A320 GACA ORAL TEST Updated 14/09/2013 6-AIRCRAFT SYSTEMS:

EMERGENCY EQUIPMENT
1-LIMITATIONS: All of them.
What is the emergency equipment in the cockpit?
2-MEMORY ITEMS (FLAP SOSE): Flash lights, Life jackets, Axe, Smoke
List existing 10 lists, their initial call out and describe one of goggles, Oxygen mask, Smoke hoods, Escape ropes.
our choice or examiners choice
Will the slides deploy if the over wing emergency doors
3-PERFORMANCE were opened?
Take-off calculations in different conditions Yes, as the slides should always be armed.
Remember
ADIRS Panel
Explain the Engine Out Obstacle Clearance strategy:
Decend at Green Dot and MCT until obstacle is cleared, What does the amber ON BAT light indicate?
then revert to standard strategy (M0.78/300kts + MCT). The aircraft batteries are powering one or more IR(s). It
Fuel increase 33%. FCOM performance manual. also comes on for 5 seconds at the beginning of a
Calculate Landing distance with SEC 1 +2 FAULT complete IRS alignment (self-test).
QRH, IN FLT PERF, you will find a scheme to calculate How do you fast align an IR?
Vapp WITH failure and landing distance charts for your Turn the NAV selectors to OFF and back to NAV in less
specific failure. Choose the chart for your right runway than 5 seconds.
condition.
What does a steady ALIGN light indicates?
What will you do if you go to an unchartered airport? IR is in the alignment process
Where will you find it?
Calculate required performance with FCOM, Performance What does a flashing ALIGN light indicates?
volume, QRT (Quick Reference Tables) IR alignment faulty due to:
1. No coordinates inserted on MCDU
Definition of Vmu 2. Moving of aircraft during alignment
Minimim Unstick Speed (necessary to avoid a tail strike) . 3. Coordinates differ 1° or more from last coordinates
Minimum speed for an all engines take off without hazzard recorded (last arrival stop)
Explain what is Tref and Tmax What does a steady amber IR FAULT light indicate?
Tref is the maximum temperature at which you can obtain The respective IR is lost.
max. thrust from a flat ratted engine.
Tmax is the maximum outside temperature at which a What does a flashing amber IR FAULT light indicate?
take-off can be performed in the required conditions Attitude and Heading information may be recovered in
(aircraft weight, flap config, etc.). ATT mode (you have lost the navigation portion).
4-SOPs What does the amber ADR FAULT light indicate?
Preliminary cockpit checks or similar. A fault is detected in the Air Data Reference system.
5-EXTERIOR INSPECTION What Info does the IR supplies?
Pictures of some item to be described and items to check in Heading, Track, Flight path vector, Attitude, Angular rate,
different components Acceleration, Ground speed, A/C position.
You are in Jeddah at OAT 46°C and both ventilation What Info does the ADR supplies?
doors are closed. Is this normal? Altitude, airspeed (mach), over speed warning, angle of
No, as temperature is above the +12°C or +9°C ground attack, temperature,
threshold for close circuit
What would be missing on the Captain’s PFD if IR 1
What would you do if purser informs there is a red failed or was turned OFF?
flashing light in the main door while performing his Attitude and navigation information
preflight check?
During preflight aircraft is depressurized, so for, the “cabin What action would recover the attitude and navigation
press” red flashing light should not be on. This is a system information?
malfunction Selecting CAPT 3 on the ATT/HDG selector at the EIS
switching panel
What will happen if an armed door is opened from
outside? When do we need to select ATT and what must be done
Door will open normally as door and slide will be after doing so?
automatically be disarmed. We can select ATT if the IR system loses its ability to
navigate (indicated by flashing fault light). AFTER
What type of doors do we have? selecting ATT (A/C must be level with constant speed for
4 Plug type (main cabin doors), 2 emergency exits type III 30 seconds) heading must be entered through the MCDU
over the wings (A320) or 4 emergency exits plug type C and has to be reset frequently (about every 10 minutes).
doors (A321 wings), cockpit door, two cockpit emergency Check QRH ABNORMAL PROCEDURES (IR
exits (sliding windows), 3 cargo doors and 4 avionics ALIGHNMENT IN ATT).
doors.
With the loss of ADR 1, what would be lost on the
What is a plug-in door? Captains PFD?
The 4 main ones of the A320 and the 8 of the A321 are so Airspeed and Altitude
called for the way they close. Different for example than
others which, for example, move inward and outward
laterally, or other systems.

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What would restore the lost altitude and airspeed What is the low energy warning?
information? It is calculated by FACs based on configuration, path
Selecting CAPT 3 on AIR DATA sel at the EIS swtcg panel angle and deceleration trend. When energy gets below a
threshold, aural signal “speed, speed, speed” can be
How would you recover two or more lost ADRs? heard
By adjusting the AIR DATA selector at the EIS switching
panel as convenient to make operating ADR for Captain or If both FACs are inop, will we have α-Floor?
F/O. In the event of 3ADR fault “follow the green” No, as you are in alternate law with no protections
In both cases,, execute the ECAM or written procedure When is α-Floor inhibited?
What should we do if we lose ADR2 during taxi? Up to lift off on departure and bellow 100ft on approach, or
Follow ECAM and FCOM procedures to turn it OFF and A/THR not active for rest of flight (15 secs continuos
have CM2 use ADR3 (AIR DATA to F/O3) pressing instinctive disconnect buttons).
FLT CTL Panel Say 3 cases when α-Floor is active:
What does ELAC stand for and how many do we have? High angle of attack above specific threshold (other two?)
2 Elevator and Aileron Computer, each controlling one What happens when α-floor is activated?
elevator, horizontal stabilizer and aileron. Thrust sets to TO/GA regardless of lever position
What are the functions of the ELAC? (available from lift–off to 100’ RA on approach).
• Normal, Alternate and Direct pitch. If both FACs fail, is rudder available?
• Normal and Direct roll Yes, by rudder pedals.
• Abnormal attitude
• Aileron droop If both FAC’s fail, is maximum rudder deflection
• Acquisition of autopilot orders available?
Yes, after slat extension.
Under Normal Law, what does ELAC 1 control?
• Primary - Aileron control (roll) If both FACs fail, what do we lose?
• Standby - Elevator / THS control (backs up ELAC 2) Auto Pilots, Auto Thrust, Windshear detection, low energy
• Provides 5° aileron droop warning and rudder trim, rudder traveler limit and yaw
damper
Under Normal Law, what does ELAC 2 control?
• Primary - Elevator / Horizontal Stabilizer (pitch) Is rudder automatically applied when engine failure?
• Standby - Aileron control (backs up ELAC 1) Not the rudder itself but indeed rudder trim if Autopilot is
active
What backs up ELAC 2?
ELAC 1 -> SEC 2 -> SEC 1 What is the computer and priority for the Ailerons?
ELAC 1 -> ELAC 2
What happens to ELACs if all ADIRS where lost?
We lose ELACs functions What is the computer and priority for the Elevator and
Stabilizer?
What does SEC stand for and how many do we have? ELAC 2 -> ELAC 1 -> SEC 2 -> SEC 1
3 Spoiler and Elevator Computer
How are the flight control surfaces controlled and
Under Normal Law, what do the 3 SECs control? actuated?
• Primary: Spoiler control (roll) All surfaces are controlled electrically and actuated
• Standby: Elevator / Horizontal Stabilizer control (SEC 1 hydraulically (except, for the mechanical control of rudder
& 2 back up the ELACs) and THS trim)
What functions are performed by the SEC’s? When is the automatic pitch trim available?
• Normal and Direct roll (by controlling the spoilers). In flight under Normal and Alternate Laws with bank -33°,
• Alternate and Direct pitch (SEC 1 & 2 only) with or without autopilot engaged.
• Speed brakes and ground spoilers (SEC 1 & 3 only).
• Abnormal attitude. If the active elevator actuator fails, what occurs?
Control is transferred the other actuator.
What is the sole purpose of SEC 3?
Spoiler control What is damping mode in the elevators?
Elevator follows THS movement
What does FAC mean and how many do we have?
2 Flight Augmentation Computer How roll control is normally achieved?
1 aileron and 4 spoilers on each wing
Who gives the Windshear protection?
Both FACs What items will degrade if we lost ELAC 1 and SEC 2?
Nothing, ELAC 2 and SEC 1 will back them up.
Under Normal Law, what functions do the FACs provide
(FLY-W)? If we lose both ELACs, is roll still available?
1. Flight envelope (PFD speed scale, Min + Max + Yes, SECs will handle roll with spoilers 2 to 5
maneuvering speeds computation and αfloor). In case of an elevator fault (left or right) what happens
2. Low Energy Warning Protection (“Speed, speed, to the spoilers?
speed”) Spoilers 3 and 4 are inhibited.
3. Yaw function – (Yaw damping, turn coordination, rudder
trim and rudder travel limiter) What happens to spoilers if electric power is lost?
4. Windshear detection function. Spoilers retract to zero.

