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Chapter 7: Web 2.0 and Social Technology: Multiple Choice

1. KLM Royal Dutch Airlines was forced to develop its use of social media like Twitter and Facebook to respond to travelers' questions during a volcanic ash grounding, beginning their social customer service program. 2. In 2015, each KLM social media agent generated approximately $100,000 in revenue. 3. Characteristics of Web 2.0 include user-controlled content, dynamic pages using technologies like XML and Java, and a marketing goal of building relationships through data from multiple online sources.

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Eninta Sebayang
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0% found this document useful (1 vote)
795 views94 pages

Chapter 7: Web 2.0 and Social Technology: Multiple Choice

1. KLM Royal Dutch Airlines was forced to develop its use of social media like Twitter and Facebook to respond to travelers' questions during a volcanic ash grounding, beginning their social customer service program. 2. In 2015, each KLM social media agent generated approximately $100,000 in revenue. 3. Characteristics of Web 2.0 include user-controlled content, dynamic pages using technologies like XML and Java, and a marketing goal of building relationships through data from multiple online sources.

Uploaded by

Eninta Sebayang
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
You are on page 1/ 94

ECOM Ch: 7

Chapter 7: Web 2.0 and Social Technology

Test Bank
Multiple Choice

1. KLM Royal Dutch Airlines was forced to develop its use of Twitter and Facebook, in
response to questions from travelers who were grounded by volcanic ash. This was the
beginning of KLM’s ________________.

a. Social networking service


b. Social customer service
c. Social bookmarking
d. Social media marketing

2. In 2015 at KLM, each social agent was responsible for generating approximately
__________ in revenue.

a. $170,000
b. $100,000
c. $50,000
d. $350,000

3. Which is not a characteristic of Web 2.0?

a. User-controlled content
b. Dynamic pages, XML, and Java
c. Marketing goal: influence
d. Data: multiple sources, e.g., mashups

4. Which is not a characteristic of Web 2.0?

a. Author-controlled content
b. Dynamic pages, XML, and Java
c. Marketing goal: relationships
d. Data: multiple sources, e.g., mashups

1
ECOM Ch: 7

5. ________ facilitate(s) the transfer of data from one website app to another; and can be
either proprietary or ________.

a. APIs; open source


b. AJAX; open source
c. Broadband; programmable
d. HTML; programmable

6. ________ allows developers to create apps where information like store locations can be
displayed on a map that comes from Google.

a. AJAX
b. Asynchronous JavaScript
c. Google Maps API
d. Open source

7. With ________, website programmers can import data from other sources to create
new functions and features that we associate with social media applications

a. RSS and CSS


b. AJAX and APIs
c. HTML and XML
d. JavaScript and XML

8. ________ are buttons or features on non-Facebook sites that interact with Facebook in
some way.

a. Facepiles
b. Open graphs
c. Plug-ins
d. Web 2.0

9. With ________ media content goes from the technology to the people, but with
________ media, people create and control the content.

a. Print; digital
b. Digital; print
c. Social; traditional
d. Traditional; social

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ECOM Ch: 7

10. According to the Cluetrain Manifesto, over time successful companies will learn to
engage customers in ________ as an alternative to the unidirectional or broadcast
method of communication.

a. contests
b. conversations
c. corporate culture
d. tagging

11. ________ is spontaneous movement of people using online tools to connect.

a. Energizing
b. Groundswell
c. Crowdfunding
d. Viral video

12. Which is not a characteristic of Web 2.0?

a. User-controlled content
b. Dynamic pages, XML, and Java
c. Marketing goal: influence
d. Data: multiple sources, e.g., mashups

13. A collection of software tools used by developers for writing applications that run on a
specific device or platform is called a(n) __________.
a. API
b. SDK
c. CSS
d. DOM

14. All of the following are considered AJAX technologies for Web 2.0 except __________.
a. HTML
b. SDK
c. CSS
d. XML

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ECOM Ch: 7

15. The social media technology feature that allows users to decide how to categorize and
label information they find online is called ______________.

a. Blogging
b. Mashups
c. Wikis
d. Tagging

16. __________ is the mapping and measuring of relationships and flows between people,
groups, organizations, computers, or other information or knowledge processing
entities.

a. Global graph
b. Crowdsourcing
c. Social network analysis
d. Social graphics

17. In recent years, companies have created online communities for the purpose of
identifying market opportunities through ________, which is a model of problem
solving and idea generation from the collective talents of many people.

a. Global graph
b. Crowdsourcing
c. Crowdfunding
d. Social brainstorming

18. Businesses and entrepreneurs have turned to the ________ model to raise capital for
business start-ups or projects using sites such as Kickstarter.com.

a. Global graph
b. Crowdsourcing
c. Crowdfunding
d. Social brainstorming

4
ECOM Ch: 7

19. One of the most effective deterrents to abuses of privacy by social media companies is
________.

a. Government regulations and fines


b. Industry and professional standards
c. Competitors’ ethical practices
d. Fear of the public’s backlash and outrage

20. The most important thing that users can do to protect their privacy and identity on
social sites is to ________.

a. Read and rely on the privacy policy of the SNS


b. Accept responsibility for protecting their own information
c. Mark their profiles as confidential
d. Use third-party programs

21. A(n) ________ is a formal listing of the policies, liability limits, fees and user rights and
responsibilities associated with using a particular SNS.

a. Acceptable Use Policy


b. Intellectual Property Agreement
c. Fair Use Contract
d. Terms of Service Agreement

22. Users are typically required to acknowledge they have read, understand and agree to
the ________ before they are allowed to use the service.

a. Acceptable Use Policy


b. Intellectual Property Agreement
c. Terms of Service Agreement
d. User Agreement

23. From the field of economics, the ________ explains how the perceived value of a
product or service is affected by the number of people using the product or service.

a. Social graph
b. Network effect
c. Semantic web
d. Open Graph

5
ECOM Ch: 7

24. The goal of ________ was to connect all the different relationships that exist on the
Internet by linking websites to Facebook.

a. Social graph
b. Network effect
c. Semantic web
d. Open Graph

25. If you are a Facebook member and you visit another site, for example, Yelp, you can
use your Facebook username and password to login to the other site. This is called
a(n)_____________.

a. Social Network Service


b. Social login
c. Network effect
d. Global login

26. A Snapchat feature that is most appealing to its younger audience of digital natives is
_____________.

a. Ability to archive and recall pictures and videos sent several months ago
b. Forwarding pictures that someone else sent you to other sin your network
c. Posting carefully retouched photos and postings about doing “amazing” things
d. Picture and video images that self-destruct 10 seconds after being viewed

27. Businesses should consider Twitter as a social network where the dominant focus is on
________.

a. status updates
b. local news
c. customer experience
d. generating sales

28. Tumblr is a microblogging service that is designed to be easy for users to post ________
and update their blogs frequently.

a. Key words
b. Discount codes
c. Hash tags
d. Multimedia content

6
ECOM Ch: 7

29. Which of the following is not a reason why marketers use blogs and microblogs?

a. To monitor customer experiences and generate revenue.


b. To develop relationships with independent bloggers, encouraging them to write
positive stories about the brand, product, and company
c. To tell the company’s story, position a product, create brand identity or
differentiate from the competition.
d. To engage customers and readers by soliciting comments and feedback about
information provided in blog posts.

30. The universe of people who use Twitter is called the _________.

a. TweetDeck
b. Twittersphere
c. Twitterfeed
d. Twitterholics

31. Using AJAX technologies and APIs, websites and applications can pull information
from a variety of sources in order to create ________.

a. blogs
b. mashups
c. microblogs
d. maps

32. A bank may utilize ________ to display a mortgage application from its own records,
the property location on a Google map and information from county government
property tax records.

a. an enterprise mashup
b. social apps
c. RSS technology
d. social bookmarks

33. ________ represent a change in philosophy for content creators. Traditionally, a


business that created content maintained almost complete control over it in a closed
system.

a. Social apps
b. Mashups
c. RSS feeds
d. Social bookmarks

7
ECOM Ch: 7

34. The Google brand name appears on thousands of websites due to its ________ API.

a. proprietary
b. open source
c. closed source
d. user-controlled

35. Yelp.com has an API that allows sites like Zillow.com to use Yelp’s information when
displaying features of homes and neighborhoods to prospective customers. This is a
good use of ________________ technology.

a. mashup
b. artificial intelligence
c. social
d. RSS

36. ________ allows users to subscribe to multiple blogs or other digital sources and have
the content displayed in a single application.

a. AJAX
b. Mashups
c. Social bookmarks
d. RSS technology

37. A fast growing social technology sector involves _______, which are used to track
conversations taking place on social media sites.

a. Crowdsourcing
b. Groundswell services
c. Social monitoring services
d. RSS technology

38. Which of the following is not a feature or characteristic of subscription monitoring tools?

a. Most moderate and high end monitoring services rely on an advertising business model
similar to Google and offer their services for free.
b. The most comprehensive social media monitoring tools require the user to pay a
subscription or licensing fee.
c. These tools monitor the social media environment for mentions of a company’s brand or
name.
d. These tools measure the tone or sentiment (e.g. positive, negative, neutral) of conversations.

8
ECOM Ch: 7

39. Marketers monitor social activity in order to identify _______ -- that is, people who
repeatedly discuss or promote a particular topic.

a. Brand advocates
b. Technical experts
c. Communities
d. Crowds

40. ________ is a social mention metric that measures the degree to which people who are
talking about your brand will do so repeatedly.

a. Strength
b. Passion
c. Sentiment
d. Reach

41. ________ is a social mention metric that measures the likelihood that a particular topic
is being discussed on social media platforms.

a. Strength
b. Passion
c. Sentiment
d. Reach

42. ________ is a social mention metric that measures the tone of the conversation, which
helps you understand if people are feeling positive, negative or neutral about the topic.

a. Strength
b. Passion
c. Sentiment
d. Reach

43. ________ is a social mention metric that measures the range of people discussing a
particular topic.

a. . Strength
b. Passion
c. Sentiment
d. Reach

9
ECOM Ch: 7

44. ________ is a search engine for blogs which allows users to easily identify blogs that
contain specific key words or phrases that correspond to a brand name, person or issue.

a. Klout
b. Technorati
c. Google Alerts
d. Twitter Search

45. Diigo and Delicious are ________ tools.

a. Social bookmarking
b. Research
c. Discussion group
d. synchronous communication

46. ________ is a cloud storage service that makes it easy to access your documents from
any of the devices you work on.

a. Wiki
b. Delicious
c. Diigo
d. Dropbox

47. ________ allow teams to collaborate on the creation and editing of documents.

a. Dropbox and Box.net


b. Diigo and Delicious
c. Wikis
d. Discussion groups

48. Google+ Hangouts is a service that makes it possible for users to conduct meetings
________.

a. Using video conferencing


b. Face to face
c. In a 3D artificial reality environment
d. In a virtual world where users are represented by avatars.

10
ECOM Ch: 7

49. Many businesses have a(n) __________, which is a password-protected network that
uses web-based technologies for employee collaboration and productivity.

a. firewall
b. intranet
c. internet
d. Social network

50. An example of a Q&A website specifically designed to provide a forum for people to ask
questions and get answers from experts is ________.

a. Twitter
b. Quora
c. Snapchat
d. Delicious

51. A system of classifying and organizing online content into categories by the use of user-
generated metadata such as keywords is called a __________.

a. Taxonomy
b. Wiki
c. Folksonomy
d. Global graph

Short Answer

52. Many popular ___ APIs _____ are open source, which means that anyone can use them
for free although there may be other terms and conditions placed on their use

53. Kickstarter is a ____ crowdfunding _____ site for raising money in order to start a
business or creative project.

54. Examples of ___ JavaScript _____apps include pop-up windows, validation of webform
inputs, and images that change when a cursor passes over them.

55. A collection of software tools used by developers for writing applications that run on a
specific device or platform is called a(n) ___ SDK _______.

11
ECOM Ch: 7

56. ____ Plug-ins ____ are buttons or features on non-Facebook sites that interact with
Facebook in some way.

57. ____ JavaScript ____ is an object-oriented language used to create apps and
functionality on websites.

58. The ___ Semantic Web _____ uses a variety of conventions and technologies that
allow machines to understand the meaning of Web content.

59. ____ Crowdsourcing ____ is a model of problem solving and idea generation that
marshals the collective talents of a large group of people.

60. A ____ Terms of Service (TOS) ____ agreement is a formal listing of the policies, liability
limits, fees and user rights and responsibilities associated with using a particular
service.

61. Using your Facebook login to gain authorized access to another site is called a _______
Social login __________.

62. One of the newest social media sites where images self-destruct 10 seconds after being
viewed is ______ Snapchat _________.

63. ___ Twitterfeed _____ automatically tweets posts published on a blog using RSS
technology

64. WordPress is one of the leading platforms for ___ blogs _____.

65. A(n) ____ mashup ____ is a web application that combines information from two or
more sources and presents this information in a way that creates some new benefit or
service.

66. The Google brand name appears on thousands of websites due to its _open source_ API.

12
ECOM Ch: 7

67. Most high end social media monitoring tools report information using a(n) _ dashboard
_ interface, which graphically represents the data it collects.

68. A bank may utilize an enterprise ___ mashup _____ in order to display a mortgage
application from its own records, the property location on a Google map and
information from county government property tax records.

69. Yelp has a(n)___ API _____ that allows sites like Zillow.com to use Yelp’s information
when displaying information about homes and neighborhoods to prospective real estate
customers.

70. The monitoring tool, Socialmention.com, aggregates content from over 80 different
social media sites, including Facebook, YouTube, and Twitter, and provides users with
4 social mention ___ metrics _____ that give insight to the nature of the conversations
taking place on the web.

