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The document provides a collection of 15 multiple choice questions related to averages. Some key details include: - Questions cover topics like calculating the average of sets of numbers, finding average rates when items are added or removed, and determining unknown values based on average information provided. - Questions have 4 possible answer choices labeled A through D. - The document also provides the answers and explanations for each question directly after the questions. This allows the reader to self-check their understanding of averages concepts.

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sai sumanth b
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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
195 views

361 Assignment-Updated

The document provides a collection of 15 multiple choice questions related to averages. Some key details include: - Questions cover topics like calculating the average of sets of numbers, finding average rates when items are added or removed, and determining unknown values based on average information provided. - Questions have 4 possible answer choices labeled A through D. - The document also provides the answers and explanations for each question directly after the questions. This allows the reader to self-check their understanding of averages concepts.

Uploaded by

sai sumanth b
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
You are on page 1/ 165

1

ASSIGNMENTS

















By 361 Degree Minds








2


INDEX


Chapter Content Pages

1 AVERAGES 3
2 CLOCKS 8
3 PARTNERSHIPS 13
4 PERCENTAGES 19
5 PROFIT & LOSS 24
6 TIME & WORK 30
7 TIME & DISTANCE 34
8 RATIO & PROPORTIONS 38
9 MENSURATION 44
10 PIPES AND CISTERNS 49
11 ALLIGATIONS & MIXTURES 64
12 RATIO & PROPORTIONS 70
13 MIXTURES & ALLIGATIONS 76
14 SERIES 91
15 BLOOD RELATIONS 97
16 ODD MAN OUT 103
17 VERBAL ANALOGIES 109
18 SYLLOGISMS 114
19 SYNONYM & ANTONYMS 121
20 CODING AND DECODING 124
21 ARRANGEMENTS 130
22 LOGICAL ABILITY 136
23 SEATING ARRANGEMENT 138
24 PUZZLES 143
25 STATEMENTS AND ARGUMENTS 148
26 SENTENCE CORRECTION 153
27 PARAJUMBLES 156
28 CALENDAR 161












Chapter 1


3


AVERAGES


1. What is the average of first 21 multiples of 7?

A.) 49 B.) 77
C.) 66 D.) 57


2. In a class, the average age of 30 boys is 13 years and the average of 20 girls is 12 years. What is the
average age of the whole class?

A.) 12.5 Yrs B.) 14.2 Yrs
C.) 12.3 Yrs D.) 12.6 Yrs


3. The average age of a class of 32 students is 16 yrs. if the teacher's age is also included, the average
increases by one year. Find the age of the teacher

A.) 49 B.) 48
C.) 47 D.) 50


4. The average of seven numbers is 18. The average of first three numbers is 14 and the average of last
three numbers is 19. What is the middle number?

A.) 42 B.) 57
C.) 27 D.) None of these

5.Average of five consecutive even numbers is 35. Find the greatest number in these five numbers?

A.) 31 B.) 33
C.) 39 D.) 36


6. Average of 13 results is 65. If the average of first six results is 61 and average of last six results is 59 then
find the seventh result?

A.) 115 B.) 135
C.) 125 D.) 105


7. The average weight of a class of 20 boys was calculated to be 58.4 kgs and it was later found that one
weight was misread as 56 kg instead of 65 kg. What is the correct weight?

A.) 67.4kg B.) 57.75kg
C.) 58.85kg D.) 49.4kg


4

8. The average of 10 numbers is 25. The average of first three numbers is 22 1/3 and that of next five is
15 1/5. If the eighth be less than the ninth and tenth numbers by 5 and 11 respectively, then the tenth
number is:

A.) 29 B.) 21
C.) 41 D.) 30


9. The average of 5 consecutive numbers is n. if the next two number are also included. The average will?

A.) Remain the same B.) Increase by 1
C.) Increase by 2 D.) Decrease by 1


10. The average of marks of a student of 8 exams was 35. How many marks must be get in the next exam
so as to increase his average of marks by 5?


A.) 75 B.) 80
C.) 83 D.) 79


11. If the average age of six numbers is 30. If one is excluded. The average become 25. The excluded
number is:

A.) 54 B.) 55
C.) 53 D.) 45


12. Of the three numbers whose average is 45, the first is half of the sum of the others. The first number
is:

A.) 45 B.) 51
C.) 59 D.) 49


13. The average age of father and his two sons is 27 Years. Five years ago, the average age of the two
sons was 12 Years. If the difference between the ages of the two sons is four years, what is the present
age of the father?

A.) 42 B.) 47
C.) 48 D.) 49


14. There were 45 students in a hostel, if the numbers of students increased by 7, the expenses of the
mess were increased by Rs. 39 per day while the average expenditure per head diminished by Re.1. What
is the original expenditure of the mess?

A.) Rs. 562 B.) Rs. 624
C.) Rs. 1950 D.) Rs. 585


5


15. Of three numbers, the third is twice the second and the second is 4 times the first. If their average is
78, the smallest of the three numbers is:

A.) 15 B.) 21
C.) 17 D.) 18














































6

1. AVERAGES – Answers


1. Answer: Option 'B'

Required average = 7(1+2+....+21) / 21

(7/21)X ( (21x22) / 2 ) (because sum of first 21 natural numbers)

= 77

2. Answer: Option 'D'

Total age of 50 students

(30X 13+20 X 12) = 630

Average = 630/50 = 12.6 Years

3. Answer: Option 'A'



Total age of students is 32X16 = 512 Years

Total age inclusive of teacher = 33X (16+1) = 561

So, Teacher's age is 561-512 = 49 Yrs

There is a shortcut for these type of problems

Teacher's age is 16+(33X1) = 49 Years

4. Answer: Option 'C'



The total of seven numbers = 7X18 = 126

The total of first 3 and last 3 numbers is = 3 X 14+3 X 19 = 99

So, the middle number is (126 - 99 ) = 27


5. Answer: Option 'C'


6. Answer: Option 'C'


7. Answer: Option 'C'

Actual total weight is (20X 58.4 - 56 + 65) = 1177 Kgs


7


Actual average weight is 1177/20 = 58.85kgs

8. Answer: Option 'C'


9. Answer: Option 'B'


10. Answer: Option 'B'


11. Answer: Option 'B'


12. Answer: Option 'A'


13. Answer: Option 'B'
The total present age of father and two sons is 3S27 = 81 yrs
The total present age of sons is (12+5) X 2 = 34Years
so, present age of father is 81 - 34 = 47 yrs

14. Answer: Option 'D'

Let the original expenditure be Rs.x

Original average expenditure = X/45

New average expenditure = (x+39)/52

So (x/45) - ((x+39) / 52) = 1 so x = 585

so, original expenditure is Rs 585



15. Answer: Option 'D'

Let first number be x.

So,2nd no. = 4x & 3rd no.=8x.

So, x+4x+8x=78 × 3 = 234.

13x = 234

x = 234/13

Hence, smallest Number x=18.


8

Chapter 2

CLOCKS


1. How many times do the hands of a clock coincide in a day?

A.) 20 B.) 21
C.) 22 D.) 24

2. How many times are the hands of a clock at right angles in a day?

A.) 22 B.) 44
C.) 38 D.) 48

3. How much does a watch lose per day, if its hands coincide every 64 minutes?

A.) 32 8/11min B.) 36 5/11min
C.) 90min D.) 96min


4. How many times in a day the hands of a clock are straight?

A.) 22 B.) 21
C.) 43 D.) 44

5. At what time between 4 & 5 will the hands of a watch point in opposite directions?

A.) 43 min past 4 B.) 42 5/11 min past 4
C.) 50 4/11 min past 4 D.) 40 min past 4

6. At what time between 9&10 will the hands of a watch be together?

A.) 45 min past 9 B.) 49 1/11 min past 9
C.) 48 min past 9 D.) 47 min past 9


7. At what time between 5.30 & 6 will the hands of a watch be at right angle?

A.) 43 7/11 min past 5 B.) 41 2/11 min past 5
C.) 42 min past 5 D.) 44 1/11 min past 5

8. At what time between 7 & 8 o'clock will the hands of a watch be in the straight line but no together?

A.) 5 3/11 min past 7 B.) 5 5/11 min past 7
C.) 5 3/11 min past 7 D.) 43min past 7

9. An accurate clock shows 8 o'clock in the morning. Through how many degrees will the hour hand
rotate when the clock shows 2 o'clock in the afternoon?


9

A.) 144 degrees B.) 150 degrees
C.) 168 degrees D.) 180 degrees


10. How much watch gain or lose per day, If its hands coincide every 64 min’s?

A.) Gain 92 min B.) Lose 9 min
C.) Lose 34 5/11 min D.) Lose 32 8/11 min

11. Between 4 & 5 O'clock, the time when the hands coincide is:

A.) 4:21 9/11 B.) 4:24 3/11
C.) 4:22 D.) 4:23 9/11


12. At what angle the hands of a clock are inclined at 15 minutes past 5?

A.) 58 1/2 degrees B.) 64 degrees
C.) 67 1/2 degrees D.) 72 1/2 degrees

13. My watch gains 5 min every hour. How many degrees the second hand moves in every min?

A.) 360 degrees B.) 390 degrees
C.) 330 degrees D.) 370 degrees


14. A clock is set right at 5am the clock loses 16min in 24 hours. What will be the right time when the
clock indicates 10am? On the 4th day?

A.) 10.30pm B.) 11pm
C.) 10.45pm D.) 11.15pm

15. When the time in the clock is 7.20, then the angle between the hands of the clock is:

A.) 100 degrees B.) 120 degrees
C.) 90 degrees D.) 110 degrees
















10



2. Clocks – Answers and Explanation


1. Answer: Option 'C'

The hands of a clock coincide 11 times in every 12 hours
(Since between 11 and 1, they coincide only once,
i.e. at 12 o'clock).
==> The hands coincide 22 times in a day.


2. Answer: Option 'B'

In 12 hours, they are at right angles 22 times.
==> In 24 hours, they are at right angles 44 times.

3. Answer: Option 'A'

55 min. spaces are covered in 60 min.
60 min spaces are covered in (60/55 * 60)min = 65 5/11 min
Loss in 64 min = ( 65 5/11- 64 ) = 16/11 min
Loss in 24 hrs = ( 16/11 * 1/64 * 24 * 60 ) min
= 32 8/11 min


4. Answer: Option 'D'

In 12 hours, the hands coincide or are in opposite direction 22 times.
In 24 hours, they are at right angles 22 times.


5. Answer: Option 'C'

At 4 o'clock, the hands of the watch are 20 min. spaces apart.
To be in opposite directions, they must be 30min. spaces apart.
Minute hand will have to gain 5 min. spaces.
55min spaces are gained in 60 min.
5 min. spaces are gained in (60/55 * 50) min. or 54 6/11 min.
Required time = 54 6/11 min. past 4.

6. Answer: Option 'B'

To be together between 9 and 10 O'clock, the minute hand has to gain 45min.
spaces 55min. spaces are gained in 60min.
45min.spaces are gained in (60/55 * 45) min. or 49 1/11 min.
The hands are together at 49 1/11 min. past 9.


11

7. Answer: Option 'A'

At 5 o'clock, the hands are 25 min. spaces apart.
To be at right angles and that too between 5.30 and 6, the minute hand has to
gain 55min. spaces are gained in 60min.
4min. spaces are gained in (60/55 * 40) min. = 43 7/11min.
Required time = 43 7/11min.past 5.

8. Answer: Option 'B'

When the hands of the clock are in the same straight line but not
together, they are 30 minute spaces apart.

At 7 o'clock, they are 25min. spaces apart.
Minute hand will have to gain only 5 min.
space 55 min. spaces are gained in 60min.
5min. spaces are gained in ( 60/55 * 5) min = 5 5/11 min.
Required time = 5 5/11 min. past 7.

9. Answer: Option 'D'

Angle traced by the hour hand in 6 hours = ( 360/12 * 11/3 )degrees
=180 degrees

10. Answer: Option 'D'

55 min. spaces are covered in 60 min.
60 min. spaces are covered in (60/55 * 60) min = 65 5/11min
Loss in 64min = (65 5/11 - 64) = 16/11 min
Loss in 24 hrs= (16/11 * 1/64 * 24 * 60 ) min = 32 8/11 min.


11. Answer: Option 'A'

4 * 30 = 120 + 0 * 2/11
==> 240/11 = 21 9/11min


12. Answer: Option 'A'

Angle traced by hour hand in 21/4 hrs = ( 360/12 * 21/4) degrees = 157 1/2 degrees
Angle traced by min. hand in 15min. = ( 360/12 * 15 ) degrees = 90 degrees.
Required angle = ( 157 1/2 ) degrees - 90 degrees = 67 1/2 degrees

13. Answer: Option 'B'

14. Answer: Option 'B'

Time from 5am. On a day to 10pm. on 4th day = 89 hours.
Now 23 hrs 44 min. of this clock = 24 hours of correct clock
365/15 hrs of this clock = 24 hours of correct clock


12

89 hrs of this clock = ( 24 * 15/356 * 89) hrs of correct clock
= 90 hrs of correct clock.
So, the correct time is 11pm.


15. Answer: Option 'A'

7:20
7:4
7~4 = 3 * 20 = 90 + 10 = 100 degrees










































13


Chapter 3

PARTNERSHIPS


1. A and B started a business by investing Rs.4000/- and Rs.5000/- respectively. Find the A’s share out of a
total profit of Rs.1800:
A.) Rs.1000/- B.) Rs.1800/-
C.) Rs.800/- D.) Rs.400/-


2. To whom this Basic Computer Knowledge Question and Answers section is beneficial?
A.) Rs.2000/- B.) Rs.1500/-
C.)Rs.1000/- D.) Rs.4500/-


3. A,B and C started a business by investing Rs.2000/- , Rs.3000/- and Rs.4000/- respectively. Total profit is
Rs.4500/-. Find the A’s share?
A.) Rs.2000/- B.) Rs.1500/-
C.)Rs.1000/- D.) Rs.4500/-


4. A,B and C started a business by investing Rs.1400/- , Rs.4200/- and Rs.7000/- respectively. Total profit is
Rs.8100/-. Find the C's share?
A.) Rs.900/- B.) Rs.1800/-
C.) Rs.2700/- D.) Rs.4500/-

5. A,B started a business in which A invested Rs.10000/- for 1year, B invested Rs.20000/- for 2 years. At
the end of the profit received by them is Rs.5000/-. What is A’s share?
A.)Rs.4000/- B.)Rs.3000/-
C.) Rs.2000/- D.) Rs.1000/-

6. A,B and C started a business in which A invested Rs.10000/- for 1year, B invested Rs.20000/- for 2 years,
C invested Rs.30000/- for 3 years. At the end of the profit received by them is Rs.5600/-. What is C’s
share?

A.) Rs.1600/- B.) Rs.400/-
C.) Rs.3600/- D.) Rs.2000/-

7. P, Q, R enter into a partnership & their share are in the ratio 1/2 : 1/3 : 1/4 , after two months , P
withdraws half of the capitals & after 10 months , a profit of Rs 378 is divided among them .

What is Q's share?
A.) 144 B.) 154
C.) 164 D.) None of these

8. If 4 (P's Capital ) = 6 ( Q's Capital ) = 10 ( R's Capital ) , then out of the total profit of Rs 4650 , R will
receive
A.) 700 B.) 900


14

C.) 600 D.) 750


9. In a business, A and C invested amounts in the ratio 2 : 1 , whereas the ratio between amounts invested
by A and B was 3 : 2 . If Rs 157300 was their profit, how much amount did B receive?
A.) 48600 B.) 48400
C.) 48500 D.) 44800

10. A invested Rs 76000 in a business. After few months, B joined him with Rs 57000. The total profit was
divided between them in the ratio 2 : 1 at the end of the year. After how many months did B join?

A.) 3 B.) 4
C.) 5 D.) 6

11. A,B and C started a business in which A invested Rs.20000/- for 2year, B invested Rs.30000/- for 3
years, C invested Rs.40000/- for 4 years. At the end of the profit received by them is Rs.11,600/-. What is
B’s share?

A.) Rs.3600/- B.)Rs.6400/-
C.)Rs.3200/- D.) Rs.3200/-


12. A,B and C started a business in which A invested Rs.2000/- for 1year, B invested Rs.3000/- for 1 1/2
years, C invested Rs.4000/- for 2 years. At the end of the profit received by them is Rs.14500/-. What is C’s
share?

A.) Rs.2000/- B.) Rs.4500/-
C.)Rs.8000/- D.)Rs.1600/-


13. A started a business by investing Rs.4000/-. After 4 months B joined by investing Rs.5000/- At the
end of the year, there was a profit of Rs.8800/-. What is A’s share?

A.) Rs.4000/- B.) Rs.4500/-
C.) Rs.4800/- D.) Rs.5600/-


14. A started a business by investing Rs.5000/-. After 4 months B joined by investing Rs.4000/- After 2
months C joined by investing Rs.3000/-. At the end of the year, they got a profit of Rs.5500/-. What is A’s
share?

A.) Rs.900/- B.)Rs.1600/-
C.) Rs.3600/- D.)Rs.3000/-

15. A started a business by investing Rs.10000/-.After 1 year B joined by investing Rs.15000/- After 6
months C joined by investing Rs.2400/-. At the end two year, they got a profit of Rs.47000/-. What is A’s
share?

A.)Rs.2000/- B.) Rs.1500/-
C.)Rs.20000/- D.) Rs.15000/-


15

3. Partnerships – Answers and Explanation

1. Answer: Option 'C'

A = Rs.4000/-
B = Rs.5000/-
A share 4 parts & B share 5 parts
Total 9 parts -----> Rs.1800/-
----> 1 part -------> Rs.200/-
A share = 4 parts -----> Rs.800/-

2. Answer: Option 'C'

A = Rs.4000/-
B = Rs.5000/-
A share 4 parts & B share 5 parts
Total 9 parts -----> Rs.1800/-
----> 1 part -------> Rs.200/-
A share = 4 parts -----> Rs.800/-

3. Answer: Option 'D'

A = Rs.2000/- , that is 2 parts
B = Rs.3000/- , that is 3 parts
C = Rs.4000/- , that is 4 parts
Total 9 parts -------> profit (4500/-)
----->1 part -------->Rs.500/-
then A's share 2 parts -----> Rs.1000/-

4. Answer: Option 'D'

A = Rs.1400/- , that is 1 parts
B = Rs.4200/- , that is 3 parts
C = Rs.7000/- , that is 5 parts
Total 9 parts -------> profit (8100/-)
1 part --------> Rs.900/-
then C's share
5 parts -----> Rs.4500/-,


5. Answer: Option 'D'

A = Rs.10000/- per 1 year
B = Rs.20000/- per 2 years
= 10000 * 1 : 20000 * 2
= 1 : 4
Total = 5 parts -----> Rs.5000/- (profit)
= 1 part ------> Rs.1000/-

Then, A's share is


16

= 1 part = Rs.1000/-

6. Answer: Option 'C'



A = Rs.10000/- per 1 year
B = Rs.20000/- per 2 years
C = Rs.30000/- per 3 years
= 10000 * 1 : 20000 * 2 : 30000 * 3
= 1 : 4 : 9
Total = 14 parts -----> Rs.5600/- (profit)
= 1 part ------> Rs.400/-

Then, C's share is
= 9 part = Rs.400/- * 9 parts = Rs.3600/-

7. Answer: Option 'A'



The ratio of their initial investment = 1/2 : 1/3 : 1/4
= 6 : 4: 3
Let's take the initial investment of P, Q and R as 6x, 4x and 3x respectively
A:B:C = (6x × 2 + 3x × 10) : 4x × 12 : 3x × 12
= (12 + 30) : 4 × 12 : 3 × 12
=(4 + 10) : 4 × 4 : 12
= 14 : 16 : 12
= 7 : 8 : 6

B's share = 378 × (8/21) = 18 × 8 = 144

8. Answer: Option 'B'

Let P's capital = p, Q's capital = q and R's capital = r
Then
4p = 6q = 10r
=> 2p = 3q = 5r
=>q = 2p/3
r = 2p/5

P : Q : R = p : 2p/3 : 2p/5
= 15 : 10 : 6

R's share = 4650 × (6/31) = 150 × 6 = 900

9. Answer: Option 'B'



Assume that investment of C = x
Then, investment of A = 2x
Investment of B = 4x/3

A:B:C = 2x : 4x/3 : x = 2 : 4/3 : 1 =6 : 4 : 3


17

B's share = 157300 × 4/(6+4+3) = 157300 × 4/13
= 12100 × 4 = 48400

10. Answer: Option 'B'

Assume that B joins for x months . Then
A : B = 76000 × 12 : 57000 × x = 2:1
=> 76 × 12 : 57x = 2:1
=> 76 × 12/57x = 2/1 = 2
=> x = 76 × 12/57 × 2 = 76 × 4/19 × 2 = 8

Hence B was there in the business for 8 months, or joined after 12-8 = 4 months

11. Answer: Option 'A'

A = Rs.20000/- per 2 year
B = Rs.30000/- per 3 years
C = Rs.40000/- per 4 years

= 20000 * 2 : 30000 * 3 : 40000 * 4
= 4 : 9 : 16
Total = 29 parts -----> Rs.11600/- (profit)
= 1 part ------> Rs.400/-

Then, B's share is
= 9 part = Rs.400/- * 9 parts = Rs.3600/-

12. Answer: Option 'C'

A = Rs.20000/- per 12 months
B = Rs.30000/- per 18 months
C = Rs.40000/- per 24 months

= 20000 * 12 : 30000 * 18 : 40000 * 24
= 4 : 9 : 16
Total = 29 parts -----> Rs.14500/- (profit)
= 1 part ------> Rs.500/-

Then, C's share is
= 16 part = Rs.500/- * 16 parts = Rs.8000/-


13. Answer: Option 'C'

A = Rs.4000/- per 12 months
B = Rs.5000/- per 8 months

= 4000 * 12 : 5000 * 8
= 6 : 5
Total = 11 parts -----> Rs.8800/- (profit)
= 1 part ------> Rs.500/-


18


Then, A's share is
= 6 part = Rs.800/- * 6 parts = Rs.4800/-

14. Answer: Option 'D'

A = Rs.5000/- per 12 months
B = Rs.4000/- per 8 months
C = Rs.3000/- per 6 months

= 5000 * 12 : Rs.4000 * 8 : Rs.3000 * 6
= 30 : 16 : 9
Total = 55 parts -----> Rs.5500/- (profit)
= 1 part ------> Rs.100/-

Then, A's share is
= 30 part = Rs.100/- * 30 parts = Rs.3000/-

15. Answer: Option 'C'

A = Rs.10000/- per 24 months
B = Rs.15000/- per 12 months
C = Rs.24000/- per 6 months

= 10000 * 24 : 15000 * 12 : 24000 * 6
= 20 : 15 : 12
Total = 47 parts -----> Rs.47000/- (profit)
= 1 part ------> Rs.1000/-

Then, A's share is
= 20 part = Rs.1000/- * 20 parts = Rs.20000/-





















19

Chapter 4

PERCENTAGES

1. 33 1/3% OF 240?

