MOCK BOARD EXAMINATION

CRIMINAL JURISPRUDENCE

INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. Write
the letter of your choice on the answer sheet provided.

1. Badong, with evident premeditation and treachery killed his father. What was the
crime committed?
a. Murder
b. Parricide
c. Homicide
d. Qualified Homicide

2. PO3 Bagsik entered the dwelling of Totoy against the latter’s will on suspicion
that Totoy keep unlicensed firearms in his home. What was the crime
committed by PO3 Bagsik?
a. Trespass to Dwelling
b. Violation of Domicile
c. Usurpation Of Authority
d. Forcible Trespassing

3. Berung and Betang had been married for more than six months. They live
together with the children of Betang from her first husband. Berung had sexual
relationship with Bea, the 14 year old daughter of Betang. Bea love Berung
very much. What was the crime committed by Berung, if any?
a. Simple Seduction
b. Qualified Seduction
c. Consented Abduction
d. Rape

4. Prof. Juan gave a failing grade to one of his students, Sixto. When the two
met the following day, Sixto slapped Prof. Juan on the face. What was the crime
committed by Sixto?
a. Corruption of Public Officials
b. Direct Assault
c. Slight Physical Injuries
d. Grave Coercion

5. A warrant of arrest was issued against Pekto for the killing of his parents. When
PO2 Tapang tried to arrest him, Pekto gave him 1 million Pesos to set him free.
PO2 Tapang refrained in arresting Pekto. What was the crime committed by
PO2 Tapang?
a. Indirect Bribery
b. Direct Bribery
c. Corruption of Public Officials
 d. Qualified Bribery

6. Exemption to the hearsay rule made under the consciousness of an impending

death.
a. parol evidence b. ante mortem statement
c. suicide note d. dead man statute

7. The meaning of factum probans.

a. preponderance of evidence
b. ultimate fact
c. evidentiary fact
d. sufficiency of evidence

8. It refers to family history or descent transmitted from one generation to another.

a. inheritance
b. heritage
c. pedigree
d. culture

9. The authority of the court to take cognisance of the case in the first instance.
a. Appellate Jurisdiction
b. General Jurisdiction
c. Original Jurisdiction
d. Exclusive Jurisdiction

10. A person designated by the court to assist destitute litigants.

a. Counsel de officio
b. Attorney on record
c. Attorney at law
d. Special counsel

11. Which of the following is not covered by the Rules on Summary Procedure?
a. Violation of rental laws
b. Violation of traffic laws
c. The penalty is more than six months of imprisonment
d. The penalty does not exceed 6 months imprisonment

12. It refers to a territorial unit where the power of the court is to be exercised.
a. jurisdiction b. jurisprudence
c. venue d. bench

13. The Anti-Bouncing Check Law.

a. RA 6425 b. RA 8353
c. BP 22 d. RA 6975
14. The taking of another person’s personal property, with intent to gain, by means of
force and intimidation.
a. qualified theft b. robbery
c. theft d. malicious mischief

15. Felony committed when a person compels another by means of force, violence
or intimidation to do something against his will, whether right or wrong.
a. grave threat b. grave coercion
c. direct assault d. slander by deed

16. Persons having no apparent means of subsistence but has the physical ability to
work and neglects to apply himself or herself to lawful calling.
a. pimps b. prostitutes
c. gang members d. vagrants

17. A medley of discordant voices, a mock serenade of discordant noises designed

to annoy and insult.
a. tumultuous b. charivari
c. sedition d. scandal

18. The unauthorized act of a public officer who compels another person to change
his residence.
a. violation of domicile b. arbitrary detention
c. expulsion d. direct assault

19. The deprivation of a private person of the liberty of another person without legal
grounds.
a. illegal detention b. arbitrary detention
c. forcible abduction d. forcible detention

20. An offense committed by a married woman through carnal knowledge with a man
not her husband who knows her to be married, although the marriage be later
declared void.
a. concubinage b. bigamy
c. adultery d. immorality

21. Age of absolute irresponsibility in the commission of a crime.

a. 15-18 years old b. 18-70 years old
c. 9 years old and below d. between 9 & 15 years old

22. Those who, not being principals cooperate in the execution of the offense by
previous or simultaneous acts.
a. accomplices b. suspects
c. principal actors d. accessories
23. The loss or forfeiture of the right of the government to execute the final sentence
after the lapse of a certain time fixed by law.
a. prescription of crime
b. prescription of prosecution
c. prescription of judgement
d. prescription of penalty

24. A kind of executive clemency whereby the execution of penalty is suspended.

a. pardon b. commutation
c. amnesty d. reprieve

25. Infractions of mere rules of convenience designed to secure a more orderly

regulation of the affairs of the society.
a. mala prohibita b. mala in se
c. private crimes d. public crimes

26. Felony committed by a public officer who agrees to commit an act in

consideration of a gift and this act is connected with the discharge of his public
duties.
a. qualified bribery b. direct bribery
c. estafa d. indirect bribery

27. The wilful and corrupt assertion of falsehood under oath of affirmation,
administered by authority of law on a material matter.
a. libel b. falsification
c. perjury d. slander

28. Deliberate planning of act before execution.

a. treachery b. evident premeditation
c. ignominy d. cruelty

29. Whenever more than 3 armed malefactors shall have acted together in the
commission of a crime.
a. gang b. conspiracy
c. band d. piracy

30. The failure to perform a positive duty which one is bound to.
a. negligence b. imprudence
c. omission d. act

31. Ways and means are employed for the purpose of trapping and capturing the law
breaker in the execution of his criminal plan.
a. misfeasance b. entrapment
c. inducement d. instigation
32. Those where the act committed is a crime but for reasons of public policy and
sentiment there is no penalty imposed.
a. impossible crimes
b. aggravating circumstances
c. absolutory causes
d. complex crimes

33. An alternative circumstance.

a. insanity b. intoxication
c. passion or obfuscation d. evident premeditation

34. If the accused refuse to plead, or make conditional plea of guilty, what shall be
entered for him?
a. a plea of not guilty b. a plea of guilty
c. a plea of mercy d.plea of surrender

35. At what time may the accused move to quash the complaint or information?
a. at any time before his arrest
b. only after entering his plea
C. any time before entering his plea
d. Monday morning

36. The process whereby the accused and the prosecutor in a criminal case work out
a mutually satisfactory disposition on the case subject to court approval.
a. arraignment b. plea bargaining
c. preliminary investigation d. trial

37. The security given for the release of a person in custody, furnished by him or a
bondsman, conditioned upon his appearance before any court as required under
the conditions specified by law.
a. subpoena b. recognizance
c. bail d. warrant

38. The examination before a competent tribunal, according to the laws of the land,
of the acts in issue in a case, for the purpose of determining such issue.
a. trial b. arraignment
b. pre-trial d. judgment