71. ____ Passion ____ is a social mention metric that measures the degree to which people
who are talking about your brand will do so repeatedly

72. ____ Strength ____ is a social mention metric that measures the likelihood that a
particular topic is being discussed on social media platforms

73. ____ Sentiment ____ is a social mention metric that measures the tone of the
conversation, which helps you understand if people are feeling positive, negative or
neutral about the topic

74. ____ Reach ____ is a social mention metric that measures the range of people discussing
a particular topic

75. Diigo and Delicious are social ____ bookmarking ____ tools.

76. VenueGen.com is a service that makes it possible for users to conduct meetings in a
____ virtual ____ world.

13
ECOM CH:8
Chapter 8: Retail, E-commerce, and Mobile Commerce Technology

Multiple Choice Test Bank

1. Technologies used by the retailer Macy’s to engage mobile shoppers include all of the
following except ________.

a. NFC
b. IoT
c. SMS short codes
d. QR codes

2. As part of its mobile check-in strategy, Macy’s has partnered with ________ to create
check-in programs that reinforce shopping behavior at retail outlets.

a. Twitter
b. YouTube
c. Foursquare and Shopkick
d. Google and Facebook

3. Customers can pay for products at Macy’s using Google Wallet, a mobile payment app.
At the register, customers tap their mobile device on a(n) __________ device in order to
transfer funds to Macy’s.

a. ATM
b. EFT
c. NFC
d. PayPal

4. Macy’s takes advantage of ___________ technology by inviting customers to take


pictures of their children in special holiday displays, inserting one of the animated
characters associated with the campaign into the picture.

a. QR
b. SMS
c. AR
d. NFC

1
ECOM CH:8

5. Which of the following is not one of the difficult industrywide trends and changing
consumer behavior retailers are confronted with today?

a. Channel Hopping
b. Technology Aversion
c. Empowered Price Sensitivity
d. Need for Convenience

6. The discount retailer Target feels threatened by customers who ________.

a. showroom its stores using mobile devices


b. comment on social media
c. use multiple brand–based touchpoints
d. post QR codes on blogs

7. Web and mobile technologies have disrupted the business strategies of retailers as
consumers can quickly and easily research product prices. What do retailers need to do
to stay competitive given how empowered consumers have become?

a. Retailers need clear strategies to respond to the empowered consumer by price-matching or


finding ways to offer greater value.
b. Retailers must implement data analytics to distinguish patterns in their best customers’ shopping
behavior.
c. Retailers need to reduce the number of sales channels so they are able to cut product prices.
d. Retailers need to offer free shipping and returns.

8. Dell sells millions of dollars of refurbished computer equipment each year through its
@delloutlet Twitter account, which is referred to as ________.

a. An online auction
b. Omni-channel sales
c. Social commerce
d. Web channel sales

9. ________ are the first generation to have grown up surrounded by digital devices and
Internet connectivity.

a. Digital natives
b. Digital immigrants
c. Digital dependents
d. Electronic pioneers

2
ECOM CH:8

10. ________ are comfortable with technology, but view retail channels as separate and
distinct and may not incorporate mobile technology into their shopping behavior.

a. Digital natives
b. Digital immigrants
c. Digital dependents
d. Electronic generation

11. _________ refer to the generation that will place even greater demands on retailers,
expecting to use technology to accomplish all facets of the shopping experience.

a. Digital natives
b. Digital immigrants
c. Digital dependents
d. Electronic generation

12. Most retailers still view e-commerce and mobile commerce channels as _________.

a. much more profitable and risky than other channels.


b. competing with traditional brick-and-mortar stores.
c. limited to consumers under 30 years old.
d. their most expensive sales channels.

13. ________ codes are machine-readable 2D images that can be scanned by mobile devices
to launch a web site or advertising copy.

a. Bar
b. Mobile
c. QR
d. Weblink

14. Instead of treating mobile commerce and traditional retailing as separate retail
channels, the National Retail Federation recommends an integrated strategy called
_________________ retailing.

a. Integrated market
b. Multi-channel
c. Omni-channel
d. Multi-tier

3
ECOM CH:8

15. The ________ strategy takes into consideration the potential impact of social media,
whereby customers interact with the brand on sites like Facebook or Twitter and share
brand experiences with others in their social network.

a. Cross-channel
b. Multi-channel
c. Omni-channel
d. Retail channel

16. All of the following are key factors in Amazon.com’s successful business strategy
except:

a. Invested heavily in physical warehouses to streamline order fulfillment


b. Continuous revision of business model to improve customer’s experience
c. Generated profit every year since inception in 1995
d. Patented technology powering its website

17. Ally Bank is recognized as a leader in the online banking industry because of its use of
______________.

a. micropayments
b. free checking
c. mobile transfers
d. social media

18. An e-wallet is a software application that uses ________ to keep a user’s data secure.

a. encryption
b. firewalls
c. anti-malware
d. cloud computing

19. For banks, online transactions are an inexpensive alternative to branch banking.
Transaction costs are about ________ per online transaction versus ________ at a
physical branch.

a. 2 cents; $1.07
b. 15 cents; 90 cents
c. 25 cents; 50 cents
d. 50 cents; $1.07

4
ECOM CH:8

20. ________ provides online banking in 60 countries.

a. Citi Online
b. Cyber Chase
c. HSBCnet
d. AmazonApp

21. At sellers that are click-and-mortar companies, such as Levi’s or GM, ________ has
(have) forced them to limit their B2C efforts, or not to sell direct online.

a. Short codes
b. QR codes
c. Channel conflict
d. Risky online payment systems

22. Online retailers face tough _________ problems when selling online because of the need
to design systems to accept and process a huge volume of small orders, to physically
pick items from warehouse shelves and put them into boxes, to be sure that the correct
labels are applied, and to accept returns.

a. Transportation and service


b. Payment and logistics
c. Credit processing and delivery
d. Order fulfillment, logistics, and reverse logistics

23. B2B comprises about ________ percent of e-commerce dollar volume.


a. 25
b. 33
c. 50
d. 85

24. Two major B2B models are ________.

a. Auctions and social commerce


b. Catalogs and vertical markets
c. Sell-side marketplaces and e-sourcing
d. Outsourcing and horizontal markets

5
ECOM CH:8

25. In the ________ model, organizations sell their products or services to other
organizations from their own private website or from a third-party site.

a. auction
b. B2C
c. buy-side marketplace
d. sell-side marketplace

26. Organizations purchase materials to produce finished goods, which is referred to as


________, and products for daily operational needs, which is referred to as ________.

a. indirect procurement; direct procurement


b. direct procurement; indirect procurement
c. e-sourcing; e-procurement
d. e-procurement; e-sourcing

27. ______________ refers to procurement methods that make use of an electronic venue
for identifying, evaluating, selecting, negotiating and collaborating with suppliers. The
primary methods are online auctions, RFQ (request for quote) processing, and private
exchanges.

a. E-sourcing
b. E-retailing
c. EDI
d. EFT

28. ____________ systems are utilized by large companies for the efficient procurement of
products by facilitating the exchange documents with established and authorized
vendors.

a. EFT
b. E-commerce
c. EDI
d. E-procurement

29. Streamlining the corporate e-procurement process within the organization’s supply
chain helps control costs in all of the following ways except _________.

a. reduces the number of employees needed to process purchasing


b. reduces the procurement cycle time to order and receive items
c. empowers suppliers to negotiate terms of service
d. empowers an organization’s staff with product information needed to make
intelligent decisions when procuring items

6
ECOM CH:8

30. ________ serve one industry, such as automotive or chemical, along the entire supply
chain.

a. Private exchanges
b. Horizontal exchanges
c. Spot sourcing
d. Vertical exchanges

31. ________ are many-to-many e-marketplaces for indirect materials, such as office
supplies, light bulbs, and cleaning materials used by any industry.

a. Private exchanges
b. Horizontal exchanges
c. Spot sourcing
d. Vertical exchanges

32. Using a coupon on your cell phone when checking out at the Hard Rock Café, or
checking in to a retail location using Foursquare’s mobile app are examples of mobile
____________.

a. Sourcing
b. Fulfillment
c. Retailing
d. Marketing

33. Sending special offers to customers who have opted in to receive discounts via SMS text
message or advertising a brand on a popular mobile game app like Angry Birds is an
example of mobile __________.

a. Sourcing
b. Fulfillment
c. Retailing
d. Marketing

34. Which of the following is not one of the reasons why consumers and businesses have
been slow to embrace mobile commerce?

a. Concerns about privacy and security


b. Consumers find mobile devices too complicated to use for commerce
c. Limited and inconvenient mobile payment options
d. Lack of technological standardization (devices, OSs, browsers, etc.)

7
ECOM CH:8

35. Disney uses signal emitting wristbands to aid guests with hotel check-ins, replace tickets
for park admission, make it easy to reserve times for popular rides. This is a form of __.

a. Quick Response (QR) codes


b. In-Store Tracking
c. Mobile Marketing
d. Augmented Reality (AR)

36. The fastest growing segment in the overall gaming market is ________.

a. Mobile games
b. PC games
c. Game consoles
d. Augmented Reality (AR)

37. A social media app that is only available via mobile technology is

a. LinkedIn
b. Facebook
c. Snapchat
d. Instagram

38. Almost _______ of all Internet searches are conducted from a mobile device.

a. 50%
b. 60%
c. 70%
d. 80%

39. When customers use a brand’s mobile app to shop for products, their shopping
experience can be customized based on the company’s knowledge of ______________,
________________, payment methods, and even location.

a. Previous purchases, product preferences


b. Privacy concerns, government regulations
c. Brand attitudes, political preferences
d. Social media, email preferences

8
ECOM CH:8

40. Graphic images like the one below are typically used for ______________.

a. Providing links to online content


b. Innovative brand logos
c. Generating augmented reality images
d. Reprogramming mobile devices

41. The Foursquare app makes use of the mobile device’s GPS system to determine the
user’s location. Foursquare can use this information to target consumers with timely
and relevant promotional messages. This is an example of __________ marketing.

a. Personal
b. Location-based
c. Augmented reality
d. Relationship

42. ___________ apps generate graphic images that are superimposed on pictures of real
objects, such as rooms and roads. For instance, a mobile phone user might point her
phone camera at an office building and activate an app that generates the logos of all
food services, such as Starbucks and Pizza Hut, inside the building.

a. Augmented reality
b. Mobile visual search
c. Location based marketing
d. Mobile media

43. As mobile commerce grows, there is a greater demand for _________ that make
transactions from smartphones and other mobile devices convenient, safe, and secure.

a. Broadband protocols
b. Credit cards
c. Debit cards
d. Payment systems

9
ECOM CH:8

44. Using Google Wallet, consumers can pay for goods in stores. At check out, mobile users
simply pass or tap their phone on a merchant terminal and payment is transferred.
Users receive an SMS text message confirmation. The Google Wallet and similar
payment systems are based on ________ technology.

a. Bar code
b. QR code
c. Augmented reality
d. NFC

45. Starbucks allows customers to pay with their mobile devices. Customers create an
account with Starbucks as part of the retailer’s loyalty program, and transfer money to
a pre-paid account. During check out, users activate the Starbucks app, which creates a
___________ that can be scanned at check out.

a. Seven digit numerical code


b. Bar code or QR code
c. Credit voucher
d. Password

46. Mobile payment systems employ a range of technologies. Which of the following is not
used for mobile payments?

a. NFC
b. SMs
c. QR codes
d. Augmented reality

47. One advantage of mobile payment systems over traditional credit card systems is the
ability to handle ____________, or transactions involving relatively small sums of
money.

a. Mini-transfers
b. Micro-credits
c. Micropayments
d. ATM

48. The ability to make _____________ allows individuals to use their mobile devices to do
things like purchase a beverage from a vending machine or make a payment to a
municipal parking meter.

a. Mini-transfer exchanges
b. Micropayments
c. Micro-credit charges
d. Mini-credit transactions

10
ECOM CH:8

49. In addition to paying bills through wireline banking or from ATMs, a number of
companies are now providing their customers with the option of paying bills directly
from a cell phone. This trend is proving particularly attractive to mobile users in
__________.

a. Europe
b. North America
c. Developing countries
d. Senior citizen communities

50. Duplicating the Electronic Serial Number (ESM) of one phone and using it in a second
phone is called ___________. This allows the perpetrator to have calls and other
transactions billed to the original phone.

a. Phishing
b. Smishing
c. Cloning
d. Vishing

51. Using a fraudulent communication, such as an e-mail, to trick the receiver into
divulging critical information such as account numbers, passwords, or other identifying
information is ______________.

a. Phishing
b. Smishing
c. Cloning
d. Vishing

52. Using a fraudulent text message to trick the receiver into revealing confidential data
such as account numbers, passwords, or other identifying information is ___________.

a. Phishing
b. Smishing
c. Cloning
d. Vishing

53. Using a fraudulent voice message to trick the receiver into revealing confidential data
such as account numbers, passwords, or other identifying information is
_____________.

a. Phishing
b. Smishing
c. Cloning
d. Vishing

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Short Answer

54. Whenever Chris shops at local stores, she uses her smartphone to scan the barcodes of
products so that she can compare prices from other stores as well as online shopping
sites. Her smartphone app also allows her to check product reviews and get product
information. Using a mobile device as a shopping aid in this manner is
called__mobile retailing _.

55. While many retailers are frustrated by the phenomenon of shoppers using smartphones
to comparison shop in their stores, Macy’s “Backstage Pass Program” actually
encourages users to access product information and promotional videos using SMS and
____ QR codes ____.