A.) 72 B.) 16
C.) 80 D.) None of these

2. 11 1/9 % of 900?

A.) 100 B.) 20
C.) 81 D.) None of these

3. Express 2/5 as rate percent:

A.) 80% B.) 60%
C.) 40% D.) none of these

4. Express 3/4 as rate percent.

A.) 80% B.) 30%
C.) 75% D.) 25%


5. What percent is 70 of 280?

A.) 25% B.) 50%
C.) 75% D.) None of these


6. What percent is 120 of 90?

A.) 132 1/3% B.) 132 2/3%
C.) 133 1/3% D.) None of these

7. What percent is 5 gm of 1 kg?

A.) 0.05% B.) 0.5%
C.) 0.005% D.) None of these


8. What percent is 36paisa's of 12 rupees?

A.) 3% B.) 0.03%
C.) 0.3% D.) None of these


9. A number increased by 20% gives 480. The number is


20

A.) 380 B.) 420
C.) 400 D.) 300


10. Two students appeared at an examination. One of them secured 9 marks more than the other and his
marks was 56% of the sum of their marks. What are the marks obtained by them?

A.) 42, 33 B.) 44, 36
C.) 43, 36 D.) 42, 36

11. If 20% of a = b, then b% of 20 is the same as:

A.) 10% of a B.) 25% of a
C.) 4% of a D.) None of these


12. Two employees X and Y are paid a total of Rs. 550 per week by their employer. If X is paid 120
percent of the sum paid to Y, how much is Y paid per week?

A.) Rs. 150 B.) Rs. 300
C.) Rs. 250 D.) Rs. 200


13. Rahul went to a shop and bought things worth Rs. 25, out of which 30 Paise went on sales tax on
taxable purchases. If the tax rate was 6%, then what was the cost of the tax free items?

A.) Rs. 19.70 B.) Rs. 19.2
C.) Rs. 19.85 D.) Rs. 18.70


14. The Shopkeeper increased the price of a product by 25% so that customer finds it difficult to
purchase the required amount. But somehow the customer managed to purchase only 70% of the
required amount. What is the net difference in the expenditure on that product?

A.) 10% more B.) 5% more
C.) 12.5% more D.) 17.5% more

15. In a competitive examination in State A, 6% candidates got selected from the total appeared
candidates. State B had an equal number of candidates appeared and 7% candidates got selected with 80
more candidates got selected than A. What was the number of candidates appeared from each State?

A.) 8000 B.) 8200
C.) 8020 D.) 7800









21


4. PERCENTAGES – Answers and Explanation

1. Answer: Option 'C'



33 1/3 % = 1/3
1/3 × 240 = 80

2. Answer: Option 'A'



11 1/9 % = 1/9
1/9 × 900 = 100


3. Answer: Option 'C'

2/5 × 100 % = 200/5 % = 40 %


4. Answer: Option 'C'

3/4 × 100 = 300/4 % = 75 %

5. Answer: Option 'A'



70/280 = 1/4
1/4 × 100 = 25 %

6. Answer: Option 'C'



120/90 = 4/3
4/3 × 100 = 400/3 = 133 1/3 %


7. Answer: Option 'B'

1 kg = 1000 gm
5/1000 × 100 = 500/1000
=1/2 = 0.5 %

8. Answer: Option 'A'



12 Rupees = 1200paisa's
36/1200 × 100 = 3/12
12/3 = 3 %


22

9. Answer: Option 'C'

Formula = TOTAL=100% ,INCRESE = "+" DECREASE= "-"
A number means = 100 %
That same number increased by 20 % = 120 %
120 % -------> 480 (120 × 4 = 480)
100 % -------> 400 (100 × 4 = 400)

10. Answer: Option 'A'



Let the marks secured by them be x and (x + 9)
Then sum of their marks = x + (x + 9) = 2x + 9
Given that (x + 9) was 56% of the sum of their marks
=>(x+9) = 56/100(2x+9)
=>(x+9) = 14/25(2x+9)
=> 25x + 225 = 28x + 126
=> 3x = 99
=> x = 33

Then (x + 9) = 33 + 9 = 42
Hence their marks are 33 and 42


11. Answer: Option 'C'
20% of a = b

=> b = 20/100a
b% of 20 = (b/100)20 = [(20/100a)/100]20
= (20 × 20 × a)/(100 × 100)
= 4a/100 = 4% of a

12. Answer: Option 'C'



Let the amount paid to X per week = x
and the amount paid to Y per week = y
Then x + y = 550
But x = 120% of y = 120y/100 = 12y/10

∴12y/10 + y = 550
⇒ y[12/10 + 1] = 550
⇒ 22y/10 = 550
⇒ 22y = 5500
⇒ y = 5500/22 = 500/2 = Rs.250

13. Answer: Option 'A'



Total cost of the items he purchased = Rs.25
Given that out of this Rs.25, 30 Paise is given as tax
=> Total tax incurred = 30 Paise = Rs.30/100


23

Let the cost of the tax free items = x
Given that tax rate = 6%
∴ (25−30/100−x)6/100 = 30/100

⇒ 6(25 −0.3 −x) = 30
⇒ (25 − 0.3 − x) = 5
⇒ x = 25 − 0.3 − 5 = 19.7

14. Answer: Option 'C'



Quantity X Rate = Price
1 x 1 = 1
0.7 x 1.25 = 0.875
Decrease in price = (0.125/1) × 100 = 12.5%


15. Answer: Option 'A'

State A and State B had an equal number of candidates appeared.
In state A, 6% candidates got selected from the total appeared candidates
In state B, 7% candidates got selected from the total appeared candidates
But in State B, 80 more candidates got selected than State A
From these, it is clear that 1% of the total appeared candidates in State B = 80
=> total appeared candidates in State B = 80 x 100 = 8000
=> total appeared candidates in State A = total appeared candidates in State B = 8000


24

Chapter 5

PROFIT & LOSS

1. A table is bought for Rs.400/- and sold at Rs.500/- find gain or loss percentage

A.) 25% loss B.) 30% gain
C.) 25% gain D.) 30% loss


2. A chair is bought for Rs.900/- and sold at Rs.810/- find the loss percentage

A.) 10%gain B.) 10%loss
C.) 12%loss D.) 12%gain


3. A bat is bought for Rs.400 and sold at a gain of 20% find its selling price

A.) Rs.320/- B.) Rs.350/-
C.) Rs.370/- D.) Rs.480/-

4. A chair is bought for Rs.600/- and sold at a loss of 10% find its selling price

A.) Rs.540/- B.) Rs.560/-
C.) Rs.580/- D.) Rs.600/-


5. By selling a watch for Rs.640/-, a man loses 20% what is that watch cost price

A.) Rs.400/- B.) Rs.600/-
C.) Rs.800/- D.) Rs.1000/-


6. Harkamal purchased 8kg of grapes at the rate of 70 per kg and 9 kg of mangoes at the rate of 55 per kg.
How much amount did he pay to the shopkeeper?

A.) 1400 B.) 1505
C.) 1055 D.) 1005
Show Answer


7. Suresh started a business, investing Rs.18000. After 3 months and 4 months respectively, Rohan and
Sudhir joined him with capitals of 12000 and 9000. At the end of the year the total profit was Rs.3982.
What is the difference between Rohan’s and Sudhir’s share in the profit?

A.) 354 B.) 370
C.) 362 D.) 121

8. Narendra started a business, investing 30000. Six months later, Chandan joined him with 15000. If they
make a profit of 10000 at the end of the year, what should be the share of Narendra?


25


A.) 6000 B.) 8000
C.) 7200 D.) 3600


9. By selling a book for 270, 20% profit was earned. What is the cost price of the book?

A.) 216 B.) 226
C.) 254 D.) 225

10. A shopkeeper sold some articles @ 35 per article and earned a profit of 40%. At what price each article
should have been sold so that 60% profit was earned?

A.) 45 B.) 42
C.) 39 D.) 40

11. By selling a bat for Rs.720/- a man loses 10% what is that bat cost price

A.) Rs.800/- B.) Rs.820/-
C.) Rs.840/- D.) Rs.860/-


12. By selling a watch for Rs.720/- a man loses 10% at what price should he sell it to gain 10%?

A.) Rs.800/- B.) Rs.880/-
C.) Rs.900/- D.) Rs.990/-


13. A man sells an article at 10% gain. Had be sold at for Rs.60/- more he could have gained 20% what is
cost price of article


A.) Rs.500/- B.) Rs.600/-
C.) Rs.700/- D.) Rs.800/-


14. A man sells an article at 5% loss. Had he sold it for Rs.60 more he could have gained 10%. What is the
cost price of the article?

A.) Rs.400/- B.) Rs.600/-
C.) Rs.722/- D.) Rs.700/-
Show Answer
Answer: Option 'A'

Short cut method:
Loss =====> 5 %
Profit ====> 10 %
~
----------------
15 % ---------> Rs.60/-
100 % --------> Rs.400/-


26



15. A man sells an article at 7% loss. Had he sold it for Rs.72 more he could have gained 5%. what is the
cost price of the article

A.) Rs.522/- B.) Rs.622/-
C.) Rs.722/- D.) Rs.600/-













































27

5. PROFIT & LOSS – Answers and Explanation


1. Show Answer
Answer: Option 'C'

Formula = (Selling price ~ Cost price)/Cost price * 100

= (500 - 400)/400 = 25% gain

2. Show Answer
Answer: Option 'B'

Formula = (Selling price ~ Cost price)/Cost price * 100

= (810 ~ 900)/900 = 10% Loss

3. Show Answer
Answer: Option 'D'

100 % ------> 400 (100 * 4 = 400)
120 % ------> 480 (120 * 4 = 480)

Selling price = Rs.480/-

4. Show Answer
Answer: Option 'A'

100 % ------> 600 (100 * 6 = 600)

90 % ------> 540 (90 * 6 = 540)

Selling price = Rs.540/-

5. Show Answer
Answer: Option 'C'

80 % ------> 640 (80 * 8 = 640)

100 % ------>800 (100 * 8 = 800)

Cost price = Rs. 800/-

6. Answer: Option 'C'

Cost of 8 kg grapes = 70 × 8 = 560.

Cost of 9 kg of mangoes = 55 × 9 = 490.

Total cost he has to pay = 560 + 490 = 1055.


28


7. Show Answer
Answer: Option 'C'

Suresh: Rohan: Sudhir
Ratio of their investments = 18000 × 12 : 12000 × 9 : 9000 × 8
= 6 : 3: 2
The difference between Rohan’s and Sudhir’s share = 1 share
:.i.e. = Rs. 3982 × 1/11 = Rs.362.


8. Show Answer
Answer: Option 'B'

The ratio of their investments = 30000 × 12 : 15000 × 6 = 4 : 1.

:. Narendra’s share on profit of Rs.10000 = 10000 × 4/5 = Rs.8000.

9. Show Answer
Answer: Option 'D'

SP = 120% of CP; :. CP = 270 × 100/120 = 225

10. Show Answer
Answer: Option 'D'

SP = 140% of CP; :. CP = 35 × 100/140 = 25

Then, 60% of CP = 2.5 × 6 = 15

To set a profit of 60% the SP = 25 + 15 = 40.

11. Show Answer
Answer: Option 'A'

90 % ------> 720 (90 * 8 = 720)

100 % ------>800 (100 * 8 = 800)

Cost price = Rs.800/-


12. Show Answer
Answer: Option 'B'

90 % ------> 720 (90 * 8 = 720)

110 % ------> 880 (110 * 8 = 880)

= Rs.880/-


29


13. Show Answer
Answer: Option 'B'

First selling price = 110 % -----> X Rupees
=sold at for Rs.60/- = 120 % -----> X + 60 Rupees
~
----------------------------------------------
10 % --------> 60
100 % ------->Rs.600/-
OR
Short cut method :
---------------------------
Profit,Profit = -
Ptofit,Loss = +
Loss,Loss = -
Loss,Profit = +
---------------------------
OPPOSITE ==> +
SAME ===> -
----------------------------
Profit ==> 10 %
profit ==> 20%
~
----------------
10 % ---------> 60
100 % --------> Rs.600/-

15. Show Answer
Answer: Option 'D'

Short cut method:
Loss =====> 7 %
Profit ====> 5 %
~
----------------
12 % ---------> 72
100 % --------> Rs.600/-


30

Chapter 6

TIME & WORK

1. A completes a work in 12 days and B complete the same work in 24 days. If both of them work
together, then the number of days required to complete the work will be

A.) 8 days B.) 6 days
C.) 7 days D.) 5 days



2. If 4 men can colour 48 m long cloth in 2 days, then 6 men can colour 36 m long cloth in

A.) 1 days B.) 1 ½ days
C.) ¾ day D.) ½ day


3. If 3 persons can do 3 times of a particular work in 3 days, then, 7 persons can do 7 times of that work in

A.) 7 days B.) 6 days
C.) 4 days D.) 3 days


4. Mangala completes a piece of work in 10 days, Raju completes the same work in 40 days. If both of
them work together, then the number of days required to complete the work is

A.) 15 days B.) 10 days
C.) 9 days D.) 8 days


5. 12 men work 8 hours per day to complete the work in 10 days. To complete the same work in 8 days,
working 15 hours a day, the number of men required
A.) 4 days B.) 5 days
C.) 6 days D.) 8 days


6. If 5 people undertook a piece of construction work and finished half the job in 15 days. If two people
drop out, then the job will be completed in

A.) 25 days B.) 20 days
C.) 15 days D.) 10 days

7. 30 labourers working 7 hours a day can finish a piece of work in 18 days. If the labourers work 6 hours a
day, then the number of labourers required to finish the same piece of work in 30 days will be

A.) 15 days B.) 21 days
C.) 25 day D.) 22 day

8. If 5 girls can embroider a dress in 9 days, then the number of days taken by 3 girls will be


31


A.) 20 days B.) 10 days
C.) 14 days D.) 15 days


9. A and B together can plough a field in 10 hours but by himself A requires 15 hours. How long would B
take to plough the same field?

A.) 10 hours B.) 20 hours
C.) 30 hours D.) 40 hours

10. 16 men or 20 women can finish a work in 25 days. How many days 28 men and 15 women will take to
finish this job?

A.) 19 13/43 days B.) 11 27/43 days
C.) 8 days D.) 10 days

11. A can do a piece of work in 5 days and B can do the same work in 10 days. How many days will both
take to complete the work?

A.) 5 days B.) 3 1/3 days
C.) 3 days D.) 6 days


12. If 12 men can do a piece of work in 24 days, then in how many days can 18 men do the same work?

A.) 36 B.) 20
C.) 18 D.) 16

13. A group of workers accepted to do a piece of work in 25 days. If 6 of them did not turn for the work
and the remaining workers did the work in 40 days, then the original number of workers was

A.) 22 B.) 20
C.) 18 D.) 16

14. If 8 men or 12 women can do a piece of work in 10 days, then the number of days required by 4 men
and 4 women to finish the work is

A.) 8 B.) 10
C.) 12 D.) 4

15. If 8 men can dig a well in 18 days, then the number of days, 12 men will take to dig the same well will
be

A.) 12 days B.) 10 days
C.) 8 days D.) 16 days






32

6. TIME & WORK – Answers and Explanation

1. Answer: Option 'A'



If A can complete a work in x days and B can complete the same work in y days, then, both of them
together can complete the work in x y/ x+ y days
Therefore, here, the required number of days = 12 × 24/ 36 = 8 days.

2. Answer: Option 'A'



The length of cloth painted by one man in one day = 48 / 4 × 2 = 6 m
No. of days required to paint 36 m cloth by 6 men = 36/ 6 × 6 = 1 day.

3. Answer: Option 'D'

That is, 1 person can do one time of the work in 3 days.
Therefore, 7 persons can do 7 times work in the same 3 days itself.

4. Answer: Option 'D'

If A can complete a work in x days and B can complete the same work in y days, then, both
of them together can complete the work in x y/ x+ y days.
That is, the required No. of days = 10 × 40/50 = 8 days.

5. Answer: Option 'D'

That is, 1 work done = 12 × 8 × 10
Then, 12 8 × 10 = ? × 15 × 8
? (i.e. No. of men required) = 12 × 8 × 10/15× 10 = 8 days.

6. Answer: Option 'A'
That is, half the work done = 5 × 15 × ½
Then, 5 × 15 × ½ = 3 × ? ×1/2
i.e. 5 × 15 = 3 × ?
therefore, (No. days required) = 5 × 15/3 = 25 days.


7. Answer: Option 'B'

That is, 1 work done = 30 × 7 ×18 = ? × 6 × 30
? (No. of labourers) = 30 × 7 × 18/6 × 30 = 21


8. Answer: Option 'D'

That is, 5 × 9 = 3 × ?
? = 5 × 9/3 = 15 days.

9. Answer: Option 'C'
If A and B together can do a piece of work in x days and A alone can do the same work in y


33

days, then B alone can do the same work in x y/ y – x days.
Therefore, the No. of hours required by B = 10 × 15/ 15 – 10 = 150/5 = 30 hours.

10. Answer: Option 'D'

16 men = 20 women
Therefore, 1 women = 16/20 men = 4/5 men
15 women = 4/5 × 15 men = 12 men
i.e. 28 men + 15 women = 28 men + 12 men = 40men
1 work done by men = 16 × 25

16 × 25 = 40 × ?
? ( no. of days) = 16 × 25/40 = 10 days.

11. Answer: Option 'B'

If A can complete a work in x days and B can complete the same work in y days, then, both
of them together can complete the work in x y/ x+ y days.
That is, the required No. of days = 5 × 10/15 = 3 1/3 days.

12. Answer: Option 'D'

1 work done = 12 × 24

Then, 12 × 24 = 18 × ? days
? days = 12 × 24/18 = 16.

13. Answer: Option 'D'

Let the original number of workers be ‘x’
Then, x × 25 = (x – 6) × 40
25x = 40x -240
240 = 40x -25x = 15x
x = 240/15 = 16.

14. Answer: Option 'C'

8 men = 12 women
1 woman = 8/12 men = 2/3 men
4 women = 2/3 × 4 men = 8/3 men
4 men + 4 women = 4 + 8/3 men = 20/3 men
1 work done = 8 × 10

8 × 10 = 20/3 × ?days
? days = 8 × 10 × 3/20 = 12 days.

15. Answer: Option 'A'

Work done = 8 × 18
Then, 8 × 18 = 12 × ? days
? days = 8 × 18/12 = 12 days


34

Chapter 7

TIME & DISTANCE


1. A person walking at 4 Kmph reaches his office 8 minutes late. If he walks at 6 Kmph, he reaches there 8
minutes earlier. How far is the office from his house?

A.) 3 1/5 Km B.) 2 1/5 Km
C.) 4 1/5 Km D.) 5 1/5 Km


2. A car takes 6 hours to cover a distance of 540 Km. how much should the speed in Kmph be maintained
to cover the same direction in 3/2th of the previous time?

A.) 6o Kmph B.) 62 Kmph
C.) 75 Kmph D.) 77 Kmph

3. Avinash covers a distance of 8km in 50 minutes. If he covers 3km distance in 2/5th of time then, What
speed should he maintain to cover the remaining distance in the remaining time?

A.) 13 Kmph B.) 14 Kmph
C.) 15 Kmph D.) 11 Kmph

4. A man covers a distance of 180 Km at 72 Kmph and next 190km at 88 Kmph. what is his average speed
For his whole journey of 370 Km?

A.) 79.2 Kmph B.) 79.3 Kmph
C.) 77.25 Kmph D.) 78.5 Kmph


5. An aeroplane covers a certain distance of 420 Kmph in 6 hours. to cover the same distance in 4 2/3
hours, it Must travel at a speed of

A.) 580 Kmph B.) 550 Kmph
C.) 540 Kmph D.) 530 Kmph
Show Answer

6. If a man walks 24 Km at 8 Kmph, he will be late by 25min. if he walks 12 Kmph, how early the fixed time
Will he reach?

A.) 30 minutes B.) 25 minutes
C.) 40 minutes D.) 35 minutes

7. A person walking at 4 Kmph reaches his office 8 minutes late. If he walks at 6 Kmph, he reaches there 8
minutes earlier. How far is the office from his house?

A.) 3 1/5 Km B.) 2 1/5 Km
C.) 4 1/5 Km D.) 5 1/5 Km


35


8. A car takes 6 hours to cover a distance of 540 Km. how much should the speed in Kmph be maintained
to cover the same direction in 3/2th of the previous time?

A.) 6o Kmph B.) 62 Kmph
C.) 75 Kmph D.) 77 Kmph

9. Avinash covers a distance of 8km in 50 minutes. If he covers 3km distance in 2/5th of time then, What
speed should he maintain to cover the remaining distance in the remaining time?

A.) 13 Kmph B.) 14 Kmph
C.) 15 Kmph D.) 11 Kmph


10. A man covers a distance of 180 Km at 72 Kmph and next 190km at 88 Kmph. what is his average speed
For his whole journey of 370 Km?

A.) 79.2 Kmph B.) 79.3 Kmph
C.) 77.25 Kmph D.) 78.5 Kmph


11. An aeroplane covers a certain distance of 420 Kmph in 6 hours. to cover the same distance in 4 2/3
hours, it Must travel at a speed of

A.) 580 Kmph B.) 550 Kmph
C.) 540 Kmph D.) 530 Kmph


12. If a man walks 24 Km at 8 Kmph, he will be late by 25min. if he walks 12 Kmph, how early the fixed
time Will he reach?

