CFA Level III Mock Exam 5 June, 2018 Revision 1
CFA Level III Mock Exam 5 June, 2018 Revision 1
com
CFA Level III Mock Exam 5
June, 2018
Revision 1
49-54 Derivatives 18
Total 180
Sun Davidson, CFA, is a sell side energy research analyst. Davidson maintains an equity
investment blog which is actively followed by over 5,000 investors spread across
numerous countries. The investors are from various financial backgrounds with differing
risk appetites.
In the current year, Davidson decides to change the layout of the blog. Instead of placing
announcements concerning investment recommendations at the bottom of the screen, as
has been the case since she started the blog, recommendations can now be accessed by
clicking on a highlighted (in bold) ‘Recommendations’ tab located at the top left of the
screen. Davidson does not feel it is necessary to make any announcement with respect to
the change.
For her next entry, Davidson will be preparing an investment recommendation on Energy
Fund, a hedge fund which undertakes long and short positions in equity securities from
the energy sector. Due to her limited expertise with the alternative asset class, Davidson
seeks the advice of Earl Ramos, a leading hedge fund manager at Carlton, a hedge fund
management firm.
During their initial meeting, Ramos informs Davidson that, with the knowledge of his
employer, he is invested in the Energy Fund (EF) and maintains a working relationship
with the fund’s manager from whom he has learnt that the fund will be expanding to
include highly risky energy stocks issued in less developed countries. Upon Ramos’s
advice, Davison issues a buy recommendation but does not disclose Ramos’s holding in
EF or his relationship with the fund manager.
Pleased with their professional relationship, Davidson invites Ramos to become a regular
contributor to the blog which he accepts. Ramos’s compensation will be in the form of
commission generated for the recommendations he issues. However, he will not be paid
by Davidson. Ramos informs his supervisor of the offer after acceptance and has decided
to contribute to the blog during the weekends so as not to disrupt his routine work
activities.
The same evening, both professionals attend an investment conference at which Ramos
collides into Wilson Clark. Clark maintains an investment in the Carlton hedge fund
along with his brother, Ridley. Wilson praises Ramos for his exemplary performance
results achieved during the current year on both their holdings. Wilson invites Ramos to
vacation with him in Morocco.
Upon the conclusion of their conversation, Ramos shares the details of the offer with
Davidson stating, “I manage the hedge fund investments of the Clark brothers and both
are equally pleased with my performance. This calls for a celebration.”
1. By changing the layout of the blog Davidson is in violation of the CFA Institute
Standards of Professional Conduct with respect to:
A. loyalty to clients.
B. diligence and reasonable basis.
C. communication with clients and prospects.
Correct Answer: C
Reference:
CFA Level III, Volume 1, Study Session 1, Reading 2, LOS a
A is incorrect. There is no evidence which indicates that Davidson has placed her
personal interests before those of investors or otherwise acted in a manner inconsistent
with the interests of investors.
B is incorrect. The standard relating to diligence and reasonable basis has not been
violated.
Correct Answer: B
Reference:
CFA Level III, Volume 1, Study Session 1, Reading 2, LOS a
Correct Answer: C
Reference:
CFA Level III, Volume 1, Study Session 1, Reading 2, LOS b
Correct Answer: B
Reference:
CFA Level III, Volume 1, Study Session 1, Reading 2, LOS a
Correct Answer: B
Reference:
CFA Level III, Volume 1, Study Session 1, Reading 2, LOS b
A. No.
B. Yes, by mentioning that he manages Ridley’s portfolio only.
C. Yes, by mentioning that he manages the investment portfolios of the Clark
brothers.
Correct Answer: A
Reference:
CFA Level III, Volume 1, Study Session 1, Reading 2, LOS a
Thomas Nash manages RAM’s global equity fund which in benchmarked to the MSCI
global equity index. Nash employs a passive mandate for the global equity allocation of
Aero Inc’s defined benefit pension plan’s portfolio, which is consistent with the client’s
funding objectives. In the current year, the sponsor reports a surplus following a
profitable financial year. Nash decides to modify his investment strategy and employ a
semi-active approach which will allow him to increase the portfolio’s opportunity to earn
higher returns. He intends to inform the sponsor of the change in their next quarterly
meeting.
Victoria Reed is a junior portfolio manager reporting to Nash. Reed is managing the
investment portfolio of the Legend Foundation. As instructed by the foundation’s chief
executive, Reed allocates 1,000 of Hower Inc’s shares to the portfolio which has
undertaken an IPO. Reed simultaneously purchases 2,000 shares for her personal
investment portfolio. She discloses the amount and quantity of her purchase in a quarterly
trade confirmation and an annual statement of personal holdings which she will email to
Marquez on the respective dates.
Marquez is soon to retire and has been asked by RAM’s chief investment officer to
nominate a successor. Marquez evaluates two candidates one of whom is his brother who
is well-informed on the Code’s compliance policies and procedures. The second
candidate is an investment manager who overlooks RAM’s emerging market equity fund.
At the end of the performance year, Nash prepares a performance presentation for the
global equity fund. Although the fund has been in operation for the past eight years, he
decides to present the annual performance for the recent most five years as they represent
its most successful years. He presents gross- and net-of-fees returns and provides a
breakdown of fees charged as management fees, incentive fees and commission. His
disclosure purposely omits a contingent fee component which he deems as too complex
for the understanding of clients.
A. No.
B. Yes, the CFA Institute cannot verify actual compliance with the Code.
C. Yes, the CFA Institute can only verify the Manager’s claim of compliance.
Correct Answer: B
Reference:
CFA Level III, Volume 1, Study Session 2, Reading 4, LOS a
RAM’s claim of compliance is consistent with the Asset Manager Code. The CFA
Institute does not verify either the Manager’s claim of compliance or actual
compliance with the Code.