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When do the ailerons go to the damping mode? EMER ELEC PWR Panel
Failure of ELAC 1 & 2 What buses are powered by the emergency generator?
Can both actuators work on active mode? 1. AC ESS BUS & AC SHED ESS
No, only one active 2. DC ESS BUS & DC SHED ESS
3. ESS TR
When are spoilers inhibited?
1- Sec 1 & 3 have fault. What does the red FAULT light on the RAT & EMER
2- One elevator failure (only spoilers 3 and 4 inhibited) GEN pb indicate?
3- A.O.A protection is active. EMER GEN not supplying power and AC BUS 1&2 not
4- Flaps config. Full. powered when +100kts, also during 8 secs. RAT
5- Thrust lever above MCT. Extension
6- α-floor activation. How long does the RAT take to extend and supply
7- when spoilers fails, the symmetric one in the other wing power?
is inhibit. 8 seconds, 3 for extension and 5 for blue hydraulic and
How many motors in the vertical stabilizer? electrical powering
3 motors What is the function of the RAT & EMER GEN pb?
When does the stab trim go to zero? • AUTO: RAT self extends if AC BUS 1 & 2 not powered
Aircraft on ground and pitch below 2.5 degrees for 5 and +100 kts with landing gear up.
seconds or ELAC-1 reset (on ground also). • MAN; manually extend the RAT at any time
When do we get 1+F configuration? What powers the emergency generator?
In takeoff and go-around or in flight returning handle to 1 Blue hydraulic power from the RAT
from other detents positions (Speed 210) Is there another way to deploy the RAT?
How would you know we have jammed stabilizer? Yes, from the HYD panel.
In Ecam Sys, F/CTL page will show pitch trim in amber What is different about this deployment?
(instead of white). Blue HYD pressure only – NO generator.
Which flight controls are affected by SEC 1 and 3 Do pilots ever use the EMER GEN TEST pb?
failure? No – maintenance function only.
Spoilers 1 to 4 are lost
When MAN ON procedure used?
When does the A/C gets to FLARE mode in ALT law? During smoke procedures
When L/G is down
What does the SMOKE light in the GEN 1 LINE pb
What is the difference between “USE MANUAL TRIM” indicates?
and “MANUAL PTICH TRIM ONLY”? Smoke detected in the avionics ventilation ducting.
We are in direct law or Mechanical Back-up law,
respectively What happens when you push the GEN 1 LINE pb?
• The GEN 1 Line Contactor opens and the white OFF
When are slats deployed in full? light illuminates
For landing when flap lever is in FULL detent EVAC Panel • AC BUS 1 is powered by GEN 2 through the BUS TIE
When an Emergency call is done from the cabin, what CONTACTOR
indications do we get in the cockpit? • GEN 1 powers #1 fuel pump in each wing tank
- On the Emergency pb CALL (amber) and ON (white) Will there be any other indications of avionics smoke?
lights flash ECAM warning and amber FAULT lights in the EXTRACT
- ATT lighted on all ACPs and BLOWER pbs on the VENTILATION panel.
- 3 buzzers sound for 3 seconds each GPWS Panel
What indications do we have if CAPT&PUR switch is at What is done by pressing the SYS pb?
CAPT and a CMD pb is pressed in the cabin? Inhibits all basic GPWS alerts (mode 1 to 5), the predictive
Only the cockpit horn sounds for 3 sec. mode (TERR) want be affected.
What is the function of the CAPT and (CAPT&PUR) What does an amber FAULT light in the SYS pb indicate
Switch? on the GPWS panel? Is the terrain mode affected?
• CAPT position (the alert may only be activated from Any failure of GPWS mode 1 through 5, NO terrain mode
cockpit) is not affected.
• CAPT & PURS position (alert may be activated from
cockpit or cabin) What does an amber FAULT light in the TERR pb
Note: EVAC light flashes red in cockpit and F/A panels- indicate on the GPWS panel?
evacuation tone sounds. Predictive mode fail, terrain is not shown on the ND.
Besides the one in the flight deck, are there any EVAC What does LDG FLAP 3 ON light indicate?
panels in the Aircraft? Mode 4 “Too Low Flaps” inhibited for a Flap 3 landing,
Yes, 2 more: on in the FAP (Forward Attendants panel) and land MEMO displays FLAP 3 instead of full.
the AAP (Aft Attendant Panel). What does FLAP MODE OFF light indicate?
Mode 4 “Too Low Flaps” is inhibited when landing with
less than Flap 3.

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What are the 5 basic GPWS modes? What would you notice on the DOOR ECAM when CKPY
1- Excessive rate of decent ................ (Sink rate) OXY pb is pressed?
2-Excessive terrain closure.............. (Terrain, terrain) The ”CKPT OXY” would change from amber to green.
3-Altitude loss after T/O................... (Don’t sink) What indication would you have of a crew oxygen
4-Unsafe terrain clearance............... (Too low flap, too low cylinder thermal discharge?
gear)
The green disk on the lower left side of the forward
5-Excessive deviation below GS....... (Glide slop)
fuselage would be missing.
What are the predictive functions of GPWS based on?
When amber half frame box appears on ECAM DOOR
The predictive functions are based on a worldwide terrain page, what does that mean?
database, and on the modeling of the climb performance
Oxygen pressure is less than 1000 psi.
capability of the aircraft.
NOTE: refer to OPERATING LIMITATIONS to check if the
What do they provide more over the normal GPWS 5 remaining quantity is not below MINIMUM.
basic functions? RAIN Panel
Terrain Clearance Floor (TCF) and Terrain Awareness What is the maximum windshield wiper operation
Display (TAD) speed?
Note: the predictive functions give additional time for the
230 knots
crew to respond
When is rain repellant inhibited?
What is inhibited if the GPWS predictive functions are
operative? When on ground and engines stopped.
GPWS Mode 2 is inhibited. CALLS Panel
What happens when you press the EMER pb?
What is the altitude operating envelope of the GPWS?
• Pink light flashes at all Area Call Panels
Up to 10’ upon departure and from 2.450’ down
• EMERGENCY CALL and small red light (both flashing)
descending
on all Attendant Indication Panels
RCDR Panel • High-low chime (repeated 3 times) sounds throughout
What does the CVR record? the cabin loudspeakers
Records sounds from ACPs and cockpit area microphone, What happens when the F/As initiate an emergency
PA announcements if PA reception is selected on ACP-3 call?
How do you erase the RCDR tape? • The white EMER ON light and amber CALL lights flash
1. RCDR ON • The amber ATT lights flash on all ACPs
2. Aircraft on the ground • 3 long buzzers sound in the cockpit for 3 second each
3. Parking Brake ON NOTE: System resets when the attendant hangs up the
4. Press the CVR ERASE pb (2 seconds) relevant systems
When do the RCDR and CVR normally operate in EXT LTS Panel
AUTO? If the RWY TURN OFF, LAND, and NOSE switches are
• On the ground, for 5 minutes after electrical power is all in the ON position, which lights automatically
supplied to the aircraft extinguish after takeoff?
• Ground and flight from 1 engine is operating, to 5 The NOSE and RWY TURN OFF lights extinguish after
minutes after last engine is shut down landing gear retraction.
Can it be activated any other way? Why do we have 2 positions for the NAV & LOGO
By selecting the GND CRTL pd ON (blue) switch?
OXYGEN Panel In order to select either of the 2 sets of navigation lights (2
What does the PASSENGER SYS ON light mean? bulbs) on each wing tip and at the tail cone.
The signal to release the oxygen mask doors has been When does the LOGO light illuminate with the switch at
sent. 2 or 1 position?
When do the masks automatically deploy? Main landing gear strut compressed or flaps extended at
least 15 degrees.
When cabin altitude exceeds 14,000 feet (+250,-750)
What position should the STROBE switch be in during
What method is used to supply passenger cabin
preflight?
supplemental oxygen?
AUTO
Chemical generators supply pure oxygen under positive
pressure for about 22 minutes. When do the strobes lights flash in AUTO?
Above what cabin altitude will the crew oxygen masks When the main landing gear strut is not compressed
provide 100% oxygen regardless of the position of the APU Panel
N/100% selector? What does the green AVAIL light on the APU START pb
35,000 feet, also over pressure supply is automatically indicate?
started at 35,000 cabin altitude. The APU is available to provide electrical power and/or
What happens during the preflight when you push to bleed air.
extinguish the CREW SUPPLY OFF light? With the APU green AVAIL light ON and the EXT PWR
It opens a valve to supply low-pressure oxygen to the green AVAIL light on, which system is powering the
masks (normal position in flight). aircraft?
APU
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Prior to APU manual shut down, is it necessary to What occurs when the EMER EXIT LT switch is placed
select APU BLEED OFF? to OFF?
No, bleed valve will shut as Master Switch is selected OFF All lights OFF
During the cool down cycle can you still use the APU? Amber OFF light illuminates left of the EMER EXIT LT
switch
Yes, press APU MASTER SW pb if AVAIL light is still on
What lights illuminate when the EMER EXIT LT switch is
The APU generator can supply 100% electrical load and
placed to ON?
bleed air, up to what altitude?
• Overhead emergency lighting
25,000 feet for electrical and 20.000ft for bleed
• Floor proximity marking system
What does an amber FAULT light in the APU MASTER • EXIT signs
SW pb indicates?
What is the power source of the overhead emergency
An APU auto shutdown has occurred. light and the EXIT signs?
What does an amber FAULT light in the APU BLEED pb DC SHED ESS BUS, and, if failed, emergency internal
mean? batteries for 12 minutes.
APU bleed leak. Why do we keep NO SMOKING sign in auto?
Does APU bleed or electric have priority? To allow permanent charge of the emergency batteries
Electric from DC SHED ESS BUS.
Can we start the APU with only one battery at correct INT LTS Panel
charge level? What flight deck lighting is available if normal electrical
Yes power is lost?
Will the APU shutdown during a fire test? • Captain’s Instrument Panel
• Right Dome Light (provided DOME switch set in DIM or
No
BRT)
Does APU auto-shutdown in case of fire? • Standby Compass
Yes, only on ground ANTI ICE Panel
Does APU auto-shutdown in flight if on fire? Is the engine anti-ice part of the normal pneumatic
NO system?
What would normally cause an APU shut down? List No – it is a separate system independent of the pneumatic
some failures ducting.
1. Air inlet flap not open What does a FAULT light in the ENG ANTI ICE pb
2. No acceleration indicate?
3. Slow start Switch- valve disagreement
4. Over speed What should you do if there is significant engine
5. Low oil pressure vibration due to ice?
6. High oil temperature
Select ENG ANTI ICE pb ON and Increase N1 to 70% for
7. DC power loss (if BAT OFF when a/c on batteries only)
a minimum of 15 seconds prior to selecting a higher
8. Fire (on ground only)
thrust.
SIGNS Panel
With ENG ANTI ICE ON what indications will you see?
When do FASTEN SEAT BELT & NO SMOKING signs
illuminate with respective switches set to auto? • Blue ENG ANTI ICE light ON
• ECAM: ENG ANTI ICE
• Slats (17 degrees’) or landing gear is extended.
• N1 limit is reduced (amber tick on N1 indicator)
• If cabin altitude goes above 11.300 feet (±350) the cabin
• N1 idle is increased.
will illuminate and SEAT BELT, NO SMOKING signs come
on regardless of the switches positions. With engine anti-ice ON, is your descent affected?
When will the Exit markers automatically illuminate? Yes, because idle thrust is increased.
With the EMER EXIT LT switch in ARM, and Can you use the wing anti-ice on the ground?
• Normal AC power is lost or No
• DC SHED ESS BUS power is lost What happens if, on the ground, you turn the WING
When will the EXIT signs automatically illuminate? ANTI ICE switch ON?
With the EMER EXIT LT switch in ARM, and The wing anti-ice valves will open for a 30 second test.
• Normal AC power is lost or What part of the wing is heated?
• DC SHED ESS BUS power is lost
Out board 3 slats.
• Cabin alt is high (11.300 ±350)
• When NO SMOKING signs come on. When do the wing anti-ice valves automatically close?
When do overhead emergency lights and proximity • On landing
emergency escape path marking come on • Bleed leak detected
automatically? • Loss of electrical power
With the EMER EXIT LT switch in ARM, and Can you use the APU bleed for wing anti-ice?
• Normal AC power is lost or No
• DC SHED ESS BUS power is lost or
• AC BUS 1 failed.

