0% found this document useful (0 votes)
40 views

Bio Practice 7.2

- Nucleosomes contain DNA wrapped around histone proteins. - Chemical modifications of nucleosomes, such as methylation or acetylation, can impact gene expression by regulating transcription factor binding and transcription. - Gene expression in eukaryotes is regulated through controlling the production of mRNA via transcription and factors that influence transcription.

Uploaded by

Xian Ni Woo
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as DOCX, PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
0% found this document useful (0 votes)
40 views

Bio Practice 7.2

- Nucleosomes contain DNA wrapped around histone proteins. - Chemical modifications of nucleosomes, such as methylation or acetylation, can impact gene expression by regulating transcription factor binding and transcription. - Gene expression in eukaryotes is regulated through controlling the production of mRNA via transcription and factors that influence transcription.

Uploaded by

Xian Ni Woo
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as DOCX, PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
You are on page 1/ 24

Question

Some regions of DNA do not code for the production of proteins. What are these regions of
DNA used as?

A. They have no known function and are recycled to provide nucleotides

B. Gene regulation and coding for production of enzymes used in translation

C. Telomeres and coding for production of tRNA

D. Introns and coding for production of structural proteins

Mark scheme
C

Question
In which process(es) do nucleosomes play a role in eukaryotes?

I. tRNA activation

II. Transcription regulation

III. DNA supercoiling

A. I only

B. II only

C. II and III only

D. I, II and III

Mark scheme
C
Question
Very soon after fertilization, parental epigenetic methylation is reversed in the DNA.
Later, tissue-specific epigenetic modifications are made to the embryonic DNA. The graph
follows the degree of methylation from different sources during embryonic development.

According to the graph, what are the changes in DNA methylation during embryonic
development?

A. Only the paternal DNA becomes demethylated.


B.  The maternal DNA becomes demethylated first.
C. The methylation patterns of the parents’ DNA are erased before fertilization.
D. The methylation patterns of both parents are erased after fertilization.

Mark scheme
D
Question
What is a feature of transcription?
A. Both strands of a DNA molecule act as a template for mRNA.
B. Nucleoside triphosphates become nucleotides by losing three phosphates.
C. RNA polymerase binds to the promoter region.
D. The sense strand acts as a template for mRNA.

Mark scheme
C

Question
What happens during transcription in eukaryotes?

A. Polysomes move.

B. Nucleosomes are phosphorylated.

C. RNA polymerase separates DNA strands.

D. Okazaki fragments are produced.

Mark scheme
C

Question
What are introns?

A. Sequences of nucleotides that are removed to form mature RNA in eukaryotes


B. Sequences of nucleotides that are removed to form mature RNA in prokaryotes
C. Sequences that remain in mature RNA after exons have been removed
D. Small pieces of circular DNA that are found in prokaryotes

Mark scheme
A
Question
What makes up eukaryotic RNA immediately after transcription?
A. Exons, introns, and primers
B. Exons and introns
C. Introns only
D. Exons only

Mark scheme
B

Question
The sequence of nucleotides in a section of RNA is: GCCAUACGAUCG

What is the base sequence of the DNA sense strand?

A. CGGUAUGCUAGC
B. GCCATACGATCG
C. CGGTATGCTAGC
D. GCCAUACGAUCG

Mark scheme
B

Question
Which statement applies to transcription in eukaryotic cells but not to prokaryotic cells?

A. RNA polymerase transcribes the antisense strand of DNA to produce a strand of RNA.
B. During transcription, uracil replaces thymine in RNA.
C. Transcription takes place in the cell nucleus.
D. Initiation of transcription requires a promoter sequence of DNA.

Mark scheme
C
Question
The antisense strand on the DNA molecule coding for three codons of a gene is

TATCGCACG

What are the anticodons of the three tRNA molecules that correspond to this sequence?

A. UAU, CGC and ACG


B. ATA, GCG and TGC
C. AUA, GCG and UGC
D. TAT, CGC and ACG

Mark scheme
A

Question
What is removed during the formation of mature RNA in eukaryotes?