39. The adjudication by the court that the accused is guilty or is not guilty of the
offense charged, and the imposition of the proper penalty and civil liability
provided for by law on the accused.
a. trial b. pre-trial
c. arraignment d. judgment
40. It is an inquiry or proceeding for the purpose of determining whether there is
sufficient ground to engender a well founded belief that an offense has been
committed and the offender is probably guilty thereof and should be held for trial.
a. pre-trial b. arraignment
c. preliminary investigation d. plea bargaining

41. It is evidence of the same kind and to the same state of facts.
a. secondary evidence b. prima facie evidence
c. corroborative evidence d. best evidence

42. It is that which, standing alone, unexplained or uncontradicted is sufficient to

maintain the proposition affirmed.
a. secondary evidence b. prima facie evidence
c. corroborative evidence d. best evidence

43. A form of evidence supplied by written instruments or derived from conventional

symbols, such as letters, by which ideas are represented on material substances.
a. documentary evidence b.testimonial evidence
c. material evidence d. real evidence

44. When the witness states that he did not see or know the occurrence of a fact.
a. positive evidence b.corroborative evidence
c. secondary evidence d. negative evidence

45. Personal property that can be subjects for search and seizure.
a. used or intended to be used as means in committing an offense
b. stolen or embezzled and other proceeds or fruits of the offense
c. subject of the offense
d. all of the above

46. All persons who can perceive and perceiving, can make known their perception
to others.
a. suspects b. witnesses
c. victims d. informers

47. The unlawful destruction, or the bringing forth prematurely, of human fetus before
the natural time of birth which results in death.
a. abortion b. infanticide
c. murder d. parricide

48. Felony committed when a person is killed or wounded during the confusion
attendant to a quarrel among several persons not organized into groups and the
parties responsible cannot be ascertained.
a. alarm and scandal
b. mysterious homicide
c. death under exceptional circumstances
 d. tumultuous affray

49. A question which arises in a case the resolution of which is the logical
antecedent of the issue involved in said case and the cognisance of which
pertains to another rtribunal.
a. legal question b. juridical question
c. prejudicial question d. judicial question

50. The offender has been previously punished for an offense to which the law
attaches an equal or greater penalty or two or more crimes to which it attaches a
lighter penalty.
a. reiteracion b. recidivism
b. quasi-recidivism d. habitual delinquency

51. An act or omission which is a result of a misapprehension of facts that is

voluntary but not intentional.
a. impossible crime b. mistake of facts
c. accidental crime d. complex crime

52. Infanticide is committed by killing a child not more than….

a. 36 hours b. 24 hours
c. 48 hours d. 72 hours

53. Ignorance of the law excuses no one from compliance therewith.

a. ignorantia legis non excusat b. parens patriae
c. res ipsa loquitur d. dura lex sed lex

54. An act which would be an offense against persons or property were if not for the
inherent impossibility of its accomplishment.
a. compound crime b. impossible crime
c. complex crime d. accidental crime

55. The law which reimposed the death penalty.

a. RA 5425 b. RA 8553
c. RA 7659 d. RA 8551

56. One who is deprived completely of reason or discernment and freedom of the will
at the time of the commission of the crime.
a. discernment b. insanity
c. epilepsy d. imbecility

57. The quality by which an act may be subscribed to a person as its owner or
author.
a. responsibility b. duty
c. guilt d. imputability
58. Something that happen outside the sway of our will, and although it comes about
through some acts of our will, lies beyond the bounds of humanly foreseeable
consequences.
a. fortuitous event b. fate
c. accident d. destiny

59. A sworn written statement charging a person with an offense, subscribed by the
offended party , any peace officer or other public officer charged with the
enforcement of the law violated.
a. subpoena b. information
c. complaint d. writ

60. This right of the accused is founded on the principle of justice and is intended
not to protect the guilty but to prevent as far as human agencies can, the
conviction of an innocent person.
a. right to due process of law
b. presumption of innocence
c. right to remain silent
d. right against self-incrimination

61. Known in other countries as the body of principles, practices, usages and rules of
action which are not recognized in our country.
a. penal laws b. special laws
c. common laws d. statutory laws

62. Circumstances wherein there is an absence in the agent of the crime any of all
the conditions that would make an act voluntary and hence, though there is no
criminal liability there is civil liability.
a. exempting b. alternative
c. justifying d. aggravating

63. Circumstances wherein the acts of the person are in accordance with the law,
and hence, he incurs no criminal and civil liability.
a. exempting b. alternative
c. justifying d. aggravating

64. When the offender enjoys and delights in making his victim suffer slowly and
gradually, causing him unnecessary physical pain in the consummation of the
criminal act.
a. ignominy b. cruelty
c. treachery d. masochism

65. One, who at the time of his trial for one crime shall have been previously
convicted by final judgment of another crime embraced in the same title of the
Revised Penal Code.
a. recidivism b. habitual delinquency
 c. reiteracion d. quasi-recidivism

66. Alevosia means

a. craft b. treachery
c. evident premeditation d. cruelty

67. The law hears before it condemns, proceeds upon inquiry and render judgment
after a fair trial.
a. ex post facto law
b. equal protection of the law
c. rule of law
d. due process of law

68. A person if within a period of 10 years from the date of his release or last
conviction of the crime of serious or less serious physical injuries, robbery, theft,
estafa or falsification, he is found guilty of any of the said crimes a third time or
oftener.
a. recidivist b. quasi-recidivist
c. habitual delinquent d. hardened criminal

69. A kind of evidence which cannot be rebutted or overcome.

a. Primary b. Best
c. Secondary d. Conclusive

70. A kind of evidence which cannot be rebutted or overcome.

a. Primary b. Best
c. Secondary d. Conclusive

71. These questions suggest to the witness the answers to which an examining party
requires.
a. leading b. misleading
c. stupid d. hearsay

72. A method fixed by law for the apprehension and prosecution of persons alleged
to have committed a crime, and for their punishment in case of conviction.
a. Criminal Law b. Criminal Evidence
c. Criminal Procedure d. Criminal Jurisprudence

73. The period of prescription of crimes punishable by death.

a. 20 years b. 15 years
c. 10 years d. 40 years

74. Persons who take direct part in the execution of a crime.

a. accomplices b. accessories
c. instigators d. principals
75. A crime against honor which is committed by performing any act which casts
dishonor, discredit, or contempt upon another person.
a. libel
b. slander by deed
c. incriminating innocent person
d. intriguing against honor

76. The improper performance of some act which might lawfully be done.
a. misfeasance b. malfeasance
c. nonfeasance d. dereliction

77. A sworn statement in writing, made upon oath before an authorized magistrate or
officer.
a. subpoena b. writ
c. warrant d. affidavit

78. Any other name which a person publicly applies to himself without authority of
law.
a. alias b. common name
c. fictitious name d. screen name

