1.

The engine generators and APU generator are rated at _____ KVA. 

  50 

  70 

  90 
*   110 

2.The number 1 AC bus channel normally supplies power to _____ and to the _____ bus which supplies power to the 
______ bus. 

  TR2 / AC ESS SHED / DC ESS SHED 

  TR1 / AC ESS SHED / DC ESS 

*   TR1 / AC ESS / AC ESS SHED 

  TR1 / AC ESS / DC ESS SHED 

3.The normal priority for supplying electrical power to the AC busses is: 

  External power, engine generators then APU 

  External power, APU, then engine generators 

  APU, external power then engine generators 

  Engine generators, external power then APU 
*  

4.The BATTERY BUS is normally powered by: 

  DC BUS 2 

  DC BUS 1 and DC BUS 2 

  DC bus 1 through a DC tie control relay. 
*   DC bus 2 through a DC tie control relay. 

5.The A‐320 has _______ batteries in its main electrical system. 

  1 

*   2 

  3 
   3 (4 when ETOPS capable) 

6.When no other power is available in flight, the static inverter converts _____ power to AC power for the ______ bus; 
and ______ powers the _______ bus. 

  BAT1 DC / AC ESS bus / BAT2 / DC ESS 
*   BAT1 DC / AC ESS SHED / BAT2 / DC ESS SHED 

  BAT1 DC / AC ESS bus / BAT2 / DC ESS SHED 

  BAT1 DC / AC ESS bus / DC ESS 

7.An AC ESS FEED switch located on the overhead panel shifts the power source for the AC ESS bus from: 

  AC bus1 to AC bus 2 
*   AC bus 1 to AC Grnd/Flt bus 

  AC bus 2 to AC bus 1 

8.Which of the following AC busses can be powered by the emergency generator? 

  AC bus 1 

  AC bus 2 

  AC ESS bus / AC ESS SHED bus 
*  

9.The RAT is connected directly (mechanically) to the Emergency Generator 

  True 

  False 
*  

10.The emergency generator supplies power as long as: 

  The landing gear is down. 

  The RAT is deployed. 

  The RAT is deployed and the landing gear is down 

*   The landing gear is up. 

 
 11.After landing, in the emergency electrical configuration: the batteries automatically connect to the DC BAT bus when 
speed decreases below _______ knots. 

  50 

  70 

  90 

  100 
*  

12.The BAT FAULT light will illuminate when: 

  Battery voltage is low 

*   Charging current increases at an abnormal rate 

  Charging current decreases at an abnormal rate. 

13.Do not depress the IDG DISCONNECT switch for more than _______ to prevent damage to the disconnect 
mechanism. 

*   3 seconds 

  7 seconds 

  10 seconds 

  15 seconds 

14.The IDG Fault light indicates: 

  An IDG oil overheat 

  IDG low oil pressure. 

*   IDG low oil pressure or IDG oil overheat 

  IDG has been disconnected 

15.If normal electrical power is lost; essential cockpit lighting is maintained for the: 

  Captain's instrument panel. 

  Standby compass 

  Right dome light (provided the dome selector is not off). 
   All of the above. 
*  

16.You enter a dark cockpit, what action is necessary before checking the battery voltages? 

  You have to check that the external power is on. 

  You have to ensure that at least one battery is on. 

  You have to ensure that both batteries are on. 

  You have to verify that both batteries are off. 

17.Having starting the APU, how can you get the APU generator to power the electrical system? 

  The APU generator must be switch on. 

  By pushing the EXT PWR pushbutton thus disconnecting the external power. 
*   By pushing the BUS TIE pushbutton. 

  You are unable to as the APU power output is outside normal parameters. 

18.Are there any limitations associated with disconnecting an IDG? 

  Never disconnect an IDG in flight, or push the IDG disconnect push button for more then 30 seconds. 

  There is no limitation 

  Never disconnect an IDG in flight, or push the IDG disconnect push button for more then 5 seconds. 

  Never disconnect an IDG unless the engine is running, nor push the IDG disconnect push button for more than 3 
* seconds. 

19.Which voltage requires recharging or replacing the batteries? 

  20 volts or less. 

  24 volts or less. 

  25 volts or less. 
*   26 volts or less. 

20.The APU is supplying the electrical system. What is the order of priority for the different generators? 

  Engines, external power, APU. 
*
   APU, engines, external power. 

  External power, engines, APU. 

  APU, external power, engines. 

21.What is the significance of the green collared circuit breakers? 

  Green collared circuit breakers are pulled when flying on battery power only. 

  Green collared circuit breakers are monitored by the ECAM. 
*   Green collared circuit breakers are not to be reset. 

  Green collared circuit breakers are AC powered. 

22.With the EMER EXIT LT selector in the ARM position, which situation will activate the emergency lights and exit signs? 

  AC SHED bus unpowered 

  AC bus #1 unpowered 

  DC ESS SHED bus unpowered 

  DC bus #2 unpowered 

23.If batteries are the only source of power in flight, how long will battery power be available? 

  Between 22 and 30 minutes depending on equipment in use. 
*   Until the APU is started. 

  Two hours and 30 minutes dependent on equipment in use. 

  45 minutes dependent on equipment in use. 

24.What is the minimum voltage when conducting a BATTERY CHECK? 

  28 volts. 

  Less than 60 amps in 10 seconds. 

  Greater than 25 volts. 

  Greater than 25 volts. 
*  
 25.A battery fault light will illuminate when: 

  The batteries have auto disconnected due to low voltage. 

  Battery voltage drops below a predetermined level. 

  Battery charging current increases at an abnormal rate. 
*  

26.Which flight control computer will be inoperative with gear extension while in the Emergency Electrical 
Configuration? 

  FAC 1 and ELAC 1. 

  SEC 1 

  SEC 1 and ELAC 1 

  FAC 1 
*  

27.If the battery voltages are below the minimum, how do you charge them? 

  You have to call a mechanic because the batteries can only be charged by maintenance. 

  I have to check that the BAT pushbuttons are on and switch the external power on. 

  I have to switch the external power to ON and switch the batteries off. 

  I have to start the APU as the batteries can only be charged by the APU generator. 

28.What is the function of APU GEN push button located on the overhead electrical panel? 

  Push this button to automatically start the APU. 

  When selected to OFF the APU generator field is de‐energized. 

  Both are correct. 

29.Is it possible to parallel generators? 

  Of course yes. 

  Only with the RAT deployed. 

  The electrical system will not allow "paralleling" of generators. 
*   Only one engine generator may be paralleled with the APU. 

 
 30.While operating on Emergency Electrical Power with the landing gear lowered which of the following control laws is 
in effect? 

  Backup. 

  Direct. 
*   Alternate. 

  Backup or alternate 

31.What cockpit lighting is available during an emergency electrical situation? 

  Emergency path lighting only. 

  Right side Dome light, main panel flood lights (left two columns only), and the standby compass light. 

  Located on normal circuit breaker panels. 

  Right side dome light, main panel flood lights, and the standby compass light. 

32.What is the function of the GEN 1 LINE push button? 

  When selected OFF the avionics compartment isolation valves close. 

  When selected OFF the #1 generator powers all AC busses. 

*   When selected OFF generator # 1 is removed from all busses but continues to power one fuel pump in each wing. 

33.During a routine flight, which of the following would result after the loss of Gen #2 and the subsequent start of the 
APU? 

  The APU would now power both sides of the electrical system. 

  All systems return to normal and the RAT must be restowed. 

  Eng gen #1 continues to power AC bus #1 and downstream systems. The APU powers AC bus #2 and downstream 
* systems. 

34.When does the RAT automatically deploy? 

  With the loss of two hydraulic systems. 

  Electrical power to both AC BUS #1 & #2 is lost and the aircraft speed is above 100 knots. 
*   Both are correct. 
  

