DATE : 13/09/2020 Test Booklet Code

G3
AKANH

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Ph.: 011-47623456

Time : 3 hrs.
Answers & Solutions Max. Marks : 720

for
NEET (UG) - 2020
Important Instructions :
1. The test is of 3 hours duration and Test Booklet contains 180 questions. Each question carries
4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one
mark will be deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720.

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 NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-G3)

1. Identify the wrong statement with reference Sol. • Gibberellic acid break seed dormancy.
to transport of oxygen
• It activate synthesis of -amylase which
(1) Partial pressure of CO2 can interfere with breakdown starch into simple sugar.
O2 binding with haemoglobin
4. Match the following diseases with the
(2) Higher H + conc. in alveoli favours the causative organism and select the correct
formation of oxyhaemoglobin
option.
(3) Low pCO2 in alveoli favours the formation
Column-I Column-II
of oxyhaemoglobin
(4) Binding of oxygen with haemoglobin is (a) Typhoid (i) Wuchereria
mainly related to partial pressure of O2 (b) Pneumonia (ii) Plasmodium
Answer (2) (c) Filariasis (iii) Salmonella
S o l . The correct option is (2) because higher H+ (d) Malaria (iv) Haemophilus
concentration favours the dissociation of
oxygen from oxyhaemoglobin in tissues. (a) (b) (c) (d)

In the alveoli, high pO2, low pCO2, lesser H+ (1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
concentration and lower temperature favour (2) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
formation of oxyhaemoglobin.
(3) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
2. Which of the following refer to correct
example(s) of organisms which have evolved (4) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
due to changes in environment brought about Answer (1)
by anthropogenic action?
S o l . Typhoid fever in humans is caused by
(a) Darwin’s Finches of Galapagos islands.
pathogenic bacterium Salmonella typhi.
(b) Herbicide resistant weeds.
Pneumonia is caused by Streptococcus
(c) Drug resistant eukaryotes. Pneumoniae and Haemophilus influenzae.
(d) Man-created breeds of domesticated Filariasis or elephantiasis is caused by the
animals like dogs. filarial worm, Wuchereria bancrofti and
(1) (a) and (c) Wuchereria malayi.
(2) (b), (c) and (d) Malaria is caused by different species of
(3) only (d) Plasmodium.
(4) only (a) 5. Select the correct events that occur during
Answer (2) inspiration.
S o l . The correct option is (2) because : (a) Contraction of diaphragm
• Herbicide resistant weeds, drug resistant (b) Contraction of external inter-costal
eukaryotes and man-created breeds of muscles
domesticated animals like dogs are
(c) Pulmonary volume decreases
examples of evolution by anthropogenic
action. (d) Intra pulmonary pressure increases
• Darwin's Finches of Galapagos islands are (1) (c) and (d) (2) (a), (b) and (d)
example of natural selection, adaptive
(3) only (d) (4) (a) and (b)
radiation and founder's effect.
Answer (4)
3. Which of the following is not an inhibitory
substance governing seed dormancy? S o l . Inspiration is initiated by the contraction of
(1) Abscisic acid diaphragm, which increases the volume of
thoracic chamber in the anterio-posterior
(2) Phenolic acid
axis.
(3) Para-ascorbic acid
The contraction of external intercostal
(4) Gibberellic acid muscles increase the volume of the thoracic
Answer (4) chamber in the dorsoventral axis.
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NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-G3)

6. The oxygenation activity of RuBisCo enzyme S o l . QRS complex represents the depolarisation of
in photorespiration leads to the formation of ventricles.
(1) 1 molecule of 3-C compound 10. The plant parts which consist of two
(2) 1 molecule of 6-C compound generations - one within the other
(3) 1 molecule of 4-C compound and (a) Pollen grains inside the anther
1 molecule of 2-C compound (b) Germinated pollen grain with two male
(4) 2 molecules of 3-C compound gametes
Answer (1) (c) Seed inside the fruit
S o l . In photorespiration, O2 binds to RubisCo. As a (d) Embryo sac inside the ovule
result RuBP instead to being converted to
(1) (a), (b) and (c) (2) (c) and (d)
2 molecules of PGA bind with O2 to form one
molecule each of phosphoglycerate (3 carbon (3) (a) and (d) (4) (a) only
compound) and phosphoglycolate ( 2 carbon Answer (3)
compound).
S o l . The plant parts which consist of two
7. In light reaction, plastoquinone facilitates the generations one within the other are pollen
transfer of electrons from grains inside the anther and embryo sac
(1) Cytb6f complex to PS-I inside the ovule.
(2) PS-I to NADP+ Pollen grain is haploid inside the diploid
(3) PS-I to ATP synthase anther.
(4) PS-II to Cytb6f complex Embryo sac is haploid inside the diploid ovule.
Answer (4) 11. The infectious stage of Plasmodium that
e–
S o l . After excitement, is passed from PS-II (P680) enters the human body is
to primary electron acceptor (Pheophytin). (1) Sporozoites
From primary e– acceptor, e– is passed to
(2) Female gametocytes
plastoquinone. Plastoquinone (PQ) in turn
transfer its e– to Cyt b6f complex. Therefore (3) Male gametocytes
plastoquinone facilitates the transfer of (4) Trophozoites
electrons from PS-II to Cyt b6f complex.
Answer (1)
8. In gel electrophoresis, separated DNA
fragments can be visualized with the help of S o l . Plasmodium enters the human body as
sporozoites (Infectious stage) through the bite
(1) Ethidium bromide in UV radiation
of Infected Female Anopheles mosquito.
(2) Acetocarmine in UV radiation
12. Identify the incorrect statement.
(3) Ethidium bromide in infrared radiation
(1) Sapwood is involved in conduction of
(4) Acetocarmine in bright blue light water and minerals from root to leaf
Answer (1) (2) Sapwood is the innermost secondary
S o l . The separated DNA fragments can be xylem and is lighter in colour
visualised only after staining the DNA with (3) Due to deposition of tannins, resins, oils
Ethidium bromide followed by exposure to UV etc., heart wood is dark in colour
radiation.
(4) Heart wood does not conduct water but
9. The QRS complex in a standard ECG
gives mechanical support
represents
Answer (2)
(1) Depolarisation of auricles
S o l . Incorrect statement: Sapwood is the
(2) Depolarisation of ventricles
innermost secondary xylem and is lighter in
(3) Repolarisation of ventricles colour.
(4) Repolarisation of auricles Correct statement: Sapwood is outermost
Answer (2) secondary xylem.
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 NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-G3)

13. Flippers of Penguins and Dolphins are 16. Presence of which of the following conditions
examples of in urine are indicative of Diabetes Mellitus?
(1) Convergent evolution (1) Uremia and Renal Calculi
(2) Industrial melanism
(2) Ketonuria and Glycosuria
(3) Natural selection
(3) Renal calculi and Hyperglycaemia
(4) Adaptive radiation
(4) Uremia and Ketonuria
Answer (1)
Answer (2)
S o l . The correct option is (1) because flippers of
Sol. Presence of Ketone bodies in urine
Penguins and Dolphins are an example of
(Ketonuria) and presence of glucose in urine
analogous organs. Analogous structures are a
(Glycosuria) are indicative of Diabetes
result of convergent evolution.
mellitus.
14. Identify the wrong statement with reference 17. The first phase of translation is
to the gene ‘I’ that controls ABO blood groups.
(1) Recognition of DNA molecule
(1) A person will have only two of the three
alleles. (2) Aminoacylation of tRNA

(2) When IA and IB are present together, they (3) Recognition of an anti-codon
express same type of sugar. (4) Binding of mRNA to ribosome
(3) Allele ‘i’ does not produce any sugar. Answer (2)
(4) The gene (I) has three alleles. S o l . The first phase of translation involves
Answer (2) activation of amino acid in the presence of
ATP and linked to their cognate tRNA - a
S o l . ABO blood groups are controlled by the gene I.
process commonly called as charging of
The gene I has three alleles IA, IB and i. The
tRNA or aminoacylation of tRNA.
alleles IA and IB produce a slightly different
form of the sugar while allele i does not 18. Ray florets have
produce any sugar. Because humans are (1) Superior ovary (2) Hypogynous ovary
diploid organisms, each person can possess
(3) Half inferior ovary(4) Inferior ovary
at the most any two of the three I gene alleles.
Answer (4)
15. Which of the following statements are true for
the phylum-Chordata? Sol. • Ray floret have inferior ovary.
(a) In Urochordata notochord extends from • Epigynous flower are formed in family
head to tail and it is present throughout Asteraceae (e.g., Sunflower)
their life. 19. The process of growth is maximum during
(b) In Vertebrata notochord is present during (1) Lag phase (2) Senescence
the embryonic period only.
(3) Dormancy (4) Log phase
(c) Central nervous system is dorsal and
hollow. Answer (4)

(d) Chordata is divided into 3 subphyla : S o l . In exponential growth, the initial growth is
Hemichordata, Tunicata and slow (lag phase) and it increases rapidly
Cephalochordata. thereafter at an exponential rate in log or
exponential phase.
(1) (c) and (a) (2) (a) and (b)
20. The roots that originate from the base of the
(3) (b) and (c) (4) (d) and (c)
stem are
Answer (3)
(1) Primary roots (2) Prop roots
S o l . In vertebrata, notochord is present during
(3) Lateral roots (4) Fibrous roots
embryonic period only as it is replaced by
vertebral column. Answer (4)
In chordates, central nervous system is S o l . The roots that originate from the base of the
dorsal and hollow. stem are fibrous roots.
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NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-G3)

