lens is 24 cm, if it is biconvex lens
(D) the focal length of the lens is -76.8 cm, if it is biconvex lens and surrounded by a medium of r.i. = 1.6
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31. A convex lens made of glass ( g 3 / 2) has focal length f in air. The image of an object placed infront of it is
inverted” real and magnified. Now the whole arrangement is immersed in water ( w 4 / 3) without changing the
distance between object and lens. Then:
f
(A) The new focal length will become 4f (B) The new focal length will become
4
(C) New image will be virtual and magnified (D) New image will be real inverted and smaller in size
32. In an interference arrangement similar to Young’s double-slit experiment, the slits
S1 and S2 are illuminated with coherent microwave sources, each of frequency
106 Hz. The sources are synchronized to have zero phase difference. The slits are
separated by a distance d = 150.0 m The intensity I () is measured as a function
of , where is defined as shown, If I 0 is the maximum intensity, then I ()
for 0 90 is given by:
(A) I () I0 / 2 for 30
(B) I () I0 / 4 for 90
(C) I () I0 for 0
(D) I () is constant for all values of
3
33. A point object is placed at 30 cm from a convex glass lens g of focal length 20 cm. The final image of
2
object will be formed at infinity if:
(A) Another concave lens of focal length 60 cm is placed in contact with the previous lens
(B) Another convex lens of focal length 60 cm is placed at a distance of 30 cm from the first lens
(C) The whole system is immersed in a liquid of refractive index 4/3
(D) The whole system is immersed in a liquid of refractive index 9/8
34. A thin film of thickness t and index of refraction 1.33 coats a glass with index of refraction 1.50. Which of the
following thickness t will not reflect normally incident light with wavelength 640 nm in air?
(A) 120 nm (B) 240 nm (C) 360 nm (D) 480 nm
35. Imagine a Young’s double slit interference experiment performed with electron waves associated with fast moving
electrons coming from the electron gun. The distance between successive maximum will decrease if the:
(A) Accelerating voltage in electron gun is decreased
(B) Accelerating voltage is increased (C) Distance between screen and slits is increased
(D) Distance between the slits is increased
Paragraph for Questions 36 - 38
The flat surface of a plano-convex lens is silvered and cut to give the shape of a cross-
section as ABCD. The optical centre of the silvered lens is attached to a rigid support
through a spring of force constant k. The radius of curvature of BC is 10 cm and the
refractive index of the material of the lens is 1.5. The lens is initially at rest so that the
kx
elongation of the spring is x0. A particle of mass m 0 hits the lens elastically with
g
0.1
velocity 10 m/s as shown in the figure. Taking x0 2
m and g 10 m/s 2 .
36. The equivalent focal length of the silvered lens is :
(A) –5 cm (B) –10 cm (C) –15 cm (D) –20 cm
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m
37. If t = 0 be the time of collision, then at time t , the speed of the image of the particle relative to the lens is :
k
(A) 40 m/s (B) 36 m/s (C) 32 m/s (D) none of these
38. If the lens were complete as MBCNM, then
(A) the image velocity will be more (B) the image velocity will be less
(C) the image will be more intense (D) can’t be predicted
Paragraph for Questions 39 - 41
A container contains liquid upto a height of 30 cm and there is a point source at the centre of the bottom of the container.
A rubber ring of radius r floats centrally on the liquid surface. The ceiling of the room is 3.0 m above the liquid surface.
(Refractive index of liquid = 3)
39. The radius of disc on surface of water through which rays from point source are refracted into air is :
(A) 10 2 cm (B) 15 2 cm (C) 10 3 cm (D) 15 3 cm
40. The radius of the shadow of the ring formed on the ceiling if r 10 3 cm is :
(A) 270 3 cm (B) 290 3 cm (C) 310 3 cm (D) 350 3 cm
41. Find the maximum value of r for which the shadow of the ring is formed on the ceiling.
(A) 10 2 cm (B) 15 2 cm (C) 10 3 cm (D) 15 3 cm
MATRIX MATCH TYPE
Each of the following question contains statements given in two columns, which have to be matched. Statements in
Column 1 are labelled as (A), (B), (C) & (D) whereas statements in Column 2 are labeled as p, q, r, s & t. More than one
choice from Column 2 can be matched with Column 1.