35.During the five seconds it takes for the RAT to extend: 

  the BATTERIES power both BATT HOT busses, ESS DC SHED, and ESS AC SHED through the STATIC INVERTER. 

  The BATTERIES power both BATT HOT busses, ESS DC, and ESS AC through the STATIC INVERTER. 
*   The STATIC INVERTER powers both BATT HOT busses, ESS DC, and ESS AC through the ESS AC SHED busses. 

  The BATTERIES power both BATT HOT busses. 

36.The purpose of the AUTO BUS TIE is to allow either engine‐driven IDG to automatically power both main AC buses in 
the event of a generator loss until either ground pouwer or the APU generator is activated. 

*   True. 

  False. 

37.When will the RAT & EMER GEN red FAULT light illuminate? 

  When the EMER GEN is not supplying electrical power, AC busses #1 & #2 are unpowered and the nose gear is up. 

  When the RAT is deployed using hydraulic RAT MAN ON push button. 

  Both are correct. 

38.What is the significance of the circuit breakers on the overhead panel? 

  They are not monitored by ECAM. 

  Cannot be reset. 

  They may be operational in the Emergency Electrical Configuration. 

  They are mainly AC powered. 

39.If both engine generators are powering the system, and one subsequently fails, are any busses unpowered? 

  Only the AC ESS shed bus. 

  No, but some loads are shed in both main galleys. 
*   Yes, those associated with the failed generator. 

40.How many times can you reset a circuit breaker? 
   Once. 

  Once, if authorized by the procedures. 
*   Twice. 

  Twice, if authorized by the procedures. 

41.On the cockpit overhead panel, there is a three position EMERGENCY EXIT Light switch. What lights are associated 
with this switch? 

  Exit signs, emergency lights, and escape path lighting. 

  Exit signs, emergency lights, main panel flood lights, and escape path lighting. 

  Exit signs, emergency lights, dome lights, main panel flood lights, and the standby compass light. 
*  

42.Which flight control computers are operational in the Emergency Electrical Power configuration (gear down and 
batteries powering the system)? 

  All are operational. 

  ELAC 1, SEC 1, and FAC 1. 

  ELAC 1 and 2, SEC 1 and 2, FAC 1. 

  ELAC 1 and SEC 1. 
*  

43.Which radios are inoperative with gear extension while in the emergency electrical configuration? 

  DME 1 and transponder 1. 

  DME 1, DDRMI, and transponder 1. 

  DME, and transponder 1. 

  ILS 2, DME, and ADF. 

44.While operating on Emergency Electrical Power with the landing gear lowered which of the following statements is 
correct? 

  If the APU is not operating it should be started at this time. 

  The APU will not start until the aircraft has come to a complete stop and all power has been removed for 15 seconds. 
*   On the ground at 100 knots, the DC BATTERY BUS automatically reconnects to the batteries allowing APU start. 
   At 70 knots ESS AC is disconnected from the batteries. 

45.If during a normal flight the BUS TIE push button is depressed to "OFF", what effect would this have on power to the 
busses? 

  None. 

  All power would be lost and the aircraft would be powered by the batteries until the RAT was up to speed. 

  The power transfer would switch to the opposite bus. 

  This is not possible as the bus tie contactors are locked out during flight. 

46.While operating on Emergency Electrical Power (EMER GEN powering the system, FAC #1 reset) which of the 
following control laws are in effect? 

  Manual 

  Alternate. 
*   Backup 

  Manual and backup 

47.Can you reconnect an IDG in flight? 

  Yes, but only after contacting maintenance control. 

  Yes, push and hold the IDG pb until the GEN fault light is no longer illuminated. 

  No, it is not possible. 
*  

48.Which communication and navigation radios are operational in the Emergency Electrical Configuration with the EMER 
GEN powering the system? 

  ACP 1 and 2, VHF 1, HF, RMP 1, VOR 1, and ILS 1. 
*   VHF 1, RMP 1, VOR 1. 

  RMP #1 & #2, VHF #1, HF (if equipped), ACP #1, VOR #1 and ILS #1. 

  All radios are lost. 

49.Which condition will automatically illuminate the escape lights? 
   AC ESS SHED bus not powered. 

  Loss of power to the AC bus 1. 

  DC ESS BUS not powered. 
*   DC ESS SHED bus not powered. 

50.What is the meaning of the green AVAIL light? 

  External power is plugged in and parameters are normal. You must push the external power to connect it 
*   External power is available to the batteries only. 

  The external power panel door has been opened 

  External power is supplying the aircraft systems 

51.What does the blue EXT PWR ON light mean? 

  External power is plugged in and parameters are normal 

  External power is supplying the aircraft\'s electrical system. 
*   There is a fault with the external power. 

52.If EXTERNAL power is available and within limits: 

  It will automatically close the bus tie contactors's when connected by the ground crew. 

  The green AVAIL light will illuminate on the EXT PWR push button. 
*   The BUS TIE push button illuminates. 

53.Is it possible to determine the source of power for aircraft busses 

  It is indicated on the electrical schematic overhead. 

  No it is not possible. 

  Yes, press the ECAM ELEC push button and view the electrical schematic on the ECAM 
*   Only when operating in the Emergency Electrical Configuration. 

54.Both batteries are charged by the external power unit. Approximately how long does the charging process take? 
   10 minutes. 

  20 minutes. 
*   30 minutes. 

  Between 30 and 45 minutes. 

55.While operating on Emergency Electrical Power (EMER GEN powering the system) what should the crew accomplish 
prior to lowering the landing gear? 

  Check to see that the FMGC has auto tuned the appropriate NAV facility for the approach to be accomplished. 

  Depress the guarded RMP NAV push button and tune the appropriate NAV facility and course for the approach to be 
accomplished. 

  Both are correct. 
*  

56.The GALLEY FAULT light illuminates when any generator is exceeding 80% of its rated output. 

  True. 

  False. 
* The GALLEY FAULT light illuminates when any generator is exceeding 100% of its rated output. 

57.If the source of power for the ESS AC bus is lost, does another source of power automatically power the bus? 

  Yes, transfer is automatic. 

  Yes, only if AUTO was selected on the AC ESS FEED push button. 

*   No, this must be done by the crew. 

58.What would cause the GALLEY fault light to illuminate? 

  The flight attendants have all the coffee makers and ovens on at once. 

  The Main Galley has shed. 

*   The load on any generator is above 100% of its rated output. 

  The Aft Galley has shed. 

 
 59.While operating on Emergency Electrical Power (EMER GEN powering the system) how is it possible to properly 
complete the ECAM checklist with only an upper display? 

  Depress and hold the specific ECAM page push button on the ECAM control panel. 
*   Transfer occurs automatically. 

  This is not possible. Use the cockpit operating manual. 

60.After IDG disconnection why do you get a GALLEY SHED indication on the SD? 

  It is a reminder to push the GALLEY pushbutton to manually shed the main galley. 

  It is a reminder to get the flight attendants to switch off galley equipment to decrease the load on the remaining 
generator. 

  It is a reminder that the main galley has been shed automatically following the loss of one generator. 
*  

61.Which busses will be powered after the RAT is extended and the EMER GEN begins producing power? 

*   BATT HOT busses, ESS DC, ESS DC SHED, ESS AC and ESS AC SHED. 

  The STATIC INVERTER would power both HOT BATT busses, ESS DC and ESS AC through the ESS AC SHED busses. 

  The BATTERIES would power both HOT BATT busses, ESS DC and ESS AC through the STATIC INVERTER. 

  ESS DC, ESS DC SHED, ESS AC and ESS AC SHED. 

62.Engine #1 has just been started and the APU is inoperative. The EXT PWR push button blue ON light is illuminated. 
Which of the statements below is correct? 

  External power is supplying all electrical needs. 

  Engine Gen #1 is supplying AC bus #1 and the downstream systems, and AC bus #2 through the bus tie contactors. 

*   Gen #1 supplies AC bus #1 and (generally) the downstream systems; Ext power supplies AC bus #2 . 

