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   

1 Folic acid has tetrahydrofolate coenzyme activity which is based on

the: a. pyrimidine ring.

b. purine ring.

c. pyrazine

ring.

d. pteridine

ring. e. pyridine

ring.

2 Enkephalins are peptides that:

a.have narcotic antagonist activity.

b.exert actions resembling those of opiates.

c.are found only in the central nervous

system. d. cause blood vessel wall relaxation.
e. transmit pain impulses.

3 -Carotene is the precursor of:

a. retinol.

b.

thiamine. c.

calciferol.

d. riboflavin.

e. retinoic acid.

4 True statements regarding transcription include which of the

following? a. The enzyme responsible for initiating transcription is RNA

polymerase. b. The enzyme responsible for initiating transcription is

DNA polymerase. c. During transcription, the genetic information

contained in the nucleotide

sequence of tRNA is translated into a protein structure.

d. The process of transcription includes the splicing of exons.

e. Following initiation, the next stage of transcription is termination.

5 Diphtheria is caused by:

a. Plasmodium.

b. Vibrio.

c. Shigella.

d. Neisseria.

e. Corynebacterium.

6 Identify the correct pathway of blood flow from the small intestine to the liver:
e. transmit pain impulses.

3 -Carotene is the precursor of:

a. retinol.

b.

thiamine. c.

calciferol.

d. riboflavin.

e. retinoic acid.

4 True statements regarding transcription include which of the

following? a. The enzyme responsible for initiating transcription is RNA

polymerase. b. The enzyme responsible for initiating transcription is

DNA polymerase. c. During transcription, the genetic information

contained in the nucleotide

sequence of tRNA is translated into a protein structure.

d. The process of transcription includes the splicing of exons.

e. Following initiation, the next stage of transcription is termination.

5 Diphtheria is caused by:

a. Plasmodium.

b. Vibrio.

c. Shigella.

d. Neisseria.

e. Corynebacterium.

6 Identify the correct pathway of blood flow from the small intestine to the liver:
a. haemorrhoidal vein  portal vein.

b. mesenteric vein  portal vein.

c. haemorrhoidal vein  inferior vena cava.

d. mesenteric vein  hepatic artery.

e. gastric vein  hepatic vein.

7 Lactose intolerance is classified as a(n):

a.allergy.

b.enzyme

deficiency. c.

mineral deficiency.

d. transporter

abnormality. e. vitamin

deficiency.

8 Parkinson's disease is characterized by a deficiency

of: a. acetylcholine in the motor cortex.

b. noradrenaline in the spinal motor neurons.

c. gamma amino butyric acid (GABA) in inhibitory

pathways. d. dopamine in the nigrostriatal pathway.

e. serotonin in the brain stem.

9 The blood volume of the average adult is

approximately: a. 5 L.

b. 10

L. c.

15 L.

d. 20

L.
e. 25 L.

10 Common etiologic agents of community-acquired pneumonia

include: I Escherichia coli.

II Haemophilusinfluenzae.

III Mycoplasma pneumoniae.

a. I only

b. III

only

c. I and II only

d. II and III

only e. I, II and

III

11 Gamma aminobutyric acid (GABA) is:

I the major inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain.

II found primarily in

interneurons. III synthesized

from glycine.

a. I only

b. III

only

c. I and II only

d. II and III

only e. I, II and

III
12 All of the following statements are true regarding chronic inflammation, EXCEPT:
a.it may develop as a granulomatous inflammation.

b.it may be caused by persistent infections such as tuberculosis.

c.it may occur with autoimmune diseases such as rheumatoid

arthritis. d. large numbers of macrophages are found in the

infiltrate.

e. lymphocytes and eosinophils are rarely involved in its development.

13 Which of the following enzymes catalyzes the synthesis of DNA from viral

RNA? a. Reverse transcriptase

b. DNA

polymerase c. RNA

polymerase d.

Endonuclease

e. Aminoacyl-tRNAsynthetase

14 Pernicious anemia is:

a.due to dietary deficiency of vitamin B12.

b.prevented by oral administration of a vitamin B12

supplement. c. treated by parenteral administration of folic

acid.

d. treated by parenteral administration of vitamin

B12. e. caused by dietary iron deficiency.