21. In water hyacinth and water lily, pollination 25. In which of the following techniques, the
takes place by : embryos are transferred to assist those
(1) Water currents only females who cannot conceive?
(2) Wind and water (1) GIFT and ZIFT
(3) Insects and water (2) ICSI and ZIFT
(4) Insects or wind (3) GIFT and ICSI
Answer (4)
(4) ZIFT and IUT
S o l . In majority of aquatic plants, the flowers
Answer (4)
emerge above the level of water.
These may be pollinated by insects or wind S o l . Option (4) is the answer because ART in which
embryos are transferred, include ZIFT and IUT
eg.: Water hyacinth and water lily
i.e. Zygote Intrafallopian Transfer and Intra
22. Which of the following is put into Anaerobic Uterine Transfer respectively, both are
sludge digester for further sewage treatment? embryo transfer (ET) methods.
(1) Floating debris
Option (1), (2) and (3) are incorrect because
(2) Effluents of primary treatment in GIFT (Gamete Intrafallopian Transfer),
(3) Activated sludge gamete is transferred into the fallopian tube
(4) Primary sludge of female who cannot produce ova. ICSI is
Intra cytoplasmic sperm injection in which
Answer (3)
sperm is directly injected into the ovum.
S o l . The sediment in settlement tank is called
activated sludge. 26. Which of the following statements about
inclusion bodies is incorrect?
A small part of the activated sludge is
pumped back into aeration tank (1) These are involved in ingestion of food
Remaining major part of the sludge is pumped particles
into large tank called anaerobic sludge (2) They lie free in the cytoplasm
digesters.
(3) These represent reserve material in
23. Bilaterally symmetrical and acoelomate cytoplasm
animals are exemplified by
(4) They are not bound by any membrane
(1) Platyhelminthes
Answer (1)
(2) Aschelminthes
(3) Annelida S o l . These are not involved in ingestion of food
particles
(4) Ctenophora
27. Experimental verification of the chromosomal
Answer (1)
theory of inheritance was done by
S o l . Platyhelminthes are bilaterally symmetrical,
triploblastic and acoelomate animals with (1) Sutton
organ level of organisation. (2) Boveri
24. Identify the basic amino acid from the (3) Morgan
following.
(4) Mendel
(1) Glutamic Acid (2) Lysine
(3) Valine (4) Tyrosine Answer (3)

Answer (2) S o l . Experimental verification of the chromosomal

theory of inheritance was done by Morgan.
S o l . Option (2) is the correct answer because
lysine is a basic amino acid. Note:
Valine is a neutral amino acid. Sutton and Boveri proposed chromosomal
Glutamic acid is an acidic amino acid while theory of inheritance but it was
Tyrosine is an aromatic amino acid. experimentally verified by T.H. Morgan.

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 NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-G3)

28. Select the option including all sexually 31. Match the following columns and select the
transmitted diseases. correct option.
Column-I Column-II
(1) Gonorrhoea, Malaria, Genital herpes
(a) Clostridium (i) Cyclosporin-A
(2) AIDS, Malaria, Filaria butylicum
(3) Cancer, AIDS, Syphilis (b) Trichoderma (ii) Butyric Acid
(4) Gonorrhoea, Syphilis, Genital herpes polysporum
(c) Monascus (iii) Citric Acid
Answer (4)
purpureus
S o l . Gonorrhoea, Syphilis, Genital herpes are (d) Aspergillus niger (iv) Blood cholesterol
sexually transmitted diseases.
lowering agent
Gonorrhoea is caused by a bacterium (a) (b) (c) (d)
Neisseria gonorrhoeae. (1) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
Syphilis is caused by a bacterium Treponema (2) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
pallidum. (3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
Genital herpes is caused by a virus Type-II- (4) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
Herpes simplex virus. Answer (1)
Sol. Column-I Column-II
29. Which of the following statements is
not correct? (a) Clostridium (ii) Butyric acid
butylicum
(1) The proinsulin has an extra peptide called
(b) Trichoderma (i) Cyclosporin-A
C-peptide.
polysporum
(2) The functional insulin has A and B chains (c) Monascus (iv) Blood cholesterol
linked together by hydrogen bonds.
purpureus lowering agent
(3) Genetically engineered insulin is produced (d) Aspergillus niger (iii) Citric acid
in E.Coli. 32. Embryological support for evolution was
(4) In man insulin is synthesised as a disapproved by
proinsulin (1) Alfred Wallace (2) Charles Darwin
(3) Oparin (4) Karl Ernst von Baer
Answer (2)
Answer (4)
S o l . The correct option is (2) because functional
S o l . Embryological support for evolution was
insulin has A and B chains linked together by disapproved by Karl Ernst von Baer, he noted
disulphide bridges. that embryos never pass through the adult
stages of other animals during embryonic
30. Which is the important site of formation of development.
glycoproteins and glycolipids in eukaryotic
33. The sequence that controls the copy number
cells? of the linked DNA in the vector, is termed
(1) Peroxisomes (1) Ori site
(2) Golgi bodies (2) Palindromic sequence
(3) Recognition site
(3) Polysomes
(4) Selectable marker
(4) Endoplasmic reticulum Answer (1)
Answer (2) S o l . The correct option is (1) because Ori
sequence is responsible for controlling the
S o l . Golgi bodies are site of formation of copy number of the linked DNA in the vector.
glycoproteins and glycolipids in eukaryotic Ori i.e. origin of replication is responsible for
cells. initiation of replication.
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NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-G3)

34. Which of the following is correct about Sol. z High level of estrogen will send positive
viroids? feedback to anterior pituitary for release
of LH.
(1) They have free RNA without protein coat
z FSH, LH and estrogen are at peak level
(2) They have DNA with protein coat during mid of menstrual cycle (28 day
(3) They have free DNA without protein coat cycle).
(4) They have RNA with protein coat z LH surge leads to ovulation.

Answer (1) 38. Select the correct match

S o l . Viroids have free RNA without protein coat. (1) Phenylketonuria – Autosomal
dominant trait
35. Montreal protocol was signed in 1987 for
(2) Sickle cell anaemia – Autosomal
control of
recessive trait,
(1) Emission of ozone depleting substances chromosome-11
(2) Release of Green House gases (3) Thalassemia – X linked
(3) Disposal of e-wastes (4) Haemophilia – Y linked
Answer (2)
(4) Transport of Genetically modified
S o l . Phenylketonuria – Autosomal recessive
organisms from one country to another disorder
Answer (1) Thalassemia – Autosomal recessive
S o l . Montreal protocol – Signed in 16 Sep, 1987 disorder
(Ozone day) Haemophilia – X linked recessive
disorder
Came into force – 1 Jan, 1989.
Sickle cell anaemia – Autosomal recessive
It was aimed at stopping the production and trait, caused due to
import of ODS and reduce their concentration mutation in gene
in the atmosphere. present on
36. The number of substrate level chromosome no. 11
phosphorylations in one turn of citric acid 39. Cuboidal epithelium with brush border of
cycle is microvilli is found in
(1) One (2) Two (1) Ducts of salivary gland
(2) Proximal convoluted tubule of nephron
(3) Three (4) Zero
(3) Eustachian tube
Answer (1)
(4) Lining of intestine
S o l . One substrate level phosphorylation in one
Answer (2)
turn of citric acid cycle as per following
reaction: S o l . Cuboidal epithelium with brush border of
microvilli is found in proximal convoluted
tubule of nephron (PCT).
Succinate
Thiokinase 40. Snow-blindness in Antarctic region is due to
Succinyl Co-A Succinate
(1) Inflammation of cornea due to high dose
GDP GTP of UV-B radiation
(2) High reflection of light from snow
ATP ADP (3) Damage to retina caused by infra-red
rays
37. Which of the following hormone levels will
(4) Freezing of fluids in the eye by low
cause release of ovum (ovulation) from the
temperature
graffian follicle?
Answer (1)
(1) High concentration of Progesterone
S o l . UV-B radiations damage DNA and mutations
(2) Low concentration of LH may occur.
(3) Low concentration of FSH In human eye, cornea absorbs UV-B
radiations, and a high dose of UV-B causes
(4) High concentration of Estrogen
inflammation of cornea called snow
Answer (4) blindness, cataract, etc.

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 NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-G3)

41. Which of the following pairs is of unicellular 45. Identify the correct statement with regard to
algae? G1 phase (Gap 1) of interphase.
(1) Gelidium and Gracilaria (1) Reorganisation of all cell components
(2) Anabaena and Volvox takes place.
(3) Chlorella and Spirulina (2) Cell is metabolically active, grows but
does not replicate its DNA.
(4) Laminaria and Sargassum
(3) Nuclear Division takes place.
Answer (3)
(4) DNA synthesis or replication takes place.
S o l . Chlorella and Spirulina are unicellular algae.
Answer (2)
Gelidium, Gracilaria, Laminaria and
Sargassum are multicellular. Volvox is S o l . During G 1 phase the cell is metabolically
colonial. active and continuously grows but does not
42. The transverse section of a plant shows replicate its DNA.
following anatomical features : DNA synthesis takes place in S phase. Nuclear
(a) Large number of scattered vascular division occurs during Karyokinesis.
bundles surrounded by bundle sheath Reorganisation of all cell components takes
(b) Large conspicuous parenchymatous place in M-Phase.
ground tissue 46. By which method was a new breed ‘Hisardale’
(c) Vascular bundles conjoint and closed of sheep formed by using Bikaneri ewes and
Marino rams?
(d) Phloem parenchyma absent
(1) Mutational breeding
Identify the category of plant and its part :
(2) Cross breeding
(1) Monocotyledonous root
(3) Inbreeding
(2) Dicotyledonous stem
(4) Out crossing
(3) Dicotyledonous root
Answer (2)
(4) Monocotyledonous stem
S o l . Hisardale is a new breed of sheep developed
Answer (4)
in Punjab by crossing Bikaneri-ewe and
S o l . All features are related to monocotyledonous Marino rams. In cross-breeding, superior
stems male of one breed are mated with superior
43. How many true breeding pea plant varieties females of another breed.
did Mendel select as pairs, which were similar 47. Identify the wrong statement with reference
except in one character with contrasting to immunity.
traits?
(1) When ready-made antibodies are directly
(1) 2 (2) 14
given, it is called “Passive immunity”.
(3) 8 (4) 4
(2) Active immunity is quick and gives full
Answer (2) response.
S o l . Mendel selected 14 True breeding plant (3) Foetus receives some antibodies from
varieties. mother, it is an example for passive
44. Floridean starch has structure similar to immunity.
(1) Amylopectin and glycogen (4) When exposed to antigen (living or dead)
antibodies are produced in the host’s
(2) Mannitol and algin
body. It is called “Active immunity”.
(3) Laminarin and cellulose
Answer (2)
(4) Starch and cellulose
S o l . The correct option is (2) because active
Answer (1) immunity is slow and takes time to give its full
S o l . Floridean starch is stored food material in effective response in comparison to passive
red algae. It's structure is similar to immunity where pre-formed antibodies are
Amylopectin and Glycogen. administered.