63.In cruise, you have suddenly a Master Warning and caution comes on with ELEC EMER CONFIG and APP OFF. You 
notice a red FAULT light on the RAT & EMER GEN pushbutton. What do you think of this indication? 

  The EMER GEN is not yet supplying the system. 
*   The RAT has failed. You will have to turn the batteries to OFF. 

  The FAULT light is always on when are in ELEC EMER CONFIG. 

  The RAT has failed, you have to try to reconnect both IDG's. 
  

64.When are the Essential Shed buses powered by the battery? 

  Never. The purpose of the shed buses is to reduce the load on the batteries. 

  In case of double generator failure. 

  After every IDG connection 

65.The AC Essential bus is powered by the battery at speed above 50 kt. 

  True. 
*   False. 

Below 50 kt the Essential bus is automatically shed and the CRT's are lost. 

66.In normal electrical configuration, how is DC ESS bus supplied: 

  From TR 1 via DC Bus 1 and DC Bat Bus 
*   From ESS TR 

  From TR 2 

  From Bat 2 

67.What happens in case of total loss of main generators? 

  The RAT is automatically extended and powers the yellow system which drives the emergency generator 

  The RAT is automatically extended and powers the blue system which drives the emergency generator 
*   The RAT has to be manually extended 

  The RAT is extended and mechanically connected to the emergency generator. 

68.DC Bat Bus can be supplied by: 

  DC Bus 1 or batteries 

  DC Bus 1, DC Bus 2 or batteries 
*   DC Bus 2 or batteries 

  DC Bus 1 only 
  

69.Normal minimum battery voltage before APU start is: 

  No minimum 

  27.5 Volts 

  25.5 Volts 
*   22.5 Volts 

70.When disconnecting the IDG the button should be pressed: 

  For no more than 5 seconds 

  Until the fault light goes out 

  For longer than 3 seconds 

  For no more than 3 seconds 
*  

71.Where can the battery voltage be checked? 

  On the ECAM elec. Page only 

  On the elec. overhead panel and ECAM E/WD 

  On the elec. overhead panel only 

  On the elec. overhead panel and ECAM elec. Page 
*  

72.In flight on batteries only, the AC Ess Shed bus and DC Ess Shed bus are lost. 

*   Yes 

  No 

  Only A/C Ess Shed Bus is lost 

  Only D/C Ess Shed Bus is lost 

73.The static inverter works: 

  Always 

  When aircraft speed is > 50 kt and on batteries only. 
*
   When one main generator fails 

  Only when generator 2 fails 

74.If a TR fails: 

*   The other TR automatically replaces the faulty one and the ESS TR supplies the DC Ess Bus 

  The static inverter replaces the faulty TR 

  The DC Bus on the faulty side is lost 

  The Emergency generator supplies DC power on the faulty side. 

75.In flight in case of loss of all main generators, emergency generator not running, the DC ESS Bus is supplied by: 

*   Hot bus 2 

  Ess TR 

  Hot Bus and Ess TR 

  Hot Bus 1 

76.If AC Bus 1 fails the AC Ess bus is supplied by: 

  Emer Gen. 