56. To take advantage of the growth of mobile device use, many retailers like Macy’s are
using mobile check-in strategies and partnering with companies like Shopkick and
______ Foursquare ______ that use mobile apps to alert retailers when a customer is in
their stores.

57. Customers can pay for products at Macy’s using Google Wallet, a mobile payment app.
At the register, customers simply tap their phones on a(n) _____ Near field
communications (NFC) _____ device in order to transfer funds to Macy’s.

58. Digital ____ natives ____ are the first generation to have grown up surrounded by
digital devices (i.e., computers, smartphones, digital cameras, video recorders, etc.) and
Internet connectivity.

59. While most businesses currently operate their e-commerce and mobile channels
separately from the traditional retail channel, it is expected that strategies integrating
the customer experience across channels will emerge, resulting in what the National
Retail Federation refers to as the ____ omni-channel ____ retailing approach.

60. Retail sales via online channels, financial services, travel services, and digital products
(e.g., music- and movie-streaming services) are widely popular forms of _ B2C _____
commerce.

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61. Ally Bank was ranked #1 in the online banking industry because of its use
of ______ social media ________.

62. B2B comprises about ___ 85 ____ percent of e-commerce dollar volume.

63. In the ___ sell-side _____ marketplace model, organizations sell their products or
services to other organizations from their own private website or from a third-party
site.

64. ____ E-sourcing ____ refers to many different procurement methods that make use of
an electronic venue for identifying, evaluating, selecting, negotiating and collaborating
with suppliers.

65. Corporate ____ procurement ____, also called corporate purchasing, deals with the
transactional elements of buying products and services by an organization for its
operational and functional needs.

66. ____ Vertical ____ exchanges serve one industry (e.g., automotive, chemical), along the
entire supply chain.

67. ____ Horizontal ____ exchanges are many-to-many e-marketplaces for indirect
materials, such as office supplies, light bulbs, and cleaning materials used by any
industry.

68. Using a coupon on your cell phone when checking out at the Hard Rock Café, or
checking in to a retail location using Foursquare’s mobile app is an example of
______ Mobile Retailing ______.

69. The buying or selling of goods and services using a wireless, handheld device such as a
cell phone or tablet (slate) computer is called ____ Mobile Commerce _____.

70. Ordering a pair of shoes from Zappos.com using a mobile app, or purchasing music on
iTunes from your iPod is an example of _____ Mobile e-commerce _____.

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71. The picture below is an example of a(n) _____ QR (Quick Response) code ______.

72. _ Mobile Visual Search (MVS) __ technology is emerging as an alternative to QR codes.

73. The Foursquare app makes use of the mobile device’s GPS system to determine the
user’s location. Foursquare can use this information to target consumers with timely
and relevant promotional messages. This is an example of _Location-based_ marketing.

74. Disney uses signal emitting _____ wristbands ____ to aid guests with hotel check-ins,
replace tickets for park admission, make it easy to reserve times for popular rides.

75. _____Augmented Reality (AR)___ apps generate graphic images that are superimposed
on pictures of real things. For instance, a mobile phone user might point her phone
camera at an office building and activate an app that generates the logos of all
foodservice outlets, e.g., Starbucks, Subway, McDonalds inside the building.

76. Mobile ____ Payment systems_____ allow users to pay for goods and services using their
smartphone or other mobile device to transfer funds in a way that is convenient, safe,
and secure.

77. Using Google Wallet, consumers can pay for goods in stores. At check out, mobile users
simply pass or tap their phone on a merchant terminal and payment is transferred.
Users receive an SMS text message confirmation. The Google Wallet and similar
payment systems are based on ___Near field communications (NFC) ____ technology.

78. Starbucks allows customers to pay with their mobile devices. Customers create an
account with Starbucks as part of the retailer’s loyalty program, and transfer money to
a pre-paid account. Upon check out, users activate the Starbucks app, which creates a
_____ Bar code or QR code _____ that can be scanned at check out.

79. One advantage of many mobile payment systems over traditional credit card systems is
the ability to handle ____ Micropayments _____, or transactions involving relatively
small sums of money.

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80. The ability to make _____ Micropayments _____ allows individuals to use their mobile
devices to do things like purchase a beverage from a vending machine or make a
payment to a municipal parking meter.

81. Many businesses use ______ Short code _____, an easy to remember 5 or 6 digit
number, instead of telephone numbers when creating text message (SMS) services. For
example, voting on the popular television show American Idol is done using this
approach.

82. Duplicating the Electronic Serial Number (ESM) of one phone and using it in a second
phone is called _____ Cloning _______. This allows the perpetrator to have calls and
other transactions billed to the original phone.

83. Using a fraudulent communication, such as an e-mail, to trick the receiver into
divulging critical information such as account numbers, passwords, or other identifying
information is called _____ Phishing _______.

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Chapter 9 Functional Business Systems

Test Bank
Multiple Choice

1. Data from functional area ISs support enterprise apps, which include all of the following
except ________.

a. BI
b. CRM
c. E-commerce
d. Operational performance

2. Data from functional ISs are used extensively by enterprise applications, including
business intelligence (BI), e-commerce, customer relationship management (CRM), and
____________.

a. Supply chain management (SCM)


b. Process management
c. External systems
d. Integration

3. Ducati’s sales staff struggled with conflicting or outdated data on product inventory,
availability, and ordering time schedules because of __________.

a. multiple communication systems


b. data silos that were not coordinated
c. tough competition and economic conditions
d. A&B

4. Ducati equipped its sales force with ________ and a custom-designed Ducati
Communication System ________.
a. iPads; app
b. iPhone 6s; interface
c. Androids; app
d. Androids; interface
5. ________ is a document used to communicate the company’s goals and the actions
needed to achieve them.
a. Mission statement
b. Organizational chart
c. SOP
d. Strategic plan

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6. At what level are decisions made that set or impact the long-term direction of the entire
organization?
a. Operational level
b. Managerial or administrative level
c. Strategic level
d. Governmental level

7. ________ are a set of written instructions on how to perform a function or activity. SOPs
provide the framework for complex processes to be managed more effectively.
a. Mission statements
b. Organizational charts
c. SOPs
d. Strategic plans

8. ________ are information systems designed to support the planning and the
implementation process across the entire organization.
a. Business Management Systems
b. Functional Management Systems
c. Business Information Systems
d. Functional Business Systems

9. ________ are information systems designed to improve the efficiency and performance
of a specific functional area within the organization.
a. Business Management Systems
b. Functional Management Systems
c. Business Information Systems
d. Functional Business Systems

10. Which management level requires the most detailed data in real time to make
immediate or short-term decisions?
a. Operational level
b. Managerial or administrative level
c. Strategic level
d. Governmental level

11. The purpose of control is to identify deviations from goals as soon as possible in order
to take corrective action. Tracking sales, inventory levels, orders, and customer support
are examples of control activities. What type of company data is most important at this
level?
a. Internal data
b. External data
c. Vendor data
d. Administrative data

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12. Originally, information systems were designed to support the ________ function.
Systems for other functions were rolled out later. The consequences of this fragmented
roll-out approach were ________.

a. Accounting; data silos


b. Accounting; SOPs
c. Marketing; data silos
d. Sales; SOPs

13. Data requirements of the operational level units are extensive and relatively routine,
rarely changing because they depend on fixed sources of input and __________, which
is a set of written instructions that document a routine activity that is followed by an
organization.

a. Compliance systems
b. Strategic marketing plan
c. Standard operating procedures
d. Quality control

14. A key benefit of ________ is that they minimize variation and promote quality through
consistent implementation of a process or procedure within the organization, even if
there are temporary or permanent personnel changes.

a. Compliance systems
b. Standard operating procedures
c. Strategic marketing plans
d. Laws and regulations

15. Each of the following is a basic functional area that is supported by information
systems: manufacturing and production, ________, finance, IT, sales and marketing,
and HR.

a. Administrative
b. Accounting
c. Quality control
d. Organizational

16. _______ is a process that insures that operations meet data validity standards. For
instance, information systems that process checking accounts will only allow unique
check numbers for each transaction—and reject duplicates.

a. Atomicity
b. Consistency
c. Isolation
d. Durability

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17. Data integrity with real-time systems involves the ACID test, which involves ________.

a. Atomicity, communication, integrity, and data


b. Atomicity, consistency, isolation, and durability
c. Authenticity, currency, information, and design
d. Accuracy, clarity, information, and data

18. With ________, events or transactions are processed as soon as they occur.

a. online analytics processing


b. online transaction processing
c. Web analytics
d. Queries

19. In terms of manufacturing, the business function that is responsible for transforming
inputs into useful outputs is _______.

a. SWOT
b. POM
c. OLTP
d. SOP

20. Ideally, functional systems enable __________, which is being able to access current
data to learn what is needed in order to make informed decisions without delay.

a. control
b. monitoring
c. transparency
d. quick response

21. Day-to-day operations are connected by the ________that they share.

a. data and processes


b. inputs and transactions
c. decisions and plans
d. departments and SOPs

22. Synchronizing inbound and outbound flows of materials or goods is an example


of:________.

a. HR
b. Online transaction processing
c. Data accuracy
d. Logistics management

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23. Coordination of several complex processes, namely ordering, purchasing or


procurement, inbound logistics and outbound logistics activities is called ___________.

a. HR
b. Online transaction processing
c. Data accuracy
d. Logistics management

24. Ideally, functional systems enable __________, which is being able to respond
appropriately to changes in conditions, demand, or new opportunities.

a. control
b. monitoring
c. transparency
d. quick response

25. Transportation management systems (TMSs) support all of the following except _____.

a. Quality control
b. vehicle management and accounting transactions
c. shipping consolidation
d. fleet, driver, and route planning

26. Many more companies are shipping via intermodals and their older TMSs cannot
support or deal with intermodal movement, which refers to the use of ________.

a. Two or more container ships


b. Two or more transport modes
c. Truck or rail modes
d. International transport via commercial airlines

27. _________ systems support receiving activities.

a. Inbound logistics
b. Outbound logistics
c. Safety stock
d. Distribution

28. __________ systems support shipping activities.

a. Inbound logistics
b. Outbound logistics
c. Safety stock
d. Distribution

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29. __________ is extra inventory used as a buffer to reduce the risk of stockout.

a. Inbound logistics
b. Outbound logistics
c. Safety stock
d. Distribution

30. Full-feature logistics management systems perform each of the following functions
except ________.

a. Coordinate with all suppliers


b. Integrate supply chain technologies
c. Manage distribution or transport networks
d. Minimize holding costs and CGS

31. Which is not one of the costs associated with inventory management?

a. quality
b. holding
c. ordering
d. shortage

32. __________ and lean manufacturing are two widely used methods or models to
minimize waste and deal with the complexity of inventory management.

a. POM
b. JIT
c. CRM
d. EOQ

33. JIT was developed by ________ because of high real estate costs in Tokyo, Japan, that
made warehousing expensive.

a. Amazon
b. Samsung
c. Toyota
d. Sony

34. An objective of lean manufacturing is to eliminate _________ of any kind.

a. cost
b. fraud
c. waste
d. holding

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35. Holding inventory that is not needed very soon is seen as ________ because it adds cost
but not value.

a. Lean
b. Stockout
c. Safety stock
d. Waste

36. _________ systems provide data about the quality of incoming materials, parts, and in-
process semifinished and finished products.

a. Manufacturing
b. EOQ
c. QC
d. TQM

37. ___ helps production managers better use information to execute manufacturing plans.

a. CIM
b. EOQ
c. QC
d. TQM

38. A ___________ is similar to Computer Integrated Manufacturing, but is based much


more on standard reusable application software instead of custom designed software
programs. It eliminates the information gap that existed in previous years by providing
real time information.

a. Quality control system


b. Manufacturing execution system
c. Transportation management system
d. Just-in-time system

39. A key element of the BAE CIM strategy was the deployment of two _______ that can
accommodate the manufacture of different parts at different volumes.
a. Computer integrated manufacturing (CIM)
b. Manufacturing execution system (MES)
c. Transportation management systems (TMS)
d. Flexible manufacturing systems (FMS)

40. Automation of as many of the manufacturing processes as possible is one of the benefits
of:___________.
a. Computer integrated manufacturing (CIM)
b. Manufacturing execution system (MES)
c. Transportation management systems (TMS)
d. Flexible manufacturing systems (FMS)

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41. Functions of ________ programs include compiling a bill of materials, resource


management and scheduling, preparing and dispatching production orders, preparing
work-in-progress reports, and tracking production lots.
a. Flexible manufacturing systems
b. Manufacturing execution systems
c. POM
d. Operations

42. ___________ can expand the capacity to create new products, services, channels, and
market opportunities that lead to new revenue streams.
a. Human resources
b. Manufacturing execution system
c. Sales and marketing
d. Flexible manufacturing systems

43. Google Customer Surveys is a service that publishers can use to ________ from their
online content.

a. generate revenue
b. install a paywall
c. research new topics
d. sell advertising

44. One use of hot data is _________ marketing, which refers to online advertising that
“appears” on the screens of consumers’ devices based on their location, behavior,
interests, or demographic information

a. social media
b. pay-per-click (PPC)
c. pull-through ads
d. highly targeted

45. Unlike search engine PPC ads that appear based on the user’s keyword searches,
website ads use ____________________ to determine whether the ad should appear.

a. Google Customer Surveys


b. Market research
c. pull-through ads
d. data about the person

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46. ___________ work by offering customers an incredible offer for a very short time. This
sales method lends itself perfectly to the immediacy of social media, and it’s a next stage
in social commerce

a. Flash sales
b. Rapid Point of Purchase Promotions
c. Online auctions
d. Membership sales

47. Profitability metrics for products and services can be derived from the _________
system.

a. Marketing management
b. Cost accounting
c. Sales automation systems
d. Profit center

48. In a new use of technology, many companies now employ customer support
representatives to monitor _____________ to identify customers with questions or who
are frustrated because of a problem they are having with a product or service.

a. emails received from web site


b. social media platforms like Twitter and Facebook
c. short code text messages
d. Google Trends

49. In deciding on advertising and other marketing efforts, managers need to know the
profit contribution or profit margin, which is ________.

a. Net revenue – gross expenses


b. Sale price – cost of goods
c. Costs + revenue
d. Costs + net profit

50. At publicly traded firms, the accounting and finance functions are responsible for
accurately disclosing (reporting) the firm’s financial condition to the ________.

a. FASB
b. SEC
c. IRS
d. SOX

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51. The U.S. GAAP Financial Reporting Taxonomy is an electronic dictionary of business
reporting elements used to report ________.

a. The value of assets


b. Business data
c. Sales
d. Taxes

52. To aid the SEC in regulating the securities industry, publically traded firms are
required to use a(n) _____, where data items are tagged to make them easily searchable.

a. Internal network
b. Financial statement
c. Data disclosure compliance system
d. Financial dashboard

53. _________ make it is easier for investors to analyze and compare the financial
performance of public companies.

a. Interactive investments
b. Interactive data
c. Marketing
d. Tax audit

54. Fraud is a crime with severe consequences. ____ fraud is a term that refers to a variety
of criminal behaviors perpetrated by an organization’s own employees or contractors.

a. Insider trading
b. White collar
c. Embezzlement
d. Occupational

55. What is the markup language that was developed for business and financial reporting?

a. XBRL
b. XBOX
c. HTML
d. JAVA

56. Which of the following is not a feature of XBRL tagging?

a. Generates cleaner data, including written explanations and supporting notes.


b. Produces more accurate data with fewer errors that require follow-up.
c. Transmits data more quickly to regulators and meet deadlines.
d. Can be created easily with a basic knowledge of XML programming.

