Most of the official drugs containing bismuth and aluminum are assayed by:

a. 
Direct Compleximetry
b. 
Residual Compleximetry
c. 
Precipitimetry
d. 
Gravimetry
Feedback
Polyvalent metal ions are assayed using compleximetry. Mg, Ca, and Zn are assayed using
direct compleximetry.
The correct answer is: Residual Compleximetry
Question 2
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The most effective chemical substance in removing stains of potassium permanganate
a. 
Oxalic acid
b. 
Sodium thiosulfate
c. 
Sodium hypochlorite
d. 
Ferric chloride
Feedback
Permanganate ion is a strong oxidizing agent while the oxalate ion is a reducing agent.
The correct answer is: Oxalic acid
Question 3
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The following are indicators used for acid-base titrations, EXCEPT:
a. 
Methyl orange
b. 
Phenolphthalein
c. 
Ferric alum
d. 
Methyl red
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The correct answer is: Ferric alum
Question 4
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The iodine value of oils is a quantitative measure of:
a. 
Phenol content
b. 
Saturation
c. 
Unsaponifiable matter
d. 
Unsaturation
Feedback
The iodine value/number is the number of grams of iodine absorbed under specific conditions
by 100g of oil, fat, wax or other substance, this value is a quantitative measure of the proportion
of unsaturated fatty acids present, both free and combines as esters, that have the property of
absorbing iodine
The correct answer is: Unsaturation
Question 5
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Iodometry is an indirect analysis of:
a. 
Oxidizing agents
b. 
Reducing agents
c. 
Acids
d. 
Bases
Feedback
Iodometry is analysis of oxidizing agents, such as ferric and cupric salts reduced with excess KI
and iodine is produced.
The correct answer is: Oxidizing agents
Question 6
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It is the closeness to the true value
a. 
Accuracy
b. 
Precision
c. 
Robustness
d. 
Sensitivity
Feedback
Precision is defined as closeness of two or more actual values.
Robustness or ruggedness is a measure of its capacity to remain unaffected by small, but
deliberate variations.
Sensitivity is the minimum detectable concentration f analyte.

The correct answer is: Accuracy

Question 7
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The theoretical point in which equivalent amount of analyte and titrant have reacted.
a. 
Endpoint
b. 
Equivalence point
c. 
Reaction point
d. 
Indicator
Feedback
Endpoint is the actual or experimental point at which observable changes occur.
The correct answer is: Equivalence point
Question 8
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Which of the following is/are reducing agent/s:
 I. Dichromate
 II. Oxalate
 III. Thiosulfate
 IV. Bromate
a. 
I,II,III
b. 
I,II,III,IV
c. 
II,III
d. 
II,III,IV
Feedback
Oxidizing agents: Dichromate, Bromate, Ceric, Iodine
Reducing agents: Oxalate, Thiosulfate, Arsenite, Titanous

The correct answer is: II,III

Question 9
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Determination of organic nitrogen
a. 
Acetylation
b. 
Bisulfite method
c. 
Kjeldahl method
d. 
Sulfonization
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The correct answer is: Kjeldahl method
Question 10
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The primary standard for standardization of the titrant used in Mohr method
a. 
Silver nitrate
b. 
Sodium chloride
c. 
Ammonium thiocyanate
d. 
Ferric ammonium sulfate
Feedback
  Volhard Mohr Fajan
Type Residual Direct Direct
(Fluorescence)
VS Ammonium  Silver Silver
Thiocyanate Nitrate Nitrate
1° std Silver Sodium -
Nitrate Chloride
Ind Ferric Alum Potassium Dichloro
Chromate fluorescein
Endpt Blood red sol’n Brick red ppt Pink ppt

