NTSE Supplement - 1

Based on Class 9th Syllabus

Content
S.No. Topics Page
1 Mental Ability 1-42
2 Physics 43-72
3 Chemistry 73-87
4 Biology 88-106
5 Mathematics 107-137
- Answers 138-145

Vidyamandir Classes
Gurukul for IITJEE & Medical Preparation
 Supplementary Booklet

Supplementary Booklet | Class IX

Mental Ability

[Level - 1]
1. Series
Directions (Q. 1 to Q. 30) : Complete the following series. 11. 1, 4, 9, ?, 8, 27
(A) 1 (B) 4
1. 3, 6, 8, 16, 18, ?
(C) 6 (D) 2
(A) 36 (B) 38
(C) 40 (D) 42 12. 4, 2, 5, 1, 6, ?
(A) 5 (B) 2
2. 1, 0, 3, 2, 5, 6, ?
(C) 4 (D) 0
(A) 9 (B) 8
(C) 7 (D) 10 13. 1, 0, 3, 2, 5, 4, ?
(A) 7 (B) 6
3. 1, 2, 2, 5, 3, 10, ?
(A) 12 (B) 8 (C) 5 (D) 4
(C) 7 (D) 4 14. 0, 2, 6, 6, 12, 10, ?
4. 2, 7, 14, 23, ?, 47 (A) 12 (B) 14
(A) 28 (B) 34 (C) 15 (D) 18
(C) 36 (D) 38 15. 1, 10, ?, 100, 1001, 1000, 10001
5. 240, ?, 120, 40, 10, 2 (A) 101 (B) 110
(A) 480 (B) 240 (C) 1011 (D) 111
(C) 220 (D) 120
16. 1, 4, 10, 19, 31, 46, ?
6. ak, eo, is, ?, qa, ue (A) 64 (B) 54
(A) mw (B) nx (C) 74 (D) 84
(C) mv (D) lw
17. 2, 5, 11, 17, 23, ?
7. BD, FH, JL, NP, ? (A) 29 (B) 31
(A) SV (B) SU (C) 37 (D) 27
(C) RT (D) ST
18. 4, 24, 144, 864, ?
8. ab_c_a_bccb_ (A) 4844 (B) 5184
(A) caba (B) cbaa (C) 8164 (D) 8234
(C) cabb (D) caab
19. 1, 4, 9, 16, 25, ?
9. ab_a_b_a_bba (A) 35 (B) 34
(A) aaab (B) baba (C) 40 (D) None of these
(C) abba (D) baab
20. b_ab_a_ _ba_b
10. 2, 3, 5, 7, ? (A) ababa (B) bbbaa
(A) 19 (B) 11 (C) ababb (D) baabb
(C) 13 (D) 115

Course for NTSE 1 Class 9th

Supplementary Booklet

21. ab _ cb _ c _ c _ _ b 32. If ‘+’ stands for division, ‘×’ stands for addition, ‘–’ stands
(A) bcaaa (B) abcab for multiplication and ‘÷’ stands for subtraction then
(C) acbca (D) aabbc which of the following equations is correct ?
(A) 36 × 6 + 7 ÷ 2 – 6 = 20
22. a _ ba _ bb _ ab _ aab _ a
(B) 36 ÷ 6 + 3 × 5 – 3 = 45
(A) abbba (B) baabb
(C) 36 + 6 – 3 × 5 ÷ 3 = 24
(C) bbabb (D) aabba
(D) 36 – 6 + 3 × 5 ÷ 3 = 74
23. 19, 2, 38, 3, 114, 4, ? Directions (Q. 33 to Q. 34) :
(A) 228 (B) 256
In the following questions, which of the following sign/signs
(C) 352 (D) 456
on interchanging would make the equations correct ?
24. 2, 5, 9, 19, 37, ? 33. 2 × 3 + 6 – 12 ÷ 4 = 17
(A) 76 (B) 75 (A) × and + (B) + and –
(C) 74 (D) 72 (C) + and ÷ (D) – and +
34. 12 ÷ 2 – 6 × 3 + 8 = 16
25. 2, 1, 2, 4, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 8, 10, 11, ?
(A) ÷ and + (B) – and +
(A) 9 (B) 10
(C) × and + (D) ÷ and ×
(C) 11 (D) 12
Directions (Q. 35 and Q. 36) :
26. 13, 32, 24, 43, 35, ?, 46, 65, 57, 76
Which of the interchanging of sign/signs would make the
(A) 45 (B) 52 equations correct ?
(C) 54 (D) 55 35. 5 + 3 × 8 – 12 ÷ 4 = 3
27. __aba__ba_ab (A) + and – (B) – and ÷
(C) + and × (D) + and ÷
(A) a b b b a (B) a b b a b
(C) b a a b b (D) b b a b b 36. 5 + 6 ÷ 3 – 12 × 2 = 17
(A) ÷ and × (B) + and ×
28. xy___y_yyxx_ (C) + and ÷ (D) + and –
(A) x y x x y (B) x y y x y
37. If ‘+’ stands for subtraction, ‘–’ stands for multiplication,
(C) y x x x y (D) y x y y x
‘×’ stands for division and ‘÷’ stands for addition then
29. rr_rs__rrr_ 15 × 3 ÷ 15 + 5 – 2 = ?
(A) r r r s (B) r r s s (A) 0 (B) 6
(C) r s r s (D) s r r r (C) 10 (D) 20
38. If 12 + 34 = 21, 23 + 14 = 25, then 17 + 31 ?
30. 0, 6, 24, 60, ?, 210 (A) 32 (B) 48
(A) 117 (B) 119 (C) 36 (D) 64
(C) 120 (D) 126 39. If 14 + 13 × 3 = 87, then 17 + 16 × 2 = ?
(A) 49 (B) 50
2. Mathematical Operations (C) 66 (D) 70

31. If ‘×’ stands for addition ‘÷’ stands for subtraction, ‘+’ 40. If ‘–’ stands for ‘+’, ‘+’ for ‘×’, ‘÷’ for ‘–’ and ‘×’ for ‘÷’,
stands for multiplication and ‘–’ for division, then then which one of the following is correct ?
20 × 8 ÷ 8 – 4 + 2 = ? (A) 20 × 5 ÷ 4 + 6 – 6 = 10
(A) 80 (B) 25 (B) 16 – 3 + 4 ÷ 14 × 2 = 20
(C) 24 (D) 18 (C) 20 ×5 – 5 + 6 ÷ 4 = 30
(D) None of these

Course for NTSE 2 Class 9th

 Supplementary Booklet

3. Dice 47. A dice is thrown three times and its three different
positions are shown below. What number occurs at the
Directions (Q. 41 to Q. 45) :
bottom face in the three positions of the dice ?
In questions 41 to 45, four positions of a dice are shown.
Carefully read the statement of each question and find the correct
alternative in each case.
(A) 6, 6, 2 (B) 5, 6, 1
41. (C) 5, 5, 5 (D) 6, 5, 2

Directions (Q. 48 and Q. 49) :

Which number is on the opposite to 6 ?
(A) 1 (B) 2 Observe the solids and answer the questions.
(C) 3 (D) 4

42.

What number is opposite to 4 ?

(A) d (B) d
(C) d (D) d

43. 48. How many cubes are there ?

(A) 55 (B) 60
What number is opposite to 3 ? (C) 64 (D) 63
(A) 2 (B) 3
49. How many cubes are there, whose we can see two
(C) 4 (D) 6
surfaces?
(A) 16 (B) 18
44. (C) 15 (D) 17

Which number is on the face opposite to 6 ? Directions (Q. 50 to Q. 52) :

(A) 1 (B) 2 In the figure given below a cardboard is folded along the dotted
(C) 3 (D) 5 lines and a cube is constructed. Based on it answer the following
questions :
45.

Which number is opposite to 3 ?

(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 4 (D) 6
50. Which letter will come in front of A ?
46. A dice is thrown four times and its four different positions (A) B (B) C
are shown below. Which number is opposite 6 ? (C) D (D) E

51. Which letter will not come near D ?

(A) A (B) B
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) C (D) E
(C) 3 (D) 4

Course for NTSE 3 Class 9th

Supplementary Booklet

52. Of the following figures, which figure does not belong 62. EVTG : HSQJ : : CXVE : ?
to the cube ? (A) EVUF (B) FSUH
(C) FUSH (D) FUTG
(A) (B)
63. Rich : Poor : : Enemy : ?
(A) War (B) Weapons
(C) Hate (D) Friend
(C) (D)
64. Square : Box : : Triangle : : ?
(A) Cone (B) Cylinder
4. Analogy (C) Pyramid (D) Sphere
53. Hunger : Food : : Fatigue : ? 65. Bird : Fish : : Aeroplane : ?
(A) Rest (B) Exhaustion (A) Boat (B) Ship
(C) Faint (D) Vitamins (C) Crocodile (D) Submarine
54. Night : Day : : ? : Vertical 66. Hair : Head : : ?
(A) Parallel (B) Horizontal (A) Crop : Field (B) Teeth : Mouth
(C) Base (D) Geometry (C) Hand : Arm (D) Liver : Stomach
55. Tea : Leaves : : Coffee : ? 67. Triangle : Rectangle : : ?
(A) Seeds (B) Plants (A) Point : Line (B) Angle : Right Angle
(C) Flowers (D) Hills (C) Square : Quadrangle (D) Pentagon : Hexagon
56. Chicken : ? : : Cub : Tiger 68. Cold : Seater : : ?
(A) Menu (B) Roast (A) Summer : Heat (B) Spring : Flower
(C) Cock (D) Hen (C) Rain : Umbrella (D) Injection : Vaccination
57. ABC : ZYX : : CBA : ? 69. Enormous : Huge : : ?
(A) XYZ (B) BCA (A) Rough : Rock (B) Purse : Kitchen
(C) YZX (D) ZXY (C) Muddy : Unclean (D) Black : White
58. JLN : SQO : : PRT : ? Direction (Q. 70 to Q. 74) :
(A) UYW (B) YUW
In questions 70 to 74, you are given four figures marked 1, 2, 3,
(C) YWU (D) UWY
4 called the Problem Figures followed by other figures marked
59. 9 : 8 : : 16 : ? A, B, C, D called the Answer Figures. There is a definite
(A) 27 (B) 125 relationship between 1 and 2. Establish a similar relationship
(C) 64 (D) 25 between figures 3 and 4 by choosing a suitable figure 3 or 4
from the Answer Figures.
60. 8 : 81 : : 64 : ?
(A) 125 (B) 137 Problem Figure Answer Figure
(C) 525 (D) 625
70.
61. KMF : LLH : : RMS : ?
(A) SLR (B) SLU
(C) SSU (D) SUS
71.

Course for NTSE 4 Class 9th

 Supplementary Booklet

Direction (Q. 82) : In the following question there is a specific

72. relation between the first and second figure. The same
relationship exists between the third and the fourth figure which
will replace the question mark. Select the correct figure from
73.
the alternative given below.

82.
74.

5. Coding and Decoding

Directions (Q. 75 to Q. 77) : 83. In a code AXBTC is written for 15789 and MPDU for
In each of the following questions, there is some relationship 2346. How will be 23549 coded ?
between the figure 1 and 2. Establish a similar relationship (A) MPXDT (B) MPXAC
between 3 and 4 by choosing a suitable figure from the answer (C) MPXCD (D) MPXDC
set A, B, C and D for missing figure.
84. If “lmn npi epa” stands for “grow carrot red”, adr sla
75. epa” stands for “colour bright carrot” and “npi kst sla”
for “grow bright rose” then what stands for “Red” ?
(A) npi (B) kst
76. (C) epa (D) lmn

85. If SLIGHT stands for 426875, then GIST stands for

(A) 4285 (B) 4675
77.
(C) 6845 (D) 8645

78. If ‘Circle’ is related to ‘Circumference’ in same way 86. If CAR is 22, SCOOTER = ?
‘Sqaure’ is related to what ? (A) 80 (B) 95
(A) Diagonal (B) Perimeter (C) 100 (D) 115
(C) Angle (D) Area 87. IF AROMA = 24, GRAND = 22 then BUS = ?
Direction (Q. 79 to Q. 81) : (A) 18 (B) 19
(C) 20 (D) 21
There is some relationship between the figures 1 and 2. Establish
a similar relationship between 3 and 4 by choosing a suitable 88. If the word MENTION is coded as LNEITNO, how the
figure from the answer set A, B, C and D for the missing figure. word PATTERN will be coded ?
(A) APTTREM (B) PTAETNR
79. (C) OTAETNR (D) UJHFS
89. If the word MONKEY is coded as XDJMNL, how the
word TIGER will be coded ?
80. (A) QDFHS (B) SDFHS
(C) SHFDQ (D) UJHFS

90. If PALE is coded as 2134, EARTH is coded as 41590,

81.
then how PEARL will be coded ?
(A) 29530 (B) 24153
(C) 25413 (D) 25430

Course for NTSE 5 Class 9th

Supplementary Booklet

91. If white is called blue, blue is called red, red is called 98. What is the code used for ‘is’ ?
yellow, yellow is called black, black is called orange, (A) 7 (B) 5
then what will be the colour of human blood ? (C) 9 (D) 3
(A) Red (B) Green
Directions (Q. 99 to Q. 101) :
(C) Yellow (D) Blue
92. If sky is called sea, sea is called water, water is called If ‘BEAT’ is coded as ‘ADZS’, select appropriate code for the
air, air is called cloud and cloud is called river, then what words given in capital letters :
do we drink when thirsty ? 99. TRACE
(A) Sky (B) Air (A) USBDF (B) SQZBD
(C) Water (D) Sea (C) SQABD (D) SQZDE

93. In a certain code language, the sentences written in 100. ZEAL

Column-I are coded as sentences written in Column-II, (A) YDZK (B) YFZK
but the sequence of words is different. Decode the (C) AFBM (D) YFAK
sentences and find which words in coded language mean
101. HIGHLY
she and apples respectively.
(A) CHEGKZ (B) GHFGKX
Column-I Column-II
(C) GHFIKX (D) GHFIMX
She is eating apples Kew xas humo deko
She sells toys Kew deco qua 102. If BOOK = 43 and PEN = 35, then copy = ?
I like apples Sul lim deko (A) 48 (B) 60
(A) xas and deko (B) xas and kew (C) 59 (D) 79
(C) kew and deko (D) kew and xes
6. Direction TTest
est
Directions (Q. 94 and Q. 95) :
MAPLE is coded as ELPAM. 103. A rat runs 20 m towards East and turns to right, rurns
94. How will CAMEL be coded ? 10 m and turns to right, runs 9 m and then turns to left,
(A) ACMEL (B) LECAM runs 5 m and again turns to left, runs 12 m and finally
(C) ELMCA (D) LEMAC turns to left and runs 6 m. Now which direction is the
95. How will WATER be coded ? rate facing ?
(A) ERTWA (B) RETAW (A) East (B) West
(C) WETAR (D) RATEW (C) North (D) South
96. If Bike is coded as Car, Car is Aeroplane, Aeroplane is
104. Two buses start from the opposite points on a main road,
Train, Train as Bus, then by which vehicle can be you
150 km apart. The first bus runs for 25 km and takes a
reach your destination in least times ?
(A) Aeroplane (B) Train right turn and then runs for 15 km. It then turns left and
(C) Car (D) Bus runs for another 25 km and takes the direction back to
reach the main road. In the mean while, the other bus has
Directions (Q. 97 and Q. 98) :
run only 35 km along the main road. What would be the
In certain code language ‘579’ means–‘Geeta is soft-spoken’,
distance between the two buses ?
‘694’ means–‘Soft-spoken beautiful pure’, ‘473’ means–‘Ganga
(A) 65 km (B) 75 km
is pure’.
(C) 55 km (D) 60 km
97. What is the code used for ‘Geeta’ ?
(A) 7 (B) 5
(C) 9 (D) 3

Course for NTSE 6 Class 9th

 Supplementary Booklet

105. A child was looking for his father. He went 90 m in the 111. Ram travels 8 km to South, then moves to right and travels
east, then turned to his right and went 20 m. He again 6 km and at the end he again moves right and travels 8
turned to his right and walked 30 m to look for his father. km. Then the distance of Ram from initial point is
His father was not present there. From there, he went (A) 6 km (B) 8 km
100 m to his north and met his father in a street. How far (C) 10 km (D) 14 km
did the son meet his father from his starting point ?
112. Ramesh travels 3 km to east then moves to right and
(A) 80 m (B) 60 m
travels 5 km and the end he again moves right and travels
(C) 100 m (D) 40 m
15 km. Then the distance and direction of initial point
106. After walking 6 km, I turned to the right and covered from Ramesh is
2 km, then turned left and covered a distance of 10 km. (A) 13 km south-west (B) 13 km north-east
In the end, I was moving towards North. In which (C) 12 km north-east (D) 12 km south-east
direction did I start my journey ?
(A) North (B) South est
7. Ranking TTest
(C) West (D) East
Directions (Q. 113 to Q. 117) :
107. Makarand went 7 km to West and went 4 km after turning Five persons are sitting in a row. One of the two persons at the
of left. Again he turned to left and went 3 km. Then went extreme ends is intelligent and the other one is fair. A fat person
9 km to North and turned to right. After turning he went is sitting to the right of weak person. A tall person is sitting to
4 km and then stopped. Then find the distance from the the left of the fair person and the weak person is sitting between
origin. the intelligent and fat persons.
(A) 13 km (B) 9 km
(C) 7 km (D) 5 km 113. Tall person is at which place counting from right ?
(A) First (B) Second
108. After walking 4 km to East Husen turned to right and (C) Third (D) Fourth
walked 3 km. Again turned to right and walked 7 km.
Then he walked 7 km to North. Then he turned to right 114. Person to the left of weak person has which of the
and walked 5 km. Again he turned to right and walked following characteristics ?
4 km. So what is the distance and direction of Husen (A) Intelligent (B) Fat
from the origin point ? (C) Fair (D) Tall
(A) 2 km East (B) 2 km West 115. Which of the following persons is sitting in the centre ?
(C) 4 km East (D) 4 km West (A) Intelligent (B) Fat
109. Param was facing East when he started from home. He (C) Fair (D) Weak
took two right turns and one left turn to reach his school. 116. Fat person is sitting on whose left hand side ?
In which direction is he facing on reaching the school ? (A) Intelligent (B) Fair
(A) North (B) East (C) Weak (D) Tall
(C) South (D) West
117. If the fair person and fat person exchange their positions,
110. A body is facing South. he turns 90° in anticlockwise so also tall and weak then who will be sitting to the left
direction and then turns 45° in clockwise direction. Which of the weak person ?
direction is his back facing now ? (A) Intelligent (B) Fat
(A) South East (B) South West (C) Fair (D) Tall
(C) North East (D) North West

Course for NTSE 7 Class 9th

Supplementary Booklet

118. Arrange the given words in the sequence in which they 125. In a row A is standing on the 10th place. B is standing on
occur in the English dictionary and then choose the the 4th place behind him. C is standing on the 12th place
correct sequence. before B. So what will be the position number of a boy
1. Dissipate 2. Dissuade standing between C and A ?
3. Disseminate 4. Dissociate (A) 5th (B) 8th
5. Dissect (C) 6th (D) 7th
(A) 5, 3, 1, 3, 2 (B) 1, 5, 3, 2, 4
(C) 3, 5, 1, 2, 4 (D) 3, 1, 5, 2, 4 126. In a row Manoj is last but second. Ramesh is standing
before him after three students. Suresh is standing on 7th
119. In one of the following sequences, two letters have been place before Ramesh. The place of Suresh is 5th in a
skipped uniformly between its adjacent letters. Identify row, so what is the total No. of students in a row ?
the sequence. (A) 13 (B) 16
(A) MPSVYBE (B) QSVYZCF (C) 14 (D) 17
(C) SVZCGJN (D) ZCGKMPR
Directions (Q. 127 and Q. 128) :
120. In a class of 60, where girls are twice that of boys, Kamal
The students in Government Hostel at Amaravati were called
ranked 17th from the top. If there are 9 girls ahead of
for the discussion. They were asked to sit on the steps as the
him, how many boys are after him in rank ?
following :
(A) Three (B) Seven
(C) Twelve (D) Twenty Two C is sitting on the fourth step from the top. E is sitting above C
after one step. D is below after two steps from E. A is above
Directions (Q. 121 and Q. 122) :
step after D. Then
If the alphabets in the English alphabetical series are written 127. Who is sitting on the middle step ?
then (A) A (B) D
121. Which is the 8th letter to the right of 16th letter from (C) C (D) E
your left ?
(A) K (B) Y 128. Who is sitting on the lowest step ?
(C) X (D) W (A) A (B) D
(C) C (D) E
122. If the first hal of the alphabetical series is in reverse order,
which will be the 5th letter to the left of 13th letter from
your right ?
8. Puzzles
Puzzles
(A) S (B) E
(C) F (D) D
123. If the position of Rajan is 15th from one end and 13th 129.
from the other end in his class, what is the total number
of students in his class ?
(A) 28 (B) 24 (A) 262 (B) 622
(C) 27 (D) 29 (C) 631 (D) 824
124. In a row of girls, if Sheetal wo is 10th from the left and
Hina who is 9th from the right, interchange their positions,
130.
Sheetal becomes 15th from the left. How many girls are
there in the row ?
(A) 13 (B) 18
(A) 24 (B) 23
(C) –13 (D) 30
(C) 25 (D) 26

Course for NTSE 8 Class 9th

 Supplementary Booklet

131. In a school, the following codes were used during 137. 25, 26, 47, 28; 9, 10, 23, 12; 13, 22, 31, 20; ?
physical exercise. 1 means ‘start walking’, 2 means ‘keep (A) d (B) 11, 8, 13, 23
standing’, 3 means ‘start jumping’ and 4 means ‘sit down’. (C) 7, 12, 21, 5 (D) 23, 28, 45, 30
How many times will a student who performs the
Directions (Q. 138 to Q. 141) :
following sequence without error, from the beginning to
Observe the pyramid of letters and answer the following
the end have to sit down ?
questions :
1234231442212431442
a
(A) Six (B) Three
b c
(C) Four (D) Five
f e d
132. In a group of 15 people, 7 can read Hindi, 8 can read g h i j k
English while 3 others can’t read both of these. How many r q p o n m l
can read English and Hindi both ? s t u v w x y z a
(A) 3 (B) 4 k j i h g f e d c b
(C) 6 (D) None l m n o p q r s t u

133. Some words are formed by taking some letters from ‘India 138. ac : dj : : km : ?
is my country’. Whcih is the word that has a letter which (A) lz (B) eq
is not in the given sentence ? (C) zd (D) ye
(A) Minor (B) Your 139. abc : klm : : fgrqp : ?
(C) Out (D) Cloud (A) xfqpo (B) ipuih
(C) abuts (D) sklmn
Directions (Q. 134 to Q. 137) :
Observe the pyramid of numbers and answer the questions given 140. klmj : butc : : dsre : ?
below : (A) erqf (B) ihqp
1 (C) inoh (D) hopg
2 3 4 141. fed : azy : : kj : ?
9 8 7 6 5 (A) qz (B) lm
10 11 12 13 14 15 16 (C) cb (D) dc
25 24 23 22 21 20 19 18 17
142. There are four small circles in a big circle and there are
26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36
four smaller circles in every small circle. How many
49 48 47 46 45 44 43 42 41 40 39 38 37
circles are there in all ?
134. 29 : 33 : : 11 : ? (A) 20 (B) 21
(A) 16 (B) 15 (C) 5 (D) None of these
(C) 18 (D) 13
9. Water Images
Water
135. 10, 46; 12, 44; 14, 42; ?
Directions (Q. 143 to Q. 147) : In questions 143 to 147, you
(A) 9, 45 (B) 8, 13
are given a combination of letters followed by four alternatives
(C) 16, 40 (D) 4, 32
A, B, C and D. Choose the alternative which most closely
136. 10, 28, 29; 8, 22, 21; 3, 13, 14; ? resembles the water-image of the given combination.
(A) 13, 31, 30 (B) 19, 41, 40 143. U4P15B7
(C) 19, 33, 34 (D) 15, 19, 18 (A) (B)
(C) (D)

Course for NTSE 9 Class 9th

Supplementary Booklet

144. PQ8AF5BZ9
(A) (B)
151.
(C) (D)

145. DL2CA34OO
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
(A) (B)
146. D6Z7F4
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
(C) (D)
147. VAYU8436
(A) (B)
Directions (Q. 152 to Q. 153) :
(C) (D)
In each of the following questions, choose the correct water
Directions (Q. 148 to Q. 151) :
image of the figure X from amongst the alternatives (A), (B),
In questions 148 to 151, choose the correct water-image of the (C) and (D) given along with it. The water source is shown
figure (X) from amongst the four alternatives A, B, C, D given below the figure X.
along with it.

152.
148.

(A) (B)
(A) (B)

(C) (D)
(C) (D)

153.
149.

(A) (B) (A) (B)

(C) (D)
(C) (D)

150.

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

Course for NTSE 10 Class 9th

 Supplementary Booklet

Directions (Q. 154 to Q. 156) : Choose the correct water image 159. QUALITY
of the figure (X) from amongst the alternatives (A), (B), (C) (A) (B) YTILAUQ
and (4) given along with it. The water source is shown below (C) (D)
the figure X.
160. WESTERN
(A) (B)
154.
(C) (D)

161. BUZZER
(A) (B) (A) (B) REZZUB
(C) (D)
(C) (D) Directions (Q. 162 to Q. 165) :
In questions 162 to 165, choose the correct mirror-image of the
figure (X) from amongst the four alternatives (A), (B), (C) and
155.
(D) given along with it.

(A) (B) 162.

(C) (D)

(A) (B)

156.
(C) (D)

(A) (B)

163.
(C) (D)

10. Mirror Images

Directions (Q. 157 to Q. 161) : In questions 157 to 161, you (A) (B)
are given a combination of letters followed by four alternatives
(A), (B), (C) and (D). Choose the alternative which most closely
resembles the mirror-image of the given combination.
(C) (D)
157. STROKE
(A) (B) EKORTS
(C) ROCKETS (D)
158. LATERAL
(A) (B)
(C) LARETAL (D)

Course for NTSE 11 Class 9th

Supplementary Booklet

164.
167.

(A) (B)
(A) (B)

(C) (D)
(C) (D)

Directions (Q. 168 tto

Directions o Q. 169) :
165.
There is a figure X given to the left of vertical lines. Examine
the figures given in the alternatives (A), (B), (C) and (D) and
find the one which is to be the exact mirror image of the figure
(A) (B) X.

(C) (D)
168.

Directions (Q. 166 to Q. 167) :

In each of the following questions, there is a figure X given to
the left of vertical lines. Examine the figure given in the (A) (B)
laternatives (A), (B), (C) and (D) and find the one which is the
exact mirror image of the figure X.
(C) (D)

166.

169.

(A) (B)

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

(C) (D)

Course for NTSE 12 Class 9th

 Supplementary Booklet

[Level - 2]
11. Number Series Directions (Q. 10 to Q. 14) :
Directions (Q. 1 to Q. 2) : Complete the following number/letter In each question there is a number series with one term missing
series by selecting from the given choices. shown by question mark (?). This term is one of the alternative
1. 2, 11, 38, ?, 362, 1091 given. Choose that number.
(A) 119 (B) 121 10. 260, 216, 128, 108, 62, 54, ?, 27
(C) 133 (D) 197 (A) 19 (B) 29
(C) 39 (D) 49
2. 2160, ?, 72, 18, 6, 3
(A) 240 (B) 300 11. 7, 15, 32, ?, 138, 281
(C) 360 (D) 400 (A) 87 (B) 77
(C) 67 (D) 57
Directions (Q. 3 tto
Directions o Q. 6) :
12. 3, 8, 18, 23, 33, ?, 48
Complete the following number series by choosing the correct (A) 37 (B) 38
answer from the given alternatives. (C) 40 (D) 45
3. 113, 114, 118, ? 143, 168
13. 2, 12, 36, 80, 150, ?
(A) 127 (B) 129
(A) 194 (B) 210
(C) 134 (D) 139
(C) 242 (D) 252
4. 37, 34, 29, 26, 21, ?, ?
(A) 17, 12 (B) 16, 13 14. 36, 30, 24, 18, ?
(A) 12 (B) 11
(C) 18, 13 (D) 19, 14
(C) 22 (D) 21
5. 1, 4, 5, 10, 17, 28, 53, ?, ?
(A) 58, 64 (B) 64, 93 Directions (Q. 15 to Q. 19) :
(C) 78, 118 (D) 82, 161 There is a number series with one term missing shown by
1 1 1 question mark (?). This term is one of the alternative given.
6. , , , 1, 5, 30, ? Choose that number.
24 12 4
(A) 150 (B) 180 15. 2, 5, 11, 23, 47, ?
(C) 210 (D) 240 (A) 77 (B) 97
(C) 95 (D) 85
Directions (Q. 7) :
16. 3, 15, 4, 16, 5, 17, 6, ?, 7
Find the wrong number in the given series.
(A) 12 (B) 110
7. 768, 96, 16, 8, 2
(C) 15 (D) 130
(A) 2 (B) 8
(C) 16 (D) 96 17. 2, 6, 12, 20, 30, ?
(A) 46 (B) 48
Directions (Q. 8 to Q. 9) : (C) 42 (D) 40
Find the missing number in the given series.
18. 68, 81, 96, ?, 132
8. 17, 33, 70, 131, 278, ?
(A) 105 (B) 110
(A) 581 (B) 531
(C) 113 (D) 130
(C) 541 (D) 575
9. 5, 25, 61, 113, 181, ? 19. 1, 1, 6, 6, 11, 11, 16, ?, ?
(A) 265 (B) 375 (A) 16, 21 (B) 13, 11
(C) 275 (D) 365 (C) 17, 21 (D) 21, 16

Course for NTSE 13 Class 9th

Supplementary Booklet

Directions (Q. 20 to Q. 28) : There is a number series with one 30. 7, 8, 18, 57, 228, 1165, 6996
term missing shown by question mark (?). This term is one of (A) 8 (B) 18
the alternative given. Choose that number. (C) 57 (D) 228
20. 36, ?, 24, 18, 12
(A) 22 (B) 28 12. Letter
(C) 38 (D) 30
Directions (Q. 31 and Q. 37) : Choose the correct option to
21. 1, 1, 4, 8, 9, 27, 16, 64, 25, ? complete the following series.
(A) 81 (B) 100
31. a_bb_baa_ _bbb_aa
(C) 38 (D) 121
(A) aabba (B) bbaab
22. 3, 5, 8, 13, 21, ?, 55 (C) abaab (D) aaabb
(A) 25 (B) 49
32. Z, Y, W, U, R, O, ?, G, B
(C) 36 (D) 34
(A) K (B) I
23. 80, 78, 75, 71, ?, 60 (C) H (D) J
(A) 76 (B) 64
33. ab_cc_abb_cc_bbc_c
(C) 65 (D) 81
(A) abcca (B) bccba
24. 2, 7, 17, 32, 52, ? (C) bcaba (D) bccac
(A) 77 (B) 64
34. _xyx_xxy_xxx_xxy_y
(C) 72 (D) 81
(A) xyxyx (B) xxyyy
25. 21, 24, 30, 33, 39, 51, 57, ? (C) xxyxy (D) yyyyx
(A) 60 (B) 63
(C) 69 (D) 71 35. M_MN_MNNN_NNN_MNN
(A) NNMN (B) MMNN
26. 197, 171, 147, 125, 105, ?
(C) NNNN (D) MNMN
(A) 71 (B) 87
(C) 97 (D) 101 36. AYC, DVF, GSI, ?
(A) KOM (B) JRH
1 1 2 2 (C) JPL (D) IQK
27. 11 , 12 , 14 , 16 , ?
9 2 7 3
37. ABY, DCX, EFU, HGT, IJQ, ?
1 1
(A) 8 (B) 19 (A) LKP (B) KLO
3 2
(C) LOP (D) MLO
1
(C) 20 (D) 22 Directions (Q. 38 and Q. 42) : Write the alphabets in the given
3
sequence that will replace the questions mark.
28. 2, 9, 38, 155, ?
(A) 314 (B) 193 38. BY, EV, HS, KP, ?
(C) 623 (D) 624 (A) GT (B) DW
(C) BY (D) NM
Directions (Q. 29 and Q. 30) : Find out the wrong number in
the given series. 39. AM, NZ, CK, PX, EI, ?
29. 582, 605, 588, 611, 634, 617, 600 (A) GF (B) VR
(A) 634 (B) 611 (C) US (D) RV
(C) 605 (D) 600

Course for NTSE 14 Class 9th

 Supplementary Booklet

40. ADY, CFW, EHU, ? Directions (Q. 50 and Q. 51) : Find out the wrong number in
(A) GIH (B) FIT the given series.
(C) GJR (D) GJS
50. ba_cb_b_bab_
41. Y, W, T, R, O, ? (A) ca bb (B) ac bb
(A) L (B) P (C) bc aa (D) ba cc
(C) K (D) M
51. aa _ _ baa _ _ ab _
42. A rhythmic arrangement of alphabets is given. The (A) baabb (B) aabab
missing letter alphabets appear in the same order as in (C) aaaaa (D) aabaa
one of the alternative answers. Find the correct
52. ADG, GJM, MPS, ?
alternative.
(A) SVW (B) SVY
_bcdbc_deabd_bedbc_dc_bd
(C) SUW (D) SWY
(A) aabbc (B) aaaee
(C) aabcd (D) abcde Directions (Q. 53 and Q. 60) : In each of the questions some of
the letters are missing in the given series with one term missing
43. Z, S, W, O, T, K, Q, G, ?, ?
shown by question mark (?). This term is one of the alternatives
(A) N, C (B) N, D
among the four groups of letters given under it. Find the right
(C) O, C (D) O, D
alternative.
44. ajs, gpy, ?, sbk, yhq
53. A, F, J, M, ? .
(A) dmv (B) mve
(A) O (B) N
(C) oua (D) qzi
(C) Q (D) P
45. Z, X, S, I, R, R, ?, ?
54. BD, HJ, NP, ? , ZB
(A) J, I (B) J, K
(A) QS (B) TV
(C) K, M (D) G, I
(C) YC (D) TU
46. gfe_ig_eii_fei_gf_ii
55. FOX, IQV, LST, OUR, ? .
(A) eifgi (B) figie
(A) RPW (B) RWP
(C) ifgie (D) ifige
(C) QVS (D) SXU
47. C, Z, F, X, I, V, L, T, O, ?, ?
56. qpo, nml, ? .
(A) O, P (B) P, Q
(A) ghf (B) ijk
(C) R, R (D) S, R
(C) kji (D) hgj
48. _xyx_xxy_xxx_xx
57. Z, W, S, ? .
(A) yxyx (B) xxxy
(A) P (B) O
(C) yyyy (D) xyxy
(C) N (D) Q
49. gfe_2g_e22_fe2_gf 22
58. AN, CP, FS, ? .
(A) 2f2ge (B) e2fg2
(A) IV (B) JW
(C) f2g2e (D) 2fg2e
(C) KX (D) LY

59. MYZ, LWX, ? JST.

(A) KUV (B) IQR
(C) HOP (D) GMN

Course for NTSE 15 Class 9th

Supplementary Booklet

60. bdf, hjl, ? , tvx. 69. V B R M T H : E O I Z G U : : PF X LWA: ?

(A) nrp (B) pnr (A) K S C Y D N (B) K S X C W N
(C) nqr (D) npr (C) K F C Y W Z (D) K F X C D Z

13. Analogy 70. Ecology is related to environment in the same way as

Histology is related to
Directions (Q. 61 and Q. 63) : Choose the correct option to
(A) Hormones (B) Tissues
replace ‘?’ in the questions.
(C) Bones (D) Histology
61. 147 : 49 : : ? : ?
(A) 186 : 66 (B) 189 : 33 Directions (Q. 71 and Q. 77) :
(C) 198 : 66 (D) 201 : 33 In each of the following questions, there is a question mark in
62. 195 : 15 : : ? : 25 blank space and it is only one of the four alternatives given
(A) 575 (B) 600 under the question which satisfies the same relationship as is
(C) 625 (D) 650 found between the two letters to the left of the sign : : given in
63. TPLNR : BXTVZ : : NJFHL : ? the question. Find the correct alternatives.
(A) VNRTP (B) VRNPT
71. LJH : KKI : : CIA : ?
(C) URMPT (D) RVPTN
(A) BJB (B) BBB
Directions (Q. 64 and Q. 66) : Complete the given analogy, by (C) DBB (D) BBZ
choosing the correct answer from the given alternatives.
72. EJOT : VQLG : : BGLQ : ?
64. 80 : 400 : : 100 : ? (A) ZUPK (B) YTOJ
(A) 800 (B) 625 (C) AFKP (D) AEIM
(C) 600 (D) 525
73. NUMBER : UNBMRE : : GHOST : ?
65. 2 3 5 9 : 3 5 9 1 4 : : 5 9 17 33 : ?
(A) HOGST (B) HOGTS
(A) 7 15 31 63 (B) 7 13 25 27
(C) HGOST (D) HGSOT
(C) 9 17 33 47 (D) 9 15 31 63
66. EQOXHA:zscljv::YFKTDI:? 74. LUX : 57 : : SIT : ?
(A) b u p g w r (B) s w g p u l (A) 42 (B) 44
(C) b e p g w h (D) r w g p u b (C) 46 (D) 48

Directions (Q. 67 and Q. 69) : Complete the given number/ 75. MUMBAI : LTLAZH : : DELHI ?
letter analogy by choosing the correct answer from the given (A) CDKGG (B) CDKGH
alternatives. (C) IHLED (D) BCKGH

67. 441 : 7 : : 576 : ? 76. BVSC : YEHX : : MRCP : ?

(A) 6 (B) 8 (A) NJXK (B) LKXM
(C) 12 (D) 14 (C) NIXK (D) DIYM

73 57 93 77. 211 : 333 : : 356 : ?

68. : :: : ?
67 55 87 (A) 358 (B) 359
47 53 (C) 423 (D) 388
(A) (B)
53 57
63 73
(C) (D)
61 71

Course for NTSE 16 Class 9th

 Supplementary Booklet

Directions (Q. 78 and Q. 82) : Select the related letter/word/ 88. 23 : 8 : : 25 : ?

number from the given alternatives : (A) 32 (B) 9
(C) 64 (D) 22
78. DEF : EFD : : FGH : ?
(A) FHG (B) HGF 89. 531 : 99 : ? : ?
(C) HFG (D) GHF (A) 451 : 55 (B) 321 : 44
(C) 642 : 66 (D) 212 : 11
79. AZB : CYD : : EXF : ?
(A) GWH (B) FGV 90. BYCW : LOKQ : : ? : JQIS
(C) TMR (D) QSV (A) FUEW (B) DWFU
(C) DWEU (D) DVFU
80. Maharashtra : India : Texas : ?
(A) Canada (B) Mexico 14. Mathematical Operations
(C) Brazil (D) U.S.A.
Directions (Q. 91 and Q. 94) : Match the numbers in Column-I
81. Heart : Cardiologist : : Kidney : ? with the rules in Column-II.
(A) Endocrinologist (B) Orthodontist Column-I Column-II
(C) Nephrologist (D) Neurologist 17 2n3 + 3
18 2n2 – 1
82. 5 : 36 : : 6 : ?
57 n3 + 2n
(A) 48 (B) 49
28 n3 – 3n
(C) 50 (D) 56
15 3n2 + 1
Directions (Q. 83 and Q. 90) : There is a question mark in the 91. Which rule the number 28 follows ?
blank space and it is only one of the four alternatives given (A) 2n2 – 1 (B) 3n2 + 1
under the question which satisfies the same relation as is found (C) n3 – 3n (D) n2 + 2n
between the two terms to the left of the sign : : given in the 92. Which number follows the rule 2n3 + 3 ?
question. Find the correct alternatives. (A) 57 (B) 18
83. BEGK : ADFJ : : PSVY : ? (C) 17 (D) 15
(A) LOQT (B) ROUX 93. If > stands for +
(C) OTUZ (D) ORUX < stands for –
∨ stands for ×
84. ABCD : NPRT : : FGHI : ? ∧ stands for ÷
(A) KLMN (B) OQRT
>/ stands for =
(C) RTUW (D) SUWY Then which one of the following equations given below
85. BLOCKED : YOLXPVW : : ? : OZFMXS is correct ?
(A) LAUNCH (B) DEBATE (A) 18 < 54 ∧ 27 >/ 9 ∨ 45 > 9
(C) LABOUR (D) RESULT (B) 18 > 54 ∧ 27 ∨ 9 >/ 45 < 9
(C) 18 > 54 >/ 27 < 9 ∨ 45 ∧ 9
86. ace : bdF : : fhJ : ?
(D) 18 >/ 54 < 27 ∧ 9 > 45 ∨ 5
(A) ghk (B) gik
94. Which one of the following equations is NOT meaningful
(C) dfH (D) fhL
by substituting the set of given mathematical signs
87. Menu : Food : : Catalogue : ? (+, +, =, ×) sequentially in the given equations ?
(A) Rack (B) Newspaper (A) 80 ÷ 5 + 4 = 5 × 4 (B) 30 ÷ 2 + 5 = 2 × 10
(C) Library (D) Books (C) 40 ÷ 10 + 4 = 10 × 6 (D) 60 ÷ 3 + 10 = 6 × 5

Course for NTSE 17 Class 9th

Supplementary Booklet

Directions (Q. 95) : Directions (Q. 100 and Q. 101) : In the following questions,
some relationships have been expressed through symbols which
To get the correct equation choose which set of signs from the
are explained below :
given alternatives to be substituted sequentially places of (*).
× = Greater than
95. 72 * 36 * 18 * 3 * 12 * 36 ∆ = Note less than
(A) –, ÷, ×, =, + (B) ÷, ×, +, –, = ÷ = Note equal to
(C) =, +, ÷, ×, – (D) –, ×, ÷, =, + φ = Equal to
+ = Not greater than
96. When interchange of × and = 7 and 9 are made, find
= Less than
which of the following equations would be correct.
In each question find the correct answer based on these signs.
(A) 10 + 9 × 6 = 7 (B) 4 = 7 – 9 × 20
(C) 36 ÷ 4 × 7 = 9 (D) 9 = 3 + 7 × 30 100. If a × b ∆ c, it follows
(A) b φ a × c (B) a ∆ b + c
97. Choose and substitute the correct set of signs in place of
(C) c + b a (D) b ∆ a φ c
* sequentially, selecting from the given alternatives to
make the equation meaningful. 101. If a × b × c, it does imply
90 * 100 * 10 * 100 * 110 * 10 (A) b × a φ c (B) c × b ∆ a
(A) +, ×, ÷, =, – (B) –, ÷, ×, +, = (C) a ÷ c × b (D) b + a ÷ c
(C) =, ×, ÷, +, – (D) =, ÷, ×, –, +
102. Which of the following operations will result in 22 ?
98. When the signs are changed as shown below, which one (A) 16 + 12 – 8 × 13 ÷ 15 (B) 16 – 12 × 8 ÷ 13 + 15
of the given equations will be correct ? (C) 16 ÷ 12 + 8 – 13 × 15 (D) 16 × 12 ÷ 8 + 13 – 15

– to × 103. If + means –, – means ÷, ÷ means × and × means +, what

is the value of 125 – 5 ÷ 13 + 28 = ?
× to =
(A) 129 (B) 127
= to +
(C) 149 (D) 150
+ to ÷
Directions (Q. 104 and Q. 105) : In these questions one of the
÷ to –
rules is applicable, find out the rule and correct alternative.
(A) 96 – 24 + 36 = 48 × 84 ÷ 12 (A) Multiply the number 3 and add 3 to the result
(B) 96 + 24 – 36 ÷ 48 × 84 = 12 (B) Subtract twice the number from the square
(C) 96 + 24 – 36 = 48 ÷ 84 × 12 (C) Multiply the number by 5 and subtract 3
(D) 96 – 24 + 36 × 48 ÷ 84 = 12 (D) Add the number to its square
104. 12, 20, 30, 42
99. If α represents ‘+’ 105. 47, 52, 57, 62
γ represents ‘–’
106. In the given question symbols do not stand for their actual
β represents ‘×’
meaning but indicate some relationship. Understand the
δ represents ‘÷’ relationship and find correct alternative.
∅ represents ‘=’, which of the following is correct ? 24 + 33 = 99
(A) 9 γ 2 α 10 δ 3 ∅ 14 β 4 40 + 23 = 115
(B) 9 α 2 β 10 γ 3 ∅ 14 δ 4 16 + 25 = 50
(C) 9 β 4 γ 14 α 10 δ 2 ∅ 27 64 + 13 = ?
(D) 9 β 3 γ 2 α 10 ∅ 14 β 4 (A) 74 (B) 28
(C) 58 (D) 104

Course for NTSE 18 Class 9th

 Supplementary Booklet

Directions (Q. 107 and Q. 108) :

