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B.Chalamaji, CM (Faculty), SBILD Masulipatnam

 KNOW YOUR SBI- E LESSON CONSOLIDATES Q &A

KNOW YOUR SBI- MODULE 1

1. Nation's central bank Reserve Bank of India was established in the year

Ans: 1935

2. The earliest progenitor of State Bank of India was ___

Ans: Bank of Calcutta

3. As per our code of Ethics, we should avoid conducting Bank's business with a relative or an
entity in which a relative has _______

Ans: Significant role

4. SBI's first technology upgradation project for agro-pumpset industries was started in _____.

Ans: Coimbatore

5. Reserve Bank of India was nationalised in the year ___

Ans: 1949

6. If we are processing the transaction of another employee, we shall _____ as we would for
any other Bank customer.

Ans: exercise the same due diligence

7. Who protested against failure to Indianise the Imperial Bank of India?

Ans: JRD Tata

8. Select the correct statement regarding principles of our Bank’s code of ethics.
Statement 1 : We shall make sure that integrity permeates our workings and decisions every
day.
Statement 2 : We shall be responsible for avoiding situations, positions, activities or
relationships where our personal interest interferes with our professional duties. We shall
report immediately if we face or observe such a situation.

Ans: Both statements are correct

9. Which of the following action does not matches to principle of handling conflict of interest
with regards to engaging in political activities and contribution and subscription?

Ans: We shall not support the ideology of any of the association / union
 10. The bank which was formed by the merger of Bank of Madras, Bank of Bengal and Bank of
Bombay was called ___

Ans: Imperial Bank of India

11. We shall ensure that our computers are always ------ when left unattended.

Ans: Locked for everyone

12. RBI gives 40% of weightage to which of the following indicators, while assessing D-SIB status
of the Banks.

Ans: Size

13. The Government of India appoints Chairman of State bank of India on recommendations of
________

Ans: Banks Board Bureau (BBB)

14. SBI's Quick Personal Loans are available on ___platform.

Ans: Contactless Lending Platform (CLP)

15. As per our code of Ethics, on which of the following occasions, gifts from friends , not having
official dealing with the Bank can not be accepted ?

Ans: Birthday

16. The banks having size as a percentage of ____ beyond, 2 % will be selected in the sample of
banks for categorizing as D-SIBs

Ans: Gross Domestic Product

17. Systemically Important Banks (SIBs) are perceived as ones that are _________

Ans: Too Big to Fail

18. RBI released the latest list of D-SIBs on 19th January,2021 and retained the following Banks
____ as Domestic Systemically Important Banks ( D-SIBs)

Ans: SBI, ICICI Bank, HDFC Bank

19. FSB stands for ___________

Ans: Financial Stability Board

20. The Chief Vigilance Officer in our Bank directly reports to ____

Ans: Chairman
 21. Which of the following statement matches with the Principle of handling conflicts of
interests ?

Ans: All the above

22. The banks having size as a percentage of GDP beyond, ____% will be selected in the sample
of banks for categorizing as D-SIBs.

Ans: 2

23. As per our code of Ethics, on which of the following occasions, gifts from near relatives can
not be accepted ?

Ans: Birthday

24. Which of the following is not one of the factors considered by RBI for deciding systemic
importance of a Bank.

Ans: Operating Profit

25. Which of the following is not one of the principles of SBI’s code of ethics?

Ans: Accepting or offering gifts or entertainment.

26. When someone observes a conduct that is inconsistent with the principles set forth in the
code of ethics and wants advice , then the person should contact some officials. As per our
code of Ethics ,Which one of the following option is incorrect ?

Ans: contact local police

27. As per our code of Ethics, we shall disclose any confidential information about a customer,
supplier or any other third party only _____

Ans: for any legitimate business purpose only

28. Whose cheque was returned by Bank of Bengal as it was proved to be four annas beyond the
sum at his credit.

Ans: William Bentinck

29. Reserve Bank of India computes systemic importance scores of all banks in the sample
annually, based on

Ans: March end data

30. Select the incorrect statement regarding principles of our Bank's code of ethics

Ans: We can disclose any confidential information about a customer, supplier or any other
third party for our personal purposes.
31. As per SBI's code of Ethics, can we canvass for membership / collect dues or subscription /
carry any activity about any association, union or other organisation ?

Ans: Yes, but with prior authorisation.

32. If an employee receives more than one gift from the same or different persons/ entities with
in a period of ------- , the matter shall be reported to the competent authority if the
aggregate amount is beyond the specified limit prescribed under our code of Ethics.

Ans: 12 months

33. SBI’s Code of Ethics applies to _________

Ans: All regular, contractual, part-time staffs of the Bank including third party dealing with
Bank.

34. SBI's present logo was designed by ___

Ans: National Institute of Design

35. The first chartered bank in India conferred with the advantages of limited liability for its
shareholders was ___

Ans: Bank of Bengal

36. The first fully computerized branch of SBI was inaugurated at ______ with the Bankmaster
software

Ans: Backbay Reclamation in Mumbai

37. As per SBI's code of Ethics, can we ask for or accept contribution or associate ourselves with
the raising of funds or collection in cash or in kind?

Ans: Yes, but with prior authorisation.

38. The first logo of our Bank depicted a ____

Ans: Banyan tree

39. The first pilot branch of SBI where CBS was first rolled was

Ans: Personal banking branch, Hiranandani Gardens, Mumbai

40. Imperial Bank of India was formed in the year ___

Ans: 1921
41. RBI gives 20% of weightage to following indicators, while assessing D-SIB status of the Banks,
except

Ans: Size

42. Which of the following statement matches with the Principle of Conducting ourselves with
utmost integrity?

Ans: We shall be just and honest to all our stakeholders—customers, colleagues , investors,
communities, public and others we deal with.

43. As per our code of Ethics, we shall protect confidential information relating to our
customers. This confidential information may be -------------

Ans: All of the above related

44. The first Recurring Deposit in our Bank was opened in name of ___

Ans: Dilip Kumar

45. The first Indian to preside over Annual General Meetings of the shareholders of Imperial
Bank was ___

Ans: Sir Badridas Goenka

46. The establishment of SBI was one of the recommendations of the ______ .

Ans: All India Rural Credit Survey Committee

 KNOW YOUR SBI- MODULE 2

1. Customers gain confidence when organisations respond quickly and solve their problems. It
represents _ _ _ _ _

Ans: Timeliness

2. The _ _ _ _ _ customer is very motivated to buy but may overlook important details
regarding the product and services.

Ans: THE IMPULSIVE CUSTOMER

3. _ _ _ _ _ _ _ enhances customer relationship and also enables one to understand the

customer requirement exactly. (Choose the most appropriate option)

Ans: Listening

4. Dealing with impulsive customers requires to be _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _

Ans: Be brief but specific and offer clear incentives.

5. _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ represents an organizational mindset that places customers, rather

than product or sales, at the centre of the business.

Ans: Customer Centricity

6. Read the below statements and answer appropriately

I. Happy customers do not consider competitor’s offers.
II. Happy customers make a purchase but do not recommend the product further.

Ans: Only I is true

7. Willing to go the extra mile means making more effort than is expected for _ _ _ _ _
customer issues. (Choose the most appropriate option)

Ans: Resolving

8. Which of the statement regarding Customer Centricity is NOT True?

Ans: It is situational and reactive.

9. Read the below statements regarding Aggressive Customers and answer appropriately
I. Such customers raise their voice and get angry quickly.
II. Respond with emotion and argue only if necessary

Ans: Only Statement I is TRUE

10. Which of the following statement is correct?

Ans: The aggressive customer wants his/her needs should be prioritised over others.

11. Raj has been using the telecom services of AirCom since the last 15 years as he believes the
services are unmatchable and the company is innovative. It represents which stage of
customer satisfaction levels?

Ans: Zone Of Loyalty

12. Read the below statements and answer appropriately

I. Respect for the customers is essential for organisation success
II. Courtesy is the act of showing politeness

Ans: Both statements are TRUE

13. Which option about customer service is true?

Ans: Businesses must provide excellent customer service or expect failure.

14. _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ is defined as a measurement that determines how happy customers are with
a company’s products, services, and capabilities.

Ans: Customer Satisfaction

15. Dealing with _ _ _ _ _ customers requires listening to them carefully, asking closed questions
to get a specific answer.

Ans: THE TALKATIVE CUSTOMER

16. A positive customer _ _ _ _ _ _ _ promotes loyalty; helps retain customers, and encourages
word-of-mouth publicity. (Choose the most appropriate option)

Ans: Experience

17. In which zone of customer satisfaction, customers are actively looking for an alternative?

Ans: Zone Of Defection

18. Read the below statements and answer appropriately

I. Earlier customer were loyal based on price
II. Now the overall experience is important for the customer.

Ans: Both statements are TRUE

19. Check the statements and answer appropriately.

I. The Cautious Customer is budget conscious and constantly compares prices.
II. They are difficult to satisfy.

Ans: Both statements are FALSE

20. Ritu was all ready to go to Goa for a vacation, but her flight gets cancelled and she complains
about it. The airline apologises and offers her another flight of her choice on the same day,
and a discount voucher against future travel. She is now happier and more loyal to the
airlines company. The scenario represents _ _ _ _ _ _

Ans: Service Recovery Paradox

21. Choose the incorrect statement.

Ans: Customers like to wait for issues to be resolved

22. Read the below statements regarding Customer Service and answer appropriately
I. Customer service focuses on satisfying customer need and wants.
II. Productive solutions are developed in response to customer challenges.

Ans: Both statements are TRUE

23. The complaint lodged by a customer is first assigned to the _ _ _ _ _ for redressal.

Ans: The Branch

24. A customer approaches you and tells that there are several complaints that have not been
resolved. You should first:

Ans: Regard the complaints as accurate and take immediate steps to correct them.

25. Read the below statements and answer appropriately

I. Only relying on customer services does not make us customer-centric.
II. Customer Service is not the same as Customer Centricity

Ans: Both statements are TRUE

26. The actionables for Customer Centricity demands to _ _ _ _ _ the customer’s experience, _ _
_ _ _ about the expressed and unexpressed needs of the customer and_ _ _ _ _what is right,
and appropriate, for the customer.

Ans: OWN, CARE, DO

27. Eradicating repetitive issues and improve customer satisfaction is a way to provide excellent
customer service. This represents _ _ _ _ _

Ans: Process improvement

28. Read the below statements regarding Customer Service and answer appropriately
I. Customer service is mandatory because organisations like to spend money on it.
II. Customer service is mandatory because without it a company will lose customers.

Ans: Only Statement II is TRUE

29. Which of the following is a benefit of excellent customer service?

Ans: Profit goals are more likely to be reached/Once the customer is satisfied few aspects of
service may be ignored

30. Ravi is not satisfied with the current online grocery delivery service and is actively looking
out for an alternative online grocery company which can deliver groceries within 24 hours.
He represents which stage of the customer satisfaction levels?

Ans: Zone of defection

31. Preeti is happy with the health insurance services provided by LifeSure but is also constantly
approached by other insurance companies promising better services. She is planning to have
a discussion with the representatives of the other insurance companies. It represents which
stage of customer satisfaction levels?

Ans: Zone Of Indifference

32. Which of the following statements does NOT represent Customer Service?

Ans: Warning customers when they become irate or angry

33. A company's strategy to turn customers into repeat buyers and prevent them from switching
to a competitor is _ _ _ _ _ _

Ans: Customer Loyalty

34. Read the below statements and answer appropriately

I. Respect for the customers is essential for organisation success
II. Courtesy is the act of showing politeness

Ans: Both statements are TRUE

35. Customer satisfaction is significant for organisations because _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _

Ans: Happy and satisfied customers ignore competitors

36. Rajiv is a 30 year old millennial and is very knowledgeable about digital banking processes
and highly critical of transaction failures and further resolutions. He represents a _ _ _ _ _
customer.

Ans: THE KNOW-IT-ALL CUSTOMER

37. _ _ _ _ _ _ represents a situation where a customer thinks more highly of a company after it
has corrected a problem with their service.

Ans: Service Recovery Paradox

38. A customer submits an application for opening a new savings account. When you give the
customer some more forms to complete, he complains about all this is not necessary and is
slowing down approval of his application. In which of the following ways should you respond
to the customer?

Ans: Simply be patient with him.

39. Read the below statements and answer appropriately

I. Customer focus is the foundation for customer loyalty.
II. Empathy cannot become a competitive advantage because all companies empathise with
customers.

Ans: Only Statement I is TRUE

40. In customer services, going the extra mile indicates_ _ _ _ _ _ _ _

Ans: Making a special effort to achieve something and delight customers

41. According to the escalation matrix, a customer can approach the Banking Ombudsman in
case the grievance is not redressed within_ _ _days of lodging the complaint.

Ans: 30

42. Vivek has been working as a Senior Sales Manager for a consumer durables company. He
meets different customers, daily. He thinks, for _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ customers it is
essentials to set clear expectations and offer a list of options and highlight product at
customers price points.

Ans: THE DEAL MAKER CUSTOMER

43. Read the below statements and answer appropriately

I. Customer Centricity is outcome focused and intentional
II. Customer Service is Situational and reactive

Ans: Both statements are TRUE

44. Some customers cannot seem to make a decision, despite how many questions he/she asks
and gets the clarification. Such customers represents _ _ _ _ _ _ _?

Ans: THE INDECISIVE CUSTOMER

45. Read the below statements and answer appropriately

I. Customer Service is the general provision of a product or service and the first step in the
customer-centricity process.
II. Customer Centricity is transaction focused.

Ans: Only Statement I is TRUE

46. _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ represents an organizational mindset that places customers, rather
than product or sales, at the centre of the business.

Ans: Customer Centricity

47. Rajiv is a customer service executive in a leading bank and always has a friendly but
professional approach during customer interactions. It appropriately indicates which factor
of being customer focussed?

Ans: Keep a positive attitude.

48. Which of the following statement is incorrect?

Ans: Repetitive customer issues improve customer satisfaction.

 KNOW YOUR SBI- MODULE 3

1. Customer expectations

Ans: Keep changing

2. The basic need of the customer is _______ that drives him to your product or service.

Ans: The primary factor

3. In today's market, customers have the power because ______

Ans: They have many options to choose from

4. Customer expectations are ______________

Ans: Both Tangible and Intangible

5. The action of frontline employee reflects directly on organisational ___________

Ans: All of these

6. The process customers go through when they are building a relationship with company,
from the point of initial contact is known as ________

Ans: Customer Life Cycle

7. Which of the following is INCORRECT? Feedback must be used to improve ________

Ans: Customer experience

8. Greater Customer Satisfaction increases _________

Ans: Customer Loyalty

9. Basic needs of customers cannot be ___________.

Ans: Generated

10. Customer expectations depend on_______________

Ans: All of these

11. For an effective customer focus strategy we must focus on ___________

Ans: Both A & B

12. ___________of a company can impact the customer's purchasing decision.

Ans: All of these

13. If we are not able to fulfil the customer's basic need, ________________.

Ans: Our competitors will

 14. _________ is a prediction of how much value a business will gain from the entire course of
their relationship with any given customer.

Ans: Customer Life Cycle Value

15. _______ is a measure of a customer’s likeliness to do repeat business with a company or

brand.