79. A special aggravating circumstance where a person, after having been convicted
by final judgment, shall commit a new felony before beginning to serve such
sentence, or while serving the same.
a. quasi-recidivism b. recidivism
c. reiteracion d. charivari

80. Which of the following is not a person in authority.

a. Municipal mayor b. Private School Teacher
c. Police Officer d. Municipal Councilor

81. In its general sense, it is the raising of commotions or disturbances in the State.
a. Sedition b. Rebellion
c. Treason d. Coup d’ etat

82. The length of validity of a search warrant from its date.

a. 30 days b. 15 days
c. 10 days d. 60 days

83. The detention of a person without legal grounds by a public officer or employee.
a. illegal detention b. arbitrary detention
c. compulsory detention d. unauthorized detention

84. A breach of allegiance to a government, committed by a person who owes

allegiance to it.
a. treason b. espionage
 c. rebellion d. coup d’ etat

85. A building or structure, exclusively used for rest and comfort.

a. sanctuary b. prison
c. jail d. dwelling

86. The mental capacity to understand the difference between right and wrong.
a. treachery b. premeditation
c. recidivism d. discernment

87. Conspiracy to commit this felony is punishable under the law.

a. Estafa b. Murder
c. Rebellion d. Rape

88. It means that the resulting injury is greater than that which is intended.
a. Aberratio ictus b. Error in personae
c. Dura Lex Sed lex d. Praeter Intentionem

89. It means mistake in the blow.

a. Aberratio Ictus b. Error in Personae
c. Dura lex sed lex d. Praeter Intentionem

90. A stage of execution when all the elements necessary for its execution and
accomplishment are present.
a. Attempted b. Frustrated
c. Consummated d. Accomplished

91. An act or omission which is the result of a misapprehension of facts that is

voluntary but not intentional.
a. Absolutory Cause b. Mistake of facts
c. Conspiracy d. Felony

92. Crimes that have three stages of execution.

a. Material b. Formal
c. Seasonal d. Continuing

93. Felonies where the acts or omissions of the offender are malicious.
a. Culpable b. Intentional
c. Deliberate d. Inculpable

94. It indicates deficiency of perception.

a. Negligence b. Diligence
c. Imprudence d. Inference

95. Acts and omissions punishable by special penal laws.

a. Offenses b. Misdemeanours
 c. Felonies d. Ordinances

96. A character of Criminal Law, making it binding upon all persons who live or
sojourn in the Philippines.
a. General b. Territorial
c. Prospective d. Retroactive

97. A legislative act which inflicts punishment without judicial trial.

a. Bill of Attainder b. Bill of Rights
c. Ex Post Facto Law d. Penal Law

98. The taking of a person into custody in order that he may bound to answer for the
commission of an offense.
a. Search b. Seizure
c. Arrest d. Detention

99. Pedro stole the cow of Juan. What was the crime committed?
a. Robbery b. Farm Theft
c. Qualified Theft d. Simple Theft

100. Pedro, a 19 year old man had sexual intercourse with her 11 year old girlfriend
without threat, force or intimidation. What was the crime committed?
a. Child rape b. Qualified Rape
c. Statutory Rape d. None

ANSWER KEY- CRIMINAL JURISPRUDENCE

1. B 26. B 51. B 76. A

2. B 27. C 52. D 77. D

3. B 28. B 53. A 78. A

4. B 29. C 54. B 79. A

5. D 30. C 55. C 80. C

6. D 31. B 56. D 81. A

7. C 32. C 57. D 82. C

8. C 33. B 58. C 83. B

9. C 34. A 59. C 84. A

10. A 35. C 60. B 85. D

11. C 36. B 61. C 86. D

12. C 37. C 62. A 87. C

13. C 38. A 63. C 88. D

14. B 39. D 64. B 89. A

15. B 40. C 65. A 90. C

16. D 41. C 66. B 91. B

17. B 42. B 67. D 92. A

18. C 43. A 68. C 93. A

19. A 44. D 69. D 94. A

20. C 45. D 70. D 95. A

21. C 46. B 71. A 96. A

22. A 47. A 72. C 97. A

23. D 48. D 73. A 98. C

24. D 49. C 74. D 99. C

25. A 50. A 75. B 100. C

 MOCK BOAD EXAMINATION IN CRIMINALISTICS

INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. Write
the letter of your choice on the answer sheet provided.

1. There is freehand invitation and is considered as the most skilful class of forgery.
a. simulated or copied forgery b. simple forgery
c. traced forgery d. carbon tracing

2. Condensed and compact set of authentic specimen which is adequate and

proper,
should contain a cross section of the material from known sources.
a. disguised document b. questioned document
c. standard document d. requested document

3. Specimens of hand writing or of typescript which is of known origin.

a. letters b. samples
c. exemplars d. documents

4. A document which is being questioned because of its origin, its contents or the
circumstances or the stories of its production.
a. disputed document b. standard document
c. requested document d. questioned document

5. The art of beautiful writing.

a. drafting b. calligraphy
c. art appreciation d. gothic

6. Any written instrument by which a right or obligation is established.

a. certificate b. subpoena
c. warrant d. document

7. A type of fingerprint pattern in which the slope or downward flow of the innermost
sufficient recurve is towards the thumb of radius bone of the hand of origin.
a. ulnar loop b. tented arch
c. accidental whorl d. radial loop

8. The forking or dividing of one line to two or more branches.

a. ridge b. island
c. delta d. bifurcation

9. The point on a ridge at or in front of and nearest the center of the divergence of
the type lines.
a. divergence b. island
c. delta d. bifurcation
10. The following are considerations used for the identification of a loop except one:
a. a delta b. a core
c. a sufficient recurve d. a ridge count across a looping bridge

11. The process of recording fingerprint through the use of fingerprint ink.
a. pathology b. fingerprinting
c. dactyloscopy d. printing press

12. The fingerprint method of identification.

a. pathology b. fingerprinting
c. dactyloscopy d. printing press

13. Two lines that run parallel or nearly parallel, diverge and surround the pattern
area.
a. ridges b. delta
c. type line d. bifurcation

14. A part of the whorl or loop in which appear the cores, deltas and ridges.
a. type line b. bifurcation
c. pattern area d. forrow

15. Fingerprints left on various surfaces at the crime scene which are not clearly
visible.
a. plane impressions b. visible fingerprints
c. rolled impressions d. latent fingerprints

16. The impressions left by the patterns of ridges and depressions on various
surfaces.
a. kiss marks b. finger rolls
c. thumb marks d. fingerprints

17. Which among the following is not considered as a basic fingerprint pattern?
a. arch b. accidental
c. loop d. whorl

18. The minimum identical characteristics to justify the identity between two points.
a. eighteen b. fifteen
c. twelve d. nine