A.) 30 minutes B.) 25 minutes
C.) 40 minutes D.) 35 minutes



















36


7. TIME & DISTANCE – Answers and Explanation

1. Answer: Option 'A'

Formula = S1*S2/S2-S1 * T1+T2/60
= 4*6/2 * 16/6
= 24/2 * 16/60
= 8 * 2/5
= 16/5 = 3 1/5 Km

2. Answer: Option 'A'

Time = 6
Distance = 540
3/2 of 6 hours = 6 * 3/2 = 9 Hours
Required speed = 540/9 = 60 Kmph

3. Answer: Option 'C'

Total distance = 8 Km
Total time = 50 Km
Time taken to cover the distance of 3 Km = 50*2/5 = 20 min = 1/3 hours

Remaining distance = 8 - 3 = 5 Km
Required speed = 5/1/3 = 15 Kmph

4. Answer: Option 'A'

Formula = 2*F.S*S.P/F.S+S.P
= 2*72*88/88+72
=79.2 Kmph

5. Answer: Option 'C'

Speed of aeroplane = 420 Kmph
Distance travelled in 6 hours
= 420 * 6 = 2520 Km

Speed of aeroplane to acver 2520 Km in 14/3
= 2520*3/14 = 540 Km

6. Answer: Option 'D'

Time taken to cover 24 Km at the speed of 8 Kmph = 24/8 = 3 hours
Thus, right time was 2 hours 35 minutes

Now, time taken to cover 20 Km at the speed as 12 Kmph = 2 hours
Required time = 2 hours 35 minutes - 2 hours
= 35 minutes


37



7. Answer: Option 'A'

Formula = S1*S2/S2-S1 * T1+T2/60
= 4*6/2 * 16/6
= 24/2 * 16/60
= 8 * 2/5
= 16/5 = 3 1/5 Km

8. Answer: Option 'A'

Time = 6
Distance = 540
3/2 of 6 hours = 6 * 3/2 = 9 Hours
Required speed = 540/9 = 60 Kmph

9. Answer: Option 'C'

Total distance = 8 Km
Total time = 50 Km
Time taken to cover the distance of 3 Km = 50*2/5 = 20 min = 1/3 hours
Remaining distance = 8 - 3 = 5 Km
Required speed = 5/1/3 = 15 Kmph

10. Answer: Option 'A'

Formula = 2*F.S*S.P/F.S+S.P
= 2*72*88/88+72
=79.2 Kmph


11. Answer: Option 'C'

Speed of aeroplane = 420 Kmph
Distance travelled in 6 hours
= 420 * 6 = 2520 Km

Speed of aeroplane to cover 2520 Km in 14/3
= 2520*3/14 = 540 Km


12. Answer: Option 'D'

Time taken to cover 24 Km at the speed of 8 Kmph = 24/8 = 3 hours
Thus, right time was 2 hours 35 minutes
Now, time taken to cover 20 Km at the speed as 12 Kmph = 2 hours
Required time = 2 hours 35 minutes - 2 hours
= 35 minutes



38



Chapter 8

RATIO & PROPORTIONS

1. Find the fourth proportional to 2.4, 4.6 and 7.6.

A.) 14 B.) 14.657
C.) 15.56 D.) 14.56


2. Find the third proportional to 9 and 12?

A.) 9 B.) 108
C.) 16 D.) 9

3. Find the mean proportional between 49 & 81?

A.) 16 B.) 10
C.) 63 D.) 12


4. Find the fourth proportional to 0.2,0.12 and 0.3?

A.) 0.13 B.) 0.18
C.) 0.8 D.) 0.15

5. If a:b=1:2 and b:c=3:4 find a:b:c?

A.) 3:8:6 B.) 3:12:6
C.) 3:6:8 D.) 1:2:4

6. If a:b=1:2,b:c=3:4 and c:d=2:3 find a:b:c:d?

A.) 3:6:8:24 B.) 6:12:16:24
C.) 6:18:24:16 D.) 3:6:2:3



7. If a:b=2:3,b:c=4:5 and c:d=4:2 find a:b:c:d?

A.) 32:48:8:24 B.) 8:12:60:24
C.) 32:18:24:30 D.) 32:48:60:30

8. If 2a=6b and 9b=7c, Find a:b:c?

A.) 42:18:14 B.) 3:9:7
C.) 9:27:22 D.) 21:7:9


39


9. If 0.4:1.4 :: 1:4:x, then x=?

A.) 49 B.) 4.9
C.) 0.49 D.) 0.4


10. If x:y=5:3 then (8x-5y) : (8x+5y)=?

A.) 5:13 B.) 13:5
C.) 5:11 D.) 11:5


11. A fraction bears the same ratio to 1/27 as 3/7 does to 5/9. The fraction is?

A.) 7/45 B.) 1/35
C.) 45/7 D.) 5/21

12. The ratio of two numbers is 3:4 and their sum is 28. The greater of the two numbers is?

A.) 8 B.) 12
C.) 14 D.) 16

13. The ratio of three numbers is 5:3:4 and their sum is 108. The second number of the three numbers is?

A.) 12 B.) 27
C.) 15 D.) 29

14. Three numbers are in the ratio 3:5:7. The largest number value is 42. Find difference between
Smallest & largest number is?

A.) 16 B.) 8
C.) 12 D.) 24

15. If two numbers are in the ratio 2:3. If 10 is added to both of the numbers then the ratio becomes 3:4
then find the smallest number?

A.) 10 B.) 20
C.) 30 D.) 40













40

8. RATIO & PROPORTIONS – Answers and Explanation

1. Answer: Option 'D'

Formula = Fourth proportional = (b × c)/a
A = 2.4 , B = 4.6 and C = 7.6
(4.6 × 7.6)/2.4 = 14.56

2. Answer: Option 'C'

Formula = Third proportional = (b × b)/a
A = 9 and B = 12
(12 × 12)/ 9 = 144/9 = 16

3. Answer: Option 'C'

Formula = √a×b
A = 49 and B = 81
√49×81 = 7 × 9 = 63

4. Answer: Option 'C'

Formula = Fourth proportional = (b × c)/a
A = 0.2 , B = 0.12 and C = 0.3
(0.12 × 0.3)/0.2
0.036/0.2 = 0.18

5. Answer: Option 'C'

a:b = 1:2, b:c = 3:4
1:2
3:4

(a = 1 × 3 = 3, b = 2 × 3 = 6 and c = 2 × 4 = 8)
(a = a × b, b = b × b and c = b × c)
a:b:c = 3:6:8

6. Answer: Option 'B'

a:b = 1:2, b:c = 3:4, c:d = 2:3
1:2
3:4

( a = 1 × 3 = 3, b = 2 × 3 = 6 and c = 2 × 4 = 8)
(a = a × b, b= b × b and c= b × c)
a:b:c = 3:6:8
a:b:c = 3:6:8 and c:d = 2:3

(Note: First a,b,c multiplication with c means 2 and last c means 8
multiplication with d means 3)


41

a:b:c:d = 6:12:16:24

7. Answer: Option 'D'

a:b = 2:3, b:c = 4:5, c:d = 4:2
2:3
4:5

( a = 2× 4 = 8, b = 37 × 4 = 12 and c = 3 × 5 = 15)
(a = a × b, b = b × b and c = b × c)
a:b:c = 8:12:15
a:b:c = 8:12:15 and c:d = 4:2

(Note: First a=8,b=12,c=15 multiplication with c means 4 and last c = 15
multiplication with d means 2)

a:b:c:d = 32:48:60:30


8. Answer: Option 'D'

(2a = 6b ==> a/b = 6/2)
and (9b = 7c ==> b/c = 7/9)
==> a:b = 6:2 and b:c = 7:9
a:b:c = 42:14:18 = 21:7:9

9. Answer: Option 'B'

0.4 × x = 1.4 × 1.4
x = 1.4 × 1.4/0.4 = 14/10 × 14/10 × 1/(4/10)
14/10 × 14/10 × 10/4
7/10 × 7 = 49/10 = 4.9

10. Answer: Option 'C'

x/y = 5/3 (Given)
(8x − 5y)/(8x + 5y)
8(x/y) − 5/8(x/y)+5

( on dividing Nr and Dr by y)
(8(5/3) − 5)/(8(5/3) + 5)
(40/3 − 5/1)/(40/3 + 5/1)
[(40 − 15)/3]/[(40 + 15)/3]

25/55 = 5/11
(8x-5y):(8x+5y) = 5:11



11. Answer: Option 'B'


42

Let the fraction be x. Then,
x:1/27 = 3/7 : 5/9

x × 5/9 = 1/27 × 3/7
x × 5/9 = 1/9 × 1/7
x × 5/9 = 1/63
x × 5 = 9/63
5x = 1/7 = 1/35



12. Answer: Option 'D'

3:4
Total parts = 7
= 7 parts --> 28 (7 × 4 = 28)
= 1 part ---->4 (1 × 4 = 4)
= The greater of the two number is = 4
= 4 parts ----> 16 (4 × 4 = 16)


13. Answer: Option 'B'

5:3:4
Total parts = 12
12 parts --> 108
1 part ---->9

The second number of the three numbers is = 3
3 parts ----> 27


14. Answer: Option 'D'

== 3:5:7
Total parts = 15

= The largest number value is 42
= The largest number is = 7
= Then 7 parts -----> 42 ( 7 * 6 = 42 )
= smallest number = 3 & Largest number = 7
= Difference between smallest number & largest number is = 7 - 3 = 4
= Then 4 parts -----> 24 (4 * 6 = 24)


15. Answer: Option 'B'

2:3
2x + 10 : 3x + 10 = 3 : 4
4[2x + 10] = 3[3x + 10]
8x + 40 = 9x + 30


43

9x - 8x = 40 - 30
x = 10
Then smallest number is = 2
2x = 20

Short cut method:

a:b = 2:3
c:d = 3:4

1.Cross multiplication with both ratios
a * d ~ b * c = 2 * 4 ~ 3 * 3 = 8 ~ 9 = 1

2. If 10 is added both the number means 10 * 3 = 30 and 10 * 4 = 40,
Then 30 ~ 40 = 10
===> 1 -----> 10
===> 2 -----> 20



































44

Chapter 9

MENSURATION

1. The sides of a rectangle are in the ratio of 6 : 5 and its area is 1331 sq.m. Find the perimeter
of rectangle.

A.) 120 m B.) 121 Cm
C.) 121 m D.) None of these


2. A rectangular mat has an area of 120 sq.metres and perimeter of 46 m. The length of its diagonal is:

A.) 17 Cm B.) 17 m
C.) 17 m2 D.) 16 m


3. A rectangle measures 8 Cm on length and its diagonal measures 17 Cm. What is the perimeter of the
rectangle?

A.) 46 Cm B.) 48 Cm
C.) 46 m D.) None of these


4. A rectangular courtyard 3.78 m lang and 5.25 m broad is to be paved exactly with square tiles, all of the
same size. The minimum number of such tiles is:

A.) 350 B.) 450
C.) 450 D.) 495



5. The ratio of the areas of two squares, one having double its diagonal then the other is:

A.) 1 : 3 B.) 3 : 1
C.) 1 : 4 D.) 4 : 1


6. The length of a room is 6 m and width is 4.75 m. What is the cost of paying the floor by slabs at the rate
of Rs. 900 per sq. metre.

A.) Rs. 25660 B.) Rs. 25560
C.) Rs. 25650 D.) Rs. 26550


7. The area of a rectangle plot is 460 square metres. If the length is 15% more than the breadth, what is
the breadth of the plot?

A.) 20 metres B.) 25 metres
C.) 27 metres D.) 18 metres


45


8. A rectangular parking space is marked out by painting three of its sides. If the length of the unpainted
side is 9 feet, and the sum of the lengths of the painted sides is 37 feet, find out the area of the parking
space in square feet?

A.) 128 sq. ft. B.) 126 sq. ft.
C.) 136 sq. ft. D.) 116 sq. ft.

9. A rectangular field has to be fenced on three sides leaving a side of 20 feet uncovered. If the area of the
field is 680 sq. feet, how many feet of fencing will be required?

A.) 98 B.) 88
C.) 99 D.) 89


10. A large field of 900 hectares is divided into two parts. The difference of the areas of the two parts is
one-fifth of the average of the two areas. What is the area of the smaller part in hectares?

A.) 395 B.) 385
C.) 415 D.) 405

11. The side of a cube is 8 m, Find the voiume?

A.) 513 m3 B.) 514 m3
C.) 512 m3 D.) 502 m3


12. The side of a cube is 15 m, find it's surface area?

A.) 1350 m2 B.) 1250 m2
C.) 1300 m2 D.) 1450 m2


13. The side of a cube is 12 m, find the lateral surface area?

A.) 526 m2 B.) 506 m2
C.) 518 m2 D.) 516 m2


14. The lateral surface area of cube is 100 sq.units. find the volume of cube?

A.) 122 m3 B.) 135 m3
C.) 125 m3 D.) 120 m3

15. The volume of cube is equal to the surface area of that cube. Then find the distance of side of the
cube?

A.) 6 m B.) 7 m
C.) 8 m D.) 9 m



46

9. Mensuration – Answers and Explanation

1. Answer: Option 'C'

Let 6x and 5x be sides of the rectangle
6x × 5x = 1331
11x2 = 1331
x2 = 1331/11 = 121 => x = 11

Length = 6x = 6 × 11 = 66
Breadth = 5x => 5 × 11 = 55
Perimeter = 2 (l+b) => 2 (66+55) = 121 m

2. Answer: Option 'B'

rectangular area = l × b = 120 and perimeter = 2(l+b) = 46
l+b = 23
(l-b)2 - 4lb = (23)2 - 4 × 120 = (529-480) = 49 = l-b = 7
l+b = 23, l-b = 7, we get l = 15, b = 8
Diagonal = √152+82
√225+64 => √289 = 17 m

3. Answer: Option 'A'

Second side = √172-82
= √289-64
= 15 Cm
Perimeter = 2 (l+b) = 2(8+5) Cm = 2(23) = 46 Cm

4. Answer: Option 'C'

l = 378 Cm and b = 525 Cm
Maximum length of a square tile
= HCF of (378,525) = 21 Cm
Number of tiles = (378×525)/(21×21) = (18×25) = 450

5. Answer: Option 'D'

Length of the diagonals be 2x and x units.
areas are 1/2 × (2x)2 and (1/2 × x2)
Required ratio = 1/2 × 4 x2 : 1/2 x2 = 4 : 1

6. Answer: Option 'C'

Area = 6 × 4.75 sq. metre.
Cost for 1 sq. metre. = Rs. 900
Hence total cost = 6 × 4.75 × 900 = 6 × 4275 = Rs. 25650

7. Answer: Option 'A'


47

lb = 460 m2...(Equation 1)
Let the breadth = b
Then length, l = b × (100+15)/100 = 115b/100 ...(Equation 2)
From Equation 1 and Equation 2,

115b/100 × b = 460
b2 = 46000/115 = 400
⇒ b = √400 = 20 m


8. Answer: Option 'A'

Let l = 9 ft.
Then l + 2b = 37

=> 2b = 37 - l = 37 - 9 = 28
=> b = 28/2 = 14 ft
Area = lb = 9 × 14 = 126 sq. ft.


9. Answer: Option 'B'

Given that area of the field = 680 sq. feet
=> lb = 680 sq. feet
Length(l) = 20 feet
=> 20 × b = 680
=> b = 680/20 = 34 feet
Required length of the fencing = l + 2b = 20 + (2 × 34) = 88 feet


10. Answer: Option 'C'

Let the areas of the parts be x hectares and (900 - x) hectares.
Difference of the areas of the two parts = x - (900 - x) = 2x - 900
one-fifth of the average of the two areas = 1/5[x+(900−x)]/2
= 1/5 × (900/2) = 450/5 = 90

Given that difference of the areas of the two parts = one-fifth of the average of the two areas
=> 2x - 900 = 90
=> 2x = 990
⇒ x = 990/2 = 495
Hence, area of smaller part = (900 - x) = (900 – 495) = 405 hectares.

11. Answer: Option 'C'

Cube Volume = a3
a3 = 83 = 512 m3

12. Answer: Option 'A'

Surface area = 6 a2 sq. units


48

6 a2 = 6 × 225 = 1350 m2
13. Answer: Option 'D'

Lateral surface = 4 a2
4 × 122 = 4 × 144 => 516 m2

14. Answer: Option 'C'

Lateral surface = 4 a2 = 100 sq.units
a2 = 25
a = 5.
Cube volume = a3 => 125 m3

15. Answer: Option 'A'

Cube volume = a3 cubic units
Surface area = 6 a2 sq.units
a3 = 6 a2
a = 6 m

































49


Chapter 10

PIPES AND CISTERNS

1. Pipes A and B can fill a tank in 5 and 6 hours respectively. Pipe C can empty it in 12 hours. If all the three
pipes are opened together, then the tank will be filled in:
A. 39173917 hours B. 1131711317 hours
C. 28112811 hours D. 412412 hours

2. Two pipes A and B can fill a cistern in 37123712 minutes and 4545 minutes respectively. Both pipes are
opened. The cistern will be filled in just half an hour, if pipe B is turned off after
A. 5 min B. 9 min
C. 10 min D. 15 min

3. A pump can fill a tank with water in 2 hours. Because of a leak, it took 223223 hours to fill the tank. The
leak can drain all the water of the tank in
A. 6 hours B. 8 hours
C. 9 hours D. 10 hours


4. Three pipes A, B and C can fill a tank from empty to full in 30 minutes, 20 minutes, and 10 minutes
respectively. When the tank is empty, all the three pipes are opened. A, B and C discharge chemical
solutions P,Q and R respectively. What is the proportion of the solution R in the liquid in the tank after 3
minutes?
A. 611611 B. 511511
C. 711711 D. 811811

5. A tank is filled by three pipes with uniform flow. The first two pipes operating simultaneously fill the
tank in the same time during which the tank is filled by the third pipe alone. The second pipe fills the tank
5 hours faster than the first pipe and 4 hours slower than the third pipe. Time required by the first pipe to
fill the tank is
A. 30 hours B. 15 hours
C. 10 hours D. 6 hours


6. Two pipes A and B together can fill a cistern in 4 hours. Had they been opened separately, then B would
have taken 6 hours more than A to fill the cistern. How much time will be taken by A to fill the cistern
separately?
A. 6 hours B. 2 hours
C. 4 hours D. 3 hours

7. Two pipes A and B can fill a tank in 12 and 24 minutes respectively. If both the pipes are used together,
then how long will it take to fill the tank?
A. 9 min B. 8 min


50

C. 6 min D. 4 min


8. Two pipes A and B can fill a tank in 15 minutes and 40 minutes respectively. Both the pipes are opened
together but after 4 minutes, pipe A is turned off. What is the total time required to fill the tank?
A. 10 min 10 sec B. 25 min 20 sec
C. 29 min 20 sec D. 20 min 10 sec

9. Two pipes can fill a tank in 25 and 30 minutes respectively and a waste pipe can empty 3 gallons per
minute. All the three pipes working together can fill the tank in 15 minutes. The capacity of the tank is:
A. 250
B. 450 gallons
gallons
C. 120
D. 150 gallons
gallons


10. A tank is filled in 10 hours by three pipes A, B and C. Pipe C is twice as fast as B and B is twice as fast as
A. How much time will pipe A alone take to fill the tank?
A. 70 hours B. 30 hours
C. 35 hours D. 50 hours


11. One pipe can fill a tank four times as fast as another pipe. If together the two pipes can fill the tank in
36 minutes, then the slower pipe alone will be able to fill the tank in:
A. 180 min B. 144 min.
C. 126 min D. 114 min

12. A tap can fill a tank in 4 hours. After half the tank is filled, three more similar taps are opened. What is
the total time taken to fill the tank completely?
A. 3 hr B. 1 hr 30 min
C. 2 hr 30
D. 2 hr
min


13. A tap can fill a tank in 4 hours. After half the tank is filled, two more similar taps are opened. What is
the total time taken to fill the tank completely?
A. 1 hr 20 min B. 4 hr
C. 3 hr D. 2 hr 40 min

14. Three pipes A, B and C can fill a tank in 6 hours. After working at it together for 2 hours, C is closed and
A and B can fill the remaining part in 7 hours. The number of hours taken by C alone to fill the tank is:
A. 10 B. 12
C. 14 D. 16

15. A large tanker can be filled by two pipes A and B in 60 minutes and 40 minutes respectively. How many
minutes will it take to fill the tanker from empty state if B is used for half the time and A and B fill it


51

together for the other half?
A. 15 min B. 20 min
C. 27.5 min D. 30 min
















































52

10. Pipes and Cisterns – Answers and Explanation

1. Answer: Option A

Explanation:
Solution 1

Pipes A and B can fill the tank in 5 and 6 hours respectively. Therefore,
part filled by pipe A in 1 hour =15=15
part filled by pipe B in 1 hour = 1616

Pipe C can empty the tank in 12 hours. Therefore,
part emptied by pipe C in 1 hour =112=112

Net part filled by Pipes A,B,C together in 1 hour
=15+16−112=1760=15+16−112=1760

i.e., the tank can be filled in 6017=39176017=3917 hours.

Solution 2

LCM(5,6,12)=60(5,6,12)=60

Suppose capacity of the tank is 6060 litre. Then,
Quantity filled by pipe A in 1 hour =605=12=605=12 litre.
Quantity filled by pipe B in 1 hour =606=10=606=10 litre.
Quantity emptied by pipe C in 1 hour =6012=5=6012=5 litre.

Quantity filled in 1 hour if all the pipes are opened together
=12+10−5=17=12+10−5=17 litre.

Required time =6017=3917=6017=3917 hours.



2. Answer: Option B

Explanation:
Solution 1

Pipe A alone can fill the cistern in 3712=7523712=752 minutes. Since it was open for 3030 minutes, part of
the cistern filled by pipe A
=275×30=45=275×30=45

So the remaining 1515 part is filled by pipe B.

Pipe B can fill the cistern in 45 minutes. So, time required to fill 1515 part
=455=9=455=9 minutes.

i.e., pipe B is turned off after 9 minutes.


53


Solution 2

Part filled by pipe A in 1 minute =275=275
Part filled by pipe B in 1 minute =145=145

Suppose pipe B is closed after xx minutes. Then,
275×30+145×x=145+x45=1x=9275×30+145×x=145+x45=1x=9

Solution 3

LCM(3712,45)=225(3712,45)=225

Let capacity of the cistern =225=225 litre.

Quantity filled by pipe A in 11 min =22537.5=6=22537.5=6 litre.
Quantity filled by pipe B in 11 min =22545=5=22545=5 litre.

In 3030 minute, pipe A fills 6×30=1806×30=180 litre.

Remaining quantity of 225−180=45225−180=45 litre is filled by pipe B.
Time taken for this =455=9=455=9 minutes.

Therefore, pipe B is turned off after 9 minutes.

