IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

OML751 LTPC3003

TESTING OF MATERIALS

OBJECTIVES
 To understand the various destructive and non destructive testing
methods of materials and its industrial applications.

M
UNIT I INTRODUCTION TO MATERIALS TESTING 9

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Overview of materials, Classification of material testing, Purpose of testing,
Selection of material, Development of testing, Testing organizations and its

C
committee, Testing standards, Result Analysis, Advantages of testing.

T.
UNIT II MECHANICAL TESTING 9
Introduction to mechanical testing, Hardness test (Vickers, Brinell, Rockwell),

O
Tensile test, Impact test (Izod, Charpy) - Principles, Techniques, Methods,
Advantages and Limitations, Applications. Bend test, Shear test, Creep and
SP
Fatigue test - Principles, Techniques, Methods, Advantages and Limitations,
Applications.
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UNIT III NON DESTRUCTIVE TESTING 9
LO

Visual inspection, Liquid penetrant test, Magnetic particle test, Thermography

test – Principles, Techniques, Advantages and Limitations, Applications.
Radiographic test, Eddy current test, Ultrasonic test, Acoustic emission-
.B

Principles, Techniques, Methods, Advantages and Limitations, Applications.

17

UNIT IV MATERIAL CHARACTERIZATION TESTING 9

Macroscopic and Microscopic observations, Optical and Electron microscopy
(SEM and TEM) - Principles, Types, Advantages and Limitations, Applications.
-R

Diffraction techniques, Spectroscopic Techniques, Electrical and Magnetic

Techniques- Principles, Types, Advantages and Limitations, Applications.
SE

UNIT V OTHER TESTING 9

Thermal Testing: Differential scanning calorimetry, Differential thermal
C

analysis. Thermo-mechanical and Dynamic mechanical analysis: Principles,

Advantages, Applications. Chemical Testing: X-Ray Fluorescence, Elemental
Analysis by Inductively Coupled Plasma-Optical Emission Spectroscopy and
Plasma-Mass Spectrometry.

TOTAL : 45 PERIODS

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OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS

1. The ability of a material to undergo plastic deformation without fracture

when subjected to uniaxial tensile force is ___
a) Ductility
b) Malleability
c) Tensile Strength

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d) Yield Strength

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2. Which metal has the highest ductility?
a) Silver

C
b) Gold
c) Platinum

T.
d) Aluminium

3. Ductility of ceramics is ___

O
a) Less than 1%
b) 2 – 4%
c) 4 – 40%
d) More than 40%
SP
G
4. What is the ductility of annealed Cu?
a) 25%
LO

b) 35%
c) 40%
d) 45%
.B

5. What is the ductility of commercial pure Titanium?

a) 10%
17

b) 14%
c) 16%
d) 25%
-R

6. Which factor increases ductility?

a) Cold working
SE

b) Annealing
c) Alloying
d) Inclusions
C

7. Which crystal structure materials possess the best ductility properties?

a) FCC
b) HCP
c) BCC
d) SC

8. Which factor decreases the ductility of materials?

a) Annealing
b) Spheroidization
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c) Grain refinement
d) Alloying

9. Cast materials show better ductility than wrought materials.

a) True
b) False

10. Neutron irradiation by neutrons can ___ yield stress and ___ ductility.

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a) Increase, increase
b) Increase, decrease

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c) Decrease, increase
d) Decrease, decrease

C
11. With the increase in the degree of stress triaxiality, ductility of material

T.
decreases.
a) True
b) False

O
12. As the strain rate increases, the value of ductility ___
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains constant
SP
G
d) Changes independent of strain rate.
LO

13. Original gauge length of aluminium cylindrical spectrum is 2 inches and

fracture length is 2.78 inches. What is the ductility of specimen?
a) 38%
.B

b) 39%
c) 40%
d) 41%
17

14. A cylindrical specimen having diameter of 12.8 mm is starting and 7.3 mm

at the fracture point. What is ductility?
-R

a) 56%
b) 64%
c) 67%
SE

d) 78%

15.The ability of a material to undergo plastic deformation without rupture,

C

when a compressive force is applied, is known as ______

a) Ductility
b) Formability
c) Compressive strength
d) Malleability

16. Which metal has maximum malleability?

a) Platinum
b) Gold

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c) Silver
d) Aluminium

17. Which metal shows good malleability but poor ductility?

a) Silver
b) Gold
c) Lead
d) Aluminium

M
18. With an increase in temperature, malleability of material ______

O
a) Increases
b) Decreases

C
c) Remains constant
d) Varies independent of temperature

T.
19. Malleability is the property of a material to be formed into ______
a) Wires

O
b) Sheets
c) Bars
d) Billets SP
20. Malleable iron is made by heating white iron between _____ for a long time
G
period.
a) 200-300°C
LO

b) 400-500°C
c) 800-900°C
d) 1100-1200°C
.B

21. Malleable cast iron consists of _____

a) Graphite flakes
17

b) Graphite nodules
c) Graphite clusters
d) Spheroidite
-R

22. Crystal structure of a material is an important factor, which affects the

malleability.
SE

a) True
b) False
C

23. Which statement is false regarding malleability?

a) Presence of interstitials decreases malleability
b) With an increase in temperature malleability of material decreases
c) FCC crystals generally have good malleability
d) Materials with weak metallic bond tend to have good malleability

24. Materials with stronger metallic bonds exhibit high malleability.

a) True
b) False

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25. What is the inverse of stiffness?