Some symbols have been given different meaning. Read them

properly and answer the questions with accurate options. (A) (B)
+ means >
– means =
= means <
∆ means +
(C) (D)
< means ×
> means –
+ means ÷ 112. A student starts from a place A towards East and reaches
place B. From there he turns towards South-West and
107. (A) 6 ∆ 3 < 5 – 6 + 3 < 2 (B) 6 < 3 ∆ 5 = 4 + 2 < 6
reaches place C. He then turns towards South-East and
(C) 8 + 4 > 5 ÷ 4 + 2 ∆ 6 (D) 6 + 3 > 5 ÷ 4 + 2 ∆ 6
reaches place D. From there he turns towards East and
108. (A) 2 < 4 < 5 – 6 + 3 < 2 (B) 2 ∆ 4 < 5 ÷ 6 < 3 < 2 reaches a place E. He then turns towards North and finally
(C) 2 > 4 > 5 = 6 + 2 < 2 (D) 2 < 4 ∆ 5 = 6 ∆ 3 > 2 reaches place F. Whcih of the following figures shows
his movement ?
Directions (Q. 109 and Q. 110) :

Questions are based on the sum of multiplication. Solve it and

answer the serial number for correct option.
(A) (B)

109. Value of A is
(A) 7 (B) 2
(C) 8 (D) 4
(C) (D)
110. Value of B is
(A) 9 (B) 8
(C) 1 (D) 6 Directions (Q. 113 and Q. 115) :
Seven towns T1, T2, T3, T4, T5, T6 and T7 are situated as follows
15. Direction TTest
est
T5 is 8 km to the west of T2
111. A person starts from his house, drives his vehicle 1 km T6 is 8 km to the north of T1
towards North and reaches a restuarant. From there he T4 is 8 km to the south of T7
moves 2 km towards East to meet his friend. Then he T7 is 8 km to the east of T3
moves 4 km in the South-West direction to reach the T3 is 4 km to the west of T1
market. From there he moves 3 km towards East and parks T4 is exactly in the middle of T2 and T5
his vehicle. 113. How far is T1 from T7 ?
Which of the following figures shows the route covered (A) 8 km (B) 4 km
by him ? (C) 6 km (D) 12 km

Course for NTSE 19 Class 9th

Supplementary Booklet

114. Raju starts from T1 and goes to Mumbai via T3 how much 119. Yash starts moving towards South and walks for 12 m.
distance was covered by Raju if Mumbai 4 km to the Then he takes the left turn and walks for 8 m. Again he
west of T5 ? takes a right turn and walks for 24 m. Now he takes a
(A) 6 km (B) 8 km turn to North-East direction and walks 25 m. From that
(C) 4 km (D) 12 km he takes a turn towards North and walks 20 m. Find the
distance between the start point and the finishing point
115. If Mumbai is located 4 km to the west of T3 how far it
of his movement.
would be form T7 ?
(A) 12 m (B) 15 m
(A) 4 km (B) 12 km
(C) 17 m (D) 25 m
(C) 8 km (D) 6 km
120. Jay starts moving towards South and walks 20 m. Then
Directions (Q. 116 and Q. 117) : In the following figure four
he turns towards South-West direction and walks 25 m.
persons are standing at the four corners of a square piece of
Now he turns to North and walks 44 m. After taking a
plot. Find the correct answer from among the alternatives given
left turn at this point, he walks 2 m. From that he turns to
under each questions.
North and walks 12 m. Now at what distance Jay is
standing from the starting point ?
(A) 25 m (B) 17 m
(C) 15 m (D) 12 m

121. A farmer travels 20 m north from his house. he then turns

east and walks 6 m, from there he again turns south and
walks 12 m. How far is he from his original position ?
116. A starts crossing the field diagonally. After walking half (A) 6 meter (B) 8 meter
the distance he turns right, walks some distance and turns (C) 10 meter (D) 14 meter
left. Which direction is A facing now ?
122. If a man facing east rotates in clockwise directions
(A) North-East (B) North-West
through 45° and later in anticlockwise direction through
(C) South-East (D) South-West
270° then which direction is he facing ?
117. From the original position in the figure, D and B move (A) South-East (B) West
one and a half length of sides clockwise and anticlockwise (C) South-West (D) South
respectively. Which one of the following statement is
123. Meghana travels 10 km towards south, then turns left
true ?
and travels 35 km, again turns left and travels 40 km,
(A) B and D are both at the mid point between A and C
then she turns right and travels 5 km and reaches her
(B) D is at the mid point between A and C, and B at the
workplace to the bank. What is the distance between
corner originally occupied by A
Meghana’s house and bank ?
(C) B and D are both at the midpoint between A and D
(A) 50 km (B) 39 km
(D) B is at the midpoint between A and original position
(C) 40 km (D) 30 km
of D and D at the mid point between originaly
position of B and C 124. Abhijot walks 6 km to the west then he turns to his right
and moves 8 km then he turns to his left and moves 9 km
118. You go north, turn right, then right again and then go the
then turns to right and moves 12 km. Now in which
left. In which direction are you moving now ?
direction is he from his starting point and how far ?
(A) North (B) South
(A) 15 NE (B) 35 NE
(C) East (D) West
(C) 25 NW (D) 45 SE

Course for NTSE 20 Class 9th

 Supplementary Booklet

16. Coding and Decoding 132. In a certain code, VACATE is written as AVACET. How
is LITERATE written in that code ?
125. In a code language CHALK is written as XSZOP, in the (A) ILETRAET (B) ILTEARTE
same code BOARD can be written as : (C) ILTREATE (D) ILETARET
(A) ZLYWI (B) WIZYL
133. In a certain code PAINT is coded RCKPV and STOMP
(C) YLZIW (D) YIZWL
is coded as UVQOR. What will be the code of HELPS?
126. In a code A = 26 ....... Z = 1 if G = 25 and MILK = 83 (A) JGNRU (B) GJNRU
then, find the code for WATER. (C) KONRU (D) JGNSU
(A) 67 (B) 68
Directions (Q. 134 and Q. 135) : If the sentence KEEP AWAY
(C) 92 (D) 93 FROM EXPLOSIVE is written in the code language as ICCN
127. If BANGALORE is coded as 25 N 13 T 26 Y 12 E 22. YUYW DPMK CVNJMQGTC, then in the same code how will
Then S H I M O G A can be written as you write the words given in the following questions.
134. DANGER = ?
(A) 19 U 9 N 15 T 1 (B) 8 S 18 A 12 G 26
(A) CZMFDQ (B) EBOHFS
(C) 19 S 9 A 15 T 1 (D) 8 U 18 Z 12 T 26
(C) BYLECP (D) FCPIGT
Directions (Q. 128 and Q. 139) : The words are given under 135. FLAME = ?
Column-I. Their codes are given under Column-II without (A) DJYKC (B) EKZLD
following the same order as in Column-I. Find the codes for the (C) GMBNF (D) HNCOG
letters of words in Column-I and find the codes for the given 136. In a certain code language if BUSH is written as 58,
words/numbers in the questions. MARK is written as 65, then in the same code how will
Column-I Column-II you write the word PERL ?
CAR 296 (A) 48 (B) 51
MEN 401 (C) 54 (D) 57
ACT 329 137. In a certain code language if SMASH = 30 and DRIVE
TEAM 4132 = 29, then POINT = ?
RUST 7638 (A) 37 (B) 38
SEND 5048 (C) 39 (D) 41
Directions (Q. 138 and Q. 139) : In a certain code language,
128. A S C E N T
the sentence XEROX COPY OF BILL WAS SENT is written
(A) 2 8 9 4 0 3 (B) 6 3 2 0 1 9 as ZGTQZ EQRA QH DKNN YCU YGPV. Using the same
(C) 2 7 9 1 5 2 (D) 4 5 6 8 4 7 code language how will you write the following words ?
129. C U S T A R D 138. WATER = ?
(A) 6 3 5 2 4 7 0 (B) 9 7 8 3 2 6 5 (A) YBUFS (B) YCVGT
(C) 3 6 0 9 3 2 5 (D) 9 8 4 6 2 3 4 (C) EQARR (D) EAVER
139. BLIST = ?
130. 8 2 0 9 3 7 1
(A) DNKOV (B) DNKUQ
(A) N A S C E N T (B) T A N D E M S
(C) DNKVU (D) DNKUV
(C) D E S C A N T (D) S A N C T U M
140. In a certain code language if SCHOOL = 24 and TEACHER
131. In a certain code ROUNDS is written as RONUDS. How
= 20, then in the same code language CLASS = ?
is PLEASE written in that code ?
(A) 14 (B) 16
(A) LPAESE (B) LPAEES
(C) 18 (D) 22
(C) PLAESE (D) PLASEE

Course for NTSE 21 Class 9th

Supplementary Booklet

141. In a certain code language if CAMP is written as 9, then Direction (Q. 146) :
in the same code how will the word TEAM be written ? A > B means “A is husband of B”
(A) 14 (B) 19 A – B means “A is brother of B”
(C) 27 (D) 33 A + B means “A is father of B”
A × B means “A is mother of S”
Directions (Q. 142 and Q. 143) : Using alphabet A to Z in
146. If P > Q × R + S, how is P related to S ? Find the correct
sections of figure I and II a code has been created. First letter in
alternative.
every section is coded according to its shape and the second
(A) P is father of S (B) P is grandfather S
letter is coded using a dot.
(C) P is uncle of S (D) P is brother-in-law of S
e.g., A is code ; M is coded as ;
Direction (Q. 147 to Q. 148) : P, Q, R, S, T, U are six members
of a family. P is son of R and R is the daughter of P, S is the
K is coded as ; P is coded as . daughter of U, who is the mother of T, Q is the spouse of R.
147. How many male members are in the family ?
Figure I Figure II
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4
148. Which of the following pairs represents parents ?
(A) PR (B) RT
(C) QT (D) PU
142. What wil be the code of SMILE ?
149. X is brother of Y. B is brother of Y. X is brother of D but
(A) (B) N is not brother of D. How is Y related to D ?
(C) (D) (A) Sister (B) Brother
(C) Cousin (D) Nephew
143. What will be the code of EUKAR ? 150. Pointing towards a man another man said, he is the son
(A) (B) of my father’s sister. Then what is the relation between
them ?
(C) (D)
(A) Father-son (B) Brother
144. If CH = X, then BJ = ? (C) Cousin (D) Uncle-nephew
(A) T (B) R 151. Sunita’s mother is the only daughter of Ajay’s father. What
(C) V (D) L is the relation of Ajay with Sunita ?
(A) Brother (B) Paternal uncle
17. Blood Relations (C) Maternal uncle (D) Father

145. Q is father of P and S is R’s brother. R is the only daughter 152. Amit is Daya’s brother. Days is the son of Chandra. Vimal
of her mother M. If S is P’s maternal uncle, how are Q is the father of Chandra then how is Amit related to
and R related ? Vimal?
(A) Father and daughter (A) Grandson (B) Grandfather
(B) Brother and Sister (C) Brother (D) Uncle
(C) Husband and Wife 153. A family consisted of a man, his wife, his three sons,
(D) Brother-in-law and sister-in-law their wives and three children in each son’s family. How
many members are there in the family ?
(A) 12 (B) 13
(C) 15 (D) 17

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 Supplementary Booklet

154. Pointing to a lady, a man said “The son of her only brother 160. If the position of the third and tentth letters of the word
is the brother of my wife.” How is the lady related to the DOCUMENTATION are interchanged and likewise the
man ? position of the fourth and seventh letters, the second and
(A) Mother’s sister (B) Grandmother sixth letters is also interchanged, which of the following
(C) Sister of father-in-law (D) Maternal aunt will be eleventh letter from the right end ?
155. Raza said “This girls is the wife of the grandson of my (A) U (B) C
mother”. Who is Raza to the girl ? (C) T (D) I
(A) Father (B) Grandfather 161. In a row of 35 students the place of Bobby is 12th from
(C) Husband (D) Father-in-law the beginning. The place of Ratan is 25th from the end.
How many students are there between Bobby and Ratan?
18. Ranking TTest
est
(A) Zero (None) (B) 1
Direction (Q. 156) : There are five members in a family. The (C) 3 (D) 2
comparison of their ages is as follows :
(i) Anju’s age is twice the age of Rama, but is half the 162. Sara is older than Mala. Gopal is older than Mala but
age of Harsha younger than Sara. Kapil is younger than Ram and Mala.
(ii) Balu’s age is half the age of Rama, but in twice the Mala is older than Ram. Who is the eldest ?
age of Mala. (A) Sara (B) Mala
(C) Kapil (D) Gopal
156. Which of the following pair represents the oldest and
the youngest members in the family ? 163. Harshal is standing at the centre of a row of boys. Ujwal
(A) Anju and Mala (B) Harsha and Balu is eighth to the left of Harshal, Shubham is standing
(C) Balu and Rama (D) Harsha and Mala twenty first of Ujwal, but he is thirteenth to the left of
Kishore. Find the total number of boys standing in a row.
157. A, B, C, D, E and F are six students.
(A) 27 (B) 35
Among them,
(C) 52 (D) 53
1. E is taller than F 2. A is taller than B
3. A is shorter than C 4. D is shorter than F 164. The seven boys Sunil, Anil, Harshal, Shubham, Kishore,
5. B and E are of equal heights Ujwal and Omsai are sitting in a row. Harshal is sitting
Then, which one of the following represents the tallest in between Shubham and Sunil. Kishore is in between
and thes shortest pair of students ? Ujwal and Omsai. Anil is sitting in between Shubham
(A) A and B (B) B and C and Ujwal. Sunil and Omsai are sitting at the two ends.
(C) C and D (D) E and F Then Shubham is between which of the two boys ?
158. P, Q, R, S, T and U are six brothers. Q is young than P, (A) Harshal and Anil (B) Sunil and Anil
but elder than S. T is elder than P. P are U are twins. P is (C) Anil and Kishore (D) Ujwal and Anil
elder than R and Q is young than U. Who is the oldest ? 165. In a row of girls Seema and Reema are ninth from right
(A) S (B) T and tenth from left respectively. If they interchange their
(C) U (D) P positions then Seema and Reema are seventeenth from
159. If the word RECRUITMENT the first letter interchanged right and eighteenth from left respectively. Find the total
with the last letter, the second letter is interchanged with number of girls in the row.
the second last letter and so on. Whhich letter would come (A) 27 (B) 26
after I in the new formed word ? (C) 25 (D) 20
(A) T (B) M
(C) U (D) E

Course for NTSE 23 Class 9th

Supplementary Booklet

Direction (Q. 166 to Q. 168) : A, B, C, D, E and F are six Direction (Q. 172 to Q. 174) :
students in a class. Eight friends A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a
B and C are shorter than F but heavier than A. circular table facing the centre, not necessarily in the same order.
D is heavier than B and faller than C. C is third to the left of E, B is not an immediate neighbour of
E is shorter than D but taller than F. either E or C. H is not an immediate neighbour of E. D is third
F is heavier than D. to the right of B, H is second to the left of A. F is not immediate
A is shorter than E but taller than F. neighbour of H.
166. Who is the tallest ? 172. Who is sitting third to the left of B ?
(A) A (B) B (A) E (B) A
(C) D (D) E (C) G (D) B
167. Who is the lightest ? 173. Which of the following pairs of people correctly
(A) Data inadequate (B) A represents the pair of people who are immediate
(C) B (D) C or D neighbour of H ?
168. Who is third from the top when they are arranged in (A) DC (B) GA
descending order of heights ? (C) AD (D) BG
(A) B (B) C
174. Who is sitting between B and C ?
(C) E (D) A
(A) H (B) F
Direction (Q. 169 to Q. 170) : A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting (C) A (D) G
in a row facing North. F is the immediate right of E. E is 4th to
Direction (Q. 175 to Q. 176) : Six friends A, B, C, D, E, F are
the right of G. C is the neighbour of B and D. Person who is
sitting around a rounmd table. F is sitting in between A and D.
third to the left of D is at one of the ends.
C is sitting in between E and B. E is not sitting between D and
169. Who are to the left of C ?
C. D is at second position to the left of C. Answer the following
(A) Only B (B) G, B and D
questions.
(C) G and B (D) D, E, F and A
175. Who is sitting in between A and C ?
170. Who are the neighbours of B ?
(A) B (B) E
(A) C and G (B) D and G
(C) D (D) Cannot be said
(C) G and F (D) C and E
176. What is the position of D ?
19. Analytic Reasoning (A) Second position to the right A
Direction (Q. 171) : Five friends R, S, T, U and X wore shirts (B) The next to the right of B
of brown, yellow, green, pink and blue colours and shorts of (C) Third position to left of B
white, black, grey, blue and yellow colours. (D) Fourth position in the right of A
No body wore shirt and shorts of same colour.
Direction (Q. 177 and Q. 178) : From the information given
T wore yellow shorts and U wore blue shirt.
below, answer the following question :
The one who wore yellow shirt wore white shorts and one who
(i) A painter knows Hindi.
wore blue shorts wore blue shorts wore pink shirt.
(ii) A farmer, an advocate and a teacher can speak
R wore black shorts and brown shirt.
English fluently.
X did not wear pink shirt.
(iii) Except the teacher, the other three know Gujarati.
171. Who wore black shorts and brown shirt ? (iv) Out of Marathi and Hindi, the advocate and the
(A) T (B) U farmer speak only Marathi, but the teacher can
(C) S (D) X speak both the languages.

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 Supplementary Booklet

177. Who know Marathi as well as Gujarati ? Direction (Q. 184 to Q. 186) : There are five persons P, Q, R, S
(A) Painter and the advocate and T. One is football player, one is chess player and one is
(B) The farmer and the teacher hockey player. P and S are unmarried ladies plays chess or
(C) The advocate and the farmer football. There is a married couple in which T is the husband. Q
(D) The teacher and the painer is the brother of R and is neither a chess player nor a hockey
178. Who knows Hindi but not English ? player.
(A) The farmer (B) The teacher 184. Who is the football player ?
(C) The advocate (D) The painter (A) P (B) Q
Direction (Q. 179 to Q. 180) : Answer the following question (C) R (D) S
based on the information given below : 185. Who is the wife of T ?
(i) Bhanudas, Gopal, Amar, Akhil and Chaitanya each (A) P (B) Q
practice one of the professions farming. Lawyer,
(C) R (D) S
Doctor, Teacher, Photographer.
(ii) Akhil who is richer than Amar and Chaitanya is a 186. Who is the hockey player ?
lawyer. (A) P (B) Q
(iii) Farmer is the richest of all. (C) R (D) S
(iv) Occupation of the poorest is photography.
(v) Amar is a doctor and Gopal is a photographer. 20. Calender and Clock
(vi) Akhil is more richer than Amar but less richer than 187. The Independence Day was celebrated in the year 2016
Bhanudas. Then, on Monday. On what day in 2018 the Republic Day will
179. What is the occupation of Chaitanaya ? be celebrated ?
(A) Lawyer (B) Doctor (A) Tuesday (B) Thursday
(C) Farmer (D) Teacher (C) Friday (D) Saturday

180. Who among the following is farmer ? 188. If 1 January 2012 falls on Sunday, which day will be
(A) Akhil (B) Bhanudas 1 December 2012 ?
(C) Gopal (D) Chaitanaya (A) Sunday (B) Saturday
Direction (Q. 181 to Q. 183) : P, T, V, R, M, D, K and W are (C) Friday (D) Thursday
sitting around a circular table facing the centre. V is second to 189. Which of the following cannot be the first day of a
the left of T. T is fourth to the right of M. D and P are not century?
immediate neighbours of T. D is third to the right of P. W is not (A) Monday (B) Tuesday
an immediate neighbour of P. P is to the immediate left of K. (C) Wednesday (D) Thursday
181. Who is second to the left of K ?
190. A clock is set right at 5 am. The clock loses 16 minutes
(A) P (B) R
in 24 hours. What will be the true time when the lock
(C) M (D) W
indicates 10 pm on 4th day ?
182. What is R’s position with respect to V ?
(A) 9 pm (B) 10 pm
(A) Third to the right (B) Fifth to the right
(C) 11 pm (D) 12 pm
(C) Third to the left (D) Second to the left
183. Who is sitting second to the right of the one who is sitting 191. Which of the following anges is made between the two
on the immediate right W ? numbers of a clock ?
(A) U (B) R (A) 40° (B) 30°
(C) V (D) P (C) 20° (D) 10°

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Supplementary Booklet

192. If the 5th February was Dunday, how many Mondays 202. Arrange the following properly and choose the proper
were there in that month ? combination of sequence from given 4 options.
(A) 3 (B) 4 (1) Diwali (2) Independence day
(C) 5 (D) None of these (3) Christmas (4) Republic day
193. If today is Monday. After 61 days it will be (5) Holi
(A) Wednesday (B) Saturday (A) (1),(3),(5),(2) and (4) (B) (4),(5),(2),(1) and (3)
(C) Thursday (D) Tuesday (C) (2),(4),(1),(5) and (3) (D) (4),(5),(1), (2) and (3)
194. Last day of a century cannot be 203. If 4th day of any month was Sunday, what will be the day
(A) Monday (B) Friday
one 27th day of the same month ?
(C) Tuesday (D) Sunday
(A) Monday (B) Tuesday
195. If today is Sunday, after 90 days it will be (C) Wednesday (D) Saturday
(A) Friday (B) Saturday
(C) Sunday (D) Monday 204. If 3rd January, 2004 was Monday what will be the day
on 5th April, 2004 ?
196. If the 2nd September 2016 was Friday, how many Friday
were there in the month ? (A) Wednesday (B) Monday
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) Sunday (D) Tuesday
(C) 5 (D) None of these 205. If 14th July of 1995 was Friday, then what was the day
197. ‘Environment Day’ falls on Thursday, then on which day on 30th March of 1994 ?
‘Children’s Day’ will fall in the same year ? (A) Sunday (B) Monday
(A) Friday (B) Saturday (C) Tuesday (D) Wednesday
(C) Sunday (D) Monday
206. If 4 days before today it was Monday, what day will it
198. Shrushti, born on 17th May, celebrates her birthday on
fall on after 3 days ?
Thursday in the year 2007. Again which year her birthday
will come on Thursday ? (A) Sunday (B) Monday
(A) 2011 (B) 2012 (C) Tuesday (D) Wednesday
(C) 2013 (D) 2014
21. Water Images
Water
199. Kiran was born on 12th September this year. Soham is 207. Choose the water image of the ‘Question Figure’ from
12 days younger to Kiran. In the same month Kiran’s the given alternatives.
birthday was celebrated on Friday. What is the birthday Question Figure.
of Soham ?
(A) Wednesday (B) Sunday
(C) Saturday (D) Monday
200. At 3.40 am, the hour hand the minute hand of a clock
from an angle of
(A) 120° (B) 125°
(C) 135° (D) 130°
201. It was 9:35 am by Sachin’s watch, which kept correct (A) (B)
time, when Abhinoor informed him that he last bus left
the bus stop at 9:25 am, Abhinoor’s watch is 5 minutes
fast. The frequency of the bus is every 20 minutes. For
how long must Sachin wait to catch the next bus ?
(C) (D)
(A) 15 minutes (B) 10 minutes
(C) 25 minutes (D) 215 minutes

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 Supplementary Booklet

208. Choose the water image of the ‘Question Figure’ from Directions (Q. 214 to Q. 215) :
the alternatives given below :
Find the correct water image of the given figure.
Question Figure.
214. Question-figure.

(A) (B)

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

215. Question-figure
720
(C) (D) (A) (B)
(C) (D)
Directions (Q. 209 to Q. 211) : Choose the alternative which
22. Mirror Images
most closely resembles the water image of the given
combination. Directions (Q. 216 to Q. 219) : Find the correct mirror images
209. NUCLEAR of the following problem figures choosing from the alternatives.
(A) (B) 216. Problem figures
(C) (D)
210. D6Z7F4
(A) (B)
(C) (D)

211. FAMILY
(A) (B)
(C) (D)

212. The water image of the figure is (A) (B)

(A) (B)

(C) (D) (C) (D)

213. The water image of the given figure is

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

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Supplementary Booklet

217. 219.

(A) (B) (A) (B)

(C) (D) (C) (D)

Directions (Q. 220 to Q. 221) : Find the correct mirror image

from the alternatives.

218.

220.

(A)

(A)

(B)

(B)

(C)
(C)

(D) (D)

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 Supplementary Booklet

Directions (Q. 224 to Q. 226) : Choose the correct mirror image

of the given figure (X) from amongst the four alternatives.

221.

224.

(A) (B)

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

(C) (D)
222. Find the mirror image of the word ‘PIONEER;

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

223. Choose the correct mirror image of the question figure

from the alternative given below : 225.
Question figure :

(A) (B)

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

(C) (D)

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Supplementary Booklet

226. 229.

(A) (B)
(A) (B)

(C) (D)
(C) (D)

23. Cubes and Dice

Directions (Q. 227 to Q. 229) : 230. When the given figure is folded into a cube, which one
Find the correct mirror image of the given figure. of the following cubes will be formed ?

227.

(A) (B)

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

(C) (D)

231. Few bricks are arranged as shown in the following figure.

228.
How many bricks are unseen (that is hidden backside) in
the figure.

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

(A) 9 (B) 8
(C) 7 (D) 6

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 Supplementary Booklet

232. Difference faces of a cube are given below. Identify the 234. How many cubes shall have only one colour ?
pairs of opposite faces from the alternatives. (A) 20 (B) 22
(C) 18 (D) 16

235. How many cubes have all the three colours ?

(A) 10 (B) 12
(C) 8 (D) 6

236. How many cubes shall not have any colour ?

(A) 6 (B) 8
(C) 10 (D) 12

(A) 1, 2; 3, 4; 5, 6 (B) 1, 3; 2, 4; 5, 6 237. How many cubes shall have only two colours white and
(C) 1, 3; 2, 6; 4, 6 (D) 1, 6; 2, 5; 4, 3 yellow on their two sides ?
(A) 10 (B) 14
233. When the given figure is folded into a cube, which one (C) 16 (D) 12
of the cubes will be formed? Identify from the
alternatives. Direction (Q. 238) : Question 238 is based on various faces of
a cube, six sides of cube are numbered 1 to 6. Study the faces
and answer the question.

238. Which number is on opposite of 1 ?

(A) 3 (B) 4
(C) 5 (D) 6
Direction (Q. 239 and Q. 240) : 64 cubes of same size are
(A) (B)
arranged according to the figure given below. These cubes are
painted from outside. Observe the figure and answer the
following questions.
(C) (D)

Directions (Q. 234 to Q. 237) :

Read the following information and answer the question 234-

237 based on it.
(i) The length, breadth and height of a rectangular piece of
wood are 4 cm, 3 cm and 5 cm respectively.
(ii) Opposite sides of 5 cm × 4 cm are coloured in white.
(iii) Opposite sides of 4 cm × 3 cm are coloured in black.
(iv) Rest 5 cm × 3 cm are coloured in yellow in both sides.
(v) Now the block is cut in such a way that a cube 1 cm × 239. How many cubes have two sides coloured ?
1 cm × 1 cm will be made. (A) 4 (B) 8
(C) 12 (D) 24

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Supplementary Booklet

240. How many cubes have no side painted ? 244. Which of the following signs will not be adjacent to
(A) 0 (B) 4 ?
(C) 8 (D) 12
(A) (B)
Directions (Q. 241 to Q. 242) : The figure given below is folded
(C) (D)
to form a cube. Observe the figure and answer the questions
given ahead. 245. The following figure is folded to form a cube. Observe
the cube. Of the following cube figures find, the most
appropriate figure.

241. Of the following cube figures, find the most relevant

figure.

(A) (B) (A) (B)

(C) (D)
(C) (D)
242. Which sign will be there on the opposite surface of the
sign ‘>’ ? Directions (Q. 246 to Q. 247) : Three positions of a cube are
(A) – (B) + shown in figure. Observe the colours and answer the following
(C) × (D) < questions.

Directions (Q. 243 to Q. 244) : The following figure is folded

to form a cube. Observe the figure and answer the following
questions.

246. Which coloured surface is opposite to red coloured

243. Find out which alternative from the following will
surface?
represent the given cube correctly ?
(A) Blue (B) Orange
(C) Yellow (D) White
(A) (B)
247. Which coloured surface is opposite to yellow coloured
surface ?
(C) (D) (A) White (B) Red
(C) Orange (D) Green

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 Supplementary Booklet

Directions (Q. 248 to Q. 249) : In the following figure small Directions (Q. 252 to Q. 256) : Each forms a group with similar
cubes are arranged in a particular manner as shown. Observe except one. Find the different one.
the arrangement and answer the following questions.

252. (A) (B)

(C) (D)

253. (A) (B)

248. What is the total number of small cubes ?

(A) 52 (B) 49 (C) (D)
(C) 47 (D) 45
249. What is the total number of blocks whose only three
surrfaces are seen ? 254. (A) (B)
(A) 12 (B) 13
(C) 14 (D) 15
(C) (D)
24. Classification (Non-Verbal)
(Non-V
Directions (Q. 250 to Q. 251) : Find the figure which is similar
to the problem figure, choosing from the given alternatives.
255. (A) (B)

250.
(C) (D)

(A) (B)

256. (A)

(C) (D)

(B)

251.
(C)

(A) (B)

(D)

(C) (D)

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Supplementary Booklet

Direction (Q. 257 to Q. 258) : Find the odd figure out.

261.

257. (A) (B)

(A) (B)

(C) (D)
(C) (D)

258. (A) (B) 262.

(A) (B)
(C) (D)
(C) (D)

259. Find the odd figure out.

263.
(A) (B)

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

25. Series (Non-Verbal)

(Non-V (C) (D)

Directions (Q. 260 to Q. 265) : Choose the next figure in the

following.

264.

260.

(A) (B)

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(C) (D)

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 Supplementary Booklet

270.
265.

(A) (B)
(A) (B)
(C) (D)

(C) (D)

266. Find the wrong figure in the given series. 271.

(A) (B)
(A) (2) (B) (3)
(C) (4) (D) (5)

Directions (Q. 267 to Q. 271) : Choose a correct option to

(C) (D)
complete the following pattern.

267. Directions (Q. 272 to Q. 274) : In each of the following, question

figures change in a particular order. Find out the correct figure
Answer figures from the alternatives which will replace the question
mark ?
(A) (B)

(C) (D) 272.

268.
(A) (B)
(A) (B)

(C) (D) (C) (D)

269.

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

Course for NTSE 35 Class 9th

Supplementary Booklet

273. 276.

(A) (B)
(A) (B)

(C) (D)
(C) (D)

274. 277.

(A) (B) (A) (B)

(C) (D)
(C) (D)

26. Analogy (Non-Verbal)

(Non-V
Directions (Q. 275 to Q. 280) : Choose a figure which has same
relation with figure on right of ‘ ’ as pair of figures have on 278.
left of ‘ ’

(A) (B)

275. (C) (D)

279.
(A) (B)

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

(C) (D)

Course for NTSE 36 Class 9th

 Supplementary Booklet

283.
280.

(A) (B)

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

(C) (D) Directions (Q. 284 to Q. 286) : The first two figures bear a
definite relation with each other. Bearing that relation in mind
pickup the fourth figure from the answer figures.
Directions (Q. 281 to Q. 283) : In the problem figures in each
question there is a definite relationship between the first two 284.
figure. From the set of four answer figures given, find the figure
that would establish the same relationship between the next two
figures. (A) (B)

(C) (D)
281.

285.

(A) (B) (A) (B)

(C) (D)

286.
(C) (D)
(A) (B)

(C) (D)

282. Directions (Q. 287 to Q. 290) : There are two shapes in first
part of the question. Second part of the question contains only
one shape, choose 4th shape from answer shapes.
(A) (B) 287. Question shapes

Answer shapes
(C) (D)
(A) (B)

(C) (D)

Course for NTSE 37 Class 9th

Supplementary Booklet

288. Question shapes Directions (Q. 293 to Q. 295) : Identify the number of specified
geometric shapes in the given diagrams and mark the correct
answers.
Answer shapes 293. How many trapeziums are in the given figure ?

(A) (B)

(C) (D) (A) 21 (B) 22

(C) 24 (D) 25
290. Question shapes
294. How many squares are in the given figure ?

Answer shapes

(A) (B)
(A) 13 (B) 15
(C) 17 (D) 19
(C) (D)
295. How many rhombus are in the give figure ?

27. Diagrammatical Puzzles

Puzzles
291. How many rectangles are in the given figure ?
(A) 8 (B) 9
(C) 10 (D) 11

Directions (Q. 296 to Q. 297) : Identify the number of specific

(A) 6 (B) 8 geometric shapes in the given diagrams and mark the correct
(C) 10 (D) 11 answers.
296. How many triangles are there in the given figures ?
292. How many semicircles are in the given figure ?

(A) 15 (B) 14
(C) 13 (D) 11

297. How many quadrilaterals are there in the given figure ?

(A) 20 (B) 18
(C) 16 (D) 14

(A) 7 (B) 8
(C) 9 (D) 10

Course for NTSE 38 Class 9th

 Supplementary Booklet

298. Find the number of triangles in the given figure. 303. Find the number of parallelograms which are not
rectangles from the given figure.
(A) 4 (B) 6
(C) 9 (D) More than 9

(A) 32 (B) 40 Directions (Q. 304 to Q. 305) : Observe the following figure
(C) 48 (D) 44 and answer the following questions by choosing the correct
alternative given below.
299. Count the number of squares in the given figure.

(A) 13 (B) 15
304. Find the number of rectangles which are not squares.
(C) 16 (D) 17
(A) 16 (B) 21
300. How many triangles are there in the following figure ? (C) 24 (D) 28

305. How many squares are there in the figure ?

(A) 0 (B) 3
(C) 10 (D) 13
(A) 8 (B) 12
(C) 14 (D) 16 28. Miscellaneous
301. How many squares are there in the figure below ? Directions (Q. 306 to Q. 309) : Find the missing number in the
given questions.

306.

(A) 14 (B) 16
(C) 10 (D) 20

Directions (Q. 302 to Q. 303) : Observe the following figure

and answer the following questions by choosing the correct
alternatives given below. (A) 12 (B) 9
(C) 8 (D) 7

307.

302. Find the number of equilateral triangles in the given

figure. (A) 71 (B) 89
(A) 32 (B) 18 (C) 98 (D) 99
(C) 5 (D) 0

Course for NTSE 39 Class 9th

Supplementary Booklet

312.
308.

(A) 4 (B) 5
(C) 7 (D) 9
(A) 10 (B) 8
(C) 6 (D) 4 Directions (Q. 313 to Q. 314) : In the following questions find
the missing letters in the given pattern.

309.

(A) 6 (B) 15
(C) 17 (D) 19

310. Find the missing letter in the given figure.

313. Find the missing letter in the third column.
(A) V (B) S
(C) P (D) M
314. Find the missing letters in the second row.
(A) Q, H (B) R, I
(C) U, M (D) V, N

315. A, B, C, D and E are the members of a family.

(A) U (B) W
(C) T (D) V 1
(i) The present age of A is 1 times that of B.
2
Directions (Q. 311 to Q. 312) : (ii) B is twice the age of C.
(iii) C is B year older than D.
In the questions below the numbers in the figures are related.
1
Identify their relationship and find the missing numbers in the (iv) D is 1 times the age of E.
2
given figures.
If the present age of E is 10 years, then find the difference
between the ages of B and D.
(A) 48 years (B) 41 years
(C) 31 years (D) 28 years
311.
316. In a group of letters, “APDVGHNERM” the order of the
letters is interchanged as follows :
(A) 108 (B) 96 1st and 3rd 2nd and 5th
(C) 84 (D) 60 4th and 7th 6th and 9th
8th and 10th
Find the new group of letters formed from the alternatives.
(A) GNDAVPMEHR (B) DGANPRVMHE
(C) DNAGPVRHME (D) VGNADRPEMH

Course for NTSE 40 Class 9th

 Supplementary Booklet

317. 321.

(A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 4 (D) 5

Directions (Q. 322 to Q. 324) :

On the basis of following arrangement given answer.

185947125836592764529264123514283
(A) 400, 175 (B) 300, 150 322. Which digit is the 5th left of 12th from left ?
(C) 200, 100 (D) 200, 80 (A) 3 (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) 7

323. How many 5 are there in the arrangement immediate after

which is the digit smaller than 5 ?
318.
(A) None (B) One
(C) Two (D) Three

324. How many 4 are there having an even number immediate

before it and odd number immediate after it ?
(A) None (B) One
(C) Two (D) Three

Directions (Q. 325 to Q. 326) : On the basis of following

(A) 4 (B) 5 arrangement given answer.
(C) 6 (D) 7 7, 8, 9, 7, 6, 5, 3, 4, 2, 8, 9, 7, 2, 4, 5, 9, 2, 9, 7, 6, 4, 7

Directions (Q. 319) : In the given sequence how many times an 325. How many 7s are preceded by 9 and followed by 6 ?
ODD number appears between an ODD number and an EVEN (A) 2 (B) 3
number ? (C) 4 (D) 5
319. 5 3 6 9 7 6 5 5 4 1 3 8 7 3 7 4 4 5 326. Which figure has equal frequency ?
(A) 6 (B) 7 (A) 2, 5, 3 (B) 2, 4, 5
(C) 8 (D) 9 (C) 3, 7, 5 (D) 8, 6, 5
Directions (Q. 320 to Q. 321) : The numerals are given on the
327. Which is correct missing letter ?
basis of some rule and one space is marked by (?). Find the
correct answer from the four alternative to replace the questions
mark.

320.
(A) P (B) R
(A) 15 (B) 20 (C) S (D) V
(C) 23 (D) 40

Course for NTSE 41 Class 9th

Supplementary Booklet

328. What is (?) missing number ? Direction (Q. 332) :

In the following table, replace the quetion mark by choosing

the correct alternative given below.

(A) 38 (B) 39
(C) 40 (D) 44 332.

329. (A) 48 (B) 57

(C) 67 (D) 83
(A) 12 (B) 14
333. If 1000 cats kill 100 mice in 1000 days, then in how
(C) 15 (D) 16
many days 10 cats would kill 10 mice ?
(A) 1000 (B) 100
(C) 10 (D) 1
330.

(A) 89 (B) 97
334.
(C) 132 (D) 178

Directions (Q.331) : (A) 35 (B) 29

In the following example one number in each row is in bracket (C) 39 (D) 37
numbers outside the bracket have some specific relation with 335. Arrange the following words according to dictionary
the number inside the bracket. Find the relation and replace the arrangement
question. (1) Eagle (2) Earth
(3) Eager (4) Early
(5) Each
(A) (1), (5), (2), (4) and (3)
331.
(B) (2), (1), (4), (3) and (5)
(C) (2), (3), (5), (4) and (1)
(D) (5), (3), (1), (4) and (2)
(A) 17 (B) 19
(C) 35 (D) 38

Course for NTSE 42 Class 9th

 Supplementary Booklet

Supplementary Booklet | Class IX

Physics

[Level - 1]
1. Force and Pressure
1. Relation between mass of body and its weight is 8. 1 newton = _________ dyne
(A) w = mg (B) w = m/g (A) 103 (B) 104
(C) g = m – v (D) w = m + g (C) 105 (D) 106

2. Unit of pressure in S.I. system is 2. Sound

(A) kelvin (B) pascal
9. Voice of which of the following is likely to have maximum
(C) newton (D) calorie
frequency ?
3. An apple falls from a tree because of gravitation (A) Man (B) Cow
between the earth and apple. If F1 is the magnitude of (C) Bird (D) Dog
force exerted by the earth on the apple and F2 is the 10. Velocity of sound is maximum in
magnitude of force exerted by apple on earth, then (A) Water (B) Oil
(A) F1 is very much greater than F2 (C) Air (D) Iron
(B) F2 is very much greater than F1
11. If the velocity of a wave is 400 m/sec and frequency is
(C) F1 is only a little greater than F2
100 Hz, then wavelength of the wave is _______.
(D) F1 and F2 are equal
(A) 6 m (B) 2.8 m
4. If the mass of the body on the surface of the earth is 50 (C) 3 m (D) 4 m
kg, its mass at the centre of the earth is 12. Frequency of Ultrasonic waves is
(A) Zero (B) More than 50 kg (A) Less than 20,000 Hz
(C) Less than 50 kg (D) Equal to 50 kg (B) Greater than 20,000 Hz
(C) Less than 20 Hz
5. The atmospheric pressure at the surface of earth is
(D) 1000 Hz
about.
(A) 103 N/m2 (B) 105 N/m2 13. A particle in a medium cmpletes 20 vibrations in 2.5
(C) 10–3 N/m2 (D) 10–5 N/m2 seconds. The frequency of wave is
(A) 20 Hz (B) 200 Hz
6. The pressure exerted on the ground by a man is
(C) 50 Hz (D) 8 Hz
maximum when
14. Decibel is
(A) He stands with both feet flat on ground
(A) A sound apparatus
(B) He stands flat on one foot
(B) A sound tone
(C) He stands on the toes of one foot
(C) The unit of intensity of sound
(D) All the above yield the same pressure
(D) The wavelength of noise
7. The S.I. unit of pressure is 15. Sound travels faster in
(A) N.m2 (B) N/m2 (A) Water (B) Steel
(C) m2/N (D) N/m (C) Wood (D) Air

Course for NTSE 43 Class 9th

Supplementary Booklet

16. Sound corresponding to which frequency is ultrasonic 4. Some Natural Phenomena

sound ?
25. Out of the following the best safety measure against
(A) 30 Hz (B) 300 Hz
lighting strikes is
(C) 3000 Hz (D) 30,000 Hz
(A) Stand on the terrace of a building
17. In which of the following media, the speed of sound (B) Take shelter under a tree
will be maximum ? (C) Run across an open high ground
(A) Glass (B) Ethanol (D) Take shelter inside a metal box
(C) Air (D) Vacuum
26. Lighting conductor is made of
18. The characteristic of sound that would result in an (A) Iron (B) Copper
increase in loudness of a sound is (C) Tin (D) Wood
(A) Amplitude (B) Speed
27. Earthquake waves are of which type ?
(C) Pitch (D) Quality
(A) Infrasonic (B) Ultrasonic
19. A sound wave has a frequency of 2 kHz and wavelength (C) Supersonic (D) Intrasonic
35 cm. How much distance it will travel in 2 seconds.
28. A comb run through one’s dry hair attracts small bits
(A) 1.4 m (B) 14 m
of paper. This is due to
(C) 140 m (D) 1400 m
(A) Comb is a good conductor
20. In air the speed of sound is 340 m/s. The means that in (B) Paper is a good conductor
one second : (C) The atoms in the paper gets polarised by the
(A) Sound source moves 340 m charged comb
(B) Listener moves 340 m (D) The comb possesses magnetic properties
(C) Air disturbance moves 340 m
(D) Air moves 340 m 5. Light
29. A convex spherical mirror is considered as a suitable
21. The time period of hour needle of clock is
rear view mirror for automobiles, because
(A) 1 hour (B) 24 hour
(A) It always produces virtual, erect and diminished
(C) 6 hour (D) 12 hour
images
22. The frequency of a source of sound is 50 Hz. How (B) It always produces real, erect and magnified
many times does it vibrate in one minute ? images
(A) 50 (B) 300 (C) It always produces real, inverted and diminished
(C) 3000 (D) 30000 images
(D) It always produces virtual, inverted and
23. Unit of frequency is
magnified images
(A) Cycle/sec2 (B) Cycle/sec3
(C) Cycle/sec4 (D) Hertz 30. In the human eye, the opaque diaphragm behind the
cornea is called the
3. Chemical Effects of Electric Current (A) Choroids (B) Iris
24. Which of the following is not a use of electrolysis (C) Retina (D) Lens
(A) Electroplanting 31. A _____ eye canot distinctly see the objects that are
(B) Printing too near.
(C) Purification of metals (A) Myopic (B) Presbyopic
(D) Photography (C) Hypermetropic (D) Heterophoria

Course for NTSE 44 Class 9th

 Supplementary Booklet

32. A myopic eye can be corrected by using a

(A) Convex lens (B) Concave lens
(C) Plane mirror (D) Cylindrical lens

33. Which of the following statement is correct ?

(A) A person with myopia can see nearby objects
(C)
clearly
(B) A person with hypermetropia can see nearby
objects clearly
(C) A person with myopia can see distant objects
clearly
(D) A person with hypermetropia can not see distant
objects clearly

34. The part of eye which changes in focal length of eye

(D)
lens
(A) Iris (B) Cornea
(C) Pupil (D) Ciliary muscles

35. The human eye can focus objects at different distances 37. To correct the defect Myopia or near sightedness, we
by adjusting the focal length of the eye-lens. This is have use
due to (A) Convex lens (B) Concave lens
(A) Presbyopia (B) Near-sightedness (C) Plane glass (D) None of these
(C) Accomodation (D) Far-sightedness
38. The image of an object in human eye is formed at
36. Which are of the following correctly depicts reflection (A) Cornea (B) Iris
when two mirrors are inclined at an angle of 50° ? (C) Pupil (D) Retina

39. If an object moves toards or away a plane with a

velocity v then the image will approach or recede with
velocity.
(A) v (B) 2v
(A) (C) 3v (D) 4v

6. Stars and The Solar System

40. Titan is the largest moon or satellite of
(A) Mars (B) Venus
(C) Jupiter (D) Saturn

41. Which one of the following is not star ?

(A) Sun (B) Moon
(B)
(C) Big Bear (D) Libra

42. The first artificial satellite was

(A) Sputnik-1 (B) Explorer-1
(C) Arybhatta (D) Luna-3

Course for NTSE 45 Class 9th

Supplementary Booklet

43. The evidence cited b the scientists for the continued 51. What are the names of the two Moons of the Mars ?
expansion of universe is (A) Titan and Sheron (B) Titan and Deimos
(A) Movement of asteroids in space (C) Phobos and Deimos (D) Sheron and Phobos
(B) Occurence of supernova explosion in space 52. A clestial object having huge amount of matter
(C) Observation of red-shift phenomenon in space compressed into a very small region with intense
(D) Appearance of flying saucers gravitational field is
44. The stages of evolution of sun like stars in proper order is (A) Black Hole (B) Neutron star
(A) Protostar-Steady state-Red giant-Planetary (C) Pulsars (D) Quasars
nebula-White dwarf
(B) Protostar-Red giant-Steady state-White dwarf- [Level - 2]
Planetary nebula 7. Motion
(C) Protostar-Planetary nebula-Red giant-Steady 1. If the displacement-time graph for the motion of a car
state-White dwarf is parallel to the time axis, the velocity of that car is
(D) Protostar-Steady state-Red giant-White dwarf- (A) Constant but not zero
Planetary nebula (B) Zero
(C) Infinite
45. Angle of elevation of pole star observed from any
(D) Linearly increasing
where on the Earth is approximately equal to
(A) Longitude of the place 2. The area under velocity-time graph gives
(B) Latitude of that place (A) Acceleration (B) Distance
(C) Constant (C) Displacement (D) Velocity
(D) Both longitude and latitude 3. Two objects having mass in 1 : 4 ratio are dropped
46. Between which two planets the orbit of series lies from the same height. The relation between their
(A) Earth-Mars (B) Venus-Earth velocity when they strike the ground is
(C) Mars-Jupiter (D) Jupiter-Saturn (A) Both objects will have the same velocity
(B) The velocity of the first object is twice4 that of
47. Biggest planet of the solar system is the second one
(A) Mercury (B) Saturn (C) The velocity of the 2nd object is one fourth of
(C) Jupiter (D) Uranus that of the 1st object
48. Indian Regional Navigation Statellite System (IRNSS) (D) The velocity of the 2nd object is 4 times that of
has a grup of _________ satellites. the 1st one
(A) 3 (B) 5 4. A velocity-time graph for a moving object is shown
(C) 7 (D) 9 below. What would be the total displacement during
time t = 0 to t = 6 s ?
49. Tail of a comet points away from the sun due to
(A) Gravitational force
(B) Electrical force
(C) Attraction of comet due to other planet
(D) Radiation pressure

50. How many planets are there in our solar system ?

(A) 5 (B) 7 (A) 10 m (B) 20 m
(C) 9 (D) 8 (C) 2.5 m (D) 0.0 m

Course for NTSE 46 Class 9th

 Supplementary Booklet

5. The velocity-time graph a body falling from rest under 7. The acceleration versus time graph of an object is as
gravity and rebounding from a solid surface is shown in figure. The corresponding velocity-time
represented by graph of the object is

(A)

(A)

(B)

(B)

(C)
(C)

(D)

(D)
8. The graph below describes the motion of a ball
rebounding from a horizontal surface being released
from a point above the surface
6. A bullet of mass 10 g travelling horizontally with a
velocity of 160 ms –1 strikes a stationary wooden block
and comes to rest in 0.02 s. The distance of penetration
of the bullet into the block will be
(A) 1.20 m (B) 1.60 m
(C) 2.00 m (D) 2.40 m The quantity represented in the y-axis is the ball’s
(A) Displacement (B) Velocity
(C) Acceleration (D) Momentum

Course for NTSE 47 Class 9th

Supplementary Booklet

9. The figure below shows the position of a ball at t = 0, t 10. The graph shows the position as a function of time for
= 1, t = 2 s, t = 3 s and t = 4 s two trains A and B running on parallel tracks. For time
greater than t = 0, which of the following statements is
true ?