Solution 4

Pipe A can fill the cistern in 37123712 minutes =752=752 minutes.
=> Part filled by pipe A in 1 minute =275=275

Pipe B can fill the cistern in 45 minutes
=> Part filled by pipe B in 1 minute =145=145

Part filled by Pipe A and B together in 1 minute
=275+145=6+5225=11225=275+145=6+5225=11225

Assume that B is turned off after xx minutes. i.e., for xx minutes, both pipe A and B were open.
Part filled by Pipe A and B together in xx minutes
=x×11225=11x225=x×11225=11x225

Now, the cistern must be filled in (30−x)(30−x) minutes by pipe A alone.
Part filled in (30−x)(30−x) minutes by pipe A alone
=(30−x)×275=2(30−x)75=(30−x)×275=2(30−x)75

11x225+2(30−x)75=1⇒11x+6(30−x)=225⇒11x+180−6x=225⇒5x=45x=911x225+2(30−x)75=1⇒11x+6(30−x
)=225⇒11x+180−6x=225⇒5x=45x=9






54


3. Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Solution 1

The pump can fill the tank in 2 hour. But, because of the leak, it took 223223 hours to fill the tank.

i.e., the additional water filled by the pump in 2323 hour is emptied by the leak in 223=83223=83hours.

Therefore, the water filled by pump in 2 bour can be emptied by the leak in 83×3=883×3=8hours.

i.e., The leak can drain all the water of the tank in 88 hours.

Solution 2

Part of the tank filled by the pump in 1 hr =12=12

Suppose the leak can drain all the water of the tank in yy hours. Then,
part of the tank emptied by the leak in 1 hr =1y=1y

Because of the leak, it took 223=83223=83 hours to fill the tank.
i.e., Part of the tank filled in 1 hour when the leak is there =38=38

12−1y=38⇒1y=12−38=18⇒y=812−1y=38⇒1y=12−38=18⇒y=8

i.e., the leak can drain all the water of the tank in 8 hours.

Solution 3

Suppose the capacity of the tank is 6060 litre.

Quantity filled in by the pump in 11 hr
=602=30=602=30 litre.

Quantity filled in by the pump in 8383 hr
=30×83=80=30×83=80 litre.

Therefore, the additional 2020 litre (∵80-60) is emptied by the leak in 8383 hr.

So the leak can empty 6060 litre (i.e., the full tank) in 83×3=883×3=8 hr.




4. Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Solution 1

Part of the tank filled by pipe A in 1 minute =130=130
Part of the tank filled by pipe B in 1 minute =120=120
Part of the tank filled by pipe C in 1 minute =110=110


55


Here we have to find the proportion of the solution R.

Pipe C discharges chemical solution R.

Part of the tank filled by pipe C in 3 minutes
=3×110=310=3×110=310

Part of the tank filled by pipe A,B,C together in 1 minute
=130+120+110=1160=130+120+110=1160

Part of the tank filled by pipe A,B,C together in 3 minute
=3×1160=1120=3×1160=1120

Required proportion =(310)(1120)=3×2010×11=611=(310)(1120)=3×2010×11=611

Solution 2

LCM(30,20,10)=60(30,20,10)=60

Suppose capacity of the tank is 6060 litre. Then,
quantity filled by pipe A in 1 minute =6030=2=6030=2 litre.
quantity filled by pipe B in 1 minute =6020=3=6020=3 litre.
quantity filled by pipe C in 1 minute =6010=6=6010=6 litre.

Quantity filled by pipe C in 3 minutes
=3×6=18=3×6=18 litre.

Quantity filled by pipe A,B,C together in 33 minutes
=3(2+3+6)=33=3(2+3+6)=33 litre.

Required proportion =1833=611=1833=611

Solution 3

Ratio of water filled by A,B,C per minute
=130:120:110=2:3:6=130:120:110=2:3:6

Proportion of R any time =62+3+6=611=62+3+6=611




5. Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Suppose the first pipe alone can fill the tank in xx hours. Then,
second pipe alone can fill the tank in (x−5)(x−5) hours,
third pipe alone can fill the tank in (x−5)−4=(x−9)(x−5)−4=(x−9) hours.

Part filled by first pipe and second pipe together in 1 hr
= Part filled by third pipe in 1 hr


56

⇒1x+1x−5=1x−9⇒1x+1x−5=1x−9

From here, better to find the value of xx from the given choices which will be easier. Or we can solve it as
follows.

(x−5)(x−9)+x(x−9)=x(x−5)x2−14x+45+x2−9x=x2−5x−14x+45+x2−9x=−5xx2−18x+45=0(x−15)(x−3)=0x=15 or 3
(x−5)(x−9)+x(x−9)=x(x−5)x2−14x+45+x2−9x=x2−5x−14x+45+x2−9x=−5xx2−18x+45=0(x−15)(x−3)=0x=15 or 3

We can not take the value x=3x=3 because, (x−9)(x−9) becomes negative which is not possible, because
the third pipe can fill the tank in (x−9)(x−9) hours.

Hence, x=15x=15




6. Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Solution 1

Suppose pipe A alone can fill the cistern in xx hours.
Then pipe B alone can fill the cistern in (x+6)(x+6) hours.

Part filled by pipe A in 1 hr =1x=1x
Part filled by pipe B in 1 hr =1x+6=1x+6
Part filled by pipe A and pipe B in 1 hr =1x+1x+6=1x+1x+6

It is given that pipes A and B together can fill the cistern in 4 hours.
i.e., Part filled by pipes A and B in 1 hr =14=14
⇒1x+1x+6=14⇒1x+1x+6=14

From here, it is better to find the value of xx from the choices which will be easier. Or we can solve it as
follows.

4(x+6)+4x=x(x+6)4x+24+4x=x2+6xx2−2x−24=0(x−6)(x+4)=0x=6 or −44(x+6)+4x=x(x+6)4x+24+4x=x2+6xx2−2
x−24=0(x−6)(x+4)=0x=6 or −4

Since xx cannot be negative, x=6x=6

i.e.,pipe A alone can fill the cistern in 6 hours

Solution 2

Suppose pipe A alone can fill the cistern in xx hours.
Then pipe B alone can fill the cistern in (x+6)(x+6) hours.

x(x+6)x+x+6=4x2+6x=8x+24x2−2x−24=0(x−6)(x+4)=0x=6x(x+6)x+x+6=4x2+6x=8x+24x2−2x−24=0(x−6)(x+4)=
0x=6




57

7. Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Solution 1

Required time =12×2412+24=12×2436=12×2412+24=12×2436
=243=8=243=8 minutes.

Solution 2

Part filled by pipe A in 1 minute =112=112
Part filled by pipe B in 1 minute =124=124
Part filled by pipe A and pipe B in 1 minute
=112+124=18=112+124=18

i.e., both the pipe together can fill the tank in 88 minutes.

Solution 3

LCM(12,24)=24(12,24)=24.

Suppose the capacity of the tank is 2424 litre. Then,
quantity filled by pipe A in 1 min =2412=2=2412=2 litre,
quantity filled by pipe B in 1 min =2424=1=2424=1 litre.

Quantity filled by pipe A and pipe B together in 1 min
=2+1=3=2+1=3 litre.

Required time =243=8=243=8 min.



8. Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Solution 1

LCM(15,40)=120(15,40)=120.

Suppose the capacity of the tank is 120120 litre. Then,
quantity filled by pipe A in 1 min =12015=8=12015=8 litre,
quantity filled by pipe B in 1 min =12040=3=12040=3 litre.

Quantity filled by both the pipes together in 4 minutes
=4(8+3)=44=4(8+3)=44 litre.

Remaining quantity to be filled =120−44=76=120−44=76 litre.

Time required for pipe B alone to fill this remaining quantity
=763=763 minutes =2513=2513 minutes =25=25 minutes 2020 seconds.

Therefore, total time required


58

=4=4 minutes + (2525 minutes 2020 seconds)
=29=29 minutes 2020 seconds.

Solution 2

Part filled by pipe A in 1 minute =115=115
Part filled by pipe B in 1 minute =140=140

Part filled by pipe A and pipe B together in 1 minute
=115+140=11120115+140=11120

pipe A and pipe B were open for 44 minutes. Part filled by pipe A and pipe B together in these 44 minutes
=4×11120=1130=4×11120=1130

Remaining part to be filled
=1−1130=1930=1−1130=1930

Time taken by pipe B to fill this remaining part
=(1930)(140)=1930×40=19×43=(1930)(140)=1930×40=19×43
=763=2513=763=2513 minutes =25=25 minutes 2020 seconds.

Therefore, total time required
=4=4 minutes + (2525 minutes 2020 seconds)
=29=29 minutes 2020 seconds.

Solution 3

Both the pipes together can fill the tank in
15×4015+40=1201115×4015+40=12011 minutes.

Since both the pipes are open for 4 minutes, part of the tank filled
=11120×4=1130=11120×4=1130

Remaining part to be filled =1−1130=1930=1−1130=1930

Time required for pipe B alone to fill this remaining part
=(1930)(140)=1930×40=19×43=(1930)(140)=1930×40=19×43
=763=2513=763=2513 minutes =25=25 minutes 2020 seconds.

Therefore, total time required
=4=4 minutes + (2525 minutes 2020 seconds)
=29=29 minutes 2020 seconds.






9. Answer: Option B
Explanation:


59

Solution 1

Part filled by first pipe in 1 minute= 125125
Part filled by second pipe in 1 minute =130=130

Suppose the waste pipe can empty the full tank in xx minutes.
Then, part emptied by waste pipe in 1 minute =1x=1x

All the three pipes can fill the tank in 15 minutes.
i.e., part filled by all the three pipes in 1 minute =115=115

⇒125+130−1x=115⇒1x=125+130−115⇒1x=6+5−10150=1150⇒x=150⇒125+130−1x=115⇒1x=125+130−1
15⇒1x=6+5−10150=1150⇒x=150

i.e, the waste pipe can empty the full tank in 150150 minutes.

Given that the waste pipe can empty 33 gallons per minute.
Therefore, in 150150 minutes, it can empty 150×3=450150×3=450 gallons.
Hence, volume of the tank =450=450 gallons.

Solution 2

First two pipes together can fill the tank in
25×3025+30=1501125×3025+30=15011 minutes.

i.e., in 11 minute, first two pipes together can fill 1115011150 of the tank.

First two pipes along with the waste pipe, fills 115115 of the tank in 11 minute.

Therefore, part of the tank emptied by the waste pipe in 1 min
11150−115=115011150−115=1150

i.e, the waste pipe can empty the full tank in 150150 minutes.

Given that the waste pipe can empty 33 gallons per minute.
Therefore, in 150150 minutes, it can empty 150×3=450150×3=450 gallons.
Hence, volume of the tank =450=450 gallons.




10. Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Solution 1

Suppose pipe A can fill the tank in xx hours. Then,
pipe B can fill the tank in x2x2 hours,
pipe C can fill the tank in x4x4 hours.

Part filled by pipe A in 1 hour =1x=1x
Part filled by pipe B in 1 hour =2x=2x


60

Part filled by pipe C in 1 hour =4x=4x

Therefore, part filled by pipe A, pipe B and pipe C together in 1 hour
=1x+2x+4x=7x=1x+2x+4x=7x

i.e., pipe A, pipe B and pipe C together can fill the tank in x7x7 hours.

Given that pipe A, pipe B and pipe C together can fill the tank in 10 hours.
⇒x7=10⇒x7=10
⇒x=10×7=70⇒x=10×7=70 hours.

Solution 2

Efficiency of pipes A,B,C =1:2:4=1:2:4

Therefore, in 1010 hours, part of the tank filled by A =17=17

Therefore, pipe A alone requires 10×7=7010×7=70 hours to fill the tank.

Solution 3

Instead of pipe B, we can take two pipes A and instead of pipe C, we can take four pipes A. Thus, the given
statement is equivalent to "tank is filled in 1010 hours by 7 pipes A."

If one pipe A is there, time required
=10×7=70=10×7=70 hours.




11. Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Solution 1

Suppose the slower pipe alone can fill the tank in xx minutes.
Then the faster pipe can fill the tank in x4x4 minutes.

Part filled by the slower pipe in 1 minute =1x=1x
Part filled by the faster pipe in 1 minute =4x=4x
Part filled by both the pipes in 1 minute =1x+4x=1x+4x

Given that both the pipes together can fill the tank in 36 minutes.
=> Part filled by both the pipes in 1 minute =136=136

1x+4x=1365x=136x=5×36=1801x+4x=1365x=136x=5×36=180

i.e.,the slower pipe alone can fill the tank in 180 minutes.

Solution 2

Let time taken by the faster pipe to fill the tank =x=x minutes.


61

Then, time taken by the slower pipe to fill the tank =4x=4x minutes.

Time taken by both pipes together to fill the tank
=x×4xx+4x=4x5=x×4xx+4x=4x5

4x5=36⇒x=454x5=36⇒x=45

Time taken by the slower pipe to fill the tank
=4x=180=4x=180 minutes.

Solution 3

The faster pipe is equivalent to 4 slower pipes together.

=> 55 slower pipes together can fill the tank in 3636 minutes.

Therefore, 11 slower pipe can fill the tank in 36×5=18036×5=180 minutes.




12. Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Solution 1

A tap can fill a tank in 4 hours.
Therefore the tap can fill half the tank in 2 hours.
Remaining part =12=12

After half the tank is filled, three more similar taps are opened.
Hence, total number of taps becomes 4.

Part filled by one tap in 11 hour =14=14
Part filled by four taps in 1 hour =4×14=1=4×14=1
i.e., 44 taps can fill remaining half in 3030 minutes.

Total time taken
= 22 hour + 3030 minute = 22 hour 3030 minutes

Solution 2

11 tap can fill the tank in 4 hours.
Therefore 11 tap can fill half tank in 22 hours.

44 taps can fill the tank in 44=144=1 hour.
Therefore 44 taps can fill half tank in 1212 hour =30=30 minutes.

Total time taken
=2=2 hour 3030 minutes



62



13. Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Solution 1

A tap can fill a tank in 44 hours.
Therefore, the tap can fill half the tank in 22 hours.
Remaining part =12=12

After half the tank is filled, two more similar taps are opened.
Hence, total number of taps becomes 33.

Part filled by one tap in 1 hour =14=14
Part filled by three taps in 1 hour =3×14=34=3×14=34
Time taken to fill 1212 tank by 33 pipes
=(12)(34)=46=(12)(34)=46 hour =40=40 minutes

Total time taken
=2=2 hour + 4040 minute =2=2 hour 4040 minutes.

Solution 2

11 tap can fill the tank in 4 hours.
Therefore 11 tap can fill half tank in 22 hours.

33 taps can fill the tank in 4343 hour.
Therefore 33 taps can fill half tank in 4646 hour =40=40 minutes.

Total time taken
=2=2 hour 4040 minutes





14. Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Solution 1

A, B, C together can fill a tank in 6 hours.
=> Part filled by pipes A,B,C together in 1 hr =16=16

All these pipes are open for only 2 hours and then C is closed.
Part filled by pipes A,B,C together in these 2 hours =26=13=26=13
Remaining part =1−13=23=1−13=23

This remaining part of 2323 is filled by pipes A and B in 7 hours.
Therefore, part filled by pipes A and B in 1 hr
=(23)7=221=(23)7=221


63

Part filled by pipe C in 1 hr
=(16−221)=7−442=342=114=(16−221)=7−442=342=114
i.e., C alone can fill the tank in 1414 hours.

Solution 2

A,B,C together fill the tank in 66 hours.
Therefore, in 22 hours, these three pipes together fills 1313 of the tank.

Therefore, A,B together fills remaining 2323 of the tank in 77 hours.
i.e., A,B together can fill the entire tank in 7×32=10.57×32=10.5 hours.

Suppose C alone can fill the tank in xx hours. Then,
10.5x10.5+x=610.5x=63+6x4.5x=63x=1410.5x10.5+x=610.5x=63+6x4.5x=63x=14




15. Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Solution 1

Part filled by pipe A in 1 minute =160=160
Part filled by pipe B in 1 minute =140=140

Part filled by both pipes A and B in 1 minute
=160+140=2+3120=5120=124=160+140=2+3120=5120=124

Suppose the tanker is filled in xx minutes.
Then, to fill the tanker from empty state, B is used for x2x2 minutes and A and B together is used for the
rest x2x2 minutes.

x2×140+x2×124=1⇒x2(140+124)=1⇒x2×8120=1⇒x2×115=1x=15×2=30 minutesx2×140+x2×124=1⇒x2(14
0+124)=1⇒x2×8120=1⇒x2×115=1x=15×2=30 minutes
x2×140+x2×124=1⇒x2(140+124)=1⇒x2×8120=1⇒x2×115=1x=15×2=30 minutes

















64


Chapter 11

ALLIGATIONS & MIXTURES

1. In what ratio must rice at Rs 9.30 per kg be mixed with rice at Rs 10. 80 per kg, so that the mixture be
worth Rs 10 per kg?


(a) 6:7 (b) 3:7



(c) 5:7 (d) 8:7




2. In what ratio must water be mixed with milk to gain 20 % by selling the mixture at cost price?


(a) 1:5 (b) 1:9



(c) 1:4 (d) 1:12



3. The milk and water in two vessels A and B are in the ratio 4:3 and 2:3 respectively. In what ratio the
liquids in both the vessels are mixed to a new mixture in vessel C containing half milk and half water?



(a) 7:5 (b) 3:5



(c) 9:5 (d) 22:3



4. In what proportion must rice at Rs 3.10/kg be mixed with rice at Rs 3.60 kg so that the mixture be worth
Rs 3.25 a kg ?
(a) 11.3 (b) 25.3



(c) 7. 3 (d) 22.3


65




5. How many kg of salt at 42/kg must a man mix with 25 kg of salt at 24 kg so that may he on selling
mixture at 40/kg , gain 25 % on the outlay .



(a) 35 kg (b) 20 kg



(c) 5 kg (d) 15 kg


6. A mixture of a certain quantity of milk with 16 lit of water is sold at 90 p/lit if the pure milk is worth 108
p/lit, then how much milk is there in the mixture?



(a) 160 liter (b) 80 liter



(c) 180 liter (d) 220 liters


7.In what proportion must water be mixed with spirit to gain 50/3 % by selling it at C.P ?


(a) 1:10 (b) 1:20



(c) 1:35 (d) 1:6



8. 300 gm of sugar solution has 40 % sugar in it how much sugar should be added to make it 50 % in the
solution?

(a) 60 gm (b) 25 gm

(c) 80 gm (d) 10 gm


9. There are 65 students in a class, 39 are distributed among them so that each boy gets 80 p and each girl
gets 30 p find the number of boys and girls in the class.

(a) 40, 25 (b) 35, 30


66

(c) 39, 26 (d) 41, 24


10. A person has a chemical of Rs 25/lit in what ratio should water be mixed in that chemical so that after
selling the mixture at Rs 20/lit he may get a profit of 25 % .



(a) 15:7 (b) 12:5



(c) 33:2 (d) 16:9







































67



11. Alligations & Mixtures – Answers and Explanation

1. Answer : (d) 8:7

Solution:
The formula for alligation is
n1/n2 = (A2 – Aw) / (Aw –A1)

Where A1 and A2 are the price of the two items that are mixed and n1 and n2 are the quantities of each.
We have to find n1/n2
Put in the values of A1 = 9.30, A2 = 10.80 and Aw = 10
We have, n1/n2 = (10.80 - 10)/(10 - 9.30) =0 .80/0.70 = 8/7


2. Answer: (a) 1:5

Solution:
For such question where water or some other thing which has negligible cost, a short cut is to divide the
percentage profit by 100.
Therefore, ratio is = 20/100 = 1 :5


3. Answer: (a) 7:5

Solution:
Milk in first vessel = 4/7
And milk in second vessel = 2/5
And after mixing the above mixture the resultant mixture would have ½ milk.

Using allegation formula,
n1/n2 = (2/5 – 1/2)/( ½ - 4/7 )= (1/14 )/( 1/10) = 7:5


4. Answer: (c) 7:3

Solution:
Let n1 quantity of the rice at 3.10/ Kg be mixed with n2 quantity of rice at 3.60 Kg
Then using alligation formula we have,

n1/n2 = (A2 - Aw)/(Aw -A1) = (3.60 - 3.25)/(3.25 - 3.10) = 0.35/0.15 = 7/3


5. Answer: (b) 20 Kg

Solution:
First we find the cost price / kg of the mixture.
It is given that selling the mixture at Rs. 40 gains him 25 %, using this to get the cost price.
=> 1.25x = 40


68

=> X = 32

Using 32 as the cost price /Kg of the mixture in the allegation formula we have,
N1/n2 = (24 – 32)/(32 - 42) = 8/10 = 4/5

Given that n2 = 25 Kg
Then n1 = (4/5)25 = 20 Kg


6. Answer: (b) 80 litre

Solution:
Let cost of water = 0
Then, let n1 is the quantity of water and n2 be the quantity if milk then, using alligation equation

n1/n2 = (108 – 90)/(90 -0)= 18/90 = 2/10= 1/5
16/n2 = 1/5
n2 = 16 x 5 = 80 litre


7. Answer: (d) 1:6

Solution:
For such questions, just divide the percentage profit with 100.
50/3/100 = 50/300 = 1/6


8. Answer: (a) 60 gm

Solution:
Let x grams of sugar is added, then
Total sugar in the mixture is 0.40 x 300 + x = (120 + x) grams
And the total solution now becomes (300 + x) grams
It is given that after adding x grams of sugar in the solution becomes 50 %


Therefore, using percentage formula
(120 + x)/ (300 + x) x 100 = 50
=> (120 + x)/ (300 + x) = (1/2)
=>240 + 2 x = 300 + x
=>x = 60 grams


9. Answer: (c) 39,26

Solution:
Let there are B boys and G girls,
Then, it is given that,
B + G = 65 ----------------(1)



69

Since, each boy got 80 p and each girl got 30 p, total amount totaling to 39
Or 0.80 B +0.30 G = 39
8B + 6G = 390 ------------(2)
Solving the above 2 equation to get B = 39 and G = 26

Alternative solution:

Using allegation equation,
Average money each child got = 39/65 = 0.60 P
Now find n1/n2 = (0.80 – 0.60)/(0.60 – 0.30) = 2/3
where n1 are girls and n2 are boys

This means girls and boys are in the ratio 2:3
Therefore, boys =( 3/5 )65 = 39 and girls = (2/5)65 = 26


10. Answer :(d) 16:9

Solution:
First find the cost price of the final mixture.
Since, by selling at Rs 20 he got a profit of 25% then, let x be the cost price
1.25x = 20
=> x = 20(4/5) = 16
Now we have cost price at Rs. 16 per liter of the mixture. Let the price of water be 0,
Then using the allegation formula, we have
n1(water)/n2(chemical) = ( 25 – 16)/(16 -0 ) = 9/16
or chemical /water = 16:9

























70


Chapter 12

RATIO & PROPORTIONS


1. Find the fourth proportional to 2.4, 4.6 and 7.6.

A.) 14 B.) 14.657
C.) 15.56 D.) 14.56


2. Find the third proportional to 9 and 12?

A.) 9 B.) 108
C.) 16 D.) 9


3. Find the mean proportional between 49 & 81?

A.) 16 B.) 10
C.) 63 D.) 12


4. Find the fourth proportional to 0.2,0.12 and 0.3?

A.) 0.13 B.) 0.18
C.) 0.8 D.) 0.15

5. If a:b=1:2 and b:c=3:4 find a:b:c?

A.) 3:8:6 B.) 3:12:6
C.) 3:6:8 D.) 1:2:4

6. If a:b=1:2,b:c=3:4 and c:d=2:3 find a:b:c:d?

A.) 3:6:8:24 B.) 6:12:16:24
C.) 6:18:24:16 D.) 3:6:2:3

7. If a:b=2:3,b:c=4:5 and c:d=4:2 find a:b:c:d?

A.) 32:48:8:24 B.) 8:12:60:24
C.) 32:18:24:30 D.) 32:48:60:30

8. If 2a=6b and 9b=7c, Find a:b:c?

A.) 42:18:14 B.) 3:9:7
C.) 9:27:22 D.) 21:7:9



71

9. If 0.4:1.4 :: 1:4:x, then x=?

A.) 49 B.) 4.9
C.) 0.49 D.) 0.4

10. If x:y=5:3 then (8x-5y) : (8x+5y)=?

A.) 5:13 B.) 13:5
C.) 5:11 D.) 11:5

11. A fraction bears the same ratio to 1/27 as 3/7 does to 5/9. The fraction is?

A.) 7/45 B.) 1/35
C.) 45/7 D.) 5/21

12. The ratio of two numbers is 3:4 and their sum is 28. The greater of the two numbers is?

A.) 8 B.) 12
C.) 14 D.) 16


13. The ratio of three numbers is 5:3:4 and their sum is 108. The second number of the three numbers is?

A.) 12 B.) 27
C.) 15 D.) 29


14. Three numbers are in the ratio 3:5:7. The largest number value is 42. Find difference between
Smallest & largest number is?