The correct answer is: Sodium chloride

Question 11
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The crude fiber of a drug usually consists of:
a. 
Cellulose
b. 
Cholesterol
c. 
Stigmasterol
d. 
Starch
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The correct answer is: Cellulose
Question 12
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Volatile oils are complex compounds composed of the following EXCEPT:
a. 
Phenols
b. 
Fatty acids
c. 
Esters
d. 
Aldehydes
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The correct answer is: Fatty acids
Question 13
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In infrared spectrometry, the finger print region is:
a. 
Near IR
b. 
Mid IR
c. 
Far IR
d. 
A and B
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The correct answer is: Mid IR
Question 14
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To find the mEq factor of an oxidizing agent, divide the molecular weight by:
a. 
No. of electrons gained
b. 
No. of electrons lost
c. 
Valence no.
d. 
Atomic no.
Feedback
GEROA: gain electrons undergo reduction is an oxidizing agents
The correct answer is: No. of electrons gained
Question 15
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The type of chromatography where the water in the cellulose of the filter paper is used as
stationary phase:
a. 
Column chromatography
b. 
Gas chromatography
c. 
Paper chromatography
d. 
Thin layer chromatography
Feedback
In paper partition chromatography, the mobile phase, usually an organic solvent, moves slowly
over the stationary phase, usually water, which is held in place by the fibers of filter paper.
The correct answer is: Paper chromatography
Question 16
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Method II of moisture content determination in which toluene is used:
a. 
Karl fischer titration
b. 
Azeotropic distillation method
c. 
Gravimetric method
d. 
Cold extraction method
Feedback
Xylene can be used as substitute to toluene
The correct answer is: Azeotropic distillation method
Question 17
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Classification of cottonseed oil based on iodine value:
a. 
Nondrying
b. 
Semidrying
c. 
Drying
d. 
Undrying
Feedback
Nondrying <100 Olive oil, Almond oil
Semidrying 100-120 Cottonseed oil, Sesame oil
Drying >120 Linseed oil, Cod liver oil

The correct answer is: Semidrying

Question 18
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Type of cuvette used in UV spectrophotometry
a. 
Glass
b. 
Plastic
c. 
Quartz
d. 
Diamond
Feedback
Plastic, Glass - Visible
The correct answer is: Quartz
Question 19
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A functional group capable of absorbing energy
a. 
Pharmacophore
b. 
Active group
c. 
Double bond region
d. 
Chromophore
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The correct answer is: Chromophore
Question 20
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Approximate temperature of dull red heat:
a. 
500 - 550°C
b. 
550 - 700°C
c. 
800 - 1000°C
d. 
1000 - 1200°C
Feedback
Very dull red heat: 500 - 550°C
Dull red heat: 550 - 700°C
Bright red heat: 800 - 1000°C
Yellow red heat: 1000 - 1200°C
White heat: 1200 - 1600°C

The correct answer is: 

550 - 700°C
Question 21
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Beer’s plot in spectrometry is prepared to determine:
a. 
Absorbance of the sample
b. 
Wavelength to be used
c. 
Absorbance of the blank
d. 
Concentration of the sample
Feedback
Beer’s law states that the power of transmitted radiant beam decreases exponentially as the
concentration of the solution containing the absorbing chemical species increases arithmetically.
The correct answer is: Concentration of the sample
Question 22
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The adsorbent in the thin layer chromatography may be as follows, except:
a. 
Alumina
b. 
Silica gel
c. 
Calcium oxide
d. 
Silica gel G
Feedback
Purified siliceous earth, activated alumina, silica gel, and calcium carbonate are examples of
adsorbents used in TLC.
The correct answer is: Calcium oxide
Question 23
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In paper chromatography, the data needed to compute for the Rf value: 
I. Distance traveled by the solute 
II. Distance traveled by the solvent 
III. Distance traveled by the gas 
IV. Distance traveled by blank
a. 
I,II,III,IV
b. 
I,II,IV
c. 
I,II
d. 
I,III,IV
Feedback
Rf = distance of solute/distance of solvent
The correct answer is: I,II
Question 24
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The masking agent used in the assay of Mg with Sodium EDTA in the presence of Al is:
a. 
Triethanolamine
b. 
Thioglycol
c. 
Potassium cyanide
d. 
Ammonium fluoride
Feedback
The correct answer is: Triethanolamine
Question 25
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The indicator used in the compleximetric assay of calcium
a. 
Eriochrome black
b. 
Hydroxynaphthol blue
c. 
Dithizone
d. 
Phenolphthalein
Feedback
The correct answer is: Hydroxynaphthol blue
Question 26
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One-twentieth molar solution of sulfuric acid is:
a. 
0.05 M
b. 
0.1 M
c. 
0.005 M
d. 
0.5 M
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The correct answer is: 0.05 M
Question 27
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The valence number of Mn in KMnO4
a. 
+2
b. 
+1
c. 
+5
d. 
+7
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The correct answer is: +7
Question 28
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Calculate the water content of streptomycin powder weighing 4.20 g as sample. The water
equivalence factor (F) of the Karl Fischer reagent was found to be 5.1 and the volume
consumed was 11.50mL. The % water is:
a. 
1.39
b. 
1.40
c. 
1.41
d. 
13.96
Feedback
%H2O = (vol. of KFR x F)/ wt. of sample (mg) x 100
         = [(11.50 x 5.1) / 4,200 mg] x100
        = 1.40%

