Review Questions and Answers for Foundations of Social Work

Research (SLWK 609) Course

 
1. Mrs. Smith is writing her daily observations of a student and writes,
without interpretation, that the student is not completing the class
work and is constantly speaking out of turn. Which of the following
objectives does she appear to be using?
a. prediction
b. description*
c. explanation
d. exploration
 
2. In an experiment studying which of two types of study groups
works best for facilitating student learning, what might be an
extraneous variable that the researcher should be concerned about?
a. amount of student learning
b. type of study group
c. the fact that one group includes only males and the other group
includes only females*
d. none of the above is an extraneous factor that may influence the
results

3. A condition or characteristic that can take on different values or

categories is called ___.
a. a constant
b. a variable*
c. a cause-and-effect relationship
d. a descriptive relationship

4. A variable that is presumed to cause a change in another variable is

called a(n):
a. categorical variable
b. dependent variable
c. independent variable*
d. intervening variable
5. All of the following are characteristics of experimental research
except:
a. relies primarily on the collection of numerical data
b. can produce important and useful knowledge
c. focuses on the deductive component of the scientific method
d. rarely conducted in a controlled environment*
 
6. Which type of research provides the strongest evidence about the
existence of cause-and-effect relationships?
a. nonexperimental research
b. experimental research*
c. survey research
d. archival research

7. What is the key defining characteristic of experimental research?

a. extraneous variables are never present
b. a positive correlation usually exists
c. a negative correlation usually exists
d. manipulation of the independent variable*

8. How much confidence should you place in a single research study?

a. you should completely trust a single research study.
b. you should trust research findings after different researchers have
found the same findings. *
c. neither a nor b
d. both a and b

9. Which form of reasoning is the process of drawing a specific

conclusion from a set of premises?
a. rationalism
b. deductive reasoning*
c. inductive reasoning
d. probabilistic
 
10. When random assignment to groups is not possible and the
researcher cannot manipulate an independent variable, this is called
____.
a. basic research
b. quantitative research
c. experimental research
d. nonexperimental research*

11. In order to evaluate a theory, many things are taken into account.
The idea that the theory should, if possible, be simple, concise, and
succinct is identified as the ____________.
a. criterion of falsifiability
b. critical theory
c. guide of simplicity
d. rule of parsimony*

12. What is the defining characteristic of experimental research?

a. resistance
b. manipulation*
c. free will
d. correlation

13. The use of more than one research method is referred to as ______.
a. action research
b. basic research
c. quantitative research
d. multimethod research*
e. none of the above

14. Research that is done to examine the findings of someone else

using the "same variables but different people" is which of the
following?
a. exploration
b. hypothesis
c. replication*
d. empiricism

15.   _____________ research occurs when the researcher manipulates

the independent variable.
a. non-experimental research
b. experimental research*
c. ethnography
d. historical research

16.   ________________ is the idea that knowledge comes from

experience.
a. rationalism
b. dedutcive reasoning
c. logic
d. empiricism*

17. Which of the following includes examples of quantitative

variables?
a. age, temperature, income, height
b. grade point average, anxiety level, reading performance
c. gender, religion, ethnic group
d. both a and b*

18. What is the opposite of a variable?

a. a constant*
b. an independent variable
c. a dependent Variable
d. a data set

19. Which of the following can best be described as a categorical

variable?
a. age
b. annual income
c. grade point average
d. religion*

20. In research, something that does not "vary" is called a ___________.

a. variable
b. method
c. constant*
d. control group 
 
21. Sources of researchable problems include: 
a.  researchers’ own experiences as educators.
b.  practical issues that require solutions.
c.  theory and past research. 
d.  all of the above *
 
22. Which of the following is a function of theory?
a.  integrating and summarizing current knowledge. 
b.  making predictions.
c.  explaining phenomena.
d. all of the above are important functions of theory. *
 
23. A review of the literature prior to formulating research hypotheses
allows the researcher to do which of the following?
a.  to become familiar with prior research on the phenomenon of
interest.
b.  to identify potential methodological problems in the research area. 
c.  to develop a list of pertinent questions relative to the phenomenon
of interest. 
d.  all of the above *
 
24. What kind of ideas can’t be empirically researched? 
a.  effectiveness of different methods of instruction.
b.  description of educational practices.
c.  issues of values and morality such as the correctness of having
prayer in schools. *
d.  factors helpful in predicting future drug use 
 
25. The feasibility of a research study should be considered in light of:
a.  cost and time required to conduct the study
b. skills required of the researcher
c.  potential ethical concerns
d.  all of the above*
 
26. A formal statement of the research problem or “purpose of
research study” generally ______.
a.  is made prior to the literature review. 
b.  is used to synthesize the literature review. 
c.  will help guide the research process. 
d.  all of the above*
e.  b and c
 
27. In quantitative research, the problem statement __________.
a.  can be stated in a question form. 
b.  can be stated in a declarative form. 
c.  both a and b*
d.  only a.
e.  only b.
 