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NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-G3)

48. The specific palindromic sequence which is 51. Match the trophic levels with their correct
recognized by EcoRI is species examples in grassland ecosystem.
(1) 5 - GGAACC - 3 (a) Fourth trophic level (i) Crow
3 - CCTTGG - 5 (b) Second trophic level (ii) Vulture
(c) First trophic level (iii) Rabbit
(2) 5 - CTTAAG - 3
(d) Third trophic level (iv) Grass
3 - GAATTC - 5
Select the correct option
(3) 5 - GGATCC - 3
(a) (b) (c) (d)
3 - CCTAGG - 5 (1) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(4) 5 - GAATTC - 3 (2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
3 - CTTAAG - 5 (3) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
Answer (4) (4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
S o l . The correct option is (4) because the specific Answer (4)
palindromic sequence which is recognised by S o l . Grassland ecosystem is a terrestrial
Eco RI is ecosystem. It includes various trophic levels
5 - GAATTC - 3 First trophic level (T1) – Grass
3 - CTTAAG - 5 Second trophic level (T2) – Rabbit
Third trophic level (T3) – Crow
49. If the distance between two consecutive base
pairs is 0.34 nm and the total number of base Fourth trophic level (T4) – Vulture
pairs of a DNA double helix in a typical 52. The enzyme enterokinase helps in conversion
mammalian cell is 6.6 × 10 9 bp, then the of
length of the DNA is approximately (1) trypsinogen into trypsin
(1) 2.5 meters (2) 2.2 meters (2) caseinogen into casein
(3) 2.7 meters (4) 2.0 meters (3) pepsinogen into pepsin
Answer (2) (4) protein into polypeptides
S o l . Length of DNA = [0.34 × 10–9] m × 6.6 × 109 bp Answer (1)
S o l . The correct option is (1) because trypsinogen
= 2.2 m
is activated by an enzyme, enterokinase,
Distance between 2 base pair in DNA helix secreted by the intestinal mucosa into active
= 0.34 nm = 0.34 × 10–9 m trypsin. Trypsinogen is a zymogen from
pancreas.
Total number of base pair = 6.6 × 109 bp
53. Identify the correct statement with reference
50. If the head of cockroach is removed, it may to human digestive system.
live for few days because (1) Serosa is the innermost layer of the
(1) the cockroach does not have nervous alimentary canal
system. (2) IIeum is a highly coiled part
(2) the head holds a small proportion of a (3) Vermiform appendix arises from
nervous system while the rest is situated duodenum
along the ventral part of its body. (4) IIeum opens into small intestine
(3) the head holds a 1/3 rd of a nervous Answer (2)
system while the rest is situated along the S o l . Option (2) is correct as ileum is a highly coiled
dorsal part of its body. tube. Serosa is the outermost layer of the
(4) the supra-oesophageal ganglia of the alimentary canal, thus, option (1) is an
cockroach are situated in ventral part of incorrect statement.
abdomen. A narrow finger-like tubular projection, the
Answer (2) vermiform appendix arises from caecum part
of large intestine thus, option (3) is incorrect
S o l . The head holds a small proportion of a statement. Ileum opens into the large
nervous system while the rest is situated intestine, thus option (4) is also an incorrect
along the ventral part of its body. statement.
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 NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-G3)

54. Name the plant growth regulator which upon S o l . Option (4) is the correct answer because
spraying on sugarcane crop, increases the Malonate is the competitive inhibitor of
length of stem, thus increasing the yield of catalytic activity of succinic dehydrogenase,
sugarcane crop. so (a) matches with (ii) in column II.
(1) Gibberellin (2) Ethylene Collagen is proteinaceous in nature and
possesses peptide bonds, so (b) matches with
(3) Abscisic acid (4) Cytokinin
(iv) in column II.
Answer (1)
Chitin is a homopolymer present in the cell
S o l . Spraying sugarcane crop with gibberellins wall of fungi and exoskeleton of arthropods,
increases the length of the stem, thus so, (c) matches with (iii) in column II.
increasing the yield by as much as 20 tonnes
Abrin and Ricin are toxins, secondary
per acre.
metabolites, so (d) in column I matches with
55. Identify the wrong statement with regard to (i) in column II.
Restriction Enzymes. 57. Goblet cells of alimentary canal are modified
(1) They cut the strand of DNA at palindromic from
sites. (1) Columnar epithelial cells
(2) They are useful in genetic engineering. (2) Chondrocytes
(3) Sticky ends can be joined by using DNA (3) Compound epithelial cells
ligases. (4) Squamous epithelial cells
(4) Each restriction enzyme functions by Answer (1)
inspecting the length of a DNA sequence. S o l . Goblet cells of alimentary canal are modified
Answer (3) from columnar epithelial cells which secrete
S o l . Restriction endonucleases make cuts at mucus.
specific positions within the DNA. 58. Match the following columns and select the
They function by inspecting the length of a correct option.
DNA sequence. Column-I Column-II
Restriction endonuclease bind to the DNA and (a) 6-15 pairs of (i) Trygon
cut the two strands of double helix at specific gill slits
points in their sugar-phosphate backbones. (b) Heterocercal (ii) Cyclostomes
They are used in genetic engineering to form caudal fin
recombinant molecules of DNA. (c) Air Bladder (iii) Chondrichthyes
DNA ligases join the DNA fragments. (d) Poison sting (iv) Osteichthyes
56. Match the following (a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(a) Inhibitor of (i) Ricin
catalytic activity (2) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(b) Possess peptide (ii) Malonate (3) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
bonds (4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(c) Cell wall material (iii) Chitin Answer (4)
in fungi S o l . Cyclostomes have an elongated body bearing
(d) Secondary (iv) Collagen 6-15 pairs of gill slits for respiration, so
metabolite (a) matches with (ii) in column-II.
Choose the correct option from the following Air bladder is present in bony fishes belonging
to class Osteichthyes which regulates
(a) (b) (c) (d) buoyancy, so (c) matches with (iv) in
(1) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) column-II.
(2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) Trygon, a cartilaginous fish, possesses poison
sting, so, (d) matches with (i) in column-II.
(3) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
Heterocercal caudal fin is present in
(4) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
members of class Chondrichthyes, so (b) in
Answer (4) column-I matches with (iii) in column-II
10
NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-G3)

59. Dissolution of the synaptonemal complex (a) (b) (c) (d)

occurs during (1) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(1) Zygotene (2) Diplotene (2) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(3) Leptotene (4) Pachytene (3) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
Answer (2)
Answer (2)
S o l . Dissolution of the synaptonemal complex
S o l . Graves' disease is due to excess secretion of
occurs During Diplotene stage of Prophase-I thyroid hormones (T3 & T4).
of Meiosis-I.
Diabetes mellitus is due to hyposecretion of
60. Name the enzyme that facilitates opening of insulin from -cells of pancreas.
DNA helix during transcription. Diabetes insipidus is due to hyporelease of
(1) DNA helicase (2) DNA polymerase ADH from posterior pituitary.
(3) RNA polymerase (4) DNA ligase Addison's disease is due to hyposecretion of
hormone from adrenal cortex.
Answer (3) 64. The product(s) of reaction catalyzed by
S o l . RNA polymerase facilitates opening of DNA nitrogenase in root nodules of leguminous
helix during transcription. plants is/are
61. Which of the following statements is (1) Nitrate alone
correct? (2) Ammonia and oxygen
(1) Adenine pairs with thymine through one H- (3) Ammonia and hydrogen
bond (4) Ammonia alone
Answer (3)
(2) Adenine pairs with thymine through three
H-bonds 
Mg
S o l . N2 + 8e– + 8H+ + 16ATP   2NH3 + H2 +
(3) Adenine does not pair with thymine 16ADP + 16Pi
(4) Adenine pairs with thymine through two H- Ammonia and Hydrogen.
bonds 65. Match the following concerning essential
Answer (4) elements and their functions in plants
S o l . Adenine pairs with thymine through two (a) Iron (i) Photolysis of water
H-bonds i.e., A == T (b) Zinc (ii) Pollen germination
(c) Boron (iii) Required for
62. Which of the following regions of the globe
exhibits highest species diversity? chlorophyll
biosynthesis
(1) Madagascar
(d) Manganese (iv) IAA biosynthesis
(2) Himalayas
Select the correct option
(3) Amazon forests (a) (b) (c) (d)
(4) Western Ghats of India (1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
Answer (3) (2) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
S o l . The largely tropical Amazonian rain forest in (3) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
South America has the greatest biodiversity (4) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
on earth. Answer (2)
63. Match the following columns and select the S o l . (a) Iron – Essential for the
correct option. formation of chlorophyll
(b) Zinc – Needed for synthesis of
Column-I Column-II
auxin
(a) Pituitary gland (i) Grave’s disease (c) Boron – Have a role in pollen
(b) Thyroid gland (ii) Diabetes mellitus grain germination
(c) Adrenal gland (iii) Diabetes insipidus (d) Manganese – Is involved in the splitting
of water to liberate O 2
(d) Pancreas (iv) Addison’s disease during photosynthesis
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 NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-G3)

66. Which of the following would help in S o l . (a) Locusta is a gregareous pest.
prevention of diuresis? (b) In Echinoderms, adults are radially
symmetrical but larvae are bilaterally
(1) Reabsorption of Na+ and water from renal symmetrical.
tubules due to aldosterone
(c) Scorpions respire through book lungs.
(2) Atrial natriuretic factor causes (d) Bioluminescence is well marked in
vasoconstriction ctenophores.
(3) Decrease in secretion of renin by JG cells 69. Match the following columns and select the
(4) More water reabsorption due to correct option.
undersecretion of ADH Column-I Column-II
Answer (1) (a) Floating Ribs (i) Located between
second and
Sol. Adrenal cortex secretes mineralocorticoids seventh ribs
like aldosterone which increase the
(b) Acromion (ii) Head of the
reabsorption of Na + and water from renal Humerus
tubule that prevent diuresis.
(c) Scapula (iii) Clavicle
67. Meiotic division of the secondary oocyte is
completed (d) Glenoid cavity (iv) Do not connect
with the sternum
(1) At the time of copulation
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(2) After zygote formation (1) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(3) At the time of fusion of a sperm with an (2) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
ovum (3) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(4) Prior to ovulation (4) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
Answer (3) Answer (3)
S o l . Meiotic division of secondary oocyte is S o l . (a) 11 th and 12 th pairs of ribs are not
completed after the entry of sperm in connected ventrally and are therefore,
secondary oocyte which lead to the formation called floating ribs.
of a large ovum and a tiny IInd polar body. (b) Acromion is a flat expanded process of
spine of scapula. The lateral end of
68. Match the following columns and select the clavicle articulates with acromion
correct option. process.
Column-I Column-II (c) Scapula is a flat triangular bone in the
(a) Gregarious, (i) Asterias dorsal part of the thorax between 2nd and
the 7th rib.
polyphagous pest
(d) Glenoid cavity of scapula articulates with
(b) Adult with radial (ii) Scorpion head of the humerus to form the shoulder
joint.
symmetry and larva
with bilateral 70. Secondary metabolites such as nicotine,
strychnine and caffeine are produced by
symmetry plants for their
(c) Book lungs (iii) Ctenoplana (1) Growth response
(d) Bioluminescence (iv) Locusta (2) Defence action
(a) (b) (c) (d) (3) Effect on reproduction
(4) Nutritive value
(1) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
Answer (2)
(2) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
Sol. A wide variety of chemical substances that we
(3) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv) extract from plants on a commercial scale
(4) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv) (nicotine, caffeine, quinine, strychnine, opium,
etc) are produced by them (plants) as
Answer (1) defences against grazers and browsers.
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NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-G3)

