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LRN January 2020 Level B2 Past Paper

This document provides instructions for the Level 1 Certificate in ESOL International (CEF B2) Listening and Writing exam. [The exam consists of] a 30-minute listening section with 3 parts and a 2-hour writing section with 2 tasks. The listening section will be played twice and section 3 will be played a third time for note-taking purposes. For the writing section, candidates must complete 2 tasks in 120-170 words each drawing from provided points. The instructions emphasize answering all questions, using the provided materials, and completing the exam independently within the time limits.

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Chris Alam
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50% found this document useful (2 votes)
1K views18 pages

LRN January 2020 Level B2 Past Paper

This document provides instructions for the Level 1 Certificate in ESOL International (CEF B2) Listening and Writing exam. [The exam consists of] a 30-minute listening section with 3 parts and a 2-hour writing section with 2 tasks. The listening section will be played twice and section 3 will be played a third time for note-taking purposes. For the writing section, candidates must complete 2 tasks in 120-170 words each drawing from provided points. The instructions emphasize answering all questions, using the provided materials, and completing the exam independently within the time limits.

Uploaded by

Chris Alam
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
You are on page 1/ 18

LRN LEVEL 1 CERTIFICATE IN ESOL

INTERNATIONAL (CEF B2)

DURATION:
LEVEL B2 LISTENING 30 MINUTES
LISTENING
WRITING
WRITING 2 HOURS
READING
READING AND USE
AND USE
EXAM PAPER – JANUARY 2020

INSTRUCTIONS:

• Do not open this paper until you are told to do so.


• Read the instructions before answering the questions.
• You will hear Section 1, Section 2 and Section 3 of the Listening TWICE.
• You will hear Section 3 of the Listening AGAIN in Writing, Section 1.
• Answer all the questions.
• Mark your answers on the separate Answer Sheet in pencil.
• Use an HB2 pencil.
• Complete TWO Tasks in the Writing Section.
• Write your Tasks in the Writing Booklet in pencil.
• You must ask any questions now as you cannot speak during the Test.

Page 1
LISTENING SECTION 1 CEF B2

Listen to 9 short conversations. For questions 1-9, choose the best answer (A, B or C).
You will hear each conversation TWICE. You now have 2 minutes to read the questions.
Mark your answers on the separate Answer Sheet.

Plans for Valentine’s Day On safari


1. One reason Jennie recommends The 5. From what you hear, you understand that
Piano Bar to Tom is because A. Karen now regrets going on the trip.
A. his wife enjoyed the food last time B. Mark believes there is an animal
they were there. outside the tent.
B. it is the restaurant his wife likes C. the camp Mark and Karen are in has
best. no security.
C. Tom and his wife can dance to music Moving to the country
they choose.
6. What is FALSE according to what you
A cookbook hear?
2. What is TRUE according to what you A. Amanda was not financially
hear? successful as a lawyer.
A. Chris advises Mary to make some B. Peter seems surprised at Amanda’s
changes to her book. decision.
B. Mary’s recipes require expensive C. Amanda decided to make a major
ingredients. career change.
C. Beginner cooks will not be able to
Keeping a diary
use Mary’s book.
7. It seems that Thomas
Getting a taxi
A. is an adult who keeps a diary.
3. What does John suggest Chloe should B. kept a diary when he was a teenager.
do? C. feels uncomfortable about keeping a
A. avoid using a credit card to pay for a diary.
taxi
Car repairs
B. take a cab from the company he
uses 8. David is sure that
C. find a minicab on the High Street A. the car will be repaired soon.
B. the car mechanic can be trusted.
Horoscopes
C. the car repairs will cost more than
4. Kevin sounds certain that expected.
A. our lives are under the influence of
Mobile phone password
the planets.
B. planets cannot affect the weather on 9. Kate does not have a mobile phone
earth. password because she
C. horoscopes should not be trusted. A. does not know how to create one.
B. does not keep personal information
on her phone.
C. does not know that mobile phones
are often stolen.