A.) 16 B.) 8
C.) 12 D.) 24

15. If two numbers are in the ratio 2:3. If 10 is added to both of the numbers then the ratio becomes 3:4
then find the smallest number?

A.) 10 B.) 20
C.) 30 D.) 40














72


12. RATIO & PROPORTIONS – Answers and Explanation


1. Answer: Option 'D'

Formula = Fourth proportional = (b × c)/a
A = 2.4 , B = 4.6 and C = 7.6
(4.6 × 7.6)/2.4 = 14.56


2. Answer: Option 'C'

Formula = Third proportional = (b × b)/a
A = 9 and B = 12
(12 × 12)/ 9 = 144/9 = 16


3. Answer: Option 'C'

Formula = √a×b
A = 49 and B = 81
√49×81 = 7 × 9 = 63


4. Answer: Option 'C'
Formula = Fourth propotional = (b × c)/a
A = 0.2 , B = 0.12 and C = 0.3
(0.12 × 0.3)/0.2
0.036/0.2 = 0.18


5. Answer: Option 'C'

a:b = 1:2, b:c = 3:4
1:2
3:4
(a = 1 × 3 = 3, b = 2 × 3 = 6 and c = 2 × 4 = 8)
(a = a × b, b = b × b and c = b × c)
a:b:c = 3:6:8


6. Answer: Option 'B'

a:b = 1:2, b:c = 3:4, c:d = 2:3
1:2
3:4

( a = 1 × 3 = 3, b = 2 × 3 = 6 and c = 2 × 4 = 8)
(a = a × b, b= b × b and c= b × c)


73

a:b:c = 3:6:8
a:b:c = 3:6:8 and c:d = 2:3

(Note: First a,b,c multiplication with c means 2 and last c means 8
multiplication with d means 3

a:b:c:d = 6:12:16:24


7. Answer: Option 'D'

a:b = 2:3, b:c = 4:5, c:d = 4:2
2:3
4:5

( a = 2× 4 = 8, b = 37 × 4 = 12 and c = 3 × 5 = 15)
(a = a × b, b = b × b and c = b × c)

a:b:c = 8:12:15
a:b:c = 8:12:15 and c:d = 4:2

(Note: First a=8,b=12,c=15 multiplication with c means 4 and last c = 15
multiplication with d means 2

a:b:c:d = 32:48:60:30


8. Answer: Option 'D'

(2a = 6b ==> a/b = 6/2)
and (9b = 7c ==> b/c = 7/9)

==> a:b = 6:2 and b:c = 7:9
a:b:c = 42:14:18 = 21:7:9


9. Show Answer
Answer: Option 'B'

0.4 × x = 1.4 × 1.4
x = 1.4 × 1.4/0.4 = 14/10 × 14/10 × 1/(4/10)
14/10 × 14/10 × 10/4
7/10 × 7 = 49/10 = 4.9


10. Show Answer
Answer: Option 'C'

x/y = 5/3 (Given)
(8x − 5y)/(8x + 5y)
8(x/y) − 5/8(x/y)+5


74

( on dividing Nr and Dr by y)

(8(5/3) − 5)/(8(5/3) + 5)
(40/3 − 5/1)/(40/3 + 5/1)
[(40 − 15)/3]/[(40 + 15)/3]
25/55 = 5/11
(8x-5y):(8x+5y) = 5:11


11. Answer: Option 'B'

Let the fraction be x. Then,
x:1/27 = 3/7 : 5/9
x × 5/9 = 1/27 × 3/7
x × 5/9 = 1/9 × 1/7
x × 5/9 = 1/63
x × 5 = 9/63
5x = 1/7 = 1/35


12. Answer: Option 'D'

3:4
Total parts = 7
= 7 parts --> 28 (7 × 4 = 28)
= 1 part ---->4 (1 × 4 = 4)
= The greater of the two number is = 4
= 4 parts ----> 16 (4 × 4 = 16)


13. Answer: Option 'B'

5:3:4
Total parts = 12
12 parts --> 108
1 part ---->9
The second number of the three numbers is = 3
3 parts ----> 27


14. Answer: Option 'D'

== 3:5:7
Total parts = 15
= The largest number value is 42
= The largest number is = 7
= Then 7 parts -----> 42 ( 7 * 6 = 42 )
= smallest number = 3 & Largest number = 7
= Difference between smallest number & largest number is = 7 - 3 = 4
= Then 4 parts -----> 24 (4 * 6 = 24)


75


15. Answer: Option 'B'
2:3
2x + 10 : 3x + 10 = 3 : 4
4[2x + 10] = 3[3x + 10]
8x + 40 = 9x + 30
9x - 8x = 40 - 30
x = 10
Then smallest number is = 2
2x = 20

Short cut method:

a:b = 2:3
c:d = 3:4


1.Cross multiplication with both ratios
a * d ~ b * c = 2 * 4 ~ 3 * 3 = 8 ~ 9 = 1

2. If 10 is added both the number means 10 * 3 = 30 and 10 * 4 = 40,
Then 30 ~ 40 = 10

===> 1 -----> 10
===> 2 -----> 20





76

Chapter 13

MIXTURES & ALLIGATIONS

1. In what ratio must rice at Rs 9.30 per Kg be mixed with rice at Rs 10.80 per Kg so that the mixture be
worth Rs 10 per Kg?

A. 6:5

B. 8:7

C. 3:7

D. 6:1


2. How much water must be added to 60 litres of milk at 1.5 litres for Rs. 20 So as to have a mixture worth
Rs.10231023 a litre?

A.10 litres

B.12 litres

C.15 litres

D.18 litres


Q3.
In what ratio must wheat at Rs.3.20 per kg be mixed with wheat at Rs.2.90 per kg so that the mixture be
worth Rs.3.08 per kg?

A. 3 : 4

B. 2 : 3

C. 3 : 2

D. 4 : 3


Q4.In what proportion must rice at Rs. 3.10 per kg be mixed with rice at Rs. 3.60 per kg so that the
mixture be worth Rs. 3.25 per kg?

A. 3 : 7

B. 5 : 3

C. 3 : 5


77

D. 7 : 3


Q5. In what ratio must tea at Rs. 62 per Kg be mixed with tea at Rs. 72 per Kg so that the mixture must be
worth Rs. 64.50 per Kg?

A. 1 : 3

B.2 : 3

C.3 : 1

D.3 : 2


Q6. The ratio, in which tea costing Rs. 192 per kg is to be mixed with tea costing Rs. 150 per kg so that the
mixed tea when sold for Rs. 194.40 per kg, gives a profit of 20%.

A.1:2

B.2:5

C.3:5

D.3:7

Q7. In a zoo, there are Rabbits and Pigeons. If heads are counted, there are 200 and if legs are counted,
there are 580. How many pigeons are there?

A.90

B.100

C.110

D.120


Q8. Weights of two friends Ram and Shyam are in the ratio 4:5.
If Ram's weight is increased by 10% and total weight of Ram and Shyam become 82.8 kg, with an increases
of 15%, by what percent did the weight of Shyam has to be increased?

A.17%

B.19%

C.23%

D.29%



78

Q9. In a 729 litres mixture of milk and water, the ratio of milk to water is 7:2.
To get a new mixture containing milk and water in the ratio 7:3, the amount of water to be added is:

A.51 litres

B.61 litres

C.71 litres

D.81 litres


Q10. Three types of wheat of Rs. 1.27, Rs. 1.29 and Rs. 1.32 per kg are mixed together to be sold at Rs.
1.30 per kg. In what ratio should this wheat be mixed?

A. 1:2:31:2:3

B. 1:1:21:1:2

C. 2:1:32:1:3

D. 2:2:32:2:3



Q11. The milk and water in two vessels A and B are in the ratio 4:3 and 2:3 respectively. In what ratio the
liquids in both the vessels be mixed to obtain a new mixture in vessel c consisting half milk and half water?

A. 8 : 3

B. 7 : 5

C. 4 : 3

D. 2 : 3


Q12.Two vessels A and B contain spirit and water mixed in the ratio 5:2 and 7:6 respectively. Find the
ratio in which these mixture be mixed to obtain a new mixture in vessel c containing spirit and water in
the ratio 8:5?

A. 1 : 7

B. 2 : 9

C. 7 : 9

D. 3 : 8


79

Q13. How many kilograms of sugar costing Rs. 9 per kg must be mixed with 27kg of sugar costing Rs.7 per
kg so that there may be gain of 10% by selling the mixture at Rs.9.24 per kg?

A. 60 kg

B.63 kg

C. 50 kg

D. 77 kg



Q14. One quantity of wheat at Rs 9.30 per Kg is mixed with another quality at a certain rate in the ratio
8:7. If the mixture so formed be worth Rs 10 per Kg, what is the rate per Kg of the second quality of
wheat?

A. Rs. 12.47

B. Rs. 10.80

C. Rs. 15.17

D. Rs. 47.66


Q15. A can contains a mixture of two liquids A and B in the ratio 7:5 when 9 litres of mixture are drawn off
and the can is filled with B, the ratio of A and B becomes 7:9. How many litres of liquid A was contained by
the can initially?

A. 28 litres

B. 21 litres

C. 45 litres

D. 36 litres















80

13. MIXTURES AND ALLIGATIONS – Answers and Explanation

1. Solution:
Option(B) is correct

C.P of 1 Kg C.P of 1 Kg

rice of 1st rice of 2nd

kind (930p) kind (1080p)



\ /
Mean Price

(1000p)

/ \



(1080 – 1000) : (1000 - 930)

80 70

Thus, required ratio = 80 : 70 = 8 : 7


2. Solution:
Option(C) is correct

C.P. of 1.5=321.5=32 litre of milk = Rs. 20

C.P. of 1 litre of milk = Rs. 20×2320×23 = Rs. 403403

C.P. of 1 litre of water =0=0

From question,

Mean price Rs.10231023

= Rs. 323323

By the rule of alligation, we have:

C.P of 1 litre C.P of 1 litre

of water of milk


81

(0) (Rs.403)(Rs.403)

\ /
Mean Price

(Rs.323)(Rs.323)

/ \

(403−323)(403−323) (323−0)(323−0)

=83=83 =323=323

Ratio of water and milk =83:323=83:323

=8:32=1:4=8:32=1:4

Thus, Quantity of water to be added to 60 litres of milk: (Note it is extra water that is to be added and
final solution is not of 60 litre but more than that).

(14×60)(14×60) litres

=15=15 litres

3. Solution:
Option(C) is correct

C.P of a unit quantity of 1st kind = Rs. 3.20
C.P of a unit quantity of 2nd kind = Rs. 2.90
Mean price = Rs.3.08

C.P of unit quantity C.P of unit quantity

of 1st kind of 2nd kind

(Rs. 3.20) (Rs. 2.90)



\ /
Mean Price

(Rs.3.08)

/ \



(3.08 – 2.90) : (3.20 – 3.08)


82


0.18 0.12


Required ratio = 0.18 : 0.12 = 3 : 2

4. Solution:
Option(D) is correct

C.P of a unit quantity of 1st kind = 310p (in paise)
C.P of a unit quantity of 2nd kind = 360p
Mean price = 325p

C.P of unit quantity C.P of unit quantity

of 1st kind of 2nd kind

(310p) (360p)



\ /
Mean Price

(325p)

/ \



(360 – 325) : (325 – 310)

35 15


Required ratio = 35 : 15 = 7 : 3
They must be mixed in the ratio 7 : 3


5. Solution:
Option(C) is correct

C.P of a unit quantity of 1st kind = Rs. 62
C.P of a unit quantity of 2nd kind = Rs. 72
Mean price = Rs. 64.50

C.P of unit quantity C.P of unit quantity

of 1st kind of 2nd kind


83

(Rs. 62) (Rs. 72)



\ /
Mean Price

(Rs. 64.50)

/ \



(72 – 64.50) : (64.50 – 62)

7.50 2.50


Required ratio = 7.50 : 2.50 = 3 : 1

6. Solution:
Option(B) is correct

CP of first tea = Rs. 192 per kg.

CP of Second tea = Rs. 150 per kg.

Mixture is to be sold in Rs. 194.40 per kg, which has included 20% profit. So,

SP of Mixture = Rs. 194.40 per kg.

Let the CP of Mixture be Rs. XX per kg. Therefore,

X+20% of X=SPX+20% of X=SP

6X5=194.406X5=194.40

6X=194.40×56X=194.40×5

X=Rs. 162 per kg.X=Rs. 162 per kg.

Let NN kg of first tea and MM kg of second tea to be added.

Now, Using Alligation, We get,

Answer image for Alligations or Mixtures, Aptitude:2191-1

Thus,

NM=162−150192−162NM=162−150192−162


84

NM=1230NM=1230

NM=25NM=25

⇒N : M = 2 : 5⇒N : M = 2 : 5


7. Solution:
Option(C) is correct

Heads Count = 200.

Legs count = 580.

As we know that average legs per head for rabbit, R=4R=4 and average legs per head for pigeon, P=2P=2.

Now, average Legs count per head,

=580200=2910=580200=2910.



Rabbit, RR Pigeon, PP

4 2

\ /

mean

29102910

/ \

(2910−2)(2910−2) : (4−2910)(4−2910)

910910 11101110

RP=(9/10)(11/10)RP=(9/10)(11/10)

⇒R:P=9:11⇒R:P=9:11.

Thus, number of piegons,

P=1111+9×200P=1111+9×200

=1120×200=1120×200

=110 pigeons=110 pigeons

8. Solution:


85

Option(B) is correct

Let, Shyam's weight, SS has been increased by x%x%.

and as per the question Ram's weight, RR is increased by 10%,

Ram (R)(R) Shyam (S)(S)
(10%)(10%) (x%)(x%)
\ /
mean
(15%)(15%)
/ \
(x−15)%(x−15)% : (15−10)%(15−10)%

Now, given ratio of Ram and Shayam's weight,

RS=45RS=45

⇒x−1515−10=45⇒x−1515−10=45

⇒x = 19%⇒x = 19%


9. Solution:
Option(D) is correct

Quantity of milk in 729 litre of mixture,

=79×729=567=79×729=567 litre

Quantity of water,

=729−567=162=729−567=162 litre.

Let xx litre of water be added to make ratio 7:37:3.

Milk water
567567 (162+x)(162+x)
\ /
mixture
(729+x)(729+x)
/ \
567567 : (162+x)(162+x)
77 : 33

⇒73=567162+x⇒73=567162+x

⇒162×7+7x=567×3⇒162×7+7x=567×3

⇒7x=1701−1134=567⇒7x=1701−1134=567


86

⇒x=5677⇒x=5677

=81 litre=81 litre water is to be added.
10. Solution:
Option(B) is correct

Let's say three variety of whet are w1( Rs. 1.27)w1( Rs. 1.27), w2( Rs. 1.29)w2( Rs. 1.29) and w3( Rs.
1.32)w3( Rs. 1.32).

We first deal with type of wheat of Rs. 1.27 (w1)(w1), Rs. 1.32.(w3)(w3) to get mean price Rs. 1.30

In order to make calculations easier we multiply every number by 100100. Since we are working on ratios,
it won't finally change the answer.

Thus, wheat1 (w1)(w1) and wheat2 (w3)(w3) are in the ratio,

w1w1 w3w3
127 132
\ /
mean
130
/ \
(130−132)(130−132) : (127−130)(127−130)
−2−2 −3−3

⇒w1:w3=2:3⇒w1:w3=2:3

Now, let’s take the wheat of Rs. 1.29 (w2)(w2), Rs. 1.32 (w3)(w3). to get mean price Rs. 1.30

w2w2 w3w3
129 132
\ /
mean
130
/ \
(130−132)(130−132) : (129−130)(129−130)
−2−2 −1−1

⇒w2:w3=2:1⇒w2:w3=2:1

Thus, final ratio,

⇒w1:w2:w3=2:2:(3+1)⇒w1:w2:w3=2:2:(3+1)

⇒w1:w2:w3=1:1:2



11. Solution:
Option(B) is correct


87

Milk in 1 litre mixture of A = 4/7 litre.
Milk in 1 litre mixture of B = 2/5 litre.
Milk in 1 litre mixture of C = 1/2 litre.
By rule of alligation we have required ratio X:Y

X : Y

4/7 2/5



\ /

(Mean ratio)
(1/2)

/ \

(1/2 – 2/5) : (4/7 – 1/2)

1/10 1/1 4



So Required ratio = X : Y = 1/10 : 1/14 = 7:5


12. Solution:
Option(C) is correct

Spirit in 1 litre mix of A = 5/7 litre.
Spirit in 1 litre mix of B = 7/13 litre.
Spirit in 1 litre mix of C = 8/13 litre.
By rule of alligation we have required ratio X:Y

X : Y

5/7 7/13



\ /
(8/13)

/ \


(1/13) : (9/91)

7 9


88

Therefore required ratio = 1/13 : 9/91

= 7:9
13. Solution:
Option(B) is correct

Let the rate of second quality be Rs xx per Kg.

C.P of 1 Kg sugar of 1st 980p

Step 1 :

S.P of 1 kg of mixture = Rs. 9.24

Gain = 10%

C.P of 1 kg of mixture =[100100+10×9.24]=[100100+10×9.24]

=Rs. 8.40=Rs. 8.40

⇒⇒ Mean price = Rs. 8.40

Step 2 :

C.P of 1 kg of sugar of 1st kind = 900p

C.P of 1 kg of sugar of 2nd kind = 700p

Mean price = 840p

By the rule of alligation, we have:

C.P. of 1kg of C.P. of 1kg of

sugar of 1st sugar of 2nd

kind (900p) kind (700p)



\ /

Mean Price
(840p)

/ \



840 - 700 : 900 - 840


89

(140) (60)

⇒Required ratio =140:60=7:3=140:60=7:3

Step 3:

Let xx kg of sugar of 1st kind be mixed with 27 kg of 2nd kind

7:3⇒73⇒x=x:27=x27=(73×27)=63 Kg.
7:3=x:27⇒73=x27⇒x=(73×27)=63 Kg.


14. Solution:
Option(B) is correct

Let the rate of second quality be Rs x per Kg.
C.P of 1Kg wheat of 1st kind = 930p
C.P of 1 Kg wheat of 2nd kind = 100x p
Mean price = 1000p
By rule of alligation we have required ratio 8 : 7

930 x



\ /

(Mean Price)
(10)

/ \



x-10 : 0.7 :: 8 : 7

So we get required ratio, (x-10) : 0.7 :: 8 : 7
⇒ x = 10.80 per Kg


15. Solution:
Option(B) is correct

Suppose the can initially contains 7x7x and 5x5x litres of mixtures A and B respectively.

When 9 litres of mixture are drawn off, quantity of A in mixture left:

7x−(712)×9=7x−2147x−(712)×9=7x−214 litres
Similarly quantity of B in mixture left:
5x−(512)×9=5x−1545x−(512)×9=5x−154 litres


90

Therefore ratio becomes:
7x−2145x−154+9⇒28x−2120x+21⇒252x−189⇒112x⇒x=79=79=140x+147=336=3
7x−2145x−154+9=79⇒28x−2120x+21=79⇒252x−189=140x+147⇒112x=336⇒x=3

So the can contained:
7×x=7×3=217×x=7×3=21 litres of A initially.














































91


Chapter 14

SERIES

1. Complete the series 2,2,5, 13,28,....
A) 50
B) 51
C) 52
D) 53


2. Which number would replace the question mark in series
7,12,19,39?
A) 24
B) 28
C) 31
D) 33


3. Complete the series, 1, 4, 9, 16, 25,....
A) 36
B) 38
C) 49
D)52



4. Complete the series
20, 19, 17, ...., 10, 5
A) 15
B) 16
C) 13
D) 14


5. 6, 11, 21, 36, 56? What will replace the question mark in the series ?
A) 75
B) 81
C) 85
D) 89


6. Complete the series
1,6,13,22,33,...
A) 46
B) 48
C) 49
D) 51


92


7. Which fraction will come next, \begin{aligned} \frac{1}{2}, \frac{3}{4}, \frac{5}{8}, \frac{7}{16}, ?
\end{aligned}
A) \begin{aligned} \frac{11}{32} \end{aligned}
B) \begin{aligned} \frac{9}{28} \end{aligned}
C) \begin{aligned} \frac{9}{30} \end{aligned}
D) \begin{aligned} \frac{9}{32} \end{aligned}

8. 1,9,17,33,49,73, ?
A) 93
B) 95
C) 97
D) 99


9. 2,5,9,?,20,27, what will replace the question mark ?
A) 13
B) 14
C) 15
D) 16


10. 21,25,33,49,81, ?
A) 140
B) 145
C) 147
D) 159


11. 5,9,17,29,45, ?
A) 50
B) 60
C) 65
D) 70


12. 1,6,15,(...),45,66,91
A) 26
B) 28
C) 29
D) 34

13. Look at this series: 22, 21, 23, 22, 24, 23, ... What number should come next?
A) 25
B) 26
C) 27
D) 28


14. What number should come next in the series, 1, 2, 3, 5, 8, ?
A) 17


93

B) 12
C) 9
D) 13


15. 19, 2, 38, 3, 114, 4, ? . Which term should replace the question mark in this series ?
A) 340
B) 380
C) 456
D) 486










































94



14. SERIES – Answers and Explanations

1. Answer: Option C
Explanation:
\begin{aligned}
\text{Pattern is }\\
+1^2-1, +2^2-1, +3^2-1,+4^2-1 \\
5^2-1 = 28 + 24 \\
= 52
\end{aligned}

2. Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Pattern is , +5, +7, +9
Missing Number = 19+9 = 28

3. Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Series Pattern is +3, +5, +7, +9.