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57. A system of policies and procedures to prevent and detect illegal acts committed by
managers, employees, customers, or business partners is called __________.

a. Check and balances


b. Regulatory compliance
c. Internal fraud
d. Fraud risk management

58. Information systems are used to protect companies against fraud. Which of the
following is not a fraud risk factor?

a. A high level of trust in employees without sufficient oversight to verify that they
are not stealing from the company
b. Relying on informal processes of control
c. A mindset (belief) that internal controls and fraud prevention systems are too
expensive to implement
d. Assigning a narrow range of duties to employees limiting their opportunities to
commit fraud

59. Job rotation is when more than one person should be familiar with each transaction
cycle in the business where possible. Rotation of jobs helps prevent over reliance on a
single individual and reduces the chances of ___________.

a. Push-throughs
b. Interactive data
c. Fraud
d. Taxonomy

60. One of the best practices to prevent fraud is to implement a process of multi-level
approval. When handling a company’s assets, the work of managers and employees
needs to be subject to approval or authorization. This practice is called ___________.

a. Job rotation
b. Segregation of duties
c. Safeguarding of assets
d. Safeguarding of duties

61. ________________ is the process of analyzing and selecting investments (expenditures)


with the highest ROI for the company.

a. Capital budgeting
b. Localized budgeting
c. Interactive data
d. Marketing strategy

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62. A major reason organizations fail is their inability to____and/or secure sufficient cash flow.

a. Forecast
b. Manage
c. Strategize
d. Budget

63. The collection of data for ratio analysis is done by the ____, and interpretation of ratios and
the ability to forecast their future behavior require expertise, which is supported by _____.

a. POS; Audit systems


b. Database; data warehouse
c. TPS; DSS
d. MIS; EIS

64. __________ is the field that deals with policies, procedures, compliance requirements
associated with acquiring and keeping people in organizations.
a. Accounting
b. Human resources
c. Marketing
d. Payroll

65. __________ on LinkedIn is popular because it is more effective and efficient than
traditional approaches.
a. Risk management
b. Distribution
c. Recruitment
d. Forecasting

66. _________ Human Capital Management, which is one of the market-leading HRISs,
provides a global foundation for HR data and improved business processes.

a. OSHA
b. SaaS
c. PeopleSoft
d. WebEx

67. HRISs have been moved to __________.


a. Corporate portals and mainframes
b. Blogs and wikis
c. Social networks and extranets
d. Intranets and clouds

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68. Training activities that are part of HRM may involve __________ issues in recruiting
and selecting employees and in evaluating performance, in part because these activities
make use of private confidential information.

a. Strategic
b. Operational
c. Ethical
d. Budget

69. HR apps are leased in __________ arrangements.

a. Social networks
b. ERM
c. SaaS
d. Virtual

70. Which of the following is not one of the factors holding companies back from
implementing HR SaaS solutions to efficiently transform and improve the HR function?

a. Security
b. Costs
c. Quality of service
d. Concern about integration with in-house applications

71. HR Managers using LinkedIn for recruitment must learn to take advantage of its
______ capabilities to create a profile of the desired candidate.

a. Update
b. Collaboration
c. Search
d. Messaging

72. In their effort to better manage employees, companies are developing human capital
management to streamline the HR process. These Web applications are more
commonly referred to as _______.

a. Benefits administration
b. Intelligent agents
c. Employee relationship management
d. In-house applications

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Short Answer

73. The purpose of ____ control ______ is to identify deviations from objectives and plans
as soon as possible in order to take corrective action.

74. At the _____ operational _____ level, managers, supervisors, and workers need detailed
data, in real-time or near real-time, and the ability to respond to what they learn from
functional information systems.

75. At the managerial or administrative level, middle-level managers make ___tactical ____
decisions that focus on intermediate-term issues to fulfill the organization’s mission,
objectives, and strategy.

76. IT provides systems and apps that support the needs of ____ functional _____ area
systems such as manufacturing and production, accounting, finance and HR.

77. Oracle, Siemens, and POM vendors offer a demand-driven __lean manufacturing___
system, whose objective is to remove waste of any kind from production and operations.

78. ____ Quality control____ data may be collected by sensors or RFID systems and
interpreted in real time, or they can be stored in a database for future analysis.

79. ____ Manufacturing execution systems (MES)____ manage operations on the shop floors
of factories and perform functions such as compiling a bill of materials, resource
management and scheduling, preparing and dispatching production orders, preparing
WIP reports.

80. ____ Flash sales ____ work by offering customers an incredible offer for a very short
time. This sales method lends itself perfectly to the immediacy of social media.

81. A weakness in a(n) ___ internal control ____ is a major cause of fraud.

82. _____ Marketing information systems _____ support advertising, market research,
intelligence gathering, getting products and services to customers, and responding to
customers’ needs.

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83. _____ Capital budgeting _____ is the process of analyzing and selecting investments with
the highest ROI for the company. The process may include comparing alternative
investments; for instance, evaluating private cloud vs. public cloud computing options.

84. Good planning is necessary because a major reason organizations fail is their inability
to forecast and/or secure sufficient ____ cash flow ______.

85. ____ SaaS ____ accounting software solutions include the features of traditional
systems, with the added benefit of anytime, anywhere accessibility and updating.

86. The financial reporting (disclosure) system is based on the electronic data tagging
language called ____ eXtensible Business Reporting Language, or XBRL ______.

87. _____ XBRL _____ is a language for the electronic communication of business data.

88. _____ Fraud risk management _____ is a system of policies and procedures to prevent
and detect illegal acts committed by managers, employees, customers, or partners
against a company's interests.

89. History has shown that if the punishment for committing fraud is not severe, the
fraudster’s next employer will be the next _____ victim _____.

90. Trying to keep fraud hidden can mean doing nothing or firing the employee. These
approaches to fraud are not sustainable because they erode the effectiveness of fraud
prevention measures and produce ___ moral hazard _____ by eliminating the risks of
insider fraud.

91. The classic ___ red flags ____ or fraud indicators are lavish vacations, jewelry, and cars
that the fraudster could not afford.

92. The leading internal control to prevent fraud at an organization is ____ Segregation of
duties ______. For example, when handling a company’s assets, the work of managers
or employees must be subject to approval or authorization by another person.

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93. _______ Financial misrepresentation ________ occurs when a company has intentionally
deceived one or more parties with regards to its financial situation.

94. In their effort to streamline HR processes and increase employee retention and
productivity, companies are implementing Web-based ____ employee relationship
management (ERM) ______ applications.

95. Most companies are flooded with applicants, but might still have difficulty finding the
right people. ____ LinkedIn ____ is a primary social media site for recruitment.

96. HRIS apps raise ____ ethical ____ and legal challenges, such as those related to
recruiting and selecting employees and evaluating their performance.

97. Dealing with alcoholism and drugs at work, as required by the Drug-Free Workplace
Act of 1990, involves legal risks because employees have sued for __invasion of privacy _
, wrongful discharge, defamation, and illegal searches.

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Chapter 10: Enterprise Systems

Test Bank
Multiple Choice
1. Organizations continue to run older business systems, called ________ because they form
the core of mission-critical computing systems.

a. Reduced-function IT
b. Last gen software
c. Legacy systems
d. Bloat-ware

2. Enterprise systems are integrated ISs that support core business processes and functions.
How is integration achieved?

a. Integration is achieved by connecting wired and wireless computer networks so


they can share applications.
b. Integration is achieved by outsourcing to vendors that replace stand-alone ISs
with a single IS.
c. Integration is achieved by connections to central data repositories that enable
them to synch and share the latest data.
d. Integration is achieved by using cloud computing.

3. When companies need to update mission critical computing systems, they often turn to
________ which integrate core business process and functions.

a. Legacy systems
b. Enterprise systems
c. Network solutions
d. Custom built software apps

4. According to IT research firm Gartner, ________ is (are) a strategic technology trend


that is likely to cause an explosion in demand for the technology.

a. Legacy systems
b. Enterprise systems
c. 2D interfaces
d. 3D printing
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5. 3D printing, which is also called ________, has produced spare parts, toys, jewelry, and
food.

a. additive manufacturing
b. bioprinting
c. multi-dimensional bar coding
d. R&D production

6. Examples of the potential of 3D printing include all of the following except ________.

a. Printing replacement parts on-demand at hardware stores.


b. Printing parts for maintenance and repair as needed at defense supply posts or in
combat areas.
c. Printing low-cost replacement parts in mass quantities for backup inventory at car
repair centers.
d. 3D-printing expensive replacement parts for MRI scanners onsite at healthcare
facilities.

7. The greatest challenges when implementing enterprise systems are due to _____.

a. interfacing legacy systems


b. vendors
c. change management
d. end-users

8. Enterprise resource planning help managers and companies improve their performance
by enabling them to __________.

a. Distribute data and periodic reports via e-mail internally to authorized users
b. Integrate internal business processes and link to external business partners
c. Consolidate data stores into a central data repository.
d. Outsource business processes to SaaS vendors and eliminate waste.

9. Which of the following does not describe enterprise systems?

a. Enterprise systems require data transfers to mobile and smart devices.


b. Implementing an enterprise system typically requires the help of a consulting
firm, vendor, or value-added reseller (VAR).
c. Integrating legacy systems with cloud-based applications is complex mostly
because of the complexity of getting new apps to interface with existing or legacy
systems.
d. An advantage of enterprise systems is that processes can be automated for
consistency and efficiency.

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10. __________ systems are commercial software packages that integrate business
processes, including supply chains, manufacturing, financial, human resources,
budgeting, sales, and customer service.

a. CRM
b. ERP
c. KM
d. SCM

11. All of the following are reasons why companies might need to migrate from legacy
systems to enterprise systems except ________.
a. Legacy systems have high maintenance costs.
b. Legacy architectures are inflexible.
c. Legacy systems are hardwired by predefined process flows making integration
with Internet-based apps difficult or impossible.
d. Legacy systems require retraining of end users.
12. Implementing an enterprise system is challenging because it requires extensive
organizational changes. Which of the following is not one of the required changes?
a. Redesign of business processes
b. Hiring many IT staff skilled in the latest technologies
c. Changes in how people perform their jobs
d. Integration of various information systems
13. ________ refers to private or company-owned social media, software, platforms, or
apps specially designed for use by business leaders and employees to fulfill the strategic
mission.
a. Enterprise social
b. Social markets
c. Knowledge management
d. Collaboration tools
e.
14. ________ is a social network geared toward enterprises and used by employees to
collaborate across departments, locations, and business apps.
a. Microsoft Cloud
b. Oracle
c. SharePoint
d. Yammer

15. ________ is “Facebook for business.”

a. Microsoft Cloud
b. Office Graph
c. SharePoint
d. Yammer

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16. ________ provides a hybrid infrastructure and capabilities to manage enterprise apps
and data.

a. Microsoft Cloud
b. Office Graph
c. SharePoint
d. Yammer

17. ________ is a collaborative and social platform from Microsoft that is used by an
estimated 78 percent of Fortune 500 firms.

a. Microsoft Cloud
b. Office Graph
c. SharePoint
d. Yammer

18. SharePoint can be used to set up a secure, access-controlled ________ site to share with
external partners in the supply chain, contractors, and so on.

a. extranet
b. intranet
c. cloud
d. legacy

19. ________ uses signals from e-mail, social conversations, documents, sites, instant
messages, meetings, and more to map the relationships between people and concepts.

a. Microsoft Cloud
b. Office Graph
c. Oracle
d. Jive

20. All of the following are enterprise social networks or platforms except ________.

a. Chatter
b. Jive
c. Oracle Social Network
d. Salesforce

21. The latest ERP solutions are designed with a focus on __________.

a. client–server architectures and custom-designed apps


b. Web-based architecture and VPNs
c. social collaboration and accessibility from mobile devices
d. manufacturing, distribution, retail, and service

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22. Each of the following describes ERP systems except _________.

a. ERP apps interface with business partners through a B2B gateway, but cannot
interface with legacy apps.
b. From a technology perspective, ERP is the software infrastructure that links an
enterprise’s internal apps.
c. ERP is now a mature technology, whose core components have not changed
much.
d. ERPs help departments stay informed of what’s going on in other departments
that impact its operations or performance.