a) Hardness
b) Stress
c) Flexibility
d) Toughness

26. A material’s resistance to elastic deflection is known as ___

a) stiffness

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b) toughness
c) hardness

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d) elasticity

C
27. What is the SI unit of stiffness?
a) N/m

T.
b) N/m
c) Nm2
d) N

O
28. How can stiffness of material be improved?
a) By increasing the cross-sectional area
b) By decreasing the cross-sectional area
c) By increasing temperature
SP
G
d) By increasing the length of spring
LO

29. Plasticizers in polymers ___ toughness and ____ stiffness.

a) increase, increase
b) increase, decrease
.B

c) decrease, increase
d) decrease, decrease
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30. Stiffness and strength of polymer ___ with an increase in the degree of
crystallinity.
a) increases
-R

b) decreases
c) remains constant
d) varies showing no relation to the degree of crystallinity
SE

31. Increasing the stiffness of material diminishes its impact strength.

a) True
C

b) False

32. A stiff material is always of high strength.

a) True
b) False

33. Which statement is true regarding stiffer?

a) A longer spring is stiffer
b) A spring with thin wire is stiffer

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c) Copper wire spring is stiffer than steel wire spring

d) A spring with a smaller diameter of coils is stiffer

34. With an increase in temperature, elastic modulus of metals ____ and

stiffness ____
a) increases, increases
b) increases, decreases
c) decreases, increases

M
d) decreases, decreases

O
35. The property of a material which enables it to absorb energy and deform
plastically without fracture is ______

C
a) Stiffness
b) Toughness

T.
c) Hardness
d) Resilience

O
36. What is the SI unit of tensile toughness?
a) N/m
b) in.lbf.in-3
c) Jm-3
d) Jm3
SP
G
37. What is fracture toughness range of ceramics?
LO

a) 2-8 MN m-3/2
b) 1-10 MN m-3/2
c) 10-30 MN m-3/2
.B

d) 30-40 MN m-3/2

38. What is fracture toughness of magnesia in terms of stress intensity factor?

17

a) 1 MPa m1/2
b) 2 MPa m1/2
c) 3 MPa m1/2
-R

d) 5 MPa m1/2

39. Match the following.

SE

Material KIc (MPa m1/2)

i) Titanium alloy p) 3-4
C

ii) Aluminium q) 0.2-1.4

iii) Concrete r) 44-66
iv) Silicon carbide s) 14-28

a) i-r, ii-s, iii-p, iv-q

b) i-s, ii-r, iii-q, iv-p
c) i-s, ii-r, iii-p, iv-q
d) i-r, ii-s, iii-q, iv-p

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40. The toughness of material depends on _____ and _____ of material.

a) Ductility, yield strength
b) Ductility, tensile strength
c) Stiffness, tensile strength
d) Hardness, yield strength

41. Which factor decreases toughness of material?

a) Alloying

M
b) Temperature
c) Grain refinement

O
d) Strain rate

C
42. What is the reason of low toughness of grey cast iron?
a) Strain rate

T.
b) Notch effect
c) Grain size effect
d) Crystal structure

O
43. Which material, would you choose for high toughness property on lower
temperatures?
a) Steel
b) Aluminium
SP
G
c) Zinc
d) SiC
LO

44. Stress intensity factor is not a function of _______

a) Loading
.B

b) Crack size
c) Volume
d) Structural geometry
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45. Material has tensile strength 40 MPa and fracture strain 0.39. What will be
approximate value of toughness?
-R

a) 10.2 MJ/m3
b) 15.6 MJ/m3
c) 16.7 MJ/m3
SE

d) 18.9 MJ/m3

46. A material has tensile strength 210 MPa, yield strength 117 MPa and
C

fracture strain 0.45. What will be approximate value of toughness?

a) 54.8 MJ/m3
b) 67.4 MJ/m3
c) 73.6 MJ/m3
d) 89.2 MJ/m3

47. Cast materials are tougher than wrought materials.

a) True
b) False

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48. Which statement is false?

a) A matrix of thermoplastic provides higher toughness than thermoset in the
composite.
b) Microcracking can improve toughness in a composite
c) Tempering of martensite decreases toughness of steel
d) Copolymerization can improve the toughness of polymer

49. The toughness of the composite depends on the toughness of the matrix.

M
a) True
b) False

O
50. ______ is the resistance of a material to plastic deformation by indentation.

C
a) Toughness
b) Resilience

T.
c) Hardness
d) Stiffness

O
51. What is SI unit of hardness?
a) kg/m3
b) kg/m2
c) g/m2
d) N/m
SP
G
52. The hardness of martensite ______ with an increase in carbon content.
LO

a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains constant
.B

d) First increases and then decreases

53. _____ is the strongest bond.

17

a) Van der Waals bond

b) Metallic bond
c) Covalent bond
-R

d) Hydrogen bond

54. ______ improve hardness.

SE

a) Strain hardening
b) Plasticizers
c) Over aging
C

d) Tempering

55. What is the hardness of silicon carbides?

a) 5-10 HV
b) 10-14 HV
c) 15-20 HV
d) 20-30 HV

56. When hardness is measured under dynamic loading conditions, it is known

as _____ hardness.
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a) Brinell
b) Rebound
c) Knoop
d) Rockwell

57. With an increase in temperature, hardness of material _____ and ductility

______
a) Increases, increases

M
b) Increases, decreases
c) Decreases, increases

O
d) Decreases, decreases

C
58. Which process increases the hardness of the material?
a) Tempering

T.
b) Annealing
c) Quenching
d) Over aging

O
59. Which statement is false?
SP
a) Alloying increases hardness of the pure metal
b) Dual phase alloys are harder than single phase alloys
c) Interstitial solid solutions are harder than substitutional solid solutions
G
d) Heat treatment always decreases the hardness of a material
LO

60. Which scale is not used to measure indentation hardness?

a) Rockwell
b) Bennett
.B

c) Shore
d) Brinell
17

61. Cooling rate _____ with distance from the quenched end, and the hardness
_____
a) Increases, increases
-R

b) Increases, decreases
c) Decreases, increases
d) Decreases, decreases
SE

62. Stamping operation increases hardness.

a) True
C

b) False

63. Which microconstituent of Steel is hardest?

a) Spheroidite
b) Pearlite
c) Bainite
d) Martensite

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64. Coarse pearlite is harder than fine perlite for the same composition of Steel.
a) True
b) False

65.What is tensile strength of brass?

a) 550 MPa
b) 220 MPa

M
c) 350 MPa
d) 760 MPa

O
66. Match the following?