15 The optic disk is also called

the: a. blind spot.

b. cornea.

c. iris.

d. pupil.
e. macula lutea.

16 Which of the following is characterized as an autoimmune

disorder? a. Alzheimers disease

b. Systemic Lupus Erythematosus

c. Osteoarthritis

d. Parkinsons disease

e. Pagets disease

PHARMACEUTICAL SCIENCES

17 Correct statements regarding reversed-phase high-performance liquid chromatography include

which of the following?

I The stationary phase is

hydrophobic. II The mobile phase is

polar.

III The compound to be separated is very polar.

a. I only

b. III

only

c. I and II only

d. II and III

only e. I, II and

III

18 If the pKa of phenobarbital is 7.4, what approximate fraction of the drug would be ionized at

pH 8.4? a. 10%

b. 30%
c. 50%

d. 90%

e.

100%

19 All of the following statements concerning the lyophilization of a parenteral product are correct,
EXCEPT:

a.there is minimal loss of activity in heat labile materials.

b.the liquid must be frozen to below the eutectic

temperature. c. the solute usually forms an amorphous

glass.

d. the eutectic temperature is the freezing point of the drug

solution. e. water is removed from the frozen mixture by

sublimation.

20 Dopamine is useful in the treatment of cardiogenic shock

because it: a. selectively dilates renal and mesenteric vascular beds.

b. does not induce peripheral

vasoconstriction. c. decreases the force of

myocardial contraction.

d. delays the atrioventricular (AV) conduction

time. e. prolongs the QT interval on the ECG.

21 In cardiovascular physiology, LaPlace's law relates the tension achieved in a blood vessel

wall to: I the length of the vessel.

II the radius of vessel.

III the intraluminal pressure.

a.I only
b. III

only
 c. I and II only

d. II and III

only e. I, II and

III

22 Concentration of a drug in breast milk exceeds that in plasma, if the

drug: a. is basic.

b.is protein bound.

c.is acidic but not protein bound.

d.has a small volume of

distribution. e. has a large volume

of distribution.

23 Mercapturic acid derivatives in phase II metabolism can result from

reactions of: a. glutathione conjugates.

b. glucuronide conjugates.

c. glycine conjugates.

d. glutamate conjugates.

e. sulfate conjugates.

24 Tetrodotoxin is a selective inhibitor of

the: a. calcium ion channel.

b. sodium ion channel.

c. potassium ion

channel. d. chloride ion

channel. e. nicotinic ion

channel.
25 Atropine is the primary example of an important class of muscarinic antagonists which are
esters of tropic acid and which contain:

a. aniline and piperidine

rings. b. aniline and

piperazine rings. c. aniline

and pyrrolidine rings.

d. pyrrolidine and piperazine

rings. e. pyrrolidine and

piperidine rings.

26 Carbon monoxide binds to:

I hemoglobin.

II myoglobin.

III cytochrome oxidase.

a. I only

b. III

only

c. I and II only

d. II and III

only e. I, II and

III

27 True statements regarding ipratropium bromide include all of the following, EXCEPT that
ipratropium bromide:

a. is a competitive muscarinic antagonist.

b. exists as a quaternary ammonium

anion.

c. is poorly absorbed through airway

epithelium. d. requires nebulization for

inhaled therapy.

e. enhances the bronchodilatory effects of theopyhlline.

28 Diazepam Injection U.S.P

Diazepam 5 mg/ml

Ethanol 10%

Propylene glycol 40%

Benzyl alcohol 1.5%

Water for Injection qs 100%

In the formulation given above, which of the following ingredients function as cosolvents?

I Ethanol

II Propylene glycol

III Benzyl alcohol

a. I only

b. III

only

c. I and II only

d. II and III

only e. I, II and

III

29 Both isoxazole and oxazole rings are found as substituents in some bacteriostatic
sulfanilamides. They are present in these structures specifically because of their:

a.sizes and shapes.

b.tautomeric

activities. c. enzymatic

activities.

d. electron-donating effects.
e. electron-withdrawing effects.