Which of the graph below is a possible graph of the

position x(t) ?

(A) At time tB, both trains have the same velocity

(B) Both trains speed up all the time
(C) Both trains may have the same velocity at some
(A) time earlier than tB
(D) Graph indicates that both trains have the same
acceleration at a given time

11. The figure shown below depicts the distance travelled

by a body as a function of time.

(B)

(C)

The average speed and maximum speed between 0 and

20 s are
(A) 1 m/s, 2.0 m/s respectively
(B) 1 m/s, 1.6 m/s respectively
(C) 2.0 m/s, 2.6 m/s respectively
(D) 1.3 m/s, 2.0 m/s respectively
(D)
12. Correct relation is
(A) v2 = u2 + 2a2s2 (B) v2 = u2 – 2a2s2
(C) v2 = u2 + 2as (D) v2 = u2 + 2a2s

Course for NTSE 48 Class 9th

 Supplementary Booklet

13. A small ball is dropped from a balloon moving vertically 18. A ball is dropped from the top of a tower of height 100
up at a speed 10 m/s when the balloon is at a height 15 m. Simultaneously, another ball was thrown of 50 m/s
m from the ground. Neglect air friction and take g = 10 (g = 10 m/s2). These two balls would cross each other
m/s2. Which of the following is not suitable to the after a time
present situation ? (A) 1 second (B) 2 seconds
(A) The ball reaches the ground in 3 s (C) 3 seconds (D) 4 seconds
(B) The ball covers a distance of 25 m
19. A body falling from rest describes distances S1, S2 and
(C) The magnitude of average velocity of the ball is
S3 is the first, second and their seconds of its fall. Then
8.33 m/s
the ratio of S1 : S2 : S3 is
(D) The ball moves up at a speed 10 m/s at an instant
(A) 1 : 1 : 1 (B) 1 : 3 : 5
when it is dropped from the balloon
(C) 1 : 2 : 3 (D) 1 : 4 : 9
14. A body covers half the distance with a speed of 20 and
20. A body starts from rest at time t = 0, the acceleration
the other half with 30 m/s. The average speed of the
time graph is shown in figure. The maximum velocity
body during the whole journey is
attained by the body will be
(A) Zero (B) 24 m/s
(C) 25 m/s (D) None of these

15. A person standing on the floor of a lift drops a coin.

The coin reaches the floor of the lift in a time t1 if the
lift is stationary and in time t2 if its moving uniformly.
Then
(A) t1 = t2
(B) t1 < t2
(C) t1 > t2
(A) 110 m/s (B) 55 m/s
(D) t1 < t2 or t1 > t2 depending on whether the lift is
(C) 650 m/s (D) 550 m/s
going up or down
21. A car is moving with a constant speed of 70 km/h.
16. A body is dropped from a 100 m high cliff and at the
Which of the following statements is correct ?
same time another body is thrown from the ground with
(A) The acceleration of the car is definitely zero
25 m/s velocity in upward direction. Where the two
(B) The car has an acceleration only if it is moving
will meet ? [Take g = 10 m/s2]
along a curved path
(A) 50 m (B) 40 m
(C) The car may have an acceleration even if it is
(C) 20 m (D) 10 m
moving along a straight path
17. A balloon which is ascending at the rate of 12 m/s is (D) The car may not have an acceleration even if it
30.4 metre above the ground, when a stone is dropped. is moving along a curved path
After what time the stone will reach the ground ? [Take
22. The distance travelled by a body falling freely from
g = 9.8 m/s2]
rest in 2nd, 3rd and 5th second of its motion are in the
(A) 3 s (B) 3.5 s
ratio
(C) 4 s (D) 6 s
(A) 7 : 5 : 3 (B) 3 : 5 : 9
(C) 5 : 3 : 7 (D) 5 : 7 : 3

Course for NTSE 49 Class 9th

Supplementary Booklet

23. Two extremes ends of a moving train (engine and guard

coach) pass a pole with speeds U and V respectively
with a constant acceleration. The speed with which
the middle point of the train will pass the same pole (C)
2 2
U+V V +U
(A) (B)
2 2

UV U 2 + V2
(C) (D)
2 2

24. An athlete completes one round of circular track of (D)

radius r in 30 s with uniform speed. The ratio of
distance to the displacement travelled by the athlete at
the end of 45 s is 26. A body starts from rest at t = 0, the acceleration time
graph. The distance travelled by the body from t = 4 s
2
(A) 2r (B) r to t = 8 s will be
3
3
(C) π (D) 2π
2

25. Acceleration time graph of a body is shown below :

(A) 0 m (B) 16 m
(C) 32 m (D) 64 m

27. Which of the following situation is not possible ?

Which of the following velocity time graph of the same (A) An object moving in certain direction with an
body ? acceleration in perpendicular direction
(B) An object moving with constant acceleration but
zero velocity
(C) An object moving with variable speed and
uniform velocity
(A)
(D) None of these

28. A ball thrown vertically upward returns to the thrower

after 6 s. The ball is 5 m below the highest point at t =
2 s. The time at which the body will be at same position,
(take g = 10 m/s2)
(A) 2.5 s (B) 3 s
(B) (C) 4 s (D) 5 s

Course for NTSE 50 Class 9th

 Supplementary Booklet

29. A particle starts its motion from rest under the action
of a constant force. If the distance covered in first 10 s
is S1 and that covered in first 20 s is S2 then
(A) S2 = S1 (B) S2 = 2S1
(C) S2 = 3S1 (D) S2 = 4S1

30. The under given position versus time graph describes (A)
which of the given options

(B)
(A) From t = 0 sec to t = 5 sec the object accelerates
and then it decelerates
(B) From t = 0 sec to t = 5 sec the object decelerates
and then it accelerates
(C) From t = 0 sec to t = 5 sec it travels with uniform
velocity and then travels with non-uniform
velocity
(D) From t = 0 sec to t = 5 sec it travels with non-
uniform velocity and then travels with uniform
velocity
(C)
31. A teacher assigned a job of coverting position (vs) time
graph into velocity (vs) time graph. All the four Meera,
Meena, Trisha and Akshaya plotted the graphs as under.
The prson to give the correct answer is

(D)

Course for NTSE 51 Class 9th

Supplementary Booklet

32. A balloon is moving up from the grond in such a way 36. A stone is dropped from the top of a tower with zero
that its acceleration is linearly decreasing with its height initial velocity. It reaches the ground in 4 second. Then
above the ground. It starts from the ground with the height of the tower is (g = 9.8 ms–2)
acceleration 4 m/s2 and with zero initial velocity. Its (A) 176.4 m (B) 78.4 m
acceleration becomes zero at a height 3 m. The speed (C) 39.2 m (D) 384.1 m
of the balloon at a height 1.5 m is
(A) 4 m/s (B) 8 m/s 37. The velocity-time graph which represents a body is
(C) 6 m/s (D) 3 m/s moving with zero-acceleration is

33. An ant runs from an ant-hill in a straight line so that its

velocity is inversely proportional to the distance from
the center of ant-hill. When the ant is at a point A at a
distance 1 m from the center of the hill, its velocity is 2
cm/s. Point B is at a distance of 2 m from the center of (A)
the ant-hill. The time taken by the ant to run from A to
B is
(A) 25 s (B) 75 s (C) 55 s (D) 65 s
34. The displacement (s) and time (t) graphs for two moving
objects A and B are straight lines inclined at 30° with
the time axis and 30° with the displacement axis
respectively. Then what would be their velocity ratio
vA
(B)
vB ?

1 1 1
(A) (B) (C) (D) 2 (C)
3 2 4
35. The speed (v) time (t) graph of a body moving along a
fixed direction is as sown in the figure below. Then
how much distance the body must have travelled
during time t = 0 to t = 10 s ?

(D)

(A) 120 m (B) 60 m

(C) 50 m (D) 10 m

Course for NTSE 52 Class 9th

 Supplementary Booklet

38. Consider the motion of the tip of the minute hand of a 44. Two cars X and Y accelrates at the rate of 2 m/s2 and 3
clock in one hour. Which of the following statement is m/s2 respectively from rest. The ratio of time taken by
wrong ? the cars X and Y is 4 : 5. In that given ratio of time
(A) The average speed of the tip is zero interval if the distance travelled by car X is 100 km,
(B) Average acceleration of the tip is zero then the distance travelled by car Y is
(C) Average velocity of the tip is zero 1875 375
(A) km (B) km
(D) The displacement of the tip is zero 8 2
39. A bus moves over a straight level road with a constant 1875 375
(C) km (D) km
acceleration a. A body in a bus drops a ball outside. 4 4
The acceleration of the ball with respect to the bus
45. Two flies A and B revolve around a light in concentric
and earth are respectively
circular path. The radius of circular path of A is twice
(A) a and g (B) a + g and g – a
of B. A travels with a uniform linear speed of 4 m/s
(C) a 2 + g 2 and g (D) a 2 + g 2 and a
while B travels with a uniform linear speed of 3 m/s.
40. From an elevated point A, a stone is projected vertically When A complete three full rounds, then B would have
upwards. When the stone reaches a distance h below completed
A, its velocity is double of what it was at a height h (A) 4 rounds (B) 3 rounds
above A. The greatest height attained by the stone is (C) 2 rounds (D) 1 round
h 2h
(A) (B) 46. If the under given velocity (Vs) time graph can be
3 3
changed into acceleration (Vs) time graph, then which
5h 5h
(C) (D) one of the given options represents acceleration (Vs)
4 3
time graph ?
41. An object moving at a constant speed in a circular path
experiences a force which is
(A) In the direction of motion
(B) Outwards and at 45° to the direction of motion
(C) Inwards and at right angles to the direction of
motion
(D) Opposite to the direction of motion

42. If a person goes from town A and town B with uniform

acceleration. Its speed at A is 50 km/h and at B is 150
km/h. Then average speed of the person is
(A) 100 km/h (B) 75 km/h
(C) 0 km/h (D) 200 km/h
(A)
43. Two cars A and B accelerate in the ratio of 2 : 3
respectively. If they both accelerate for equal time, the
ratio of their change in velocity is
(A) 2 : 3 (B) 3 : 2
(C) 1 : 1 (D) 1 : 2

Course for NTSE 53 Class 9th

Supplementary Booklet

50. First half of the distance between two places is covered

by a car at a speed of 40 km/hr and the second half is
covered at a speed of 80 km/hr. Then what would be
the average speed of the car ?
(B)
(A) 50 km/hr (B) 120 km/hr
(C) 53.3 km/hr (D) 40 km/hr

51. A man walks 8 m towards East and then 6 m towards

North. His magnitude of displacement will be
(A) 10 m (B) 14 m
(C) 2 m (D) Zero

(C) 52. A 100 meter long train moving with constant speed of
90 km/h crosses a tunnel of 300 meter long. The time
taken by the train to cross the tunnel completely is
(A) 16 s (B) 8 s
(C) 4 s (D) 2 s

53. If initial velocity of an object is ‘u’ and acceleration is

‘a’ then find the distance travelled in nth second.
(D)
an2
(A) Sn = un + (B) Sn = un + an2
2

a  a 2
(C) Sn = u + (2n − 1) (D) Sn = u + n
2  2
47. A boy travels along a circular path of radius ‘r’ m.
π 54. Vertical distance covered by an object thrown upwards
When his angular displacement is radians, then his
3 in the last second before coming to rest
linear displacement is (A) Depends on initial velocity
(A) r 2m (B) r m (B) Depends on mass
(C) Depends on air velocity
πr
(C) 2 rm (D) m (D) Is always same
3
55. A car driver travelling with a uniform velocity of 2 m/s
48. Velocity of vehicle increases from 5 m/s to 15 m/s in 5
notices a railway crossing at a distance of 435 m from
second. What is the magnitude of acceleration ?
his and also he notices that is going to be closed in 10
(A) 4 m/s2 (B) 4 m/s
seconds. First he decides to cross the level crossing
(C) 2 m/s (D) 2 m/s2
hence a accelerates his car at the rate of 2 ms–2 for five
49. A cyclist travels 5 km in the east direction. Then he seconds. Then he decides to stop the car. So he applies
travels 12 km in the south direction. What is the brake and stops the car exactly before the level
magnitude of displacement of the cycle ? crossing (without following the timer). Calculate the
(A) 17 km (B) 13 km minimum rate at which he has to decelerates the car so
(C) 7 km (D) Zero that he stops the car exactly before the level crossing
(A) 1.8 m/s2 (B) 18 m/s2
(C) 0.18 m/s2 (D) 3.6 m/s2

Course for NTSE 54 Class 9th

 Supplementary Booklet

56. The brakes applied to a car produce an acceleration of 62. At the top of its path a projectile has
8 m/s2 in the opposite direction to the motion. If the (A) No acceleration along vertical direction
car takes 3 seconds to stop after the application of (B) Acceleration in the upward
brakes, the distance it travels during the time will be (C) Acceleration in the downward direction
(A) 30 m (B) 36 m (D) Acceleration in the horizontal direction
(C) 25 m (D) 40 m
63. A train accelerate at 20 cm/s2. Then the minimum time
57. A launch takes 3 hours to go downstream from point A for the train to travel between the stations 2 km apart
to B and 6 hours to come back to A from B. The time is (The train should start at one station and stop at
taken by the launch to cover the same distance another station. Magnitude of acceleration is equal to
downstream when its engine cutoff is Magnitude of retardation)
(A) 12 hrs (B) 9 hrs (A) 125 s (B) 100 s
(C) 4.5 hrs (D) 18 hrs (C) 155 s (D) 200 s

58. A body is projected vertically up with a speed ‘u’. The 64. A body is dropped from certain height from a uniformly
time taken by the body to return back to ground is ascending balloon. The correct graph showing variation
u 2u of velocity with time for body is (take the direction of
(A) t= (B) t = g g as +ve)
g

1 4u
(C) t= (ug ) (D) t = g
2
59. The average acceleration of a body during a time (A) (B)
interval ‘t’ is given by the slope of its
(A) Velocity - speed graph
(B) Velocity - time graph
(C) Speed - time graph
(D) Velocity - displacement graph

60. A person is running along a circular track of area 625 (C) (D)
 22 
πm 2  π =  with a constant speed. Find the
 7 
displacement in 15 seconds if he has to complete the 65. Which motion does the graph of distance and time
race in 30 s.
shows for
(A) 200 m (B) 100 m
(C) 25 m (D) 50 m
61. Pick the false statement.
(A) One can calculate uniform acceleration from
velocity-time graph
(B) One can calculate non-uniform acceleration from
(A) Non-uniformly retarded
velocity-time graph
(B) Constant speed
(C) One can calculate velocity from distance-time
(C) Uniformly accelerated
graph
(D) Uniformly retarded motion
(D) One can calculate speed from distance-time
graph

Course for NTSE 55 Class 9th

Supplementary Booklet

66. A table clock has its minute hand 4.5 cm long. The 71. The distance covered by a body moving along x-axis
average velocity of the tip of the minute hand between with initial velocity ‘u’ and uniform acceleration ‘a’ is
6.00 a.m. to 6.30 a.m. is 1 2
given by x = ut + at . This result is a consequence of
(A) 5 × 10–3 cm/s (B) 2.25 × 10–3 cm/s 2
(C) 9 × 10–3 cm/s (D) 13.5 × 10–3 cm/s (A) Newton’s 1st law (B) Newton’s 2nd law
(C) Newton’s 3rd law (D) None of these
67. A car travels 40 kms at an average speed of 80 km/h
and then travels 40 kms at an average speed of 40 km/ 72. One newton is the force which produces an acceleration
h. The average speed of the car for his 80 km trip is of
(A) 40 km/h (B) 45 km/h (A) 1 ms–2 on a body of mass 1 gm
(C) 48 km/h (D) 53 km/h (B) 1 cms–2 on a body of mass 1 kg
68. A ball of mass m is thrown from a height h with a speed (C) 1 cms–2 on a body of mass 1 gm
v. For what initial direction of the ball will its speed on (D) 1 ms–2 on a body of mass 1 kg
hitting the ground be maximum ?
73. S.I. unit of momentum is
(A) Horizontally (B) Vertically downwards
(C) At an angle of 45° from the vertical in the (A) kg ms–1 (B) kg ms–2
(C) kg ms 2 (D) kg m–1s–1
downward direction
(D) Speed does not depend on the direction in which 74. Two bodies of masses m and 3m, moving with
the ball is thrown velocities 3v and v respectively along same direction,
69. A truck and a car of masses m1 and m2 respectively are collide with each other. After collision the stick together
moving with equal kinetic energies. Equal stopping and move with a velocity V in the same direction. Then
forces are applied and they come to a halt after travelling
3
further distances x1 and x2 respectively. Then (A) V = v (B) V = v
2
x1 m1
(A) x1 = x2 (B) = 4
v
x2 m2 (C) V = 2v (D) V =
3
x1 m1 x1 m2
(C) = (D) = 75. In which case of a movig body force is not needed?
x2 m2 x2 m1
(A) To increase the speed of the body
8. Force and Laws of Motion (B) To decrease the momentum of the body
(C) To change the direction of motion
70. The speed-time relation of a car whose mass is 1500 kg
(D) To keep the body in uniform velocity
as shown in the given graph. How much braking force
has been applied at the end of 7 second to stop the car 76. A single horizontal F is applied to a block of mass M1
in 2 second ? which is in contact with another block of mass M2 as
shown in the figure. If the surfaces are frictionless, the
force between the block is

M1 F M1 F
(A) M2 (B) M1 + M 2

M2F M2F
(A) 2000 N (B) 1200 N (C) (D)
M1 + M 2 M1
(C) 4800 N (D) 9000 N

Course for NTSE 56 Class 9th

 Supplementary Booklet

77. A block placed on a rough horizontal surface. A time 80. Four students discuss about the possible paths of a
dependent horizontal force F = kt acts on the block, particle moving with constant velocity. See the table
where k is positive constant. Acceleration time graph for the results of the discussion
of the block is Name Possible path or paths
Anand Any path
Srinu Straight line, Circle, Helix
Krishna Straight line
(A) Somesh Straight line, Circle
Who is correct? Assume that the forces acting on the
particle are time independent
(A) Srinu (B) Anand
(C) Somesh (D) Krishna
(B) 81. In the figure, a pulley of negligible weight is suspended
by a spring balance ‘S’. Masses of 3 kg and 7 kg
respectively are attached to opposite ends of a string
passing over a pulley ‘P’. The spring balance reads

(C)

(D)

78. The elongation of wire of length L is ℓ , in the case of (A) Equal to 10 kg (B) Less than 10 kg
figure (i). The same wire elongation in case of figure (C) More than 10 kg (D) Equal to 4 kg
(ii) will be (pulley is light)
82. A body is made in the form of wedge with an angle 45°.
See figure. A ball of mass m, moving horizontaly at a
speed v0 = 2 m/s, colloides with the wedge of mass
M = 2m. As a result of the impact, the ball bounces
vertically upward. Neglect the friction between the
wedge and horizontal surface. The speed of the ball
(A) 4ℓ (B) 2ℓ
just after the impact is
ℓ
(C) ℓ (D)
2

79. According to Newton’s Second law of Motion

(A) f = m × v (B) f = m × a
m m (A) 0.5 m/s (B) 2 m/s
(C) f= (D) f = (C) 2 m/s (D) 1 m/s
a v

Course for NTSE 57 Class 9th

Supplementary Booklet

83. A truck and a car are moving with velocity v towards

each other. They collide head in and stops after some
time. If the time of collisions is 1 s, which vehicles will
have maximum change in momentum during that time ?
(A) Car (B) Truck (B)
(C) Both will have same (D) None of these
84. Two cars of unequal masses use similar tyres. If they
are moving with same initial speed, the minimum
stopping distance
(A) Is smaller for the heavier car
(B) Is smaller for the lighter car
(C)
(C) Is same for both the cars
(D) Depends on the volume of the car
85. A football has lesser inertia than a stone of the same
size because
(A) Football has more air inside than the stone
(B) Football has less air inside than the stone
(C) Football has less mass than the stone
(D)
(D) Football has more mass than the stone
86. The force experienced by a boy in the merry-go-round
is
(A) Centripetal (B) Centrifugal 90. A man of 80 kg mass stands on a weighing machine in
(C) Gravitational (D) Magnetic a lift which is moving upwards with a uniform speed
87. A box of mass 20 kg is pushed along a rough floor with of 5 m/s. The reading of the weighing machine will be
a velocity 2 m/s and then let go. The box moves 5 m on (Take g = 10 m/s2)
the floor before coming to rest. What must be the (A) Zero (B) 400 N
frictional force acting on the box ? (C) 800 N (D) 1200 N
(A) 4 N (B) 2 N
91. A hovering helicopter drops food packets from an
(C) 20 N (D) 8 N
altitude of 200 m towards passenger of a stranded boat
88. A bomb of mass 9 kg initially at rest explodes into two affected with flood. Each packet is of mass 500 gm. It is
pieces of mass 3 kg and 6 kg. If the kinetic energy of 3 packed so well that it can withstand a momentum upto
kg mass is 216 J, then the velocity of 6 kg mass will be 60 Ns. Find out which of the following is correct
(A) 4 m/s (B) 3 m/s (A) The packet will break since the momentum of
(C) 2 m/s (D) 6 m/s packet on reaching the surface is more than 60
89. Which one of the following represents the correct Ns
graph between T2 and L in simple pendulum ? (B) The packet will not break since its momentum on
reaching the surface is less than 40 Ns
(C) The packet will break since its momentum on
reaching the surface is 50 Ns
(A) (D) The packet will not break since its momentum
on reaching the surface is 50 Ns

Course for NTSE 58 Class 9th

 Supplementary Booklet

92. A car of mass one metric ton accelerate from rest at the 96. A block of mass m is suspended through massless
rate of 2 m/s2 from t = 0 s to t = 10 s. There after it spring balance as shown in figure
travels with a uniform velocity. The measure of net
retarding force acting on the car after 10 s is
(A) 4000 N (B) 2000 N
(C) 0 N (D) –2000 N

93. A force acting on an object of mass 500 gm changes its

speed from 200 cm/s to 0.2 m/s. The change in
momentum is
(A) Increase by 0.90 Ns
(A) The reading of A is greater than B
(B) Decrease by 0.90 Ns
(B) The reading of B is greater than C
(C) Increase by 90 g cm/s
(C) The reading of A is maximum
(D) Decrease by 90 g cm/s
(D) The reading of A, B and C are same
94. A machine gun fires n bullets per second and the mass
97. A vehicle will accelerate as long as
of each bullet is m. If the speed of bullets is v, then the
(A) Air resistance is greater than the thrust
force exerted on the machine gun will be
(B) Air resistance is greater than the inertia
(A) mng (B) mnv
(C) Thrust is greater than the sum of air resistance
mnv and friction
(C) mnvg (D) g (D) Friction is greater than the thrust

95. System is shown in figure. System is in equilibrium 98. Which of the following statement is correct ? The force
state. Assume that springs, threads and pulleys are acting on an object is equivalent to
weightless. If the lower thread A has been cut, (A) Its change in momentum
immediately masses m 1 , m 2 , m 3 and m 4 get (B) The impulse it receives per second
accelerations α1 , α 2 , α3 and α 4 respectively. Which (C) The energy it gains per second
of the following is TRUE ? (D) Its acceleration per metre
99. A bullet of mass 60 g moving with the velocity of 500
m/s is brought to rest in 0.01 s. Its impulse will be
(A) 40 Ns (B) – 30 Ns
(C) – 20 Ns (D) +30 Ns
100. The momentum of an object at a given instant is
independent of its
(A) Inertia (B) Speed
(C) Velocity (D) Acceleration
101. A particle undergo uniform circular motion. About
which point on the plane of the circle will be angular
(A) α1 ≠ 0; α 2 ≠ 0; α3 ≠ 0; α 4 ≠ 0
momentum of the particle remains conserved.
(B) α1 = α 2 = α3 = 0; α 4 ≠ 0
(A) Centre of the circle
(C) α1 = α 2 = 0; α3 ≠ 0; α 4 ≠ 0 (B) On the circumstance of circle
(D) α 2 ≠ 0; α1 ≠ 0; α3 = 0; α 4 ≠ 0 (C) Any point inside the circle
(D) Outside the circle

Course for NTSE 59 Class 9th

Supplementary Booklet

102. A machine gun of mass 10 kg fires 20 g bullets with 108. A body of mass 2 kg is free to mvoe along x-axis. It is
speed of 500 m/s at the rate of 10 bullets per second. at rest at t = 0. From t = 0 onwards it is subjected to a
To hold the gun steady in its position how much force time-dependent force F(t) in x-direction. The variation
is necessary ? of F with time is as shown
(A) 200 N (B) 500 N
(C) 100 N (D) 250 N
103. A bullet of mass 10 g moving with 100 m/s is embedded
in a block of 1 kg which is intiially in rest. The final
velocity of the system will be
(A) 1 m/s (B) 1.5 m/s
(C) 0.5 m/s (D) 2 m/s
104. A retardating force of 150 N is applied to a body of
The change in momentum during journey is (in N-s)
mass 50 kg which is movign with a speed of 30 m/s.
(A) 4.50 (B) 7.50
The time taken by the body to come to rest is
(C) 5.06 (D) 14.06
(A) 20 seconds (B) 30 seconds
(C) 5 seconds (D) 10 seconds 109. Cleaning of dust from carpet is due to
(A) Inertia of motion (B) Inertia of rest
105. Two forces acts on the eithr side of the rigid body of
(C) Inertia of direction (D) Momentum
negligible mass suspended by string as shown in figure.
If R is the resultant force then the tension (T) in string 110. A monkey is sitting in the pan of a spring balance kept
will be in an elevator. The reading of the spring balance is
maximum when the elevator
(A) Is in stationary
(B) Accelerates upwards
(C) Falls freely
(D) Accelerates downwards
(A) 26 gwt (B) 41 gwt
(C) 82 gwt (D) 16 gwt 111. The term ‘mass’ reers to the same physical concept as
106. Pick the fundamental law of motion (A) Weight (B) Inertia
(A) Newton’s first law of motion (C) Force (D) Acceleration
(B) Newton’s second law of motion 112. A large truck and a car are moving with same velocity
(C) Newton’s third law of motion have a head on collision. Which of the following is an
(D) All laws of motion incorrect statement ?
107. A light particle moving horizontally with a speed 12 m/ (A) Both vehicles experience equal force of impact
s strikes a very heavy block moving in the same (B) The car will experience greater force of impact
direction at 10 m/s. The collisions is one dimensional (C) The truck will experience lesser acceleration
and elastic. In elastic collision, the conservation of (D) The car will experience greater acceleration
momentum and conservation of kinetic energy are
113. Which law of newton gives force ?
valid. After the collision, the particle will
(A) First law (B) Second law
(A) Move at 12 m/s opposite to its original direction
(C) Third law (D) Fourth law
(B) Move at 8 m/s in its original direction
(C) Move at 8 m/s opposite to its original direction
(D) Move at 2 m/s in its original direction

Course for NTSE 60 Class 9th

 Supplementary Booklet

114. A body of mass 2 kg is moving on a smooth floor in 119. The radius of the orbit of a geosynchronous satellite
straight line with a uniform velocity of 10 m/s. is 36000 km. Then the period of revolution of a satellite
Resultant force acting on the body is with its orbital radius 9000 km would be
(A) 20 N (B) 10 N (A) 24 hrs (B) 12 hrs
(C) 2 N (D) Zero (C) 6 hrs (D) 3 hrs
120. Suppose universal gravitational constant starts to
115. The figure given below shows the displacement plotted
decrease, then
against time for a particle. In which region is the force
(A) Length of the year will increase
acting on the particle zero ?
(B) Earth will follow a spiral path of decreasing radius
(C) Kinetic energy will remain constant
(D) All of these
121. A geo-stationary satellite is orbiting around earth at
height of 30,000 km in circular orbit. The radius of the
earth is taken as 6000 km. The geo-stationary satellite
(A) AB (B) BC comes back to its position after one revolution in exactly
(C) CD (D) DE 24 hours. Let the acceleration due to gravity (g) be 10
m/s2 and mass of satellite be 1000 kg; calculate the
116. A spring-loaded toy sits at rest on horizontal work done in 12 hours when moving under gravitational
frictionless surface. When the spring releases, the toy force.
breaks into three equal-mass pieces A, B and C, which (A) 3.6π× 1014 J (B) 2π× 7.2π × 1014 J
slide along the surface. Piece A moves off in the
n e g a t i v e
(C) 1.8π× 1014 J (D) 0 J

x-direction, while piece B moves off in the negative 122. A hypothetical planet has density ρ radius R, and
y-direction. Which of the three pieces is moving the surface gravitational acceleration g. If the radius of the
fastest ? planet were doubled, but the planetary density stayed
(A) A the same, the acceleration due to gravity at the planet’s
(B) B surface would be
(C) C (A) 4g (B) 2g
(D) They move with identical speeds g
(C) g (D)
2
9. Gravitation 123. Two planets ‘A’ and ‘B’ of same mass and same radius
are shown in the figure. ρ1 and ρ2 are densities of the
117. The moon is constantly under free fall towards the
materials in the planet and ρ1 > ρ2 . If the accelerations
earth
due to gravity on the surface of the planets A and B
(A) This statement is absurd
are gA and gB respectively, then
(B) This statement is correct
(C) This statement is wrong
(D) Nothing can be said

118. The mass of a body on earth is 60 kg. Its mass on moon

will be
(A) 360 kg (B) 60 kg (A) Given information is not sufficient
(C) 10 kg (D) 1/6 kg (B) g A < gB (C) gA > gB
(D) g A = gB

Course for NTSE 61 Class 9th

Supplementary Booklet

124. A planet of volume V and mass m has gravitational 131. For no change in the mass of the earth, if its radius is
acceleration g on its surface. If it expands to 8 times halved the weight of an object of mass 10 kg will be
its original volume, what will be the acceleration due (A) 40 kg wt. (B) 10 kg wt.
to gravity ? (C) 80 kg wt. (D) 20 kg wt.
(A) 4g (B) 2g 132. A body weight 60 N on the earth’s surface. What would
g g be its weight at the centre of the earth ?
(C) (D)
4 8 (A) 60 kg wt. (B) 6 kg wt.
125. Neglecting the rotation of the earth, if suddenly the (C) 60 × 9.8 kg wt. (D) Zero
attractive power of the earth drops to zero, a man
133. At what height above the earth’s surface is the
standing on the earth will
acceleration due to gravity 1% less than its value at
(A) Fly up
the surface ? Radius of earth is 6400 km. [Take (1 +
(B) Slide along the surface
x)–2 = 1 – 2x when x << 1]
(C) Move out tangentially
(D) Stand unaffected (A) 16 km (B) 32 km
(C) 64 km (D) 32 2 km
126. Which of the following quantities remain constant in a
planetary motion (consider elliptical orbits) as seen 134. The weight of the body is 19.6 N, the mass of the same
from the sun ? body is (g = 9.8 ms–2)
(A) Speed (B) Angular velocity (A) 19.6 kg (B) 9.8 kg
(C) Kinetic energy (D) Angular momentum (C) 4 kg (D) 2 kg
127. The escape velocity from earth is 11 km/s. The escape 135. A body is thrown vertically upward with velocity u.
velocity from a planet having equal density and double Then maximum height attained by the body will be
radius of earth is
(A) 15.56 km/s (B) 22 km/s 1 2 u2
(A) gt (B)
(C) 5.5 km/s (D) 11 km/s 2 2g

128. The value of gravitational acceleration g at the centre −u 2

(C) (D) None of these
of the earth is 2g
(A) Infinite (B) 9.8 m/s2
(C) 32.2 m/s2 (D) Zero 136. The increase in velocity of a freedly falling body in
one second is
129. The gravitational force between two objects of mass 1
(A) 9.8 m/s2 (B) 9.8 m/s
kg each separated by a distance of 1 m in vacuum will
(C) – 9.8 m/s2 (D) – 9.8 m/s
be
(A) Zero (B) 6.675 × 10–11 N 137. A satellite having circular orbit about the earth has a
(C) 13.350 × 10–11 N (D) 3.337 × 10–11 N kinetic energy Ex. What is the minimum amount of
energy to be added so that it escapes from the earth ?
130. Two objects, one 4 times as massive as the other, are
appraching each other under their mutual gravitational Ex Ex
(A) (B)
attraction. When the separation between the objects 4 2
is 100 km, the acceleration of the lighter object is 1 m/ (C) Ex (D) 2 Ex
s2. When the separation between them is 25 km, the
acceleration of the heavier object is
(A) 1 m/s2 (B) 2 m/s2
(C) 8 m/s2 (D) 4 m/s2

Course for NTSE 62 Class 9th

 Supplementary Booklet

138. A ball is released from the top of tower of height h 143. The mass of an object is 10 kg on earth. So we can say
meter. It takes T seconds to reach the ground. What is (A) Its weight on earth is 10 N
T (B) Its weight on earth is 1.67 N
the position of the ball at second ?
3
(C) Its weight on moon is 10 N
h
(A) m from ground (D) Its mass on moon is 10 kg
9
7h 144. If a satellite is moving in a stationary orbit near to
(B) m from the ground
9 earth’s surface (neglect the height of the orbit from
8h earth’s surface) then the time period of the satellite
(C) m from ground
9 does not depends on
17 h (A) Mass of the earth (B) Radius of the earth
(D) m from the ground
9 (C) Value of the ‘G’ (D) Mass of the satellite

139. If the distance between two bodies is reduced to half 145. A stone fell from the top of a tower to the ground in 8
of its initial value, then the gravitational force between
seconds. How much time did it take to cover the first
them is
quarter of the distance starting from the top ?
(A) Reduces to half of its initial values
(B) Increases by 4 times of its intial value (A) 4 seconds (B) 5 seconds
(C) Increases by 2 times of its initial value (C) 6 seconds (D) 8 seconds
(D) Decreases by 4 times of its initial value
146. Two bodies of masses 1 kg and 2 kg are separated by a
140. From a tower of height 20 m a boy throws a stone in distance of 1 m on the surface of the earth, then the
the vertically upward direction with a velocity of 40 gravitational force between these two bodies is
m/s and at the same time a girl drops another identical
(A) 1 × 6.673 × 10–11 N
stone from the same tower. When the momentum of
(B) 2 × 6.673 × 10–11 N
the stone dropped by the girl is maximum what will be
(C) 3 × 6.673 × 10–11 N
displacement of the stone projected in the upward
direction from the top of the tower ? (Take acceleration (D) 4 × 6.673 × 10–11 N
due to gravity of earth as 10 m/s2)
10. Floatation
(A) 60 m (B) 40 m
(C) 20 m (D) 0 m 147. The density of a substance is 7100 kg m–3. Its relative
density is
141. The weight of a body of mass 15 kg on moon is
(A) 7100 (B) 71
(A) 24.5 N (B) 2.45 N
(C) 7.1 (D) 71 × 105
(C) 245 N (D) 0.245 N
148. When a body is immersed in a liquid, the buoyant force
142. What should be the new radius of earth in order to
that acts on the body will be
reduce escape velocity to half of the present value
(A) Vertically downwards
without changing the mass of the earth ?
(B) Vertically upwards
R (C) Horizontally right side
(A) (B) 2 R
2 (D) Horizontally left side
(C) 3R (D) 4 R

Course for NTSE 63 Class 9th

Supplementary Booklet

149. A cork of mass m1 and a stell of mass m2 are tied to the 153. A hydrometer floats with half of its stem outside water
ends of a massless string. The whole system is kept in surface. It is now placed in alcohol (R.D. = 0.8). The
a liquid of density ‘σ’ as shown in figure. ρ1 and ρ2 are hydrometer floats
densities of cork and steel respectively. Which of the (A) With stem at the same position
following is wrong ? (B) With more stem inside the alcohol
(C) With more stem outside alcohol
(D) In tilted position
154. Ice is floating on water in a beaker. When ice completely
melts then level of water in beaker. (Assuming density
of ice and density of water to be the same)
(A) Increases (B) Decreases
(C) Remains the same
 σ 
(A) The tension in the string T = m2 g 1 −  when (D) First increases then decreases
 ρ 2 
the system is in equilibrium 155. The pressure of a given mass of a gas is inversely
(B) The cork is completely immersed in the liquid if proportional to its volume when
(m1 + m2 ) ρ1ρ2 < (m1ρ2 + m2ρ1 )σ (A) The temperature increases
(B) The temperature decreases
(C) The volume of submerged part of cork is equal
(C) The temperature remains constant
m1 m2  σ  (D) There is an absolute temperature
to σ + σ  1 − ρ  when the system is in
 2
156. A ship rises up as it enters the sea from a river because
equilibrium
(A) Sea water is harder then river water
σ  (B) Density of sea water is lesser than river water
(D) The system sinks if T > m1 g  − 1
 ρ1  (C) Large quantity of sea water pushes ship up
150. A drop of water is always spherical due to (D) Density of sea water is greater than river water
(A) Viscosity (B) Surface tension
157. Kerosene of mass 100 gm is mixed with 100 gm of water.
(C) Atmospheric pressure
One of the under given options that well describes the
(D) Gravity
reason for Kerosene to float on water is
151. A hollow spherical object weighs 25 g in air. Its material (A) Mass of displaced water is less than the mass of
density is 5 g/cc. If it weights 15 g in water, find the Kerosene of equal volume
volume of the hollow space in it. (B) Mass of Kerosene is more than the mass of equal
(A) 5 cc (B) 10 cc volume of water
(C) 15 cc (D) 20 cc (C) Mass of Kerosene is less than the mass of
1 displaced water
152. A body floats with of its volume outside water and
3 (D) Mass of Kerosene is equal to mass of displaced
3 water
of its volume outside another liquid. The density of
4
2
the other liquid is 158. A ball of uniform density of that of water is dropped
3
9 4 freely into a pond from a height 10 m above its surface.
(A) × 103 kg/m3 (B) × 103 kg/m 3
4 9 The maximum depth the ball can travel in water is
8 3 (A) 21 m (B) 10 m
(C) × 103 kg/m3 (D) × 103 kg/m3
3 4 (C) 20 m (D) 30 m

Course for NTSE 64 Class 9th

 Supplementary Booklet

159. A piece of wood is floating in water kept in a bottle. 165. If two pieces of different metals when completely
The bottle is connected to an air pump. Neglect the immersed in water exprience equal up thrust, then
compressibility of water. When more air is pushed into (A) Both pieces have equal weight in air
the bottle from the pump, the piece of wood will float (B) Both pieces have equal density
with (C) Both pieces have equal volume
(A) Larger part in the water
(D) Both are immersed to the same depth
(B) Lesser part in the water
(C) Same part in the water 166. An ice-cube of density 900 kg/m3 is floating in water
(D) Will sink to the bottom of density 1000 kg/m3. The percentage of volume of
ice cube outside the water is
160. The weight of an empty balloon on a spring balance is
(A) 20% (B) 35%
w1. The weight become w2 when the balloon is filed
(C) 10% (D) 25%
with air. Let the weight of air itself be w. Neglect the
thickness of balloon when it is filled with air. Also 167. An aluminium sphere is dipped into water. If BI and
neglect the difference the density of air inside and BII are the buoyancies in water at 0°C and 40°C
outside the balloon. respectively, then
(A) w2 < w1 + w (B) w2 = w1 + w (A) BI < BII
(C) w2 > w1 + w (D) w2 < w1 (B) BI > BII
(C) BI = BII
161. The relative density of ice with respect to sea water is
(D) BI > or < BII depending upon the radius of the
0.90. Then the percentage of the submerged portion of
sphere
an iceberg would be
(A) 45% (B) 90% 168. A body of volume v and density d is completely
(C) 60% (D) 50% immersed in a liquid of density ρ, then the apparent
162. The magnitude of buoyant force depends on which weight of the body will be
one of the following properties of fluid ? (A) vdg (B) vρg
(A) Mass of object (B) Size of object (C) v(ρ – d)g (D) v(d – ρ)g
(C) Density of liquid (D) Size of container 169. The volume of a substance is 20 cm3. The mass of the
163. Up thrust of water acting on a wooden cube of side 10 cm substance if its relative density is 2.5 will be
immersed completely in water is (density of water = (A) 5 g (B) 50 g
1000 kgm–3 and g = 10 ms–2) (C) 500 g (D) 5 kg
(A) 5 N (B) 10 N 170. A beaker is filled with two non-mixing liquids. The lower
(C) 3 N (D) 2 N liquid has density twice that of the upper one. A
164. A piece of wood floats in water kept in beaker. If the cylinder of height h floats with one-fourth of its height
beaker moves with a vertical acceleration a, the wood submerged in the lower liquid and half of its height
will submerged in the upper liquid. Another beaker is filled
(A) Remain in the same position relative to the water with the denser of the two liquids alone. If the same
surface cylinder is kept in the second beaker, the height of the
(B) Sink deeper in the liquid, if a is downward with submerged portion would be
a<g 3h
(A) h (B)
(C) Sink deeper the liquid, if a is upward 4
(D) Come out, more from the liquid, if a is downward h h
with a < g (C) (D)
2 4

