Scientific advances in the latter half of the twentieth century have allowed researchers to study the chemical

activities taking place in the human brain during the sleep cycle in more detail. In the 1970s, Jacobs employed
these advances to postulate that dreams and hallucinations share a common neurochemical mechanism with
respect to the neurotransmitters serotonin and norepinephrine that accounts for the observable similarities
between the two states of mind. To test the theory, researchers attempted to elucidate the role of these
transmitters in the normal sleep cycle and the effect of hallucinogenic drugs on them.
Although scientists still have much to discover about the chemical complexities of the brain, serotonin appears
important for managing sleep, mood, and appetite, among other important functions, while neurons release
norepinephrine to facilitate alertness and mental focus. Both are discharged in high quantities only during
waking states. At the onset of sleep, the activity levels of neurons that release both the neurotransmitters drop,
allowing the brain first to enter the four non-rapid eye movement (Non-REM) stages of sleep. When the brain is
ready to enter the fifth stage, REM, which is associated with dreaming, the levels of these two chemicals drop
virtually to zero. The Jacobs hypothesis held that the absence of norepinephrine was required to enable the brain
to remain asleep, while the absence of serotonin was necessary to allow dreaming to occur.
Lysergic acid diethylamide, or LSD, is a semi-synthetic psychedelic drug which causes significant alteration of
the senses, memories and awareness; at doses higher than 20 micrograms, it can have a hallucinogenic effect.
LSD mimics serotonin well enough to be able to bind at most of the neurotransmitter’s receptor sites, largely
inhibiting normal transmission. In addition, the drug causes the locus ceruleus, a cluster of neurons containing
norepinephrine, to greatly accelerate activity. If the drug stimulates norepinephrine, thereby precluding sleep,
and inhibits serotonin, which Jacobs had postulated was a necessary condition for dreaming, then the resulting
hallucinations could merely be “dreaming while awake.” The research thus far is promising but inconclusive;
future scientific advances should allow this theory to be tested more rigorously.
 
1. According to the passage, which of the following is true of the drug lysergic acid diethlyamide?
 
Research into the drug is promising but inconclusive.
The neuron receptor sites that normally bind serotonin will also bind the drug.
The locus ceruleus causes the drug to affect bodily systems more rapidly than normal.
The drug stimulates norepinephrine and serotonin.
A person who ingests more than 20 micrograms of the drug will have hallucinations.
 
2. Which of the following best represents the author's primary goal in writing the passage?
 
to outline a theory and suggest options for further research
to act as an advocate for additional research to help elucidate a particular theory's validity
to introduce a theoretical construct that has not yet been sufficiently proven
to demonstrate the complexities involved in conducting a certain type of scientific research
to articulate a hypothesis and lay out the case for proving it
 
3. Which of the following, if true, would most undermine the central premise of the Jacobs hypothesis?
 
LSD does not cause as much long-term neurological damage as previously thought.
Serotonin and norepinephrine rise and fall in tandem.
Researchers prove conclusively that the level of norepinephrine in the brain is a significant factor in enabling
the brain to sleep.
Some semi-synthetic hallucinogenic drugs other than LSD do not inhibit serotonin.
The first four stages of sleep are as crucial to the process of dreaming as is the fifth stage.
 
<http://gmatclub.com/forum/dreams-104271.html?sid=ac865d540bae3dd266b23130e950df1a>
------------
It can be argued that much consumer dissatisfaction with marketing strategies arises from an inability to aim
advertising at only the likely buyers of a given product.
There are three groups of consumers who are affected by the marketing process. First, there is the market
segment—people who need the commodity in question. Second, there is the program target—people in the
market segment with the “best fit” characteristics for a specific product. Lots of people may need trousers, but
only a few qualify as likely buyers of very expensive designer trousers. Finally, there is the program
audience―all people who are actually exposed to the marketing program without regard to whether they need or
want the product.
These three groups are rarely identical. An exception occurs occasionally in cases where customers for a
particular industrial product may be few and easily identifiable. Such customers, all sharing a particular need,
are likely to form a meaningful target, for example, all companies with a particular application of the product in
question, such as high-speed fillers of bottles at breweries. In such circumstances, direct selling (marketing that
reaches only the program target) is likely to be economically justified, and highly specialized trade media exist
to expose members of the program target—and only members of the program target—to the marketing program.
Most consumer-goods markets are significantly different. Typically, there are many rather than few potential
customers. Each represents a relatively small percentage of potential sales. Rarely do members of a particular
market segment group themselves neatly into a meaningful program target. There are substantial differences
among consumers with similar demographic characteristics. Even with all the past decade’s advances in
information technology, direct selling of consumer goods is rare, and mass marketing—a marketing approach
that aims at a wide audience—remains the only economically feasible mode. Unfortunately, there are few media
that allow the marketer to direct a marketing program exclusively to the program target. Inevitably, people get
exposed to a great deal of marketing for products in which they have no interest and so they become annoyed.
 
 
1. The passage suggests which of the following about highly specialized trade media?
(A) They should be used only when direct selling is not economically feasible.
(B) They can be used to exclude from the program audience people who are not part of the program target.
(C) They are used only for very expensive products.
(D) They are rarely used in the implementation of marketing programs for industrial products.
(E) They are used only when direct selling has not reached the appropriate market segment.
2. According to the passage, most consumer-goods markets share which of the following characteristics?
I. Customers who differ significantly from each other
II. Large numbers of potential customers
III. Customers who each represent a small percentage of potential sales
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) I and II only
(D) II and III only
(E) I, II, and III
3. The passage suggests which of the following about direct selling?
(A) It is used in the marketing of most industrial products.
(B) It is often used in cases where there is a large program target.
(C) It is not economically feasible for most marketing programs.
(D) It is used only for products for which there are many potential customers.
(E) It is less successful at directing a marketing program to the target audience than are other marketing
approaches.
4. The author mentions “trousers” (lines 9 and 11) most likely in order to
(A) make a comparison between the program target and the program audience
(B) emphasize the similarities between the market segment and the program target
(C) provide an example of the way three groups of consumers are affected by a marketing program
(D) clarify the distinction between the market segment and the program target
(E) introduce the concept of the program audience
5. Which of the following best exemplifies the situation described in the last two sentences of the passage?
(A) A product suitable for women age 21-30 is marketed at meetings attended only by potential customers.
(B) A company develops a new product and must develop an advertising campaign to create a market for it.
(C) An idea for a specialized product remains unexplored because media exposure of the product to its few
potential customers would be too expensive.
(D) A new product is developed and marketers collect demographic data on potential consumers before
developing a specific advertising campaign.
(E) A product suitable for men age 60 and over is advertised in a magazine read 
by adults of all ages.
6. The passage suggests that which of the following is true about the marketing of industrial products like those
discussed in the third paragraph?
(A) The market segment and program target are identical.
(B) Mass marketing is the only feasible way of advertising such products.
(C) The marketing program cannot be directed specifically to the program target.
(D) More customers would be needed to justify the expense of direct selling.
(E) The program audience would necessarily be made up of potential customers, regardless of the marketing
approach that was used.
7. The passage supports which of the following statements about demographic characteristics and marketing?
(A) Demographic research is of no use in determining how successful a product will be with a particular group
of consumers.
(B) A program audience is usually composed of people with similar demographic characteristics.
(C) Psychological factors are more important than demographic factors in defining a market segments.
(D) Consumers with similar demographic characteristics do not necessarily form a meaningful program target.
(E) Collecting demographic data is the first step that marketers take in designing a marketing program.
8. It can be inferred from the passage that which of the following is true for most consumer-goods markets?
(A) The program audience is smaller than the market segment.
(B) The program audience and the market segment are usually identical.
(C) The market segment and the program target are usually identical.
(D) The program target is larger than the market segment.
(E) The program target and the program audience are not usually identical.
 
<http://gmatclub.com/forum/consumer-disatisfaction-104393.html?
sid=ac865d540bae3dd266b23130e950df1a>
 
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The identification of femininity with morality and a belief in the innate moral superiority of women were
fundamental to the cult of female domesticity in the nineteenth-century United States. Ironically, this ideology
of female benevolence empowered women in the realm of social activism, enabling them to escape the confines
of their traditional domestic spheres and to enter prisons, hospitals, battlefields, and slums. By following this
path, some women came to wield considerable authority in the distribution of resources and services in their
communities.
 
The sentimentalized concept of female benevolence bore little resemblance to women's actual work, which was
decidedly unsentimental and businesslike, in that it involved chartering societies, raising money, and paying
salaries. Moreover, in the face of legal limitations on their right to control money and property, women had to
find ingenious legal ways to run and finance organized philanthropy. In contrast to the day-to-day reality of this
work, the idealized image of female benevolence lent a sentimental and gracious aura of altruism to the very
real authority and privilege that some women commanded--which explains why some women activists clung
tenaciously to this ideology. But clinging to this ideology also prevented these women from even attempting to
gain true political power because it implied a moral purity that precluded participation in the messy world of
partisan politics.
 
1. According to the passage, the ideology of female benevolence was consistent with women taking part in each
of the following spheres of activity EXCEPT 
 
A organized philanthropy
B domestic life
C electoral politics 
D fund-raising for worthy causes
E social work 
 
 
2. Information in the passage suggests that the author would be most likely to agree with which of the following
statements concerning the cult of female domesticity? 
 
A The cult of female domesticity developed independently of the concept of female benevolence.
B The cult of female domesticity was incompatible with women's participation in social activism.
C The cult of female domesticity incorporated ideological elements that actually helped some women to escape
from their traditional domestic roles. 
D The original motivation behind the promotion of the cult of female domesticity was to exclude women from
partisan politics.
E The growth of organized philanthropy in the nineteenth-century United States is ultimately attributable to the
cult of female domesticity. 
 
3. Which of the following best summarizes the main point of the passage? 
 
A The identification of femininity with morality promoted the notion of women's moral purity while excluding
women from positions of authority in their communities.
B The belief in women's innate moral superiority allowed women to exercise political power without
participating in partisan politics.
C The cult of female domesticity helped some women to gain power and privilege but kept most women
confined to the domestic sphere.
D The ideology of female benevolence empowered women in the realm of social activism but placed limits on
their direct political power.
E The idealization of female altruism enabled women to engage in philanthropic activities but prevented them
from managing money and property.
 
<http://gmatclub.com/forum/female-benevolence-very-tough-112514.html?
sid=ac865d540bae3dd266b23130e950df1a>
 
-------------------------
Art historians’ approach to French Impressionism has changed significantly in recent years. While a decade ago
Rewald’s History of Impressionism, which emphasizes Impressionist painters’ stylistic innovations, was
unchallenged, the literature on impressionism has now become a kind of ideological battlefield, in which more
attention is paid to the subject matter of the paintings, and to the social and moral issues raised by it, than to
their style. Recently, politically charged discussions that address the impressionists’ unequal treatment of men
and women and the exclusion of modern industry and labor from their pictures have tended to crowd out the
stylistic analysis favored by Rewald and his followers. In a new work illustrating this trend, Robert L. Herbert
dissociates himself from formalists whose preoccupation with the stylistic features of impressionist painting
has, in Herbert’s view, left the history out of art history; his aim is to restore impressionist paintings “to their
sociocultural context.” However, his arguments are not finally persuasive.
 
In attempting to place impressionist painting in its proper historical context, Herbert has redrawn the traditional
boundaries of impressionism. Limiting himself to the two decades between 1860 and 1880, he assembles under
the impressionist banner what can only be described as a somewhat eccentric grouping of painters. Cezanne,
Pisarro, and Sisley are almost entirely ignored, largely because their paintings do not suit Herbert’s emphasis on
themes of urban life and suburban leisure, while Manet, Degas, and Caillebotte—who paint scenes of urban life
but whom many would hardly characterize as impressionists—dominate the first half of the book. Although this
new description of Impressionist painting provides a more unified conception of nineteenth-century French
painting by grouping quite disparate modernist painters together and emphasizing their common concerns rather
than their stylistic difference, it also forces Herbert to overlook some of the most important genres of
impressionist painting—portraiture, pure landscape, and still-life painting.
 
Moreover, the rationale for Herbert’s emphasis on the social and political realities that Impressionist paintings
can be said to communicate rather than on their style is finally undermined by what even Herbert concedes was
the failure of Impressionist painters to serve as particularly conscientious illustrators of their social milieu. They
left much ordinary experience—work and poverty, for example—out of their paintings and what they did put in
was transformed by a style that had only an indirect relationship to the social realities of the world they
depicted. Not only were their pictures inventions rather than photographs, they were inventions in which style to
some degree disrupted description. Their painting in effect have two levels of subject: what is represented and
how it is represented, and no art historian can afford to emphasize one at the expense of the other.

1. Which one of the following best expresses the main point of the passage?
(A) The style of impressionist paintings has only an indirect relation to their subject matter.
(B) The approach to impressionism that is illustrated by Herbert’s recent book is inadequate.
(C) The historical context of impressionist paintings is not relevant to their interpretation.
(D) impressionism emerged from a historical context of ideological conflict and change.
(E) Any adequate future interpretation of impressionism will have to come to terms with Herbert’s view of this
art movement.
2. According to the passage, Rewald’s book on impressionism was characterized by which one of the
following?
(A) evenhanded objectivity about the achievements of impressionism
(B) bias in favor of certain impressionist painters
(C) an emphasis on the stylistic features of impressionist painting
(D) an idiosyncratic view of which painters were to be classified as impressionists
(E) a refusal to enter into the ideological debates that had characterized earlier discussions of impressionism
3. The author implies that Herbert’s redefinition of the boundaries of impressionism resulted from which one of
the following?
(A) an exclusive emphasis on form and style
(B) a bias in favor of the representation of modern industry
(C) an attempt to place impressionism within a specific sociocultural context
(D) a broadening of the term impressionism to include all nineteenth-century French painting
(E) an insufficient familiarity with earlier interpretations of impressionism
4. The author states which one of the following about modern industry and labor as subjects for painting?
(A) The impressionists neglected these subjects in their paintings.
(B) Herbert’s book on impressionism fails to give adequate treatment of these subjects.
(C) The impressionists’ treatment of these subjects was idealized.
(D) Rewald’s treatment of impressionist painters focused inordinately on their representations of these subjects.
(E) Modernist painters presented a distorted picture of these subjects.
5. Which one of the following most accurately describes the structure of the author’s argument in the passage?
(A) The first two paragraphs each present independent arguments for a conclusion that is drawn in the third
paragraph.
(B) A thesis is stated in the first paragraph and revised in the second paragraph and revised in the second
paragraph, and the revised thesis is supported with argument in the third paragraph.
(C) The first two paragraphs discuss and criticize a thesis, and the third paragraph presents an alternative thesis.
(D) a claim is made in the first paragraph, and the next two paragraph, and the next two paragraphs each present
reasons for accepting that claim.
(E) An argument is presented in the first paragraph, a counterargument is presented in the second paragraph,
and the third paragraph suggests a way to resolve the dispute.
6. The author’s statement that impressionist paintings “were inventions in which style to some degree disrupted
description” (lines 57-59) serves to
(A) strengthen the claim that impressionist sought to emphasize the differences between painting and
photography
(B) weaken the argument that style is the only important feature of impressionist paintings
(C) indicate that impressionists recognized that they had been strongly influence by photography
(D) support the argument that an exclusive emphasis on the impressionists subject matter is mistaken
(E) undermine the claim that impressionists neglected certain kinds of subject matter
7. The author would most likely regard a book on the impressionists that focused entirely on their style as
(A) a product of the recent confusion caused by Herbert’s book on impressionism
(B) emphasizing what impressionists themselves took to be their primary artistic concern
(C) an overreaction against the traditional interpretation of impressionism
(D) neglecting the most innovative aspects of impressionism
(E) addressing only part of what an adequate treatment should cover
 
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sid=ac865d540bae3dd266b23130e950df1a>
 
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Prior to 1975, union efforts to organize public-sector clerical workers, most of whom are women, were
somewhat limited. The factors favoring unionization drives seem to have been either the presence of large
numbers of workers, as in New York City, to make it worth the effort, or the concentration of small numbers in
one or two locations, such as a hospital, to make it relatively easy. Receptivity to unionization on the workers’
part was also a consideration, but when there were large numbers involved or the clerical workers were the only
unorganized group in a jurisdiction, the multi-occupational unions would often try to organize them regardless
of the workers’ initial receptivity. The strategic reasoning was based, first, on the concern that politicians and
administrators might play off unionized against non-unionized workers, and, second, on the conviction that a
fully unionized public work force meant power, both at the bargaining table and in the legislature. In localities
where clerical workers were few in number, were scattered in several workplaces, and expressed no interest in
being organized, unions more often than not ignored them in the pre-1975 period.
But since the mid-1970’s, a different strategy has emerged. In 1977, 34 percent of government clerical workers
were represented by a labor organization, compared with 46 percent of government professionals, 44 percent of
government blue-collar workers, and 41 percent of government service workers. Since then, however, the
biggest increases in public-sector unionization have been among clerical workers. Between 1977 and 1980, the
number of unionized government workers in blue-collar and service occupations increased only about 1.5
percent, while in the white-collar occupations the increase was 20 percent and among clerical workers in
particular, the increase was 22 percent.
What accounts for this upsurge in unionization among clerical workers? First, more women have entered the
work force in the past few years, and more of them plan to remain working until retirement age. Consequently,
they are probably more concerned than their predecessors were about job security and economic benefits. Also,
the women’s movement has succeeded in legitimizing the economic and political activism of women on their
own behalf, thereby producing a more positive attitude toward unions. The absence of any comparable increase
in unionization among private-sector clerical workers, however, identifies the primary catalyst—the structural
change in the multi-occupational public-sector unions themselves. Over the past twenty years, the occupational
distribution in these unions has been steadily shifting from predominantly blue-collar to predominantly white-
collar. Because there are far more women in white-collar jobs, an increase in the proportion of female members
has accompanied the occupational shift and has altered union policy-making in favor of organizing women and
addressing women’s issues.

1. According to the passage, the public-sector workers who were most likely to belong to unions in 1977 were
(A) professionals
(B) managers
(C) clerical workers
(D) service workers
(E) blue-collar workers

2. The author cites union efforts to achieve a fully unionized work force (line 13-19) in order to account for why
(A) politicians might try to oppose public-sector union organizing
(B) public-sector unions have recently focused on organizing women
(C) early organizing efforts often focused on areas where there were large numbers of workers
(D) union efforts with regard to public-sector clerical workers increased dramatically after 1975
(E) unions sometimes tried to organize workers regardless of the workers’ initial interest in unionization

3. The author’s claim that, since the mid-1970’s, a new strategy has emerged in the unionization of public-
sector clerical workers (line 23) would be strengthened if the author
(A) described more fully the attitudes of clerical workers toward labor unions
(B) compared the organizing strategies employed by private-sector unions with those of public-sector unions
(C) explained why politicians and administrators sometimes oppose unionization of clerical workers
(D) indicated that the number of unionized public-sector clerical workers was increasing even before the mid-
1970’s
(E) showed that the factors that favored unionization drives among these workers prior to 1975 have decreased
in importance

4. According to the passage, in the period prior to 1975, each of the following considerations helped determine
whether a union would attempt to organize a certain group of clerical workers EXCEPT
(A) the number of clerical workers in that group
(B) the number of women among the clerical workers in that group
(C) whether the clerical workers in that area were concentrated in one workplace or scattered over several
workplaces
(D) the degree to which the clerical workers in that group were interested in unionization
(E) whether all the other workers in the same jurisdiction as that group of clerical workers were unionized

5. The author states that which of the following is a consequence of the women’s movement of recent years?
(A) An increase in the number of women entering the work force
(B) A structural change in multi-occupational public-sector unions
(C) A more positive attitude on the part of women toward unions
(D) An increase in the proportion of clerical workers that are women
(E) An increase in the number of women in administrative positions

6. The main concern of the passage is to

(A) advocate particular strategies for future efforts to organize certain workers into labor unions
(B) explain differences in the unionized proportions of various groups of public-sector workers
(C) evaluate the effectiveness of certain kinds of labor unions that represent public-sector workers
(D) analyzed and explain an increase in unionization among a certain category of workers
(E) describe and distinguish strategies appropriate to organizing different categories of workers

7. The author implies that if the increase in the number of women in the work force and the impact of the
women’s movement were the main causes of the rise in unionization of public-sector clerical workers, then
(A) more women would hold administrative positions in unions
(B) more women who hold political offices would have positive attitudes toward labor unions
(C) there would be an equivalent rise in unionization of private-sector clerical workers
(D) unions would have shown more interest than they have in organizing women
(E) the increase in the number of unionized public-sector clerical workers would have been greater than it has
been

8. The author suggests that it would be disadvantageous to a union if

(A) many workers in the locality were not unionized
(B) the union contributed to political campaigns
(C) the union included only public-sector workers
(D) the union included workers from several jurisdictions
(E) the union included members from only a few occupations

9. The author implies that, in comparison with working women today, women working in the years prior to the
mid-1970’s showed a greater tendency to
(A) prefer smaller workplaces
(B) express a positive attitude toward labor unions
(C) maximize job security and economic benefits
(D) side with administrators in labor disputes
(E) quit working prior of retirement age
 
<http://gmatclub.com/forum/unions-103048.html?sid=ac865d540bae3dd266b23130e950df1a>
 
-------------------
One of the many theories about alcoholism is the learning and reinforcement theory, which explains alcoholism
by considering alcohol ingestion as a reflex response to some stimulus and as a way to reduce an inner drive
state such as fear or anxiety. Characterizing life situations in terms of approach and avoidance, this theory holds
that persons tend to be drawn to pleasant situations and repelled by unpleasant ones. In the latter case, alcohol
ingestion is said to reduce the tension or feelings of unpleasantness and to replace them with the feeling of
euphoria generally observed in most persons after they have consumed one or more drinks.
Some experimental evidence tends to show that alcohol reduces fear in the approach-avoidance situation.
Conger trained one group of rats to approach a food goal and, using aversion conditioning, trained another
group to avoid electric shock. After an injection of alcohol the pull away from the shock was measurable
weaker, while the pull toward the food was unchanged.
The obvious troubles experienced by alcoholic persons appear to contradict the learning theory in the
explanation of alcoholism. The discomfort, pain, and punishment they experience should presumably serve as a
deterrent to drinking. The fact that alcoholic persons continue to drink in the face of family discord, loss of
employment, illness, and other sequels of repeated bouts is explained by the proximity of the drive reduction to
the consumption of alcohol; that is, alcohol has the immediate effect of reducing tension while the unpleasant
consequences of drunken behavior come only later. The learning paradigm, therefore, favors the establishment
and repetition of the resort to alcohol.
In fact, the anxieties and feelings of guilt induced by the consequences of excessive alcohol ingestion may
themselves become the signal for another bout of alcohol abuse. The way in which the cue for another bout
could be the anxiety itself is explained by the process of stimulus generalization: conditions or events occurring
at the time of reinforcement tend to acquire the characteristics of state of anxiety or fear, the emotional state
itself takes on the properties of a stimulus, thus triggering another drinking bout.
The role of punishment is becoming increasingly important in formulating a cause of alcoholism based on the
principles of learning theory. While punishment may serve to suppress a response, experiments have shown that
in some cases it can serve as a reward and reinforce the behavior. Thus if the alcoholic person has learned to
drink under conditions of both reward and punishment, either type of condition may precipitate renewed
drinking.
Ample experimental evidence supports the hypothesis that excessive alcohol consumption can be learned. By
gradually increasing the concentration of alcohol in drinking water, psychologists have been able to induce the
ingestion of larger amounts of alcohol by an animal than would be normally consumed. Other researchers have
been able to achieve similar results by varying the schedule of reinforcement—that is, by requiring the animal
to consume larger and larger amounts of the alcohol solutions before rewarding it. In this manner, animals learn
to drink enough to become dependent on alcohol in terms of demonstrating withdrawal symptoms.

1. The primary purpose of the passage is to

(A) compare the learning and reinforcement theory to other theories of alcoholism
(B) discuss how the behavior of alcoholic persons is explained by learning theory
(C) argue that alcoholism is a learned behavior
(D) explain how fear and anxiety stimulate and reinforce drinking in alcoholic persons
(E) present experimental evidence in support of the learning and reinforcement theory of alcoholism

2. The passage contains information that answers which of the following questions?
(A) What are some of the psychosocial problems associated with alcoholism?
(B) Which has proven more effective in the treatment of alcoholism, aversion conditioning or reinforcement?
(C) Why does alcohol ingestion reduce tension and give rise to a feeling of euphoria in most people?
(D) According to the learning theory, in what cases does punishment reinforce rather than deter drinking in
alcoholic persons?
(E) Are some persons genetically predisposed to alcoholism?

3. It can be inferred from the passage that aversion conditioning is based primarily on the principle that
(A) electric shock stimulates a response
(B) behavior that is punished will be avoided
(C) pain is a stronger stimulus than pleasure
(D) alcohol reduces fear
(E) behavior that is rewarded will be repeated

4. According to the passage, which of the following is true of stimulus generalization?

(A) It contradicts the learning and reinforcement theory of alcoholism.
(B) It is the process by which an organism learns to respond to one stimulus but not to similar stimuli.
(C) It supports the hypothesis that excessive alcohol consumption can be learned.
(D) It explains why people tend to avoid behavior that is associated with painful experiences.
(E) It occurs when the conditions associated with a stimulus come to evoke the same response as the stimulus
itself evokes.

5. The author cites Conger’s experiment with two groups of rats in order to
(A) show that ingestion of alcohol does not affect appetite
(B) corroborate the findings of other academic researchers
(C) show that alcohol decreases fear
(D) disprove the learning and reinforcement theory
(E) convince the reader of the usefulness of behavioral research

6. According to the passage, which of the following could induce an alcoholic to drink?
I. The need to relieve tension
II. Anxieties resulting from guilt feelings about previous drinking bouts
III. Punishment for alcoholic behavior
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) I and II only
(D) II and III only
(E) I, II, and III

7. The passage contains information that supports which of the following statements?
(A) If the pleasurable taste of whisky leads to an acquired taste for brandy, then stimulus generalization has
occurred.
(B) Slapping a child for misbehaving may over time encourage the child to repeat the misbehavior.
(C) If a person has learned to drink under two sets of conditions, both must be present in order to induce that
person to drink again.
(D) Continued heavy use of alcohol usually causes severe damage to the body and nervous system.
(E) When consumed in moderation, alcohol may benefit health.

8. According to the passage, how does the behavior of alcoholics appear to contradict learning theory?
(A) Learning theory holds that people are drawn by pleasant situations and repelled by unpleasant ones, but in
alcoholics that pattern appears to be reversed.
(B) Contrary to learning theory, alcoholic persons do not respond to life situations in terms of approach and
avoidance.
(C) The unpleasant consequences of excessive alcoholic consumption do not deter alcoholics from drinking, as
might be predicted from learning theory.
(D) According to learning theory, drinking is a reflex response to an external stimulus, but for alcoholics it is
more often a way to reduce an inner drive such as fear.
(E) Instead of the feeling of euphoria predicted by learning theory, alcoholics frequently experience discomfort
and pain after drinking.

9. It can be inferred from the passage that the author views the learning and reinforcement theory of alcoholism
as
(A) credible
(B) unassailable
(C) outdated
(D) fallacious
(E) revolutionary
 
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sid=ac865d540bae3dd266b23130e950df1a>
 
--------------
The antigen-antibody immunological reaction used to be regarded as typical of immunological responses.
Antibodies are proteins synthesized by specialized cells called plasma cells, which are formed by lymphocytes
(cells from the lymph system) when an antigen, a substance foreign to the organism’s body, comes in contact
with lymphocytes. Two important manifestations of antigen-antibody immunity are lysis, the rapid physical
rupture of antigenic cells and the liberation of their contents into the surrounding medium, and phagocytosis, a
process in which antigenic particles are engulfed by and very often digested by macrophages and polymorphs.
The process of lysis is executed by a complex and unstable blood constituent known as complement, which will
not work unless it is activated by a specific antibody; the process of phagocytosis is greatly facilitated when the
particles to be engulfed are coated by a specific antibody directed against them.
The reluctance to—abandon this hypothesis, however well it explains specific processes, impeded new research,
and for many years antigens and antibodies dominated the thoughts of immunologists so completely that those
immunologists overlooked certain difficulties. Perhaps the primary difficulty with the antigen-antibody
explanation is the informational problem of how an antigen is recognized and how a structure exactly
complementary to it is then synthesized. When molecular biologists discovered, moreover, that such
information cannot flow from protein to protein, but only from nucleic acid to protein, the theory that an antigen
itself provided the mold that directed the synthesis of an antibody had to be seriously qualified. The attempts at
qualification and the information provided by research in molecular biology led scientists to realize that a
second immunological reaction is mediated through the lymphocytes that are hostile to and bring about the
destruction of the antigen. This type of immunological response is called cell-mediated immunity.
Recent research in cell-mediated immunity has been concerned not only with the development of new and better
vaccines, but also with the problem of transplanting tissues and organs from one organism to another, for
although circulating antibodies play a part in the rejection of transplanted tissues, the primary role is played by
cell-mediated reactions. During cell-mediated responses, receptor sites on specific lymphocytes and surface
antigens on the foreign tissue cells form a complex that binds the lymphocytes to the tissue. Such lymphocytes
do not give rise to antibody-producing plasma cells but themselves bring about the death of the foreign-tissue
cells, probably by secreting a variety of substances, some of which are toxic to the tissue cells and some of
which stimulate increased phagocytic activity by white blood cells of the macrophage type. Cell-mediated
immunity also accounts for the destruction of intracellular parasites.