30 The Michaelis-Menten equation will appear first order:

a. when the substrate concentration is much smaller than

Km. b. when Km is much smaller than the substrate

concentration. c. when Vmax is much smaller than Km.

d. when Vmax is much larger than

Km. e. when Km approaches Vmax.

31 With respect to bioequivalence, the parameter Cmax is:

a. affected by the extent of absorption only.

b. affected by the rate of absorption only.

c. affected by neither rate nor extent of

absorption. d. affected by both rate and extent

of absorption. e. the only significant parameter.

32

Which of the hydroxyls in the compound above is a tertiary alcohol?

a. Hydroxyl

1 b.

Hydroxyl 2

c. Hydroxyl

3
 d. Hydroxyl 4

e. Hydroxyls 1 and 2

33

The above structures are related to one another as:

a. bioisosteres.

b.

enantiomers. c.

homologs.

d. rotamers.

e. positional (structural) isomers.

34 Five subjects given a single intravenous dose of a drug have the following elimination half-
lives: 3, 9, 6, 5 and 4 h (hours). The mean half-life is:

a. 4.0 h.

b. 5.0 h.

c. 5.4 h.

d. 5.8 h.

e. 6.0 h.

35 Reasons for using coatings on tablets include all of the following,

EXCEPT: a. to mask the taste of the drug.

b.to mask the odor of the drug.

c.to improve the appearance of the tablet.

d.to increase the drugs release rate.

e. to protect the drug from stomach acid.

36 Which of the following factors would be important in determining the concentration of drug
that would be reached in the cerebrospinal fluid for treatment of meningitis?

I Oil/water partition

coefficient II Binding to

plasma protein

III pKa of the drug

a. I only

b. III

only

c. I and II only

d. II and III

only e. I, II and

III

37 Which of the following terms indicates a loss of moisture?

a. Deliquescence

b. Efflorescence

c. Hygroscopicity

d. Polymorphism

e. Condensation

38 Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding tablet

formulation? a. Diluents are fillers to add bulk to the tablet.

b. Lubricants help the patient to swallow the tablet more

easily. c. Binding agents may be added dry or in solution.

 d. Disintegrants draw water into the tablet causing it to

burst. e. Glidants promote the flow of materials during

compression.

39 Factors that determine bioequivalence of two brands of a drug

include: I the taste of the preparations.

II the physical appearance of the preparations.

III pharmacokinetic parameters of the preparations.

a. I only

b. III

only

c. I and II only

d. II and III

only e. I, II and

III

40 If the total body clearance of a drug is 200 mL/min in a normal healthy adult and the renal
clearance is 10 mL/min then one may assume that:

a.the drug is extensively metabolized.

b.greater than normal drug accumulation would occur in patients with moderate renal

failure c. entero-hepatic recycling is significant.

d. the drug is not bound to plasma

proteins. e. the drug is concentrated in

adipose tissue.

41 The major pathway for the biotransformation of the following compound is by hydrolysis. Identify
the site which would be most susceptible to hydrolysis.
a.A

b.B

c. C

d.

D e.

42 Mechanisms of drug interactions with acetylsalicylic acid (ASA)

include: a. induction of microsomal enzymes.

b. inhibition of microsomal enzymes.

c. inhibition of liposomal enzymes.

d. displacement of other drugs bound to serum

albumin. e. enhanced platelet aggregation.

43 Which of the following diuretics is used to block the Na+-H+ exchange system of the renal

tubule? a. Furosemide

b. Hydrochlorothiazide

c. Spironolactone

d. Acetazolamide

e. Amiloride

44 Atropine poisoning can be recognized by all of the following signs or symptoms,

EXCEPT: a. dry skin.

b.flushed appearance.

c.delirium and restlessness.

d.mydriasis.

e. diarrhea.

45 The organophosphates commonly found in insecticides are thought to act by which of the
following mechanisms?

a.Combining with acetylcholine

b.Potentiating the action of acetylcholinesterase

c.Forming a very stable complex with

acetylcholinesterase d. Reacting at the cholinergic

receptor

e. Preventing the release of acetylcholine from the nerve ending

46 Acarbosesmooths and lowers:

a. postprandial blood glucose levels by blocking absorption of carbohydrates.

b. postprandial blood glucose levels by delaying absorption of carbohydrates.

c. preprandial blood glucose levels by blocking absorption of

carbohydrates. d. preprandial blood glucose levels by delaying absorption

of carbohydrates.

e. preprandial and postprandial blood glucose levels by blocking absorption of carbohydrates.