A. No.
B. Yes, he has not undertaken a suitability analysis.
C. Yes, he has not made disclose to clients prior to the change.
Correct Answer: C
Reference:
CFA Level III, Volume 1, Study Session 2, Reading 4, LOS b
C is correct. Nash is in violation of the Asset Manager Code because he has not
provided disclosure to clients prior to converting to a semi-active fund mandate.
Managers are required to provide this information well in advance of the change
so that clients should be given enough time to consider the change and take any
actions as necessary.
9. With respect to the purchase of Hower Inc.’s shares, is Reed in violation of the
Asset Manager Code?
A. No.
B. Yes, she did not seek prior approval.
C. Yes, she did not delay the purchase of shares
Correct Answer: B
Reference:
CFA Level III, Volume 1, Study Session 2, Reading 4, LOS b
10. Which candidate best fits the role of compliance officer in accordance with the
Asset Manager Code?
A. Marquez’s brother
B. The emerging market fund manager.
C. Neither of the two individuals.
Correct Answer: C
Reference:
CFA Level III, Volume 1, Study Session 2, Reading 4, LOS b
Neither of the two individuals are suitable candidates for the role of compliance
officer. The recommendation and subsequent appointment of his brother may give
rise to potential conflict of interest situations. Furthermore, the familial
relationship between Marquez and the proposed candidate might call into question
the latter’s independence.
11. Is the allocation of client trades to Fairhole Associates consistent with the
requirements and recommendations of the Asset Manager Code?
A. Yes.
B. No, RAM cannot outsource work.
C. No, RAM must retain liability for the outsourced work.
Correct Answer: C
Reference:
CFA Level III, Volume 1, Study Session 2, Reading 4, LOS b
The Asset Manager Code does not prohibit Managers from outsourcing the work
of certain functions. However, it is important that the Manager retain
responsibility and liability for any outsourced work. Limiting liability with respect
to outsourced work reflects an action which is inconsistent with the Asset
Manager Code.
12. Which of the following statements least likely indicates why Nash’s performance
presentation is inconsistent with the requirements and recommendations of the
Asset Manager Code? Nash:
Correct Answer: C
Reference:
CFA Level III, Volume 1, Study Session 2, Reading 4, LOS b
A is incorrect. Under the Code, Managers have a duty to present performance that
is a fair representation of their record and should not misrepresent their track
record. Nash is cherry picking the investment performance to present and by
doing so he is in violation of the Code.
B is incorrect. With respect to fees, the Code requires Managers disclose what
costs are included in the fees and the methodology for determining fees.
Therefore, it is essential that Nash disclose the methodology for determining the
commission component, along with others. By not doing so, he is in violation of
the Code.
Dianne Fernandez is a junior economic analyst serving Thompson Ace (TA), a research
firm providing advisory services to institutions. Fernandez covers emerging markets. TA
has been engaged by Blake Asset Management (BAM), a U.S. based asset advisory firm,
to analyze the firm’s asset allocation and recommend changes based on capital market
projections.
Fernandez will be responsible for developing capital market projections for the country of
Rica with currency RIC. Rica is currently enjoying a period of strong economic growth.
Fernandez, however, projects that this economic strength will accelerate inflation in the
months to come. Based on preliminary economic analysis, Fernandez learns that bond
investors expect the central bank to maintain its inflation target by raising short-term
rates. BAM has allocated a total of 30% of client funds to securities (fixed income and
equity) issued in Rica (Exhibit 1).
Exhibit:
BAM’s Current Asset Allocation
Allocation
Asset Class (%)
Domestic equities 35
Emerging market equities 10
Long-term government bonds - Rica 15
U.S. Treasuries 10
AA-rated Domestic Corporate Bonds 25
Real estate 5
Total 100
Next, Fernandez meets with BAM’s senior investment officer who informs her that 40%
of the holdings to long-term government bonds belong to those investors with a short-
term time horizon while the remaining 60% has a long-term holding period.
Gillian Moore, a senior emerging market analyst serving TA, evaluates Fernandez’s
findings and suspects that the analyst’s projections as well as market expectations with
respect to inflation may be conservative.
After discussing her forecasts with the analyst, Moore urges Fernandez to analyze Rica’s
economy in more detail paying specific attention to long-term growth forecasts. Paying
heed to Moore’s advice, Fernandez decomposes long-term GDP growth into four factors
and develops projections for each. She compares her findings with another analyst who
has decomposed GDP growth into three factors and summarizes both sets of projections
in an Exhibit for her research report (Exhibit 2).
Exhibit 2:
Decomposition of Rica’s Long-term GDP Growth Forecast
Fernandez’s Analyst’s
Projections Projections
(%) (%)
Fernandez then reads an article on the current state of Rica’s economy which is titled as,
‘Rica’s Economy – Today and Tomorrow’. She is analyzing the implications of the
following excerpt on BAM’s holding of the country’s equities:
Excerpt: “Rica’s rapid rate of economic growth has been due to a surge in capital
investments.”
Fernandez concludes her analysis by evaluating the current value of the RIC/USD
exchange rate. She would like to determine whether the RIC is correctly valued based on
the purchasing power parity. She has collected data relevant for her analysis in an exhibit
(Exhibit 3).
Exhibit 3:
Data Relevant for Analysis of RIC’s Value
Current RIC/USD exchange rate 70.52
1-year Rica risk-free rate 13.00%
1-year U.S. risk-free rate 2.50%
Expected inflation rate – Rica 5.00%
Expected inflation rate – U.S. - 0.02%
13. In light of Fernandez’s original economic projections of Rica, he will most likely
advise a reduction of an allocation to 30-year government bonds for investors
with:
Correct Answer: C
Reference:
CFA Level III, Volume 3, Study Session 7, Reading 14, LOS o
Investors with short- and long-term time horizons should reduce their allocation to
30-year government securities.