The correct answer is: 1.40

Question 29
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The residue after incineration of a drug was 0.1185 g from a sample of 7.0 g. The percentage of
ash is:
a. 
1.69
b. 
2.56
c. 
2.00
d. 
1.55
Feedback
% ash = wt. of residue/wt. of sample x 100
          = 0.1185 g / 7 g x 100

The correct answer is: 1.69

Question 30
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Compute for the iodine value of corn oil 0.2048 g dissolved in 10 mL chloroform and 25 mL
iodobromide TS was added, mixed and allowed to stand for one hour. Thirty ml of KI TS and
100 ml distilled water were added and titrated with 10 ml of 0.1065 N sodium thiosulfate. The
volume of sodium thiosulfate consumed in the blank was 25.7 mL. The mEq of Iodine is equal to
0.1269.
a. 
103.61
b. 
103.16
c. 
101.36
d. 
103.66
Feedback
IV = [N x (Vb – Va) x 0.1269] /wt. of sample x 100
    = [0.1065 x (25.7-10) x 0.1269] / 0.2048g x 100
    = 103.61

The correct answer is: 103.61

Question 31
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Animal used in the assay of insulin:
a. 
Pigeons
b. 
Cats
c. 
Rabbits
d. 
Rats
Feedback
The correct answer is: Rabbits
Question 32
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Document contains the actual results of all tests conducted
a. 
Specifications
b. 
Monograph
c. 
BMR
d. 
Certificate of Analysis
Feedback
The correct answer is: Certificate of Analysis
Question 33
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The type of defect that may endanger life and renders the product useless:
a. 
Ocular
b. 
Minor
c. 
Major
d. 
Critical
Feedback
Major defect does not endanger life but renders the product useless.
Minor defect does not endanger life nor renders the product useless.
Ocular defect can be seen by the naked eye.

The correct answer is: Critical

Question 34
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Bacteria used in the assay of Chloramphenicol
a. 
Staphylococcus aureus
b. 
Micrococcus luteus
c. 
Klebsiella pneumoniae
d. 
Escherichia coli
Feedback
Penicillin G – S. aureus
Bacitracin – M. luteus
Streptomycin – K. pneumoniae

The correct answer is: Escherichia coli

Question 35
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Bacteria used in the assay of cyanocobalamin
a. 
L. plantarum
b. 
L. leichmanii
c. 
S. aureus
d. 
K. pneumoniae
Feedback
L.plantarum – Niacin and Calcium panothenate
The correct answer is: L. leichmanii
Question 36
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Animal used in the assay of oxytocin
a. 
Rat
b. 
Sheep
c. 
Chicken
d. 
Dog
Feedback
Sheep – Heparin
Dog – Parathyroid hormone