47 Hypercalcemia may result from:

I an excessive intake of calcium.

II hyperparathyroid disease.

III an inadequate intake of vitamin D.

a. I only

b. III

only

c. I and II only
 d. II and III

only e. I, II and

III

48 Which of the following statements is true regarding the use of monoclonal antibody drug

therapies? a. Flu-like symptoms commonly occur at the start of therapy.

b. T cells are stimulated and will initiate a host rejection process.

c. Orthoclone is a human immunoglobulin product

d. Use of chimeric monoclonal antibodies is associated with increased

immunogenicity. e. Use of Fc fragments avoids raising an immune response against

the FAB part.

QUESTIONS 49 TO 50 INCLUSIVE REFER TO THE FOLLOWING:

KJ, a 23 year old female, is to receive lithium therapy with a regimen of l ithium carbonate 600 mg
q8h. The total body clearance of lithium is 0.44 mL/s (1.6 L/h) and the biological half-life is 18 h.
The molecular weight of lithium carbonate (Li2CO3) is 74.

49 The number of millimoles of lithium (Li+1) that KJ will receive with each

dose is: a. 8

b.

16 c.

24

d.

32

e.

48

50 The number of milli-equivalents of lithium that KJ will receive with each

dose is: a. 8

b. 16
 c.

24

d.

32

e.

48

51 The fraction of bound receptors in a well-defined drug-receptor binding system is determined

by: I the equilibrium drug-receptor dissociation constant.

II the free drug concentration.

III the total receptor concentration.

a.I only

b. III

only

c. I and II only

d. II and III

only e. I, II and

III

52 In some parenteral formulations, sodium metabisulphite is included

as: a. an antioxidant.

b.a chelator.

c. a

solubilizer. d.

a cosolvent.

e. an emulsifier.

53 The carbonic anhydrase inhibitor dorzolamide is structurally classified

as a: a. biguanide.

b. butyrophenone.
c. sulfonamide.

d. sulfonylurea.

e. thiazolidinedione.

54 Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding virus vectors used in the production
of biotechnology drugs?

a.Viruses can be introduced by nutrients.

b.Viruses can be generated by an infected production cell line.

c.The most frequent source of virus introduction is the growth media.

d.Viruses can be inactivated by physical or chemical treatment of the product.

e. There is a trend toward using better-defined growth media in which serum levels are
significantly reduced.

55 The western blot is an analytical technique used to detect which of the following?

a. DNA

b. RNA

c. Specific antibodies

d. Specific proteins

e. Post-translational modification of protein

56 An angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor for which both renal elimination and metabolism
are important in the elimination of the drug and its active metabolites is:

a. enalapril.

b. fosinopril.

c. lisinopril.

d. quinapril.

e. ramipril.
57 Once daily dosing of aminoglycosides is effective due to:

a. prolonged residence of the antibiotic in the

body. b. post-antimicrobial effect.

c. enhanced tissue accumulation.

d. reduced renal clearance.

e. higher peak-trough differences.

58 The method of ionization of mass spectrometry which results in well-established diagnostic

fragmentation patterns that are useful in the identification of compounds of unknown
structure is called:

a. atmospheric pressure chemical ionization

(APCI). b. chemical ionization (CI).

c. electron impact (EI)

ionization. d. electrospray

ionization (ESI).

e. fast atom bombardment (FAB) ionization.

59 An ophthalmic solution contains zinc sulfate 0.25%, phenylephrine HCl 0.12% and boric acid
1.1% (NaC1 equivalents: zinc sulfate 0.15, phenylephrine HCl 0.32, boric acid 0.5). Relative to
lacrimal fluid, the solution is:

a. isotonic.

b. hypotonic.

c. hypertonic.

d.

hyperosmotic. e.

isoosmotic.