Ans: Customer Loyalty

16. Customer Benefit - Customer Cost = ?

Ans: Customer Value

17. A _____ is defined as the customer’s desire for a product's or service's specific benefit for
him.

Ans: Need

18. Which of the following is a Want and not a Need?

Ans: Priority

19. Frontline employees are the _______ of the organisation.

Ans: Image Builders

20. Feedback provides insight into customers'________

Ans: All of these

21. If you meet the expectations of customer, the customer is likely to _____________

Ans: All of these

22. Customer satisfaction will directly reflect in ______

Ans: All of these

23. ________ is a measurement that determines how happy customers are with the
organisation’s products, services and capabilities.

Ans: Customer Satisfaction

24. Customer focus strategy must be changed regularly.

Ans: Yes, for improvement

25. The sum of all customer interactions and experiences is _____

Ans: Customer Relations

 26. Ongoing interactions between company and customer, offered by the company, chosen by
the customer is known as ________

Ans: Customer Engagement

27. ______________________ are responsible for changing customer expectations.

Ans: All of these

28. What can help in holding back customers?

Ans: Enhanced customer satisfaction

29. A satisfied customer is more likely to ________

Ans: All of these

30. Which of the following is a Need and not a Want?

Ans: Reliability

31. Which of the following is a Want and not a Need?

Ans: Recognition

32. Customer's wants are based on __________

Ans: All of these

33. Needs lead to Wants and Wants lead to Demand.

Ans: Correct Statement

34. Which of the following is a Need and not a Want?

Ans: Performance

35. ________ is a measurement that determines how happy customers are with the
organisation’s products, services and capabilities.

Ans: Customer Satisfaction

36. Multi-channel delivery offers ____ to the customer.

Ans: All of these

37. ___________of a company can impact the customer's purchasing decision.

Ans: All of these

38. We must use _________ to know the insights and enhance customer intimacy.

Ans: Empathy
39. For creating a personalised experience to the customer we must show____________. Select
the most appropriate option.

Ans: Empathy

40. Customer satisfaction will directly reflect in ______

Ans: All of these

41. A _______ is defined as the customer’s desire for products or services that are not
necessary, but which he wishes for.

Ans: Demand

42. Customer expectations are formed ___________ their engagement with you.

Ans: Before and After

43. Customer focus strategy demands that we work as ______ to create a consistent experience.

Ans: A Team

44. Which of the following is NOT Customer Centricity?

Ans: None of these

45. Which of the following forms a part of Customer Centricity?

Ans: All of these

46. Certain set of ideas about a product or service or a brand in the mind of the customer before
and after availing any product or service are called ____________

Ans: Customer Expectations

47. Customer Benefit - Customer Cost = ?

Ans: Customer Value

48. A _____ is defined as the customer’s desire for a product's or service's specific benefit for
him.

Ans: Need

49. Which of the following is a Want and not a Need?

Ans: Priority

50. Which of the following is a Want and not a Need?

Ans: Recognition
 KNOW YOUR SBI- MODULE 4

1. Which of the following words is most commonly used in courteous communication?

Ans: Please

2. Which of the following is NOT a stage of listening process?

Ans: Manipulating

3. When you render customer service with empathy, the customer will __________

Ans: Value their relationship with you

4. Practical application of good manners so as not to offend others is _______

Ans: Politeness

5. Using the right skills in communication with a frustrated customer, can help the customer
feel _________

Ans: Both A & B

6. Listening process does not involve ________

Ans: Pitching products

7. Positive attitude means being __________

Ans: Proactive

8. Listening process involves _______

Ans: All of these

9. Apologising to the customer when he is upset displays _____ behaviour.

Ans: courtesy

10. Good communication leads to a feeling of ____________ among customers.

Ans: All of the above

11. Good customer service requires, first and foremost, __________

Ans: Listening to the customer

12. Interrupting a customer while talking, reflects lack of

Ans: Respect

13. _________________ is a culturally defined phenomenon.

Ans: Politeness
 14. Who has said this? "Attitude is a little thing that makes a big difference."

Ans: Winston Churchill

15. You must be ____________towards your customer to know their perspective.

Ans: Empathetic

16. Which of the following is a benefit derived from good communication?

Ans: All of these

17. Empathy is the best way for you to show your customers that you really _____

Ans: Care for them

18. Effective communication includes _________

Ans: All of these

19. Listening process includes which of the following steps?

Ans: All of these

20. Which of the following is a rule of Courtesy?

Ans: All of these

21. What are the two types of attitudes?

Ans: Positive/Negative

22. Observing non verbal cues, asking relevant questions, demonstrating that you are interested
are all a part of ____________.

Ans: Effective Communication

23. Use of positive language in communication with customers reflects __________

Ans: All of these

24. When you tell the customer that all his needs will be taken care of, you display_______
(Choose the best answer.)

Ans: Optimism

25. Customer ________refers to all the words and actions that are used to show
the customers recognition and respect.

Ans: Courtesy
 26. Customers often seek __________ when contacting a brand as they want personalised
experience.

Ans: Human touch

27. Being polite implies being __________

Ans: Accommodating

28. Being positive and optimistic in dealing with customers, means

Ans: Both B & C

29. Being empathetic implies being__________

Ans: Interested

30. To create a personalised experience while communicating with the customer, the company
representative must _________

Ans: Both A and B

31. Empathy helps us communicate our ideas in a way that ___________

Ans: Makes sense to customers

32. Communication with the customers must be _______

Ans: All of these

33. Customer service is enhanced when you display_________

Ans: All of these

34. Which of the following expressions shows respect towards others?

Ans: All of these

34. We must apologise to the customer when he is ___________

Ans: Unsatisfied

35. Being courteous is being

Ans: Respectful

36. Which of the following is NOT a stage of listening process?

Ans: Convincing

37. While answering customer's technical questions ___________

Ans: Be sensitive and use simple language

 38. Technical questions of customers are best answered _________

Ans: By explaining in simple terms

39. Courtesy consists of ___________. Which of the following is INCORRECT?

Ans: Authority

40. Empathy improves _______

Ans: Both A & B

41. In communication with customers we must never use ______ language. Which of the
following is INCORRECT?

Ans: Harmless

42. Observing non verbal cues, asking relevant questions, demonstrating that you are interested
are all a part of ____________.

Ans: Effective Communication

43. We have a choice every day about what __________ we are going to have for the rest of the
day.

Ans: Attitude

44. When a positive attitude in customer service exists, the service staff will appear more

Ans: All of these

45. Which of the following is NOT a stage of listening process?

Ans: Convincing

46. When companies focus on using _______ in customer service, even a simple interaction can
become more impactful and memorable.

Ans: Empathy

47. The means of sending or receiving information is known as ________

Ans: Communication

48. Positive language is ________

Ans: All of these

Module 1, Assessment 1

1) Deep Learning is subset of AI.

True

2) Access in Private Blockchain is of____________

Centralized to one entity

3) "Did the Car Loan campaign impact Car loan business?" is an example of _________
analytics.
Prescriptive

4) What is the feature of Advanced chatbot?

Works on rule based algorithm and replies to basic questions

5) How many Blockchain types are in use?

Four

6) Who is known as father of AI?

John mccarthy

7) Media logs, Word, Text and PDF can be classified as________ data.
Structured
8) Which of the following options is not from the five V’s of Big Data?
Verification

9) _______describes what has happened over a given period of time.

descriptive

10) _______is the process of examining large and varied data sets.
Big data analytics

11) _describes what is likely to happen in the near future.

Descriptive/ Predictive

12) What is true in case of implementation of Blockchain technology in AML/KYC?

Option 1 and 2

13) Big data is an evolving term that describes any voluminous amount of data that has the
potential to be mined for information. It can be ______
All of the above

14) Which of the following option is not from the five V’s of Big Data?
Item 16

Visibility

15) Pilot scheme for small value payments in offline mode is announced by________.
em 18

RBI
16) Which is not the business benefits for Banks in deploying AI software?
Reduction in number of branches

17) _________ is subset of Machine Learning and Machine Learning is subset of ___________.
Deep, AI

18) What is the impact of data/information leak for any organization?

All of the above

19) Pick the odd one out

Artificial learning is subset of ML

20) Who created Bitcoin?

Satoshi nakamoto

21) What is the full form of RPA?

Robotic process automation

22) What is a node in Blockchain Technology?

Computer on blockchain network

23) What is the role of senior management in a bank’s product & services sales process cycle
using analytics?
Monitoring and tracking numbers

24) Where can you buy cryptocurrency?

All of the above

25) ___________technologies are used to scan legal and regulatory documents for compliance
issues
RPA

26) Pick the odd one out.

Block Chain

27) The data available in CBS can be classified as________ data.

Structured

28) An effective chatbot can have three factors. Choose the wrong option.
Consultation

29) Which is not the business benefits for Banks in deploying AI software?
Reduction in number of branches

30) Which of the statement is wrong in case of Blockchain Cross Border Transaction?
Restriction between national and international transactions

31) As per RBI’s pilot scheme for small value payments in offline mode, one of the terms by
RBI, which states that payment transactions in offline mode with AFA shall be at the choice of
the
User /RBI

32) Why to use AI in finance?

All the above
33) As per RBI’s pilot scheme for small value payments in offline mode, the total limit for offline
transactions on an instrument shall be?
Rs. 2000

34) Which is not the key outcome of application of AI technologies in banking industry?
Skilled employees

35) Public blockchain allows

It is open network

36) Which of the following is not an application of Blockchain?

3D printing

37) Each block of a blockchain consists of which of the following?

All of the above

38) Artificial Intelligence is about

Making a machine intelligent

39) The data from the CCTV coverage and weather forecast report is…….. data
Unstructured

40) ………….Describes what has happened over a given period of time

Descriptive

41) Which of the following is not the role of marketing for implementing analytics?
Design new products and services

42) Which type of blockchain provide maximum speed?

Option 1 and 3/ Private blockchain
43) Which is not the component of general framework of IoT in banking?
Banks collect information from connected devices used by the customers./ customer give
information related to their transactions

44) What does P2P stand for in blockchain parlance?

Peer to Peer

45) Which of the process not involved in analytics?

Data mining

46) XML data can be classified as…… data

Semi- Structured

47) In blockchain, blocks are linked….?

Backward to the previous block

48)Which of the following is not the benefit of using Blockchain in Trade Finance for finance?
Visibility of all liabilities

49) Which of the following is not a feature of BIG DATA?

Deals with structured data only.

50) Which of the following is not the benefit of using Blockchain in Trade Finance for asset
production?

51)………. Is the process of examining large and varied data sets.

Big data analytics
52) Which of the following is not true about Internet of Things (IoT)
People connected to internet

53) ……..is used in credit card scanning functionality in payment apps or ID scanning in
banks.

Image processing

54) Which of the following is not relevant to Artificial Intelligence?

It can perform only with human intervention

55) Which of the following is NOT true about blockchain?

It is owned by a single entity, hence it is not decentralized.

56) Transaction process flow includes ___________steps in Blockchain.

57) Which is not the advantage of IoT in Banking?

Permissioned read and/or write

58) Which of the following is not the benefit of using Blockchain in Trade Finance for
Finance?

Unique digital identity

59) Which of the following is not an application of Blockchain?

3-D Printing

60) Which is not the component of general framework of IoT In Banking?

Customers give information related to their transactions to the bank
61) Blockchain is the same as Bitcoin.
False

62) Who has coined Machine Learning?

Arthur Samuel

63) is used in credit card scanning functionality in payment apps or ID scanning in

banks.

IMAGE PROCESSING

64) Which option is not correct for Smart Contract?

It uses a distributed ledger system to store data on private databases.

65) As per RBI’s pilot scheme for small value payments in offline mode, the total limit for offline
transactions on an instrument shall be

Rs. 2000/- at any point of time.

66)As per RBI’s pilot scheme for small value payments in offline mode, who shall incur all
liabilities arising out of technical or security issues at merchant’s end?

The acquirer

67) Where can you store your cryptocurrency?

Digital wallet

68) Which is not the advantage of IoT in Banking?

No impact on security
69) Which of the following is not the benefit of using Blockchain for Supply chain management?
Dynamic data source

70) Big data is used to uncover

All the above

71) Pick the odd one out.

Artificial intelligence/ Satoshi nakamoto

73) The primary benefit of immutability is…

Tamper proof

74) "How to optimize the decision based on economic and consumer trends?" is an example of
_________ analytics.
Prescriptive

75)

Module 2, Assessment 1

1) Which one of the following is not a charge recovered by the Acquiring Bank from the
Merchant under MAB?

Installation Charges
2) Which of the following statements is true about MMID?

Both remitter and beneficiary need to have MMIDs for P2P transactions

3) Which one of the following is the platform used to process the transactions done
through BHIM Aadhar SBI Merchant app?
AEPS
4) As per the new rule the transaction limit through BHIM SBI Pay for Collect request is set as
Both the options 1 & 2

5) A customer often comes to your branch and request to send money through NEFT. For this
he fills the NEFT form daily and requests staff to put through the transaction. One day the SWO
has erroneously entered Rs.4000000/- instead of Rs.400000. To avoid such a situation, which
app you will suggest the branch to promote, which helps the Teller to avert risk?

SBI DIGI voucher

6) Under NUUP which number need to be dialed by the customer?

*99#

7) In BHIM SBI Pay, user can view latest _____________ transactions of last _________days
20 & 45

8) Which one out of the following options is not the pre-requisite for BHIM SBI Pay?

All the customers having any account with the bank.

9) These days we often hear the term BHIM apps. What is the full form of BHIM
Bharat Interface for Money

10) Which one of the following is the BHIM UPI app of State Bank of India
BHIM SBIPay
11) In BHIM SBI Pay, in case of Mobile device change and/or SIM change, the revised limit per
day is reduced to?
Rs.5000/- for 1 day

12) From which of the following options a user can not initiate the collect request in BHIM SBI
App?
Using name of beneficiary alone

13) What is the maximum transaction limit through easy PIN login option through YONO Lite
App?
100000/-

14) What is mPassbook in YONO Lite App?

Option to maintain electronic passbook in mobile

15) Sujata wants send Rs.1000 to her friend using IMPS P2A option. What are the beneficiary
details she requires for doing the transaction?
Beneficiary account number and IFS code

16) Mr. Suraj who is having a SB account with XYZ Bank has used his Debit card at a Super
Market. In MAB Terminology, what is XYZ Bank called?
Issuer

17) We often hear the term MMID associated with IMPS. What is the full form of MMID?
Mobile money identifier

18) Mr. Gupta runs a fancy store . He wants to use Bharat QR for receiving payments from his
customers. He wants the QR code to include amount also so that customer need not enter the
amount in their app. What is the name for such QR code.
Dynamic QR Code
19) What is the maximum transaction limit per day on BHIM SBI Pay?

100000/-

20) What is VPA in BHIM SBI Pay?

It is a unique ID linked with the account number

21) Which one out of the following options is not the pre-requisite for BHIM SBI Pay?
The mode of operation in the linked account should be jointly operated

22) One of our customers is afraid that his debit card may be cloned and misused. He wants to
control the usage of the card. For which type(s) of transactions, switching ON/OFF facility is
available?
All the above

23) Suresh has two savings bank accounts in the same bank. His mobile number is same. How
many MMIDs can he have and why?
Two

24) Can we do foreign currency outward remittance using IMPS?

No.

25) Which option is not available under UPI menu in YONO Lite App?

Collect payment

26) Which option is not available in pre-login section under YONO Lite App?