71. Match the following columns and select the 73. Match the organism with its use in
correct option. biotechnology.
Column-I Column-II (a) Bacillus (i) Cloning vector

(a) Bt cotton (i) Gene therapy thuringiensis

(b) Adenosine (ii) Cellular defence (b) Thermus (ii) Construction of

deaminase aquaticus first rDNA
deficiency
molecule
(c) RNAi (iii) Detection of HIV
(c) Agrobacterium (iii) DNA polymerase
infection
tumefaciens
(d) PCR (iv) Bacillus
thuringiensis (d) Salmonella (iv) Cry proteins

(a) (b) (c) (d) typhimurium

(1) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) Select the correct option from the following:

(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) (a) (b) (c) (d)

(3) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (1) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(2) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(4) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
Answer (4)
(4) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
S o l . The correct option is (4) because
Answer (1)
(a) In Bt cotton the specific Bt toxin gene was
isolated from Bacillus thuringiensis. S o l . (a) Bacillus thuringiensis is a source of Cry-
proteins.
(b) The first clinical gene therapy was given
in 1990 to a 4-year old girl with adenosine (b) Thermus aquaticus is a source of
deaminase (ADA) deficiency. thermostable DNA polymerase (Taq
polymerase) used in PCR.
(c) RNAi (RNA interference) takes place in all
eukaryotic organisms as a method of (c) Agrobacterium tumefaciens is a cloning
cellular defense. vector.

(d) PCR is now routinely used to detect HIV in (d) The construction of 1st recombinant DNA
suspected AIDS patients. molecule was performed using native
plasmid of Salmonella typhimurium.
72. From his experiments, S.L. Miller produced
amino acids by mixing the following in a 74. Bt cotton variety that was developed by the
closed flask introduction of toxin gene of Bacillus
thuringiensis (Bt) is resistant to
(1) CH3, H2, NH4 and water vapor at 800°C
(1) Fungal diseases (2) Plant nematodes
(2) CH4, H2, NH3 and water vapor at 600°C
(3) Insect predators (4) Insect pests
(3) CH3, H2, NH3 and water vapor at 600°C
Answer (4)
(4) CH4, H2, NH3 and water vapor at 800°C
S o l . Bt cotton is resistant to cotton bollworm
Answer (4) (Insect pest).
S o l . In 1953, S.L. Miller, an American scientist cry I Ac and cry II Ab genes have been
created electric discharge in a closed flask introduced in cotton to protect it from cotton
containing CH4, H2, NH3 and water vapor at bollworm. This makes Bt cotton as
800°C. biopesticide.
13
 NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-G3)

75. Choose the correct pair from the following S o l . Option (4) is the correct answer because
(1) Polymerases - Break the DNA into Eosinophils are associated with allergic
fragments reactions and release histaminase,
destructive enzymes, so (a) in column I
(2) Nucleases - Separate the two strands
matches with (iii) in column II.
of DNA
Basophils secrete histamine, serotonin,
(3) Exonucleases - Make cuts at specific
heparin etc. and are involved in inflammatory
positions within DNA
reactions, so (b) matches with (iv).
(4) Ligases - Join the two DNA
molecules Neutrophils are phagocytic cells; so (c)
matches with (ii). Both B and T lymphocytes
Answer (4)
are responsible for immune responses of the
S o l . Ligases join the two DNA molecules. body, so, (d) in column I matches with (i) in
76. The body of the ovule is fused within the column II.
funicle at 79. Identify the substances having glycosidic bond
(1) Micropyle (2) Nucellus and peptide bond, respectively in their
structure
(3) Chalaza (4) Hilum
(1) Glycerol, trypsin (2) Cellulose, lecithin
Answer (4)
(3) Inulin, insulin (4) Chitin, cholesterol
S o l . The attachment point of funicle and body of
ovule is known as hilum. Answer (3)
77. Strobili or cones are found in S o l . Inulin is a fructan (polysaccharide of
(1) Pteris (2) Marchantia fructose). Adjacent fructose units are linked
through glycosidic bond.
(3) Equisetum (4) Salvinia
Insulin is a protein composed of 51
Answer (3)
aminoacids. Adjacent aminoacids are
S o l . Strobili or cones are found in Equisetum. attached through peptide bond.
78. Match the following columns and select the 80. In relation to Gross primary productivity and
correct option. Net primary productivity of an ecosystem,
Column - I Column - II which one of the following statements is
correct?
(a) Eosinophils (i) Immune response
(b) Basophils (ii) Phagocytosis (1) Gross primary productivity is always more
than net primary productivity
(c) Neutrophils (iii) Release
(2) Gross primary productivity and Net
histaminase, primary productivity are one and same
destructive
(3) There is no relationship between Gross
enzymes primary productivity and Net primary
(d) Lymphocytes (iv) Release granules productivity

containing (4) Gross primary productivity is always less

than net primary productivity
histamine
Answer (1)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
S o l . Gross primary productivity of an ecosystem is
(1) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
the rate of production of organic matter
(2) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii) during photosynthesis.
(3) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv) Net primary productivity is GPP-respiration
(4) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i) Hence gross primary productivity is always
Answer (4) more than NPP

14
NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-G3)

81. Match the following columns and select the 83. Match the following columns and select the
correct option. correct option.
Column-I Column-II Column-I Column-II
(a) Placenta (i) Androgens (a) Organ of Corti (i) Connects middle
(b) Zona pellucida (ii) Human Chorionic ear and pharynx
Gonadotropin (hCG) (b) Cochlea (ii) Coiled part of the
(c) Bulbo-urethral (iii) Layer of the ovum labyrinth
(c) Eustachian tube (iii) Attached to the oval
glands
window
(d) Leydig cells (iv) Lubrication of the
(d) Stapes (iv) Located on the
Penis
basilar membrane
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
(1) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(2) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(2) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(3) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(4) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
Answer (3)
Answer (2)
S o l .The correct option is (3) becuase
Sol. • Option (2) is correct because organ of Corti
(a) Placenta secretes human chorionic
is located on the Basilar membrane, thus (a)
gonadotropin (hCG)
in column-I matches with (iv) in column-II.
(b) Zona pellucida is a primary egg membrane
secreted by the secondary oocyte
• The coiled portion of the labyrinth is called
cochlea, so (b) matches with (ii) in
(c) The secretions of bulbourethral glands
column II.
help in lubrication of the penis
• The eustachian tube connects the middle
(d) Leydig cells synthesise and secrete
ear cavity with the pharynx, thus (c)
testicular hormones called androgens
matches with (i) in column-II.
82. Which of the following is not an attribute of a
population? • The middle ear contains ossicle called
Stapes that is attached to the oval window
(1) Natality
of the cochlea, so (d) matches with (iii) in
(2) Mortality column II.
(3) Species interaction 84. Which one of the following is the most
(4) Sex ratio abundant protein in the animals?

Answer (3) (1) Collagen

S o l . Natality – Population (2) Lectin

attribute (3) Insulin
Mortality – Population (4) Haemoglobin
attribute
Answer (1)
Species interaction – Population
S o l . Collagen is the most abundant protein in
interaction
animal world and RuBisCO is the most
Sex ratio – Population abundant protein in the whole of the
attribute Biosphere.
15
 NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-G3)

85. Match the following with respect to meiosis 88. Select the correct statement.

(a) Zygotene (i) Terminalization (1) Glucagon is associated with

hypoglycemia.
(b) Pachytene (ii) Chiasmata
(2) Insulin acts on pancreatic cells and
(c) Diplotene (iii) Crossing over
adipocytes.
(d) Diakinesis (iv) Synapsis (3) Insulin is associated with hyperglycemia.
Select the correct option from the following (4) Glucocorticoids stimulate gluconeogenesis.
(a) (b) (c) (d) Answer (4)

(1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) S o l . Glucagon is associated with hyperglycemia.

Insulin acts on hepatocytes and adipocytes
(2) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
and is associated with hypoglycemia.
(3) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i) Glucocorticoids stimulate gluconeogenesis,
(4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) so increase blood sugar level.

Answer (1) 89. The process responsible for facilitating loss

of water in liquid form from the tip of grass
S o l . Zygotene  Synapsis blades at night and in early morning is
Pachytene  Crossing over
(1) Root pressure
Diplotene  Chiasmata formation
(2) Imbibition
Diakinesis  Terminalisation
(3) Plasmolysis
86. According to Robert May, the global species
(4) Transpiration
diversity is about
Answer (1)
(1) 20 million
Sol. • Root pressure is positive hydrostatic
(2) 50 million
pressure.
(3) 7 million
• It develops in tracheary element at night
(4) 1.5 million and in early morning.
Answer (3) 90. Some dividing cells exit the cell cycle and
Sol. • Robert May estimated global species enter vegetative inactive stage. This is called
diversity at about 7 million. quiescent stage (G0). This process occurs at
the end of
• Although some extreme estimates range
from 20 to 50 million. (1) G1 phase

87. The ovary is half inferior in : (2) S phase

(1) Mustard (3) G2 phase

(2) Sunflower (4) M phase

(3) Plum Answer (4)

(4) Brinjal S o l . Some dividing cells exit the cell cycle and
enter vegetative inactive stage, called
Answer (3)
quiescent stage (G0). This process occurs at
S o l . The ovary is half inferior in Plum. the end of M-phase and beginning of G1 phase.