PHARMACY PRACTICE
60 Which of the following is NOT a benefit of performing medication reconciliation activities
in a hospital setting?

a.Reduction of medication errors

b. Reduction of inventory

pilferage

c.Reduction of preventable adverse effects

d.Assessment of patient adherence to therapy

e.Enhanced accuracy of patient allergy information

61 The Compendium of Pharmaceuticals and Specialties (CPS) is a useful resource for locating
which of the following?

a.Clinical recommendations for dental prophylaxis of bacterial endocarditis

b.Detailed monographs for all prescription pharmaceuticals available in Canada

c.Approved indications for all prescription and nonprescription pharmaceuticals in Canada

d. Canadian consensus guidelines on drug therapies used to treat hypertension

e. Bioequivalence data comparing interchangeable pharmaceutical products

62 Which of the following statements is true regarding nitrate

tolerance? a. Tolerance does not occur with oral

isosorbidedinitrate.

b. Tolerance does not occur in patients who are concurrently on metoprolol.

c. Tolerance is dependent upon the administration schedule of nitrate

medication. d. Tolerance does not occur with topical nitroglycerin ointment.

e. Tolerance does not occur with transdermal nitroglycerin.

63 In dispensing, the Latin abbreviation for "before

meals" is: a. ac.

b.aa.

c.pc.

d.ic.

e.cc.

64 In dispensing, the English meaning for the Latin phrase ex aqua is:

a.with or in water.

b.extracellular fluids.

c. exact amount.

d. soluble in water.

e. out of water.

65 Aerosol OT (AOT) is used in veterinary medicine as a laxative. If 250 g of AOT is dissolved in 1

000 mL of glycerin (density of glycerin is 1.25 g/mL), the concentration of AOT in the solution is:

a. 12.5%

w/w. b.

16.7% w/w.

c. 20.0%

w/w. d.

23.8% w/w.

e. 25.0%

w/w.

66 Water used for reconstitution of an additive for a large volume parenteral should

be: a. sterile water.

b. distilled water.

c. Bacteriostatic Water for Injection (United States Pharmacopeial

standard). d. Water for Injection (United States Pharmacopeial

standard).
e. Sterile Water for Injection (United States Pharmacopeial standard).
67 The shock and airway edema of anaphylaxis are best treated

with: a. salbutamol.

b. diphenhydramine.

c. epinephrine.

d.

acetazolamide.

e. aminophylline.

68 The hospital pharmacist is asked for advice from a physician after a newly admitted patient
is diagnosed with ischemic stroke. In the selection of drug therapy for the initial management
of this patient, the pharmacist would find all of the following resources useful, EXCEPT:

a.published clinical guidelines.

b.Harrisons Principles of Internal Medicine.

c. primary journal articles.

d. Therapeutic Choices.

e. Compendium of Self-Care Products.

69 Which of the following statements is true regarding pioglitazone therapy?

a. It requires ongoing monitoring of renal function.

b. It does not depend on the presence of insulin for its

action. c. Multiple daily dosing is required due to its short

half-life.

d. Pulmonary fibrosis is a rare but serious adverse effect.

e. It has shown benefits in reducing glycosylated hemoglobin levels.

70 Prednisone may produce all of the following effects,

EXCEPT: a. skeletal muscle weakness.

b. hypoglycemia.

c. sodium retention.

d. peptic ulceration.

e. lowered resistance to infection.

71 The pharmacist fills a prescription for sumatriptan 100 mg tablets for a migraine patient.
Appropriate information to provide to the patient includes which of the following?

a.If the sumatriptan does not relieve the headache within four

hours, ergotamine may be used.

b.If no relief is achieved in two hours, sumatriptan may be repeated.

c.If the headache is relieved but another headache occurs eight hours

later, sumatriptan may be used for the second headache.

d.The maximum dosage in any 24-hour period is six tablets.

e.If relief is not achieved, no other medication can be used for 24 hours.

72 Which of the following is appropriate auxiliary labelling for

allopurinol? a. Take with plenty of fluids.

b. Take on an empty stomach.

c. Avoid concurrent intake of dairy

products. d. Avoid concurrent intake of

grapefruit juice.

e. Exposure to sunlight may cause adverse reactions.