So next number = 25+11 = 36

4. Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Pattern is, -1, -2, ..,.. , -5

So -3 and -4 will fill the blanks to make it a pattern.

Next number will be 17-3 = 14

5. Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Pattern is +5, +10, + 15, +20

Next number in the series will be 56 + 25 = 81


6. Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Pattern is +5, +7, +9, +11
So next number will be +13
=> 33+13 = 46


7. Answer: Option D
Explanation:


95

Numerators of the fractions in the given sequence are getting increased by 2, i.e. 1+2,3+2,5+2, so next will
be 7+2 = 9

Denominators of the fractions in the series is getting doubled, 2*2 = 4, 4*2 = 8, 8*2 = 16, no next will be
16*2 = 32

So resulting fraction will be
\begin{aligned}
\frac{9}{32}
\end{aligned}


8. Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Pattern for the given series is, +8, +8, +16, +16, +24

So next will be +24, 73+24 = 97
View Answer

9. Answer And Explanation

Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Pattern is +3,+4,..,..,+7, so +5 and +6 will be in the blanks

Question mark will be replaced by 9+5 = 14


10. Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Pattern is, +4, +8, +16, +32, so next will be +64
81+64 = 145

11. Answer: Option C
Explanation:
In this series the pattern is +4, +8, +12, +16, so next will be +20

Term which will replace the question mark in this series will be 45+20 = 65

12. Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Pattern in the series is, +5, +9, .., .., +21, +25
So 4 is getting increased at every term addition.
Missing term in the series will be 15+(9+4)
= 15+13 = 28

13. Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Please look carefully at the series, its pattern is,
-1, +2, -1, +2, -1, so next will be +2
23+2 = 25


96


14. Answer: Option D
Explanation:
In this series, each term is the sum of preceding two terms as,
1+2 = 3
3+2 = 5
5+3 = 8
Next term in the series will be,
8+5 = 13

15. Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Please check the given sequence is combination of two series.
Series 1: 19, 38, 114, ...
Series 2: 2,3,4

In series 1, Pattern followed is *2, *3, so next will be *4
Next term will be
114*4 = 456


97


Chapter 15

BLOOD RELATIONS

1. Pointing to a photograph, a man said, "I have no brother or sister but that man's father is my father's
son." Whose photograph was it?
A) His own
B) His Son
C) His Father
D) His Grandfater


2. Pointing towards a person in a photograph, Anjali said, "He is the only son of the father of my sister's
brother." How is that person is related to Anjali ?
A) Anjali Father
B) Anjali Mother
C) Anjali Brother
D) Maternal Uncle


3. Pointing to a man, a woman said, "His mother is the only daughter of my mother." How is the woman
related to the man?
A) Mother
B) Daughter
C) Sister
D) Grand Mother


4. Pointing to the photograph, Vipul said, "She is the daughter of my grandfather's only son." How is Vipul
related to the girl in the photograph?
A) Mother
B) Sister
C) Cousin
D) Grandmother


5. Looking at the portrait of a man, Harsh said, "His mother is the wife of my father's son. I have no
brothers or sisters." At whose portrait was Harsh was looking ?
A) His child
B) His father
C) His grandson
D) His nephew


6. Pointing to a girl in photograph. Amar said, "Her mother's brother is the only son of my mothers's
father." How the girl's mother related to Amar?
A) Mother
B) Sister
C) Aunt


98

D) Grandmother


7. Pointing to a gentleman, Deepak said," His only brother is the father of my daughter's father." How is
gentleman related to Deepak?
A) Brother
B) Father
C) Grand Father
D) Uncle


8. If Kamal says, "Ravi's mother is the only daughter of my mother", how is Kamal related to Ravi?
A) Brother
B) Father
C) Maternal Uncle
D) Cousin


9. Pointing to a photograph, a woman says, "This man's son's sister is my mother-in-law." How is the
woman's husband related to the man in the photograph?
A) Grandson
B) Son
C) Son in law
D) Cousin


10. Pointing to a man in photograph, a woman said, "His brother's father is the only son of my
grandfather." How is the woman related to the man in the photograph?
A) Sister
B) Daughter
C) Wife
D) Cousin


11. A man pointing to a photograph says, "The lady in the photograph is my nephew's maternal
grandmother." How is the lady in the photograph related to the man's sister who has no other sister?
A) Cousin
B) Sister-in-law
C) Mother
D) Mother-in-law


12. If Neena says, "Anita's father Raman is the only son of my father-in-law Mahipal", then how is Bindu,
who is the sister of Anita, related to Mahipal?
A) Grand daughter
B) Daughter
C) Sister
D) None of there


99

13. Pointing to Sahil, Neeru says, "I am the daughter of the only son of his grandfather." How Neeru is
related to Sahil?
A) Daughter
B) Mother
C) Sister
D) Cousin


14. Pointing to a gentleman, Shalini said, "His only brother is the father of my son’s father." How is the
gentleman related to Shalini?
A) Grandfather
B) Uncle
C) Brother
D) Father


15. A’s father is B’s son-in-law. C, A’s sister, is the daughter of P. How is P related to B
A) Brother
B) Father
C) Grandfather
D) Cant determined































100


15. BLOOD RELATIONS – Answers and Explanations

1. Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Since the person who is telling has no brother or sister, so his father son is he himself.
So the man in the photograph is his son.


2. Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Relation's given in the question may be analysed as follows :
Sister's brother - brother;
Brother's father - father;
Father's son - brother;

So he is Anjali Brother.

Note: It is more handy to solve the question when we start from end to analyse the relation as we did
above.

3. Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Blood relation Analysis :
only daughter of my mother -> means herself

So she is his mother.

4. Answer And Explanation

Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Blood relation Analysis:

My grandfather's only son -> His father
Daughter of his father -> His sister

So that girl is Vipul's sister.

5. Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Blood relation Analysis:

Have no brother's or sister, so Harsh is single child

Wife of father's son -> His wife

His wife is mother of the person whose portrait is. So portrait is of his child.


101

View Answer

6. Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Blood Relation Analysis:

Only son of my Mother's father -> Amar maternal Uncle

So Girl's maternal uncle is the Amar's maternal uncle. Thus, the Girl's mother is Amar's Aunt.
View Answer

7. Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Blood Relation Analysis :

Father of my daughter's Father = Deepak Father

Brother of Deepak's father = Deepak's Uncle


8. Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Only daughter of my mother = Kamal Sister

Kamal Sister is Ravi's Mother

So Kamal is maternal uncle of Ravi
View Answer


9. Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Blood Relation Analysis:

Man's son sister: Man's daughter
So Man's daughter is the mother of woman's husband. Thus, the woman's husband is the grandson.
So the woman's husband is the grandson of the man in photograph.
View Answer


10. Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Blood Relation Analysis:
Only son of woman grandfather = Woman Father
Man's brother father = Man's father

So Woman is man's Sister
View Answer


11. Answer: Option C


102

Explanation:
Blood Relation Analysis:

Man's Nephew maternal grandmother will be man's mother.
View Answer


12. Answer: Option A
Explanation:
View Answer


13. Answer: Option C


14. Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Analysis of Blood Relation:

Father of my son’s father -> Shalini's Father in law
Shalini's Father-in-law brother -> Shalini's Uncle

15. Answer: Option D


103



Chapter 16

ODD MAN OUT

1. Insert the missing number.

7, 26, 63, 124, 215, 342, (....)

A) 391 B) 421
C) 481 D) 511

2. Find the odd man out.

396, 462, 572, 427, 671, 264.

A) 671 B) 462
C) 427 D) 264

3. Find out the wrong number in the given sequence of numbers.

1, 2, 6, 15, 31, 56, 91

A) 31 B) 91
C) 56 D) 15

4. Insert the missing number.

8, 7, 11, 12, 14, 17, 17, 22, (....)

A) 20 B) 22
C) 24 D) 27

5. Find the odd man out.

2, 5, 10, 17, 26, 37, 50, 64

A) 50 B) 37
C) 26 D) 64


6. Find the odd man out.

41, 43, 47, 53, 61, 71, 73, 81

A) 41 B) 61
C) 71 D) 81

7. Find the odd man out.


104


331, 482, 551, 263, 383, 362, 284

A) 263 B) 383
C) 331 D) 551

8. Find out the wrong number in the given sequence of numbers.

52, 51, 48, 43, 34, 27, 16

A) 27 B) 34
C) 43 D) 48

9. Find out the wrong number in the given sequence of numbers.

582, 605, 588, 611, 634, 617, 600

A) 634 B) 611
C) 605 D) 600

10. Insert the missing number.

3, 7, 6, 5, 9, 3, 12, 1, 15, (....)

A) 18 B) 13
C) -1 D) 3

11. Find the odd man out.

6, 9, 15, 21, 24, 28, 30

A) 28 B) 21
C) 24 D) 30

12. Find out the wrong number in the given sequence of numbers.

36, 54, 18, 27, 9, 18.5, 4.5

A) 4.5 B) 18.5
C) 54 D) 18

13. Insert the missing number.

2, 6, 12, 20, 30, 42, 56, (....)

A) 61 B) 64
C) 72 D) 70

14. Insert the missing number.

16, 33, 65, 131, 261, (....)


105


A) 523 B) 521
C) 613 D) 721

15. Find out the wrong number in the series.

7, 8, 18, 57, 228, 1165, 6996

A) 8 B) 18
C) 57 D) 228

16. Find the odd man out.

253, 136, 352, 324, 631, 244

A) 324 B) 136
C) 352 D) 631


17. Insert the missing number.

2, 4, 12, 48, 240, (....)

A) 960 B) 1440
C) 1080 D) 1920

18. Find out the wrong number in the given sequence of numbers.

56, 72, 90, 110, 132, 150

A) 72 B) 110
C) 132 D) 150

19. Find out the wrong number in the given sequence of numbers.

6, 13, 18, 25, 30, 37, 40

A) 25 B) 30
C) 37 D) 40

20. Find out the wrong number in the given sequence of numbers.

5, 16, 6, 16, 7, 16, 9

A) 9 B) 7
C) 6 D) None of these






106


16. ODD MAN OUT – Answers and Explanation

1. Answer: D) 511

Explanation:
Numbers are (23 - 1), (33 - 1), (43 - 1), (53 - 1), (63 - 1), (73 - 1) etc.
So, the next number is (83 - 1) = (512 - 1) = 511.

2. Answer: C) 427

Explanation:
In each number except 427, the middle digit is the sum of other two.

3. Answer: B) 91

Explanation:
1, 1 + 12 = 2, 2 + 22 = 6, 6 + 32 = 15, 15 + 42 = 31, 31 + 52 = 56, 56 + 62 = 92
Last number of given series must be 92 not 91.

4. Answer: A) 20

Explanation:
There are two series (8, 11, 14, 17, 20) and (7, 12, 17, 22) increasing by 3 and 5 respectively.

5. Answer: D) 64

Explanation:
(1*1)+1 , (2*2)+1 , (3*3)+1 , (4*4)+1 , (5*5)+1 , (6*6)+1 , (7*7)+1 , (8*8)+1
But, 64 is out of pattern.

6. Answer: D) 81

Explanation:
Each of the numbers except 81 is a prime number.

7. Answer: B) 383

Explanation:
In each number except 383, the product of first and third digits is the middle one.

8. Answer: B) 34

Explanation:
Subtract 1, 3, 5, 7, 9, 11 from successive numbers.
So, 34 is wrong.

9. Answer: A) 634


107

Explanation:
Alternatively 23 is added and 17 is subtracted from the terms. So, 634 is wrong.
10. Answer: C) -1

Explanation:
There are two series, beginning respectively with 3 and 7. In one 3 is added and in another 2 is subtracted.
The next number is 1 - 2 = -1.

11. Answer: A) 28

Explanation:
Each of the numbers except 28, is a multiple of 3.

12. Answer: B) 18.5

Explanation:
The terms are alternatively multiplied by 1.5 and divided by 3. However, 18.5 do not satisfy it.

13. Answer: C) 72

Explanation:
The pattern is 1 x 2, 2 x 3, 3 x 4, 4 x 5, 5 x 6, 6 x 7, 7 x 8.
So, the next number is 8 x 9 = 72.

14. Answer: A) 523

Explanation:
Each number is twice the preceding one with 1 added or subtracted alternatively.
So, the next number is (2 x 261 + 1) = 523.

15. Answer: D) 228

Explanation:
Let the given numbers be A, B, C, D, E, F, G.
Then, A, A x 1 + 1, B x 2 + 2, C x 3 + 3, D x 4 + 4, E x 5 + 5, F x 6 + 6 are the required numbers.
Clearly, 228 is wrong.

16. Answer: A) 324

Explanation:
The Sum of the digits in each number, Except 324 is 10.

17. Answer: B) 1440

Explanation:
Go on multiplying the given numbers by 2, 3, 4, 5, 6.
So, the correct next number is 1440.

18. Answer: D) 150

Explanation:


108

The numbers are 7 x 8, 8 x 9, 9 x 10, 10 x 11, 11 x 12, 12 x 13.
So, 150 are wrong.

19. Answer: D) 40

Explanation:
The differences between two successive terms from the beginning are 7, 5, 7, 5, 7, 5.
So, 40 are wrong.

20. Answer: A) 9

Explanation:
Terms at odd places are 5, 6, 7, 8 etc. and each term at even place are 16.
So, 9 are wrong.






































109

Chapter 17

VERBAL ANALOGIES


1) Poles : Magnet :: ? : Battery

A. Energy

B. Power

C. Terminals

D. Cells


2) Peace : Chaos :: Creation : ?

A. Manufacture

B. Destruction

C. Build

D. Construction


3) Architect : Building :: Sculptor : ?

A. Museum

B. Statue

C. Chisel

D. Stone


4) Horse : Mare ::

A. Fox : Vixen

B. Duck : Geese

C. Dog : Puppy

D. Donkey : Pony


5) Cricket : Pitch ::


110


A. Ship : Dock

B. Boat : Harbour

C. Boxing : Ring

D. Wrestling : Track


6) Oceans : Deserts : : Waves : ?

A. Dust

B. Sand Dunes

C. Ripples

D. Sea


7) Grain : Stock : : Stick : ?

A. String

B. Heap

C. Collection

D. Bundle


8) Cube is related to Square in the same way as Square is related to

A. Plane

B. Triangle

C. Line

D. Point

9) Bank is related to Money in the same way as Transport is related to

A. Traffic

B. Goods

C. Speed

D. Road


111



10) Fan is related to Wings in the same way as Wheel is related to

A. Round

B. Air

C. Spokes

D. Cars



11. FOX : CUNNING :: RABBIT : ?

A. Courageous

B. Dangerous

C. Timid

D. Ferocious



12) FLEXIBLE : RIGID :: CONFIDENCE : ?

A. Diffidence

B. Indifference

C. Cowardice

D. Scare


13) NECKLACE : ADORNMENT :: ?

A. Medal : Decoration

B. Bronze : Medal

C. Scarf : Dress

D. Window : House


14) BILLY : GOAT ::

A. Cow : Bull


112


B. Lord : Maid

C. Man : Woman

D. Cow : Calf



15) WORK : MOTIVE ::

A. Body : Mind

B. Wall : Paint

C. Body : Food

D. Petrol : Car


113

17. VERBAL ANALOGIES– Answers


1. Answer : C.
As magnet has poles similarly battery has terminals.

2. Answer : B.

As opposite meaning of peace is chaos similarly opposite meaning of creation is destruction.

3. Answer : D.

As 'Architect' makes 'Building' similarly 'Sculptor' makes 'Statue'.

4. Answer : A.

Second is the feminine gender of the first

5. Answer : C.

The game of cricket is played on a pitch similarly, the game of boxing is performed in a ring.

6. Answer : B.

If oceans were deserts, waves would be sand dunes.

7. Answer : D.

Second is a collection of the first.

8. Answer : C.

Cube comprises Square on all of its surfaces. In the same way square comprises Line on all of its sides.

9. Answer : B.

Bank deals with transaction of Money. Likewise Transport deals with the movement of Goods.

10. Answer : C.

Wings are the parts of Fan. Likewise Spokes are the parts of Wheel.

11. Answer : A.

12. Answer : A.

13. Answer : A.

14. Answer : C.

15. Answer : D.


114


Chapter 18

SYLLOGISMS

1. Statements: All pens are books

Some pencils are pens

Conclusions: 1. some books are pencils

2. Some pencils are books

3. All pens are pencils

4. None
A.) 1 B.) 2
C.) 3 D.) 4


2. Statements: All pens are books

No pencils are books

Conclusion: 1. All books are pencils

2. All pencils are books

3. Some pencils are books

4. None

A.) 1 B.) 2
C.) 3 D.) 4


3. Statements: No mat is pot

All pots are bats

Conclusion: 1. No mats are bats

2. No bats are mats

3. Some bats are mats

4. Some bats are not mats
A.) 1 B.) 2
C.) 3 D.) 4


115


4. Statements: Some tables are trees

Some trees are flowers

All flowers are jungles

Conclusion: 1. Some jungles are tables

2. Some trees are jungles

3. Some flowers are tables

4. All jungles are flowers
A.) Only 2 follows B.) Only 1 and 2 follows
C.) Only 3 follows D.) None of these


5. Statements: All benches are cots

No cot is lamp

Some lamps are candles

Conclusions: 1.some cots are candles

2. Some candles are cots

A.) If only conclusion 1 follows B.) If only conclusion 2 follows
C.) If either conclusion 1 or 2 follows D.) If neither conclusion 1 nor 2 follows

6. Statements: Some cats are dogs

All dogs are goats

All goats are walls

Conclusion: Some walls are dogs

Some walls are cats
A.) If only conclusion 1 follows B.) If only conclusion 2 follows
C.) If either conclusion 1 or 2 follows D.) If both conclusions 1 and 2 follows


7.
Statements: Some roads are ponds

All ponds are stores

Some stores are bags


116

Conclusion: Some bags are ponds

Some stores are roads

A.) If only conclusion 1 follows B.) If only conclusion 2 follows
C.) If either conclusion 1 or 2 follows D.) If both conclusions 1 and 2 follows


8.
Statements: All balls are wickets

No wicket is bat

Some bats are wickets

Conclusion: 1. some bats are balls

2. All balls are wickets

3. Some wickets are balls

4. No bat is ball
A.) Only conclusion 1 B.) Only conclusion 3
C.) If neither conclusion 1 nor 4 and 3 D.) None


9.
Statements: Some pigs are dogs

No cow is goat

Some goats are nets

Conclusion: 1. some pigs are cows

2. Some nets are cows

3. Some nets are pigs

4. Some dogs are either pigs of nets

A.) Only 1 follow B.) Only 2 follow
C.) Only 1 and 2 follow D.) Only 2 and 4 follow


10.
Statements: All flowers are fruits

All trees are leaves

Some fruits are leaves


117


Conclusion: 1.Some trees are fruits

2. Some leaves are flowers

3. Some trees are flowers

4. No Flower is leave
A.) Only 1 follows B.) Only either 2 or 4 follows
C.) Only 3 follows D.) Only 1, 2 and 3 follows

11.
Statements: All rooms are boxes.

All doors are boxes

Some boxes are boards

Conclusion: 1. All rooms are boards.

2. All doors are boards

3. Some boards are rooms

4. Some boards are doors

A.) Only 1 and 2 follow B.) Bill’s Law
C.) Only 3 and 4 follow D.) All follow


12.
Statements: Al shirts are chairs

Some chairs are rats

All rats are pens.

Conclusion: 1. Some pens are shirts

2. Some pens are chairs

3. Some rats are shirts

4. No pen is shirt

A.) None follows B.) Only either 1 or 4 follows
C.) Only either 1 or 4 and 2 follow D.) Only either 1 or 4 and 3 follow


13.
Statements: Some sweets are chocolates


118


Some chocolates are mints

Some mints are food

Some food is diet.