1. The author is primarily concerned with

(A) proving that immunological reactions do not involve antibodies
(B) establishing that most immunological reactions involve antigens
(C) criticizing scientists who will not change their theories regarding immunology
(D) analyzing the importance of cells in fighting disease
(E) explaining two different kinds of immunological reactions

2. The author argues that the antigen-antibody explanation of immunity “had to seriously qualified” (line 37)
because
(A) antibodies were found to activate unstable components in the blood
(B) antigens are not exactly complementary to antibodies
(C) lymphocytes have the ability to bind to the surface of antigens
(D) antibodies are synthesized from protein whereas antigens are made from nucleic acid
(E) antigens have no apparent mechanism to direct the formation of an antibody

3. The author most probably believes that the antigen-antibody theory of immunological reaction.
(A) is wrong
(B) was accepted without evidence
(C) is unverifiable
(D) is a partial explanation
(E) has been a divisive issue among scientists

4. The author mentions all of the following as being involved in antigen-antibody immunological reactions
EXCEPT the
(A) synthesis of a protein
(B) activation of complement in the bloodstream
(C) destruction of antibodies
(D) entrapment of antigens by macrophages
(E) formation of a substance with a structure complementary to that of an antigen

5. The passage contains information that would answer which of the following questions about cell-mediated
immunological reactions?
I. Do lymphocytes form antibodies during cell-mediated immunological reactions?
II. Why are lymphocytes more hostile to antigens during cell-mediated immunological reactions than are other
cell groups?
III. Are cell-mediated reactions more pronounced after transplants than they are after parasites have invaded the
organism?
(A) I only
(B) I and II only
(C) I and III only
(D) II and III only
(E) I, II, and III

6. The passage suggests that scientists might not have developed the theory of cell-mediated immunological
reactions if
(A) proteins existed in specific group types
(B) proteins could have been shown to direct the synthesis of other proteins
(C) antigens were always destroyed by proteins
(D) antibodies were composed only of protein
(E) antibodies were the body’s primary means of resisting disease

7. According to the passage, antibody-antigen and cell-mediated immunological reactions both involve which of
the following processes?
I. The destruction of antigens
II. The creation of antibodies
III. The destruction of intracellular parasites
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) III only
(D) I and II only
(E) II and III only

8. The author supports the theory of cell-mediated reactions primarily by

(A) pointing out a contradiction in the assumption leading to the antigen-antibody theory
(B) explaining how cell mediation accounts for phenomena that the antigen-antibody theory cannot account for
(C) revealing new data that scientists arguing for the antigen-antibody theory have continued to ignore
(D) showing that the antigen-antibody theory fails to account for the breakup of antigens
(E) demonstrating that cell mediation explains lysis and phagocytosis more fully than the antigen-antibody
theory does
 
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----------------
Woodrow Wilson was referring to the liberal idea of the economic market when he said that the free enterprise
system is the most efficient economic system. Maximum freedom means maximum productiveness; our
“openness” is to be the measure of our stability. Fascination with this ideal has made Americans defy the “Old
World” categories of settled possessiveness versus unsettling deprivation, the cupidity of retention versus the
cupidity of seizure, a “status quo” defended or attacked. The United States, it was believed, had no status quo
ante. Our only “station” was the turning of a stationary wheel, spinning faster and faster. We did not base our
system on property but opportunity—which meant we based it not on stability but on mobility. The more things
changed, that is, the more rapidly the wheel turned, the steadier we would be. The conventional picture of class
politics is composed of the Haves, who want a stability to keep what they have, and the Have-Nots, who want a
touch of instability and change in which to scramble for the things they have not. But Americans imagined a
condition in which speculators, self-makers, runners are always using the new opportunities given by our land.
These economic leaders (front-runners) would thus be mainly agents of change. The nonstarters were
considered the ones who wanted stability, a strong referee to give them some position in the race, a regulative
hand to calm manic speculation; an authority that can call things to a halt, begin things again from
compensatorily staggered “starting lines.”
 
“Reform” in America has been sterile because it can imagine no change except through the extension of this
metaphor of a race, wider inclusion of competitors, “a piece of the action,”  as it were, for the disenfranchised.
There is no attempt to call off the race. Since our only stability is change, America seems not to honor the quiet
work that achieves social interdependence and stability. There is, in our legends, no heroism of the office clerk,
no stable industrial work force of the people who actually make the system work. There is no pride in being an
employee (Wilson asked for a return to the time when everyone was an employer). There has been no boasting
about our social workers—they are merely signs of the system’s failure, of opportunity denied or not taken, of
things to be eliminated. We have no pride in our growing interdependence, in the fact that our system can serve
others, that we are able to help those in need; empty boasts from the past make us ashamed of our present
achievements, make us try to forget or deny them, move away from them. There is no honor but in the
Wonderland race we must all run, all trying to win, none winning in the end (for there is no end).
 
1. The primary purpose of the passage is to
 
(A) criticize the inflexibility of American economic mythology
(B) contrast “Old World” and “New World” economic ideologies
(C) challenge the integrity of traditional political leaders
(D) champion those Americans whom the author deems to be neglected
(E) suggest a substitute for the traditional metaphor of a race
 
2. According to the passage, “Old World” values were based on
 
(A) ability
(B) property
(C) family connections
(D) guild hierarchies
(E) education
 
3. In the context of the author’s discussion of regulating change, which of the following could be most probably
regarded as a “strong referee” (line 30) in the United States?
 
(A) A school principal
(B) A political theorist
(C) A federal court judge
(D) A social worker
(E) A government inspector
 
4. The author sets off the word “Reform” (line 35) with quotation marks in order to
 
(A) emphasize its departure from the concept of settled possessiveness
(B) show his support for a systematic program of change
(C) underscore the flexibility and even amorphousness of United States society
(D) indicate that the term was one of Wilson’s favorites
(E) assert that reform in the United States has not been fundamental
 
5. It can be inferred from the passage that the author most probably thinks that giving the disenfranchised “a
piece 
of the action” (line 38) is
 
(A) a compassionate, if misdirected, legislative measure
(B) an example of Americans’ resistance to profound social change
(C) an innovative program for genuine social reform
(D) a monument to the efforts of industrial reformers
(E) a surprisingly “Old World” remedy for social ills
 
6. Which of the following metaphors could the author most appropriately use to summarize his own assessment
of the American economic system (lines 35-60)?
 
(A) A windmill
(B) A waterfall
(C) A treadmill
(D) A gyroscope
(E) A bellows
 
7. It can be inferred from the passage that Woodrow Wilson’s ideas about the economic market
 
(A) encouraged those who “make the system work” (lines 45-46)
(B) perpetuated traditional legends about America
(C) revealed the prejudices of a man born wealthy
(D) foreshadowed the stock market crash of 1929
(E) began a tradition of presidential proclamations on economics
 
8. The passage contains information that would answer which of the following questions?
 
I. What techniques have industrialists used to manipulate a free market?
II. In what ways are “New World” and “Old World” economic policies similar?
III. Has economic policy in the United States tended to reward independent action?
 
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) III only
(D) I and II only
(E) II and III only
 
9. Which of the following best expresses the author’s main point?
 
(A) Americans’ pride in their jobs continues to give them stamina today.
(B) The absence of a status quo ante has undermined United States economic structure.
(C) The free enterprise system has been only a useless concept in the United States.
(D) The myth of the American free enterprise system is seriously flawed.
(E) Fascination with the ideal of “openness” has made Americans a progressive people.
 
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sid=ac865d540bae3dd266b23130e950df1a>
 
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A basic principle of ecology is that population size is partly a reflection of available food resources. Recent
experiments suggest that the relationship is more complex than formerly thought. Specifically, the browsing of
certain rodents appears to trigger chemical reactions in food plants which, in turn, affect the size of the rodent
populations. Two examples of such regulation have been reported.
 
Berger has demonstrated the power of a naturally occurring chemical called 6-MBOA to stimulate reproductive
behavior in the mountain vole, a small mouse-like rodent. 6-MBOA forms in young grass in response to
browsing by voles. Berger experimented by feeding oats coated with 6-MBOA to non-breeding winter
populations of voles. After three weeks, she found a high incidence of pregnancy among females. Since the
timing of reproduction is crucial to the short-lived vole in an environment in which the onset of vegetative
growth may be considerably delayed, the phytochemical triggering of reproductive behavior represents a
significant biological adaptation.
 
In an example reported by Bryant, plants appear to have developed a phytochemical defense against the
depredations of snowshoe hares in Canada. Every ten years, for reasons that are unclear, the hare population
swells. The result is overbrowsing of certain deciduous trees and shrubs. Bryant found that trees favored by the
hare produce young shoots high in terpene and phenolic resins, which discourage hare browsing. After treating
non-resinous willow twigs with resinous extracts and placing treated and untreated samples at hare feeding
stations,
Bryant found that samples containing at least half of the resin concentration of natural twigs were untouched.
The avoidance of resinous shoots, he concludes, may play a role in the decline of the hare population to normal
levels.
 
Both of these reports suggest areas for further research. For example, data should be reviewed to determine if
periodic population explosions among lemmings (another small rodent living in a northern environment) occur
during years in which there is an early onset of vegetative growth; if so, a triggering mechanism similar to that
prompted by the vole may be involved.
 
1) The author provides specific information to answer which of the following questions?
(A) What factors other than food supply affect the population size of rodents?
(B) Why is the timing of the voles’ reproductive effort important?
(C) Are phytochemical reactions found only in northern environments?
(D) How does 6-MBOA trigger reproductive activity in the mountain vole?
(E) What are the causes of the periodic increase in the snowshoe hare population?
 
2) The passage describes the effect of 6-MBOA on voles as a “significant biological adaptation” (line 23)
because it
(A) limits reproductive behavior in times of food scarcity
(B) prompts the vole population to seek new food sources
(C) supports species survival during periods of fluctuating food supply
(D) maximizes the number of offspring in individual litters
(E) minimizes territorial competition
 
 
3) Which of the following statements can be inferred about plant shoots containing large amounts of terpene
and phenolic resins?
I. They serve as a form of natural defense.
II. Their growth is stimulated by increases in the hare population.
III. They are unappetizing to hares.
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) III only
(D) I and III only
(E) I, II, and III
 
4) It can be inferred that the study of lemmings proposed by the author would probably
(A) strengthen the conclusions of Bryant
(B) cast doubt on the conclusions of Bryant
(C) support the specific findings of Berger
(D) provide evidence as to whether Berger’s conclusions can be generalized
(E) disprove common beliefs about the relationship between population size and food supply
 
 
5) The author of the passage is primarily concerned with
(A) reviewing findings about phytochemical regulation of rodent populations
(B) outlining the role of 6-MBOA in regulating population size
(C) summarizing knowledge on population size of rodents
(D) explaining why earlier studies of population size were wrong
(E) describing mechanisms used by plants to protect themselves
 
6) Bryant’s interpretation of the results of his experiment (lines 36–38) depends on which of the following
assumptions?
(A) The response of hares to resinous substances may be different in nature than under experimental conditions.
(B) The periodic rise in the hare population is triggered by an unknown phytochemical response.
(C) Many hares will starve to death rather than eat resinous shoots.
(D) Hares alter their breeding behavior in response to the declining availability of food.
(E) Significant numbers of hares die from ingesting the resins in shoots
 
7) The experiments described in the passage did each of the following EXCEPT
(A) measure changes in the behavior of test animals
(B) measure changes in the populations of experimental animals
(C) simulate a hypothesized phytochemical effect in nature
(D) measure the consumption of foods by test animals
(E) analyze the effects of food on breeding behavior
 
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sid=ac865d540bae3dd266b23130e950df1a>
 
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Caffeine, the stimulant in coffee, has been called 
"the most widely used psychoactive substance on Earth ."
Synder, Daly and Bruns have recently proposed that 
caffeine affects behavior by countering the activity in 
(5) the human brain of a naturally occurring chemical called 
adenosine. Adenosine normally depresses neuron firing 
in many areas of the brain. It apparently does this by 
inhibiting the release of neurotransmitters, chemicals 
that carry nerve impulses from one neuron to the next.
(10) Like many other agents that affect neuron firing,
adenosine must first bind to specific receptors on 
neuronal membranes. There are at least two classes 
of these receptors, which have been designated A1 and 
A2. Snyder et al propose that caffeine, which is struc-
(15) turally similar to adenosine, is able to bind to both types 
of receptors, which prevents adenosine from attaching 
there and allows the neurons to fire more readily than 
they otherwise would.
For many years, caffeine's effects have been attri-
(20) buted to its inhibition of the production of phosphodi-
esterase, an enzyme that breaks down the chemical 
called cyclic AMP.A number of neurotransmitters exert 
their effects by first increasing cyclic AMP concentra-
tions in target neurons. Therefore, prolonged periods at 
(25) the elevated concentrations, as might be brought about 
by a phosphodiesterase inhibitor, could lead to a greater 
amount of neuron firing and, consequently, to behav-
ioral stimulation. But Snyder et al point out that the 
caffeine concentrations needed to inhibit the production 
(30) of phosphodiesterase in the brain are much higher than 
those that produce stimulation. Moreover, other com-
pounds that block phosphodiesterase's activity are not 
stimulants.
To buttress their case that caffeine acts instead by pre-
(35) venting adenosine binding, Snyder et al compared the 
stimulatory effects of a series of caffeine derivatives with 
their ability to dislodge adenosine from its receptors in 
the brains of mice. "In general," they reported, "the ability of the compounds to compete at the receptors 
(40) correlates with their ability to stimulate locomotion in 
the mouse; i.e., the higher their capacity to bind at the 
receptors, the higher their ability to stimulate locomo-
tion." Theophylline, a close structural relative of caffeine 
and the major stimulant in tea, was one of the most 
(45) effective compounds in both regards.
There were some apparent exceptions to the general 
correlation observed between adenosine-receptor binding
and stimulation. One of these was a compound called 
3-isobuty1-1-methylxanthine(IBMX), which bound very 
(50) well but actually depressed mouse locomotion. Snyder 
et al suggest that this is not a major stumbling block to 
their hypothesis. The problem is that the compound has 
mixed effects in the brain, a not unusual occurrence with 
psychoactive drugs. Even caffeine, which is generally 
(55) known only for its stimulatory effects, displays this 
property, depressing mouse locomotion at very low 
concentrations and stimulating it at higher ones.
 
1. The primary purpose of the passage is to 
(A) discuss a plan for investigation of a phenomenon  that is not yet fully understood 
(B) present two explanations of a phenomenon and  reconcile the differences between them
(C) summarize two theories and suggest a third theory  that overcomes the problems encountered in the first 
two 
(D) describe an alternative hypothesis and provide  evidence and arguments that support it 
(E) challenge the validity of a theory by exposing the  inconsistencies and contradictions in it   
2. Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the  theory proposed by Snyder et al?
(A) At very low concentrations in the human brain. both  caffeine and theophylline tend to have depressive 
rather than stimulatory effects on human behavior.
(B) The ability of caffeine derivatives at very low  concentrations to dislodge adenosine from its  receptors in
mouse brains correlates well with their  ability to stimulate mouse locomotion at these low  concentrations
(C) The concentration of cyclic AMP in target neurons  in the human brain that leads to increased neuron 
firing can be produced by several different  phosphodi esterase inhibitors in addition to caffeine.
(D) The concentration of caffeine required to dislodge  adenosine from its receptors in the human brain is 
much greater than the concentration that produces  behavioral stimulation in humans.
(E) The concentration of IBMX required to dislodge  adenosine from its receptors in mouse brains is much 
smaller than the concentration that stimulates  locomotion in the mouse.
 
3. According so Snyder et al, caffeine differs from  adenosine in that caffeine
(A) stimulates behavior in the mouse and in humans,  whereas adenosine stimulates behavior in humans 
only 
(B) has mixed effects in the brain, whereas adenosine has only a stimulatory effect 
(C) increases cyclic AMP concentrations in target  neurons, whereas adenosine decreases such  Concentrations
(D) permits release of neurotransmitters when it is  bound to adenosine receptors, whereas adenosine  inhibits
such release
(E) inhibits both neuron firing and the production of  phosphodiesterase when there is a sufficient  concentration
in the brain, whereas adenosine  inhibits only neuron firing 
 
4. In response to experimental results concerning IBMX,  Snyder et al contended that it is not uncommon for 
psychoactive drugs to have 
(A) mixed effects in the brain 
(B) inhibitory effects on enzymes in the brain 
(C) close structural relationships with caffeine
(D) depressive effects on mouse locomotion
(E) the ability to dislodge caffeine from receptors in the brain
 
5. The passage suggests that Snyder et al believe that if the  older theory concerning caffeine's effects were
correct,  which of the following would have to be the case?
Ⅰ.All neurotransmitters would increase the short-term  concentration of cyclic AMP in target neurons.
Ⅱ.Substances other than caffeine that inhibit the  production of phosphodiesterase would be stimulants.
Ⅲ.All concentration levels of caffeine that are high  enough to produce stimulation would also inhibit the 
production of phosphodiesterase.
(A) Ⅰ only 
(B) Ⅰ and Ⅱ only 
(C) Ⅰand Ⅲ only 
(D) Ⅱ and Ⅲ only 
(E) Ⅰ,Ⅱ,and Ⅲ
 
6. According to Snyder et al, all of the following  compounds can bind to specific receptors in the brain 
EXCEPT
(A) IBMX 
(B) caffeine
(C) adenosine
(D) theophylline
(E) phosphodiesterase 
 
7. Snyder et al suggest that caffeine's ability to bind to A1  and A2 receptors can be at least partially attributed
to  which of the following?
(A) The chemical relationship between caffeine and  phosphodiesterase 
(B) The structural relationship between caffeine and  adenosine 
(C) The structural similarity between caffeine and  neurotransmitters 
(D) The ability of caffeine to stimulate behavior 
(E) The natural occurrence of caffeine and adenosine in  the brain 
 
8. The author quotes Snyder et al in lines 38-43 most  probably in order to 
(A) reveal some of the assumptions underlying their  theory 
(B) summarize a major finding of their experiments 
(C) point out that their experiments were limited to the  mouse 
(D) indicate that their experiments resulted only in  general correlations
(E) refute the objections made by supporters of the older  theory

9. The last paragraph of the passage performs which of the  following functions?
(A) Describes a disconfirming experimental result  and reports the explanation given by Snyder et al in 
an attempt to reconcile this result with their theory.
(B) Specifies the basis for the correlation observed by  Snyder et al and presents an explanation in an  attempt to
make the correlation consistent with the  operation of psychoactive drugs other than caffeine.
(C) Elaborates the description of the correlation  observed by Snyder et al and suggests an additional 
explanation in an attempt to make the correlation  consistent with the older theory.
(D) Reports inconsistent experimental data and  describes the method Snyder et al will use to  reanalyze this
data.
(E) Provides an example of the hypothesis proposed by  Snyder et al and relates this example to caffeine's 
properties.
 
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Art historians’ approach to French Impressionism has changed significantly in recent years. While a decade ago
Rewald’s History of Impressionism, which emphasizes Impressionist painters’ stylistic innovations, was
unchallenged, the literature on impressionism has now become a kind of ideological battlefield, in which more
attention is paid to the subject matter of the paintings, and to the social and moral issues raised by it, than to
their style. Recently, politically charged discussions that address the impressionists’ unequal treatment of men
and women and the exclusion of modern industry and labor from their pictures have tended to crowd out the
stylistic analysis favored by Rewald and his followers. In a new work illustrating this trend, Robert L. Herbert
dissociates himself from formalists whose preoccupation with the stylistic features of impressionist painting
has, in Herbert’s view, left the history out of art history; his aim is to restore impressionist paintings “to their
sociocultural context.” However, his arguments are not finally persuasive.
 
In attempting to place impressionist painting in its proper historical context, Herbert has redrawn the traditional
boundaries of impressionism. Limiting himself to the two decades between 1860 and 1880, he assembles under
the impressionist banner what can only be described as a somewhat eccentric grouping of painters. Cezanne,
Pisarro, and Sisley are almost entirely ignored, largely because their paintings do not suit Herbert’s emphasis on
themes of urban life and suburban leisure, while Manet, Degas, and Caillebotte—who paint scenes of urban life
but whom many would hardly characterize as impressionists—dominate the first half of the book. Although this
new description of Impressionist painting provides a more unified conception of nineteenth-century French
painting by grouping quite disparate modernist painters together and emphasizing their common concerns rather
than their stylistic difference, it also forces Herbert to overlook some of the most important genres of
impressionist painting—portraiture, pure landscape, and still-life painting.
 
Moreover, the rationale for Herbert’s emphasis on the social and political realities that Impressionist paintings
can be said to communicate rather than on their style is finally undermined by what even Herbert concedes was
the failure of Impressionist painters to serve as particularly conscientious illustrators of their social milieu. They
left much ordinary experience—work and poverty, for example—out of their paintings and what they did put in
was transformed by a style that had only an indirect relationship to the social realities of the world they
depicted. Not only were their pictures inventions rather than photographs, they were inventions in which style to
some degree disrupted description. Their painting in effect have two levels of subject: what is represented and
how it is represented, and no art historian can afford to emphasize one at the expense of the other.
 
1. Which one of the following best expresses the main point of the passage?
(A) The style of impressionist paintings has only an indirect relation to their subject matter.
(B) The approach to impressionism that is illustrated by Herbert’s recent book is inadequate.
(C) The historical context of impressionist paintings is not relevant to their interpretation.
(D) impressionism emerged from a historical context of ideological conflict and change.
(E) Any adequate future interpretation of impressionism will have to come to terms with Herbert’s view of this
art movement.
 
2. According to the passage, Rewald’s book on impressionism was characterized by which one of the
following?
(A) evenhanded objectivity about the achievements of impressionism
(B) bias in favor of certain impressionist painters
(C) an emphasis on the stylistic features of impressionist painting
(D) an idiosyncratic view of which painters were to be classified as impressionists
(E) a refusal to enter into the ideological debates that had characterized earlier discussions of impressionism
 
3. The author implies that Herbert’s redefinition of the boundaries of impressionism resulted from which one of
the following?
(A) an exclusive emphasis on form and style
(B) a bias in favor of the representation of modern industry
(C) an attempt to place impressionism within a specific sociocultural context
(D) a broadening of the term impressionism to include all nineteenth-century French painting
(E) an insufficient familiarity with earlier interpretations of impressionism
 
4. The author states which one of the following about modern industry and labor as subjects for painting?
(A) The impressionists neglected these subjects in their paintings.
(B) Herbert’s book on impressionism fails to give adequate treatment of these subjects.
(C) The impressionists’ treatment of these subjects was idealized.
(D) Rewald’s treatment of impressionist painters focused inordinately on their representations of these subjects.
(E) Modernist painters presented a distorted picture of these subjects.
 
5. Which one of the following most accurately describes the structure of the author’s argument in the passage?
(A) The first two paragraphs each present independent arguments for a conclusion that is drawn in the third
paragraph.
(B) A thesis is stated in the first paragraph and revised in the second paragraph, and the revised thesis is
supported with argument in the third paragraph.
(C) The first two paragraphs discuss and criticize a thesis, and the third paragraph presents an alternative thesis.
(D) a claim is made in the first paragraph, and the next two paragraphs each present reasons for accepting that
claim.
(E) An argument is presented in the first paragraph, a counterargument is presented in the second paragraph,
and the third paragraph suggests a way to resolve the dispute.
 
6. The author’s statement that impressionist paintings “were inventions in which style to some degree disrupted
description” (lines 57-59) serves to
(A) strengthen the claim that impressionist sought to emphasize the differences between painting and
photography
(B) weaken the argument that style is the only important feature of impressionist paintings
(C) indicate that impressionists recognized that they had been strongly influence by photography
(D) support the argument that an exclusive emphasis on the impressionists subject matter is mistaken
(E) undermine the claim that impressionists neglected certain kinds of subject matter
 
7. The author would most likely regard a book on the impressionists that focused entirely on their style as
(A) a product of the recent confusion caused by Herbert’s book on impressionism
(B) emphasizing what impressionists themselves took to be their primary artistic concern
(C) an overreaction against the traditional interpretation of impressionism
(D) neglecting the most innovative aspects of impressionism
(E) addressing only part of what an adequate treatment should cover.
 
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Changes in the volume of unemployment are governed by three fundamental forces: the growth of the labor
force, the increase in output per man-hour, and the growth of total demand for goods and services. Changes in
the average hours of work enter in exactly parallel fashion but have been quantitatively less significant. As
productivity rises, less labor is required per dollar of national product, or more goods and services can be
produced with the same number of man-hours. If output does not grow, employment will certainly fall; if
production increases more rapidly than productivity (less any decline in average hours worked), employment
must rise. But the labor force grows, too. Unless gross national product (total final expenditure for goods and
services corrected for price changes) rises more rapidly than the sum of productivity increase and labor force
growth (again modified for any change in hours of work), the increase in employment will be inadequate to
absorb the growth in the labor force. Inevitably the unemployment rate will increase. Only when total
production expands faster than the rate of labor force growth plus the rate of productivity increase and minus
the rate at which average annual hours fall does the unemployment rate fall. Increases in productivity were more
important than growth of the labor force as sources of the wide gains in output experienced in the period from
the end of World War II to the mid-sixties. These increases in potential production simply were not matched by
increases in demand adequate to maintain steady full employment.
Except for the recession years of 1949, 1954, and 1958, the rate of economic growth exceeded the rate of
productivity increase. However, in the late 1950s productivity and the labor force were increasing more rapidly
than usual, while the growth of output was slower than usual. This accounted for the change in employment
rates.
But if part of the national purpose is to reduce and contain unemployment, arithmetic is not enough. We must
know which of the basic factors we can control and which we wish to control. Unemployment would have risen
more slowly or fallen more rapidly if productivity had increased more slowly, or the labor force had increased
more slowly, or the hours of work had fallen more steeply, or total output had grown more rapidly. These are
not independent factors, however, and a change in any of them might have caused changes in the others.
A society can choose to reduce the growth of productivity, and it can probably find ways to frustrate its own
creativity. However, while a reduction in the growth of productivity at the expense of potential output might
result in higher employment in the short run, the long-run effect on the national interest would be disastrous.
We must also give consideration to the fact that hidden beneath national averages is continuous movement into,
out of, between, and within labor markets. For example, 15 years ago, the average number of persons in the
labor force was 73.4 million, with about 66.7 million employed and 3.9 million unemployed. Yet 14 million
experienced some term of unemployment in that year. Some were new entrants to the labor force; others were
laid off temporarily. The remainder were those who were permanently or indefinitely severed from their jobs.
Thus, the average number unemployed during a year understates the actual volume of involuntary displacement
that occurs.
High unemployment is not an inevitable result of the pace of technological change but the consequence of
passive public policy. We can anticipate a moderate increase in the labor force accompanied by a slow and
irregular decline in hours of work. It follows that the output of the economy—and the aggregate demand to buy
it—must grow by more than 4 percent a year just to prevent the unemployment rate from rising, and by even
more if the unemployment rate is to fall further. Yet our economy has seldom, if ever, grown at a rate greater
than 3.5 percent for any extended length of time. We have no cause of complacency. Positive fiscal, monetary,
and manpower policies will be needed in the future.
1. The primary purpose of the passage is to
(A) define the economic terms used in the discussion of employment
(B) criticize the decisions of past administrations during recession years
(C) call for the application of positive economic control policies in the years that lie ahead
(D) allay current fears about increasing unemployment
(E) document the rise of American productivity since World War II
2. According to the passage, if the labor force does not grow and there is no decline in the average number of
hours worked, under which of the following conditions will the employment rate inevitably rise?
(A) Total production expands faster than the total demand for goods and services.
(B) The total demand for goods and services and productivity both rise.
(C) Output per man-hour and gross national product both rise.
(D) Productivity increases more rapidly than production.
(E) Production increases more rapidly than output per man-hour.
3. It can be inferred from the passage than in the late 1950s, which of the following occurred?
I. The growth in output was less than 3.5 percent.
II. The average number of hours worked declined.
III. The increase in output per man-hour was greater than usual.
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) III only
(D) I and III only
(E) I, II, and III
4. It can be inferred from the passage that during the recession years of 1949, 1954, and 1958, which of the
following most likely occurred?
(A) The labor force increased more rapidly than it did in any other year between 1945 and 1965.
(B) More labor was required per dollar of national product than in any other year between 1945 and 1965.
(C) The average number of hours worked rose.
(D) Full employment was attained.
(E) The rate of unemployment increased.
5. It can be inferred from the passage that if a policy to increase employment by reducing the growth of
productivity at the expense of potential output were adopted, the author most likely would regard it as
(A) sound but inadequate
(B) overly aggressive
(C) frivolous
(D) insidious
(E) unobjectionable
6. It can be inferred from the passage that, according to the author, the actual number of people who experience
some term of unemployment during any given year
(A) is the difference between the number of persons in the labor force and the number of persons employed that
year
(B) does not reflect movement into, out of, between, and within labor markets
(C) exceeds the average number unemployed during that year
(D) overstate the volume of involuntary displacement that occurs during the year
(E) is impossible to calculate
7. The passage contains information that answers all of the following questions EXCEPT:
(A) What is gross national product?
(B) What effect does a change in productivity invariably have on gross national product?
(C) Under what conditions might employment rise in the short run?
(D) What effect does an increase in output and a decrease in number of hours worked have on productivity?
(E) What was the average number of people unemployed in 1962?
8. Which of the following best describes the organization of the fifth paragraph of the passage?
(A) An assertion is made, data are provided to support it, and the assertion is reiterated in different words.
(B) Several figures are given and hypothesis is formulated to explain them.
(C) An example is given to support the conclusion drawn in the preceding paragraph.
(D) A statement is made, data are provided to illustrate and amplify the statement, and a conclusion is drawn.
(E) A generalization is made and an example is given to refute it.
9. Which of the following proposals best responds to the author’s concerns?
(A) The government should manipulate the size of the labor force to prevent future recessions.
(B) The government should maintain some controls over the economy, but it should allow the employment rate
to rise and fall with the gross national product, as a check on labor costs.
(C) People should accept that unemployment is undesirable but unavoidable.
(D) The government should manage the economy carefully.
(E) The government should not interfere in the interplay among the three forces affecting unemployment.
10. Which of the following best summarizes the main idea of the passage?
(A) We can and must take steps to ensure that the unemployment rate does not continue to rise as our
population and our use of technology increase.
(B) Increases in potential production must be matched by increases in demand in order to maintain steady full
employment.
(C) High unemployment is not an inevitable result of the pace of technological change but the consequence of
passive public policy.
(D) If part of the national purpose is to reduce and contain unemployment, arithmetic is not enough.
(E) Full employment, regardless of fluctuations in the economy, is within the realm of possibility.
 