  The RAT 

  Static Inverter 

*   AC Bus 2 

1. What does a pulsing green engine parameter indicate?

o An ADVISORY, the parameter is about to reach the limit.
o An ADVISORY, the parameter is out of the limits
o A MEMO, the parameter has a faulty indication.
o A level 3 failure requiring immediate crew action.
2. On a bottom of the STATUS page, what does the green arrow mean?
o It is a reminder to land as soons as possible.
o It indicates that there is a system page behind.
o It means that there is more information to be seen.
3. When should the EMER CANC push button be used?
o At the completion of an ECAM procedure for an abnormal procedure.
o Whenever a LEVEL 3 warning or LEVEL 2 caution occurs.
o Whenever a repetitive visual or aural warning, or caution is received that the crew has determined to be false.
4. The actual speed is indicated by the ______ reference line.
o yellow
o amber
o red
o white
5. If a PFD fails, does anything happen automatically?
o The ATT HDG switch must be used on the switching panel in order to recover PFD information.
o The image automatically transfers to the display formerly occupied by the ND.
o The image automatically transfers to the UPPER ECAM.
o It has to be manually activated.
6. Course information from the #1 ILS receiver will be displayed:
o On the captain's PFD when the captain's ILS push button is selected ON.
o On the FO's PFD when his ILS push button is selected on and on the captain's ND, when the captain's ND is selected to ILS
ROSE.
o On the captain's PFD and ND when the captain's ILS push button is selected ON.
o The first two statements are correct
7. Information from the #1 VOR receiver will be displayed:
o On the capt's PFD when the captain's VOR bearing selector is selected to VOR.
o On the capt 's ND when the capt 's VOR bearing selector is selected to VOR.
o VOR #1 course information is available on the captain's PFD and ND when the captain's ILS pb is selected ON.
8. What causes a display unit (DU) to go blank?
o Loss of power.
o Display unit internal failure.
o Both are correct.
9. What causes a DU to display a black screen with a white diagonal line?
o DMC failure.
o No power.
o Both are correct.
10. The maximum speed to select next higher flap setting is indicated by two amber dashes.
o True.
o False.
11. VOR, ILS, and NDB raw data information is displayed on the ND in which of the following modes?
o VOR, RMI and NDB information may be displayed in the ARC or ROSE NAV modes.
o VOR and ILS information can be displayed in the ROSE VOR and ROSE ILS modes respectively
o Both are correct.
12. The presence of VOR1 in red on the ND indicates:
o The VOR station currently tuned is out of range.
o The VOR station currently tuned is out of service.
o The # 1 VOR receiver is inoperative.
o The VOR station currently tuned is out of range.
13. What is the meaning of "9000" in blue at the top of the altitude scale?
o It marks the FCU selected altitude.
o It marks the airfield elevation.
o It marks the transition altitude.
o It marks the decision height.
14. How many DMC's are there?
o 1
o 2
o 3
o 4
15. After a single DMC failure, how could a crew member recover the display units?
o It is done automatically.
o Once a DMC has failed, the information is unrecoverable.
o Rotate the EIS DMC switch on the switching panel to replace the failed DMC with DMC #3.
16. Where is information displayed by DMC #1 and DMC#2?
o DMC#1 supplies data to PFD#1, ND#1, and lower ECAM. DMC #2 supplies data to PFD#2, ND#2, and upper ECAM.
o DMC#1 supplies data to PFD#1, PFD#2, and upper ECAM. DMC #2 supplies data to ND#1, ND#2, and lower ECAM.
o DMC#1 supplies data to PFD#1, ND#1, and upper ECAM. DMC #2 supplies data to PFD#2, ND#2, and lower ECAM.
o DMC#1 supplies data to PFD#1, ND#2, and lower ECAM. DMC #2 supplies data to PFD#2, ND#1, and upper ECAM.
17. If the lower ECAM DU fails, is there a way to retrieve that information?
o By pressing and holding the related systems page push button on the ECAM control panel, the page will be displayed on the
UPPER ECAM.
o By rotating the ECAM/ND XFR switch on the switching panel, the lower ECAM page will be transferred to either the
Captain or FO's ND.
o Both are correct.
18. If the UPPER ECAM DU fails, what will be displayed on the lower unit?
o System display page.
o Engines and Warning page (E/WD)
o Status page.
19. Weather radar can be displayed in what modes on the ND?
o ARC and ROSE NAV modes only.
o ROSE VOR and ROSE ILS modes.
o ROSE VOR and ROSE ILS modes.
o All modes except plan.
20. RNAV position information is displayed on the ND in which of the following modes?
o ARC and ROSE NAV modes only.
o ROSE VOR and ROSE ILS modes.
o ARC, ROSE and PLAN modes.
o ROSE VOR mode.
21. Once the crewmember has completed viewing a specific system, what is the correct procedure for clearing the
screen and returning it to a normal presentation?
o Press the respective system push button again.
o It goes away by itself.
o Press CLR on the ECAM control panel.
o Press twice CLR on the ECAM control panel.
22. After the engine shutdown, you observe a pulsing STS message. What does it mean?
o It is an indication that at least one system requires crew attention.
o It is an indication that the aircraft has not been shut down correctly.
o It is a reminder that the status page holds a maintenance message.
23. The upper ECAM Display Unit (DU) has failed. You want to see the DOOR/OXY page. How can you see it?
o You have to press and hold the DOOR key on the ECP.
o You have to switch the EIS DMC to CAPT3
o You have to press and hold the RCL key on the ECP.
24. Both ECAM screens have failed. Is it possible to get E/WD indications?
o Yes, the E/WD is automatically transferred to one of the NDs.
o No. The E/WD is lost until the aircraft can be repaired.
o Yes, to get E/WD information. It must be manually transferred to one of the NDs.
o Yes. E/WD information is automatically transferred to the the F/O's PFD in the event of an ECAM warning.
25. How are the FMAs displayed on the PFD?
o There are 5 columns and 3 rows.
o There are 3 columns and 5 rows.
o There are 3 columns and 2 rows.
o There are 4 columns and 2 rows.
26. In case of a double FWC failure master caution light, master warning light, aural warnings and ECAM
cautions and warnings are lost.
o True.
o False.
27. How did the PNF cancel the caution for the NAV ILS 1 FAULT before calling the STATUS page on the
ECP?
o By pressing the EMER CANC pushbutton.
o By pressing the CLR key
o By pressing the STS key
o By pressing the ALL key.
28. How can the ILS 1 FAULT be restored from being a CANCELLED CAUTION?
o By resetting the appropriate circuit breaker.
o By pressing and holding any CLR key for more than 3 seconds.
o By pressing the EMER CAN pushbuttton for more than 3 seconds.
o By pressing and holding the RCL key for more than 3 seconds.
29. VLS is the lowest speed that the autoflight system (autopilot or A/THR) will fly the aircraft. This is a dynamic
speed corresponding to an Angle Of Attack (AOA).
o VLS will change with wing configuration change.
o With speedbrake extension, VLS will increase
o Above FL200, VLS will provide a 0.2g buffet margin
o All of the above.
30. The Speed Trend Arrow is a dynamic information displaying the speed t which the aircraft will be in _____ .
o 5 seconds.
o 8 seconds
o 10 seconds
o 13 seconds.
31. Of the three types of EIS displays, which one has the lowest priority?
o The ND
o The PFD
o The SED
32. As you approach a selected altitude, when will the yellow altitude window start flashing?
o As you approach within 750 ft of FCU selected altitude and stop when it is within 250 ft.
o As you approach within 1000 ft of FCU selected altitude and stop when it is within 150 ft.
o As you approach within 500 ft of FCU selected altitude and stop when it is within 150 ft.
o As you approach within 900 ft of FCU selected altitude and stop when it is within 200 ft.
33. The Flight Path vector (FPV) represents the lateral and vertical trajectory of the aircraft with respect to the
ground. On the lateral scale, it indicates the aircraft's track. On the vertical scale, it indicates the aircraft's
flight path angle.
o True.
o False.
34. When does the Side Stick Order indicator display?
o After first engine start and disappears when passing 400 feet RA
o After first engine start and disappears after rotation
o After seconde engine start and disappears when passing 400 feet RA
o After second engine start and disappears when passing 400 feet RA
35. When is the 'Green Dot' displayed?
o Only when flap handle is the zero position.
o Only when flap handle is the zero position, above FL80
o Only when flap handle is the zero position, below FL80
o Only when flap handle is the zero position, below FL85
36. What does Green Dot represent?
o Maneuvering speed in clean configuration
o Maneuvering speed in clean configuration when speed is managed.
o The next flap extend (VFE) max speed
o The flap extend min speed from clean configuration
37. The green 'S' of the speedtape is the Minimum Slat Retraction Speed. It is only displayed when the flap handle
position is in position 1.
o True.
o False.
38. When will the PFD Heading tape revert to TRU heading?
o North of 73° North or South of 60° South
o South of 73° North or North of 60° South.
o North of 80° North or South of 73°South
o North of 78° North or South of 78°South
39. Is the Side Slip indicator always yellow?
o Yes.
o No, it turns blue when it becomes a beta target (displaying optimum side slip for a given configuration)
o No, it turns orange when it becomes a beta target .
40. When will the Flight Directors bars flash?
o When a reversion occurs.
o When loss of LOC or G/S signal in LAND mode.
o All of the above.
41. The Flight Director bars are out of view when Bank angle exceeds 67°.
o True
o False.
42. If the FPV (Flight Path Vector) symbol is right of center, where is the wind coming from?
o Right.
o Left.
o It depends of the Track followed
43. If the FPV is above the horizon line, what is the aircraft actually doing?
o Descending.
o Maintaining FL.
o Climbing.
o Cannot say.
44. The Glide slope index will flash continuously when the deviation exceeds ______ above ______
o 1/2 dot below 120 feet RA
o 1 dot above 100 feet RA
o 1 dot above 60 ft RA
o 1/2 dot below 100 feet RA.
45. Both LOC and glideslope will flash if, afetr capture, the signal is lost.
o True.
o False.
46. The lower end of a red and black strip along the speed scale defines the VMAX speed.
o It is the lowest of the following VMO (or MMO), VLE, VFE
o It is the speed corresponding to the stall warning (VSW)
o It represents the speed corresponding to the angle of attack at which alpha protection becomes active.
47. The SD displays the Gross Weight (GW) in green as soon as the second engine is started.
o True.
o False.
48. In case of PFDU failure, the PFD image is transferred to the NDU:
o Manually
o Automatically
o Either manually or automatically
o The PFD image cannot be displayed on the ND.
49. What is the basic role of the DMCs:
o They compute and elaborate displays
o Generation of audio warnings
o Generation of amber warnings
o Generation of synthetic voice messages
50. Do the Check ATT. Messages appear on both PFDs at the same time?
o Yes
o No
o Message only appears on the EWD
o Message only appears on ECAM
51. FACs calculate speed trend and VLS. The extremities of the trend vector and V1s segment indicate
respectively; speed value at the next 10 seconds and 1.23 Vs 1 g with present configuration. Is this correct?
o Yes (for both cases)
o No (for both cases)
o No because VLS is not 1.23 Vs 1g
o No because the tip of the speed arrow is not the speed in 10 seconds time
52. With radar selected on, what can you read on ND about antenna setting?
o Tilt angle
o Tilt angle and gain mode
o Roll angle and tilt angle
o Nothing

the test.
Check Results

YOUR RESULT IS 78%. YOU PASSED THE TEST!