Page 2
LISTENING SECTION 2 CEF B2

Listen to 3 longer conversations. For questions 10-15, choose the best answer
(A, B or C). You will hear each conversation TWICE. You now have 1 minute
to read the questions.
Mark your answers on the separate Answer Sheet.

A lost dog
10. Millie tells Leo that she
A. doesn’t know who the owner of the dog is.
B. has seen the dog several times before.
C. found a tag with the dog’s name on.

11. What do Millie and Leo seem to agree on?


A. It would be good for Millie to have a dog.
B. Someone left the dog on the street.
C. Leo should take the dog to the animal shelter.

Dinner out
12. What is TRUE according to what you hear?
A. Jean is annoyed with Anthony for arriving late.
B. Anthony doesn’t have a good excuse for being late.
C. Anthony and Jean’s table has not been prepared yet.

13. What is FALSE according to what you hear?


A. Jean and Anthony have a table reservation.
B. Anthony and Jean will have a coffee at the bar.
C. Anthony will probably order chicken soup.

Trouble with a colleague


14. Irene is angry because her colleague
A. refused to talk to her when she entered the office.
B. was gossiping about her with a new employee.
C. interrupted her while she was busy working.

15. Daniel suggests that Irene should


A. ignore her colleague’s behaviour.
B. start gossiping about her colleague.
C. talk with her colleague.

Page 3
LISTENING SECTION 3 CEF B2

Listen to Brian’s message for his friend, Steve. For questions 16-20, choose the best
answer (A, B or C). You will hear the message TWICE. You now have 1 minute to look
at the questions.
Mark your answers on the separate Answer Sheet.

16. Why was Brian disappointed at first?


A. He had to get up at 6 in the morning.
B. Steve did not join him on the trip.
C. There was a lot of rain.

17. How did Brian feel when they arrived at the forest?
A. He was pleased because the ground was dry.
B. He was unhappy because it was still raining.
C. He was too tired to look for tree branches.

18. What is TRUE about the scouts according to what you hear?
A. They prepared breakfast at the campsite.
B. The second survival skill was to build a fire.
C. They had breakfast inside their survival shelters.

19. What was the third survival activity the scouts did?
A. learning how to cook over a fire
B. looking for water in the forest
C. searching the forest for food

20. What is FALSE according to what you hear?


A. The weekend trip was fun for all the scouts.
B. There will be another scout trip soon.
C. The scouts did a lot of activities on Sunday morning.

Now, open your Writing Booklet, turn to Writing, Section 1, Task 1 and listen to the
instructions. You have 1 minute to open your Writing Booklet.

Page 4
WRITING SECTION 1 CEF B2

Task 1

Listen to Brian’s message for his friend, Steve again. USE the space provided in the
Writing Booklet to take notes. You need to use the information from the recording and
the notes you have taken to write an email to a friend of yours telling him/her about the
survival weekend your Scout group organised in a forest. In your email, talk about the
activities which your Scout group participated in during the survival weekend.

Write your email in the Writing Booklet, Task 1.

Your notes will not be marked.

Take notes for the following information


or for anything else you wish.

On Saturday morning Write your notes in


going to the camp the Writing Booklet
dividing into groups

first survival activity

having breakfast

second survival activity

On Saturday afternoon

having lunch

third survival activity

activities after returning to the camp

On Sunday morning

changing plans

returning home

Page 5
WRITING SECTION 1 CEF B2

You must do Task 1.

Write your email in the space provided in the Writing Booklet. You need to use the
notes you have taken. You may add any other relevant information you wish.

Write your email in 100-120 words.

Write an email to a friend of yours telling him/her about the survival


weekend your Scout Group organised in a forest.
In your email, talk about the activities which your Scout Group participated
in during the survival weekend.