42. A spherical interface whose radius is R divides the space in two
parts such that the x-axis behaves as principal axis and origin O
behaves as pole as shown in the figure. The refractive index of
medium I is 1 and that of medium II is 2. Now match the
column 1 with column 2 [Assume concept of paraxial rays]
Column 1 Column 2
(A) Object is kept at point (–a, 0) and 1 < 2 (p) Image may be real
(B) Object is kept at point (–a, 0) and 1 > 2 (q) Image may be virtual
(C) Object is kept at point (+a, 0) and 1 < 2 (r) The position of image may be in between the position
of object and origin.
(D) Object is kept at point (+a, 0) and 1 > 2 (s) The position of image may be in between the position
of object and centre of curvature of interface.
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43. Column shows O1 object and O2 image. The optical system responsible can be a spherical mirror, plane mirror or a
thin lens. In the case of the lens and spherical mirror, straight line shows the principal axis. Match column-1 and
column-2.
Column 1 Column 2
(A) (p) Concave mirror between O1 and O2
(B) (q) Diverging lens between O1 and O2
(C) (r) Convex mirror between O1 and O2
(D) (s) Converging lens between O1 and O2
(t) Inclined plane mirror somewhere between O1 and O2
44. In a young’s double slit experiment, a parallel beam of
monochromatic light of wavelength 500 nm (in vacuum) is while
the screen is placed at a fixed distance of 1 m from the plane of
the slits. Different experimental setups are described and some
physical quantities are measured in each setup as given in
column 1 the corresponding results are given in column 2, in a
different order. Match each case in column 1 with the appropriate
result in column 2. Consider the figure.
Column I Column II
(A) Light falls normally on the plane of slits and (p) Ratio of maximum to minimum intensity on screen is
d = 1 mm 81
(B) In the situation given in part (A), the upper slit (q) The central maximum may be obtained at O
is covered by a transparent film of refractive
index 1.5 and of thickness 2.5 m. The film
absorbs 36% of the light incident on it.
(C) In situation (B), the direction of incident light (r) The central maximum may be obtained 1.25 mm
is changed so that it makes an angle of
1.25 × 10–3 radian with the x-axis
(D) In the setup in (B), the separation between the (s) y-coordinate of central maximum may 2.5 mm
slits is decreased to 0.5 mm and the space
between the slits and the screen is filled with a
non absorbing liquid of refractive index 1.2.
(t) The fringe width is 0.5 mm
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45. A parallel beam of light consisting of two wavelength 1 = 4000 Å and
2 = 8000 Å is incident perpendicular to plane of both slits in a typical S1 P
Young’s double slit experiment. The separation between both slits is
Central line
d = 2mm and the distance between slits and screen is D = 1 meter. In
S2
each situation of column-I a point P on screen is specified by its distance
D
‘’ from centre bright on screen. Match each situation of column-I with
the corresponding statement in column-II.
Column I Column II
(A) At P such that 0 (p) Intensity is maximum for 1 4000Å
(B) At P such that 0.1 mm (q) Intensity is minimum for 1 4000Å
(C) At P such that 0.2 mm (r) Intensity is maximum for 2 8000Å
(D) At P such that 0.4 mm (s) Intensity is minimum for 2 8000Å
SUBJECTIVE INTEGER TYPE
46. A ray of light falling on a glass sphere of refractive index 3 such that the directions of the incident ray and
emergent ray when produced meet the surface at the same point. The value of angle of incident is . Calculate the
value of .
30
47. A point source of light is placed inside water and a thin converging lens of focal length f is placed just outside the
surface of water. The image of source is formed at a distance of 50 cm from the surface of water. When the lens is
placed just inside the water surface and the image is formed at a distance of 40 cm from the surface of water, if
100k
focal length of the lens in air is f cm, then find the value of k. (Given refractive index of lens is 3/2 and
3
that of water is 4/3 and in both cases image is formed inside water for the viewer in air).
48. A plano-convex lens has a thickness of 4 cm. When placed on a horizontal table, with the curved surface in contact
with it, the apparent depth of the bottom most point of the lens is found to be 3 cm. If the lens is inverted such that
25
the plane face is in contact with the table, the apparent depth of the centre of the plane face is found to be cm.