Forget App pin

27) A customer wants to register for our BHIM SBI Pay. The customer was explained about the
pre-requisite for the registration. What is not compulsory in Registration process for BHIM SBI
Pay?
Aadhar linked A/c

28) How many Banks one can manage in any UPI platform?
No such limit

29) An ATM Cardholder cannot block his ATM Card through which of the following option?
SBI Samadhaan

30) Which option is not true for BHIM SBI Pay?

Creation of VPA is compulsory

31) How to raise the complaint in BHIM SBI Pay?

All the above

32) Mr. Sushil wants to offer Aadhar based payment system at his shop..
Real time basis

33) How many transactions a user can view in BHIM SBI Pay?
20

34) Which option is not available under SBI Quick?

Disable accounts for UPI transaction

35) Which of the following are enquiry apps?

All the above
36) What is true about Quick Transfer through YONO Lite App?
Per transaction limit is Rs. 10000/- AND Per DAY transaction limit is Rs. 25000/-

37)NPCI is an umbrella organization for various retail payments and settlement systems. Not
related to NPCI?
NEFT

38)What is true about Quick Transfer through YONO Lite app?

User can send money using A/C no. and IFSC of beneficiary

39)What is true about Quick Transfer through YONO Lite App?

None of the above

40) How to register for missed call banking facility?

SMS need to be sent as ‘REG<SPACE>Account number

41) Mr. Srinivas is one of the valuable customer of your branch. You have provided him a
international Debit card…..
All the above

42) What is SBI Quick app?

App version of missed call Banking

43) Which of the following functionality is not available in DIGI voucher app?
Cash deposit in CC A/c

44) What is true about Quick transfer through YONO Lite app?
User can send money using A/c No. and IFSC
45) From which of the following options a user can not send money to the beneficiary through
BHIM SBI pay App?
Through VPA

46) IMPS limit per transaction: Rs. 2 Lacs, per day: Rs. 10 Lacs
47) UPI transaction grievance platform: All are valid.

48) Which of the following is not required for creating or resetting UPI Pin in BHIM SBI Pay?
Enter the last 4 digits of your Debit Card and expiry date.

49) What is the maximum no. of transactions one can do through BHIM SBI Pay app?
No such limit

50) Your friend is an SBI customer. He wants to make payments using BHARAT QR Code. Bit
he is not able….
Payment through BHARAT QR is available in Pre-login stage of yono LITE SBI App

51) Raju is a beneficiary of the Direct Benefit Transfer of the State Government. Credit is….
Aadhar Payment Bridge System (APBS)

52)Rita is performing basic banking transactions on her Aadhar enabled account using her
Aadhar and fingerprint….
Aadhar enabled Payment System (AEPS)

53) Immediate Payment Service (IMPS) has revolutionized interbank transactions. Please
identify the incorrect statement.
IMPS service is provided by the Reserve Bank of India

54) For the purpose of RFIDs under FASTAG, NHAI has divided all vehicles into how many
categories?
7
55) Suman wants to send some remittances to her father through IMPS. She is using Retail
Internet Banking of SBI. She has already added him as beneficiary. What is the maximum
amount she can remit?
Rs. 2 Lacs per transaction.

56) Mr. Sahil has to travel to Allahabad from Delhi by road. Name the product that will
help Mr Sahil to pay Toll tax online?

FastTag

57) What is true about SBI Secure OTP App?

MPIN must be of 4 digits

58) UPI supports various Non-Financial transactions from any PSP app. Identify the
wrong one from the list

Apply for Credit/Debit Card

59) A customer is having 11 different accounts in different banks. What is the maximum
number of accounts that can be mapped in BHIM SBI Pay?

No such limit

60) Kishor wants to send some money to his father using IMPS service. What is the
maximum amount that he can send?

Rs. 2 lacs per transaction

61) What is true about SBI Secure OTP app?

MPIN must be of 4 digits

62) The participants in an IMPS transaction are the following

Remitter, Beneficiary, Banks and National Financial Switch-NPCI

63) Kumar wants send Rs.2000 to his friend using IMPS P2P option. What are the
beneficiary details he requires for doing the transaction?

MMID and mobile number of beneficiary

64) Which non-financial transaction is not available under YONO Lite App?
Update PAN No.

65) What is the maximum transaction limit that can be set under UPI menu in YONO Lite App?
Rs. 100000/-

66) Chitra wants to transfer funds to her sister using IMPS under the Quick Transfer feature of
Retail INB of SBI. What is the maximum amount she can remit ?
Rs. 25000/-

67) What is true about Quick Transfer through YONO Lite App?
None of the above (Cannot receive money)
Module 3, Assessment 1

1) Which of the following is not an eligibility criteria for assessing PAPL for the customer?
There should not be an existing overdraft against SB account or SBI Insta…..

2) Which one of the following is not true regarding YONO wearable banking?
Customer can have a maximum 4 wearables…..

3) Which among the following is a platform for onboarding customer to YONO Retail
through Branch Support?
YONO Branch Portal

4) Which of the following is incorrect regarding bill payment without OTP obligations under
YONO?
YONO App>Quick Links>Setting>Service Request> OTP Management> Set Limit> Confirm

5) Which of the following is not the correct navigation to restrict Debit card usage through
YONO?
YONO>Quick links>hamburger menu>service request>Manage debit card>Manage usage

6) In ‘Transaction’ option in ‘YONO Cash’, customer can view the details of the respective
previous transaction. Which among the following transactions the user cannot view?
Expired

7) Which one of the following options is not true regarding YONO Krishi Gold Loan?

Customer may visit any branch of his choice, with gold ornaments, proof of land records/ proof
of agri activity…….
 8) What is the workflow for DAC?
e-DAC

9) Customer has been onboarded through YONO mobile App. for account opening. At the
end of the digital journey, he got a reference number. How can you support him?
Branch has to login through YONO Branch Portal through SSO….

10) Which of these products has been recently added under Khata in YONO Krishi?
KCC Review

11) I am a farmer customer of SBI and want to use YONO but I cannot read and understand
English. How can I use this?
YONO Krishi application can be used in any of 12 major regional languages.

12) Who are not the target customers of YONO?

Minor

13) In Insta Digital Saving Bank Account the aggregate of all credits in a financial year shall
not exceed
Rs. 200000/-

14) YONO Regular Account is opened with e-KYC process. Which of the following is not true
regarding Debit Freeze?
Yes, there will be debit freeze initially for the accounts opened.

15) Which of the following statements is not correct regarding NFS through YONO Branch
Portal?
These services are limited to non-per, agri segment and individual customers.

16) Which of the following statements regarding NFS request handled through YONO
Branch Portal is not correct?
The customer gets instant acknowledgment (by an SMS) on completion of data entry at maker
level.

17) Which category of YONO Krishi offers Insurance, investment products like Mutual
Funds, Demat accounts etc.?
Bachat

18) Which one of the options is not available in YONO under ‘Manage Debit Card’?
Limit to be set in multiples of 5000

19) How do we enable Biometric Access in YONO App?

Service Request>Settings>security>Enable biometric for YONO access

20) Can you manage your debit card limit through YONO?
User can manage card limit by login to YONO>Service request>Manage debit card>Manage
limits

21) Which of the following statements regarding YONO-Cash is correct?

Customer has to visit any YONO Cash enabled ATM/ Recyclers (YCP) within 240 minutes after
initiating YONO Cash request.

22) Which one of the following is not a Category-1 user of YONO Business?

Regulator

23) Which among the following is not a part of YONO Pay?

My Wearables

24) Which one of the following is not true regarding enabling Biometric Access for YONO
application by the user?
Branches are empowered to enable biometric access through SSO in CBS….
 25) The customer may send email regarding any information, feedback, query, or complaint
on YONO to

[email protected]

26) How many vernacular languages are available for changing the language settings in
YONO Krishi?
12

27) How can I download my account statement through YONO?

YONO App>Service Request>Hamburger Menu>Manage e-statement
YONO App- service request-account-manage e-statements
Yono app-hamburger menu-service request-account

28) Which one of the following is not the purpose of YONO Krishi?
For offering Simplified Lifestyle Banking services.

29) Find the odd one out from the following?

YONO Cash ATM- Minimum withdrawal limit is in multiples of 100

30) I have requested to stop my cheque payment through YONO. However, I want to cancel
the stop payment instruction. Is it possible in YONO?
User can revoke stop payment by login to YONO App>Service Request>Cheques>Revoke Stop
Cheque

31) Which one of the following option relates to PAPL?

YONO Global

32) Which one of the following statements regarding YONO Cash is false?

Partial withdrawals under single transaction number are allowed.

 33) Where are the soft copies of Account Opening documents stored in YONO
platform?

e-DAC

34) How can the YONO user escalate a complaint in YONO App?

Get in Touch>Support>Raise a Complaint

35) Which one of the following is not true regarding YONO Merchant App?

YONO SBI Merchant app has been developed for payments by our TBU

36) Who are not permitted to open Digital Savings Account through YONO
App/Portal?

Non-Resident Indian

37) Which of the following is not the feature of Chatbot in YONO?

It is implemented for understanding human voice and respond.

38) Which of the following is not true regarding YONO account opening?

Customer need not be a major by age, should be a literate and able to sign uniformly

39) Which one of the following is not a part of YONO Business?

INB

40) Which one of the following is not a variant of YONO Business?

Multiple Regulator

41) Which one of the following options is not true regarding YONO Krishi Gold Loan?

The validity of the reference number is 15 days from the date of generation.

42) If a NFS request for mobile number change is received, which one of the
following options is correct?
For Mobile number change, customer should possess both the Mobile Numbers
(existing registered Mobile Number and the new Mobile Number)

43) Which type of the SB account does not exist in YONO platform?

Instant

44) I am an illiterate farmer and want to avail Agriculture Gol Loan. How can I do it
with YONO?

Sorry, YONO cannot support illiterate or semi-literate customers.

45) Which of the following options is not available to YBBI checker while onboarding
customer request generated by the YBBI maker?

Cancel

46) Which of the following options is not a part of integration with YONO Business?

RINB
Module 4, Assessment 1

1) Among the given options, which SUB MENU is available under Vendor Maintenance of
SBI VPS app?

Employee Creation

2) Is "Maker-Checker" method applicable for "Update Employee" details in VPS APP?

Single user as a “checker” can update the employee details directly, without “maker-
checker” method.

3) On the request of a customer, his MAGSTRIP SBI Debit Card was temporarily blocked
through DCMS app. Whether this card can be unblocked or not?

MAGSTRIP CARD once blocked cannot be unblocked

4) At the time of creation of Vendor ID in SBI VPS app, which information related to vendor
is required to be provided?

Nature of payment, estimated payment during current financial year and nature of TDS.

5) Is it possible to DELETE employee details in VPS APP"

It is possible to delete employee details WITHOUT maker checker method.

6) User can Enquire about Non-Home Branch Vendor Details through ‘Vendor Master List’
in VPS APP. Which information is required for searching the Vendor ID details in VPS
APP?

Any one of these

7) Registration of Investor of Sovereign Gold Bond Scheme (SGBS) menu under Service
Integration APP available in CBS APP requires one Valid ID proof. Which IDs are valid
for this?
Registration of investor requires ANY ONE from PAN PASSPORT AADHAAR VOTER
ID TAN.

8) In how many ways enquiry of the purchase of Sovereign Gold Bolds can be done
through SGBS Menu available in SI APP under CBS APPs?

Enquiry by TWO Ways: By Date, By Reference number

9) Which statement is correct regarding PMSBY-New Registration in PMSBY portal

available in SI APP under CBS APPs?

New registration of person who is BI account holder, minimum balance Rs. 12, Age
between 18-70

10) Which functionalities DO NOT follow Maker – Checker process in DCMS app?
Temporary blocking

11) Branch/Office has observed that one employee’s details are NOT correct in VPS APP.
Which option is most appropriate in this situation?

If the title and account number are not correct then the branch/office can modify these
details through “update employee” button……

12) What type of CIFs (Customers) can be opened through KIOSK BANKING?
Only biometrically verified Aadhar based e-kyc CIFs

13) Who are the users who can approve/reject "Request for Refund (Manual Refund
Request) in TAXCPC?

LHO Intermediator (Level 1)/ Designated DGM (Level 2)/ FRT Users (Level 3)

14) From which financial year, details relating to TDS records pertaining to all Streams are
available in TAXCPC APP?

FY 2017-18 onwards.
 15) What activities can be performed by Bank Officer (BO) in Kiosk Banking APP?
Customer authorization or rejection, statement of account, balance enquiry, view BF
activity

16) What information is required to be entered for "Bill Enquiry" in VPS APP?
‘From’ date, ‘To’ date, File Status

17) For payment of bills to SBI employees, Employee Details needs to be created in VPS
application. Is it correct or not"

Yes, this is to be done to check whether employee details are correct or not in VPS app/
ALL ARE CORRECT

18) What activities can be performed through Sovereign Gold Bond Scheme (SGBS) menu
under Service Integration APP available in CBS APP?

Registration of investor, purchase of gold bond, enquiry

19) What payment modes are available to accept investment from Sovereign Gold Bond
Investors through SGBS menu available in SI APP under CBS APPs?

Cash, transfer from SBI, other Bank cheque

20) At the time of creation of Vendor ID in SBI VPS app, which information related to vendor
is required to be provided?

Nature of payment, nature of goods/ services, sub nature of services, DS

nature of services and section applicable for TDS.

21) Who will use ADMIN CARD related to particular Automated Teller Machine (ATM) or
Automated Deposit cum Withdrawal Machine (ADWM)?

ATM Channel Manager

22) Input Tax Credit (ITC) is available for the bills where invoice details entered in VPS
exactly match with invoice details uploaded by vendors.Before payment of bills, branch
VPS user can upload Invoice details as and when the same are received by them.
Through which menu VPS user can upload the invoice details in VPS Application?
Bill capture for GST
23) Among the below mentioned APPs, which apps are available under CBS APPs icon? (A)
FX-OUT (B)S-Core (C) LLMS (D) NPS (E) INB(F) TaxCPC

A,D,F—FXout, NPS, TaxCPC

24) Who can raise "Request for Refund (Manual Refund Request) in TAXCPC?
TaxCPC user at LHO or HO.

25) Among the given options, which SUB MENU is available under Vendor Maintenance of
SBI VPS app?

Vendor Master List

26) Among the given options, which option is correct?

For creation, PAN is mandatory if proposed bill is more than 20000/-

27) For creation of Employee Details, what information is required in VPS?

Even though information is already available in VPS, account number of the employee
has to be added.

28) Which third party applications can be accessed through Service Integration APP
available in CBS APP?

SGBS, PMSBY, PMJJBY, eKYC registered device, SBIePay, Suspicious transaction

reporting.

29) Which statement is most appropriate in respect to usage of SBI Debit Cards by
customers after card was temporarily blocked?

Once the card is blocked temporarily, the same cannot be used to perform any
transactions till the time it is unblocked.

30) Who can "APPROVE" the correction request raised in "Correction Module" of TAXCPC
for correction in TDS details originally provided by source team like HRMS, VPS etc.?
Designated DGM

31) Which statement is most appropriate with respect to accessing and working with CBS
APPs by the branch staff (both Officers & Clerical/award staff?

Working on various APPs available under CBS Apps depends on the capability level of
the user/ teller.

32) Which functionalities follow MAKER-CHECKER process in DCMS app?