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What does the amber FAULT light in the WING ANTI ICE What protects the airframe from excessive cabin
pb indicate? differential pressure?
Low pressure is detected OR Switch- valve disagreement 2 pressure safety valves.
In what position do the Wing and Engine Anti-Ice valves How many motors does the outflow valve have?
fail if electrical power is lost? 3 – One for each automatic controller and one for manual
• Wing – valves CLOSE control.
• Engine – valves OPEN What is the ABORT mode in auto cabin pressurization
PROBE/WINDOW HEAT Panel and what does it do?
With the PROBE/WINDOW HEAT pb in AUTO, when will It will prevent cabin from climbing in case you return to
the probes and windows be heated? departure airport if: ALT <8000 ft OR a change in altitude
Heated at low intensity if A/C is powered on ground AND <5075 ft and A/C rate of decent >200 fpm for 30 secs.
at normal intensity in flight (TAT probes are not heated). How does one pressurization computer change to the
What does the PROBE/WINDOW HEAT pb do in the ON other?
position? When do we do that? Automatically 70 secs. after landing or when one system
Probes and windows are heated at normal intensity on the fails and anytime manually with a pb reset.
ground; blue light comes on (windshield, side windows, With the Press Mode pb in MAN, what would the LDG
Pitot tube, static port). We set the switch to ON after ELEV Selector perform?
preliminary cockpit preparation in cold weather operation. Nothing, as MAN V/S controls cabin press.
CABIN PRESS Panel
Having lost both auto press sys, is there an automatic
What does the DITCHING pb do? transfer to manual mode?
Closes all valves below the flotation line No, we need to manually depress the pb
Which valves are below the floating line? (ROPA) AIR CONDITION Panel
1. Ram air inlet (1) On the ECAM Bleed page, how do you tell if GND HP air
2. Outflow valve (only if in AUTO mode) (1) supply is connected?
3. Pack Flow Control valves (2) GND and triangle in white at the side of the APU indication
4. Avionics ventilation Inlet and Extract valves (2) on the ECAM BLEED page, and its air temperature and
Will the DITCHING pb always close the outflow valve? pressure are indicated on Precooler #1
No, the outflow valve will not close if it’s under manual
What monitors and controls the pneumatic system?
control. 2 Bleed Monitoring Computers (BMC). Each BMC
Can the pilot control the outflow valve? receives info about bleed pressure, temperature and valve
Yes, select MAN on the MODE SEL and use the MAN V/S position. Each system selects the proper compressor
CTL switch. stage to be used as a source of air to regulate the bleed
air pressure and temperature
How many controllers are in the pressurization
system? If one BMC fails, can the other take over?
2, only one is used at a time. Yes, they are interconnected. But If BMC 1 fails:
• APU and ENG 1 leak detection are not monitored
How do you manually switch between controllers? • ECAM APU BLEED LEAK warning is lost
Switch MODE SEL to MAN for 10 seconds, then back to
AUTO What are the two functions of the engine bleed valves?
• Pressure regulation
What does an amber FAULT light in the MODE SEL pb • Shut off valves
indicate?
Both automatic pressure controllers are faulty. What would cause amber PACK FAULT light to
illuminate (PCS)?
The LDG ELEV selector is in the AUTO position, what is • Pack outlet overheat
the data source for pressurization schedule? • Compressor outlet overheat
The pressurization system uses the FMGS data to • Switch position disagreement with pack flow control
construct an optimized pressurization schedule. valve
When should the pb not be used in AUTO? Note: FAULT light will be illuminated during preflight as no
When FMGS data is not available or in Manual mode bleed air is supplied.
When out of the AUTO position, what is different? What causes the amber FAULT light on the ENG BLEED
The pressurization system uses the manually selected pb? (BBOOL)
landing elevation. 1. Bleed valve is not closed during Engine start
2. Bleed valve is not closed with APU bleed on
What depressurizes the aircraft in case of residual 3. Overpressure downstream of the bleed valve.
pressure after landing? How does it work? 4. Overheat
Residual pressure control unit, it automatically opens 5. Leak (wing or engine leak on the related side)
outflow valve when:
• Valve not fully open What is the RAM AIR pb used for?
• Both pressurization controllers failed • Smoke removal from cabin
• Aircraft on ground • Ventilation of cockpit and cabin with a dual pack failure
• All engines are shutdown or all ADIRS indicate airspeed
below 100 kts.

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When will the RAM AIR valve open if selected ON? What happens to pack flow control valves during
• ∆P IS less than 1 PSI. engine start? (Normal engine start using APU)
• Ditching is not selected. Pack flow control valves (for both engines if x-bleed is
What logic controls the X-bleed valve when the open) will close automatically when engine mode selector
X-BLEED switch is in AUTO? is set to IGNITION (allowing ALL of the APU bleed to start
the engines) and will close when start sequence is
• The X-Bleed valve is open when APU bleed valve is
completed OR engine mode selector is set back to
OPEN.
NORM.
• The X-Bleed valve is closed when APU bleed valve is
If the Master lever is not selected to ON within 30 second
CLOSED,
they will open again and close when master lever in ON.
• The X-Bleed valve is closed when a leak is detected in
wing or pylon or APU (except during engine start) When does the Lavatory/Galley Extract Fan operate?
What does the amber FAULT light in the APU BLEED pb Continuously when electrical power is available
indicate? When flow selector is in LOW, when will system provide
Bleed leak (APU bleed valve closes) NORMAL or HI flow?
What causes the Pack Flow Control valve to Normal: when demand cannot be met
automatically close? High: when APU bleed in use or single PACK operation
• Upstream pressure below minimum ELECTRIC Panel
• Compressor outlet overheat Will batteries completely drain if BAT switches were left
• Engine start sequence in AUTO and AC power removed?
• Engine FIRE pb on the related side pressed. No. Battery cut-off logic prevents discharge (below
• DITCH pb is selected 22,15v) when the A/C on ground and unpowered.
How many motor drives the x bleed valve? How is the BATTERY BUS normally powered?
2 electric motors DC BUS 1 through a DC tie contactor
When will the hot air valve close? How is battery charge accomplished?
• No air Power AC to the aircraft, set both Batteries’ pb to ON and
• Duct over heat wait a minimum of 20 min.
• Cockpit trim air valve fail What does the amber FAULT light in the (GALY & CAB)
• Cabin trim air valves fail (both) pb indicate?
• 2 lane of one ACSC fail.
The load on any generator is more than 100% of rated
What is the function of the HOT AIR pb? output.
It controls the hot air pressure regulator valve which How does the GALLEY pb work in AUTO?
controls the flow of hot air to the trim air valves. This hot
Main galley, secondary galley buses are powered.
air is mixed with the pack-conditioned air for zone
The main galleys are automatically shed:
temperature control.
• IN FLIGHT: when only one generator is operating
What does the amber HOT AIR FAULT light indicate? • ON GROUND: Only 1 ENGINE generator is operating
• Duct overheat is detected (The Hot Air and Trim Air (All galleys are available when APU GEN or EXT PWR is
valves will close automatically). supplying power).
• Valve disagreement What items are shed with Galley pb?
How many Air Conditioning System Controllers (ACSC) Galley, secondary galley, in-seat power supply and IFE (In
are there? Flight Entertainment) system
2 ACS controllers to monitor the temperature of 3 zones When is galley SHED is displayed on ECAM?
(cockpit, forward cabin, aft cabin)
• When only one GEN supply the aircraft
How many lanes on each ACS Controllers? And how do • When galley switch is off.
they operate?
What does a FAULT on the ENG GEN pb indicate?
2 lanes (one active and one standby) if both fails the
• The associated generator control unit (GCU) trips it.
related pack is lost.
• The generator line contactor is open (switch is not
Describe how the air conditioning system controls the selected off).
temperature in each zone.
When is it normal to see the ENG GEN FAULT light
• Pack output temperature regulation is determined by the illuminated?
zone requiring the coldest air
Prior to engine start
• Hot air is added to the individual zones by trim air valves
to maintain the desired zone temp What does the APU GEN FAULT light indicate?
If an Air Cycle Machine (ACM) fails, what occurs? • The associated generator control unit (GCU) trips it.
• The generator line contactor is open (switch is not
The affected pack will operate in heat exchanger cooling
selected off).
mode.
When is the APU GEN FAULT light inhibited?
After engine start with the APU BLEED pb ON, what
source is supplying bleed air to the packs? • APU speed too low
• Line contactor OPEN after EXT PWR or ENG Generator
APU Bleed, it has priority over the engines bleed.
takes over