C
Tensile strength

T.
Material
(in MPa)
i) Annealed silver p) 15

O
ii) Rubber q) 33
iii) Brass r) 170
iv) Glass

a) i-q, ii-p, iii-r, iv-s

s) 550
SP
G
b) i-r, ii-p, iii-s, iv-q
c) i-p, ii-r, iii-q, iv-s
LO

d) i-r, ii-p, iii-q, iv-s

67. Which one of the following, is not a unit of ultimate tensile strength?
.B

a) MPa
b) N/m2
c) Kg/m3
17

d) psi

68. The ability of the material to withstand tensile force, without breaking, is
-R

known as ______
a) Yield strength
b) Tensile strength
SE

c) Compressive strength
d) Creep strength
C

69. With an increase in the degree of cold working, tensile strength of material
______
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains constant
d) First decreases then increase

70. Which one of the following factor decreases the tensile strength?
a) Cold working
b) Alloying
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c) Temperature rise
d) Grain refinement

71. Which statement is false?

a) With an increase in the degree of cold working, UTS increases.
b) UTS increases with a decrease in temperature.
c) UPS increases with an increase in grain size.

M
d) Larger the difference between the radius of solute and solvent atoms of
alloy, higher is the tensile strength.

O
72. Tensile strength is used as a design criterion for ductile materials.

C
a) True
b) False

T.
73. If the Brinell hardness of a steel specimen is measured 149 HBN. What will
be the UTS?

O
a) 431 MPa
b) 514 MPa
c) 608 MPa
d) 637 MPa
SP
G
74. Brinell hardness of a steel specimen is 151 HBN. Give the value of UTS of
Steel in psi.
LO

a) 520 psi
b) 42050 psi
c) 75500 psi
.B

d) 86200 psi

75. Find the minimum tensile strength of spring material ASTM A232 having
17

diameter 3 millimeter, exponent m = 0.155 and constant A = 173 kpsi.

a) 120 kpsi
b) 146 kpsi
-R

c) 158 kpsi
d) 167 kpsi
SE

76. Tensile strength depends on the molecular structure of the material.

a) True
b) False
C

77. Tensile strength increases with increasing ______

a) Temperature
b) Molecular weight
c) Purity
d) Grain size

78. What is yield strength of Kevlar?

a) 1650 MPa
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b) 1737 MPa
c) 3620 MPa
d) 3757 MPa

79. What is yield strength of annealed titanium?

a) 130 MPa
b) 138 MPa
c) 450 MPa

M
d) 830 MPa

O
80. What is SI unit of yield strength?
a) N

C
b) N/m2
c) Nm2

T.
d) g/cm2

81. Strain offset of _____ is commonly used.

O
a) 0.002
b) 0.004
c) 0.006
d) 0.008
SP
G
82. _____ is the maximum stress that can be applied to the material without
causing plastic deformation.
LO

a) Tensile strength
b) Fatigue strength
c) Compressive strength
.B

d) Yield strength

83. As the temperature of a material is lowered, the yield stress _____ and the
17

fracture stress _____

a) Increases, increases
b) Increases, decreases
-R

c) Decreases, increases
d) Decreases, decreases
SE

84. With decreasing grain size, yield strength of material ________

a) Increases
b) Decreases
C

c) Remains constant
d) First increases then decrease

85. Which material shows the yield point phenomenon?

a) Copper
b) Aluminium
c) Steel
d) Silver

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86. Which factor deteriorates yield strength?

a) Cold working
b) Annealing
c) Work hardening
d) Grain refinement

87. Yield point phenomenon creates problems in deep drawing operations of

sheet Steels.

M
a) True
b) False

O
88. Which one of the following, gives the relation between work hardening and

C
yield strength of material?
a) Δσy = Gbρ

T.
b) Δσy = Gb√ρ
c) Δσy = G√ρb
d) Δσy = Gρ√b

O
89. Work hardening causes a decrease in yield strength of the material.
a) True
b) False
SP
G
90. _____ is the ability of a material to sustain impact forces without fracture.
LO

a) Impact strength
b) Toughness
c) Tensile strength
.B

d) Compressive strength

91. Moisture absorption causes ___ in impact strength and ___ in the strength
17

of polymers.
a) Increase, Increase
b) Increase, decrease
-R

c) Decrease, Increase
d) Decrease, decrease
SE

92. What is Izod impact energy of Nylon 6/6?

a) 10-50 J/m
b) 12-20 J/m
C

c) 50-100 J/m
d) 100-210 J/m

93. Which factor increases impact toughness?

a) Cold working
b) Precipitation hardening
c) Water absorption in polymer
d) Notches

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94. What is izod impact energy of poly-carbonates?