28. Which of the following quantitative research problem statements
is superior?
a.  “What is the effect of participation in various extracurricular
activities on academic performance?” 
b.  “What effect does playing high school football have on students’
overall grade point average during the football season?” *
 
29. A specific statement of the research problem allows the researcher
to
a.  understand the research problem of interest. 
b.  select appropriate participants, measures, and materials. 
c.  specify the variables of interest. 
d.  all of the above*
 
30. The research participants are described in detail in which section
of the research plan?
a. Introduction
b. Method*
c. Data analysis
d. Discussion
 
31. Research hypotheses are ______.
a.  formulated prior to a review of the literature. 
b.  statements of predicted relationships between variables.
c.  stated such that they can be confirmed or refuted. 
d.  b and c*
 
32. A research plan _____.
a.  should be detailed. 
b.  should be given to others for review and comments. 
c.  sets out the rationale for a research study.
d.  all of the above*
 
33. The Method section of the research plan typically specifies
a.  the research participants. 
b.  the results of prior studies that address the phenomena of interest. 
c.  the apparatus, instruments and materials for the research study. 
d.  the planned implementation strategies. 
e.  a, c and d*
 
34. The Introduction section of the research plan
a.  gives an overview of prior relevant studies
b.  contains a statement of the purpose of the study
c.  concludes with a statement of the research hypothesis. 
d.  all of the above*
 
35. Which of the following is not an ethical guideline for conducting
research with humans?
a. Getting informed consent of the participant
b. Telling participants they must continue until the study has been
completed*
c. Keeping participants’ identity anonymous
d. telling participants they are free to withdraw at any time

36. ________ means that the participant's identity, although known to

the research group, is not revealed to anyone other than the
researcher and his or her staff.
a. anonymity
b. confidentiality*

37. Which of the following is not true?

a. Misrepresenting and creating fraudulent data is dishonest.
b. Misrepresenting data is very easy to detect.
c. Misrepresenting data can be difficult to detect*
d. Breaking confidentiality is not a problem

38. Ideally, the research participant's identity is not known to the

researcher. This is called
a. anonymity*
b. confidentiality
c. deception
d. desensitizing

39. What is it called when the participants are not revealed to any one
but researcher and staff.
a. confidentiality*
b. anonymity
c. ethics
d. discretion

40. Research participants must give what before they can participate
in a study?
a. guidelines
b. a commitment
c. informed consent*
d. private information

41.  Identify the term that refers to a poststudy interview in which all
aspects of the study are revealed, reasons for the use of deception are
given, and the participants’ questions are answered?
a. desensitizing
b. debriefing*
c. dehoaxing
d. deploying

42.  IRB is an acronym for which of the following?

a. Internal Review Board*
b. Institutional Rating Board
c. Institutional Review Board
d. Internal Request Board

43. When it is necessary to engage in deception to conduct a

scientifically valid study, what procedure(s) should a researcher
consider following?
a. debriefing*
b. dehoaxing
c. desensitizing
d. all of the above should be considered
 
44. An ordinal scale is used to rank order people, objects, or
characteristics.
a. true*
b. false
 
45. Which scale is the simplest form of measurement?
a. nominal*
b. ordinal
c. interval
d. ratio

46.   ______ tests focus on information acquired through the informal

learning that goes on in life.
a. personality
b. achievement
c. aptitude*
d. intelligence
 
47. If a test fairly accurately indicates participants’ scores on a future
test, such as when the PSAT being used to provide high-school GPA
scores, this test would be considered to have which of the following?
a. face validity
b. concurrent validity
c. predictive validity*
d. content validity
 
48.   If a baseball coach calculates batting averages (ranging from 0
to a possible high score of 1000), what scale would be used?
a. interval scale
b. ratio scale*
c. nominal scale
d. ordinal scale
 
49. According to the text, most of the characteristics and attributes
measured in educational research probably exist at the ______________
level of measurement.
a. nominal
b. ordinal*
c. interval
d. ratio
 
50. Which of the following is an example of a psychological trait?
a. anxiety enduring for months or years*
b. anxiety over just seeing a spider
c. shyness when meeting a stranger for the first time
d. depression caused by the loss of a ball game
 