A. Exons
B. Introns
C. Codons
D. Nucleosomes

Mark scheme
B

Question
The antisense strand of a DNA molecule has the sequence TACCCGATC. What would be
the resulting mRNA strand sequence?

A. TACCCGATC
B. ATGGGCTAG
C. UACCCGAUC
D. AUGGGCUAG

Mark scheme
D
Question
Nitrogen is part of many important substances in living organisms.
Draw labelled diagrams to show a condensation reaction between two amino acids.

[3]

a.
Nitrogen is part of many important substances in living organisms.
Distinguish between transcription and translation.
- a. DNA is transcribed AND mRNA is translated
- b. transcription produces RNA AND translation produces polypeptide/protein
- c. RNA polymerase used in only in transcription and ribosomes only in translation
- d. transcription in the nucleus «of eukaryotes» and translation in the cytoplasm
- e. tRNA needed for translation but not transcription
- f. nucleotides linked in transcription and amino acids in translation

[4]

b.
Nitrogen is part of many important substances in living organisms.
Explain how insects excrete nitrogenous wastes.
- a. excreted as uric acid
- b. excretion by Malpighian tubules
- c. nitrogenous waste/ammonia «accumulates» in haemolymph
- d. nitrogenous waste/ammonia absorbed by Malpighian tubules
- e. ammonia converted to uric acid
- f. conversion to uric acid requires energy/ATP
- g. high solute concentration in Malpighian tubules

[8]
Mark scheme
a. at least one of the amino acid structures completely correct
b. peptide bond shown with N–C and C=O and N–H correct
c. release of water clearly shown

a.
a. DNA is transcribed AND mRNA is translated
Disallow the first mark, if a candidate gets transcription and translation the wrong way round, but
allow marks
after that up to [3 max]
b. transcription produces RNA AND translation produces polypeptide/protein
c. RNA polymerase used in only in transcription and ribosomes only in translation
d. transcription in the nucleus «of eukaryotes» and translation in the cytoplasm
e. tRNA needed for translation but not transcription
f. nucleotides linked in transcription and amino acids in translation
   OR
   sugar-phosphate/phosphodiester bonds in transcription and peptide bonds in translation
[Max 4 Marks]
 

b.
a. excreted as uric acid
b. excretion by Malpighian tubules
c. nitrogenous waste/ammonia «accumulates» in haemolymph
d. nitrogenous waste/ammonia absorbed by Malpighian tubules
e. ammonia converted to uric acid
f. conversion to uric acid requires energy/ATP
g. high solute concentration in Malpighian tubules
    OR
    active transport of ions/Na+/K+ into Malpighian tubules
h. water absorbed by osmosis flushes uric acid/nitrogenous waste to «hind» gut
i. water/ions reabsorbed from the faeces and returned to haemolymph
j. uric acid precipitates/becomes solid/forms a paste so can pass out with little water
k. uric acid excreted/egested with the faeces
l. water conservation/osmoregulation
   OR
   reduces mass of water «in body»
m. uric acid is non-toxic
[Max 8 Marks]

c.

Question
Cells go through a repeating cycle of events in growth regions such as plant root tips and animal
embryos. Outline this cell cycle.

[4]

a.
Draw a labelled diagram of the formation of a chiasma by crossing over.

[3]

b.
Explain the control of gene expression in eukaryotes.
- a. mRNA conveys genetic information from DNA to the ribosomes «where it guides polypeptide
production» 
- b. gene expression requires the production of specific mRNA «through transcription» 

- c. most genes are turned off/not being transcribed at any one time/regulated

[8]

c.
Mark scheme
a. mitosis is the division of a nucleus to produce two genetically identical daughter nuclei 
b. consists of four phases: prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase 

c. cytokinesis occurs after mitosis 


d. interphase is the metabolically active phase between cell divisions  OWTTE
e. the interphase consists of the S phase, G1 and G2 
f. DNA replicates in the S phase 
g. cell growth
OR
preparation for mitosis
OR
duplication of organelles in G1 and G2

a.
a. «crossing over/chiasmata shown between» homologous chromosomes  
b. centromere drawn and labelled  

c. single strand break «SSB»/DNA cut between homologous chromosomes 


d. non-sister chromatids labelled
OR
sister chromatids labelled 
e. chiasma between homologous chromosomes labelled «shown forming after SSB»
Homologous chromosomes must be labelled and correctly drawn.
It is likely that more than one diagram will need to be included to demonstrate the stages.