Card unblocking

33) At the specific request of the customer, the maker at the home branch has changed
ATM channel usage as "No" (i.e. withdrawal of cash from ATM). Is it possible to change
Usage Type Setting (Channel Wise) in DCMS app?

Yes, because at the customer request branch can stop the ATM usage (Withdrawal of cash fro
ATM) through the DCMS App.

34) Who can "ACCEPT"(after APPROVAL of designated official) the correction request
raised in "Correction Module" of TAXCPC for correction in TDS details originally
provided by source team like HRMS, VPS etc.?
The request will be accepted by FRT at corporate center and sent to TRS Team for generation
of corrected results.

35) For what purpose is TAXCPC APP used?

To know the Branch TAN, to get TDS details, to download TDS certificate, to get reports related
to TDS.

36) In which menu of TAXCPC, Important message for the users will be displayed?
Dashboard

37) What actions can be performed with Debit Card Management System (DCMS) App?
Destroying of undelivered cards
 38) What process has to be followed in Sovereign Gold Bond Scheme (SGBS) menu under
Service Integration APP available in CBS APP for multiple purchases or investment in
Sovereign Gold Bonds by same investor?

Investor need to be registered only once…

39) What type of limits settings can be done by using "Limit Setting (Channel Wise)"
functionality available in DCMS app?
Both Offline ATM limit AND online ATM limit can be set

40) Which screen is created in VPS for payment of invoices which are originated by
LHO/Branches for debit to charges by multiple branches and to avoid double payments
of GST amount?

Sharing of expenses screen

41) What is the purpose of "Credit Note" menu in VPS app?

To enter details of credit notes issued by the vendor when bank wants to pay lesser
amount against already submitted invoice amount due to various reasons like penalty.

42) What "Buttons' are NOT available under Employee Details in VPS APP?
Both “Modify” and “suspend” are NOT available.

43) At the time of creation of Vendor ID in SBI VPS app, which information related to vendor
is required to be provided?

Nature of payment, Estimated payment during current financial year & applicable TDS.

44) On the request of customer, his EMV Chip based SBI Debit Card was temporarily
blocked by call centre. Whether this card can unblocked or not through DCMS app?
Can be unblocked through “Card unblocking” menu, available in DCMS menu, but WITH
MAKER- CHECKER process.
 45) Among the following what information is mandatory to "VIEW & DOWNLOAD TDS
RECORDS" from TAXCPC? (a) FY (Financial Year), (b) QTR (Quarter), (c) STREAM,
(d) PAN (e) CIF NUMBER / PFID / VENDOR ID (f) ACCOUNT NO.
A,b,c AND anyone of d,e,f

46) Undelivered ATM cards will be returned to the customer's branch after being temporarily
blocked by the vendor. What is the process to unblock these cards, if branch wants to
deliver the card to the customer in person?

Since the card is temporarily blocked by the vendor itself, it cannot be blocked through DCMS
app.

47) At the time of making various payments such as rent, commission, professional fees,
salary, interest etc., which system will deduct Tax Deduction at Source (TDS)?

TaxCPC App will debit the TDS

48) At the time of additional account linking to SBI Debit card through DCMS app, ATM
Account flag validation is applied. What should be the ATM Account flag number?

49) Among the given options, which SUB MENU is available under Vendor
Maintenance of SBI VPS app?

Vendor List

50) Among the given options, which SUB MENU is available under Vendor
Maintenance of SBI VPS app?

Employee Details

51) For temporary blocking of SBI Debit Card through DCMS, what information is
required to be entered in DCMS App?
Either Card Number or Account Number is required.
 52) What activities can be performed by Teller in the branch in PMSBY portal
available in SI App under CBS apps?
New Policy Registration, Policy Enquiry, Policy Delete, Policy Print, Policy Claim

53) At the time of creation of Vendor ID in SBI VPS app, which information related to
vendor is required to be provided?
Nature of payment, Estimated payment during current financial year & applicable TDS

54) Is “maker-checker” method applicable for “update employee” details in VPS app?
Yes, “maker-checker” method is applicable for “update employee” details in VPS App

55) Once the maker creates “employee details” through menu available under vendor
maintenance, the “employee details” has to be approved/ rejected by checker.
What is the path to approve/ reject the “Employee Details”?
Checker can approve/ reject “employee details” through “maker-checker” menu
available under “authorization”

56) Who can raise “Request for refund (manual Refund Request) in TAXCPC?
Any TAXCPC user.

57) Which details are available in “Miscellaneous Data Details option” in TAXCPC
app?
Details relating to TDS records pertaining to Miscellaneous for the Financial years 2018-
19 and 2019-20 (up to 3rd Nov 2019) are available.

58) One senior citizen customer visited the SBI Branch and requested branch to
stop POS & PG channels on her SBI Debit card to avoid possible misuse or
frauds on her debit card. What action can be done by the branch staff to fulfill the
request of customer?
Branch can stop both POS & PG channels through DCMS application- Usage type
setting (Channel wise) functionality.
756

1
Which of the following is NOT a category of source of system generated STR
(Suspicious Transaction Report)
Employee Initiated

2
Mr S did not open account after being informed about KYC requirements, the dealing
officer has sufficient reasons to believe that this activity should be reported as a
suspected transaction and a Suspicious Transaction Report (STR)/ Suspicious Activity
Report (SAR) must be raised. The source of such an offline Red Flag Indicator/ alert
falls under______category?
Customer Verification

3
Mr A has deposited Rupees forty nine thousand in cash in ten different accounts on the
same day and then transferred the so deposited amount from all the ten accounts to his
own personal account. Then he issued a cheque for effecting an RTGS in favour of an
educational institute. Mr A stated that he wanted to pay the money to the institute for
undertaking some course, while replying to query raised by the service manager. The
service manager is not convinced as the transactions are unnecessarily complex for the
stated purpose. He reported the incident to the branch head. The branch head decides
to report it as a Suspicious Transaction /Suspicious Activity through a Suspicious
Transaction Report/Suspicious Activity Report. What is the category of source of such
an STR/SAR?
Employee initiated

4
Which of the following is NOT a category of source of system generated STR
(Suspicious Transaction Report)
Customer verification

5
What is full form of FATF?
Financial Action Task Force

6
A customer, owning a small tea shop near your branch, entered the branch to deposit a
cheque of large amount in his account. The cheque had been purportedly drawn by
Coal India Ltd. Customer is not able to provide sufficient clarification to the queries of
the front-line staff. The lady associate refers the case to service manager. The customer
frequently changes his statements, when more detailed information is requested by the
service manager. It is evident to the branch officials that the information that the
customer has been providing is minimal and possibly false or inconsistent. The branch
head has decided to report it as a Suspicious Transaction /Suspicious Activity through a
Suspicious Transaction Report/Suspicious Activity Report. What is the category of
source of such an offline Red Flag Indicator (RFI)/ alert?
756

Employee initiated

7
Which of the following is NOT a category of source of system generated STR
(Suspicious Transaction Report) ?
Business Associates

8
Address provided by the customer Mr F was found to be non existent and an STR
(Suspicious Transaction Report) was raised by the branch. What is the source of such
an offline Red Flag Indicator (RFI)/ alert ?
Customer verification

9
On one fine day a customer approached the frontline staff of a bank branch and asked if
he could deposit Rs 25 lac in cash in his account on five different dates within a month
and whether the branch will report these transactions in Cash Transaction Report.
When replied in affirmation he tried to convince the staff to avoid reporting as each
transaction is below the threshold level. He deposited Rs 5 lac in cash and asked the
way outs, to avoid reporting further cash transactions in his account. One of the
associates reported this suspicious behaviour of the customer to the branch head. The
branch head decided to report it as a Suspicious Transaction /Suspicious Activity
through a Suspicious Transaction Report/Suspicious Activity Report. What is the
category of source of such an offline Red Flag Indicator (RFI)/ alert?
Employee initiated

10
Which of the following is NOT a category of source of Subjective STR (Suspicious
Transaction Report)/ SAR (Suspicious Activity Report)?
Typology

11
In a bizarre case same Directors/authorized signatories of a company requested to
open different accounts in the same branch under various sub-heads, which put the
branch officials on alert. The branch head contemplated reporting this incidence through
a Suspicious Transaction Report (STR)/ Suspicious Activity Report (SAR). What is the
category of source of such an offline Red Flag Indicator (RFI)/ alert ?
Customer verification

12
Suspicious Transactions Reports (STRs) can be classified into two following broad
categories that is_______________, based on the source of the alert which resulted in
escalating such STRs
System generated and subjective

13
756

What is the periodicity of undertaking exercise of Customer Risk categorization (CRC)

by AML-CFT Department?
Half yearly

14
Mr X provided false identification/address documents that appeared to be counterfeited,
altered, and inaccurate at the time of onboarding, the dealing officer and branch head
decided to raise a Suspicious Transaction Report (STR)/ Suspicious Activity Report
(SAR). The source of such an offline Red Flag Indicator (RFI) / alert falls
under______category?
Customer verification

15
What is the periodicity of Customer Risk Categorisation (CRC) for Medium risk
individuals and entities
8 years

16
What is Trade Based Money Laundering or TBML?
Using trade transactions to legitimize

17
A Branch received queries from NSA regarding Mr Z, who is a customer of the branch.
It was evident from the query that the customer was under investigation in regards to
terror financing offences/ terrorist activities. The branch decided to report this incident
through a Suspicious Transaction Report (STR)/ Suspicious Activity Report (SAR).
What is the category of source of such an offline Red Flag Indicator (RFI)/ alert
Law Enforcement Agency Query

18
As per Prevention of Money Laundering (Maintenance of Records) Rules-2005 what
does a “Suspicious Transaction” mean
All

19
In one of our branches an FDR was created of a large amount through the, so called
investment advisor, of an institution. Fraudsters handed over counterfeit FDR to the real
investor and subsequently within a span of few days approached the branch to avail a
loan/OD facility against original FDR and other forged documents. Due to the due
diligence on the part of the branch officials the fraud was averted. Should the branch
report this incident as suspicious Transaction/ Suspicious Activity through a Suspicious
Transaction Report ?
Yes

20
What is the designated role of DGM (B&O) as per the 'AML/CFT STRUCTURE in our
BANK
756

Dy MLRO

21
Our Paharganj branch remains heavily crowded during afternoon hours. One fine day
five customers arrived together in the branch in strange outfits, which was noticed by
the security guard on duty. He further noticed that initially when they had entered the
premises, they were continuously talking to each other, but thereafter, they got
dispersed and started pretending to ignore each other. The security guard raised the
issue to the branch head. When he enquired he noted that all the five persons were
having bearer cheques in their hands for encashment. All the cheques had been drawn
by a single drawer. They were not aware of any details regarding the drawer. The
branch decided to report this incident through a Suspicious Transaction Report (STR)/
Suspicious Activity Report (SAR). What is the category of source of such an offline Red
Flag Indicator (RFI)/ alert
Employee Initiated

22
Who is the "Designated Director" as per the 'AML/CFT STRUCTURE in our BANK
MD (R, IT&S)

23
Each Business Group/Circle/SBU designates an official to ensures proper
implementation of KYC/AML/CFT Policy in the Group/Circle/SBU and to report to the
Principal Officer (AML-CFT). What is the designation of such designated official
MLRO

24
What is the third Stage of Money Laundering after first two stages of Placement and
Layering
Integration

25
Who are nominated as MLROs at Circle level as per the 'AML/CFT STRUCTURE in our
BANK'
DGM&CFOs

26
A customer of a branch in Secunderabad, did not complete transaction after queries
were made by the dealing staff, regarding source of the funds and left the branch in
feigned anger, the branch diligently decided to report it as a Suspicious Activity through
Suspicious Activity Report/ STR. Under which category the source of the offline Red
Flag Indicator (RFI)/ alert will fall?
Employee initiated

27
Mr Y visited a bank branch to open account of a Pvt Ltd company. It was difficult to
identify beneficial owner due to complex legal structure and complex holdings in the
756

company as well as non cooperation by the directors. The branch got suspicious and
decided to file a Suspicious Transaction Report (STR)/ Suspicious Activity Report (SAR)
in this case. What is the source of such an offline Red Flag Indicator (RFI)/ alert ?
Customer verification

28
What is meant by 'Layering' process in Money Laundering Process
Seperation of illicit proceeds

29
Mr A, Branch head of a branch situated in a metro city, came across a news article in
the local daily newspaper. The details of the person reported in the newspaper for
money laundering offences was matching with an eminent customer of the branch. The
branch head prepared a Suspicious Transaction Report (STR) and sent to the controller
of the branch. What is the category of source of such an offline Red Flag Indicator
(RFI)/ alert
Media reports

30
In case a customer offers different identifications on different occasions with an
apparent attempt to avoid linkage of multiple transactions, and the frontline staff reports
this incident to you, in the capacity of a branch head. You should report this incident
through a Suspicious Transaction Report (STR)/ Suspicious Activity Report (SAR) as a
CDD measure. The source of this type of offline Red Flag Indicator (RFI)/ alert, will fall
under ________ Category
Customer verification

1
While opening an account in the name of a sole proprietary firm in addition to CDD of
the individual (proprietor) two documents or the equivalent documents thereof as a
proof of business/ activity in the name of the proprietary firm shall also be obtained. In
cases where it is not possible for the firm to furnish two such documents, can branch
open the account with obtaining one document only
Contact point verification

2
Which of the following statements regarding Customer Identification Procedures (CIP) is
correct
All are correct

3
Some of the Customer categories may carry more than the ordinary risk of money
laundering and terrorist financing and therefore warrant a better understanding and
closer scrutiny by the operating staff at all levels. Out of the list given below, which
Customer category does not fall under this category?
NGO promoted by UN
756

4
A well-designed KYC Policy complements the AML/ CFT systems deployed in a bank.
Which one of the of the following is not true/ correct
Prevents the bank from lending

5
Which of the following documents are required to be obtained as Customer Due
Diligence measures for opening an account in the name of a sole proprietary firm
Prescribed documents and additional 2

6
The Customer Acceptance Policy (CAP) section of the Bank’s Policy & Procedure
Guidelines on KYC/ AML/ CFT Measures lays down the criteria for acceptance of a
person as customer of the bank. Which of the following statement is not correct in
respect of CAP
CDD in respect of first account holder only

7
What is the periodicity of Customer Risk Categorisation (CRC) for low risk individuals
and entities?
10 years

8
The Customer Acceptance Policy (CAP) section of the Bank’s KYC Policy, lays down
the criteria for acceptance of a person as a customer of the bank. Which of the following
statement is not correct in respect of CAP?
Account opened in anonymous name

9
Ms C has instructed to transfer her account from branch 'A' to branch 'B'. The account is
fully KYC compliant account. The officer at branch 'B' has asked her to submit the
identity documents afresh, which she resisted.
What are the instructions regarding this?
C

10
Which of the following statement is correct regarding the identification of a beneficial
owner, where the customer is a partnership firm
More than 15%

11
Who should ensure compliance with the KYC guidelines at the time of on-boarding of a
customer
Officer in charge

12
756

Which of the following is NOT one of the key elements of the KYC/AML/CFT Policy of
the Bank
Customer maintenance

13
Which statement is NOT correct in respect of obtention of Aadhar number for CDD of an
Individual?
All are correct

14
Which of the following documents are not required by the bank for opening an account
of an unincorporated association or a body of individuals
Registration certificate and trust deed