51. All of the following are examples of Intelligence Tests except
_________:
a.  Wechsler Scales
b.  Stanford-Binet
c.  Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory(MMPI)*
d.  Slosson
 
52. Reliability is most simply known as which of the following?
a.  consistency or stability*
b.  appropriateness of interpretation on basis of score
c.  ways in which people are the same
d.  a rank order of participants on some characteristic
 
53. An ordinal scale is ______:
a. the simplest form of measurement
b. a rank-order scale of measurement*
c. a scale with equal intervals between adjacent numbers
d. a scale with an absolute zero point
 
54.  Which of the following is not a type of reliability?
a. test-retest
b. split-half
c. content*
d. internal consistency
 
55. Which of the following statements accurately describes test-retest
reliability?
a.  measure of consistency of test scores over time*
b.  measure of consistency of scores obtained from two equivalent
halves of the same test
c.  measure of consistency with which a test measures a single
construct or concept
d.  measure of degree of agreement between two or more scorers,
judges, or raters
 
56. Which of the following types of reliability refers to the consistency
of test scores over time?
a. Equivalent forms reliability
b. Split-half reliability
c. Test-retest reliability*
d. Inter-scorer reliability

57. Identify the following term that refers to a judgement of the extent
to which scores from a test can be used to infer, or predict, the
examinees' performance in some activity:
a. content validity
b. face validity
c. criterion-related validity
d. inference validity*
 
58. Which of the following is the correct order of Stevens’ four levels
of measurement?
a. ordinal, nominal, ratio, interval
b. nominal, ordinal, interval, ratio*
c. interval, nominal, ordinal, ratio
d. ratio, interval, nominal, ordinal

59. Which is the process of gathering evidence supporting inferences

based test scores?
a. validation*
b. validity
c. reliability
d. prediction

60. When evaluating tests and assessments, “reliability” refers to

asking ourselves which of the following questions?
a.  does it measure what it is supposed to measure?
b.  are there ways to avoid subjective judgments when measuring
something?
c.  does it give consistent results? *
d.  does it measure multiple constructs?
 
61. Construct validity of a test designed to measure self-esteem is best
described by which of the following?
a.  scores from the test correlate highly with most intelligence tests.
b.  scores from the test correlate highly with most tests of different
constructs.
c.  scores from the test are not correlated with anything
d.  scores from the test have a relatively strong and positive
correlation with other tests of the same construct (i.e., with other
measures of self-esteem)*
 
62. Which type of reliability refers to the consistency of a group of
individuals' scores on two equivalent forms of a test designed to
measure the same characteristic? 
a.  split-half
b.  test-retest
c.  split-forms
d.  equivalent forms*
 
63. Achievement tests are designed to measure the degree of learning
that has taken place after a person has been exposed to a specific
learning experience.
a.   true*
b.   false
 
64. The term _________ refers to how well the particular sample of
behaviors used to measure a characteristic reflects the entire domain
of behaviors that constitutes that characteristic.
a. construct validity
b. criterion-related validity
c. content validity*
d. face validity
 
65. Which of these is not a method of data collection.
a. questionnaires
b. interviews
c. experiments*
d. observations

66. Secondary data may include which of the following?

a. official documents
b. personal documents
c. archived research data
d. all of the above*
67. An item that directs participants to different follow-up questions
depending on their response is called a ____________.
a. Response set
b. Probe
c. Semantic differential
d. Filter or contingency question*
 
68. Which of the following terms best describes data that were
originally collected at an earlier time by a different person for a
different purpose?
a. primary data
b. secondary data*
c. experimental data
d. field notes
 
69. Researchers use both open-ended and closed-ended questions to
collect data. Which of the following statements is true?
a. open-ended questions provide quantitative data based on the
researcher’s predetermined response categories.
b. closed-ended questions provide quantitative data in the
participant’s own words.
c. open-ended questions provide qualitative data in the participant’s
own words*
d. closed-ended questions provide qualitative data in the participants’
own words
 
70. Open-ended questions provide primarily _____________________ data.
a.  confirmatory data
b.  qualitative data*
c.  predictive data
d.  none of the above
 
71. Which of the following is true concerning observation?
a. it takes less time than self-report approaches
b. it costs less money than self-report approaches
c. it is often not possible to determine exactly why the people behave
as they do*
d. all of the above
 
72. When constructing a questionnaire, it is important to do each of
the following except  ______.
a. use "leading" or "loaded" questions*
b. use natural language
c. understand your research participants
d. pilot your test questionnaire
 