16
NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-G3)

91. The phase difference between displacement Answer (2)

and acceleration of a particle in a simple
harmonic motion is : Sol. a 
 m1  m2  g ; where m > m
 m1  m2  1 2
3 
(1) rad (2) rad
2 2 6  4 g
a
(3) zero (4)  rad 6 4
Answer (4) g
a
S o l . If y = A sint 5
Note : Here no option is given according to
dy
then v  acceleration of COM of the system.
dt
v = A cost 94. The ratio of contributions made by the electric
field and magnetic field components to the
dv intensity of an electromagnetic wave is :
a
dt (c = speed of electromagnetic waves)
a = –A2sin(t)
(1) 1 : 1
a = A2sin(t + )
(2) 1 : c
So phase difference between displacement
(3) 1 : c2
and acceleration is .
(4) c : 1
92. A long solenoid of 50 cm length having 100
turns carries a current of 2.5 A. The magnetic Answer (1)
field at the centre of the solenoid is : S o l . In an electromagnetic wave, half of the
(0 = 4 × 10–7 Tm A–1) intensity is provided by the electric field and
half by the magnetic field
(1) 3.14 × 10–4 T (2) 6.28 × 10–5 T
Hence required ratio should be 1 : 1
(3) 3.14 × 10–5 T (4) 6.28 × 10–4 T
95. In a certain region of space with volume
Answer (4)
0.2 m3, the electric potential is found to be 5 V
S o l . Magnetic field at centre of solenoid = 0nI throughout. The magnitude of electric field in
N 100 this region is :
n=   200 turns / m
L 50  10 –2 (1) 0.5 N/C (2) 1 N/C
I = 2.5 A (3) 5 N/C (4) zero
On putting the values Answer (4)
B  4   10–7  200  2.5 S o l . Since, electric potential is found throughout
= 6.28 × 10–4 T dV
constant, hence electric field, E   =0
93. Two bodies of mass 4 kg and 6 kg are tied to dr
the ends of a massless string. The string 96. The average thermal energy for a mono-atomic
passes over a pulley which is frictionless gas is : (k B is Boltzmann constant and T,
(see figure). The acceleration of the system in absolute temperature)
terms of acceleration due to gravity (g) is :
3 5
(1) kB T (2) kB T
2 2

7 1
(3) kB T (4) kB T
2 2
4 kg Answer (1)
S o l . For monoatomic gases, degree of freedom is 3.
6 kg
Hence average thermal energy per molecule is
(1) g/2 (2) g/5 3
KEavg  kB T
(3) g/10 (4) g 2

17
 NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-G3)

97. Find the torque about the origin when a force 101. Two cylinders A and B of equal capacity are
of 3j N acts on a particle whose position connected to each other via a stop cock. A
contains an ideal gas at standard temperature
vector is 2k m .
and pressure. B is completely evacuated. The
(1) 6j Nm (2) 6 i Nm
entire system is thermally insulated. The stop
cock is suddenly opened. The process is :
(3) 6k Nm (4) 6i Nm (1) adiabatic (2) isochoric
Answer (2) (3) isobaric (4) isothermal
   Answer (1)
Sol .   r F
 S o l .Entire system is thermally insulated. So, no
  2kˆ  3ˆj heat exchange will take place. Hence, process
 will be adiabatic.
  6iˆ Nm
102. A cylinder contains hydrogen gas at pressure
98. The mean free path for a gas, with molecular of 249 kPa and temperature 27°C.
diameter d and number density n can be
Its density is : (R = 8.3 J mol–1 K–1)
expressed as :
(1) 0.2 kg/m3 (2) 0.1 kg/m3
1 1
(1) (2) (3) 0.02 kg/m3 (4) 0.5 kg/m3
2 nd2 2 n2  d2
Answer (1)
1 1
(3) (4) PM
2 n2  2 d2 2 nd S o l . PM = RT  
RT
Answer (1) P = 249 × 103 N/m2
S o l . According to the formula M = 2 × 10–3 kg
1 T = 300 K

2 nd2
(249  103 )(2  10 –3 ) 0.2 kg
  
99. The energy equivalent of 0.5 g of a substance 8.3  300 m3
is :
235
103. When a uranium isotope 92 U is bombarded
(1) 4.5 × 1013 J (2) 1.5 × 1013 J
89
(3) 0.5 × 1013 J (4) 4.5 × 1016 J with a neutron, it generates 36 Kr , three
Answer (1) neutrons and :
S o l . From mass-energy equivalence. 91 101
(1) 40 Zr (2) 36 Kr
E = mc2 (3) 103
(4) 144
36 Kr 56 Ba
= 0.5 × 10–3 × (3 × 108)2
Answer (4)
= 4.5 × 1013 J
S o l . U235 1 89 1 A
92  0 n  Kr36  3n0  X Z
100. A screw gauge has least count of 0.01 mm and
there are 50 divisions in its circular scale. 92 + 0 = 36 + Z
The pitch of the screw gauge is :  Z = 56
(1) 0.25 mm (2) 0.5 mm 235 + 1 = 89 + 3 + A
(3) 1.0 mm (4) 0.01 mm  A = 144
Answer (2) So, 144
is generated.
56 Ba
S o l . Least count 104. A charged particle having drift velocity of
Pitch 7.5 × 10 –4 m s –1 in an electric field of
 3 × 10–10 Vm–1, has a mobility in m2 V–1 s–1 of :
Number of divisions on circular scale
Pitch (1) 2.5 × 106 (2) 2.5 × 10–6
0.01 mm 
50 (3) 2.25 × 10–15 (4) 2.25 × 1015
Pitch = 0.5 mm Answer (1)

18
NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-G3)

vd S o l . Electric field outside a conducting sphere

S o l . Mobility,  
E 1 Q
E
7.5  10 4 4  0 r 2

3  1010 9  109  3.2  107

= 2.5 × 106 m2V–1s–1 225  104
105. Taking into account of the significant figures, = 0.128 × 106
what is the value of 9.99 m – 0.0099 m? = 1.28 × 105 N/C
(1) 9.98 m (2) 9.980 m 108. A series LCR circuit is connected to an ac
(3) 9.9 m (4) 9.9801 m voltage source. When L is removed from the
circuit, the phase difference between current
Answer (1)

and voltage is . If instead C is removed from
9.99 3
 0.0099 
Sol. the circuit, the phase difference is again
9.9801 m 3
between current and voltage. The power factor
In subtraction, answer should be reported to of the circuit is :
least number of decimal places, so answer (1) 0.5 (2) 1.0
should be 9.98 m.
(3) –1.0 (4) zero
106. An iron rod of susceptibility 599 is subjected
Answer (2)
to a magnetising field of 1200 A m –1 . The
permeability of the material of the rod is : S o l . When L is removed,

(0 = 4× 10–7 T m A–1) XC  XC

tan    tan
 ...(i)
(1) 8.0 × 10–5 T m A–1 R 3 R
When C is removed,
(2) 2.4× 10–5 T m A–1
XL  X
(3) 2.4 × 10–7 T m A–1 tan    tan  L ...(ii)
R 3 R
(4) 2.4 × 10–4 T m A–1
From (i) and (ii), XL = XC
Answer (4)
Since, X L = X C, the circuit is in resonance.
S o l . m = 599 Z=R
r = 1 + m = 600 R
Power factor = cos  = 1
Z
  r  0
109. A capillary tube of radius r is immersed in
 = 600 × 4 × 10–7 water and water rises in it to a height h. The
 = 2400 × 10–7 mass of the water in the capillary is 5 g.
Another capillary tube of radius 2r is immersed
 = 2.4 × 10–4 T m A–1 in water. The mass of water that will rise in this
107. A spherical conductor of radius 10 cm has a tube is :
charge of 3.2 × 10–7 C distributed uniformly. (1) 5.0 g (2) 10.0 g
What is the magnitude of electric field at a
(3) 20.0 g (4) 2.5 g
point 15 cm from the centre of the sphere?
 1  Answer (2)
  9  109 Nm2 C2  S o l . Force of surface tension balances the weight
 4  0  of water in capillary tube.
(1) 1.28 × 105 N/C FS = 2rTcos = mg
(2) 1.28 × 106 N/C Here, T and  are constant
So, m  r
(3) 1.28 × 107 N/C
m2 2r
(4) 1.28 × 104 N/C Hence, 
5.0 r
Answer (1)  m2 = 10.0 g
19
 NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-G3)

110. In Young’s double slit experiment, if the A

separation between coherent sources is halved Sol. A
and the distance of the screen from the Y
coherent sources is doubled, then the fringe
width becomes : B
B
(1) half
(2) four times _________
Y  AB
(3) one-fourth
_____
(4) double  A·B
Answer (2) = A·B  AND Gate
D Truth Table
S o l .Fringe width  
d
A B Y
d 0 0 0
Now, d  and D  2D
2
0 1 0
(2D) 4 D 1 0 0
So,   =
d/2 d 1 1 1
 = 4
112. The color code of a resistance is given below
111. For the logic circuit shown, the truth table is:

A
Y

B The values of resistance and tolerance,

respectively, are
(1) A B Y (1) 47 k, 10%
0 0 0 (2) 4.7 k, 5%
0 1 1
(3) 470 , 5%
1 0 1
(4) 470 k, 5%
1 1 1
Answer (3)
(2) A B Y
S o l . According to colour coding
0 0 1
Yellow Violet Brown Gold
0 1 1
4 7 1 5%
1 0 1
So, R = 47 × 101 ± 5%
1 1 0
R = 470 ± 5% 
(3) A B Y
113. The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor
0 0 1
with air as medium is 6 F. With the
0 1 0 introduction of a dielectric medium, the
1 0 0 capacitance becomes 30 F. The permittivity of
1 1 0 the medium is :
(4) A B Y (0 = 8.85 × 10–12 C2 N–1 m–2)
0 0 0 (1) 1.77 × 10–12 C2 N–1 m–2
0 1 0 (2) 0.44 × 10–10 C2 N–1 m–2
1 0 0 (3) 5.00 C2 N–1 m–2
1 1 1 (4) 0.44 × 10–13 C2 N–1 m–2
Answer (4) Answer (2)