When buying and selling long-term bonds over a shorter time horizon, the
emphasis will be on how bond yields react to changes in the business cycle and
changes in short-term rates. Given that bond investors in Rica expect the central
bank to maintain its inflation objectives, bond yields will respond only to changes
in the short-term rate. An expected rise in short-term rates will make the 30-year
government bonds unattractive for investors with a short-term holding horizon.
14. Based on Moore’s findings with respect to inflation projections and expectations,
the senior analyst will most likely conclude that the total allocation (both short-
and long-term investors) to 30-year government bonds should be:
A. reduced.
B. increased.
C. held constant.
Correct Answer: A
Reference:
CFA Level III, Volume 3, Study Session 7, Reading 14, LOS o
Because Moore believes that the acceleration of inflation will be higher than
expected by the market and that Fernandez has underestimated future inflation,
30-year government bonds will be very unattractive for BAM’s clients, regardless
of their individual time horizons. This is because nominal bond yields will not
compensate for this higher inflation rate resulting in the decline in the value of
bonds below par as market yields decline.
15. Using the data in Exhibit 2, relative to the analyst’s projections, Fernandez’s long-
term economic growth forecast is:
A. 0.2% higher.
B. 0.9% higher.
C. 0.7% lower.
Correct Answer: A
Reference:
CFA Level III, Volume 3, Study Session 7, Reading 14, LOS j
Correct Answer: A
Reference:
CFA Level III, Volume 3, Study Session 7, Reading 14, LOS j
A is correct. A reduced death rate will translate into a larger population and a rise
in the number of retirees who are living longer. Thus, a reduction in death rate
will not result in a corresponding growth in potential labor force size.
17. Based on the excerpt in the news article, which of the following conclusions most
likely represents a valid implication?
Correct Answer: C
Reference:
CFA Level III, Volume 3, Study Session 7, Reading 14, LOS j
C is correct. The rapid growth in capital investment will drive down returns on
invested capital. With weaker stock market returns, BAM will need to reduce its
allocation to Rica’s stocks to avoid declines in their investment values.
18. Using the data in Exhibit 3, Fernandez will conclude that the RIC is:
A. overvalued
B. undervalued
C. fairly valued.
Correct Answer: A
Reference:
CFA Level III, Volume 3, Study Session 7, Reading 14, LOS l
Inflation in Rica is expected to be 5.02% [5.00% – (- 0.02%)] higher than the U.S.
Therefore, the RIC will need to approximately depreciate by 5.02% according to
PPP. The RIC/USD exchange rate according to the PPP is 74.06 (1 +
5.02%)(70.52).
Comparing the current exchange rate to the level defined by PPP, the RIC appears
to be overvalued.
Trone Wealth Advisory’s (TRA) is an asset management firm with an institutional client
base. The Start Endowment Fund (SEF) is one of TRA’s clients and the equity portion of
its investment portfolio solely holds US equities and is being managed by Fran Davis, a
senior TRA equity manager. Davis has learned that SEF has received a further $20
million in donations in the current year which it intends to invest. SEF’s chief executive
officer (CEO) requests Davis to add active exposure to its portfolio using developed
market foreign equities and has specified an equal-weighted global index comprising
2,000 foreign equities as a benchmark. The CEO has instructed Davis to add exposure in
a way which does not require adjusting the strategic asset allocation. Davis maintains
strong negative and positive views with respect to the index’s stocks.
The CEO asks Davis to demonstrate how an equal-weighted index is valued. Davis
demonstrates the calculation using a hypothetical index comprising five stocks and a
valuation period starting on January 1, 2013 and ending on January 1, 2014. He estimates
the price change of the constituent stocks between the two dates and presents the data in
the exhibit below (Exhibit 1).
Exhibit 1:
Hypothetical Equal-Weighted Index
A 30.8
B - 12.7
C 9.3
D 2.1
E 20.5
The CEO has heard that there are certain drawbacks in using an equal-weighted index as
a benchmark. He asks Davis which of these drawbacks SEF should be most concerned
about given its foreign equity mandate.
The policy portfolio of Green Inc is being managed by Lance Young, one of TRA’s
wealth advisors. The equity portion of the portfolio is being managed using a value
approach and is benchmarked to the Russell 3000 index, a large-cap index. Young has
received a request by the plan sponsor to sell $2 million of Proctor and Gamble (P&G)
shares, a pharmaceutical, from the policy portfolio for the purposes of raising cash for
fund expansion. Young will implement a valuation-level sell discipline for executing the
transaction.
Details concerning Green Inc.’s portfolio and P&G holding prior to the sales transaction
are summarized in the exhibit below (Exhibit 2).
Exhibit 2:
Green Inc.’s Policy Portfolio and P&G Holding Information
P/E multiple at the time of P&G stock purchase 8.6
Current P/E multiple of P&G stock 12.5
Historical average P/E multiple of P&G stock 12.5
Actual dividend yield of P&G stock 5%
Average industry dividend yield of pharmaceutical stocks 3%
Purchase price $125.00
Current market price $150.00
Average annual portfolio turnover 135%
Proportion of consumer discretionary equities in portfolio 60%
TRA’s management has decided to devise a formal equity securities selection policy for
its global equity fund. It has tasked Carl Douglas, TRA’s senior global fund manager, to
devise the policy. Douglas sets to work by drafting the following policy:
“Above average earnings growth, P/E ratios in the lowest quartile, strong dividend paying
ability, and sound environmental conservation policies are the four factors used to screen
issuers of global equities. Companies passing the screen will be subject to further
evaluation in light of collected financial information. From the list of screened
companies, an investment will be made in the shares of those with strong corporate
governance practices.”
19. In light of the information provided on SEF and Davis, which of the following
strategies will most likely be used to add active exposure?
A. Long-only
B. Short extension
C. Equitized market neutral long-short
Correct Answer: C
Reference:
CFA Level III, Volume 4, Study Session 12, Reading 25, LOS m & n
A is incorrect. A long-only strategy will only allow Davis to exploit his positive
views on the constituent stocks. However, negative insights cannot be fully
exploited in a long-only context. The maximum short position will be limited by
the stock’s index weight.