1. Fluid can be transferred between hydraulic systems.

o True
o False
2. Which hydraulic systems have engine driven pumps?
o Green and blue.
o Green and yellow.
o Blue and yellow.
3. The Load Alleviation Function (LAF) accumulators are pressurized by which hydraulic systems?
o Green and blue.
o Green and yellow.
o Blue and yellow.
4. The RAT pressurizes the Blue hydraulic system to approximately ______ psi.
o 1500
o 2500
o 3000
o 3500
5. How many pumps has the yellow system to provide pressure (not counting the PTU)?
o 1
o 2
o 3
o 4
6. The hand pump supplies yellow system pressure to the:
o Normal brakes.
o Alternate brakes
o Passenger doors.
o Cargo doors.
7. It is possible to pressurize the green hydraulic system on the ground via the PTU when the parking brake is
set.
o True
o False
8. The Eng Pump Fault light extinguishes when the engine pump switch is selected to off except for:
o Reservoir low level.
o Pump low pressure.
o An overheat.
9. With the airplane on the ground and the blue electric pump switch in AUTO; the blue pump will be energized
when:
o One engine is running.
o The BLUE PUMP OVRD switch has been pressed.
o First two statements are correct .
10. The PTU Fault light illuminates when the:
o PTU is inoperative.
o Green or yellow reservoir has low air pressure.
o PTU pump has overheated.
11. The PUMP identification number on the ECAM HYD page becomes amber when:
o System pressure is below 1450 psi.
o N2 is below idle.
o The reservoir level is low.
12. The _____ hydraulic system provides power for gear extension/retraction.
o Yellow.
o Blue
o Green
13. As long as the landing gear lever is up a hydraulic safety valve closes to cut off the hydraulic supply to the
gear when the airspeed is:
o Greater than 260 KIAS.
o Greater than 230 KIAS.
o Less than 260 KIAS.
o Less than 230 KIAS
14. Autobraking is initiated by:
o Strut compression.
o Reverser action.
o Ground spoiler extension command.
15. The alternate brake system has the same capabilities as normal brakes except:
o Anti-skid is inoperative.
o Autobrakes are inoperative.
o Both first statements are correct
16. When using the alternate brake system on accumulator pressure only; the accumulator supplies:
o Partial brakes.
o At least seven full brake applications.
o Alternate brakes with antiskid.
17. The maximum degrees of nosewheel steering available when using the handwheel is ______.
o +/- 60
o +/- 75
o +/- 95
o +/- 105
18. The green DECEL light on the Autobrake switch illuminates when the actual airplane deceleration
corresponds to ______ % of the selected rate.
o 80
o 95
o 100
o 110
19. The brakes pressure indication on TRIPLE PRESSURE INDICATOR reads which system pressure?
o Yellow
o Blue
o Green
20. To extend the landing gear with the Gravity Extension Handcrank requires _______ turns of the handle.
o 3 counter-clockwise
o 2 counter-clockwise
o 3 clockwise
21. The aircraft's three hydraulic systems are normally pressurized by:
o Two engine driven pumps and one electric pump.
o Two electric pumps and one PTU.
o Two electric pumps and one engine driven pump.
o Two electric pumps and two engine driven pumps.
22. When will the yellow system electric pump operate? (AC power is available).
o During the second engine start.
o When the first engine MASTER switch is moved to the ON position.
o If any N2 RPM is less than 45%.
o When the yellow electric system ELEC PUMP push button is selected to ON or the ground crew activates a cargo door
switch.
23. What are the major equipment losses with loss of Green system?
o Speed Brakes.
o Nosewheel steering, Autobrakes.
o Alternate Brakes.
o The upper and lower rudders.
24. The hydraulic PTU will activate if:
o A significant pressure loss occurs in any of the three hydraulic systems.
o A significant pressure loss occurs in the green or yellow hydraulic system.
o Both are correct.
25. After extending the RAT, is it possible to check its position and status?
o Check to see if the blue system ELEC PUMP FAULT light is not illuminated.
o Yes, select the ECAM ELEC page.
o Yes, select the ECAM HYD page.
o No. It is not possible.
26. The RAT is capable of powering a pump which will pressurize:
o Only the blue system.
o All systems.
o The blue and yellow system.
o The blue and green system.
27. How is the yellow hydraulic system pressurized?
o An engine driven pump, an electric pump, the PTU using the green system and, for the cargo doors only, a hand pump.
o An engine driven pump, electric pump, the PTU using the blue system and, for the cargo doors only, a hand pump.
o An engine driven pump, an electric pump, and the PTU using the green system.
28. When will normal operation of the BLUE system hydraulic pump begin?
o During the first engine start.
o When the first engine MASTER switch is moved to the ON position.
o Only when the RAT is deployed.
o After both engines are started.
29. The PTU comes into action automatically when the differential pressure between the GREEN and the
YELLOW systems is greater than ______ psi.
o 300.
o 500.
o 650.
o 700.
30. When will the yellow system electric pump operate? (AC power is available)
o During the second engine start.
o When the yellow electric system ELEC PUMP push button is selected to ON or the ground crew activates a cargo door
switch.
o If any N2 RPM is less than 45%.
o When the first engine MASTER switch is moved to the ON position.
31. What is the normal pressure in the hydraulic system?
o 500 psi.
o 1,000 psi.
o 3,000 psi.
o 2,000 psi
32. You are at the gate. You have started engine #2. Before starting engine #1, you notice that the PTU test has
not been activated. Is it normal.
o No. You have to call the mechanics.
o The PTU has been shutoff
o The PTU will not work until the second engine has been started.
33. You get a G RSVR OVHT message. Why does the ECAM procedure ask you to switch the PTU off first?
o To prevent the hot hydraulic fluid from being transferred to the YELLOW system.
o To depressurize the YELLOW and GREEN systems.
o To prevent the BLUE system from pressurizing the GREEN system.
o To prevent the PTU from pressurizing the GREEN system
34. For hydraulic system malfunctions, when will the RAT deploy?
o Automatically with the failure of both the green and blue hydraulic systems.
o Automatically with the failure of both the green and yellow hydraulic systems.
o Only when the guarded RAT MAN ON push button is selected by the crew.
o When airspeed drops below 100 knots with the gear up.
35. What does the RAT MAN ON switch do?
o Extends RAT, pressurizes BLUE system, starts Emergency Generator.
o Extends RAT, must push RAT MAN ON again to pressurize BLUE system.
o Extends RAT, pressurizes GREEN system, starts Emergency Generator.
o Extends RAT, pressurizes BLUE system, does not start Emergency Generator.
36. Describe the PTU status with a green system reservoir overheat, low pressure or low fluid level.
o The PTU will be inhibited
o The crew must select the PTU ON.
o The PTU fault light will remain illuminated as long as the problem exists. The PTU should be selected OFF.
o The crew must select the PTU OFF then ON
37. During engine start up, when is the BLUE hydraulic system pressurized?
o As soon as the PTU is turned on.
o As soon as the BLUE electric pump is manually turned on.
o Automatically after first engine start.
o As soon as the engine master switch is set to IGN/START
38. If you lost the GREEN system, what equipment is lost?
o Reverser 1 and gear retraction.
o Reverser 1, gear retraction and nose wheel steering.
o Reverser 2, gear retraction, cargo doors and nose wheel steering.
o Reverser 2 and gear retraction.
39. Crew members can use a hand pump to pressurize the YELLOW system in order to operate the cargo doors
when no electrical power is available.
o True.
o False.
40. If you lost the YELLOW system, what equipment is lost?
o Reverser 2
o Parking brake accumulator recharging
o Cargo door.
o All of the above.
41. On the hydraulic quantity indicator what does the amber level indicate?
o The warning level.
o The reservoir contents
o The normal filling level
o The temperature of the hydraulic fluid.
42. What does a PTU FAULT light indicate?
o GREEN or YELLOW reservoir overheat.
o GREEN or YELLOW reservoir low air pressure.
o GREEN or YELLOW reservoir low level..
o All of the above.
43. If you lost the BLUE system, what equipment is lost?
o The Emergency generator.
o Cargo door
o Nose wheel sterring.
o All of the above.
44. All hydraulic systems have a fire shutoff valve.
o True.
o False.
45. What is the signification of an amber RAT indicator (ECAM HYD page)?
o The RAT is uncorrectly stowed.
o The RAT is not stowed.
o Pressure for stowing the RAT has been applied, or the RAT pump is not available.
46. How can the pilot switch off the Fire Shut Off Valves?
o By de-pressing the Hydraulic Shut Off Switches.
o By selecting the Hydraulic Valve Switch to the \"Closed\" position
o By de-pressing the Engine Fire Swithces