23. The _________ layer, or middleware, enables the ERP to interface with legacy apps.
a. Client-server
b. Data center integration
c. enterprise application integration
d. Web browser

24. Typically, how are ERP systems acquired?


a. By purchasing or leasing in a SaaS arrangement
b. By building in-house
c. By building with proprietary software
d. From consulting companies

25. Which of the following descriptions about ERP failures is not true?
a. Several of the best companies have suffered devastating consequences from ERP
failures that had led to multi-million dollar losses, bankruptcy, or lawsuits.
b. Most often, ERP failures are eventually fixed and remain in use, which gives the
false impression that the ERP was successful from the start.
c. The success—as well as failure—of ERP depends on organizational and
technological factors that occur prior to, during, and after the implementation.
d. Vendor blogs, white papers, and YouTube posts are good sources of objective
data for selecting an ERP solution.

26. Despite potential benefits, not all companies invest in ERP if they cannot meet
requirements or overcome the challenges. Which of the following is not one of those
requirements or challenges?
a. Obtain strong and continuing support from senior executives.
b. The total cost of ownership of an ERP equals the cost of the ERP and the monthly
SaaS fees.
c. Focus on business processes and requirements, rather than on technical
capabilities.
d. Provide thorough training and change management.

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27. Many managers assume that success or failure depends on the software. In reality,
________ percent of a project's success or failure lies in the hands of the company
implementing the software, not the software vendor.

a. 20
b. 33
c. 50
d. 95

28. ERP success depends on several key factors being met. These factors include all of the
following except _________.

a. Minimize change for workers.


b. Focus on business processes and requirements.
c. Focus on achieving a measurable ROI
d. Use a strong project management approach

29. ________ starts with the acquisition of raw materials or products and proceeds through
the disposal or ________of products.

a. Procurement; recycling
b. Production; sale
c. Supply chain; recycling
d. Supply cycle; dumping

30. Consumer product and retail industries lose about $40 billion annually, or 3.5 percent
of their sales, due to __________.

a. Fraud
b. Compliance failures
c. Supply chain inefficiencies
d. Quality control failures

31. ________ are activities such as sales and advertising that are visible to customers.

a. Back-office operations
b. Front-office operations
c. Order fulfillment
d. EFT

32. ________ are activities that support the fulfillment of orders.

a. Back-office operations
b. Front-office operations
c. Order fulfillment
d. EFT

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33. ________ is the set of complex processes involved in providing customers with what
they have ordered on time and all related customer services.

a. Back-office operations
b. Front-office operations
c. Order fulfillment
d. EFT

34. The 2016 MHI Annual Industry Report cited all of the following key technologies
impacting the supply chain except _________.

a. Robotics and automation


b. Enterprise Resource Planning
c. Sensors and automatic identification
d. Predictive Analytics

35. Supply chains involve three main flows. Which of the following is not one of those main
flows?

a. Payments or financial
b. Resource
c. Information
d. Material

36. Products that are returned make up what is called the __________.

a. Reverse supply chain


b. Return logistics
c. Backflow
d. Reorder fulfillment

37. Accounting, inventory management, and shipping are part of order fulfillment and
referred to as __________ operations.

a. Back-office
b. Customer-facing
c. Front-office
d. Logistics

38. Efficient, effective supply chains are fully dependent on SCM software, which depends
on __________.

a. SaaS
b. ERP
c. up-to-date and accurate data
d. RFID

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39. Attracting and acquiring new customers is estimated to costs banks roughly
__________ per new customer.

a. $10
b. $25
c. $50
d. $100

40. Retaining customers that generate revenues in excess of the costs of customer service,
returns, promotional items, and the like are critical; and are the underlying reason for
__________.

a. EDI
b. ERP
c. CRM
d. SCM

41. What is the purpose of frequent purchase programs offered by airlines, supermarkets,
credit card issuers, retailers, casinos, and other companies?

a. To track customers for CRM purposes


b. To build customer loyalty to improve financial performance
c. To deter customer attrition
d. All are purposes

42. According to the loyalty effect, a 5% reduction in customer attrition can improve profits
by as much as __________ percent.

a. 5
b. 10
c. 20
d. 30

43. Apple’s iPhone and iPod are best examples of __________ business strategies because
demand was so high that many customers were even willing to camp out on sidewalks to
guarantee getting one on the day of their releases.
a. customer-centric
b. product-centric
c. upselling
d. cross-selling

44. There have been many CRM failures reported in the media. Major issues relating to
CRM failures include each of the following except _________.
a. customers rejecting loyalty programs or attempts to build loyalty.
b. underestimating users’ resistance to change.
c. making mobile CRM strategy an afterthought.
d. putting the IT department in charge of the CRM project instead of business users.

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45. A formal business plan must be in place before the CRM project begins. The business
plan should include an assessment of each of the following factors except ________.
a. clear and precise cost–benefit analysis and tangible benefits
b. expected intangible benefits
c. clear understanding of how to put an existing CRM on mobile devices
d. risk assessment of all of potential pitfalls related to people, processes, and
technology

46. The medical application of 3D printing to produce living tissue and organs is called 3D
______________.
a. engineering
b. reengineering
c. bioprinting
d. bionics

47. The step in the supply chain that is triggered by an out-of-stock situation is
______________.

a. purchase
b. returns
c. replenishment
d. shipment

48. As a technology that could dramatically impact the supply chain, drones could deliver
significant value by all of the following except ______________.

a. making deliveries to customers in parking lots and their homes


b. monitoring functioning of plants
c. provide data about a facility’s surroundings
d. more “human” tasks such as picking and packaging items

49. Using smart glasses in a warehouse environment to assist in filling orders is known as:

a. additive manufacturing
b. vision-picking
c. ocular sensing
d. robotics

50. In a recent survey by Forester research, business professionals thought that business
performance improvement actually depends on a combination of four factors: the right
people, processes, ______________ and technology.

a. funding
b. strategy
c. knowledge
d. data

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Short Answer

100. Companies use information systems to manage the _____ supply chain ______, which
starts with the acquisition of raw materials or the procurement of products and
proceeds through manufacture, transport, and delivery—and the disposal or recycling
of products.

101. Older information systems called _____ legacy systems ____ have been built with
various outdated technologies.

102. Enterprise systems refer to a category of information systems that run an enterprise’s
operations and integrate core ____ business processes ____.

103. _____ Customer lifetime value (CLV)___ is a formula for estimating the dollar value, or
worth, of a long-term relationship with a customer.

104. ____ Value-added reseller (VAR)____ customizes or adds features to a vendor’s


software or equipment and resells the enhanced product.

105. ____ Enterprise social ____ refers to private (company-owned) social media, software,
platforms, or apps specially designed for use by business leaders and employees to
fulfill the strategic mission

106. ____ SharePoint ____ provides tools for setting up employee social network platforms
and company wikis; and can be used to set up a secure, access-controlled extranet site
to share with external partners in the supply chain, and contractors.

107. ____ Yammer ____ is “Facebook for business.”

108. Typically, ERP systems are acquired by purchasing or leasing in a(n)


____ SaaS ____arrangement.

109. A key factor in lowering manufacturing or production costs is____ inventory ____
management

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110. An ERP interfaces with legacy applications through a(n) _____ enterprise application
integration (EAI)_____ layer.

111. Many ERP systems incorporate _____ lean ______ principles, which involve
minimizing inventory errors.

112. ____ Back-office ____ operations are activities that support the fulfillment of orders.

113. ___ Front-office ____ operations are activities such as sales and advertising that are
visible to customers

114. Products that are returned make up what is called the ____ reverse ____ supply chain
because goods are moving in the reverse direction.

115. ____ Logistics ____ entails all the processes and information needed to move products
from origin to destination efficiently.

116. ____3D printing ____, also known as additive manufacturing, could revolutionize
production processes and have far-reaching future implications for product supply
chains.

117. ____ CRM ____ can provide managers with a 360-degree view of the customer
relationship, enable real-time responses, and improve sales productivity and
predictability

118. ____ Risk ____ assessment is a list of all of the potential pitfalls related to the people,
processes, and technology that are involved in the CRM project.

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Chapter 11: Data Visualization and Geographic Information Systems

Test Bank
Multiple Choice

1. In an effort to improve ________, the grocery chain Safeway implemented data-sharing


programs with PepsiCo and other key vendors.

a. Data analysis
b. Product quality
c. Supply chain visibility
d. Manufacturing visualization

2. _________________ are the single best way our brain processes information.

a. Configurations
b. Pattern mapping
c. Spreadsheets
d. Visuals

3. ________ harness the power of analytics and adds a visual display to capitalize on how
our brains work.

a. Configurations
b. Data visualizations
c. Drill downs
d. Geospatial analysis

4. In general, ________ tools show what has already happened in a business and
________tools show what might or could happen in the future.

a. Data; statistical
b. Data discovery
c. Reporting; analytical
d. Sensitivity; modeling

5. Dashboard and interactive reports are _________ tools and technologies.

a. Data analytics
b. Data integration
c. Geospatial
d. Information delivery

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6. Data visualization, data discovery and geospatials are _________ tools and technologies.

a. Data analytics
b. Data integration
c. Data mapping
d. Information delivery

7. Data mashups and GIS are _________ tools and technologies.

a. Data analytics
b. Data integration
c. Geospatial
d. Information delivery

8. Which of the following statements is false?

a. Data visualization is replacing the need for humans to interpret data.


b. Learning is the basis for continuous improvement.
c. Data discovery is discovering hidden relationships.
d. Enterprise visualization apps for Androids, iPads, and Playbooks are replacing
static business reports.

9. A common mistake is to invest in the data analytics foundation of tools, quality data, and
data integration, but overlook the most crucial component, which is ____________.

a. Mobile devices for anywhere access.


b. Easy to use touch screens.
c. Cloud storage
d. Users’ ability to interpret the visual reports and analyses correctly.

10. According to Gartner Research, the data analytics market has split into two segments:
the traditional _____ market and the newer __________ market.

a. analytics; data mining


b. mashup; visualization
c. BI; data discovery
d. BI; data mapping

11. IBM’s Watson Discovery Service is intended to decrease the amount of time analysts
have to spend organizing and ________ data.

a. cleaning
b. querying
c. entering
d. mapping

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12. SAS made one of the boldest moves of any BI vendor by replacing its current enterprise
BI platform with Visual Analytics, a new _____________ environment.

a. data discovery
b. heat mapping
c. forecasting
d. data descriptive

13. Companies are investing in the latest data discovery solutions largely because of their
_____________.

a. low costs
b. predefined drill-down paths
c. speed and flexibility
d. dimensions and measures

14. Tag clouds represent the ________ of words and terms by their sizes.

a. Average
b. Count
c. Relative frequency
d. Sum

15. Which of the following statements about data analytics and visualization is false?

a. The ultimate goal of data analytics is to drive profits, and often that depends on
learning how to manage assets.
b. It is easier to make sense of data than it is to collect the data.
c. Companies and/or entire industries are using data visualization and interactivity to
improve decision speed and performance often with mobile displays.
d. Because of the demanding pace of their decisions, capital markets professionals
use visualization for risk analysis, compliance monitoring, and fraud detection.

16. A heat map uses _____________ to indicate trends or patterns in data.

a. Temperature
b. Trend lines
c. Color
d. Dials or gauges

17. ________ is a leading mobile reporting and data visualization app.

a. IBM SPSS Analytic Catalyst


b. Roambi Analytics
c. SAS
d. Tableau software

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18. A ________ is a technique for building applications that combine data from multiple
sources to create an integrated experience.

a. News feed
b. Mashup
c. Mixed-media architecture
d. Visualization

19. An application that integrates data from data stores, business systems, external data
and real-time news feeds is referred to as a(n) ____________.

a. Enterprise mashup
b. Enterprise visualization
c. Operational system
d. Business systems

20. Which of the following is not an example of an enterprise data mashup?


a. Interactive dashboard
b. Drillable report
c. Heat map
d. GPS

21. In terms of benefits, mashup apps decrease __________ compared to traditional,


custom software development.
a. IT implementation costs
b. System downtime
c. Computational errors
d. Interpretational errors

22. Which of the following is not a benefit of enterprise mashup apps?


a. Dramatically reduces time and effort needed to combine disparate data sources.
b. Users can define their own data mashups by combining fields from different data
sources that were not previously modeled.
c. Users can access data from multiple competitor data warehouses to gain business
intelligence.
d. Enables the building of complex queries by non-experts with a drag-and-drop
query-building tool.