Course for NTSE 65 Class 9th

Supplementary Booklet

171. A spring balance measures the weight of an object in 175. Two masses of 1 g and 4 g are moving with equal kinetic
air to be 0.1 N. It shows a reading of 0.08 N when the energies. The ratio of the magnitudes of their linear
object is completely immersed in water. If the value of momentum is
acceleration due to gravity is 10 m/s2 the volume of the (A) 4:1 (B) 2 :1
object is (C) 1 : 2 (D) 1 : 6
(A) 20 cm3 (B) 80 cm3
176. Dimension of power is
(C) 200 cm3 (D) 2 cm3
(A) M 2 L2 T −2 (B) M 2 L2 T −3
172. Two beakers P and Q are to the brim with a water at
(C) M 2 LT −2 (D) M L2 T −3
4°C. Beaker P is heated while Q is cooled. What is
expected in these beakers now ? 177. A ball of mass 50 g is thrown upwards. It rises to a
(A) Water will overflow in both beakers maximum height of 100 m. At what height is kinetic
(B) Water level will go down in both beakers energy wil be reduced to 70% ?
(C) Water level will go down in P and overflow in Q (A) 30 m (B) 40 m
(D) Water will go down in Q and overflow in P (C) 60 m (D) 70 m

178. The mass of two bodies are 1 kg and 2 kg respectively

11. Work, Energy and Power and their kinetic energy are 1 J and 2 J respectively.
173. The work done by a force on a body will be positive if The ratio of their momentum is given by
the body (A) 1 : 1 (B) 1 : 4
(C) 4 : 1 (D) 1 : 2
(A) Moves perpendicular to the direction of applied
force 179. The kinetic energy of an object is K. If its velocity is
doubled, then its kinetic energy will be
(B) Does not move
(A) K (B) 2K
(C) Moves along the direction of applied force
K
(D) Moves opposite to the direction of applied force (C) 4K (D)
4
174. Identify the energy changes in the following two cases. 180. In the figure shown, a particle is released from the
A : A car moving up a hill. position A on a smooth track. If h = 3R, then the normal
B : Photographic film is exposed to sun-light. force on the particle by the track at B is
(A) In ‘A’ mechanical energy in moving car is
converted to chemical energy
(B) In ‘A’ potential energy in moving car is converted
to kinetic energy and in ‘B’ chemical energy is
converted to ligth energy
(C) In ‘A’ kinetic energy is moving car is converted
mg 3mg
to potential energy and in ‘B’ potential energy is (A) (B)
2 2
converted to light energy (C) mg (D) 2mg
(D) In ‘A’ kinetic energy in moving car is converted
181. Two bodies with kinetic energies in the ratio 2 : 3 are
to potential energy and in ‘B’ light energy is moving with equal momentum. The ratio of their masses
converted to chemical energy (A) 1 : 3 (B) 1 : 2
(C) 3 : 2 (D) 2 : 3

Course for NTSE 66 Class 9th

 Supplementary Booklet

182. A stone of mass 500 gm rotating in circular motion by 190. A force of 10 N is applied on an object of mass 1 kg for
using a string of length 50 cm with a speed 10 cm/s. 2 s, which was initially at rest. What is the work done
What will be the work done by the string force on the on the object by the force ?
stone ? (A) 200 J (B) 20 J
(A) 0.1 πJ (B) πJ (C) 16 J (D) 180 J
(C) 10 πJ (D) Zero
191. A car with K.E. 100 J is moving on a horizontal road.
183. A body of mass 20 kg falls through a distance of 50 cm. Now 200 J work is done on the car. The change in K.E.
Then the loss in potential energy is [Take g = 9.8 m/s2]
is
(A) 98 joule (B) 329 joule
(A) Zero (B) 100 J
(C) 980 joule (D) 5000 joule
(C) 200 J (D) 300 J
184. The value of 1 kilowatt power in terms of horse power
will be 192. Let us assume that you have lifted a suitcase from the
(A) 1.34 HP (B) 746 HP floor and kept it on a table. The work done by you on
(C) 786 HP (D) 4.36 HP suitcase depends on
(A) The path taken by the suitcase
185. What will be the work done in raising the velocity of a
(B) The time taken by you in doing so
car weighing 2000 kg from 18 km/h to 54 km/h ?
(A) 2.5 × 105 J (B) 2.25 × 105 J (C) The weight of the suitcase
(C) 2.0 × 105 J (D) 1.5 × 105 J (D) Your weight

186. Two bodies with kinetic energies in the ratio 4 : 1 are 193. A body of mass 0.5 kg is moving with a constant
moving with equal linear momentum. The ratio of their velocity of 2 m/s. In order to brign it to rest in a distance
masses is of 2 m, the work to be done is
(A) 1 : 2 (B) 1 : 1 (A) 2.5 J (B) 1 J
(C) 4 : 1 (D) 1 : 4 (C) 10 J (D) 5 J
187. The consumption of electrical energy in the house is
194. An object of mass 10 kg is dropped from a building of
measured in terms of
height 40 m. Given the best description of relationship
(A) Kilowatt hour (B) Watt hour
between gravitational potential energy and kinetic
(C) Joules (D) Kilojoules
energy, after 2 s. (g = 10 m/s2)
188. A body of mass 10 kg slides down an inclined plane
(A) Potential energy > kinetic energy
from rest. Its height from the ground level is 10 m. The
(B) Potential energy < kinetic energy
inclined plane is not smooth. When the body reaches
(C) Potential energy ≤ kinetic energy
the ground its speed is 14 m/s. Then how much work is
(D) Potential energy = kinetic energy
done against friction ? (g = 10 m/s2)
(A) 980 J (B) 1000 J 195. Best relatinship between momentum and kinetic energy
(C) 20 J (D) 100 J possesses by an object in terms of mass :
189. Correct relation is (A) Momentum = (2m × Kinetic energy)1/2
(A) 1 Horse power = 746 W (B) (Momentum)1/2 = 2 × Kinetic energy
(B) 2 Horse power = 746 W (C) (Kinetic energy)1/2 = 2 × momentum
(C) 1 Horse power = 740 W (D) Kinetic energy = (2 × momentum)1/2
(D) 1 Horse power = 373 W

Course for NTSE 67 Class 9th

Supplementary Booklet

196. A man in a boat A pulls a rope with a force 100 N. The 200. If the kinetic energy of a body increases by 300%, by
other end of the rope is tied to a boat B of mass 200 what percent shall the linear momentum of the body
kg. The total mass of boat A and man is 300 kg, increase ?
disregard the weight of the rope and the resistance of (A) 200% (B) 100%
the water. The power developed by the man by the end (C) 150% (D) 300%
of the third second is
201. If the momentum of a body becomes 3 times of
(A) 100 W (B) 200 W
its initial momentum, then by how much its kinetic
(C) 150 W (D) 250 W
energy will increase above its initial value which was
197. Graph shows the number of units consumed by a family 100 Joule ?
for six months. Find the cost of energy for four months (A) 200 J (B) 300 J
from March to June if M.S.e.B. increased its unit rate (C) 900 J (D) 800 J
from Rs. 3.50 to Rs. 4.50 for April and May and again
202. Which one of the following body is having highest
decreased by Rs. 2 for June
potential energy at a fixed point ?
(A) A body of mass 2 kg is placed at a height of 6 m
(B) A body of mass 3 kg is placed at a height of 2 m
(C) A body of mass 4 kg is placed at a height of 4 m
(D) A body of mass 5 kg is placed at a height of 3 m

203. A body of mass 5 kg initially at rest is moved by a

horizontal force of 2 N on a smooth horizontal surface.
The work done by the force in 10 seconds is
(A) 10 J (B) 50 J
(A) Rs. 6,000 (B) Rs. 6,030
(C) 40 J (D) 20 J
(C) Rs. 6,300 (D) Rs. 6,200
204. A body of mass 2 kg starts from rest and moves with
198. In motion of a simple pendulum acceleration is maximum
uniform acceleration. It acquires a velocity of 20 m/s
at
in 4 seconds. The power exerted on the body in 2
seconds is
(A) 50 watts (B) 100 watts
(C) 150 watts (D) 200 watts

205. The frequency of second pendulum is

(A) C only (B) B only (A) 0.5 Hz (B) 1.0 Hz
(C) A only (D) B and C (C) 2.0 Hz (D) 1.5 Hz

199. A washing machine rated 300 W is operated one and 206. Two bodies with kinetic energy in the ratio of 9 : 4 are
half an hour/day. If the cost of unit Rs. 3.50, find the moving with equal linear momentum. The ratio of their
cost of energy t cooperative a washing machine for the masses is
month of September (A) 1 : 2 (B) 1 : 1
(A) Rs. 27.90 (B) Rs. 35.25 (C) 4 : 9 (D) 3 : 2
(C) Rs. 47.25 (D) Rs. 55.90

Course for NTSE 68 Class 9th

 Supplementary Booklet

207. A uniform chain of length l and mass m is placed in a 214. A 5.0 kg object is moving horizontally at 6.0 m/s. In
smooth table with one-fourth of its length hanging over order to change its speed to 10.0 m/s, the net dowrk
the edge. The work that has to be done to pull the whole done on the object must be
chain back into the table is (A) 40 J (B) 90 J
1 1 (C) 160 J (D) 20 J
(A) mgl (B) mgl
16 32 215. The value of 200 units of energy into joules will be
1 1 (A) 7.20 × 108 J (B) 7.20 × 107 J
(C) mgl (D) mgl 8
8 4 (C) 72 × 10 J (D) 7.2 × 106 J
216. The work required to increase the velocity of a particle
208. Work done by the force of gravity on a satellite of 500
from 18 km/h to 72 km/h, if mass of particle is 2 kg, is
kg at a height of 36000 km is
(A) 275 J (B) 225 J
(A) 0J (B) 1031 J
(C) 15 J (D) 375 J
(C) 1021 J (D) 109.8 J
217. Pick the correct statement
209. Energy transferred to a stone of weight 10 N, falling (A) Energy is a physical quantity and work is a
freedly from the top of a tower of 250 m height is about mathematical quantity
(A) 25000 J (B) 250000 J (B) Work is a physical quantity and energy is a
(C) 2500 J (D) 250 J mathematical quantity
(C) Both energy and work are physical quantities
210. An electrical power station has the power 200 megawatt
(D) Both energy and work are mathematical
(MW), then the electrical energy produced per day quantities
will be
218. An object is thrown vertically upwards with velocity
(A) 200 MW – hour (B) 4800 MW – hour
of 20 m/s. At what height will its kinetic energy and
(C) 4800 MW (D) 4800 Joule
potential energy be equal ? (g = 10 m/s2)
211. A body has mass 100 kg, what work has to done to (A) 10 m (B) 20 m
increase its velocity from 2 m/s to 6 m/s ? (C) 15 m (D) 5 m
(A) 100 J (B) 200 J 219. A man weighing 60 kg climbs up 45 steps stair case of
(C) 1600 J (D) 600 J a builing in 9 seconds. If height of each step is 10 cm,
then how much power the man has employed ? (Take g
212. Two bobs of masses 1 kg and 2 kg are suspended from
= 10 m/s2)
a rigid support by threads of length 4 m and 1 m
(A) 300 W (B) 250 W
respectively. Find the ratio of their time period. (C) 500 W (D) 450 W
(A) 4 (B) 8
220. When the momentum of a body decreases by 10%, its
(C) 2 (D) 12
kinetic energy decreases by
213. A car of mass 2,000 kg travelling with a uniform velocity (A) 20% (B) 40%
2 m/s accelerates till its velocity becomes 22 m/s. The (C) 36% (D) None of these
work done on the car is 221. After firing a bullet of mass 8 g, it is moved with a
(A) 4.8 kJ (B) 480 kJ velocity of 4 ms–1. The kinetic energy gained by this
(C) 48 kJ (D) 500 kJ bullet is
(A) 64 joule (B) 6.4 joule
(C) 0.64 joule (D) 0.064 joule

Course for NTSE 69 Class 9th

Supplementary Booklet

222. A stone of mass 500 g is dropped from a certain height. 228. The force F is acting on an object of mass m. The
When it is exactly at the midpoint of free fall, the kinetic → →
direction of displacement ( r ) and force ( F) of the
energy possessed by it is 800 J. What is the height from object is shown by an arrow to the right side. Work
where it is dropped ? (Take acceleration due to gravity done by the force will be
of earth as 10 ms–2)
(A) 320 m (B) 160 m
(C) 80 m (D) 240 m

223. The engine of a bus of mass 5,000 kg accelerates the

(A) Positive
bus from 2 m/s to 20 m/s in 120 seconds. The power
(B) Negative
expanded by the bus is
(C) Zero
(A) 8,250 W (B) 8.25 W (D) Either positive or negative
(C) 82.5 W (D) 825 W
229. The linear momentum ‘p’ of a body having mass ‘m’
224. A particle of mass M in a circle of radius R moves with and kinetic energy ‘E’ is
a constant speed v. The work done when it completes
E
one circle is (A) p = 2mE (B) p=
2m
Mv 2 1
(A) × 2πR (B) Mv 2 2m
T 2 (C) p= (D) p = mE
E
Mv 2
(C) × πR (D) Zero 230. If momentum of a given mass of body is increased by
R
n% then
225. The machine gun fires 240 bullets per minute. If the (A) The kinetic energy of body changes by 2n% when
mass of each bullet is 10 g and the velocity of the n<5
bullets is 600 m/s, then the power of the gun is (B) The kinetic energy of body changes by 2n% when
(A) 43200 kW (B) 432 kW n > 50
(C) The kinetic energy may be constant
(C) 72 kW (D) 7.2 kW
(D) The kinetic energy must be constant
226. A water pump raises 50 litres of water up to a height of
25 metre in 5 seconds. Then the power of water pump 12. SOUND
will be 231. The s peed of sound in air and in sea-water is given to
(A) 2500 watt (B) 6250 watt be 340 m/s and 1440 m/s. resp. A ship sends a strong
signal straight down and detects its echo after 1.5
(C) 1250 watt (D) 625 watt
seconds. The depth of the sea at that point is
227. A car with K.E. 100 J is moving on a horizontal road. (A) 2.16 km (B) 1.08 km
Now 200 J work is done on the car. The change in KE is (C) 0.51 km (D) 0.255 km
(A) Zero (B) 100 J 232. For hearing distinct echoes, the minimum distances of
(C) 200 J (D) 300 J the obstacle from the source of sound must be (Given
velocity of sound = 344 m/s)
(A) 17.2 m (B) 34.4 m
(C) 172 m (D) 344 m

Course for NTSE 70 Class 9th

 Supplementary Booklet

233. Four pendulums P, Q, R and S are suspended from 237. A pandubbi sends a sonar signal to locate a body and
same elastic support as shown in figure. Out of these P receives the echo after 5 s. If the velocity of sound is
and R are of the same length. Q is smaller than P and S 340 m/s. What is the distance of the body ?
is longest. If the pendulum bob P is displaced to given (A) 0.85 km (B) 1.7 km
smaller vibration, then (C) 0.425 km (D) 4.25 km

238. When a stone is dropped into the lake, the produced

waves are
(A) Transverse waves
(B) Sound waves
(C) Longitudinal waves
(D) Electromagnetic waves
(A) Amplitude of vibration for S is maximum
239. Speed of super-sonic aircraft is
(B) Amplitude of vibration for R is maximum
(A) Below speed of sound
(C) Amplitude of vibration for Q is maximum
(B) Equal to speed of sound
(D) Amplitude of vibration for all is same
(C) More than speed of sound
234. A ship sends a sonar wave to the sea bed which is flat (D) Equal to speed of light
and measured several times over a large area. One day
240. A key of a mechanical piano is struck and then struck
the reflected sound wave takes longer time than in
again but much harder this time. In the second case
previous measurements. The possible reasons is
(A) Sound will be louder but pitch will not be
(A) The frequency of the sonar wave, generated by
different
the equipment is lower than previous
(B) Sound will be louder and pitch will also be higher
measurements
(C) Sound will be louder but pitch will be lower
(B) There is a solid object of large size in the path of
(D) Both loudness and pitch will remain unaffected
sonar wave
(C) There is a huge air bubble in the path of sonar 241. Stethoscope of doctors for finding quality, strength and
wave frequency of human heart beat is based on the principle
(D) The loudness of the sonar wave, generated by of
the equipment is lower than previous (A) SONAR (B) Reverberation
measurement (C) Multiple reflection (D) Echo

235. Note the relationship between the first two words and 242. When we pluck the wire of a sitar, the waves produced
suggest the suitable word for the fourth place. in the wire are
Loudness : Amplitude : : Quality : _______. (A) Longitudinal
(A) Frequency (B) Wavelength (B) Transverse
(C) Intensity (D) Wave form (C) Sometimes longitudinal and sometimes
transverse
236. The ratio of velocity of sound in hydrogen to the
(D) Electromagnetic
velocity of sound in oxygen given they are at the same
temperature 243. .......................... identities quality of sound in human
(A) 4 : 1 (B) 16 : 1 ear.
(C) 2 : 1 (D) 8 : 1 (A) Nerve impulse (B) Pinna
(C) Cochlea (D) Ear drum

Course for NTSE 71 Class 9th

Supplementary Booklet

244. Velocity of sound in air at 47°C is 360 m/s. What would 250. A sound wave has a frequency of 2 kHz and wavelength
be this velocity at 17°C ? 35 cm. How much distance it will travel in 2 seconds ?
(A) 1.4 m (B) 14 m
(A) 336 m/s (B) 342.7 m/s
(C) 140 m (D) 1400 m
(C) 350 m/s (D) 330 m/s
251. A stone is dropped into a well 44.1 m deep. The sound
245. A musical instrument has tones of frequencies 256 Hz,
of splash is heard 0.13 seconds after the stone hits the
502 Hz, 1020 Hz and 1280 Hz. The frequencies of the water. What should be the velocity of sound in air ?
fundamental and its harmonic are given by (A) 319 m/s (B) 339 m/s
(A) 256 Hz and 502 Hz respectively (C) 359 m/s (D) 369 m/s
(B) 256 Hz and 1020 Hz respectively 252. A man fires a gun and hears the echo from the cliff
(C) 502 Hz and 1020 Hz respectively after 2 seconds. He walks towards cliff about a distance
(D) 256 Hz and 1280 Hz respectively of 85 m and fires the gun again. He hears echo after .5
seconds. In this case, the velocity of sound in air is
246. The factor on which the speed of sound through air
(A) 85 m/s (B) 113 m/s
doesn’t depend is (C) 340 m/s (D) 680 m/s
(A) Humidity (B) Density
253. When a stone is freely dropped into a well of depth 45
(C) Temperature (D) Frequency of sound
m; the sound of its plash is heard after 3.125 seconds.
247. The waves that required a material medium for their Then what is the value of the speed of sound in air ? (g
propagation are called = 10 m/s2)
(A) 360 m/s (B) 330 m/s
(A) Matter waves
(C) 340 m/s (D) 332 m/s
(B) Electromagnetic waves
(C) Carrier waves 254. A sound wave has a wavelength of 3 m. The distance
(D) Mechanical waves from a compression centre to the adjacent rarefaction
centre is
248. A man standing between two parallel cliffs fires a gun. (A) 0.75 m (B) 1.5 m
If he hears first and second echoes after 1.5 seconds (C) 3.0 m (D) 6.0 m
and 3.5 seconds respectively, then the distance 255. A person classped his hands near a cliff and heard the
between two cliffs (Take velocity of sound in air as 340 cho. The minimum distance of the cliff from the person
m/s) if the speed of sound is taken as 346 m/s is
(A) 1190 m (B) 850 m (A) 17.1 m (B) 17.2 m
(C) 595 m (D) 510 m (C) 17.3 m (D) 34.6 m

249. An anchored boat is rocked by waves whose crests 256. A vibrator generates the waves of the speed 330 ms–1
are 100 m apart and whose velocity is 25 m/s. How and wavelength 0.8 m. Then the frequency and time
often do the crest reach in boat ? period is
(A) 0.35 second (B) 4 seconds (A) 264 Hz, 0.0037 second
(C) 75 seconds (D) 2500 seconds (B) 42.5 Hz, 0.0024 second
(C) 412.5 Hz, 0.0024 second
(D) 264 Hz, 0.0030 second

Course for NTSE 72 Class 9th

 Supplementary Booklet

Supplementary Booklet | Class IX

Chemistry
[Level - 1]
1. Synthetic Fibres and Plastics
1. Which of the following is thermo resistant polymer ? 10. Which metal is a constituent of haemoglobin ?
(A) Orion (B) Polythene (A) Zn (B) Ca
(C) Teflon (D) Bakelite (C) Fe (D) Co
2. The example of thermosetting plastic is : 11. Which of the following statement is correct regarding
(A) Polythene (B) Polyvinyl chloride metals and non-metals ?
(C) Bakelite (D) Polystyrene (A) All metals are brittle
3. Which of the following is a natural polymer ? (B) All non-metals are ductile
(A) Cellulose (B) Teflon (C) Generally metals are ductile
(C) Nylon (D) Terylene (D) Non-metals are good conductor of elctricity

4. Teflon is a polymer of which of the following monomer? 12. Rusting of Iron takes place in
(A) Monofluoroethene (B) Tetrafluoroethene (A) Ordinary water
(C) Difluroethene (D) Trifluoroethene (B) Distilled water
(C) Both ordinary and distilled water
2. Materials: Metals and Non-Metals (D) None of these
5. Which one of the following metal oxides shows both 13. Solder is an alloy of
acidic and basic characters ? (A) Cu + Zn (B) Pb + Sn
(A) Na2O (B) K2O (C) Pb + Zn (D) Cu + Sn
(C) CuO (D) Al2O3
14. On addition of which metal the blue coloured copper
6. Complete the chemical reaction sulphate solution turns into colourless solution ?
Mg(s) + H2SO4(aq) → (A) Ag (B) Hg
(A) MgSO3 + H2O (B) MgSO + H2O + O2 (C) Zn (D) Au
(C) MgSO4 + H2 (D) No reaction
15. Metal which does not liberate hydrogen gas on
7. At room temperature, liquid non-metal is reacting with acids is
(A) Carbon (B) Bromine (A) Cu (B) Fe
(C) Mercury (D) Iodine (C) Mn (D) Zn
8. Identify the metal that occurs in the native state in 16. When Geeta put a copper strip in a solution kept in a
nature laboratory, the colour of the solution turns blue.
(A) Potassium (B) Copper According to you the solution can be :
(C) Aluminium (D) Zinc (A) AgNO3 (B) Zn(NO3)2
9. The phenomenon of producing a characteristics sound (C) NaCl (D) KNO3
when a material is struck on the metallic surface is 17. Mg dissolves in hot water to form
(A) Ductility (B) Malleability (A) MgO (B) Mg(OH)2
(C) Sonority (D) Conductivity (C) MgOH (D) MgO + Mg(OH)2

Course for NTSE 73 Class 9th

Supplementary Booklet

18. When iron filings are heated in a steam of dry hydrogen 3. Coal and Petroleum
chloride, the compound formed is FeClx, where x
25. The main component of Bio gas is
(A) 1 (B) 2
(A) Methane (B) Benzene
(C) 3 (D) 4
(C) Ethylene (D) Ethane
19. Which gas is released when a metal reacts with an 26. Coal is called fossil fuel because
acid? (A) In future coal will become completely exhausted
(A) Cl2 (B) O2 (B) It was formed 300 million years ago
(C) H2 (D) SO2 (C) Fossils are obtained along with mining of coal
20. Which of the following is the correct order of reactivity (D) It was formed from the dead remains of living
of metals ? organisms
(A) Cu > Au > Zn > Na > H 27. The allotrope of Carbon in amorphous from among
(B) Au > Na > H > Zn > Cu the following is
(C) Na > Zn > H > Cu > Au (A) Diamond
(D) H > Au > Cu > Zn > Na (B) Graphite
21. Assertion (A) : When we dip iron nail into CuSO4 (C) Buckminsterfullerene
solution the colour of solution changes. (D) Coal
Reason (R) : Copper is less reactive than iron. 28. Coal is
(A) Both A and R are correct but R is not correct (A) Fossil fuel (B) Nuclear fuel
reason for A (C) Bio fuel (D) None of these
(B) Both A and R are correct, R is correct reason for
A [Level - 2]
(C) A is correct and R is incorrect
4. Matter In Our Surroundings
(D) A is incorrect and R is correct
1. The rate of evaporation increases with
22. An element which shows allotropy when burnt in air
(A) Increase of surface area, increase of temperature,
gives a gas with characteristic smell. The gas turns blue
decrease in humidity and increase in wind speed
litmus red and the element is also used as an insecticide.
(B) Increase of surface area, decrease of temperature,
The element is :
decrease in humidity and decrease in wind speed
(A) C (B) N
(C) Decrease of surface area, increase of
(C) P (D) S
temperature, increase in humidity and increase
23. Which metal does not react with oxygen at high in wind speed
temperature ? (D) Decrease of surface area, increase of
(A) Mg (B) Al temperature, decrease in humidity and decrease
(C) Ag (D) Zn in wind speed
2. By which property gases and liquids are different from
24. An alloy of Zn and Cu is dissolved in dil. HCl.
solids ?
Hydrogen gas is evolved. In this evolution of gas
(A) Volume (B) Mass
(A) Only zinc reacts with dil. HCl
(C) Conductivity (D) Fluidity
(B) Only copper reacts with dil. HCl
3. Boiling point of water
(C) Both zinc and coppers reacts with dil. HCl
(A) 273 K (B) 0 K
(D) Only coppr react with water
(C) 373 K (D) 100 K

Course for NTSE 74 Class 9th

 Supplementary Booklet

4. A drop of each of two non-corrosive and non-irritating 9. On arranging water, sugar and oxygen in increasing
liquids A and B at a temperature of 22°C are placed on order of attraction between their particles. Which of
the skin. Liquid A gives a more cooling sensation than the following will be the correct arrangement ?
(A) Water, Oxygen, Sugar
liquid B. Which of the following can be said about the
(B) Oxygen, Sugar, Water
liquids A and B ?
(C) Sugar, Oxygen, Water
(A) Liquid A has higher boiling point than that of
(D) Oxygen, Water, Sugar
liquid B
(B) Liquid A has higher latent heat of vaporisation 10. Which of the following is an element ?
(A) Mercury (B) Ammonia
than that of liquid B
(C) Water (D) Glucose
(C) Liquid A has lower latent heat of vaporisation
than that of liquid B 11. The boiling point of a gas is –80°C. This temperature
(D) The boiling points of liquid A and B are equal is equivalent to
(A) –193 K (B) 193 K
5. Dry ice is an example of ________ process. (C) 353 K (D) –353 K
(A) Evaporation (B) Crystallization 12. The substance which is known as “dry ice” is
(C) Sublimation (D) Purification (A) Potassium permanganate
6. Which of the following are the correct examples of (B) Copper sulphate
matter ? (C) Sulphur dioxide
(D) Solid carbon dioxide
(A) Glass bottle, water and noise
(B) Air, wood and vacuum 13. Priya and Karthik wanted to study about diffusion
(C) Silver foil, hot air and chalk among liquids they took identical beakers and poured
100 mL of H2O in both the beakers. Priya heated the
(D) Sand, oxygen and light flash
water to 50°C but Karthik maintained the water at room
7. In an open vesel, the liquid keeps on evaporating. The temperature. They both added 5 drops of ink into the
particles of liquid absorb energy from surrounding to beaker, what will they notice ?
regain the energy lost during evaporation. This (A) Colour of ink spreads faster in Priya’s beaker
absorption of energy from the surrounding make the (B) Colour of ink spreads faster in Karthik’s beaker
(C) Colour of ink spread at the same rate in both
surroundings ............... (i) Hot (ii) Cold (iii) No change
beakers
in temperature of surrounding (iv) it depends upon
(D) In both the beakers, ink drops settle down at the
the nature f liquid.
bottom without spreading
Out of (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) which is correct to fill the above 14. Ice is floating n water in a beaker when ice completely
statement. melts then level of water in breaker
(A) Only (i) is correct (B) (i) and (ii) are correct (A) Increases
(C) (ii) is correct (D) All are correct (B) Decreases
(C) Remains the same
8. Which of the following is a compound ? (D) First increases then decreases
(A) Iron (B) Washing soda
15. Solubility of KNO3
(C) Air (D) Mercury
(A) Increases with temperature
(B) Decreases with temperature
(C) Remains constant with temperature
(D) Is not related to the temperature fluctuations

Course for NTSE 75 Class 9th

Supplementary Booklet

5. Is Matter Around Us Pure? 24. Which of the following is not a suspension ?

(A) Aluminium paint (B) Dust storm
16. Brass contains
(C) Muddy water (D) Milk
(A) Cu and Sn (B) Cu and Ni
(C) Cu and Zn (D) Mg and Al 25. ____________ are alloys of Iron, Aluminium, Nickel
and Cobalt.
17. The process by which a mixture of Sodium Chloride
(A) Brass (B) Bronze
and Ammonia Chloride can be separated, is called
(C) Solder (D) Alnicos
(A) Sublimation (B) Chromatography
(C) Evaporation (D) Distillation 26. Pick up the odd one out
(A) Air
18. Which of the following is not a pure substance ? (B) Brass
(A) Gold (B) Glucose (C) A crystal of green vitriol
(C) Pure Milk (D) Water (D) Gun powder
19. There is a mixture of three solid compounds A, B and 27. A mixture of sulphur and carbon disulphide is
C. Out of these compounds A and C are soluble in (A) Heterogeneous and shows Tyndall effect
water and compounds C is sublimable also. In what (B) Heterogeneous and does not show Tyndall effect
sequence the following techniques can be used for (C) Homogenous and shows Tyndall effect
their effective separation ? (D) Homogeneous and does not show Tyndall effect
I. Filtration
28. Two identical beakers labeled as (X) and (Y) contain
II. Sublimation
100 cm3 of water each at 20°C. To the water in the
III. Crystallisation from water extract
IV. Dissolution beaker (X) 100 g of water at 0°C was added and stirred
(A) (II), (I), (IV), (III) (B) (IV), (I), (II), (III) to mix thoroughly. To the beaker (Y) 100 g of ice at 0°C
(C) (I), (II), (III), (IV) (D) (II), (IV), (I), (III) was added and stirred till it melts in water. The water in
the beaker (Y) will be
20. Mass percentage of nitrogen in the compound N2O3 is (A) Hotter than water in beaker X
(A) 36.84 (B) 46.70
(B) Colder than water in beaker X
(C) 82.40 (D) 63.60
(C) Heavier than water in beaker X
21. The material which does not have fixed melting point (D) Lighter than water in beaker X
is
29. At 283 K, a saturated solution of solid X can be
(A) Plastic (B) Metals
prepared by dissolving 21.0 g of it in 100 g of water.
(C) Glass (D) Ceramics
The maximum amout of X which can be dissolved in
22. Which of the following shows the Tyndall effect ? 100 g of water at 313 K is 62.0 g. An attempt is made to
(i) Common salt dissolve 50.0 g of X in 100 g of water at 313 K.
(ii) milk A. All the 50.0 g of X will dissolve at 313 K.
(iii) Copper sulphate solution B. At 313 K 29.0 g of X will remain undissolved.
(iv) Starch solution
C. Solubility of X decreases with increase of
(A) (i) and (ii) (B) (ii) and (iv)
temperature.
(C) (iii) and (iv) (D) (ii) and (iii)
D. On cooling the solution of X from 313 K to 283 K
23. Which of the following alloy does not contain zinc more than 21.0 g of X will crystallize out.
metal ? Which of the above statements are correct.
(A) Gun metal (B) German silver (A) A and B (B) A and D
(C) Brass (D) Bronze (C) B and C (D) A, C and D

Course for NTSE 76 Class 9th

 Supplementary Booklet

30. Which of the following will show Tyndall Effect ? 38. The dispersion of any liquid in a liquid is known as
(A) Milk + H2O (B) Salt + H2O (A) Gel (B) Gum
(C) CuSO4 + H2O (D) Alcohol + H2O (C) Gelatin (D) Emulsion

31. The sky appears blue due to 39. The properties of the product are different from those
(A) Reflection of light of the constituents is called
(B) Refraction of light (A) Mixture (B) Element
(C) Total interval reflection of light (C) Compound (D) Acid
(D) Scattering of light
40. Cheese is an example of which type of colloid ?
32. The suspension among the following is (A) Gel (B) Foam
(A) Milk (C) Sol (D) Solid sol
(B) Oil in water
41. Which of the following shows te Tyndall effect ?
(C) Kerosene in water
(A) Solution of common salt
(D) Chalk powder in water
(B) Milk
33. Which of the following is a suitable method to separate (C) Lemon juice
two miscible liquids whose difference in boiling point (D) Solution of copper sulphate
is 36 K ?
42. Which of the following is a chemical change
(A) Evaporation
(A) Melting ice
(B) Distillation
(B) Dissolving salt in water
(C) Fractional distillation
(C) Rusting of iron
(D) Sublimation
(D) Boiling of water into steam
34. Which of the follwing will show Tyndall effect ?
43. Which of the following solution does not show Tyndall
(A) Solution of common salt in water
effect ?
(B) Starch solution
(A) Milk (B) Starch solution
(C) Solution of sugar in water
(C) Ink (D) Sugar solution
(D) Vinegar
44. An example of the condensation method for the
35. This is not true regarding the micelle
preparation of a colloid is
(A) The micelle stay in solution as a colloid
(A) Hydrolysis
(B) Micelle will not come together to precipitate
(B) Mechanical distintegration
(C) There is ion-ion repulsion
(C) Electrical dispersion
(D) The dirt suspended in the micelles is very difficult
(D) Peptization
to get rinsed off
45. What is the ratio of iron, chromium and nickel stainless
36. Miscible liquid among the following is
steel ?
(A) Alcohol in water (B) Milk
(A) 7 : 2 : 1 (B) 7 : 1 : 2
(C) Oil in water (D) Kerosene in water
(C) 7 : 3 : 1 (D) 1 : 2 : 7
37. The dyes of an ink can be separated by
46. Which metal is mixed with gold to prepare its ornaments ?
(A) Filteration
(A) Platinum (B) Nickel
(B) Sublimation
(C) Copper or silver (D) Zinc
(C) Fractional distillation
(D) Chromatography

Course for NTSE 77 Class 9th

Supplementary Booklet

47. The percentage of gold present in 20 carat gold in 53. When the liquids in a mixture differ by their boiling
(A) 100 (B) 73.86 points, which of the following is the best method to
(C) 50 (D) 83.33 separate these liquids ?
(A) Evaporation (B) Distillation
48. The path of light gets illuminated when passed through
(C) Chromatography (D) Filtration
(A) Blood solution (aq)
(B) Brine solution (aq) 54. Match the following correctly :
(C) Copper sulphate solution (aq) (i) Washing soda (w) H y d r o s c o p i c
(D) Acetic acid solution (aq) substance
49. Milk of magnesia is an example of which type of (ii) Sulphuric acid (x) Have water of
colloid ? crystallization
(A) Gel (B) Emulsion (iii) Suspension (y) Coagulation takes
(C) Sol (D) Foam place on addition of
salt
50. Which of the following gases is used to show the clouds
(iv) Colloid (z) Particles settle down
of artificial smoke in film or drama ?
(A) Carbon dioxide (B) Oxygen on standing
(C) Nitrogen (D) Hydrogen (A) (i)—(w), (ii)—(x), (iii)—(y), (iv)—(z)
(B) (i)—(x), (ii)—(w), (iii)—(z), (iv)—(y)
51. Match the column-I and column-II
(C) (i)—(z), (ii)—(y), (iii)—(x), (iv)—(w)
Column-I Column-II
(D) (i)—(x), (ii)—(z), (iii)—(w), (iv)—(y)
(a) Aerosol (i) Shaving cream
(b) Foam (ii) Face cream 55. What will be the mass/mass percentage of a solution
(c) Gel (iii) Clouds containing 30 g of common salt in 220 g of water ?
(d) Emulsion (iv) Jelly (A) 3% (B) 1.2%
a b c d (C) 12% (D) 22%
(A) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
56. Which process is used to separate a mixture of two
(B) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
miscible liquids A and B having boiling points 56°C
(C) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
and 65°C respectively?
(D) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
(A) Distillation (B) Fractional distillation
52. Which of the following statements are correct about (C) Sublimation (D) Steam distillation
properties of colloids ?
57. Tincture of iodine is a solution used as an antiseptic to
(1) A colloid is a homogenous mixture clean wounds. This is prepared by dissolving solid
(2) The size of particles of a colloid is too small to be iodine in
indivitually seen by naked eye. (A) Alcohol (B) Water
(3) Colloids are big enough to scatter a beam of light (C) Carbon disulphide (D) Ether
passing through it and make its path visible
58. Which of the following always contains mercury as
(A) (1), (2), (3) are correct
one of the constituents ?
(B) (2) and (3) are correct
(A) Stainless steel (B) Solder
(C) (1) and (2) are correct (C) Duralumin (D) Zinc Amalgam
(D) (1) and (3) are correct

Course for NTSE 78 Class 9th

 Supplementary Booklet

59. Four substance were thoroughly mixed with water 65. Neutron less neutral atom is
separated to obtain mixtures A, B, C and D. Some of (A) H (B) He
properties are given below (C) Na (D) K
(i) Path of beam of light passing through it was
66. Which is the symbol of the element tungsten ?
visible in A, B and D but invisible in C.
(A) Ta (B) Tc
(ii) On leaving undisturbed, the particles of the
(C) W (D) V
substance settle down in A but not in B, C and D.
(iii) The solute particles are visible to naked eye in A 67. Two elements A and B contain 13 and 8 protons
but invisible in B, C and D. respectively. If the number of neutrons in them happen
Which of the following is correct about A, B, C and to be 14 and 8 respectively; the formula unit mass for
D? the compound between A and B unit would be
(A) A, B ad D are colloids, C is a solution (A) 43 (B) 75
(B) A is a suspension, B and D are colloids, C is a (C) 102 (D) 112
solution
68. The number of atoms in 8 g oxygen molecules are
(C) A is a colloid. B, C and D are solutions
(A) 6.022 × 1023 (B) 3.011 × 1023
(D) A is a suspension. B, C and D are colloids
(C) 1.51 × 1023 (D) 12.044 × 1023

6. Atoms and Molecules 69. Under the same conditions of temperature and pressure,
1 L of oxygen gas was mixed with 1 L of carbon dioxide
60. The formula of Ammonium Sulphate is
gas. The mass ratio of the gases in the mixture will be
(A) NH4SO4 (B) (NH4)2SO4
(A) 1 : 1 (B) 8 : 11
(C) NH4(SO4)2 (D) NH4(SO4)3
(C) 11 : 8 (D) 16 : 44
61. An element have atomic number 19 and mass number
70. How many moles of electrons weigh one kilogram?
39. The number of neutron in its nucleus is
(Mass of electron = 9.108 × 10–31 kg; Avogadro number
(A) 20 (B) 58
= 6.023 × 1023)
(C) 19 (D) 39
1
(A) × 108 (B) 6.023 × 1023
62. Valency of Cr in CrPO4 is 9.108 × 6.023
(A) 4 (B) 3
1 6.023
(C) 2 (D) 1 (C) × 1031 (D) × 1054
9.108 9.108
63. Valency of carbon in CO32– ion is
71. The number of molecules in one mole of gas is
(A) 2 (B) 3
(A) 6.023 × 1023 (B) 6.023 × 1023
(C) 4 (D) 5
(C) 6.023 × 1021 (D) 6.023 × 1020
64. The electrical configuration of two elements X and Y
72. Number of moles is 128 g of sulphur will be
are given below
(A) 0.5 (B) 2
X = 2, 8, 8, 2 Y = 2, 8, 7
(C) 4 (D) 8
The formula of a compound that can be formed
between these two elements is 73. Which of the following cotains maximum number of
(A) XY (B) XY2 molecules ?
(C) X2Y (D) XY3 (A) 1 g of CO2 (B) 1 g of N2
(C) 1 g of H2 (D) 1 g of CH4

Course for NTSE 79 Class 9th

Supplementary Booklet

74. Which of the following correctly represent 360 g of 81. Match the Column-I and Column-II
water ? Column-I Column-II
(i) 2 moles of H2O (a) 0.5 mole SO2 gas (p) 10 moles of proton
(ii) 20 moles of water (b) 1 mole of H2O (q) 11.2 L at S.T.P.
(iii) 6.022 × 1023 molecules of water (c) 96 g of O2 gas (r) 2 moles of CO2
(iv) 1.2044 × 1025 molecules of water (d) 88 g of CO2 gas (s) 6 moles of atoms
(A) (i) only (B) (i) and (iv) (A) (a)—(r), (b)—(p), (c)—(q), (d)—(s)
(C) (ii) and (iii) (D) (ii) and (iv) (B) (d)—(p), (c)—(q), (b)—(r), (a)—(s)
(C) (a)—(p), (b)—(q), (c)—(s), (d)—(r)
75. A sample of MgCO3 contains 3.01 × 1023 Mg2+ ions
(D) (a)—(q), (b)—(p), (c)—(s), (d)—(r)
and 3.01 × 1023 CO32– ions. The mass of the sample is
(A) 42 mg (B) 84 g 82. The average atomic mass of a sample of an element
(C) 0.042 kg (D) 42 mol ‘X’ is 16.2u. What are the percentage of isotopes
16
76. Which sample at STP has same number of molecules 8 X and 18
8 X in the sample ?
16
as 5 L of NO2(g) has at STP ? (A) 8 X = 80%, 18
8 X = 20%
(A) 5 g of H2(g) 16
(B) 8 X = 60%, 18
8 X = 40%
(B) 5 L of methane (g)
16
(C) 5 moles of O2(g) (C) 8 X = 90%, 18
8 X = 10%
(D) 5 × 1023 molecules of CO2(g) 16
(D) 8 X = 45%, 18
8 X = 55%
77. How many electrons are present in 0.1 moles of [PO]43–
83. The number of paticles present in one mole of any
ions ?
substance is equal to ________
(A) 50 × 6.023 × 1023 (B) 5 × 6.023 × 1023
(A) 6.022 × 1023 (B) 60.22 × 1023
(C) 1 × 6.023 × 1023 (D) 3 × 6.023 × 1023
(C) 6.022 × 1027 (D) 60.22 × 1027
78. The mass of sodium chloride formed when 5.3 g of
84. 162 g of aluminium contains __________ moles of
1
sodium carbonate is dissolved in 250 ml of molar aluminium (atomic mass of Al = 27 u)
2
HCl solution will be (A) 6 (B) 3
(A) 5.85 g (B) 7.32 g (C) 12 (D) 24
(C) 11.7 g (D) 58.5 g 85. 6.4 g of oxygen will contain __________ number of
79. A gas mixture contains 50% helium and 50% methane oxygen molecules.
by volume at S.T.P. What is the percentage by mass of (A) 6.023 × 1023 (B) 6.023 × 1022
the methane in the mixture ? (C) 1.2046 × 1023 (D) 1.2046 × 1022
(A) 20% (B) 40% 86. The compound with higher molecular mass is
(C) 60% (D) 80% [Atomic mass of Ca – 40 u
80. A mixture of non-reacting gases contains hydrogen C – 12 u
and oxygen gases in the mass ratio of 1 : 4 respectively. O – 16 u
What will be the molar ratio of the above two gases in H–1u
the mixture ? Cl – 35.5 u
(A) 16 : 1 (B) 1 : 4 (A) CaCO3 (B) CaO
(C) 4 : 1 (D) 1 : 6 (C) Ca(OH)2 (D) CaCl2

Course for NTSE 80 Class 9th

 Supplementary Booklet

87. Which of the following relations between mole and 94. Total number of atoms in 44 g of CO2 is
mass is correct ? (A) 6.02 × 1023 (B) 6.02 × 1024
Weight (C) 1.806 × 1024 (D) 18.06 × 1022
(A) Mass =
Mass 95. The number of atoms constituting a molecule is known
Mass as
(B) Weight =
Mole (A) Valency (B) Atomicity
Weight (C) Mole concept (D) Atomic mass
(C) Mole = Atomic weight
96. Molecular mass of H2SO4 is
(D) All of these (A) 58.5 (u) (B) 98 (u)
(C) 36.5 (u) (D) 35.5 (u)
88. How many molecules are there in a mole of a
compound ? 97. Rutherford’s alpha particle scattering experiment was
(A) 60.22 × 10–23 (B) 602.2 × 10–23 responsible for discovery of
(C) 6.022 × 1023 (D) 6022 × 1023 (A) Electron (B) Atomic nucleus
(C) Proton (D) Neutron
89. Two oxides of an element cotains 57.1% and 72.7%
of oxygen respectively. If the first oxide is MO, the 98. Which of the following contains maximum number of
second is molecules ?
(A) M2O (B) MO2 (A) 1 g N2 (B) 1 g CO2
(C) M2O2 (D) M2O3 (C) 1 g H2 (D) 1 g O2