8
1
The radius of curvature of the convex surface of the lens is m. Find the value of x?
x
49. Light is incident normally on face AB of a prism as shown in the figure. A liquid of refractive index is placed on
face AC of the prism. The prism is made of glass of refractive index 3/2. The maximum value of for which total
6 3
internal takes reflection place on face AC is . Find n.
n
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50. Figure shows two spherical surfaces of radii R and 2R separating
three transparent media of refractive index = 4, = 2 and = 1.
A ray of light travelling in medium = 1 is incident on outer
sphere tangentially. The net deviation suffered by light ray will be
k 60°. Find the value of k.
51. Two objects are placed on the principal axis of a thin converging lens. One is 10 cm from the lens and the other is
one the other side of the lens at a distance of 40 cm from the lens. The images of both objects are in the same plane.
What is the focal length of the lens (in cm)?
52. The object is at a distance I = 45 cm from the screen. With lens we obtain a small image of the object on the screen.
By moving the lens, we receive a different image on the screen, whose size is 4 times greater than the first. What is
the focal length (in cm) of the lens?
53. Two converging lens have focal length f = 10 cm and f ' 20 cm. The optical axes of the lenses coincide. This lens
system is used to form an image of an object kept at a certain distance from the first lens. In the situation, the size of
the final image does not depend on the distance of the object from the first lens. What is the distance (in cm) between
the two lens.
54. A thin equiconvex lens ( 3 / 2) is placed on a horizontal plane mirror. The space between the lens and mirror is
filled with water ( 4 / 3). Now when a pin is be placed at a distance of 12 cm form the lens its image coincide
with itself. Find the radius of curvature (in cm) of lens.
55. A lens forms the image of sun on a screen 30 cm away. How far (in decimeter) from the lens should a second lens of
focal length 30 cm placed so that the screen has to be moved 8 cm towards the first lens for the new image to be in
focus?
17
56. A narrow light beam is incident on a plane-parallel plate having a refractive index of n at an angle of 30° to
16
normal. As a result it is partially reflected and refracted. The refracted beam is reflected by the rear surface of the
plate and then undergoes refraction again, emerging from the plate with a displacement of 4 3cm parallel to the
primary reflected beam. The thickness of the plate is given as α m. Find the value of 40α.
57. A bright line in Young’s double-slit experiment is 1.5 cm from the center of the pattern. The slit separation is 0.4
mm. The light has a wavelength of 750 nm and falls on a screen 1 m away. How many dark lines are there between
the centre and the bright line at 1.5 cm?
58. Light of wavelength 627 nm illuminates two slits. What is the minimum path difference (in nm) between the waves
from the slits for the resultant intensity to fall to 25% of the central maximum?
59. A glass plate 12 10 3 mm thick is placed in the path of one of the interfering beam in a Young’s double slit
interference arrangement using monochromatic light of wavelength 6000 Å. If the central band shifts a distance
equal to width of 10 bands. What is the thickness (in μm) of the plate of diamond of refractive index 2.5 that has to
be introduced in the path of second beam to bring the central band to original position?
60. The intensity received at the focus of the lens is I when no glass
slab has been placed in front of the slit. Both the slits are of the
same dimension and the plane wavefront incident
perpendicularly on them, has wavelength λ. On placing the glass
slab, the intensity reduces to 3I/4 at the focus. The minimum
thickness of the glass slab (in μm) if its refractive index is 3/2 is
given by t. Find 15t. Given 6000 Å
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Advanced Problem Package Modern Physics
SINGLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE
Each of the following Question has 4 choices A, B, C & D, out of which ONLY ONE Choice is Correct.
1. A heavy nucleus having mass number 200 gets disintegrated into two small fragments of mass number 80 and 120.
If binding energy per nucleon for parent atom is 6.5 M eV and for daughter nuclei is 7 MeV and 8 MeV respectively,
then the energy released in the decay will be :
(A) 200 eV (B) – 220 eV (C) 220 MeV (D) 180 MeV
2. A hydrogen like atom is in a higher energy level of quantum number 6. The excited atom makes a transition to first
excited state by emitting photons of total energy 27.2 eV. The atom from the same excited state make a transition to the
second excited state by successively emitting two photons. If the energy of one photon is 4.25 eV, find the energy of
other photon.