73. Another name for a Likert Scale is:
a. interview protocol
b. event sampling
c. summated rating scale*
d. ranking
 
74. Which of the following is not one of the major methods of data
collection that are used by educational researchers?
a.  focus groups
b. secondary data
c. questionnaires
d. checklists*
 
75. The type of interview in which the specific topics are decided in
advance but the sequence and wording can be modified during the
interview is called which of the following?
a. interview guide approach*
b. informal conversational interview
c. closed quantitative interview
d. standardized open-ended interview
 
76. Which one of the following in not a major method of data
collection:
a. questionnaires
b. interviews
c. secondary data
d. focus groups
e. all of the above are methods of data collection*
 
77. A question during an interview such as “Why do you feel that
way?” is known as a:
a. probe*
b. filter question
c. response
d. pilot
 
78. A census taker usually collects data through which of the
following?
a. standardized tests
b. interviews*
c. focus groups
d. observations
 
79. Which of the following is not a major method of data collection?
a. questionnaires
b. focus groups
c. regression*
d. secondary data

80. When conducting an interview, asking "Anything else?, What do

you mean?, Why do you feel that way?," etc, are all forms of:
a. filter questions
b. probes*
c. protocols
d. response categories
 
81. When constructing a questionnaire, there are 14 principles to
which you should adhere. Which of the following is not one of those
principles?
a. do not use "leading" or "loaded" questions.
b. avoid double-barreled questions.
c. avoid double negatives
d. do not use multiple items to measure a single construct*
 
82. Which of the following sampling techniques is an equal probability
selection method (i.e., EPSEM) in which every individual in the
population has an equal chance of being selected?
a. simple random sampling with replacement*
b. quota sampling
c. snowball sampling
d. simple random sampling without replacement
e. all of the above are EPSEM
 
83. Which of the following is not a form of nonrandom sampling?
a. snowball sampling
b. convenience sampling
c. quota sampling
d. purposive sampling
e. they are all forms of nonrandom sampling*
 
84. Which of the following will give a more “accurate” representation
of the population from which a sample has been taken?
a. a large sample based on the convenience sampling technique
b. a small sample based on simple random sampling
c. a large sample based on simple random sampling*
d. a small cluster sample
 
85. People who are available, volunteer, or can be easily recruited are
used in the sampling method called ______.
a.  simple random sampling
b.  cluster sampling
c.  systematic sampling
d.  convenience sampling*
 
86. Which of the following types of sampling involves the researcher
determining the appropriate sample sizes for the groups identified as
important, and then taking convenience samples from those groups?
a.  proportional stratified sampling
b.  quota sampling*
c.  one-stage cluster sampling
d.  two-stage cluster sampling
 
87. A type of sampling used in qualitative research that involves
selecting cases that disconfirm the researcher's expectations and
generalizations is referred to as _______________.
a.  extreme case sampling
b.  typical-case sampling
c.  critical-case sampling
d.  negative-case sampling*

88. In which of the following nonrandom sampling techniques does

the researcher ask the research participants to identify other potential
research participants?
a. snowball*
b. convenience
c. purposive
d. quota

89. If we took the 500 people attending a school in New York City,
divided them by gender, and then took a random sample of the males
and a random sampling of the females, the variable on which we
would divide the population is called the _____.
a. independent variable
b. dependent variable
c. stratification variable*
d. sampling variable

90. The type of sampling in which each member of the population

selected for the sample is returned to the population before the next
member is selected is called _________.
a. sampling without replacement
b. sampling with replacement*
c. simple random sampling
d. systematic sampling
91. Which of the following is not a type of nonrandom sampling?
a.  cluster sampling*
b.  convenience sampling
c.  quota sampling
d.  purposive sampling
e.  they are all type of nonrandom sampling
 
92. Which of the following is not an example of a nonrandom
sampling technique?
a. purposive
b. quota
c. convenience
d. cluster*
 
93. Which of the following sampling methods is the best way to select a
group of people for a study if you are interested in making statements
about the larger population?
a.  convenience sampling
b.  quota sampling
c.  purposive sampling
d.  random sampling*
 
94.  ___________ is a set of elements taken from a larger population
according to certain rules.
a.  sample*
b.  population
c.  statistic
d. element
 
95. Determining the sample interval (represented by k), randomly
selecting a number between 1 and k, and including each kth element
in your sample are the steps for which form of sampling?
a. simple random sampling
b. stratified random sampling
c. systematic sampling*
d. cluster sampling
 
96. Which type of validity refers to the degree to which you can infer
that the relationship between two variables is causal?
a. internal validity*
b. population validity
c. ecological validity
d. temporal validity
 