90. What is the mass of 12.044 × 1023 number of O2 99. A solution contains 58.5 g of common salt in 360 g of
molecules ? watr calculate the total number of protons in solutions.
(A) 8 g (B) 16 g (A) 21 × 6.023 × 1023 (B) 22.8 × 6.023 × 1023
(C) 32 g (D) 64 g (C) 200 × 6.023 × 1023 (D) 228 × 6.023 × 1023

91. A sample of Ascorbic acid (vitamin C) is synthesized 100. Which mass of O2 (Oxygen molecule) will cotain the
in the laboratory; it contains 1.50 g of Carbon and 2.00 same number of molecules as 2.5 moles of Cl2.
g Oxygen. Another sample of Ascorbic acid isolated (A) 180 g (B) 100 g
from citrus fruits contains 6.35 g of Carbon. How many (C) 71 g (D) 80 g
grams of Oxygen does it contain ? Which law do you
101. The number of gram moles of aluminium ions present
assume in answering this question ?
in 0.051 g of aluminium oxide is
(A) 7.25 : Law of conservation of mass
(A) 0.001 (B) 0.051
(B) 6.35 : Law of definite proportions
(C) 0.102 (D) 2
(C) 8.47 : Law of definite proportions
(D) 6.35 : Law of mutliple proportions 102. Total number of atoms in 4 g of oxygen molecule is
(A) 6.022 × 1023 (B) 7.52 × 1022
92. The ratio of Hydrogen and Oxygen by mass in water is
(C) 1.5055 × 1023 (D) 0.0752 × 1023
(A) 1 : 8 (B) 8 : 1
(C) 2 : 1 (D) 1 : 2 103. What is the chemical name of quick lime ?
(A) Calcium oxide (B) Calcium carbonate
93. The number of atoms in 0.1 mole of a triatomic gas is
(C) Calcium hydroxide (D) Carbon dioxide
(A) 6.026 × 1022 (B) 1.806 × 1023
(C) 3.6 × 1023 (D) 1.8 × 1022

Course for NTSE 81 Class 9th

Supplementary Booklet

104. The number of iodine atoms present in 50 ml of a 0.1 M 112. You are provided with 64 g of sulphur in container A
KI solution is and 64 g of O2 in container B. Which will have more
(A) 6 × 1023 (B) 12 × 1023 number of molecules ? (Atomic mass of S = 32, O = 16)
(C) 3 × 10 21 (D) 6 × 1022 (A) 64 g of S
105. You have the mythical metal element ‘X’ that can exhibit (B) 64 g of O2
variable valencey 1, 2 and 5. Which of the following (C) Both have equal number of molecules
are not the correct chemical for formulae for the (D) Cannot calculate with the given information
compounds formed by the combination of the “X” with
113. 0.25 mole of a hydrocarbon requires 0.5 mole of
different radicals ?
hydrogen for complete saturation. Possible formula of
(i) XPO4 (ii) X2SO4
the hydrocarbon is
(iii) X5ClO4 (iv) X3NO3
(A) Only (ii) (B) (ii) and (iii) (A) C3H8 (B) C3H6
(C) (i), (iii) and (iv) (D) (ii) and (iv) (C) C4H8 (D) C3H4

106. A metal sulphate has the formula MSO4. The phosphate 114. The total number of electrons present in 16 g of
of the same metal will have the formula. methane gas is
(A) M3(PO4)3 (B) M2PO4 (A) 96.352 × 1023 (B) 48.176 × 1023
(C) M(PO4)2 (D) M3(PO4)2 (C) 60.22 × 1023 (D) 30.110 × 1023
107. To prepare 100 ml, 2 M, NaOH solution, ________ 115. If 1021 mlecules of CO2 removed from 200 mg of CO2
gram of NaOH will be required ?
sample, then the number of moles of CO2 left are
(A) 40 g (B) 8 g
(A) 2.88 × 10–3 (B) 4.54 × 10–3
(C) 16 g (D) 24 g
(C) 1.66 × 10–3 (D) 1.66 × 10–2
108. The pH value of a solution prepared by dissolving 4 g
NaOH in 100 litre of water is 116. Which of the following is a suitable example for
(A) 13 (B) 14 illustrating the law of conservation of mass ? (Atomic
(C) 12 (D) 11 mass of O = 16; H = 1)
(A) 18 g of water is formed by the combination of 16
109. One mole of NH3 means
g oxygen with 2 g of hydrogen
(A) 2.24 litre of NH3 gas at STP
(B) 1.7 g of NH3 (B) 18 g of water in liquid state is obtained by heating
(C) 6.023 × 1023 molecules of NH3 18 g of ice
(D) 34 g of NH3 (C) 18 g of water is completely converted into vapour
state on heating
110. The total number of electrons in 1 kg glucose
(D) 18 g of water freezes at 4°C to give same mass of
(C6H12O6) is
[Molecular mass of glucose is 180 u] ice
(A) 6.022 × 1023 (B) 1.8 × 105 117. Total number of neutrons in five moles of water
(C) 3.346 × 1021 (D) 3.2 × 1026
molecule is
111. The two elements X and Y have 5 and 7 valence (A) 3.011 × 1024 (B) 2.409 × 1025
electrons respectively. What will be the most probable (C) 3.111 × 1025 (D) 2.711 × 1025
formula of the compound formed between them ?
(A) X7Y5 (B) X5Y7
(C) X3Y (D) XY3

Course for NTSE 82 Class 9th

 Supplementary Booklet

118. Somebody wanted to calculate the number of moles of 123. Which one of the following statements is incorrect ?
oxygen atoms comprising of 9.033 × 1023 number of (A) Charges on an electron and proton are equal and
its atoms. The person further thought to calculate its opposite
mass and to find the number of moles of hydrogen (B) Neutron have no charge
atoms required to combine completely with this amount (C) Electron and proton have same
of oxygen to form water. The number of moles of oxygen (D) Masses of proton and and neutron are nearly
atoms, their mass (in grams) and the number of moles the same
of hydrogen atoms are
124. Bromine atom is available in two isotopes 79 (49.7%)
(A) 1.5, 3 and 24 respectively 35 Br
and 81 (50.3%), the average atomic mass of bromine
(B) 15, 18 and 3 respectively 35 Br
(C) 0.15, 27 and 3 respectively atom is
(D) 1.5, 24 and 3 respectively (A) 79.016 (B) 80.076
(C) 80.006 (D) 81.016
7. Structure of Atom 125. Mg has three natural isotopes whose isotopic masses
119. The electronic configuration of an ion M2+ is 2, 8, 14. If and relative abundances are respectively 23.98
its mass number is 56, the number of neutrons in its (78.60%), 24.98(10.11%) and 25.98(11.29%). The
nucleus is atomic mass of Mg will be
(A) 30 (B) 32 (A) 23.42 (B) 24.31
(C) 34 (D) 42 (C) 24.95 (D) 23.95

120. Structures of nuclei of three atoms A, B and C are given 126. Which of the following pair is isoelectronic ?
below (A) Na+, Ar (B) Mg++, Ca++
A has 90 protons and 146 neutrons (C) K+, Ar (D) Na+, K+
B has 92 protons and 146 neutrons 127. How many number of protons and electrons are present
C has 90 protons and 148 neutrons. in Ca2+ ?
Based on the above data, which of these atoms are (A) 20 protons; 20 electrons
isotopes and which are isobars ? (B) 20 protons; 22 electrons
(A) A and C are isotopes; B and C are isobars (C) 18 protons; 18 electrons
(B) A and B are isotopes; A and C are isobars (D) 20 protons; 18 electrons
(C) B and C are isobars; A and B are isotopes
(D) A and C are isotopes; A and B are isobars 128. What are the values of the quantum numbers of 19th
electron of Scandium (Z = 21) ?
121. Which of the following will have equal number of
1
electrons ? (A) n = 4; l = 0; m = 0; ms = +
2
(A) Cl– and Br– (B) Na+ and Mg2+
(C) Ar and Ne (D) Mg2+ and Ca2+ 1
(B) n = 4; l = 1; m = 0; ms = +
2
122. Which statement is correct about a proton ?
1
(A) It is nucleus of deuterium (C) n = 4; l = 2; m = 1; ms = +
2
(B) It is ionised hydrogen molecule
1
(C) It is ionised hydrogen atom (D) n = 4; l = 3; m = 2; ms = +
2
(D) It is negatively charged particle

Course for NTSE 83 Class 9th

Supplementary Booklet

e 135. An element with atomic no. 7 will show chemical

129. The ascending order of (charge/mass) value for
m properties similar to element with atomic numbers
electron (e), proton (p), neutron (n) and alpha (α) (A) 10 (B) 9
particle is (C) 15 (D) 17
(A) e, p, n, α (B) n, p, e, α
(C) n, α, p, e (D) n, p, α, e 136. Which is correctly matched ?
Element Electron distribution
130. What are the electronic configuration of Na+ and Cl–
(A) Sulphur — 2, 8, 8
ions ?
(B) Phosphorus — 2, 8, 6
(A) Na+ = 2, 8, 1 and Cl– = 2, 8, 7
(C) Aluminium — 2, 8, 3
(B) Na+ = 2, 8 and Cl– = 2, 8, 8
(D) Silicon — 2, 8, 5
(C) Na+ = 2, 8, 2 and Cl– = 2, 8, 6
(D) Na+ = 2, 8 and Cl– = 2, 8, 7 137. What is the electronic configuration of Sulphur ?
(A) 2, 6, 8 (B) 2, 4, 8
131. Which of the following statements are correct about α
(C) 2, 8, 6 (D) 2, 6, 4
(alpha) particle scattering experiment ?
(i) Most of the fast moving α-particles passed 138. The atomic mass of an element is 19. The second shell
straight through gold foil of its atom contain 7 electrons. The number of protons
(ii) Some of α-particles are deflected by the foil by in its nucleus is
small angles (A) 9 (B) 10
(iii) Surprisingly one out of every 10 particles (C) 7 (D) 12
appeared to rebound
139. The atomic number of Mg is 12. The number of electrons
(A) (i) and (iii) are correct
in its M shell will be
(B) (i) and (ii) are correct
(A) Eight (B) Ten
(C) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
(C) Two (D) Zero
(D) Only (ii) is correct
132. “Electrons pairing in orbitals starts only when available 140. The atomic masses of two isotopes of chlorine are 35

empty orbitals of the same energy are singly occupied”. and 37. The number of neutrons will be

This statement refers to __________ (A) 18, 20 (B) 20, 18

(A) Pauli exclusion principle (C) 17, 18 (D) 18, 17

(B) Hund’s rule 141. How many orbitals can have the following set of
(C) Aufbau principle
quantum numbers ?
(D) Quantum principle
n = 3, l = 2, ml = –2
133. The valency of the element with atomic number 17 is (A) 8 (B) 1
__________ (C) 2 (D) 4
(A) 7 (B) 1, 7
(C) 1 (D) 3.5 142. Sodium azide NaN3 decomposes explosively to sodium
metal and nitrogen gas and is used in automobile air
134. Identify the elements which are very less reactive :
bags 2NaN3 → 2Na + 3N2. Azide ion is isoelectronic to
(1) X (2) (2) Y (2, 8, 1) (A) CO (B) NO
(3) Z (2, 6) (4) W (2, 8, 8) (C) CO2 (D) H2O
(A) (1) and (2) (B) (2) and (3)
(C) (1) and (4) (D) (2) and (4)

Course for NTSE 84 Class 9th

 Supplementary Booklet

143. Uranium (A = 238, Z = 92) emits an α-particles. The 151. What is the number of s-electrons present in a
product has mass number and atomic number chromium atom ? (Atomic number of Cr = 24)
respectively as (A) 7 (B) 1
(A) 238 and 96 (B) 238 and 90 (C) 8 (D) 5
(C) 236 and 92 (D) 234 and 90
152. Number of valence electrons in Cl atom is
144. The electronic configuration of copper can be
(A) 16 (B) 7
represented in this/these way/ways
(C) 17 (D) 18
(i) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d10
(ii) [Ar] 3d10 4s1 153. Isotopes of an element have
(iii) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d9 (A) The same physical properties
(A) Only (i) and (ii) are correct
(B) Different chemical properties
(B) Only (ii) is correct
(C) Different number of neutrons
(C) Only (ii) and (iii) are correct
(D) Different atomic number
(D) Only (i) and (iii) are correct

145. The electronic configuration of an element with atomic 154. Adding an alpha particle to the nucleus of sodium atom

number 19 will be produces which new element ?

(A) 2, 9, 8 (B) 2, 8, 9 (A) Mg (B) P

(C) 2, 8, 8, 1 (D) 2, 10, 7 (C) Al (D) Ne

146. Two elements showing similar properties due to same 155. Number of valence electrons in Magnesium is
number of valence electrons are (A) 12 (B) 10
(A) Ca and Ga (B) S and O (C) 8 (D) 2
(C) C and Cl (D) Si and S
156. Number of which among the following is same in Al+3
147. The number of neutrons in an atom of 23 is
11 X and F– ?
(A) 23 (B) 11 (A) Proton (B) Neutron
(C) 34 (D) 12
(C) Atomic mass (D) Electron
148. The maximum number of electrons that can be
157. How many electrons are there in chloride ion ?
accommodated in the ‘L’ of an atom is
(A) 17 (B) 18
(A) 2 (B) 4
(C) 16 (D) 8
(C) 8 (D) 16
158. Which of the following acid molecule differ from other
149. The valency of the element with atomic number ‘10’ is
molecules regarding their total number of valence
(A) 2 (B) 8
electrons ?
(C) 10 (D) 0
(A) HClO4 (B) H3PO4
150. The isotope used in the treatment of cancer is
(C) HNO3 (D) H2SO4
(A) Iodine (B) Cobalt
(C) Carbon (D) Hydrogen

Course for NTSE 85 Class 9th

Supplementary Booklet

159. While roaming in a parallel universe, you discover the 164. “Atoms are neither, created nor destroyed in a chemical
hypothetical element ‘X’. You obtain a representative reaction.” This postulation was given by
sample of the element and discover that it is made up (A) J.J. Thomson (B) Niels Bohr

of three isotopes, X-48, X-52, X-54. To help your science (C) John Dalton (D) Amedeo Avogadro

tream, calculate the atomic mass of the substance. You 165. Electrons are discovered by
send the following drawing of your sample with your (A) James Chadwick (B) J.J. Thomson
report. (C) Ernest Rutherford (D) Niels Bohr

166. Deuterium is an isotope of

(A) Carbon (B) Hydrogen
(C) Cobalt (D) Cesium

167. An ion with mass number 56 contains 3 units of

positive charge and 30.4% more neutrons than
In the report you also inform the science team that the electrons. Atomic number of the element is
circular atoms are X-48, star atoms are X-52 and the (A) 24 (B) 25
remaining crossed circular atoms are X-54. What is the (C) 26 (D) 27
average atomic mass of X ? x p
168. y A and q B are isotopes. Which equation is correct
(A) 50.5 (B) 51.5
regarding the two atoms ?
(C) 52.5 (D) 53.5 (A) ( x 2 − p 2 )( y 2 − q 2 ) = 0
160. If there are 12 neutrns in an atom and its atomic number (B) ( x 2 + p 2 )( y 2 + q 2 ) = 0

is 11. How many protons are present in it ? (C) ( x 2 − q 2 )( y 2 − p 2 ) = 0

(A) 11 (B) 12
(D) ( x 2 + q 2 )( y 2 + p 2 ) = 0

(C) 23 (D) 1 169. How many electrons are there in chloride ion ?
(A) 17 (B) 18
161. In SO3, what is the valency of sulphur atom ?
(C) 16 (D) 8
(A) 3 (B) 1
(C) 5 (D) 6 170. Which scientist gave the rule of octet ?
(A) Lewis (B) Rayleigh and Ramsey
162. Proton was discovered by :
(C) Dalton (D) Dobereiner
(A) J.J. Thomsom (B) Chedwick
171. An atom of an element (X) has its K, L and M shells
(C) E. Goldstein (D) Rutherford
filled with some electrons. It reacts with sodium metal
163. What is the electronic configuration of Cl– ? to form a compound NaX. The number of electrons in
(A) 2, 8, 7 (B) 2, 8, 8 the M shell of an atom of element (X) is
(C) 2, 8, 6 (D) 2, 8, 8, 1 (A) 7 (B) 8
(C) 2 (D) 1

Course for NTSE 86 Class 9th

 Supplementary Booklet

172. Which of the following statements DO NOT match 175. An element has two shells and has double the number
with the postulates of Bohr’s model of atom ? of electrons in its valence shell than the first shell. The
(1) Electrons are revolving around the nucleus in valency of the element could be
specified paths called orbits/shells (A) 8 (B) 4
(2) Each shell is associated with definite amount of (C) 2 (D) 6
energy
176. 17 looses electrons and forms trivalent cation. This
(3) Electron, while revolving through a particular 13 Al
shell can increases or decreases its energy ion will have
(4) Energy of the shells decreases as their distance
(A) 13 electrons and 14 protons
form nucleus increases
Select the correct alternative. (B) 10 electrons and 13 protons
(A) (3) and (4) (B) (2) and (3) (C) 10 electrons and 10 protons
(C) (1) and (3) (D) (2) and (4)
(D) 14 electrons and 13 protons
173. Which of the following statements are NOT CORRECT
? 177. Assertion (A) : Aluminium foil cannot be used in α-
(A) Isobars are atoms of different elements particle scattering experiment.
(B) Isotopes are atoms of same elements Reason (R) : Aluminium is highly malleable metal.
(C) Isotones are atoms of same elements (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct. R is the correct
(D) Isotones are atoms of different elements reason for (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but R is not the
174. X and Y are the two atomic species correct reason for (A)
X Y (C) A is correct and R is incorrect
(D) A is incorrect and R is correct
Number of Proton 8 8
Number of Neutron 8 10

Select the correct statement about X and Y.

(A) X and Y are isobars
(B) X and Y have different chemical properties
(C) X and Y have different physical properties
(D) X and Y are the atoms of different elements

Course for NTSE 87 Class 9th

Supplementary Booklet

Supplementary Booklet | Class IX

Biology

[Level - 1]
1. Crop Production & Management
1. The crop that would require minimum quantity of urea or 7. Which one of the following is not a viral disease ?
NPK for its growth is (A) Polio (B) Mumps
(A) Blackgram (B) Paddy (C) AIDS (D) Cholera
(C) Sugarcane (D) Groundnut
8. Pencilin is obtained from
2. Select the correct answer about manure. (A) Cycas (B) Fungi
(1) Manure contains large quantities of organic matter (C) Fern (D) Algae
and small quantities of nutrients
9. In food industry, food containing oil is prepared and to
(2) It increases the water holding capacity of sandy oil
avoid development of foul smell, the substance that is
(3) It helps in draining out excess of water from clayey
needed to be added is
soil
(A) Antioxidants (B) Preservatives
(4) It excessive use pollutes environment because it is
(C) Colourants (D) Flavourants
made of animal excretory waste
(A) (1) and (3) (B) (1) and (2) 3. Conservation of Plants & Animals
(C) (2) and (3) (D) (3) and (4)
10. In which book, endangered plant species names are
2. Microorganisms : Friend & Foe published ?
(A) Endangered species book
3. Typhoid is caused by
(B) Green data book
(A) Streptococcus (B) Salmonella
(C) Red data book
(C) Giardia (D) Mycobacterium
(D) Yellow data book
4. Taking the factor of the disease into consideration, choose
11. Quinine is obtained from
the incorrect matching pair.
(A) Bark (B) Fruit
(A) Malaria and Filariasis
(C) Leaves (D) Roots
(B) Dengue and Influenza
(C) Typhoid and Tuberculosis 4. Cell: Structure and Functions
(D) Influenza and AIDS
12. Organisms lacking nuclear membrane and cell organelles
5. Which of the following disease is not caused by virus ? are called
(A) Measles (B) Polio (A) Prokaryotes (B) Eukaryotes
(C) Whooping cough (D) Rabies (C) Protozoa (D) Virus
6. Which one of the following is commonly known as 13. Cell organelle which differentiates plant cell from animal
malarial parasite and causes malaria in human ? cell is
(A) Plasmodium (B) Paramoecium (A) Cell Membrane (B) Plastid
(C) Anopheles (D) Amoeba (C) Nucleolus (D) Vacuole

Course for NTSE 88 Class 9th

 Supplementary Booklet

14. An animal cell, a plant cell and a bacterium share the 22. Which among the following cell organelles is able to make
following structural features its own proteins ?
(A) Cell membrane, endoplasmic reticulum, vacuoles (A) Lysosome
(B) Cell wall, plasma membrane, mitochondria (B) Golgi apparatus
(C) Cell wall, nucleus, cytoplasm (C) Plastid
(D) Plasma membrane, cytoplasm, ribosomes (D) Endoplasmic reticulum

15. Which is a prokaryotic cell, amongst the following ? 23. Which cell organelle is known as “powerhouse of the
cell” ?
(A) Amoeba (B) Bacteria
(A) Mitochondria
(C) Yeast (D) Euglena
(B) Lysosome
16. The site of photosynthesis in plant is (C) Golgi apparatus
(A) Mitochondria (B) Chloroplasts (D) Endoplasmic reticulum
(C) Leucoplasts (D) Dictyosome
24. Who proposed that cell arise from pre-existing cells ?
17. Which of the following is not found in the animal cell ? (A) Robert Remak (B) August Weismann
(A) Plastid (C) Virchow (D) Gregor Mendel
(B) Mitochondrion 25. The prokaryotic cell does not contain
(C) Golgi body (A) Chromosome (B) Mitochondria
(D) Endoplasmic reticulum (C) Plasma membrane (D) Ribosome
18. In a cell, which cell organelle other than nucleus contains 26. Which pair of the following organelles have their own
DNA ? ribosomes
(A) Lysosomes (A) Mitochondria and Golgi bodies
(B) Golgi bodies (B) Mitochondria and Chloroplast
(C) Endoplasmic reticulum (C) Chloroplast and Endoplasmic reticulum
(D) Mitochondria (D) Endoplasmic reticulum and Golgi bodies
19. The cell organelle storing substances like starch, oil and 27. Navya observed one slide through the microscope. In it,
proteins is almost the entire cell space was occupied by vacuole.
(A) Vacuole (B) Lysosome What would it be ?
(C) Plastid (D) Golgi body (A) Animal cell (B) Amoeba
20. Prokaryotes are the organisms wich are characterized by (C) Mature plant cell (D) Non living cell
(A) Well defined nucleus 28. Selective permeability means
(B) Absence of cell wall (A) It allows entry of certain substances only
(C) Absence of chlorophyll (B) It allows exit of certain substance only
(D) Absence of nuclear envelope, nucleus and (C) It allows passage of all solutes and solvents
nucleoplasm (D) It allows entry and exit of certain substances and
21. Which one of the following is known as energy currency prevents remaining substances
of a cell ? 29. Which of the following cell organelle does not possess a
(A) ATP (B) ADP double layered covering ?
(C) Pyruvate (D) Glucose (A) Chloroplast (B) Nucleus
(C) Mitochondria (D) Vacuole

Course for NTSE 89 Class 9th

Supplementary Booklet

5. Reproduction in Animals (D) Uterus

30. Asexual reproduction takes place through budding in 39. Which of the following is not a part of the female
(A) Amoeba (B) Yeast reproductive system in human being ?
(C) Plasmodium (D) Leishmania (A) Ovary (B) Uterus
31. Budding is found in (C) Vas deferens (D) Fallopian tube
(A) Mango (B) Yeast 40. Diploid is
(C) Papaya (D) Banana (A) Ovum (B) Pollen
32. Reproduction is essential for living organisms (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) Zygote
(A) As it keeps the individual organism alive
41. Identify the wrong pair from the following :
(B) As it fulfils their energy requirements
(A) Euglena - Binary fission
(C) As it helps to maintain growth
(B) Yeast - Budding
(D) As it helps continue the species generation after
generation (C) Spirogyra - Fragmentation
(D) Hydra - Multiple fission
33. Which one of the following is correct route for passage
of sperms ? 42. A basic process in reproduction is the creation of a
(A) Testes – scrotum – vas deferens – urethra – penis _________ copy.
(B) Scrotum – testes – urethra – vas deferens – penis (A) RNA (B) DNA
(C) Testes – vas deferens – urethra – seminal vesicles (C) Nucleus (D) Mitochondria
(D) Testes – vas deferens – urethra – penis
43. The human embryo gets nutrition from the mother’s
34. The common passage of urine and sperm in human male
blood with the help of a special organ called
is
(A) Seminal vesicle (B) Ureter (A) Zygote (B) Ovary

(C) Vas deferens (D) Urethra (C) Oviduct (D) Placenta

35. Period of complete development of foetus starting with

6. Reaching the Age of Adolescene
implantation till the birth of young one is called
(A) Gestation period (B) Parturition 44. Anger is caused by increased levels of the following
(C) Pregnancy (D) Both (A) and (C) hormone
(A) Somatotropin (B) Thyroxine
36. Regeneration is found in
(C) Testosterone (D) Adrenaline
(A) Tapeworm (B) Leech
(C) Hydra (D) Ascaris 45. Which endocrine gland does regulate the level of
37. Identify the mismatched pair. phosphorus in blood ?
(A) Fragmentation — Algae, Fungi (A) Thyroid (B) Parathyroid
(B) Fission — Earthworm (C) Adrenal (D) Pituitary
(C) Regeneration — Planaria 46. In human beings, sugar level in blood is controlled by
(D) Budding — Yeast (A) Adrenaline (B) Estrogen
38. Which one of the following contributes to the formation (C) Insulin (D) Thyroxine
of placenta ?
47. Iodine is necessary for the synthesis of which hormone ?
(A) Uterus and ovary (B) Ovary and embryo
(A) Auxin (B) Thyroxine
(C) Uterus and fallopian tube
(C) Adrenaline (D) Insulin

Course for NTSE 90 Class 9th

 Supplementary Booklet

48. Out of the following which hormone regulates 7. Polution of Air and Water
carbohydrates, proteins and fats metabolism in the body
56. Which of the following diseases is not caused by polluted
so as to provide the best balance for growth ?
water ?
(A) Insulin (B) Thyroxine
(A) Typhoid (B) Dysentery
(C) Estrogen (D) Adrenaline
(C) Malaria (D) Jaundice
49. The full form of TSH is
57. Cement factory labourers are prone to
(A) Thyroxine stimulating hormone
(A) Leukemia (B) Bone-marrow disease
(B) Thymine stimulating hormone
(C) Asbestosis (D) Cytosilicosis
(C) Tyrocin stimulating hormone
(D) Thyroid stimulating hormone 58. ___________ is the pollutant released from air-
conditioner.
50. Which statement is not true about thyroxine ?
(A) Chlorofluorocarbons (B) Carbon dioxide
(A) Iron is very essential for the synthesis of thyroxine
(C) Methane (D) Carbon monoxide
(B) It regulates carbohydrates, proteins and fats
metabolism in the body 59. Pick out the pollutant
(C) Thyroid gland requires iodine to synthesize (A) Carbon monoxide (B) Oxygen
thyroxine (C) Nitrogen (D) Hydrogen
(D) Thyroxine is also called thyroid hormone
60. The three R’s which can, help us to conserve natural
51. Which one of the following pairs is not correct ? resources for future generation are
(A) Pituitary gland — Adrenaline (A) Reduce, Regenerate, Redistribute
(B) Pancreas — Insulin (B) Reduce, Recycle, Regenerate
(C) Ovary — Estrogen
(C) Reduce, Reuse, Recycle
(D) Testis — Testosterone
(D) Redistribute, Regenerate, Recycle
52. If a rat is a given an injection of sodium iodide with
61. Presence of which two of the following compounds cause
radioactive iodine, then in which of the following most
algal bloom ?
of iodine would be incorporated ?
(A) Carbonate + Nitrate (B) Sulphate + Phosphate
(A) Cartilage (B) Thyroid
(C) Parathyroid (D) Lymph nodes (C) Phosphate + Nitrate (D) Sulphate + Nitrate

53. Which of the following is not an endocrine gland ? 62. Acid rain is caused by
(A) Pituitary gland (B) Thyroid gland (A) CO (B) SO2
(C) Liver (D) Adrenal gland (C) O2 (D) All of these

54. Menopause is the stage in female when 63. Which of the following gases mainly increases global
(A) Menstruation starts warming ?
(B) Puberty (A) Carbon monoxide (B) Nitrous oxide
(C) Reproduction capacity is arrested (C) Carbon dioxide (D) Sulphur dioxide
(D) Ovaries enlarges
64. The main factor of depletion of ozone layer is
55. Out of the following endocrine glands which are (A) Chlorofluorocarbons (B) Oxygen
unpaired? (C) Sulphur (D) Nitrogen
(A) Ovary (B) Testes
(C) Pancreas (D) Adrenal

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Supplementary Booklet

65. Assertion (A) : People entering into the burning place 2. The cell division which is also known as reductional cell
die due to suffocation. division is
Reason (R) : Smoke contains large amount of carbon (A) Fission (B) Meiosis
monoxide, a toxic gas. (C) Mitosis (D) Amitosis
(A) (A) is correct and (R) is wrong
3. Ribosomes are the centre for
(B) (R) explains (A)
(A) Respiration (B) Protein synthesis
(C) (R) does not explain (A)
(C) Photosynthesis (D) Fat synthesis
(D) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct
4. What happens when a cell is placed in a hypertonic
66. The carcinogenic toxic gas released during cigarette
solution ?
smoking is
(A) Endosmosis (B) Exosmosis
(A) Nitrogen oxide (B) Methyl isocyante
(C) Deplasmolysis (D) Imbibition
(C) Methyl mercury (D) Benzopyrene
5. Mitosis
67. Which pollutant is dangerous for Taj Mahal ?
(A) Leads to recombinant daughter cells
(A) Sulphur dioxide (SO2)
(B) Is a reduction division
(B) Carbon dioxide (CO2)
(C) Leads to formation of parental type of daughter cells
(C) Carbon monoxide (CO)
(D) Occurs in gametes
(D) All of these
6. Mitochondria and chloroplasts are similar because
68. Which gas is emitted on burning of rice straw ?
(A) Both have nuclei
(A) SO2 (B) NH3
(B) Both have 80S ribosomes
(C) O3 (D) H2S
(C) Both have DNA
69. Ozone hole over Antarctica appears during (D) Both have single membrane envelope
(A) Spring (B) Summer
7. Lipids and proteins constituting the cell membrane are
(C) Autumn (D) Winter
synthesized at
70. Which radiation harms ozone layer in the atmosphere ? (A) Endoplasmic reticulum
(A) Ultraviolet radiation (B) Infrared radiation (B) Mitochondria
(C) Radio radiation (D) Red radiation (C) Golgi apparatus
(D) Lysosome
71. In the year 1984, the Bhopal gas tragedy was caused by
the leakage of 8. Cell organelle ‘Bioplast’ was given another name by
(A) Carbon monoxide (B) Methyl isocyanate Benda, which is
(C) Nitrogen oxide (D) Sulphur dioxide (A) Chloroplast (B) Mitochondria
(C) Ribosome (D) Lysosome
[Level - 2]
9. Cell organelle that allows certain substances to enter or
8. Cell: The Fundamental Unit of Life come out from the cell is
(A) Ribosome (B) Plasma membrane
1. The cell organelle pertaining to energy release process is
(C) Centrosome (D) Golgi body
(A) Lysosome
(B) Chloroplast 10. Which nitrogen base is absent in DNA ?
(C) Mitochondria (A) Adenine (B) Guanine
(D) Endoplasmic reticulum (C) Uracil (D) Cytosine

Course for NTSE 92 Class 9th

 Supplementary Booklet

11. Plant cells withstand greater changes in surrounding 19. The name ‘protoplasm’ was coined by
medium than animal cells because of their _________. (A) Robert Brown
(A) Cell wall (B) Plasma membrane (B) Robert Hooke
(C) Chlorophyll (D) Root system (C) Anton van Leeuwenhoek
(D) Purkinje
12. The following eukaryotic cells do not contain nucleus
(1) Red blood cells (2) Slime moulds 20. Suggest which among the following is not a function
(3) Phloem sieve tube (4) White blood cells attributed to endoplasmic reticulum ?
(A) (1) and (2) (B) (2) and (3) (A) Detoxification of poisons and drugs
(C) (1) and (3) (D) (4) and (1) (B) Digestion/egestion of foreign materials outside the
cell
13. Adenine is a kind of (C) Manufacture of fat and lipid molecules
(A) Purine base (B) Pyrimidine base (D) Biogenesis of membrane
(C) Protein (D) Fat
21. Cell organelles that are involved in the waste disposal
14. The common component of nuclear membrane in system of the cell are
organelles like mitochondria, endoplasmic reticulum and (A) Golgi apparatus (B) Lysosome
nucleus is (C) Chromosomes (D) Ribosomes
(A) Glycolipid (B) Glycoprotein 22. F1 particles or oxysomes are present in
(C) Nucleoprotein (D) Lipoprotein (A) Endoplasmic reticulum (B) Chloroplast
15. DNA (Deoxyribonucleic acid) and RNA (Ribonucleic (C) Mitochondria (D) Golgi complex
acid) are found in cells of all living beings. Their amount 23. The nucleolus helps in the formation of
in the cells are (A) Lysosomes (B) Ribosomes
(A) RNA is more than DNA (C) Peroxisomes (D) Centrosomes
(B) DNA is more than RNA 24. Give the name of scientists who gave double helical
(C) RNA and DNA are equal in amount structure of DNA molecules.
(D) None of these (A) Robert Brown (B) Robert Hooke
16. During rainy season, wooden doors are difficult to open (C) Leeuwenhoek (D) Watson and Crick
or close. It is due to 25. In simple organisms, exchange of gases and excretion
(A) Plasmolysis (B) Osmosis occur through
(C) Imbibition (D) Dehydration (A) Osmosis (B) Diffusion
(C) Imbibition (D) All of the above
17. Detoxification of drugs and toxic substances occur in
26. The cell wall of fungi is made of tough complex sugar
(A) Lysosome
called
(B) Ribosome
(A) Cellulose (B) Chitin
(C) Golgi body
(C) Pectin (D) Lignin
(D) Endoplasmic reticulum
27. Gene are present in/on
18. A cell will plasmolyse, if it is place in (A) Cell (B) Nucleus
(A) Hypertonic solution (C) Mitochondria (D) Chromosomes
(B) Hypotonic solution 28. The lipids are proteins essential for the formation of cell
(C) Isotonic solution membrane, are synthesized in
(D) Concentration of water molecules does not matter (A) Golgi bodies (B) Mitochondria
(C) Endoplasmic reticulum (D) Lysosome

Course for NTSE 93 Class 9th

Supplementary Booklet

29. An animal cell shrinks when placed in a concentrated 38. Which is a prokaryotic cell amongst the following ?
sugar solution. Such a solution is known as (A) Amoeba (B) Bacteria
(A) Hypertonic (B) Hypotonic (C) Yeast (D) Volvox
(C) Isotonic (D) Neurotonic
39. Breakdown of pyruvate to give carbon dioxide, water
30. Destructuve enzymes containing cell organelles are and energy takes place in
(A) Golgi complex (B) Ribosomes (A) Cytoplasm (B) Mitochondria
(C) Lysosomes (D) Chromosomes (C) Chloroplast (D) Nucleus

31. Krebs’ cycle takes place in 40. What is the information source for making proteins in
(A) Cytoplasm (B) Mitochondria the nucleus of a cell ?
(C) Nucleus (D) Ribosome (A) IUCD (B) DNA
(C) ER (D) ATP
32. Which one of the following helps in the formation of
plasma membrane ? 41. What will happen to the cell, if the medium has a lower
(A) Mitochondria concentration of water than the cell ?
(B) Endoplasmic reticulum (A) Exosmosis (B) Endocytosis
(C) Lysosome (C) Endosmosis (D) Exocytosis
(D) Ribosome
42. Amoeba acquires its food by _________
33. In which of the following organs/cells/structures cell (A) Exosmosis (B) Endocytosis
division does not take place ? (C) Endosmosis (D) Exocytosis
(A) Bone marrow and brain
(B) Fertilized egg and bone marrow 9. Improvement in Food Resources
(C) Cancer cells in different organs
(D) Brain and heart 43. Which of the following is the high milk yielding variety
of cow ?
34. Chromosomes are composed of
(A) Holstein (B) Sahiwal
(A) DNA and proteins (B) RNA and lipids
(C) Red Sindhi (D) Mehsana
(C) Ribosomes and lipids (D) DNA and lipids
44. Choose the correct pairing of fish and its feeding zone
35. Movement of water molecules from a region of its higher
from the choices given below :
concentration to a region of its lower concentration
through a semipermeable membrane is called (i) Rohu (a) Bottom zone
(A) Plasmolysis (B) Endocytosis (ii) Catla (b) Middle zone
(C) Osmosis (D) Diffusion (iii) Common carp (c) Surface zone
(iv) Mrigal
36. Plasmolysis in plant cell is defined as
(A) (i) and (ii)—(a), (iii)—(b), (iv)—(c)
(A) Breakdown of plasma membrane in hypotonic
medium (B) (i) and (iv)—(b), (iii)—(c), (ii)—(a)
(B) Shrinkage of protoplasm in hypertonic medium (C) (i)—(b), (ii)—(c), (iii) and (iv)—(a)
(C) Shrinkage of nucleoplasm (D) (i)—(a), (ii)—(b), (iii) and (iv)—(c)
(D) Breakdown of nuclear membrane
45. Which of the following is not a foreign breed of cow ?
37. Which cell organelle is known as suicidal bag ? (A) Sahiwal (B) Holstein
(A) Ribosome (B) Centrosome (C) Brown Swiss (D) Jersey
(C) Lysosome (D) Peroxisome

Course for NTSE 94 Class 9th

 Supplementary Booklet

46. Three crops that contribute maximum to global food grain 56. In which of the following plant generally root nodules
production are are found ?
(A) Wheat, Ric and Maize (A) Black pepper (B) Pea
(B) Wheat, Rice and Barley (C) Onion (D) Radish

(C) Wheat, Maize and Sorghum 57. Which is the improved hybrid variety of wheat ?
(D) Rice, Maize and Sorghum (A) Sona (B) Sonalika
47. Cotton fibre is obtained from (C) PS-16 (D) Paras
(A) Seeds (B) Phloem 58. Which of the following is a micronutrient element ?
(C) Leaves (D) Roots (A) Mg (B) K
48. Organic farming is the technique of raising crops through (C) Ca (D) Zn
the use of
59. Which of the following is an Italian variety of honey bee?
(A) Manure (B) Biofertilizers
(A) Apis florea (B) Apix cerana indica
(C) Resistant varieties (D) All of these (C) Apis mellifera (D) Apis dorsata
49. Which one of the following is an Italian honey bee ?
60. An example for exotic breed of cow is
(A) Apis dorsata (B) Apis adamsoni (A) Frieswal (B) Friesian
(C) Apix mellifera (D) Apis florea (C) Gir (D) Sahiwal
50. The cyanobacteria that helps in fixing atmospheric
61. Which one of the following is correctly matched ?
nitrogen :
A B
(A) Azolla (B) Anabaena
(a) Hemp (i) Medicinal plant
(C) Rhizobium (D) Eudorina
(b) Cocoa (ii) Oil plant
51. Sodium benzoate is
(c) Leucas (iii) Fodder plant
(A) Tranquilizer (B) Edible colour (d) Fenugreek (iv) Beverage plant
(C) Preservative (D) Antibiotic (e) Palm (v) Fibre plant
52. The beehive is made of (vi) Spice plant
(A) Cellulose (B) Chitin (A) (a)—(v), (b)—(iv), (c)—(i), (d)—(vi), (e)—(ii)
(C) Cork (D) Wax (B) (a)—(vi), (b)—(iii), (c)—(ii), (d)—(i), (e)—(iv)
53. Plant part used as medicine of Terminalia arjuna is (C) (a)—(iv), (b)—(ii), (c)—(vi), (d)—(iii), (e)—(i)
(A) Leaves (B) Fruits (D) (a)—(iii), (b)—(v), (c)—(vi), (d)—(ii), (e)—(i)

(C) Bark (D) Roots

10. Tissue
54. Which of the following practices are suitable to farmer
with less resources ? 62. Connective tissue with a fluid matrix is
(1) Select a short term crop (A) Ligament (B) Tendon
(2) Cultivate commercial crop (C) Blood (D) Cartilage
(3) Adopt drip irrigation system
(4) Crop holiday 63. Phloem tissues in plants are responsible for
(A) (1) and (3) (B) (1), (2) and (3) (A) Transportation of water
(C) (1) and (4) (D) (3) and (4) (B) Transportation of food
55. Honey is made by (C) Transportation of amino acids
(A) Male honey bee (B) Queen honey bee (D) Transporation of oxygen

(C) Worker honey bee (D) Both (A) and (B)

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Supplementary Booklet

64. The structure that connects a bone with muscles is 72. Which of the following are the components of phloem
known as tissue ?
(A) Tendon (B) Cartilage (A) Tracheid and Companion cell
(C) Ligament (D) Areolar tissue (B) Vessel and Sieve tube
(C) Companion cell and Sieve tube
65. Given below are figures of three kinds of muscle fibres. (D) Vessel and Companion cell

73. In desert plants, rate of water loss gets reduced due to

the presence of
(A) Cuticle (B) Stomata
(C) Lignin (D) Suberin

74. In xerophytes the rate of water loss get reduced due to

Which one/ones would you find the grass hopper’s legs?
covering of epidermis by
(A) (A) only (B) (B) only
(A) Cutin (B) Suberin
(C) (A) and (C) (D) (B) and (C)
(C) Lignin (D) Gum
66. Study of tissue is called 75. Which of the following statements is not correct ?
(A) Cytology (B) Pathology (A) Tendons are tissues with great strength and limited
(C) Tissueology (D) Histology flexibility
(B) Bones are connected to each other by tendons
67. In animals, the protective tissue inside or outside the body
(C) Cartilage smoothens bone surface of joints
is
(D) Tendons connect muscles to bones
(A) Epithelial tissue (B) Nerve tissue
(C) Muscular tissue (D) Connective tissue 76. The xylem in plants is responsible for
(A) Transport of water
68. WBCs and RBCs are found in human blood in the ratio (B) Transport of food
of (C) Transport of amino acid
(A) 1 : 60 (B) 1 : 600 (D) Transport of oxygen
(C) 1 : 6000 (D) 1 : 60000
77. The tissue that is responsible for secondary growth of
69. Haemoglobin is a protein. It is an example of plants
(A) Primary structure of protein (A) Cambium (B) Xylem
(B) Secondary structure of protein (C) Phloem (D) Pericycle
(C) Tertiary structure of protein 78. Bone cells are known as :
(D) Quaternary structure of protein (A) Chondrocytes (B) Osteocytes
70. Companion cells are important in phloem tissue because (C) Lymphocytes (D) Leucocytes
(A) It gives mechanical support to sieve tube 79. The inner layer of the pharynx of a frog is made of
(B) It controls the flow of food through sieve tube __________ epithelium.
(C) It conducts the food through it (A) Squamous (B) Cuboidal
(D) It holds the position of sieve cells in place (C) Ciliated (D) Columnar

71. Fibrous connective tissue is 80. Blood clotting is initiated by

(A) Tendon and ligament (B) Blood and lymph (A) Prothrombin and thromboplastin
(C) Bone and cartilage (D) None of these (B) Ca++ and thromboplastin
(C) Fibrinogen and Ca++
(D) Fibrinogen and thromboplastin

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 Supplementary Booklet

81. The main function of phloem in plants is the conduction 89. Choose the immune response of basophil
of (A) Engulfs and destroys the bacteria
(A) Food (B) Minerals (B) Produces chemical substances that destroy foreign
(C) Water (D) All of these bodies
(C) Dilates the blood vessels
82. In muscular tissues, contractile proteins play a role in
(D) Produces chemical substances needed for
(A) Osmosis and diffusion
inflammatory response
(B) Contraction and relaxation
(C) Transpiration and transportation 90. Glands are modified form of
(D) Excretion and secretion (A) Epithelial tissue (B) Cardiac tissue
(C) Muscular tissue (D) Connective tissue
83. Mark the tissue in which the starch is stored in the body
of plants. 91. Which of the following statement is correct about
(A) Spongy parenchyma (B) Aerenchyma tendons?
(C) Apical meristem (D) Stomata (A) Connect bones to bones
(B) Cnnect bones to muscle
84. Which one of the following tissues contains stone cells ?
(C) Smoothen bone surfaces
(A) Parenchyma (B) Collenchyma
(D) Fibrous tissue with high flexibility
(C) Sclerenchyma (D) Tracheids
92. Which of the following is the correct features of ‘Lymph’?
85. Living cells of xylem tissue
(A) Xylem parenchyma (B) Xylem fibres (A) It is similar to the plasma of blood, colourless and
(C) Xylem vessels (D) Tracheids contains less proteins
(B) Similar to the WBC of blood, colourless and contain
86. Choose the correct statement/statements from the
more protein
following
(C) Similar to the RBC of blood and red in colour
(1) Blood is a substance which contains liquid particles
(D) It contains more fat
(2) Lymph is the substance that contains blood without
solid particles 93. How many types of muscle tissue are found ?
(3) Blood is a substance which contains solid and liquid (A) Striated and unstriated
particles (B) Striated and cardiac
(4) The liquid portion after formation of a blood clot (C) Cardiac and unstriated
is serum (D) Striated, unstriated and cardiac
(A) (1) and (2) (B) (1) and (3)
94. The tissue which makes the plants hard and stiff is
(C) (2), (3) and (4) (D) (1), (3) and (4)
(A) Parenchyma (B) Chlorenchyma
87. Lenticels are found in (C) Collenchyma (D) Sclerenchyma
(A) Leaves (B) Flowers
95. The lining of oesophagus and mouth is covered with
(C) Roots (D) Stems
which type of tissues ?
88. Tissue found in area of regular wear and tar is (A) Cuboidal epithelium
(A) Simple squamous epithelium (B) Squamous epithelium
(B) Stratified squamous epithelium (C) Columnar epithelium
(C) Simple cuboidal epithelium (D) Stratified squamous epithelium
(D) Stratified cuboidal epithelium

