Problem Set of Session 4:: K K T K K
Problem Set of Session 4:: K K T K K
1. Why are most futures positions closed out through a reversing trade rather
than held to delivery?
Answer:
In forward markets, approximately 90 percent of all contracts that are initially
established result in the short making delivery to the long of the asset
underlying the contract. This is natural because the terms of forward
contracts are tailor-made between the long and short.
By contrast, only about one percent of currency futures contracts result in
delivery. While futures contracts are useful for speculation and hedging, their
standardized delivery dates make them unlikely to correspond to the actual
future dates when foreign exchange transactions will occur. Thus, they are
generally closed out in a reversing trade. In fact, the commission that buyers
and sellers pay to transact in the futures market is a single amount that
covers the round-trip transactions of initiating and closing out the position.
2. Trader A enters into futures contracts to buy 1 million euros for 1.3 million
dollars in three months. Trader B enters in a forward contract to do the
same thing. The exchange rate (dollars per euro) declines sharply during
the first two months and then increases for the third month to close at
1.3300. Ignoring daily settlement, what is the total profit of each trader?
When the impact of daily settlement is taken into account, which trader
does better?
Solution:
The total profit of each trader in dollars is 0.03×1,000,000 = 30,000. Trader
B’s profit is realized at the end of the three months. Trader A’s profit is
realized day-by-day during the three months. Substantial losses are made
during the first two months and profits are made during the final month. It
is likely that Trader B has done better because Trader A had to finance its
losses during the first two months.
Solution:
1
The value of the contract to the bank at time T1 is S1 - K1 . The bank will
choose K 2 so that the new (rolled forward) contract has a value of S1 - K1 .
This means that
- rf (T2 -T1 )
S1e - K2e-r (T2 -T1 ) = S1 - K1
where r and rf are continuously compounded domestic and foreign risk-
free rate observed at time T1 and applicable to the period between time T1
and T2 . This means that
( r -rf )(T2 -T1 )
K2 = S1e - (S1 - K1 )er (T2 -T1 )
This equation shows that there are two components to K 2 . The first is the
forward price at time T1 . The second is an adjustment to the forward price
equal to the bank’s gain on the first part of the contract compounded
forward at the domestic risk-free rate.
Solution:
(a) Expected gain($) = 10,000,000(1.10 – 1.05)
= 10,000,000(.05)
= $500,000.
(b) I would recommend hedging because Cray Research can increase the
expected dollar receipt by $500,000 and also eliminate the exchange risk.
2
(c) Since Cray Research can eliminate risk without sacrificing dollar receipt,
I still would recommend hedging.
Answer:
To illustrate, suppose a bank customer wants to short British pound
sterling three months forward against dollars.
The bank can handle this trade for its customer (by taking a long position
in pound forwards) and simultaneously neutralize the exchange rate risk in
the trade by replicating a short position in pound forwards using money
market instruments.
This is done by selling (borrowed) British pound sterling spot against
dollars. The bank will lend the dollars for three months until they are
needed to deliver against the dollars it has sold forward. The British
pounds received will be used to liquidate the sterling loan.