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23. Using ________, nontechnical users can easily and quickly access, integrate, and display
BI data from a variety of operational data sources, including those that are not
integrated into the existing data warehouse, without having to understand the
intricacies of the underlying data infrastructures, or schemas.
a. Self-service data mashup apps
b. Modular software
c. Object language
d. Macros

24. Enterprise data mashups are created using _______ BI because new data sources can be
added to a BI system quickly via direct links to operational data sources cleaning

a. agile
b. responsive
c. automatic
d. rapid

25. __________ give visual snapshots of an organization’s critical operational data or key
performance indicators to spot problems, trends, outliers, opportunities, and patterns.

a. Enhanced spreadsheets
b. Business dashboards
c. Cloud based graphics
d. Enterprise graphics

26. Key components of dashboards are design, API, access, and ______________.

a. Functionality
b. Mobility
c. Performance metrics
d. Accessibility

27. The purpose of business dashboards is to provide users with a clear view of the
___________ values of KPIs and other operational metrics.

a. Past
b. Current
c. Projected
d. Desired

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28. An example of a metric that might be displayed on a Revenue dashboard would be:

a. Sales per day per channel


b. Trend of mobile vs. tablet traffic
c. Cash balance, actual vs. expected
d. On-time completion percent

29. A benefit of ________ is that users no longer need to log into multiple applications to
see how the business is performing.

a. BI
b. business dashboards
c. E-commerce mashups
d. KPI

30. Dashboard design is a critical factor because business users need to be able to ________.

a. understand information at a glance and drill down to details


b. configure KPIs each day to stay informed
c. share what they learned using specific color-codes
d. all are critical factors

31. Benefits of business dashboards include all of the following except ________.

a. Blind spots are minimized or eliminated.


b. Display the user’s critical metrics and measures.
c. Employees know their performance is tracked in near real time and can see their
results.
d. Data security is enhanced because employees must log in to each account
separately.

32. A ________ captures, manages, analyzes, and displays multidimensional geographic


data, also called ________ data.

a. geographic information system; geospatial


b. geographic information system; operational
c. supply chain mashup; locational
d. supply chain mashup; analytical

33. Geospatial data identify or map________.

a. Where things or people are, where they are going, and competitors' actions.
b. Only where things or people are and where they are going
c. Only where they are going
d. Only where things or people are

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34. The ________ process converts postal addresses to geospatial data that can then be
measured and analyzed.

a. geospatial
b. geocoding
c. pinpointing
d. zip

35. With the intelligence provided by the ________, GM has increased sales despite cutting
the advertising budget.

a. mashup
b. dashboard
c. Heat map
d. GIS

36. Unlike a flat map, a ________ generated map has many layers of information for many
ways of thinking about a geographic space.

a. mashup
b. dashboard
c. GIS
d. Heat map

37. iBeacon allows Apple, or app developers leveraging Apple technology, to track users
inside buildings where ________ transmissions may not reach.

a. Wi-Fi
b. cellular
c. radio
d. satellite

38. Which type of tool would an analyst use to find the average income in locations where
the highest performing stores exist?

a. Geocoding
b. Enterprise Data Mashup
c. GIS
d. Data Discovery

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Short Answer

39. ____ visuals ____ are the single best way our brain processes information.

40. Enterprise ____ visualization ____ apps for Androids, Apple iPads, and Blackberry
Playbooks are replacing static business reports with real-time data, analytics, and
interactive reporting tools.

41. In data visualization apps, ____ Dimensions ____ are categorical data, such a region,
product category, product name, supplier, size, date, and zip code.

42. In data visualization apps, ____ measures ____ are numeric or calculated data, such as
profit, sales revenue, and quantity sold.

43. Tag clouds represent the relative ____ frequency ____ of words and terms by their sizes.

44. Enterprise ____ mashups ____ combine business data and applications from multiple
sources to create an integrated experience.

45. Data from operational data stores, business systems, external data, and real-time news
feeds are integrated to generate an enterprise ____ mashup ____.

46. ____ Dashboards ____ are a style of reporting that depicts KPIs, operational or strategic
information with intuitive and interactive displays.

47. An executive dashboard displays a company’s ____ KPIs or performance indicators ____,
which are automatically updated in real time based on custom programming and
connectivity with existing business systems.

48. ____ APIs (application programming interfaces)____ connect disparate data sources and
feeds to display on the dashboard. The alternative is for users or IT to manually enter
data to the dashboard.

49. ____ Single-sign-on ____ dashboards save time and effort because it managers can
spend a lot of time logging into various business systems and running reports.

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50. A _____geographic information system (GIS)____ captures, manages, analyzes, and


displays multidimensional geographic data, also called geospatial data.

51. A simple process called ____ geocoding ____ can convert postal addresses to geospatial
data that can then be measured and analyzed.

52. . Unlike a flat map, a ____ GIS-generated ____ map has many layers of information for
many ways of thinking about a geographic space.

53. GIS can create maps with multiple layers of ___ data ____.

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Chapter 12: IT Strategy, Sourcing, and Strategic Technology


Trends \

Multiple Choice

1. Long-term business planning starts with a clear understanding of the factors that create
significant value and that work together with other factors to drive future revenue and
profit at or above their current rates. These factors are ________.

a. Balanced values
b. Business objectives
c. IT strategy
d. Value drivers

2. Which of the following statements about business value drivers is false?

a. Drivers have a long or unlimited life span.


b. IT strategy focuses on the value drivers in core process areas in order to make
targeted improvements.
c. Cost is almost always a value driver, but for this factor to be useful, you need to
drill down to the activities that impact cost.
d. Drivers are considered in the strategic planning process and the balanced
scorecard methodology.

3. Resource allocation is a contentious process in most organizations because opportunities


and requests for spending far exceed the available funds. This can lead to __________
among organizational units, which makes it __________ to objectively identify the best
investments.

a. Highly political competition; difficult


b. Highly political competition; easier
c. Cooperation; simple
d. Cooperation; difficult

4. Few companies today could realize their full-potential business value without updated _.

a. IT investments made on the basis of immediate needs or threats.


b. IT infrastructures and services.
c. IT investments that are patches.
d. Reactive approaches to IT investments.
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5. Which of the following is not one of the objectives of IT strategic plans?

a. Improve management’s understanding of IT opportunities and limitations.


b. Clarify the level of investment required
c. Assess past performance
d. Identify capacity and human resource requirements

6. IT deployment strategies fall into two broad categories, which are ________:

a. In-house development and sourcing


b. Offshoring and onshoring
c. Cloud computing and SaaS
d. Acquisition and development

7. Outsource relationship management companies monitor and manage sourcing


arrangements and ________.

a. R&D
b. IT projects
c. service level agreements
d. SaaS

8. Why is it necessary to develop a long-term IT strategy and reexamine the strategy on a


regular basis?

a. Systems need to be maintained


b. To keep the CIO part of the executive team
c. Organizational goals change over time
d. To automate business processes

9. Cloud computing and SaaS are two __________ options.

a. In-house development
b. Offshoring
c. Sourcing
d. BYOD

10. The effectiveness of the IT function relies heavily on each of the following except _____.

a. Relationships with vendors


b. Implementing the latest social networks
c. Relationships with third-party suppliers
d. IT governance

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11. A(n) ________ needs to be in place that crosses organizational lines and makes senior
management responsible for the success of key IT initiatives.

a. Enterprise strategy
b. SWOT analysis
c. SLA
d. Governance structure

12. Which of the following is not one of the major tasks of IT steering committees?

a. Enforce SLAs and other contracts


b. Allocate scarce resources
c. Set and evaluate performance metrics
d. Make staffing decisions

13. The _______ process is designed to provide answers to the following types of questions:
• What is the long-term direction of our business?
• What is the overall plan for deploying our resources?
• How do we achieve competitive advantage over rivals in order to achieve or
maximize profitability?

a. Enterprise resource planning


b. Profit margin analysis
c. Strategic planning
d. Market research

14. SWOT Analysis involves analyzing a company’s competitive situation on each of the
following factors except:

a. Strengths
b. Weakness
c. Opportunities
d. Technology

15. Price wars or other fierce reactions by competitors are examples of:

a. Strengths
b. Weaknesses
c. Opportunities
d. Threats

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16. Activities that can improve the IT–business alignment include all of the following
except ________.

a. Senior management is committed to IT planning.


b. CIO is a member of senior management.
c. CIO understands business planning and CEO understands company's IT planning.
d. None are activities that can improve the IT-business alignment

17. Skills of CIOs needed to improve IT–business alignment and governance include all of
the following except ________.

a. Negotiating SaaS or other cloud service contracts.


b. Having political savvy.
c. Inspiring a shared vision and influencing subordinates and superiors.
d. Thinking strategically and making good decisions under pressure

18. According to the business strategy model developed by Harvard University Business
professor Michael Porter’s, an industry’s profit potential is largely determined by
_____________.

a. The intensity of competitive forces within the industry


b. Availability of necessary resources to produce the product/service
c. Technological proficiency of companies in the industry
d. Availability of skilled and unskilled labor

19. According to the Five Forces Model developed by Harvard University Business
professor Michael Porter, all of the following are major factors that determine a
company’s standing in an industry, except:

a. Threat of entry of new competitors


b. Political and/or economic factors
c. Bargaining power of suppliers
d. Threat of substitute products/services

20. According to the Five Forces Model developed by Harvard University Business
professor Michael Porter, all of the following are major factors that determine a
company’s standing in an industry, except:

a. Competitive rivalry among firms existing in the industry


b. Bargaining power of suppliers
c. Bargaining power of customers or buyers
d. Technological (IT) superiority

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21. Harvard University Business professor Michael Porter proposed that companies could
follow one of three different competitive strategies. Which of the following is not one of
Porter’s recommended strategies?

a. Low price strategy


b. Cost leadership strategy
c. Differentiation strategy
d. Niche strategies

22. Primary activities are those business activities through which a company produces
goods, thus creating value for which customers are willing to pay. They include all of
the following except:

a. Inbound logistics, or acquiring and receiving of raw materials and other inputs
b. Human Resources, including hiring, compensation and negotiating labor disputes
c. Outbound logistics, which includes packaging, storage, delivery, and distribution
d. Marketing and sales to customers

23. Which of the following statements about the balanced scorecard (BSC) is false?

a. BSC is a strategic measurement and management methodology—and a tool.


b. The BSC method relies on four “balanced” financial measures.
c. The BSC methodology is widely used in all industry sectors for strategic
planning.
d. HBR editors consider the BSC as one of the most influential management ideas of
the past 75 years.

24. The BSC method balances financial measures with _____________.

a. Three forward-looking, nonfinancial measures.


b. Four quantitative measures.
c. Three qualitative metrics
d. Trend analysis

25. Balanced Scorecard (BSC) uses various metrics to measure performance, which consist
of _______ financial metric(s) and ________ nonfinancial metric(s).

a. 3; 1
b. 2; 2
c. 1; 3
d. 2; 3

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26. Prior to the BSC concept, the typical performance metrics included all of the following
except ___________.

a. Balance sheets
b. Cash flow statements
c. Leading indicators
d. P&L (profit and loss) reports

27. ____indicators confirm what has happened. They evaluate outcomes and achievements.

a. Lagging
b. Leading
c. Predictive
d. Proscriptive

28. The Balanced Scorecard (BSC) uses ________ indicators.

a. Lagging only
b. Leading only
c. Both lagging and leading
d. Both Proscriptive and lagging

29. The Balanced Scorecard can be used to translate strategic plans and mission statements
into a set of objectives and performance metrics that ____________.

a. Are subjective and objective


b. Can be quantified and measured.
c. Are financial and reported to the SEC.
d. Focus on cash flows and market share.

30. Examples of the Balanced Scorecard’s financial measurement criteria are ___________.

a. Asset utilization and cash flow


b. Brand image and reputation
c. Cycle times and defect rates
d. Employee morale and IT capabilities

31. Examples of the Balanced Scorecard’s customer measurement criteria are _______.

a. Asset utilization and cash flow


b. Brand image and reputation
c. Cycle times and defect rates
d. Employee morale and IT capabilities

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32. Examples of the Balanced Scorecard’s business processes measurement criteria are ___.

a. Asset utilization and cash flow


b. Brand image and reputation
c. Cycle times and defect rates
d. Employee morale and IT capabilities

33. Examples of the Balanced Scorecard’s innovation, learning, and growth measurement
criteria are ___________.

a. Asset utilization and cash flow


b. Brand image and reputation
c. Cycle times and defect rates
d. Employee morale and IT capabilities

34. ________ converts senior management’s priorities into visible, actionable objectives by
identifying ways to measure progress against agreed-upon targets

a. Asset utilization
b. Balanced Scorecard
c. Financial governance
d. Strategic planning

35. When legacy systems could no longer provide the functionality needed to solve the
business, companies migrated to ____________ to connect core systems and apps.

a. the cloud or SaaS


b. data centers
c. database management systems
d. offshoring

36. The term _____________ refers to a cloud service.

a. Access point
b. Node
c. XaaS
d. Edge service

37. Cloud computing, SaaS, PaaS, and other types of “as services” are examples of ______.

a. IT outsourcing strategies
b. On premises systems
c. Capital investments
d. Business growth

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38. Which of the following characteristics of cloud strategy and services is false?

a. Cloud computing is a way for companies to procure technology as a service.


b. IT resources no longer depend on capital investments and IT developers to own
that resource.
c. IT capabilities can be sourced, scaled on, and delivered on demand without
physical location, labor, or capital restrictions.
d. Cloud is being adopted across more of the enterprise as full replacements for on-
premises systems.