Page 6
WRITING SECTION 2 CEF B2

Choose ONE of the following Writing Tasks. USE the points given below each Task.
You may add your own points if you wish.
Write your Task in the space provided in the Writing Booklet in 120-170 words.

Task 2
Write an email to a friend of yours telling him/her about a dream you had last
night.

In your letter, you must mention


• who was in your dream
• where the dream took place
• what happened in your dream
• how the dream made you feel

OR

Task 3
Write a story that begins:

‘When I looked out of my bedroom window, I saw my best friend running


towards my house.’
Continue the story.

OR

Task 4
Write an essay about the advantages of eating at home and the advantages
of eating out at a restaurant.
In your essay, you should talk about the

advantages of eating at home advantages of eating at a restaurant


• use healthy ingredients • choose from a variety of dishes
• save money • avoid cooking and cleaning
• feel more comfortable • eat in a pleasant environment
• learn how to cook • meet people

Page 7
READING AND USE SECTION 1 CEF B2

Read the text below about The Winter Olympics and then answer the questions that follow.
For questions 1-8, choose the best answer (A, B or C).
Mark your answers on the separate Answer Sheet.

The Winter Olympics


It is a fact that the Summer Olympics are more popular than the Winter Olympics as they
host a greater number of different events with more famous athletes from more than 200
countries. The competitions in the Winter Olympics, on the other hand, are only on snow
and ice and as a result, countries that have no real winter, such as those found in tropical
climates, do not participate in them. _______, there are not many famous athletes that
take part in the Winter Olympic Games and so fewer spectators are interested in watching
the Games.
The Winter Olympics may not receive much media coverage, but like the Summer
Olympics, it is still a major international sporting event, promoting the ideas of fair play
and the value of sport. Some argue that the Winter Olympics has its roots back in the
Nordic Games, which were first introduced in 1901, just five years after the birth of the
modern Summer Olympics in 1896. The Nordic Games were held in Sweden once every
four years and the only athletes that participated were from Scandinavian countries. The
Nordic Games included some non-winter sports such as car racing and hunting, but the
main sports were snow and ice related ones, such as ski jumping, cross-country skiing,
speed skating and ice hockey.
On January 25, 1924, the International Olympic Committee, or IOC, organised the first
Winter Olympic Sports in the city of Chamonix in the French Alps. This twelve-day event,
which was originally called the ‘International Week of Winter Sports’, thrilled the 10,000
spectators who came from many different countries to watch it. For the opening ceremony
of the event, 258 amateur athletes, only 11 of whom were women, marched from the
City Hall of Chamonix to the Olympic outdoor ice-skating rink where a band played the
national anthems of the 16 countries participating in the event. The ‘International Week of
Winter Sports’ was so successful that the IOC officially named the Chamonix event the first
‘Winter Olympic Games’ and decided to hold them every four years. However, that decision
upset the Scandinavian countries because they feared that the Nordic Games would lose
popularity and finally stop, which was what actually happened in 1926.
Since 1925, the Winter Olympic Games have been hosted by twelve different countries.
For the most recent Winter Olympics in 2018, the Olympic torch was lit as usual in ancient
Olympia in Greece and travelled more than 100 days to reach South Korea. There, Norway,
one of the 92 countries competing in freezing temperatures, set a new record for the most
medals won by a country at a single Winter Olympics, taking home 14 gold, 14 silver and
11 bronze medals.

Page 8
READING AND USE SECTION 1 CEF B2

1. The Winter Olympics enjoy less popularity than the Summer Olympics because
A. only 200 countries take part in them.
B. no famous athletes compete in them.
C. they include a limited range of sports.

2. Which of the following options can fill the blank in the 1st paragraph?
A. At that time
B. In addition
C. Despite

3. What is TRUE according to the 2nd paragraph?


A. There is no media coverage of the Winter Olympics.
B. Both the Summer and Winter Olympics support fair play.
C. The 1901 Summer Olympics led to the idea for the Nordic Games.