19. A fingerprint pattern in which the ridges form a sequence of spirals around core
axes.
a. whorl b. double loop
c. central pocket loop d. accidental
20. A fingerprint pattern which one or more ridges enter on either side of the
impression by a recurve, and terminate on the same side where the ridge has
entered.
 a. loop b. radial loop
c. ulnar loop d. tented arch

21. A person allowed to give an opinion or conclusion on a given scientific evidence.

a. interrogator b. expert witness
c. prosecutor d. judge

22. The application of scientific knowledge and techniques in the detection of crime
and apprehension of criminals.
a. Law Enforcement Administration b. Forensic Administration
c. Criminal Psychology d. Criminalistics

23. Lens that is characterized by a thicker center and thinner sides.

a. concave lens b. convex lens
c. negative lens d. positive lens

24. The normal developing time of a paper or film.

a. 30-60 minutes b. 20-30 minutes
c. 5-10 minutes d. 1- 2 minutes

25. This part of a camera is used to allow light to enter through the lens for a
predetermined time interval.
a. holder of sensitised material b. view finder
c. shutter d. view finder

26. A lens with a focal length of less than the diagonal of its negative material.
a. telephoto lens b. long lens
c. normal lens d. wide angle lens

27. Chemical used as an accelerator in a developer solution.

a. Potassium Bromide b. Sodium Carbonate
c. Sodium Sulfite d. Hydroquinone

28. A part of a camera used in focusing the light from the subject
a. view finder b. lens
c. shutter d. light tight box

29. A component of the polygraph instrument which records the breathing of the
subject.
a. cardiosphygmograph b. pneumograph
c. galvanograph d. kymograph

30. A component of the polygraph instrument which records the blood pressure and
the pulse rate of the subject.
a. cardiosphygmograph b. pneumograph
c. galvanograph d. kymograph
31. A component of the polygraph instrument which is a motor that drives or pulls the
chart paper under the recording pen simultaneously at the rate of 6 or 12 inches
per minute.
a. cardiosphygmograph b. pneumograph
c. galvanograph d. kymograph

32. The following are specific rules to be followed in the formulation of the questions
in a polygraph test except one.
a. Questions must be clear and phrased in a language the subject can
easily understand.
b. Questions must be answerable by yes or no.
c. Questions must be as short as possible.
d. Questions must all be in the form of accusations

33. In “ polygraph examination”, the term “ examination” means a detection of

a. forgery b. emotion
c. the mind d. deception

34. It refers to an emotional response to a specific danger, which appears to go

beyond a person’s defensive power.
a. fear b. stimuli
c. response d. reaction

35. The primary purpose of pre-test interview.

a. Prepare subject for polygraph test
b. Obtain confession
c. Make the subject calm
d. Explain the polygraph test procedures

36. The deviation from normal tracing of the subject in the relevant question.
a. positive response b. specific response
c. normal response d. reaction

37. The study of the effect of the impact of a projectile on the target.
a. Terminal Ballistics b. Internal Ballistics
c. External Ballistics d. Forensic Ballistics

38. The unstable rotating motion of the bullet.

a. Trajectory b. yaw
c. Velocity d. gyroscopic action

39. The part of the mechanism of a firearm that withdraws the shell or cartridge from
the chamber.
a. extractor b. ejector
c. striker d. trigger
40, The pattern or curved path of the bullet in flight.
a. yaw b. range
c. velocity d. trajectory

41. This refers to the deflection of the bullet from its normal path after striking a
resistant surface.
a. misfire b. mushroom
c. ricochet d. key hole shot

42. A type of primer with two vents or flash holes.

a. Bordan primer b. Berdan Primer
c. Baterry Primer d. Boxer Primer

43. This refers to the helical grooves cut in the interior surface of the bore.
a. swaging b. ogive
c. rifling d. breaching

44. It refers to the unstable rotating motion of the bullet.

a. trajectory b. yaw
c. velocity d. gyproscopic action

45. It is the measurement of the bore diameter from land to land.

a. calibre b. mean diameter
c. gauge c. rifling

46. He is known as the Father of Ballistics.

a. Hans Gross b. Charles Waite
c. Albert Osborne d. Calvin Goddard

47. A document in which some issues have been raised or is under scrutiny.
a. Void Document b. Illegal Document
c. Forged Document d. Questioned Document

48. The following are characteristics of forgery except one:

a. Presence of Natural Variation
b. Multiple Pen Lifts
c. Show bad quality of ink lines
d. Patchwork Appearance

49. Standards which are prepared upon the request of the investigator and for the
purpose of comparison with the questioned document.
a. relative standards b. collected standards
c. extended standards d. requested standards

50. Any stroke which goes back over another writing stroke.
a. natural variation b. rhythm
 c. retracing d. shading

51. The name of a person written by him/her in a document as a sign of

acknowledgement.
a. opinion b. document
c. signature d. handwriting

52. A kind of document which is executed by a private person without the

intervention of a notary public, or of competent public official, by which some
disposition of agreement is proved.
a. commercial document b. official document
c. public document d. private document

53. An instrument that can be legally used in comparison with a questioned

document, its origin is known and can be proven.
a. simulated document b. forged document
c. standard document d. compared document

54. The process of making out what is illegible or what has been effaced.
a. comparison b. collation
c. obliteration d. decipherment

55. A document which contains some changes either as an addition or deletion.

a. inserted document b. altered document
c. disputed document d. obliterated document

56. A kind of erasure by using a rubber eraser, sharp knife, razor blade or picking
instrument.
a. mechanical erasure b. electronic erasure
c. magnetic erasure d. chemical erasure

57. It is the periodic increase in pressure, characterized by widening of the ink

stroke.
a. shading b. pen lift
c. pen emphasis d. pen pressure

58. A kind of document executed by a person in authority and by private parties but
notarised by competent officials.
a. private document b. commercial document
c. public document d. official document

59. The detection and identification of poisons.

a. bacteriology b. posology
c. toxicology d. chemistry
60. The specimen which is preferably used in the determination of abused drugs in
the body.
a. blood b. saliva
c. body fluid d. urine

61. A forensic chemist is tasked to examine the chemical nature and composition of
the following except one:
a. fingerprint ` b. explosives
c. blood d. body fluids

62. Who qualifies a forensic chemist as expert?

a. defense lawyer b. judge
c. prosecutor d. the chemist himself/herself

63. Methamphetamine hydrochloride is commonly known as

a. cocaine b. LSD
c. heroin d. shabu

64. An area surrounding the place where the crime occurred.

a. crime scene b. police line
c. area of operation d. area of responsibility

65. The body of the crime.

a. evidence b. body of the victim
c. criminology d. corpus delicti

66. Its source is the opium poppy.

a. demeral b. caffeine
c. morphine d. nicotine

67. Number restoration is necessary in determining whether there is tampering of

serial number in
a. typewriter b. firearm
c. prisoners d. bank notes

68. In forensic examination, a tip of the hair is examined to determine if it was

a. bend b. folded
c. stretched d. cut

69. All of the following are accurate tests for the presence of alcohol in the human
body except one:
a. saliva test b. Harger Breath Test
c. fecal test d. blood test