a) 53 J/m
b) 10-50 J/m
c) 430-850 J/m
d) 12-20 J/m

95. Cleavage in bcc materials take place along ___ plane.

a) {001}

M
b) {110}
c) {123}

O
d) {112}

C
96. Brittle fracture needs more energy than the ductile fracture.
a) True

T.
b) False

97. Ductile-brittle transition temperature increases with strain rate.

O
a) True
b) False
SP
98. Which statement is false according to impact strength?
a) Notch serves as a stress concentration zone
G
b) Lowering the temperature reduces the impact strength in BCC materials
c) Generally, strong metals have a lower impact strength
LO

d) In polymers, impact strength keeps on the increase with

temperature
.B

99. What is the cross section of izod test specimen?

a) 10×10 mm
b) 10×12 mm
17

c) 12×12 mm
d) 8×10 mm
-R

100. _____ occurs when metal is subjected to a constant tensile load at an

elevated temperature?
SE

a) Fatigue
b) Creep
c) Impact
C

d) Wear

101. Creep is a ____ dependent phenomenon.

a) Temperature
b) Time
c) Load
d) Stress cycle

102. Creep occurs due to sliding of _____

a) Vacancies
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b) Voids
c) Grain boundaries
d) Dislocations

103. Which one of the following, is a static mechanical property?

a) Impact strength
b) Creep strength
c) Fatigue strength

M
d) Rebound hardness

O
104. The ______ the melting point and the _____ the elastic modulus, the
higher is creep strength.

C
a) Lower, lower
b) Lower, higher

T.
c) Higher, lower
d) Higher, higher

O
105. In _____ creep, atoms diffuse along grain boundaries and grains elongate
in stress axis.
a) Dislocation
b) Nabarro-Herring
SP
G
c) Coble
d) Solute drag
LO

106. With which factor, a magnitude of creep doesn’t increase?

a) Temperature
.B

b) Time
c) Grain size
d) Stress
17

107. Crosslinking in Polymers increases creep strength.

a) True
-R

b) False

108. Which statement is correct regarding creep strength?

SE

a) Wrought materials have higher creep strength than cast materials

b) With an increase in temperature, steady state creep rate decreases
c) Creep strength can be improved by precipitation hardening
C

d) Aromatic rings in polymer decrease creep strength

109. Creep occurs only at high temperatures.

a) True
b) False

110. Nabarro-Herring creep predicts a strain rate which is a function of _____

a) D
b) D-2

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c) D-3
d) D-1

111. Match the following.

Material Creep temperature

i) Carbon steel p) > 50-150°C

M
ii) Alloy steel q) > room temperature
iii) Light metal and alloy r) > 450°C

O
iv) tin r) > 420°C

C
a) i-r, ii-s, iii-p, iv-q
b) i-s, ii-r, iii-p, iv-q

T.
c) i-r, ii-s, iii-q, iv-p
d) i-s, ii-r, iii-q, iv-p

O
112. The ability of a metal workpiece to undergo plastic deformation without
being damaged is known as ____
a) Formability
b) Stiffness
SP
G
c) Resilience
d) Yield strength
LO

113. Which instrument is used to measure formability?

a) Universal testing machine
.B

b) Impact testing machine

c) Erichsen machine
d) Fatigue testing machine
17

114. What is the reason of orange-peel effect?

a) Coarse grain structure
-R

b) Fine grain structure

c) Inclusions
d) Impurities
SE

115. ______ increases the formability of the metal sheet.

a) Annealing
C

b) Cold working
c) Inclusions
d) Grain coarsening

116. Erichsen value of formability ______ with the thickness of the metal
sheet.
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains constant
d) First increases and then decreases
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117. Formability of sheet metal ____ with an increase in normal anisotropy.

a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains constant
d) Varies independently

118. In the _____ test, the specimen is bent between two rollers until an angle
between 30° to 45° is reached.

M
a) Free bending test
b) Olsen cup test

O
c) Swift cup test
d) Fukui conical cup test

C
119. What is the value of lankford coefficient (r) for good deep drawable

T.
material?
a) ≤ 1
b) ≤ 2

O
c) ≤ 3
d) ≤ 4
SP
120. Inclusions don’t affect formability of materials.
a) True
G
b) False
LO

121. Lack of symmetry in crack shows anisotropy in a material.

a) True
.B

b) False
17

122. What is the deformation per unit length?

a) Strain
b) Stress
-R

c) Toughness
d) Resilience
SE

123. Ductility is indicated by _________

a) Percentage elongation
b) Percentage reduction
C

c) Poisson’s ratio
d) Elasticity

124. If a bar is doubled in length, what will be the strain induced?

a) 0.5
b) 1.0
c) 1.5
d) 2.0

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125. Ductility is the opposite concept of _________

a) Toughness
b) Plasticity
c) Brittleness
d) Resilience

126. What term is used for the ratio of lateral strain to linear strain?
a) Bulk modulus

M
b) Elastic modulus
c) Shear strain

O
d) Poisson’s ratio

C
127. Material, if show identical properties in all directions, is said to be
_________

T.
a) Isotropic
b) Elastic
c) Ideal

O
d) Homogeneous

128. Which material has higher elasticity?

a) Rubber
b) Glass
SP
G
c) Steel
d) Copper
LO

129. _________ does not show linear stress strain relationship.

a) Rubber
.B

b) Ceramic
c) Steel
d) Copper
17

130. The maximum stress up to which stress is proportional to strain is known

as ________
-R

a) Tensile stress
b) Compressive stress
c) Modulus of elasticity
SE

d) Proportional limit

131. Yield strength represents resistance against _________

C

a) Fracture
b) Elastic deformation
c) Bending
d) Plastic deformation

132. Strain hardening causes more deformation on less stress application.

a) True
b) False

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IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