<http://gmatclub.com/forum/the-following-passage-was-written-in-107270.html?
sid=ac865d540bae3dd266b23130e950df1a>
 
-------------------
In a 1984 book, Claire C. Robertson argued that, before colonialism, age was a more important indicator of
status and authority than gender in Ghana and in Africa generally. British colonialism imposed European-style
male-dominant notions upon more egalitarian local situations to the detriment of women generally, and gender
became a defining characteristic that weakened women�s power and authority. 
 
[Line 18]Subsequent research in Kenya convinced Robertson that she had overgeneralized about Africa. Before
colonialism, gender was more salient in central Kenya than [Line 24]it was in Ghana, although age was still
crucial in determining authority. In contrast with Ghana, where women had traded for hundreds of years and
achieved legal majority (not unrelated phenomena), the evidence regarding central Kenya indicated that women
were legal minors and were sometimes treated as male property, as were European women at that time. Factors
like strong patrilinearity and patrilocality, as well as women�s inferior land rights and lesser involvement in
trade, made women more dependent on men than was generally the case in Ghana. However, since age
apparently remained the overriding principle of social organization in central Kenya, some senior women had
much authority. Thus, Robertson revised her hypothesis somewhat, arguing that in determining authority in
precolonial Africa age was a primary principle that superseded gender to varying degrees depending on the
situation. 
 
Q4: 
The passage indicates that Robertson�s research in Kenya caused her to change her mind regarding which of
the following? 
A. Whether age was the prevailing principle of social organization in Kenya before colonialism 
B.Whether gender was the primary determinant of social authority in Africa generally before colonialism 
C. Whether it was only after colonialism that gender became a significant determinant of authority in Kenyan
society 
D.Whether age was a crucial factor determining authority in Africa after colonialism 
E Whether British colonialism imposed European-style male-dominant notions upon local situations in Ghana 
 
 
Q5: 
The passage suggests that after conducting the research mentioned in line 18, but not before, Robertson would
have agreed with which of the following about women�s status and authority in Ghana? 
A Greater land rights and greater involvement in trade made women in precolonial Ghana less dependent on
men than were European women at that time. 
B Colonialism had a greater impact on the status and authority of Ghanaian women than on Kenyan women. 
C Colonialism had less of an impact on the status and authority of Ghanaian women that it had on the status and
authority of other African women. 
D The relative independence of Ghanaian women prior to colonialism was unique in Africa. 
E Before colonialism, the status and authority of Ghanaian women was similar to that of Kenyan women. 
 
 
Q6: 
The author of the passage mentions the status of age as a principle of social organization in precolonial central
Kenya in lines 24-26 most likely in order to 
A. indicate that women�s dependence on men in precolonial Kenya was not absolute 
B. contrast the situation of senior women to that of less senior women in precolonial Kenyan society 
C. differentiate between the status and authority of precolonial Kenyan women and that of precolonial Ghanaian
women 
D. explain why age superseded gender to a greater extent in precolonial Kenya than it did elsewhere in Africa 
E. identify a factor that led Robertson to revise her hypothesis about precolonial Africa
 
<http://gmatclub.com/forum/african-methodology-of-power-106594.html?
sid=ac865d540bae3dd266b23130e950df1a>
 
-----------------
1 Although the recent debate over the
efficacy of capital punishment as a
deterrent to violent crime has produced
informed commentary from both camps,
5 few of the “experts” cited in public
discussion of the issue are aware that
the basic concept of deterrence was
developed during the eighteenth century
by the Italian writer Cesare Beccaria in
10 his book Crimes and Punishments
(1764). While arguing vehemently in
favor of strict punishments for violent
criminals, Beccaria nevertheless
rejected torture, secret trials, and capital
15 punishment as viable deterrents to
violent crime.
Beccaria’s writings have had a
profound influence on the treatment of
criminals. However, at present there is
20 little evidence to support Beccaria’s
fundamental contention that strict
punishment leads to a reduction in
violent crime. In a survey of the
American penal system recently carried
25 out by the Justice Department, a vast
majority of convicted felons revealed
that the threat of strict punishment, even
capital punishment, in no way deterred
them from committing a particular crime
30 or pursuing a career in crime. One
wonders how Beccaria would alter his
arguments if evidence like this had been
available to him. He might be pleased to
note that the evidence does support his
35 belief that capital punishment is an
ineffective deterrent, but he would be
hard pressed to find compelling support
for his other Draconian
recommendations.
 
 
According to the author, which of the following is true of Beccaria’s conception of criminal punishment?
 
It is discounted by most participants in the debate over capital punishment.
 
It typifies eighteenth-century attitudes toward the treatment of violent criminals.
 
It is less relevant to the debate over capital punishment than it was two centuries ago.
 
It forms the basis of the most contemporary discussions of crime and punishment.
 
It contains an early expression of a central issue to the debate over capital punishment.
 
<http://gmatclub.com/forum/capital-punishment-79608.html?
sid=ac865d540bae3dd266b23130e950df1a>
 
-------------
A major tenet of the neurosciences has been that all neurons (nerve cells) in the brains of vertebrate animals are
formed early in development. An adult vertebrate, it was believed, must make do with a fixed number of
neurons: those lost through disease or injury are not replaced, and adult learning takes place not through
generation of new cells but through modification of connections among existing ones.
 
 
However, new evidence for neurogenesis (the birth of new neurons) has come from the study of canary song.
Young canaries and other songbirds learn to sing much as humans learn to speak, by imitating models provided
by their elders. Several weeks after birth, a young bird produces its first rudimentary attempts at singing; over
the next few months the song becomes more structured and stable, reaching a fully developed state by the time
the bird approaches its first breeding season. But this repertoire of song is not permanently learned. After each
breeding season, during late summer and fall, the bird loses mastery of its developed “vocabulary,” and its song
becomes as unstable as that of a juvenile bird. During the following winter and spring, however, the canary
acquires new songs, and by the next breeding season it has developed an entirely new repertoire.
 
 
Recent neurological research into this learning and relearning process has shown that the two most important
regions of the canary’s brain related to the learning of songs actually vary in size at different times of the year.
In the spring, when the bird’s song is highly developed and uniform, the regions are roughly twice as large as
they are in the fall. Further experiments tracing individual nerve cells within these regions have shown that the
number of neurons drops by about 38 percent after the breeding season, but by the following breeding season,
new ones have been generated to replace them. A possible explanation for this continual replacement of nerve
cells may have to do with the canary’s relatively long life span and the requirements of flight. Its brain would
have to be substantially larger and heavier than might be feasible for flying if it had to carry all the brain cells
needed to process and retain all the information gathered over a lifetime.
 
 
Although the idea of neurogenesis in the adult mammalian brain is still not generally accepted, these findings
might help uncover a mechanism that would enable the human brain to repair itself through neurogenesis.
Whether such replacement of neurons would disrupt complex learning processes or long-term memory is not
known, but songbird research challenges scientists to identify the genes or hormones that orchestrate
neurogenesis in the young human brain and to learn how to activate them in the adult brain.
 
1. Which one of the following best expresses the main idea of the passage?
(A) New evidence of neurogenesis in canaries challenges an established neurological theory concerning brain
cells in vertebrates and suggests the possibility that human brains may repair themselves.
(B) The brains of canaries differ from the brains of other vertebrate animals in that the brains of adult canaries
are able to generate neurons.
(C) Recent studies of neurogenesis in canaries, building on established theories of vertebrate neurology, provide
important clues as to why researchers are not likely to discover neurogenesis in adult humans.
(D) Recent research into neurogenesis in canaries refutes a long-held belief about the limited supply of brain
cells and provides new information about neurogenesis in the adult human brain.
(E) New information about neurogenesis in canaries challenges older hypotheses and clarifies the importance of
the yearly cycle in learning processes and neurological replacement among vertebrates.
 
2. According to the passage, which one of the following is true of the typical adult canary during the late
summer and fall?
(A) The canary’s song repertoire takes on a fully structured and stable quality.
(B) A process of neurogenesis replaces the song-learning neurons that were lost during the preceding months.
(C) The canary begins to learn an entirely new repertoire of songs based on the models of other canaries.
(D) The regions in the canary’s brain that are central to the learning of song decrease in size.
(E) The canary performs slightly modified versions of the songs it learned during the preceding breeding
season.
3. Information in the passage suggests that the author would most likely regard which one of the
following as LEAST important in future research on neurogenesis in humans?
(A) research on possible similarities between the neurological structures of humans and canaries
(B) studies that compare the ratio of brain weight to body weight in canaries to that in humans
(C) neurological research on the genes or hormones that activate neurogenesis in the brain of human infants
(D) studies about the ways in which long-term memory functions in the human brain
(E) research concerning the processes by which humans learn complicated tasks
4. Which one of the following, if true, would most seriously undermine the explanation proposed by the
author in the third paragraph?
(A) A number of songbird species related to the canary have a shorter life span than the canary and do not
experience neurogenesis.
(B) The brain size of several types of airborne birds with life spans similar to those of canaries has been shown
to vary according to a two-year cycle of neurogenesis.
(C) Several species of airborne birds similar to canaries in size are known to have brains that are substantially
heavier than the canary’s brain.
(D) Individual canaries that have larger-than-average repertoires of songs tend to have better developed muscles
for flying.
(E) Individual canaries with smaller and lighter brains than the average tend to retain a smaller-than-average
repertoire of songs.
5. The use of the word “vocabulary” (line 23) serves primarily to
(A) demonstrate the presence of a rudimentary grammatical structure in canary song
(B) point out a similarity between the patterned groupings of sounds in a canary’s song and the syllabic
structures of words
(C) stress the stability and uniformity of canary’s song throughout its lifetime
(D) suggest a similarity between the possession of a repertoire of words among humans and a repertoire of
songs among canaries
(E) imply that the complexity of the canary’s song repertoire is equal to that of human language
6. According to the passage, which one of the following factors may help account for the occurrence of
neurogenesis in canaries?
(A) the life span of the average canary
(B) the process by which canaries learn songs
(C) the frequency of canary breeding seasons
(D) the number of regions in the canary brain related to song learning
(E) the amount of time an average canary needs to learn a repertoire of songs
7. Which one of the following best describes the organization of the third paragraph?
(A) A theory is presented, analyzed, and modified, and a justification for the modification is offer.
(B) Research results are advanced and reconciled with results from other studies, and a shared principle is
described.
(C) Research results are presented, further details are provided, and a hypothesis is offered to explain the
results.
(D) Research results are reported, their implications are explained, and an application to a related field is
proposed.
(E) Research results are reported, their significance is clarified, and they are reconciled with previously
established neurological tenets.
8. It can be inferred from the passage that the author would most likely describe the current
understanding of neurogenesis as
(A) exhaustive
(B) progressive
(C) incomplete
(D) antiquated
(E) incorrect
 
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sid=ac865d540bae3dd266b23130e950df1a>
 
------------------------
Protein synthesis begins when the gene encoding a protein is activated. The gene’s sequence of nucleotides is
transcribed into a molecule of messenger RNA (mRNA), which reproduces the information contained in that
sequence. Transported outside the nucleus to the cytoplasm, the mRNA is translated into the protein it encodes
by an organelle known as a ribosome, which strings together amino acids in the order specified by the sequence
of elements in the mRNA molecule. Since the amount of mRNA in a cell determines the amount of the
corresponding protein, factors affecting the abundance of mRNA’s play a major part in the normal functioning
of a cell by appropriately regulating protein synthesis. For example, an excess of certain proteins can cause cells
to proliferate abnormally and become cancerous; a lack of the protein insulin results in diabetes.
 
Biologists once assumed that the variable rates at which cells synthesize different mRNA’s determine the
quantities of mRNA’s and their corresponding proteins in a cell. However, recent investigations have shown
that the concentrations of most mRNA’s correlate best, not with their synthesis rate, but rather with the equally
variable rates at which cells degrade the different mRNA’s in their cytoplasm. If a cell degrades both a rapidly
and a slowly synthesized mRNA slowly, both mRNA’s will accumulate to high levels.
 
An important example of this phenomenon is the development of red blood cells from their unspecialized parent
cells in bone marrow. For red blood cells to accumulate sufficient concentrations of hemoglobin (which
transports oxygen) to carry out their main function, the cells’ parent cells must simultaneously produce more of
the constituent proteins of hemoglobin and less of most other proteins. To do this, the parent cells halt synthesis
of non-hemoglobin mRNA’s in the nucleus and rapidly degrade copies of the non-hemoglobin mRNA’s
remaining in the cytoplasm. Halting synthesis of mRNA alone would not affect the quantities of proteins
synthesized by the mRNA’s still existing in the cytoplasm. Biologists now believe that most cells can regulate
protein production most efficiently by varying both mRNA synthesis and degradation, as developing red cells
do, rather than by just varying one or the other.
 
1. The passage is primarily concerned with discussing the
(A) influence of mRNA concentrations on the development of red blood cells
(B) role of the synthesis and degradation of mRNA in cell functioning
(C) mechanism by which genes are transcribed into mRNA
(D) differences in mRNA concentrations in cell nuclei and in the cytoplasm
(E) way in which mRNA synthesis contributes to the onset of diabetes
 
2. The passage suggests that a biologist who held the view described in the first sentence of the second
paragraph would most probably also have believed which of the following?
(A) The rate of degradation of specific mRNA’s has little effect on protein concentrations.
(B) The rate of degradation of specific mRNA’s should be studied intensively.
(C) The rates of synthesis and degradation for any given mRNA are normally equal.
(D) Different mRNA’s undergo degradation at widely varying rates.
(E) Most mRNA’s degrade very rapidly.
 
3. Which of the following best describes the relationship between the second and third paragraphs of the
passage?
(A) The second paragraph presents arguments in support of a new theory and the third paragraph presents
arguments against that same theory.
(B) The second paragraph describes a traditional view and the third paragraph describes the view that has
replaced it on the basis of recent investigations.
(C) The third paragraph describes a specific case of a phenomenon that is described generally in the second
paragraph.
(D) The third paragraph describes an investigation that was undertaken to resolve problems raised by
phenomena described in the second paragraph.
(E) Both paragraphs describe in detail specific examples of the phenomenon that is introduced in the first
paragraph.
 
4. The accumulation of concentrations of hemoglobin in red blood cells is mentioned in the passage as an
example of which of the following?
(A) The effectiveness of simultaneous variation of the rates of synthesis and degradation of mRNA
(B) The role of the ribosome in enabling a parent cell to develop properly into a more specialized form
(C) The importance of activating the genes for particular proteins at the correct moment
(D) The abnormal proliferation of a protein that threatens to make the cell cancerous
(E) The kind of evidence that biologists relied on for support of a view of mRNA synthesis that is now
considered obsolete
 
5. To begin to control a disease caused by a protein deficiency, the passage suggests that a promising
experimental treatment would be to administer a drug that would reduce
(A) only the degradation rate for the mRNA of the protein involved
(B) only the synthesis rate for the mRNA of the protein involved
(C) both the synthesis and degradation rates for the mRNA of the protein involved
(D) the incidence of errors in the transcription of mRNA’s from genetic nucleotide sequences
(E) the rate of activity of ribosomes in the cytoplasm of most cells
 
6. According to the passage, which of the following best describes the current view on the relationship between
the synthesis and the degradation of mRNA in regulating protein synthesis?
(A) Biologists have recently become convinced that the ribosome controls the rates of synthesis and degradation
of mRNA.
(B) There is no consensus among biologists as to the significance of mRNA degradation in regulating protein
synthesis.
(C) The concept of mRNA degradation is so new that most biologists still believe that the vital role in protein
regulation belongs to mRNA synthesis.
(D) Degradation of mRNA is now considered to be the key process and mRNA synthesis is no longer believed
to play a significant role.
(E) Degradation of mRNA is now considered to be as important as mRNA synthesis has been, and still is,
believed to be.
 
7. According to the passage, which of the following can happen when protein synthesis is not appropriately
regulated?
(A) Diabetes can result from errors that occur when the ribosomes translate mRNA into protein.
(B) Cancer can result from an excess of certain proteins and diabetes can result from an insulin deficiency.
(C) A deficiency of red blood cells can occur if bone marrow cells produce too much hemoglobin.
(D) Cancer can be caused by excessively rapid degradation of certain amino acids in the cytoplasm of cells.
(E) Excessive synthesis of one protein can trigger increased degradation of mRNA’s for other proteins and
create severe protein imbalances.
 
8. The passage suggests that a biologist who detected high levels of two proteins in a certain type of cell would
be likely to consider which of the following as a possible explanation?
(A) The rate of mRNA degradation for one of the proteins increases as this type of cell develops a more
specialized function.
(B) The two proteins are most likely constituents of a complex substance supporting the cells’ specialized
function.
(C) The cells are likely to proliferate abnormally and possibly become cancerous due to the levels of these
proteins.
(D) The mRNA’s for both proteins are being degraded at a low rate in that type of cell.
(E) The mRNA’s for the two proteins are being synthesized at identical rates in that type of cell.
 
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----------------------
Although bacteria are unicellular and among the simplest autonomous forms of life, they show a remarkable
ability to sense their environment. They are attracted to materials they need and are repelled by harmful
substances. Most types of bacteria swim very erratically: short smooth runs in relatively straight lines are
followed by brief tumbles, after which the bacteria shoot off in random directions. This leaves researchers with
the question of how such bacteria find their way to an attractant such as food or, in the case of photosynthetic
bacteria, light, if their swimming pattern consists only of smooth runs and tumbles, the latter resulting in
random changes in direction.
 
One clue comes from the observation that when a chemical attractant is added to a suspension of such bacteria,
the bacteria swim along a gradient of the attractant, from an area where the concentration of the attractant is
weaker to an area where it is stronger. As they do so, their swimming is characterized by a decrease in tumbling
and an increase in straight runs over relatively longer distances. As the bacteria encounter increasing
concentrations of the attractant, their tendency to tumble is suppressed, whereas tumbling increases whenever
they move away from the attractant. The net effect is that runs in the direction of higher concentrations of the
attractant become longer and straighter as a result of the suppression of tumbling, whereas runs away from it are
shortened by an increased tendency of the bacteria to tumble and change direction.
 
Biologists have proposed two mechanisms that bacteria might use in detecting changes in the concentration of a
chemical attractant. First, a bacterium might compare the concentration of a chemical at the front and back of its
cell body simultaneously. If the concentration is higher at the front of the cell, then it knows it is moving up the
concentration gradient, from an area where the concentration is lower to an area where it is higher.
Alternatively, it might measure the concentration at one instant and again after a brief interval, in which case the
bacterium must retain a memory of the initial concentration. Researchers reasoned that if bacteria do compare
concentrations at different times, then when suddenly exposed to a uniformly high concentration of an
attractant, the cells would behave as if they were swimming up a concentration gradient, with long, smooth runs
and relatively few tumbles. If, on the other hand, bacteria detect a chemical gradient by measuring it
simultaneously at two distinct points, front and back, on the cell body, they would not respond to the jump in
concentration because the concentration of the attractant in front and back of the cells, though high, would be
uniform. Experimental evidence suggests that bacteria compare concentrations at different times.
 
1. It can be inferred from the passage that which one of the following experimental results would suggest that
bacteria detect changes in the concentration of an attractant by measuring its concentration in front and back of
the cell body simultaneously?
(A) When suddenly transferred from a medium in which the concentration of an attractant was uniformly low to
one in which the concentration was uniformly high, the tendency of the bacteria to tumble and undergo random
changes in direction increased.
(B) When suddenly transferred from a medium in which the concentration of an attractant was uniformly low to
one in which the concentration was uniformly high, the bacteria’s exhibited no change in the pattern of their
motion.
(C) When suddenly transferred from a medium in which the concentration of an attractant was uniformly low to
one in which the concentration was uniformly high, the bacteria’s movement was characterized by a complete
absence of tumbling.
(D) When placed in a medium in which the concentration of an attractant was in some areas low and in others
high, the bacteria exhibited an increased tendency to tumble in those areas where the concentration of the
attractant was high.
(E) When suddenly transferred from a medium in which the concentration of an attractant was uniformly low to
one that was completely free of attractants, the bacteria exhibited a tendency to suppress tumbling and move in
longer, straighter lines.
 
2. It can be inferred from the passage that a bacterium would increase the likelihood of its moving away from an
area where the concentration of a harmful substance is high if it did which one of the following?
(A) Increased the speed at which it swam immediately after undergoing the random changes in direction that
result from tumbling.
(B) Detected the concentration gradient of an attractant toward which it could begin to swim.
(C) Relied on the simultaneous measurement of the concentration of the substance in front and back of its body,
rather than on the comparison of the concentration at different points in time.
(D) Exhibited a complete cessation of tumbling when it detected increases in the concentration of substance.
(E) Exhibited an increased tendency to tumble as it encountered increasing concentrations of the substance, and
suppressed tumbling as it detected decreases in the concentration of the substance.
 
3. It can be inferred from the passage that when describing bacteria as “swimming up a concentration gradient”
(lines 49-50), the author means that they were behaving as if they were swimming
(A) Against a resistant medium that makes their swimming less efficient.
(B) Away from a substance to which they are normally attracted.
(C) Away from a substance that is normally harmful to them.
(D) From an area where the concentration of a repellent is weaker to an area where it is completely absent.
(E) From an area where the concentration of a substance is weaker to an area where it is stronger.
 
4. The passage indicates that the pattern that characterizes a bacterium’s motion changes in response to
(A) The kinds of chemical attractants present in different concentration gradients.
(B) The mechanism that the bacterium adopts in determining the presence of an attractant.
(C) The bacterium’s detection of changes in the concentration of an attractant.
(D) The extent to which neighboring bacteria are engaged in tumbling.
(E) Changes in the intervals of time that occur between the bacterium’s measurement of the concentration of an
attractant.
 
5. Which one of the following best describes the organization of the third paragraph of the passage?
(A) Two approaches to a problem are discussed, a test that would determine which is more efficient is
described, and a conclusion is made, based on experimental evidence.
(B) Two hypotheses are described, a way of determining which of them is more likely to be true is discussed,
and one said to be more accurate on the basis of experimental evidence.
(C) Two hypotheses are described, the flaws inherent in one of them are elaborated, and experimental evidence
confirming the other is cited.
(D) An assertion that a species has adopted two different mechanisms to solve a particular problem is made, and
evidence is then provided in support of that assertion.
(E) An assertion that one mechanism for solving a particular problem is more efficient than another is made,
and evidence is then provided in support of that assertion.
 
6. The passage provides information in support of which one of the following assertions?
(A) The seemingly erratic motion exhibited by a microorganism can in fact reflect a mechanism by which it is
able to control its movement.
(B) Biologists often overstate the complexity of simple organisms such as bacteria.
(C) A bacterium cannot normally retain a memory of a measurement of the concentration of an attractant.
(D) Bacteria now appear to have less control over their movement than biologists had previously hypothesized.
(E) Photosynthetic bacteria appear to have more control over their movement than do bacteria that are not
photosynthetic.
 
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Immigrants’ adoption of English as their primary language is one measure of assimilation into the larger United
States society. Generally languages define social groups and provide justification for social structures. Hence, a
distinctive language sets a cultural group off from the dominant language group. Throughout United States
history this pattern has resulted in one consistent, unhappy consequence, discrimination against members of the
cultural minority. Language differences provide both a way to rationalize subordination and a ready means for
achieving it.
Traditionally, English has replaced the native language of immigrant groups by the second or third generation.
Some characteristics of today’s Spanish-speaking population, however, suggest the possibility of a departure
from this historical pattern. Many families retain ties in Latin America and move back and forth between their
present and former communities. This “revolving door” phenomenon, along with the high probability of
additional immigrants from the south, means that large Spanish-speaking communities are likely to exist in the
United States for the indefinite future.
This expectation underlies the call for national support for bilingual education in Spanish-speaking
communities’ public schools. Bilingual education can serve different purposes, however. In the 1960s, such
programs were established to facilitate the learning of English so as to avoid disadvantaging children in their
other subjects because of their limited English. More recently, many advocates have viewed bilingual education
as a means to maintain children’s native languages and cultures. The issue is important for people with different
political agendas, from absorption at one pole to separatism at the other.
To date, the evaluations of bilingual education’s impact on learning have been inconclusive. The issue of
bilingual education has, nevertheless, served to unite the leadership of the nation’s Hispanic communities.
Grounded in concerns about status that are directly traceable to the United States history of discrimination
against Hispanics, the demand for maintenance of the Spanish language in the schools is an assertion of the
worth of a people and their culture. If the United States is truly a multicultural nation—that is, if it is one culture
reflecting the contributions of many—this demand should be seen as a demand not for separation but for
inclusion.
More direct efforts to force inclusion can be misguided. For example, movements to declare English the official
language do not truly advance the cohesion of a multicultural nation. They alienate the twenty million people
who do not speak English as their mother tongue. They are unnecessary since the public’s business is already
conducted largely in English. Further, given the present state of understanding about the effects of bilingual
education on learning, it would be unwise to require the universal use of English. Finally, it is for parents and
local communities to choose the path they will follow, including how much of their culture they want to
maintain for their children.
 
1. It can be inferred from the passage that one of the characteristics of immigrant groups to the United States
has traditionally been that, after immigration, relatively few members of the group
(A) became politically active in their new communities
(B) moved back and forth repeatedly between the United States and their former communities
(C) used their native languages in their new communities
(D) suffered discrimination in their new communities at the hands of the cultural majority
(E) sought assimilation into the dominant culture of the new communities they were entering
 
2. The passage suggests that one of the effects of the debate over bilingual education is that it has
(A) given the Hispanic community a new-found pride in its culture
(B) hampered the education of Spanish-speaking students
(C) demonstrated the negative impact on imposing English as the official United States language
(D) provided a common banner under which the Spanish-speaking communities could rally
(E) polarized the opinions of local Spanish-speaking community leaders
 
3. In lines 38-39, the phrase “different political agendas” refers specifically to conflicting opinions regarding the
(A) means of legislating the assimilation of minorities into United States society
(B) methods of inducing Hispanics to adopt English as their primary language
(C) means of achieving nondiscriminatory education for Hispanics
(D) official given responsibility for decisions regarding bilingual education
(E) extent to which Hispanics should blend into the larger United States society
 
4. In lines 64-65 the author says that “It would be unwise to require the universal use of English.” One reason
for this, according to the author, is that
(A) it is not clear yet whether requiring the universal use of English would promote or hinder the education of
children whose English is limited
(B) the nation’s Hispanic leaders have shown that bilingual education is most effective when it includes the
maintenance of the Spanish language in the schools
(C) requiring the universal use of English would reduce the cohesion of the nation’s Hispanic communities and
leadership
(D) the question of language in the schools should be answered by those who evaluate bilingual education, not
by people with specific political agendas
(E) it has been shown that bilingual education is necessary to avoid disadvantaging in their general learning
children whose English is limited
 
5. In the last paragraph, the author of the passage is primarily concerned with discussing
(A) reasons against enacting a measure that would mandate the forced inclusion of immigrant groups within the
dominant United culture
(B) the virtues and limitations of declaring English the official language of the United States
(C) the history of attitudes within the Hispanic community toward bilingual education in the United States
(D) the importance for immigrant groups of maintaining large segments of their culture to pass on to their
children
(E) the difference in cultures between Hispanics and other immigrant groups in the United States
 
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--------------
Faced with the problems of insufficient evidence, of conflicting evidence, and of evidence relayed through the
flawed perceptual, retentive, and narrative abilities of witnesses, a jury is forced to draw inferences in its
attempt to ascertain the truth. By applying the same cognitive tools they have developed and used over a
lifetime, jurors engage in the inferential exercise that lawyers call fact-finding. In certain decision-making
contexts that are relevant to the trial of lawsuits, however, these normally reliable cognitive tools may cause
jurors to commit inferential errors that distort rather than reveal the truth. 
 
Although juries can make a variety of inferential errors, most of these mistakes in judgment involve the drawing
of an unwarranted conclusion from the evidence, that is, in reality, it does not prove. For example, evidence that
the defendant in a criminal prosecution has a prior conviction may encourage jurors to presume the defendant’s
guilt, because of their preconception that a person previously convicted of a crime must be inclined toward
repeated criminal behavior. That commonly held belief is at least a partial distortion of reality; not all former
convicts engage in repeated criminal behavior. Also, a jury may give more probative weight than objective
analysis would allow to vivid photographic evidence depicting a shooting victim’s wounds, or may
underestimate the weight of defense testimony that is not delivered in a sufficiently forceful or persuasive
manner. Finally, complex or voluminous evidence might be so confusing to a jury that its members would draw
totally unwarranted conclusions or even ignore the evidence entirely.
 
Recent empirical research in cognitive psychology suggests that people tend to commit inferential errors like
these under certain predictable circumstances. By examining the available information, the situation, and the
type of decision being made, cognitive psychologists can describe the kinds of inferential errors a person or a
group is likely to make. These patterns of human decision-making may provide the courts with a guide to
evaluating the effect of evidence on the reliability of the jury’s inferential processes in certain situations. 
 
The fact that juries can commit inferential errors that jeopardize the accuracy of the fact-finding process is not
unknown to the courts. In fact, one of a presiding judge’s duties is to minimize jury inferential error through
explanation and clarification. Nonetheless, most judges now employ only a limited and primitive concept of
jury inferential error: limited because it fails to recognize the potential for errors outside certain traditional
situations, primitive because it ignores the research and conclusions of psychologists in favor of notions about
human cognition held by lawyers.
 
Que 1 . Which of the following best explains the main idea of the passage?
 
(A) When making decisions in certain predictable situations, juries may commit inferential errors that obscure
rather than reveal the truth.
(B) The views of human cognition held by psychologists on the one hand and by the legal profession are
demonstrably dissimilar.
(C) When confronting powerful preconceptions, particularly shocking evidence, or complex situations, jurors
make errors in judgment.
(D) The problem of inferential error by juries is typical of the difficulties with cognitive processes that people
face in their everyday lives.
(E) Juries would probably make more reliable decisions if cognitive psychologists, rather than judges, instructed
them about the problems inherent in drawing unwarranted conclusions.
 
Que2 : “It can be inferred from the passage that the author would be most likely to agree with which of the
following generalizations about lawyers?”
 
(A) They have a less sophisticated understanding of human cognition than do psychologists.
(B) They often present complex or voluminous information merely in order to confuse a jury.
(C) They are no better at making logical inferences from the testimony at a trial than are most judges.
(D) They have worked to help judges minimize jury inferential error.
(E) They are unrealistic about the ability of jurors to ascertain the truth.
 