97.  ___________ refers to physical or mental changes that may occur
within individuals over time, such as aging, learning, boredom,
hunger, and fatigue.
a.  instrumentation
b.  history
c.  maturation*
d.  testing
 
98. What type of validity refers to the extent to which the results of a
study can be generalized across time?
a.  ecological validity
b.  external validity
c.   internal validity
d.   temporal validity*
 
99. Which of the following is not considered one of the criteria for
inferring causality?
a. evidence that the independent and dependent variables are related
b. evidence that the relationship between the variables being
investigated is not due to an extraneous variable
c. evidence that changes in variable A occur before changes in
variable B
d. the temporal ordering of the variables being investigated does not
matter*
 
100. Which of the following refers to any change that occurs over time
in the way in which the dependent variable is assessed?
a. instrumentation*
b. maturation
c. testing
d. selection
 
101. The use of several measures of a construct is called
a. multiple operationalism*
b. multiple construct measurement
c. operationalism
d. methods triangulation
 
102. A physical or mental change that occurs in participants over time
that affects their performance on the dependent variable is called
________.
a. instrumentation
b. maturation*
c. regression
d. none of above
 
103. Mortality generally occurs in research where ____.
a. you do demographic research
b. the study fails
c. participants drop out of the research study*
d. the study is very brief
 
104. Internal validity refers to which of the following?
a. the ability to infer that a casual relationship exists between 2
variables*
b. the extent to which study results can be generalized to and across
populations of persons, settings, and times
c. the use of effective measurement instruments in the study
d. the ability to generalize the study results to individuals not included
in the study

105. Which strategy used to promote qualitative research validity uses

multiple research methods to study a phenomenon?
a. data triangulation
b. methods triangulation*
c. theory triangulation
d. member checking
 
106. What is occurring when a researcher allows his own personal
views and perspective to affect how data are interpreted and how the
study is conducted?
a. reactivity
b. researcher bias*
c. reflexivity
d. interpretive validity
 
107. Which of the following in not one of the key threats to internal
validity?
a. maturation
b. instrumentation
c. temporal change*
d. history
 
108. This type of validity refers to the ability to generalize the results
of a study across settings.
a. temporal validity
b. internal validity
c. ecological validity*
d. external validity
 
109. Which is not a direct threat to the internal validity of a research
design?
a. history
b. testing
c. sampling error*
d. selection
 
110. Alteration in performance due to being aware that one is
participating in a study is known as ______.
a. operationalism
b. reactivity*
c. temporal validity
d. mortality
 
111. Which of the following designs permits a comparison of pretest
scores to determine the initial equivalence of groups on the pretest
before the treatment variable is introduced into the research setting.
a. one-group pretest-posttest design
b. pretest-posttest control group design*
c. static-group comparison design
d. both b and c
 
112. The group that receives the experimental treatment condition is
the _____.
a. experimental group*
b. control group
c. participant group
d. independent group
 
113. Which of the following control techniques available to the
researcher controls for both known and unknown variables?
a. building the extraneous variable into the design
b. matching
c. random assignment*
d. analysis of covariance
 
114. The group that does not receive the experimental treatment
condition is the ________.
a. experimental group
b. control group*
c. treatment group
d. independent group
 
115. There are a number of ways in which confounding extraneous
variables can be controlled. Which control technique is considered the
most important?
a. random assignment*
b. matching
c. counterbalancing
d. none of the above
 
116. The most popular procedure for randomly assigning participants
to comparison groups is to ______.
a.  assign letters.
b.  choose by alphabetical order.
c.  use a list of random numbers.*
d.  let the researcher decide which group will be the best
 
117. Which control-group design does an excellent job of controlling
for rival hypotheses that threaten the internal validity of an
experiment? 
a.   static group design
b.   posttest-only control-group design
c.   pretest-posttest control-group design
d.   both b and c are excellent designs*
 
118. Manipulating the independent variable by varying the type of
variable presented to the different comparison groups is known as
_____.
a.  amount technique
b.  absence technique
c.  type technique*
d.  presence technique
 
119. Which method of controlling confounding extraneous variables
takes precedence over the other methods?
a. matching individual participants
b. holding extraneous variables
c. building the extraneous variable into the research design
d. counterbalancing
e. randomly assign research participants to the groups*
 
120. In an experimental research study, the primary goal is to isolate
and identify the effect produced by the ____.
a. dependent variable
b. extraneous variable
c. independent variable*
d. confounding variable
 
121. This type of design is one where all participants participate in all
experimental treatment conditions.
a. factorial design
b. repeated measures design*
c. replicated design
d. pretest-posttest control-group design
 