20. Assuming initial value of a hypothetical index is 100, using the information in
Exhibit 1, the value of the index on January 1, 2014 is closest to:
A. 110.0.
B. 150.0.
C. 153.5.
Correct Answer: A
Reference:
CFA Level III, Volume 4, Study Session 12, Reading 25, LOS d
21. Which of the following represents a valid concern when using an equal-weighted
index as benchmark specifically for the foreign equity portion of SEF’s portfolio?
A. Small-company bias
B. High rebalancing costs
C. Illiquidity of index constituent securities
Correct Answer: A
Reference:
CFA Level III, Volume 4, Study Session 12, Reading 25, LOS d
Both options B and C are incorrect; these represent valid concerns for indexers
using equal-weighted indexes as benchmarks. However, they should not represent
a concern to SEF as the $2 million will be managed actively.
22. Using the information in Exhibit 2, a decision to sell the P&G holding will be
made as the:
Correct Answer: B
Reference:
CFA Level III, Volume 4, Study Session 12, Reading 25, LOS o
A is incorrect. Sell disciplines do not use dividend yields as a guide for executive
sale transactions.
23. Which of the following factors presented in Exhibit 2 is least consistent with the
style being used to manage Green Inc.’s policy portfolio?
A. Portfolio turnover
B. Dividend yield of P&G stock
C. Proportion of consumer discretionary equities
Correct Answer: A
Reference:
CFA Level III, Volume 4, Study Session 12, Reading 25, LOS i
A is correct. Annual turnover levels for a value investor are relatively low and
range from 20% to 80%. Growth investors, on the other hand, have higher annual
portfolio turnover, in line with the greater frequency of earnings announcements.
Green Inc’s average annual portfolio turnover is quite high considering that
Young has employed a value investment style.
Correct Answer: B
Reference:
CFA Level III, Volume 4, Study Session 12, Reading 25, LOS v
Kylie has asked the research department at her firm to prepare a report on the future
outlook of market interest rates. The final report declares that unemployment is expected
to decrease, sales to rise, and inventories to build up. As the economy lifts up, spreads are
expected to tighten, as credit quality improves and default rates decrease. After reading
the report, Kylie becomes particularly concerned with how this interest rate scenario
could alter the funded status as reported on LUCN’s current balance sheet. Even though
the asset portfolio has only a 35% allocation to bonds, Kylie, nonetheless, anticipates an
adverse effect on plan assets, since their duration equals 6.0. The effective durations of
the remaining allocations to equity and alternative investments are assumed to be zero.
After careful deliberation and a comprehensive discussion with the portfolio management
team, Kylie suggests to the board of LUCN to consider the use of a derivatives overlay
strategy to manage the difference in durations between the assets and liabilities. In a
meeting with the board, she elaborates the following four derivative options:
Strategy 1: “The use of a 10-year Treasury futures contract with a BPV of $11,055
estimated using the cheapest to deliver bond.”
Strategy 2: “A 25-year, swap contract that has a fixed rate of 4.50% against three-month
Libor. The swap’s effective duration is 17.88. The BPV is calculated per
$100 of notional principal.”
Strategy 3: “A swaption with a strike rate of 3.75% and a premium of $75,000. The
swaption gives the right to enter into the swap described in strategy 2 and
expires on a date that coincides with LUCN’s next financial reporting date.”
As further clarification, Kylie states that a hedging ratio of 100% would not be feasible
even though it would completely eliminate the duration gap. She suggests that a ratio of
60% is a practical approach to managing the interest rate risk of the portfolio.
25. To actively hedge the pension liabilities using a derivatives overlay, LUCN
should least likely:
Correct Answer: B
Reference:
CFA Level III, Volume 4, Study Session 10, Reading 22
The BPV of PBO (ABO will not be used since LUCN is a going concern) =
$27.403953 million × 9.5 × 0.0001 = $26,033.755
Since the BPV of assets is considerably lower than that of the liabilities, LUCN is
at the risk of a fall in interest rates that could raise liabilities and cause the plan to
be underfunded. To hedge this, LUCN should enter a receive-fixed pay floating
swap, or buy a receiver swaption. Option C describes a collar to reduce cost.
26. The notional principal of the swap in strategy 2 will be closest to:
A. $11.32 million.
B. $6.79 million.
C. $5.30 million.
Correct Answer: B
Reference:
CFA Level III, Volume 4, Study Session 10, Reading 22
27. Given that LUCN takes the right side of the swap, if Kylie anticipates interest
rates to be higher than the research department has estimated, the optimal hedging
ratio is most likely to:
A. decrease.
B. Increase.
C. Remain unchanged.
Correct Answer: A
Reference:
CFA Level III, Volume 4, Study Session 10, Reading 22
A receive-fixed pay-floating swap would benefit if rates fall. If rates, in fact, rise,
Kylie should reduce the hedging ratio.
28. Given that LUCN takes the right hedging position, if swap rates are expected to
equal 4.3%, which of the following strategies would be preferred?
A. Strategy 1.
B. Strategy 2.
C. Strategy 3.
Correct Answer: B
Reference:
CFA Level III, Volume 4, Study Session 10, Reading 22
If rates are expected to be at or below the swap rate of 4.50%, the receive-fixed
swap would be preferred. Its gains would be higher than the swaption. Futures
would not be preferred because of the daily market-to-market requirement.
29. Given that LUCN takes the right hedging position and considering that the swap
is annual-pay, if swap rates rise to 5.65% which of the following strategies would
most likely be the preferred option?
A. Strategy 2.
B. Strategy 3.
C. Strategy 4.
Correct Answer: B
Reference:
CFA Level III, Volume 4, Study Session 10, Reading 22
Since the rate is above the swap rate, it is not a preferred option.