39. Cloud services have to integrate back to ________.

a. APIs
b. ISVs
c. core internal systems
d. social platforms

40. Hybrid solutions consisting of cloud and on-premises systems create _______challenges.

a. financial
b. mobile
c. integration
d. social

41. The __________ is a group of managers and staff representing various organizational
units that is set up to establish IT priorities and to ensure that the IS department is
meeting the needs of the enterprise.

a. Steering committee
b. Board of directors
c. Executive suite
d. Audit team

42. ________ is the ability to get data into and out of the cloud service.

a. Edge
b. Extensibility
c. Migration
d. Sourcing

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43. Which type of work is not readily offshored?

a. Work that has been routinized


b. Business activities that rely on common knowledge
c. Situations that would expose the company to data security or privacy risks
d. Office work

44. Enterprises choose outsourcing for several reasons. Which of the following is not one of
the reasons?

a. To increase efficiency
b. To focus on core competency
c. Offshoring has become a more accepted IT strategy
d. To move IT investment from a recurring operational expense to a capital
expenditure

45. Outsourcing can be done __________.

a. Domestically or offshore only


b. Via cloud computing or SaaS only
c. Via business processing
d. Domestically, offshore, via cloud computing, or SaaS

46. The major reasons why organizations are increasingly outsourcing include each of the
following except:

a. To focus on core competency


b. It’s a faster way to gain or enhance IT capabilities
c. To support supply chain transactions
d. Cloud computing and SaaS have proven to be effective IT strategies

47. Which of the following statements about outsourcing is false?

a. Increasingly, organizations are leveraging existing global cloud infrastructures


from companies such as Amazon and Google.
b. Established companies are less willing to outsource company-critical functions in
an effort to reduce costs.
c. New start-up companies typically outsource and rely on SaaS to avoid upfront IT
costs.
d. Outsourcing companies have started to offer interesting new business models and
services around cloud computing.

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48. Which is not one of the risks associated with outsourcing?

a. Flexibility
b. Shirking
c. Poaching
d. Opportunistic repricing

49. When selecting a vendor, two criteria to assess first are _____________.

a. Experience and stability


b. Cost and delivery time
c. Location and product mix
d. Reputation and trial run

50. Before entering into any service contract with an IT vendor, get __________.

a. A demo or trial run


b. Everything in writing
c. The hardware installed
d. References

51. __________ occurs when a client enters into a long-term contract with a vendor, the
vendor changes financial terms at some point or overcharges for unanticipated
enhancements and contract extensions.

a. Flexibility
b. Shirking
c. Poaching
d. Opportunistic repricing

52. __________ occurs when the vendor develops a strategic application for a client and
then uses it for other clients.

a. Flexibility
b. Shirking
c. Poaching
d. Opportunistic repricing

53. __________ occurs when the vendor deliberately underperforms while claiming full
payment, for example, billing for more hours than were worked and/or providing
excellent staff at first and later replacing them with less qualified ones.

a. Flexibility
b. Shirking
c. Poaching
d. Opportunistic repricing

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54. Based on case studies, which type of work is not readily offshored?

a. Work that would give result in the company keeping too much control over its
critical operations.
b. Work that has been routinized.
c. Work that puts the company at great data security, data privacy, or intellectual
property risks.
d. Business activities that rely on common combinations of domain and IT
knowledge in order to do the work properly

55. Failed IT vendor relationships usually ___________.

a. Are followed by lawsuits


b. Start with experienced vendors
c. Are the result of poaching
d. Are the result of opportunistic repricing

56. Which of the following is not one of the five steps to Technology Scanning for an
organization?

a. Technology Mapping
b. Technology Implementation
c. Customer Requirements Analysis
d. Systems Modeling

57. An expanded set of endpoints used to access applications, gather information or interact
with people, social communities, government and businesses to ensure instant connection
and response to build experience is a(n) ____________.

a. Digital mesh
b. Digital Technology Platform
c. Edge service
d. Intelligent app

58. What would be connected using a digital mesh?

a. Distributed application servers


b. Social Network Services
c. Smart devices and wearables
d. Digital Technology platforms

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Short Answer

103. ____ Value drivers ____ are any activity that enhances the value of a product or service
to consumers, thereby creating value for the company.

104. In-house development, in which systems are developed or other IT work is done in-
house, possibly with the help of consulting companies or ____ vendors ____.

105. ____ Sourcing _____ refers to systems development that is done by a third party or
vendor.

106. ____ Service level agreements (SLA)____ must be managed because they serve as both
the blueprint and warranty for the outsourced arrangement.

107. The success of IT steering committees largely depends on the establishment of IT


____ governance ____, which are formally established statements that direct the policies
regarding IT alignment with organizational goals and allocation of resources.

108. _____ Strategic Planning _____ is a series of processes in which an organization selects
and arranges its businesses or services to keep the organization viable (healthy or
functional) even when disruptions occur.

109. _____ SWOT Analysis ____ is part of the strategic planning process where a firm
identifies its strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats.

110. ____ Strategy _____ defines the plan for how a business will achieve its mission, goals,
and objectives.

111. According to Porter’s strategic planning model, an industry’s profit potential is


largely determined by the intensity of ____Competitive ____ forces within the industry.

112. __Primary activities__ are those business activities through which a company produces
goods, thus creating value for which customers are willing to pay such as purchasing of
materials, processing materials into products, and delivery of products to customers.

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113. IT strategy needs to keep pace with ____ business strategy ____.

114. ____ Balanced Scorecard (BSC)____ uses four metrics to measure performance—one
financial metric and three nonfinancial metrics.

115. Financial metrics are ____ Lagging ____ indicators that confirm what has happened.
They evaluate outcomes and achievements.

116. What was novel about BSC in the 1990s was that it measured a company’s
performance using a multidimensional approach of financial metrics as well as
nonfinancial ____ leading ____ indicators.

117. Cloud computing, SaaS, and other types of “as services” are examples of IT
____ outsourcing ____ strategies.

118. Cloud services—also referred to as ____ edge ____ services—have to integrate back to
core internal systems.

119. ____ Extensibility ____ is the ability to get data into and out of the cloud service.

120. ____ Shirking ____ occurs when a vendor deliberately underperforms while claiming
full payment, for example, billing for more hours than were worked and/or providing
excellent staff at first and later replacing them with less qualified ones.

121. ____ Poaching ____ occurs when a vendor develops a strategic application for a client
and then uses it for other clients.

122. The risk of opportunistic _____ repricing _____ occurs when a client enters into a long-
term contract with a vendor, but the vendor changes financial terms at some point or
over-charges for unanticipated enhancements.

123. When an organization puts a structured process in place to identify suitable strategic
technologies, this is known as _____ Technology scanning ________.

124. A _____ Digital mesh _______ connects an expanded set of endpoints used to access
applications, gather information or interact with people, social communities, government
and businesses.

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Chapter 13: Systems Development and Project Management

Test Bank
Multiple Choice

1. ________ is a structured methodology to plan, manage, and control the completion of a


project throughout its life cycle.

a. Project planning
b. Project management
c. Systems development
d. System design

2. Project management is gaining in importance for all types of projects because of ______.

a. Regulations and compliance requirements


b. The increased use of consultants and vendors
c. Technology complexity, tighter budgets, tougher competition, and shorter time-
to-delivery requirements
d. Migration from data centers to cloud computing, tough competition, and cost
control.

3. A project has a defined beginning and end, resources, a budget, and a(n) __________.

a. objective
b. scope
c. outcome
d. model

4. In a recent survey, Price-Waterhouse-Cooper reported that only ________ of digital


projects were completed according to specifications, i.e. set out to do what they said
they would do.

a. 25%
b. 75%
c. 35%
d. 55%

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5. Except in extreme cases, the evaluation of success or failure is ________ because time
and cost to complete the project are _________.

a. Subjective; estimates
b. Done by the project manager; fixed
c. Objective; inflexible
d. Done by the project team; set by them

6. Which was not a result of the failed Denver Airport Baggage System project?

a. The project had to be scaled down from servicing all concourses to servicing only
one concourse.
b. There was a 16-month delay in the airport’s opening.
c. The original automated baggage-handling system is still being used today.
d. The delay resulted in an additional $560 million to build DIA.

7. Too often the final stage of a project, the ________, is skipped to save time and effort.

a. budgeting
b. executing
c. postmortem
d. controlling

8. Lessons learned to keep projects on track include all of the following except ________.

a. Set realistic and detailed project plans with adequate time and resources.
b. Encourage timely feedback and be willing to listen.
c. Manage risk with regular project status reviews.
d. Perform a postmortem with all members of the project team.

9. Which of the following is not a red flag that indicates IT project problems?

a. Project has launched without senior buy-in


b. Users have too much early involvement
c. No detailed testing plan exists
d. No detailed project plan exists

10. Enterprises face the challenge of deciding which investments to make and how to
allocate scarce resources to competing projects. Typically, a senior manager composes
a(n) ________ that outlines the justification for the start-up and funding of a project.

a. Project portfolio
b. Business case
c. ROI analysis
d. Business impact statement

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11. During project analysis, IT projects should be examined holistically—that is, in
combination to identify investment synergies. This approach is known as ________.

a. ROI analysis
b. Business impact analysis
c. Project portfolio management
d. Capital budgeting

12. The triple constraint refers to the three attributes that must be managed effectively for
successful completion and closure of any project. Which is not one of those attributes?

a. Cost or budget
b. Deliverables
c. Scope
d. Time

13. A project is a series of tasks to produce one or more ________, which are items that you
hand off to the client or management for their review and approval.

a. Critical paths
b. Deliverables
c. Resources
d. Gantt charts

14. A project plan is specified in a __________.

a. Resource pool
b. Gantt chart
c. Work breakdown structure
d. Critical path

15. Project managers need to recognize the risk of __________, which is the piling up of
small changes that by themselves are manageable, but collectively can cause significant
project growth.

a. Over allocation
b. Critical path
c. Triple constraints
d. Scope creep

16. Michelle Symonds suggested a set of seven deadly sins of project management, that is, the
common mistakes that companies commit that contribute to project failure. Which is
not one of these deadly mistakes?

a. No organizing schedule
b. No project plan
c. No budget tracking
d. No change management process

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17. A project has each of the following characteristics except ________.

a. Clearly defined scope, deliverables, and results


b. An estimated budget that is subject to a high degree of uncertainty
c. Low risk with a high profit potential or benefits
d. An estimated time frame or schedule that is subject to a high degree of uncertainty

18. Project managers must manage the __________, which consists of all tasks that must
start and finish on schedule or the project will be delayed unless corrective action is
taken.

a. Over allocation
b. Critical path
c. Triple constraints
d. Scope creep

19. The ________ defines the project plan and is a legal contract used to document the
agreement between parties.

a. Business case
b. Project plan review
c. Statement of work
d. Work breakdown structure

20. The ________ identifies all work or activities that need to be performed, the schedule of
work, and who will perform the work.

a. Business case
b. Project plan review
c. Statement of work
d. Work breakdown structure

21. ________ are used to manage the project work effort, monitor results, and report
meaningful status to project stakeholders.

a. Milestones
b. Project plan review
c. Statement of work
d. Work breakdown structure

22. ______ lets everyone know who is responsible for the completion of each of the tasks.

a. Milestones
b. Project plan review
c. Responsibility matrix
d. Gantt chart

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23. Each task or activity has a start date and ________, which determines its finish date.

a. duration
b. resource requirements
c. milestone
d. critical path

24. ________ are multipurpose visualization tools that show the timeline of the project
schedule; and are used for planning, scheduling, and at-a-glance status reports.

a. Baselines
b. Gantt charts
c. Statements of work
d. Critical paths

25. Monitoring and control processes should occur _________ while the project work is
being executed.

a. weekly or bi-weekly
b. continuously and continually
c. monthly
d. at each milestone

26. Project ________ depends on prompt and candid feedback from the project team, while
________ depends on systems and decision rules for managing variances between the
project’s scope, cost, and schedule.

a. Monitoring; control
b. Management; monitoring
c. Critical path; scope creep
d. Timeline; baseline

27. Critical path is the ______ path of tasks through a project, as shown on a Gantt chart.

a. most complex
b. first
c. longest
d. shortest

28. ________ should not be considered in the decision to kill a project.

a. Completed deliverables
b. Project scope
c. Sunk costs
d. SOW

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29. Closing out a project benefits the _________.

a. enterprise and people who worked on the project


b. completed project
c. client
d. completed project and enterprise

30. The system development life cycle (SDLC) is the traditional system development
method for ________.

a. Updating legacy systems


b. Low risk IT projects, such as sales support
c. Systems integration projects
d. Large IT projects, such as IT infrastructure or an enterprise system.

31. Controls help to prevent ________, which refer to system development projects that are
so far over budget and past deadline that they must be abandoned, typically with large
monetary loss.

a. Deficient critical paths


b. runaway projects
c. scope creep
d. missed deadlines

32. Which of the following issues about the SDLC methodology is false?
a. Requirements analysis is critical to the success of the project.
b. System development practitioners agree that the more time invested in analyzing
the current system and understanding problems that are likely to occur during
system development, the greater the probability that the IS will be a success
c. The requirements study determines the probability of success of the proposed
project.
d. Testing verifies that apps, interfaces, data transfers, and so on, work correctly
under all possible conditions.

33. Once the new systems operations are stabilized, ________ are performed during
operation to assess the system’s capabilities and determine if it is being used correctly.
a. Audits
b. Compliance analyses
c. Feasibility studies
d. Implementation tests

34. The __________ is the traditional systems development method used by organizations
for large IT projects such as IT infrastructure.
a. Prototyping method
b. System development life cycle
c. Critical path method
d. Sourcing method

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35. System development life cycle involves processes that ________, which means that they
are revised when new information or conditions make change the smart thing to do.
a. Are iterative
b. Are subject to infinite revisions
c. Have constraints
d. Are prototyped

36. The first stage of the SDLC is __________ to understand the business problem or
opportunity.

a. systems planning
b. systems investigation
c. prototyping
d. systems design

37. During the systems analysis stage, __________ studies are done to determine if the
hardware, software, and communications components can be developed and/or
acquired to solve the business problem.

a. Economic feasibility
b. Technical feasibility
c. ROI
d. NPV

38. During the systems analysis stage, __________ studies are done to assess the skills and
the training needed to use the new system.

a. Economic feasibility
b. Technical feasibility
c. Organizational feasibility
d. Behavioral feasibility

39. Covert resistance to a new IS from employees may take the form of __________.

a. Sabotaging the new system by entering data incorrectly


b. Continuing to do their jobs using their old methods
c. Complaining about the new system for extended time
d. Resisting change and training

40. Which is not a characteristic of system testing?

a. Testing verifies that apps, interfaces, data transfers, and so on, work correctly
under all possible conditions.
b. The risk of costly lawsuits needs to be considered.
c. Improper testing is very risky.
d. Proper testing can be done quickly and with little effort and expense.