Conclusion: 1. No sweets are diet

2. No food is chocolates

3. Some sweets are diet

4. Some sweets are food
A.) None follows B.) Only 1 and 3 follows
C.) Only 2 and 4 follows D.) Only 2 and 3 follows


14.
Statements: Some roses are flowers

Some flowers are buds

All buds are leaves

All leaves are plants

Conclusion: 1. Some plants are flowers

2. Some roses are buds

3. No leaves are roses

4. No roses are buds
A.) Only 1 follows B.) Only 1 and 2 follow
C.) Only 1 and either 2 or 4 follow D.) Only either 2 or 4 follows


15.
Statements: All rods are bricks

Some bricks are ropes

All ropes are doors

Concussion: 1. Some rods are doors

2. Some doors are bricks

3. Some rods are not doors


119

4. All doors are ropes

A.) Only 1 and 2 follows B.) Only 1,2 and 3 follows
C.) Only either 1 or 3 and 2 follow D.) Only either 1 or 3 and 4 follow
















































120



18. SYLLOGISMS – Answers and Explanation

1. Answer: Option 'B'
2. Answer: Option 'C'
3. Answer: Option 'D'
4. Answer: Option 'A'
5. Answer: Option 'D'
6. Answer: Option 'E'
7. Answer: Option 'D'
8. Answer: Option 'C'
9. Answer: Option 'B'
10. Answer: Option 'B'
11. Answer: Option 'D'
12. Answer: Option 'C'
13. Answer: Option 'B'
14. Answer: Option 'C'
15. Answer: Option 'C'































121


Chapter 19

SYNONYM & ANTONYMS

SYNONYM:

1. ABANDON
a) Try b) join c) keep with d) forsake

2. ACCORD
a) Confer b) refusal c) dissension d) opposition

3. AGGRAVATE
a) decline b) acquire c) excited d) irritate

4. BUSTLE
a) Flurry b) calm c) charm d) enjoyful

5. CREDULOUS
a) Joyous b) interpret c) trusting d) interest

6. DEARTH
a) Majestic b) sensible c) scarcity d) pattern

7. EVASION
a) Gift b) pretext c) action d) defense



ANTONYM:

8. AMASS
a) Demote b) remote c) scatter d) better

9. SCANTY
a) Ample b) sample c) adore d) afore

10. FORTUNE
a) Blessing b) calamity c) cabal d) blasphemy

11. STINKING
a) Smelly b) apathy c) aromatic d) acrobatic

12. VIGOROUS
a) Feeble b) regal c) frugal d) immortal

13. PALTRY
a) Base b) beggarly c) worthy d) cheap


122

14. BARREN
a) Desert b) depleted c) fertile d) arid

15. EXODUS
a) Migration b) arrival c) off going d) retreat



123

19. SYNONYM & ANTONYMS – Answers





SYNONYM

1. Answer: D
2. Answer: A
3. Answer: D
4. Answer: A
5. Answer: C
6. Answer: C
7. Answer: B

ANTONYM

8. Answer: C
9. Answer: A
10. Answer: B
11. Answer: C
12. Answer: A
13. Answer: C
14. Answer: C
15. Answer: B


























124

Chapter 20

CODING AND DECODING


1) If FRIEND is coded as HUMJTK, how can CANDLE be written in that code?

A. DEQJQM

B. DCQHQK

C. EDRIRL

D. ESJFME


2) In a certain code ADVENTURES is written as TRDESAUVEN. How is PRODUCED written in that code ?

A. IUIPGSSRNP

B. IUIPGSRSNR

C. IUINGSSRRP

D. IRIPGSSNRR


3) If FRAGRANCE is written as SBHSBODFG, how can IMPOSING be written?

A. NQPTJHOJ

B. NQPTJOHJ

C. NQTPJOHJ

D. NQPTJOHI


4) If ROBUST is coded as QNATRS in a certain language, which word would be coded as ZXCMP?

A. AWDLQ

B. AYDNQ

C. BZEOR

D. YYBNO


5) If PALE is coded as 2134, EARTH is coded as 41590, how can is PEARL be coded in that language?


125

A. 25430

B. 29530

C. 25413

D. 24153


6) If ROSE is coded as 6821, CHAIR is coded as 73456 and PREACH is coded as 961473, what will be the
code for SEARCH?

A. 216473

B. 246173

C. 214673

D. 214763


7) If in a certain code, GLAMOUR is written as IJCNMWP and MISRULE is written as OGUSSNC, then how
will TOPICAL be written in that code?

A. VMRJECN

B. VMRHAGJ

C. VMRJACJ

D. VNRJABJ

8) If BE QUICK is coded as ZC OSGAI, then the code of the lat letter of the third word in the sentence I
LOVE MY COUNTRY is

A. A

B. T

C. Y

D. W

9) If ZEBRA can be written as 2652181, how can COBRA be written?

A. 302181

B. 3152181

C. 31822151


126

D. 1182153

10) If 'eraser' is called 'box', 'box' is called 'pencil', 'pencil' is called 'sharpener', and 'sharpener' is called
'bag', what will a child write with?

A. Eraser

B. Bag

C. Pencil

D. Sharpener


11) If TRANSFER is coded as RTNAFSRE, then ELEPHANT would be coded as

A. LEPEHATN

B. LEPEAHTN

C. LEEPAHTN

D. LEPEAHNT


12) In a certain code, PAINTER is written NCGPRGP, then REASON would be written as

A. PCYQMN

B. PGYQMN

C. PGYUMP

D. PGYUPM


13) In a certain code, COMPUTER is written as RFUVQNPC. How is MEDICINE written in the same code ?

A. EOJDJEFM

B. EOJDEJFM

C. MFEJDJOE

D. MFEDJJOE



14) If VICTORY is coded as YLFWRUB, how can SUCCESS be coded?

A. VXEEIVV


127


B. VXFFHVV

C. VYEEHVV

D. VYEFIVV


15) In a certain code, TOGETHER is written as RQEGRJCT. In the same code, PAROLE will be written as

A. NCPQJG

B. NCQPJG

C. RCPQJK

D. RCTQNC



































128


20. CODING AND DECODING – Answers and Explanation


1. Answer : C.

In the code, the first letter is the second alphabet, the second letter is the third alphabet, the third letter is
the fourth alphabet and so on after the corresponding letter in the word.

2. Answer : A.

The first and sixth, third and eighth, fifth and tenth letters of the word interchange places in the code.

3. Answer : B.

Each letter in the word is moved one step forward and the first letter of the group. so obtained is put at
the end, to obtain the code.

4. Answer : B.

Each letter of the word is one step ahead of the corresponding letter of the code.

5. Answer : D.

The letters are coded accordingly P as 2, E as 4, A as 1, R as 5 and L as 3. So PEARL is coded as 24153.

6. Answer : C.

The letters are coded accordingly S as 2, E as 1, A as 4, R as 6, C as 7 and H as 3. i.e., 214673

7. Answer : C.

The first, third and sixth letters of the word are each moved two steps forward, the second, fifth and
seventh letters are each are moved two steps backward, while the fourth letter is moved one step
forward.

8. Answer : D.

Each letter in the given message is moved two steps backward.

9. Answer : B.
Take A=1, B=2, C=3, ..., Z=26.
ZEBRA --> Z/E/B/R/A --> 26/5/2/18/1 --> 2652181.
COBRA --> C/O/B/R/A --> 3/15/2/18/1 --> 3152181.

10. Answer : D.

A child will write with a 'pencil', and pencil is called 'sharpener'. So, a child will write with a 'sharpener'.
11. Answer : B.
12. Answer : C.
13. Answer : A.


129

14. Answer : B.
15. Answer : A.


















































130

Chapter 21

ARRANGEMENTS

In the following questions, there are 4 sentences marked A,B,C and D. Arrange the sentences to make a
logical paragraph.

1.
A. But he has created a niche for himself as an authority on politics.
B. He pursued a successful career as an actor when he first came to Bollywood, starring in many films.
C. Born in Delhi, Raj was a man with a lot of talent.
D. He has published several books on the subject.

a. CBAD b. DABC c. CABD d. BACD


2.
A. It is the bigger of the two.
B. The two parts of the Pangong lake in Ladakh are in fact in 2 countries.
C. The Chinese side is not accessible to us.
D. One is on the Indian side, the other in China.

a. ACBD b. CABD c. BDCA d. DBAC


3.
A. He travelled by bus till the late 1970’s to hawk other merchants products.
B. Some 20 years after he started from a chawl of Bhuleshwar, Mumbai as a middleman in the yarn
trade, he moved into a Rs. 100 crore mansion.
C. Twenty years later his first Cadillac was customised with an air suspension.
D. Dhirubhai Ambani has lived a full life without guilt, self remorse and without feeling inferior to
those blessed by birth.
a. ABCD b. DBCA c. DBAC d. DCBA


4.
A. The CEO’s stubborn stance upset the players.
B. The players had believed that their board president would fight for them.
C. He threatened that the board would field a second string team regardless of the non-participation
of the top players.
D. Instead they found him taking a hostile stance.

a. DCBA b. ACBD c. ABCD d. DABC



In the following question, there are 5 sentences marked 1, A, B, C, and D. The position
of 1 is fixed. Arrange the remaining sentences to make a logical paragraph.

v-17.9


131

5.
1.India and Japan have finally agreed to disagree.
A. But last week on his visit to India, Japanese Prime Minister made it clear that while
it may not be okay until New Delhi signs the CTBT, Tokyo wasn’t averse to develop a ‘new partnership for
the 21st century’.
B. The main thrust of this new partnership, of course, is in the field of information technology.
C. As a start he announced Japanese aid for two major Indian projects, totalling about
$178 million, would resume.
D.Tokyo was one of the harshest critics of Pokhran II, and imposed stringent sanctions.
a. ACBD b. DABC c. DACB d. CBAD

Hint Icon: Put sentence D after sentence 1.


In the following sentence, 2 words are interchanged. You need to exchange them and put them back in
proper place so that the sentence makes logical sense.

6. power levels in Delhi dropped last week, thanks to reduced traffic on the roads and the closing down of
two pollution generating plants.
a. power…..traffic b. traffic….pollution c. closing….pollution d.power…pollution


7. The world wide web can relate thousands of potential customers, but it is also possible in theory to
reach to every single customer.
a. web…theory b. relate…reach c. relate….theory d. thousands….theory


8. ebay has helped shape the future of online buying and selling, with traditional traders forced to value
virtually all aspects of their businesses to meet the improve provided on-line
a. shape…value b. traders…businesses c. future…..value d. value….improve



Separate the sentences into 2 categories by typing A or B depending on the topic/subject. The first
sentence is already categorized into type A.

v-17.10
9.
1. A fully licensed swine flu vaccine might not be available until the end of the year, a top official at the
World Health Organization said on Monday. A
2.More than two decades ago, Fujifilm was one of the first camera manufacturers to see the future of
photography was digital.
3.In a presentation to WHO's vaccines advisory group last week, Kieny said a lower-producing vaccine
would significantly delay the timeline for vaccines.
4.But that dominant position proved difficult to defend against competitors such as Nikon, Olympus and
Canon.
5.British Health Minister Andy Burnham promised that vaccines would start arriving in the U.K. in August





132

In the following questions, there are 6 sentences marked 1, A, B, C, D and 6. The position
of 1 and 6 are fixed. Arrange the remaining sentences to make a logical paragraph.

v-17.1
10.
1. The necessity for regional integration in South Asia is underlined by the very history of the last
45 years since the liquidation of the British empire.
A. After the partition, Pakistan was formed in that very area which the imperial powers had always
marked out as the potential base for operations against the Russian power.
B. Because of the disunity and ill-will among the South Asian neighbours, particularly India and
Pakistan, great powers from outside the area could meddle into their affairs and thereby keep
neighbours apart.
C. It needs to be added that it was the supply of sophisticated arms that made Pakistan to go for war
towards India.
D. As a part of the cold war strategy of the US, Pakistan was sucked into Washington’s military
alliance spreading over the years.
6. Internally too, it was the massive induction of American arms into Pakistan which empowered the
military junta of that country to destroy democracy in Pakistan.

a.ACBD b. ABDC c. CBAD d. DCAB

Hint Icon: Put sentence C after sentence 6.



v-17.2
11.
1. Mumbai has been handed over on a platter to those who wish to destroy it.
A. The question to ask is: Why didn’t Mumbai fight back? Why didn’t it protest?
B. The answer is simple: Mumbai was taken off-guard and promptly went into denial. It doesn’t
like reality checks and prefers fantasy.
C. Which is why Mumbai played ostrich. Everybody sort of hoped that the problem would go
away.
D. That we’d all wake up from a particularly terrifying nightmare and gasp. Thank God, it was only
a bad dream. But that didn’t happen. Will not happen.
6. And those of us who live in India’s most edgy metropolis should realise that. The 26/11
mess is just a wake-up call.

a. ABCD b. DCAB c. BACD d. ACBD



v-17.3
12
1. Very few would credit Pakistan with having a designer economy, but fashion labels such as Tommy
Hilfiger, and Gap are what has kept it going till now.
A. But the Obama administration is trying to bail out Islamabad because if its textile industry flops, it could
put a lot of angry Pakistanis on the streets already inflamed with anti-American sentiment.
B. Reports from Pakistan say the country could stand to lose as much as 30% of its textile export market
following the 9/11 terrorist attacks.


133

C. Several US importers and retailers, have cut or curtailed orders amid fears of disorder in the US
designated frontline ally.
D. But it is all coming apart at the seams suddenly and the Obama administration is waving the red
flag in an effort to save it.
6. Textiles are Pakistan’s biggest exports, accounting for more than half of its $10 billion annual
exports.

a. DCAB b. DBCA c. BCDA d. ABCD












































134

21. ARRANGEMENTS – Answers and Explanations

1. Answer: a. CBAD
The paragraph could start with C where Raj is introduced where as all the other sentences contain a ‘he’
which would refer to Raj.
C. Born in Delhi, Raj was a man with a lot of talent.
B. He pursued a successful career as an actor when he first came to Bollywood, starring in many films.
A. But he has created a niche for himself as an authority on politics.
D. He has published several books on the subject.
The following sentence would probably go on to describe one of his talents which is acting – sentence B.
Sentence A should follow this as it starts talking about another achievement of his. And sentence D
supports it. So the sequence would be CBAD

2. Answer: c. BDCA
The first sentence should start with the introduction of the main subject which would be the Pangong lake
– sentence B. It introduces the two parts. This should be followed by D. which talks about what the two
sides are – Indian and Chinese.
B. The two parts of the Pangong lake in Ladakh are in fact in 2 countries.
D. One is on the Indian side, the other in China.
C. The Chinese side is not accessible to us.
A. It is the bigger of the two.
This would be followed by talking about one of the sides, which happens in C and then by A which
describes that side as the bigger of the two.

3. Answer: c. DBAC
It starts with the introduction of Dhirubhai Ambani in D. followed by statements which tell about how he
started his business in B. A tells that there wasa time when he used to move around in buses followed by
C which gives a more recent status.

4. Answer: b.ACBD
Starts with A stating that the CEO’s decision has upset the players. C then states what the CEO is
threatening the players with. B in turn tells the players point of view in which they thought the Board
President would be on their side but D comes out with the reality that the Board President is not willing to
help them.


5. Ans. b. DABC
The opening sentence states that India and Japan have agreed to disagree.
After that should follow what Japan’s stand was previously and its actions which proved that (mention in
D). Then comes the current situation about Japanese Prime Minister’s visit to India and the state of their
relations currently (A). Followed by B states that the main factor bringing the two countries close is
information technology. In the end C states the deal that has been struck between the two countries.


6. Answer: d. power…pollution
Though initially power levels sounds right, and so does pollution generation, they don’t make logical
sense.

The sentence should ideally read


135

Pollution levels in Delhi dropped last week, thanks to reduced traffic on the roads and the closing down of
two power generating plants.

7. Answer: b. relate…reach
You can reach thousands of potential customers and relate to every single customer.

8. Answer: d. value…improve
You could go by answer choices also, if the sentence seems too long.
Even though ‘value virtually all aspects makes sense’ … ‘meet the improve provided on-line’.. does not
make sense. So the words value and improve if exchanged would make proper sense and the sentence
would read as
ebay has helped shape the future of online buying and selling, with traditional traders forced to improve
virtually all aspects of their businesses to meet the value provided on-line


9. Answer
The first sentence (Type A) talks about swine flu. The second sentence talks about Fujifilm and cameras
which is about photography and so clearly type B. The third and fifth sentences are again type A.

10. Answer: b. ABDC
Show sentences 1ABDC6 in that order
A starts at the beginning of the last 45 years. B states how external powers tried to control the region, D
continues with the idea. C talks about supply of arms to Pakistan, an idea that is continued in 6.


11. Answer: a. ABCD
Sentences A and B has the ‘question’ and ‘answer’, so do sentences C and D which refer to the ‘ostrich’
and ‘wake up’ . So, A and B should come together and C and D should come together. The only logical
sequence that can be made which is also available in the answer choices is a. ABCD
Show sentences 1ABCD6 in that order


12. Answer: b. DBCA

Sentence 1 talks about the pakistan’s designer economy and what is keeping it going. D talks about the
problem that it faces. So this would be a logical continuation to highlight the coming apart of the designer
economy. Similarly B and C should come together as ‘Lose export ‘ is linked to ‘cut orders’.
The last part would suggest why it is important to bail out the industry (A )and 6 gives support in terms of
figures. Hence the sequence would be DBCA.
Show sentences 1DBCA6 in that order












136


Chapter 22

LOGICAL ABILITY


Directions for practice exercises 1, 2 and 3:

Each question consists of two statements; write the logical conclusion that follows from the given
statements.


Practice Exercise - 1
1. All A’s are B’s.
All C’s are D’s.
4. All pens are pencils.
2. All cats are rats. All pencils are erasers.
All rats are cats.
5. Some engineers are doctors.

All cows are donkeys. Some doctors are
3. Some donkeys are buffaloes. researchers.



Practice Exercise - 2

6. Some A’s are not B’s. Some B’s are
not C’s.
9. Not all animals are dangerous. Some
7. All politicians are wealthy. animals are man eaters.
Some politicians are not educated.
10. No pig is a horse.
8. All Indians are patriotic. No horse is a monkey.
Some Indians are NRIs


Practice Exercise - 3

11. All trainees work in factories. Some
trainees are apprentices. 14. All sports are famous.
Some sports are dangerous.
12. All books are pencils. Some pens are
books. 15. No train is a tram.
Some trains are not buses.
13. Many fans are lights.
Some lights are tubes.


137

22. LOGICAL ABILITY - Answers



Solutions:

1. No conclusion. There are 4 quantities. They cannot be related.
2. No conclusion. There are only 2 quantities.
3. No conclusion. The middle term is not distributed.
4. All pens are erasers.
5. No conclusion. Both the statements are particular in nature.
6. No conclusion. Both the statements are particular in nature.
7. Some wealthy are not educated.
8. Some patriotic are NRIs or Some NRIs are patriotic.
9. No conclusion. Both the statements are particular in nature.
10. No conclusion. Both the statements are negative in nature.
11. Some factories have apprentices or Some apprentices work in factories.
12. Some pencils are pens or Some pens are pencils.
13. No conclusion. Both the statements are particular in nature.
14. Some famous are dangerous or Some dangerous are famous.
15. No conclusion. Both the statements are negative in nature.

































138

Chapter 23

SEATING ARRANGEMENT

Directions (1 to 5) : Read the following information to answer the given questions.

(i) A, B, C, D, E, F and G are playing cards sitting around a circular table

(ii) D is not neighbour of C or E.

(iii)A is neighbour of B and C.

(iv) G, who is second to the left of D, is the neighbour of E and F.

1. Which of the following is correct?
A.) B is between A and D B.) D is between F and G.
C.) E is to the immediate right of G D.) F is to the immediate left of G



2. Which of the following will be D's position after E and D interchange their places?
A.) BD B.) EC
C.) AE D.) GF


3. Which of the following will be D's position after E and D interchange their places?
A.) Neighbour to G and C B.) To the immediate right of F
C.) Neighbour of C and A D.) To the immediate left of C

4. Which of the following has the second person sitting between the first and third person?
A.) DAB B.) BCA
C.) GFD D.) GCE

5. Which of the following is wrong?
A.) A is to the immediate right of B B.) B is to the immediate left of D
C.) F is between G and D D.) E is between G and C





Directions (6 to 10) : Read the information given in the questions and on the basis of the
information, select the questions Given
after the information.

Seven friends Kiran, Mahesh, Rajesh, Abhi, Ganesh, Prasad and Parveen are sitting in a circle. Kiran,
Mahesh, Rajesh, Abhi, Prasad and Parveen are sitting at equal distances from each other. Rajesh is
sitting after two places right of Prasad, who is sitting one place right of Abhi. Kiran forms an angle of
90 degrees from Ganesh and an angle of 120 degrees from Mahesh. Mahesh is just opposite Parveen
and is sitting on the left of Ganesh.



139

6. Who is the only person sitting between Rajesh and Mahesh ?


A.) Prasad B.) Abhi
C.) Ganesh D.) Kiran


7. Ganesh is not sitting at equal distance from
A.) Mahesh and Prasad B.) Abhi and Kiran
C.) Rajesh and Prasad D.) All of the Above


8. Ganesh is sitting .............. of Parveen.
A.) to the left B.) two places right
C.) to the right D.) three places left


9. The angle between Ganesh and Mahesh in the clockwise direction is ?
A.) 30 degree B.) 210 degree
C.) 180 degree D.) 90 degree


10. Which of the following statements is not correct ?
A.) Prasad is between Mahesh and Kiran B.) Mahesh is two places away from Parveen
C.) Ganesh is sitting opposite Prasad D.) All of Above



I) P, Q, R, S, T, U, and V, W are sitting in a circle facing the center.

II) P sits second to the right of w who is 3rd to the left of T.

III) Only 3 persons sit between R and V

IV) S and T are immediate neighbors of R and v.

V) V sits between R and S.

VI) V is not an immediate neighbors to T.

11. Who is facing u?
A.) P B.) Q
C.) R D.) V


12. Who is third to the left of D?
A.) U B.) Q
C.) R D.) T


13. Who is immediate right of P?
A.) Q B.) T
C.) S D.) U



140

14. Who is immediate left of S?


A.) R B.) U
C.) W D.) None of these


15. Who are the neighbours of Q?
A.) R and T B.) T and U
C.) R and P D.) T and S












































141

23. SEATING ARRANGEMENT – Answers and Explanations




1. Answer: Option 'A'
We are given : G is second to the left of D and G is the neighbour of E and F.
That is, G is sitting between E and F. But D is not neighbour of E.
Hence, EGFD --> ACE
Now, A is sitting between B and C.
But D is not neighbour of C.
So, B is the neighbour of D.
B is between A and D


2. Answer: Option 'D'
We are given: G is second to the left of D and G is the neighbour of E and F.
That is, G is sitting between E and F. But D is not neighbour of E.
Hence, EGFD --> ACE
Now, A is sitting between B and C.
But D is not neighbour of C.
So, B is the neighbour of D.
F sits to the immediate right of C.


3. Answer: Option 'A'
We are given: G is second to the left of D and G is the neighbour of E and F.
That is, G is sitting between E and F. But D is not neighbour of E.
Hence, EGFD --> ACE
Now, A is sitting between B and C.
But D is not neighbour of C.
So, B is the neighbour of D.
F sits to the immediate right of C.


4. Answer: Option 'C'
We are given: G is second to the left of D and G is the neighbour of E and F.
That is, G is sitting between E and F. But D is not neighbour of E.
Hence, EGFD --> ACE
Now, A is sitting between B and C.
But D is not neighbour of C.
So, B is the neighbour of D.
F is sitting between G and D.