4. It seems that the Nordic Games


A. allowed only sports played on ice or snow.
B. took place in Sweden every four years.
C. attracted many non-Scandinavian participants.

5. From what you read in the 3rd paragraph, you understand that the first ‘International
Week of Winter Sports’
A. impressed the spectators.
B. was set up by French athletes.
C. did not include women athletes.

6. Which of the following can best replace the word ‘marched’ in the 3rd paragraph?
A. compared
B. participated
C. paraded

7. What did the 1924 Chamonix event result in?


A. the birth of the Winter Olympics
B. the Nordic Games growing in popularity
C. a sports competition which takes place every year

8. What is FALSE according to the last paragraph?


A. South Korea hosted the 2018 Winter Olympic Games.
B. The 2018 Winter Olympics took place in pleasant weather.
C. Norway was the most successful nation at the 2018 Winter Olympics.

Page 9
READING AND USE SECTION 2 CEF B2

Read the following two passages about Breakdancing and Crazy Legs, a famous
breakdancer. For questions, 9-15, choose the best answer (A, B or C).
Mark your answers on the separate Answer Sheet.

Breakdancing and Crazy Legs, a famous breakdancer

Breakdancing
Breakdancing first appeared in the early 9. What is TRUE about breakdancing
1970s in an area of New York known as the according to the 1st paragraph?
Bronx. It began as a street dance with A. It has always included difficult
simple body movements. However, since moves.
early breakdancers were very fond of kung- B. It was first shown in kung-fu
fu movies, they imitated the martial arts
movies.
moves they saw in those movies and
C. It borrowed some moves from
brought them into the dance, making it
martial arts.
more and more complex and athletic. The
earliest breakdancing groups consisted 10. In the beginning, breakdancing groups
mainly of young men who competed over
A. could be seen in many parts of New
their dancing skills in the streets of the
York.
Bronx. When breakdancing was first
introduced, it was not accepted by society. B. attracted mainly male dancers.
However, it did not take very long for it to C. were respected by society in
become known beyond the borders of New general.
York.
11. From what you read in the 2nd
In 1983, Michael Jackson amazed viewers paragraph, you understand that
with his moonwalk in the video for his hit
A. Michael Jackson invented the backstep
song Billie Jean. The moonwalk was a
move in the 1980s.
backstep dance move in which Jackson
B. breakdancers adopted the backstep
moved backwards while he seemed to be
move in the 1970s.
walking forwards. However, it was not
C. the moonwalk and the backstep are
Michael Jackson who came up with the
move. It was Cab Calloway, a famous very different dance moves.
American jazz performer in the 1930s who
12. Which of the following can best replace
actually first did the backstep move at one
the word ‘craze’ in the 2nd paragraph?
of his concerts. Then, in the 70s, break
dancers added the backstep move to their A. creation
dance routines. However, it was Jackson’s B. trend
moonwalk in 1983 that made the backstep C. reality
move a craze and helped make
breakdancing popular worldwide.