122. The design in which one group of research participants is
administered a treatment and is then compared, on the dependent
variable, with another group of research participants who did not
receive the experimental treatment is ____.
a. One-group posttest-only design
b. One-group pretest-posttest design
c. Static-group comparison design*
d. time series design
 
123. Which of the following is an interrupted time-series design that
includes a control group to rule out a history effect?
a.  multiple time-series design*
b.  interrupted time-series design
c.  A-B-A design
d.  single-case experimental designs

124.A design consisting of an experimental and a control group but

participants are not randomly assigned to the groups is which of the
following?
a. interrupted time-series design
b. nonequivalent control group design*
c. single case design
d. multiple-baseline design
 
125. A form of the nonequivalent control-group design is
recommended when ____.
a. it is not possible to control for a basic history effect.
b. it is not possible to randomly assign participants to groups.*
c. it is not possible to identify two groups.
d. all of the above
 
126. A threat to internal validity in the nonequivalent control-group
design is the _____ effect.
a. selection-maturation effect
b. selection-history effect
c. selection
d. all of the above are threats*
 
127. The primary threat to internal validity in the interrupted time-
series design is the ____ effect.
a. history*
b. maturation
c. selection
d. testing
 
128. In single-case research, “baseline” refers to ________.
a. the beginning point of the treatment condition
b. the end point of the treatment condition
c. a condition prior to any experimental intervention*
d. the time during which a treatment condition is administered
 
129. A baseline _____________.
a. is used as the standard against which change induced by the
treatment is assessed
b. is the occurrence of a response in its freely occurring or natural
state
c. is often obtained prior to the administration of a treatment
d. all of the above are true*
 
130. A single-case experimental design in which the response to a
treatment is compared to baseline occurring before and after the
treatment is called what?
a. A-B-A design*
b. single-case design
c. multiple-baseline
d. changing-criterion
 
131. The ________________ design rules out history by demonstrating
that the dependent variable response reverts back to the baseline
when the treatment is withdrawn.
a. changing-criterion design
b. multiple-baseline design
c. A-B-A design*
d. multiple-time series design

132. What is the difference between A-B-A design and A-B-A-B design?
a. both designs end on the treatment condition
b. neither design ends on a treatment condition
c. baseline conditions are only established in the A-B-A-B design
d. A-B-A-B allows the reintroduction of the treatment condition*

133. Which of the following is not a phase in the A-B-A design?

a. baseline measurement
b. introduction of treatment
c. introduction of second treatment*
d. removal of treatment
 
134. Which of the following is/are necessary condition(s) for
causation?
a. the relationship condition
b. the temporal antecedence condition
c. the lack of alternative explanation condition
d. all of the above*
 
135. Which of the three necessary conditions for cause and effect is
almost always problematic in nonexperimental research?
a.   Condition 1:  Variable A and Variable B must be related (the
relationship condition).
b.   Condition 2:  Proper time order must be established (the temporal
antecedence condition).
c.   Condition 3:  The relationship between variable A and Variable B
must not be due to some confounding extraneous variable*
d. nonexperimental research is weak on all three of the conditions
 
136. Which of the following is NOT a form of longitudinal research?
a.   trend study
b.   cohort study
c.   cross-sectional study*
d.   panel study
 
137. Observing a relationship between two variables is NOT sufficient
grounds for concluding that the relationship is a _______________.
a. causal relationship*
b. collective relationship
c. correlational relationship
d. noncorrelational relationship
 
138. This type of longitudinal research studies the same individuals
over an extended period of time.
a. trend study
b. panel study*
c. both a and b
d. neither a nor b
 
139. This type of research tests hypotheses and theories in order to
explain how and why a phenomenon operates as it does.
a. descriptive research
b. predictive research
c. explanatory research*
d. none of the above
 
140. Which of the following would be the most complete definition of
"science" as a source of knowledge?
a. it is the systematic observation of phenomena
b. it is the systematic and objective study of the world.
c. it is a method of obtaining objective knowledge about the world
through systematic observation.*
d. it is a method of obtaining objective knowledge of the world
through the direct experience of it.
 
141. If data are collected from heads of households about the
characteristics of the household, the unit of analysis is:
a. the individual.
b. the organization.
c. the group.*
d. the program.
e. the head of the household.
 
142. Concepts for which it is easiest to develop operational definitions
are those:
a. that have readily identifiable empirical referents.*
b. that are very general and abstract.
c. about which there is controversy.
d. that are parts of hypotheses.
 
143. The list of the sampling units used to select a sample is called a:
a.   population.
b. statistic.
c. sampling frame. *
d.   parameter.
e. none of the above.
 