Loss on Strategy 4 which is a collar: (0.0565-0.0550) × 6,790,916.779 =
10,186.375
Since the premium paid is $75,000 and this is less than the loss on the collar, the
receiver swaption would be preferred.
30. Assuming that the swap is semi-annual pay, if rates are expected to equal 4.35%,
the gain or loss on Strategy 2 will be closest to:
A. $5093.
B. $8,535.
C. -$9,209.
Correct Answer: A
Reference:
CFA Level III, Volume 4, Study Session 10, Reading 22
Martin Alexander works for a renowned credit rating agency as a security appraiser &
research analyst. Alexander has worked with his colleagues in the bond appraisal of
numerous US-based, as well as international issuers. Consequently, he has become adept
at performing a comprehensive analysis of the factors that influence the financial
standing of a firm. For his latest assignment, Alexander is studying how a country’s
interest rate is affected by currency exchange rate changes. In particular, he is assessing
the following:
Alexander uses this method to determine how investment-grade bonds would perform
relative to high-yield bonds. He gathers the data presented in Exhibit 1 to perform an
accurate comparative analysis. The data describes the two sectors as a whole, and does
not focus on any one particular issue.
Exhibit 1: Investment grade vs. High-yield Bonds (for the year ended 2015)
Investment Grade
High-Yield Bonds
Bonds
Assets Under Management $55.95 billion $43 billion
Total US$ withdrawn $11.29 billion $10.32 billion
Spread before withdrawal 8.5% 4.5%
Spread after withdrawal 9.3% 5.7%
After gathering this data, Alexander also made the following observations about the US
fixed-income market:
Observation 2: “Total assets under management, of both high yield and investment grade
bonds, decreased reasonably over the same time period.”
Observation 3: “The balance sheet size of any one particular issue on dealers’ balance
sheets decreased considerably.”
In addition to the US fixed-income market, Alexander is also aware about the benefits of
including emerging market bonds to a US bond portfolio. For this, he is considering three
emerging markets. He has accumulated some preliminary information about the structure
of their credit markets using data of their respective popular fixed-income indices.
Exhibit 2 expresses these details.
As a continuation to the data gathered, Alexander also jotted down the following
expectations:
While Alexander is concerned about the performance of these markets, and the risks
involved, he is somewhat at ease with investing in the US market because he believes that
interest rate volatility will remain low in the coming future. To offset the risks taken in
international bonds, Alexander wants to invest locally such, that liquidity is high and
default risk is low.
31. The most prominent drawback of the analytical approach used by Alexander is
that:
Correct Answer: B
Reference:
CFA Level III, Volume 4, Study Session 11, Reading 24
Alexander is using the top down approach to credit analysis, because his analysis
is based on interest rates, spread changes and overall leverage used. The main
advantage of this approach is that a sizable portion of credit returns can be
attributed to macro factors. However, since such factors are closely examined by
market participants, and are publicly available, they are reasonably reflected in
market prices. Hence, in a semi-strong form efficient market, informational
advantage would be difficult to gain.
32. Based on the data given in Exhibit 1, which sector of the fixed-income market
appears to be more liquid?
A. High-Yield.
B. Investment Grade.
C. Either high-yield or investment grade.
Correct Answer: A
Reference:
CFA Level III, Volume 4, Study Session 11, Reading 24
Spread sensitivity:
High yield bonds: 11.29/55.95 = 20.178% (outflow)
Spread widening: 80 bps
80/20.178 = 3.96
From the data given in the exhibit, high-yield bonds appear to be more liquid.
33. Which of the following observations made by Alexander are most likely to
indicate an increase in liquidity in the fixed-income market?
Correct Answer: A
Reference:
CFA Level III, Volume 4, Study Session 11, Reading 24
34. Assuming an unhedged position, using the data in Exhibit 2, the most attractive
investment for a US investor will be:
Correct Answer: A
Reference:
CFA Level III, Volume 4, Study Session 11, Reading 24
35. Assuming all other factors are the same, currency risk will be highest for:
A. Market A.
B. Market B.
C. Market C.
Correct Answer: A
Reference:
CFA Level III, Volume 4, Study Session 11, Reading 24
Currency risk will be highest for Market A because interest rates there are the
lowest. Any expected return can easily be wiped out by currency depreciation.
36. In the US market, the most appropriate investment given Alexander’s expectations
will be:
A. Corporate bonds.
B. Agency MBS.
C. Investment grade bonds.
Correct Answer: B
Reference:
CFA Level III, Volume 4, Study Session 11, Reading 24
The board of trustees of Howard Corp’s defined benefit pension plan is seeking to expand
the $200 million investment portfolio which is currently allocated to Russell 3000 equity
index stocks and the Lehman Corporate Bond Index. The board is particularly interested
in an allocation to commodities due to their inflation hedging potential and low
correlation with existing portfolio holdings. The board is seeking the advice of Diego
Miller, an investment manager, serving a wealth management firm.
Miller deems that a direct exposure to futures based on the GSCI is suitable for HC’s
portfolio. To justify his choice of asset class, Miller collects historical performance on the
commodity index performance. He breaks down the performance of the index into four
components (Exhibit).
Exhibit:
Components of the GSCI Return Index (2000-2014)
GSCI Total GSCI Collateral GSCI Roll GSCI Spot
Annual Return Yield Return/Yield Annual Return
Year (%) (%) (%) (%)
1 25.1 4.5 ? 14.8
2 ? 18.8 12.7 6.1
Jill Travis is a board trustee representative at Howard Corp. She is concerned about the
limitations associated with an investment in GSCI futures. She asks Miller whether her
concerns are valid.
Miller proceeds to forecast the future performance of commodity index futures if Howard
Corp decides to undertake the investment. He reads an analyst’s report which presents
forecasts concerning the future economic outlook. Miller focuses on two forecasts:
Miller discusses these forecasts with Travis emphasizing on what they imply for spot
returns. Travis asks Miller whether Forecast 2 signals that Howard Corp will be exposed
to positive event risk.