133. Necking causes drop in load after an ultimate tensile point.

a) True
b) False

134. What is an expression of true stress?

a) Pu / Ai
b) Pu / A0

M
c) P / Ai
d) P / A0

O
135. True strain is ____ than the engineering strain corresponding to a given

C
load.
a) Larger

T.
b) Smaller
c) Equal
d) Either smaller or equal

O
136. What is a relation between true and engineering strain?
a) ƐT = ln (1 + Ɛ)
b) ƐT = ln (L/L0)
c) ƐT = ln (ΔL/L0)
SP
G
d) ƐT = ΔL/L0
LO

137. What is the relation between true and engineering stress?

a) σT = ln (L/L0)
b) σT = ln (1 + Ɛ)
.B

c) σT = σ (1 + Ɛ)
d) σT = σ (1 – Ɛ)
17

138. What term defines plastic instability?

a) dP = constant
b) dP = 0
-R

c) dP < 0
d) dP > 0
SE

139. Plastic instability occurs when the slope of the true stress strain curve
____ the true stress at the point.
a) Exceeds
C

b) Equals
c) Is less
d) Is less or higher

140. True value of stress experience by material _____ than the conventional
one for a given load.
a) Higher
b) Lower
c) Equal
d) Higher or lower
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141. What is considered more in mechanical working processes?

a) Yield stress
b) Shear stress
c) True stress
d) Engineering stress

142. True stress strain curve _______

M
a) Continuously rises
b) After yield point comes down

O
c) After yield point remains constant
d) Uncertain after yield point

C
143. The points on the true stress strain curve ______ the conventional stress

T.
strain curves up to the onset of necking.
a) Lie on the left of
b) Lie on the right of

O
c) Superimpose
d) May lie on left or right
SP
144. Materials in general have higher elastic strain of 50% order.
a) True
G
b) False
LO

145. True stress value is affected by strain hardening.

a) True
b) False
.B

146. With increasing gauge length, % elongation _____

a) Increases
17

b) Decreases
c) Remains constant
d) First increases then decrease
-R

147. What gauge length is commercially used?

a) 10 mm
SE

b) 20 mm
c) 30 mm
d) 50mm
C

148. What is not a variable which affects tensile properties?

a) Gauge length
b) Temperature
c) Load
d) Strain rate

149. For L/D ratio greater than ___________ the reduction in area is
independent of ratio.
a) 0.2
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IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

b) 2
c) 5
d) 10

150. Specimen with L/D = 0 gives _________ strength.

a) Higher
b) Lower
c) Equal

M
d) Higher or lower
View Answer

O
151. With an increase in strain rate, ductility ______ and tensile strength

C
_____
a) Increases, increases

T.
b) Increases, decreases
c) Decreases, increases
d) Decreases, decreases

O
152. Yield and flow strength at lower plastic strain is more dependent on _____
than ______
a) Strain rate, tensile strength
b) Tensile strength, strain rate
SP
G
c) Strain rate, temperature
d) Temperature, tensile strength
LO

153. At strain rates _____ behaviour of the material is characterized by creep.

a) Low, 104 per second
.B

b) Low, 10-4 per second

c) High, 104 per second
d) High, 10-4 per second
17

154. Elastic modulus and strength ____ and ductility ___ as the temperature of
material increases.
-R

a) Increases, increases
b) Increases, decreases
c) Decreases, increases
SE

d) Decreases, decreases

155. Tensile curve gets lower down with an increase in temperature.

C

a) True
b) False

156. In FCC metals, yield stress increases rapidly with decreasing temperature.
a) True
b) False

157. Which metal is capable of maintaining its mechanical strength on working

temperature?
a) Pb
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IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

b) Zn
c) Fe
d) Sn

158. With an increase in temperature, the modulus of elasticity ____________

a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains constant

M
d) First Increases, then decreases

O
159. With increases in temperature, yield strength __________ and tensile
strength ___________

C
a) Increases, increases
b) Increases, decreases

T.
c) Decreases, increases
d) Decreases, decreases

O
160. Softening process dominates over hardening process in ___________
stage of creep.
a) Primary
b) Secondary
SP
G
c) Tertiary
d) Quaternary
LO

161. Stress rupture curves show the variation in stress as a function of

___________
.B

a) Temperature
b) Time
c) Cycles
17

d) Notch depth

162. The first stage of creep is also known as ___________ creep.

-R

a) Transient
b) Viscous
c) Flow
SE

d) Tertiary

163. Second stage of creep is also known as ___________ creep.

C

a) Primary
b) Secondary
c) Transient
d) Viscous

164. Viscous creep is represented by _________ constant in Andrade empirical

equation.
a) β
b) k

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IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

c) ε
d) t

165. Transient creep is also known as _________ flow.

a) k
b) β
c) ε
d) t

M
166. k represents elongation per unit length at a constant rate.

O
a) True
b) False

C
167. The most common creep rate corresponds to which the creep strength is

T.
specified is _________
a) 1% in 100 hrs
b) 1% in 1000 hrs

O
c) 1% in 10,000 hrs
d) 1% in 100,000 hrs
SP
168. In what terms, fatigue life is measured?
a) Time of failures
G
b) Number of cycles of failure
c) Stress of failure
LO

d) Appearance of fracture

169. Fatigue curves are popularly known as __________ curves.

.B

a) S
b) R
c) N
17

d) S-N

170. What term is used for the maximum stress at which material fail on a
-R

specified number of cycle?

a) Fatigue strength
b) Fatigue life
SE

c) Ultimate tensile strength

d) Endurance limit
C

171. Word “endurance limit” is used for _____________

a) Plastics
b) Ferrous materials
c) Nonferrous materials
d) Alloys

172. Which ferrous material doesn’t show fatigue limit?

a) Cast iron
b) Wrought iron

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IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

c) Austenitic stainless steel

d) Low carbon steel

173. Which of the following show a fatigue limit?

a) Titanium
b) Cast iron
c) Magnesium
d) Al-Mg alloys

M
174. What is the reason for fatigue failure?