144. The accuracy of a measure is its:
a.   reliability
b. discreteness
c. measurability
d. validity.*
 
145. The "ecological fallacy" would be best defined as:
a. the use of artifacts in social work research.
b. the use of a cross-sectional design when a longitudinal design is
more appropriate.
c. inferring something about individuals based on data collected about
groups.*
d. collecting data from people in their natural setting (their ecology)
rather than in a more neutral setting.
 
146. A spurious relationship is one in which:
a. there is a positive relationship between two variables.
b. the relationship disappears when the effects of other variables are
taken into account .*
c. the independent variable occurs later in time than does the
dependent variable.
d. inductive reasoning is used but not deductive reasoning.
 
147. Which of the following (is) are among the advantages of random
sampling?
a. Random samples are always perfectly representative of the
population from which they are drown.
b. The probability of selection of each element is known in advance.*
c. both a and b.
 
148. To infer causality, all of the following must be present except:
a. two variables must covary.
b. one variable must occur prior in time to the other variable.
c. there must be a positive relationship between the two variables.*
d. the relationship between the two variables must not be spurious.
 
149. The term "sampling fraction" refers to:
a. the number of elements in the sample.
b. the size of the sample you will need to have a representative
 sample.
c. the number of elements in a stratum relative to the number of
elements in the whole stratified sample.
d. the number of elements in the sample relative to the number of
elements in the population.*
 
150. A scale in which there is a series of statements, each followed by
five response alternatives, is called:
a. a Likert scale*
b. a Thurstone scale.
c. a semantic differential scale.
d. a Guttman scale.
e. none of the above.
 
151. When scientific analyses move from the level of theoretical
statements to that of testable hypotheses, the process has involved:
a. inductive reasoning
b. deductive reasoning*
c. causal reasoning
d. common sense reasoning
e. operational definitions.
 
152. The level of measurement that allows researchers to add and
subtract is:
a. nominal
b. ordinal
c. interval*
d. all of the above
e. only b and c.
 
153. Which of the following statements indicates a positive
relationship between the variables x and y.
a. As the value of x increases, the value of y decreases.
b. As the value of y increases, the value of x decreases.
c, As the value of x increases, the value of y remains unchanged.
d. As the value of x decreases, the value of y decreases.*
 
154. The elements or "building blocks" of theories are:
a. hypotheses
b. independent variables
c. concepts*
d. causality
e. dependent variables
 
155. Which of the following would most clearly be an illustration of
predictive research?
a. a study to assess the amount of child abuse in a particular
community.
b. a study to determine why some teenagers are more likely than
others to abuse alcohol or drugs.
c. a study to project how many children will suffer from
malnourishment if funding for a social program is reduced.*
d. a study designed with a practical outcome in mind and with the
assumption that some group or society will benefit from it.
 
156. One of the advantages of using scales over single-item measures
is:
a. scales are less costly to develop and administer.
b. multiple-item measures are more valid.*
c .multiple-item scales enable the researcher to shift the unit of
analyses.
d. scales can achieve a lower and more simplified level of
measurement.
 
157. Which of the following is the "weakest" possible operational
definition of spouse abuse?
a. having the police respond to a domestic violence dispute at a
person's home.
b. observing bruises or lacerations on a spouse's face.
c. a first-hand observation of one spouse striking another.
d. the deliberate striking of a spouse with the intent of doing bodily
harm.*
 
158. Which of the following is true regarding validity and reliability?
a. a valid measure is generally a reliable one.*
b. a reliable measure is generally a valid one.
c. validity can be demonstrated more easily.
d. if we know a measure is reliable, we need not be concerned with its
validity.
e. all of the above are true.
 
159. A sampling interval of 5 was used to select a sample from a
population of 1000.  How many elements are to be in the sample?
a. 5
b. 50
c. 100
d. 200*
e. 1,000
 
160. Which of the following sampling procedures is likely to produce
biased results if a sampling frame contains a cyclical or recurring
pattern?
a. systematic sampling*
b. simple random sampling
c. stratified sampling
d. quota sampling
e. availability sampling
 
161. The more homogeneous a population is on the variables being studied:
a . the larger the sample size must be to be representative.
b. the more one should use cluster sampling.
c. the smaller the sample size must be to be representative.*
d. the less necessary it is to use probability samples.
 
162. One of the major reasons for using a stratified sample is:
a. to achieve a more representative sample.*
b. to reduce sampling error for a given sample size.
c. to make use of a sampling frame.
d. to learn what the probability is of each unit in the population appearing
in the sample.
 