While the GSCI futures investment will provide a passive long-only exposure to the
portfolio, Miller determines that the pension plan’s characteristics provide room for risk
taking. The manager proceeds to explore an active program using managed futures. He
prepares a report for Howard Corp.’s board proposing the investment strategy. In his
report, Miller presents the investment characteristics of managed futures:
Characteristic 1: Seek active returns from inefficiencies in the pricing of individual stocks
and bonds.
Characteristic 3: Are absolute return strategies as returns depend on the skill and/or
strategy of the individual trader.
37. Using the data in the Exhibit, which of the following reasons least likely explains
the roll return observed in Year 2?
Correct Answer: A
Reference:
CFA Level III, Volume 5, Study Session 13, Reading 26, LOS n
38. Based on the data in the Exhibit, the roll return in Year 1 is closest to:
A. 5.8%.
B. 10.3%.
C. 12.7%.
Correct Answer: A
Reference:
CFA Level III, Volume 5, Study Session 13, Reading 26, LOS n
Roll return (%) = Total annual return % - Collateral yield % - Spot return %
= 25.1% – 4.5% – 14.8% = 5.8%
39. The most appropriate response to Travis is that an investment in the GSCI futures
will:
Correct Answer: B
Reference:
CFA Level III, Volume 5, Study Session 13, Reading 26, LOS m
A is incorrect. The GSCI is a widely used contract and receives considerable open
interest. Therefore, liquidity risk associated with the market for these futures
contracts will be low.
40. The implication of Forecast 1 and 2 on projected spot returns respectively is:
Forecast 1: Forecast 2:
A. positive negative.
B. negative no effect.
C. no effect positive.
Correct Answer: A
Reference:
CFA Level III, Volume 5, Study Session 13, Reading 26, LOS n
41. The most appropriate response to Travis’ query concerning Forecast 2 implying
high positive event risk for the pension plan is a:
A. no.
B. yes, there is an excess supply of commodities.
C. yes, the volatility of commodity prices will increase.
Correct Answer: A
Reference:
CFA Level III, Volume 5, Study Session 13, Reading 26, LOS n
42. In context of his research report covering managed futures, Miller is least accurate
with respect to Characteristic:
A. 1.
B. 2.
C. 3.
Correct Answer: A
Reference:
CFA Level III, Volume 5, Study Session 13, Reading 26, LOS t
C is correct. Managed futures are absolute return strategies because they require
no direct and comparable benchmark portfolios. They are also referred to as skill-
based strategies as these strategies obtain returns from the unique skill or strategy
of the trader.
The equity portion of Vault Corp’s investment portfolio is being managed by Reliable
Financials (RF), a brokerage firm with a trust department. Vault’s CEO, Carla Smith, has
recently fired their investment advisor because he failed to outperform his performance
benchmark for two consecutive years.
Judith Spencer, CFA, is an investment advisor at RF who will be managing the ex-North
American developed equity market segment of VC’s portfolio. These securities are issued
in Europe, Australasia and the Far East (EAFE). Under the previous advisor the portfolio
was managed with a long-only active, market-oriented, large-cap equity mandate. The
current performance benchmark is a returns-based index with an equal allocation to large-
cap growth and large-cap value EAFE equities.
Spencer is of the opinion that the existing benchmark is inappropriate and is seeking to
replace it with one which is valid. The portfolio will continue to be managed under its
original mandate.
One year after assigning a suitable performance benchmark, Spencer’s supervisor, Eric
Daniels, tests the benchmark’s quality by collecting relevant information concerning
VC’s investment portfolio (P), benchmark (B), and the broad MSCI EAFE market index
(M) in an exhibit (Exhibit). After carefully examining the performance results of the
portfolio, Daniels notes that Spencer has maintained strong negative and positive views
concerning the EAFE securities.
Exhibit:
Testing Spencer’s Benchmark Quality
Volatility of E* σE 18.7%
Volatility of Active Return σA 9.5%
Correlation Coefficient between - 0.5
S and E pS,E
Correlation Coefficient between 0.0
A and B pA, B
B* – M* Positive
Benchmark turnover 10.5x
Benchmark coverage 0.7
Average annual active position - 0.8%
*E = Account performance (P) – Market index performance (M)
S = Return attributable to manager’s style
B = Benchmark performance
!"# $!"%
Option 1: Compute the fund’s rate of return ( !"%
) over the performance period.
Option 2: Compare the hedge fund’s Sharpe ratio to a universe of hedge funds with a
long/short investment mandate.
Based on limited knowledge on hedge funds, Smith concludes that option 1 can lead to
nonsensically extreme returns; the Sharpe ratio relevant to the hedge fund universe
identified in option 2 is not measurable as the investment strategy includes a high degree
of skewness; and option 3 will produce a benchmark which lacks transparency.
43. The most likely implication of Smith’s decision to fire the previous investment
advisor is that:
Correct Answer: A
Reference:
CFA Level III, Volume 6, Study Session 17, Reading 33, LOS t
B is incorrect. The decision reflects an effort to reduce a Type I error. See above.
C is incorrect. Type II errors will decrease if the firm decides to retain (or,
alternatively, not fire) managers generating positive value-added returns.
44. One limitation of the benchmark based on the returns-based index is that:
A. it is ambiguous.
B. it is not investable.
C. tracking error is increased.
Correct Answer: C
Reference:
CFA Level III, Volume 6, Study Session 17, Reading 33, LOS f
A. style index.
B. broad market index.
C. custom security-based index.
Correct Answer: C
Reference:
CFA Level III, Volume 6, Study Session 17, Reading 33, LOS f & g
B is incorrect. Broad market indexes are unsuitable as benchmarks for the simple
reason that the constituent securities will not reflect the portfolio’s investment
mandate thus violating the appropriateness criterion.