70. The application of chemical principles and processes in the examination of

evidence.
 a. Forensic Medicine b. Forensic Evidence
c. Criminalistics d. Forensic Chemistry

71. Volatile poisons may be isolated by means of this process.

a. dialysis b. dilution
c. distillation d. extracti
on
72. The process in reproducing a physical evidence by plaster moulds.
a. casting b. cementing
b. moulage d. sticking

73. The test used to determine the presence of semen particularly in stained
clothing.
a. Florence Test b. Barberio’s Test
c. Microscopic Test d. Ultra-Violet Test

74. The test used to determine the presence of blood in stained material.
a. Florence Test b. Barberio’s Test
c. Takayama Test d. Phenolphtalein Test

75. It is the major component of a glass.

a. Lime b. Soda
c. Silica d. Gel

76. Poisons which produce stupor and less feeling.

a. Narcotics b. Irritants
c. Depressants d. Stimulants

77. A supercooled liquid which possess high viscosity and rigidity.

a. dry ice b. cartridge case
b. gel d. glass

78. The study and identification of body fluids.

a. Pharmacology b. Serology
c. Posology d. Immunology

79. The test to determine whether blood is of human origin or not.

a. Blood typing b. Precipitin Test
c. Confirmatory Test d. Preliminary Test

80. The circulating tissue of the body.

a. Blood b. Cells
c. Muscles d. Liver

81. The complete, continuous, persistent cessation of respiration, circulation and

almost all brain function of an organism.
 a. Apparent death b. Molecular death
c. Cellular Death d. Somatic death

82. The approximate time for the completion of one case for DNA Testing.
a. minimum of eight weeks b. minimum of six weeks
c. minimum of four weeks d. minimum of two weeks

83. It stands for DNA.

a. Deonatural Acid b. Deoxyribonucleic Acid
c. Denaturalized Acid d. Deonucleic Acid

84. The Geneticist from Great Britain who pioneered DNE testing and fingerprinting.
a. Alec Jeffries b. Lowell C. Van Berkom
c. William Reynolds d. Henry Van Dyke

85. The cause of death of a person who immediately died because of lack of oxygen
for around 3 to five minutes.
a. Stroke b. Asphyxia
c. Stupor d. Exhaustion

86. The most serious burn involving skin, nerves, muscles and bones, causing death
due to loss of fluids and electrolytes in the body and massive infection.
a. First Degree Burn b. Second Degree Burn
c. Third Degree Burn d. Sunburn

87. A discoloration of the body after death when the blood tends to pool in the blood
vessels of the most dependent portions of the body and starts 20 to 30 minutes
after death and is completed by 12 hours.
a. livor mortis b. primary flaccidity
c. maceration d. rigor mortis

88. A wound which if inflicted in the body so serious that it will endanger one’s life.
a. mortal wound b. trauma
c. coup injury d. superficial wound

89. A wound produced by a blunt instrument such as club and stone.

a. incised wound b. hack wound
c. lacerated wound d. punctured wound

90. A displacement of the articular surface of the bone without external wounds.
a. hematoma b. fracture
c. sprain d. dislocation

91. A condition of exposure to cold temperature of certain parts of the body which
produces mechanical disruption of cell structure characterized by cold stiffening
and diminished body.
 a. immersion foot b. trench foot
c. frostbite d. gangrene

92. A condition of a woman who have had one or more sexual experience but not
had conceived a child.
a. virgo-intacts b. demi-virginity
c. moral virginity d. physical virginity

93. Fixed discoloration of the blood, clothed inside the blood vessels or has diffused
to different parts of the body.
a. hypostatic lividity b. diffusion lividity
c. hyper lividity d. rigor mortis

94. Things used by a person in the commission of a crime, or objects left in a crime
scene which are the subjects of criminalistics.
a. testimonial evidence b. hearsay evidence
c. circumstancial evidence d. physical evidence

95. The science dealing with the motion of a projectile and the conditions governing
that motion.
a. Ballistics b. Forensic ballistics
c. Terminal Ballistics d. External Ballistics

96. The application of medical knowledge in the solution of crimes.

a. Forensic Science b. Forensic Chemistry
c. Forensic Ballistics d. Forensic Medicine

97. The science or art of obtaining images in scientific materials by the action of
electro magnetic radiation rays.
a. Polygraphy b. Dactyloscopy
c. Photography d. Chemistry

98. Instrument used in the measurement of temperature.

a. endometer b. barometer
c. thermometer d. ananometer

99. The scientific detection of deception.

a. Polygraphy b. Dactyloscopy
c. Toxycology d. Chemistry

100. The test conducted to determine the presence of gunpowder residue in the
hands of a suspect.
a. diphenylamine test b. ultra violet test
c. paraffin test d. Simon’s Test
 ANSWER KEY - CRIMINALISTICS

1. A 26. D 51. C 76. A

2. C 27. B 52. D 77. D
3. C 28. B 53. C 78. B
4. D 29. B 54. D 79. B
5. B 30. A 55. B 80. A
6. D 31. D 56. A 81. D
7. D 32. D 57. D 82. C
8. D 33. D 58. C 83. B
9. C 34. A 59. C 84. A
10. B 35. A 60. D 85. B
11. B 36. B 61. A 86. C
12. C 37. A 62. B 87. A
13. C 38. B 63. D 88. A
14. C 39. B 64. A 89. C
15. D 40. D 65. D 90. D
16. D 41. C 66. C 91. C
17. B 42. D 67. B 92. A
18. D 43. D 68. D 93. B
19. A 44. B 69. C 94. D
20. C 45. A 70. D 95. A
21. B 46. D 71. C 96. D
22. D 47. D 72. B 97. C
23. A 48. A 73. A 98. C
24. C 49. D 74. C 99. A
25. C 50. C 75. C 100. C
 MOCKBOARD EXAMINATION
CRIMINAL SOCIOLOGY, ETHICS AND HUMAN RELATIONS

INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. Write
the letter of your choice on the answer sheet provided.