Page 10
READING AND USE SECTION 2 CEF B2

13. What is TRUE according to the 1st


Crazy Legs, a famous breakdancer
paragraph?
Crazy Legs, whose real name is Richard
A. Crazy Legs first learnt breakdancing
Colon, was a famous breakdancer in the
at the age of 13.
Bronx in the early 1980s. In 1975, at the age
B. The original Rock Steady Crew
of 9, he was taught breakdancing by his
danced in the Bronx.
elder brother and at the age of 13, he joined
C. Crazy Legs has lived in Manhattan all
the well-known Bronx breakdancing group,
his life.
The Rock Steady Crew. In 1979, Crazy Legs
left the Bronx and moved to Manhattan. As 14. What is FALSE according to the 2nd
it was expensive for him to return to the paragraph?
Bronx every weekend to dance with his A. Crazy Legs helped make
group, in 1981, he was given permission by breakdancing popular worldwide.
the founders of the group to start his own B. The Rock Steady Crew’s first tour of
Rock Steady Crew in Manhattan. Europe was successful.
By the early 1980s, breakdancing had C. Crazy Legs is no longer involved with
started losing its popularity. However, the breakdancing.
much publicised performances by Crazy
Legs and his Manhattan Rock Steady Crew 15. What does the word ‘ambitions’ in the
not only prevented the death of 2nd paragraph mean?
breakdancing in New York, but they also A. goals
made it popular worldwide. After the B. studies
attention the group received for their C. problems
performance at the Lincoln Centre in New
York in August 1981, the group appeared in
many places outside New York. In 1983,
Crazy Legs and his group went on their first
tour of Europe and its success led them to
tour many other countries. Today, Crazy
Legs often judges dance competitions and
helps young breakdancers fulfil their
ambitions.

Page 11
READING AND USE SECTION 3 CEF B2

For questions 16-30, choose the best answer (A, B or C).


Mark your answers on the separate Answer Sheet.

16. When ......... the old bridge built?


A. would
B. did
C. was

17. Reading books is one of the ......... effective ways to improve writing skills.
A. much
B. most
C. very

18. She asked her classmates if they ......... in a tree planting project the following
weekend.
A. can participate
B. are participating
C. would participate

19. ......... people are often more successful in life.


A. Organising
B. Organised
C. Organiser

20. Due to strong winds, it was difficult for the firefighters ......... out the forest fire.
A. for putting
B. putting
C. to put

21. The personal information we post on social networks ......... in ways we do not intend.
A. often were used
B. may use often
C. is often used

22. If I can afford to buy a new car, I’ll get ......... that is more environmentally-friendly.
A. other
B. one
C. some

Page 12
READING AND USE SECTION 3 CEF B2

23. Some people say that ......... a person has a university degree, they won’t get a good
job.
A. unless
B. as soon as
C. as if

24. It was ......... day that the school trip to the zoo was cancelled.
A. a so cold
B. such a cold
C. too cold

25. As they climbed higher, ......... and windier.


A. it got colder
B. much cold had it
C. as cold as it

26. The police say that the bank robbers must ......... the country last night.
A. left
B. had left
C. have left

27. George can’t help his sister with her homework tonight as he ......... an old friend.
A. visits
B. is visiting
C. will be visited

28. Their gym teacher ......... them run around the school playground two times.
A. asked
B. told
C. made

29. I woke up with a stomach-ache yesterday morning. I am sure it was because of


something bad I ......... at the party the night before.
A. was eaten
B. had eaten
C. have eaten

30. Surprisingly, he did ......... on the exams than he had expected.


A. all the best
B. much better
C. much too well

Page 13
READING AND USE SECTION 4 CEF B2

For questions 31-40, choose the best answer (A, B or C) to fill in the gaps.
Mark your answers on the separate Answer Sheet.

The Electric Car

Contrary to (31) ......... most of us think, the electric car is not a modern invention. In
fact, in 1839, a vehicle was (32) ......... by Robert Anderson, a Scottish engineer, which
ran on a non-rechargeable battery. Anderson’s idea inspired other inventors to build
electric cars that (33) ......... be more practical. One of them was Thomas Parker, an
English electrical engineer and inventor. Parker was worried (34) ......... the pollution
caused by industry, so in 1884, he designed an electric car which (35) .........
a rechargeable battery. Parker’s electric car soon (36) ......... popular in many European
countries and in the United States. In fact, in the early 20th century, there were as many
as 12 car manufacturers making electric cars in the US, many of (37) ......... were used
as taxis in cities, where distances were short. (38) ......... the popularity of the electric
car, Henry Ford’s gasoline-powered Model T car soon attracted more public interest for
two basic reasons: (39) ......... cost less and could travel longer distances at greater
speeds. Recently, however, concerns over pollution and the high price of petrol
(40) ......... renewed interest in developing modern electric cars.