b.
a. mRNA conveys genetic information from DNA to the ribosomes «where it guides polypeptide
production» 
b. gene expression requires the production of specific mRNA «through transcription» 

c. most genes are turned off/not being transcribed at any one time/regulated
OR
some genes are only expressed at certain times 
d. some genes are only expressed in certain cells/tissues
OR
«cell» differentiation involves changes in gene expression 
e. transcription factors/proteins can increase/decrease transcription 
f. hormones/chemical environment of cell can affect gene expression 
g. example of cell environment
eg: auxin/insulin/cytoplasmic gradient in embryo
h. transcription factors/proteins may prevent or enhance the binding of RNA polymerase 
i. nucleosomes limit access of transcription factors to DNA/regulate gene expression/transcription
OR
activate or silence genes 
j. DNA methylation/acetylation appears to control gene expression «as epigenetic factor»
OR
methylated genes are silenced 
k. «some» DNA methylation patterns are inherited 
l. introns may contain positive or negative gene regulators
OR
gene expression can be regulated by post-transcriptional modification/splicing/mRNA processing

c.

Question
Nucleosomes help to regulate transcription in eukaryotes.
State the components of a nucleosome.

[1]

a.i.
Nucleosomes help to regulate transcription in eukaryotes.
State a chemical modification of a nucleosome that could impact gene expression.

[1]

a.ii.

Mark scheme
DNA and histone

a.i.
methylation/acetylation/phosphorylation/epigenetic tags/modification of nucleosome tails/N-
terminal tails

a.ii.

Question
Outline the structure and functions of nucleosomes.
[4]

a.
Explain how DNA is used to pass on genetic information to offspring accurately but also produce
variation in species.

[8]

b.
Accurate transmission of base sequences to offspring depends on successful gamete
production. Describe how spermatogenesis occurs in humans.

[6]

c.

Markscheme
Remember, up to TWO “quality of construction” marks per essay.
a. found in eukaryotes;
b. consists of DNA wrapped around proteins/histones;
c. histones are in an octamer/group of eight;
d. are held together by another histone/protein;
e. in linker region;
f. help to supercoil chromosomes / to facilitate DNA packing;
g. (function is to) regulate transcription / gene expression;

a.
Remember, up to TWO “quality of construction” marks per essay.
a. DNA is replicated/copied semi-conservatively/from a template;
b. mutations can be a source of variation / resulting protein has new or different functions;
c. mutations/changes in the DNA may not result in changes in the amino acid for which the triplet
codes;
d. genetic code is redundant;
e. genes occur as paired alleles which can be different;
f. crossing-over occurs;
g. recombines linked alleles producing new combinations;
h. random orientation of bivalents / homologous chromosomes (in metaphase I);
i. large genetic variation in (haploid) gametes / 2n / 223;
j. random recombination of alleles during fertilization (leads to variation);
k. different phenotypes among members of the same population;
l. natural selection may lead to enhanced survival of recombinants;

b.
Remember, up to TWO “quality of construction” marks per essay.
a. germinal cells / spermatogonia undergo mitosis to keep a supply of germinal cells present;
b. some germinal cells / spermatogonia grow larger to become primary spermatocytes;
c. primary spermatocytes go through meiosis I;
d. to form secondary spermatocytes;
e. these secondary spermatocytes go through meiosis II;
f. to produce spermatids;
g. spermatids differentiate/grow a tail and reduce their cytoplasm
h. spermatids associated with nurse cells (Sertoli cells);
i. sperm detach from Sertoli cells and enter lumen of the seminiferous tubule;
j. testosterone stimulates sperm production;

c.

Question
Draw a labelled diagram of Escherichia coli as an example of a prokaryote.