1. The Police seek to prevent crimes by being present in places where crimes might
be committed and by alerting citizens to refrain from practices that make them or
their property vulnerable.
a. law enforcement b. public services
c. opportunity denial d. order maintenance

2. The society’s prime instrument for making known what acts are crimes and what
sanctions may be applied to those who commit acts defined as crimes.
a. ethics b. law
c. conduct d. justice

3. A social norm providing guidance for people in their dealings with one another,
as a standard against which actions are evaluated, and as a prescription or
requirement that people act justly.
a. law b. justice
c. ethics d. conduct

4. It is the study of human society, its origin, structure, functions and direction.
a. psychology b. criminology
c. sociology d. anthropology

5. A person who has violated the penal law and has been found guilty by the court.
a. accused b. parolee
c. suspect d. criminal

6. A body of knowledge regarding crime as a social phenomenon.

a. criminal psychology b. criminal sociology
c. criminal law d. criminology

7. The reduction or elimination of the desire and opportunity to commit a crime.

a. law enforcement b. crime prevention
c. protection of rights d. order maintenance

8. The primary advocate of the Positivist School in Criminology.

a. Cesare Beccaria b. Cesare Lombroso
c. Henry Goddard d. Augusto Comti

9. The science of classifying human physical characteristics.

a. determinism b. somatology
c. positivism d. atavism
10. Reacting to events with alertness and vigilance and a feeling of persecution.
a. dementia praecox b. hallucination
c. paranoia d. depression

11. Science concerned with improving the quality of human off springs.
a. genetics b. eugenics
c. criminology d. heredity

12. Scientific approach based upon mental processes and characteristics.

a. psychogenic determinism b. emotional determinism
c. biological determinism d. criminological determinism

13. The principle that events, including criminal behavior, has sufficient causes.
a. positivism b. determinism
c. atavism d. Nazism

14. Criminals who acted under the impulse of uncontrolled emotion on occasion
during otherwise moral lives.
a. seasonal criminals b. criminals of passion
c. occasional criminals d. born criminals

15. It is the most basic social institution and is the most potentially effective agency
of social control.
a. church b. community
c. family d. school

16. A sub-discipline of criminology which focuses on victims of crime.

a. penology b. criminal psychology
c. criminal profiling d. victimology

17. An irrational fear which is fixed, intense, uncontrollable and often has no
reasonable foundation.
a. phobia b. delusions
c. regression d. anxiety

18. The principle which states that man, by nature, always tries to maximize pleasure
and avoid pain.
a. utopia b. hedonism
c. socialism d. atavism

19. The mental capacity to distinguish right from wrong.

a. discernment b. morality
c. ethics d. imbecility

20. It has the power to define and punish crimes.

a. church b. state
 c. judiciary d. police

21. Which of the following is not a victimless crime?

a. vagrancy b. illegal gambling
c. illegal detention d. illegal possession of prohibited drugs

22. The purpose of penalty in the Positivist School of Criminology.

a. retribution b. reformation
c. rejection d. restitution

23. A doctrine which criminals were seen as distinct types of humans who could be
distinguished from non criminals by certain physical traits.
a. theory of biological inferiority b. theory of natural selection
c. theory of differential association d. theory of evolution

24. Referred to as dementia praecox, which is a form of psychosis characterized by

thinking disturbance and regression.
a. schizophrenia b. manic depression
c. paranoia d. psychopathy

25. It refers to the conscience of man.

a. ego b. id
c. super ego d. spirit

26. A type of crime in which the end result is destruction.

a. acquisitive crime b. extinctive crime
c. seasonal crime d. static crime

27. Study of criminality in relation to spatial distribution in a community.

a. Criminal epidemiology b. Criminal demography
c. Criminal psychology d. Criminal determinism

28. The taking of a person into custody in order that he may be bound to answer for
the commission of an offense.
a. search b. seizure
c. detention d. arrest

29. A valid warrant less arrest.

a. citizen’s arrest b. void arrest
c. illegal arrest d. judicial arrest

30. The authority of the court to hear or determine a case.

a. executive power b. jurisdiction
c. hearing d. decision
31. A component or pillar of the Criminal Justice System which is involved in the
administration of appropriate sanctions in keeping with the sentence handed
down.
a. correction b. prosecution
c. law enforcement d. court

32. The reading of charges against the accused in the open court and the declaration
of his plea of guilty or not guilty.
a. charging b. sentencing
c. arraignment d. trial

33. The major function of the PROSECUTION component of the Criminal Justice
System.
a. enforce the laws of the land
b. rehabilitate prisoners
c. represent the government in criminal cases
d. sentencing of the accused

34. It provides the basis for due process of law.

a. Bible b. Constitution
c. PNP Law d. Common Law

35. It means not only observed acts of crime but the results of a crime, which triggers
the operation of the criminal justice process.
a. commission of a crime b. solution of a crime
c. detection of a crime d. adjudication of a crime

36. The apparatus of the State designed to enforce the law by arresting, prosecuting
and adjudicating those accused of violating it and by applying the proper
sanctions to those found guilty.
a. Court b. Government
c. Criminal Justice System d. Due Process of Law

37. A law enforcement function in order to preserve social and public order.
a. protection b. crowd control
c. order maintenance d. crime prevention

38. This defense in a criminal case is based on the claim that the act was the result,
not of any intent on the part of the accused, but of threats of loss of life, limb or a
loved one.
a. defense of instigation b. defense of consent
b. defense of alibi d. defense of duress

39. The society’s primary instrument for making known what acts are crimes and
what sanctions may be applied to those who commit acts defined as crimes.
a. law b. ethics
 c. media d. conduct

40. A function of the Prosecution, by representing the State in criminal cases and to
present the case to the judge.
a. trial advocacy b. pleading
c. rehabilitation d. charging

41. A claim by the accused that he or she was in another place when the crime
occurred and therefore could not have committed it.
a. defense of instigation b. defense of alibi
c. defense of consent d. defense of duress

42. The informal component of the Criminal Justice System.

a. community b. law enforcement
c. prosecution d. corrections

43. It refer to the maltreatment of a child.

a. child misuse b. child delinquency
c. child defect d. childhood

44. PD 603 is known as:

a. Parole Law b. Probation Law
c. The Child and Youth Welfare Code d. The Revised Penal Code

45. It refers to anti social act which deviates from normal pattern of rules and
regulations
a. recidivism b. reiteracion
c. delinquency d. crime

46. A child whose basic needs have been deliberately unattended.

a. neglected child b. abandoned child
c. dependent child d. abusive child

47. A twenty four hour child caring institution that provide short term resident care for
youthful offenders.
a. Shelter care Institution b. Nursery
c. Foster Home d. Detention Home

48. A local government together with society of individuals or institutions.

a. family b. community
c. religion d. prison

49. A type of terrorism which is meant to incite the government to repression.

a. organizational terrorism b. provocative terrorism
c. symbolic terrorism d. allegiance terrorism
50. A type of terrorism which is aimed at a victim who symbolizes the State.
a. symbolic terrorism b. organizational terrorism
c. allegiance terrorism d. provocative terrorism

51. The following are guidelines for police negotiators except one.
a. Don’t raise the aspirations or expectations of the hostage takers
b. Give in to all of the terrorists’ demands
c. Conserve your concession
d. Make sure you get something in return for a concession