Course for NTSE 97 Class 9th

Supplementary Booklet

96. Which of the following is not a component of xylem ? 105. Read the following :
(A) Vessels (B) Tracheids (1) Nerve cells do not have the ability of regeneration
(C) Fibres (D) Sieve tubes (2) Nerve cells are one kind of muscle tissue
(3) No two nerve cells have same appearance
97. Serum differs from plasma in the absence of
(4) Nervous tissue is a fluid tissue
(A) Fibrinogen (B) Immunoglobulin
Which of the following is true ?
(C) Nutrients (D) Waste products
(A) (1) and (2) (B) (3) and (4)
98. In plants, the cells necessary for exchange of gases from (C) (1) and (3) (D) (2) and (4)
atmosphere are
(A) Subsidiary cells 106. Function of lenticels in plant is
(B) Bark cells (A) Photosynthesis (B) Excretion
(C) Guard cells (C) Respiration (D) Coordination
(D) Phloem parenchyma cells 107. Name the substance that helps in blood clotting
99. Skeletal muscles are (A) Thrombin (B) Heparin
(A) Striated and voluntary (C) Hirudin (D) Sodium oxalate
(B) Unstriated and voluntary
108. Which of the following is essential for clotting of blood?
(C) Striated and involuntary
(A) Red Blood Corpuscles
(D) Unstriated and involuntary
(B) White Blood Corpuscles
100. Carbon dioxide transports in the blood through
(C) Lymph
(A) Red blood cells (B) Plasma
(D) Blood Platelets
(C) White blood cells (D) Platelets
109. The absorption of useful material from the urine before
101. Which of the following are simple tissues ?
it is passed out takes place through __________ epithelial
(A) Parenchyma, Xylem, Collenchyma
tissue.
(B) Parenchyma, Collenchyma, Sclerenchyma
(A) Cuboidal (B) Ciliated columnar
(C) Parenchyma, xylem, Sclerenchyma
(C) Columnar (D) Stratified squamous
(D) Parenchyma, Xylem, Phloem

102. __________ smoothens bone surface at joints and is 110. Living mechanical tissue is
also present in the nose, ear, trachea and larynx. (A) Parenchyma (B) Collenchyma
(A) Tendons (B) Ligament (C) Sclerenchyma (D) Chlorenchyma
(C) Areolar tissue (D) Cartilage 111. Read the following statements
103. In plants, translocation of food and other substance take (1) It forms a thick, tough barrier and protect the
place through sieve tubes in underlying tissues in the skin.
(A) Upward direction (2) When it is present in sense orgns contain receptor
(B) Downward direction cells.
(C) Lateral direction (3) It also helps in absorption of nutrients.
(D) Both upward and downward direction (4) When it is present in glands helps in secretion.
Which one of the following represent the above
104. Heart muscle cells are
mentioned characteristics ?
(A) Round, unbranched, uninucleate
(A) Epithelial tissue (B) Connective tissue
(B) Non-cylindrical, branched and uninucleate
(C) Muscular tissue (D) Nerve tissue
(C) Cylindrical, unbranched and multinucleate
(D) Cylindrical, branched and uninucleate

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 Supplementary Booklet

112. Which of the following are characteristic features of cells 118. Study the diagram below and select the correct labelling
of meristematic tissue ?
(A) Actively dividing cell with dense cytoplasm, thick
cell wall and prominent nuclei
(B) Actively dividing cells with dense cytoplasm, thin
cell wall and no vacuoles
(C) Actively dividing cell with little cytoplasm, thin cell (A) (1) Epidermal cells, (2) Stoma, (3) Guard cell,
wall and prominent nuclei (4) Chloroplast
(D) Actively dividing cells with thin cytoplasm, thin (B) (1) Guard cell, (2) Stoma, (3) Epidermal cells,
cell wall and no vacuoles (4) Chloroplast
(C) (1) Stoma, (2) Epidermal cell, (3) Chloroplast,
113. Intercalary meristem is present in/at the
(4) Guard cell
(A) Base of the leaves and both the side of node
(D) (1) Chloroplast, (2) Stoma, (3) Epidermal cells,
(B) Roots
(4) Guard cell
(C) Tip of the leaves
(D) Shoot apex 119. If a nail is hammered into the tree trunk, then the position
of the nail after few years will be
114. Match the column-I and column-II and identify the correct
(A) Same (B) Above
answer.
(C) Lower (D) Nail will disappear
Column-I Column-II
(1) Thrombocytes (i) Phagocytosis 11. Bio-Diversity
(2) Neutrophils (ii) Releases chemicals
120. Botanical name of amla is
(3) Erythrocytes (iii) Produces antibodies
(A) Medicago sativa (B) Emblica officinalis
(4) Lymphocytes (iv) Clotthing of blood
(C) Zingiber officinate (D) Ocimum sanctum
(v) Supply of oxygen
(A) (1)—(iii), (2)—(v), (3)—(ii), (4)—(i) 121. Which of the following class of animals have no coelomic
(B) (1)—(ii), (2)—(iv), (3)—(i), (4)—(iii) cavity filled with blood ?
(C) (1)—(v), (2)—(iii), (3)—(iv), (4)—(ii) (A) Nematoda (B) Annelida
(D) (1)—(iv), (2)—(i), (3)—(v), (4)—(iii) (C) Arthropida (D) Mollusca

115. Perforations are not found in cell wall of the following 122. The circulatory system in cockroach consists of
cells : (A) Heart, sinuses and alary muscles
(A) Tracheid (B) Companion (B) Cardiac muscle, heart, blood vessels
(C) Sieve-tube (D) Vessels (C) Blood vessels, heart, atrium
(D) Veins, heart and atrium
116. Which of the following pairs show same function ?
(A) Stomata and Veins 123. Which two of the following animals belong to the same
(B) Stomata and Lenticels phylum ?
(C) Lenticels and Parenchyma (A) Starfish and Nereis (B) Antedon and Starfish
(D) Hydathodes and Seive-tube (C) Antedon and Chiton (D) Nereis and Chiton
117. Which of the plant tissue shows the pectin deposition 124. Which one of the following is having conducting tissue?
on cell wall ? (A) Fern (B) Funaria
(A) Collenchyma (B) Parenchyma (C) Riccia (D) Marchantia
(C) Sclerenchyma (D) Chlorenchyma

Course for NTSE 99 Class 9th

Supplementary Booklet

125. In which of the following animals jointed legs are not 132. In flowers, which one of the following conditions will
found ? increase the chances of self-pollination ?
(A) Palaemon (B) Scorpion (A) Pistil is longer than stamens in a flower
(C) Housefly (D) Leech (B) Stamens are just above the stigma of a pistil in a
flower
126. Planaria is kept in which group
(C) In all flowers of the plant only pistil is present
(A) Coelenterata (B) Platyhelminthes
(D) In all flowers of the plant only stamens are present
(C) Nematoda (D) Annelida
133. Excretory organs of earthworm are
127. Which of the following is an example of bryophyte ? (A) Malpighian tubules (B) Nephridia
(A) Moss (B) Fern (C) Kidneys (D) Flame cells
(C) Pinus (D) Algae
134. Preen gland is present in
128. Dissimilarity found in Aves and Mammalia is (A) The body of pigeon (B) The body of prawn
(A) Warm blood animal (B) Lay eggs (C) The body of rohu fish (D) In cactus plant
(C) Breathe through lungs (D) Four chambered heart
135. Major food crops of the world belong to the family
129. Which of the following statements are true ? (A) Solanacease
(1) Viruses high mutuability is related to its nature of (B) Leguminosae
genetic material (C) Cruciferae (Brassicaease)
(2) Bacteriophage evolved before evolution of bacteria (D) Graminaceae
(3) Virsues infect only through opening in the body of 136. The capsule present in bacteria is mainly made of
plants and animals (A) Glycolipids and proteins
(4) Viruses are obligatory intracellular parasites. (B) Phospholipids and proteins
(A) (1), (2) and (3) (B) (1) and (3) (C) Polysaccharide and proteins
(C) (1), (2), (3) and (4) (D) (1), (3) and (4) only (D) All of these

130. Match the following 137. Nocturnal bird is

Column-I Column-II (A) Pigeon (B) Sparrow
(C) Owl (D) Parrot
(i) Collar cells (a) Coelenterata
(ii) Diploblastic (b) Porifera 138. The unit of classification is
(iii) Closed circulatory (c) Echinodermata (A) Class (B) Order
system (C) Species (D) Genus
(iv) Water vascular system (d) Annelida
139. Penicillin is obtained from
(e) Arthropoda (A) Cycas
(A) (i)—(a), (ii)—(b), (iii)—(c), (iv)—(d) (B) Order
(B) (i)—(a), (ii)—(b), (iii)—(c), (iv)—(e) (C) Fungi (Pencillium notatum)
(C) (i)—(b), (ii)—(a), (iii)—(d), (iv)—(c) (D) Genus
(D) (i)—(a), (ii)—(b), (iii)—(e), (iv)—(c)
140. Vessels are absent in
131. A plant that has well differentiated body, special tissues (A) Pinus wood (B) Shisham wood
for transport of water and other substances, but does (C) Teak wood (D) Sal wood
not have seed or fruits is a 141. The algae which is used in the manufacture of potassium
(A) Bryophyte (B) Angiosperm (A) Gelidium (B) Porphyra
(C) Gymnosperm (D) Pteridophyte (C) Laminaria (D) Chlamydomonas

Course for NTSE 100 Class 9th

 Supplementary Booklet

142. In frog, oxygenated blood and deoxygenated blood gets 153. Which plant leaves have parallel venation ?
mixed up due to (A) Peepal leaves (B) Hibiscus leaves
(A) Two chambered heart (C) Banana leaves (D) Banyan tree leaves
(B) Three chambered heart
154. Identify a fish who breathes air through its lungs.
(C) Four chambered heart
(A) Lungfish (B) Rohu
(D) One chambered heart
(C) Dogfish (D) Stingray
143. Parallel venation is found in which of the following
leaves ? 155. Which category lies in between the genus and order in
(A) Lemon (B) Mango the classification of plants ?
(C) Grass (D) Rose (A) Species (B) Class
(C) Family (D) Kingdom
144. Which of the following is an example of algae ?
(A) Yeast (B) Spirogyra 156. Earthworm, a friend of farmer belongs to _________
(C) Fern (D) Amoeba phylum.
145. Earthworm is related to which of the following phylum ? (A) Arthropoda (B) Echinodermata
(A) Arthropoda (B) Annelida (C) Mollusca (D) Annelida
(C) Echinodermata (D) Mollusca
157. Which of the following organisms have the nervous
146. An animal with a soft body has a hard cover for its system at a very primitive stage of development ?
protection. Name the phylum to which it belongs (A) Amoeba (B) Hydra
(A) Echinodermata (B) Arthropoda (C) Earthworm (D) Paramoecium
(C) Mollusca (D) Annelida
158. Which is the smallest unit of classification of organisms?
147. Which one of the following is not an annelid ?
(A) Genus (B) Species
(A) Nereis (B) Earthworm
(C) Family (D) Order
(C) Leech (D) Urchin
159. Which one of the following is an insectivorous plant ?
148. The author of the book Systema Naturae is
(A) Drosera (B) Nepenthes
(A) Lamarck (B) Darwin
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) Hydrilla
(C) Theophrastus (D) Carolus Linnaeus
149. Anemophily occurs in __________ 160. In which one of the following is the sexual dimorphism
(A) Pinus (B) Jasmine seen ?
(C) Lotus (D) Vallisneria (A) Nemathelminthes (B) Annelida
(C) Platyhelminthes (D) Mollusca
150. Pseudocoelom is present in __________.
(A) Tapeworm (B) Nematode 161. Which of the following is the correct scientific name of
(C) Earthworm (D) Cockroch man ?
(A) Homo Sapiens (B) Homo sapien
151. The excretory organs in Mollusca is ___________
(C) Homosapien (D) Homo sapiens
(A) Nephridia (B) Metanephridia
(C) Flame cells (D) Lungs 162. Based on classification, which of the following is different
152. Choose the incorrect options. from the other three ?
(1) Amoeba — Pseudopoida (A) Pumpkin (B) Maize
(2) Paramecium — Body setae (C) Pea (D) Groundnut
(3) Euglena — Patagium
(4) Starfish — Tube feet 163. Whale belongs to
(A) (1) and (2) (B) (2) and (3) (A) Mammalia (B) Amphibia
(C) (3) and (4) (D) (1) and (4) (C) Annelida (D) Reptilia

Course for NTSE 101 Class 9th

Supplementary Booklet

164. Botanical name of margosa (neem) is 175. The excretory organs in “Earthworm” is known as
(A) Azadirachta indica (B) Pisum sativum (A) Malpighian cells (B) Renal cells
(C) Cassia fistula (D) Brassica campestris (C) Nephridia (D) Flame cells

165. The plants which have naked seeds 176. The group of amphibian plants is
(A) Bryophytes (B) Gymnosperms (A) Funaria, Marchantia (B) Marsilea, Horse-tail
(C) Angiosperms (D) Thallophytes (C) Pinus, Cycas (D) Typha, Hydrilla
177. These are heterotrophic, eukaryotic organisms having
166. Silverfish is a/an
their cell wall made up of a complex sugar called chitin
(A) Insect (B) Cnidarian
(A) Algae (B) Fungi
(C) Crustacean (D) Fish
(C) Bryophytes (D) Gymnosperms
167. Duck-billed platypus and echidna are 178. Identify the mismatched pair.
(A) Reptiles (A) Annelida → Animals with pseudocoelom
(B) Eutherian mammals (B) Arthropoda → Jointed leg organisms
(C) Egg-laying mammals (C) Porifera → Organisms with holes on body
(D) Young one producing animals (D) Echinodermata → Spiny-skinned organisms
168. Choose the group that contains fungi only. 179. Which of the following is a group of hermaphrodites ?
(A) Euglena, lichen (A) Earthworm, Hydra, leech
(B) Yeast, mushroom (B) Cockroach, earthworm, Hydra
(C) Anabaena, Amoeba (C) Earthworm, Ascaris, leech
(D) Paramecium, Mycoplasma (D) Ascaris, cockroach, Hydra
169. The excretory organ in cockroach is 180. Obelia belongs to
(A) Kidney (B) Malpighian tubules (A) Coelenterata (B) Porifera
(C) Contractile vacuoles (D) Nephridia (C) Annelida (D) Arthropoda
181. Which is a warm-blooded animal ?
170. Which of the following plant group bear naked seeds
(A) Pigeon
and are usually perenial, evergreen and woody ?
(B) Frog
(A) Pteridophytes (B) Gymnosperms
(C) Turtle
(C) Bryophytes (D) Angiosperms
(D) Sea-horse (Hippocampus)
171. Which of the following is an example of insectivorous
182. The animals which belongs to class pisces are
plant ?
(1) Jellyfish (B) Cowfish
(A) Amla (B) Baheda
(3) Starfish (D) Flying fish
(C) Utricularia (D) Isoetes
(A) Both (1) and (3) (B) Both (2) and (4)
172. Which among the following is an example of fungi ? (C) Both (1) and (4) (D) Both (1) and (2)
(A) Anabaena (B) Euglena 183. Which characters are present in a vertebrate ?
(C) Mycoplasma (D) Agaricus (A) Notochord, triploblastic, coelomate and bilateral
173. Which plant group is called amphibious plants ? symmetry
(A) Algae (B) Fungi (B) Notochord, diploblastic, coelomate and radial
symmetry
(C) Bryophyta (D) Pteridophyta
(C) Notochord, triploblastic, acoelomate and bilateral
174. An egg laying mammal is symmetry
(A) Kangroo (B) Bat (D) Notochord, triploblastic, acoelomate and radial
(C) Whale (D) Echidna symmetry

Course for NTSE 102 Class 9th

 Supplementary Booklet

184. The group of plants that bears naked seeds 192. Asha found a plant which possess tap root and reticulate
(A) Gymnosperms (B) Angiosperms venation in leaves. This plant may be
(C) Bryophyta (D) Pteridophyta (A) Monocot (B) Dicot
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these
185. Which one of the following is the correct set of examples
of a particular group ? 193. Which of the following statements are correct ?
(A) Mushroom, Yeast, Riccia - Fungi (1) Tapeworms are hermaphrodites and undergo self
(B) Starfish, Catfish, Dogfish - Pisces fertilization.
(C) Paramoecium, Euglena, Obelia - Protista (2) Earthworms are hermaphrodites and undergo self
(D) Whale, Frog, Bat - Craniata fertilization.
(3) Tapeworms are hermaphrodites but undergo cross
186. Lung fish is a connecting link between
fertilization.
(A) Fishes and arthropoda (B) Fishes and annelids
(4) Earthworms are hermaphrodites but undergo cross
(C) Fishes and molluscs (D) Fishes and amphibians
fertilization.
187. Binomial nomenclature was given by the scientist (A) (1) and (2) only (B) (1) and (4) only
(A) Robert Whittaker (B) Carolus Linnaeus (C) (2) and (3) only (D) (3) and (4) only
(C) Carl Woese (D) Ernst Haeckel
194. It is considered as a living fossil and connecting link
188. Which special structures are connected wth wall of the between annelids and arthropods.
lungs in class Aves ? (A) Lung fish (B) Peripatus
(A) Air sac (B) Diaphragm (C) Platypus (D) Echidna
(C) Spongy bones (D) Booklungs
195. Which of the following does respire by the tracheal
189. Identify the protochordata animal. system ?
(A) Shark (B) Frog (A) Molluscs (B) Arthropods
(C) Balanoglossus (D) Rohu (C) Annelids (D) Nemathelminthes

190. Which one of the following is the correct hierarchy of 196. Which is the odd one ?
classification ? (A) Planaria (B) Liver-fluke
(A) Kingdom, Division, Class, Order, Family, Genus, (C) Ascaris (D) Tape-worm
Species
197. In binomial nomenclature, first word indicates
(B) Kingdom, Division, Order, Class, Family, Genus,
(A) Species (B) Genus
Species
(C) Sub-species (D) None of these
(C) Kingdom, Division, Class, Order, Genus, Family,
Species 198. Which one of the following animals are different from
(D) Kingdom, Division, Class, Order, Family, Species, others in not having the paired gill pouches ?
Genus (A) Whale (B) Water snake
(C) Star fish (D) Sea horse
191. In Whittaker’s classification unicellular organisms are
grouped under 199. The excretory organs in cockroach is
(A) Kingdom Protista (B) Kingdom Fungi (A) Kidney (B) Malpighian tubules
(C) Kingdom Monera (D) Kingdom Plantae (C) Contractile vacuoles (D) Nephridia

Course for NTSE 103 Class 9th

Supplementary Booklet

12. Health and Diseases 209. Excessive exposure of humans to UV rays result in
(1) Damage to immune system
200. Pick the odd one out.
(2) Damge to lungs
(A) Down syndrome (B) Haemophilia
(3) Skin cancer
(C) Malaria (D) Phenylketonuria
(4) Peptic ulcer
201. Which of the following causes kala azar ? (A) (1) and (2) (B) (2) and (4)
(A) Leishmania (B) Trypanosoma (C) (1) and (3) (D) (3) and (4)
(C) Ascaris lumbricoides (D) Helicobacter pylori
210. Making antiviral drugs is more difficult than making anti-
202. Which of the following two diseases have no specific bacterial medicines because
treatment ? (A) Viruses make use of host machinery
(A) Hepatitis and influenza (B) Viruses are on the border line of living and non-
(B) Tuberculosis and influenza living
(C) Leprosy and hepatitis (C) Viruses have very few biochemical mechanisms of
(D) Hydrophobia and tuberculosis their own
(D) Viruses have a protein coat
203. Which vector spread the yellow fever disease ?
(A) Musca sp. (B) Anopheles sp. 211. Which of the following disease is not related with sexual
(C) Culex sp. (D) Aedes aegypti transmission ?
(A) Syphilis (B) Gonorrhoea
204. Raju was suffering from severe stomach pain and the (C) Allergy (D) AIDS
doctor diagnosed that he was suffering from peptic ulcers
and treated him with antibiotics. He was relieved of pain. 212. Given below are the pairs of disease and causal pathogen.
what could be the reason for peptic ulcers ? which one of these is not a matching pair ?
(A) Reduced secretion of hormones (A) Kala azar – Leishmania
(B) Reduced water content (B) Sleeping sickness – Trypanosoma
(C) Growth of helicobacter pylori (C) Malaria – Salmonella
(D) Excess secretion of enzyme (D) Acne – Staphylococci

205. In this dieases, caused due to protein deficiency face 213. Match the following :
and belly gets swollen (1) Vaccine — Wilmut
(A) Kwashiorkor (B) Marasmus (2) Dolly — Sir Ronald Ross
(C) Rickets (D) Pellagra (3) Plasmodium — Edward Jenner
(A) (3), (1), (2) (B) (2), (3), (1)
206. Haemophilia disease is linked with (C) (2), (1), (3) (D) (1), (3), (2)
(A) Sex chromosome (B) Autosome
214. BCG is an effective vaccine to prevent
(C) Bacteria (D) Virus
(A) Tetanus (B) Tuberculosis
207. The word “vaccine” was first coined by (C) Diphtheria (D) Pertussis
(A) Koch (B) Pasteur
215. Diseases that spread by vectors such as mosquitoes are
(C) Jenner (D) Kohler
(A) encephalitis and Malaria
208. If the platelet count in the blood reduces and redness in (B) Syphilis and AIDS
palms and soles are seen the disease is said to be (C) Tuberculosis and Sleeping sickness
(A) Dengue (B) Chikungunya (D) Kala azar and SARS
(C) Bird flu (D) Typhoid

Course for NTSE 104 Class 9th

 Supplementary Booklet

216. The virus causing Japanese encephalitis or brain fever 226. Which one of the following diseases is water borne ?
will enter the body through (A) Hepatitis B (B) Hepatitis C
(A) Sexual contact (B) Mosquito bite (C) Hepatitis D (D) Hepatitis E
(C) Lungs (D) Air
227. For which of the following diseases vaccine has not been
217. Which of the following diseases cannot be sexually invented yet ?
transmitted ? (A) Jaundice (B) Cholera
(A) Cholera (B) HIV/AIDS (C) Typhoid (D) Chikungunya
(C) Syphilis (D) Gonorrhoea
228. World AIDS day is held on this day every year to increase
218. Which one of the followin is not a viral disease ? awareness about it
(A) Polio (B) Mumps (A) December 10th (B) December 21st
(C) AIDS (D) Cholera (C) December 1st (D) December 31st

219. ‘Edema’ is related to 229. In living organisms, an active immune sytem recruits
(A) Digestive system (B) Excretory system many cells to the affected tissue to kill off the disease
(C) Lymphatic system (D) Arterial system causing microbes. The recruitment process is called
(A) Syphilis (B) Inflammation
220. Antibodies are complex
(C) Encephalitis (D) SARS
(A) Lipoproteins (B) Steroids
(C) Prostaglandins (D) Globulin proteins 230. Which disease is spread through influenza virus H1N1 ?
(A) Dengue (B) Chikungunya
221. Inflammatory reactions in allergy is brought about by
(C) AIDS (D) Swine flu
(A) Macrophages (B) Plasma cells
(C) Adipose tissue (D) Mast cell 231. T-lymphocytes originate from
(A) Bone marrow (B) Stomach
222. With what are the diseases like swine flu, dengue and
(C) Thymus (D) Liver
chikungunya fever spread ?
(A) Bacteria (B) Virus 232. Which of the following is a mismatch ?
(C) Parasites (D) Fungi (A) Leprosy - bacterial infection
(B) AIDS - bacterial infection
223. No urination due to shortage of water in the body is a
(C) Malaria - protozoan infection
typical symptom of this disease.
(D) Elephantiasis - nematode infection
(A) Typhoid (B) Malaria
(C) Dengue (D) Cholera 233. Match the items in Column-I with those in Column-II,
and select the correct choice.
224. If biomedical waste is not handled properly, then which
Column-I Column-II
disease is a potent source in human being ?
(1) Small pox (i) Bacteria
(A) Cancer (B) Heart diseases
(2) Cholera (ii) Virus
(C) AIDS (D) Leprosy
(3) Malaria (iii) Deficiency of minerals
225. Which of the following follows a general principle of (4) Anaemia (iv) Female mosquito
fooling the immune system by putting particular infection (A) (1)—(iv), (2)—(ii), (3)—(iii), (4)—(i)
into the body ? (B) (1)—(ii), (2)—(i), (3)—(iv), (4)—(iii)
(A) AIDS (B) Vaccination (C) (1)—(iv), (2)—(iii), (3)—(ii), (4)—(i)
(C) Antibiotic (D) Antiseptic (D) (1)—(iii), (2)—(iv), (3)—(i), (4)—(ii)

Course for NTSE 105 Class 9th

Supplementary Booklet

234. Hydrophobia is due to 240. According to origin, identify the secondary air pollutant.
(A) Bacteria (B) Virus (A) SO3 (B) Ash
(C) Protozoa (D) Fungus (C) Smoke (D) Radioactive compound

13. NATURAL RESOURCES

NATURAL 241. Which of the following are sensitive to sulphur dioxide?
(A) Algae (B) Lichens
235. Example of fossil fuel is (C) Mosses (D) Ferns
(A) Alcohol (B) Hydrogen
(C) Petrol (D) Gobar gas 242. The pH of a sample of water collected from a river is
found to be 3.5 to 4.5. The most likely reason for this is
236. The percentage of oxygen in air is the waste being discharged into the river from :
(A) 78% (B) 0.03% (A) Soap and detergent manufacturing factory
(C) 21% (D) 80% (B) Car battery manufacturing factory
237. Brown haze is caused by _________. (C) Alcohol manufacturing factory
(A) Hydrocarbons (B) Nitrogen oxides (D) Plastic cups moulding factory
(C) Particulate matter (D) Smog 243. Which of the following plays an important role in nitrogen
238. In nitrogen cycle, atmospheric nitrogen is fixed by bacteria cycle ?
and converted into ammonia. Ammonia is further (A) Yeast (B) Nitrobacter
converted into other forms of nitrogen. At the end of the (C) Mucor (D) Spirogyra
cycle it returns to the atmosphere by the process of 244. In the symbiotic relationship between a bacterium and a
(A) Ammonification (B) Nitrification root of legume the
(C) Denitrification (D) Assimilation (A) Bacteria provide N2 and the plant root provide
239. Some organisms are sensitive to different levels of air carbon
pollution and are used as pollution indicators. Suggest (B) Roots provide NH4+ and bacteria provide carbon
which among the following fits into this category. (C) Bacteria provide NH4+ and the root provide carbon
(A) Fungi (B) Fresh water algae (D) Bacteria provide N2 and the roots provide NH4+
(C) Bacteria (D) Lichens ion

Course for NTSE 106 Class 9th

 Supplementary Booklet

Supplementary Booklet | Class IX

Mathematics

1. Rational Number [Level - 1]

37 1 1
1. If = 2+ , where x, y, z are integers, then the 6. Simple form of is
13 1 1
x+ 3−
1 1
y+ 2−
z 7
value of x + y + z is 13 32
(A) (B)
(A) 6 (B) 8 32 13
7 13
(C) 7 (D) –2 (C) (D)
13 7
1 1 1 1 2. Linear Equations in One Variable
Variable
2. The value of S = + + + ... +
2 × 7 7 × 12 12 × 17 252 × 257
7. A farmer divides his herd of x cows among his 4 sons so
is
that first son gets one half of the herd, the second son
5 25 gets one fourth, the third son gets one fifth, and fourth
(A) (B)
257 2 × 257 son gets 7 cows, then the value of X is
35 51 (A) 100 (B) 140
(C) (D)
2 × 257 2 × 257 (C) 160 (D) 180
8. The sum of seven consecutive natural numbers is 1617.
1 1
3. 22 has how many ? How many of these are prime ?
2 4
(A) 4 (B) 5
(A) 22 (B) 44
(C) 2 (D) 7
(C) 45 (D) 90
9. The difference between two numbers is 1365. When the
1 1 larger number is divided by the smaller number, the
4. One rational number between and is
5 4 quotient is 6 and remainder is 15. The smaller number is
18 22 (A) 240 (B) 270
(A) (B) (C) 295 (D) 300
100 100
26 27 10. The sum of the ages of 5 children born at the intervals of
(C) (D) 3 years each is 50 years. What is the age of youngest
100 100
child ?
2x − 3 (A) 4 years (B) 8 years
5. The additive inverse of is
3x + 5 (C) 10 years (D) 12 years
3 − 2x 3x + 5 11. The perimeter of a rectangular field is 206 meters. What
(A) (B)
3x + 5 2x − 3 will be its area if its length is 23 meters more than its
breadth ?
3 − 2x 2x − 3
(C) (D) (A) 1520 meter2 (B) 2420 meter2
−3 x − 5 −3 x − 3
(C) 2480 meter2 (D) 2520 meter2

Course for NTSE 107 Class 9th

Supplementary Booklet

12. Two numbers are in the ratio 3 : 4. If 5 is subtracted from 20. The angles of a cyclic quadrilatral are in one of the ratios
each, then the ratio will be 2 : 3. What is the smallest given below. Which is it ?
number ? (A) 1 : 2 : 3 : 4 (B) 2 : 1 : 3 : 4
(A) 15 (B) 18 (C) 1 : 3 : 2 : 4 (D) 1 : 4 : 3 : 2
(C) 20 (D) 24
21. Each exterior angle of a regular Polygon of m sides is
13. The present age difference between father and son is  360   360 
14 years. The ratio of their age will be 4 : 3 after 11 years. (A)   π degree (B)   degree
 m   m 
How old is son now ?
 180  2  180 
(A) 25 years (B) 31 years (C)   π degree (D)   degree
 m   m 
(C) 30 years (D) 28 years
22. In a rhombus of side 10 cm, one of the diagonal is 12 cm
x x
14. If + 7 = 15 − , then the solution is long, the length of second diagonal will be
3 5
(A) 4 cm (B) 8 cm
(A) x = 20 (B) x = 15
(C) 12 cm (D) 16 cm
(C) x = 21 (D) x = 18
23. The proportion of the angles of a quadrilateral is
x+a x+b x+c 2 : 5 : 7 : 4. What type of quadrilatral is that ?
15. If + + + 3 = 0, a > 0, b > 0, c > 0, then
b+c c+a a+b (A) Parallelogram (B) Rhombus
the value of x is (C) Cyclic quadrilateral (D) Trapezium
(A) –(a2 + b2 + c2) (B) (a + b + c)
24. In the given figure, the values of x and y are
(C) –(a + b + c) (D) a +b+c

16. Five years ago, the sum of ages of the father and the son
was 40 years. In present its ratio is 4 : 1, then the prsent
age of father is
(A) 30 years (B) 40 years
(C) 45 years (D) 42 years

17. The sum of two numbers is 100 and one number is two
less than twice the other number. Then the numbers are
(A) 34, 66 (B) 24, 76 390 86 410 85
(A) x= ,y= (B) x = ,y=
(C) 44, 56 (D) 46, 54 7 7 7 7
400 88 500 89
18. The sum of elevan consecutive integers is 2002. What is (C) x= ,y= (D) x = ,y=
7 7 7 7
the smallest of these integers ?
(A) 163 (B) 177 4. Data Handling
(C) 145 (D) 156
25. The probability of getting number greater than 2 by
3. Understanding Quadrilaterials throwing a fair dice is
2 1
19. Which of the polygon given below cannot be drawn by (A) (B)
3 3
joining the numbers on a clock ?
3
(A) Equilateral triangle (B) Square (C) 1 (D)
5
(C) Regular pentagon (D) Regular hexagon

Course for NTSE 108 Class 9th

 Supplementary Booklet

26. There are 20 students in a class. The mean of their scores 31. The probability to select a prime number from the
is 135. On rechecking, two mistakes were found. If after numbers 3, 4, 5, 6, ......., 25 will be
correction, the marks of one student was increased by 35 7 8
and the marks of the other was decreased by 15, then the (A) (B)
23 23
new mean is
9 10
(A) 135.5 (B) 136 (C) (D)
23 23
(C) 155 (D) 134.5
32. If the marks secured by a student in various subjects are
27. The marks scored by a student in an examination of 600
25, 26, 27, 28 and 29, then the mark ‘27’ denoted as
marks is shown in the following pie-chart. If he scored
(A) Mode
60 marks in Mathematics, then the percentage of marks
(B) Mode and median
he secured in the examination is
(C) Mean and median
(D) Mean, median and mode

33. The sum of ‘n’ terms of series

 1  2  3
1 −  + 1 −  +  1 −  + .... will be
 n  n  n
1 1
(A) (n + 1) (B) (n − 1)
n n
1 1
(C) (n + 1) (D) (n − 1)
2 2

34. A letter is chosen at random from the word

(A) 60% (B) 50% MATHEMATICS. What is the probability that it will be
(C) 75% (D) 5% a vowel ?
28. If the mean of 5, 9, x, 7, 4 and y is 7, then relation between 1 3
(A) (B)
x and y is 2 8
(A) x + y = 42 (B) x + y = 17 3 4
(C) (D)
(C) x – y = 10 (D) x – y = 42 11 11

29. If a, b, c, d and e are five consecutive odd numbers, then 35. If mean of 5, 10, 15, P, 20, 35, 40 is 21. Then the value
their average is of P will be
abcde (A) 18 (B) 22
(A) 5(a + 4) (B)
5 (C) 25 (D) 30
(C) 5(a + b + c + d + e) (D) a + 4
36. The median of first 10 prime numbers will be
30. The mean of 100 observations is 24. If 4 is added to (A) 5 (B) 11
each of the observation and then each of them is (C) 12 (D) 13
multiplied by 2.5 then new mean is
37. The median of 7, 5, 8, x, 12, 17 is 10. Then what is the
(A) 70 (B) 80
value of x ?
(C) 65 (D) 75
(A) 10 (B) 11
(C) 12 (D) 9

Course for NTSE 109 Class 9th

Supplementary Booklet

38. There are 5 red, 2 yellow and 7 white roses in a flower 44. If pqr = 1, then the value of
vase. If a rose is selected randomly, the probability of
 1 1 1 
the selection of white rose is  + + −1 
is
 1+ p + q
−1
1+ q + r −1
1 + r + p 
5 1
(A) (B) (A) 0 (B) pq
14 7
1
1 (C) 1 (D)
(C) (D) 1 pq
2
45. If xa = y, yb = z, zc = x, then the correct statement will be
39. The probability of guessing the correct answer to a certain
(A) a.b.c = 1 (B) a.b.c = 0
x
test question is . If the probability of not guessing the (C) a + b + c = 1 (D) a + b + c = 0
12
−3/2
2 46.
3
If 3 3 × 3 ÷ 3 = 3a + 2 , then a is equal to
correct answer is , then x is equal to
3
1
(A) 2 (B) 3 (A) 2 (B)
2
(C) 4 (D) 6 (C) 4 (D) 0
40. The mean of eight number is 6. If each number is 3
3, 4 3, 12 243
47. Find the product of
multiplied by 2, the new mean will be
(A) 3 (B) 3
(A) 3 (B) 6
(C) 12 (D) 4
(C) 12 (D) 96 3 3
48. What is value of (a10)3 ÷ (a6)5?
5. Exponents and Powers
Powers (A) a (B) a2

41. If 23x = 64–1 and 10y = 0.01, then the value of (50x)–1 × 1
(C) 1 (D)
(10y)–1 is a
(A) –1 (B) 1 49. If x = 4
16 + 4 625 then what is x ?
1 (A) 7 (B) 29
(C) (D) 2
2 (C) 12 (D) 5

3x 1 27 x 50. If 2m – 2m – 1 – 4 = 0, then value of mm is

42. If = , then the value of is
1 + 3x 3 1 − 27 x (A) 4 (B) 27
(C) 6 (D) 29
3
(A) 2 (B)
4 1 1 1
 xb  bc  x c  ca  x a  ab
1 51. The value of   .  a  .  b  is equal to
(C) (D) 1  xc
7   x  x 
(A) 1 (B) –1
43. If 4 x1 = 5, 5 x2 = 6, 6 x3 = 7, .......127 x124 = 128, then the (C) 0 (D) abc
value of x1.x2.x3 ................ x124 is equal to
52. The value of the following is
5
(A) 2 (B) (0.44)2 + (0.06)2 + (0.024)2
2
(0.044)2 + (0.006)2 + (0.0024) 2
7
(C) 3 (D) (A) 0.100 (B) 0.01
2
(C) 100 (D) 1

Course for NTSE 110 Class 9th

 Supplementary Booklet

53. If 13 + 23 + ........ + 93 = 2025 then (0.11)3 + (0.22)3 + .... 61. Sum of first n odd natural numbers is
+ (0.99)3 will be (A) n2 (B) n + 1
(A) 0.2695 (B) 2.695 (C) 2n + 1 (D) n
(C) 3.695 (D) 0.3695
7
54. If 2x – 1 + 2x + 1 = 320 then the value of x is 62. Out of group of Swans, times the square root of number
2
(A) 6 (B) 8 of Swans are playing on the shore of the tank. Remaining
(C) 5 (D) 7 two are quarreling in the watr. Calculate the total number
of Swans. Find the number of Swans playing on the shore
6. Squares and Square Roots of the tank.
(A) 14, 16 (B) 16, 12
2 (C) 14, 12 (D) 16, 14
a
55. If b = 3a, then the vaue of is equal to
b
63. (1× 2 × 3 × 4) + 1 = 5, (2 × 3 × 4 × 5) + 1 = 11,
a2 1
(A)
3a
(B)
9 (3 × 4 × 5 × 6) + 1 = 19 etc., the value of

b (50 × 51× 52 × 53) + 1 is

(C) 9 (D)
3a (A) 2415 (B) 2661
(C) 2651 (D) 2225
56. If the sum S of three consecutive even numbers is a perfect
squae between 200 and 400, then the square root of S is 7. Cubes and Cube Roots
equal to
(A) 15 (B) 16 64. If 13 + 23 + ... + 103 = 3025, then 4 + 32 + 108 + .... +
(C) 18 (D) 19 4000 is equal to
(A) 1200 (B) 12100
57. If (12 + 22 + 32 + ..... + 122) = 650, then the value of (C) 12200 (D) 12400
(22 + 42 + 62 + ..... + 242) is equal to
(A) 1300 (B) 2600 127
65. 3 1− is equal to
(C) 2500 (D) 42250 343
5 1
n (A) (B) 1 –
58. For how many integers n is the square of an 9 7
20 − n
integer ? 4 2
(C) (D) 1 –
(A) 1 (B) 2 7 7
(C) 3 (D) 4 66. If a < b < c < d < e are consecutive positive integers,
59. If (a + b + c + d + e + f + g + h + i)2 is expanded and such that b + c + d is a perfect square and a + b + c + d +
simplified then the number of different terms are in the e is a perfect cube. The smallest possible value of c is
final answer is (A) 675 (B) 576
(A) 45 (B) 36 (C) 475 (D) 384
(C) 42 (D) 28 67. If 39 + 312 + 315 + 3n is a perfect cube, n ∈ N, then the
value of n =
60. The value of 10 + 25 + 108 + 154 + 225 will be (A) 18 (B) 17
(C) 14 (D) 16
(A) 4 (B) 6
(C) 8 (D) 10

Course for NTSE 111 Class 9th

Supplementary Booklet

76. The compond interest on Rs. 2000 for 2 years at the rate
68. If y = 5, then the value of 10 y y 3 − y 2 is
5% is
(A) 50 2 (B) 100 (A) 105 (B) 200
(C) 200 5 (D) 500 (C) 205 (D) 2205

77. A shopkeeper blends two varieties of tea costing Rs. 18

69. Which the smallest number that devices 1512 is the
and Rs. 13 per 100 gm in the ratio 7 : 3. He sells the
complete the cube ?
blended variety at the rate of Rs. 18.15 per 100 gm. His
(A) 5 (B) 6
percentage gain in the transaction is
(C) 7 (D) 9
(A) 8% (B) 12%
3 (C) 15% (D) 10%
70. 64 = ?
(A) 2 (B) 4 78. In an examination A got 25% marks more then B, B got
(C) 6 (D) 8 10% less than C and C got 25% more than D, if D got
320 marks out of 500, the marks obtained by A were
8. Comparing Quantities (A) 450 (B) 405
71. A motor cycle and a scooter were sold for Rs. 12000 (C) 360 (D) 400
each. The motor cycle was sold at a loss of 20% of the
79. If 3 A = 4 B = 6 C then A : B : C will be
cost and the scooter at a gain of 20% of the cost. The
1 1 1
entire transaction resulted in (A) 3 : 6 : 4 (B) : :
4 3 2
(A) No loss or gain (B) Loss of Rs. 1000
(C) 3 : 4 : 2 (D) 4 : 3 : 2
(C) Gain of Rs. 1000 (D) Gain of Rs. 2000
8
72. A man invested part of Rs. 4500 at 4% interest and the 80. is equivalent to
40
rest at 6% interest per annum. If his annual return on
(A) 20% (B) 40%
each investment is the same, then the average rate of
(C) 25% (D) 8%
interest which he gets on the whole of Rs. 4500 is
(A) 5% (B) 4.6% 3
81. Selling price of one thing is times of its cost price.
(C) 5.2% (D) 4.6% 2
What will be the percentge of profit ?
73. The difference between the simple and compound interest
1 1
on Rs. 12,500 for 3 years at 4% is (A) 20 (B) 25
2 4
(A) Rs. 60.50 (B) Rs. 60.80
1
(C) Rs. 60.00 (D) Rs. 60.20 (C) 33 (D) 50
3
74. A fruit businessman purchases one gross of bananas at 82. A solid a bicycle to B on 20% profit. B solid it to C on
Rs. 12 per dozen and sells 8 dozen at Rs. 15 per dozen. 25% profit. If C paid Rs. 225 for it, then what was the
If he want to have 30% overall profit, the selling price cost price of bicycle to A ?
per dozen of the remaining bananas should be (A) 110 (B) 125
(A) Rs. 16 (B) Rs. 16.20 (C) 120 (D) 150
(C) Rs. 16.40 (D) Rs. 16.80
83. If the cost price of 12 pens is equal to the selling price of
6 8 pens, the gain percent is
75. Equivalent of is
20 1 2
(A) 33 % (B) 66 %
(A) 6% (B) 20% 3 3
(C) 26% (D) 30% (C) 25% (D) 50%

Course for NTSE 112 Class 9th

 Supplementary Booklet

84. The compound interest on Rs. 1000 in 2 year at 4% per 92. The printed price of a saree is Rs. 2000. If after dicout of
annum, the interest being compounded half yearly is 10% the profit is 20%, then what is the net price of the
(A) Rs. 6360.80 (B) Rs. 82.432 saree ?
(C) Rs. 912.86 (D) Rs. 828.82 (A) Rs. 1600 (B) Rs. 1200
(C) Rs. 1500 (D) Rs. 1800
85. If 70% of the students in a school are boys and the number
93. In a school the ratio of boys and girls in Class VIII,
of girls be 504, the number of boys is
Class IX and Class X are, respectively 3 : 1, 5 : 3 and
(A) 1176 (B) 1008
(C) 1208 (D) 3024 7 : 5. If the number of students in each class is same,
then find the ratio of boys and girls in the school.
86. 7 Oranges are bought for Rs. 3. At what rate per hndred (A) 15 : 9 (B) 5 : 3
must be sold to gain 33% (C) 27 : 20 (D) 47 : 25
(A) Rs. 56 (B) Rs. 60
94. The difference between compound interest and simple
(C) Rs. 58 (D) Rs. 57
interest on a certain sum of money in 2 years at 4% per
87. If 75% of a number is added to 75, then the result is annum is Rs. 50.00. Find the principal amount.
number itself. The number is (A) Rs. 30000 (B) Rs. 31250
(A) 50 (B) 60 (C) Rs. 32000 (D) Rs. 32500
(C) 300 (D) 400
95. The cost price of a horse is Rs. 27,000.00 and
88. Which of the following trains is the fastest ? transporation charges are Rs. 2,400.00. If horse is sold
(A) 25 m/s (B) 1500 m/minute in Rs. 33,810.00, the percentage of profit will be
(C) 90 km/s (D) 100 km/s (A) 5% (B) 10%
89. When the rate of interest being increased from 10% to (C) 15% (D) 20%

1 96. A person walked diagonally across a square plot.