(A) 5.95 eV (B) 6.25 eV (C) 6.95 eV (D) 7.80 eV
3. The helium gas in an excited state makes transition from excited state of principal quantum number n = 5 to ground
state. The most energetic photons have energy 52.224 eV, find the energy of least energetic photons :
(A) 1.224 eV (B) 2.42 eV (C) 3.22 eV (D) 3.82 eV
4. The potential difference applied to an X-ray tube is 5KV and the current through it is 3.2 mA. Then number of electrons
striking the target per second is:
(A) 2 1016 (B) 5 106 (C) 11017 (D) 4 1015
5. Electrons with de-Broglie wavelength λ fall on the target in an X-ray tube. The cut-off wavelength of the emitted
X-rays is:
2mcλ2 2h 2m2 c 2 λ3
(A) λ0 (B) λ0 (C) λ0 (D) λ0 λ
h mc h2
6. Electrons in a sample of gas containing hydrogen like atom (Z = 3) are in fourth excited state. When photons emitted
only due to transition from third excited state to second excited state are incident on a metal plate photoelectrons are
ejected. The stopping potential for these photoelectrons is 4 eV. Now, if only photons emitted due to transition from
fourth excited state to third excited state are incident on the same metal plate, the stopping potential for the emitted
photoelectrons will be approximately equal to :
(A) 0.80 eV (B) 0.75 eV (C) 0.65 eV (D) 0.55 eV
7. Nuclei of radioactive element A are product at a rate ‘t2’ at any time t. The element A has decay constant . Let N be
the number of nuclei of element A at any time t. At time t = t0, dN/dt is minimum. Then the number of nuclei of element
A at time t = t0 is :
t0 t02 t02 2t0 2t0 t02 t0 t02
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 2
nd
8. The photon radiated from hydrogen corresponding to 2 line of Lyman series is absorbed by a hydrogen like atom ‘X’
in 2nd excited state. As a result the hydrogen like atom ‘X’ makes a transition to nth orbit. Then :
(A) X He . n 4 (B) X Li .n 6 (C) X He .n 6 (D) X Li .n 9
9. The thermal power of a uranium reactor is 100 MW. Energy released in each fission is 3.2 × 10–11 J and the average
number of neutrons released per fission is 2.5. The number of neutrons generated in unit time is :
(A) 7.8 × 1018 (B) 1.28 × 1019 (C) 3.2 × 1019 (D) 2.5 × 1018
10. The de Broglie wavelength of an electron in the first excited state of a Hydrogen atom is:
1
[h is Planck’s constant, m is the mass of the electron, e is the charge on the electron, K ]
4πε 0
h2 h2 mh2 mh 2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
πKme 2 2πKme 2 πKe2 2πKe 2
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MULTIPLE CORRECT ANSWERS TYPE
Each of the following Question has 4 choices A, B, C & D, out of which ONE or MORE Choices may be Correct:
11. A neutron have K.E. = 15eV suffers head on collision with hydrogen atom in ground state at rest then after collision
K.E. of : (Assume mass of neutron same as that of hydrogen).
(A) neutron is 1.4 eV (B) hydrogen is 1.4 eV (C) neutron is zero (D) hydrogen is 15 eV
12. Graph is drawn between photocurrent & accelerating potential, then
(A) A & B will have same intensity
(B) B & C will have same frequency
(C) B & C will have same intensity
(D) A & B will have same frequency
13. When protons of energy 4.25 eV strike the surface of a metal A, the ejected photoelectrons have maximum kinetic
energy TA expressed in eV and de-Broglie wavelength λ A . The maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons liberated
from another metal B by photons of energy 4.70 eV is TB (TA 1.50eV ). If the de-Broglie wavelength of these
photoelectrons is λ B 2λ A , then:
(A) The work function of A is 2.25 eV (B) The work function of B is 4.20 eV
(C) TA 2.00eV (D) TB 2.75eV
Ke2
14. Suppose the potential energy between electron and proton at a distance r is given by : . The application of Bohr’s
3r 3
theory to hydrogen atom in this case will change as follows :
(A) Energy in the nth orbit is proportional to n6 (B) Energy is proportional to m–3 (m : mass of electron)
(C) Energy the nth orbit is proportional to n–2 (D) Energy is proportional to m1 (m = mass of electron)
15. In the Bohr’s model of the hydrogen atom:
(A) radius of the nth orbit is proportional to n2
(B) the total energy of the electron in the nth orbit is inversely proportional to n
(C) the angular momentum of the electron in an orbit is an integral multiple of (h / 2π)
(D) the magnitude of potential energy of the electron in any orbit is greater than its kinetic energy