The correct answer is: Chicken

Question 37
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Used as a protectant in Type II glass
a. 
Sulfur dioxide
b. 
Boric oxide
c. 
Silica
d. 
Lead
Feedback
The correct answer is: Sulfur dioxide
Question 38
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Animal used for the assay of plastic containers for systemic injection
a. 
Albino mice
b. 
Albino rabbit
c. 
Mice
d. 
Rabbit
Feedback
The correct answer is: Albino mice
Question 39
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Most reliable method for particle size distribution
a. 
Sieve analysis
b. 
Andersen pipette
c. 
Optical microscopy
d. 
Angle of repose
Feedback
The correct answer is: Optical microscopy
Question 40
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Tablet hardness tester with a spring mechanism
a. 
Erweka
b. 
Stokes-Monsanto
c. 
Pfizer
d. 
Strong-Cobb
Feedback
Erweka – suspended weight
Pfizer – pliers
Strong-Cobb – hydraulic pressure/air pump

The correct answer is: Stokes-Monsanto

Question 41
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Hardness of chewable tablets
a. 
4 – 10 kg
b. 
7 – 10 kg
c. 
2 – 3 kg
d. 
1 – 2 kg
Feedback
The correct answer is: 
2 – 3 kg
Question 42
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Dissolution apparatus VI
a. 
Reciprocating cylinder
b. 
Reciprocating holder
c. 
Paddle over disk
d. 
Revolving cylinder
Feedback
I – Basket
II – Paddle
III – Reciprocating cylinder
IV – Flow through cell
V – Paddle over disk
VI – Revolving cylinder
VII – Reciprocating holder

The correct answer is: Revolving cylinder

Question 43
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Color of cobaltous chloride paper with w/o emulsion
a. 
Blue
b. 
Red
c. 
Yellow
d. 
Orange
Feedback
Pink or red if o/w emulsion
The correct answer is: Blue
Question 44
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Climatic zone of the Philippines based on ASEAN
a. 
Type II
b. 
Type IV B
c. 
Type IV A
d. 
Type III
Feedback
Hot and very humid
The correct answer is: Type IV B
Question 45
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Disintegration time for buccal tablets
a. 
30 minutes
b. 
4 hours
c. 
1 hour
d. 
2 – 3 minutes
Feedback
The correct answer is: 4 hours
Question 46
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The operating speed for paddle in a dissolution apparatus is:
a. 
150 RPM
b. 
100 RPM
c. 
200 RPM
d. 
50 RPM
 Feedback
The correct answer is: 50 RPM
Question 47
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The most preferred medium in dissolution testing is:
a. 
Alcohol
b. 
Acetone
c. 
Ether
d. 
Water
Feedback
The correct answer is: Water
Question 48
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To control finished products in the warehouse of a company, the distribution practice is:
a. 
First-in, first-out
b. 
Samples needed
c. 
Ratio and Proportion
d. 
A and B
Feedback
The correct answer is: First-in, first-out
Question 49
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Compute for the angle of repose: height of powder is 5 cm and diameter is 13 cm
a. 
37.57°
b. 
36.57°
c. 
35.75°
d. 
36.00°
Feedback
Angle = tan-1 ht/radius
The correct answer is: 
37.57°
Question 50
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The recommended maximum limit for overage of vitamin is:
a. 
30%
b. 
10%
c. 
90%
d. 
70%
Feedback
The correct answer is: 30%
Question 51
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A _____ is a specific amount produced according to a single manufacturing order during a
single period of production.
a. 
Batch
b. 
Lot
c. 
Component
d. 
None of the above
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The correct answer is: Batch
Question 52
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One batch can be broken into several ________
a. 
Ingredients
b. 
Lots
c. 
Components
d. 
None of the above
Feedback
The correct answer is: Lots
Question 53
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A date limiting the time during which a preparation may be expected to have retained its labeled
potency.
a. 
Shelf life
b. 
Manufacturing date
c. 
Expiry date
d. 
Half-life
Feedback
The correct answer is: Expiry date
Question 54
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_________ is comparing of attributes and dimensions of a product against a standard to find out
if the product is within the prescribed limit.
a. 
Sampling
b. 
Inspection
c. 
Analysis
d. 
Action
Feedback
The correct answer is: Inspection
Question 55
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Region/s in an electromagnetic spectrum:
a. 
Visible
b. 
Infrared
c. 
Ultraviolet
d. 
All of the above
Feedback
The correct answer is: All of the above
Question 56
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Classification of recall that may cause death or any serious adverse health consequences
a. 
Class I
b. 
Class II
c. 
Class III
d. 
Class IV
Feedback
Class II – may cause temporary or medically reversible adverse health consequences
Class III – does not likely cause serious adverse health consequences