7
What is the function of the BUS TIE pb in the AUTO What does the AC ESS FEED pb FAULT light indicate?
position? AC ESS BUS is not powered.
Bus tie contactors (BTCs) automatically open or close to In case AC ESS FEED fault, do we need to push the
maintain power supply to AC BUS 1 & 2 ACESS FEED S/W pb?
-One contactor is closed when one engine generator Only if requested by a procedure
supplies the associated AC BUS, and APU GEN or
EXTERNAL power supplies the other side. What powers the Static inverter?
-Both contactors are closed during single-engine operation Battery number 1
or when powered by APU or External What is the purpose of the static inverter? What powers
What does the Emerg Gen light on means? (it only has it?
a FAULT light) To provide AC power to a part of the AC ESS bus from the
Loss of AC BUS 1 and 2 and no Emergency Generator battery number 1 if only the batteries are supplying
power connected electrical power to the aircraft.
In emergency configuration and the emergency When is static inverter activated?
generator failed, can we start the APU in flight? When the aircraft is only powered by the batteries (Speed
No, only on ground and speed -100 kts (BATTS will then <50 kts BAT1 & BAT2 switches must be in auto) (Speed
be connected to the DC BAT BUS). >50 kts regardless of the BAT1 & BAT2 switches position)
In emergency configuration, the emergency generator How is the Battery check accomplished?
online can you start the APU on flight? • Select ECAM ELEC page
Yes, below FL250 when the APU MASTER pb switch is • Switch BAT 1 & 2 OFF (check for 25.5v min.), then ON
set to ON the batteries are connected to DC BAT BUS for • Check charging current below 60 amps and decreasing
3 minutes. (DC BAT BUS must be powered to start APU). within 10 seconds
What happen below 100 & 50 Knots when EMRG GEN What does a BAT FAULT light indicate?
powers the aircraft? Battery charging current is outside limits (An indication
Below 100 Knots DC BAT BUS is automatically connected that battery is faulty).
to the battery. Below 50 Knots AC ESS BUS is When are the batteries connected to the BATTERY
automatically shed leading to loss of CRTs. BUS?
What will happen if we have a failure in TR1? • APU start or N1 less 95%• Battery charging (less than
The DC bus 2 will power all DC buses. 26.5 v)
• AC BUS 1 & 2 not powered and airspeed below 100
If TR1 and TR2 where lost, what buses will be knots
un-powered?
DC bus 1 + 2 and DC bat bus will be unpowered and DC When both APU and EXT PWR “AVAIL” lights are on,
ESS BUS will be powered by ESS TR. which system is powering the aircraft?
APU
Do we have to push BUS TIE pb to keep AC BUS 1&2
powered? What is the priority sequence for electrical power?
NO it’s an automatic function. • 1. Engine Generators
• 2. EXT PWR
What does IDG stand for? • 3. APU Generator
Integrated Drive Generator • 4. RAT Emergency Generator
What is the function of the IDG? • 5. Batteries
Converts variable engine speed to constant speed for What is the significance of the green collared circuit
optimum generator operation breakers on the flight deck?
What does an IDG FAULT light indicate? When is it • Green – Monitored by ECAM system
inhibited? • Red – Wing tip brake C/B (Don’t reset)
• Oil pressure low • black – Not monitored by ECAM
• Oil outlet temperature overheat (+185°C) Will the RAT deploy after landing?
• Light is inhibited when IDG is disconnected (N2 < 14%) Yes, by either the two pb or automatically if AC BUS 1 & 2
What precautions must you take when disconnecting not powered and speed +100kts
an IDG? Will the APU start in case TR1 and 2 failure?
• Do not disconnect when the engine is not operating or Yes, below FL250, when APU MASTER pb switch ON,
wind-milling batts connect to DC BAT BUS for 3 min. (DC BAT BUS
• Do not hold button longer than 3 seconds must be powered to start APU).
What is the function of the AC ESS FEED pb in the What indications do we have of RAT deployment?
normal position? When do we need to push it? Emergency Generator indication on ECAM SD Electrical
If AC BUS 1 is lost AC BUS 2 automatically feeds the AC page and RAT connected to HYD BLUE by arrow in HYD
ESS BUS. Only when asked by a checklist. page
What does the AC ESS FEED pb white (ALTN) light FUEL Panel
indicate? How many fuel pumps are installed?
The AC ESS BUS is supplied by AC BUS 2 (Manually • 2 in each wing tank
selected) • 2 in center tank (and another 1 for Aux CTR tank if

8
 installed) Why can’t we use fuel by gravity from center tank?
• 1 APU pump to provide fuel to the APU when the tank Because it has no suction valves
pumps are off
Which center or main wing fuel pumps have more
What is the normal in-flight fuel management scheme? pressure?
Use center tank first (and auxiliary center tank), then the Both type the same, but there are relief sequence valves
wing tanks. on main wing tanks to allow center ones to feed first
When center tank fuel pumps operate in auto mode, How many motors drive the cross feed valve?
when do they come on? When do they stop? 1 double motor
• On For 2 minutes after BOTH engines are started (if HYDRAULIC Panel
slats are UP will continue to run)
Can the aircraft be flown with a loss of all hydraulic
• After slat retraction
systems?
• Stop 5 minutes after center tank low level is reached
• Stop when inner tank overfills from IDG cooling fuel No, in theory you must have at least one. However, there
returned until 500 kg inner tank is burned are very few cases and tests have been simulated to
maneuver aircraft with only engine differential thrust.
When will center tank fuel not be used?
What occurs when you press the RAT MAN ON pb?
When flaps are extended
The RAT extends providing pressure to the BLUE
What will cause a FUEL MODE SEL pb FAULT light? hydraulic system.
• Failure of the AUTO mode
Will the Blue Sys be pressurized with the RAT if there is
• Center tank has more than 250 kg and either wing tank
a Hyd Overheat?
has less than 5000 kg.
No
When do the main tank outer cells drain into the inner
tanks? How many hydraulic pumps are in the GREEN system?
When either inner tank quantity reaches 750 kg • 1 Engine
• 1 PTU
If only one inner tank reaches 750 kg, what happens to
the other transfer valve? How many hydraulic pumps are in the BLUE system?
All 4 transfer valves open. • 1 Electric
• 1 RAT
Once opened to transfer fuel, how are the fuel transfer
valves closed? How many hydraulic pumps are in the YELLOW
system?
Automatically at the next refueling operation
• 1 Engine
How is the IDG cooled? • 1 Electric
By fuel from the HP fuel pump drawn in from the fuel • 1 PTU
manifold and then returned to its respective outer tank. • 1 Hand pump
When full the outer tank spills over to the inner tank.
Does the PTU transfer hydraulic fluid?
If the IDG return fuel fills the wing tanks, what occurs? No
The center tank pumps turn off until the wing tank quantity
When does the BLUE ELEC PUMP operate when set to
reduces by 500 kg.
auto?
What does an amber FAULT light in the FUEL PUMP pb When AC power is available the electric pump operates:
indicate? • from first engine running to second engine shut down
Fuel delivery pressure drops. • If the BLUE PUMP OVRD pb on maintenance panel was
If the wing tank pumps fail, is suction feeding possible? pushed.
Yes – only from the inner wing tank. What is normal and RAT supplied hydraulic system
Can fuel be transferred from one tank to another? pressure?
Only during ground refueling. Normal: 3000 PSI +-(200); RAT: 2.500 PSI

With full wing fuel, what prevents the IDG fuel from Does the RAT automatically deploy with the loss of
overflowing the wings? BLUE pressure?
Separate full level switches. No, it must be deployed manually with RAT MAN ON pb.

Why does the fuel system keeps fuel in the outer wing If ACCU PRESS indicator is low, what should you do?
tanks and drain them last? Obtain ground clearance, and then turn ON the YELLOW
For wing bending and flutter relief ELEC PUMP to pressurize the accumulator.

What feeds the APU if all fuel pumps are off? When does the PTU operate with pb in AUTO?
Special pump feeds APU start if fuel pressure low. • If difference of 500psi between GREEN and YELLOW
• During the second engine start for an automatic test.
What does the REFUEL message on the ECAM
indicate? When is the PTU inhibited?
The refueling control panel door is not closed (or, if On ground:
installed, Cockpit refueling panel ON) • PTU pb OFF
• First Engine start
What does amber half boxed ECAM FOB indicates? • One engine running and Parking brake is ON or NWS
Some fuel is unusable. deactivation pin installed.
• Cargo door operation
9
If ECAM actions lead you to turn PTU OFF due to FIRE Panel
Reservoir Overheat, will the FAULT light go out? Where are the engine fire loops installed?
No, until the overheat subsides. • Pylon nacelle
If the FAULT light in the PTU pb is ON, are there any • Engine core
other indications on the HYD Panel? • Fan section
Yes – also a FAULT light illuminated in the respective ENG What happens if both fire loops fail?
PUMP pb. If the failure of both loops occurs within 5 seconds of each
When is the blue pump inhibited? other, a FIRE warning will be issued.
On ground with both engines shutdown What occurs when you press the TEST pb on the
Name several items that run only from the GREEN ENGINE FIRE panel?
system? • CRC sounds
• Landing gear • MASTER WARN lights flash (2)
• Normal Brakes • ENG FIRE pb illuminates red (1)
• #1 Thrust reverser • SQUIB and DISCH lights illuminate (2)
• ECAM FIRE WARNING (1)
Name several items that run only from the YELLOW • FIRE light on the ENG panel illuminates (1)
system?
1. Alternate Brake What does amber DISCH light mean?
2. Break accumulator The fire extinguisher bottle has lost its pressure.
3. Cargo doors How many fire extinguishers are provided for each
4. #2 Thrust reverser engine and APU?
5. Nose wheel steering 2 for each engine and 1 for APU
What does an amber FAULT light in the PTU pb indicate List the actions that occur when an ENGINE FIRE pb is
(OLL)? pressed.
• Over temp in reservoir (G or Y) 1. Silences the aural fire warning
• Low air pressure in the reservoir (G or Y) 2. Arms the fire extinguisher squibs
• Low quantity in the reservoir (G or Y) 3. Closes the hydraulic fire shut off valve
Can the PTU pressurize the BLUE system? 4. Closes the LP fuel valve
No 5. Closes the engine bleed valve
6. Closes the pack flow control valve
What items can be operated when manual yellow pump 7. Cuts off the FADEC power supply
is in use? 8. Deactivates the IDG
Cargo doors, alternate braking system and engine2
reverse List the actions that occur when the APU FIRE pb is
pressed.
What is the purpose of the hand pump? 1. Silences the aural fire warning
To provide Yellow hydraulic pressure for cargo door 2. Shuts down the APU
operation. 3. Arms the APU fire extinguisher squib
What does an amber FAULT light in the ENG PUMP pb 4. Closes the LP fuel valve and shuts OFF the APU fuel
indicate (POLL)? pump
1. Pump pressure low 5. Deactivates the APU generator
2. Over temp in reservoir 6. Closes the APU bleed and cross-feed valves
3. Low air pressure in the reservoir What occurs when you press the APU FIRE TEST pb?
4. Low quantity in the reservoir 1. CRC sounds
What does a FAULT light in the BLUE or YELLOW ELEC 2. MASTER WARN lights flash (2)
PUMP pb indicate (POLLO)? 3. APU FIRE pb illuminates red (1)
1. Pump pressure low 4. SQUIB (white) and DISCH (amber) lights illuminate (1)
2. Over temp in reservoir 5. ECAM FIRE WARNING (1)
3. Low air pressure in the reservoir What occurs when you press the APU FIRE TEST pb
4. Low quantity in the reservoir with batteries only?
5. Overheat in the pump 1. APU FIRE pb illuminates red (1)
With the switch set to off, when does the yellow electric 2. SQUIB (white) and DISCH (amber) lights illuminate (1)
pump comes on automatically? And what does it Does the APU fire extinguisher automatically discharge
power? if a fire is detected in ground?
When the cargo door lever is set to open or close, this Yes. The APU will automatically shut down and the APU
inhibits the operation of all system components except fire extinguisher will discharge.
ALT braking and engine #2 reverser.
Does the APU fire extinguisher automatically discharge
What is the function of the hydraulic priority valves? if a fire is detected in flight?
Hydraulic power to the flaps, slats, landing gear, NW No
steering, and emergency generator is cut off if pressure
drops below a predetermined value. When FAULT Lt on in the pedestral eng FIRE/FAULT Lt?
After an automatic engine start aborted or HP valve
disagreement