 
Que3. “The author would be most likely to agree with which one of the following generalizations about a jury’s
decisionmaking process?”
 
(A) The more evidence a jury has, the more likely it is that the jury will reach a reliable verdict.
(B) Juries usually overestimate the value of visual evidence such as photographs.
(C) Jurors have preconceptions about the behavior of defendants that prevent them from making an objective
analysis of the evidence in a criminal trial.
(D) Most of the jurors who make inferential errors during a trial do so because they are unaccustomed to having
to make difficult decisions based on inferences.
(E) The manner in which evidence is presented to a jury may influence the jury either to overestimate or to
underestimate the value of that evidence.
 
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sid=ac865d540bae3dd266b23130e950df1a>
 
----------------------
Nearly a century ago, biologists found that if they separated an invertebrate animal embryo into two parts at an
early stage of its life, it would survive and develop as two normal embryos. This led them to believe that the
cells in the early embryo are undetermined in the sense that each cell has the potential to develop in a variety of
different ways. Later biologists found that the situation was not so simple. It matters in which plane the embryo
is cut. If it is cut in a plane different from the one used by the early investigators, it will not form two whole
embryos.
A debate arose over what exactly was happening. Which embryo cells are determined, just when do they
become irreversibly committed to their fates, and what are the “morphogenetic determinants” that tell a cell
what to become? But the debate could not be resolved because no one was able to ask the crucial questions in a
form in which they could be pursued productively. Recent discoveries in molecular biology, however, have
opened up prospects for a resolution of the debate. Now investigators think they know at least some of the
molecules that act as morphogenetic determinants in early development. They have been able to show that, in a
sense, cell determination begins even before an egg is fertilized.
Studying sea urchins, biologist Paul Gross found that an unfertilized egg contains substances that function as
morphogenetic determinants. They are located in the cytoplasm of the egg cell; i.e., in that part of the cell’s
protoplasm that lies outside of the nucleus. In the unfertilized egg, the substances are inactive and are not
distributed homogeneously. When the egg is fertilized, the substances become active and, presumably, govern
the behavior of the genes they interact with. Since the substances are unevenly distributed in the egg, when the
fertilized egg divides, the resulting cells are different from the start and so can be qualitatively different in their
own gene activity.
The substances that Gross studied are maternal messenger RNA’s—products of certain of the maternal genes.
He and other biologists studying a wide variety of organisms have found that these particular RNA’s direct, in
large part, the synthesis of histones, a class of proteins that bind to DNA. Once synthesized, the histones move
into the cell nucleus, where section of DNA wrap around them to form a structure that resembles beads, or
knots, on a string. The beads are DNA segments wrapped around the histones; the string is the intervening
DNA. And it is the structure of these beaded DNA strings that guide the fate of the cells in which they are
located.
1. The passage is most probably directed at which kind of audience?
(A) State legislators deciding about funding levels for a state-funded biological laboratory
(B) Scientists specializing in molecular genetics
(C) Readers of an alumni newsletter published by the college that Paul Gross attended
(D) Marine biologists studying the processes that give rise to new species
(E) Undergraduate biology majors in a molecular biology course
2. It can be inferred from the passage that the morphogenetic determinants present in the early embryo are
(A) located in the nucleus of the embryo cells
(B) evenly distributed unless the embryo is not developing normally
(C) inactive until the embryo cells become irreversibly committed to their final function
(D) identical to those that were already present in the unfertilized egg
(E) present in larger quantities than is necessary for the development of a single individual
3. The main topic of the passage is
(A) the early development of embryos of lower marine organisms
(B) the main contribution of modern embryology to molecular biology
(C) the role of molecular biology in disproving older theories of embryonic development
(D) cell determination as an issue in the study of embryonic development
(E) scientific dogma as a factor in the recent debate over the value of molecular biology
4. According to the passage, when biologists believed that the cells in the early embryo were undetermined,
they made which of the following mistakes?
(A) They did not attempt to replicate the original experiment of separating an embryo into two parts.
(B) They did not realize that there was a connection between the issue of cell determination and the outcome of
the separation experiment.
(C) They assumed that the results of experiments on embryos did not depend on the particular animal species
used for such experiments.
(D) They assumed that it was crucial to perform the separation experiment at an early stage in the embryo’s life.
(E) They assumed that different ways of separating an embryo into two parts would be equivalent as far as the
fate of the two parts was concerned.
5. It can be inferred from the passage that the initial production of histones after an egg is fertilized takes place
(A) in the cytoplasm
(B) in the maternal genes
(C) throughout the protoplasm
(D) in the beaded portions of the DNA strings
(E) in certain sections of the cell nucleus
6. It can be inferred from the passage that which of the following is dependent on the fertilization of an egg?
(A) Copying of maternal genes to produce maternal messenger RNA’s
(B) Synthesis of proteins called histones
(C) Division of a cell into its nucleus and the cytoplasm
(D) Determination of the egg cell’s potential for division
(E) Generation of all of a cell’s morphogenetic determinants
7. According to the passage, the morphogenetic determinants present in the unfertilized egg cell are which of
the following?
(A) Proteins bound to the nucleus
(B) Histones
(C) Maternal messenger RNA’s
(D) Cytoplasm
(E) Nonbeaded intervening DNA
8. The passage suggests that which of the following plays a role in determining whether an embryo separated
into two parts will develop as two normal embryos?
I. The stage in the embryo’s life at which the separation occurs
II. The instrument with which the separations is accomplished
III. The plane in which the cut is made that separates the embryo
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) I and II only
(D) I and III only
(E) I, II, and III
9. Which of the following circumstances is most comparable to the impasse biologists encountered in trying to
resolve the debate about cell determination (lines 12-18)?
(A) The problems faced by a literary scholar who wishes to use original source materials that are written in an
unfamiliar foreign language
(B) The situation of a mathematician who in preparing a proof of a theorem for publication detects a reasoning
error in the proof
(C) The difficulties of a space engineer who has to design equipment to function in an environment in which it
cannot first be tested
(D) The predicament of a linguist trying to develop a theory of language acquisition when knowledge of the
structure of language itself is rudimentary at best
(E) The dilemma confronting a foundation when the funds available to it are sufficient to support one of two
equally deserving scientific projects but not both
 
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James Porter (1905-1970) was the first scholar to identify the African influence on visual art in the Americans,
and much of what is known about the cultural legacy that African-American artists inherited from their African
forebears has come to us by way of his work. Porter, a painter and art historian, began by studying African-
American crafts of the eighteenth and nineteenth centuries. This research revealed that many of the household
items created by African-American men and women—walking sticks, jugs, and textiles—displayed
characteristics that linked them iconographically to artifacts of West Africa. Porter then went on to establish
clearly the range of the cultural territory inherited by later African-American artists.
An example of this aspect of Porter’s research occurs in his essay “Robert S. Duncanson, Midwestern
Romantic-Realist.” The work of Duncanson, a nineteenth-century painter of the Hudson River school, like that
of his predecessor in the movement, Joshua Johnston, was commonly thought to have been created by a Euro-
American artist. Porter proved definitively that both Duncanson and Johnston were of African ancestry. Porter
published this finding and thousands of others in a comprehensive volume tracing the history of African-
American art. At the time of its first printing in 1943, only two other books devoted exclusively to the
accomplishments of African-American artists existed. Both of these books were written by Alain LeRoy Locke,
a professor at the university where Porter also taught. While these earlier studies by Locke are interesting for
being the first to survey the field, neither addressed the critical issue of African precursors; Porter’s book
addressed this issue, painstakingly integrating the history of African-American art into the larger history of art
in the Americas without separating it from those qualities that gave it its unique ties to African artisanship.
Porter may have been especially attuned to these ties because of his conscious effort to maintain them in his
own paintings, many of which combine the style of the genre portrait with evidence of an extensive knowledge
of the cultural history of various African peoples.
In his later years, Porter wrote additional chapters for later editions of his book, constantly revising and
correcting his findings, some of which had been based of necessity on fragmentary evidence. Among his later
achievements were his definitive reckoning of the birth year of the painter Patrick Reason, long a point of
scholarly uncertainty, and his identification of an unmarked grave in San Francisco as that of the sculptor
Edmonia Lewis. At his death, Porter left extensive notes for unfinished project aimed at exploring the influence
of African art on the art of the Western world generally, a body of research whose riches scholars still have not
exhausted.
6. Which one of the following most accurately states the main idea of the passage?
(A) Because the connections between African-American art and other art in the Americas had been established
by earlier scholars, Porter’s work focused on showing African-American art’s connections to African
artisanship.
(B) In addition to showing the connections between African-American art and African artisanship, Porter’s
most important achievement was illustrating the links between African-American art and other art in Americas.
(C) Despite the fact that his last book remains unfinished, Porter’s work was the first to devote its attention
exclusively to the accomplishments of African-American artists.
(D) Although showing the connections between African-American art and African artisanship, Porter’s work
concentrated primarily on placing African-American art in the context of Western art in general.
(E) While not the first body of scholarship to treat the subject of African-American art, Porter’s work was the
first to show the connections between African-American art and African artisanship.
7. The discussion of Locke’s books is intended primarily to
(A) argue that Porte’s book depended upon Locke’s pioneering scholarship
(B) highlight an important way in which Porter’s work differed from previous work in his field
(C) suggest an explanation for why Porter’s book was little known outside academic circles
(D) support the claim that Porter was not the first to notice African influences in African-American art
(E) argue that Locke’s example was a major influence o Porter’s decision to publish his findings
8. The passage states which one of the following about the 1943 edition of Porter’s book on African-American
art?
(A) It received little scholarly attention at first.
(B) It was revised and improved upon in later editions.
(C) It took issue with several of Locke’s conclusions.
(D) It is considered the definitive version of Porter’s work.
(E) It explored the influence of African art on western art in general.
9. Given the information in the passage, Porter’s identification of the ancestry of Duncanson and Johnston
provides conclusive evidence for which one of the following statements?
(A) Some of the characteristics defining the Hudson River school are iconographically linked to Weston
African artisanship.
(B) Some of the works of Duncanson and Johnston are not in the style of the Hudson River school.
(C) Some of the work of Euro-American painters displays similarities to African-American crafts of the
eighteenth and nineteenth centuries.
(D) Some of the works of the Hudson River school were done by African-American painters.
(E) Some of the works of Duncanson and Johnston were influenced by West African artifacts.
10. Which one of the following can most reasonably be inferred from the passage about the study that Porter left
unfinished at his death?
(A) If completed, it would have contradicted some of the conclusions contained in his earlier book.
(B) If completed, it would have amended some of the conclusions contained in his earlier book.
(C) If completed, it would have brought up to date the comprehensive history of African-American art begun in
his earlier book.
(D) If completed, it would have expanded upon the project of his earlier book by broadening the scope of
inquiry found in the earlier book.
(E) If completed, it would have supported some of the theories put forth by Porter’s contemporaries since the
publication of his earlier book.
11. Which of the following hypothetical observations is most closely analogous to the discoveries Porter made
about African-American crafts of the eighteenth and nineteenth centuries?
(A) Contemporary Haitian social customs have a unique character dependent on but different from both their
African and French origins.
(B) Popular music in the United States, some of which is based on African musical traditions, often influences
music being composed on the African continent.
(C) Many novels written in Canada by Chinese immigrants exhibit narrative themes very similar to those found
in Chinese folktales.
(D) Extensive Indian immigration to England has made traditional Indian foods nearly as popular there as the
traditional English foods that had been popular there before Indian immigration.
(E) Some Mexican muralists of the early twentieth century consciously imitated the art of native peoples as a
response to the Spanish influences that had predominated in Mexican art.
12. The passage most strongly supports which one of the following inferences about Porter’s own paintings?
(A) They often contained figures or images derived from the work of African artisans.
(B) They fueled his interest in pursuing a career in art history.
(C) They were used in Porter’s book to show the extent of African influence on African-American art.
(D) They were a deliberate attempt to prove his theories about art history.
(E) They were done after all of his academic work had been completed.
13. Based on the passage, which one of the following, if true, would have been most relevant to the project
Porter was working on at the time of his death?
(A) African-American crafts of the eighteenth and nineteenth centuries have certain resemblances to European
folk crafts of earlier periods.
(B) The paintings of some twentieth-century European artists prefigured certain stylistic developments in North
African graphic art.
(C) The designs of many of the quilts made by African-American women in the nineteenth century reflect
designs of European trade goods.
(D) After the movement of large numbers of African-Americans to cities, the African influences in the work of
many African-American painters increased.
(E) Several portraits by certain twentieth-century European painters were modeled after examples of Central
African ceremonial masks.
 
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sid=ac865d540bae3dd266b23130e950df1a>
 
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The first and most important rule of legitimate or popular
government, that is to say, of government whose object is the
good of the people, is therefore, as I have observed, to follow
in everything the general will. But to follow this will it is
5 necessary to know it, and above all to distinguish it from the
particular will, beginning with one's self: this distinction is
always very difficult to make, and only the most sublime virtue
can afford sufficient illumination for it. As, in order to will,
it is necessary to be free, a difficulty no less great than the
10 former arises ? that of preserving at once the public liberty
and the authority of government. Look into the motives which have
induced men, once united by their common needs in a general
society, to unite themselves still more intimately by means of
civil societies: you will find no other motive than that of
15 assuring the property, life and liberty of each member by the
protection of all. But can men be forced to defend the liberty
of any one among them, without trespassing on that of others?
And how can they provide for the public needs, without alienating
the individual property of those who are forced to contribute to
20 them? With whatever sophistry all this may be covered over, it is
certain that if any constraint can be laid on my will, I am no
longer free, and that I am no longer master of my own property,
if any one else can lay a hand on it. This difficulty, which would
have seemed insurmountable, has been removed, like the first, by
25 the most sublime of all human institutions, or rather by a divine
inspiration, which teaches mankind to imitate here below the
unchangeable decrees of the Deity. By what inconceivable art has a
means been found of making men free by making them subject; of
using in the service of the State the properties, the persons and
30 even the lives of all its members, without constraining and without
consulting them; of confining their will by their own admission; of
overcoming their refusal by that consent, and forcing them to punish
themselves, when they act against their own will? How can it be that
all should obey, yet nobody take upon him to command, and that all
35 should serve, and yet have no masters, but be the more free, as, in
apparent subjection, each loses no part of his liberty but what might
be hurtful to that of another? These wonders are the work of law. It
is to law alone that men owe justice and liberty. It is this salutary
organ of the will of all which establishes, in civil right, the
40 natural equality between men. It is this celestial voice which
dictates to each citizen the precepts of public reason, and teaches
him to act according to the rules of his own judgment, and not to
behave inconsistently with himself. It is with this voice alone that
political rulers should speak when they command; for no sooner does
45 one man, setting aside the law, claim to subject another to his
private will, than he departs from the state of civil society, and
confronts him face to face in the pure state of nature, in which
obedience is prescribed solely by necessity. 
 
 
1. The paradox in line 28 is resolved according to the author when an individual
A. submits to the rule of law and thus is at liberty to do anything that does not harm another person
B. behaves according to the natural rights of man and not according to imposed rules
C. agrees to follow the rule of law even when it is against his best interests
D. belongs to a society which guarantees individual liberty at all times
E. follows the will of the majority
 
2. The author?s attitude to law in this passage is best conveyed as
A. respect for its inalienable authority
B. extolling its importance as a human institution
C. resignation to the need for its imposition on the majority
D. acceptance of its restrictions
E. praise for its divine origin
 
3. The author would agree with all of the following except
A. government must maintain its authority without unduly compromising personal liberty
B. individual freedom is threatened in the absence of law
C. justice cannot be ensured in the absence of law
D. political leaders should use the law as their guide to correct leadership
E. the law recognizes that all men are capable of recognizing what is in the general interest
 
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---------------
The great migration of European intellectuals to the United States in the second quarter of the twentieth century
prompted a transformation in the character of Western social thought. The influx of Continental thinkers fleeing
fascist regimes had a great impact on American academic circles, leading to new developments in such diverse
fields as linguistics and theology. But the greatest impact was on the emigrés themselves. This “migration
experience” led expatriates to reexamine the supposedly self-evident premises inherited from the Continental
intellectual tradition. The result, according to H. Stuart Hughes in The Sea-Change, was an increased
sophistication and deprovincialization in social theory. 
 
One problem facing newly arrived emigrés in the U.S. was the spirit of anti-intellectualism in much of the
country. The empirical orientation of American academic circles, moreover, led to the conscious tempering by
many European thinkers of their own tendencies toward speculative idealism. In addition, reports of oppression
in Europe shook many Old World intellectuals from a stance of moral isolation. Many great European social
theorists had regarded their work as separate from all moral considerations. The migration experience proved to
many intellectuals of the following generations that such notions of moral seclusion were unrealistic, even
irresponsible. 
 
This transformation of social thought is perhaps best exemplified in the career of the German theologian Paul
Tillich. Migration confronted Tillich with an ideological as well as a cultural dichotomy. Hughes points out that
Tillich’s thought was “suspended between philosophy and theology, Marxism and political conformity, theism
and disbelief.” Comparable to the fusion by other expatriate intellectuals of their own idealist traditions with the
Anglo-American empiricist tradition was Tillich’s synthesis of German Romantic religiosity with the
existentialism born of the twentieth-century war experience. Tillich’s basic goal, according to Hughes, was to
move secular individuals by making religious symbols more accessible to them. Forced to make his ethical
orientation explicit in the context of American attitudes, Tillich avoided the esoteric academic posture of many
Old World scholars, and was able to find a wide and sympathetic audience for his sometimes difficult theology.
In this way, his experience in America, in his own words, “deprovincialized” his thought.
 
13. The author’s main concern in the passage is to
(A) characterize the effects of migration onU.S. history
(B) show how Paul Tillich’s career was representative of the migration experience
(C) discuss the effects of the great migration on modern social thought
(D) reveal the increased sophistication of post-migration thought
(E) contrast European social thought with that of the United States
 
14. The author probably mentions H. Stuart Hughes (Highlighted) in order to
(A) give an example of a European intellectual who migrated to America
(B) cite an important source of information about the migration experience
(C) demonstrate how one American academic was influenced by European scholars
(D) pay tribute to Americans who provided European thinkers with a refuge from fascism
(E) name a leading disciple of Paul Tissich
 
16. According to the passage, reports of “oppression in Europe” (Highlighted) affected social thinkers by
forcing them to
(A) rethink their moral responsibilities
(B) reexamine the morality of European leaders
(C) analyze the effects of migration on morality
(D) reconsider their anti-social behavior
(E) justify the moral value of social thought
 
17. It can be inferred that postmigration social thought is distinguished from premigration thought by its
(A) less secular nature
(B) greater social consciousness
(C) more difficult theology
(D) diminished accessibility
(E) more theoretical nature
 
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sid=ac865d540bae3dd266b23130e950df1a>
 
-----------------
The human species came into being at the time of the greatest biological diversity in the history of the Earth.
Today, as human populations expand and alter the natural environment, they are reducing biological diversity to
its lowest level since the end of the Mesozoic era, 65 million years ago. The ultimate consequences of this
biological collision are beyond calculation, but they are certain to be harmful. That, in essence, is the
biodiversity crisis.
The history of global diversity can be summarized as follows: after the initial flowering of multicellular
animals, there was a swift rise in the number of species in early Paleozoic times (between 600 and 430 million
years ago), then plateaulike stagnation for the remaining 200 million years of the Paleozoic era, and finally a
slow but steady climb through the Mesozoic and Cenozoic eras to diversity’s all-time high. This history
suggests that biological diversity was hard won and a long time in coming. Furthermore, this pattern of increase
was set back by five massive extinction episodes. The most recent of these, during the Cretaceous period, is by
far the most famous, because it ended the age of the dinosaurs, conferred hegemony on the mammals, and
ultimately made possible the ascendancy of the human species. But the cretaceous crisis was minor compared
with the Permian extinctions 240 million years ago, during which between 77 and 96 percent of marine animal
species perished. It took 5 million years, well into Mesozoic times, for species diversity to begin a significant
recovery.
Within the past 10,000 years biological diversity has entered a wholly new era. Human activity has had a
devastating effect on species diversity, and the rate of human-induced extinctions is accelerating. Half of the
bird species of Polynesia have been eliminated through hunting and the destruction of native forests. Hundreds
of fish species endemic to Lake Victoria are now threatened with extinction following the careless introduction
of one species of fish, the Nile perch. The list of such biogeographic disasters is extensive.
Because every species is unique and irreplaceable, the loss of biodiversity is the most profound process of
environmental change. Its consequences are also the least predictable because the value of Earth’s biota (the
fauna and flora collectively) remains largely unstudied and unappreciated; unlike material and cultural wealth,
which we understand because they are the substance of our everyday lives, biological wealth is usually taken for
granted. This is a serious strategic error, one that will be increasingly regretted as time passes. The biota is not
only part of a country’s heritage, the product of millions of years of evolution centered on that place; it is also a
potential source for immense untapped material wealth in the form of food, medicine, and other commercially
important substance.
7. Which one of the following best expresses the main idea of the passage?
(A) The reduction in biodiversity is an irreversible process that represents a setback both for science and for
society as a whole.
(B) The material and cultural wealth of a nation are insignificant when compared with the country’s biological
wealth.
(C) The enormous diversity of life on Earth could not have come about without periodic extinctions that have
conferred preeminence on one species at the expense of another.
(D) The human species is in the process of initiating a massive extinction episode that may make past episodes
look minor by comparison.
(E) The current decline in species diversity is human-induced tragedy of incalculable proportions that has
potentially grave consequences for the human species.
8. Which one of the following situations is most analogous to the history of global diversity summarized in lines
10-18 of the passage?
(A) The number of fish in a lake declines abruptly as a result of water pollution, then makes a slow comeback
after cleanup efforts and the passage of ordinances against dumping.
(B) The concentration of chlorine in the water supply of large city fluctuates widely before stabilizing at a
constant and safe level.
(C) An old-fashioned article of clothing goes in and out of style periodically as a result of features in fashion
magazines and the popularity of certain period films.
(D) After valuable mineral deposits are discovered, the population of a geographic region booms then levels off
and begins to decrease at a slow and steady pace.
(E) The variety of styles stocked by a shoe store increases rapidly after the store opens, holds constant for many
months, and then gradually creeps upward.
9. The author suggests which one of the following about the Cretaceous crisis?
(A) It was the second most devastating extinction episode in history.
(B) It was the most devastating extinction episode up until that time.
(C) It was less devastating to species diversity than is the current biodiversity crisis.
(D) The rate of extinction among marine animal species as a result of the crisis did not approach 77 percent.
(E) The dinosaurs comprised the great majority of species that perished during the crisis.
10. The author mentions the Nile perch in order to provide an example of
(A) a species that has become extinct through human activity
(B) the typical lack of foresight that has led to biogeographic disaster
(C) a marine animal species that survived the Permian extinctions
(D) a species that is a potential source of material wealth
(E) the kind of action that is necessary to reverse the decline in species diversity
11. All of the following are explicitly mentioned in the passage as contributing to the extinction of species
EXCEPT
(A) hunting
(B) pollution
(C) deforestation
(D) the growth of human populations
(E) human-engineered changes in the environment
12. The passage suggests which one of the following about material and cultural wealth?
(A) Because we can readily assess the value of material and cultural wealth, we tend not to take them for
granted.
(B) Just as the biota is a source of potential material wealth, it is an untapped source of cultural wealth as well.
(C) Some degree of material and cultural wealth may have to be sacrificed if we are to protect our biological
heritage.
(D) Material and cultural wealth are of less value than biological wealth because they have evolved over a
shorter period of time.
(E) Material wealth and biological wealth are interdependent in a way that material wealth and cultural wealth
are not.
13. The author would be most likely to agree with which one of the following statements about the
consequences of the biodiversity crisis?
(A) The loss of species diversity will have as immediate an impact on the material of nations as on their
biological wealth.
(B) The crisis will likely end the hegemony of the human race and bring about the ascendancy of another
species.
(C) The effects of the loss of species diversity will be dire, but we cannot yet tell how dire.
(D) It is more fruitful to discuss the consequences of the crisis in terms of the potential loss to humanity than in
strictly biological loss to humanity than in strictly biological terms.
(E) The consequences of the crisis can be minimized, but the pace of extinctions can not be reversed.
 
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sid=ac865d540bae3dd266b23130e950df1a>
 
------------
Anole lizard species that occur together (sympatrically) on certain Caribbean islands occupy different habitats:
some live only in the grass, some only on tree trunks, and some only on twigs. These species also differ
morphologically: grass dwellers are slender with long tails, tree dwellers are stocky with long legs, twig
dwellers are slender but stubby-legged. What is striking about these lizards is not that coexisting species differ
in morphology and habitat use (such differences are common among closely related sympatric species), but that
the same three types of habitat specialists occur on each of four islands: Puerto Rico, Cuba, Hispaniola, and
Jamaica. Moreover, the Puerto Rican twig species closely resembles the twig species of Cuba, Hispaniola, and
Jamaica in morphology, habitat use, and behavior. Likewise, the specialists for other habitats are similar across
the islands.
 
The presence of similar species on different islands could be variously explained. An ancestral species might
have adapted to exploit a particular ecological niche on one island and then traveled over water to colonize
other islands. Or this ancestral species might have evolved at a time when the islands were connected, which
some of these islands may once have been. After the islands separated, the isolated lizard populations would
have become distinct species while also retaining their ancestors' niche adaptations. Both of these scenarios
imply that specialization to each niche occurred only once. Alternatively, each specialist could have arisen
independently on each of the islands.
 
If each type of specialist evolved just once, then similar specialists on different islands would be closely related.
Conversely, if the specialists evolved independently on each island, then a specialist on one island would be
more closely related to other types of anoles on the same island—regardless of their ecological niches—than it
would be to a similar specialist on a different island.
 
Biologists can infer how species are related evolutionarily by comparing DNA sequences for the same genes in
different species. Species with similar DNA sequences for these genes are generally more closely related to
each other than to species with less-similar DNA sequences. DNA evidence concerning the anoles led
researchers to conclude that habitat specialists on one island are not closely related to the same habitat
specialists elsewhere, indicating that specialists evolved independently on each island.
 
1. The primary purpose of the passage is to 
 
A. describe some unusual features of anole lizard species 
B. account for a particular type of behavior found among anole lizard species 
C. contrast two types of evidence that have been used to support a particular hypothesis concerning anole lizard
species 
D. explain how researchers resolved a particular scientific question concerning anole lizard species 
E. examine different explanations for a particular trait common to certain anole lizard species 
 
 
2. Which of the following best describes the purpose of the highlighted sentence? 
 
A. It raises a question about why coexisting anole lizard species occupy the different types of habitats
mentioned in the first sentence. 
B. It introduces a fact about anole lizard species that the passage will go on to explore. 
C. It identifies a particular aspect of anole lizard behavior that distinguishes anoles from other lizard species. 
D. It explains why one aspect of anole lizard species' habitat use has been difficult to account for. 
E. It points out a surprising relationship between morphology and habitat use that is explained in the concluding
paragraph. 
Answer: 
 
3. It can be inferred form the passage that which of the following is true of the Cuban tree-dwelling anole lizard
and the Jamaican tree-dwelling anole lizard? 
 
A. They share a morphology characterized by stocky bodies and long legs. 
B. They have bodies that are relatively slender compared to their stubby legs. 
C. They differ significantly form one another in size. 
D. They differ significantly from one another in behavior and habitat use. 
E. They are genetically closely related to one another. 
Answer: 
 
4. The passage suggests that if a grass-dwelling anole lizard species evolved on one island and then traveled
over water to colonize a second island, the grass-dwelling anoles on the two islands would eventually 
 
A. develop very different DNA sequences 
B. develop into different species that are more distantly related to each other than to tree- and twig-dwelling
anoles on their own islands 
C. come to differ significantly from one another in habitat use 
D. develop into different, but closely related, species 
E. evolve significant morphological differences
 
<http://gmatclub.com/forum/anole-lizard-112513.html>
 
-----------------
There is no consensus among 
researchers regarding what qualifies a
substance as a pheromone. While most
agree on a basic definition of pheromones
as chemicals released by one individual
of a species which, when detected by
another individual of the same species,
elicit a specific behavioral or physiological
response, some researchers also specify
that the response to pheromones must be
unconscious. In addition, the distinction
between pheromones and odorants—
chemicals that are consciously detected
as odors---can be blurry, and some
researchers classify pheromones as a
type of odorant. Evidence that pheromone
responses may not involve conscious odor
perception comes from the finding that in
many species, pheromones are processed
by the vomeronasal (or accessory olfactory)
system, which uses a special structure in
the nose, the vomeronasal organ (VNO),
to receive chemical signals. The neural
connections between the VNO and the
brain are separate from those of the main
olfactory system, whose processing of
odorants triggers sensations of smell. But
while the VNO does process many animal
pheromone signals, not all animal phero-
mones work through the VNO. Conversely,
not all chemical signals transmitted via the
VNO quality as pheromones. For example,
garter snakes detect a chemical signal from
earthworms—one of their favorite foods—via
the VNO, and they use this signal to track
their prey.
 
7. It can be inferred from the passage thatin classifying pheromones as a type of
odorant, the researchers referred to posit that
A. pheromones are perceived consciously
B. most pheromones are processed by the VNO
C. most chemical signals processed by the VNO are pheromones
D. Pheromone perception does not occur exclusively between members of the same species.
E. pheromones do not always elicit a specific behavioral or physiological response
 
8. According to the passage, the fact that pheromones are processed by the VNO 
in many animal species has been taken as evidence of which of the following?
A. The accessory and main olfac-Tory systems are not separate
B. Odorants and pheromones are not distinct types of chemicals.
C. Odorants and pheromones both elicit a specific behavioral response.
D. Pheromones do not trigger conscious sensations of smell.
E. Pheromones aid animals in tracking prey.
 