1. The flight control surfaces are _______ controlled and _______ actuated.
o Electrically / hydraulically
o Mechanically / hydraulically
o Electrically / electrically
2. What computer normally commands the operation of the elevators and horizontal stabilizer?
o SEC 1
o FAC 1
o ELAC 2
3. Sidesticks provide electrical signals to the flight control computers; if both sidesticks are operated:
o The inputs cancel each other.
o Both inputs are algebraically added.
o The F/O input is overridden by the CAP input.
4. Roll control is achieved by:
o Ailerons
o Ailerons and rudder.
o One aileron and four spoilers on each wing.
o Ailerons, rudder and spoilers
5. When the flaps are extended, the ailerons:
o Go to the centering mode.
o Pitch up 5 degrees.
o Droop 5 degrees.
6. If electrical power to a SEC fails:
o The affected spoilers automatically retract.
o All spoilers automatically retract.
o The affected spoilers remains in the last commanded position.
7. If angle of attack protection is active or flaps are in the configuration Full:
o Speed brake extension is inhibited.
o Aileron travel is reduced.
o Speed brake extension travel is reduced.
8. Should the active elevator actuator fail, elevator control is:
o Lost.
o Maintained by the other actuator.
o Reduced.
9. Two control surfaces that have mechanical backup are:
o Elevator and rudder.
o Horizontal stabilizer and rudder.
o Speed brakes and rudder.
10. Horizontal stabilizer trim automatically resets to zero degrees after landing.
o True
o False
11. Should both FACs fail, maximum rudder deflection can be obtained after the ______ are extended.
o Flaps
o Slats
o Gear
12. Automatic rudder trim is provided at the rate of _____ while the manual rudder trim rate is ______ up to a
maximum of ______.
o 5 deg/sec - 2 deg/sec - 20 degs
o 5 deg/sec - 1 deg/sec - 20 degs
o 8 deg/sec - 2 deg/sec - 10 degs
o 8 deg/sec - 5 deg/sec - 10 degs
13. Four hydraulically-operated wing tip brakes are installed to lock the flaps or slats in case of:
o Asymmetry and overspeed only
o Asymmetry, overspeed and slow movement
o Asymmetry, overspeed, symmetrical runaway and uncommanded movement
o All of the above
14. While on the ground in Roll Normal Law there is a direct relationship between sidestick deflection and the
corresponding aileron and spoiler deflection.
o True
o False
15. In Pitch Normal Law Flight Mode; pitch trim is:
o Manual without the autopilot engaged.
o Automatic as long as the autopilot is engaged.
o Automatic with or without the autopilot engaged.
16. Automatic pitch trim is inhibited when:
o Radio altitude is below 50 feet (100 feet with autopilot coupled).
o Bank angle is greater than 33 degrees.
o Load factor is less than 1G.
o First two statements are correct
17. In pitch normal law, the elevator control changes from the normal mode to a protection mode when the angle
of attack is greater than:
o Alpha Max
o Alpha Prot
o Alpha Floor
18. TOGA thrust is provided regardless of throttle position when _______ engages the autothrottle system.
o Alpha Max
o Alpha Prot
o Alpha Floor
19. Roll control in NORMAL LAW is achieved with:
o Ailerons and spoilers.
o Ailerons, spoilers and rudder.
o Ailerons, spoilers 2-5 and rudder.
20. The purpose of the Load Alleviation Function is to:
o Relieve wing structure loads by moving the ailerons.
o Relieve wing structure loads by extending spoilers 4 and 5.
o Help slow the airplane down.
o First two statements are correct.
21. With the aircraft in Pitch Alternate Law, roll is in _____ Law.
o Direct
o Normal
o Alternate
22. When the landing gear is extended, pitch alternate law:
o Remains the same.
o Degrades to pitch direct law.
o Degrades to pitch backup law.
23. In Pitch Alternate Law; the low Speed stability (nose down command) can be overridden by the sidestick.
o True
o False
24. In the event of a complete loss of electrical flight control signals, the airplane reverts to a _______ mode.
o Mechanical
o Alternate Law
o Alternate law
o Abnormal Attitude law
25. To select speed brakes inflight:
o Push down on the speed brake handle and move it forward.
o Push down on the speed brake handle and move it aft.
o Pull up on the speed brake handle and move it aft.
26. Which of the following statements is correct concerning the spoiler elevator computers (SEC's)?
o Two computers which achieve spoiler control and standby elevator and THS control.
o Three computers which achieve spoiler control and normal elevator and THS control.
o Three computers which achieve spoiler control and standby elevator and THS control.
27. The autopilot will disconnect if the side stick takeover push button is depressed.
o True.
o True.
28. Which of the following statements are correct concerning the side stick takeover push button?
o The last pilot to depress the push button has priority.
o If the a takeover push button is depressed for more than 40 seconds, the onside system will retain priority after the push
button is released.
o Both are correct.
29. Are there any control surfaces with a mechanical backup?
o Yes, the airlerons.
o Yes, the spoilers
o Yes, the THS and the rudder.
o No, there aren't any control surfaces with mechanical backup.
30. What control surfaces do the FACs control?
o The elevators.
o The spoilers.
o The rudder.
o All of the above.
31. Which of the following will automatically reset after landing?
o THS.
o Rudder trim.
o Both are correct.
32. What happens in the event of an single ELAC failure?
o ELAC functions are transferred the SEC's.
o ELAC functions are transferred to FAC's.
o SEC functions are transferred the ELAC's.
o The functions of the failed ELAC will be assumed by the remaining ELAC.
33. The alpha speed lock function:
o Will inhibit flap retraction during an inadvertent movement of the flap selector at high AOA or low speeds.
o Will inhibit slat retraction during an inadvertent movement of the flap selector at high AOA or low speeds.
o Automatically raises the flaps if retraction has not been accomplished by 210kts.
34. In normal law, if one stick is rapidly pulled fully back, can the aircraft's maximum allowable "G" load be
exceeded?
o Yes. Rapid side stick deflection must never be made.
o Yes, until maximum pitch attitude is reached.
o No. At Maximum "G" load, the side sticks are de-activated for 5 seconds.
o No. The load factor limitation overrides side stick commands to avoid excessive "G" loads.
35. Which controls are used for the mechanical backup?
o Ailerons and rudder.
o THS and rudder.
o Elevators and airlerons.
o THS and elevator.
36. Mechanically backed-up control surfaces:
o Require hydraulic power for actuation.
o Are mechanically connected to the cockpit controls.
o Both are correct.
37. Selection of flaps one prior to takeoff will select which of the following?
o Slats 1 and flaps 1 (1+F).
o Slats 0 and flaps 1 (0+F).
o Slats 1 and flaps 0 (1).
o Slats 1 and flaps 5 (1).
38. Which of the following statements best describes the Load Alleviation function(LAF)?
o Helps the pilot control the airplane.
o Relieves wing structure loads by deflecting the ailerons and spoilers.
o Relieve wing structure loads by deflecting only the spoilers.
o Relieves wing structure loads by deflecting the ailerons.
39. When ground spoilers deploy automatically:
o All ten spoiler panels fully deploy.
o Four spoiler panels on each wing deploy.
o All ten spoiler panels deploy half way.
o Six spoiler panels on each wing deploy.
40. The FAC's primarily control which control surface?
o Elevator.
o Rudder.
o Aileron.
o Elevator and aileron.
41. Which altitude limitation is associated with high lift devices?
o Max altitude for extension is 20, 000 ft.
o Max altitude for extension is 22, 000 ft.
o Max altitude for extension is 25, 000 ft
o Max altitude for extension is 27, 000 ft.
42. The message WING TIP BRK ON appears on the E/WD. What does it mean?
o A hydraulic device locks the flaps in their present position.
o To reduce structural stress, the slats movement is being slowed down through the wing tip brakes.
o To avoid asymmetry, the outer slats are locked in their present position.
o Because of the locked flaps, the wing tip brakes also lock the slats.