15
What is NOT true regarding KYC/AML/CFT guidelines issued by RBI
Lending to borrowers who can not provide KYC

16
For opening an account in the name of a sole proprietary firm, CDD of the individual
(proprietor) is carried out. In addition to this, the bank should obtain two documents or
the equivalent documents thereof as proof of business/ activity in the name of the
proprietary firm. Which of the following documents, in the name of the firm, will serve
the purpose
All

17
Can the Mandatory and other ‘Optional’ information collected from the customer be
used for cross-selling or any other purpose
No

18
If, during Name Screening process, the ID of the applicant/customer is different from the
ID of the corresponding person in the negative lists, then the name and other identifiers
of the applicant/ customer are matched with those of the corresponding person given in
the
negative lists. In case the name and at least ____________ other identifiers match, it is
considered a
positive match.
2

19
Which one of the following options is not the purpose of name screening?
D

20
756

Which of the following statements regarding Customer Identification Procedures (CIP) is

NOT correct
More than 500000

21
Enhanced Due Diligence (EDD) is required to be exercised in respect of what type of
customers
All

22
Some of the Customer categories may carry more than the ordinary risk of money
laundering and terrorist financing and therefore warrant a better understanding and
closer scrutiny by the operating staff at all levels. Out of the list given below, which does
not fall under this category
Customers identified through v-cip

23
Bank shall take steps to make KYC non-compliant accounts KYC Compliant first.
However, if the customer is not forthcoming to provide the necessary documents and/or
information, Bank will take the steps towards phased imposition of partial / full freeze
and eventual closure of the account. Who is the authority to permit closure of such
accounts?
Branch head not below chief manager

24
Customer risk categorization (CRC) is carried out by AML-CFT Department at pre-
defined periodicity. Which of the following option regarding periodicity is not correct?
Weekly

25
Which of the following documents are not required by the bank for opening an account
of a Partnership Firm
Certificate of incorporation

26
The Customer Acceptance Policy (CAP) section of the Bank’s Policy & Procedure
Guidelines on KYC/ AML/ CFT Measures lays down the criteria for acceptance of a
person as customer of the bank. Which of the following statement is not correct in
respect of CAP
D

27
Which of the following statement is correct regarding identification of beneficial owner
based on Controlling ownership interest in case of a company?
More than 25%

28
756

Which of the following statement is correct regarding the identification of a beneficial

owner, where the customer is a trust?
15% or more

29
Which one of the following is not an Officially Valid Document” (OVD)
PAN

30
In which of the following instances, Customer Due Diligence (CDD) Procedure in the
case of an Individuals is required?
All

1
Which of the following data error will impact generation of alert by system in name
screening process?
Nationality

2
Review of risk categorization of customers should be carried out at a periodicity of not
less than once in _
6 months

3
Which of the following statement is /are correct regarding RBI instructions on Money
Laundering and Terrorist Financing Risk Assessment by Banks & other REs?
B

4
Non-compliance with KYC/AML/CFT standards can expose the bank to which of the
following combination of Risks?
B

5
As per laid procedure for implementation of Section 51A of the Unlawful Activities
(Prevention) Act, 1967, in case of match of name of any of the customers with the
particulars of designated individuals/entities is beyond doubt, the banks and other REs
shall _________such designated persons from conducting financial transactions, under
intimation to the Central [designated] Nodal Officer for the UAPA.
Prevent

6
Reporting Entities are required to carry out ‘Money Laundering (ML) and Terrorist
Financing (TF) Risk Assessment’ exercise periodically in respect of____
A
756

7
What is NOT true regarding RBI instructions on Money Laundering and Terrorist
Financing Risk Assessment by Banks & other REs
C

8
RBI directions make it mandatory for Banks/REs to report details of accounts
resembling any of the individuals/entities in the negative lists to various authorities.
Which set of the institutions given in the following options is the correct one?
FIU IND and Ministry of home affairs

9
Periodic updation of KYC is to be carried out at least once in every _____ years for
Accounts of Politically Exposed Persons (PEPs
2 years

10
As per laid procedure for implementation of Section 51A of the Unlawful Activities
(Prevention) Act, 1967, in case, the results of the verification indicate that the properties
are owned by or are held for the benefit of the designated individuals/entities, an order
to freeze these assets would by issued by Central (Designated) Nodal Officer under
Section____
51A of UAPA

11
Bank may face Regulatory punitive action for which of the following
Sanction list

12
which of the following may NOT impact proper reporting to FIU-India in Cross Border
Wire Transfer Reports- (CBWTR
marital status

13
Which of the following parameters is NOT considered for Customer Risk Categorisation-
Assets and outstanding liabilities

14
Reporting Entities are NOT required to carry out ‘Money Laundering (ML) and Terrorist
Financing (TF) Risk Assessment’ exercise periodically in respect of___
Auditors

15
Which type of erroneous data may NOT have impact on FATCA/CRS compliance
related issues
Education qualification
756

16
Not feeding of correct data regarding 'Nationality' may lead to which of the following
All

17
Feeding of erroneous data regarding ‘Customer Type’ may result into _
Denial of some benefits

18
Which of the following actions banks are required to take in case the match of any of the
customers with the particulars of designated individuals/entities is beyond doubt as per
laid procedure for implementation of Section 51A of the Unlawful Activities (Prevention)
Act, 1967?
A

19
If a Maker/Checker has selected 'Occupation Code' as 'Not Categorised" in CBS while
creating a CIF, what is further expected from the maker/checker as per extant Bank
instructions?
Mandatorily feed the data

20
Periodic updation of KYC is to be carried out at least once in every _____ years for
medium risk customers
8

21
Which of the following statement is NOT correct?
C

22
Which of the following will be consequence of feeding of erroneous data regarding
‘Permanent Account Number (PAN)/ Form No. 60’
All

23
As per the laid procedure for implementation of Section 51A of the Unlawful Activities
(Prevention) Act, 1967,in case, the results of the verification indicate that the properties
are owned by or are held for the benefit of the designated individuals/entities, an orders
to freeze these assets under Section 51A of the UAPA would be issued. Which of the
following statement is wrong regarding the order so issued?
C

24
756

Which of the following data error will impact result of name screening by AMLOCK
software?
Country code

25
Enhanced due diligence is required to be undertaken in respect of which type of
customers
Medium and high risk

26
As per the laid procedure for implementation of Section 51A of the Unlawful Activities
(Prevention) Act, 1967, if an individual or entity has evidence to prove that it's funds are
inadvertently frozen, it shall move an application giving the requisite evidence, in writing
to_
Concerned bank

27
The procedure laid down in the UAPA Order dated February 2, 2021 requires the Banks
to maintain the updated list of designated individuals & entities, approved by UNSC, in
which form
Electronic form

28
Which of the following is a probable impact due to account opened with wrong name?
C

29
Which among the following does not lead to data impurity
Conforming data

30
The procedure laid down in the UAPA Order dated February 2, 2021 requires the Banks
to run a check on given parameters on a _____basis to verify whether individuals or
entities listed are holding any funds, financial assets or economic resources or related
services held in the form of bank accounts
Daily

1
Which among the following is/are among roles and responsibilities of Designated
Authority under Whistle Blower Policy :
I) The Designated Authority will be responsible to implement the Policy and ensure that
the Policy is known to all employees
II) Appoint/authorise any official to conduct an investigation under this Policy and submit
the report to Designated Authority.
III) Ensure that the identity of Whistle Blower is not disclosed. It also provides necessary
756

safeguard and protection to the employees who disclose the instances of unethical
practices/ behaviour observed in the Bank.
IV) The Designated Officer shall submit consolidated status report of the bank, to the
Audit committee of the Board (ACB) on quarterly basis, with Action Taken Report
Only 1,2 and 3

2
According to Bank’s guidelines on fraud prevention in Cash Credit Limits which of the
following statement is/are correct :
I) The immovable security (Primary or Collateral) to be inspected at the time of
accepting the property for the first time and yearly thereafter. &amp; Ownership &amp;
Possession status of the property to be ascertained by making enquiries with the
neighbourhood and occupant of the property to be complied with.
II) High value transactions in CC account to be scrutinized to ensure against possible
diversion / siphoning.
III) Noting of charge with revenue authority on mortgaged property to be ensured within
3 years of creation of EM.
IV) CIBIL report to be periodically generated and scrutinized to ascertain borrowing from
other banks/ FIs
Only 2 3 and 4

3
Which option is incorrect in respect of following statement? Vigilance as a tool ensures
Work life balance

4
Fraud Mitigation Measures include surprise verification of gold loans. What is the
stipulated periodicity for surprise verification in Agri gold loans
Quarterly

5
According to Bank’s guidelines on fraud prevention in Forex, which of the following
statement is/are correct :
I) Goods meant for export to be kept along with stocks meant for domestic sale.
II) Credit limit to be sanctioned after detailed appraisal / assessment duly supported by
documentary evidences.
III) Export Packing Credit (EPC) to be released after obtaining copies of confirmed
orders and to be liquidated out of export proceeds.
IV) ECGC guarantee cover to be obtained and guidelines to be ensured.
Only 1 and 4

6
Any employee (officer / award) willing to disclose information under Whistle Blower
Policy, may do so in which of the following manner
All

7
756

As per Whistle Blower Policy of our Bank, the whistle blower is a/an __
Employee of the bank

8
Bank’s guidelines are in place for Fraud prevention and mitigation measures in SME
loans. which of the following statement is/are correct in respect of frauds owing to
fabricated financial and forged title deed:

I) Check the authenticity of the documents/ reports/ certificates etc. with UDIN and the
key fields provided by the certifying Chartered Accountants.
II) Reporting of Third-Party Entity (TPE) to IBA/ ICAI for black listing.
III) Justification of limits for the group concerns, proper assessment, satisfying about
business model is essential to avoid accommodation loans.
IV) Obtention of CIBIL report only on borrowers and not on guarantors.
Only 2 and 3

9
The process of investigation will be completed within ___days of receipt of complaint
under Whistle Blower Policy
45

10
Which among the following is/are among roles and responsibilities of Reviewing
Authority under Whistle Blower Policy :
I) Functioning of the Policy will be reviewed by the Reviewing Authority on quarterly
basis
II)Upon receiving the investigation report along with Designated Authority’s remark and
recommendation, Reviewing Authority may take a view on closure of the complaint or
forward the same to the concerned department for initiation of disciplinary proceedings.
III) The Reviewing Authority will be responsible to implement the Policy and ensure that
the Policy is known to all employees
IV) If any person (Whistle Blower) is aggrieved by any action on the ground that he is
being victimized due to the fact that he had filed a complaint or disclosure, he may file
an application before the Reviewing Authority, seeking redressal in the matter, wherein
the Reviewing Authority may give suitable directions to the concerned person or the
authority
Only 1 2 and 4

11
Bank’s guidelines are in place for Fraud prevention and mitigation measures in SME
loans. Which of the following statement is/are incorrect in respect of frauds owing to
fabricated financial and forged title deed:

I) Check the authenticity of the documents/ reports/ certificates etc. with UDIN and the
key fields provided by the certifying Chartered Accountants.
II) Reporting of Third-Party Entity (TPE) to Law Enforcement Agencies for black listing.
III) Justification of limits for the group concerns, proper assessment, satisfying about
756

business model is essential to avoid accommodation loans.

IV) Conduct of periodic stock audit to be ensured and due closure of Audit report.
Only 2

12
As per confidentiality mechanism of whistle blower, the identity of the whistle blower
remains with the
Designated authority

13
According to Bank’s guidelines on fraud prevention in WHR which of the following
statement is/are correct :
I) Warehouse/ Godowns to be visited and stocks to be verified periodically. II) It is to be
ensured that underlying stocks are segregated/ properly tagged with Bank’s name.
III) Market Price advised by Collateral Manager to be cross-checked with local Mandi/
MCX.
IV) Financing of stocks held in borrowers godowns may be permitted
Only 1 2 3 and 4

14
According to Bank’s guidelines on fraud prevention in WHR which of the following
statement is/are incorrect :
I) Warehouse/ Godowns to be visited and stocks to be verified periodically. II) Financing
of stocks held in borrowers godowns may be permitted.
III) Market Price advised by Collateral Manager to be cross-checked with local Mandi/
MCX.
IV) It is to be ensured that underlying stocks are segregated/ properly tagged with
Bank’s name
Only 2

15
The action taken against each disclosure will be put up to the Reviewing Authority within
___days of receipt of complaint under Whistle Blower Policy.
7

16
As a part of pre-sanction Survey for Home loans and Home Related Loans TAN of
borrower and employer as per Form 16 is to be verified form
Incometaxindiaefiling

17
Fraud Mitigation Measures include surprise verification of Agri gold loans. Surprise
verification of gold loans is done by
An officer other than joint custodian

18
756

As a part of pre-sanction Survey for Home loans and Home Related Loans TDS of
borrower is to be verified form
Incometaxindiaefiling

19
As a part of pre-sanction Survey for Home loans and Home Related Loans GST
Registration number of borrower and dealer is to be verified form
Cbec

20
According to Bank’s guidelines on fraud prevention in SRTO which of the following
statement is/are correct :
I) Registration of vehicle and noting of Bank’s hypothecation charge in the books of
RTO to be done and verified from “vahan.nic.in” site.
II) Physical verification of assets created should not be insisted.
III) Assets/security created out of Bank’s finance to be verified immediately after
disbursement.
IV) Inspection of the vehicles and borrower to be done immediately after default of one
instalment and procedure for Seizure to be initiated so that fraud if any, get unearthed
immediately
Only 1 3 and 4

21
According to Bank’s guidelines on fraud prevention in SME loans relating to disposal of
collateral security which of the following statement is/are correct : I) Bank should file
application for urgent hearing before DRAT to vacate the stay to be complied/ ensured,
and after vacating the stay, the properties should be sold under SARFAESI Act, II)
Details of property to be registered with CERSAI and CERSAI ID certificate for
mortgaged properties to be kept on record, III) Copies of title deeds must be obtained at
the time of creation of mortgage, IV) Independent verification of mortgaged properties to
be carried out only once
Only 1 and 2

22
What is incorrect as per Whistle Blower Policy of the Bank
Investigators of finders

23
Which of the following is not a security feature in Cheque Truncation System (CTS-
2010) for Fraud Mitigation Measures
Telephone number field

24
Who is the Reviewing Authority under whistle blower policy of the Bank
CGM Fraud monitoring department

25
756

According to Bank’s guidelines on fraud prevention in Asset Backed loans which of the
following statement is/are correct : I) Physical verification of the property must be done
personally by the concerned officials. Submission/ uploading of security inspection
report along with snapshots through eLLMS App to be carried out as per extant
guidelines, II) Abnormal increase or decrease in valuation to be adjusted liberally, III)
Black listing of empanelled valuer who had done the wrong valuation to be done, IV)
Search report encumbrance certificate for the intervening period, i.e. from the date of
TIR to the date of deposit of original Title deeds / creation of EM should be obtained and
held on record, as part of equitable mortgage documents.
Only 1 3 and 4

26
According to Bank’s guidelines on fraud prevention in Forex, which of the following
statement is/are incorrect :
I) Goods meant for export to be segregated from stocks meant for domestic sale.
II) No Cheque facility is to be provided for EPC account
III) Export Packing Credit (EPC) to be released on request.
IV) Credit officials handling forex/ EPC to be given adequate training.
Only 3

27
According to Bank’s guidelines on fraud prevention in term loan, which of the following
statement is/are correct :
I) Disbursement to be made to the account of borrower
II) Immediate inspection after purchase of machinery to be done to ensure proper
utilization of funds.
III) Transaction with related party to be allowed without restrictions
IV) Post sanction inspection to be done at periodic interval to ensure end use of funds
Only 2 and 4

28
According to Bank’s guidelines on fraud prevention in collateral security which of the
following statement is/are correct :
I) TIR to be obtained after every 2 years or at the time of enhancement.
II) Display of Bank’s board at prominent place in the unit.
III) Proper scrutiny of the lawyer’s report and valuation report.
IV) Charge on Collateral securities (mortgaged properties) to be recorded in revenue
record. Periodic Encumbrance Certificate to be obtained
Only 2 3 and 4

29
In COVID-19 Pandemic environment fraudsters may try to open new accounts
containing terms such as COVID / CORONA. According to Bank’s guidelines on fraud
prevention which of the following statement is/are correct:
I) Customers should be made aware of the increasing risk of online frauds through
phishing emails, SMS, fraudulent loan and moratorium offers, fake COVID-19 sites and
apps, fake banking and insurance websites etc.
756

II) Branches should be more vigilant while opening accounts in the name of charitable
institutions/ NGOs.
III) Sudden increase of Government credit observed in accounts of the person who may
not be entitled for such grants, should be discreetly enquired into, before allowing
withdrawal.
IV) A list of such accounts opened since February 2020 may be extracted and verified
Only 1 2 3 and 4

30
Who is the Designated Official under whistle blower policy of the Bank
DGM&CFO for circles
 KYC AML MODULE 4- VIGILANCE MASTER KEY

1. According to Bank’s guidelines on fraud prevention in SRTO which of the following statement
is/are correct :

I) Registration of vehicle and noting of Bank’s hypothecation charge in the books of RTO to be
done and verified from “vahan.nic.in” site.