73 A pharmacist is making a presentation on medication adherence and compliance to a group

of clients. Which of the following would be the most appropriate indicator of the effectiveness
of the presentation for these clients?

a.Increase in fill quantity for each prescription

refill b. Reduced number of prescriptions filled

per month
 c. Increase in number of nonprescription medications

used d. Reduced number of prescription refill dates per

month e. Prescription refill dates closer to expected fill

intervals

74 RxTimolol 0,25 % drops

Mitte : 15 mL

Sig: gtt. i o.d. BID

On the prescription label the instructions to the patient should

read: a. apply one drop into both eyes twice daily.

b.instil one drop into the left eye twice

daily. c. instil one drop into the right eye

twice daily.

d. shake well and instil one drop into the left eye twice

daily. e. shake well and instil one drop into the right ear

twice daily.

75 The following prescription is received in a community pharmacy:

Losec® 20 mg

S: Take 1 tab

BID M: 2 weeks

Which of the following is correct labelling for this

prescription? a. Take one tablet twice weekly (28 tablets).

b. Take one tablet twice weekly (4

tablets). c. Take two tablets twice daily

(56 tablets). d. Take one tablet twice

daily (28 tablets).

 e. Take one tablet twice daily (14 tablets)

76 A role of The National Association of Pharmacy Regulatory Authorities is

to: a. audit the financial performance of provincial pharmacy licensing

bodies.

b.promote implementation of pharmacy practice standards across Canada.

c.establish a unified lobby voice for pharmacists from all types of practice settings.

d.provide mechanisms for the public to file complaints about pharmacy care

providers. e. accredit the pharmacy programs at Canadian universities.

77 Which of the following statements is true regarding Tylenol Elixir With Codeine® (each 5 ml contains
acetaminophen 160 mg and codeine 8 mg)?

a. It requires a written order from an authorized

prescriber. b. It is an example of a legally exempted

codeine product. c. Sale for self-medication use must

involve a pharmacist.

d. It is regulated under the Benzodiazepines and Other Targeted Substances

Act. e. Authorized prescribers include chiropractors.

The next section includes several EXAMPLES OF THE CASE SCENARIO FORMAT, in which there are two
or more questions in sequence, that are directly related to the patient information provided in the
(bolded) stem shown at the top of the case. When choosing your response to questions in the case
scenario format, you must base your choice on the patient-specific information presented in the
case.

QUESTIONS 78 TO 79 INCLUSIVE REFER TO THE FOLLOWING:

SM is a 34 year old female who, while vacationing in Mexico, began prophylactic treatment for
travellers' diarrhea. Shortly thereafter she complained of a feeling of fullness in her ears, black
stools and a black tongue. SMs previous history includes an allergy to sulfonamides.
78 Which of the following drugs could be the cause of SM's

complaints? a. Bismuth subsalicylate

b. Cotrimoxazole

c. Doxycycline

d. Amoxicillin

e. Loperamide

79 Organisms commonly implicated in the cause of travellers' diarrhea

include: I Bacteroidesfragilis.

II Escherichia

coli. III Shigella

sp.

a. I only

b. III

only

c. I and II only

d. II and III

only e. I, II and

III

QUESTIONS 80 TO 82 INCLUSIVE REFER TO THE FOLLOWING:

A 3 year old child was admitted to the hospital following ingestion of an overdose of acetylsalicylic
acid and a nonprescripton sleep-inducing compound containing an antihistamine and scopolamine. The
child was semi-comatose, flushed and flaccid. Her pupils were fixed and dilated. Respirations were
deep and rapid. Laboratory investigation indicated serum salicylate level of 5.80 mol/L (80 mg/100 mL)
and a urinary pH of 6.

80 The syndrome of deep and rapid respirations would initially lead to:
a. respiratory

acidosis. b.

respiratory alkalosis.

c. renal excretion of acid.

d. marked reduction in body

temperature. e. increased chloride

elimination in urine.

81 As a result of other mechanisms the child would likely

progress to: a. hyperglycemia.

b. hypoglycemia.

c. metabolic

alkalosis. d. systemic

acidosis. e. renal

failure.