43. Where does the SFCCs obtain AOA and air data information from?
o SEC
o ELAC
o ADIRU
o ADC
44. How many actuators are provided to control the ailerons and how many hydraulic sources supply these
actuators?
o 2 hydraulic sources with 4 actuators.
o 1 hydraulic source with 2 actuators.
o 4 hydraulic sources with 4 actuators.
o 3 hydraulic sources with 4 actuators.
45. If both FAC's fail, what happens to the rudder limiter?
o It immediately assumes the low speed position.
o It freezes at its present position and assumes the low speed position when flaps 1 are selected.
o Maximum rudder deflection can be obtained after slats extended.
o Maximum rudder deflection can be obtained after flaps extended.
46. Which of the following statements is correct concerning the elevator aileron computers (ELAC's)?:
o Three computers which achieve normal elevator, stabilizer, and aileron control.
o Two computers which achieve normal and standby control of the elevators, ailerons, and trimmable horizontal stabilizer.
o Three computers which achieve normal and standby control of the elevators, ailerons, and THS.
o Two computers which achieve normal elevator, stabilizer, and aileron control.
47. The wing tip brakes, once activated:
o Lock both the slats and flaps in their current position
o Lock only the flaps in their current position.
o Lock only the slats in their current position.
o Lock only the affected high lift system surfaces in their current position
48. Which of the following controls and monitors flaps and slats?
o Two ELAC's.
o Wing tip brakes.
o One slat flap control computer (SFCC).
o Two slat flap control computers (SFCC's).
49. The spoiler panels are the only flight control surfaces with no redundant control.
o True.
o False.
50. What happens in the side stick-neutral high speed protection mode?
o The autopilot disengages, bank angle limit is 30° and the aircraft is 25° roll limited.
o The autopilot disengages, bank angle limit is 45° and the aircraft is 25° roll limited.
o The autopilot disengages, bank angle limit is 45° and the aircraft rolls wings level and pitches up to slow down to
VMO/MMO.
o The autopilot disengages, bank angle limit is 35° and the aircraft rolls wings level and pitches to 10° to slow down to
VMO/MMO - 20 kt.
51. What is the maximum flap setting for in-flight use of the spoilers?
o Flaps FULL.
o Flaps 3.
o Spoilers are not approved for in-flight use.
o Flaps 10.
52. What are the rudder trim rates?
o A/P on - 5 deg/sec, A/P off - 1 deg/sec.
o A/P on - 2 1/5 deg/sec, A/P off - 5 deg/sec.
o A/P on - 3 deg/sec, A/P off - 6 deg/sec.
o A/P on - 5 deg/sec, A/P off - 6 deg/sec.
53. Can the crew make a flight control inmput that will over-stress the airplane in direct law?
o No. The system is designed to avoid such an attempt.
o Yes, there are no protections provided in direct law.
54. Can you manually trim the rudder with the autopilot engaged?
o Yes.
o No.
55. When is the Flight Mode active?
o From takeoff until landing.
o From liftoff until landing
o From liftoff until flare mode engages at 50 ft RA.
o From takeoff until passing 50 kts on landing (main shock absorbers depressed)
56. Automatic pitch trim is provided both on ground and in flight.
o True.
o False.
57. The Ground Mode is different in Alternate Law.
o True.
o False.
58. In normal law, what is the maximum bank angle you can reach with the side stick fully deflected?
o 33°
o 49°
o 67°
o 70°
59. Failure to retract the flaps after takeoff will:
o Activate the wing tip brakes.
o Result in automatic flap and slat retraction at 210 kts.
o Result in automatic flap and slat retraction at 220 kts.
o Result in automatic flap retraction at 210 kts.
60. FAC generated slat and flap extension, retraction, and limiting speeds are visually displayed on which of the
following?
o The MCDU perf page.
o The lower ECAM F/CTL page.
o Both pilot's PFD airspeed displays.
o All of the above.
61. Aileron droop may best be confirmed by checking which of the following?
o The position of the ailerons on the exterior preflight inspection.
o The lower ECAM FLT/CTL page.
o The position of the flap handle.
62. The wing tip brakes are:
o Pneumatically actuated.
o Electric brakes.
o Hydraulically actuated.
o Mechanically controlled, hydraulically actuated.
63. Selection of flaps 1 in flight will select which of the following configurations?
o Slats 1 and flaps 1 (1+F).
o Slats 0 and flaps 1 (0+F).
o Slats 1 and flaps 0 (1).
o Slats 1 and flaps 5 (1+F).
64. The aircraft rudder can be manually trimmed with the autopilot engaged.
o True.
o False.
65. What happens if you release the stick at 40 degrees of bank?
o The bank stays at 40°
o The aircraft rolls back to 25°
o The aircraft rolls back to 33° and resumes flight path stability.
o The aircraft rolls back to a bank angle less than 29°
66. When is alpha floor not available?
o Out of normal law.
o Below 100 feet RA in landing configuration.
o If the A/THR is deactivated or unavailable.
o All of the above.
67. What kind of protections are provided if the aircraft is in Alternate Law?
o G-load protection with a reduced factor.
o Speed Stability
o Full G load protection and speed stability
o G-load protection and speed stability if the ADIRS and elevators are working.
68. In Normal Law, what are the limits of Pitch Attitude protections with flaps Full
o 30° nose up.
o 35° nose up progressively reduced to 20°
o 25° nose up, progressively reduced to 20° at low speed.
o There is no limit.
69. You can degrade directly from Normal Law to Direct Law with gear down and a dual radio altimeter fault.
o True.
o False.
70. When do you get FLARE Mode in Alternate Law?
o Never. It goes directly from Alternate Law to Direct Law when the gear is selected down.
o When selecting Flaps 1
o At glide slope interception.
71. Turn coordination is available in Alternate Law.
o True.
o False.
72. If both pilots deflect their side sticks fully back:
o The "pitch up" order is twice as high as with only one stick deflected.
o The "pitch up" order is 1.5 times higher as high as with only one stick deflected.
o No inputs are sent to the flight control computers unless one pilot presses the takeover pushbutton on his stick.
o The "pitch up" order is equal to a single stick deflection.
73. To disable a side-stick, you have to depress the red take-over button on the active stick. Holding the button
down for 40 seconds will electrically lock the other stick out until its own red take-over button is pushed
again.
o True.
o False.
74. Let's assume the F/O presses his takeover pushbutton and releases it after more than 40 seconds.
o The Captain's side stick is de-activated unless he presses his takeover pushbutton.
o The Captain is unable to re-activate his side-stick for the rest of the flight
o Both sticks are active
o The Captain's side stick is active as long as the F/O's side stick is in neutral position.
75. What condition will cause auto flap retraction?
o Exceed 210 kts at Flaps 1
o Exceed 190 kt at Flaps 1.
o Exceed 195 kt at Flaps 1
o Exceed 190 kt with Flaps 1 while extending the speedbrake lever.
76. What happens to the rudder limits if both FAC's fault?
o The limit freezes at the fault condition until Flaps 1 is selected.
o The limit freezes at the fault condition until Flaps 5 is selected.
o The limit freezes at the fault condition until Flaps 1 is selected. Then it resets to the low speed limits for increased control.
77. What happens to high speed (VMO/MMO) when you are in Alternate Law?
o VMO is reduced to 320 kt and MMO minus 10 kt.
o VMO is reduced to 330 kt and MMO minus 10 kt.
o VMO is reduced to 320 kt and MMO does not change.
o There is no change.
78. Can the rudders be moved with both FAC's inoperative?
o Yes, if both FACs fail, maximum rudder deflection can be obtained when the slats are extended
o Yes, if both FACs fail, maximum rudder deflection can be obtained
o Yes, if both FACs fail, maximum rudder deflection can be obtained when the gear is extended or flaps extended at 1
minimum
o No
79. The FLAP lever sends signal to Slat Flap Control Computer (SFCC) to command movement.
o True.
o False.
80. Is there any rudder pedal feedback for the yaw damping and turn coordination functions?
o Yes.
o No.