46. Based on the data in the Exhibit and considering each factor in isolation, Daniels
will conclude that the benchmark is of low quality based on the fact that the:
Correct Answer: A
Reference:
CFA Level III, Volume 6, Study Session 17, Reading 33, LOS i
47. Using the correlation data in the Exhibit, Spencer will conclude that systematic
bias in the benchmark relative to the account is:
Correct Answer: C
Reference:
CFA Level III, Volume 6, Study Session 17, Reading 33, LOS i
48. Regarding hedge fund performance evaluation, Smith is most accurate regarding
her conclusions with respect to:
A. 2 only.
B. 1 and 2 only.
C. all three options.
Correct Answer: C
Reference:
CFA Level III, Volume 6, Study Session 17, Reading 33, LOS j
Gus Weaver holds a $30 million portfolio invested in Arc Limited’s shares of a stock
which is indexed to the DJIA 30. Weaver would like to reduce his exposure to the shares
in anticipation of a profit squeeze which is forecasted to decrease Arc’s share price over
the course of the coming months. Weaver asks his portfolio manager, Eric Cox, to devise
a suitable strategy which does not involve liquidating his holding.
Cox designs two alternative strategies using DJIA 30 equity index futures contracts and
options, respectively. The strategies he has devised include:
Strategy 1: Synthetically reducing the exposure using 1-month DJIA 30 equity index
futures
Strategy 2: Employing equity call and/or put options written on the Arc Limited stock
Cox explains to Weaver that should Strategy 1 be implemented, the position will need to
be rolled over each month until protection is no longer desired. He collects details with
respect to the instruments used for the strategy (Exhibit 1).
Exhibit 1:
Details Concerning Strategy 1
Current market price per share $51.50
Futures price 1,860.50
Multiplier 25.00
Index dividend yield 0.50%
One- month risk-free rate 2.30%
After studying the strategy, Weaver asks Cox how an alternative strategy involving the
liquidation of portfolio holdings and subsequent investment of the proceeds in a risk-free
asset would compare to Strategy 1 in terms of relative liquidity, transaction costs, and
success in reducing portfolio beta to zero.
Next, Cox proceeds to explore Strategy 2. He collects details relevant to three one-month
put options (Exhibit 2) written on the Arc Limited stock. He expects the stock to be worth
$51.80 at option expiration. The designed strategy will greatly depend on whether
Weaver would like to:
Exhibit 2:
One-Month Put-Option Prices
Option 1 2 3
Exercise price ($) 49.70 51.00 54.30
Option price ($) 1.10 1.70 2.40
Cox believes that a protective put strategy will be most suitable if Weaver decides to
maximize loss protection and selects the 54.30 put to achieve this purpose.
Cox concludes his analysis by exploring the most suitable option structure should Weaver
choose to retain upside potential. Cox strongly believes that market volatility will remain
low over the next three months and intends to incorporate this projection in his selection
decision.
49. The number of futures contracts required to be sold and the effective amount of
money needed to be invested in risk-free bonds to implement Strategy 1 is,
respectively, closest to:
Correct Answer: B
Reference:
CFA Level III, Volume 5, Study Session 15, Reading 28, LOS c
Because Weaver wants to effectively liquidate his Arc Limited holding, futures
contracts will need to be sold on the DJIA 30 index. The number of contracts
required to be sold (Nf) is approximately equal to 646.
V (1 + r ) $30,000,000(1.023)
T 1 12
- Nf = = = -646.21
qf ($25 ´ 1,860.50)
646(1,860.50 ´ $25)
= $29,990,190.99
(1.023)1 12
50. In order to establish an effective hedge using Strategy 1, Cox must ensure that
relative to the index beta, portfolio beta is:
A. lower.
B. higher.
C. identical.
Correct Answer: C
Reference:
CFA Level III, Volume 5, Study Session 15, Reading 28, LOS c
Since the index underlying the futures contract is to be used to represent the
performance of the Arc Limited stock holding, it is essential that the betas of the
two are identical; this will enable Cox to implement a precise hedge. Furthermore,
this will enable the futures price and stock price to have the same sensitivity to
market movements thereby resulting in an effective hedge.
51. Cox’s most appropriate response to Weaver’s query concerning the comparison of
Strategy 1 to a liquidation of and reinvestment of portfolio proceeds in the context
of liquidity and success of eliminating beta exposure is that:
Correct Answer: A
Reference:
CFA Level III, Volume 5, Study Session 15, Reading 28, LOS c
A is correct. Neither of the two strategies can guarantee that beta will be reduced
to zero.
52. Using the data in Exhibit 2 and assuming the share price expectation is realized,
the value of the protective put strategy, on a per share basis, is closest to:
A. $0.00.
B. $51.90.
C. $54.30.
Correct Answer: C
Reference:
CFA Level III, Volume 5, Study Session 15, Reading 29, LOS a
53. Using the data in Exhibits 1 and 2, the breakeven price per share on the proposed
protective put strategy is closest to:
A. $49.10.
B. $51.90.
C. $53.90.
Correct Answer: C
Reference:
CFA Level III, Volume 5, Study Session 15, Reading 29, LOS a
54. Which of the following strategies is most suitable for maximizing upside potential
on the Arc stock position?
A. Straddle
B. Long position in a butterfly spread
C. Bear spread using put options 2 and 3
Correct Answer: C
Reference:
CFA Level III, Volume 5, Study Session 15, Reading 28, LOS b
Given that Cox is highly certain that volatility will be lower than expected, he
should consider going either long the butterfly spread, which involves selling put
option 2 and buying put options 1 and 3, or a bear spread using put options 2 and
3.
C is correct. The maximum profit on a bear spread using put options 2 and 3 is
higher relative to the maximum profit of a butterfly spread. A bear spread using
put options 2 and 3 will generate a maximum profit of $2.60.