20
NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-G3)

S o l . C = KC0 116. Two particles of mass 5 kg and 10 kg

respectively are attached to the two ends of a
C 30
K  5 rigid rod of length 1 m with negligible mass.
C0 6
The centre of mass of the system from the 5 kg
 particle is nearly at a distance of :
K
0
(1) 50 cm
  K 0 (2) 67 cm
= 5 × 8.85 × 10–12 (3) 80 cm
= 0.44 × 10–10 C2 N–1 m–2 (4) 33 cm
114. A ball is thrown vertically downward with a Answer (2)
velocity of 20 m/s from the top of a tower. It hits y
the ground after some time with a velocity of
80 m/s. The height of the tower is : (g = 10 m/s2) 5 kg 10 kg
Sol. x (cm)
(1) 340 m (2) 320 m (x cm, 0)
(0, 0) (100, 0)
(3) 300 m (4) 360 m
m1x1  m2 x 2
Answer (3) xcm 
m1  m2
20 m/s
Sol. 5  0  100  10 200
   66.66 cm
5  10 3
g x cm  67 cm

117. The increase in the width of the depletion

80 m/s region in a p-n junction diode is due to :
(1) reverse bias only
v2 = u2 + 2gh
(2) both forward bias and reverse bias
v = 80 m/s
(3) increase in forward current
u = 20 m/s
(4) forward bias only
v 2  u2 6400  400
h=   300 m Answer (1)
2g 20
S o l . Due to reverse biasing, the width of the
115. A body weighs 72 N on the surface of the
depletion region increases.
earth. What is the gravitational force on it, at a
height equal to half the radius of the earth? 118. Light of frequency 1.5 times the threshold
frequency is incident on a photosensitive
(1) 32 N
material. What will be the photoelectric
(2) 30 N current if the frequency is halved and intensity
is doubled?
(3) 24 N
(1) four times
(4) 48 N
(2) one-fourth
Answer (1)
(3) zero
mg0
S o l . mgh  (4) doubled
2
 h
 1  Answer (3)
R
3
72 Sol.   0
W= 2
2
 R/2
 1   3
 R     0
2 4
72 4   <  0
W=   72  32 N
 3 / 2 2 9
 No photoelectric emission will take place.

21
 NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-G3)

119. Assume that light of wavelength 600 nm is 121. Light with an average flux of 20 W/cm2 falls on
coming from a star. The limit of resolution of a non-reflecting surface at normal incidence
telescope whose objective has a diameter of having surface area 20 cm 2 . The energy
2 m is : received by the surface during time span of
1 minute is :
(1) 1.83 × 10–7 rad
(1) 12 × 103 J (2) 24 × 103 J
(2) 7.32 × 10–7 rad
(3) 48 × 103 J (4) 10 × 103 J
(3) 6.00 × 10–7 rad
Answer (2)
(4) 3.66 × 10–7 rad
S o l . Energy received = Intensity × Area × Time
Answer (4)
= 20 × 20 × 60
 = 24 × 103 J
S o l . R  1.22 ;  = 600 × 10–9 m d = 2 m
d
122. A ray is incident at an angle of incidence i on
–9
1.22  600  10 one surface of a small angle prism (with angle
=
2 of prism A) and emerges normally from the
 = 3.66 × 10–7 rad opposite surface. If the refractive index of the
material of the prism is , then the angle of
120. A resistance wire connected in the left gap of incidence is nearly equal to :
a metre bridge balances a 10  resistance in
the right gap at a point which divides the 2A
(1) (2) A
bridge wire in the ratio 3 : 2. If the length of the 
resistance wire is 1.5 m, then the length of 1  A
A
of the resistance wire is : (3) (4)
2 2
(1) 1.0 × 10–1 m Answer (2)
(2) 1.5 × 10–1 m S o l . Light ray emerges normally from another
(3) 1.5 × 10–2 m surface, hence e(angle of emergence) = 0

(4) 1.0 × 10–2 m r2 = 0

Answer (1) r1 + r2 = A

Q = 10
 r1 = A
P C
Applying Snell's law on first surface
G 1.sini = sinr1
l1 l2
Sol. A B
D  sini = sinA
For small angles (sin  )
( )
hence i = A
P l1 3
Initially,   123. A 40 F capacitor is connected to a 200 V,
10 l2 2 50 Hz ac supply. The rms value of the current
30 in the circuit is, nearly :
 P  15 
2 (1) 2.05 A (2) 2.5 A
l (3) 25.1 A (4) 1.7 A
Now Resistance, R 
A Answer (2)
R1 l1 S o l . irms = crms

R2 l2 c = 40 × 10–6 F
15 1.5  = 2f = 100
 
1 l2 rms = 200 V
l2 = 0.1 m  irms = 200 × 40 × 10–6 × 2 × 50
= 1.0 × 10–1 m = 2.5 A

22
NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-G3)

124. Dimensions of stress are : kp cos 

Sol. V 
(1) [ML2T–2] (2) [ML0T–2] r2
(3) [ML–1 T–2] (4) [MLT–2] 9  109  16  109  cos60
V
Answer (3) 0.36
Force V = 200 V
S o l . Stress =
Area 128. In a guitar, two strings A and B made of same
MLT 2  material are slightly out of tune and produce
  beats of frequency 6 Hz. When tension in B is
L2  slightly decreased, the beat frequency
 
increases to 7 Hz. If the frequency of A is
 ML1T 2  530 Hz, the original frequency of B will be:
125. The Brewsters angle ib for an interface should be (1) 524 Hz (2) 536 Hz
(1) 30° < ib < 45° (2) 45° < ib < 90° (3) 537 Hz (4) 523 Hz
(3) ib = 90° (4) 0° < ib < 30° Answer (1)
Answer (2) S o l . Difference of fA and fB is 6 Hz
S o l .  = tan ib If tension decreases, f B decreases and
1<< becomes fB .
1 < tan ib <  Now, difference of fA and fB = 7 Hz (increases)
tan–1(1) < ib < tan–1() So, fA > fB
45° < ib < 90° fA – fB = 6 Hz
126. A wire of length L, area of cross section A is
fA = 530 Hz
hanging from a fixed support. The length of the
wire changes to L1 when mass M is suspended fB = 524 Hz (original)
from its free end. The expression for Young’s 129. An electron is accelerated from rest through a
modulus is : potential difference of V volt. If the
de Broglie wavelength of the electron is
Mg(L1  L) MgL
(1) (2) AL 1.227 × 10–2 nm, the potential difference is :
AL 1
(1) 102 V (2) 103 V
MgL MgL1
(3) A(L  L) (4) (3) 104 V (4) 10 V
1 AL
Answer (3)
Answer (3)
12.27
Mg Sol.   Å
S o l . Stress = V
A
 L L1 – L 12.27  10 –10
Strain =  V –11
 102
L L 1.227  10
Stress MgL  V = 104 volts
Young's modulus = Strain  A(L – L)
1 130. The solids which have the negative
127. A short electric dipole has a dipole moment of temperature coefficient of resistance are:
16 × 10–9 C m. The electric potential due to the (1) insulators only
dipole at a point at a distance of 0.6 m from
(2) semiconductors only
the centre of the dipole, situated on a line
making an angle of 60° with the dipole axis is : (3) insulators and semiconductors
(4) metals
 1 
  9  109 N m2 /C2  Answer (3)
 4  0 
S o l . For metals temperature coefficient of
(1) 200 V (2) 400 V
resistance is positive while for insulators and
(3) zero (4) 50 V semiconductors, temperature coefficient of
Answer (1) resistance is negative.

23
 NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-G3)

131. The energy required to break one bond in DNA (3)

is 10–20 J. This value in eV is nearly:
(1) 0.6 (2) 0.06
(3) 0.006 (4) 6
Answer (2)
T
S o l . 1 eV = 1.6 × 10–19 J (4)
1
1J  eV
1.6  10 19
10 20
1020 J  eV
1.6  1019 T
= 0.06 eV Answer (2)
S o l . At temperature much lower than 0°C, graph
132. The quantities of heat required to raise the
deviates considerably from a straight line.
temperature of two solid copper spheres of
radii r1 and r2 (r1 = 1.5 r2) through 1 K are in Option (2) is correct
the ratio : 134. For transistor action, which of the following
statements is correct?
9 3
(1) (2) (1) Base, emitter and collector regions should
4 2 have same size.
5 27 (2) Both emitter junction as well as the
(3) (4)
3 8 collector junction are forward biased.
Answer (4) (3) The base region must be very thin and
lightly doped.
S o l . Q = msT
(4) Base, emitter and collector regions should
4 have same doping concentrations.
Q  r 3 sT
3 Answer (3)
3 Sol. E B C
Q 1  r1 
 
Q 2  r2 

= (1.5)3

27 For Bi-polar junction transistor

 Length Profile is LC > LE > LB
8
133. Which of the following graph represents the and doping profile is E > C > B
variation of resistivity () with temperature (T) For transistor action Base-emitter junction is
for copper? forward biased and Base-collector junction is
reversed biased.
(1)
135. For which one of the following, Bohr model is
not valid ?
(1) Singly ionised helium atom (He+)
(2) Deuteron atom
(3) Singly ionised neon atom (Ne+)
T (4) Hydrogen atom
(2) Answer (3)
S o l . Bohr model is only valid for single electron
species.
Singly ionised neon atom has more than one
electron in orbit. Hence, Bohr model is not
T valid.
24
NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-G3)

136. What is the change in oxidation number of 139. Reaction between benzaldehyde and
carbon in the following reaction? acetophenone in presence of dilute NaOH is
known as
CH4 (g)  4Cl2 (g)  CCl4 (l)  4HCl(g) (1) Cannizzaro’s reaction