16. From the following equations pick out the possible nuclear fusion reactions:
13
(A) 6C 1H 1
6C14 4.3 MeV (B) 6C
12
1H 1
7 N 13 2 MeV
14
(C) 7N 1H 1
8O15 7.3 MeV
235
(D) 92U 0n1
54 Xe140 36 Sr 94 0n1 0n1 γ 200 MeV
17. In an X-ray tube, the voltage applied is 20 KV. The energy required to remove an electron from L shell is 19.9 KeV.
In the X-rays emitted by the tube :
(A) minimum wavelength will be 62.1 pm
(B) energy of characterstic X-ray will be equal to or less than 19.9 KeV
(C) Lα X-ray may be emitted
(D) Lα X-ray will have energy 19.9 KeV
18. An electron in Hydrogen atom first jumps from second excited state to first excited state and then from first excited
state to ground state. Let ratio of wavelength, momentum AND energy of photons emitted in these two cases be a, b and
c respectively. Then,
1 9 5 5
(A) c (B) a (C) b (D) c
a 4 27 27
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19. The radioactivity of a nucleus may be due to various reasons. An unstable nucleus emits radiations if it goes to form a
stable nucleus (or less unstable). Then the cause and result can be
(A) a nucleus of excess nucleons is active
(B) an excited nucleus of excess protons is – active
(C) an excited nucleus of excess protons is + active
(D) an nucleus of excess neutrons is – active
20. The ground state and first excited state energies of hydrogen atom are –13.6 eV and –3.4 eV respectively. If potential
energy in ground state is taken to be zero. Then:
(A) Potential energy in the first excited state would be 20.4 eV
(B) Total energy in the first excited state would be 23.8 eV
(C) Kinetic energy in the first excited state would be 3.4 eV
(D) Total energy in the ground state would be 13.6 eV
21. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct ?
(A) The rest mass of a stable nucleus is less than the sum of the rest masses of its separated nucleons
(B) The rest mass of a stable nucleus is greater than the sum of the rest masses of its separated nucleons
(C) In nuclear fission, energy is released by fusing two nuclei of medium mass (approximately 100 amu)
(D) In nuclear fission, energy is released by fragmentation of a heavy nucleus
4 3
22. An O16 nucleus is spherical and has a charge radius R and a volume V R . According to the empirical
3
observations, the volume of the 54 X 128 nucleus (assume it to be spherical) is V’ and radius is R’, Then:
(A) V ' 8V (B) V ' 2V (C) R ' 2R (D) R ' 8R
23. 10 gm of a radioactive element is kept in a container. The element is β-active. Then after one half-life: (molar mass of
the substance is 100 gm, Avogadro’s number 6 1023 per mole ).
(A) The weight of the substance left in the container will be 5 gm.
(B) The weight of the active substance in the container will be nearly 10 gm.
(C) If all β-particles leave the container then the charge of the substance left is 4800 C
(D) if all β-particles leave the container then the charge of the substance left is 9600 C.
24. A metallic sphere of radius r remote from all other bodies is irradiated with a radiation wavelength which is capable
of causing photoelectric effect.
(A) The maximum potential gained by the sphere will be independent of its radius
(B) The net positive charge appearing on the sphere after a long time will depend on the radius of the sphere
(C) The kinetic energy of the most energetic electrons emanating from the sphere will keep of declining with time
(D) The kinetic energy of the most energetic electrons emanating from the sphere initially will to independent of
the radius of the sphere
25. Monochromatic light of wavelength 207 nm and intensity is made to fall on a metal plate A fixed inside a vacuum tube,
leading to emission of photoelectrons. The incident light makes an angle 30° with plate A. The surface area of plate A is
20 cm2 Another plate B is fixed inside the tube, directly facing plate A. If the potential of plate A is kept 4 V higher
than plate B, the photoemission stops completely. If the potential of plate B is made higher than plate A, the
photoelectric current rises, until it reaches a saturation value of 0.5 mA.