9.The primary purpose of the passage is to
A. compare and contrast the ways in which the vomeronasal organ and the main olfactory systern
process chemicals.
B. summarize the debate over the role the vomeronasal organ plays in odor perception
C. present some of the issues involved in the debate over what constitutes a pheromone
D. propose a new definition of pheromones based on recent research
E. argue that pheromones should be classified as a type of odorant
 
<http://gmatclub.com/forum/rc-gmat-set-73639.html>
 
----------------
Commonplace items sometimes play surprising roles in world development. For example, though most people
today associate nutmeg with simple baked goods, this common spice once altered the course of political history.
For centuries, the nutmeg tree grew only in the Banda Islands, a small chain in the southwest Pacific. Locals
harvested the aromatic nuts of the tree and sold them to traders. Eventually these nuts, from which the spice is
made, ended up as a luxury item in the European market, via Venetian spice merchants. Eager to establish a
monopoly over this valuable spice, the Dutch attacked the Bandas, subjugating the native people in a mostly
successful attempt to control the nutmeg trade.
However, one island in the Banda chain remained in the hands of the British and was the object of much
conflict between the Netherlands and England. After many battles, the British offered to cede control of the
island in exchange for New Amsterdam, a Dutch outpost on the east coast of North America. At the time, the
Dutch, inveterate traders, were more interested in the spice trade than in the mercantile value of New
Amsterdam and so accepted the offer. In 1667, the Treaty of Breda gave the Dutch complete control of the
Banda Islands, and thus of the nutmeg trade, and gave the British New Amsterdam, which they promptly
renamed New York.
 
1]The passage suggests which of the following about the Banda Islands?
 
1]The British arrived in the islands before the Dutch.
2]Nutmeg was the only spice that grew on the islands.
3]Natives of the islands produced nutmeg from the nuts of the nutmeg tree.
4]The Banda Islands are still in the possession of the Dutch.
5]The local economy of the islands depended completely on nutmeg.
 
2]The second paragraph performs which of the following functions in the passage?
 
1]It offers specific information to complete the logic of the author's claims.
2]It summarizes and evaluates the evidence given thus far.
3]It presents the author's main point to explain a unique situation.
4]It cites a particular case to demonstrate the importance of historical change.
5]It discusses the necessary outcome of the author's assertions.
 
5]Which of the following, if true, most strengthens the claim that New Amsterdam would have remained a
Dutch possession if not for the conflict over nutmeg?
 
1]Attempts to cultivate nutmeg trees outside of the Banda Islands had failed.
2]Few people lived in New Amsterdam before it was ceded to the British.
3]The British controlled trade in other valuable spices, such as cloves.
4]New Amsterdam served as a trading center for furs exported to Europe.
5]The Netherlands controlled no North American territories other than New Amsterdam.
 
<http://gmatclub.com/forum/nutmeg-90651.html>
 
--------------------
Joseph Glatthaar’s Forged in Battle is not the first excellent study of Black soldiers and their White officers in
the Civil War, but it uses more soldiers’ letters and diaries—including rare material from Black soldiers—and
concentrates more intensely on Black-White relations in Black regiments than do any of its predecessors.
Glatthaar’s title expresses his thesis: loyalty, friendship, and respect among White officers and Black soldiers
were fostered by the mutual dangers they faced in combat.
Glatthaar accurately describes the government’s discriminatory treatment of Black soldiers in pay, promotion,
medical care, and job assignments, appropriately emphasizing the campaign by Black soldiers and their officers
to get the opportunity to fight. That chance remained limited throughout the war by army policies that kept most
Black units serving in rear-echelon assignments and working in labor battalions. Thus, while their combat death
rate was only one-third that of White units, their mortality rate from disease, a major killer in his war, was twice
as great. Despite these obstacles, the courage and effectiveness of several Black units in combat won increasing
respect from initially skeptical or hostile White soldiers. As one White officer put it, “they have fought their
way into the respect of all the army.”
In trying to demonstrate the magnitude of this attitudinal change, however, Glatthaar seems to exaggerate the
prewar racism of the White men who became officers in Black regiments. “Prior to the war,” he writes of these
men, “virtually all of them held powerful racial prejudices.” While perhaps true of those officers who joined
Black units for promotion or other self-serving motives, this statement misrepresents the attitudes of the many
abolitionists who became officers in Black regiments. Having spent years fighting against the race prejudice
endemic in American society, they participated eagerly in this military experiment, which they hoped would
help African Americans achieve freedom and postwar civil equality. By current standards of racial
egalitarianism, these men’s paternalism toward African Americans was racist. But to call their feelings
“powerful racial prejudices” is to indulge in generational chauvinism—to judge past eras by present standards.
 
 
1. The passage as a whole can best be characterized as which of the following?
(A) An evaluation of a scholarly study
(B) A description of an attitudinal change
(C) A discussion of an analytical defect
(D) An analysis of the causes of a phenomenon
(E) An argument in favor of revising a view
 
2. According to the author, which of the following is true of Glatthaar’s Forged in Battle compared with
previous studies on the same topic?
(A) It is more reliable and presents a more complete picture of the historical events on which it concentrates
than do previous studies.
(B) It uses more of a particular kind of source material and focuses more closely on a particular aspect of the
topic than do previous studies.
(C) It contains some unsupported generalizations, but it rightly emphasizes a theme ignored by most previous
studies.
(D) It surpasses previous studies on the same topic in that it accurately describes conditions often neglected by
those studies.
(E) It makes skillful use of supporting evidence to illustrate a subtle trend that previous studies have failed to 
detect.
 
3. The author implies that the title of Glatthaar’s book refers specifically to which of the following?
(A) The sense of pride and accomplishment that Black soldiers increasingly felt as a result of their Civil War
experiences
(B) The civil equality that African Americans achieved after the Civil War, partly as a result of their use of
organizational skills honed by combat
(C) The changes in discriminatory army policies that were made as a direct result of the performance of Black
combat units during the Civil War
(D) The improved interracial relations that were formed by the races’ facing of common dangers and their
waging of a common fight during the Civil War
(E) The standards of racial egalitarianism that came to be adopted as a result of White Civil War veterans’
repudiation of the previous racism
 
4. The passage mentions which of the following as an important theme that receives special emphasis in
Glatthaar’s book?
(A) The attitudes of abolitionist officers in Black units
(B) The struggle of Black units to get combat assignments
(C) The consequences of the poor medical care received by Black soldiers
(D) The motives of officers serving in Black units
(E) The discrimination that Black soldiers faced when trying for promotions
 
5. The passage suggests that which of the following was true of Black units’ disease mortality rates in the Civil
War?
(A) They were almost as high as the combat mortality rates of White units.
(B) They resulted in part from the relative inexperience of these units when in combat.
(C) They were especially high because of the nature of these units’ usual duty assignments.
(D) They resulted in extremely high overall casualty rates in Black combat units.
(E) They exacerbated the morale problems that were caused by the army’s discriminatory policies.
 
6. The author of the passage quotes the White officer in lines 23-24 primarily in order to provide evidence to
support the contention that
(A) virtually all White officers initially had hostile attitudes toward Black soldiers
(B) Black soldiers were often forced to defend themselves from physical attacks initiated by soldiers from
White units
(C) the combat performance of Black units changed the attitudes of White soldiers toward Black soldiers
(D) White units paid especially careful attention to the performance of Black units in battle
(E) respect in the army as a whole was accorded only to those units, whether Black or White, that performed
well in battle
 
7. Which of the following best describes the kind of error attributed to Glatthaar in lines 25-28?
(A) Insisting on an unwarranted distinction between two groups of individuals in order to render an argument
concerning them internally consistent
(B) Supporting an argument in favor of a given interpretation of a situation with evidence that is not particularly
relevant to the situation
(C) Presenting a distorted view of the motives of certain individuals in order to provide grounds for a negative
evaluation of their actions
(D) Describing the conditions prevailing before a given event in such a way that the contrast with those
prevailing after the event appears more striking than it actually is
(E) Asserting that a given event is caused by another event merely because the other event occurred before the
given event occurred
 
8. Which of the following actions can best be described as indulging in “generational chauvinism” (lines 40-41)
as that practice is defined in the passage?
(A) Condemning a present-day monarch merely because many monarchs have been tyrannical in the past.
(B) Clinging to the formal standards of politeness common in one’s youth to such a degree that any relaxation
of those standards is intolerable.
(C) Questioning the accuracy of a report written by an employee merely because of the employee’s gender.
(D) Deriding the superstitions accepted as “science” in past eras without acknowledging the prevalence of
irrational beliefs today.
(E) Labeling a nineteenth-century politician as “corrupt” for engaging in once-acceptable practices considered
intolerable today.
 
<http://gmatclub.com/forum/forged-in-battle-rc-passage-99005.html>
 
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As the economic role of multinational, global corporations expands, the international economic environment
will be shaped increasingly not by governments or international institutions, but by the interaction between
governments and global corporations, especially in the United States, Europe, and Japan. A significant factor in
this shifting world economy is the trend toward regional trading blocs of nations, which has a potentially large
effect on the evolution of the world trading system. Two examples of this trend are the United States-Canada
Free Trade Agreement (FTA) and Europe 1992, the move by the European Community (EC) to dismantle
impediments to the free flow of goods, services, capital, and labor among member states by the end of 1992.
However, although numerous political and economic factors were operative in launching the move to integrate
the EC’s markets, concern about protectionism within the EC does not appear to have been a major
consideration. This is in sharp contrast to the FTA; the overwhelming reason for that bilateral initiative was fear
of increasing United States protectionism. Nonetheless, although markedly different in origin and nature, both
regional developments are highly significant in that they will foster integration in the two largest and richest
markets of the world, as well as provoke questions about the future direction of the world trading system.
 
 
1. The primary purpose of the passage as a whole is to
(A) describe an initiative and propose its continuance
(B) chronicle a development and illustrate its inconsistencies
(C) identify a trend and suggest its importance
(D) summarize a process and question its significance
(E) report a phenomenon and outline its probable future
2. According to the passage, all of the following are elements of the shifting world economy EXCEPT
(A) an alteration in the role played by governments
(B) an increase in interaction between national governments and international regulatory institutions
(C) an increase in the formation of multinational trading alliances
(D) an increase in integration in the two richest markets of the world
(E) a fear of increasing United States protectionism
3. The passage suggests which of the following about global corporations?
(A) Their continued growth depends on the existence of a fully integrated international market.
(B) Their potential effect on the world market is a matter of ongoing concern to international institutions.
(C) They will have to assume quasi-governmental functions if current economic trends continue.
(D) They have provided a model of economic success for regional trading blocs.
(E) Their influence on world economics will continue to increase.
4. According to the passage, one similarity between the FTA and Europe 1992 is that they both
(A) overcame concerns about the role of politics in the shifting world economy
 
(B) originated out of concern over unfair trade practices by other nations
(C) exemplify a trend toward regionalization of commercial markets
(D) place the economic needs of the trading bloc ahead of those of the member nations
(E) help to ensure the continued economic viability of the world community
5. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage about the European Community prior to the
adoption of the Europe 1992 program?
(A) There were restrictions on commerce between the member nations.
(B) The economic policies of the member nations focused on global trading issues.
(C) There were few impediments to trade between the member nations and the United States.
(D) The flow of goods between the member nations and Canada was insignificant.
(E) Relations between multinational corporations and the governments of the member nations were strained.
6. The author discusses the FTA and Europe 1992 most likely in order to
(A) point out the similarities between two seemingly disparate trading alliances
(B) illustrate how different economic motivations produce different types of trading blocs
(C) provide contrasting examples of a trend that is influencing the world economy
(D) identify the most important characteristics of successful economic integration
(E) trace the history of regional trading blocs
7. Which of the following best describes the organization of the passage?
 
(A) An argument is put forth and evidence for and against it given.
(B) An assertion is made and opposing evidence presented.
(C) Two hypotheses are described and shown to inconsistent with one another.
(D) A phenomenon is identified and illustrations of this phenomenon offered.
(E) A specific case of a phenomenon is discussed a generalization drawn.
 
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----------------
Woodrow Wilson was referring to the liberal idea of the economic market when he said that the free enterprise
system is the most efficient economic system. Maximum freedom means maximum productiveness; our
“openness” is to be the measure of our stability. Fascination with this ideal has made Americans defy the “Old
World” categories of settled possessiveness versus unsettling deprivation, the cupidity of retention versus the
cupidity of seizure, a “status quo” defended or attacked. The United States, it was believed, had no status quo
ante. Our only “station” was the turning of a stationary wheel, spinning faster and faster. We did not base our
system on property but opportunity—which meant we based it not on stability but on mobility. The more things
changed, that is, the more rapidly the wheel turned, the steadier we would be. The conventional picture of class
politics is composed of the Haves, who want a stability to keep what they have, and the Have-Nots, who want a
touch of instability and change in which to scramble for the things they have not. But Americans imagined a
condition in which speculators, self-makers, runners are always using the new opportunities given by our land.
These economic leaders (front-runners) would thus be mainly agents of change. The nonstarters were
considered the ones who wanted stability, a strong referee to give them some position in the race, a regulative
hand to calm manic speculation; an authority that can call things to a halt, begin things again from
compensatorily staggered “starting lines.”
“Reform” in America has been sterile because it can imagine no change except through the extension of this
metaphor of a race, wider inclusion of competitors, “a piece of the action,” as it were, for the disenfranchised.
There is no attempt to call off the race. Since our only stability is change, America seems not to honor the quiet
work that achieves social interdependence and stability. There is, in our legends, no heroism of the office clerk,
no stable industrial work force of the people who actually make the system work. There is no pride in being an
employee (Wilson asked for a return to the time when everyone was an employer). There has been no boasting
about our social workers—they are merely signs of the system’s failure, of opportunity denied or not taken, of
things to be eliminated. We have no pride in our growing interdependence, in the fact that our system can serve
others, that we are able to help those in need; empty boasts from the past make us ashamed of our present
achievements, make us try to forget or deny them, move away from them. There is no honor but in the
Wonderland race we must all run, all trying to win, none winning in the end (for there is no end).
1. The primary purpose of the passage is to
(A) criticize the inflexibility of American economic mythology
(B) contrast “Old World” and “New World” economic ideologies
(C) challenge the integrity of traditional political leaders
(D) champion those Americans whom the author deems to be neglected
(E) suggest a substitute for the traditional metaphor of a race
2. According to the passage, “Old World” values were based on
(A) ability
(B) property
(C) family connections
(D) guild hierarchies
(E) education
3. In the context of the author’s discussion of regulating change, which of the following could be most probably
regarded as a “strong referee” (line 30) in the United States?
(A) A school principal
(B) A political theorist
(C) A federal court judge
(D) A social worker
(E) A government inspector
4. The author sets off the word “Reform” (line 35) with quotation marks in order to
(A) emphasize its departure from the concept of settled possessiveness
(B) show his support for a systematic program of change
(C) underscore the flexibility and even amorphousness of United States society
(D) indicate that the term was one of Wilson’s favorites
(E) assert that reform in the United States has not been fundamental
5. It can be inferred from the passage that the author most probably thinks that giving the disenfranchised “a
piece of the action” (line 38) is
(A) a compassionate, if misdirected, legislative measure
(B) an example of Americans’ resistance to profound social change
(C) an innovative program for genuine social reform
(D) a monument to the efforts of industrial reformers
(E) a surprisingly “Old World” remedy for social ills
6. Which of the following metaphors could the author most appropriately use to summarize his own assessment
of the American economic system (lines 35-60)?
(A) A windmill
(B) A waterfall
(C) A treadmill
(D) A gyroscope
(E) A bellows
7. It can be inferred from the passage that Woodrow Wilson’s ideas about the economic market
(A) encouraged those who “make the system work” (lines 45-46)
(B) perpetuated traditional legends about America
(C) revealed the prejudices of a man born wealthy
(D) foreshadowed the stock market crash of 1929
(E) began a tradition of presidential proclamations on economics
8. The passage contains information that would answer which of the following questions?
I. What techniques have industrialists used to manipulate a free market?
II. In what ways are “New World” and “Old World” economic policies similar?
III. Has economic policy in the United States tended to reward independent action?
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) III only
(D) I and II only
(E) II and III only
9. Which of the following best expresses the author’s main point?
(A) Americans’ pride in their jobs continues to give them stamina today.
(B) The absence of a status quo ante has undermined United States economic structure.
(C) The free enterprise system has been only a useless concept in the United States.
(D) The myth of the American free enterprise system is seriously flawed.
(E) Fascination with the ideal of “openness” has made Americans a progressive people.
 
<http://gmatclub.com/forum/3000-rc-88873.html>
 
------------
Lysosomal storage diseases form a category of genetic disorders resulting from defective enzymes that normally
function to break down unneeded molecules in cells. These enzymes do their work in the lysosome, a small
compartment in a cell analogous to a garbage disposal. When any one of the lysosomal enzymes is defective,
the molecules that would have been broken down by that enzyme instead accumulate and cause that individual's
lysosomes to swell enormously, resulting in motor and mental deterioration, often to the point of premature
death. The age of onset, rate of progression, and severity of the clinical symptoms observed in patients with the
same defective lysosomal enzyme are highly variable. For many years, this variability in patients with the same
defective enzyme puzzled scientists. Only recently have researchers begun to answer the riddle, thanks to a
genetic analysis of a particular lysosomal storage disorder known as Tay-Sachs disease. 
 
As in most lysosomal storage diseases, patients suffering from Tay-Sachs disease show both mental and motor
deterioration and variability in age of onset, progression, and severity. Physicians have categorized the patients
into three groups based on onset of the disease: infantile, juvenile, and adult. The infantile group begins to show
neurodegeneration as early as six months of age and children rarely live beyond 3 years old. The first symptoms
of the disease appear in juvenile cases between 2 and 5 years of age, with death usually occurring around age
15. Those with the adult form generally live out a normal lifespan, suffering from milder symptoms than those
with the infantile and juvenile forms.
 
In Tay-Sachs disease, scientists were aware that molecules accumulated mainly in the brains of patients, but
they did not discover the specific identity of the defective lysosomal enzyme responsible for the malfunction,
hexosaminidase, until the 1960s. In 1985, the DNA sequence for the normal enzyme was determined. Shortly
thereafter, the DNA sequences of genes encoding hexosaminidase from many Tay-Sachs patients were studied.
It soon became apparent that not one or two but many different types of mutations in the hexosaminidase gene
could result in Tay-Sachs disease. These different mutations resulted in various levels of impaired enzymatic
activity; those in the infantile category had little to no normal activity, while those in the adult category suffered
only moderate impairment. Scientists quickly hypothesized that the variation in age of onset and severity of
Tay-Sachs disease correlated with the amount of residual enzymatic activity allowed by the particular genetic
mutation a patient had. Though more research is needed to demonstrate similarity with other lysosomal storage
diseases, the work done on Tay-Sachs disease has already offered a promising glimpse into the underlying
mechanisms of these disorders.
 
The passage suggests that which of the following lines of inquiry would be most useful in determining the
relevance of the research done on Tay-Sachs disease to lysosomal storage diseases generally?
 
<>Do patients suffering from other lysosomal storage diseases have the same mortality rate as those suffering
from Tay-Sachs?
<>Do other lysosomal storage diseases affect the hexosaminidase gene?
<>How many different mutations are present in the defective genes responsible for other lysosomal storage
diseases?
<>Does the age of onset or severity of other lysosomal storage diseases vary with the specific genetic mutation
observed in the patient?
<>What purpose does hexosaminidase serve in the human body?
 
 
 
It can be inferred from the passage that which of the following statements is true of lysosomal storage diseases?
 
They are generally caused by mutations to the hexosaminidase gene.
They are undetectable until physical symptoms are present.
They can be fatal even when allowing some enzymatic activity
They are most lethal when onset is in a patient's infancy.
Their causes were unknown before the 1950s.
 
 
 
 
The author of the passage is primarily concerned with
 
<>illuminating the physiological consequences of Tay-Sachs disease
<>explaining the importance of research on a specific disease to other diseases of that type
<>arguing for a more detailed examination of lysosomal storage diseases
<>challenging a traditional view of a class of diseases as incomplete
<>describing the implications of genetic mutations for mortality rates
 
<http://gmatclub.com/forum/urgent-help-on-tough-mgmat-rc-97444.html>
 
----------------
By regarding the expanding universe as a motion picture, you can easily imagine ―running the film backward.‖
If you do so, you find the universe getting smaller and smaller, and eventually you come to the moment when
its whole mass is crammed into an infinitely dense point. Before that time it didn‘t exist, or at least it didn‘t
exist in its present form.
 
Though there is some controversy about its exact age, most cosmologists would be inclined to agree that the
universe has existed for about ten to twenty billion years. For scale, this can be compared to the four-and-a-half-
billion-year age of the solar system, the time since the disappearance of the dinosaurs (sixty-five million years),
and the age of the human race (about three million years).
 
The event that marked the beginning of the universe was christened the Big Bang; the term has now entered the
vernacular of our culture. Originally the name referred only to the single initiating event; now, however,
astronomers have come to use it to mean the entire developmental process of the birth and expansion of the
cosmos.
 
The simple statement that the universe had a beginning in time is by now so obvious to astrophysicists that few
give it a second thought. Yet it is a statement that has profound implications. Most civilizations embrace one of
two opposite concepts of time. Linear time has a beginning, a duration, and an end; cyclical time, as its name
suggests, continues around and around forever. In a universe that functions through cyclical time, the question
of creation never arises; the universe always was and always will be. The minute you switch to linear time you
immediately confront the vexing question not only of creation, but also of the Creator. Although there is no
logical reason for the assumption, many people believe that if something comes into existence, it must do so in
response to the actions of some rational being. Because of that belief, astronomers, even though they resist
becoming involved in theological discussion, find themselves in one when they posit the Big Bang universe. It
puts them squarely in the middle of an age-old debate.
 
One common misconception about the Big Bang that should be disposed of immediately is the notion that the
universal expansion is analogous to the explosion of an artillery shell. The galaxies are not like bits of shrapnel
speeding away from a central explosion. The raisin-in-dough analogy is a more satisfactory way to think about
the whole process.
 
1. In the context of the passage, the phrase "age-old debate" (line 39) refers to:
A. the question of whether ―the Creator‖ created the universe.
B. the controversy over linear versus cyclical time.
C. the debate over the disappearance of the dinosaurs.
D. the disagreement over the movement of galaxies
E. whether God exists or not
 
2. According to the passage, which of the following statements is NOT true?
A. Many people believe that a rational impetus created the universe.
B. The solar system was created immediately after the Big Bang.
C. The universe is larger today than it was in the past.
D. Different societies measure time differently.
E. Most cosmologists believe the universe to be 10 to 20 billion years old
 
3. Why does the author compare the universe to a motion picture?
A. illustrate that the universe has operated according to linear time.
B. demonstrate that the universe is actually older than most astronomers believe.
C. show that galaxies were formed about five billion years ago.
D. prove that the universe was created by a rational being.
E. to show the analogy between ‗God‘ and a ‗director‘
 
<http://gmatclub.com/forum/universe-106160.html>
 
-------------------
Jon Clark’s study of the effect of the
modernization of a telephone exchange on exchange
maintenance work and workers is a solid
contribution to a debate that encompasses two
lively issues in the history and sociology of
technology: technological determinism and social
constructivism.
Clark makes the point that the characteristics of a
technology have a decisive infl uence on job skills
and work organization. Put more strongly,
technology can be a primary determinant of social
and managerial organization. Clark believes this
possibility has been obscured by the recent
sociological fashion, exemplifi ed by Braverman’s
analysis, that emphasizes the way machinery
refl ects social choices. For Braverman, the shape of
a technological system is subordinate to the
manager’s desire to wrest control of the labor
process from the workers. Technological change is
construed as the outcome of negotiations among
interested parties who seek to incorporate their own
interests into the design and confi guration of the
machinery. This position represents the new
mainstream called social constructivism.
The constructivists gain acceptance by
misrepresenting technological determinism:
technological determinists are supposed to believe,
for example, that machinery imposes appropriate
forms of order on society. The alternative to
constructivism, in other words, is to view technology
as existing outside society, capable of directly
infl uencing skills and work organization.
Clark refutes the extremes of the constructivists
by both theoretical and empirical arguments.
Theoretically he defi nes “technology” in terms of
relationships between social and technical variables.
Attempts to reduce the meaning of technology to
cold, hard metal are bound to fail, for machinery is
just scrap unless it is organized functionally and
supported by appropriate systems of operation and
maintenance. At the empirical level Clark shows how
a change at the telephone exchange from
maintenance-intensive electromechanical switches
to semielectronic switching systems altered work
tasks, skills, training opportunities, administration,
and organization of workers. Some changes Clark
attributes to the particular way management and
labor unions negotiated the introduction of the
technology, whereas others are seen as arising from
the capabilities and nature of the technology itself.
Thus Clark helps answer the question: “When is
social choice decisive and when are the concrete
characteristics of technology more important?”
 
 
120. The primary purpose of the passage is to
(A) advocate a more positive attitude toward
technological change
(B) discuss the implications for employees of the
modernization of a telephone exchange
(C) consider a successful challenge to the
constructivist view of technological change
(D) challenge the position of advocates of
technological determinism
(E) suggest that the social causes of technological
change should be studied in real situations
 
121. Which of the following statements about the
modernization of the telephone exchange is supported
by information in the passage?
(A) The new technology reduced the role of
managers in labor negotiations.
(B) The modernization was implemented without the
consent of the employees directly affected by it.
(C) The modernization had an impact that went
signifi cantly beyond maintenance routines.
(D) Some of the maintenance workers felt victimized
by the new technology.
(E) The modernization gave credence to the view of
advocates of social constructivism.
 
122. Which of the following most accurately describes
Clark’s opinion of Braverman’s position?
(A) He respects its wide-ranging popularity.
(B) He disapproves of its misplaced emphasis on
the infl uence of managers.
(C) He admires the consideration it gives to the
attitudes of the workers affected.
(D) He is concerned about its potential to impede
the implementation of new technologies.
(E) He is sympathetic to its concern about the
impact of modern technology on workers.
 
123. The information in the passage suggests that which of
the following statements from hypothetical
sociological studies of change in industry most clearly
exemplifi es the social constructivists’ version of
technological determinism?
(A) It is the available technology that determines
workers’ skills, rather than workers’ skills
infl uencing the application of technology.
(B) All progress in industrial technology grows out
of a continuing negotiation between
technological possibility and human need.
(C) Some organizational change is caused by
people; some is caused by computer chips.
(D) Most major technological advances in industry
have been generated through research and
development.
(E) Some industrial technology eliminates jobs, but
educated workers can create whole new skills
areas by the adaptation of the technology.
 
124. The information in the passage suggests that Clark
believes that which of the following would be true if
social constructivism had not gained widespread
acceptance?
(A) Businesses would be more likely to modernize
without considering the social consequences of
their actions.
(B) There would be greater understanding of the
role played by technology in producing social
change.
(C) Businesses would be less likely to understand
the attitudes of employees affected by
modernization.
(D) Modernization would have occurred at a slower
rate.
(E) Technology would have played a greater part in
determining the role of business in society.
 
125. According to the passage, constructivists employed
which of the following to promote their argument?
(A) Empirical studies of business situations involving
technological change
(B) Citation of managers supportive of their position
(C) Construction of hypothetical situations that
support their view
(D) Contrasts of their view with a misstatement of
an opposing view
(E) Descriptions of the breadth of impact of
technological change
 
126. The author of the passage uses the expression “are
supposed to” in line 27 primarily in order to
(A) suggest that a contention made by
constructivists regarding determinists is
inaccurate
(B) defi ne the generally accepted position of
determinists regarding the implementation of
technology
(C) engage in speculation about the motivation of
determinists
(D) lend support to a comment critical of the
position of determinists
(E) contrast the historical position of determinists
with their position regarding the exchange
modernization
 
127. Which of the following statements about Clark’s study
of the telephone exchange can be inferred from
information in the passage?
(A) Clark’s reason for undertaking the study was to
undermine Braverman’s analysis of the function
of technology.
(B) Clark’s study suggests that the implementation
of technology should be discussed in the context
of confl ict between labor and management.
(C) Clark examined the impact of changes in the
technology of switching at the exchange in
terms of overall operations and organization.
(D) Clark concluded that the implementation of new
switching technology was equally benefi cial to
management and labor.
(E) Clark’s analysis of the change in switching
systems applies only narrowly to the situation at
the particular exchange that he studied.
 
<http://gmatclub.com/forum/og-rc-tough-one-88689.html>
 
--------------
In Forces of Production, David Noble examines the transformation of the machine-tool industry as the industry
moved from reliance on skilled artisans to automation. Noble writes from a Marxist perspective, and his central
argument is that management, in its decisions to automate, conspired against labor: the power that the skilled
machinists wielded in the industry was intolerable to management. Noble fails to substantiate this claim,
although his argument is impressive when he applies the Marxist concept of “de-skilling”—the use of
technology to replace skilled labor—to the automation of the machine-tool industry. In automating, the industry
moved to computer-based, digitized “numerical-control” (N/C) technology, rather than to artisan-generated
“record-playback” (R/P) technology.
Although both systems reduced reliance on skilled labor, Noble clearly prefers R/P, with its inherent
acknowledgment of workers’ skills: unlike N/C, its programs were produced not by engineers at their
computers, but by skilled machinists, who recorded their own movements to “teach” machines to duplicate
those movements. However, Noble’s only evidence of conspiracy is that, although the two approaches were
roughly equal in technical merit, management chose N/C. From this he concludes that automation is undertaken
not because efficiency demands it or scientific advances allow it, but because it is a tool in the ceaseless war of
capitalists against labor.
1. The author of the passage is primarily concerned with
(A) reexamining a political position and defending its validity
(B) examining a management decision and defending its necessity
 
(C) analyzing a scholarly study and pointing out a central weakness
(D) explaining a trend in automation and warning about its dangers
(E) chronicling the history of an industry and criticizing its development
2. According to information in the passage, the term “de-skilling” refers to the
(A) loss of skills to industry when skilled workers are replaced by unskilled laborers
(B) substitution of mechanized processes for labor formerly performed by skilled workers
(C) labor theory that automation is technologically comparable to skilled labor
(D) process by which skilled machinists “teach” machines to perform certain tasks
(E) exclusion of skilled workers from participation in the development of automated technology
3. Which of the following best characterizes the function of the second paragraph of the passage?
(A) It develops a topic introduced in the first paragraph.
(B) It provides evidence to refute a claim presented in the first paragraph.
(C) It gives examples of a phenomenon mentioned in the first paragraph.
(D) It presents a generalization about examples given in the first paragraph.
(E) It suggests two possible solutions to a problem presented in the first paragraph.
4. The passage suggests which of the following about N/C automation in the machine-tool industry?
(A) It displaced fewer skilled workers than R/P automation did.
(B) It could have been implemented either by experienced machinists or by computer engineers.
 