10
How many discharge bottles are available in Emerg With BLOWER and EXTRACT pbs in AUTO, how does
Electr Config? the system operate?
Only one per engine and APU MAINTENANCE Panel • Ground -system is in OPEN configuration
Do the pilots use the Maintenance panel? • Flight – system is in CLOSED configuration
No • Intermediate – Closed except Extract Vlv partially open
If a mechanic pressed the APU AUTO EXTING TEST pb With both BLOWER and EXTRACT pbs in OVRD, what
what would occur? are the positions of the INLET and EXTRACTvalves?
The APU will shut down. • INLET valve CLOSED
CARGO HEAT Panel • EXTRACT valve partially OPEN
What does the CARGO HEAT HOT AIR amber FAULT What fan is OFF in the above situation?
light indicate?. • BLOWER fan OFF
Duct overheat • EXTRACT fan ON
Note: all valves are closed (except extract valve) and air from
What does the CARGO HEAT AFT ISOL VALVE amber air-conditioning system is added to ventilation air and directed over
FAULT light indicate? board through the skin air extract valve
Valve disagreement of inlet or outlet valve Is the skin heat exchanger ever bypassed in flight?
CARGO SMOKE Panel Yes – during SMOKE configuration, skin heat exchanger
How many fire extinguishers are provided for the cargo isolation valve is closed
compartments? What does a FAULT light on the BLOWER pb indicate?
1 bottle, which can be discharged within 60 seconds to • SMOKE Warning is activated
either compartment • Computer power supply failure
Do we perform the CARGO fire test? Why? • Low Blower pressure
NO, because it is self-test. • Duct overheat
What does the red SMOKE light in the FWD or AFT pb What does a FAULT light on the EXTRACT pb indicate?
indicate? • SMOKE Warning is activated
• Both channels detect smoke, or • Computer power supply failure
• One channel detects smoke and the other is faulty • Low Extract pressure
How many smoke detectors are there (cavities)? With 2 FAULT lights on the VENTILATION panel are
• 1 cavity fwd, 2 cavity aft (each cavity is dual loop A+B ) there any other indications?
• One fire bottle with 3 nozzles (1 FWD 2 for AFT cargo) Yes – The SMOKE light in the GEN 1 LINE pb.
With a CARGO SMOKE warning what happens to the You are in Jeddah at OAT 46°C and both ventilation
Isolation Valve and Extract Fan? doors are closed. Is this normal?
• Isolation Valve closes No, as temperature is above the +12°C or +9°C ground
• Extract Fan stops threshold for close circuit
After bottle discharged pb pressed, how long would it ENG Panel
take for the light to come on DISCH? What are the primary differences between a manual and
Up to 60 seconds a normal automatic start?
• Automatic start interruption and auto-crank are not
How many DISCH lights will come on after bottle pb is
available during manual start.
pressed and why?
• In manual start the FADEC will only abort the start if on
Two lights, one for each cargo compartment as there is ground and EGT limit is exceeded before N2 =50%
only one bottle for both VENTILATION Panel
What is the FADEC authority during manual start?
What is the function of the cabin fans? When do we
FADEC has a limited authority:
select them off?
• Opening and closing start valve (if ENG MODE is set to
2 Cabin fans are installed to recycle cabin air into the IGN/SART and MAN START switch is pressed)
mixing unit and back and therefore save fuel, selected off • HP fuel valve
only in respond to an ECAM procedure. • Operating and cutting of both igniters
How is the equipment cooled in each configuration? Will the start valve automatically close during a manual
1. Open circuit: the equipment is cooled by blown outside start up?
air. Yes, at 50% N2.
2. Closed circuit: the equipment is cooled by blown air
through a skin heat exchanger When a manual ENG start is recommended?
3. Intermediate : the equipment is cooled by blown air 1-After aborting a start because of:
through a skin heat exchanger plus partially exhausted • Engine stall
overboard. • Engine EGT over limit
• Low start air pressure
Is Air Conditioning ever introduced into the Avionics
2-When expecting a start abort, because of:
Compartment?
• Degraded bleed perf. (hot conditions or high elevation
Yes – In the SMOKE configuration or abnormal airports) or Marginal perf. of external pneumatic power
configuration. • An engine with reduced EGT margin (hot conditions or
high elevation airports)
• Tail wind
11
 AUDIO MGMT Panel Will the FCU Altitude window ever display dashes?
What is the AUDIO SWITCHING PANEL used for? No. Pilot selected altitude will always be displayed.
Allows for switching to ACP 3 if ACP 1 or 2 fails When is the FCU inhibited?
GLARESHIELD / FCU Land mode and the aircraft below 400 RA, LOC & GS
What does the red AUTO LAND light indicate? locked.
Below 200 feet RA: 1-Excessive deviation (LOC or G/S) What is the max. altitude you can select in the FCU
2-Loss of both autopilots window?
3-Loss of LOC or G/S signals 49.000’
4-Difference of 15 feet between the RA’s
When does A/P automatically disconnect?
What does the red arrow in the SIDE STICK PRIORITY Over speed protection and over pressure on side-stick or
light mean? rudder pedals
It illuminates in front of the pilot losing authority.
What happens when you press the LS pb on ground?
How would you regain control? Nothing (you need to be airborne +400ft, out of T/O or G/A
• The last pilot to press the pb on the side-stick will have and a valid ILS tunned)
authority PRIMARY FLIGHT DISPLAY
• An aural “Priority Left” or “Priority Right” will sound
What does each column mean on the PFD?
What do the flashing green CAPT and F/O SIDESTICK A/THR | VERTICAL | LATERAL | APPR CAPABILIY,
PRIORITY lights indicate? DH/MDA | AP, FD, A/THR ENGAGEMENT STATUS
Both side-sticks have been moved simultaneously and
neither pilot has taken priority. How are the crew made aware of mode changes on the
FMA?
What happens when both pilots make an input A white box is temporarily displayed around the new
simultaneously on both side-sticks? indication.
• The inputs are algebraically summed up to the normal
limits How are armed modes displayed on the FMA?
• An aural “Dual Input” will sound • Blue – armed
• Green CAPT and F/O lights will illuminate • Magenta – armed because of a constraint
• Green – engaged (active)
How do you take priority?
By pressing red pb on your side-stick. Permanently if done After you input the destination and ILS information into
for 40 seconds or until a red pb is pressed again the MCDU, what do you check for?
• After the ILS pb is pressed, green light
What is the function of the LOC pb? • ILS frequency and course on PFD
Arms, engages, or disengages the LOC mode • ILS identifier once identified
When do you press the APPR button? • LOC and GS scales displayed on PFD
When cleared for the approach. When is the side stick position indication icon (white
After pressing the APPR button, what do you check cross) displayed?
for? • Displayed when the first engine is started
ILS – Blue LOC and GS or RNAV – APP NAV and FINAL • Disappears at liftoff
in FMA What would the large red arrowheads indicate?
What do dashes in the FCU display windows along with Pitch attitude of +30°
the adjacent white dot indicate? What does USE MANUAL PITCH TRIM in amber and
FMGS Managed Guidance is in use MAN PITCH TRIM ONLY in red mean?
What is the function of the Flight Control Unit (FCU)? You are in Direct Law or in Mechanical Backup,
• Permits short term interface between the pilot and FMGS respectively
• Allows temporary modification of any flight parameter What are the pitch and roll angle limits indicated by the
(HDG, SPD, ALT, V/S) green = signs?
• Used to select operational modes of the autopilots, flight • Pitch: +30° up/-15° down
directors, and A/THR system • Roll: +/- 67°
What happens when you select EXP pb? How can you determine you are in Alternate Law?
In climb you get max thrust and green dot pitch, and in • Amber X’s at the pitch (30° UP/15° DN) and bank (67°)
descend Idle to Vmo/mmo (340/0.82) limits
How is Selected Guidance engaged? • Only VLS and VSW is displayed on the airspeed scale
Pull the appropriate selector knob. How can you determine which law is active?
How do you confirm all autopilot, FD, and A/THR NORMAL: all protections markings green
inputs? ALTERNATE: protections Xs and ECAM warning
Confirm all mode inputs by reference to the FMA (indicating also if protections lost or not)
DIRECT: USE MANUAL PITCH TRIM (amber) on PFD
How many FDs are required to engage the A/THR? Mechanical Back-up: MAN PITCH TRIM ONLY (red) on
None PFD
How many F/D are required to engage SRS? Abnormal Alternate Law: similar to direct law until very
At least one abnormal parameters are recovered

