NMDCAT

FULL LENGTH PAPER–1

1ST HALF SYLLABUS
Total MCQs: 200 Max. Marks: 200

BIOLOGY UNIT-1-5
Q.1 The diagram shows some of the cell structure involved in the secretion of extracellular
enzyme.

Identify A, B, C, and D.
A B C D
A. Endoplasmic Nucleus lysosome Cisternae
reticulum
B. Nucleus RER Transport vesicle Golgi apparatus
C. Nucleolus Ribosome Vacuole Endoplasmic
reticulum
D. Nucleoplasm SER Endoplasmic Nucleus
reticulum
Q.2 The movement of respiratory gases at alveoli is done through:
A. Osmosis B. Diffusion
C. Exocytosis D. Endocytosis
Q.3 The soluble part of cytoplasm or fluid that remains when all organelles are removed is
known as:
A. Solution B. Cytoskeleton
C. Gelatin material D. Cytosol
Q.4 Which of the following is not present in a plant cell?
A. Ribosomes B. Glyoxysomes
C. Peroxisomes D. Lysosomes
Q.5 Golgi apparatus is absent in:
A. Yeast B. Liver cells
C. Mesophyll cells D. Blue-green algae
Q.6 Vesicles that form Golgi apparatus are derived from:
A. Endoplasmic reticulum B. Mitochondria
C. Cell membrane D. Nuclear membrane
Q.7 It is a structure commonly present in both plant and animal cells:
A. Centriole B. Cell wall
C. Chloroplast D. Mitochondria
Q.8 The entire cell wall of bacteria is often regarded as a single huge molecule or molecular
complex called:
A. Capsule B. Slime capsule
C. Secondary wall D. Sacculus
Q.9 The main difference between a dividing plant and animal cell lies in:
A. Cell plate formation B. Chromosome division
C. Coiling of chromosome D. Chromosome movement

NMDCAT FLP–1 (1ST HALF SYLLABUS) PAGE 1 OF 15

Q.10 The compounds which on hydrolysis yield polyhydroxy aldehyde or ketone subunits are:
A. Lipids B. Polynucleotides
C. Proteins D. Carbohydrates
Q.11 Glucose is stored as glycogen abundantly in:
A. Liver B. Spleen
C. Kidney D. Pancreas
Q.12 Which bond is the potential source of chemical energy for cellular activities?
A. C-N B. C-H
C. C-O D. H-O
Q.13 Total number of fatty acids found in neutral fat is:
A. 1 B. 2
C. 3 D. 4
Q.14 Iodine test can be used for the detection of:
A. Lipids B. Starch
C. Proteins D. Steroids
Q.15 Which of the following bio-element probably be absent in proteins?
A. Phosphorous B. Carbon
C. Nitrogen D. Sulphur
Q.16 A peptide bond formation between two amino acids is accompanied by:
A. Deamination B. Loss of water
C. Decarboxylation D. Addition of water
Q.17 Secondary structure of protein is most important in:
A. Trypsin B. Insulin
C. Keratin D. Glucagon
Q.18 On hydrolysis, a nucleoside would not yield:
A. Purine B. Pyrimidine
C. Pentose sugar D. Phosphoric acid
Q.19 Which of the following is found both in DNA and in RNA?
A. Ribose B. Adenine
C. Uracil D. Thymine
Q.20 It is a common feature found in enzymes, vitamins and hormones:
A. Proteins in nature B. Act as catalyst
C. Organic in nature D. Can start chemical reaction
Q.21 An activated enzyme consisting of polypeptide and a cofactor is known as:
A. Amylase B. Holoenzyme
C. Apoenzyme D. Coenzyme
Q.22 A co-factor that is covalently bonded to an enzyme is called :
A. Activator B. Apoenzymes
C. Co-enzyme D. Prosthetic group
Q.23 The view that active site of an enzyme is flexible and when a substrate combines with it,
cause changes in enzyme structure is known as:
A. Lock and key model B. Sliding filament model
C. Induce fit model D. Specificity model
Q.24 The inhibitors that bind tightly and permanently to enzymes and destroy their globular
structure and catalytic activity are:
A. Reversible inhibitors B. Competitive inhibitors
C. Irreversible inhibitors D. Non-competitive inhibitors
Q.25 A student of chemical engineering mistakenly engulfed the toxic compound ‘A’ which
was a potent inhibitor of certain enzyme. He was immediately brought to hospital where
Dr. injected intravenously substrate ‘B’ to minimize the toxic effect of compound A. His
life was saved from serious damages. The treatment method shows that compound ‘A’
was a __________ inhibitors.
A. Temperature sensitive B. Irreversible
C. Competitive reversible D. Non-competitive reversible