The correct answer is: Class I

Question 57
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Apparatus used to measure tablet thickness
a. 
Schleuniger
b. 
Vernier caliper
c. 
Chilsonator
d. 
Abbe instrument
Feedback
The correct answer is: Vernier caliper
Question 58
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Koettsdorfer number is also known as:
a. 
Acid value
b. 
Saponification value
c. 
Ester value
d. 
Iodine value
Feedback
The correct answer is: Saponification value
Question 59
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The standard substance used in checking the cleanliness of Abbe refractometer by determining
its refractive index:
a. 
Rose oil
b. 
Water
c. 
Methanol
d. 
Peanut oil
Feedback
Water is used as standard with refractive index of 1.333 at 20°C and 1.3325 at 25°C.
The correct answer is: Water
Question 60
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The minimum time period covered by the data for long term stability studies
a. 
6 months
b. 
12 months
c. 
18 months
d. 
None of the above
Feedback
6 months for Accelerated Stability Studies
The correct answer is: 12 months
Question 61
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A tablet friability apparatus also test the friability of this dosage form
a. 
Soft gelatin capsule
b. 
Hard gelatin capsule
c. 
Liquid fill capsule
d. 
None of the above
Feedback
A tablet friability apparatus is only applicable to tablets.
The correct answer is: None of the above
Question 62
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A calibrated volumetric apparatus was calibrated using standards traceable to
a. 
ASTM
b. 
ATCC
c. 
NIST
d. 
None of the above
Feedback
The capacity tolerances for volumetric flasks, transfer pipets, and burets are those accepted by
the National Institute of Standards and Technology.
The correct answer is: NIST
Question 63
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The dye used in the leaker test
a. 
Methylene blue
b. 
Thymol blue
c. 
Phenolphthalein
d. 
Methyl red
Feedback
The correct answer is: Methylene blue
Question 64
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Potency of a 100 mg tablet at expiry date
a. 
95 mg
b. 
90 mg
c. 
105 mg
d. 
110 mg
Feedback
The correct answer is: 90 mg
Question 65
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Orthophenantroline TS is used as indicator in
a. 
Permanganometry
b. 
Cerimetry
c. 
Iodometry
d. 
Iodimetry
Feedback
The correct answer is: Cerimetry
Question 66
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A diagnostic category which classifies a particular illness, symptoms or pathological
components of the illness
a. 
Disease
b. 
Illness
c. 
Health
d. 
None of the above
Feedback
Illness is a highly personal stage wherein he feels unwell
The correct answer is: Disease
Question 67
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Components of epidemiologic triangle include the following, except
a. 
Host
b. 
Agent
c. 
Environment
d. 
None of the above
Feedback
Epidemiologic triangle - a change in one of the components causes change in the other. Its
components are the host, agent, and environment.
The correct answer is: None of the above
Question 68
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Up and down fever but the temperature reaches normal range
a. 
Continuous
b. 
Intermittent
c. 
Remittent
d. 
Fatal
Feedback
in malaria, continuous - dengue
Remittent(typhoid) is an up and down fever but temperature won't be reaching normal range

The correct answer is: Intermittent

Question 69
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Stage of a infectious disease wherein the symptoms subside
a. 
Incubation
b. 
decline period
c. 
Peak
d. 
Convalescence
Feedback
The correct answer is: decline period
Question 70
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Disability limitation and rehabilitation are examples of what level of prevention
a. 
Primordial
b. 
Primary
c. 
Secondary
d. 
Tertiary
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The correct answer is: Tertiary
Question 71
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The primary stain in gram staining
a. 
Methylene blue
b. 
Safranin
c. 
Carbolfuschin
d. 
Crystal violet
Feedback
Iodine - mordant
Ethanol - decolorizer
Safranin - counterstain