12
When would the sideslip index change from yellow to What are the 2 sub-modes of the runway mode (RWY)
blue? and what do they provide?
In case of an engine failure during takeoff/go-around, it is • RWY mode: lateral guidance during TO roll up to 30 feet
now a blue beta target. RA if LOC signal is available
What does the yellow speed trend line on the airspeed • RWY TRK mode: gives lateral guidance to same track
display indicate? during the engagement (at 30 feet)
The speed the aircraft will reach in 10 seconds if What are the RWY disengagement conditions?
acceleration/deceleration remains constant. • Automatically at acceleration ALT (ACC ALT)(ALT*)(ALT
What is the difference between the magenta and blue CST*) above 400 feet
target airspeeds? • If crew engages another vertical mode
• If crew selects a speed (click-click-click is heard).
• Magenta – Managed speed computed by the FMGC
• Blue – Selected speed on the FCU by pilot or mode Which speeds displayed on PFD are flap/slat position
reversion and which are flaps lever position?
What is VLS and how is it displayed? VLS, over speed warning are based on the actual flap/slat
position
• Represents lowest selectable speed providing an
VFE, VFE NEXT based on the flap lever position
appropriate margin to the stall speed
• Defined by the top of the amber strip on airspeed scale What would be indicated if the altitude window changed
• In approach mode is equivalent to VREF from yellow to amber?
What speed does VMAX represent and how is it The aircraft has deviated from the FCU selected altitude
displayed? or flight level.
• It is the lowest of VMO/MMO, VLE, or VFE What is the magenta target airspeed triangle above
• Defined by the bottom of a red and black strip along the VAPP on approach?
speed scale Ground Speed Mini has increased speed due to a higher
What is Green Dot speed? headwind component at your present location than what
was calculated at the runway.
• Engine out operating speed in clean configuration
• Appears when the aircraft is in the clean configuration Is this protection available in selected speed?
• Corresponds to the best lift-to-drag ratio No – Managed speed only
What is Ground Speed Mini? When is altitude alerting automatically inhibited in
It’s a computed target speed during the approach that flight?
maintains the aircraft energy above a minimum level • When slats are extended with the landing gear down
ensuring standard aerodynamic margins versus stall, this • On approach after glide slope capture
ground speed mini is: What does it mean when the altitude digits change from
• Based on a calculated groundspeed at the runway green to amber?
• It will protect against actual groundspeed dropping below
The aircraft has descended below the MDA/DH entered
calculated g/speed due to wind.
into the FMGC.
What is SRS, When does it appear on the PFD? What
When is Radio Height displayed on the PFD?
speed does it maintain?
Below 2,500 feet
Speed Reference System, in takeoff and go-around
1. Maintains V2 to V2+10 (V2+15 if 1ENG) Information from ILS receiver 1 is displayed where?
2. At least a vertical path of 120 fpm Captain’s PFD and F/O’s ND
3. Pitch attitude protection during takeoff (18° max or 22° What would a flashing amber ILS indicate on the
max in wind-shear) bottom of the PFD?
What are the SRS engagement conditions? Flashes amber when APPR mode is armed and the ILS
1. Thrust levers set to TOGA or FELX display is not selected.
2. V2 set in the PERF page MCDU When do you get Beta target?
3. Slats extended
Upon engine failure on take-off or go around
4. A/C on ground for at least 30 seconds
NAVIGATION DISPLAY
Will you see SRS on every take off?
Top of Descent and Continue Descent arrows are blue
As long as requirements are met, yes or white, what is the difference?
How can you disengage the LAND mode? • Top of Descent – Always white (never armed)
• When in go-around • Continue Descent – Blue indicates armed, white
• When both AP/FDs are disengaged indicates NOT armed
What are the (RWY) engagement conditions? What displays or modes are available on the ND?
1. Thrust levers set to TOGA or FELX • Rose ILS
2. V2 set in the PERF page MCDU • Rose VOR
3. The slats extended (1-4 same as SRS mode) • Rose NAV
4. A/C on ground for at least 30s • ARC
5. A/C receiving a LOC signal and • PLAN
LOC deviation is less than 1⁄2 dot
6. A/C heading is within 20° of the ILS course
7. The ILS course is identical to the runway heading.
13
What colors are used to represent the various What does the display of T.O. INHIBIT or LDG INHIBIT
displayed flight plans? indicate?
• Active – continuous green line Most warnings and cautions are inhibited to avoid
• Secondary – continuous white line unnecessary distractions on critical flight phases.
• Temporary – dashed yellow line What indication does the E/WD provide for secondary
• Alternate – dashed blue line failures?
• Missed approach – continuous blue line Secondary failures are displayed on the lower right portion
If modes range data fails what should you expect to see of the E/WD and are preceded by an *.
on the ND? What does the appearance of a green arrow indicate at
ROSE NAV and 80 nm range. the bottom of the E/WD screen indicate?
What color does each altitude constraint circle Information overflowed off screen and pilot must scroll
represent? down using the CLR pb on the ECAM panel.
• White – constraint is not taken into account When does the Takeoff Memo appear?
• Magenta – constraint is predicted to be satisfied • 2 minutes after second engine start or when T.O.
• Amber – constraint is predicted to be missed CONFIG TEST pb is pressed with one engine
Where is VOR data displayed? • Memo is removed when takeoff power is applied
Both ND’s and the DDRMI When does the Landing Memo appear?
ENGINE/WARNING DISPLAY 1. Below 2,000’ RA with gear down (new FWC) and 800’
What are the ECAM components? RA with gear up (old FWC).
Ecam Warning Display and System Display 2. Memo disappears after touchdown (80 knots)
SYSTEM DISPLAY
What are the 3 levels of ECAM Malfunction
Notifications? In general, when are the system pages automatically
• ALERTS (level 1): Amber E/WD message, no aural displayed on the SD?
signal, and requires crew monitoring • Relative to the current phase of flight, or
• CAUTIONS (level 2): MASTER CAUT light, single chime, • When a system malfunction is detected
and require crew awareness When is a STATUS page displayed?
• WARNINGS (level 3): MASTER WARN light, CRC, and • After a failure is displayed on the SD and all failure items
require immediate action have been cleared
If simultaneous failures occur, how will they be • Display will reappear when the slats are extended
presented to the crew? What do the boxed STS indicate when displayed on the
A level 3 Warning has priority over a level 2 Caution which SD?
has priority over a level 1 Alert. • The STATUS page holds messages other than
What types of failures are presented to the crew? CANCELLED CAUTIONS
• Independent – Failure affecting an isolated system/item • Flashes after engine shutdown to alert maintenance of
without degrading other systems/items any other applicable messages
• Primary – Failure of a system/item that affects the use of FORWARD INSTRUMENT PANEL
other systems/items With a total loss of electrical power, does the ISIS
• Secondary – Loss of a system/item resulting from a losses its power?
primary failure No, it will be powered by internal battery for 5 minutes
Which part of the E/WD would the crew find indication What is the function of the 2 Landing Gear Control and
of Primary failures? Interface Units (LGCIU)?
On the lower left portion of the screen. • Provide sequencing, operation, monitoring, and
What types of warnings are NOT inhibited during indications for the landing gear
takeoff? • Provide aircraft “In Flight” or “On the Ground” signals to
1. ENGINE FIRE other aircraft systems
2. APU FIRE What hydraulic system powers the landing gear and
3. ENG FAIL (ENG SHUT DOWN) doors?
4. ENG OIL LO PR Green
5. L+R EVEV FAULT
6. A/P OFF Can a push-back be performed by connecting a truck to
7. CONFIG the main landing gear?
8. FWC 1+2 FAULT Yes Supplementary Procedures; 80-Miscellaneous)
What are the Takeoff Configuration Warnings/Cautions? What 3 things occur when you turn the Manual Gear
1. SLATS/FLAPS NOT IN T.O. RANGE Extension Handle?
2. PITCH TRIM NOT IN T.O. RANGE • Removes Green hydraulic pressure
3. SPEED BRAKES NOT RETRACTED • Opens gear doors
4. SIDESTICK FAULT • Unlocks the up locks
5. HOT BRAKES How many cranks does it take to lower the gear
6. DOOR NOT CLOSED manually?
7. PARK BRAKE ON 1 crank (but 3 clock-wise turns)
8. FLEX TEMP NOT SET (unless thrt lvrs in TOGA detent)

14
In what occasions is green hydraulic power not How many brake applications are available with
available to the landing gear? accumulator pressure?
• after Emergency Landing Gear Gravity Extension Approximately 7 full applications
• speed is above 260 kts (safety valve automatically shuts What is the maximum brake temperature for takeoff?
it off)
300° C (break fan off), 150° C (break fan on)
When does the red arrow in the LND panel illuminate?
What does each of the DMC’s normally supply?
When the aircraft is in the landing configuration and the
• DMC 1 – Captain PFD, ND, upper and lower ECAM DU
landing gear is not locked down.
• DMC 2 – F/O PFD and ND
What do the red UNLK lights indicate? • DMC 3 – Backup
The landing gear is not locked in the selected position. When should the brake fans be selected to ON?
What controls the LDG GEAR lights? ON when brake temperature exceeds 300° C (amber HOT
LGCIU 1 pb on) for takeoff.
If LGCIU 1 fails will the lights still work? 5 minutes after landing or just before stopping at the gate
whichever occurs first
Yes, as long as it is still powered.
Short turnaround time or break temp is likely to exceed
What controls and manages all braking functions? 500° C.
The Brake and Steering Control Unit (BSCU) What does the BRAKES & ACCU PRESS triple indicator
When do the Auto-brakes activate on landing if armed? indicate?
When the ground spoilers deploy • Yellow hydraulic pressure delivered to the left and right
What happens when you switch the A/SKID & N/W brakes
STRG to OFF? • Yellow system brake accumulator pressure
• Lose Nose-wheel steering How do you perform the brake check during initial taxi?
• Braking is powered by the Yellow system accumulator Press the brake pedals to ensure the aircraft slows, and
(maz. 1.000psi) check the brake pressure on the triple indicator is zero,
• Anti-skid is deactivated indicating the Green hydraulic system has taken over.
Which hydraulic systems provide pressure to the What do you check on the triple gauge indicator?
brakes? Yellow accumulator pressure (in green margin) and no
• Normal brakes – Green residual pressure (parking brake off) or high pressure
• Alternate brakes – Yellow (with A/Skid) backed up by a (more than 1.000 psi) on lef/right indicator (parking brake
hydraulic accumulator (no A/Skid) on)
What is the difference between LOW and MED AUTO EIS SWITCHING PANEL
BRK? What computers feed data to the six display units?
• LOW – progressive pressure starts 4 secs. after ground 3 Display Management Computers (DMC)
spoilers deploy to decelerate at 1.7 MPS. How can you tell if a DMC has failed?
• MED - progressive pressure starts 2 secs. after ground
A diagonal line will be displayed in the respective
spoilers deploy to decelerate at 3 MPS
EFIS/ECAM display unit.
What does the AUTO BRK green DECEL light indicate?
What happens when the upper ECAM display fails?
Actual rate of deceleration is within 80% of the selected
The E/WD automatically replaces the SD on the lower
rate.
ECAM display.
If you don’t see DECEL after landing, will you call
If both the E/WD and SD display units fail, how can you
DECEL?
display E/WD information?
Yes, if deceleration is felt by the crew and confirmed by
Select the ECAM/ND switch to CAPT or F/O to transfer
speed trend on the PFD.
the SD to either ND.
What is the Takeoff setting for Auto Brakes? ECAM CONTROL PANEL
MAX If the UPPER DISPLAY knob was switched to OFF what
What will cause the MAX AUTO BRK to activate on a would occur?
(RTO) Rejected Take Off? The E/WD display would automatically transfer to the
• Airspeed above 72 knots, and lower display.
• Thrust Levers at IDLE, and With the E/WD displayed on the lower screen, how else
• Ground spoiler extension can you view SD information?
If you lose Green hydraulic pressure will you have Auto Press and hold the appropriate system button on the
Brakes? ECAM CONTROL panel you wish to view.
No, not with the Alternate Brake system How long will this information be available?
Is Anti-skid available with Alternate Brakes? 30 seconds
Yes, if certain conditions are met What does the ALL pb do?
With spoilers not armed will the spoilers deploy for a • Displays ALL the system pages successively in 1-second
(RTO) Rejected Take Off? intervals when held down
Yes – when at least one engine is in reverse AND the • Release the pb to maintain display of the selected page
other engine is in idle