5. Answer: Option 'C'
We are given: G is second to the left of D and G is the neighbour of E and F.
That is, G is sitting between E and F. But D is not neighbour of E.
Hence, EGFD --> ACE
Now, A is sitting between B and C.
But D is not neighbour of C.
So, B is the neighbour of D.
B is to the immediate left of D.



142

6. Answer: Option 'C'



7. Answer: Option 'D'

8. Answer: Option 'D'

9. Answer: Option 'A'

10. Answer: Option 'D'

11. Answer: Option 'A'

12. Answer: Option 'C'

13. Answer: Option 'B'

14. Answer: Option 'B'

15. Answer: Option 'A'



143

Chapter 24

PUZZLES

1. Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
Three ladies and four men are a group of friends, R, M, T, S, L, W and Z. Each one has a different
profession, ie Lawyer, Travel Agent, Air-hostess, Doctor, Professor, Consultant and Jeweller and each
one owns a different car, ie Alto, Corolla, Santro, Lancer, Ikon, Scorpio and Esteem, not necessarily in
that order. None of the ladies is a Consultant or a Lawyer. T is an Air-hostess and she owns an Ikon
car. R owns a Scorpio. M is not a Doctor. L is a Jeweller and he owns Corolla. W is a Lawyer and does
not own Alto. Z is a Consultant and owns Santro. The Doctor owns Esteem car whereas the Professor
owns Scorpio. The Travel Agent owns an Alto. None of the ladies own a Scorpio.

Questions:
1. What car does S own?
1) Alto
2) Santro
3) Lancer
4) Esteem
5) None of these

2. Who owns the car Lancer?
1) Z
2) M
4) Data Inadequate
5) None of these

3. What is the profession of R?
1) Professor
2) Travel Agent
3) Doctor
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these

4. Who is the Doctor?
1) R
2) S
3) L
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these

5. Who are the three ladies in the group?
1) T, R, L
2) T, M, S
3) W, T, M
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these



2. Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:



144

Seven people N, K, T, B, M, W and R have their weekly offs on different days of the week, ie Sunday,
Monday, Tuesday, Wednesday, Thursday, Friday and Saturday, not necessarily in that order. Each of
them has a liking for different cuisine, ie Indian, Italian, Mexican, Chinese, Spanish, Continental and
Thai, not necessarily in that order. K likes Thai food and gets his weekly off on Thursday. B likes
Italian food and does not have off on Sunday. M has weekly off on Saturday and R has his weekly off
on Tuesday. W likes continental food whereas the one who has weekly off on Monday likes Mexican
cuisine. T does not like Spanish cuisine and has weekly off on Wednesday. The one who likes Indian
food does not have a weekly off on Tuesday or Wednesday.

Questions:
1. Who has a weekly off on Friday?
1) T
2) R
3) W
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these

2. What cuisine does R like?
1) Continental
2) Indian
3) Italian
4) Spanish
5) None of these

3. On which day does N have weekly off?
1) Tuesday
2) Friday
3) Monday
4) Sunday
5) None of these

4. Who likes Chinese cuisine?
1) T
2) B
3) R
4) N
5) None of these

5. On which day does W have weekly off?
1) Monday
2) Sunday
3) Wednesday
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these








145

3. Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
P, Q, R, S and T finished a work, working from Monday to Saturday, one of the days being a holiday,
each working overtime only on one of the days.
R or T did not work overtime on the first day.
Q worked overtime the next day after the holiday.
The overtime work done on the previous day of the holiday was by R.
There was a two days’ gap between the days on which P and Q worked over time.
P worked overtime the next day of the overtime day of S.

Questions:
1. Which of the following is the correct statement ?
1) P worked overtime last among them.
2) P worked overtime earlier than S.
3) The holiday was on Friday.
4) S worked overtime earlier than Q.
5) None of these

2. On which day did R work overtime?
1) Monday
2) Tuesday
3) Thursday
4) Friday
5) None of these

3. How many days’ gap was there between the days on which P and T worked overtime?
1)Three
2) Two
3) One
4) Cannot be determined
5) None of these

4. When did T work overtime?
1) On the day previous to that on which S worked overtime
2) On the next day of the day on which Q worked overtime
3) Two days after the day on which S worked overtime
4) Cannot be determined
5) None of these















146

24. PUZZLES - Answers




SOLUTIONS:

Solution - Puzzle 1
Person Profession Car Gender
T Air-hostess Ikon Female
R Professor Scorpio Male
L Jeweller Corolla Male
W Lawyer Lancer Male
Z Consultant Santro Male
S Doctor Esteem Female
M Travel Agent Alto Female

1. 4
2. 3
3. 1
4. 2
5. 2

Solution - Puzzle 2

Person Food Day
K Thai Thursday
B Italian Friday
M Indian Saturday
R Spanish Tuesday
W Continental Sunday
N Mexican Monday
T Chinese Wednesday

1. 5; B
2. 4
3. 3
4. 1
5. 2

Solution - Puzzle 3

From the clues (i), (iii), (iv) (v) and (vi) we get three possible arrangements for Monday to Saturday.
These arrangements are as follows:
1. R, Holiday, Q, T, S, P
2. T, S, P, R, Holiday, Q
3. S, P, R, Holiday, Q, T
Reject the possibilities 1 and 2 because of clue (ii). Hence, the arrangement 3 is the correct one.
Thus, we get

S.No. Day Person
1. MON S
2. TUE P



147

3. WED R
4. THU Holiday
5. FRI Q
6. SAT T

1. 4
2. 5; Wednesday
3. 1
4. 2











































148

Chapter 25

STATEMENTS AND ARGUMENTS

1. Statement: Should the railways immediately stop issuing free passes to all its employees?
Arguments:
I. No. The employees have the right to travel free.
II. Yes. This will help railways to provide better facility.

A. Only argument I is strong
B. Only argument II is strong
C. Either I or II is strong
D. Neither I nor II is strong
E. Both I and II are strong


2. Statement: Should number of holidays of government employees be reduced ?
Arguments:
I. Yes. Our government employees are having maximum number of holidays among the other
countries of the world.
II. Yes. It will lead to increased productivity of government offices.

A. Only argument I is strong
B. Only argument II is strong
C. Either I or II is strong
D. Neither I nor II is strong
E. Both I and II are strong


3. Statement: Should there be reservation of seats and posts on communal basis ?
Arguments:
I. Yes. It will check most of the inter-communal biases.
II. No. Ours is a secular state.

A. Only argument I is strong
B. Only argument II is strong
C. Either I or II is strong
D. Neither I nor II is strong
E. Both I and II are strong


4. Statement: Should government stop spending huge amounts of money on international sports ?
Arguments:
I. Yes. This money can be utilised for poor.
II. No. Sports-persons will be frustrated and will not get international exposure.

A. Only argument I is strong
B. Only argument II is strong
C. Either I or II is strong
D. Neither I nor II is strong
E. Both I and II are strong



149


5. Statement: Should education be made compulsory for all children up to the age of 14 ?
Arguments:
I. Yes. This will help to eradicate the system of forced employment of children.
II. Yes. This would increase the standard of living.

A. Only argument I is strong
B. Only argument II is strong
C. Either I or II is strong
D. Neither I nor II is strong
E. Both I and II are strong


6. Statement: Should the tuition fees in all post graduate courses be hiked considerably ?
Arguments:
I. Yes. This will bring some kind of seriousness among the students and will improve quality.
II. No. This will force the meritorious poor students to stay away from post-graduate courses.

A. Only argument I is strong
B. Only argument II is strong
C. Either I or II is strong
D. Neither I nor II is strong
E. Both I and II are strong



7. Statement: Should students union in universities be abolished ?
Arguments:
I. Yes. Students can pay full attention to their career development.
II. No. All the great leaders had been students union leaders.

A. Only argument I is strong
B. Only argument II is strong
C. Either I or II is strong
D. Neither I nor II is strong
E. Both I and II are strong



Each of the following questions consists of a statement followed by two arguments I and II.

Give answer:
(A) If only argument I is strong
(B) If only argument II is strong
(C) If either I or II is strong
(D) If neither I nor II is strong and
(E) If both I and II are strong.





150

8. Statement: Should judicial activism be discouraged?


Arguments:
I. No. If we leave everything in the hands of executive, justice may be distant dream.
II. Yes. Judiciary should mind its own business. Executive will take its own course.

A. Only argument I is strong
B. Only argument II is strong
C. Either I or II is strong
D. Neither I nor II is strong
E. Both I and II are strong


9. Statement: Should correspondence courses at the university level be discontinued in India ?
Arguments:
I. Yes. Only interaction between teachers and students at the college helps total development of
personality.
II. No. The demand for discontinuance comes only from the elite who have no knowledge of what is
meant by poverty.

A. Only argument I is strong
B. Only argument II is strong
C. Either I or II is strong
D. Neither I nor II is strong
E. Both I and II are strong


10. Statement: Should the government levy tax on agricultural income also ?
Arguments:
I. Yes. That is the only way to fill government coffers.
II. No. Eighty percent of our population live in rural areas.

A. Only argument I is strong
B. Only argument II is strong
C. Either I or II is strong
D. Neither I nor II is strong
E. Both I and II are strong


11. Statement: Should all Government owned educational institutions be handed over to private
institutions?
Arguments:
I. Yes. Standard of education will improve.
II. No. Standard of education will fall.

A. Only argument I is strong
B. Only argument II is strong
C. Either I or II is strong
D. Neither I nor II is strong
E. Both I and II are strong



151


12. Statement: Should new universities be established in India?
Argument:
I. No. We have still not achieved the target of literacy.
II. No. We will have to face the problem of unemployed but highly qualified people.

A. Only argument I is strong
B. Only argument II is strong
C. Either I or II is strong
D. Neither I nor II is strong
E. Both I and II are strong









































152

25. STATEMENTS AND ARGUMENTS – Answers and Explanations



1. Answer: Option D
Explanation:
The free passes given to railway employees is a privilege for them, not their right. So, argument I
does not hold. Argument II seems to be vague.

2. Answer: Option B

3. Answer: Option B

4. Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Clearly spending money on sports cannot be avoided merely for social economic problems.
But Argument II is strong. Be a sports man and then think on this question.

5. Answer: Option D
Explanation:
None of argument stands valid.

6. Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Clearly seriousness among the students is not because of fees but second argument is strong.

7. Answer: Option A

8. Answer: Option D

9. Answer: Option A

10. Answer: Option D

11. Answer: Option D
Explanation:
It is not that the government or the private institutions can provide higher standards of learning.

12. Answer: Option E
Explanation:
Clearly, instead of improving upon higher education we should focus on increasing literacy rate first.
Also more degree holders with the number of jobs remaining same will increase unemployment.
So both arguments are strong.











153

Chapter 26

SENTENCE CORRECTION


1. I am tired as I am working since 7 O'clock in the morning.
A. I was working
B.I have been working
C.I had been working
D.I will be working



2. When it was morning they decided to put at an inn.
A. put out in
B. put off at
C. put at
D. put up at


3. Jeans was not permitted in out college.
A. were
B. had
C. will
D. have


4. He suggested that, we should be bound by a code of conduct, isn't it ?
A. Shouldn't we
B. is it
C. aren't we
D. None of above


5. The furniture in this room are made of teak.
A. have
B. had
C. is
D. None of above


6. Sheela told her teacher to explain the chapter once again.
A. ordered her teacher
B. invited her teacher
C. asked her teacher
D. said to her teacher

7. You should avoid to make such stupid mistakes.
A. avoid to made
B. avoid make
C. avoid making



154

D. avoid to have
8. If you come across my keys, bring it to me, can you?
A. will you ?
B. don't you ?
C. isn't it ?
D. No improvement.

9. Due to rain, cricket ground was covered by a carpet.
A. covered along
B. covered into
C. covered with
D. covered upon

10. People are waiting for the train at platform for long.
A. were waiting
B. have been waiting
C. has waiting
D. have waiting

11. They are hell bent at getting what is due to them.
A. hell bent on
B. hell bent of
C. hell bent after
D. hell bent upon

12. I shall not go untill I am invited.
A. unless I am
B. till I am
C. once I am
D. if not I am

13. Mr. Manoj teaches very well, isn't it ?
A. didn't he
B. doesn't he
C. wasn't he
D. if not he

14. The reason why he left the home was because he was feeling hostile there.
A. the home
B. the home has
C. the home were
D. the home was that

15. Leader said, that he is committed to give a job to all the unemployed.
A. to the unemployed
B. to each of the unemployed
C. any of the unemployed
D. every unemployed




155


26. SENTENCE CORRECTION – Answers and Explanation


1. Answer: Option B

2. Answer: Option D

3. Answer: Option A

4. Answer: Option A

5. Answer: Option C

6. Answer: Option C

7. Answer: Option C

8. Answer: Option A

9. Answer: Option C

10. Answer: Option B

11. Answer: Option D

12. Answer: Option A

13. Answer: Option B

14. Answer: Option D

15. Answer: Option B



156

Chapter 27

PARAJUMBLES


1. Find correct sequence of sentence:

P: youngsters in the cities and the villages
Q: The effect
R: of the cinema
S: on the school and college going is very bad
A. PRQS
B. QRSP
C. QPSR
D. RQSP


2. Find correct sequence of sentence:

P. I have not come to complain he said
Q. even if it means some humiliation
R. but the boy must learn to be honest
S. and admit he broke it.
A. PQRS
B. QRPS
C. QPRS
D. PRQS


3. Find correct sequence of sentence:

P: not indeed in the sense that education has been universal
Q: Our country has been a land of learning
R: and the learned man has been held in higher esteem than the warrior or administrator
S: but in the sense that education has been universal
A. QRSP
B. RSPQ
C. QPSR
D. RQSP


4. Find correct sequence of sentence:

P: appear in examinations
Q: many students from all over India
R: by different organisations
S: which are held on all India basis
A. QPSR
B. QRSP
C. QPRS
D. PRQS



157


5. Find the correct sequence of sentences:

P: to protect vegetables from cold
Q: in view of the prevailing weather conditions
R: farmers to smoke their fields during the night
S: agricultural experts have advised
A. PRQS
B. QSRP
C. RPSQ
D. SPQR


6. Find the right sequence of sentences:

P: if it was time to go yet
Q: and ran downstairs to see
R: Rahul jumped out of bed
S: on Saturday morning
A. RPQR
B. SPRQ
C. RQSP
D. SRQP


7. Find the right sequence of sentences:

P: in my heart of hearts
Q: to hear his voice
R: I wasn't sure what I really wished
S: through that window once more
A. PQRS
B. RPQS
C. SRQP
D. RPSQ


8. Find the correct sequence of sentences:

1: Your letter was big relief.
P : How did you exams go?
Q : After your result, you must come here for a week.
R : You hadn't written for over a month.
S : I am sure you will come out with flying colours.
6: But don't forget to bring chocolate for Geetha.
A. RPSQ
B. SQRP
C. PRQS
D. PQRS



158

9. Find the correct sequence of sentences:



1 : I took cigarettes from my case.
P : but when the fit of coughing was over, he replaced it between his lips.
Q : I lit one of them and placed it between the lips.
R : then with a feeble hand he removed the cigarette.
S : slowly he took a pull at it and coughed violently.
6 : Then he continues to draw on it.
A. RPQS
B. QSRP
C. PQRS
D. QRSP


10. Find the correct sequence of sentences:

1. Religion has been used
P: both as a weapon of isolation
Q: to dull awareness
R: about real problems
S: and as morphia
6: like education, health and employment
A. QPSR
B. PQRS
C. QRPS
D. PSQR


11. Find correct sequence of sentences:

1. When all the member were seated
P: the secretary came to the dias
Q: during the previous year
R: detailing the activities of the organisation
S: and read out the report
6. and plans for the coming year.
A. PRQS
B. PSRQ
C. QRPS
D. QPRS


12. Find correct sequence of sentences:

1. In-spite of an unprecedented boom in the market
P: and had to remain content
Q: the paper dealer could not
R: push up his sales
S: with the volume of sale lower than
6: what he had sold the previous year.
A. QRPS



159

B. QPRS
C. PRQS
D. PQSR



13. Find correct sequence of sentences:

1. Rahul was successful
P: by the cruelty and horrors of war
Q: he was so disgusted
R: in his military operations
S: and alone among conquerors
6: that he renounced it.
A. PQRS
B. QPSR
C. RSQP
D. SRQP


14. Find correct sequence of sentences:

1. She said on the phone that she would report for duty next day.
P: we found it locked
Q: We waited for few days then we decided to go to her place
R: But she did not
S: Even after that we waited for her quite a few days
6. Eventually we reported to the police.
A. RQPS
B. QPRS
C. RSPQ
D. PQRS



15. Find correct sequence of sentences:

1: A connection had long been suspected
P: since both were at their worst in the
Q: same regions and seasons, but the nature
R: between the abundance of mosquitoes
S: and the occurrence of mosquitoes
6: of this connection had not been understood.
A. RQSP
B. RSQP
C. RSPQ
D. PQRS





160


27. PARAJUMBLES – Answers

1. Answer: Option B

2. Answer: Option D
3. Answer: Option C
4. Answer: Option A
5. Answer: Option B
6. Answer: Option D
7. Answer: Option B
8. Answer: Option A
9. Answer: Option B
10. Answer: Option D
11. Answer: Option B
12. Answer: Option A
13. Answer: Option C
14. Answer: Option A
15. Answer: Option C

































161


Chapter 28

CALENDAR

Day Codes:-

Sat = 0
Sun = 1
Mon = 2
Tue = 3
Wed = 4
Thu = 5
Fri = 6

Month Codes:-

Jan = 1
Feb = 4
Mar = 4
Apr = 0
May = 2
Jun = 5
Jul = 0
Aug = 3
Sep = 6
Oct = 1
Nov = 4
Dec = 6

Century Codes:-

1500 - 1599 ---> 0
1600 - 1699 ---> 6
1700 - 1799 ---> 4
1800 - 1899 ---> 2
1900 - 1999 ---> 0
2000 - 2099 ---> 6
2100 - 2199 ---> 4
2200 - 2299 ---> 2
2300 - 2399 ---> 0


1. What was the day of the week on 24th July 2011?

A.) Monday B.) Sunday
C.) Friday D.) None of these


2. What was day of the week on 21-September-1987?



162

A.) Sunday B.) Monday


C.) Friday D.) Saturday


3. What was the day of the week on 26-January-1950?

A.) Sunday B.) Monday
C.) Wednesday D.) Thursday


4. Today is Monday, after 61 days, the day will be:

A.) Wednesday B.) Saturday
C.) Tuesday D.) Thursday


5. Which of the following is not a leap year?

A.) 700 B.) 800
C.) 1200 D.) 2000

6. Today is Friday, after 126 days, it will be:

A.) Sunday B.) Tuesday
C.) Friday D.) Monday


7. How many days are there in x weeks X days?

A.) 7x² B.) 8x
C.) 14x D.) 7


8. It was Sunday on January-1-2006. Find the day of the week on January-1-2010?

A.) Sunday B.) Saturday
C.) Friday D.) Wednesday


9. What was the day of the week on 7th October, 2003?

A.) Sunday B.) Saturday
C.) Friday D.) Wednesday

10. On 2007, What was the date of last Saturday in May month?

A.) 21 B.) 22
C.) 25 D.) 26

11. What was the day of the week on 10th March 1996?



163

A.) Sunday B.) Tuesday


C.) Saturday D.) Wednesday

12. On 8th February 2005, it was Tuesday. What was the day of the week on 8 February 2004?

A.) Tuesday B.) Monday
C.) Sunday D.) Wednesday


13. What was the day of the week on 17th June, 1998

A.) Tuesday B.) Monday
C.) Sunday D.) Wednesday







































164


28. CALENDAR – Answers and Explanations

1. Answer: Option 'B'
Formula:-(Date + Month code + No.of years + No.of leap year + Century code)/7
= (24 + 0 + 11 + 2 + 6)/7 = 43/7 = 1
= Sunday


2. Answer: Option 'B'
Formula:-(Date + Month code + No.of years + No.of leap year + Century code)/7
= (21 + 6 + 87 + 21 + 0)/7 = 135/7 = 2
= Monday


3. Answer: Option 'D'
Formula:-(Date + Month code + No.of years + No.of leap year + Century code)/7
= (26 + 1 + 50 + 12 + 0)/7 = 84/7 = 5
= Thursday


4. Answer: Option 'B'
Each day of the week is repeated after 7 days.
So, after 63 days, it will be Monday.
After 61 days, it will be saturday.


5. Answer: Option 'A'
The century divisible by 400 is a leap year.
The tear 700 is not a leap year


6. Answer: Option 'C'
126/7 = 0
Each day of the week is repeated after 7 days.
So, after 126 days, it will be Friday.
After 126 days, it will be Friday.


7. Answer: Option 'B'
x weeks x days = (7x + x) days = 8x days



8. Answer: Option 'C'
On 31st December, 2005 it was Saturday.
Number of odd days from the year 200 to the tear 2009 = ( 1 + 1 + 2 + 1 ) = 5days
On 31st December 2009, it was Thursday.
Thus, on 1st Jan, 2010 it is Friday.



165


9. Answer: Option 'B'
Formula = ( Date + Monthcode + No.of years + No.of leapyears + Century code )/ 7
==> (7 + 1 + 3 + 0 + 6)/7 = 17/7 = 3
==> Tuesday


10. Answer: Option 'D'
1 - May - 2007
=(1 + 2 + 7 + 1 + 6)/7 = 17/7 = 3 = Tuesday
= May 1st --> Tuesday + 5 days = Saturday = 5th may
5th may + 7 days = Saturday = 12th may
12th may + 7 days = Saturday = 19th may
19th may + 7 days = Saturday = 26th may
= Answer = 26th may


11. Answer: Option 'A'
(10 + 4 + 96 + 24 + 0)/7 = 134/7 = 1
= Sunday

12. Answer: Option 'C'


The year 2004 is a leap year. It has 2 odd days.
The day on 8th Feb, 2004 is 2 days before the day on 8th Feb, 2005
Hence, this day is Sunday.


13. Answer: Option 'D'
17th June, 1998 = (1997 years + Period from 1.1.1998 to 17.6.1998)
Odd days in 1600 years = 0
Odd days in 300 years = (5 × 3) = 1
97 years has 24 leap years + 73 ordinary years.
Number of odd days in 97 years = (24 × 2 + 73) = 121 = 2 odd days
Jan Feb March April May June
31 + 28 + 31 + 30 + 31 + 17 = 168 days = 24 weeks = 0 odd day
Total number of odd days = (0 + 1 + 2 + 0) = 3
Given day is Wednesday

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