(C) It was designed without the active involvement skilled machinists.
(D) It was more difficult to design than R/P automation was.
(E) It was technically superior to R/P automation.
5. Which of the following phrases most clearly reveals the attitude of the author of the passage toward Noble’s
central argument?
(A) “conspired against” (line 6)
(B) “intolerable to management” (line 7)
(C) “impressive when he applies the Marxist concept” (line 9)
(D) “clearly prefers” (line 16)
(E) “only evidence of conspiracy” (line 21)
6. The author of the passage commends Noble’s book for which of the following?
(A) Concentrating on skilled as opposed to unskilled workers in its discussion of the machine-tool industry
(B) Offering a generalization about the motives behind the machine-tool industry’s decision to automate
(C) Making an essential distinction between two kinds of technology employed in the machine-tool industry
(D) Calling into question the notion that managers conspired against labor in the automation of the machine-tool
industry
(E) Applying the concept of de-skilling to the machine tool industry
7. Which of the following best characterizes Forces of Production as it is described in the passage?
(A) A comparison of two interpretations of how a particular industry evolved
(B) An examination of the origin of a particular concept in industrial economics
(C) A study that points out the weakness of a particular interpretation of an industrial phenomenon
 
(D) A history of a particular industry from an ideological point of view
(E) An attempt to relate an industrial phenomenon in one industry to a similar phenomenon in another industry
 
<http://gmatclub.com/forum/forces-of-production-104462.html>
 
---------------
It can be argued that much consumer dissatisfaction with marketing strategies arises from an inability to aim
advertising at only the likely buyers of a given product.
There are three groups of consumers who are affected by the marketing process. First, there is the market
segment—people who need the commodity in question. Second, there is the program target—people in the
market segment with the “best fit” characteristics for a specific product. Lots of people may need trousers, but
only a few qualify as likely buyers of very expensive designer trousers. Finally, there is the program
audience―all people who are actually exposed to the marketing program without regard to whether they need or
want the product.
These three groups are rarely identical. An exception occurs occasionally in cases where customers for a
particular industrial product may be few and easily identifiable. Such customers, all sharing a particular need,
are likely to form a meaningful target, for example, all companies with a particular application of the product in
question, such as high-speed fillers of bottles at breweries. In such circumstances, direct selling (marketing that
reaches only the program target) is likely to be economically justified, and highly specialized trade media exist
to expose members of the program target—and only members of the program target—to the marketing program.
Most consumer-goods markets are significantly different. Typically, there are many rather than few potential
customers. Each represents a relatively small percentage of potential sales. Rarely do members of a particular
market segment group themselves neatly into a meaningful program target. There are substantial differences
among consumers with similar demographic characteristics. Even with all the past decade’s advances in
information technology, direct selling of consumer goods is rare, and mass marketing—a marketing approach
that aims at a wide audience—remains the only economically feasible mode. Unfortunately, there are few media
that allow the marketer to direct a marketing program exclusively to the program target. Inevitably, people get
exposed to a great deal of marketing for products in which they have no interest and so they become annoyed.
 
 
1. The passage suggests which of the following about highly specialized trade media?
(A) They should be used only when direct selling is not economically feasible.
(B) They can be used to exclude from the program audience people who are not part of the program target.
(C) They are used only for very expensive products.
(D) They are rarely used in the implementation of marketing programs for industrial products.
(E) They are used only when direct selling has not reached the appropriate market segment.
2. According to the passage, most consumer-goods markets share which of the following characteristics?
I. Customers who differ significantly from each other
II. Large numbers of potential customers
III. Customers who each represent a small percentage of potential sales
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) I and II only
(D) II and III only
(E) I, II, and III
3. The passage suggests which of the following about direct selling?
(A) It is used in the marketing of most industrial products.
(B) It is often used in cases where there is a large program target.
(C) It is not economically feasible for most marketing programs.
(D) It is used only for products for which there are many potential customers.
(E) It is less successful at directing a marketing program to the target audience than are other marketing
approaches.
4. The author mentions “trousers” (lines 9 and 11) most likely in order to
(A) make a comparison between the program target and the program audience
(B) emphasize the similarities between the market segment and the program target
(C) provide an example of the way three groups of consumers are affected by a marketing program
(D) clarify the distinction between the market segment and the program target
(E) introduce the concept of the program audience
5. Which of the following best exemplifies the situation described in the last two sentences of the passage?
(A) A product suitable for women age 21-30 is marketed at meetings attended only by potential customers.
(B) A company develops a new product and must develop an advertising campaign to create a market for it.
(C) An idea for a specialized product remains unexplored because media exposure of the product to its few
potential customers would be too expensive.
(D) A new product is developed and marketers collect demographic data on potential consumers before
developing a specific advertising campaign.
(E) A product suitable for men age 60 and over is advertised in a magazine read 
by adults of all ages.
6. The passage suggests that which of the following is true about the marketing of industrial products like those
discussed in the third paragraph?
(A) The market segment and program target are identical.
(B) Mass marketing is the only feasible way of advertising such products.
(C) The marketing program cannot be directed specifically to the program target.
(D) More customers would be needed to justify the expense of direct selling.
(E) The program audience would necessarily be made up of potential customers, regardless of the marketing
approach that was used.
7. The passage supports which of the following statements about demographic characteristics and marketing?
(A) Demographic research is of no use in determining how successful a product will be with a particular group
of consumers.
(B) A program audience is usually composed of people with similar demographic characteristics.
(C) Psychological factors are more important than demographic factors in defining a market segments.
(D) Consumers with similar demographic characteristics do not necessarily form a meaningful program target.
(E) Collecting demographic data is the first step that marketers take in designing a marketing program.
8. It can be inferred from the passage that which of the following is true for most consumer-goods markets?
(A) The program audience is smaller than the market segment.
(B) The program audience and the market segment are usually identical.
(C) The market segment and the program target are usually identical.
(D) The program target is larger than the market segment.
(E) The program target and the program audience are not usually identical.
 
<http://gmatclub.com/forum/consumer-disatisfaction-104394.html>
 
-------------------
A game of strategy, as currently conceived in game theory, is a situation in which two or more “players” make
choices among available alternatives (moves). The totality of choices determines the outcomes of the game, and
it is assumed that the rank order of preferences for the outcomes is different for different players. Thus the
“interests” of the players are generally in conflict. Whether these interests are diametrically opposed or only
partially opposed depends on the type of game.
 
Psychologically, most interesting situations arise when the interests of the players are partly coincident and
partly opposed, because then one can postulate not only a conflict among the players but also inner conflicts
within the players. Each is torn between a tendency to cooperate, so as to promote the common interests, and a
tendency to complete, so as to enhance his own individual interests.
 
Internal conflicts are always psychologically interesting. What we vaguely call “interesting” psychology is in
very great measure the psychology of inner conflict. Inner conflict is also held to be an important component of
serious literature as distinguished from less serious genres. The classical tragedy, as well as the serious novel,
reveals the inner conflict of central figures. The superficial adventure story, on the other hand, depicts only
external conflict; that is, the threats of the person with whom the leader (or viewer) identifies stem in these
stories exclusively from external obstacles and from the adversaries who create them. On the most primitive
level this sort of external conflict is psychologically empty. In the fisticuffs between the protagonists of good
and evil, no psychological problems are involved or, at any rate, none are depicted in juvenile represents of
conflict.
 
The detective story, the “adult” analogue of a juvenile adventure tale, has at times been described as a
glorification of intellectualized conflict. However, a great deal of the interest in the plots of these stories is
sustained by withholding the unraveling of a solution to a problem. The effort of solving the problem is in itself
not a conflict if the adversary (the unknown criminal) remains passive, like Nature, whose secrets the scientist
supposedly unravels by deduction. If the adversary actively puts obstacles in the detective’s path toward the
solution, there is genuine conflict. But the conflict is psychologically interesting only to the extent that it
contains irrational components such as tactical error on the criminal’s part or the detective’s insight into some
psychological quick of the criminal or something of this sort. Conflict conducted in a perfectly rational manner
is psychologically no more interesting than a standard Western. For example, Tic-tac-toe, played perfectly by
both players, is completely devoid of psychological interest. Chess may be psychologically interesting but only
to the extent that it is played not quite rationally. Played completely rationally, chess would not be different
from Tic-tac-toe.
 
In short, a pure conflict of interest (what is called a zero-sum game) although it offers a wealth of interesting
conceptual problems, is not interesting psychologically, except to the extent that its conduct departs from
rational norms.
 
 
1)According to the passage, internal conflicts are psychologically more interesting than external conflicts
because
 
A)internal conflicts, rather than external conflicts, form an important component of serious literature as
distinguished from less serious genres.
B)only juveniles or very few “adults” actually experience external conflict, while internal conflict is more
widely prevalent in society.
C)in situations of internal conflict, individuals experience a dilemma in resolving their own preferences for
different outcomes.
D)there are no threats to the reader (or viewer) in case of external conflicts
 
2) Which, according to the author, would qualify as interesting psychology?
A) A statistician’s dilemma over choosing the best method to solve an optimization problem.
B) A chess player’s predicament over adopting a defensive strategy against an aggressive opponent 
C) A mountaineer’s choice of the best path to Mt. Everest from the base camp.
D) A finance manger’s quandary over the best way of raising money from the market.
 
3)According to the passage, which of the following options about the application of a game theory to a conflict-
of-interest situation is true? 
A) Assuming that the rank order of preferences for options is different for different players.
B) Accepting that the interests of different players are often in conflict.
C) Not assuming that the interests are in complete disagreement.
D) All of the above
 
4)The problem solving process of a scientist is different from that of a detective because
A) scientists study inanimate objects, while detectives deal with living criminals or law offenders.
B) scientists study known objects, while detectives have to deal with unknown criminals or law offenders.
C) scientists study phenomena that are not actively altered, while detectives deal with phenomena that have
been deliberately influenced to mislead.
D)scientists study psychologically interesting phenomena, while detectives deal with “adult” analogues of
juvenile adventure tales.
 
<http://gmatclub.com/forum/one-of-the-good-rc-100969.html>
 
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How many really suffer as a result of labor market problems? This is one of the most critical yet contentious
social policy questions. In many ways, our social statistics exaggerate the degree of hardship. Unemployment
does not have the same dire consequences today as it did in the 1930’s when most of the unemployed were
primary breadwinners, when income and earnings were usually much closer to the margin of subsistence, and
when there were no countervailing social programs for those failing in the labor market. Increasing affluence,
the rise of families with more than one wage earner, the growing predominance of secondary earners among the
unemployed, and improved social welfare protection have unquestionably mitigated the consequences of
joblessness. Earnings and income data also overstate the dimensions of hardship. Among the millions with
hourly earnings at or below the minimum wage level, the overwhelming majority are from multiple-earner,
relatively affluent families. Most of those counted by the poverty statistics are elderly or handicapped or have
family responsibilities which keep them out of the labor force, so the poverty statistics are by no means an
accurate indicator of labor market pathologies.
Yet there are also many ways our social statistics underestimate the degree of labor-market-related hardship.
The unemployment counts exclude the millions of fully employed workers whose wages are so low that their
families remain in poverty. Low wages and repeated or prolonged unemployment frequently interact to
undermine the capacity for self-support. Since the number experiencing joblessness at some time during the
year is several times the number unemployed in any month, those who suffer as a result of forced idleness can
equal or exceed average annual unemployment, even though only a minority of the jobless in any month really
suffer. For every person counted in the monthly unemployment tallies, there is another working part-time
because of the inability to find full-time work, or else outside the labor force but wanting a job. Finally, income
transfers in our country have always focused on the elderly, disabled, and dependent, neglecting the needs of the
working poor, so that the dramatic expansion of cash and in-kind transfers does not necessarily mean that those
failing in the labor market are adequately protected.
As a result of such contradictory evidence, it is uncertain whether those suffering seriously as a result of labor
market problems number in the hundreds of thousands or the tens of millions, and, hence, whether high levels
of joblessness can be tolerated or must be countered by job creation and economic stimulus. There is only one
area of agreement in this debate—that the existing poverty, employment, and earnings statistics are inadequate
for one their primary applications, measuring the consequences of labor market problems.
 
7. According to the passage, one factor that causes unemployment and earnings figures to overpredict the
amount of economic hardship is the
(A) recurrence of periods of unemployment for a group of low-wage workers
(B) possibility that earnings may be received from more than one job per worker
(C) fact that unemployment counts do not include those who work for low wages and remain poor
(D) establishment of a system of record-keeping that makes it possible to compile poverty statistics
(E) prevalence, among low-wage workers and the unemployed, of members of families in which others are
employed
 
8. The conclusion stated in lines 33-39 about the number of people who suffer as a result of forced idleness
depends primarily on the point that
(A) in times of high unemployment, there are some people who do not remain unemployed for long
(B) the capacity for self-support depends on receiving moderate-to-high wages
(C) those in forced idleness include, besides the unemployed, both underemployed part-time workers and those
not actively seeking work
(D) at different times during the year, different people are unemployed
(E) many of those who are affected by unemployment are dependents of unemployed workers
 
<http://gmatclub.com/forum/1000-rc-passage-5-labor-market-98265.html>
 
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The number of women directors appointed to corporate boards in the United States has increased dramatically,
but the ratio of female to male directors remains low. Although pressure to recruit women directors, unlike that
to employ women in the general work force, does not derive from legislation, it is nevertheless real.
Although small companies were the first to have women directors, large corporations currently have a higher
percentage of women on their boards. When the chairs of these large corporations began recruiting women to
serve on boards, they initially sought women who were chief executive officers (CEO’s) of large corporations.
However, such women CEO’s are still rare. In addition, the ideal of six CEO’s (female or male) serving on the
board of each of the largest corporations is realizable only if every CEO serves on six boards. This raises the
specter of director over-commitment and the resultant dilution of contribution. Consequently, the chairs next
sought women in business who had the equivalent of CEO experience. However, since it is only recently that
large numbers of women have begun to rise in management, the chairs began to recruit women of high
achievement outside the business world. Many such women are well known for their contributions in
government, education, and the nonprofit sector. The fact that the women from these sectors who were
appointed were often acquaintances of the boards’ chairs seems quite reasonable: chairs have always considered
it important for directors to interact comfortably in the boardroom.
Although many successful women from outside the business world are unknown to corporate leaders, these
women are particularly qualified to serve on boards because of the changing nature of corporations. Today a
company’s ability to be responsive to the concerns of the community and the environment can influence that
company’s growth and survival. Women are uniquely positioned to be responsive to some of these concerns.
Although conditions have changed, it should be remembered that most directors of both sexes are over fifty
years old. Women of that generation were often encouraged to direct their attention toward efforts to improve
the community. This fact is reflected in the career development of most of the outstandingly successful women
of the generation now in their fifties, who currently serve on corporate boards: 25 percent are in education and
22 percent are in government, law, and the nonprofit sector.
One organization of women directors is helping business become more responsive to the changing needs of
society by raising the level of corporate awareness about social issues, such as problems with the economy,
government regulation, the aging population, and the environment. This organization also serves as a resource
center of information on accomplished women who are potential candidates for corporate boards.
 
1. According to the passage, which of the following is true about women outside the business world who are
currently serving on corporate boards?
(A) Most do not serve on more than one board.
(B) A large percentage will eventually work on the staff of corporations.
(C) Most were already known to the chairs of the board to which they were appointed.
(D) A larger percentage are from government and law than are from the nonprofit sector.
(E) Most are less than fifty years old.
 
 
2. It can be inferred from the passage that factors making women uniquely valuable members of modern
corporate boards would include which of the following?
I. The nature of modern corporations
II. The increased number of women CEO’s
III. The careers pursued by women currently available to serve on corporate boards
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) III only
(D) I and III only
(E) I, II, and III
 
<http://gmatclub.com/forum/try-this-one-womens-empowerment-97119.html>
 
----------------
Conventional wisdom has it that large deficits in the United States budget cause interest rates to rise. Two main
arguments are given for this claim. According to the first, as the deficit increases, the government will borrow
more to make up for the ensuing shortage of funds. Consequently, it is argued, if both the total supply of credit
(money available for borrowing) and the amount of credit sought by nongovernment borrowers remain
relatively stable, as is often supposed, then the price of credit (the interest rate) will increase. That this is so is
suggested by the basic economic principle that if supplies of a commodity (here, credit) remain fixed and
demand for that commodity increases, its price will also increase. The second argument supposes that the
government will tend to finance its deficits by increasing the money supply with insufficient regard for whether
there is enough room for economic growth to enable such an increase to occur without causing inflation. It is
then argued that financiers will expect the deficit to cause inflation and will raise interest rates, anticipating that
because of inflation the money they lend will be worth less when paid back. 
 
Unfortunately for the first argument, it is unreasonable to assume that nongovernment borrowing and the supply
of credit will remain relatively stable. Nongovernment borrowing sometimes decreases. When it does, increased
government borrowing will not necessarily push up the total demand for credit. Alternatively, when credit
availability increases, for example through greater foreign lending to the United States, then interest rates need
not rise, even if both private and government borrowing increase. 
 
The second argument is also problematic.&nbsp; Financing the deficit by increasing the money supply should
cause inflation only when there is not enough room for economic growth.&nbsp; Currently, there is no reason
to expect deficits to cause inflation.&nbsp; However, since many financiers believe that deficits ordinarily
create inflation, then admittedly they will be inclined to raise interest rates to offset mistakenly anticipated
inflation.&nbsp; This effect, however, is due to ignorance, not to the deficit itself, and could be lessened by
educating financiers on this issue. 
 
 
Q1)It can be inferred from the passage that proponents of the second argument would most likely agree with
which of the following statements? 
 
A)The United States government does not usually care whether or not inflation increases. 
B)People in the United States government generally know very little about economics. 
C)The United States government is sometimes careless in formulating its economic policies. 
D)The United States government sometimes relies too much on the easy availability of foreign credit. 
E)The United States government increases the money supply whenever there is enough room for growth to
support the increase. 
 
Q2)The author uses the term "admittedly" (see highlighted text) in order to indicate that 
 
A)the second argument has some truth to it, though not for the reasons usually supposed 
B)the author has not been successful in attempting to point out inadequacies in the two arguments 
C)the thesis that large deficits directly cause interest rates to rise has strong support after all 
D)financiers should admit that they were wrong in thinking that large deficits will cause higher inflation rates 
E)financiers generally do not think that the author's criticisms of the second argument are worthy of
consideration
 
<http://gmatclub.com/forum/gprep-us-budget-93347.html>
 
---------------------
Early models of the geography of the metropolis were unicellular: that is, they assumed that the entire urban
district would normally be dominated by a single central district, around which the various economic functions
of the community would be focused. This central business district (CBD) is the source of so-called high-order
goods and services, which can most efficiently be provided from a central location rather than from numerous
widely dispersed locations. Thus, retailers of infrequently and irregularly purchased goods, such as fur coats,
jewelry, and antique furniture, and specialized service outlets, such as theaters, advertising agencies, law firms,
and government agencies, will generally be found in the CBD. By contrast, less costly, more frequently
demanded goods, such as groceries and housewares, and low-order services, such as shoe repair and
hairdressing, will be available at many small, widely scattered outlets throughout the metropolis.
Both the concentric-ring model of the metropolis, first developed in Chicago in the late nineteenth century, and
the sector model, closely associated with the work of Homer Hoyt in the 1930s, make the CBD the focal point
of the metropolis. The concentric-ring model assumes that the varying degrees of need for accessibility to the
CBD of various kinds of economic entities will be the main determinant of their location. Thus, wholesale and
manufacturing firms, which need easy accessibility to the specialized legal, financial, and governmental
services provided in the CBD, will normally be located just outside the CBD itself. Residential areas will
occupy the outer rings of the model, with low-income groups residing in the relatively crowded older housing
close to the business zone and high-income groups occupying the outermost ring, in the more spacious, newer
residential areas built up through urban expansion.
Homer Hoyt’s sector model is a modified version of the concentric-ring model. Recognizing the influence of
early established patterns of geographic distribution on the later growth of the city, Hoyt developed the concept
of directional inertia. According to Hoyt, custom and social pressures tend to perpetuate locational patterns
within the city. Thus, if a particular part of the city (say, the east side) becomes a common residential area for
higher-income families, perhaps because of a particular topographical advantage such as a lake or other
desirable feature, future expansion of the high-income segment of the population is likely to proceed in the
same direction. In our example, as the metropolis expands, a wedge-shaped sector would develop on the east
side of the city in which the higher-income residence would be clustered. Lower-income residences, along with
manufacturing facilities, would be confined, therefore, to the western margins of the CBD.
Although Hoyt’s model undoubtedly represented an advance in sophistication over the simpler concentric-ring
model, neither model fully accounts for the increasing importance of focal points other than the traditional
CBD. Recent years have witnessed he establishment around older cities of secondary nuclei centered on
suburban business districts. In other cases, particular kinds of goods, services, and manufacturing facilities have
clustered in specialized centers away from the CBD, encouraging the development of particular housing
patterns in the adjacent areas. A new multicellular model of metropolitan geography is needed to express these
and other emerging trends of urban growth.
 
7. All of the following are examples of the emerging trends of urban growth described in the last paragraph of
the passage EXCEPT
(A) the construction in a suburban community of a large shopping mall where many of the local residents do
most of their buying
(B) the opening of an industrial park on the outskirts of a declining older city
(C) the construction of hospital-medical school complex near a highway fifteen miles from a downtown
business district
(D) the building of a residential development near a suburban tool factory to house the factory workers and their
families
(E) the creation of a luxury housing development in a rural setting thirty miles from the center of a city
 
<http://gmatclub.com/forum/toughie-models-of-the-geography-101976.html>
 
---------------
Species interdependence in nature confers many benefits on the species involved, but it can also become a point
of weakness when one species involved in the relationship is affected by a catastrophe. Thus, flowering plant
species dependent on insect pollination, as opposed to self-pollination or wind pollination, could be endangered
when the population of insect-pollinators is depleted by the use of pesticides.
 
In the forests of New Brunswick, for example, various pesticides have been sprayed in the past 25 years in
efforts to control the spruce budworm, an economically significant pest. Scientists have now investigated the
effects of the spraying of Matacil, one of the anti-budworm agents that is least toxic to insect-pollinators. They
studied Matacil’s effects on insect mortality in a wide variety of wild insect species and on plant fecundity,
expressed as the percentage of the total flowers on an individual plant that actually developed fruit and bore
seeds. They found that the most pronounced mortality after the spraying of Matacil occurred among the smaller
bees and one family of flies, insects that were all important pollinators of numerous species of plants growing
beneath the tree canopy of forests. The fecundity of plants in one common indigenous species, the red-osier
dogwood, was significantly reduced in the sprayed areas as compared to that of plants in control plots where
Matacil was not sprayed. This species is highly dependent on the insect-pollinators most vulnerable to Matacil.
The creeping dogwood, a species similar to the red-osier dogwood, but which is pollinated by large bees, such
as bumblebees, showed no significant decline in fecundity. Since large bees are not affected by the spraying of
Matacil, these results add weight to the argument that spraying where the pollinators are sensitive to the
pesticide used decreases plant fecundity.
 
The question of whether the decrease in plant fecundity caused by the spraying of pesticides actually causes a
decline in the overall population of flowering plant species still remains unanswered. Plant species dependent
solely on seeds for survival or dispersal are obviously more vulnerable to any decrease in plant fecundity that
occurs, whatever its cause. If, on the other hand, vegetative growth and dispersal (by means of shoots or
runners) are available as alternative reproductive strategies for a species, then decreases in plant fecundity may
be of little consequence. The fecundity effects described here are likely to have the most profound impact on
plant species with all four of the following characteristics: a short life span, a narrow geographic range, an
incapacity for vegetative propagation, and a dependence on a small number of insect-pollinator species. Perhaps
we should give special attention to the conservation of such plant species since they lack key factors in their
defenses against the environmental disruption caused by pesticide use.
 
 
1. Which of the following best summarizes the main point of the passage?
 
(A) Species interdependence is a point of weakness for some plants, but is generally beneficial to insects
involved in pollination.
(B) Efforts to control the spruce budworm have had deleterious effects on the red-osier dogwood.
(C) The used of pesticides may be endangering certain plant species dependent on insects for pollination.
(D) The spraying of pesticides can reduce the fecundity of a plant species, but probably does not affect its
overall population stability.
(E) Plant species lacking key factors in their defenses against human environmental disruption will probably
become extinct.
 
2. According to the author, a flowering plant species whose fecundity has declined due to pesticide spraying
may not experience an overall population decline if the plant species can do which of the following?
 
(A) Reproduce itself by means of shoots and runners.
(B) Survive to the end of the growing season.
(C) Survive in harsh climates.
(D) Respond to the fecundity decline by producing more flowers.
(E) Attract large insects as pollinators.
 
3. The passage suggests that the lack of an observed decline in the fecundity of the creeping dogwood
strengthens the researchers conclusions regarding pesticide use because the
 
(A) creeping dogwood is a species that does not resemble other forest plants
(B) creeping dogwood is a species pollinated by a broader range of insect species than are most dogwood
species
(C) creeping dogwood grows primarily in regions that were not sprayed with pesticide, and so served as a
control for the experiment
(D) creeping dogwood is similar to the red-osier dogwood, but its insect pollinators are known to be insensitive
to the pesticide used in the study
(E) geographical range of the creeping dogwood is similar to that of the red-osier dogwood, but the latter
species relies less on seeds for reproduction
 
4. The passage suggests that which of the following is true of the forest regions in New Brunswick sprayed with
most anti-budworm pesticides other than Matacil?
 
(A) The fecundity of some flowering plants in those regions may have decreased to an even greater degree than
in the regions where Matacil is used.
(B) Insect mortality in those regions occurs mostly among the larger species of insects, such as bumblebees.
(C) The number of seeds produced by common plant species in those regions is probably comparable to the
number produced where Matacil is sprayed.
(D) Many more plant species have become extinct in those regions than in the regions where Matacil is used.
(E) The spruce budworm is under better control in those regions than in the regions where Matacil is sprayed.
 
5. It can be inferred that which of the following is true of plant fecundity as it is defined in the passage?
 
(A) A plant’s fecundity decreases as the percentage of unpollinated flowers on the plant increases.
(B) A plant’s fecundity decreases as the number of flowers produced by the plant decreases.
(C) A plant’s fecundity increases as the number of flowers produced by the plant increases.
(D) A plant’s fecundity is usually low if the plant relies on a small number of insect species for pollination.
(E) A plant’s fecundity is high if the plant can reproduce quickly by means of vegetative growth as well as by
the production of seeds.
 
6. It can be inferred from the passage that which of the following plant species would be LEAST likely to
experience a decrease in fecundity as a result of the spraying of a pesticide not directly toxic to plants?
 
(A) A flowering tree pollinated by only a few insect species
(B) A kind of insect-pollinated vine producing few flowers
(C) A wind-pollinated flowering tree that is short-lived
(D) A flowering shrub pollinated by a large number of insect species
(E) A type of wildflower typically pollinated by larger insects
 
7. Which of the following assumptions most probably underlies the author’s tentative recommendation in lines
51-54?
 
(A) Human activities that result in environmental disruption should be abandoned.
(B) The use of pesticides is likely to continue into the future.
(C) It is economically beneficial to preserve endangered plant species.
(D) Preventing the endangerment of a species is less costly than trying to save an already endangered one.
(E) Conservation efforts aimed at preserving a few well-chosen species are more cost-effective than are
broader-based efforts to improve the environment.
 