NMDCAT FLP–1 (1ST HALF SYLLABUS) PAGE 2 OF 15

Q.26 The range of light which is visible and involved in photosynthesis is ________nm.
A. 380 - 750 B. 550 – 650
C. 400-500 D. 400 – 700
Q.27 While comparing the action spectrum with absorption spectrum:
A. Peaks in action spectrum are broader B. Valley of absorption spectrum in narrow
C. Valley of action spectrum is deep D. Absorption spectrum highest peak is at red
Q.28 In plants, the antenna complex contains:
A. Chlorophyll a B. Carotenoids
C. Chlorophyll b D. All A, B, C
Q.29 All of the following are associated with light directly except:
A. Breakdown of water B. Fixation of CO2
C. Excitation of electrons D. Formation of NADPH
Q.30 Which is the correct order of energy transfer from accessory pigments to main
photosynthetic pigment?
A. Carotenoids → chlorophyll a → chlorophyll b
B. Chlorophyll a → carotenoids → chlorophyll b
C. Carotenoids → chlorophyll b → chlorophyll a
D. Chlorophyll b → carotenoids → chlorophyll a
Q.31 All of the following are involved in cyclic electron flow during light reaction except:
A. Plastocyanin B. Primary electron acceptor
C. NADP reductase D. Ferredoxin
Q.32 The number of phosphate groups present in 5 molecules of RuBP are:
A. 20 B. 15
C. 10 D. 5
Q.33 Calvin cycle is commonly known as:
A. C3 pathway B. C4 pathway
C. C6 pathway D. Aerobic cycle
Q.34 Pick out the isomers of each other:
A. Citrate and isocitrate B. 2PG and 3PG
C. DAP and G3P D. All A, B, C
Q.35 In oxidative phosphorylation cytochrome b is oxidized by:
A. Co enzyme Q B. Cytochrome a
C. Cytochrome c D. Cytochrome a3
Q.36 One FADH2 during oxidative phosphorylation produces:
A. 1 ATP B. 2 ATP
C. 3 ATP D. 4 ATP
Q.37 Which one of the following is a five carbon intermediate compound formed in Krebs
cycle?
A. Succinate B.-ketoglutarate
C. Citrate D. Malate
Q.38 Total number of ATP formed by complete oxidation of glucose in ETC is:
A. 34 B. 38
C. 36 D. 40
Q.39 At the end of the respiratory chain electrons, protons and oxygen combine to form:
A. ATP B. Water
C. CO2 D. NADH
Q.40 All of the following are viral diseases in humans except:
A. Rabies B. Typhoid
C. Herpes simplex D. Poliomyelitis
Q.41 The character that makes retroviruses different from other groups of viruses is:
A. Spherical nature of capsid B. RNA genome
C. Presence of reverse transcriptase D. Host specificity
Q.42 Phage viruses are the parasites of:
A. Viruses B. Bacteria
C. Plants D. Animals

NMDCAT FLP–1 (1ST HALF SYLLABUS) PAGE 3 OF 15

Q.43 Viral genome will integrate with host chromosome in/during:
A. All infectious cycles B. Lytic cycle
C. Lysogenic cycle D. Induction
Q.44 Cocci forming irregular clusters are:
A. Streptococci B. Diplococci
C. Staphylococci D. Sarcina
Q.45 Cell wall of Gram negative bacteria is less permeable as compared to Gram positive
bacteria because of more amount of:
A. Carbohydrates B. Lipids
C. Proteins D. Peptidoglycan
Q.46 Endospores are formed during which phase of bacterial growth:
A. Lag phase B. Stationary phase
C. Log phase D. Decline phase
Q.47 Deafness is caused by the misuse of:
A. Penicillin B. Ampicillin
C. Tetracycline D. Streptomycin
Q.48 The structures which are present in all bacteria are:
A. Cell wall, cell membrane, cytoplasm & ribosomes
B. Mesosome, flagella, plasmids & cytoplasm
C. Chromatin body, cell membrane, cytoplasm & ribosomes
D. Flagella, pili, mesosome & plasmids
Q.49 In bacterial cell, all of the following structures contain conjugated molecules except:
A. Cell wall B. Plasmid
C. Ribosomes D. Mesosomes
Q.50 The brown mold is:
A. Rhizopus B. Penicillium
C. Neurospora D. Aspergillus
Q.51 Because of their fermenting ability, _______ are used in production of bread and liquor:
A. Saccharomyces cervisiae B. Penicillium
C. Aspergillus D. Mucur
Q.52 Regarding cell wall of archaeobacteria:
A. These do not have cell wall B. Cell wall is not made up of murein
C. Cell wall is composed of cellulose D. Cell wall is of Gram positive type
Q.53 The phylum that includes acoelomates is:
A. Porifera B. Aschelminthes
C. Platyhelminthes D. Annelida
Q.54 The largest phylum of animal kingdom is:
A. Coelenterata B. Aschelminthes
C. Annelida D. Arthropoda
Q.55 Radial symmetry is present in both larva and adult form in:
A. Coelenterata B. Aschelminthes
C. Annelida D. Arthropoda
Q.56 It is a fungal disease caused by a yeast:
A. Histoplasmosis B. Aspergillosis
C. Candidiasis D. Ringworm
Q.57 Triploblastic animals have three germ layers, ectoderm, mesoderm and endoderm.
Digestive system in these animals arises from:
A. Ectoderm B. Endoderm
C. Mesoderm D. Mesoglea
Q.58 Vector for spread of cholera can be:
A. Mosquito B. House fly
C. Tse-tse fly D. Honey bee
Q.59 Vascular system is absent in:
A. Bryophytes B. Pteridophytes
C. Gymnosperms D. Angiosperms
Q.60 In Flowering Plants, Ovary wall develops into:
A. Seed B. Fruit
C. Flower D. Seed coat