12 %, the yearly income of a person increases by
2 Approximately, what was the percentage saved by not
Rs. 1,250. The principal amount was walking along the edges ?
(A) Rs. 50,000 (B) Rs. 5,000 (A) 35% (B) 30%
(C) Rs. 15,000 (D) Rs. 37,500 (C) 20% (D) 25%
90. A man sells two articles each at Rs. 198. He makes a 97. If A : B = 1 : 2, B : C = 3 : 4 and C : D = 5 : 6, then value
profit of 10% on one article and a loss of 10% on the of A : D will be
other. Net profit or loss of the person (A) 5 : 3 (B) 8 : 5
(A) 2% profit (B) 2% loss (C) 3 : 16 (D) 5 : 16
(C) 1% profit (D) 1% loss

91. The price of a house is Rs. 6,76,000. If the price increases 9. Algebraic Expressions and Identities
every year by 4%, before two years back the price of the
(0.03) 2 − (0.01)2
house was 98. The value of is
0.03 − 0.01
(A) Rs. 6,00,000 (B) Rs. 6,25,000
(A) 0.02 (B) 0.004
(C) Rs. 6,50,000 (D) Rs. 5,75,000
(C) 0.4 (D) 0.04

Course for NTSE 113 Class 9th

Supplementary Booklet

99. If the sum of two numbers is 22 and sum of their squares 108. A copper wire of certain length is turned into a square
is 404 then the product of the number is first and then into a circle. Which one of them is larger ?
(A) 40 (B) 44 (A) Square (B) Circle
(C) 80 (D) 88 (C) Both of them are equal (D) None of these

100. The sum of a number and its reciprocal is 4. What is 109. The diameter of a metal ball is 3.5 cm. If the density of
their difference ? the metal is 9.8 g/cm3 then mass of the ball is
(A) 2 (B) 3 (A) 200 g (B) 220 g
(C) (D) 2 3 (C) 1600 g (D) 1760 g
2 2
110. If the diagonals of a rhombus are 30 cm and 40 cm, then
101. If x – y = 5, xy = 24 then the value of x2 + y2 will be
the length of side of rhombus is
(A) 23 (B) 73
(A) 20 cm (B) 22 cm
(C) 65 (D) 74
(C) 25 cm (D) 45 cm
102. If the difference of two numbers is 5 and difference of
111. The total surface area of a cube is 864 cm2. Its volume is
their squares is 300, then sum of the numbers is
(A) 3456 cm3 (B) 432 cm3
(A) 1500 (B) 6
(C) 1728 cm3 (D) 3466 cm3
(C) 12 (D) 60
112. If the side of a square is increased by 25% then, how
103. The product of two numbers is 110 and the sum of their
much percentage does its area gets increased ?
squares is 264, then the sum of these numbers will be .....
(A) 56.25% (B) 50%
(A) 22 (B) 24
(C) 12.5% (D) 156.25%
(C) 20 (D) 28
113. The sum of the lengths of all the edges of a cube is 6 cm.
1 1
104. If x + = 2 then x+ will be What is the volume of the cube in cubic cm ?
x x
1 1
(A) 2 (B) 2 (A) (B)
8 6
(C) 2 +1 (D) 1
1 1
(C) (D)
105. If x + y = 8, xy = 15, then the value of x2 + y2 will be 4 2
(A) 32 (B) 34 114. A regular octagon ABCDEFGH has an area of one square
(C) 36 (D) 38 unit. What is the area of the rectangle ABEF ?

10. Visualising Solid Shapes

106. How many surfaces are there in solid cylinder ?
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4

11. Mensturation
107. A chess-board contains 64 equal squares and the area of
each square is 6.25 cm2. An inside border round the board 2 2
(A) 1 − (B)
is 2 cm wide. The length of the chess-board is 2 4
(A) 8 cm (B) 24 cm 1
(C) 2 −1 (D)
2
(C) 12 cm (D) 16 cm

Course for NTSE 114 Class 9th

 Supplementary Booklet

115. If the areas of three adjoining faces of a cuboid are 121. If V be the volume and S the surface area of a cuboid
a2, b2 and c2 respectively, then the volume of the cuboid 1
is dimensions a, b and c, then is equal to
V
(A) a2b2c2 (B) abc
S 2 1 1 1
(C) a3b3c3 (D) abc (A) (a + b + c) (B)  + + 
2 S a b c
116. In the given figure ABCD is a rectangle and all 2S
(C) (D) 2S(a + b + c)
measurements are in centimeters. Find the area of the a+b+c
shaded region
122. A copper rod of diameter 1 cm and length 8 cm is drawn
into a wire of length 18 m of uniform thickness. The
thickness of the wire is
1
(A) 0.67 mm (B) cm
30
(C) 0.5 mm (D) 0.7 cm

123. The area of three adjoining faces of cuboid are A, B and

C respectively then its volume will be
(A) ABC (B) ABC
(A) 240 cm2 (B) 205 cm2
(C) 105 cm2 (D) 95 cm2 (C) A2B2C2 (D) None of these

117. The volume of a cube is 2744 cm3. Its surface is 124. If each side of a rectangle is increased by 20% then the
(A) 196 cm2 (B) 1176 cm2 percentage increase in its area is
(C) 784 cm2 (D) 588 cm2 (A) 40% (B) 20%
(C) 44% (D) 30%
118. If r is the radius of the base of a cylinder and h is the
height of cylinder, then total surface area will be 125. A copper wire 3 mm in diameter is rounded about a
(A) 2πrh (B) 2πrh + 2πr2 cylinder whose length is 1.2 m and diameter is 10 cm.
(C) πr2h (D) None of these The length of the wire is
(A) 125.6 m (B) 1256 m
119. A cuboid of unit length, unit breadth and of height 10 (C) 12.56 m (D) 1.256 m
units is cut into 10 cubical pieces of edge of 1 unit length
each. The total surface area of these ten cubes will be 12. Direct and Inverse Proportions
(A) 20 sq. units (B) 40 sq. units
(C) 42 sq. units (D) 60 sq. units 126. If (3p + 4q) : (3r + 4s) = (3p – 4q) : (3r – 4s), then the
value of ps : qr is
120. Four congruent triangular corners are cut off a rectangle (A) 3 : 4 (B) 1 : 1
of dimension 11 cm × 13 cm. The resulting Octagon has (C) 4 : 3 (D) 9 : 16
eight edges of equal length. The length of the edge of
octagon is 127. Some people complete a work in 20 days. If the number
(A) 7 cm (B) 3 cm of people is doubled and work is halved, in how many
(C) 4 cm (D) 8 cm days will they complete it ?
(A) 5 (B) 10
(C) 20 (D) 40

Course for NTSE 115 Class 9th

Supplementary Booklet

128. The mass charges for 35 students for 24 days is Rs. 6300. 135. Let x = 0.123456789101112....998999 where the digits
In how many days will the mass charge be Rs. 3375 for are obtained by writing the integers 1 through 999 in
25 students ? order. Then the 2014th digit to right of the decimal point
(A) 12 (B) 15 is
(C) 18 (D) 21 (A) 7 (B) 6
(C) 5 (D) 9
129. If a : b = 3 : 5 and a : c = 5 : 7, what (b – c) : (b + c) equal 136. Given 5A9 + 3B7 + 2C8 = 1114, then the maximum value
to ? of C is
(A) 2 : 23 (B) 49 : 4 (A) 5 (B) 7
(C) 5 : 48 (D) 48 : 5 (C) 8 (D) 9

130. Mean proportion of 64 and 225 will be 14. Miscellaneous

(A) 120 (B) 90
a b 1 1
(C) 60 (D) 30 137. If = , then the value of + is
b c b−c b−a

13. Playing with Numbers (A)

1
(B)
1
b a
131. A four digit number has the following properties
1 1
(i) it is a perfect square (C) (D)
ab c
(ii) its first two digits are equal to each other
(iii) its last two digits are equal to each other a b c
138. If x + y = y + z = z − x , then which of the following
Then the four digit number is
(A) 5566 (B) 7744 equations is true ?
(C) 2288 (D) 3399 (A) a = b + c (B) c = a + b
132. The difference between a two digit given number and (C) b = a × c (D) b = a + c
the number obtained by interchanging the digits is 27. 139. The factorization of
The sum of the two digits is 2p(a – b) + 3q(5a – 5b) + 4r(2b – 2a) yields
(A) 3 (B) 5 (A) (b – a) (2p + 15q – 8r)
(C) 7 (D) Cannot be found (B) (a – b) (2p + 15q – 8r)
133. If x = 9ab where a is an integer consists of a sequence of (C) (b – a) (2p – 15q + 8r)
2014 eights and the integer b consists of a sequence of (D) (a – b) (2p – 15q + 8r)
2014 fives. What is the sum of the digits x ? 140. (ab + bc + ca) can be expressed as ........
(A) 26191 (B) 18135 (A) abc (a + b + c) (B) ab (a + c)
(C) 18000 (D) 8585
1 1 1 1 1
(C) abc  + +  (D) c  + 
134. a and b are both 4-digits numbers, a > b and one is a b c a b
obtained from the other by reversing the digits. Then the
x y z
a + b b −1 141. If 2 y + z − x = 2 z + x − y = 2 x + y − z and x + y + z ≠ 0,
value of b if = is
5 2
then what is ratio equal to
(A) 2003 (B) 1002 1
1
(C) 2005 (D) 2015 (A) (B)
2 3
2
(C) 2 (D)
3

Course for NTSE 116 Class 9th

 Supplementary Booklet

142. Let A, M and C be non-negative integers such that 5

8. On rationalising the denominator of , we get
A + M + C = 12. What is the maximum value of A.M.C + 3− 5
A.M + M.C + C.A ? 5  5
(A)   ( 3 + 5) (B)  −  ( 3 + 5)
(A) 112 (B) 62 (C) 72 (D) 92 2  2
143. Number of axis of symmetry in an isosceles triangle is 5  5
(A) 3 (B) 2 (C)   ( 3 − 5) (D)  −  ( 3 − 5)
2  2
(C) 1 (D) 0
2100
9. The value of is
[Level - 2] 2
(A) 1 (B) 50100
15. Number System
(C) 250 (D) 299
1. The decimal expansion of π is
(A) A whole number 10. Of the following four numbers, the largest is
(B) Terminating (A) 3210 (B) 7140
(C) Non-terminating but repeating (C) (17)105 (D) (31)84
(D) Non-terminating non-repeating
11. If 3 is the least prime factor of number a and 7 is the
2. The sum of a rational and an irrational number is
least prime factor of number b, then the least prime factor
(A) Rational (B) Irrational
(C) Zero (D) An integer of a + b is

3. Four whole numbers added three at a time given sums (A) 2 (B) 3
180, 197, 208 and 222 respectively. The largest of four (C) 5 (D) 10
numbers is
12. In how many wasy can you position 6 into ordered
(A) 87 (B) 88
summands ? [For exp., 3 can be positioned into 3 ways
(C) 89 (D) 90
as 1 + 2, 2 + 1, 1 + 1 + 1]
4. If m = 7777...7777 is a 99 digit number and n = 999...999
(A) 27 (B) 29
is 77 digit number, then the sum of the digits in the product
(C) 31 (D) 33
m × n is
(A) 890 (B) 891 13. If 2x – 1 + 2x + 1 = 320, then the value of x is
(C) 892 (D) 893 (A) 6 (B) 8
5. If the eight digit number 2575d568 is divisible by 54 (C) 5 (D) 7
and 87, then the value of the digit ‘d’ is
3
14. 64 = ?
(A) 4 (B) 7
(A) 2 (B) 4
(C) 0 (D) 8
(C) 6 (D) 8
6. The value of 2010
(2 7 − 3 3) 55 + 12 21 is
1 + a4
(A) –1 (B) 1 15. If a = 5 + 2 6 then is equal to
a2
(C) 0 (D) 2
(A) 4 6 (B) 10
4 4
3 6 9  6 3 9  (C) 5 (D) 2 6
7. The value of  a  ×  a  is
   
(A) a2 (B) a16
(C) a8 (D) a4

Course for NTSE 117 Class 9th

Supplementary Booklet

3
16. Statement A : The rationalising factor of a + 3 b is ( 12 − 8)( 3 + 2)
3 24. The value of is
a − 3 b. 5 + 24
Statement B : The product of ( 3 a − 3 b ) and (A) 6−2 (B) 2 − 6
3 3 (C) 0 (D) 1
( a 2 + b2 + 3 ab ) is (a – b).
(A) Both A and B statements are true 25. If x = 3 4 6
3,y= 4,z= 6 , then
(B) Both A and B statements are false (A) x < y (B) y < z
(C) A is true and B is false (C) z < x (D) x = y = z
(D) A is false and B is true
26. The ascending order of 2, 3 4, 4 6 is
17. 6
m4 n4 × m2 n 2 × m2 n 2 =
3 (m.n)k, then find the value
(A) 2, 3 4, 4 6 (B) 2, 4 6, 3 4
of k.
3
(A) 6 (B) 3
(C) 4, 2, 4 6 (D) 4
6, 3 4, 2
(C) 2 (D) 1
1 1
27. If we express 1 − +
in the form a + b 3 ,
18. 4
The value of 3 2 + 64 + 2500 + 8 4 6 1+ 3 1− 3
(A) 11 2 (B) 113 2 where a and b are rational numbers, then the values of
a and b repectively are
(C) 3 (D) 11 4
2
(A) 1, 2 (B) 1, –1
19. Among the numbers 2250, 3200, 4150 and 5100 the greatest (C) 3, 1 (D) 2, 1
number is
(A) 2250 (B) 3200 ( 3 + 1)
28. If x = then the value of 4x3 + 2x2 – 8x + 7 is
(C) 4150 (D) 5100 2
(A) 8 (B) 10
1 (C) 15 (D) 14
20. If x = , then the value of x2 + 2x + 3 is
1+ 2
29. If x = (5)1/3 + 2, then the value of x3 – 6x2 + 12x – 10 is
(A) 3 (B) 0
(A) 1 (B) –2
(C) 4 (D) 1
(C) –1 (D) 3
21. Which of the following is the smallest positive number ?
30. If x = 5 + 21 and y = 5 − 21 then the value of
(A) 10 − 3 11 (B) 3 11 − 10
(x – y) is
(C) 51 − 10 26 (D) 18 − 5 13
(A) 2 21 (B) 10
5−2 5+2 (C) 6 (D) ± 6
22. Simple form of + is
5+2 5−2
2 2 + 2 ab 2 − b2
(A) 9 + 5 (B) 18 31. The square root of xb xb xa is
a +b
(C) 18 + 5 (D) 9
(A) x2(a + b) (B) x 2

( a + b )2
23. The value of 8 + 2 8 + 2 8 + 2 8 + 2 8 + ....∞ is
(C) x 2 (D) xa + b
equal to
(A) 4 (B) 6 32. The value of 4 3 + 129 − 72 3 is
(C) 8 (D) 10

Course for NTSE 118 Class 9th

 Supplementary Booklet

(A) 9 3 (B) 9  1 
40. If x = (3 + 8) , then  x 2 +  will be
(C) 9+ 3 (D) 9 − 3  x2 
(A) 38 (B) 36
2
 3 (C) 34 (D) 30
33. The value of  6 27 − 6  is equal to
 4
41. The value of 5 − 2 6 is
3 3
(A)
4
(B) (A) ± ( 3 − 2) (B) 3− 2
2
(C) 2− 3 (D) All of these
3 3 3
(C) (D)
4 2
42. 8 + 2 15 − 8 − 2 15 is
5 (A) 2 5 (B) 8
34. An equivalent expression of after rationalizing
7+4 5 (C) 12 (D) 5
the denominator is
16. Polynomials
Polynomials
20 5 − 35 20 5 − 35
(A) (B)
31 129 43. A polynomials of degrees 3 is called a
(A) Linear polynomial
35 − 20 5 35 − 20 5
(C) (D) (B) Quadratic polynomial
31 121
(C) Cubic polynomial
35. What is the value of 2.6 − 1.9 ? (D) Biquadratic polynomial
(A) 0.6 (B) 0.9
1 1
(C) 0.7 (D) 0.7 44. If x + = 3, then the value of x6 + 6 is
x x

36. Expressing 0.23 + 0.23 as a single decimal, we get (A) 927 (B) 114
(C) 364 (D) 322
(A) 0.465 (B) 0.465
(C) (D) 0.4654 45. If the quotient of x4 – 11x3 + 44x2 – 76x + 48, when
0.465
divided by (x2 – 7x + 12) is Ax2 + Bx + C, then the
37. 23x = 64–1 and 10y = 0.01, then the value of (50x)–1(10y)–1 descending order of A, B and C is
is (A) A, B, C (B) B, C, A
(A) 1 (B) –1 (C) A, C, B (D) C, A, B
(C) 2 (D) –2
46. If in 3 + 3 5, x = 3 and y = 3 5, then its rationalising
38. What is the square root of 9 + 2 14 ?
factor is
(A) 1 + 2 2 (B) 3+ 6 (A) x + y
(C) 2+ 7 (D) 2+ 5 (B) x – y
(C) x5 + x4y + x3y2 + x2y3 + xy4 + y5
39. If a = 6 + 5; b = 6 − 5 , then find the value of (D) x5 – x4y + x3y2 – x2y3 + xy4 – y5
2a2 – 5ab + 2b2
47. Which one of the following is a factor of the expression
(A) 36 (B) 37
(a + b)3 – (a – b)3 ?
(C) 39 (D) 41
(A) a (B) 3a2 – b
(C) 2b (D) (a + b)(a – b)

Course for NTSE 119 Class 9th

Supplementary Booklet

48. One of the factor of x6 + 10x3 – 27 is 57. If (x – 2) is a factor of polynomial x3 + 2x2 – kx + 10,
(A) x2 – x + 3 (B) x2 – x – 3 then the value of k will be
(C) x2 + x – 3 (D) x2 + x + 3 (A) 10 (B) 13
(C) 16 (D) 9
1
49. If x = 3 + 4
8 , then x + is equal to 58. Polynomial x2 + 15x – 3250 can be factorized as
x4
(A) (x – 50)(x + 35) (B) (x – 65)(x + 50)
(A) 1056 (B) 1158
(C) (x – 50)(x – 35) (D) (x + 65)(x – 50)
(C) 1156 (D) 1154
59. If (x + 2) is a factor of the polynomial f (x) = x2 + ax + 2b
50. If x – a is a factor of x3 – 3x2a + 2a2x + b, then the value and a + b = 4, then the value of a and b are
of b is (A) a = 1, b = 3 (B) a = 3, b = 1
(A) 0 (B) 2 (C) a = –1, b = 5 (D) a = 5, b = –1
(C) 1 (D) 3
60. What is the value of P for which (a – 2) is factor of
51. x6
If f(x) = – 10x5
– 10x4 – 10x3 – 10x2 – 10x + 10, the a2 – 5a + P ?
value of f (11) is (A) 2 (B) 3
(A) 1 (B) 10 (C) 5 (D) 6
(C) 11 (D) 21 61. If a = 23, b = 27 and c = 50, the value of a3 + b3 – c3 +
3abc is
1 1 5 1
52. If x + = 5, then x3 – 5x2 + x + 3 − 2 + = ___ (A) 100 (B) 73
x x x x
(C) 77 (D) 0
(A) –5 (B) 0
62. If a + b + c = 0 and a2 + b2 + c2 = k(a2 – bc then k = ........
(C) 5 (D) 10
(A) 0 (B) 1
53. Let p(x) = x2 + bx + c, where b and c are integers. If p(x) (C) 2 (D) 3
is a factor of both x4 + 6x2 + 25 and 3x4 + 4x2 + 28x + 5,
1 1
then what is the value of p(1) ? 63. If x + = 2 then x+ will be
x x
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) 4 (A) 2 (B) 2
(C) 2 +1 (D) 1
3
 1 
54. If x2 + x + 1 = 0, then what is the value of  x3 + 3  ? 64. If x + y = 1 then x3 + y3 + 3xy =
 x 
(A) 0 (B) 1
(A) 8 (B) –1
(C) 2 (D) None of these
(C) 0 (D) 1
65. If x + 3y – z = 4, 3x + 3y + z = 12, (x + 3y)2 – z2 = 36, then
55. The coefficient of x7 in the polynomial expansion of
the value of x is
(1 + 2x – x2) is
3 1
(A) –8 (B) 12 (A) (B)
2 3
(C) 14 (D) –12
(C) 3 (D) 5
1 1
56. If x = , then the value of x2 – is 66. If p(x) = x 4 + ax3 + bx2 + cx + d and p(1) = p(2) = p(3) = 0,
2− 3 x2
then the value of p(4) + p(0) is
(A) 12 3 (B) 8 3 (A) 10 (B) 24
(C) 14 (D) 12 (C) 25 (D) 12

Course for NTSE 120 Class 9th

 Supplementary Booklet

67. If xy + yz + zx = 0, then the value of 77. If a + b + c = 0, then the value of

 1 1 1  ( a + b ) 2 (b + c ) 2 ( c + a ) 2
 2 + 2 + 2  is + + is
ab bc ca
 x − yz y − zx z − xy 
(A) 1 (B) 2
(A) 3 (B) 0
(C) 3 (D) –3
(C) 1 (D) x + y + z
78. If four positive integers a, b, c and d have a product of 8!
a3 − b3
68. If a + b = 3, ab = 2 and a > b, then the value of 2 and satisfy
is ab + a + b = 524
(A) 32 (B) 64 bc + b + c = 146
(C) 128 (D) 256 cd + c + d = 104
then the value of a – d is
69. The cube root of x + y + 3x1/3y1/3(x1/3 + y1/3) is
[Take 8! = 1 × 2 × 3 × 4 × 5 × 6 × 7 × 8]
(A) x + y (B) x1/3 + y1/3
(A) 4 (B) 6
(C) (x + y)1/3 (D) (x + y)3
(C) 8 (D) 10
70. If a = x – y, b = y – z and c = z – x, then the value of
a3 + b3 + c3 is 79. If a2 + b2 + 2c2 – 4a + 2c – 2bc + 5 = 0, then the possible
(A) 3(x – y)(y – z)(z – x) (B) (x – y)3(y – z)3(z – x)3 value of (a + b – c) is
(C) (x + y + z)3 (D) x3 + y3 + z3 (A) 1 (B) 2
(C) –1 (D) –2
71. If 418 – 1 = 687194a6735, then the value of a is
(A) 6 (B) 3 80. If x – 2 is factor of 3x4 – 2x3 + 7x2 – 21x + k, then the
(C) 7 (D) 5 value of k is
(A) 2 (B) 9
72. If xyz + xy + xz + yz + x + y + z = 384, where x, y, z are
(C) 18 (D) –18
positive integers, then the value of x + y + z is
(A) 20 (B) 17 1 1
81. If a + b = 2 and + = 2 then a3 + b3 will be
(C) 25 (D) 15 a b

73. If x = 2 + 21/3 + 22/3, then the value of x3 – 6x2 + 6x is (A) 1 (B) 2

(C) 3 (D) 4
(A) 2 (B) 1
(C) 4 (D) 3 82. The polynomials (x3 – 1) and (x2 + 1) are divided by
(x + 1) leave the remainder as R1 and R2. The true
74. If p(x) = 2x3 – 3x2 + 5x – 4 is divided by (x – 2), then the
statement among the following is
remainder is
(A) R1 + R2 = 0 (B) R1 – R2 = 0
(A) 12 (B) 8
(C) 2R1 + R2 = 0 (D) R1 – 2R2 = 0
(C) 10 (D) –10
75. If the polynomial p(x) = x200 – 2x199 + x50 – 2x49 + x2 + 83. When 10x2 + x – 23 is divided by (2x + 3), the remainder
x + 1 is divided by (x – 1)(x – 2), then the remainder is is
(A) 1 (B) 7 (A) 1 (B) –2
(C) 2x + 1 (D) 6x – 5 (C) 2 (D) 0

76. One of the factors of a3 b3

81a4 + (x – 2a)(x – 5a)(x – 8a)(x – 11a) is 84. The sum of and is
b−a a −b
(A) x2 – 13ax + 31a2 (B) x2 + 13ax + 31a2 (A) a2 + ab + b2 (B) –a2 – ab – b2
(C) x2 + 18ax – 31a2 (D) x2 – 18ax + 31a2 (C) a2 – ab + b2 (D) a3 – b3

Course for NTSE 121 Class 9th

Supplementary Booklet

85. The degree of the polynomial (x + 1)(x2 – x – x4 + 1) is  1 1

2
(A) 2 (B) 3 94. If f  2 x +  = x + 2 + 1( x ≠ 0), the value of f (x) is
 x  4x
(C) 4 (D) 5
2
1 1
2 ) is a factor of kx2 –
(A) 4x2 (B)  2x + 
86. If (x + 2 x + 1, then the value 4 x
of k is 2
1 2  1
3 2 (C) x (D) 4  2x + 
(A) − (B) − 4  x
2 3

3 2 95. If x – 2 x = 3, then the value of x is

(C) (D)
2 3 (A) 1 (B) 3
87. Given that P(x) and Q(x) are polynomials of degree 3 (C) 9 (D) –1
with real coefficients, which one of the following is not 17. INTRODUCTION TO EUCLID’S GEOMETRY
true ?
(A) deg[P(x) + Q(x)] = 6 96. The number of straight line(s) drawn from one point to
(B) deg[P(x) + Q(x)] = 3 any other point is/are
(C) deg[P(x) – Q(x)] ≤ 3 (A) 4 (B) 3
(D) deg[[P(x)]2 [Q(x)]2] = 15 (C) 2 (D) 1

88. If x2 + 2x + 5 is a factor of x4 + Px2 + Q, then the value of 97. Three are four lines in a plane, no two of which are
P + Q is equal to parallel. The maximum number of points in which they
(A) 18 (B) 25 can intersect is
(C) 31 (D) 28 (A) 4 (B) 5
(C) 6 (D) 7
89. If (x – 4) is a factor of 5x3 – 7x2 – ax – 28 then the value
of a is 98. It is given that there are 6 straight lines in a plane so that
(A) 35 (B) 45 no three of them are concurrent and no two ara parallel.
(C) 55 (D) 25 Then the number of points of intersection among the
90. If one factor of 27x3 + 64y3 is (3x + 4y) what is the second given six straight lines is
factor ? (A) 6 (B) 12
(A) (3x2 – 4y) (B) (3x2 + 12xy + 4y2) (C) 15 (D) 3
(C) (9x2 + 12xy – 16y2) (D) (9x2 – 12xy + 16y2) 99. There are 10 points in a plane of which 4 are collinear,
1 the maximum number of straight line that can be drawn
91. If x2 – 3x + 1 = 0, then the value of x5 + ? from these points will be
x5
(A) 87 (B) 123 (A) 40 (B) 45
(C) 135 (D) 201 (C) 46 (D) 36

92. If (x + 2) is a factor of 2x3 – 5x + k, then the value of k is 18. LINES AND ANGLES
(A) 6 (B) –6
100. The angles of a triangle in the ratio 1 : 5 : 3, the smallest
(C) 26 (D) –26
angle of triangle is
93. Given that a2 + 6b = – 14, b2 + 8c + 23 = 0 and c2 + 4a (A) 20° (B) 60°
– 8 = 0, then the value of ab + bc + ca is (C) 90° (D) 100°
(A) 26 (B) 32
(C) 16 (D) 25

Course for NTSE 122 Class 9th

 Supplementary Booklet

101. In the given figure, m∠A + m∠B + m∠C + m∠D + m∠E 105. In a ∆PRS, ∠PRS = 120°. A point Q is taken on PR such
+ m∠F + m∠G = _______ that PQ = QS and QR = RS. The measure of ∠QPS is
(A) 15° (B) 30°
(C) 45° (D) 12°
106. In the given figure, the measurement of ∠1 + ∠2 + ∠3 +
∠4 + ∠5 + ∠6 is

(A) 360° (B) 500°

(C) 520° (D) 540°

102. In the given figure, PQ || ST, if ∠PQR = 110°, ∠RST =

130°, then the measure of ∠QRS is (A) 90° (B) 180°
(C) 270° (D) 360°
107. If the measure of the angles of ∆ABC are in proportion
1 : 2 : 3, then the measures of the smallest angle is
(A) 30° (B) 60°
(A) 20° (B) 50° (C) 90° (D) 120°
(C) 60° (D) 70°
108. In the given figure, the angle bisector of ∠B and ∠C are
103. In the given figure, AB || CD. If ∠ABE = 120°, ∠DCE = BO and CO, respectively. What is the value of x ?
110° and ∠BEC = x°, then x° will be

(A) 120° (B) 130°

(A) 60° (B) 50° (C) 140° (D) 150°
(C) 40° (D) 70°
109. If AP and BP are the bisectors of the angle A and angle B
104. In the given figure, if QT ⊥ PR, ∠TQR = 40° and of a parallelogram ABCD, then the value of the angle of
∠SPR = 30°, then y is APB is

(A) 70° (B) 110° (A) 30° (B) 45°

(C) 90° (D) 80° (C) 60° (D) 90°

Course for NTSE 123 Class 9th

Supplementary Booklet

110. The bisectors of ∠A and ∠B of the triangle ABC meet at 114. In the given figure, X is a point in the interior of square
P and PQ, PR are parallel to AC and BC. ABCD and AXYZ is also a square. If DY = 3 cm and
AZ = 2 cm, then the length of BY is

The perimeter of triangle PQR is 30 centimeters. What (A) 5 cm (B) 6 cm

is the length of AB ? (C) 7 cm (D) 8 cm
(A) 20 (B) 25 115. In the given figure, in ∆APQ, P–B–C–Q and AB = AC =
(C) 30 (D) 45 PB = CQ. The angle congruent to ∠PAQ is
111. In the given figure, ∆ODC ~ ∆OBA, ∠BOC = 115° and
∠CDO = 80°. Then ∠OAB is equal to

(A) ∠ACP (B) ∠ABP

(C) ∠APC (D) ∠BAQ

20. Coordinate Geometry

(A) 80° (B) 35° 116. The distance of origin from the point P(3, –2) is
(C) 45° (D) 65° (A) 2 units (B) 15 units
(C) 13 units (D) 11 units
112. In a triangle ABC; OB and OC are the bisectors of ∠ABC
and ∠ACB respectively. Then ∠BOC is equal to 117. The coordinates of a point which is equidistant from the
∠A three vertices A(0, 2y), O(0, 0) and B(2x, 0) of a triangle
(A) 90° – (B) 90° – ∠A
2 AOB are
∠A ∠A (A) (x, y) (B) (y, x)
(C) 90° + (D) 180° –
2 2 x y  y x
(C)  ,  (D)  , 
2 2  2 2
19. TTriangles
riangles
118. The point which is equidistant from the points (0, 0) (0, 8)
113. If P is a point inside a scalene triangle ABC such that
and (4, 6) is
∆APB, ∆BPC and ∆CPA have the same area, then P must
be 1   −1 
(A)  , − 4  (B)  , 4 
(A) Incentre of ∆ABC 2   2 
(B) Circumcentre of ∆ABC
1   −1 
(C) Centroid of ∆ABC (C)  , 4  (D)  , − 4 
2   2 
(D) Orthocentre of ∆ABC

Course for NTSE 124 Class 9th

 Supplementary Booklet

119. If points (x, 0) (0, y) and (1, 1) are collinear, then the 127. ABCD is a square whose vertex A lies on the origin. The
relation is coordinates of the mid-point of the diagonal AC are
(A) x + y = 1 (B) x + y = xy p 
(C) x + y + 1 = 0 (D) x + y + xy = 0  , 1 . Find the value of p, the area of square ABCD is
2 
120. ∆ABC has vertices A(–4, 1), B(2, –1) and O(1, k). The 20 sq. units
number of possible value(s) of k such that the triangle is (A) ± 6 (B) ± 20
isosceles is (C) ± 10 (D) ± 36
(A) 1 (B) 3
(C) 5 (D) 4 21. Heron’s Formula
Heron’s
121. If the points (–2, –5), (2, –2) and (8, a) are collinear then 128. Area of triangle ABC whose sides are 24 m, 40 m and
value of a will be 32 m is
(A) 96 m2 (B) 384 m2
1 3
(A) (B) (C) 43 m2 (D) 192 m2
2 2
−5 5 129. A triangle with integral sides has perimeter 8 units. The
(C) (D)
2 2 area of the triangle is _________ sq. units.

122. If the coordinates of centre of any circle are (3, 4) and (A) 2 (B) 2 2
the coordinates of one end of its diameter are (5, 3), then (C) 3 2 (D) 4
coordinates of other end of diameter are
130. The side of a triangle are of lengths 20, 21 and 29 units.
(A) (4, 1) (B) (1, 4)
The sum of the lengths of altitude will be
(C) (1, 5) (D) (5, 1)
1609
(A) units (B) 49 units
123. What is the distance between the point (3, –6) and 29
(–2, 6) ?
1609
(A) 12 units (B) 13 units (C) units (D) 40 units
21
(C) 14 units (D) 15 units
131. In the figure given below, ABC is an equilateral triangle.
124. For which value, point A(a, b) lies in the quadrant III ?
D, E, F, G, H and I are the trisector points of the sides as
(A) a > 0, b < 0 (B) a < 0, b < 0
shown. If the side of the triangle ABC is 6 cm, then the
(C) a > 0, b > 0 (D) a < 0, b > 0
area of the regular hexagon DEFGHI is
125. Which point on x-axis is equidistant from the point
A(7, 6) and B(–3, 4) ?
(A) (0, 4) (B) (–4, 0)
(C) (3, 0) (D) (0, 3)

126. If the distance between the points (4, p) and (1, 0) is 5,

then the value of p is
(A) 4 only (B) ± 4
(C) –4 only (D) 0

(A) 3 3 cm 2 (B) 4 3 cm 2
(C) 5 3 cm 2 (D) 6 3 cm 2

Course for NTSE 125 Class 9th

Supplementary Booklet

132. A regular hexagon overlap is formed by placing two 138. The height of an isosceles triangle is 6 cm, the perimeter
congruent equialteral triangles on the top of each other. of the triangle is 36 cm. Then the area of the triangle
If the area of each triangle is 27 cm2, then the area of the (in cm2) is
hexagon is (A) 36 (B) 48
(C) 52 (D) 64

139. The sides of a triangle are 11 m, 60 m, and 61 m. The

altitude of the smallest side is
(A) 11 m (B) 66 m
(C) 60 m (D) 50 m

140. If the altitude of an equilateral triangle is x cm, then the

area is equal to
3x 2
(A) x2 cm2 (B) cm 2
(A) 20 cm2 (B) 18 cm2 2
(C) 16 cm2 (D) 15 cm2 x2 x2
(C) cm 2 (D) cm 2
133. 3 sides of triangle are consecutive integers and the largest 3 2
angle is twice the smallest angle. The perimeter of triangle 141. The height of an equilateral triangle is 6 cm. Its area
is
is
(A) 15 units (B) 10 units
(A) 2 2 cm 2 (B) 6 2 cm 2
(C) 12 units (D) 16 units
(C) 2 3 cm 2 (D) 3 3 cm 2
134. If the lengths of the sides of a triangle are in proportion
3 : 4 : 5 then the area of triangle is ______ sq. units, 142. The perimeter of an isosceles right triangle is 2P, its area
where perimeter of the triangle is 144. is
(A) 64 (B) 364 (A) (3 − 2 2)P 2 (B) (1 − 2 2)P 2
(C) 564 (D) 864 (C) (3 + 2 2)P 2 (D) (1 + 2 2)P 2
135. The area of right angled triangle is 96 sq. meter if base is
143. Equilateral Triangles I, II, III and IV are such that the
three times the altitude, the length of base is
altitude of triangle I is the side of triangle II, the altitude
(A) 24 meter (B) 20 meter
(C) 18 meter (D) 15 meter of triangle II is the side of triangle III and the altitude of
triangle III is the side of triangle IV. If the area of triangle
136. The altitude of an equilateral triangle is p cm. The area
I is 2 cm2, then the area (in cm2) of triangle IV is
of this triangle is
3 9
3 2 (A) (B)
(A) p2 cm2 (B) p cm 2 2 16
2
27 45
p2 3 2 (C) (D)
(C) cm 2 (D) p cm 2 32 64
3 4

137. If every side of a triangle is doubled then a new triangle

is formed. The ratio of areas of these two triangles is
(A) 1 : 2 (B) 1 : 3
(C) 1 : 4 (D) 2 : 3

Course for NTSE 126 Class 9th

 Supplementary Booklet

22. Linear Equations in TTwo

wo Variables
Variables 150. The product of two numbers is 110 and the sum of their
squares is 264, then the sum of these numbers can be
144. The sum of three numbers is 98. If the ratio of the first to
(A) 22 (B) 24
2 (C) 20 (D) 28
the second term is and the ratio of the second to the
3
151. Five years ago, the sum of ages of the father and the son
5
third is , then the second number is was 40 years. In present, if the ratio of their ages is 4 : 1,
8
then the present age of father is
(A) 15 (B) 20
(A) 30 years (B) 40 years
(C) 30 (D) 32
(C) 45 years (D) 42 years
145. Suppose you walk from home to the bus stand at 4 km/h
152. The sum of two numbers is 100 and one number is two
and immediately return at x km/h. If the average speed is
less than twice the other number. Then, the numbers are
6 km/h, then x is
(A) 34, 66 (B) 24, 76
(A) 8 km/h
(C) 44, 56 (D) 46, 54
(B) 10 km/h
(C) 12 km/h 153. The difference between a two digit given number and
(D) Cannot be determined unless the distance from the number obtained by interchanging the digit is 27. The
home to bus stand is known sum of the two digits is
(A) 3 (B) 5
146. A man can row three quarters of a km against the stream
(C) 7 (D) Cannot be found
1 1
in 11 minutes and return in 7 minutes. The speed of 154. In a given fraction if the numerator is multiplied by 3
4 2
the man in still water is and the denominator is subtracted by 3, the fraction
(A) 2 km/h (B) 3 km/h 18
becomes and if the numerator is increased by 8 and
(C) 4 km/h (D) 5 km/h 11

147. A tank can be filled by one tap in 20 minutes and by 2

the denominator doubled the fraction becomes . The
5
another in 25 minutes. Both the taps are kept open for 5
sum of the numerator and denominator of the given
minutes and then the second is turned off. In how many
fraction is
minutes more is the tank completely filled ?
(A) 27 (B) 33
(A) 6 (B) 11
(C) 37 (D) 42
1
(C) 12 (D) 17 155. a and b are both 4 digit numbers a > b and one is obtained
2
from the other by reversing the digits. Then the value of
148. A boat whose speed is 18 km/hr in still water takes 1 hr
more to go 24 km upstream than to return downstream to a + b b −1
b if =
the same spot. Find the speed of the stream. 5 2
(A) 8 km/hr (B) 6 km/hr (A) 2003 (B) 1002
(C) 10 km/hr (D) 5.5 km/hr (C) 2005 (D) 2015

149. If x = 9ab where a is an integer consists of a sequence of 156. If the system of equations kx + 3y – (k – 3) = 0, 12x + ky
2014 eights and the integer b consists of a sequence of – k = 0 has infinitely many solutions, then k =
2014 fives. What is the sum digits of x ? (A) 6 (B) –6
(A) 9000 (B) 26191 (C) 0 (D) None of these
(C) 18000 (D) 8585

Course for NTSE 127 Class 9th

Supplementary Booklet

157. In a hostel, there was sufficient food for 200 students for 163. Which of the following statements is always true ?
31 days. After 27 days 120 students left the hostel. For (A) Every rectangle is a square
how many extra days will the rest of food last for (B) Every parallelogram is a trapezium
remaining students ? (C) Every rhombus is a square
(A) 8 days (B) 6 days (D) Every parallelogram is a rectangle
(C) 12 days (D) 10 days
164. Which of the following polygons is uniquely determined
158. Line x + y = 2 passes through the _________ quadrants. when all the sides are given ?
(A) 1st and 3rd both (B) 2nd and 3rd both (A) Quadrilateral (B) Triangle
(C) 3rd and 4th both (D) 1st, 2nd and 4th all (C) Pentagon (D) Hexagon

159. The average score of boys in class X in an exam is 71 165. ABCD is a cyclic quadrilateral and O is the centre of the
and that of the girls in that class is 73. If the average circle. If ∠COD = 130° and ∠BAC = 25°, the value of
score of class X in that exam is 71.8 find the ratio of ∠BOC and ∠BCD are respectively
number of boys to number of girls in that class. (A) 40°, 90° (B) 50°, 90°
(A) 1 : 2 (B) 2 : 1 (C) 65°, 50° (D) 70°, 80°
(C) 2 : 3 (D) 3 : 2
166. The total number of symmetry axis for a square is
160. The area of the figure formed by the intersection of lines (A) 1 (B) 2
x = 0, y = 0, x = 3, y = 4 will be (C) 3 (D) 4
(A) 3 sq. unit (B) 4 sq. unit
167. In how many ways can a given square to cut into two
(C) 6 sq. unit (D) 12 sq. unit
congruent figures ?
(A) Exactly 4 (B) Exactly 8
23. Quadrilaterals
(C) Exactly 12 (D) More than 12
161. PQRS is a parallelogram and M and N are the mid-points
168. If the line segment joining the mid-point of the
of PQ and RS respectively. Which of the following is not
consecutive sides of quadrilateral ABCD from a rectangle
true ?
then ABCD must be
(A) Rhombus (B) Square
(C) Kite (D) All of these

169. ∆ABC is an equilateral triangle, AB = 6, the points P, Q

and R are mid-points of AB, BC and CA respectively.

(A) RM trisects QS The perimeter of PBCR is ___________

(B) PN trisects QS (A) 18 (B) 15
(C) ∠PSN = ∠QMR (C) 9 (D) 12
(D) MS is not parallel to QN
170. In parallelogram ABCD, let AM be the altitude
162. The bisectors of angles of a parallelograms makes a figure corresponding to the base BC and CN the altitude
which is
corresponding to the base AB . If AB = 10 cm, AM =
(A) Rectangle (B) Circle
6 cm and CN = 12 cm then BC = ______ cm.
(C) Pentagon (D) Octagon
(A) 20 (B) 10
(C) 12 (D) 5

Course for NTSE 128 Class 9th

 Supplementary Booklet

171. In ∆ABC, point P and Q trisect side AB. Points T and U 177. In the obtuse triangle ABC, AM = MB, MD ⊥ BC,
trisect and AC and points R and S trisect side BC. Then EC ⊥ BC. If the area of ∆ABC is 24, then the area of
perimeter of hexagon PRSTU is how many times of the
perimeter of ∆ABC ? ∆BED is

1 2
(A) times (B) times
3 3
1 1
(C) times (D) times
6 2

172. The line segment joining the mid-points of the adjacent

sides of a quadrilateral
(A) Parallelogram (B) Square (A) 9 (B) 12
(C) Rhombus (D) Rectangle (C) 15 (D) 18

173. Sides AB and CD of a quadrilateral ABCD are extended 178. ABC is a right angled triangle with ∠B = 90°. M is the
as in the figure. Then a + b is equal to mid-point of AC and BM = 117 cm. Sum of the lengths
of the sides AB and BC is 30 cm. The area of the triangle
is
(A) 96 cm2 (B) 108 cm2
(C) 114 cm2 (D) 125 cm2

179. As shown in the figure on the right ∆ABC is divided

into six smaller triangles by lines drawn from the vertices
through a common interior point. The areas of four of
these tirangles are indicated in the figure. Then, the area
(A) x + 2y (B) x – y of the triangle is
(C) x + y (D) 2x + y

174. The proportion of the angles of a quadrilateral is

2 : 5 : 7 : 4, what type of quadrilateral is that ?
(A) Parallelogram (B) Rhombus
(C) Cyclic quadrilateral (D) Trapezium

24. Areas of Parallelograms and TTriangles

Parallelograms riangles (A) 315 (B) 240
175. The perimeters of a regular hexagon and a square are (C) 275 (D) 185
equal. The ratio of the area of the square to the area of
the hexagon is 180. The area of a rectangle is same as that of a circle of radius

(A) 3: 2 (B) 2 : 3 3 35
cm. If the length of the rectangle exceeds its breadth
11
(C) 1: 3 (D) 3 : 2 3
by 3 cm, then the length of the rectangle is
176. If each side of a rectangle is increased by 20%, then the (A) 2 cm (B) 3 cm
percentage increase in its area is (C) 4 cm (D) 5 cm
(A) 40% (B) 20%
(C) 44% (D) 30%

Course for NTSE 129 Class 9th

Supplementary Booklet

181. In ∆ABC, E divides AB in the ratio 3 : 1 and F divides 186. In the following figure of triangle ABC, E is the mid-
BC in the ratio 3 : 2, then the ratio of areas of ∆BEF and point of median AD. The ratio of areas of the triangles
∆ABC is ABC to that of BED is
(A) 3 : 5 (B) 3 : 10
(C) 1 : 5 (D) 3 : 20

182. ABCD is a rectangle such that AC + AB = 5AD and

AC – AD = 8, then the area of rectangle ABCD is
(A) 36 sq. units (B) 50 sq. units
(C) 60 sq. units (D) Cannot be found

183. PQRS is a smallest square whose vertices are the opposite

sides of the square ABCD. The ratio of the area of
PQRS and ABCD is (A) 1 : 4 (B) 3 : 4
(C) 4 : 1 (D) 4 : 3
(A) 1 : 2 (B) 1: 2
(C) 1 : 3 (D) 2 : 3 187. In a triangle ABC, D is the mid-point of AB, E is the
mid-point of DB and F is the mid-point of BC. If the
184. In the given figure, the area of square ABCD is 4 cm2 area of ∆ABC is 96 cm2, then the area of ∆AEF is
and E any point on AB, F, G, H and K are the mid-point (A) 16 cm2 (B) 24 cm2
of DE, CF, DG and CH respectively. The area of ∆KDC (C) 32 cm2 (D) 36 cm2
is
24. CIRCLES
188. In the adjacent figure, if ∠AOC = 110°, then the value
of ∠D and ∠B respectively

1 2 1 2
(A) cm (B) cm
4 8
1 1
(C) cm 2 (D) cm 2
16 32
(A) 55°, 125° (B) 55°, 110°
185. In ∆ABC, if m∠B = 90°, AB = 4 5 units, BD ⊥ AC, (C) 110°, 25° (D) 125°, 55°
AD = 4 units, then ar(∆ABC) is equal to
189. AB and CD are two parallel chords of a circle such that
(A) 96 sq. units (B) 80 sq. units AB = 10 cm and CD = 24 cm. If the chords are on the
(C) 120 sq. units (D) 160 sq. units opposite sides of the centre and the distance between
them is 17 cm, then the radius of the circle is
(A) 14 cm (B) 10 cm
(C) 13 cm (D) 15 cm

Course for NTSE 130 Class 9th

 Supplementary Booklet

190. In the given circle with centre O the mid-points of two 195. In the following figure O is the centre of circle and
equal chords AB and CD are K and L respectively. ∠BAC = n°, ∠OCB = m°, then
If ∠OLK = 25°, then ∠LKB = ?