<http://gmatclub.com/forum/rc-no-1-science-on-good-friday-77661.html>
 
-----------------
In contrast to traditional analyses of minority business, the sociological analysis contends that minority business
ownership is a group-level phenomenon, in that it is largely dependent upon social-group resources for its
development. Specifically, this analysis indicates that support networks play a critical role in starting and
maintaining minority business enterprises by providing owners with a range of assistance, from the informal
encouragement of family members and friends to dependable sources of labor and clientele from the owner’s
ethnic group. Such self-help networks, which encourage and support ethnic minority entrepreneurs, consist of
“primary” institutions, those closest to the individual in shaping his or her behavior and beliefs. They are
characterized by the face-to-face association and cooperation of persons united by ties of mutual concern. They
form an intermediate social level between the individual and larger “secondary” institutions based on
impersonal relationships. Primary institutions comprising the support network include kinship, peer, and
neighborhood or community subgroups.
A major function of self-help networks is financial support. Most scholars agree that minority business owners
have depended primarily on family funds and ethnic community resources for investment capital. Personal
savings have been accumulated, often through frugal living habits that require sacrifices by the entire family
and are thus a product of long-term family financial behavior. Additional loans and gifts from relatives,
forthcoming because of group obligation rather than narrow investment calculation, have supplemented
personal savings. Individual entrepreneurs do not necessarily rely on their kin because they cannot obtain
financial backing from commercial resources. They may actually avoid banks because they assume that
commercial institutions either cannot comprehend the special needs of minority enterprise or charge
unreasonably high interest rates.
Within the larger ethnic community, rotating credit associations have been used to raise capital. These
associations are informal clubs of friends and other trusted members of the ethnic group who make regular
contributions to a fund that is given to each contributor in rotation. One author estimates that 40 percent of New
York Chinatown firms established during 1900-1950 utilized such associations as their initial source of capital.
However, recent immigrants and third or fourth generations of older groups now employ rotating credit
associations only occasionally to raise investment funds. Some groups, like Black Americans, found other
means of financial support for their entrepreneurial efforts. The first Black-operated banks were created in the
late nineteenth century as depositories for dues collected from fraternal or lodge groups, which themselves had
sprung from Black churches. Black banks made limited investments in other Black enterprises. Irish immigrants
in American cities organized many building and loan associations to provide capital for home construction and
purchase. They, in turn, provided work for many Irish home-building contractor firms. Other ethnic and
minority groups followed similar practices in founding ethnic-directed financial institutions.
1. Based on the information in the passage, it would be LEAST likely for which of the following persons to be
part of a self-help network?
(A) The entrepreneur’s childhood friend
(B) The entrepreneur’s aunt
(C) The entrepreneur’s religious leader
(D) The entrepreneur’s neighbor
(E) The entrepreneur’s banker
2. Which of the following illustrates the working of a self-help support network, as such networks are described
in the passage?
(A) A public high school offers courses in book-keeping and accounting as part of its open-enrollment adult
education program.
(B) The local government in a small city sets up a program that helps teen-agers find summer jobs.
(C) A major commercial bank offers low-interest loans to experienced individuals who hope to establish their
own businesses.
(D) A neighborhood-based fraternal organization develops a program of on-the-job training for its members and
their friends.
(E) A community college offers country residents training programs that can lead to certification in a variety of
technical trades.
3. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage about rotating credit associations?
(A) They were developed exclusively by Chinese immigrants.
(B) They accounted for a significant portion of the investment capital used by Chinese immigrants in New York
in the early twentieth century.
(C) Third-generation members of an immigrant group who started businesses in the 1920’s would have been
unlikely to rely on them.
(D) They were frequently joint endeavors by members of two or three different ethnic groups.
(E) Recent immigrants still frequently turn to rotating credit associations instead of banks for investment
capital.
4. The passage best supports which of the following statements?
(A) A minority entrepreneur who had no assistance from family members would not be able to start a business.
(B) Self-help networks have been effective in helping entrepreneurs primarily in the last 50 years.
(C) Minority groups have developed a range of alternatives to standard financing of business ventures.
(D) The financial institutions founded by various ethnic groups owe their success to their unique formal
organization.
(E) Successful minority-owned businesses succeed primarily because of the personal strengths of their founders.
5. Which of the following best describes the organization of the second paragraph?
(A) An argument is delineated, followed by a counter-argument.
(B) An assertion is made and several examples are provided to illustrate it.
(C) A situation is described and its historical background is then outlined.
(D) An example of a phenomenon is given and is then used as a basis for general conclusions.
(E) A group of parallel incidents is described and the distinctions among the incidents are then clarified.
6. According to the passage, once a minority-owned business is established, self-help networks contribute
which of the following to that business?
(A) Information regarding possible expansion of the business into nearby communities
(B) Encouragement of a business climate that is nearly free of direct competition
(C) Opportunities for the business owner to reinvest profits in other minority-owned businesses
(D) Contact with people who are likely to be customers of the new business
(E) Contact with minority entrepreneurs who are members of other ethnic groups
7. It can be inferred from the passage that traditional analyses of minority business would be LEAST likely to
do which of the following?
(A) Examine businesses primarily in their social contexts
(B) Focus on current, rather than historical, examples of business enterprises
(C) Stress common experiences of individual entrepreneurs in starting businesses
(D) Focus on the maintenance of businesses, rather than means of starting them
(E) Focus on the role of individual entrepreneurs in starting a business
8. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage about the Irish building and loan associations
mentioned in the last paragraph?
(A) They were started by third- or fourth-generation immigrants.
(B) They originated as offshoots of church-related groups.
(C) They frequently helped Irish entrepreneurs to finance business not connected with construction.
(D) They contributed to the employment of many Irish construction workers.
(E) They provided assistance for construction businesses owned by members of other ethnic groups.
 
<http://gmatclub.com/forum/minority-owned-business-103101.html>
 
--------------
For millennia, the Nile River flooded nearly every year as a natural consequence of heavy summer rains on the
Ethiopian Plateau; in the last century, as the population in the region exploded, the cycle of flooding
interspersed with periodic drought caused widespread suffering for the local population. In the mid-1950s, the
Egyptian government concluded that a significant dam was necessary to enable the country's economic
development to be on a par with that of Western nations. The Aswan Dam would prevent the annual flooding,
generate hydroelectric power and supply a steady source of water for residents and agricultural activities,
though it would also have other, less positive effects.
By the 1970s, most Egyptian villages had electric power, and the dam provided approximately half of Egypt's
entire output of electricity. The benefits were counteracted, however, by consequences which were sometimes
slow to appear but ruinous in their long-term effects. Dams prevent silt from flowing through to downstream
lands. The silt is essential for renewing the minerals and nutrients that make the land fertile; before the dam, the
Nile floodplain was famously productive. Farmers have had to substitute artificial fertilizers, reducing profits
and causing pervasive chemical pollution with deleterious effects for the human, animal and plant populations
living near or in the river. It is difficult to draw definite conclusions about a project with such substantial and
varied results, but it would be untenable to assert that the Egyptian government should never have built the
Aswan Dam.
 
The author's attitude toward the Aswan Dam Project is best reflected by which of the following phrases? 
 
A) inconsistent support 
 B) strict neutrality
 C) keen enthusiasm
 D) mild endorsement
 E) cautious opposition
 
Based upon the content of the passage, the author would most likely agree with which of the following
propositions? 
 
A) If a plan achieves its stated goals, it should still be carried out, even in the face of unintended negative
results. 
 
B) Planners of highly complex projects should expect some unintended negative consequences, even if they
cannot foresee what those consequences will be. 
 
C)Although a major undertaking may have unpredictable results, those results are not necessarily grounds for
condemning the entire endeavor. 
 
D)Any potential positive and negative effects should be weighed before starting a project of considerable
magnitude or complexity. 
 
E)It is necessary to determine the net impact of all outcomes, good and bad, before deciding whether to
denounce the overall project.
 
<http://gmatclub.com/forum/i-don-t-agree-with-these-answers-what-do-you-think-101994.html>
 
--------------
The labor force is often organized as if workers had no family responsibilities. Preschool-age children need full-
time care; children in primary school need care after school and during school vacations. Although day-care
services can resolve some scheduling conflicts between home and office, workers cannot always find or afford
suitable care. Even when they obtain such care, parents must still cope with emergencies, such as illnesses, that
keep children at home. Moreover, children need more than tending; they also need meaningful time with their
parents. Conventional full-time workdays, especially when combined with unavoidable household duties, are
too inflexible for parents with primary child-care responsibility.
Although a small but increasing number of working men are single parents, those barriers against successful
participation in the labor market that are related to primary child-care responsibilities mainly disadvantage
women. Even in families where both parents work, cultural pressures are traditionally much greater on mothers
than on fathers to bear the primary child-rearing responsibilities.
In reconciling child-rearing responsibilities with participation in the labor market, many working mothers are
forced to make compromises. For example, approximately one-third of all working mothers are employed only
part-time, even though part-time jobs are dramatically underpaid and often less desirable in comparison to full-
time employment. Even though part-time work is usually available only in occupations offering minimal
employee responsibility and little opportunity for advancement or self-enrichment, such employment does allow
many women the time and flexibility to fulfill their family duties, but only at the expense of the advantages
associated with full-time employment.
Moreover, even mothers with full-time employment must compromise opportunities in order to adjust to
barriers against parents in the labor market. Many choose jobs entailing little challenge or responsibility or
those offering flexible scheduling, often available only in poorly paid positions, while other working mothers,
although willing and able to assume as much responsibility as people without children, find that their need to
spend regular and predictable time with their children inevitably causes them to lose career opportunities to
those without such demands. Thus, women in education are more likely to become teachers than school
administrators, whose more conventional full-time work schedules do not correspond to the schedules of
school-age children, while female lawyers are more likely to practice law in trusts and estates, where they can
control their work schedules, than in litigation, where they cannot. Nonprofessional women are concentrated in
secretarial work and department store sales, where their absences can be covered easily by substitutes and
where they can enter and leave the work force with little loss, since the jobs offer so little personal gain. Indeed,
as long as the labor market remains hostile to parents, and family roles continue to be allocated on the basis of
gender, women will be seriously disadvantaged in that labor market.
 
 
6 . According to the passage, many working parents may be forced to make any of the following types of career
decisions EXCEPT
(A) declining professional positions for nonprofessional ones, which typically have less conventional work
schedules
(B) accepting part-time employment rather than full-time employment
(C) taking jobs with limited responsibility, and thus more limited career opportunities, in order to have a more
flexible schedule
(D) pursuing career specializations that allow them to control their work schedules instead of pursuing a more
desirable specialization in the same field
(E) limiting the career potential of one parent, often the mother, who assumes greater child-care responsibility
7. Which one of the following statements would most appropriately continue the discussion at the end of the
passage?
(A) At the same time, most men will remain better able to enjoy the career and salary opportunities offered by
the labor market.
(B) Of course, men who are married to working mothers know of these employment barriers but seem unwilling
to do anything about them.
(C) On the other hand, salary levels may become more equitable between men and women even if the other
career opportunities remain more accessible to men than to women.
(D) On the contrary, men with primary child-rearing responsibilities will continue to enjoy more advantages in
the workplace than their female counterparts.
(E) Thus, institutions in society that favor men over women will continue to widen the gap between the career
opportunities available for men and for women.
 
<http://gmatclub.com/forum/the-labor-force-is-often-organized-as-if-101781.html>
 
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Although much has been written about the theological conflicts with Darwinian theory, little is known of the
powerful scientific objections that modified Darwin’s beliefs.
During Darwin’s lifetime, the accepted theory of heredity was not Mendel’s theory of particulate inheritance,
which, though published, was unrecognized, but the theory of blending inheritance, which holds that forms
intermediate between those of the parents result from mating. Jenkin pointed out that if a rare and favorable
mutation occurred, it would soon be blended out by repeated crossings from the wild-type form. Disputing
Darwin’s conception of evolution as proceeding through the natural selection of those with slightly better
characteristics that arose randomly, Jenkin concluded that natural selection could not account for the
tremendous diversity of life, hypothesizing that large numbers of organisms mutated simultaneously in the same
direction—a controlled orthogenetic process resembling a series of “special creations.”
Since “special creationism” was an ideological target of his, Darwin found himself in a quandary. Although he
did not abandon his theory, he admitted that natural selection played a much smaller part in evolution than he
had previously claimed. He also embraced the Lamarckian concept that acquired traits in parents are transmitted
to their offspring, thus providing a mechanism by which an entire population could change in the same direction
at once.
Another potent objection came from the physicists led by Lord Kelvin, who contested the assumption of
previous geologists and biologists that life had existed for billions of years, if not infinitely. How, they asked,
could evolution proceed by slow steps in millions of years, and how could advanced forms recently evolved
show such great differences? The Kelvinists, basing their conclusion on the assumption that the sun was an
incandescent liquid mass rapidly radiating heat, calculated that the age of the earth was between 20 and 40
million years.
Admitting that their calculations were correct and their premises rational, Darwin was forced to adjust this
theory. He proposed that change had occurred much more rapidly in the past than in the present, where species
seemed static, and that more advanced forms varied more rapidly than lower forms. This provided further
reason to advocate Lamarck’s theory of inheritance, because that could account for the rapid change.
Interestingly, both these retreats of Darwin were later shown to be faulty. The discovery that the sun runs on a
nearly infinite amount of atomic fuel totally invalidated Kelvin’s argument, Mendel was “rediscovered” in the
twentieth century, when it was pointed out that the particulate nature of inheritance meant that favorable
mutation not only could persist, but could rapidly become prevalent.
1. The primary purpose of the passage is to
(A) outline the process by which Darwin formulated and modified his theory of natural selection
(B) propose a new interpretation of Darwin’s theory of evolution
(C) explain how other scientists of the time helped Darwin modify and perfect his theories
(D) defend Darwinian theory against the objections raised by Darwin’s contemporaries in the scientific
community
(E) discuss some of the scientific controversy that Darwin sparked and describe his response to it
2. It can be inferred from the passage that the theory of blending inheritance would predict that the offspring of
(A) two strains of snapdragons, one with abnormal, radically symmetrical flowers and the other with normal,
bilaterally symmetrical flowers, would always have normal, bilaterally symmetrical flowers
(B) a white horse and a black horse would always be gray
(C) a man with type A blood and a woman with type B blood would always have type A, type B, or type AB
blood
(D) a fly with large eyes and a fly with small eyes would always have one large eye and one small eye
(E) two pink-flowered plants would always be red or white
6. According to the passage, Darwin modified his beliefs in order to
(A) bring them into line with the theory of particulate inheritance
(B) disprove Lord Kelvin’s view on the age of the earth
(C) meet the objections of Jenkin and Lamarck
(D) resolve theological conflicts about evolution
(E) dissociate himself from those who believed in “special creationism” (line 21)
9. All of the following can be reasonably inferred from the passage EXCEPT:
(A) The idea that evolution occurs by means of natural selection was not widely accepted until the twentieth
century.
(B) Darwin’s theories were originally predicated on the assumption that the earth is more than 40 million years
old.
(C) Many of Darwin’s ideas about heredity were later shown to be incorrect.
(D) Other scientists of Darwin’s time, including both Jenkin and Lamarck, believed in evolution.
(E) Darwin was the only scientist of his day who believed in natural selection.
 
<http://gmatclub.com/forum/theological-conflicts-with-darwinian-theory-99089.html>
 
------------
Until recently, nearly everyone thought of intelligence as a single entity that could be measured by a simple IQ
test. In 1983, however, Dr. Howard Gardner, a professor of education at Harvard University, introduced his
theory of multiple intelligences. Today, there are two major schools of thought on intelligence. Despite
extensive and ongoing research, scientists have been unable to prove definitively one theory over the other. 
The single intelligence model is based on the idea of one general intelligence, known as positive manifold or
simply g. Perhaps the most convincing evidence in support of this theory is the fact that individuals who
perform well on tests of one cognitive ability also perform well on tests of a second cognitive ability. For
example, those who do well on verbal tests also do well on mathematics tests, and vice versa. Another argument
in support of the general intelligence theory is the strong positive correlation between intelligent quotient, or IQ,
as measured by psychometric tests, and reaction time. Individuals with faster reaction times or neural
processing speeds have higher IQs, suggesting that neural processing speed is equivalent to the one general
intelligence. 
The theory of multiple intelligences asserts that there is more than one type of intelligence. Proponents of this
model differ on the number of intelligences. Gardner, for example, originally proposed seven, but has since
added an eighth. His categories are linguistic, logical-mathematical, musical, spatial, bodily kinesthetic,
interpersonal, intrapersonal, and naturalist. Dr. Robert Sternberg, a professor of psychology and education at
Yale University, proposes a triarchic theory of intelligence, which divides intelligence into three categories:
analytical, creative, and practical. Gardner’s theory is supported primarily by biological evidence. By studying
individuals with paralysis, speech impairment, or other disabilities, Gardner has been able to identify specific
parts of the brain associated with different physical and cognitive skills. Sternberg’s model relies on
observations of real-life situations. He notes that in Brazil, for example, street children can do the math they
need to know to survive, thereby demonstrating practical intelligence, but cannot pass a school math class,
which requires analytical intelligence. 
 
According to the passage, the term “positive manifold” can be most closely identified with which of the
following? 
 
A)The correlation between IQ and reaction time 
B)The observation that individuals with speech impairment are able to demonstrate other forms of intelligence 
C)The relationship between IQ and performance on standardized tests 
D)The three intelligences proposed by Dr. Robert Sternberg 
E)Neural processing speed
 
 
The author mentions the correlation between IQ and reaction time in order to 
 
A)provide justification for Howard Gardner’s theory of multiple intelligences 
B)explain the triarchic model of intelligence proposed by Robert Sternberg 
C)introduce the idea of positive manifold 
D)point out one argument in support of general intelligence 
E)prove that the single intelligence model is superior to the theory of multiple intelligences 
 
 
The author of this passage would most likely agree with which of the following? 
 
A)The theory of multiple intelligences is relatively new and untested. 
B)Within the next decade, discoveries about the human brain will resolve the debate about intelligence. 
C)Dr. Sternberg’s theory would be strengthened by the discovery of biological evidence for his conclusions. 
D)The theory of multiple intelligences is undermined by disagreements among its proponents as to the number
of intelligences. 
E)There is stronger biological evidence in favor of the single-intelligence model than of the theory of multiple
intelligences.
 
<http://gmatclub.com/forum/rc-you-got-6-mins-66351.html>
 
-------------
Nearly a century ago, biologists found that if they separated an invertebrate animal embryo into two parts at an
early stage of its life, it would survive and develop as two normal embryos. This led them to believe that the
cells in the early embryo are undetermined in the sense that each cell has the potential to develop in a variety of
different ways. Later biologists found that the situation was not so simple. It matters in which plane the embryo
is cut. If it is cut in a plane different from the one used by the early investigators, it will not form two whole
embryos.
A debate arose over what exactly was happening. Which embryo cells are determined, just when do they
become irreversibly committed to their fates, and what are the “morphogenetic determinants” that tell a cell
what to become? But the debate could not be resolved because no one was able to ask the crucial questions in a
form in which they could be pursued productively. Recent discoveries in molecular biology, however, have
opened up prospects for a resolution of the debate. Now investigators think they know at least some of the
molecules that act as morphogenetic determinants in early development. They have been able to show that, in a
sense, cell determination begins even before an egg is fertilized.
Studying sea urchins, biologist Paul Gross found that an unfertilized egg contains substances that function as
morphogenetic determinants. They are located in the cytoplasm of the egg cell; i.e., in that part of the cell’s
protoplasm that lies outside of the nucleus. In the unfertilized egg, the substances are inactive and are not
distributed homogeneously. When the egg is fertilized, the substances become active and, presumably, govern
the behavior of the genes they interact with. Since the substances are unevenly distributed in the egg, when the
fertilized egg divides, the resulting cells are different from the start and so can be qualitatively different in their
own gene activity.
The substances that Gross studied are maternal messenger RNA’s—products of certain of the maternal genes.
He and other biologists studying a wide variety of organisms have found that these particular RNA’s direct, in
large part, the synthesis of histones, a class of proteins that bind to DNA. Once synthesized, the histones move
into the cell nucleus, where section of DNA wrap around them to form a structure that resembles beads, or
knots, on a string. The beads are DNA segments wrapped around the histones; the string is the intervening
DNA. And it is the structure of these beaded DNA strings that guide the fate of the cells in which they are
located.
 
2. It can be inferred from the passage that the morphogenetic determinants present in the early embryo are
(A) located in the nucleus of the embryo cells
(B) evenly distributed unless the embryo is not developing normally
(C) inactive until the embryo cells become irreversibly committed to their final function
(D) identical to those that were already present in the unfertilized egg
(E) present in larger quantities than is necessary for the development of a single individual
 
 
5.It can be inferred from the passage that the initial production of histones after an egg is fertilized takes place
(A) in the cytoplasm
(B) in the maternal genes
(C) throughout the protoplasm
(D) in the beaded portions of the DNA strings
(E) in certain sections of the cell nucleus
 
6. It can be inferred from the passage that which of the following is dependent on the fertilization of an egg?
(A) Copying of maternal genes to produce maternal messenger RNA’s
(B) Synthesis of proteins called histones
(C) Division of a cell into its nucleus and the cytoplasm
(D) Determination of the egg cell’s potential for division
(E) Generation of all of a cell’s morphogenetic determinants
 
9. Which of the following circumstances is most comparable to the impasse biologists encountered in trying to
resolve the debate about cell determination (lines 12-18)?
(A) The problems faced by a literary scholar who wishes to use original source materials that are written in an
unfamiliar foreign language
(B) The situation of a mathematician who in preparing a proof of a theorem for publication detects a reasoning
error in the proof
(C) The difficulties of a space engineer who has to design equipment to function in an environment in which it
cannot first be tested
(D) The predicament of a linguist trying to develop a theory of language acquisition when knowledge of the
structure of language itself is rudimentary at best
(E) The dilemma confronting a foundation when the funds available to it are sufficient to support one of two
equally deserving scientific projects but not both
 
<http://gmatclub.com/forum/1000rc-98626.html>
 
---------------
Most economists in the United States seem captivated by the spell of the free market. Consequently, nothing
seems good or normal that does not accord with the requirements of the free market. A price that is determined
by the seller or, for that matter, established by anyone other than the aggregate of consumers seems pernicious.
Accordingly, it requires a major act of will to think of price-fixing (the determination of prices by the seller) as
both “normal” and having a valuable economic function. In fact, price-fixing is normal in all industrialized
societies because the industrial system itself provides, as an effortless consequence of its own development, the
price-fixing that it requires. Modern industrial planning requires and rewards great size. Hence, a comparatively
small number of large firms will be competing for the same group of consumers. That each large firm will act
with consideration of its own needs and thus avoid selling its products for more than its competitors charge is
commonly recognized by advocates of free-market economic theories. But each large firm will also act with full
consideration of the needs that it has in common with the other large firms competing for the same customers.
Each large firm will thus avoid significant price-cutting, because price-cutting would be prejudicial to the
common interest in a stable demand for products. Most economists do not see price-fixing when it occurs
because they expect it to be brought about by a number of explicit agreements among large firms; it is not.
Moreover, those economists who argue that allowing the free market to operate without interference is the most
efficient method of establishing prices have not considered the economies of non-socialist countries other than
the United states. These economies employ intentional price-fixing, usually in an overt fashion. Formal price-
fixing by cartel and informal price-fixing by agreements covering the members of an industry are
commonplace. Were there something peculiarly efficient about the free market and inefficient about price-
fixing, the countries that have avoided the first and used the second would have suffered drastically in their
economic development. There is no indication that they have.
Socialist industry also works within a framework of controlled prices. In the early 1970’s, the Soviet Union
began to give firms and industries some of the flexibility in adjusting prices that a more informal evolution has
accorded the capitalist system. Economists in the United States have hailed the change as a return to the free
market. But Soviet firms are no more subject to prices established by a free market over which they exercise
little influence than are capitalist firms; rather, Soviet firms have been given the power to fix prices.
 
3. The author’s attitude toward “Most economists in the United States”(line 1) can best be described as
(A) spiteful and envious
(B) scornful and denunciatory
(C) critical and condescending
(D) ambivalent but deferential
(E) uncertain but interested
4. It can be inferred from the author’s argument that a price fixed by the seller “seems pernicious” (line 7)
because
(A) people do not have confidence in large firms
(B) people do not expect the government to regulate prices
(C) most economists believe that consumers as a group should determine prices
(D) most economists associate fixed prices with communist and socialist economies
(E) most economists believe that no one group should determine prices
8. With which of the following statements regarding the behavior of large firms in industrialized societies
would the author be most likely to agree?
(A) The directors of large firms will continue to anticipate the demand for products.
(B) The directors of large firms are less interested in achieving a predictable level of profit than in achieving a
large profit.
(C) The directors of large firms will strive to reduce the costs of their products.
(D) Many directors of large firms believe that the government should establish the prices that will be charged
for products.
(E) Many directors of large firms believe that the price charged for products is likely to increase annually.
 
<http://gmatclub.com/forum/rc-free-market-rc1000-real-toughie-98279.html>
 
--------------
It can be argued that much consumer dissatisfaction with marketing strategies arises from an inability to aim
advertising at only the likely buyers of a given product.
There are three groups of consumers who are affected by the marketing process. First, there is the market
segment—people who need the commodity in question. Second, there is the program target—people in the
market segment with the “best fit” characteristics for a specific product. Lots of people may need trousers, but
only a few qualify as likely buyers of very expensive designer trousers. Finally, there is the program
audience―all people who are actually exposed to the marketing program without regard to whether they need or
want the product.
These three groups are rarely identical. An exception occurs occasionally in cases where customers for a
particular industrial product may be few and easily identifiable. Such customers, all sharing a particular need,
are likely to form a meaningful target, for example, all companies with a particular application of the product in
question, such as high-speed fillers of bottles at breweries. In such circumstances, direct selling (marketing that
reaches only the program target) is likely to be economically justified, and highly specialized trade media exist
to expose members of the program target—and only members of the program target—to the marketing program.
Most consumer-goods markets are significantly different. Typically, there are many rather than few potential
customers. Each represents a relatively small percentage of potential sales. Rarely do members of a particular
market segment group themselves neatly into a meaningful program target. There are substantial differences
among consumers with similar demographic characteristics. Even with all the past decade’s advances in
information technology, direct selling of consumer goods is rare, and mass marketing—a marketing approach
that aims at a wide audience—remains the only economically feasible mode. Unfortunately, there are few media
that allow the marketer to direct a marketing program exclusively to the program target. Inevitably, people get
exposed to a great deal of marketing for products in which they have no interest and so they become annoyed.
1. The passage suggests which of the following about highly specialized trade media?
(A) They should be used only when direct selling is not economically feasible.
(B) They can be used to exclude from the program audience people who are not part of the program target.
(C) They are used only for very expensive products.
(D) They are rarely used in the implementation of marketing programs for industrial products.
(E) They are used only when direct selling has not reached the appropriate market segment.
2. According to the passage, most consumer-goods markets share which of the following characteristics?
I. Customers who differ significantly from each other
II. Large numbers of potential customers
III. Customers who each represent a small percentage of potential sales
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) I and II only
(D) II and III only
(E) I, II, and III
3. The passage suggests which of the following about direct selling?
(A) It is used in the marketing of most industrial products.
(B) It is often used in cases where there is a large program target.
(C) It is not economically feasible for most marketing programs.
(D) It is used only for products for which there are many potential customers.
(E) It is less successful at directing a marketing program to the target audience than are other marketing
approaches.
4. The author mentions “trousers” (lines 9 and 11) most likely in order to
(A) make a comparison between the program target and the program audience
(B) emphasize the similarities between the market segment and the program target
(C) provide an example of the way three groups of consumers are affected by a marketing program
(D) clarify the distinction between the market segment and the program target
(E) introduce the concept of the program audience
5. Which of the following best exemplifies the situation described in the last two sentences of the passage?
(A) A product suitable for women age 21-30 is marketed at meetings attended only by potential customers.
(B) A company develops a new product and must develop an advertising campaign to create a market for it.
(C) An idea for a specialized product remains unexplored because media exposure of the product to its few
potential customers would be too expensive.
(D) A new product is developed and marketers collect demographic data on potential consumers before
developing a specific advertising campaign.
(E) A product suitable for men age 60 and over is advertised in a magazine read by adults of all ages.
6. The passage suggests that which of the following is true about the marketing of industrial products like those
discussed in the third paragraph?
(A) The market segment and program target are identical.
(B) Mass marketing is the only feasible way of advertising such products.
(C) The marketing program cannot be directed specifically to the program target.
(D) More customers would be needed to justify the expense of direct selling.
(E) The program audience would necessarily be made up of potential customers, regardless of the marketing
approach that was used.
7. The passage supports which of the following statements about demographic characteristics and marketing?
(A) Demographic research is of no use in determining how successful a product will be with a particular group
of consumers.
(B) A program audience is usually composed of people with similar demographic characteristics.
(C) Psychological factors are more important than demographic factors in defining a market segments.
(D) Consumers with similar demographic characteristics do not necessarily form a meaningful program target.
(E) Collecting demographic data is the first step that marketers take in designing a marketing program.
8. It can be inferred from the passage that which of the following is true for most consumer-goods markets?
(A) The program audience is smaller than the market segment.
(B) The program audience and the market segment are usually identical.
(C) The market segment and the program target are usually identical.
(D) The program target is larger than the market segment.
(E) The program target and the program audience are not usually identical.
 