O
a) Movement of Dislocations
b) Submicroscopic cracks

C
c) Dynamic recovery
d) Vacancy coalescence

T.
175. What cycles range is chosen for endurance limit?
a) 102 – 103

O
b) 105 – 106
c) 107 – 108
d) 1011 – 1012 SP
176. What is the relation between stress at the tension side and diameter of the
G
fatigue test specimen?
a) σt α d
LO

b) σt α d2
c) σt α 1/d2
d) σt α 1/d3
.B

177. Which of the following is not a reason for crack initiation?

17

a) Inclusions
b) Gas pores
c) Local soft spots
-R

d) Vacancy

178. Crack mostly starts at _________

SE

a) Surface
b) Inclusion
c) Pore
C

d) Soft spots

179. Orowan’s theory is related to _________

a) Grain boundaries
b) Weak crystal
c) Slip band
d) Gas pores

180. Wood’s theory is described by _________

a) Microscopic voids
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IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

b) Microscopic slip bands

c) Weak crystal
d) Grain boundaries

181. Slip band are notch root of _________ dimensions.

a) Micro
b) Macro
c) Nano

M
d) Atomic

O
182. Which theory defines fatigue failure using microscopic slip bands?
a) Orowan’s theory

C
b) Wood’s theory
c) Cottrell’s theory

T.
d) Dislocation theory

183. What term is used for initial crack formation during fatigue?

O
a) Cracking
b) Stage I fatigue
c) Stage II fatigue
d) Micro cracking
SP
G
184. Stage of crack growth is called _________
a) I stage
LO

b) II stage
c) III stage
d) IV stage
.B

185. Material with a high surface to volume ratio have _________ fatigue life.
17

a) Very low fatigue life

b) Very high fatigue life
c) Lower fatigue life
-R

d) Improved fatigue life

186. Which of the following material fails by both hysteric heating and crack
SE

propagation?
a) Nylon
b) Polyethylene
C

c) Propylene
d) PMMA

187. Paris-Erdogan relationship is applicable to some ceramics and plastics

along with metals.
a) True
b) False

188. Indentation hardness gives a rough idea of ____________

a) Yield strength
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IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

b) Toughness
c) Tensile strength
d) Compressive strength

189. Which one is a micro-indentation test?

a) Brinell
b) Rockwell
c) Shore

M
d) Knoop

O
190. __________ is used for measuring the hardness of brittle materials.
a) Brinell hardness test

C
b) Rockwell hardness test
c) Shore hardness test

T.
d) Vickers hardness test

191. For hardness test, where test load is larger than 1 kgf, is categorized as

O
__________
a) Micro-hardness test
b) Macro-hardness test
c) Scratch hardness test
d) Reboud hardness test
SP
G
192. Which one of the following is not an indentation hardness test?
LO

a) Rockwell
b) Shore
c) Vickers
.B

d) Brinell

193. __________ measures the resistance of a sample to material deformation

17

due to a constant compression load from a sharp object.

a) Scratch hardness
b) Rebound hardness
-R

c) Indentation hardness
d) Leeb test
SE

194. For higher __________ indentation hardness is also higher.

a) Ductility
C

b) Plasticity
c) Stiffness
d) Ductility

195. Indentation hardness is measured by _____________

a) Size of indentation
b) Penetration
c) Height of rebound
d) Area under stress-strain curve

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196. Hardness steel ball is used in __________ test.

a) Knoop
b) Vickers
c) Brinell
d) Rockwell

197. Vickers hardness test gives accurate readings.

a) True

M
b) False

O
198. Leeb is an indentation hardness test.
a) True

C
b) False

T.
199. What indenter is used for Brinell test?
a) Hardened steel ball
b) Diamond ball

O
c) Diamond prism
d) Steel prism
SP
200. What test force is applied for nonferrous materials in Brinell test?
a) 50 kgf
G
b) 500 kgf
c) 1000 kgf
LO

d) 3000 kgf

201. What test force is applied for steels and cast irons in Brinell test?
.B

a) 500 kgf
b) 1000 kgf
c) 2000 kgf
17

d) 3000 kgf

202. What is the most important source of error in the Brinell test?
-R

a) Surface roughness
b) Indentation measurement
c) Coarse structure
SE

d) Indenter error
C

203. What is the ball diameter taken for indenter of 500 kgf load in Brinell test?
a) 50 mm
b) 1 mm
c) 5 mm
d) 10 mm

204. What is the ball diameter taken for 1 kgf test load in Brinell test?
a) 1 mm
b) 5 mm

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IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

c) 10 mm
d) 50 mm

205. Brinell hardness number is not a function of ____________

a) Ball diameter
b) Impression diameter
c) Surface roughness
d) Load

M
206. Brinell test method is defined in _________

O
a) ASTMB10
b) ASTME20

C
c) ASTME10
d) ASTMB20

T.
207. For Brinell hardness test _________ is kept constant.
a) P

O
b) P/D
c) P*D
d) P/D2 SP
208. For very hard metals _________ ball is used in Brinell test.
G
a) Hardened steel
b) Alloyed steel
LO

c) Tungsten carbide
d) Diamond
.B

209. A ball Indenter of _________ mm and _________ kgf load is used in case
of gray cast iron.
a) 10, 3000
17

b) 5, 750
c) 10, 1000
d) 10, 500
-R

210. Brinell test is sensitive to surface roughness.

a) True
SE

b) False

211. The load is applied for a standard time in Brinell test.

C

a) True
b) False

212. ___________ Indenter is used in Vickers hardness test.

a) Hardened steel ball
b) Diamond ball
c) Diamond pyramid
d) Tungsten carbide

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213. Vickers indenter has _________ angle between opposite faces of a

diamond.
a) 90°
b) 120°
c) 136°
d) 180°

214. Which standards define Vickers hardness test?

M
a) ASTM E92-72
b) ASTME10

O
c) ASTME19-74
d) ASTME334-69

C
215. Up to a Vickers hardness of _________ the VHN agrees with the BHN.