[4]

a.
Explain the process of transcription in prokaryotes.

- a.
transcription, synthesis of RNA identical to one strand/coding strand of DNA;
antisense strand acts as template/is transcribed;
RNA polymerase attaches to sequence of DNA known as promoter (region);
RNA polymerase separates the two strands of DNA;
(unwinding) exposes (10–20) DNA bases for pairing with RNA nucleotides;
RNA nucleotides matched to complementary bases;
adenine with uracil and cytosine with guanine / uracil replaces thymine;
H bonds between RNA nucleotide and complementary base on DNA strand;
(RNA) nucleoside triphosphates used;
hydrolysis of (two) phosphate molecules provides energy for reaction;
adds nucleotides to the 3′ end of RNA molecule/in 5′ → 3′ direction;
terminator is sequence of DNA signalling end of transcription;
RNA molecule separates completely from DNA;
Award any of the above points for a clearly drawn correctly annotated diagram.

[8]

b.
Some prokaryotes cause infectious diseases which stimulate the body’s immune system. Outline
the principles that form the basis of immunity.

[6]

c.

Mark scheme
Award [1] for each structure clearly drawn and correctly labelled.
cell wall; (with some thickness)
plasma membrane; (shown as single line or very thin)
cytoplasm;
pilus/pili; (shown as single lines coming from the cell wall)
flagellum/flagella; (thicker and longer than pili and embedded in cell wall)
70S ribosomes; (shown as small dots)
nucleoid / naked DNA;
approximate width 0.5 μm / approximate length 2.0 μm;              
Award [3 max] if the bacterium drawn does not have the shape of a bacillus (rounded-corner
rectangle with length approximately twice its width).
Award [3 max] if any eukaryotic structures included.

a.
transcription, synthesis of RNA identical to one strand/coding strand of DNA;
antisense stand acts as template/is transcribed;
RNA polymerase attaches to sequence of DNA known as promoter (region);
RNA polymerase separates the two strands of DNA;
(unwinding) exposes (10–20) DNA bases for pairing with RNA nucleotides;
RNA nucleotides matched to complementary bases;
adenine with uracil and cytosine with guanine / uracil replaces thymine;
H bonds between RNA nucleotide and complementary base on DNA strand;
(RNA) nucleoside triphosphates used;
hydrolysis of (two) phosphate molecules provides energy for reaction;
adds nucleotides to the 3′ end of RNA molecule/in 5′ → 3′ direction;
terminator is sequence of DNA signalling end of transcription;
RNA molecule separates completely from DNA;
Award any of the above points for a clearly drawn correctly annotated diagram.

b.
skin and mucous membranes form barriers to pathogens as first line of defence;
macrophage recognizes antigens and ingests pathogen (in blood/body tissues);
presents antigen/MHC on cell surface;
macrophage activates helper T-cells that are complementary to antigen;
complementary B-cell becomes activated/stimulated by T-helper cells;
activated B-cell increases in size and divides by mitosis / creates clone of B-cells;
B-cells differentiate into plasma cells and memory cells; (both needed) plasma cells secrete
specific antibodies;
memory cells remain/form basis of long-term immunity;
polyclonal response / multiple B-cells activated by different molecules of antigen;
Award any of the above points for a clearly drawn correctly annotated diagram.
(Plus up to [2] for quality)

c.

Question
The diagram below shows two nucleotides linked together to form a dinucleotide.
Identify the chemical group labelled I.
- phosphate

[1]

a (i).
State the type of bond labelled II.
- phosphodiester

[1]

a (ii).
Distinguish between the sense and antisense strands of DNA during transcription.
- only the antisense strand is transcribed / the antisense strand is transcribed to mRNA and the
sense strand is not transcribed/has the same base sequence as mRNA (with uracil instead of
thymine)

To award [1], reference must be made to both strands and transcription.

[1]

b.
Compare the DNA found in prokaryotic cells and eukaryotic cells.