NMDCAT FLP–1 (1ST HALF SYLLABUS) PAGE 4 OF 15

 CHEMISTRY UNIT-1-6
Q.61 The formation of compounds like PF5, BCl3 and SF6 indicates that
a. These halides are ionic b. These halides are not covalent
c. They are Lewis acids d. Octet rule is not always obeyed
Q.62 In ground state an element has 13 electrons in its M shell. The element is
a. Copper b. Nickel
c. Iron d. Chromium
39 +1
Q.63 The number of electrons in 19 K is
a. 18 b. 20
c. 19 d. 40
Q.64 The correct set of quantum number is
a. n = 2 , = 1, m = –2, s = 0 b. n = 2, = 2, m = –1, s = –1/2
c. n = 2, = –2, m = 1, s = +1/2 d. n = 2, = 1, m = 0, s = +1/2
Q.65 The number of oxygen atoms in 4.4g of CO2 is
a. 6×1023 b. 12×1023
23
c. 11×10 d. 1.2×1023
Q.66 The Cl– ion present at the corner of the unit cell is NaCl crystal, contributes
1 1
a. th b. th
4 2
1
c. th d. 1
8
Q.67 In the reaction 3Br2 + 6CO 32− + 3H 2O ⎯⎯ → 5Br − + BrO 3− + 6HCO 3−
a. Bromine is oxidized and carbonate is reduced
b. Bromine is reduced and water is oxidized
c. Bromine is neither reduced nor oxidized
d. Bromine is both reduced and oxidized
Q.68 2SO2(g) + O2(g) 2SO3(g) in the above reaction Kp and Kc are related as
a. Kp = Kc × (RT)2 b. Kc = Kp (RT)2
c. Kp = Kc × (RT)–1 d. Kp = Kc × (RT)–2
Q.69 Identify the state function among the following
a. w/q b. q/w
c. q  w d. q + w
Q.70 Which of the following equilibrium in gaseous phase, would be unaffected by an increase
in pressure
a. N2+3H2 2NH3 b. N2O4 2NO2
c. N2+O2 2NO d. CO+1/2O2 CO2
Q.71 Which of the following is correct about ionization energy
a. It is independent of atomic radii b. It decreases with increase in atomic radii
c. It increases with increase in atomic radii d. It increases with increase in shielding effect
Q.72 Which of the following hydrogen bonds is the strongest
a. O–H…..O b. O–H…..F
c. O–H…..N d. F–H…..F
Q.73 The enthalpies of combustion of carbon and carbon monoxide are –393.5 and –283 kJ
mol–1 respectively. The enthalpy of formation of carbon monoxide per mole is
a. –676.5kJ b. 110.5kJ
c. –110.5kJ d. 676.5kJ
Q.74 The solubility product of a salt having general formula MX2 in water is 4×10–12 the
concentration of M2+ ions in the aqueous solution of the salt is
a. 1.6 × 10–4 M b. 2.0 × 10–6
c. 4×10–10M d. 1.0 × 10–4M