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41. ______ conversion is the least expensive and highest risk IS conversion strategy because
the old system is cut off and the new system is turned on at a certain point in time.

a. Parallel
b. Plunge
c. Pilot
d. Phased

42. Which systems development methodology was the first to be widely used?

a. Object Oriented Analysis and Design


b. Agile Development
c. Waterfall Development
d. Use Case Model

43. The most flexible systems development methodology is ____________.

a. Object Oriented Analysis and Design


b. Agile Development
c. Waterfall Development
d. Use Case Model

44. Which systems development methodology shows business events, who or what objects
initiated the events, and how the system responds to the events?

a. Object Oriented Analysis and Design


b. Agile Development
c. Waterfall Development
d. Use Case Model

45. The systems development methodology that views a system as a collection of modular
objects that encapsulate data and processes is ____________.

a. Object Oriented Analysis and Design


b. Agile Development
c. Waterfall Development
d. Use Case Model

46. The Unified Modelling Language (UML) uses symbols to graphically represent the
components and __________ within a system.

a. data
b. users
c. objects
d. relationships

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47. If a software project is being developed in a rapidly changing environment, including
frequent changes in systems requirements and even the project staff, which would be
the best methodology to use?

a. Object Oriented Analysis and Design


b. Agile Development
c. Waterfall Development
d. Use Case Model

48. Scrum and Sprint are stages in which type of software development?

a. Object Oriented Analysis and Design


b. Agile Development
c. Waterfall Development
d. Use Case Model

Short Answer

49. ____ Business case ____ is a presentation or document that outlines the justification for
the start-up and funding of a project.

50. During project analysis, IT projects should be examined holistically—that is, in


combination to identify investment synergies. This approach is known as
__ project portfolio ___ management.

51. A project is a series of tasks to produce one or more ____ deliverables _____, which are
items that you hand off to the client or management for their review and approval.

52. Projects have a defined start date and finish date that determine the project’s
___ duration ___.

53. The project ____ scope ____ is the definition of what the project is supposed to
accomplish—its outcomes or deliverables.

54. The ____ triple constraint ____ refers to the three attributes that must be managed
effectively for successful completion and closure of any project

55. The ____ statement of work (SOW)____ defines the project plan and is a legal contract
used to document the agreement between parties after the business terms have been
accepted and a go decision is made.

56. ____ Milestones ____ are used to manage the project work effort, monitor results, and
report meaningful status to project stakeholders.

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57. _____ Responsibility matrix _____ lets everyone know who is responsible for completion
of tasks.

58. ____ Critical path ____ is the longest path of tasks through a project and a delay of any
of these tasks will delay the project if corrective action is not taken.

59. A _____ Gantt chart _____ is a type of bar chart that shows a project schedule.

60. The money already spent on the project, or _ sunk costs _, should not be considered in
the decision.

61. Postproject reviews, or ____ postmortems _____, identify the reasons the project was
successful or not, strengths and weaknesses of the project plan, how problems were
detected and resolved, and how the project was successful in spite of them

62. Because scope creep is expensive, project managers impose controls on changes
requested by users. These controls help to prevent __ runaway projects __, which are
system development projects that are so far over budget and past deadline that they
must be abandoned.

63. The ____ feasibility study _____ is critically important to the system development
process because, when done properly, the study can prevent companies from making
expensive mistakes, such as creating systems that will not work, that will not work
efficiently, or that people cannot or will not use.

64. __Technical feasibility__determines if the required technology, IT infrastructure, data


structures, analytics, and resources can be developed and/or acquired to solve the
business problem.

65. _____ Testing _____ verifies that apps, interfaces, data transfers, and so on, work
correctly under all possible conditions.

66. Once the new systems operations are stabilized, ____ audits ____ are performed during
operation to assess the system’s capabilities and determine if it is being used correctly.

67. _____ Scope creep _____ is the growth of the project after the scope has been defined
and is a serious issue because it can cause the project to fail.
68. In a __parallel__ conversion, the old system and the new system operate simultaneously
for a period of time, which is the most expensive, but also the least risky approach.

69. Large IT projects, especially ones that involve infrastructure, are developed according
to the _____ SDLC _____ methodology using several tools.

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Chapter 14: IT Ethics, Privacy and Sustainability

Test Bank
Multiple Choice

1. Which of the following best describes the views and arguments about the consequences
of wearing Google Glass?

a. Google Glass is a benefit to society because it improves personal security and


safety.
b. Technology is inherently neutral.
c. Google Glass is a danger to society and Google has a responsibility to address this
issue.
d. There are diverse views and arguments about the consequences of wearing
Google Glass.

2. According to the United Nations Guiding Principles on business and human rights, if
Glass distracts drivers and causes traffic accidents, then __________.

a. Google has a responsibility to address this issue and to inform users that there
may be social risks from using their products in plain language.
b. Glass users have the social responsibility to not use the device while driving
similar to rules about smartphone use while driving.
c. Lawmakers will have greater authority to determine where the driver or tech
companies are responsible for social harms.
d. All are true.

3. Types of risky behaviors of free and paid mobile apps include all of the following except
________.

a. Location tracking
b. Accessing the device's address book or contact list
c. Decrypting messages
d. Sharing data with ad networks and analytics companies

4. Google's engineers realized the cars could be used for ________ by sniffing out and
mapping the physical location of the world's Wi-Fi routers.

a. wardriving
b. mobile hacking
c. snooping
d. drive-by recording
ECOM CH : 14

5. According to the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration, at any given moment,
more than _________ U.S. drivers are talking on handheld cell phones

a. 10 million
b. 1 million
c. 15.2 million
d. 8.5 million

6. 3D-bioprinted human organs may be subject to ________.

a. conflicting healthcare regulations


b. conflicting religious, political, moral, and financial interests
c. skills of bio-engineers
d. technology limitations

7. 3D printers can use ________ electricity to produce a part than would have been used to
produce the same part by nonadditive manufacturing.

a. Half the
b. Double the
c. 10 times more
d. 100 times more

8. __________ or sniffing out and mapping the physical location of Wi-Fi routers is a
hacking technique, an invasion of privacy, and an information security risk.

a. IP monitoring
b. Spear fishing
c. Wardriving
d. Snooping

9. The FCC determined that Google's Street View actions and snooping on unencrypted
wireless data were:

a. An unfair advantage
b. Environmentally harmful
c. Spying and intolerable invasions of privacy
d. Not technically illegal

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10. Despite the challenges and lack of clear answers, ethics is important because it has
become clear that relying on ________ alone to safeguard the community is insufficient.

a. Corporate policy
b. The law
c. Audit trails
d. Moral behavior

11. Which statement about privacy in the U.S. is incorrect?

a. A person’s privacy is well-protected by laws and regulations, and is based to a


minor extent on choices the person has made.
b. Privacy is the right to self-determine what information about you is made
accessible, to whom, when, and for what use or purpose.
c. Privacy means we have freedom of choice and control over our personal
information, including what we do not want shared with or used by others.
d. Unauthorized disclosure of personal information is normally considered a breach
of privacy, although what is unauthorized and what is personal information are
matters of dispute, particularly when it is online

12. Private content that uninhibited teenagers with bad judgment had posted online
________.

a. will be archived and inaccessible after 12 months


b. is not retained
c. cannot be made to disappear
d. can only be purged by the individual, according to the site’s removal procedures

13. The term ________ refers to the phenomenon where social users are concerned about
privacy, but their behaviors contradict these concerns to an extreme degree.

a. Facebook fallacy
b. Social denial
c. Privacy paradox
d. Media comfort

14. A conclusion based on the 2016 Pew Research study about national privacy and
security was that ________.
a. 30% of adult Americans were worried about the information available about them
online
b. 49% of the adult Americans studied felt their personal information is less secure
than it was five years ago
c. The percentage of Internet users worried about their online privacy had decreased
over 4 years.
d. Most Facebook users trusted the site’s privacy policies

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15. What is a potential disadvantage of social recruiting methods?


a. Increases cost of in-house recruiting
b. Increases candidates’ control of their privacy
c. Increases risk of discrimination
d. Increases risk of hiring the wrong person for the job

16. Social recruitment refers to use of social media to find, screen, and select job
candidates. Often it involves searching information ________.
a. the job candidate did not want considered
b. that is illegal to use in the hiring process
c. that violates the EEOC or SEC
d. A and B

17. ________ are characteristics that have been identified by law that cannot be used in the
hiring process.
a. Civil rights
b. Protected classes
c. EEOC practices
d. Negligent hiring

18. ________ is a claim made by an injured party against an employer who knew or should
have known about an employee's background that indicates a dangerous or
untrustworthy character.

a. Civil rights
b. Protected class
c. Genome
d. Negligent hiring

19. To the extent that employers conduct a social media background check on job
candidates, best practices are all of the following except _________.

a. Use only publicly available information.


b. Have either a third party or a designated person within the company who does not
make hiring decisions do the background check.
c. Do not use social media for recruiting purposes.
d. Do not request username or passwords for social media accounts.

20. Which is not a protected class?

a. Age
b. Education
c. Genetic information
d. Religion

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ECOM CH : 14

21. Examples of civil rights are each of the following except ________.

a. freedom of the press


b. right to vote
c. right to any speech
d. right to equality in public places

22. ________ occurs when the civil rights of an individual are denied or interfered with
because of their membership in a particular group or class.

a. Harassment
b. Prejudice
c. Negligent hiring
d. Discrimination

23. If a workplace violence incident occurred and the attacker’s public social networking
profile contained information that could have predicted that behavior, the employer
may be held liable for ________.

a. Obstruction
b. Civil rights violations
c. Negligent hiring
d. Discrimination

24. Which is not a step that companies can take to balance the competing risks of negligent
hiring and social discrimination?

a. Choose to ignore social network profiles of candidates.


b. Let candidates themselves disclose information found on social media.
c. A consistent and well-documented process is needed to ensure and show
compliance if there is an EEO employment investigation.
d. Make sure recruiters do not pressure applicants to disclose protected information
via social media by requiring them to disclose passwords or relax privacy settings
for purposes of review by the employer.

25. The ________ scrutinizes business practices to regulate "unfair and deceptive trade
practices."

a. EEOC
b. FFIEC
c. FTC
d. FCC

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ECOM CH : 14

26. An early flaw in Snapchat allowed the use of simple file browsing tools to locate and
save videos that were supposed to “disappear” after a designated period of time. The
FTC ruled that Snapchat

a. Had no responsibility to secure these videos


b. Must implement a comprehensive privacy policy that will be independently
monitored
c. Could collect contact data from mobile users’ address books because it was
Apple’s responsibility to notify users
d. Must issue notifications to its database of 10 million users

27. ________ refers to situations when too much data interferes with our ability to focus
and be productive.

a. Electronic static
b. Social stimuli
c. Cognitive overload
d. Antidistraction

28. Science today shows that the best strategy to improve focus is to: ____________.

a. Practice multitasking by switching from one thing to another


b. Collaborate, communicate, and create
c. Practice doing it
d. Spend less time online

29. According to The Climate Group’s SMART 2020 Report, transforming the way people
and businesses use IT could reduce annual human-generated global emissions by _______
percent by 2020.

a. 15
b. 5
c. 25
d. 75

30. Analysis by consultants McKinsey and Company reveals that the IT sector could
double its percent of global emissions by 2020 due to _________.

a. substituting digital formats for paper formats


b. 50 billion machine-to-machine connections
c. increased use of tablets, smartphones, apps, and services
d. increased use of real-time analytics

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31. Accenture’s Technology Vision 2017 analysis found that seventy-nine percent of survey
respondents agree that ____ will revolutionize the way they gain information from and
interact with customers.

a. AI
b. ICT
c. IOT
d. GHG

32. Accenture’s Technology Vision 2017 analysis emphasized that a(n) ________ approach
to technology will allow organizations to improve performance.

a. data-centric
b. intelligent automation
c. people first
d. information architecture

33. Accenture’s Technology Vision 2017 analysis recognized an organizational trend used
by leading companies to replace traditional hierarchies with _____________.

a. flattened hierarchies
b. talent marketplaces
c. social media platforms
d. digital ecosystems

Short Answer

34. Google's engineers realized the cars could be used for ____ wardriving ____ which is
also a hacking technique, an invasion of privacy, and an information security risk.

35. Despite benefits, the medical application of 3D printing to produce living tissue and
organs, or 3D ____ bioprinting ______, is expected to spark major ethical debates

36. _____ Privacy _____ is the right to self-determine what information about you is made
accessible, to whom, when, and for what use or purpose.

37. The _____ privacy paradox _____ refers to this phenomenon where social users are
concerned about privacy but their behaviors contradict these concerns to an extreme
degree.

38. _____ Protected classes _____ is a term used in these laws to describe characteristics that
cannot be targeted for discrimination and harassment.

39. _____ Negligent hiring _____ is a claim made by an injured party against an employer
who knew or should have known about an employee's background that indicates a
dangerous or untrustworthy character.

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