163. A disproportionate stratified sample is used when:
a. you want every element in the population to have the same chance of
appearing in the sample.
b. you want to make comparisons among subgroups in the population
when some of those subgroups are fairly uncommon.*
c. it is not possible to use a probability sample.
d. the sampling error is likely to be low.
 
164. One of the drawbacks of snowball sampling is:
a. it is a very expensive form of sampling.
b. the sampling error tends to be very large.
c .it may miss people who are isolated from social networks.*
d. it leads to bias if the elements are listed in the sampling frame in a
cyclical fashion.
 
165. The proportion of a sample that completes and returns a
questionnaire or agrees to be interviewed is called:
a. the response rate.*
b. the sampling frame.
c .the unit of analysis.
d. the interview schedule.
e. the pretest.
 
166. Quota sampling is like stratified sampling in that both:
a.   have low sampling error.
b. can determine the probability of each element in a population appearing
in the sample.
c. are nonprobability samples.
d. divide a population into categories and sample from those categories.*
 
167. Which of the following are ways of avoiding the ethical problem of
withholding treatment from a control group without
         imperiling the scientific integrity of the research?
a. give the control group a treatment that is known to be effective.
b. delay giving the treatment to the control group for a period that will
allow appropriate comparisons to be made.
c. give the treatment to the control group and then withdraw the
treatment.
d. all of the above would avoid the ethical problems.
e. only a and b would avoid the ethical problems.*
 
168. The group from which some treatment is withheld is called:
a. a privacy group.
b. a treatment group.
c. a debriefing.
d. a pretest group.
e. a control group.*
 
169. In experimental research, the experimental group:
a. is the same as the control group.
b. is exposed to the experimental stimulus.*
c. is created to control for extraneous variables.
d. experiences only the dependent variables.
e. is used only during the pretest.
 
170. In the language of experimentation, a "pretest" refers to:
a. the measurement of the independent variable before it is applied to
subjects.
b. a measure of the dependent variable before subjects are exposed to the
independent variable.*
c. the random assignment of subjects to experimental and control
conditions.
d. the extent of extraneous variability that exists before exposure of
subjects to the independent variable.
 
171. The term "external validity" in experiments refers to:
a. the extent to which causal inferences made in an experiment can be
generalized beyond the experimental setting.
b. whether the independent variable actually produces the effect that it
appears to have on the dependent variable.*
c. the extent to which the design approximates a true experimental design.
d. the elimination of experimenter effects.
 
172. One of the advantages of experiments over other research designs is
that experiments:
a. reduce the likelihood of experimenter effects occurring.
b. offer researchers access to large samples of people.
c. offer researchers the most advantageous position from which to infer
causal relations between variables.*
d. give researchers access to people, such as the deceased, who are
inaccessible to other forms of research.
 
173. In experimental research, the independent variables:
a. are the same as the experimental stimulus.
b. are variables that are hypothesized to produce changes in other
variables.
c. have a value that is dependent on the value of the dependent variables.
d. are experienced only by the control group.
e. both a and b.*
 
174. The control group is very important in experiments because:
a. it provides the basis of comparison from which the effects of the
independent variable are measured.*
b. people in this group are exposed to random variability.
c. it tells whether an experiment has external validity or not.
d. it helps to conduct the debriefing after an experiment.

 
175. When we say that the research interview is a "secondary" relationship,
we mean that:
a. the interviewer has a practical, utilitarian goal.
b. the goal of the interview is to give respondents a sympathetic ear.
c. the interviewer should try to make friends with the respondents.
d. data gathering efforts should be secondary to the personal relationship
between interviewer and respondent.*
 
176. The method of initially contacting respondents for an interview that
has the lowest rate of refusal is:
a. to telephone them.
b. to send them a letter.
c. to send them a telegram.
d. to contact them in person.*
 
177. Regarding the order of questions in a questionnaire:
a. opinion questions should be placed before factual questions.
b. interesting questions should be placed toward the end of the
questionnaire as an enticement.
c. factual questions should be placed before opinion questions.*
d. standard demographic questions regarding age, sex, and the like should
be placed at the beginning of the questionnaire.
 
178. If all of the theoretically relevant answers to a question can be
determined in advance and there is a limited number of such answers,
          then                                 would be most appropriate to use.
a. closed-ended questions.*
b. mailed questionnaires.
c. open-ended questions.
d. telephone surveys.
 
179. A contingency question in a questionnaire refers to:
a. a question that can be dropped if the interview is taking too long.
b. a question that is revised or dropped because it is shown to be
ambiguous in a pretest.
c. an open-ended question that will have to be coded by the investigator
during data analysis.
d. a question that a respondent may or may not be requested to answer
depending on their response to a previous question.*