(1) 0 to + 4 (2) – 4 to + 4 (2) Cross Cannizzaro’s reaction

(3) 0 to – 4 (4) + 4 to + 4 (3) Cross Aldol condensation

Answer (2) (4) Aldol condensation

Answer (3)
S o l . CH4  x + 4 × 1 = 0  x = –4
O O
CCl4  x + 4 × (–1) = 0  x = +4
Sol. dil OH(–)
C H+ C CH3
4 4
CH4 (g)  4Cl2 (g)  CCl4 (l)  4HCl(g) OH H O
C C C—
Change in oxidation state of carbon is from
–4 to +4 H H
O
–H2O
137. On electrolysis of dil. sulphuric acid using CH = CH—C—
Platinum (Pt) electrode, the product obtained
at anode will be In the presence of dil.OH(–), benzaldehyde and
acetophenone will react to undergo cross-aldol
(1) Oxygen gas (2) H2S gas condensation.
(3) SO2 gas (4) Hydrogen gas 140. Which of the following alkane cannot be made
in good yield by Wurtz reaction?
Answer ( 1 )
(1) 2,3-Dimethylbutane
S o l . During the electrolysis of dil. sulphuric acid
using Pt electrodes following reaction will (2) n-Heptane
take place. (3) n-Butane
At cathode : (4) n-Hexane
Answer ( 2 )
4H (aq)  4e  
 2H2 (g)
S o l . Wurtz reaction is used to prepare symmetrical
At anode : alkanes like R1 – R1, as
Dry ether
R1 – X + 2Na + X – R1   R1 – R1 + 2NaX
 
2H2 O(l) 
 O2 (g)  4H (aq)  4e
If R 1 and R 2 are different, then mixture of
138. An increase in the concentration of the alkanes may be obtained as
reactants of a reaction leads to change in Dry ether
R1 – X + 2Na + R2 – X  
(1) heat of reaction
R1 – R1 + R1 – R2 + R2 – R2 + 2NaX
(2) threshold energy
141. Which of the following is a natural polymer?
(3) collision frequency
(1) poly (Butadiene-styrene)
(4) activation energy
(2) polybutadiene
Answer ( 1 )
(3) poly (Butadiene-acrylonitrile)
S o l . Heat of reaction is an extensive property. (4) cis-1, 4-polyisoprene
Hence, on change of amount/concentration of
reactants heat of reaction changes. Answer ( 4 )

25
 NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-G3)

S o l . Naturally occuring polymer, natural rubber Sol. z Mixture of CO and H2 gases is known as
is cis-1, 4– polyisoprene water gas or synthesis gas.

CH3
z Temporary hardness of water is due to
H
CH2 CH2 bicarbonates of calcium and magnesium.
C C
H 2C CH2 C C z Diborane (B2H6) is an electron deficient
H 3C H hydride.
z H2O2 is non-planar molecule having open
142. A mixture of N 2 and Ar gases in a cylinder
book like structure.
contains 7 g of N2 and 8 g of Ar. If the total
pressure of the mixture of the gases in the 144. For the reaction, 2Cl(g) 
 Cl 2 (g), the
cylinder is 27 bar, the partial pressure of N2
correct option is :
is :
[Use atomic masses (in g mol –1 ) : N = 14, (1) rH > 0 and rS < 0
Ar = 40] (2) rH < 0 and rS > 0
(1) 12 bar (2) 15 bar (3) rH < 0 and rS < 0
(3) 18 bar (4) 9 bar
(4) rH > 0 and rS > 0
Answer ( 2 )
7 1 Answer ( 3 )
S o l . nN2    0.25
28 4
S o l . Given reaction, 2Cl(g) 
 Cl2 (g)
8 1
nAr    0.20
40 5 We know that,

Now, Applying Dalton’s law of partial Cl2  g  

 2Cl g  is endothermic reaction

pressure, pN2  N2 PTotal  because it requires energy to break bond.

So reverse reaction is exothermic rH < 0
0.25
  27 bar Also, two gaseous atom combine together to
0.45 form 1 gaseous molecule.

5 So, randomness rS < 0

  27  15 bar
9 145. An element has a body centered cubic (bcc)
143. Match the following and identify the correct structure with a cell edge of 288 pm. The
option. atomic radius is
(a) CO(g) + H2(g) (i) Mg(HCO3)2 + 2 4
(1)  288 pm (2)  288 pm
Ca(HCO3)2 4 3
(b) Temporary (ii) An electron
4 3
hardness of deficient hydride (3)  288 pm (4)  288 pm
2 4
water
Answer ( 4 )
(c) B2H6 (iii) Synthesis gas
(d) H2O2 (iv) Non-planar S o l . For BCC,
structure 3a  4r a  edge length
(a) (b) (c) (d) r  radius
3a
(1) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) r
4
(2) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
Given, a = 288 pm
(3) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(4) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv) 3
r  288
Answer (4) 4

26
NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-G3)

146. Urea reacts with water to form A which will 149. The number of protons, neutrons and
decompose to form B. B when passed through 175
Cu 2+ (aq), deep blue colour solution C is
electrons in 71 Lu, respectively, are
formed. What is the formula of C from the
following ? (1) 104, 71 and 71 (2) 71, 71 and 104

(1) [Cu(NH3)4]2+ (2) Cu(OH)2 (3) 175, 104 and 71 (4) 71, 104 and 71
(3) CuCO3Cu(OH)2 (4) CuSO4
Answer ( 4 )
Answer ( 1 )
175
71 Lu
Sol. Sol.

No. of Protons= 71 = No. of Electrons

No. of Neutrons = Mass no. – No. of Protons

2+(aq)
Cu 2+
NH3(g) [Cu(NH3 )4 ] = 175 – 71
(B) (C)
[Blue coloured
solution] = 104
147. Reaction between acetone and
150. Which of the following set of molecules will
methylmagnesium chloride followed by
have zero dipole moment?
hydrolysis will give :
(1) Sec. butyl alcohol (2) Tert. butyl alcohol (1) Boron trifluoride, hydrogen fluoride,
(3) Isobutyl alcohol (4) Isopropyl alcohol carbon dioxide, 1,3-dichlorobenzene

Answer ( 2 ) (2) Nitrogen trifluoride, beryllium difluoride,

Sol. water, 1,3-dichlorobenzene

– (3) Boron trifluoride, beryllium difluoride,

O – + O MgBr
CH3– MgBr carbon dioxide, 1,4-dichlorobenzene
CH3– C – CH 3 CH3– C – CH 3
+
CH3 (4) Ammonia, beryllium difluoride, water,
Acetone
1,4-dichlorobenzene
Hydrolysis

OH Answer ( 3 )

CH3– C – CH 3
F
CH3
(tert-Butyl alcohol) =0
Sol. B
148. The following metal ion activates many
F F
enzymes, participates in the oxidation of
glucose to produce ATP and with Na, is
responsible for the transmission of nerve Be =0
F F
signals.
(1) Copper (2) Calcium
O C O =0
(3) Potassium (4) Iron
Answer ( 3 ) Cl
S o l . Potassium (K) activates many enzymes
participate in oxidation of glucose to produce =0
ATP and helps in the transmission of nerve
signal along with Na. Cl

27
 NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-G3)

151. Identify a molecule which does not exist. 154. Identify the correct statement from the
following :
(1) Li2 (2) C2
(3) O2 (4) He2 (1) Blister copper has blistered appearance
due to evolution of CO2.
Answer ( 4 )
(2) Vapour phase refining is carried out for
S o l . For He2 molecule
Nickel by Van Arkel method.
Electronic configuration is 1s2, *1s2
(3) Pig iron can be moulded into a variety of
1 shapes.
so bond order = [Nb  Na ]
2 (4) Wrought iron is impure iron with 4%
carbon.
1
= [2  2] Answer ( 3 )
2
=0 S o l . The iron obtained from blast furnace contains
about 4% carbon and many impurities like
Since, bond order is zero, so He2 molecule S, P, Si, Mn in smaller amount. This is known
does not exist. as pig iron and cast into variety of shapes.
152. Identify the incorrect match.
155. Measuring Zeta potential is useful in
Name IUPAC Official Name determining which property of colloidal
solution?
(a) Unnilunium (i) Mendelevium
(b) Unniltrium (ii) Lawrencium (1) Solubility

(c) Unnilhexium (iii) Seaborgium (2) Stability of the colloidal particles

(d) Unununnium (iv) Darmstadtium (3) Size of the colloidal particles
(1) (b), (ii) (2) (c), (iii) (4) Viscosity
(3) (d), (iv) (4) (a), (i) Answer (2)
Answer ( 3 )
S o l . In colloidal solution, the potential difference
S o l . Unununium between the fixed layer and the diffused layer
Atomic number = 111 of opposite charge is known as Zeta potential.
IUPAC official name : Roentgenium
The presence of equal and similar charges on
153. The rate constant for a first order reaction is colloidal particles is largely responsible in
4.606 × 10–3 s–1. The time required to reduce providing stability to the colloidal solution.
2.0 g of the reactant to 0.2 g is :
(1) 200 s (2) 500 s 156. Which of the following oxoacid of sulphur has
– O – O – linkage?
(3) 1000 s (4) 100 s
(1) H2SO4, sulphuric acid
Answer ( 2 )
(2) H2S2O8, peroxodisulphuric acid
2.303 A
Sol. k  log 0 (First order rate equation)
t A (3) H2S2O7, pyrosulphuric acid

2.303 2 (4) H2SO3, sulphurous acid

4.606  10 –3  log
t 0.2 Answer ( 2 )

2.303 O O
t  log10
4.606  10 –3
S o l . HO – S – O – O – S – OH
103 O O
  500 sec
2 Peroxodisulphuric acid

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NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-G3)

157. Elimination reaction of 2-Bromo-pentane to 159. An alkene on ozonolysis gives methanal as

form pent-2-ene is one of the product. Its structure is
(a) -Elimination reaction
CH2 – CH2 – CH3
(b) Follows Zaitsev rule
(c) Dehydrohalogenation reaction (1)
(d) Dehydration reaction
(1) (a), (c), (d) (2) (b), (c), (d)
CH2 – CH = CH2
(3) (a), (b), (d) (4) (a), (b), (c)
Answer ( 4 ) (2)
Elimination
S o l . CH3 CH CH2 CH2 CH3

Br CH2CH2CH3
(Reactant)
CH3 CH CH CH2 CH3
(3)
Mechanism:

CH = CH – CH3

(4)

3
Answer ( 2 )
Since -hydrogen is abstracted it is
-elimination. O
CH2 – CH = CH2 CH2 – CH CH2
Since more substituted alkene is formed, it
O3 O O
follows zaitsev's rule. Sol.
Since 'H' and 'Br' are removed, it is dehydro-
halogenation. Zn/H2O
158. Identify the correct statements from the O
following :
CH2 – C – H
(a) CO2(g) is used as refrigerant for ice-cream O
and frozen food.
+ H –C–H
(b) The structure of C60 contains twelve six Methanal
carbon rings and twenty five carbon rings.
160. Paper chromatography is an example of
(c) ZSM-5, a type of zeolite, is used to convert
alcohols into gasoline. (1) Partition chromatography
(d) CO is colorless and odourless gas.
(2) Thin layer chromatography
(1) (a) and (c) only
(3) Column chromatography
(2) (b) and (c) only
(3) (c) and (d) only (4) Adsorption chromatography
(4) (a), (b) and (c) only Answer (1)
Answer ( 3 )
S o l . Paper chromatography is a type of partition
Sol.  Dry ice, CO2(s), is used as refrigerant chromatography in which a special quality
 C60 contains 20 six membered rings, 12 paper known as chromatography paper is
five membered rings used.