NMDCAT FLP–1 (1ST HALF SYLLABUS) PAGE 5 OF 15

Q.75 For the equation NO −3 + 4H + + X e ⎯⎯ → 2H 2O + NO . The number of electrons in its
balanced form would be
a. 6 b. 3
c. 5 d. 9
Q.76 After 3 half lives of a chemical reaction, the percentage fraction of the amount left is
a. 6.25 b. 25
c. 12.5 d. 20
Q.77 The number of atoms are same as 18g of Mg in
a. 20g of Ca b. 16g of O2
c. 9g of C d. 18g of H2
Q.78 The highest value of lattice energy which one of these ionic compound has
a. NaI b. NaF
c. NaBr d. NaCl
Q.79 The pKa of a weak acid is 4.8 what should be the ratio of log [salt] / [acid], if a buffer of
pH = 5.8 is required?
a. 1 b. 0.1
c. 10 d. 2
Q.80 The rate of a certain hypothetical reaction A + B +C ⎯⎯ → products is given by
-d[A]
rate = = K[A]1/ 2 [B]1/ 3 [C]1/4 the order of reaction is
dt
a. 13/14 b. 12/13
c. 13/12 d. 13/11
Q.81 The equation for the rate constant k = Ae-Ea/ RT a chemical reaction will proceed more
rapidly if there is a decrease in
a. k b. Ea
c. A d. T
Q.82 The unit of 1st order rate constant is expressed as
a. Mol dm–3Sec–1 b. Mol–2dm+6Sec–1
–1
c. Sec d. Mol–1dm+3Sec–1
Q.83 If pressure and temperature of 4dm3 of carbon dioxide gas is doubled, then the volume
of carbon dioxide gas would be
a. 2dm3 b. 4dm3
c. 3dm3 d. 8dm3
Q.84 An ideal gas cannot be liquefied because
a. Its critical temperature is above 0°C b. It solidifies before becoming a liquid
c. Its molecules are relatively small in size d. Forces acting between its molecules are
negligible
Q.85 The mass of one molecule of O2 is
23
a. 6.02×10 g b. 0.32g
32
32
c. 32g d. ×10-23 g
6.02
Q.86 The number of moles of CO which contain 8g of oxygen are
a. 0.25 b. 0.50
c. 0.125 d. 1.00
Q.87 The energy of activation (Ea) of an endothermic reaction is 103.410 kJ/mol. The
activation energy for reverse step may be
a. 101.210 kJ/mol b. 105.110 kJ/mol
c. 107.410 kJ/mol d. 109.111 kJ/mol
Q.88 The heat of neutralization can be calculated by using formula
a. q = m T b. q = msP
c. q = cT d. q = q×w
Q.89 Which of the following has the maximum bond energy
a. N-O b. N-Cl
c. N-F d. N-Br
NMDCAT FLP–1 (1ST HALF SYLLABUS) PAGE 6 OF 15
Q.90 Among the following compounds the one that is polar and has the central atom with sp2
hybridization is
a. H2S b. SO2
c. BF3 d. CH4
Q.91 A ring has 18g of diamond in it, what is the number of atoms in this diamond
a. 6.02 × 1023 b. 1.5 × 6.02 × 1023
23
c. 2 × 6.02 × 10 d. 3 × 6.02 × 1023
Q.92 Principal, azimuthal and magnetic quantum numbers are respectively related to
a. Shape, size and orientation b. Orientation, size and shape
c. Size, orientation and shape d. Size, shape and orientation
Q.93 The total number of electrons present in all the p–orbitals of 35 Br
a. 5 b. 18
c. 17 d. 35
Q.94 Arrange the elements according to the trends of ionization energies C, N, Ne, B.
a. Ne < N < C < B b. B < N < C < Ne
c. B < C < N < Ne d. Ne < B < C < N
Q.95 Which of the following electronic configuration is not possible
a. 1s2, 2s2, b. [Ar] 3d10, 4s2, 4p2
c. 1s2, 2s2, 2p6 d. 1s2, 2s2, 2p2, 3s1
Q.96 In a container pure water is boiled maintaining the external pressure of 14.7 PSI. The
boiling point will be
a. 69oC b. 98oC
c. 100oC d. 120oC
Q.97 The nature of canal rays depends on
a. Nature of electrodes b. Pressure maintained inside
c. Nature of gas molecules d. Nature of battery attached
Q.98 Select correct statement
a. When a covalent bond is formed, transfer of electrons take place
b. Pure H2O does not contain any ion
c. A bond is formed when attractive forces overcome repulsive forces
d. HF is less polar than HBr
Q.99 Among which of the following factor the specific reaction rate of a 1st order reaction
depends upon
a. Temperature b. Concentration of reactants
c. Pressure d. Volume
Q.100 A standard hydrogen electrode has zero electrode potential because
a. Hydrogen is easiest to oxidized b. Its electrode potential is assumed to be zero
c. Hydrogen atom has only one electron d. Hydrogen is the lightest element
Q.101 Electrolysis of dilute H2SO4 will give
a. SO2 and O2 b. H2O and H2
c. SO2 and H2 d. H2 and O2
Q.102 The correct order of atomic size of C, N, O and F follows the order
a. C < N < O < F b. C < F < O < N
c. F < O < N < C d. F < O < C < N
Q.103 An orbital may never be occupied by
a. 1 electron b. 3 electrons
c. 2 electrons d. 0 electron
Q.104 No work is done at constant
a. Pressure b. Volume
c. Temperature d. Mass
Q.105 How much reaction is completed when Kc = 1 for the system
A+B C+D
a. 10% b. 25%
c. 50% d. 100%