<http://gmatclub.com/forum/much-consumer-dissatisfaction-with-marketing-strategies-86260.html>
 
-------------
Many literary detectives have pored over a great puzzle concerning the writer Marcel Proust: what happened in
1909? How did Contre Saint-Beuve, an essay attacking the methods of the critic Saint Beuve, turn into the start
of the novel Remembrance of Things Past? A recently published letter from Proust to the editor Vallette
confirms that Fallois, the editor of the 1954 edition of Contre Saint-Beuve, made an essentially correct guess
about the relationship of the essay to the novel. Fallois proposed that Proust had tried to begin a novel in 1908,
abandoned it for what was to be a long demonstration of Saint-Beuve’s blindness to the real nature of great
writing, found the essay giving rise to personal memories and fictional developments, and allowed these to take
over in a steadily developing novel.
Draft passages in Proust’s 1909 notebooks indicate that the transition from essay to novel began in Contre
Saint-Beuve, when Proust introduced several examples to show the powerful influence that involuntary memory
exerts over the creative imagination. In effect, in trying to demonstrate that the imagination is more profound
and less submissive to the intellect than Saint-Beuve assumed, Proust elicited vital memories of his own and,
finding subtle connections between them, began to amass the material for Remembrance. By August, Proust
was writing to Vallette, informing him of his intention to develop the material as a novel. Maurice Bardeche, in
Marcel Proust, romancier, has shown the importance in the drafts of Remembrance of spontaneous and
apparently random associations of Proust’s subconscious. As incidents and reflections occurred to Proust, he
continually inserted new passages altering and expanding his narrative. But he found it difficult to control the
drift of his inspiration. The very richness and complexity of the meaningful relationships that kept presenting
and rearranging themselves on all levels, from abstract intelligence to profound dreamy feelings, made it
difficult for Proust to set them out coherently. The beginning of control came when he saw how to connect the
beginning and the end of his novel.
Intrigued by Proust’s claim that he had “begun and finished” Remembrance at the same time, Henri Bonnet
discovered that parts of Remembrance’s last book were actually started in 1909. Already in that year, Proust
had drafted descriptions of his novel’s characters in their old age that would appear in the final book of
Remembrance, where the permanence of art is set against the ravages of time. The letter to Vallette, drafts of
the essay and novel, and Bonnet’s researches establish in broad outline the process by which Proust generated
his novel out of the ruins of his essay. But those of us who hoped, with Kolb, that Kolb’s newly published
complete edition of Proust’s correspondence for 1909 would document the process in greater detail are
disappointed. For until Proust was confident that he was at last in sight of a viable structure for Remembrance,
he told few correspondents that he was producing anything more ambitious than Contre Saint-Beuve.
1. The passage is primarily concerned with
(A) the role of involuntary memory in Proust’s writing
(B) evidence concerning the genesis of Proust’s novel Remembrance of Things Past
(C) conflicting scholarly opinions about the value of studying the drafts of Remembrance of Things Past
(D) Proust’s correspondence and what it reveals about Remembrance of Things Past
(E) the influence of Saint-Beuve’s criticism on Proust’s novel Remembrance of Things Past
2. It can be inferred from the passage that all of the following are literary detectives who have tried, by means
of either scholarship or criticism, to help solve the “great puzzle” mentioned in lines 1-2 EXCEPT:
(A) Bardeche
(B) Bonnet
(C) Fallois
(D) Kolb
(E) Vallette
3. According to the passage, in drafts of Contre Saint Beuve Proust set out to show that Saint-Beuve made
which of the following mistakes as a critic?
I. Saint-Beuve made no effort to study the development of a novel through its drafts and revisions.
II. Saint-Beuve assigned too great a role in the creative process to a writer’s conscious intellect.
III. Saint-Beuve concentrated too much on plots and not enough on imagery and other elements of style.
(A) II only
(B) III only
(C) I and II only
(D) I and III only
(E) I, II, and III
4. Which of the following best states the author’s attitude toward the information that scholars have gathered
about Proust’s writing in 1909?
(A) The author is disappointed that no new documents have come to light since Fallois’s speculations.
(B) The author is dissatisfied because there are too many gaps and inconsistencies in the drafts.
(C) The author is confident that Fallois’s 1954 guess has been proved largely correct, but regrets that still more
detailed documentation concerning Proust’s transition from the essay to the novel has not emerged.
(D) The author is satisfied that Fallois’s judgment was largely correct, but feels that Proust’s early work in
designing and writing the novel was probably far more deliberate than Fallois’s description of the process
would suggest.
(E) The author is satisfied that the facts of Proust’s life in 1909 have been thoroughly established, but believes
such documents as drafts and correspondence are only of limited value in a critical assessment of Proust’s
writing.
5. The author of the passage implies that which of the following would be the LEAST useful source of
information about Proust’s transition from working on Contre Saint-Beuve to having a viable structure for
Remembrance of Things Past?
(A) Fallois’s comments in the 1954 edition of Contre Saint-Beuve
(B) Proust’s 1909 notebooks, including the drafts of Remembrance of Things Past
(C) Proust’s 1909 correspondence, excluding the letter to Vallette
(D) Bardeche’s Marcel Proust, romancier
(E) Bonnet’s researches concerning Proust’s drafts of the final book of Remembrance of Things Past
6. The passage offers information to answer which of the following questions?
(A) Precisely when in 1909 did Proust decide to abandon Contre Saint-Beuve?
(B) Precisely when in 1909 did Proust decide to connect the beginning and the end of Remembrance of Things
Past?
(C) What was the subject of the novel that Proust attempted in 1908?
(D) What specific criticisms of Saint-Beuve appear, in fictional form, in Remembrance of Things Past?
(E) What is a theme concerning art that appears in the final book of Remembrance of Things Past?
7. Which of the following best describes the relationship between Contre Saint-Beuve and Remembrance of
Things Past as it is explained in the passage?
(A) Immediately after abandoning Contre Saint-Beuve, at Vallette’s suggestion, Proust started Remembrance as
a fictional demonstration that Saint-Beuve was wrong about the imagination.
(B) Immediately after abandoning Contre Saint-Beuve, at Vallette’s suggestion, Proust turned his attention to
Remembrance, starting with incidents that had occurred to him while planning the essay.
(C) Despondent that he could not find a coherent structure for Contre Saint-Beuve, an essay about the role of
memory in fiction, Proust began instead to write Remembrance, a novel devoted to important early memories.
(D) While developing his argument about the imagination in Contre Saint-Beuve, Proust described and began to
link together personal memories that became a foundation for Remembrance.
(E) While developing his argument about memory and imagination in Contre Saint-Beuve, Proust created
fictional characters to embody the abstract themes in his essay.
 
<http://gmatclub.com/forum/challenging-questions-rc-arts-and-literature-90413.html>
 
-----------
Caffeine, the stimulant in coffee, has been called “the most widely used psychoactive substance on Earth .”
Synder, Daly and Bruns have recently proposed that caffeine affects behavior by countering the activity in
(5)the human brain of a naturally occurring chemical called adenosine. Adenosine normally depresses neuron
firing in many areas of the brain. It apparently does this by inhibiting the release of neurotransmitters, chemicals
that carry nerve impulses from one neuron to the next.
(10)Like many other agents that affect neuron firing, adenosine must first bind to specific receptors on neuronal
membranes. There are at least two classes of these receptors, which have been designated A1 and
A2. Snyder et al propose that caffeine, which is struc-
(15)turally similar to adenosine, is able to bind to both types of receptors, which prevents adenosine from
attaching there and allows the neurons to fire more readily than they otherwise would.
For many years, caffeine’s effects have been attri-
(20)buted to its inhibition of the production of phosphodi-esterase, an enzyme that breaks down the chemical
called cyclic AMP.A number of neurotransmitters exert their effects by first increasing cyclic AMP concentra-
tions in target neurons. Therefore, prolonged periods at
(25)the elevated concentrations, as might be brought about by a phosphodiesterase inhibitor, could lead to a
greater amount of neuron firing and, consequently, to behav-ioral stimulation. But Snyder et al point out that the
caffeine concentrations needed to inhibit the production
(30)of phosphodiesterase in the brain are much higher than those that produce stimulation. Moreover, other
com-pounds that block phosphodiesterase’s activity are not stimulants.
To buttress their case that caffeine acts instead by pre-
(35)venting adenosine binding, Snyder et al compared the stimulatory effects of a series of caffeine derivatives
with their ability to dislodge adenosine from its receptors in the brains of mice. “In general,” they reported, “the
ability of the compounds to compete at the receptors 208
(40)correlates with their ability to stimulate locomotion in the mouse; i.e., the higher their capacity to bind at
the receptors, the higher their ability to stimulate locomo-tion.” Theophylline, a close structural relative of
caffeine and the major stimulant in tea, was one of the most
(45) effective compounds in both regards. There were some apparent exceptions to the general correlation
observed between adenosine-receptor binding and stimulation. One of these was a compound called 
3-isobuty1-1-methylxanthine(IBMX), which bound very
(50)well but actually depressed mouse locomotion. Snyder et al suggest that this is not a major stumbling block
to their hypothesis. The problem is that the compound has mixed effects in the brain, a not unusual occurrence
with psychoactive drugs. Even caffeine, which is generally
(55)known only for its stimulatory effects, displays this property, depressing mouse locomotion at very low
concentrations and stimulating it at higher ones.
 
1. The primary purpose of the passage is to
(A)discuss a plan for investigation of a phenomenon that is not yet fully understood
(B)present two explanations of a phenomenon and reconcile the differences between them
(C)summarize two theories and suggest a third theory that overcomes the problems encountered in the first two
(D)describe an alternative hypothesis and provide evidence and arguments that support it
(E)challenge the validity of a theory by exposing the inconsistencies and contradictions in it
 
2. According so Snyder et al, caffeine differs from adenosine in that caffeine
(A)stimulates behavior in the mouse and in humans, whereas adenosine stimulates behavior in humans only
(B)has mixed effects in the brain, whereas adenosine has only a stimulatory effect
(C)increases cyclic AMP concentrations in target neurons, whereas adenosine decreases such concentrations
(D)permits release of neurotransmitters when it is bound to adenosine receptors, whereas adenosine inhibits
such release
(E)inhibits both neuron firing and the production of phosphodiesterase when there is a sufficient concentration
in the brain, whereas adenosine inhibits only neuron firing
 
3. In response to experimental results concerning IBMX, Snyder et al contended that it is not uncommon for
psychoactive drugs to have
(A)mixed effects in the brain
(B)inhibitory effects on enzymes in the brain
(C)close structural relationships with caffeine
(D)depressive effects on mouse locomotion
(E)the ability to dislodge caffeine from receptors in the brain
 
4. According to Snyder et al, all of the following compounds can bind to specific receptors in the brain
EXCEPT
(A)IBMX
(B)caffeine209
(C)adenosine
(D)theophylline
(E)phosphodiesterase
 
5. Snyder et al suggest that caffeine’s ability to bind to A1 and A2 receptors can be at least partially attributed to
which of the following?
(A)The chemical relationship between caffeine and phosphodiesterase
(B)The structural relationship between caffeine and adenosine
(C)The structural similarity between caffeine and neurotransmitters
(D)The ability of caffeine to stimulate behavior
(E)The natural occurrence of caffeine and adenosine in the brain
 
6. The author quotes Snyder et al in lines 38-43 most probably in order to
(A)reveal some of the assumptions underlying their theory
(B)summarize a major finding of their experiments
(C)point out that their experiments were limited to the mouse
(D)indicate that their experiments resulted only in general correlations
(E)refute the objections made by supporters of the older theory
 
<http://gmatclub.com/forum/rc-caffeine-84536.html>
 
---------
One of the questions of interest in the study of the evolution of spiders is whether the weaving of orb webs
evolved only once or several times. About half the 35,000 known kinds of spiders make webs; a third of the
web weavers make orb webs. Since most orb weavers belong either to the Araneidae or the Uloboridae families,
the origin of the orb web can be determined only by ascertaining whether the families are related.Recent
taxonomic analysis of individuals from both families indicates that the families evolved from different
ancestors, thereby contradicting Wiehle’s theory. This theory postulates that the families must be related, based
on the assumption that complex behavior, such as web building, could evolve only once. According to Kullman,
web structure is the only characteristic that suggests a relationship between families. The families differ in
appearance, structure of body hair, and arrangement of eyes. Only Uloborids lack venom glands. Further
identification and study of characteristic features will undoubtedly answer the question of the evolution of the
orb web.
 
17. The primary purpose of the passage is to
(A) settle the question of whether orb webs evolved once or more than once
(B) describe scientific speculation concerning an issue related to the evolution of orb
webs
(C) analyze the differences between the characteristic features of spiders in the
Araneidae and Uloboridae families
(D) question the methods used by earlier investigators of the habits of spiders
(E) demonstrate that Araneidae spiders are not related to Uloboridae spiders
18. It can be inferred from the passage that all orb-weaving spiders belong to types ofspiders that
 
(A) lack venom glands
(B) are included either in the Uloboridae or Araneidae families
(C) share few characteristic features with other spider types
(D) comprise less than a third of all known types of spiders
(E) are more recently evolved than other types of spiders
 
19. According to the passage, members of the Araneidae family can be distinguished
from members of the Uloboridae family by all of the following EXCEPT:
(A) the presence of venom glands
(B) the type of web they spin
(C) the structure of their body hair
(D) the arrangement of their eyes
(E) their appearance
20. Which of the following statements, if true, most weakens Wiehle’s theory that
complex behavior could evolve only once?
(A) Horses, introduced to the New World by the Spaniards, thrived under diverse
climatic conditions.
(B) Plants of the Palmaceae family, descendants of a common ancestor, evolved
unique seed forms even though the plants occupy similar habitats throughout the
world.
(C) All mammals are descended from a small, rodentlike animal whose physical
characteristics in some form are found in all its descendants.
(D) Plants in the Cactaceae and Euphorbiaceae families, although they often look
alike and have developed similar mechanisms to meet the rigors of the desert,
evolved independently.
(E) The Cuban anole, which was recently introduced in the Florida wilds, is quickly
replacing the native Florida chameleon because the anole has no competitors
 
<http://gmatclub.com/forum/small-crispy-passage-89099.html>
 
---------------
Historians generally agree that, of the great modern innovations, the railroad had the most far-reaching impact
on major events in the United States in the nineteenth and early twentieth centuries, particularly on the
Industrial Revolution. There is, however, considerable disagreement among cultural historians regarding public
attitudes toward the railroad, both at its inception in the 1830s and during the half century between 1880 and
1930, when the national rail system was completed and reached the zenith of its popularity in the United States.
In a recent book, John Stilgoe has addressed this issue by arguing that the “romantic-era distrust” of the railroad
that he claims was present during the 1830s vanished in the decades after 1880. But the argument he provides in
support of this position is unconvincing.
 
What Stilgoe calls “romantic-era distrust” was in fact the reaction of a minority of writers, artistes, and
intellectuals who distrusted the railroad not so much for what it was as for what it signified. Thoreau and
Hawthorne appreciated, even admired, an improved means of moving things and people from one place to
another. What these writers and others were concerned about was not the new machinery as such, but the new
kind of economy, social order, and culture that it prefigured. In addition, Stilgoe is wrong to imply that the
critical attitude of these writers was typical of the period: their distrust was largely a reaction against the
prevailing attitude in the 1830s that the railroad was an unqualified improvement.
 
Stilgoe’s assertion that the ambivalence toward the railroad exhibited by writers like Hawthorne and Thoreau
disappeared after the 1880s is also misleading. In support of this thesis, Stilgoe has unearthed an impressive
volume of material, the work of hitherto unknown illustrators, journalists, and novelists, all devotees of the
railroad; but it is not clear what this new material proves except perhaps that the works of popular culture
greatly expanded at the time. The volume of the material proves nothing if Stilgoe’s point is that the earlier
distrust of a minority of intellectuals did not endure beyond the 1880s, and, oddly, much of Stilgoe’s other
evidence indicates that it did. When he glances at the treatment of railroads by writers like Henry James,
Sinclair Lewis, or F. Scott Fitzgerald, what comes through in spite of Stilgoe’s analysis is remarkably like
Thoreau’s feeling of contrariety and ambivalence. (Had he looked at the work of Frank Norris, Eugene O’Neill,
or Henry Adams, Stilgoe’s case would have been much stronger.) The point is that the sharp contrast between
the enthusiastic supporters of the railroad in the 1830s and the minority of intellectual dissenters during that
period extended into the 1880s and beyond.
 
1. The passage provides information to answer all of the following questions EXCEPT:
(A) During what period did the railroad reach the zenith of its popularity in the United States?
(B) How extensive was the impact of the railroad on the Industrial Revolution in the United States, relative to
that of other modern innovations?
(C) Who are some of the writers of the 1830s who expressed ambivalence toward the railroad?
(D) In what way could Stilgoe have strengthened his argument regarding intellectuals’ attitudes toward the
railroad in the years after the 1880s?
(E) What arguments did the writers after the 1880s, as cited by Stilgoe, offer to justify their support for the
railroad?
 
2. According to the author of the passage, Stilgoe uses the phrase “romantic-era distrust” (line 13) to imply that
the view he is referring to was
(A) the attitude of a minority of intellectuals toward technological innovation that began after 1830
(B) a commonly held attitude toward the railroad during the 1830s
(C) an ambivalent view of the railroad expressed by many poets and novelists between 1880 and 1930
(D) a critique of social and economic developments during the 1830s by a minority of intellectuals
(E) an attitude toward the railroad that was disseminated by works of popular culture after 1880
 
3. According to the author, the attitude toward the railroad that was reflected in writings of Henry James,
Sinclair Lewis, and F. Scott Fitzgerald was
(A) influenced by the writings of Frank Norris, Eugene O’Neill, and Henry Adams
(B) similar to that of the minority of writers who had expressed ambivalence toward the railroad prior to the
1880s
(C) consistent with the public attitudes toward the railroad that were reflected in works of popular culture after
the 1880s
(D) largely a reaction to the works of writers who had been severely critical of the railroad in the 1830s
(E) consistent with the prevailing attitude toward the railroad during the 1830s
 
4. It can be inferred from the passage that the author uses the phrase “works of popular culture” (line 41)
primarily to refer to the
(A) work of a large group of writers that was published between 1880 and 1930 and that in Stilgoe’s view was
highly critical of the railroad
(B) work of writers who were heavily influenced by Hawthorne and Thoreau
(C) large volume of writing produced by Henry Adams, Sinclair Lewis, and Eugene O’Neill
(D) work of journalists, novelists, and illustrators who were responsible for creating enthusiasm for the railroad
during the 1830s
(E) work of journalists, novelists, and illustrators that was published after 1880 and that has received little
attention from scholars other than Stilgoe
 
5. Which one of the following can be inferred from the passage regarding the work of Frank Norris, Eugene
O’Neill, and Henry Adams?
(A) Their work never achieved broad popular appeal.
(B) Their ideas were disseminated to a large audience by the popular culture of the early 1800s.
(C) Their work expressed a more positive attitude toward the railroad than did that of Henry James, Sinclair
Lewis, and F. Scott Fitzgerald.
(D) Although they were primarily novelists, some of their work could be classified as journalism.
(E) Although they were influenced by Thoreau, their attitude toward the railroad was significantly different
from his.
 
6. It can be inferred from the passage that Stilgoe would be most likely to agree with which one of the following
statements regarding the study of cultural history?
(A) It is impossible to know exactly what period historians are referring to when they use the term “romantic
era.”
(B) The writing of intellectuals often anticipates ideas and movements that are later embraced by popular
culture.
(C) Writers who were not popular in their own time tell us little about the age in which they lived.
(D) The works of popular culture can serve as a reliable indicator of public attitudes toward modern innovations
like the railroad.
(E) The best source of information concerning the impact of an event as large as the Industrial Revolution is the
private letters and journals of individuals.
 
7. The primary purpose of the passage is to
(A) evaluate one scholar’s view of public attitudes toward the railroad in the United States from the early
nineteenth to the early twentieth century
(B) review the treatment of the railroad in American literature of the nineteenth and twentieth centuries
(C) survey the views of cultural historians regarding the railroad’s impact on major events in United States
history
(D) explore the origins of the public support for the railroad that existed after the completion of a national rail
system in the United States
(E) define what historians mean when they refer to the “romantic-era distrust” of the railroad
 
<http://gmatclub.com/forum/good-challenge-92684.html>
 
--------------
While acknowledging that
there are greater employment
opportunities for Latin Ameri-
Line can women in cities than in the
(5) countryside, social science
theorists have continued to
argue that urban migration
has unequivocally hurt
women’s status. However,
(10) the effects of migration are
more complex than these
theorists presume. For
example, effects can vary
depending on women’s
(15) financial condition and social
class. Brazilian women in the
lowest socioeconomic class
have relatively greater job
opportunities and job security
(20) in cities than do men of the
same class, although there is
no compelling evidence that
for these women the move to
the city is a move out of pov-
(25) erty. Thus, these women
may improve their status in
relation to men but at the
same time may experience
no improvement in their
(30) economic standing.
In addition, working outside
the home, which is more
common in urban than in rural
areas, helps women in the
(35) lowest socioeconomic class
make contacts to extend
exchange networks—the flow
of gifts, loans, or child care
from those who currently
(40) have access to resources
to those who do not. Moreover,
poor women working in
urban areas actively seek to
cultivate long-term employer-
(45) employee relations. When
11
an emergency arises that
requires greater resources
than an exchange network
can provide, these women
(50) often appeal for and receive
aid from their wealthy employers.
However, the structure
of many poor women’s
work—often a labor force
(55) of one in an employer’s
home—makes it difficult for
them to organize to improve
their economic conditions in
general.
(60) Not surprisingly, then,
Latin American women in the
lowest socioeconomic class
differ in their opinions about
the effects of urban migration
(65) on their lives. Some find
urban living, with access to
electricity and running water,
an improvement and would
never return to the country-
(70) side. Others, disliking the
overcrowding and crime,
would return to the countryside
if there were work
opportunities for them there.
(75) Thus, urban life has had both
negative and positive impacts
on women’s lives. In general,
urban migration has not
provided economic pros-
(80) perity or upward mobility for
women in the lowest socioeconomic
class, despite their
intelligent and energetic utilization
of the resources
available to them.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Q22:
In the first paragraph, the author refers to the experiences of Brazilian women most probably in order to
12
A. support an earlier assertion made by social science theorists about the effects of urban migration
B. provide an example of one area in which urban migration has failed to improve Latin American women’s
lives
C. substantiate the claim that the effects of urban migration cannot be easily characterized
D. illustrate the effect that urban migration has had on the economic status of Latin American women
E. compare the effect that urban migration has had on the economic status of Latin American women with its
effect on the economic status of Latin American men

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Q23:
NOTE: You must scroll to read the answer choices for this question.
Which of the following best summarizes the main point of the passage?
A. Although Latin American women disagree about the effects urban migration has had on their lives, they
agree that migration has provided them with greater opportunities for stable employment outside the home.
B. Although urban migration has improved the quality of life for Latin American women, it has weakened the
social support systems that these women enjoyed in rural communities.
C. The effects that urban migration has had on Latin American women’s lives are complex and are best
evaluated in light of a range of issues concerning Latin American women’s overall quality of life.
D. The effects of urban migration in Latin America are different for men than they are for women because of
the relatively greater job opportunities and job security enjoyed by women in urban areas.
E. Urban migration has led to an increasing disparity between the economic prosperity of Latin American
women in the lowest socioeconomic classes and that of women in the higher socioeconomic classes.
Answer:
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Q24:
The author mentions which of the following as a disadvantage of urban employment for Latin American women
in the lowest socioeconomic group?
A. It is difficult for these women to obtain reliable, long-term employment.
B. It is difficult for these women to organize effectively in order to obtain better wages.
C. It is difficult for these women to find employers who are supportive when emergencies arise.
D. The structure of their jobs makes it difficult for these women to participate in exchange networks.
E. Working in urban areas makes these women more vulnerable to health problems than they would be in rural
areas.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Q25:
The author of the passage would most likely agree that the opinions of the Latin American women discussed in
the third paragraph (lines 60-85) are influenced by the
A. fact that urban life has provided them with greater opportunities for upward mobility than did rural life
B. relative importance they place on the benefits of urban exchange networks in comparison to those of rural
networks.
C. relative importance they place on the conveniences and drawbacks of urban life in comparison to those of
rural life
D. difference in the effects of urban migration on women of higher and lower socioeconomic classes
E. difference in the effects of urban migration on men and women of the same social and economic class
 
<http://gmatclub.com/forum/women-84343.html>
 
-------------
One type of violation of the antitrust laws is the abuse of monopoly power. Monopoly power is the ability of a
firm to raise its prices above the competitive level—that is, above the level that would exist naturally if several
firms had to compete—without driving away so many customers as to make the price increase unprofitable. In
order to show that a firm has abused monopoly power, and thereby violated the antitrust laws, two essential
facts must be established. First, a firm must be shown to possess monopoly power, and second, that power must
have been used to exclude competition in the monopolized market or related markets.
The price a firm may charge for its product is constrained by the availability of close substitutes for the product.
If a firm attempts to charge a higher price—a supracompetitive price—consumers will turn to other firms able
to supply substitute products at competitive prices. If a firm provides a large percentage of the products actually
or potentially available, however, customers may find it difficult to buy from alternative suppliers.
Consequently, a firm with a large share of the relevant market of substitutable products may be able to raise its
price without losing many customers. For this reason courts often use market share as a rough indicator of
monopoly power.
Supracompetitive prices are associated with a loss of consumers’ welfare because such prices force some
consumers to buy a less attractive mix of products than they would ordinarily buy. Supracompetitive prices,
however, do not themselves constitute an abuse of monopoly power. Antitrust laws do not attempt to counter
the mere existence of monopoly power, or even the use of monopoly power to extract extraordinarily high
profits. For example, a firm enjoying economies of scale—that is, low unit production costs due to high volume
—does not violate the antitrust laws when it obtains a large market share by charging prices that are profitable
but so low that its smaller rivals cannot survive. If the antitrust laws posed disincentives to the existence and
growth of such firms, the laws could impair consumers’ welfare. Even if the firm, upon acquiring monopoly
power, chose to raise prices in order to increase profits, it would not be in violation of the antitrust laws.
The antitrust prohibitions focus instead on abuses of monopoly power that exclude competition in the
monopolized market or involve leverage—the use of power in one market to reduce competition in another.
One such forbidden practice is a tying arrangement, in which a monopolist conditions the sale of a product in
one market on the buyer’s purchase of another product in a different market. For example, a firm enjoying a
monopoly in the communications systems market might not sell its products to a consumer unless that customer
also buys its computer systems, which are competing with other firms’ computer systems.
The focus on the abuse of monopoly power, rather than on monopoly itself, follows from the primary purpose
of the antitrust laws: to promote consumers’ welfare through assurance of the quality and quantity of products
available to consumers.
 
1. Which one of the following distinctions between monopoly power and the abuse of monopoly power
would the author say underlies the antitrust laws discussed in the passage?
(A) Monopoly power is assessed in term of market share, whereas abuse of monopoly power is assessed in term
of market control.
(B) Monopoly power is easy to demonstrate, whereas abuse of monopoly power is difficult to demonstrate.
(C) Monopoly power involves only one market, whereas abuse of monopoly power involves at least two or
more related markets.
(D) Monopoly power is the ability to charge supracompetitive prices, whereas abuse of monopoly power is the
use of that ability.
(E) Monopoly power does not necessarily hurt consumer welfare, whereas abuse of monopoly power does.
 
2. Would the use of leverage meet the criteria for abuse of monopoly power outlined in the first
paragraph?
(A) No, because leverage involves a nonmonopolized market.
(B) No, unless the leverage involves a tying arrangement.
(C) Yes, because leverage is a characteristic of monopoly power.
(D) Yes, unless the firm using leverage is charging competitive prices.
(E) Yes, because leverage is used to eliminate competition in a related market.
 
3. What is the main purpose of the third paragraph (lines 28—47)?
(A) to distinguish between supracompetitive prices and supracompetitive profits
(B) to describe the positive use of monopoly power
(C) to introduce the concept of economies of scale
(D) to distinguish what is not covered by the antitrust law under discussion from what is covered
(E) to remind the reader of the issue of consumers welfare
 
4. Given only the information in the passage, with which one of the following statements about
competition would those responsible for the antitrust laws most likely agree?
(A) Competition is essential to consumers’ welfare.
(B) There are acceptable and unacceptable ways for firms to reduce their competition.
(C) The preservation of competition is the principal aim of the antitrust laws.
(D) Supracompetitive prices lead to reductions in competition.
(E) Competition is necessary to ensure high-quality products at low prices.
 
5. Which one of the following sentences would best complete the last paragraph of the passage?
(A) By limiting consumers’ choices, abuse of monopoly power reduces consumers’ welfare, but monopoly
alone can sometimes actually operate in the consumers’ best interest.
(B) What is needed now is a set of related laws to deal with the negative impacts that monopoly itself has on
consumers’ ability to purchase products at reasonable cost.
(C) Over time, the antitrust laws have been very effective in ensuring competition and, consequently,
consumers’ welfare in the volatile communications and computer systems industries.
(D) By controlling supracompetitive prices and corresponding supracompetitive profits, the antitrust laws have,
indeed, gone a long way toward meeting that objective.
(E) As noted above, the necessary restraints on monopoly itself have been left to the market, where competitive
prices and economies of scale are rewarded through increased market share.
 <http://gmatclub.com/forum/rc-antitrust-laws-84211.html>
 -----------
In Winters v. United States
(1908), the Supreme Court held
that the right to use waters flow-
Line ing through or adjacent to the
(5) Fort Berthold Indian Reservation
was reserved to American Indians
by the treaty establishing the reservation.
Although this treaty did
not mention water rights, the Court
(10) ruled that the federal government,
when it created the reservation,
intended to deal fairly with
American Indians by preserving
for them the waters without which
(15) their lands would have been useless.
Later decisions, citing
Winters, established that courts
can find federal rights to reserve
water for particular purposes if
(20) (1) the land in question lies within
an enclave under exclusive federal
jurisdiction, (2) the land has been
formally withdrawn from federal
public lands — i.e., withdrawn from
(25) the stock of federal lands available
for private use under federal
land use laws — and set aside or
reserved, and (3) the circumstances
reveal the government
(30) intended to reserve water as well
as land when establishing the
reservation.
Some American Indian tribes
have also established water rights
(35) through the courts based on their
traditional diversion and use of
certain waters prior to the United
States’ acquisition of sovereignty.
For example, the Rio Grande
(40) pueblos already existed when the
United States acquired sovereignty
over New Mexico in 1848. Although
they at that time became part of the
United States, the pueblo lands
(45) never formally constituted a part
of federal public lands; in any
event, no treaty, statute, or executive
order has ever designated
or withdrawn the pueblos from
(50) public lands as American Indian
reservations. This fact, however,
has not barred application
of the Winters doctrine. What
constitutes an American Indian
(55) reservation is a question of
practice, not of legal definition,
and the pueblos have always
been treated as reservations by
the United States. This pragmatic
(60) approach is buttressed by Arizona
v. California (1963), wherein the
Supreme Court indicated that the
manner in which any type of federal
reservation is created does not
(65) affect the application to it of the
Winters doctrine. Therefore, the
reserved water rights of Pueblo
Indians have priority over other
citizens’ water rights as of 1848,
(70) the year in which pueblos must
be considered to have become
reservations.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Q8:
The author cites the fact that the Rio Grande pueblos were never formally withdrawn from public lands
primarily in order to do which of the following?
A. Suggest why it might have been argued that the Winters doctrine ought not to apply to pueblo lands
B. Imply that the United States never really acquired sovereignty over pueblo lands
C. Argue that the pueblo lands ought still to be considered part of federal public lands
D. Support the argument that the water rights of citizens other than American Indians are limited by the Winters
doctrine
E. Suggest that federal courts cannot claim jurisdiction over cases disputing the traditional diversion and use of
water by Pueblo Indians
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Q9:
The passage suggests that, if the criteria discussed in lines 16 – 32 were the only criteria for establishing a
reservation’s water rights, which of the following would be true?
A. The water rights of the inhabitants of the Fort Berthold Indian Reservation would not take precedence over
those of other citizens.
B. Reservations established before 1848 would be judged to have no water rights.
C. There would be no legal basis for the water rights of the Rio Grande pueblos.
D. Reservations other than American Indian reservations could not be created with reserved water rights.
E. Treaties establishing reservations would have to mention water rights explicitly in order to reserve water for
a particular purpose.
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Q10:
According to the passage, which of the following was true of the treaty establishing the Fort Berthold Indian
Reservation?
A. It was challenged in the Supreme Court a number of times.
B. It was rescinded by the federal government, an action that gave rise to the Winters case.
C. It cited American Indians’ traditional use of the land’s resources.
D. It failed to mention water rights to be enjoyed by the reservation’s inhabitants.
E. It was modified by the Supreme Court in Arizona v. California.
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Q11:
The primary purpose of the passage is to
A. trace the development of laws establishing American Indian reservations
B. explain the legal bases for the water rights of American Indian tribes
C. question the legal criteria often used to determine the water rights of American Indian tribes
D. discuss evidence establishing the earliest date at which the federal government recognized the water rights of
American Indians
E. point out a legal distinction between different types of American Indian reservations
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