The correct answer is: Crystal violet

Question 72
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The following are encapsulated bacteria, except
a. 
Streptococcus pneumoniae
b. 
Haemophilia influenzae
c. 
Klebsiella pneumoniae
d. 
None of the above
Feedback
The correct answer is: None of the above
Question 73
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Presence of flagella all over the cell
a. 
Peritrichous
b. 
Lophotrichous
c. 
Monotrichous
d. 
Amphitrichous
Feedback
Lophotrichous - presence of tuft/bulk of flagella atbone end
Amphitrichous - single, polar flagella at both ends
Monotrichous - presence of single, polar flagellum at one end

The correct answer is: Peritrichous

Question 74
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The following are spirochetes, except:
a. 
Treponema pallidum
b. 
Leptospira interrogans
c. 
Borrelia recurrentis
d. 
None of the above
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The correct answer is: None of the above
Question 75
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Primary stain for capsule staining
a. 
Crystal violet
b. 
Methylene blue
c. 
Malachite green
d. 
Methyl red
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Capsules are usually demonstrated by the negative staining procedure or a modification of it
(see Figure 2-23). One such “capsule stain” (Welch method) involves treatment with hot crystal
violet solution followed by a rinsing with copper sulfate solution.

The correct answer is: Crystal violet

Question 76
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Differential media that subdivides staphylococci based on color reaction
a. 
Eosin methylene blue
b. 
MacConkey Agar
c. 
Blood agar plate
d. 
Mannitol salt agar
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EMB and MCA are for Enterobacteriaceae
Blood agar plate is for streptococci

The correct answer is: Mannitol salt agar

Question 77
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Bacterial gene transfer using bacteriophage
a. 
Transformation
b. 
Transduction
c. 
Transposition
d. 
Conjugation
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Transformation - bacterial gene transfer using naked DNA
Transposition - bacterial gene transfer using jumping genes
Conjugation - bacterial gene transfer using sex pili