NMDCAT FLP–1 (1ST HALF SYLLABUS) PAGE 7 OF 15

Q.106 In air at STP, the average kinetic energy of
a. Nitrogen molecules is greater than oxygen molecules
b. Oxygen molecules is less than nitrogen molecules
c. Nitrogen molecules is less than oxygen molecules
d. Oxygen molecules is equal to nitrogen molecules
Q.107 How many number of oxygen atoms are in 7.5 gram of CH2O
1 1
a.  NA b.  NA
2 4
c. 1× NA d. 2  NA
Q.108 Which of the following have highest heat of vaporization
a. F2 b. I2
c. Cl2 d. Br2
Q.109 Efficiency of reaction can be determined by
a. Limiting reactant b. Law of mass action
c. Percentage yield d. Stoichiometry
Q.110 The number of covalent bonds formed in beryllium chloride is
a. 3 b. 4
c. 2 d. 5
Q.111 In a crystal the cations and anions are held together by
a. Metallic bond b. Covalent bonds
c. London forces d. Electrostatic forces
Q.112 What temperature would be required to change 6dm3 of gas at 1 atm pressure and 27°C
to 10dm3 at 0.8 atm pressure
a. 350 K b. 480 K
c. 400K d. 500 K
Q.113 In crystal lattice of ice, each O-atom of water molecule is attached to?
a. Four H-atoms b. Three H-atoms
c. Two H-atoms d. One H-atom
Q.114 Which of the following species has lone pair of electrons on central atom
a. CH4 b. SO3
+
c. NH 4 d. PCl3
Q.115 The number of water molecules present in a drop of water weighing 0.018g is
a. 6.02 × 1026 b. 6.02 × 1020
c. 6.02 × 1023 d. 6.02 × 1019
Q.116 Which of the following electronic configuration corresponds to an element with the
highest ionization energy
a. 1s2, 2s2, 2p3 b. 1s2, 2s2, 2p5
2 2 6
c. 1s , 2s , 2p d. 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s1
Q.117 For a gaseous phase reaction, when number of moles of reactants and products are equal
a. The values of Kn and Kc are different b. The value of Kp is greater than Kc
c. The value of Kc is greater than Kc d. The value of Kp and Kc are equal
Q.118 Purification of table salt (NaCl) by passing HCl gas through its saturated aqueous
solution is an example of
a. Law of mass action b. Hess’s law
c. Common ion effect d. Henry’s law
Q.119 The equation N 2g + 3H 2g 2NH 3g represents:
a. Contact process b. Haber’s process
c. Solvay process d. Avogadro’s law
Q.120 Which of the following reaction has greater Kp than Kc (Kp > Kc)?
a. 2 NOCl 2 NO + Cl2 b. 2 SO2 + O2 2 SO3
c. 2 NOCl . NO + Cl2 d. N2 + 3H2 2 NH3

NMDCAT FLP–1 (1ST HALF SYLLABUS) PAGE 8 OF 15

 PHYSICS UNIT-1-5
Q.121 A 0.5 kg ball moves in a circle of radius 0.4 m with a velocity of 4 ms-1. The centripetal
force on the ball is
A. 10 N B. 40 N
C. 20 N D. 80 N
Q.122 A particle moves in a circle describing equal angles in equal intervals. The velocity vectors
A. Remains constant B. Changes in direction
C. Changes in magnitude D. Changes both in magnitude and direction
Q.123 A crane can raise a body of mass 120kg vertically upward with a speed of 4.5 ms -1. What
is the power of its engine?
A. 5.3 kw B. 7.3 kw
C. 6.3 kw D. 8.3 kw
Q.124 A body of mass 2kg is being rotated in a circle by 0.5m long string. The work done by
centripetal force is
A. 1 erg B. 0.4 erg
C. 1 J D. zero
Q.125 Unit of energy is
A. Js B. Jm
C. kilowatt D. watt.s
Q.126 When projectile is projected in XY-plane then vy
A. Remains same B. Goes on decreasing with height
C. Goes on increasing with height D. First increases then decreases
-2
Q.127 The acceleration of a car is 8ms of diameter of wheel is 2m its angular acceleration will be
A. 16 rad s-2 B. 4 rad s-2
C. 8 rad s-2 D. 10 rad s-2
Q.128 A boat is moving at constant speed v through still water experiences frictional drag F
what is power deliver
1
A. Fv B. Fv2
2
1
C. Fv D. Fv2
2
–1
Q.129 The velocity of sound in air is 332 ms . The length of a closed pipe whose frequency of
second overtone is 332 Hz, will be:
A. 0.51 m B. 1.25 m
C. 0.75 m D. 1.75 m
Q.130 Radio waves of wavelength  are sent from RADAR towards an aeroplane. If the
aeroplane is moving towards the RADAR station, the wavelength of the radio waves
received after reflection from the aeroplane will be
A.  B. > 
C. < 
D. More or less than , depending on the speed of aeroplane
Q.131 Which of the substances A, B, or C has the highest specific heat?