52. The following are qualities which must be possessed by a police negotiator
except one:
a. flexible b. irrational c. patient d. knows psychology

53. A phenomena in a hostage situation where the hostages become sympathetic to

the hostage takers.
a. Oslo Syndrome b. Stockholm Syndrome
c. Hostage Syndrome d. Helsinki Syndrome

54. The following are characteristics common to terrorists except one:

a. operate openly b. highly mobile
c. promote fear d. possess limited resources

55. The following are short range terrorists goal except one:
a. obtain money, weapon or equipment
b. cause dramatic change in the government
c. satisfy vengeance
d. free prisoners

56. According to Frederick Hacker, these are terrorists who are using terrorism to
change society.
a. crusaders b. crazies
c. criminals d. mercenaries

57. Which of the following is not a terroristic tactic?

a. noise barrage b. assassination
c. bombing d. kidnapping

58. The effective planning, formulation of policies, procedures and techniques for
dealing with sudden violent acts of terrorists.
a. Threat Analysis b. Crisis Management
c. Stress Management d. Hostage Negotiation

59. It is a method whereby an organized group or party seeks to achieve its avowed
aims chiefly through the systematic use of violence.
a. conventional warfare b. insurrection
 c. terrorism d. insurgency

60. The most important consideration in a hostage taking situation.

a. protection of life b. media coverage
c. protection of property d. capture of the hostage taker

61. In dealing with the hostage taker, the negotiator should not:
a. give his name
b. give his rank and designation
c. give in to all demands
d. look friendly or accommodating

62. In a hostage situation, this is a non-negotiable item.

a. food b. media access
c. telephone d. firearm

63. The highest ranking field commander should not also be the chief negotiator
because:
a. hostage takers will be afraid
b. he is not authorized to grant concessions
c. of conflict of interest as mediator and decision maker
d. hostage takers will not trust him
e.
64. It means to arrange by conferring or discussing.
a. validate b. negotiate
c. extricate d. congregate

65. The last option in a hostage situation.

a. negotiation b. crowd control
c. assault d. giving in to demands

66. The first step in a hostage situation.

a. assault b. control
c. crowd control d. negotiation

67. The study of standards of conduct and moral judgment.

a. community relations b. ethics
c. logic d. psychology

68. It refers to the commitment, dignity and attitude of an individual towards work and
his integrity and his practice of the core moral value principles.
a. conduct b. morality
c. professionalism d. ethics

69. Which of the following is not a police custom on courtesy?

a. salute b. address/title
 c. giving gifts d. courtesy call

70. The branch of moral science which treats of the duties which a police officer
owes to the public and community.
a. police philosophy b. police professionalism
c. police conduct d. police ethics

71. It is the essence of good manners, a manifestation of sportsmanship and an

exposition of gentility and culture.
a. courtesy b. discipline
c. loyalty d. morale

72. A mental or moral training that makes a man willing to be subject to controls and
regulations for the good of the entire group of which he is a member.
a. courtesy b. discipline
c. loyalty d. morale

73. The concealment or distortion of truth in a matter of fact relevant to one’s office,
or connected with the performance of his duties.
a. gross misconduct b. incompetence
c. dishonesty d. disloyalty

74. The doing either through ignorance, inattention or malice, of that which the
police officer had no legal right to do at all, as where he acts without any
authority whatsoever or exceeds, ignores or abuses his powers.
a. incompetence b. dishonesty
c. misconduct d. neglect of duty

75. The omission or refusal, without sufficient excuse, to perform an act or duty,
which is the officer’s legal obligation to perform.
a. incompetence b. misconduct
c. neglect of duty d. bribery

76. As a general rule, police officers are not permitted or allowed to engage in any
other business or calling.
a. bribery b. moonlighting
c. neglect of duty d. misconduct

77. Police officers shall treat official business as such, and shall not impart the same
to anyone except those for whom it is intended, or as directed by his superior
officer, or as required by law.
a. criminal investigation b. admission
c. confession d. confidential information

78. A voice of reason bidding oneself to avoid evil and do good.

a. virtue b. value
 c. dignity d. conscience

79. Authority of a person he exercised over his subordinates.

a. chain of command b. command responsibility
c. responsibility d. command

80. The courage to endure without yielding.

a. perseverance b. endurance
c. fortitude d. prudence

81. It is a public trust.

a. private property b. duty
c. public office d. personal commitment

82. This refers to the sum total of dealings of the police with the people it serves.
a. Human Relations b. Police Relations
c. Police Community relations d. Police Public Relations

83. It is designed to influence public opinion in favor of the police force.

a. Public Information Program
b. Public relations
c. Civic Action programs
d. Mass Communications Programs
e.
84. A judicial tribunal designed to administer justice.
a. Office of the Ombudsman b. Jury
c. Court d. Department of Justice

85. The assessment of our own vulnerabilities, the evaluation of the threat, threat
groups and probable targets.
a. crisis management b. hostage negotiation
c. threat analysis d. surveillance operation

86. The author of “The Criminal Man”.

a. Goddard b. Beccaria
c. Garofalo d. Lombroso

87. A person who is held as a security for the fulfilment of certain demands or terms.
a. victim b. hostage
c. negotiator d. coordinator

88. The calculated use of violence or threat of violence to attain political, religious or
ideological goals by instilling fear or using intimidation or coercion.
a. crisis b. strike
c. crime d. terrorism
89. One which consists of several parts that interacts with each other to produce
some results, serve some functions or meet some objectives.
a. justice b. system
c. feedback d. environment

90. Laws made by justices in cases decided in the appellate courts especially by the
Supreme Court.
a. common laws b. statutory laws
c. case laws d. civil law

91. A pillar or component of the Criminal Justice System which is involved in the
administration of appropriate sanctions in keeping with the sentence handed
down.
a. corrections b. court
c. prosecution d. law enforcement

92. The stage of the criminal justice process which involves the convicted person’s
serving the sentence imposed.
a. sentencing b. corrections
c. adjudication d. charging

93. The recital of the rights of a suspect during custodial investigation.

a. Bill of Rights b. Miranda Warning
c. Code of Ethics d. Policeman’s Code

94. This type of physique have relatively predominant muscles, bones and motor
organs of the body.
a. viscerotonic b. mesomorphic
c. endomorphic d. ectomorphic

95. The author of “ Origin of Species” and “ The Descent of Man”.

a. Lombroso b. Darwin
c. Beccaria d. Garofalo

96. He is the primary advocate of the “Theory of Differential Association”.

a. Lombroso b. Sutherland
c. Beccaria d. Garofalo

97. The author of “On Crimes and Punishment”, and the primary advocate of the
Classical School of Criminology.
a. Lombroso b. Sutherland
c. Beccaria d. Garofalo

98. The basic unit of society.

a. community b. family
c. government d. church
99. The primary and major output of the Criminal Justice System.
a. law b. arrest
c. justice d. crime