82 One form of therapy to hasten the excretion of salicylate involves the administration

of: a. vasopressin (ADH).

b.probenecid.

c.ammonium chloride.

d. sodium

bicarbonate. e.

aluminum hydroxide.

83 The recommended pediatric dosage for azithromycin therapy is 12 mg/kg once daily on
Days 1 through 5. For a child weighing 8.3 kg, calculate the total volume needed for the
total course of treatment, if a product supplying 200 mg/5 mL is supplied for this order.

a. 12.5

mL b.
15.0 mL

c. 25.0

mL
d. 37.5

mL e. 50.0

mL

84 Which of the following medications requires monitoring for the adverse effect of

hyperlipidemia? a. Ciprofloxacin

b.

Allopurinol c.

Isotretinoin

d.Ramipril

e.Raloxifene

85 A vertical laminar flow hood (LFH) is preferred to a horizontal LFH when preparing a parenteral
formulation of:

a.

aminophylline.

b. doxorubicin.

c. magnesium

sulfate. d.

nitroglycerin.

e. penicillin.

86 A physician wants to switch a terminally-ill patient from slow release morphine sulfate tablets, 15
mg twice daily, to a liquid morphine sulfate dosage form because the patient has difficulty in
swallowing tablets. If a morphine sulfate solution containing 5 mg per mL is prescribed q4h, what
volume should be dispensed for a 20 day supply to provide the same pain relief as the tablet
regimen?

a.20 mL

b. 60 mL

c. 80 mL

d. 100
mL e.

120 mL
87 In the International System of Units (SI), most drug levels are to be reported in the units
of micromoles/litre (µmol/L). The therapeutic concentration range for theophylline (molecular
weight 180) is 10-20 µg/mL. The SI equivalent would be:

a. 0.055 - 0.11

µmol/L. b. 27 - 55

µmol/L.

c. 55 - 110 µmol/L.

d. 110 - 220 µmol/L.

e. 180 - 360 µmol/L.

88 The mother of a 6 year old child presents to the pharmacist with a written prescriptionfor
amoxicillin that was ordered by the physician 3 days earlier. She states that her child was diagnosed
with otitis.
Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacist

response? a. Fill the prescription as written.

b.Refuse to fill the prescription as the antibiotic order is no longer current.

c.Indicate a need to contact the prescriber before filling the prescription at this

time. d. Fill the prescription for a quantity that is the ordered amount less three days

supply.

e. Explain that , as at this late date, antibiotic therapy will likely be ineffective for the child.

BEHAVIOURAL, SOCIAL AND ADMINISTRATIVE PHARMACY SCIENCES

89 The ethical principle of veracity requires

that: a. we respect the rights of others to make

choices. b. we act with honesty, without

deception.

c. we avoid, remove or prevent

harm. d. we do good to patients.

e. we act with fairness.

90 In deciding what drugs are appropriate for its formulary, the hospital must consider a drugs efficacy,
associated workload, and acquisition cost. Several new antifungal IV drugs (drug A, drug B, drug C,
and drug D), all with equal efficacy, have recently become available. Currently the hospital stocks
drug E, which has been available for several years. Data for the medications is as follows:

Drug

Cost/Day

Dosing Frequency

Treatment Duration (days)

$2.50

QID

14

$2.25

once daily

14

$5.00

BID

$2.25

BID

E
$2.25

QID

The most appropriate choice for the hospital is:

a.Drug A.

b.Drug B.

c. Drug

C. d.

Drug D.

e. Drug E.

91 Which of the following statements is true regarding hypothesis

testing? a. A type I error frequently occurs due to sample sizes being

too small.

b.A type II error is considered to be more serious than a type I error.

c.Small p-values suggest that the null hypothesis is likely to be true.

d.The larger the p-value, the more convincing is the rejection of the null

hypothesis. e. P-value is the probability of wrongly rejecting the null hypothesis

if it is in fact true.