A. A B. C
C. B D. All have equal specific heat
Q.132 In which of the processes, internal energy of system remains constant?
A. Adiabatic B. Isobaric
C. Isochoric D. Isothermal
Q.133 Work done by a variable force making angles at different points with displacement in
moving the particle from one point to another is equal to the area under the curve of
A. F Sin θ versus d B. F Cos θ versus d Cos θ
C. F Cos θ versus d D. F versus d Cos θ
NMDCAT FLP–1 (1ST HALF SYLLABUS) PAGE 9 OF 15
Q.134 A car of mass 1000 kg moving on a horizontal road with a steady speed of 10 m/sec has
total frictional force on it of 400 N. The power due to engine is
A. 40 W B. 400 W
C. 4000 W D. 20 W
Q.135 To improve the jumping record, a long jumper should jump at an angle of:
A. 30o B. 45o
o
C. 60 D. 90o
Q.136 A car, initially at rest, travels 20 m in 4 s along a straight line with constant acceleration.
The acceleration of the car is:
A. 0.4 m/s2 B. 2.5 m/s2
2
C. 1.3 m/s D. 4.9 m/s2
Q.137 A thermodynamic system goes from states (i) P1, V to 2P1, V (ii) P, V to P, 2V. Then
work done in the two cases is
A. Zero, Zero B. PV, Zero
C. Zero, PV D. PV1, P1V1
Q.138 A baseball is hit straight up and is caught by the catcher 2.0 s later. The maximum
height of the ball during this interval is:
A. 4.9 m B. 9.8 m
C. 7.4 m D. 12.6 m
Q.139 The range of projectile is directly proportional to
A. sin2 B. sin2
C. sin D. 2 sin
Q.140 The power needed to lift a mass of 5000g to height of 1m in 2 second is
A. 2.45-watt B. 24.5 watt
C. 245-watt D. 2.45 k watt
Q.141 Work in negative when angle between F and d is:
A. 0º B. 90º
C. 45º D. 180º
Q.142 A constant force of 35 N is used to lift a box to a height of 3 m. This takes 15 s with the
help of a small crane. How much minimum power was the crane using?
A. 7 W B. 105 W
C. 7 kW D. 105 kW
Q.143 The distance between two consecutive crests in a wave front produced in a string is 5 cm. If two
complete waves pass through any point per second, then the velocity of the wave is
A. 10 cm s–1 B. 2.5 cm s–1
C. 15 cm s–1 D. 5 cm s–1
Q.144 If r = 4iˆ and  = 4ˆj then v is along
A. +x–axis B. –z–axis
C. +z–axis D. –y–axis
Q.145 Stationary wave is produced in a string fixed at its both ends. When oscillating in its 4 th
mode with wavelength  the length of string would be.
A. Twice the wave length B. Thrice the wavelength
C. Four times the wavelength D. Twice the half wavelength
Q.146 An observer is moving towards a stationary source with a speed one fifth of the speed of
sound. The frequency of sound heard by the observer will be if v is the speed and f is the
original frequency of the sound waves
A. 5 f B. 6
6 5f
C. 4f D. 6f
5 5
Q.147 The rate of change of momentum of a freely falling body is equal to its
A. Mass B. Weight
C. Acceleration D. Velocity
Q.148 A snail crawls 12 cm in one minute. What is it’s average speed in mms–1?
A. 0.2 B. 2
C. 20 D. 0.02