II) Physical verification of assets created should not be insisted.

III) Assets/security created out of Bank’s finance to be verified immediately after disbursement.

IV) Inspection of the vehicles and borrower to be done immediately after default of one instalment
and procedure for Seizure to be initiated so that fraud if any, get unearthed immediately

Ans: Only I, III and IV

2. According to Bank’s guidelines on fraud prevention in WHR which of the following statement
is/are correct :

I) Meaningful pre-sanction survey to be carried out to ascertain identity, address, credit

worthiness and integrity of the Proprietor of the firm. II) Adequate Insurance Cover for the
commodity / stock to be ensured, due date of insurance to be diarized.

III) Market Price advised by Collateral Manager to be cross-checked with local Mandi/ MCX.

IV) Any adverse report on Collateral Manager to be shared immediately with Corporate Centre.

Ans: Only I, II, III and IV

3. Fraud Mitigation Measures include surprise verification of Agri gold loans. In surprise verification
of gold loans the identified official should ensure that the number of gold loan bags tally with the
number of accounts reported in the:

Ans: Loan Balance File/CCOD file (generated at EoD of previous working day)

4. Which option is incorrect in respect of following statement? Vigilance as a tool ensures:

Ans: Work life balance

5. According to Bank’s guidelines on fraud prevention in E-DFS, which of the following statement
is/are correct :

I) Bank wise segregation of stock be ensured. Diversion of funds to entities engaged in unrelated
activities be examined properly

II) Depletion of stock to be converted into reduction in liability

III) Check the authenticity of the documents/ reports/ certificates etc. with UDIN and the key fields
provided by the certifying Chartered Accountants.
IV) Pre/Post sanction surveys to be carried out in a meaningful manner.

Ans: Only I, II, III and IV

6. In COVID-19 Pandemic environment fraudsters may try to open new accounts containing terms
such as COVID / CORONA. According to Bank’s guidelines on fraud prevention which of the following
statement is/are correct:

I) Customers should be made aware of the increasing risk of online frauds through phishing emails,
SMS, fraudulent loan and moratorium offers, fake COVID-19 sites and apps, fake banking and
insurance websites etc.

II) Branches should be more vigilant while opening accounts in the name of charitable institutions/
NGOs.

III) Sudden increase of Government credit observed in accounts of the person who may not be
entitled for such grants, should be discreetly enquired into, before allowing withdrawal.

IV) A list of such accounts opened since February 2020 may be extracted and verified

Ans: Only I, II, III and IV

7. The process of investigation will be completed within ___days of receipt of complaint under
Whistle Blower Policy.

Ans: 45 Days

8. The Reviewing Authority, under Whistle Blower Policy shall submit quarterly status report with
Action Taken Report to the :

Ans: Audit Committee of the Board (ACB)

9. Preventive Vigilance Committee (PVC) is one of the tools for exercising preventive vigilance.
Which of the following statement is/are correct:

I) The Preventive Vigilance Committee is neither a ‘power centre’ nor the sole means for exercising
preventive vigilance.

II) It is akin to the ‘Knowledge Circle’, aimed at prevention of loss and enhancement of performance

III)The meetings of PVCs be held at least once in 6 months.

IV) The PVC submits status report and Action Taken Report to the Audit Committee of the Board on
annual basis.

Ans: Only I and II

10. PIDPI means

Ans: Public Interest Disclosure & Protection of informer

11. Bank’s guidelines are in place for Fraud prevention and mitigation measures in SME loans. which
of the following statement is/are correct in respect of frauds owing to fabricated financial and
forged title deed:I) Check the authenticity of the documents/ reports/ certificates etc. with UDIN
and the key fields provided by the certifying Chartered Accountants.

II) Reporting of Third-Party Entity (TPE) to IBA/ ICAI for black listing.

III) Justification of limits for the group concerns, proper assessment, satisfying about
business model is essential to avoid accommodation loans.

IV) Obtention of CIBIL report only on borrowers and not on guarantors.

Ans: Only I, II and III

12. If Whistle Blower is aggrieved by any action on the ground that he is being victimized due to the
fact that he had filed a complaint or disclosure, he may file an application before the

Ans: Reviewing Authority

13. According to Bank’s guidelines on fraud prevention in GSS/ Stand Up India/ MUDRA which of
the following statement is/are correct :

I) Loan proposal to be processed and accounts to be opened through LOS only.

II) Sanctioning officer to visit the unit, meet promoters and carry out proper due
diligence before sanctioning the loan.

III) Due diligence on supplier- supplier may be a related party.

IV) Charge on Collateral securities (mortgaged properties) to be recorded in revenue record.

Periodic Encumbrance Certificate to be obtained.

Ans: Only I, II and IV

14. Which of the following is not among protection available to a whistle blower?

Ans: Protection from adverse penal action even when disclosure is frivolous

15. According to Bank’s guidelines on fraud prevention in High Value Banking Frauds, which of the
following statement is/are incorrect :I) Genuineness of the buyers should be verified to ascertain
their capability of huge buying

II) Meaningful analysis of stock statements should be carried out

III) Past track record and status of the customers may be ignored
IV) Financial statements and other documents should be thoroughly checked for their genuineness
through various online sources e.g. ROC website, UDIN, GSTN network etc. End use of the funds to
be ensured.

Ans: Only III

16. Which of the following statement is/are correct about activities under the purview of the Whistle
Blower Policy

I) Corruption, frauds, misuse/abuse of official position

II) Decision taken by the committees established by the Bank

III) Manipulation of data/ documents

IV) Accusation with non verifiable contents

Ans: Should be Only I and III (but two options with Only I, II and III) Choose the 3rd option (

17. As per Whistle Blower Policy of our Bank, the whistle blower is a/an ___

Ans: Employee of the Bank making a disclosure

18. According to Bank’s guidelines on fraud prevention in High Value Banking Frauds, which of the
following statement is/are correct :

I) A proper scrutiny of debtors should be carried out.

II) Financial statements should be scrutinised by field staff.

III) Genuineness of various documents should be ascertained.

IV) Effective exchange of information between banks should be strengthened.

Ans: Only I, II, III and IV

19. Which of the following is not a security feature in Cheque Truncation System (CTS-2010) for
Fraud Mitigation Measures?

Ans: Telephone number field

20. The Whistle Blower Policy has been modified as per

Ans: All the above

21. According to Bank’s guidelines on fraud prevention in SME loans relating to disposal of collateral
security which of the following statement is/are correct : I) Bank should file application for urgent
hearing before DRAT to vacate the stay to be complied/ ensured, and after vacating the stay, the
properties should be sold under SARFAESI Act, II) Details of property to be registered with CERSAI
and CERSAI ID certificate for mortgaged properties to be kept on record, III) Copies of title deeds
must be obtained at the time of creation of mortgage, IV) Independent verification of mortgaged
properties to be carried out only once
Ans: Only I and II

22. As a part of pre-sanction Survey for Home loans and Home Related Loans seven digit certificate
number on form 16 is to be verified form :

Ans: https://contents.tdscpc.gov.in

23. Who is the Reviewing Authority under whistle blower policy of the Bank?

Ans: CGM (Fraud Monitoring Department)

24. As a part of pre-sanction Survey for Home loans and Home Related Loans TAN of borrower and
employer as per Form 16 is to be verified form :

Ans: https://incometaxindiaefiling.gov.in

25. According to Bank’s guidelines on fraud prevention in collateral security which of the following
statement is/are correct :

I) TIR to be obtained after every 2 years or at the time of enhancement.

II) Display of Bank’s board at prominent place in the unit.

III) Proper scrutiny of the lawyer’s report and valuation report.

IV) Charge on Collateral securities (mortgaged properties) to be recorded in revenue record.

Periodic Encumbrance Certificate to be obtained.

Ans: Only II, III and IV

26. Which of the following is NOT among different mechanisms of vigilance?

Ans: Coercive Vigillance

27. According to Bank’s guidelines on fraud prevention in Forex, which of the following statement
is/are correct :

I) Goods meant for export to be segregated from stocks meant for domestic sale.

II) Cheque facility is to be provided for EPC account

III) Export Packing Credit (EPC) to be released on request.

IV) Credit officials handling forex/ EPC to be given adequate training.

Ans: Only I and IV

28. According to Bank’s guidelines on fraud prevention in Forex, which of the following statement
is/are incorrect :

I) Goods meant for export to be segregated from stocks meant for domestic sale.

II) No Cheque facility is to be provided for EPC account

III) Export Packing Credit (EPC) to be released on request.

IV) Credit officials handling forex/ EPC to be given adequate training.

Ans: Only III

29. According to Bank’s guidelines on fraud prevention in Cash Credit Limits which of the following
statement is/are correct :

I) Transfer of funds among the family concerns to be permitted without any limit.

II) TIR to be obtained after every 3 years or at the time of enhancement.

III) Noting of charge with revenue authority on mortgaged property to be ensured immediately
after creation of EM.

IV) CIBIL report to be periodically generated and scrutinized to ascertain borrowing from other
banks/ FIs

Ans: Only II, III and IV

30. Cost on Preventive Vigilance vis a vis Corrective maintenance and failure cost follow a ratio

Ans: 1:10:100

1. Fraud Mitigation Measures include surprise verification of gold loans. What is the
stipulated periodicity for surprise verification in Agri gold loans?

Ans: Quarterly

2. Which of the following is NOT among Mandatory Standard Cheque Security Features as
per CTS 2010 Guidelines:
I) Standardized Field Placements
II) RBI’s Logo in UV Ink
III) Account Number Printed in Reverse in a Black Box
IV) UV Band in variable fields

Ans: Only II

3. The Reviewing Authority, under Whistle Blower Policy shall submit quarterly status report
with Action Taken Report to the :

Ans: Audit committee of the Board (ACB)

 4. Preventive Vigilance covers which areas of banking activities?

Ans: All of the above

5. Which of the following statement is/are incorrect about formation of Preventive Vigilance
Committees at branches / operating units of the Bank:

Ans: Branches having staff strength of 20 or more

6. According to Bank’s guidelines on fraud prevention in Cash Credit Limits which of the
following statement is/are correct :
I) The immovable security (Primary or Collateral) to be inspected at the time of accepting
the property for the first time and yearly thereafter. &amp; Ownership &amp; Possession
status of the property to be ascertained by making enquiries with the neighbourhood and
occupant of the property to be complied with.
II) High value transactions in CC account to be scrutinized to ensure against possible
diversion / siphoning.
III) Noting of charge with revenue authority on mortgaged property to be ensured within 3
years of creation of EM.
IV) CIBIL report to be periodically generated and scrutinized to ascertain borrowing from
other banks/ FIs

Ans: Only I, II and IV

7. Which of the following statement is/are correct about activities under the purview of the
Whistle Blower Policy
I) Corruption, frauds, misuse/abuse of official position
II) Decision taken by the committees established by the Bank
III) Manipulation of data/ documents
IV) Accusation with non verifiable contents

Ans: Only I, II and III (Same two options)

8. As per Alertness Award Scheme of the Bank, a citation or certificate of merit may be given
under :

Ans: Category I

9. Fraud Mitigation Measures include surprise verification of Agri gold loans. In surprise
verification of gold loans the identified official should ensure that the number of gold loan
bags tally with the number of accounts reported in the:

Ans: Loan Balance file / CCOD file (generated at the EoD of the previous working day)

10. Which of the following statement is/ are correct about Identification / Reporting /
Collation and Analysis of Near Miss Event (NME):
I) The Bank shall treat events for which recovery has been made on the same business day
of the event as NME.
 II) Capturing NMEs as many as possible, even though not all of them will have the same
importance.

Ans: Both I and II

11. According to Bank’s guidelines on fraud prevention in High Value Banking Frauds, which of
the following statement is/are incorrect :
I) Genuineness of the buyers should be verified to ascertain their capability of huge buying
II) Meaningful analysis of stock statements should be carried out
III) Past track record and status of the customers may be ignored
IV) Financial statements and other documents should be thoroughly checked for their
genuineness through various online sources e.g. ROC website, UDIN, GSTN network etc.
End use of the funds to be ensured.

Ans: Only III

12. Bank’s guidelines are in place for Fraud prevention and mitigation measures in SME loans.
which of the following statement is/are correct in respect of frauds owing to fabricated
financial and forged title deed:
I) Check the authenticity of the documents/ reports/ certificates etc. with UDIN and the
key fields provided by the certifying Chartered Accountants.
II) Reporting of Third-Party Entity (TPE) to IBA/ ICAI for black listing.
III) Justification of limits for the group concerns, proper assessment, satisfying about
business model is essential to avoid accommodation loans.
IV) Obtention of CIBIL report only on borrowers and not on guarantors.

Ans: Only I, II and III

13. According to Bank’s guidelines on fraud prevention in Cash Credit Limits which of the
following statement is/are incorrect :
I) Business model/ need for all sister concerns and justification/ need for limits to be
established on approval. Transfer of funds among the family concerns to be probed with
extra due diligence.
II) TIR to be obtained after every 5 years or at the time of enhancement.
III) Irregularity report to be submitted annually and comments thereon to be acted upon.
IV) CIBIL report to be periodically generated and scrutinized to ascertain borrowing from
other banks/ FIs

Ans: Only I and IV

14. Which option is incorrect in respect of following statement? Vigilance as a tool ensures:

Ans: Work life balance

15. Preventive Vigilance Committee (PVC) is one of the tools for exercising preventive
vigilance. Which of the following statement is/are incorrect :
I) 30% of staff members, minimum 3 officers / employees should be co-opted on the PVC
of each unit.
 II)The head of the Branch / Unit and official dealing with operational risk would be
permanent members and other members to be rotated at quarterly intervals.
III)The meetings of PVCs be held at least once in 6 months.
IV)The controllers (any officer from controlling office-designated for the purpose) to guide
the staff in identifying the areas of vulnerability to frauds / malpractices, visit the branches
/ units periodically and if possible, to attend meetings of PVCs, at least once in 6 months.