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 NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-G3)

161. Match the following : S o l . H2N CH2 CH2 CH2 CH2 CH COOH
Oxide Nature
NH2
(a) CO (i) Basic
(b) BaO (ii) Neutral (Structure of Lysine)

(c) Al2O3 (iii) Acidic Lysine is a basic amino acid.

(d) Cl2O7 (iv) Amphoteric
Which of the following is correct option? 164. The calculated spin only magnetic moment of
(a) (b) (c) (d) Cr2+ ion is
(1) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii) (1) 4.90 BM
(2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) (2) 5.92 BM
(3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) (3) 2.84 BM
(4) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(4) 3.87 BM
Answer (1)
Answer ( 1 )
S o l . CO : Neutral oxide
S o l . Electronic configuration of Cr – [Ar] 3d5 4s1
BaO : Basic oxide
Electronic configuration of Cr2+ – [Ar] 3d4
Al2O3 : Amphoteric oxide
Number of unpaired e– = 4
Cl2O7 : Acidic oxide
162. Which one of the followings has maximum Spin only magnetic moment = n(n  2)
number of atoms ?
n = number of unpaired e–
(1) 1 g of Mg(s) [Atomic mass of Mg = 24]
Spin only magnetic moment = 4 (4  2)
(2) 1 g of O2(g) [Atomic mass of O = 16]
(3) 1 g of Li(s) [Atomic mass of Li = 7]
= 24 BM

(4) 1 g of Ag(s) [Atomic mass of Ag = 108] = 4.9 BM

Answer (3)
165. Sucrose on hydrolysis gives
1
S o l .  Number of Mg atoms = × NA
24 (1) -D-Glucose +-D-Glucose
1 (2) -D-Glucose +-D-Fructose
 Number of O atoms = ×2× N
32 A
(3) -D-Fructose +-D-Fructose
1
 Number of Li atoms = × NA (4) -D-Glucose +-D-Fructose
7
1 Answer ( 2 )
 Number of Ag atoms = × NA
108 Hydrolysis
S o l . Sucrose    -D- Glucose 
163. Which of the following is a basic amino -D-Fructose
acid ?
CH2OH
(1) Alanine
H O H HOH C O OH
2
(2) Tyrosine H
OH H H HO
(3) Lysine HO O CH2OH
(4) Serine H OH OH H
Answer ( 3 ) -D-Glucose -D-Fructose

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NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-G3)

166. The mixture which shows positive deviation 169. Which of the following is a cationic
from Raoult’s law is detergent?
(1) Benzene + Toluene (1) Sodium stearate
(2) Acetone + Chloroform
(2) Cetyltrimethyl ammonium bromide
(3) Chloroethane + Bromoethane
(3) Sodium dodecylbenzene sulphonate
(4) Ethanol + Acetone
(4) Sodium lauryl sulphate
Answer (4)
S o l . Pure ethanol molecules are hydrogen bonded. Answer ( 2 )
On adding acetone, its molecules get in
CH3
between the ethanol molecules and break
+ –
some of the hydrogen bonds between them. S o l . CH3 (CH2)15 N CH3 Br
This weakens the intermolecular attractive
interactions and the solution shows positive CH3
deviation from Raoult's law.
Cetyltrimethyl ammonium bromide
167. A tertiary butyl carbocation is more stable
170. The freezing point depression constant (Kf) of
than a secondary butyl carbocation because
benzene is 5.12 K kg mol–1. The freezing point
of which of the following ?
depression for the solution of molality
(1) + R effect of – CH3 groups 0.078 m containing a non-electrolyte solute in
(2) – R effect of – CH3 groups benzene is (rounded off upto two decimal
(3) Hyperconjugation places) :
(4) – I effect of – CH3 groups (1) 0.80 K (2) 0.40 K
Answer ( 3 ) (3) 0.60 K (4) 0.20 K
Answer ( 2 )

Sol. H S o l . Tf = kfm

Tertiary butyl carbocation
(9 -H atoms)
Secondary butyl carbocation = 5.12 (K.kg mol–1) × 0.078 (mol kg–1)
(5  -H atoms)

More the number of -H atoms, more will be = 0.399 K

the hyperconjugation effect hence more will  0.40 K
be the stability of carbocation.
171. Identify the incorrect statement.
168. Find out the solubility of Ni(OH) 2 in 0.1 M
NaOH. Given that the ionic product of Ni(OH)2 (1) The transition metals and their
is 2 × 10–15 compounds are known for their catalytic
activity due to their ability to adopt
(1) 2 × 10–8 M (2) 1 × 10–13 M multiple oxidation states and to form
(3) 1 × 108 M (4) 2 × 10–13 M complexes.
Answer ( 4 ) (2) Interstitial compounds are those that are
formed when small atoms like H, C or N
2+
Sol. Ni(OH) 2 Ni + 2OH are trapped inside the crystal lattices of
s s 2s
metals.
+
–
NaOH Na + OH (3) The oxidation states of chromium in
0.1 0.1 0.1
CrO24 and Cr2O72 are not the same.

Total [OH] = 2s + 0.1  0.1 (4) Cr2+ (d4) is a stronger reducing agent than
2+ – 2 Fe2+ (d6) in water.
Ionic product = [Ni ] [OH]
Answer ( 3 )
2 × 10–15 = s(0.1)2
s = 2 × 10–13 S o l . Oxidation state of Cr in CrO24 and Cr2O72 is
Solubility of Ni(OH)2 = 2 × 10–13 M +6

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 NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-G3)

172. Which of the following is not correct about 175. Identify compound X in the following sequence
carbon monoxide ? of reactions
(1) It reduces oxygen carrying ability of blood. CH3 CHO
(2) The carboxyhaemoglobin (haemoglobin
Cl2/h H2O
bound to CO) is less stable than X 373 K
oxyhaemoglobin.
(3) It is produced due to incomplete CH2Cl
combustion.
(4) It forms carboxyhaemoglobin
(1)
Answer ( 2 )
S o l . The carboxyhaemoglobin is about 300 times
more stable than oxyhaemoglobin. CHCl2

173. Hydrolysis of sucrose is given by the following

reaction. (2)

 Glucose  Fructose

Sucrose  H2 O 
CCl3
If the equilibrium constant (KC) is 2 × 1013 at
300 K, the value of r G○ at the same
(3)
temperature will be :
(1) 8.314 J mol–1K–1 × 300 K × ln(2 × 1013)
Cl
(2) 8.314 J mol–1K–1 × 300 K × ln(3 × 1013)
(3) –8.314 J mol–1K–1 × 300 K × ln(4 × 1013)
(4)
(4) –8.314 J mol–1K–1 × 300 K × ln(2 × 1013)
Answer ( 4 ) Answer ( 2 )
S o l . G = G° + RT ln Q OH
At equilibrium G = 0, Q = Keq
CH3 CHCl2 CH–OH
So rG° = –RT ln Keq
rG° = –8.314 J mol–1 K–1 × 300 K × ln(2 × 1013) Cl2/h H2O
Sol.
373 K
174. Which of the following is the correct order of
increasing field strength of ligands to form (X)
coordination compounds?
–H2O
– – –
(1) SCN < F < CN < C2 O2–
4
CHO
(2) F – < SCN– < C2 O2–
4 < CN
–

(3) CN– < C2 O24 – < SCN– < F –

176. The correct option for free expansion of an
– –
(4) SCN < F < C2 O2–
4 < CN –
ideal gas under adiabatic condition is

Answer ( 4 ) (1) q = 0, T < 0 and w > 0

(2) q < 0, T = 0 and w = 0
S o l . Spectrochemical series (as given in NCERT) :
(3) q > 0, T > 0 and w > 0
– – –
I– < Br– < SCN < Cl < S2– < F < OH < C2 O2–
4 < (4) q = 0, T = 0 and w = 0
– –
H2O < NCS < EDTA4– < NH3 < en < CN < CO Answer ( 4 )

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NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-G3)

S o l . Free expansion  Pex = 0 179. Anisole on cleavage with HI gives

 w = – PexV = 0 I
∵ Adiabatic process  q = 0
also, U = q + w [ first law of thermodynamics] (1) + CH3OH
 U = 0
∵ Internal energy of an ideal gas is a OH
function of temperature
 If internal energy remains constant (2) + C2H5I
 T = 0
177. The number of Faradays(F) required to I
produce 20 g of calcium from molten CaCl2
(Atomic mass of Ca = 40 g mol–1) is
(3) + C2H5OH
(1) 2
(2) 3
OH
(3) 4
(4) 1
(4) + CH3I
Answer ( 4 )
S o l . 1 equivalent of any substance is deposited by
Answer (4)
1 F of charge.
We have, 20 g calcium
OCH3 HO CH3
Given mass
Number of equivalents =
Equivalent mass Sol. + H + I

20
= =1 SN2
20
OH
40
Equivalent mass of Ca = = 20
2
+ CH3I
So, 1 faraday of charge is required.
178. HCl was passed through a solution of CaCl2,
MgCl 2 and NaCl. Which of the following 180. Which of the following amine will give the
compound(s) crystallise(s)? carbylamine test?
(1) Only NaCl NHCH3 N(CH3)2

(2) Only MgCl2 (1) (2)

(3) NaCl, MgCl2 and CaCl2
(4) Both MgCl2 and CaCl2 NHC2H5 NH2

Answer ( 1 ) (3) (4)

Sol. Since CaCl2 and MgCl2 are more soluble than
Answer ( 4 )
NaCl, on passing HCl(g) through a solution
containing CaCl2, MgCl2 and NaCl then NaCl S o l . Aliphatic and aromatic primary amines give
crystallizes out. carbylamine reaction.

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