31. A. it B. what C. that

32. A. inventing B. to invent C. invented

33. A. shall B. ought C. could

34. A. about B. at C. in

35. A. was used B. used C. had used

36. A. became B. remained C. gained

37. A. they B. each C. which

38. A. Additionally B. Despite C. Instead

39. A. the B. some C. it

40. A. creates B. have created C. creating

Page 14
LRN LEVEL 1 CERTIFICATE IN ESOL
INTERNATIONAL (CEF B2)

LEVEL B2
SPEAKING
Duration: 14 to 16 minutes

EXAMINER’S INSTRUCTIONS
Speaking Exam Paper January 2020

Page 1
SPEAKING SECTION 1 CEF B2

Warm up Stage

Duration: 3 minutes

Examiner: Good morning / Good afternoon. My name is ………………

To Candidate A: What’s your name?

Where are you from?

To Candidate B: What’s your name?

Where are you from?

Examiner: In this part of the Test, I would like to ask you some questions about
yourselves.

The Examiner asks each Candidate one or more questions about the following topics.

• hobbies
• free time activities
• school
• hometown or neighbourhood
• future plans

No questions about their families are allowed.

Page 2
SPEAKING SECTION 2 CEF B2

Prepared Topics – Individual Talks and Interaction

Duration: 6 to 7 minutes

Examiner: In this part of the Test, each of you is going to talk for 1 minute about the topic
you have already prepared for. After you have finished your talk, I will ask you
some questions about what you have presented and then your partner can express
his/her point of view on the same topic.

The Examiner shows each Candidate the list of topics and asks them which one
they have prepared to talk about.

List of prepared topics:


1. How can we stay active in our free time?
2. Have your childhood friendships changed? Why? Why not?
3. Can teachers change the lives of their students? Why? Why not?
4. What does your community do to help the elderly?
5. What can be done to reduce traffic in a city?
6.

Examiner to Candidate A: Which topic are you going to talk about?

Candidate A can speak for 1 minute

The Examiner asks Candidate A a question on what he/she has said.

Examiner to Candidate B: What do you think of this? or Do you agree or disagree


with your partner?

The Examiner asks both Candidates a question and prompts them to engage in a
conversation.
Interaction: 2-2.5 minutes

Examiner to Candidate B: Which topic are you going to talk about?

Candidate B can speak for 1 minute

The Examiner asks Candidate B a question on what he/she has said.

Examiner to Candidate A: What do you think of this? or Do you agree or disagree


with your partner?

The Examiner asks both Candidates a question and prompts them to engage in a
conversation.
Interaction: 2-2.5 minutes

Page 3
SPEAKING SECTION 3 CEF B2

Respond to a Question and Interaction


Duration: 5 to 6 minutes

Examiner: In this part of the Test, I will ask each of you to respond to a question.
You may use the ideas given below the question and/or use your own
ideas to answer the question. Your partner will be asked to comment
on what you have said and express his/her point of view as well.

The Examiner must choose a question related to what each Candidate talked about
in Section 2 of the Test.
The Examiner tells each Candidate to look at the chosen question and the points
below it. When the Candidate has finished talking about the question, the Examiner
asks the other Candidate to comment and express his/her point of view.

1. Every city should have public sports centres.


• bring people together
• keep people physically active
• promote a healthy lifestyle
2. A lack of good friends can cause us serious problems.
• feel lonely and depressed
• develop unhealthy habits
• hang out with the wrong people
3. Teachers should encourage their students.
• make them feel proud
• motivate them to study more
• create a friendlier class environment
4. The elderly may feel happier in the countryside.
• more peaceful environment to live in
• easier to ask for help
• closer to nature
5. Too much traffic in the city causes serious problems.
• creates air and noise pollution
• leads to long traffic delays
• causes stress and anger

Examiner: Thank you. This is the end of the Test.

Page 4

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