(A) 125° (B) 115° (A) m° + n° = 90° (B) m° + n° = 180°

(C) 105° (D) 90° (C) m° + n° = 120° (D) m° + n° = 150°

191. The greatest angle of a cyclic quadrilateral ABCD in 196. In the following figure, ∠PQR is (Here O is centre of
the circle)
which ∠A = (2x − 1)°, ∠B = (y + 5)°, ∠C = (2y + 5)°
and ∠D = (4x + 7)° is
(A) 115° (B) 120°

2°
(C) 127 (D) 130°
3

192. The chord of maximum length in a circle is called

(A) Radius (B) Arc
(A) 60° (B) 80°
(C) Diameter (D) Point
(C) 100° (D) 120°
193. In figure, A, B, C an D are four points on a circle. AC
197. If two chords of a circle are equidistance from the centre
and BD intersect at a point E such that ∠BEC = 125°
of the circle, then they are
and ∠ECD = 30° , then ∠BAC =
(A) Equal to each other
(B) Not equal to each other(
C) Intersect each other
(D) None of these

198. In the given figure, the values of x and y are

(A) 95° (B) 110°

(C) 85° (D) 105°

194. Given a quadrilateral ABCD inscribed in a circle with

side AB extended beyond B to point E. If ∠BAD = 92°
and ∠ADC = 68°, then the value of ∠EBC is
(A) x = 60°, y = 12° (B) x = 60°, y = 10°
(A) 66° (B) 68° (C) x = 12°, y = 60° (D) None of these
(C) 70° (D) 92°

Course for NTSE 131 Class 9th

Supplementary Booklet

199. A circle passed through the vertices of an equilateral 203. In the picture, chords AB ad CD of the circle are extended
∆ABC. The measure of an angle subtended by the side to meet at P and the chords AD and BC intersect at Q
AB at the cente of the circle has measure ________.
(A) 30° (B) 60°
(C) 90° (D) 120°
200. Equilateral triangle ABC is inscribed in a circle. If side
of the triangle = 24 cm, then the radius is

The central angle of the smaller arc AC is 120° and the

central angle of the smaller arc BC is 30°. What are
∠APC and ∠AQC ?
(A) 15°, 60° (B) 45°, 75°
(C) 40°, 80° (D) 50°, 80°
204. In the following figure O is the centre of circle and
(A) 6 3 cm (B) 12 3 cm
∠ACB = x°, ∠OBA = y°, then the value of x° + y° is
(C) 8 3 cm (D) 6 cm
201. If tangents PA and PB from a P to a circle with centre O
are inclined to each other at an angle of 110°, then
∠POA is equal to

(A) 90° (B) 120°

(C) 150° (D) 180°
205. The lengths of two parallel chords of a circle are 6 cm
and 8 cm. If the smaller chord is at distance 4 cm from
(A) 65° (B) 55° the centre, then the distance of the other chord from the
(C) 45° (D) 35° centre is
202. In the picture, a diameter of the circle and a chord (A) 5 cm (B) 4 cm
perpendicular to it are drawn. (C) 3 cm (D) 2 cm
206. In the given figure, ∠DBC = 22° and ∠DCB = 78° then
∠BAC is equal to

The length of the chord is 24 centimeters and it cuts the

diameter in the ratio 9 : 1. What is the diameter in
counters?
(A) 20 (B) 30
(C) 40 (D) 60 (A) 90° (B) 80°
(C) 78° (D) 22°

Course for NTSE 132 Class 9th

 Supplementary Booklet

207. ABCD is a cyclic quadrilateral and O is the centre of the 211. If two equal circles of radius r passes through centre of
circle. If ∠COD = 130° and ∠BAC = 25°, the value of the other, then the length of their common chord is
∠BOC and ∠BCD are respectively r
(A) (B) r 3
(A) 40°, 90° (B) 50°, 90° 3
(C) 65°, 50° (D) 70°, 80°
r
208. In the given figure, AOB is a diameter of the circle with (C) (D) r 2
2
centre at O and ∠ADC = 125° then ∠BAC is
25. Surface Areas and Volumes
Volumes
212. Four circular cardboard pieces, each of radius 7 cm are
placed in such a way that each piece thouches the two
other pieces. The area of the space enclosed by the four
pieces is
(A) 21 cm2 (B) 42 cm2
(A) 35° (B) 45° (C) 84 cm 2 (D) 168 cm2
(C) 55° (D) 65°
213. From a 25 cm × 35 cm rectangular cardboard, an open
209. In the figure O is the centre of the circle and ∠POR = 80°. box is to be made by cutting out identical squares of area
Then ∠RQS is 25 cm2 from each corner and turning up the sides. The
volume of the box is
(A) 3000 cm3 (B) 1875 cm3
(C) 21875 cm3 (D) 1250 cm3

214. If V be the volume and S the surface area of a cuboid of

1
dimensions a, b and c, then is equal to
V
(A) 30° (B) 40° S 2 1 1 1
(A) (a + b + c) (B)  + + 
(C) 140° (D) 50° 2 S a b c 
210. Secants AB, AC intersect the circle with cente O, at D, E 2S
(C) (D) 2S(a + b + c)
respectively. BE, DC intersect at F. If ∠BOC = 118° and a+b+c
∠A = 30°, then ∠BFC is equal to
215. The radius of a cylindrical box is 8 cm and the height is
3 cm. The number of cm that may be added to either the
radius or the height so that in either case the volume of
the cylinder increases by same magnitude is
1
(A) 1 (B) 5
3
1
(C) 7 (D) 24
2

(A) 88° (B) 77°

(C) 66° (D) 55°

Course for NTSE 133 Class 9th

Supplementary Booklet

216. The volume of a sphere having radius 3 2 cm is equal 224. The height of a cylinder is 14 cm and its curved surface
to the volume of a right circular cone whose lateral area is 264 cm2. The volume of cylinder is
surface area is three times of the area of the base. The (A) 308 cm3 (B) 396 cm3
altitude of the cone is (C) 1232 cm 3 (D) 1848 cm3
(A) 4 cm (B) 6 cm
(C) 8 cm (D) 10 cm 225. If the side of a cube is increased by 50%, then what
percent increase will be in the area of the vertical faces
217. A copper wire 3 mm in diameter is rounded about a of the cube ?
cylinder whose length is 1.2 m and diameter is 10 cm. So (A) 125% (B) 150%
as to cover the curved surface of the cylinder. The length (C) 100% (D) 50%
of the wire is
(A) 125.6 m (B) 1256 m 226. The radius of a cylindrical vessel is 7 cm and its height is
(C) 12.56 m (D) 1.256 m 2
12 cm. of the vessel is filled with water. A sphere
3
218. The area of three adjoining faces of cuboid are A, B and having radius 6 cm is dropped into the water. The volume
C respectively then its volume will be of the water that will come out of the vessel is
(A) ABC (B) ABC (A) 196π cm3 (B) 92π cm 3
(C) A 2 B2 C2 (D) None of these
(C) 288π cm3 (D) 588π cm3
219. If the diameter of a sphere is decreased by 25% by what
227. If the volume of two cubes are in the ratio 27 : 64, then
percent does its curved surface area decreases ?
the ratio of their total surface areas is
(A) 43.75% (B) 21.88%
(A) 27 : 64 (B) 3 : 4
(C) 50% (D) 25%
(C) 9 : 16 (D) 3 : 8
220. The diameter of a right circular cylinder is decreased by
228. If a metallic sphere of radius 6 cm is melted and recast
10%. The volume of cylinder remains the same then the
into the shape of a cylinder of radius 3 cm, then the height
percentage increase in height is
of the cylinder is
(A) 20% (B) 23.45%
(A) 30 cm (B) 25 cm
(C) 5% (D) 20.5%
(C) 35 cm (D) 32 cm
221. The ratio of radii of two cones is 2 : 3 and the ratio of
229. If the heights and radii of a cone and a hemisphere are
their slant heights is 9 : 4. Then, the ratio of their curved
same then the ratio of their volume is
surface area is
(A) 1 : 2 (B) 2 : 3
(A) 3 : 2 (B) 1 : 2
(C) 1 : 3 (D) 1 : 1
(C) 1 : 3 (D) 2 : 3
230. The volume (in cm3) of the largest right circular cone
222. Two right circular cones have same radii. If the ratio of
that can be cut off from a cube of edge 4.2 cm is
their slant heights is 4 : 3, then the ratio of their curved
(A) 9.7 (B) 77.6
surface areas is
(C) 58.2 (D) 19.4
(A) 16 : 9 (B) 2 : 3
(C) 4 : 3 (D) 3 : 4 231. A cone, a right circular cylinder and a hemisphere stand
n equal base and have same height. The ratio of their
223. The length of the longest pole that can be kept in a room
volume is
of size 12 m × 9 m × 8 m is
(A) 1 : 2 : 3 (B) 1 : 3 : 2
(A) 29 m (B) 17 m
(C) 2 : 3 : 1 (D) 2 : 1 : 3
(C) 21 m (D) 19 m

Course for NTSE 134 Class 9th

 Supplementary Booklet

232. What is the formula for finding the area of an open 26. Statistics
cylinder with base ?
240. For the class-interval 0-10, 10-20, 20-30, ........ which of
(A) 2πRh (B) πr 2 h
the following statement is true ?
(C) πr (2h + r ) (D) 2πr (h + r ) (A) 20 is included in the clas 10-20
233. The diameter of roller is 1 meter and length is 2.8 meter. (B) 20 is included in the class 20-30
If it rolls 100 rounds in a same direction, how many square (C) 10 is not included in any class
(D) 20 is included in both 10-20 and 20-30
meter does it press ?
(A) 440 sq. meter (B) 220 sq. meter 241. Median of a data set is a number which has an equal
(C) 880 sq. meter (D) 4400 sq. meter number of observation below and above it. The median
234. A cone and a hemisphere have equal bases and equal of the data 1, 9, 4, 3, 7, 6, 8, 8, 12, 15 is
volumes. The ratio of the heights of cone and hemisphere (A) 7.5
is (B) 7
(A) 1: 4 (B) 2 : 1 (C) 8
(D) Any number between 7 and 8
(C) 4 : 1 (D) 2 :1
235. A roller of diameter 1.4 m and length 1.4 m is used to x x x x x x
242. If the median of , , , x, , , is 8, then the value
press the ground having area 3080 sq. m. Find the number 7 5 6 4 3 2
of revolutions that the roller will make to press the ground. of x is
(A) 700 (B) 500 (A) 8 (B) 24
(C) 1000 (D) 800 (C) 32 (D) 48

236. The sum of length, breadth and depth of a cuoic is 19 cm 243. The numbers are arranged in the descending order. 108,
and its diagonal is 5 5 cm. Its surface area is 94, 88, 82, x + 7, x – 7, 60, 58, 42, 39. If the median is
(A) 125 cm2 (B) 236 cm2 73, the value of x is
(A) 72 (B) 73
(C) 326 cm2 (D) 362 cm2
(C) 76 (D) 75
237. A sphere and a cube have the same surface area. Find
244. The mean of 16 numbers is 48. If each number is divided
out the ratio of the volume of the sphere to that of the
by 4 and diminished by 3, then the new mean is
cube.
(A) 12 (B) 48
(A) 6:π (B) 6: π (C) 52 (D) 9
(C) 6 :π (D) 6 : π
245. The mean of n numbers x1, x2, ......, xn is M. If x1 is
238. The radius of a sphere is r and radius of base of a cylinder replaced by ‘a’ the new mean is
is r and height is 2r. The ratio of their volumes will be nM − x1 + a M − x1 + a
(A) (B)
(A) 2 : 3 (B) 3 : 4 n n
(C) 4 : 3 (D) 3 : 2 nM − a + x1
(C) (D) None of these
239. In two spheres, the radius of first is half than second. n
Then what will be volume of second in comparison of
246. Which of the following is correct for the given data 55,
first ?
38, 69, 24, 89 ?
(A) 2 times (B) 4 times
(A) Median = mode (B) Mean = mode
22
(C) 8 times (D) times (C) Mean = median (D) None of these
7

Course for NTSE 135 Class 9th

Supplementary Booklet

247. The mean of n numbers is M. If 1 added to the first 254. The median of first 12 prime numbers is
number, 2 is added to the second number. ....n is added (A) 13 (B) 14
to the nth number then the new mean is
(C) 15 (D) 17
n +1 n
(A) M + (B) M + 255. The average marks scored by Ajay in certain number of
2 2
(C) M + n (D) None of these tests is 84. He scored 100 marks in his last test. His
average score of all these tests is 86, then the total number
248. If x is the mean of the terms x1, x2, x3, ... xn and
of tests he appeared is
n n

∑ xi = x1 + x2 + x3 + ..... xn , then the value of ∑

i =1
xi − nx (A) 8 (B) 7
i =1 (C) 9 (D) 10
is
256. The mark of 10 students in a certain subject in a class are
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) n (D) x 20, 19, 50, 48, 50, 36, 35, 50, 40, 40. The median and
mode are respectively as
249. Median of 4, 5, 10, 6, 7, 14, 9 and 15 will be
(A) 40, 50 (B) 50, 40
(A) 6 (B) 7
(C) 8 (D) 9 (C) 40, 35 (D) 35, 40

250. If the number 13, 15, 17, 18 and n are arranged in 1 1

257. If the mean of x and is M, the mean of x3 and 3 is
ascending order and their arithmetic mean and median x x
are equal then value of n will be
M2 − 3
(A) 27 (B) 22 (A) (B) M(4M2 – 3)
M3
(C) 28 (D) None of these
(C) M3 (D) M3 + 3
251. If the arithmetic mean of 9 observation is 100 and that of
258. What is the correct relation in the given data ?
6 observations is 80, then the combined mean of all the
2, 3, 0, –1, 1, 5, 6, 4, 5, 8, 11
15 observations will be
(A) Mean = Median
(A) 100 (B) 80
(B) Mean = 5
(C) 90 (D) 92
(C) Median = Mode
252. On 13 consecutive days the number of person booked (D) Median = Mean + Mode
for violating speed limit of 40 km/hr were as follows :
259. If arithmetic mean of numbers x1, x2, x3, x4, ...., xn is X
59, 52, 58, 61, 68, 57, 62, 50, 55, 62, 53, 54, 51
then arithmetic mean of numbers ax 1 + b, ax2 + b,
The median number of speed violations per day is
ax3 + b.... axn + b where a and b are constants, will be
(A) 61 (B) 52
(A) X (B) naX + nb
(C) 55 (D) 57
(C) aX (D) aX + b
253. Which of the following is correct for the given data
–1, 0, 1, 2, 3, 5, 5, 6, 8, 10, 11 ? 260. The mean of 12, 22, 32, 42, 52, 62, 72 is
(A) Mean = mode = median (A) 10 (B) 20
(B) Mean = 5 (C) 30 (D) 40
(C) Mean = mode
(D) Mode = median

Course for NTSE 136 Class 9th

 Supplementary Booklet

261. Arithmetic mean of 20 observations is 15. If each 267. The probability that it will rain today is 0.84. What is the
2 probability that it will not rain today ?
observation is multiplied by then the arithmetic mean (A) 2 (B) 1
3
of them is (C) 0.16 (D) 0.61
(A) 10 (B) 30 268. There are 6 defective items in a sample of 20 items. One
(C) 45 (D) 15 item is drawn at random. The probability that it is a non-
262. The mean, median, unique mode and range of a collection defective item is
of eight integers are all equal to 8. The largest integer 7
(A) (B) 0
that can be an element of this collection is 10
(A) 11 (B) 12 3 2
(C) 13 (D) 14 (C) (D)
10 3

263. What is the mean of 1st ten prime numbers ? 269. A bag contains five red balls and some blue balls. If the
(A) 12.3 (B) 12.7 probability of drawing the blue ball is doubled that of
(C) 12.9 (D) None of these red ball, then the number of blue ball in the bag is
(A) 19 (B) 10
27. P
Probability
robability (C) 15 (D) 25
264. Which of the following is true ?
(A) Probability of an event is alway greater than 1 28. Miscellaneous
(B) Probability of an event can be any positive number 270. The characteristic of the number log 0.003942 is equal
(C) Probability of an event cannot be negative to
(D) Probability of an event cannot be zero (A) 3 (B) 2
265. The probability “p” of happening of an event (C) –3 (D) –2
(A) Can be negative (B) Can be greater than 1
(C) 0 ≤ p ≤1 (D) None of these

266. The probability of getting both heads, when two balanced

coins are tossed once is
1 1
(A) (B)
2 3

1 1
(C) (D)
4 5

Course for NTSE 137 Class 9th

Supplementary Booklet

Supplementary Booklet | Class IX

Answer Key
Mental Ability
[LEVEL - 1]
1. (A) 2. (C) 3. (D) 4. (B) 5. (B) 6. (A) 7. (C)
8. (B) 9. (B) 10. (B) 11. (A) 12. (D) 13. (A) 14. (D)
15. (A) 16. (A) 17. (B) 18. (B) 19. (D) 20. (A) 21. (A)
22. (B) 23. (D) 24. (D) 25. (B) 26. (C) 27. (B) 28. (C)
29. (A) 30. (C) 31. (C) 32. (D) 33. (A) 34. (B) 35. (B)
36. (A) 37. (C) 38. (A) 39. (D) 40. (C) 41. (A) 42. (A)
43. (C) 44. (B) 45. (C) 46. (A) 47. (C) 48. (A) 49. (D)
50. (B) 51. (B) 52. (D) 53. (A) 54. (B) 55. (A) 56. (D)
57. (A) 58. (C) 59. (A) 60. (D) 61. (B) 62. (C) 63. (D)
64. (C) 65. (D) 66. (A) 67. (D) 68. (C) 69. (C) 70. (B)
71. (D) 72. (D) 73 (C) 74. (D) 75. (B) 76. (B) 77. (D)
78. (B) 79. (D) 80. (D) 81. (C) 82. (D) 83. (D) 84. (D)
85. (D) 86. (B) 87. (D) 88. (C) 89. (A) 90. (B) 91. (C)
92. (B) 93. (C) 94. (D) 95. (B) 96. (B) 97. (B) 98. (A)
99. (B) 100. (A) 101. (B) 102. (C) 103. (C) 104. (A) 105. (C)
106. (A) 107. (D) 108. (A) 109. (C) 110. (A) 111. (A) 112. (A)
113. (D) 114. (A) 115. (B) 116. (D) 117. (C) 118. (A) 119. (A)
120. (C) 121. (C) 122. (B) 123. (C) 124. (B) 125. (D) 126. (D)
127. (A) 128. (B) 129. (B) 130. (D) 131. (C) 132. (A) 133. (D)
134. (B) 135. (C) 136. (B) 137. (D) 138. (D) 139. (C) 140. (C)
141. (B) 142. (B) 143. (C) 144. (D) 145. (A) 146. (C) 147. (D)
148. (A) 149. (C) 150. (D) 151. (D) 152. (C) 153. (D) 154. (B)
155. (C) 156. (B) 157. (D) 158. (B) 159. (C) 160. (A) 161. (A)
162. (D) 163. (B) 164. (A) 165. (D) 166. (D) 167. (D) 168. (C)
169. (C)

Course for NTSE 138 Class 9th

 Supplementary Booklet

LEVEL - 2
1. (A) 2. (C) 3. (A) 4. (C) 5. (D) 6. (C) 7. (B)
8. (B) 9. (A) 10. (B) 11. (C) 12. (B) 13. (D) 14. (A)
15. (C) 16. (D) 17. (C) 18. (C) 19. (A) 20. (D) 21. (C)
22. (D) 23. (D) 24. (A) 25. (C) 26. (B) 27. (C) 28. (D)
29. (A) 30. (D) 31. (C) 32. (A) 33. (D) 34. (C) 35. (A)
36. (C) 37. (A) 38. (D) 39. (D) 40. (D) 41. (D) 42. (B)
43. (A) 44. (B) 45. (D) 46. (C) 47. (C) 48. (B) 49. (D)
50. (C) 51. (D) 52. (B) 53. (A) 54. (B) 55. (B) 56. (C)
57. (C) 58. (B) 59. (A) 60. (D) 61. (C) 62. (A) 63. (B)
64. (B) 65. (C) 66. (D) 67. (B) 68. (B) 69. (A) 70. (B)
71. (A) 72. (B) 73. (D) 74. (D) 75. (B) 76. (C) 77. (D)
78. (D) 79. (A) 80. (D) 81. (C) 82. (B) 83. (D) 84. (D)
85. (A) 86. (B) 87. (C) 88. (B) 89. (C) 90. (C) 91. (B)
92. (A) 93. (B) 94. (C) 95. (B) 96. (D) 97. (A) 98. (B)
99. (C) 100. (C) 101. (D) 102. (D) 103. (B) 104. (D) 105. (C)
106. (D) 107. (A) 108. (C) 109. (B) 110. (C) 111. (C) 112. (D)
113. (B) 114. (D) 115. (B) 116. (B) 117. (D) 118. (C) 119. (C)
120. (C) 121. (C) 122. (C) 123. (A) 124. (C) 125. (C) 126. (D)
127. (D) 128. (A) 129. (B) 130. (D) 131. (C) 132. (D) 133. (A)
134. (C) 135. (A) 136. (D) 137. (A) 138. (B) 139. (D) 140. (C)
141. (C) 142. (C) 143. (D) 144. (A) 145. (C) 146. (B) 147. (B)
148. (D) 149. (B) 150. (C) 151. (C) 152. (A) 153. (D) 154. (C)
155. (D) 156. (D) 157. (C) 158. (B) 159. (C) 160. (C) 161. (A)
162. (A) 163. (D) 164. (A) 165. (B) 166. (C) 167. (B) 168. (D)
169. (C) 170. (A) 171. (C) 172. (A) 173. (D) 174. (C) 175. (B)
176. (A) 177. (C) 178. (D) 179. (D) 180. (B) 181. (B) 182. (A)
183. (D) 184. (B) 185. (C) 186. (C) 187. (C) 188. (B) 189. (C)
190. (C) 191. (B) 192. (D) 193. (B) 194. (C) 195. (B) 196. (C)
197. (A) 198. (B) 199. (A) 200. (D) 201. (D) 202. (B) 203. (B)
204. (A) 205. (D) 206. (B) 207. (C) 208. (B) 209. (C) 210. (A)
211. (B) 212. (D) 213. (A) 214. (D) 215. (B) 216. (B) 217. (C)
218. (B) 219. (A) 220. (B) 221. (D) 222. (B) 223. (D) 224. (D)
225. (D) 226. (C) 227. (A) 228. (D) 229. (C) 230. (A) 231. (D)
232. (C) 233. (A) 234. (C) 235. (C) 236. (A) 237. (D) 238. (A)
239. (C) 240. (D) 241. (C) 242. (D) 243. (B) 244. (C) 245. (C)
246. (C) 247. (B) 248. (C) 249. (D) 250. (A) 251. (B) 252. (B)

Course for NTSE 139 Class 9th

Supplementary Booklet

253. (D) 254. (A) 255. (C) 256. (C) 257. (A) 258. (D) 259. (C)
260. (B) 261. (D) 262. (B) 263. (B) 264. (B) 265. (C) 266. (D)
267. (C) 268. (B) 269. (D) 270. (C) 271. (A) 272. (D) 273. (B)
274. (C) 275. (C) 276. (D) 277. (C) 278. (A) 279. (B) 280. (D)
281. (D) 282. (D) 283. (A) 284. (C) 285. (D) 286. (C) 287. (D)
288. (C) 289. (D) 290. (C) 291. (D) 292. (B) 293. (B) 294. (C)
295. (D) 296. (A) 297. (C) 298. (B) 299. (D) 300. (D) 301. (A)
302. (D) 303. (D) 304. (B) 305. (C) 306. (D) 307. (C) 308. (D)
309. (C) 310. (B) 311. (B) 312. (C) 313. (A) 314. (C) 315. (C)
316. (B) 317. (D) 318. (D) 319. (D) 320. (B) 321. (D) 322. (B)
323. (B) 324. (B) 325. (A) 326. (D) 327. (B) 328. (A) 329. (C)
330. (D) 331. (D) 332. (C) 333. (A) 334. (C) 335. (D)

PHYSICS
LEVEL - 1
1. (A) 2. (B) 3. (D) 4. (D) 5. (B) 6. (C) 7. (B)
8. (C) 9. (C) 10. (D) 11. (D) 12. (B) 13. (D) 14. (C)
15. (B) 16. (D) 17. (A) 18. (A) 19. (D) 20. (C) 21. (D)
22. (C) 23. (D) 24. (B) 25. (D) 26. (B) 27. (A) 28. (C)
29. (A) 30. (B) 31. (C) 32. (B) 33. (A) 34. (D) 35. (C)
36. (A) 37. (B) 38. (D) 39. (A) 40. (D) 41. (B) 42. (A)
43. (C) 44. (A) 45. (B) 46. (C) 47. (C) 48. (C) 49. (D)
50. (D) 51. (C) 52. (A)

LEVEL - 2
1. (B) 2. (C) 3. (A) 4. (A) 5. (C) 6. (B) 7. (D)
8. (A) 9. (D) 10. (C) 11. (A) 12. (C) 13. (C) 14. (B)
15. (A) 16. (C) 17. (C) 18. (B) 19. (B) 20. (B) 21. (B)
22. (B) 23. (D) 24. (C) 25. (C) 26. (D) 27. (C) 28. (C)
29. (D) 30. (B) 31. (A) 32. (D) 33. (B) 34. (A) 35. (B)
36. (B) 37. (C) 38. (A) 39. (C) 40. (D) 41. (C) 42. (B)
43. (A) 44. (A) 45. (A) 46. (C) 47. (B) 48. (D) 49. (B)
50. (C) 51. (A) 52. (A) 53. (C) 54. (D) 55. (C) 56. (B)
57. (A) 58. (A) 59. (B) 60. (B) 61. (C) 62. (C) 63. (C)
64. (A) 65. (C) 66. (A) 67. (D) 68. (D) 69. (A) 70. (D)
71. (D) 72. (D) 73. (A) 74. (B) 75. (D) 76. (C) 77. (D)

Course for NTSE 140 Class 9th

 Supplementary Booklet

78. (C) 79. (B) 80. (A) 81. (B) 82. (D) 83. (B) 84. (C)
85. (C) 86. (B) 87. (D) 88. (D) 89. (B) 90. (C) 91. (B)
92. (B) 93. (B) 94. (B) 95. (A) 96. (D) 97. (B) 98. (C)
99. (B) 100. (D) 101. (A) 102. (C) 103. (A) 104. (D) 105. (C)
106. (D) 107. (B) 108. (A) 109. (B) 110. (B) 111. (B) 112. (B)
113. (B) 114. (D) 115. (A) 116. (C) 117. (B) 118. (B) 119. (D)
120. (A) 121. (D) 122. (B) 123. (D) 124. (C) 125. (D) 126. (D)
127. (B) 128. (D) 129. (B) 130. (D) 131. (A) 132. (D) 133. (B)
134. (D) 135. (B) 136. (B) 137. (C) 138. (C) 139. (B) 140. (A)
141. (A) 142. (D) 143. (D) 144. (D) 145. (A) 146. (B) 147. (C)
148. (B) 149. (B) 150. (B) 151. (A) 152. (C) 153. (B) 154. (C)
155. (C) 156. (D) 157. (D) 158. (C) 159. (B) 160. (A) 161. (B)
162. (C) 163. (B) 164. (A) 165. (C) 166. (C) 167. (D) 168. (D)
169. (B) 170. (C) 171. (D) 172. (A) 173. (C) 174. (D) 175. (C)
176. (D) 177. (D) 178. (D) 179. (C) 180. (C) 181. (C) 182. (D)
183. (A) 184. (A) 185. (C) 186. (D) 187. (A) 188. (C) 189. (A)
190. (A) 191. (C) 192. (C) 193. (B) 194. (C) 195. (A) 196. (D)
197. (C) 198. (A) 199. (C) 200. (B) 201. (D) 202. (C) 203. (C)
204. (A) 205. (A) 206. (C) 207. (B) 208. (A) 209. (C) 210. (B)
211. (C) 212. (C) 213. (C) 214. (C) 215. (A) 216. (D) 217. (C)
218. (A) 219. (A) 220. (D) 221. (D) 222. (A) 223. (A) 224. (D)
225. (D) 226. (A) 227. (C) 228. (C) 229. (A) 230. (A) 231. (B)
232. (A) 233. (B) 234. (C) 235. (D) 236. (A) 237. (A) 238. (A)
239. (C) 240. (A) 241. (C) 242. (B) 243. (C) 244. (B) 245. (D)
246. (D) 247. (D) 248. (B) 249. (B) 250. (D) 251. (B) 252. (C)
253. (A) 254. (B) 255. (C) 256. (C)

CHEMISTRY
LEVEL - 1
1. (D) 2. (C) 3. (A) 4. (B) 5. (D) 6. (C) 7. (B)
8. (B) 9. (C) 10. (C) 11. (C) 12. (A) 13. (B) 14. (C)
15. (A) 16. (A) 17. (B) 18. (B) 19. (C) 20. (C) 21. (B)
22. (D) 23. (C) 24. (A) 25. (A) 26. (D) 27. (D) 28. (A)

Course for NTSE 141 Class 9th

Supplementary Booklet

LEVEL - 2
1. (A) 2. (D) 3. (C) 4. (B) 5. (C) 6. (C) 7. (C)
8. (B) 9. (D) 10. (A) 11. (B) 12. (D) 13. (A) 14. (C)
15. (A) 16. (C) 17. (A) 18. (C) 19. (D) 20. (A) 21. (C)
22. (B) 23. (D) 24. (D) 25. (D) 26. (C) 27. (D) 28. (B)
29. (B) 30. (A) 31. (D) 32. (D) 33. (C) 34. (B) 35. (D)
36. (A) 37. (D) 38. (D) 39. (C) 40. (A) 41. (B) 42. (C)
43. (D) 44. (A) 45. (A) 46. (C) 47. (D) 48. (A) 49. (C)
50. (A) 51. (C) 52. (B) 53. (B) 54. (B) 55. (C) 56. (B)
57. (A) 58. (D) 59. (B) 60. (B) 61. (A) 62. (B) 63. (C)
64. (B) 65. (A) 66. (C) 67. (C) 68. (B) 69. (B) 70. (A)
71. (A) 72. (A) 73. (C) 74. (D) 75. (C) 76. (B) 77. (B)
78. (A) 79. (D) 80. (C) 81. (D) 82. (C) 83. (A) 84. (A)
85. (C) 86. (D) 87. (C) 88. (C) 89. (B) 90. (D) 91. (C)
92. (A) 93. (B) 94. (C) 95. (B) 96. (B) 97. (B) 98. (C)
99. (D) 100. (D) 101. (A) 102. (C) 103. (A) 104. (C) 105. (C)
106. (D) 107. (B) 108. (D) 109. (C) 110. (D) 111. (D) 112. (B)
113. (D) 114. (C) 115. (A) 116. (A) 117. (B) 118. (D) 119. (A)
120. (A) 121. (B) 122. (C) 123. (C) 124. (C) 125. (B) 126. (C)
127. (D) 128. (A) 129. (C) 130. (B) 131. (B) 132. (B) 133. (C)
134. (C) 135. (C) 136. (C) 137. (C) 138. (A) 139. (C) 140. (A)
141. (B) 142. (C) 143. (D) 144. (A) 145. (C) 146. (B) 147. (D)
148. (C) 149. (D) 150. (B) 151. (A) 152. (B) 153. (C) 154. (C)
155. (D) 156. (D) 157. (B) 158. (C) 159. (A) 160. (A) 161. (D)
162. (C) 163. (B) 164. (C) 165. (B) 166. (B) 167. (C) 168. (A)
169. (B) 170. (A) 171. (A) 172. (A) 173. (C) 174. (C) 175. (B)
176. (B) 177. (B)

BIOLOG
BIOLOG Y
OGY
LEVEL - 1
1. (A,D) 2. (B) 3. (B) 4. (A) 5. (C) 6. (A) 7. (D)
8. (B) 9. (B) 10. (C) 11. (A) 12. (A) 13. (B) 14. (D)
15. (B) 16. (B) 17. (A) 18. (D) 19. (C) 20. (D) 21. (A)
22. (C) 23. (A) 24. (C) 25. (B) 26. (B) 27. (C) 28. (D)
29. (D) 30. (B) 31. (B) 32. (D) 33. (D) 34. (D) 35. (D)

Course for NTSE 142 Class 9th

 Supplementary Booklet

36. (C) 37. (B) 38. (D) 39. (C) 40. (D) 41. (D) 42. (B)
43. (D) 44. (D) 45. (B) 46. (C) 47. (B) 48. (B) 49. (D)
50. (A) 51. (A) 52. (B) 53. (C) 54. (C) 55. (C) 56. (C)
57. (D) 58. (A) 59. (A) 60. (C) 61. (C) 62. (B) 63. (C)
64. (A) 65. (B) 66. (D) 67. (A) 68. (A) 69. (A) 70. (A)
71. (B)

LEVEL - 2
1. (C) 2. (B) 3. (B) 4. (B) 5. (C) 6. (C) 7. (A)
8. (B) 9. (B) 10. (C) 11. (A) 12. (C) 13. (A) 14. (D)
15. (B) 16. (C) 17. (D) 18. (A) 19. (D) 20. (B) 21. (B)
22. (C) 23. (B) 24. (D) 25. (B) 26. (B) 27. (D) 28. (C)
29. (A) 30. (C) 31. (B) 32. (B) 33. (D) 34. (A) 35. (C)
36. (B) 37. (C) 38. (B) 39. (B) 40. (B) 41. (B) 42. (B)
43. (A) 44. (C) 45. (A) 46. (A) 47. (A) 48. (D) 49. (C)
50. (B) 51. (C) 52. (D) 53. (C) 54. (A) 55. (C) 56. (B)
57. (B) 58. (D) 59. (C) 60. (B) 61. (A) 62. (C) 63. (B)
64. (A) 65. (B) 66. (D) 67. (A) 68. (B) 69. (D) 70. (B)
71. (A) 72. (C) 73. (A) 74. (A) 75. (B) 76. (A) 77. (A)
78. (B) 79. (C) 80. (B) 81. (A) 82. (B) 83. (A) 84. (C)
85. (A) 86. (D) 87. (D) 88. (B) 89. (A) 90. (A) 91. (B)
92. (A) 93. (D) 94. (D) 95. (B) 96. (D) 97. (A) 98. (C)
99. (A) 100. (A) 101. (B) 102. (D) 103. (D) 104. (D) 105. (C)
106. (C) 107 (A) 108. (D) 109. (A) 110. (B) 111. (A) 112. (B)
113. (A) 114. (D) 115. (B) 116. (B) 117. (A) 118. (B) 119. (A)
120. (B) 121. (A) 122. (A) 123. (B) 124. (A) 125. (D) 126. (B)
127. (A) 128. (B) 129. (D) 130. (C) 131. (D) 132. (B) 133. (B)
134. (A) 135. (D) 136. (C) 137. (C) 138. (C) 139. (B) 140. (A)
141. (C) 142. (B) 143. (C) 144. (B) 145. (B) 146. (C) 147. (D)
148. (D) 149. (A) 150. (B) 151. (B) 152. (B) 153. (C) 154. (A)
155. (C) 156. (D) 157. (B) 158. (B) 159. (C) 160. (A) 161. (D)
162. (B) 163. (A) 164. (A) 165. (B) 166. (A) 167. (C) 168. (B)
169. (B) 170. (B) 171. (C) 172. (D) 173. (C) 174. (D) 175. (C)
176. (A) 177. (B) 178. (A) 179. (A) 180. (A) 181. (A) 182. (B)
183. (A) 184. (A) 185. (D) 186. (D) 187. (B) 188. (A) 189. (C)
190. (A) 191. (C) 192. (B) 193. (B) 194. (B) 195. (B) 196. (C)

Course for NTSE 143 Class 9th

Supplementary Booklet

197. (B) 198. (C) 199. (B) 200. (C) 201. (A) 202. (A) 203. (D)
204. (C) 205. (A) 206. (A) 207. (C) 208. (A) 209. (C) 210. (C)
211. (C) 212. (C) 213. (B) 214. (B) 215. (A) 216. (B) 217. (A)
218. (D) 219. (C) 220. (D) 221. (D) 222. (B) 223. (D) 224. (C)
225. (B) 226. (D) 227. (D) 228. (C) 229. (B) 230. (D) 231. (A)
232. (B) 233. (B) 234. (B) 235. (C) 236. (C) 237. (B) 238. (C)
239. (D) 240. (A) 241. (B) 242. (B) 243. (B) 244. (C)

MATHEMA
MATHEMATICS
THEMATICS
LEVEL - 1
1. (B) 2. (D) 3. (D) 4. (B) 5. (A) 6. (A) 7. (B)
8. (C) 9. (B) 10. (A) 11. (D) 12. (A) 13. (B) 14. (B)
15. (C) 16. (B) 17. (A) 18. (B) 19. (C) 20. (B) 21. (B)
22. (D) 23. (C) 24. (B) 25. (A) 26. (B) 27. (A) 28. (B)
29. (D) 30. (A) 31. (B) 32. (C) 33. (D) 34. (D) 35. (B)
36. (C) 37. (C) 38. (C) 39. (C) 40. (C) 41. (A) 42. (C)
43. (D) 44. (C) 45. (A) 46. (C) 47. (B) 48. (C) 49. (A)
50. (B) 51. (A) 52. (C) 53. (B) 54. (D) 55. (B) 56. (C)
57. (B) 58. (D) 59. (A) 60. (A) 61. (A) 62. (D) 63. (C)
64. (B) 65. (B) 66. (A) 67. (C) 68. (D) 69. (C) 70. (B)
71. (B) 72. (B) 73. (B) 74. (D) 75. (D) 76. (C) 77. (D)
78. (A) 79. (D) 80. (A) 81. (D) 82. (D) 83. (D) 84. (B)
85. (A) 86. (D) 87. (C) 88. (D) 89. (A) 90. (D) 91. (B)
92. (C) 93. (D) 94. (B) 95. (C) 96. (B) 97. (D) 98. (D)
99. (A) 100. (D) 101. (B) 102. (D) 103. (A) 104. (B) 105. (B)
106. (C) 107. (B) 108. (B) 109. (B) 110. (C) 111. (C) 112. (A)
113. (A) 114. (D) 115. (B) 116. (C) 117. (B) 118. (B) 119. (D)
120. (B) 121. (B) 122. (A) 123. (B) 124. (C) 125. (A) 126. (B)
127. (A) 128. (C) 129. (A) 130. (A) 131. (B) 132. (D) 133. (A)
134. (A) 135. (A) 136. (D) 137. (A) 138. (D) 139. (B) 140. (C)
141. (A) 142. (A) 143. (C)

LEVEL - 2
1. (D) 2. (B) 3. (C) 4. (B) 5. (B) 6. (B) 7. (D)
8. (B) 9. (D) 10. (C) 11. (A) 12. (C) 13. (D) 14. (B)
15. (B) 16. (D) 17. (B) 18. (A) 19. (B) 20. (C) 21. (C)

Course for NTSE 144 Class 9th

 Supplementary Booklet

22. (B) 23. (A) 24. (A) 25. (C) 26. (B) 27. (B) 28. (B)
29. (D) 30. (C) 31. (C) 32. (B) 33. (A) 34. (A) 35. (A)
36. (B) 37. (B) 38. (C) 39. (C) 40. (C) 41. (B) 42. (C)
43. (C) 44. (D) 45. (D) 46. (D) 47. (C) 48. (C) 49. (D)
50. (A) 51. (D) 52. (B) 53. (D) 54. (A) 55. (A) 56. (B)
57. (B) 58. (D) 59. (B) 60. (D) 61. (D) 62. (C) 63. (B)
64. (B) 65. (A) 66. (B) 67. (B) 68. (C) 69. (B) 70. (A)
71. (C) 72. (A) 73. (A) 74. (C) 75. (D) 76. (A) 77. (C)
78. (D) 79. (B) 80. (D) 81. (B) 82. (A) 83. (B) 84. (B)
85. (D) 86. (A) 87. (D) 88. (C) 89. (B) 90. (D) 91. (B)
92. (A) 93. (A) 94. (C) 95. (C) 96. (D) 97. (C) 98. (C)
99. (A) 100. (A) 101. (D) 102. (C) 103. (B) 104. (D) 105. (A)
106. (D) 107. (A) 108. (C) 109. (D) 110. (C) 111. (B) 112. (C)
113. (C) 114. (C) 115. (B) 116. (C) 117. (A) 118. (C) 119. (B)
120. (C) 121. (D) 122. (C) 123. (B) 124. (B) 125. (C) 126. (B)
127. (A) 128. (B) 129. (B) 130. (A) 131. (D) 132. (B) 133. (A)
134. (D) 135. (A) 136. (C) 137. (C) 138. (B) 139. (C) 140. (C)
141. (C) 142. (A) 143. (C) 144. (C) 145. (C) 146. (D) 147. (B)
148. (B) 149. (B) 150. (A) 151. (B) 152. (A) 153. (D) 154. (C)
155. (A) 156. (A) 157. (D) 158. (D) 159. (D) 160. (D) 161. (C)
162. (A) 163. (B) 164. (B) 165. (B) 166. (D) 167. (D) 168. (D)
169. (B) 170. (A) 171. (B) 172. (A) 173. (C) 174. (C) 175. (D)
176. (C) 177. (B) 178. (B) 179. (A) 180. (D) 181. (D) 182. (C)
.
183. (A) 184. (B) 185. (B) 186. (C) 187. (D) 188. (A) 189. (C)
190. (B) 191. (C) 192. (C) 193. (A) 194. (B) 195. (A) 196. (B)
197. (A) 198. (D) 199. (D) 200. (C) 201. (D) 202. (C) 203. (B)
204. (A) 205. (C) 206. (B) 207. (B) 208. (A) 209. (B) 210. (A)
211. (B) 212. (B) 213. (B) 214. (B) 215. (B) 216. (A) 217. (A)
218. (B) 219. (A) 220. (B) 221. (A) 222. (C) 223. (B) 224. (B)
225. (A) 226. (B) 227. (C) 228. (D) 229. (A) 230. (D) 231. (B)
232. (C) 233. (C) 234. (B) 235. (B) 236. (B) 237. (B) 238. (A)
239. (C) 240. (B) 241. (D) 242. (C) 243. (B) 244. (D) 245. (A)
246. (C) 247. (A) 248. (A) 249. (C) 250. (B) 251. (D) 252. (D)
253. (D) 254. (C) 255. (A) 256. (A) 257. (B) 258. (A) 259. (D)
260. (B) 261. (A) 262. (B) 263. (C) 264. (C) 265. (C) 266. (C)
267. (C) 268. (A) 269. (B) 270. (C)

Course for NTSE 145 Class 9th