T.
a) 30
b) 100
c) 350

O
d) 1000

a) Accurate readings
b) One type indenter for all type materials
SP
216. What is the disadvantage of the Vickers test?
G
c) Hardness above 450 BHN can be measured
d) Large floor-standing machines
LO

217. Why Brinell and Vickers hardness test results show similarities?
a) Same material indenter
.B

b) Geometrically similar indentations

c) Applied load is same
d) Same size indenter
17

218. One division of the main scale equals _________ in Vickers test.
a) 0.1 mm
-R

b) 0.01 mm
c) 1.0 mm
d) 0.001 mm
SE

219. Which of the following is an advantage of the Vickers test?

a) Rough surface preparation
C

b) Cheaper
c) Accurate readings
d) Large floor-standing machine

220. What is Vickers hardness of martensite?

a) 140 VHN
b) 180 VHN
c) 1000 VHN
d) 1200 VHN
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221. What is the hardness of the diamond in VHN?

a) 1000 HV
b) 1200 HV
c) 9000 HV
d) 10000 HV

222. Yield strength is given as HV/0.3.

a) True

M
b) False

O
223. Thickness of sample doesn’t affect the Vickers test.
a) True

C
b) False

T.
224. Which hardness test is most widely used in the US?
a) Brinell
b) Vickers

O
c) Shore
d) Rockwell
SP
225. Rockwell test utilizes ___________ a measure of hardness.
a) Load
G
b) Depth of indentation
c) Diameter of indentation
LO

d) Time of loading

226. A minor load of _________ is applied to seat the specimen in the Rockwell
.B

test.
a) 1 kg
b) 5 kg
17

c) 10 kg
d) 150 kg
-R

227. What is a limitation of the Rockwell test?

a) Slow speed
b) Personal error
SE

c) Bigger size of indentation

d) Different indenters
C

228. What minimizes the amount of surface preparation in Rockwell test?

a) Minor load
b) Indenter surface
c) Indenter geometry
d) Heat-treatment

229. How much penetration is indicated by each division in dial in Rockwell

test?
a) 0.2 mm
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IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

b) 0.02 mm
c) 0.002 mm
d) 0.0002 mm

230. Hardened steel is tested on the C scale with ________ indenter and a
_______ kg major load.
a) Diamond, 100
b) Diamond, 150

M
c) 1.6 mm steel ball, 100
d) 3.2 mm steel ball, 150

O
231. Which scale is used to test softer materials?

C
a) A
b) B

T.
c) C
d) D

O
232. What is the hardness of low brass?
a) HRB 40
b) HRB 55
c) HRC 55
d) HRC 60
SP
G
233. What is the hardness of martensite?
LO

a) 40 HRB
b) 64 HRB
c) 40 HRC
.B

d) 64 HRC

234. In A scale, steel ball indenter is used.

17

a) True
b) False
-R

235. Diamond indenter is known as ‘Brale indenter’.

a) True
b) False
SE

236. What is test load used in Micro hardness test?

a) 2-200 gmf
C

b) 5-1000 gmf
c) 60 gmf
d) 100 gmf

237. Which of the following is a Microhardness test?

a) Brinell
b) Knoop
c) Rockwell
d) Shore

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238. What is the shape of indentation by knoop indenter?

a) Semi spherical
b) Square
c) Cone
d) Rhombohedral

239. What is the diagonals’ ratio of Knoop indenter?

a) 1:1

M
b) 1:2
c) 7:1

O
d) 10:1

C
240. Which test is more preferred for testing hardness of electroplated surface?
a) Dynamic hardness test

T.
b) Scratch hardness test
c) Macrohardness test
d) Microhardness test

O
241. Which of the following is an angle between opposite faces in Knoop
indenter?
a) 130°
b) 120°
SP
G
c) 136°
d) 122°
LO

242. What is the disadvantage of the Knoop hardness test?

a) Elastic recovery
.B

b) Soft indenter
c) High load required
d) Cannot use thin specimen
17

243. What is Knoop hardness of diamond?

a) 100 HK
-R

b) 1000 HK
c) 7000 HK
d) 9000 HK
SE

244. What is Knoop hardness of gold foil?

a) 68 HK
C

b) 69 HK
c) 343 HK
d) 820 HK

245. In microhardness test, Vickers test uses load less than 1 kgf.
a) True
b) False

246. Microhardness test gives average hardness.

a) True
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IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

b) False

247. What is the formula for Knoop hardness number?

a) KHN = h – 500t
b) KHN = 1.854P/L2
c) KHN = P/ D2
d) KHN = P/L2C

M
248. Which of the following is a dynamic hardness test?