15
If you press the STS pb and the system has no STATUS What redundancy does the FADEC have?
messages what will be displayed? Dual channel redundancy – one channel is active while
“NORMAL” for 5 seconds the other is standby.
What does pressing the RCL pb? What functions does the FADEC control?
• Allows you to recall any warning or caution messages • Fuel metering
that the activation of the CLR pb or flight phase inhibition • Engine limits based on thrust lever angle
may have suppressed • Start sequencing
• If held longer than 3 seconds, the E/WD will show any • Provides engine indications and thrust limit displays on
caution messages suppressed by the EMER CANC pb the E/WD
If power fails to the ECAM CONTROL panel which What is the power source for the FADEC?
buttons are still functional? • The system has its own alternator making it independent
• EMER CANC of the aircraft electrical system when N2 is above a set
• ALL value
• CLR • If this alternator fails the FADEC automatically switches
• STS to aircraft electrical power
• RCL When will the FADEC abort a start?
What does the EMER CANC do? • Hot start
• Cancels the current Level 1 or 2 warning for the • Hung start
remainder of the flight • Stalled start
• Cancels the current Level 3 warning for that occurrence • No light up
What do you look for on the FHED check? If the FADEC detects a fault during automatic start, is
• Fuel – fuel quantity, configuration, and balance any crew intervention required?
• Hyd – hydraulic quantity No, FADEC will discontinue the start, clear engine, and
• Eng – oil quantity above 9.5 quarts + estimated attempt a restart (if warranted) automatically.
consumption (max 0.5 quarts/hour) When does the FADEC command a higher engine idle
• Door – doors closed, slides armed, crew oxygen speed?
pressure
• Bleed demands
What occurs during the Before Takeoff Checklist when • Approach Configuration
the T.O. CONFIG pb is pressed? • High engine or IDG temperatures
1. System simulates application of T.O. power and checks How many igniters fire during a Normal automatic
certain systems for proper config. ground start sequence?
2. A warning is displayed if a system is not configured
• One igniter with the other serving as a backup
properly
• The FADEC automatically alternates the igniters (A and
3. “TO CONFIG NORMAL” is displayed in the TO MEMO
B) at each start
section if the configuration is correct
TRIMMABLE HORIZONTAL STABILIZER How many igniters fire on manual or In-flight starts?
How the THS is normally operated in flight? Both A and B
The flight control computers control trim functions When does continuous ignition automatically operate?
automatically • Engine flameout detection
If NO hydraulic power is available can the THS be • Failure of the EIU
positioned? What are the 5 detent positions of the thrust levers?
No. The THS requires hydraulic power from the Green or 1. TOGA
Yellow systems. 2. FLX MCT
If a complete flight control computer failure occurs can 3. CL
the THS be positioned? 4. IDLE
5. MAX REV
Yes, mechanical trimming is possible by manually
positioning the Pitch Trim Wheel. How do you arm on the ground the A/THR?
Can you move the PITCH trim wheel if all systems are • By setting the thrust levers in the TOGA or FLEX gate
working normally? (with a FLEX temp in the MCDU)
• At least one FD must be ON for A/THR to arm during TO
Manual inputs have priority over computer inputs. The
autopilot will disconnect. What is thrust bump?
What happens to the THS after landing? On early A320 series engine models, one red switch at the
back of each thrust lever would provide a re-rate engine
The trim automatically resets to zero.
thrust up to 1.05% N1 for hi demand procedures.
What is faster, manual or auto pitch trim?
What is the active range of the A/THR?
Manual
• Just above IDLE to the CL detent (2 engines)
ENGINES / THRUST LEVERS • Just above IDLE to the MCT detent (1 engine)
What controls the engines in all operating regimes?
What is the normal operational position of the thrust
FADEC’s (Full Authority Digital Engine Controls) levers when A/THR is active?
The CL detent

16
What determines the maximum thrust the A/THR Explain the Manual start sequence.
system will be able to command? • ENG MODE to IGN/START, FADEC is powered, ECAM
The position detent of the thrust lever displays ENG page, pack valve closes
What are 3 ways to disconnect the A/THR? • ENG MAN START pb ON, start valve opens
• A/THR pb • At maximum N2 motoring speed (min 20%), ENG
• Instinctive Disconnect buttons MASTER ON
• Thrust Levers to IDLE • Observe both A+B Ignition, LP and HP fuel open, F/F
increase, EGT and N1 increase in 15 secs.
What is the preferred method of disconnecting A/THR? • N2 > 50% start valve closes, igniters off
Set the thrust levers to match the existing N1 and • ENG MAN START pb – OFF
disconnect using the instinctive disconnect pb. • Pack valve reopens with 30 sec delay (remains closed ,
How do you disconnect the A/THR for the remainder of if the other engine is started)
the flight? When is engine mode selector inhibited?
Press and hold the Instinctive Disconnect button for 15 After second engine engine start on ground if selector is
seconds. not set back to normal
What happens wif you press the A/THR instinctive TRANSPONDER
disconnect pbs for more than 15 secs? How many transponders are installed?
You lose A/Thr and αfloor for the rest of the flight 2
What happens to thrust and what annunciates on the Does illumination of the ATC FAIL light indicate loss of
FMA when you reach Alpha Floor? all transponder capability?
• Thrust – TOGA No – only the selected transponder has failed
• FMA – A.FLOOR FLAPS/SLATS
What occurs during αFloor protection after speed With only Green hydraulic system pressure available,
increases above VLS? will both the flaps and slats operate?
FMA changes to TOGA LK Yes, at 1⁄2 speed
When would Thrust Lock occur? What system prevents Flap or Slat asymmetry?
• Thrust levers in CL detent and A/THR pb on the FCU is Wing Tip Brakes (WTB)
pushed, or
• A/THR disconnects due to a failure What causes the WTB’s to activate (ROAM)?
• Runaway
How do you then regain normal A/THR? • Overspeed (flaps)
1. Move Thrust Levers to the TOGA detent • Asymmetry
2. Press the Instinctive Disconnect button • Movement (un-commanded)
3. Return Thrust Levers to CL detent
4. Push the A/THR pb to engage A/THR If the WTB activates due to a flap asymmetry can the
slats still operate?
What controls the engine LP fuel valves? Yes, only flap operation is inhibited
• Engine MASTER switch
• ENGINE FIRE pb How may Slat/Flap Control Computers (SFCC) are
installed?
What does a fault light on the ENG panel indicate? 2
• Auto Start Abort
• Switch disagreement between HP valve and its What would occur if one SFCC failed?
commanded position The slats and flaps would continue to operate, but at half
speed.
When is Alpha Floor Protection active?
From lift-off through 100 feet RA on approach What flap/slat configurations correspond to position 1
on the FLAPS lever and how do they differ?
Explain the Normal start sequence. • CONF 1+F is used for takeoff and provides both slats
• ENG MODE to IGN/START, FADEC is powered, ECAM (position 1) + flaps
displays ENG page (start valve+bleed pressure), pack • CONF 1 is used in-flight and is slats only
valve close
• ENG MASTER ON, LP fuel opens, start valve opens, When will the Automatic Retraction System (ARS)
fuel used reset, N2 increases, oil press increases operate?
• N2 > 16% Ignition (A or B) on During acceleration in CONF 1+F the FLAPS (not slats)
• N2 > 22% HP fuel valve opens will automatically retract to 0 at 210 knots.
• 15 seconds (MAX), EGT increase, N1 increase What is Alpha Lock?
• N2 > 50% start valve closes, igniter off This function inhibits retracting flaps/slats from 1 to 0 at a
• Approximately 58% gray N2 background disappears high angle of attack or low airspeed.
• Pack valve reopens with 30 sec delay (remains closed ,
if the other engine is started) When the FLAP legend appears in cyan on the upper
ECAM display what is indicated?
Flaps/slats in transit
What happens to the ailerons when the flaps are
extended?
The ailerons droop 5°