Choose the correct option(s):
[ hc 1242 eV-nm ]
(A) The work function of plate A is 4.0 eV
(B) The longest wavelength of light that can cause emission from plate A is 621 nm
(C) When the current is at its saturation value, one electron is emitted from plate A for every 20 photons incident
on it
(D) Once the current reaches its saturation value, it can further be increased by decreasing the wavelength of the
incident light but not by increasing its intensity
APP | Physics 162 Modern Physics
Vidyamandir Classes
26. An electron moving in a circular path of radius r in a plane perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field of intensity B has
kinetic energy K and de Broglie wavelength λ . Choose the correct option(s):
[h is Planck’s constant, e is the charge on an electron]
h h eBrh 2mK
(A) (B) r (C) K (D) r
2 mK eBλ 2mλ eB
27. An electron in the ground state in a Hydrogen atom absorbs a photon of wavelength λ and transitions to a new energy
level such that the radius of its orbit becomes 16 times. The change of momentum of the Hydrogen atom due to the
absorption of the photon is pa . Choose the correct option(s):
(A) The ionization energy of the electron in the new orbit is 0.85eV
(B) λ 97.4 nm (C) pa 6.78 1027 kg m/s
(D) The electron can now transition to a lower energy level and emit a photon of wavelength 90 nm
28. Two radioactive decay processes are given below:
137 137 23 23
(1) 55 Cs 56 Ba (2) 12 Mg 11 Na
The Q-value of these two processes, Q1 and Q2 respectively, are given by:
[Here, m X denotes the mass of an atom of the element X, me denotes the mass of an electron, Q0 denotes the amount
of energy liberated when 1 u of mass converts to energy]
(A) Q1 m Cs m Ba me Q0 (B) Q1 m Cs m Ba Q0
(C) Q2 m Cs m Ba 2me Q0 (D) Q2 m Mg m Na me Q0
29. In an experiment on X-rays, high energy electrons, all of de Broglie wavelength λ e , are made to collide with target plate
made of a material of atomic number Z. The minimum wavelength observed in the continuous X-ray spectrum is λ m .
Choose the correct option(s):
(A) Wavelength of the observed K α line is independent of λ e but not independent of Z
(B) Wavelength of the observed K α line is independent of neither λ e nor Z
(C) The minimum wavelength observed in the continuous X-ray spectrum is independent of both λ e and Z
(D) The minimum wavelength observed in the continuous X-ray spectrum is independent of Z but not independent
of λ e
30. Consider a Bohr orbit in the Hydrogen atom with principal quantum number n (n > 1). If an electron in this orbit makes
a transition to the immediately lower orbit, it emits a photon of wavelength λ L and the change in momentum
experienced by the Hydrogen atom due to this emission be p L . Let the largest wavelength of a photon that can ionise
this Hydrogen atom (with the electron now in an orbit with principal quantum number n – 1) be λ M . Choose the correct
option(s):
2
λ L is proportional to
n n 1 1
(A) (B) p L is proportional to
2n 1 n 12
2n 1 λ M is proportional to n 1
2
(C) p L is proportional to 2
(D)
n n 1
Paragraph for Q. 31 - 33
A hydrogen like atom of atomic number Z is in excited state of quantum number 2n. It can emit a maximum energy photon of
204 eV. If it makes transition to quantum state n, a photon of energy 40.8 eV is emitted. Ground state energy of hydrogen atom is
–13.6 eV.
31. Find the value of n :
(A) 3 (B) 2 (C) 4 (D) 6
APP | Physics 163 Modern Physics
Vidyamandir Classes
32. Find ground state energy (in eV) of this atom:
(A) –187.6 eV (B) –197.6 eV (C) –217.6 eV (D) –167.6 eV
33. Calculate minimum energy (eV) that can be emitted by this atom during de-excitation:
(A) 12.46 ev (B) 10.58 eV (C) 11.97 eV (D) 13.27 eV
Paragraph for Q. 34 - 35
A radioactive nucleus A decays into two different stable nuclei X and Y. The half-life for the decay of A into X is T1 and the
half-life for the decay of A into Y is T2 .