O
a) Brinell
b) Poldi

C
c) Knoop
d) Vickers

T.
249. What is the standard height of impact for shore test?
a) 125 mm

O
b) 250 mm
c) 500 mm
d) 750 mm SP
250. What is a weight of hammer in shore test?
G
a) 2.0 gm
b) 2.3 gm
LO

c) 2.4 gm
d) 3.0 gm
.B

251. As the height of rebound enhances the material’s hardness ___________

a) Increases
b) Decreases
17

c) First Increases and then decreases

d) Remains constant
-R

252. Specimen less than 1 kg must be clamped because of ________

a) Elastic recovery
b) Penetration
SE

c) Inertial effect
d) Personal error
C

253. What is a disadvantage of shore test?

a) Very slow
b) Deep indentation
c) Clamping problem
d) Heavy machinery

254. Which test should be preferred for finished lathe machine bed?
a) Brinell
b) Poldi

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IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

c) Shore
d) Rockwell

255. What is the height of Poldi apparatus?

a) 10 mm
b) 100 mm
c) 150 mm
d) 250 mm

M
256. What is the disadvantage of Poldi hardness test?

O
a) Expensive
b) Not portable

C
c) Not accurate
d) Can’t perform on heavy machinery

T.
257. Poldi hardness test gives a value of ________ also along with dynamic
hardness.

O
a) Yield strength
b) Tensile strength
c) Toughness
d) Young’s modulus
SP
G
258. Tensile strength is given in tonnes per square inch in Poldi test.
a) True
LO

b) False

259. Hardness of heavy components can’t be measured by Poldi test.

.B

a) True
b) False
17

260. What is the disadvantage of LPI?

a) Expensive
b) Slow
-R

c) Not reliable
d) Depth restriction
SE

261. LPI can’t be used on __________ specimen.

a) Large
b) Simple
C

c) Complex
d) Internally defected

262. Which order is right for LPI?

a) Penetrant apply, development, inspection, surface preparation
b) Surface preparation, penetrant apply, development, inspection
c) Penetrant apply, development, surface preparation, inspection
d) Development, surface preparation, penetrant apply, inspection

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263. What is general dwell time?

a) 20 seconds
b) 2 minutes
c) 20 minutes
d) 2 hours

264. __________ increases the visibility of the flaw in LPI.

a) Developer

M
b) Penetrant
c) Benzene

O
d) Spirit

C
265. Developer is chosen such as benzene.

T.
a) True
b) False

O
266. Small components are dipped in penetrant.
a) True
b) False

267. Which materials can be tested by MPI?

SP
G
a) Magnetic
b) Non-magnetic
LO

c) Paramagnetic
d) Ferromagnetic
.B

268. Which material can’t be tested by MPI?

a) Co
b) Fe
17

c) Ni
d) Mg
-R

269. What is Curie point for most of the ferrous magnetic materials?
a) 550˚C
b) 760˚C
SE

c) 910˚C
d) 1133˚C
C

270. The minimum width of crack, which can be inspected by MPI, is

_________
a) 1nm
b) 1µm
c) 10µm
d) 1mm

271. What is the advantage of using DC in MPI?

a) Battery maintenance
b) Demagnetize easy
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IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

c) Variable voltage supply

d) Subsurface detection

272. Benzene and alcohol are used to decrease component.

a) True
b) False

273. Plain carbon steels are applied with magnetic particles by a residual

M
method?
a) True

O
b) False

C
274. What principle defines eddy current inspection (ECI)?
a) Lenz law

T.
b) Biot-Savart Law
c) Electromagnetic induction principle
d) Faraday’s law

O
275. ECI is generally restricted to a depth below ___________
a) 1µm
b) 1mm
c) 2mm
SP
G
d) 6mm
LO

276. What is the reason for the limitation of depth below 6mm in ECI?
a) Surface coating
b) Electron hole pair generation
.B

c) Skin effect
d) Residual stresses
17

277. The total resistance of the coil of ECI is known as __________

a) Impedance
b) Inductance
-R

c) Reactance
d) Capacitance
SE

278. The density of eddy current ____________ with distance from the surface
in center.
a) Increase linearly
C

b) Increase exponentially
c) Decrease linearly
d) Decrease exponentially

279. ECI is only used for ferromagnetic materials.

a) True
b) False

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280. Standard penetration depth varies from material to material.

a) True
b) False

281. Which of the following is the poorest transmitter of sound?

a) Oil
b) Water
c) Air

M
d) Copper

O
282. Which of the following is the best transmitter of sound?
a) Oil

C
b) Aluminum
c) Steel

T.
d) Copper

283. What is the drawback of ultrasonic testing?

O
a) Low depth
b) High sensitivity
c) Shape restriction
d) Higher errors
SP
G
284. What is a type of piezoelectric crystal?
LO

a) Natural
b) Normal
c) Angle
.B

d) Transverse

285. The object under inspection must have parallel surfaces.

17

a) True
b) False
-R

286. Ultrasonic testing is destructive testing?

a) True
b) False
SE

287. Radiographic inspection use _________

a) Sound waves
C

b) AC
c) X-rays
d) Visible light

288. The dark areas represent an object with ________

a) Lower density
b) High density
c) Porosity
d) Grain boundaries

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IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

289. The film in radiographic inspection is called __________

a) Plate
b) Radiograph
c) Micrograph
d) X-ray sheet

290. ________ produce light area on film.

a) Inclusions

M
b) Pores
c) Voids

O
d) Blow holes

C
291. Radiography don’t give ________
a) Thickness of material

T.
b) Hardness
c) Blow holes in casting
d) Pores in weldment

O
292. Planar defects can’t be detected by radiography.
a) True
b) False
SP
G
293. The amount of absorption of rays depends on the density and thickness of
LO

the material.
a) True
b) False
.B

294. What is the wavelength of X-rays?

a) 10 picometers
17

b) 0.01 to 10 nanometers
c) 10 to 400 nanometers
d) 400 to 700 nanometers
-R
SE
C

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IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017

M
O
C
T.
O
SP
G
LO
.B
17
-R
SE
C

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