17
Which speeds are referred to handle position and When are predictive wind-shear alerts inhibited?
which to flap surface position? When on the ground above 100 knots up to 50 ft AGL
Handle: Vmo/Mmo, Vfe, Vfe next (take off or landing)
Flap: Vls, Overspeed Warning RADIO MGMT Pnl (RPM) & AUDIO CONTROL Pnl (ACP)
SPEED BRAKE/SPOILERS How are the communications radios controlled?
Is there any landing configuration when speed brake From any one of the 3 RMP’s
extension is inhibited?
Which RMP is powered in the Emergency Electrical
When Flaps FULL Configuration?
When will the ground spoilers automatically retract? RMP 1
• Thrust levers at idle and speed brake lever is down Which communication radios are powered in the
• When at least one thrust lever is advanced above IDLE Emergency Electrical Configuration?
When do the Ground Spoilers automatically extend VHF COM 1, HF 1 (HF has high electric consumption).
during rejected T/O?
What would cause the SEL indicator to illuminate on
• Armed with airspeed +72 kts: When BOTH thrust levers both RMP’s?
at IDLE
When a communication radio normally associated with
• NOT armed with airspeed + 72 kts: When at least one
one RMP is tuned by another RMP.
reverse thrust is selected on and the other engine thrust
lever at IDLE. If the NAV key is selected on either RMP, can the FMGC
still auto tune navaids?
Will ground spoilers extend if touchdown with reverse
selected and only one landing GEAR is compressed? • No, RMP now controls the VOR,ILS and ADF receivers
• NAV key on RMP 3 has no effect
Partially – Full extension is limited until both main gears
• Normal radio communication is still available
are compressed.
With INT/RAD switch in INT poss. and side stick
In flight, what happens if a spoiler fault is detected or
transmit switch keyed, what will you transmit on?
electrical power is lost?
The radio selected by its transmission key on the ACP.
The spoiler automatically retracts.
What methods would the crew utilize to make a PA
When do the Ground Spoilers automatically extend
announcement?
during landing?
• Pressing the PA switch on the ACP and using the boom,
When armed: 1-Both thrust levers IDLE.
hand, or mask microphone, or
2-Both main landing gear touched down
• The flight deck handset dedicated to the PA system only
When not armed: 1-Both main landing gear touched down
2-One reverse is selected and the other engine is IDLE. What does the illumination of the CALL light on the
VHF or HF transmission keys indicate?
When do the speed brakes inhibit?
The SELCAL system detects a call.
1. SEC1 and SEC3, both have fault.
2. A.O.A protection is active. Will the loudspeaker control knob control the loudness
3. Alpha floor activation. of the aural alert and voice messages?
4. Thrust levers above MCT. No
5. Flap full. MCDU/FLIGHT MANAGEMENT GUIDANCE SYSTEM
6. One elevator fault. (Spoiler 3, 4 inhibited). What are the main components of the FMGS?
7. When speed brake fails on one wing, the symmetric
2 FMGCs + 2 MCDUs + 1 FCU + 2 FACs
one on the other wing is inhibited.
RADAR What are the functions of the Flight Management
Guidance Computers?
How many RADAR systems are installed?
• Flight Guidance
2 (1 on some a/c)
• Flight Management
What would prevent the weather display on the ND?
What are the 3 modes of FMGC operation?
• Mode selector in PLAN
Dual, Independent or Single
• TERR selected ON
What are the 2 modes of flight guidance?
What capabilities does the RADAR system have?
Managed or Selected Guidance
• Weather avoidance
• Turbulence detection What is the Managed mode of flight guidance used for?
• Terrain mapping Long-term lateral, vertical, and speed profiles as
• Predictive wind-shear detection determined by the FMGS.
When is WX/TURB mode available? What is the selected mode of flight guidance used for?
At ranges of 40 nm or less Temporary lateral, vertical, and speed commands as
Does predictive wind-shear detection work when the selected with the FCU.
RADAR system is switched OFF? Does Selected or Managed Guidance have priority?
Yes, if the Windshear switch is in AUTO Selected Guidance
40What is the scanned area of the predictive What type of database is periodically updated in the
wind-shear detection feature? FMGS?
Up to 5 nm ahead of the aircraft when the aircraft is below Navigation database
1,500 feet AGL
18
Can the crew modify data in the navigation database? If during an engine start with the parking brake ON, the
The crew has limited ability to create pilot stored aircraft starts to move due to a parking brake failure,
navigational data. what must you quickly do?
How do you determine the validity of the navigation Release the PARKING BRAKE handle to restore Normal
database? braking with the pedals.
On the Aircraft Status page AFT PEDESTAL MISC
When hand flying the aircraft can we trim the rudder?
What input does each FMGC use for position
determination? Yes, by using the RUDDER TRIM rotary switch
A hybrid IRS/GPS position When A/P is active, can we trim the rudder manually?
What is the normal operational mode of the FMGS? No, knob selector is inhibited
Dual mode, with one FMGS as master and the other What happens if you turn the Rudder Trim with the
FMGS as slave autopilot engaged?
How does autopilot selection influence master FMGS Nothing
logic? What is the RUD TRIM button used for?
• If one autopilot is engaged, the respective FMGS is To reset the rudder trim to 0°
master Does the rudder RESET button work with the autopilot
• If both autopilots are engaged, FMGS 1 will be the engaged?
master
No
If amber OFF SIDE FM CONTROL message is displayed
Is there any feedback in the rudder pedals from the yaw
on ND what action should the crew take?
damping or turn coordination functions?
An FMGS has failed and both ND’s must be set to the
No
same mode and range.
NOSE WHEEL STEERING
Can both autopilots be engaged during any phase of
What hydraulic system supplies nose wheel steering?
flight?
Yellow
No, only during an ILS approach
The steering hand wheels can steer the nose wheel up
What is the difference between the large and small
to how much in each direction?
fonts utilized in the MCDU?
±75° up to 20kts, progressively reduced to 0° by 80kts.
• Large – Pilot entries and modifiable data
• Small – Default/computed non-modifiable data When using the rudder pedals for steering, when does
the steering angle begin to reduce?
When would a Takeoff Shift be entered on the PERF TO
page? Starts reduction at 40 knots and progressively reduces to
zero degrees at 130 knots.
When takeoff begins at a runway intersection.
What does the rudder PEDAL DISC button on the
What will occur if the FLEX thrust is selected for Toff
steering hand wheel do?
with no flex temp?
Pressing the button removes control of nose wheel
• A warning will be generated
steering from the rudder pedals until released.
• Continue to move the thrust levers to the TOGA detent
and execute a max thrust takeoff What would occur if the A/SKID & N/W STRG switch
were selected to OFF?
Where do you enter ZFW?
• Nose wheel steering is lost
Init B page or FUEL PRED (if engines started)
• Anti-skid is deactivated
What does an amber box prompted on the MCDU • Yellow hydraulic system would supply the brakes
mean? FLIGHT CONTROL LAWS
An entry is mandatory How many flight control law do we have?
What occurs if flying managed NAV and the aircraft 1. Normal law
flies into a flight plan discontinuity? 2. Alternate law(with protection-without protection)
NAV mode will be lost and the HDG/TRK mode engages. 3. Direct law
PARKING BRAKE 4. Mechanical backup
What effect does setting the Parking Brake has on 5. Abnormal attitude law
other braking modes? Can you exceed Normal law limits?
All other braking modes and anti-skid are deactivated. No
By what means is the parking brake activated when you What protections do you have in Normal Law?
turn ON the Parking Brake handle? 1. High Speed
Electrically 2. High Angle of Attack (AOA α-protection)
Is it required to depress the brake pedals while setting 3. Load Factor Limitation (+2.5 / -1.0, or +2.0 / 0)
the Parking Brake? 4. Pitch Attitude (30°- 25°- UP/15° DN)
5. Bank Angle (67° max, or 45°, or 40°)
No
In alternate law, what happen to pitch and roll and yaw?
How do you verify the Parking Brake is set?
Pitch : load factor demand with auto trim.
• ECAM PARKING BRK memo
Roll : direct law (no bank angle protection)
• Triple indicator brake pressure
Yaw : yaw damping only
19
How does the High Speed Protection operate? What PFD indications indicate Normal Law?
If VMO/MMO plus a predetermined factor is exceeded, the • Green = for pitch, bank, and overspeed limits
system induces a pitch-up input to limit aircraft speed. • Amber/black (alpha prot) airspeed tape
When do we expect the flight controls to refer to direct What protections do you have in Direct Law?
law? What protection or warnings are available? None
Most likely when selecting gear down with alternate law, What is indicated if the PFD pitch and bank limits are
it’s a direct stick to elevator relationship that varies with amber X’s?
CG (pitch) and also a direct stick to surfaces relation
You are not in Normal Law
(aileron or spoilers) that varies with configuration (roll).
Aircraft handles like conventional A/C. No protection is What would cause you to revert to another law?
available, you have manual trim, stall and over speed Multiple failures of redundant systems
warning are also available. Being in Alternate Law, in which condition extending
If angle of attack (AOA) is active, what is the bank angle L/G will not change A/C to Direct Law?
limit? When in Abnormal low Attitude
Maximum 45° and if released it goes back to 33° In Alternate law, when does the aircraft go to Flare
If high speed protection is active, what is the bank mode?
angle limit? With landing gear down
Maximum bank is 40° and if released it returns to 0° What law are you in when you perform the flight control
Can the pilot override this pitch-up? check on the ground?
No Normal Law, Ground Mode
What is Alpha Max? How is the airplane controlled in Mechanical Backup?
The maximum angle of attack allowed in Normal Law, • Pitch – Trim wheel (horizontal stabilizer)
indicated by the top of the red strip on the airspeed scale. • Yaw – Rudder pedals (rudder)
How does High Angle of Attack Protection operate? • Speed – Thrust levers
This protection has priority above all others protections as Can the aircraft be flown with a loss of all flight control
it prevent A/C from stalling, and ensures optimum computers?
performance in extreme maneuvers like winds-hear and Yes, with Mechanical Backup
EGPW recovery. When the angle of attack exceeds α-prot, Explain α-protection:
pitch trim ceases and angle of attack is now proportional
Is a high angle of attack protection which prevents aircraft
to side-stick deflection, not to exceed αMax even with full
from increasing angle beyond αMax, thus, avoiding
aft side-stick deflection.
entering a stall. When the angle of attack exceeds α-prot,
Can you stall the aircraft in Normal Law? (beginning of black-orange tape) pitch trim ceases and
Not in Normal Law, but the aircraft can be stalled in all angle of attack is now proportional to side-stick deflection,
other laws. not to exceed αMax (base of black-orange tape) even with
How many type of Alternate law, what protection is full aft side-stick deflection.
available for each one? A/T goes to TOGA regardless of engagement mode or
TLA position.
1- Alternate law with protection (Load factor and High and
A/P is disconnects and speed brakes would be retracted.
Low speed stability) or
2- Alternate law without protections (onlyLoad factor)
Can you override the high or low stabilities in Alternate
Law?
Yes
If you are in Pitch Alternate Law, what law would Roll
be?
Direct Law
When the landing gear is extended, what happens to
Pitch Alternate Law?
Degrades to Pitch Direct Law
How would you get into Abnormal Law?
By exceeding approximately double the Normal Law limits.
What is the purpose of Abnormal Alternate Law?
Allows the aircraft to be recovered from an unusual
attitude
After recovery from an unusual attitude, what law will
you be in?
Abnormal
In abnormal attitude law, do we refer to direct law when
selecting landing gear down?
No, this mode last until landing
20