[2]

Mark scheme
phosphate

a (i).
covalent / phosphodiester

a (ii).
only the antisense strand is transcribed / the antisense strand is transcribed to mRNA and the
sense strand is not transcribed/has the same base sequence as mRNA (with uracil instead of
thymine)
To award [1], reference must be made to both strands and transcription.

b.
Award marks for paired statements only. Answers do not need to be shown in a table format.

c.

Question
Describe the relationship between genes, polypeptides, and enzymes.
- gene is a sequence of DNA bases;
- DNA/gene codes for a specific sequence of amino acids/polypeptide;
enzymes are proteins/composed of polypeptides;
sequence of amino acids determines tertiary structure/folding/shape of active site;
change in the gene/mutation will affect the active site/function of an enzyme;
- enzymes are involved in replication/transcription of genes;
enzymes are involved in synthesis of polypeptides.

[4]

a.
Outline control of metabolic pathways.

- a.
metabolic pathways can be a sequence/chain of reactions;
they can be cycles of reactions;
different enzymes control each reaction in the sequence/cycle;
accumulation of an end-product can inhibit the first enzyme of the sequence/ pathway;
(an end-product inhibitor) joins an allosteric site/a site separate from active site;
attachment at the allosteric site changes the shape of the active site;
preventing the binding of substrate;
until the level of the end-product is reduced (and the inhibition removed);
this is an example of negative feedback;

[6]
Mark scheme
gene is a sequence of DNA bases;
DNA/gene codes for a specific sequence of amino acids/polypeptide;
enzymes are proteins/composed of polypeptides;
sequence of amino acids determines tertiary structure/folding/shape of active site;
change in the gene/mutation will affect the active site/function of an enzyme;
enzymes are involved in replication/transcription of genes;
enzymes are involved in synthesis of polypeptides.

a.
metabolic pathways can be a sequence/chain of reactions;
they can be cycles of reactions;
different enzymes control each reaction in the sequence/cycle;
accumulation of an end-product can inhibit the first enzyme of the sequence/ pathway;
(an end-product inhibitor) joins an allosteric site/a site separate from active site;
attachment at the allosteric site changes the shape of the active site;
preventing the binding of substrate;
until the level of the end-product is reduced (and the inhibition removed);
this is an example of negative feedback;

b.

Question
Distinguish between RNA and DNA.
- DNA is double-stranded while RNA is single-stranded;
DNA contains deoxyribose while RNA contains ribose;
the base thymine found in DNA is replaced by uracil in RNA;
one form of DNA (double helix) but several forms of RNA (tRNA, mRNA and rRNA);

[3]

a.
Explain the process of DNA replication.

- occurs during (S phase of) interphase/in preparation for mitosis/cell division;

DNA replication is semi-conservative;

unwinding of double helix / separation of strands by helicase (at replication origin);

hydrogen bonds between two strands are broken;

each strand of parent DNA used as template for synthesis;

synthesis continuous on leading strand but not continuous on lagging strand;

leading to formation of Okazaki fragments (on lagging strand);


synthesis occurs in 5’→3′ direction;

RNA primer synthesized on parent DNA using RNA primase;

DNA polymerase III adds the nucleotides (to the 3′ end)

added according to complementary base pairing;

adenine pairs with thymine and cytosine pairs with guanine; (Both pairings required. Do not

accept letters alone.)

DNA polymerase I removes the RNA primers and replaces them with DNA;

DNA ligase joins Okazaki fragments;

as deoxynucleotide triphosphate joins with growing DNA chain, two phosphates broken off

releasing energy to form bond;

Accept any of the points above shown on an annotated diagram.