Maximum profit on bear spread = X3 – X2 – p3 + p2 = $54.30 – $51.00 – $2.40 +
$1.70 = $2.60
Walk Associates (WA) is a firm providing brokerage and asset management services. The
firm is seeking to present its financial statements in compliance with the requirements
and recommendations of the Global Investment Performance Standards (GIPS). Clarence
Long is WA’s senior compliance officer who will be overseeing the conversion process.
Long evaluates the performance presentation of WA’s large-cap equity composite whose
equity holdings are benchmarked to the Russell 3000 index (Exhibit 1). The composite
commenced on January 1, 2010. The presentation has been prepared by a senior equity
fund manager and includes note disclosures. During his evaluation of the presentation,
Long identifies numerous inconsistencies which require rectification.
Exhibit 1:
Large-Cap Equity Composite Performance Presentation and Note Disclosures
Composite Benchmark Value of Value of
Gross-of- Gross-of- Total Cash Non- Composite
Fees Fees Firm Holdings Discretionary Downside
Returns Returns Assets ($ Assets Deviation
Year (%) (%) ($ Millions) ($ millions) (%)
Millions)
2010 8.9 7.8 2.5 0.1 0.1 - 4.5%
2011 9.1 9.0 2.8 0.2 0.1 - 8.8%
2012 9.5 9.5 3.4 0.1 0.3 - 2.2%
2013 9.0 9.8 3.0 0.3 0.2 - 7.1%
2014 8.9 9.8 3.1 0.3 0.4 - 12.0
Note 2: Total firm assets include discretionary fee- and non-fee paying portfolios.
Note 3: Cash holdings represent investments in Treasury bills which are being managed
by a client-designated external fixed-income specialist firm. Returns from cash
holdings have been included in portfolio return calculations.
Note 4: The firm routinely employs option strategies such as protective put and bear
spreads to provide downside protection on its equity holdings.
Note 5: Due to the existence of embedded options for hedging purposes, the firm has
elected to present downside deviation as an additional risk measure to standard
deviation, which assumes normal distribution and is thus inappropriate for
evaluating the performance of a skewed return distribution.
Note 6: Non-discretionary portfolios include those managed with an active mandate but
are prohibited by portfolio holders from participating in small-cap equities.
Long would like to evaluate how composite portfolio returns are calculated and thus
breaks down the performance of one portfolio in terms of cash flow activity and market
values for the 1st quarter of 2015 (Exhibit 2).
Exhibit 2:
Portfolio Valuation and External Cash Flow Activity
(January 1st 2015 to March 31st 2015)
Market Value
Market value Large External Including Cash
Portfolio Date ($) Cash Flows ($) Flows ($)
1 January 2015 242,000
31 January 2015 250,000
25 February 2015 275,000 - 2,000 273,000
28 February 2015 282,000
16 March 2015 262,000 +12,000 274,000
31 March 2015 295,000
55. WA’s fee presentation policy presented in Note 1 is inconsistent with the
requirements of the GIPS standards and requires modification. Which of the
following statements represents an appropriate adjustment?
Correct Answer: C
Reference:
CFA Level III, Volume 6, Study Session 18, Reading 34, LOS d & k
C is correct. For actual trading expenses which cannot be broken out of bundled
fees, the gross-of-fees returns must be reduced by the entire amount of bundled
fees or that portion which includes actual trading expenses. The use of estimated
trading expenses is prohibited (I.2.A.5.a-b). Given that the portion of advisory
fees including trading expenses has been identified, only that portion should have
been deducted from the gross-of-fees returns.
56. Are Note 2 and Note 3 consistent with the requirements and recommendations of
the GIPS standards?
Note 2? Note 3?
A. Consistent Inconsistent
B. Inconsistent Consistent
C. Inconsistent Inconsistent
Correct Answer: B
Reference:
CFA Level III, Volume 6, Study Session 18, Reading 34, LOS b & d
Note 2 is inconsistent with the GIPS standards which require firms to include
discretionary, non-discretionary, fee-paying and non-fee paying portfolios for
which a firm has investment management responsibility as part of total firm assets
(I.0.A.13). WA manages non-discretionary portfolios, as evidenced in Exhibit 1
and Note 6; therefore the firm is required to present its non-discretionary
portfolios as part total firm assets.
Note 3 is consistent with the GIPS standards. Cash and cash equivalents must be
included in total return calculations even if the cash is not actually invested by the
same group or person. By including returns on cash holding in portfolio return
calculations, the firm has complied with the GIPS standards.
57. Note 4 is inconsistent with the requirements and recommendations of the GIPS
standards with respect to WA’s use of derivatives instruments. Which of the
following has been omitted by the disclosure and represents a violation?
A. presence.
B. characteristics.
C. frequency of use.
Correct Answer: B
Reference:
CFA Level III, Volume 6, Study Session 18, Reading 34, LOS j
A. Yes.
B. No, the firm may only present standard deviation as a measure of risk.
C. No, the GIPS glossary does not define downside deviation as a measure of
risk.
Correct Answer: A
Reference:
CFA Level III, Volume 6, Study Session 18, Reading 34, LOS m
C is correct. Although the GIPS glossary does not specifically identify downside
deviation as a risk measure, this does not mean that the use of this measure is
inappropriate.
59. Has the firm appropriately classified its non-discretionary portfolios (Note 6)?
A. Yes.
B. No, the restriction does not impede the investment process.
C. No, client restrictions on the portfolio manager do not render a portfolio as
non-discretionary.
Correct Answer: A
Reference:
CFA Level III, Volume 6, Study Session 18, Reading 34, LOS f
60. Using the data in Exhibit 2, calculate the rate of return for the portfolio for the 1st
quarter of 2015 using revaluing the large cash flow methodology.
A. 6.21%.
B. 16.32%.
C. 17.42%.
Correct Answer: C
Reference:
CFA Level III, Volume 6, Study Session 18, Reading 34, LOS e
The true time-weighted return (rtwr) will be calculated for each period and
geometrically be linked to produce an overall portfolio return for the 1st quarter
2015.
= 17.42%