N0
34. If at t 0 , there are N 0 nuclei A present in a sample, the time instant when there are exactly nuclei A present is:
2
2T1T2 T1T2 T1 T2
(A) (B) (C) T1 T2 (D)
T1 T2 T1 T2 2
35. If at t 0 , there were no nuclei X and Y present, the ratio of number of nuclei X to number of nuclei Y at any instant,
NX
is:
NY
T2 T1 2T2 2T1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
T1 T2 T1 T2 T1 T2
Paragraph for Q. 36 - 38
A radioisotope of potassium, K-40 decays into a stable isotope of calcium, Ca-40, and emits a beta particle. The binding energy
per nucleon of the K-40 nucleus is 8.5 keV, and the binding energy per nucleon of the Ca-40 nucleus is 44.0 keV.
36. The maximum energy liberated in the decay of a K-40 nucleus into a Ca-40 nucleus is:
(A) 2000 keV (B) 1320 keV (C) 52.5 keV (D) 35.5 keV
37. If the K-40 nucleus is at rest before the disintegration, the ratio of the kinetic energy of the beta particle to the kinetic
Kβ
energy of the Ca-40 nucleus after the disintegration, , is:
KCa
1
[Assume that mass of Ca-40 nucleus, m Ca-40 40 u , mass of electron , me u]
1800
(A) 7.2 105 (B) 5.18 108 (C) 7.2 104 (D) 5.18 109
38. If the mass of a K-40 atom is 39.9640 u, the mass of a Ca-40 atom is:
[ 1 u 931.5 MeV/c2 ]
(A) 39.9626 u (B) 39.9622 u (C) 39.9654 u (D) 39.9658 u
MATRIX MATCH TYPE
Each of the following question contains statements given in two columns, which have to be matched. Statements in Column
1 are labelled as (A), (B), (C) & (D) whereas statements in Column 2 are labeled as p, q, r, s & t. More than one choice from
Column 2 can be matched with Column 1.
39. Column-I lists some parameters in a photoelectric experiment that can be controlled. Column-II lists the possible
combinations of two quantities (Photoelectric current I PE and maximum kinetic energy of a photoelectron K max ) that
can be affected by changing these parameters.
Column 1 Column 2
(A) Intensity of incident light (p) I PE only
(B) Wavelength of incident light (q) K max only
(C) Accelerating potential across the vacuum tube (r) Both I PE and K max
(D) Work function of the metal plate (s) Neither I PE nor K max
APP | Physics 164 Modern Physics
Vidyamandir Classes
40. Column-I lists some quantities pertaining to an electron in the nth Bohr orbit in a Hydrogen atom. Match each quantity
in Column-I with the correct item in Column-II to which the quantity is proportional to.
Column 1 Column 2
(A) De Broglie wavelength (p) 1
n
(B) Time period of revolution (q) 1
n4
(C) Velocity (r) n3
(D) Centripetal acceleration (s) n
SUBJECTIVE INTEGER TYPE
41. The radius of an α- particle moving in a circle in a constant magnetic field is half the radius of an electron moving in
circular path in the same field. The de-Broglie wavelength of α- particle is n times that of the electron. Find n
(an integer).
42. Nuclei A and B convert into a stable nucleus C. Nucleus A is converted into C by emitting 2 α- particles and
3 β -particles. Nucleus B is converted into C by emitting one α- particle and 5 β- particles. At time t = 0, nuclei of A are
4 N0 and nuclei of B are N0 . Initially number of nuclei of C are zero. Half-life of A (into conversion of C) is 1 minute
and that of B is 2 minute.
Find the time at which rate of disintegration of A and B are equal (in minute).
238 210
43. 92 U changes to 85 At by a series of α and β decays. Find number of α- decays undergone (an integer).
44. Find recoil speed (approximately in m/sec) when a hydrogen atom emits a photon during the transition from n 5 to
n 1.
45. An atom of atomic number Z = 11 emits K α wavelength which is λ. Find the atomic number for an atom that emits
K α radiation with wavelength 4λ (an integer).
46. An electron in nth excited state in a hydrogen atom comes down to first excited state by emitting ten different
wavelengths. Find value of n (an integer).