[8]

b.
Outline how enzymes catalyse reactions.
- they increase rate of (chemical) reaction;
remains unused/unchanged at the end of the reaction;
lower activation energy;
activation energy is energy needed to overcome energy barrier that prevents reaction;
annotated graph showing reaction with and without enzyme;
substrate joins with enzyme at active site;
to form enzyme-substrate complex;
active site/enzyme (usually) specific for a particular substrate;
enzyme binding with substrate brings reactants closer together to facilitate chemical reactions
(such as electron transfer);
induced fit model / change in enzyme conformation (when enzyme-substrate/ES complex forms);
making the substrate more reactive;

[7]

Mark scheme
DNA is double-stranded while RNA is single-stranded;
DNA contains deoxyribose while RNA contains ribose;
the base thymine found in DNA is replaced by uracil in RNA;
one form of DNA (double helix) but several forms of RNA (tRNA, mRNA and rRNA);
a.
occurs during (S phase of) interphase/in preparation for mitosis/cell division;
DNA replication is semi-conservative;
unwinding of double helix / separation of strands by helicase (at replication origin);
hydrogen bonds between two strands are broken;
each strand of parent DNA used as template for synthesis;
synthesis continuous on leading strand but not continuous on lagging strand;
leading to formation of Okazaki fragments (on lagging strand);
synthesis occurs in 5’→3′ direction;
RNA primer synthesized on parent DNA using RNA primase;
DNA polymerase III adds the nucleotides (to the 3′ end)
added according to complementary base pairing;
adenine pairs with thymine and cytosine pairs with guanine; (Both pairings required. Do not
accept letters alone.)
DNA polymerase I removes the RNA primers and replaces them with DNA;
DNA ligase joins Okazaki fragments;
as deoxynucleotide triphosphate joins with growing DNA chain, two phosphates broken off
releasing energy to form bond;
Accept any of the points above shown on an annotated diagram.

b.
they increase rate of (chemical) reaction;
remains unused/unchanged at the end of the reaction;
lower activation energy;
activation energy is energy needed to overcome energy barrier that prevents reaction;
annotated graph showing reaction with and without enzyme;
substrate joins with enzyme at active site;
to form enzyme-substrate complex;
active site/enzyme (usually) specific for a particular substrate;
enzyme binding with substrate brings reactants closer together to facilitate chemical reactions
(such as electron transfer);
induced fit model / change in enzyme conformation (when enzyme-substrate/ES complex forms);
making the substrate more reactive;

c.

Question
Gibberellin promotes both seed germination and plant growth. Researchers hypothesize that the
gene GID1 in rice (Oryza sativa) codes to produce a cell receptor for gibberellin. The mutant
variety gid1-1 for that gene leads to rice plants with a severe dwarf phenotype and infertile
flowers when homozygous recessive. It is suspected that homozygous recessive gid1-1 plants
fail to degrade the protein SLR1 which, when present, inhibits the action of gibberellin. The
graphs show the action of gibberellin on the leaves and α-amylase activity of wild-type rice plants
(WT) and their gid1-1 mutants.
Most rice varieties are intolerant to sustained submergence under water and will usually die
within a week. Researchers have hypothesized that the capacity to survive when submerged is
related to the presence of three genes very close to each other on rice chromosome number 9;
these genes were named Sub1A, Sub1B and Sub1C. The photograph below of part of a gel
shows relative amounts of messenger RNA produced from these three genes by the
submergence-intolerant variety, O. sativa japonica, and by the submergence-tolerant variety, O.
sativa indica, at different times of a submergence period, followed by a recovery period out of
water.

The OsGI gene causes long-day flowering, and the effect of its overexpression has been
observed in a transgenic variety of rice. Some wild-type rice (WT) and transgenic plants were
exposed to long days (14 hours of light per day) and others to short days (9 hours of light per
day).
State which variety of rice fails to respond to gibberellin treatment.

[1]

a(i).
The activity of α-amylase was tested at successive concentrations of gibberellin. Determine the
increment in gibberellin concentration that produces the greatest change in α-amylase activity in
wild-type rice plants (WT).

[1]

a(ii).
Discuss the consequence of crossing gid1-1 heterozygous rice plants amongst themselves for
food production.

[3]

b.
Determine which gene produced the most mRNA on the first day of the submergence period for
variety O. sativa japonica.

[1]

c(i).
Outline the difference in mRNA production for the three genes during the submergence period for
variety O. sativa indica.
[2]

c(ii).
Using only this data, deduce which gene confers submersion resistance to rice plants.

[2]

d.
State the overall effect of overexpression of the OsGI gene in plants treated with short-day light.