92 JN, a 17 year old male with a highly resistant form of testicular cancer, is in hospital for
treatment. He is an intelligent, articulate young man. His parents are insisting that the physician
treat him with the latest experimental therapy, but JN does not want to undergo the treatment. If
the physician goes ahead and gives the experimental therapy what ethical principle will have been
violated the most?

a. Confidentiality

b. Nonmaleficence

c. Justice

d. Veracity

e.
Autonomy
93 Which financial statement could be used to determine the total value of prescription drug sales
for a pharmacy during the course of a year?

a.Balance sheet

b.Statement of investments

c.Statement of changes in financial

position d. Income statement

e. Statement of equity

94 In an adequately powered, randomized controlled trial conducted over 2 years, the desired
clinical outcome (i.e. prevention of a serious cardiovascular event) with a new drug is achieved in
25% of the study sample. In the patients who receive a placebo, only 15% obtain the same clinical
benefit. The relative risk reduction achieved with the new drug over the study period is:

a.

10%.

b.

15%.

c.

25%.

d.

40%.

e.

50%.

95 In an adequately powered, randomized controlled trial conducted over 3 years, a specific serious
side effect (i.e. reduction in leukocytes) with conventional therapy is seen in 0.5% of the study
sample. In patients who receive a newly discovered drug, only 0.45% experience the same side
effect. Based on these results, the minimum number of patients that would have to receive the new
drug for 3 years to statistically demonstrate the prevention of one episode of this side effect in at
least one patient is:

a. 15.

b. 20.

c. 150.
d. 200.

e. 2000.
96 Following the ethical principle of nonmaleficence requires that

pharmacists: a. respect the rights of patients to make choices.

b. do good to patients, placing the benefit of the patient above all

else. c. avoid, remove or prevent harm from people.

d. act with fairness, allowing people access to pharmacy

care. e. act with honesty, without deception.

97 Type II statistical error in a study comparing 2 drug treatment regimens occurs

when: a. the data shows a difference between 2 treatment regimens but a

difference does not actually exist.

b. the data shows no difference between 2 treatment regimens and a

difference actually does exist.

c. p level is > 0.05.

d. the control drug is not a "gold standard"

treatment. e. the exclusion criteria are too rigid.

98 The standard of universal access to health care in Canada is mandated

by: a. the Canada Health Act.

b. individual provinces and territories.

c. Health Canadas Health Environment and Consumer Safety directorate.

d. Canadian Agency for Drugs and Technologies in Health

e. National Association of Pharmacy Regulatory Authorities.

99 The Canada Health Act (1984) embodies all of the following principles,

EXCEPT: a. affordability.
b. accessibility.

c. comprehensiveness.

d. portability.

e. universality.

100 All of the following responsibilities can be appropriately delegated to a non-pharmacist

manager of a community pharmacy, EXCEPT:

a.doing direct order purchasing on current accounts.

b.contracting for a new computer system for the

dispensary. c. supervision of staff scheduling.

d. supervision of staff time-sheets

e. being the designated manager for narcotics.

Answers to Sample Questions

1. (d)

26. (e)

51. (c)

76. (b)

2. (b)

27. (d)

52. (a)

77. (a)

3. (a)

28. (c)

53. (c)
78. (a)

4. (a)

29. (e)

54. (c)

79. (d)

5. (e)

30. (a)

55. (c)

80. (b)

6. (b)

31. (d)

56. (b)

81. (d)

7. (b)

32. (b)

57. (b)

82. (d)

8. (d)

33. (c)

58. (c)

83. (a)

9. (a)

34. (c)

59. (b)

84. (c)
10. (d)

35. (d)

60. (b)

85. (b)

11. (c)

36. (e)

61. (a)

86. (e)

12. (e)

37. (b)

62. (c)

87. (c)

13. (a)

38. (b)

63. (a)

88. (a)

14. (d)

39. (b)

64. (a)

89. (b)

15. (a)

40. (a)

65. (b)

90. (d)

16. (b)
41. (c)

66. (e)

91. (e)

17. (c)

42. (d)

67. (c)

92. (e)

18. (d)

43. (d)

68. (e)

93. (d)

19. (d)

44. (e)

69. (e)

94. (d)

20. (a)

45. (c)

70. (b)

95. (e)

21. (d)

46. (b)

71. (c)

96. (c)

22. (a)

47. (c)