NMDCAT FLP–1 (1ST HALF SYLLABUS) PAGE 10 OF 15

Q.149 Force is measured according to which law of motion
A. 1st B. 3rd
C. 2nd D. All
Q.150 An impulse is applied to a moving object at an angle of 120o with respect to velocity
vector. The angle between the impulse vector and change in momentum vector is:
A. 120o B. 60o
o
C. 0 D. 240o
Q.151 The time in which a force of 2 N produces a change of momentum of 0.4 kg ms-1 in the
body is:
A. 0.2s B. 0.5s
C. 0.02s D. 0.05s
Q.152 Force 10 N acts through a distance 20m. The force is then increased to 30 N and then
acts through a further distance 40 m. Calculate the work done
A. 1200 J B. 200 J
C. 1400 J D. 1500 J
Q.153 Slope of force displacement is measured in unit
A. ms −1 B. kgs−1
C. ms −2 D. kgs−2
Q.154 A ball of mass 100 g is dropped from height 100 m. Its velocity when its height from
ground is 20 m
A. 40 m/s B. 10 m/s
C. 20 m/s D. 10 2m / s
Q.155 A body falls from height 0.25 m gain K.E 1.25 J. What is the weight of body?
A. 2 N B. 5 N
C. 4 N D. 7 N
Q.156 3.6 MJ is equal to
A. 1 kWh B. 1 eV
C. 1 M Watt D. 3600 eV
Q.157 What is the average power exerted by a man of 60 kg if he climbs up a ladder of 6 m
high in 10 s
A. 300 W B. 373 W
C. 353 W D. 393 W
Q.158 A particle of rigid body is at a distance 0.1 m from axis of rotation to rotate with linear
speed 3 m/s. What is angular speed of the rigid body
A. 0.3 rad/s B. 30 rads–1
–1
C. 3 rad s D. 1.5 rad/s
Q.159 A block of mass 100 g slides across a frictionless floor with speed 3 m/s. The block
strikes with a wall and bounce back with a speed 3 m/s in opposite direction. Net work
done on block is
A. 3 J B. Zero
C. 6 J D. –6 J
Q.160 An engine develops 10 kW power. How much time will it take to lift a mass of 200kg to a
height 40 m
A. 4s B. 8s
C. 5s D. 10s
Q.161 The frequency of an open organ pipe is n. If one end is closed, then its fundamental
frequency will be
A. n/2 B. n
C. 3n/4 D. 2n
Q.162 The time taken by a particle to travel between a trough and a crest in a transverse wave is
A. T B. T/2
C. 3T/4 D. T/4
Q.163 The third harmonic in an open organ pipe is known as
A. Fundamental frequency B. Third overtone
C. Second overtone D. First overtone

NMDCAT FLP–1 (1ST HALF SYLLABUS) PAGE 11 OF 15

Q.164 The wavelength of sound in air is 10 cm. Its frequency is (Take velocity of sound = 330 ms–1)
A. 3.3 kHz B. 330 Hz
C. 330 mHz D. 3×109 Hz
Q.165 An engine is moving on a circular track with constant speed. It is blowing a whistle of 500 Hz.
The frequency received by an observer standing stationary at the centre of the track is
A. More than 500 Hz
B. Equal to 500 Hz
C. Less than 500 Hz
D. More than or less than 500 Hz depending upon speed of source
Q.166 Ratio of pitch of sound of an approaching locomotive to the receding locomotive when
speed of approach and recede is same
A. > 1 B. = 1
C. < 1 D. = 
Q.167 Motion of sound source towards the listener results to produce apparent increase in the
________ for the listener
A. Speed of sound waves B. Number of waves received per second
C. Wavelength of sound waves D. Both B and C
Q.168 In an organ pipe system that is closed at one end if the length of pipe is 10 cm then the
wavelength of wave next to second harmonic
A. 6 cm B. 12 cm
C. 4 cm D. 8 cm
Q.169 For destructive superposition of waves to take place phase difference between the waves will be
(where n = 0,1, 2, 3,…)
π
A. n  B. (2n + 1)
2

π
C. (2n + 1)  D. n
2
Q.170 If the source of sound is moving away from the stationary observer with a speed half the
speed of sound, then the apparent wavelength for the observer would be if speed of
sound is v and its original frequency is ‘f’
v 5v
A. B.
2f 2f
3v v
C. D.
2f 3f
Q.171 During an adiabatic expansion of 5 moles of gas, the internal energy decreases by 75 J.
The work done during the process is
A. –75 J B. 15 J
C. zero D. 75 J

NMDCAT FLP–1 (1ST HALF SYLLABUS) PAGE 12 OF 15

Q.172 The state of thermal equilibrium between two systems is determined by equality of
A. Pressure B. Temperature
C. Volume D. None of these
Q.173 During the adiabatic expansion of 2 moles of a gas, the change in the internal energy was
found to be – 100 J. The work done during the process was
A. Zero B. 200J
C. −100J D. 100J
Q.174 The work done on the system is taken as
A. Positive B. Negative
C. Same D. Zero
3
Q.175 For mono atomic gas C v = R value of Cp n
2
5
A. R B. R
2
1 7
C. R D. R
2 2
Q.176 The equation Q = U in thermodynamic represents an
A. Isobaric processes B. Adiabatic processes
C. Isothermal processes D. Isochoric process
Q.177 In the adiabatic process there is no
A. Work done B. Heat exchange
C. Temp change D. Internal energy change
Q.178 Heat given to an ideal gas under isothermal conditions is used
A. In increasing the temperature
B. In doing external work
C. In increasing the internal energy
D. In increasing the temperature and doing external work
Q.179 In an isobaric process _____ remains same
A. Temperature B. Volume
C. Pressure D. Heat
Q.180 Heat given to a system is 35 joules and work done by the system is 15 joules. The change
in the internal energy of the system will be
A. –50 J B. 30 J
C. 20 J D. 50 J