[1]

e(i).
Compare the results between the plants treated with short-day light and the plants treated with
long-day light.

[2]

e(ii).
State, giving one reason taken from the data opposite, if unmodified rice is a short-day plant or a
long-day plant.

[1]

e(iii).
Evaluate, using all the data, how modified varieties of rice could be used to overcome food
shortages in some countries.

[2]

Mark scheme
gid1-1

a(i).
between 10–8 and 10–7 mol dm–3 (units required)

a(ii).
a. 25% / 1 in 4 / 1:3 seeds produced would be homozygous recessive;
b. no response to/inhibits gibberellin in homozygous recessives results in less germination;
c. less growth / dwarf plants produced; (must be in context);
d. would produce plants with infertile flowers that cannot produce rice grains;
e. would lower rice production/less yield because infertile plants cannot produce seeds (that
humans can eat);
b.
Sub1C

c(i).
a. Sub1A is expressed strongly/the most / Sub1A produces the most RNA;
b. Sub1B (always) has the lowest expression/produces least mRNA;
c. Sub1A expressed/produces mRNA for the longest time/days 1 to 10;
d. Sub1C expressed/produces mRNA for the shortest time/days 3 to 7;

c(ii).
a. Sub1A;
b. is only expressed in indica / Sub1B and SubC are expressed in both rice varieties;
c. indica is the variety showing submersion tolerance / vice versa for japonica;

d.
it increases the length of time before flowering

e(i).
a. long-day light exposure increases time before flowering only if (OsGI) gene is not
overexpressed/in WT and –/–;
b. long-day light exposure decreases time before flowering for +/– and/or +/+;
c. length of day does not make much difference/makes least difference for +/+;
d. overexpression for +/– reduces time before flowering;
e. –/– acts as a control / has nearly the same length of time before flowering as WT;
Accept numerical answers if they are making a clear comparison.

e(ii).
is a short-day plant because WT has shortest time/shorter time before flowering in shorter days
than longer days / as it takes less time to flower under short day conditions;

e(iii).
a. the mutant gid1-1 would not be useful because it produces sterile plants;
b. genetically modified rice/rice with Sub1A is more tolerant to submersion/can withstand
seasonal flooding/torrential rain;
c. OsGI+ varieties adapted to different latitudes / day length could be produced (to overcome
food shortages);
d. short flowering time possibly means more crops per year;

g.

Question
State four functions of proteins, giving a named example of each.

[4]

a.
Outline the structure of ribosomes.

[6]
b.
Explain the process of transcription leading to the formation of mRNA.

[8]

c.

Markscheme
a. structure – collagen;
b. transport – transthyretin / hemoglobin;
c. enzyme/catalyst – lysozyme;
d. movement – actin / tubulin;
e. hormones – insulin;
f. antibodies – immunoglobulin;
g. storage – albumin;
Accept any other valid function of proteins with a named example.
For example sodium potassium pump, but do not accept simply “in membranes” without a
clear function.
To award [4 max], responses need a function of protein and a named example.
Only accept the first four answers.

a.
a. made of protein;
b. made of rRNA;
c. large subunit and small subunit;
d. three tRNA binding sites;
e. Aminacyl/A, Peptidyl/P and Exit/E;
f. mRNA binding site (on small subunit);
g. 70S in prokaryotes / 80S in eukaryotes;
h. can be free / bound to RER (in eukaryotes);

b.
a. RNA polymerase; (polymerase number is not required)
b. binds to a promoter on the DNA;
c. unwinding the DNA strands;
d. binding nucleoside triphosphates;
e. to the antisense strand of DNA;
f. as it moves along in a 5’→3′ direction;
g. using complementary pairing/A-U and C-G;
h. losing two phosphates to gain the required energy;
i. until a terminator signal is reached (in prokaryotes);
j. RNA detaches from the template and DNA rewinds;
k. RNA polymerase detaches from the DNA;
l. many RNA polymerases can follow each other;
m. introns have to be removed in eukaryotes to form mature mRNA;

You might also like