1. Which hydraulic system(s) supply pressure to the landing gear system?

o Green
o Blue
o Yellow and Blue
o Green and blue.
2. If the brake system automatically transitions to alternate brakes with the A/SKID & N/W STRG switch in the
ON position, which of the following will be available?
o Auto brakes and anti-skid.
o Only auto brakes.
o Brakes, auto brakes, anti-skid.
o Anti-skid.
3. What is indicated by the autobrake DECEL lights?
o Airplane deceleration is 25% of selected rate.
o Airplane deceleration is 50% of selected rate.
o Airplane deceleration is 100% of selected rate.
o Airplane deceleration is 80% of selected rate.
4. On the E/WD, you notice the NW STRG DISC memo. What does it mean?
o The nose wheel steering has been disconnected by ground personnel.
o A failure in the nose wheel steering system has been detected.
o There is a discrepancy between the two nose wheel steering handwheel positions
o The nose wheel sterring computer has finished its self test.
5. During pushback, you start engine #2. You observe the NW STRG DISC memo has changed to amber. Why?
o The NW STRG disconnect mechanism has failed.
o The yellow hydraulic system is now pressurized and the amber caption is a warning not to move the handwheel
o The nose wheel steering is being reconnected by ground personnel. It is amber because the pin is removed.
o The memo has become amber because one engine is running.
6. If the landing gear was gravity extended using the hand crank on the center pedestal, landing gear position
must be verified through:
o The landing gear viewers.
o The landing gear indications depicted on the ECAM and, if available, the center panel LDG GEAR indicator panel lights.
o Both are correct.
7. Landing gear operation is inhibited at speeds:
o Below 100 knots.
o Above 260 +/- 5 knots.
o below 100 knots and above 260 knots.
o Above 250 knots.
8. Can the gear be extended above 260 kts if necessary?
o Never.
o Yes, but manually only
o Yes, but the ultimate limit is 285 kt CAS
9. How can the brake accumulator be re-pressurized?
o With the yellow electric hydraulic pump.
o With the blue electric hydraulic pump.
o Both are correct.
10. You are ready to taxi. You apply the toe brakes on the rudder pedals and release the PARK BRK. The
BRAKES pressure falls to zero. What should you do?
o This should not happen and you must assume that the BRAKES pressure indicator has failed.
o Nothing as this is normal. The BRAKES pressure indicator only indicates alternate (yellow) brake pressure.
o You must re-apply the PARK BRK and call for maintenance personnel as the main system pressure has failed.
o The indication is normal because once the AUTO BRK is set to MAX the BRAKES indicator is by-passed.
11. Which hydraulic system supplies pressure to the nose wheel steering?
o Green
o Blue
o Green and Blue.
o Yellow.
12. The antiskid deactivates when ground speed is less than ______.
o 10 kts.
o 20 kts.
o 25 kts.
o 30 kts.
13. If the BSCU detects a brake system malfunction in flight with the A/SKID & N/W STRG switch in the ON
position:
o The crew will be notified with an ECAM message after touchdown if the brake system does malfunction.
o The crew will be notified with an ECAM message.
o The crew must manually select alternate brakes.
o All of the above.
14. What is required to arm the auto brakes?
o Green hydraulic pressure available, anti-skid, no failures in the braking system.
o Landing gear lever selected down and selection of an autobraking rate.
o Both are correct.
15. What does each turn of the gravity gear extension handle do?
o Open gear doors, unlock gear, drop gear.
o Open gear doors, drop gear, shut doors.
o Shutoff hydraulic pressure, open doors, unlock gear.
o Open gear doors, shutoffs hydraulics, unlock gear, drop gear.
16. How many turns are required on the gravity extension hand crank to extend the landing gear?
o 2
o 3
o 5
o 6
17. How do you manually extend the landing gear?
o Lift the red handle and turn anticlockwise 4 turns.
o Lift the red handle and turn anticlockwise a minimum of 2 turns.
o Lift the red handle and turn clockwise a minimum of 4 turns.
o Lift the red handle and turn clockwise a 3 turns.
18. If the Landing Gear was gravity extended using the hand crank on the center pedestal, what other systems will
be inoperative?
o Nose wheel steering and auto braking.
o Nose wheel steering only.
o Anti-skid and auto braking.
o Nose wheel steering and anti-skid.
19. Auto brake may be armed with the parking brake on.
o True.
o False.
20. Can normal landing gear operation be restored after a gravity extension if green hydraulic pressure is
available?
o Restoration is always possible.
o It may be possible if the gravity extension was not caused by a failure of the landing gear mechanism.
o No, only maintenance can restore normal operation.
21. When the landing gear is gravity extended, will nose wheel steering be available?
o Only if the A/SKID & N/W STRG switch is selected ON.
o No.
o Limited nose wheel steering is available only through the captain's rudder pedals.
22. Auto brakes, if selected, will only be activated by:
o The wheels spinning up.
o The struts being compressed.
o The brake pedals being depressed.
o The ground spoiler extension command.
23. There are two triangles for each gear on the ECAM WHEEL page. What do they represent?
o Each triangle represents one wheel on the gear.
o Each triangle represents the position detected by one of the two computers systems.
o Each triangle represents one of the braking systems available for that gear.
o The front triangle indicates the position of that gear and the back triangle indicates the status of the brakes for that gear.
24. What system pressure does the ACCU PRESS and BRAKES pressure indicator indicate?
o Yellow brake accumulator and yellow brake system pressure to the left and right brakes.
o Yellow brake accumulator and green brake system pressure to the left and right brakes.
o Yellow brake accumulator and green or yellow brake system pressure to the left and right brakes.
o Blue brake accumulator and green brake system pressure to the left and right brakes.
25. The normal brake system uses _____ hydraulic pressure and the alternate brake system uses _____ hydraulic
pressure backed up by the hydraulic brake accumulator.
o Green - Blue
o Yellow - Blue
o Yellow - Green
o Green - Yellow.
26. ECAM: if you see a green arc shown over a wheel indication
o It marks the hottest brake with a temperature of more than 100°C.
o It indicates an abnormal high temperature.
o The A/SKID system is automatically releasing the pressure of that brake.
o The L/G control system has detected a low tire profile.
27. Nose wheels and main wheels have fusible plugs that prevent the tires from bursting if they overheat.
o True.
o False.
28. With the A/SKID & N/W STRG switch in the ON position, if the BSCU detects a brake system malfunction
and/or normal braking is not available:
o The crew will be notified with an ECAM message only if after touchdown the brake system does actually malfunction.
o Transition to the alternate brake system is automatic.
29. You have just set the parking brake handle to ON. Is it still possible to check the main brake system using the
toe brakes?
o Yes. As soon as you press the brake pedals the BRAKES indicator will read main system pressure.
o No. It is not possible to press hard enough to obtain an accurate reading.
o No. When the PARK BRK is set, the other braking modes are deactivated.
30. If the accumulator on the alternate brake system is your only source pressure, which of the following will be
available?
o Auto brakes and antiskid.
o Antiskid.
o Seven applications of the brake pedals.
o Three applications of the brake pedals
31. The gear doors remain open after a manual extension.
o True.
o False.
32. The steering handwheels, which are interconnected, can steer the nose wheel up to _____ in either direction.
o 55°.
o 65°
o 75°
o 90°
33. The green DECEL light on the autobrake pushbutton illumintaes when the actual airplane decceleration
corresponds to what percentage of the selected rate?
o 80%
o 90%
o 92%
o 95%
34. Each main wheel has an antiskid brake.
o True.
o False.
35. The parking brake accumulator is designed to maintain the parking pressure for at least ______.
o 6 hours.
o 12 hours.
o 18 hours.
o 24 hours.
36. The autobrake will arm if at least one ADIRS is functionning.
o True.
o False.
37. What happens to the other brake modes when parking brakes are applied?
o There is no change.
o All other braking modes and antiskid are deactivated.
o Antiskid mode only is deactivated.