47. In ground state, find the ratio between acceleration of the electron in singly ionized helium atom and hydrogen atom.
48. The shortest wavelength of the Brackett series of a hydrogen like atom (atomic number Z) is the same as the shortest
wavelength of the Balmer series of hydrogen atom. Find value of Z.
49. A radioactive sample decays through two different decay process decay and decay. Half life time for decay is
3 hour and half life time for decay is 6 hours. What will be ratio of number of radioactive nuclei initial to the
number of radio active nuclei present after 6 hours.
6
50. To determine the half life of a radioactive element, a student plots a graph
5
dN t dN t
of n versus t. Here is the rate of radioactive decay at time 4
dt dt 3
t. If the number of radioactive nuclei of this element decreases by a factor of 2
p after 4.16 years, the value of p is ________.
1
2 3 4 5 6 7 8
APP | Physics 165 Modern Physics
Vidyamandir Classes
51. An alpha particle with kinetic energy K has a head-on elastic collision with a deuterium nucleus at rest. After the
K
collision, the kinetic energy of the alpha particle is K ' . Then, _________.
K'
52. An electron in the n th Bohr orbit in a Hydrogen atom transitions to the ground state. The minimum value of n such that
the emitted photon is able to eject an electron from a metal of work function 12.7 eV is ________.
53. A fixed, perfectly reflecting plane mirror of surface area 0.2 m2 is illuminated by monochromatic light of wavelength
600 nm and intensity 3 W/m2 which falls at an angle of incidence 60 . The force on the mirror due to the incident light
is _________ 109 N .
[Speed of light = 3 108 N ]
54. The ratio of the wavelength of the K-alpha X-ray of Chromium to the wavelength of the K-alpha X-ray of Iron is
_________.
(Atomic number of Chromium = 24, atomic number of Iron = 26)
55. The wavelength of the photon emitted by an electron in transitioning from the second excited state to the ground state in
an ionized Helium atom is ________ nm.
[ hc 1242 eV-nm ]
56. Consider a nuclear fusion reaction A B C . Nucleus A is moving with KE = 5MeV and collides with nucleus B
moving with KE = 3MeV and forms nucleus C in excited state. Find the KE (in MeV) of C nucleus just after its formation
given that its excitation energy is 10.3 MeV. Take masses of nuclei of A,B and C as 25.0, 10.0, 34.99 amu respectively.
[Take : 1 amu = 930 MeV]
57. The peak emission from a black body at a certain temperature occurs at a wavelength of 6000 Å. On increasing its
temperature, the total radiation emitted is increased 16 times. These radiations are allowed to fall on a metal surface.
Photoelectrons emitted by the peak radiation at higher temperature can be bought to rest by applying a potential
equivalent to the excitation potential corresponding to the transition for the level n = 4 to n = 2 in the Bohr’s hydrogen
atom. The work function of the metal is given by eV where α is the numerical constant. Find the value of α. [Take :
100
hc = 12420eV Å]
58. A neutron beam, in which each neutron has same kinetic energy is passed through a sample of hydrogen like gas (but not
hydrogen) in ground state. Due to collision of neutrons with the ions of the gas, ions are excited and then they emit
photons. Six spectral lines are obtained in which one of the lines is of wavelength (6200/51) nm. What is the minimum
possible value of kinetic energy of the neutrons for this to be possible. The mass of neutron and proton can be assumed
to be nearly same. Find the answer in the form 25 102 eV and fill value of α.
59. Electromagnetic radiation whose electric component varies with time as E C1 (C2 C3 cos t ) cos 0t , here
C1 , C2 & C3 are constants, is incident on lithium and liberates photoelectrons. If the kinetic energy of most energetic
electrons be 2.6 eV, the work function of lithium is (in eV). [Take : 0 2.4 1015 rad/sec and 8 1014 rad/sec,
planks constant h 6.6 1034 MKS]
60. In a slow reaction heat is being evolved at a rate about 10 mW in a liquid. If the heat were being generated by the decay
32
of P , a radioactive isotope of phosphorus that has half-life of 14 days and emits only beta-particles with a mean
32
energy of 700 keV, estimate the number of P atoms in the liquid. Express your answer in form of A1015 and fill A.
[Take : ln 2 = 0.675]
APP | Physics 166 Modern Physics
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