Ans: Only II and III

16. In case of payment of Non-Home cheque of ₹5 lakh and above and any suspicious
transactions irrespective of amount involved, the drawer is to be contacted over

Ans: Registered Mobile Number of the drawer

17. Which of the following is an apt description of a Near Miss Event (NME)

Ans: Near Miss Event is an event for which no financial loss has been incurred not because of
effective controls but due to fortuitous circumstances.

18. As per Whistle Blower Policy of our Bank, the whistle blower is a/an ___

Ans: Employee of the bank making a disclosure

19. PIDPI means

Ans: Public Interest Disclosure & Protection of Informer

20. Which of the following is NOT among Mandatory Standard Cheque Security Features as
per CTS 2010 Guidelines:
I) Standardized Field Placements
II) Account Number Field
III) LCPC Name along with CTS 2010
IV) UV Band in variable fields

Ans: Only III

21. Which of the following is not among protection available to a whistle blower?

Ans: Protection from adverse penal action even when disclosure is frivolous

22. Which among the following is/are among roles and responsibilities of Reviewing Authority
under Whistle Blower Policy :
I) Functioning of the Policy will be reviewed by the Reviewing Authority on quarterly basis
II)Upon receiving the investigation report along with Designated Authority’s remark and
recommendation, Reviewing Authority may take a view on closure of the complaint or
forward the same to the concerned department for initiation of disciplinary proceedings.
III) The Reviewing Authority will be responsible to implement the Policy and ensure that
the Policy is known to all employees
IV) If any person (Whistle Blower) is aggrieved by any action on the ground that he is being
victimized due to the fact that he had filed a complaint or disclosure, he may file an
 application before the Reviewing Authority, seeking redressal in the matter, wherein the
Reviewing Authority may give suitable directions to the concerned person or the
authority.

Ans: Only I, II and IV

23. Preventive Vigilance involves participation of -

Ans: Every employee

24. If Whistle Blower is aggrieved by any action on the ground that he is being victimized due
to the fact that he had filed a complaint or disclosure, he may file an application before
the

Ans: Reviewing Authority

25. Which among the following is/are among roles and responsibilities of Designated
Authority under Whistle Blower Policy :
I) The Designated Authority will be responsible to implement the Policy and ensure that
the Policy is known to all employees
II) Appoint/authorise any official to conduct an investigation under this Policy and submit
the report to Designated Authority.
III) Ensure that the identity of Whistle Blower is not disclosed. It also provides necessary
safeguard and protection to the employees who disclose the instances of unethical
practices/ behaviour observed in the Bank.
IV) The Designated Officer shall submit consolidated status report of the bank, to the Audit
committee of the Board (ACB) on quarterly basis, with Action Taken Report

Ans: Only I, II and III

26. According to Bank’s guidelines on fraud prevention in term loan, which of the following
statement is/are incorrect :
I) Disbursement to be made to the account of supplier
II) Immediate inspection after purchase of machinery to be done to ensure proper
utilization of funds.
III) Physical progress / status of project to be monitored on an ongoing basis
IV) Certificate from Chartered account and Architect to be submitted by the company on
annual basis for progress of construction of the said project in respect of amount incurred
on the project.

Ans: Only IV

27. Which of the following statement is/are correct about activities under the purview of
Alertness Award for Near Miss Events including Prevention/Detection/Foiling of Frauds
I) The contribution made by the staff members in prevention of frauds/ detection of
frauds/ foiling attempts of fraud/Near Miss Events should be significant and exemplary.
II) Detection of income leakage by staff members will also fall under the purview of this
scheme.
 Ans: Only I

28. Which of the following is not a security feature in Cheque Truncation System (CTS-2010)
for Fraud Mitigation Measures?

Ans: Telephone number field

29. While making payment of Non-Home cheque of ₹5 lakh and above and any suspicious
transactions irrespective of amount involved, if contacting customer is not possible/
successful, what should be the further course of action?

Ans: All of the above

30. NME stands for

Ans: Near Miss Event

1. Which of the following is among Mandatory Standard Cheque Security Features as per CTS 2010
Guidelines:
I) VOID Pantograph
II) Printer Name along with CTS 2010
III) Fugitive Background with Secondary Fluorescent Ink
IV) Cheque Colors &amp; Background Mandatory CTS Standards

Ans: Only I, II, III and IV

2. According to Bank’s guidelines on fraud prevention in Cash Credit Limits which of the following
statement is/are correct :
I) Transfer of funds among the family concerns to be permitted without any limit.
II) TIR to be obtained after every 3 years or at the time of enhancement.
III) Noting of charge with revenue authority on mortgaged property to be ensured immediately
after creation of EM.
IV) CIBIL report to be periodically generated and scrutinized to ascertain borrowing from other
banks/ FIs

Ans: Only II, III and IV

4. Which of the following is among Mandatory Standard Cheque Security Features as per CTS
2010 Guidelines:
I) VOID Pantograph
II) RBI’s Logo in UV Ink
III) Fugitive Background with Secondary Fluorescent Ink
IV) Cheque Colors &amp; Background Mandatory CTS Standards

Ans: Only I ,III and IV

5. What is incorrect as per Whistle Blower Policy of the Bank

 Ans: Whistle Blowers are investigators or finders of facts

6. Which of the following is the new feature in Cheque Truncation System (CTS-2010) for Fraud
Mitigation Measures?

Ans: New Rupee symbol

7. According to Bank’s guidelines on fraud prevention in High Value Banking Frauds, which of
the following statement is/are correct :
I) Genuineness of the buyers should be verified to ascertain their capability of huge buying
II) Meaningful analysis of stock statements should be carried out
III) Past track record and status of the customers may be ignored
IV) Financial statements and other documents should be thoroughly checked for their
genuineness through various online sources e.g. ROC website, UDIN, GSTN network etc. End
use of the funds to be ensured.

Ans: Only I, II and IV

8. In COVID-19 Pandemic environment fraudsters may try to open new accounts containing
terms such as COVID / CORONA. According to Bank’s guidelines on fraud prevention which
of the following statement is/are correct:
I) Extra Due Diligence should be applied while opening such accounts and KYC check must be
performed thoroughly
II) Vigilance should be exercised while dealing with FCRA / NPO / Charitable institutions /
other accounts in which donations in the name of COVID are being credited.
III) Due care should be taken to properly identify the persons claiming to be government
officials and seeking information which is normally not provided
IV) A list of such accounts opened since February 2021 may be extracted and verified

Ans: Only I, II and III

9. The scheme for Alertness Award for Near Miss Events including
Prevention/Detection/Foiling of Frauds is applicable to _________

Ans: all staff members, including regular, part-time and contract employees in the service
of the Bank

10. What is the new name of Scheme for Recognition & Reward of alertness in Staff Members ?

Ans: Alertness Award for Near Miss Events including Prevention/Detection/Foiling of

Frauds

11. Which of the following is NOT among Mandatory Standard Cheque Security Features as per
CTS 2010 Guidelines:
I) Standardized Field Placements
II) Account Number Field
 III) LCPC Name along with CTS 2010
IV) UV Band in variable fields
Ans: Only III
1. According to Bank’s guidelines on fraud prevention in E-DFS, which of the following
statement is/are correct :
I) Bank wise segregation of stock be ensured. Diversion of funds to entities engaged in
unrelated activities be examined properly
II) Depletion of stock to be converted into increase in liability
III) Check the authenticity of the documents/ reports/ certificates etc. with UDIN and the key
fields provided by the certifying Chartered Accountants.
IV) Pre/Post sanction surveys to be carried out in a meaningful manner.

Only I, III and IV

2. In COVID-19 Pandemic environment fraudsters may try to open new accounts containing
terms such as COVID / CORONA. According to Bank’s guidelines on fraud prevention which
of the following statement is/are correct:
I) Extra Due Diligence should be applied while opening such accounts and KYC check must be
performed thoroughly
II) Vigilance should be exercised while dealing with FCRA / NPO / Charitable institutions /
other accounts in which donations in the name of COVID are being credited.
III) Due care should be taken to properly identify the persons claiming to be government
officials and seeking information which is normally not provided
IV) A list of such accounts opened since February 2021 may be extracted and verified

Only I, II and III

3. According to Bank’s guidelines on fraud prevention in Cash Credit Limits which of the
following statement is/are incorrect :
I) Business model/ need for all sister concerns and justification/ need for limits to be
established on approval. Transfer of funds among the family concerns to be probed with
extra due diligence.
II) TIR to be obtained after every 5 years or at the time of enhancement.
III) Irregularity report to be submitted annually and comments thereon to be acted upon.
IV) CIBIL report to be periodically generated and scrutinized to ascertain borrowing from
other banks/ FIs

Only II and III

4. What is incorrect as per Whistle Blower Policy of the Bank

ANS: Whistle Blowers are investigators or finders of facts

5. According to Bank’s guidelines on fraud prevention in High Value Banking Frauds, which of
the following statement is/are correct :
 I) A proper scrutiny of debtors should be carried out.
II) Financial statements should be scrutinised by field staff.
III) Genuineness of various documents should be ascertained.
IV) Effective exchange of information between banks should be strengthened.

ANS: Only I, II, III and IV

6. As per Whistle Blower Policy of our Bank, the whistle blower is a/an ___

ANS: Employee of the bank making a disclosure

7. PIDPI means

ANS: Public Interest Disclosure & Protection of Informer

8. According to Bank’s guidelines on fraud prevention in WHR which of the following statement
is/are incorrect :
I) Warehouse/ Godowns to be visited and stocks to be verified periodically. II) Financing of
stocks held in borrowers godowns may be permitted.
III) Market Price advised by Collateral Manager to be cross-checked with local Mandi/ MCX.
IV) It is to be ensured that underlying stocks are segregated/ properly tagged with Bank’s
name.

ANS: Only II

9. The action taken against each disclosure will be put up to the Reviewing Authority within
___days of receipt of complaint under Whistle Blower Policy.

ANS: 7 DAYS

10. Which of the following is not among protection available to a whistle blower?
ANS: Protection from adverse penal action even when disclosure is frivolous

11. According to Bank’s guidelines on fraud prevention in WHR which of the following statement
is/are correct :
I) Meaningful pre-sanction survey to be carried out to ascertain identity, address, credit
worthiness and integrity of the Proprietor of the firm. II) Adequate Insurance Cover for the
commodity / stock to be ensured, due date of insurance to be diarized.
III) Market Price advised by Collateral Manager to be cross-checked with local Mandi/ MCX.
IV) Any adverse report on Collateral Manager to be shared immediately with Corporate
Centre.
ANS: Only I, II, III and IV

12. Bank’s guidelines are in place for Fraud prevention and mitigation measures in SME loans.
Which of the following statement is/are incorrect in respect of frauds owing to fabricated
 financial and forged title deed:
I) Check the authenticity of the documents/ reports/ certificates etc. with UDIN and the key
fields provided by the certifying Chartered Accountants.
II) Reporting of Third-Party Entity (TPE) to Law Enforcement Agencies for black listing.
III) Justification of limits for the group concerns, proper assessment, satisfying about
business model is essential to avoid accommodation loans.
IV) Conduct of periodic stock audit to be ensured and due closure of Audit report.

ANS: Only II

13. As a part of pre-sanction Survey for Home loans and Home Related Loans seven digit
certificate number on form 16 is to be verified form :
ANS: https://contents.tdscpc.gov.in

14. Bank’s guidelines are in place for fraud prevention and mitigation measures in SME loans.
which of the following statement is/are incorrect in respect of frauds owing to overvaluation
of collateral and diversion of fund :
I) Value of the property offered as security to be independently verified by the Bank official
and to be duly recorded.
II) Due diligence on the supplier to be done and opinion report to be obtained. Funds to be
disbursed directly to borrower.
III) During post disbursement inspection, details of machineries purchased to be verified and
periodic inspection to be done at regular intervals.
IV) Account with other Bank to be closed as and when detected.
ANS: Only II and III

15. According to Bank’s guidelines on fraud prevention in Forex, which of the following
statement is/are correct :
I) Goods meant for export to be kept along with stocks meant for domestic sale.
II) Credit limit to be sanctioned after detailed appraisal / assessment duly supported by
documentary evidences.
III) Export Packing Credit (EPC) to be released after obtaining copies of confirmed orders and
to be liquidated out of export proceeds.
IV) ECGC guarantee cover to be obtained and guidelines to be ensured.
ANS: Only II, III and IV

16. According to Bank’s guidelines on fraud prevention in WHR which of the following statement
is/are correct :
I) Warehouse/ Godowns to be visited and stocks to be verified periodically. II) It is to be
ensured that underlying stocks are segregated/ properly tagged with Bank’s name.
III) Market Price advised by Collateral Manager to be cross-checked with local Mandi/ MCX.
IV) Financing of stocks held in borrowers godowns may be permitted.
ANS: Only I, II and III
17. According to Bank’s guidelines on fraud prevention in GSS/ Stand Up India/ MUDRA which
of the following statement is/are correct :
I) Loan proposal to be processed and accounts to be opened through LOS only.
II) Sanctioning officer to visit the unit, meet promoters and carry out proper due diligence
before sanctioning the loan.
III) Due diligence on supplier- supplier may be a related party.
IV) Charge on Collateral securities (mortgaged properties) to be recorded in revenue record.
Periodic Encumbrance Certificate to be obtained.
ANS: Only I, II and IV

18. As per confidentiality mechanism of whistle blower, the identity of the whistle blower
remains with the:

Ans: Designated Authority

19. Which of the following statement is/are incorrect about formation of Preventive Vigilance
Committees at branches / operating units of the Bank-
ANS: Branches having staff strength of 20 or more

20. According to Bank’s guidelines on fraud prevention in term loan, which of the following
statement is/are correct :
I) Disbursement to be made to the account of borrower
II) Immediate inspection after purchase of machinery to be done to ensure proper utilization
of funds.
III) Transaction with related party to be allowed without restrictions
IV) Post sanction inspection to be done at periodic interval to ensure end use of funds
ANS: Only II and IV

21. According to Bank’s guidelines on fraud prevention in SRTO which of the following
statement is/are correct :
I) Registration of vehicle and noting of Bank’s hypothecation charge in the books of RTO to
be done and verified from “vahan.nic.in” site.
II) Physical verification of assets created should not be insisted.
III) Assets/security created out of Bank’s finance to be verified immediately after
disbursement.
IV) Inspection of the vehicles and borrower to be done immediately after default of one
instalment and procedure for Seizure to be initiated so that fraud if any, get unearthed
immediately
ANS: Only I ,III and IV

22. Which of the following is not a security feature in Cheque Truncation System (CTS-2010) for
Fraud Mitigation Measures?
ANS: Account Number Printed in a Black Box
23. Any employee (officer / award) willing to disclose information under Whistle Blower Policy,
may do so in which of the following manner?