The correct answer is: Transduction

Question 78
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Catalase (+), coagulase (+)
a. 
Staphylococcus aureus
b. 
Staphylococcus epidermis
c. 
Streptococcus pneumoniae
d. 
Streptococcus pyogenes
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The correct answer is: Staphylococcus aureus
Question 79
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Gram positive rods with tumbling motility
a. 
Corynebacterium diphtheriae
b. 
Listeria monocytogenes
c. 
Bacillus cereus
d. 
Clostridium botulinum
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The correct answer is: Listeria monocytogenes
Question 80
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Associated with ingestion of contaminated honey
a. 
C. botulinum
b. 
C. tetanus
c. 
C. difficile
d. 
C. perfringens
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The correct answer is: C. botulinum
Question 81
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Rod-shaped bacteria curved to form commas are known as
a. 
Bacilli
b. 
Cocci
c. 
Spiral
d. 
Vibrios
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The correct answer is: Vibrios
Question 82
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Dengue virus vector
a. 
Plasmodium falciparum
b. 
Aedes aegypti
c. 
Anopheles mosquito
d. 
None of the above
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Dengue virus is transmitted by the mosquito Aedes aegypti. Plasmodium falciparum is a
causative agent of malaria. Anopheles mosquito is a vector for malaria.
The correct answer is: Aedes aegypti
Question 83
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An object that is able to harbor and transmit microorganisms
a. 
Mite
b. 
Fomite
c. 
Arthropod
d. 
Vector
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The correct answer is: Fomite
Question 84
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The first chemotherapeutic agent scientifically discovered and evaluated
a. 
Sulfonamide
b. 
Penicillin
c. 
Salvarsan
d. 
None of the above
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Paul Ehrlich fired the first shot in chemotherapy revolution. He discovered a chemotherapeutic
agent called Salvarsan, an arsenic derivative effective against syphilis.
The correct answer is: Salvarsan
Question 85
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Ribosomes of Candida albicans are referred to as:
a. 
70s
b. 
80s
c. 
90s
d. 
100s
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Fungi are eukaryotic organisms. Eukaryotes have 80s ribosomes, each consisting large 60s
subunit and a smaller 40s subunit.
The correct answer is: 80s
Question 86
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It causes ringworm infection with whitish patches on human skin
a. 
Tinea capitis
b. 
Tinea corporis
c. 
Trichophyton rubrum
d. 
Malassezia furfur
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Pityriasis versicolor, also known as tinea versicolor is a chronic superficial fungal infection that
manifests as hypo and hyperpigmented areas in the skin.
The correct answer is: Malassezia furfur
Question 87
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A process by which bacterial endospore returns to its vegetative state
a. 
Polymorphism
b. 
Mutagenicity
c. 
Germination
d. 
Sporulation
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Sporulation is the process of endospore formation thin a parent or vegetative cell that takes
several hours.
The correct answer is: Germination
Question 88
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Opportunistic mycosis found in pigeon droppings
a. 
Coccidioides immitis
b. 
Histoplasma capsulatum
c. 
Aspergillus fumigatus
d. 
Cryptococcus neoformans
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The correct answer is: Cryptococcus neoformans
Question 89
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Drug of choice for aspergillosis
a. 
Fluconazole
b. 
Cotrimoxazole
c. 
Voriconazole
d. 
Posaconazole
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The correct answer is: Voriconazole
Question 90
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Effective given orally in microsporum-induced disease of hair
a. 
Metronidazole
b. 
Griseofulvin
c. 
Nystatin
d. 
Polymixin
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It binds specifically to newly-formed keratin and is active in vivo against fungal dermatophytes.
The correct answer is: Griseofulvin
Question 91
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The first drug available for HIV
a. 
AZT
b. 
RMP
c. 
TMP
d. 
CMC
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Zidovudine was formerly called azidothymidine (AZT).
The correct answer is: AZT
Question 92
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It is implicated as the cause of carcinoma of the cervix
a. 
Hepatitis C virus
b. 
Cytomegalovirus
c. 
Human papilloma virus
d. 
Dengue virus
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The correct answer is: Human papilloma virus
Question 93
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Herpes simplex virus
a. 
DNA enveloped virus
b. 
DNA non-enveloped virus
c. 
RNA enveloped virus
d. 
RNA non-enveloped virus
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The correct answer is: DNA enveloped virus
Question 94
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Rotavirus
a. 
DNA enveloped virus
b. 
DNA non-enveloped virus
c. 
RNA enveloped virus
d. 
RNA non-enveloped virus
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The correct answer is: RNA non-enveloped virus
Question 95
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German measles virus is a member of which viral family
a. 
Herpes
b. 
Pox virus
c. 
Togavirus
d. 
Orthomyxovirus
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Rubella is a member of Togaviridae family.
The correct answer is: Togavirus
Question 96
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The first intestinal microorganism to be observed under a microscope
a. 
Entamoeba hystolytica
b. 
Trichuris trichuria
c. 
Giardia lamblia
d. 
Ascaris lumbricoides
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It was observed by Anton Von Leeuwenhoek in 1681 under the microscope
The correct answer is: Giardia lamblia
Question 97
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Radical cure for malaria
a. 
Primaquine
b. 
Chloroquine
c. 
Mefloquine
d. 
Doxycycline
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The correct answer is: Primaquine
Question 98
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This is the drug of choice for all forms of Leishmaniasis
a. 
Primaquine
b. 
Stibogluconate
c. 
Pentamidine
d. 
Suramin
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The pentavalent antimonial Stibogluconate is the DOC for Leishmaniasis
The correct answer is: Stibogluconate
Question 99
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This is the smallest tapeworm that infects humans
a. 
Taenia solium
b. 
Taenia saginata
c. 
Hymenolepis nana
d. 
Echinococcus granulosus
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It is also known as dwarf tapeworm.
The correct answer is: Hymenolepis nana
Question 100
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This is the organism causing River blindness
a. 
Ascaris lumbricoides
b. 
Trichinella spiralis
c. 
Capillaria philippinensis
d. 
Onchocerca volvulus
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The correct answer is: Onchocerca volvulus