NMDCAT FLP–1 (1ST HALF SYLLABUS) PAGE 13 OF 15

 ENGLISH FLP–1
SPOT THE ERROR:
In the following sentences, some segments of each sentence are underlined. Your task is to
identify that underlined segment of the sentence, which contains the mistake that needs to be
corrected. Fill the circle corresponding to that letter under the segment in the MCQ Response
Form.

Q.181 She did not move and seem as strong as a heifer in appearance.
A. B. C. D.
Q.182 Once he raised a hand to touch the lowest of the swings that was hung from the ceiling.
A. B. C. D.

Q.183 He was suddenly interrupted by Pasteur as follows: “It is nothing of all that which cause
A. B. C.
the epidemic; it is the doctor and his belongings which carry the germs from diseased to
D.
the healthy woman.”

Q.184 Eventually, the larvae begin to pupate and no longer exude of their chemical messages.
A. B. C. D.

Q.185 When our washing machine broke, our neighbours let us use their.
A. B. C. D.

In each of the following questions, four alternative sentences are given. Choose the
CORRECT one and fill the circle corresponding to that letter in the MCQ Response Form.
Q.186
A. The keeping of silkworms were one of the chief home-industries of the peasantry of the
part of France.
B. The keeping of silkworms were one of the chief home-industry of the peasantry of the part
of France.
C. The keeping of silkworms was one of the chief home-industry of the peasantry of the part
of France.
D. The keeping of silkworms was one of the chief home-industries of the peasantry of the part
of France.
Q.187
A. You're past the age when people get these horrible diseases, you're one of the few lucky
ones who is going to die a really natural death.
B. You're past the age when people get these horrible diseases. you're one of the few lucky
one who is going to die a really natural death.
C. You're past the age when people get these horrible diseases; you're one of the few lucky
one who're going to die a really natural death.
D. You're past the age when people get these horrible diseases; you're one of the few lucky
ones who're going to die a really natural death.
Q.188
A. I have a lot of sympathy for her; she had to grow up the children of her own.
B. I feel a lot of sympathy for her; she had to bring up the children on her own.
C. I do a lot of sympathy for her, she had to bring up the children on her own.
D. I have a lot of sympathy for her, she had to bring up the children of her own.
Q.189
A. As I drove away, I flicks off the radio.
B. As I drove away; I flicked to the radio.
C. As I drove away, I flick off the radio.
D. As I drove away, I flicked on the radio.

NMDCAT FLP–1 (1ST HALF SYLLABUS) PAGE 14 OF 15

Q.190
A. Shipbuilding and others heavily industry developed in the north of Britain.
B. Shipbuilding and others heavily industry developed in north of Britain.
C. Shipbuilding and other heavy industry developed in the north of Britain.
D. Shipbuilding and other heavy industry developed in the North Britain.
Direction:
Choose the correct SYNONYM:
Q.191 Dilapidated
A. Vigorous B. Clattered
C. Decrepit D. Ingratiated
Q.192 Coveted
A. Loathed B. Crave
C. Coaxed D. Shattered
Q.193 Labyrinth
A. Warren B. Exposition
C. Amaranth D. Adornment
Direction:
Choose the Correct ANTONYM
Q.194 Groggy
A. Vigilant B. Bleary
C. Dewy D. Bestowing
Q.195 Captivated
A. Transfixed B. Irked
C. Craven D. Erupted
Direction:
Choose the Correct SPELLING
Q.196
A. Exaspiration B. Exasperation
C. Igzasperation D. Egzaspiration

DIRECTION:
Choose the correct WORD with Respect to the Given Context.
Q.197 He didn't shout, he just __________ at me silently.
A. Glared B. Fluttered
C. Exaggerated D. Distracted
Q.198 Lucie whistled sharply to catch her attention, then _______ her over to stand beside him.
A. Coveted B. Crammed
C. Beckoned D. Condescended
Q.199 They ___________ loaded the patient into the ambulance.
A. Gingerly B. Flawlessly
C. Haphazardly D. Curiously
Q.200 The separation between the entryway and the living room can be further
______________ by placing a screen near the doorway.
A. Appraised B. Beaded
C. Beckoned D. Accentuated

NMDCAT FLP–1 (1ST HALF SYLLABUS) PAGE 15 OF 15