ANS: All of these

24. According to Bank’s guidelines on fraud prevention in collateral security which of the
following statement is/are correct :
I) TIR to be obtained after every 2 years or at the time of enhancement.
II) Display of Bank’s board at prominent place in the unit.
III) Proper scrutiny of the lawyer’s report and valuation report.
IV) Charge on Collateral securities (mortgaged properties) to be recorded in revenue record.
Periodic Encumbrance Certificate to be obtained.
ANS: Only II, III and IV

25. According to Bank’s guidelines on fraud prevention in collateral security which of the
following statement is/are incorrect :
I) Noting of charge with revenue authority on mortgaged property to be ensured within one
year of EM creation.
II) Issuance of Look out notice to be processed.
III) To make post-sanction inspection on appointment basis.
IV) Charge on Collateral securities (mortgaged properties) to be recorded in revenue record.
Periodic Encumbrance Certificate to be obtained.
ANS: Only I and III

26. As a part of pre-sanction Survey for Home loans and Home Related Loans TAN of borrower
and employer as per Form 16 is to be verified form :
ANS: https://incometaxindiaefiling.gov.in

27. Who is the Reviewing Authority under whistle blower policy of the Bank?
ANS: CGM (Fraud Monitoring Department)

28. In case of payment of Non-Home cheque of ₹5 lakh and above and any suspicious
transactions irrespective of amount involved, the drawer is to be contacted over
ANS: Registered Mobile Number of the drawer

29. Which of the following is incorrect statement about Preventive Vigilance Committee
ANS: It is the sole means for exercising preventive vigilance

30. Preventive Vigilance Committee (PVC) is one of the tools for exercising preventive vigilance.
Which of the following statement is/are incorrect :
I) 30% of staff members, minimum 3 officers / employees should be co-opted on the PVC of
each unit.
II)The head of the Branch / Unit and official dealing with operational risk would be
 permanent members and other members to be rotated at quarterly intervals.
III)The meetings of PVCs be held at least once in 6 months.
IV)The controllers (any officer from controlling office-designated for the purpose) to guide
the staff in identifying the areas of vulnerability to frauds / malpractices, visit the branches /
units periodically and if possible, to attend meetings of PVCs, at least once in 6 months.

ANS: Only II and III

1. According to Bank’s guidelines on fraud prevention in GSS/ Stand Up India/ MUDRA which of
the following statement is/are incorrect :
I) Loan proposal to be processed and accounts to be opened through LOS only.
II) Physical verification of assets created should not be insisted.
III) Due diligence on supplier- supplier should not be a related party.
IV) OTMS alerts may be responded in routine manner

Ans: Only I and IV

2. Which of the following is not a security feature in Cheque Truncation System (CTS-2010) for
Fraud Mitigation Measures?

Ans: Telephone number field

3. As per Whistle Blower Policy of our Bank, the whistle blower is a/an ___

Ans: Employee of the bank making a disclosure

4. According to Bank’s guidelines on fraud prevention in Cash Credit Limits which of the
following statement is/are correct :
I) The immovable security (Primary or Collateral) to be inspected at the time of accepting the
property for the first time and yearly thereafter. &amp; Ownership &amp; Possession status
of the property to be ascertained by making enquiries with the neighbourhood and occupant
of the property to be complied with.
II) High value transactions in CC account to be scrutinized to ensure against possible
diversion / siphoning.
III) Noting of charge with revenue authority on mortgaged property to be ensured within 3
years of creation of EM.
IV) CIBIL report to be periodically generated and scrutinized to ascertain borrowing from
other banks/ FIs

Ans: Only I, II and IV

5. According to Bank’s guidelines on fraud prevention in High Value Banking Frauds, which of
the following statement is/are correct :
I) Genuineness of the buyers should be verified to ascertain their capability of huge buying
II) Meaningful analysis of stock statements should be carried out
III) Past track record and status of the customers may be ignored
IV) Financial statements and other documents should be thoroughly checked for their
 genuineness through various online sources e.g. ROC website, UDIN, GSTN network etc. End
use of the funds to be ensured.

Ans: Only I, II and IV

6. As a part of pre-sanction Survey for Home loans and Home Related Loans GST Registration
number of borrower and dealer is to be verified form :

Ans: https://cbec-easiest.gov.in

7. Preventive Vigilance involves participation of -

Ans: Every employee

8. While making payment of Non-Home cheque of ₹5 lakh and above and any suspicious
transactions irrespective of amount involved, if contacting customer is not possible/
successful, what should be the further course of action?

Ans: All of the above

9. According to Bank’s guidelines on fraud prevention in WHR which of the following statement
is/are correct :
I) Meaningful pre-sanction survey to be carried out to ascertain identity, address, credit
worthiness and integrity of the Proprietor of the firm. II) Adequate Insurance Cover for the
commodity / stock to be ensured, due date of insurance to be diarized.
III) Market Price advised by Collateral Manager to be cross-checked with local Mandi/ MCX.
IV) Any adverse report on Collateral Manager to be shared immediately with Corporate
Centre.

Ans: Only I, II, III and IV

10. According to Bank’s guidelines on fraud prevention in Forex, which of the following
statement is/are correct :
I) Goods meant for export to be kept along with stocks meant for domestic sale.
II) Credit limit to be sanctioned after detailed appraisal / assessment duly supported by
documentary evidences.
III) Export Packing Credit (EPC) to be released after obtaining copies of confirmed orders and
to be liquidated out of export proceeds.
IV) ECGC guarantee cover to be obtained and guidelines to be ensured.

Ans: Only II, III and IV

11. According to Bank’s guidelines on fraud prevention in term loan, which of the following
statement is/are correct :
I) Disbursement to be made to the account of borrower
II) Immediate inspection after purchase of machinery to be done to ensure proper utilization
of funds.
III) Transaction with related party to be allowed without restrictions
IV) Post sanction inspection to be done at periodic interval to ensure end use of funds
 Ans: Only II and IV

12. Fraud Mitigation Measures include surprise verification of Agri gold loans. In surprise
verification of gold loans the random basis check involves:

Ans: Checking the ornaments for purity in respect of 30% or maximum of 100 gold loan accounts
whichever is less

13. According to Bank’s guidelines on fraud prevention in High Value Banking Frauds, which of
the following statement is/are incorrect :
I) Genuineness of the buyers should be verified to ascertain their capability of huge buying
II) Meaningful analysis of stock statements should be carried out
III) Past track record and status of the customers may be ignored
IV) Financial statements and other documents should be thoroughly checked for their
genuineness through various online sources e.g. ROC website, UDIN, GSTN network etc. End
use of the funds to be ensured.

Ans: Only III

15. According to Bank’s guidelines on fraud prevention in Cash Credit Limits which of the
following statement is/are incorrect :

I) Business model/ need for all sister concerns and justification/ need for limits to be
established on approval. Transfer of funds among the family concerns to be probed with
extra due diligence.
II) TIR to be obtained after every 5 years or at the time of enhancement.
III) Irregularity report to be submitted annually and comments thereon to be acted upon.
IV) CIBIL report to be periodically generated and scrutinized to ascertain borrowing from
other banks/ FIs

Ans: Only II and III

16. In COVID-19 Pandemic environment fraudsters may try to open new accounts containing
terms such as COVID / CORONA. According to Bank’s guidelines on fraud prevention which
of the following statement is/are correct:
I) Customers should be made aware of the increasing risk of online frauds through phishing
emails, SMS, fraudulent loan and moratorium offers, fake COVID-19 sites and apps, fake
banking and insurance websites etc.
II) Branches should be more vigilant while opening accounts in the name of charitable
institutions/ NGOs.
III) Sudden increase of Government credit observed in accounts of the person who may not
be entitled for such grants, should be discreetly enquired into, before allowing withdrawal.
IV) A list of such accounts opened since February 2020 may be extracted and verified

Ans: Only I, II, III and IV

17. The Reviewing Authority, under Whistle Blower Policy shall submit quarterly status report
with Action Taken Report to the :
Ans: Audit committee of the Board (ACB)

18. According to Bank’s guidelines on fraud prevention in Cash Credit Limits which of the
following statement is/are correct :
I) Transfer of funds among the family concerns to be permitted without any limit.
II) TIR to be obtained after every 3 years or at the time of enhancement.
III) Noting of charge with revenue authority on mortgaged property to be ensured
immediately after creation of EM.
IV) CIBIL report to be periodically generated and scrutinized to ascertain borrowing from
other banks/ FIs

Ans: Only II, III and IV

20. Which among the following is/are among roles and responsibilities of Reviewing Authority
under Whistle Blower Policy :
I) Functioning of the Policy will be reviewed by the Reviewing Authority on quarterly basis
II)Upon receiving the investigation report along with Designated Authority’s remark and
recommendation, Reviewing Authority may take a view on closure of the complaint or
forward the same to the concerned department for initiation of disciplinary proceedings.
III) The Reviewing Authority will be responsible to implement the Policy and ensure that the
Policy is known to all employees
IV) If any person (Whistle Blower) is aggrieved by any action on the ground that he is being
victimized due to the fact that he had filed a complaint or disclosure, he may file an
application before the Reviewing Authority, seeking redressal in the matter, wherein the
Reviewing Authority may give suitable directions to the concerned person or the authority.

Ans: Only I, II and IV

21. According to Bank’s guidelines on fraud prevention in collateral security which of the
following statement is/are incorrect :
I) Noting of charge with revenue authority on mortgaged property to be ensured within one
year of EM creation.
II) Issuance of Look out notice to be processed.
III) To make post-sanction inspection on appointment basis.
IV) Charge on Collateral securities (mortgaged properties) to be recorded in revenue record.
Periodic Encumbrance Certificate to be obtained.

Ans: Only I and III

22. What is incorrect as per Whistle Blower Policy of the Bank

Ans: Whistle Blowers are investigators or finders of facts

23. According to Bank’s guidelines on fraud prevention in WHR which of the following statement
is/are incorrect :
I) Warehouse/ Godowns to be visited and stocks to be verified periodically. II) Financing of
 stocks held in borrowers godowns may be permitted.
III) Market Price advised by Collateral Manager to be cross-checked with local Mandi/ MCX.
IV) It is to be ensured that underlying stocks are segregated/ properly tagged with Bank’s
name.

Ans: Only II

24. Bank’s guidelines are in place for fraud prevention and mitigation measures in SME loans.
which of the following statement is/are incorrect in respect of frauds owing to overvaluation
of collateral and diversion of fund :
I) Value of the property offered as security to be independently verified by the Bank official
and to be duly recorded.
II) Due diligence on the supplier to be done and opinion report to be obtained. Funds to be
disbursed directly to borrower.
III) During post disbursement inspection, details of machineries purchased to be verified and
periodic inspection to be done at regular intervals.
IV) Account with other Bank to be closed as and when detected.

Ans: Only II and III

25. Any employee (officer / award) willing to disclose information under Whistle Blower Policy,
may do so in which of the following manner?

Ans: All of these

26. According to Bank’s guidelines on fraud prevention in WHR which of the following statement
is/are correct :
I) Warehouse/ Godowns to be visited and stocks to be verified periodically. II) It is to be
ensured that underlying stocks are segregated/ properly tagged with Bank’s name.
III) Market Price advised by Collateral Manager to be cross-checked with local Mandi/ MCX.
IV) Financing of stocks held in borrowers godowns may be permitted.

Ans: Only I, II and III

27. According to Bank’s guidelines on fraud prevention in term loan, which of the following
statement is/are incorrect :
I) Disbursement to be made to the account of supplier
II) Immediate inspection after purchase of machinery to be done to ensure proper utilization
of funds.
III) Physical progress / status of project to be monitored on an ongoing basis
IV) Certificate from Chartered account and Architect to be submitted by the company on
annual basis for progress of construction of the said project in respect of amount incurred
on the project.

Ans: Only IV

28. Which among the following is/are among roles and responsibilities of Designated Authority
under Whistle Blower Policy :
 I) The Designated Authority will be responsible to implement the Policy and ensure that the
Policy is known to all employees
II) Appoint/authorise any official to conduct an investigation under this Policy and submit
the report to Designated Authority.
III) Ensure that the identity of Whistle Blower is not disclosed. It also provides necessary
safeguard and protection to the employees who disclose the instances of unethical
practices/ behaviour observed in the Bank.
IV) The Designated Officer shall submit consolidated status report of the bank, to the Audit
committee of the Board (ACB) on quarterly basis, with Action Taken Report

Ans: Only I, II and III

29. As a part of pre-sanction Survey for Home loans and Home Related Loans seven digit
certificate number on form 16 is to be verified form :

Ans: https://contents.tdscpc.gov.in

30. As per confidentiality mechanism of whistle blower, the identity of the whistle blower
remains with the:
Ans: Designated authority

31. Fraud Mitigation Measures include surprise verification of gold loans. What is the stipulated
periodicity for surprise verification in Agri gold loans?
Ans: Quarterly

32. Who is the Designated Official under whistle blower policy of the Bank?
Ans: DGM & CFO for circles / GM (Fraud Monitoring Department) for CC establishments

33. While making payment of Non-Home cheque of ₹5 lakh and above and any suspicious
transactions irrespective of amount involved, if contacting customer is not possible/
successful, what should be the further course of action?
Ans: All of the above

34. Which of the following does not come under the purview of the Whistle Blower Policy
Ans: Complaint with non verifiable contents

35. According to Bank’s guidelines on fraud prevention in collateral security which of the
following statement is/are correct :
I) Obtaining certified copies of title deeds by Advocate and comparison with original title
deeds to be ensured.
II) Noting of charge with revenue authority on mortgaged property to be ensured within
one year of EM creation.
III) To make post-sanction inspection on appointment basis.
IV) Charge on Collateral securities (mortgaged properties) to be recorded in revenue
record. Periodic Encumbrance Certificate to be obtained.
Ans: Only I and IV
36. According to Bank’s guidelines on fraud prevention in term loan, which of the following
statement is/are correct :
I) Disbursement to be made to the account of borrower
II) Immediate inspection after purchase of machinery to be done to ensure proper
utilization of funds.
III) Transaction with related party to be allowed without restrictions
IV) Post sanction inspection to be done at periodic interval to ensure end use of funds
Ans: Only II and IV

37. As a part of pre-sanction Survey for Home loans and Home Related Loans TIN of borrower
is to be verified form :
Ans: https://www.tinxsys.com

38. As a part of pre-sanction Survey for Home loans and Home Related Loans TDS of borrower
is to be verified form :
Ans: https://incometaxindiaefiling.gov.in

39. According to Bank’s guidelines on fraud prevention in Forex, which of the following
statement is/are correct :
I) Goods meant for export to be segregated from stocks meant for domestic sale.
II) Cheque facility is to be provided for EPC account
III) Export Packing Credit (EPC) to be released on request.
IV) Credit officials handling forex/ EPC to be given adequate training.
Ans: Only I and IV

40. Preventive Vigilance Committee (PVC) is one of the tools for exercising preventive
vigilance. Which of the following statement is/are correct :
I) The Preventive Vigilance Committee is neither a ‘power centre’ nor the sole means for
exercising preventive vigilance.
II) It is akin to the ‘Knowledge Circle’, aimed at prevention of loss and enhancement of
performance
III)The meetings of PVCs be held at least once in 6 months.
IV) The PVC submits status report and Action Taken Report to the Audit Committee of the
Board on annual basis.
Ans: Only I and II