100. The one who determines personally the existence of probable cause in the
issuance of a search warrant.
a. fiscal b. police officer
c. judge d. victim

ANSWER KEY – CRIMSOC, ETHICS& HUMAN RELATIONS

1. C 26. B 51. B 76. B

2. B 27. B 52. B 77. D
3. B 28. D 53. B 78. D
4. C 29. A 54. A 79. B
5. D 30. B 55. B 80. A
6. D 31. A 56. A 81. C
7. B 32. C 57. A 82. C
8. B 33. C 58. B 83. B
9. B 34. B 59. C 84. D
10. C 35. C 60. A 85. C
11. B 36. C 61. C 86. D
12. A 37. C 62. D 87. B
13. B 38. D 63. C 88. D
14. B 39. A 64. B 89. B
15. C 40. A 65. C 90. C
16. D 41. B 66. C 91. A
17. A 42. A 67. B 92. B
18. B 43. BONUS 68. C 93. B
19. A 44. C 69. C 94. B
20. B 45. C 70. D 95. B
21. C 46. A 71. A 96. B
22. B 47. A 72. B 97. C
23. A 48. B 73. C 98. B
24. A 49. B 74. C 99. C
25. C 50. A 75. C 100. C

MOCK BOARD EXAMINATION

 CRIME DETECTION, INVESTIGATION AND PREVENTION

INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. Write
the letter of your choice on the answer sheet provided.

1. An extra judicial confession obtained from a suspect is admissible in a court of

law if it was made in the presence of a counsel of his own choice and must be in
a. the presence of a fiscal b. the presence of a police investigator
c. writing d. front of a judge
2. Fiscals and Prosecutors are under the control and supervision of the…
a. National Bureau of Investigation
b. Department of the Interior and Local Government
c. Supreme Court
d. Department of Justice
3. The questioning of a person in a formal and systematic way and is most often
used to question criminal suspects to determine their probable guilt or innocence.
a. inquiry b. interview
c. polygraph examination d. interrogation
4. A form of investigation in which the investigator assume a different and
unofficial identity.
a. tailing b. casing
c. espionage d. undercover work
5. A type of surveillance in which extreme precautions and actions are taken in not
losing the subject.
a. loose tail b. casing
c. pony tail d. close tail
6. A type of shadowing employed when a general impression of the subject’s habits
and associates is required.
a. loose tail b. casing
c. pony tail d. close tail
7. A surveillance activity for the purpose of waiting the anticipated arrival of a
suspect or observing his actions from a fixed location.
a. casing b. tailing
c. stake out d. espionage
8. An examination of an individual’s person, houses, or effects or a building, or
premises with the purpose of discovering contrabands or personal properties
connected in a crime.
a. search b. raid
c. investigation d. seizure
9. A kind of evidence that tends to prove additional evidence of a different
character to the same point.
a. corroborative evidence b. circumstantial evidence
c. direct evidence d. real evidence
10. The process of bringing together in a in logical manner all evidence collected
during the investigation and present it to the prosecutor.
a. case preparation b. order maintenance
 c. crime prevention d. public service
11. Ways and means are resorted for the purpose of trapping and capturing the law
breaker during the execution of a criminal act.
a. instigation b. inducement
c. buy bust operation d. entrapment
12. A special qualification for an undercover agent.
a. excellent built b. excellent eyesight
c. excellent looks d. excellent memory

13. The discreet observation of places, persons and vehicles for the purpose of
obtaining information concerning the identities or activities of suspects.
a. close observation b. espionage
c. tailing d. surveillance
14. The questioning of a person by law enforcement officers after that person has
been taken into custody.
a. preliminary investigation b. interrogation
b. custodial investigation d. cross examination
15. As a general rule, a warrant of arrest can be served at…
a. day time
b. night time
c. any day and at any time of the day or night
d. weekdays
16. Measures through which police seek to detect crimes, or attempts to be present
when they are committed, through the use of the undercover agents, electronic devices for
wiretapping or bugging, and stakeouts.
a. preventive measures b. countermeasures
c. pro-active measures d. tape measures
17. A police activity directed toward the identification and apprehension of alleged
criminals and the accumulation, preservation, and presentation of evidence
regarding their alleged crimes.
a. police patrol b. police intelligence
c. criminal procedure d. criminal investigation
18. An extension, or continuation of the preliminary investigation.
a. initial investigation b. custodial investigation
c. secondary investigation d. follow-up investigation
19. To obtain admission and confession of guilt is the primary purpose of…
a. interview b. surveillance
c. investigation d. interrogation
20. Such facts and circumstances that would lead a reasonably discreet and prudent
man to believe that an offense has been committed and that the object sought in
connection with the offense are in the place sought to be searched.
a. prima facie evidence b. probable cause
c. prejudicial question d. res ipsa loquitur
21. A search warrant shall be valid for _____ days from its date. Thereafter, it shall
be void.
a. 10 b. 15
c. 30 d. 45
22. It means that a specific crime was committed at a specified time, date and place,
and that the person named in his report committed the crime.
a. corpus delicti b. sufficiency of evidence
c. stare decisis d. pares patriae
23. Police seek to prevent crime by being present in places where crimes might be
committed and by alerting citizens to refrain from practices that make them or
their property vulnerable.
a. opportunity denial b. order maintenance
c. criminal investigation d. police intelligence
24. A statement of the suspect directly acknowledging his guilt.
a. admission b. confession
c. deposition d. accusation
25. It may be a direct acknowledgement of the truth of the guilty fact as charge or of
some essential part of the commission of the criminal act itself.
a. admission b. confession
c. deposition d. accusation
26. It may be a self-incriminatory statement by the subject falling short of an
acknowledgement of guilt.
a. admission b. confession
c. deposition d. accusation

27. The simplest type of interview which concerns with the gathering of information
regarding the personal circumstances of a person who is the subject of
investigation.
a. background interview b. personal interview
c. intimate interview d. pre-game interview
28. It means method of operation.
a. corpus delicti b. parens patriae
c. stare decisis d. modus operandi
29. It is one which induces the criminal to act and need not be shown in order to
obtain conviction.
a. intent b. motive
c. opportunity d. inducement
30. The three tools in criminal investigation, whereby their application varies in
proportion on their necessity to establish the guilt of the accused in a criminal
case.
a. information, interrogation, instrumentation
b. detection, apprehension, conviction ‘
c. inquiry, observation, conclusion
d. magnifying glass, pencil, tape measure
31. The simple questioning of a person who is cooperating in the investigation.
a. interview b. inquiry
 c. interrogation d. instrumentation
32. It involves a number of persons who might have handled evidence between the
time of the commission of the alleged offense and the disposition of the case,
should be kept to a minimum.
a. chain of command b. chain of custody
c. evidence tracking d. tracing evidence
33. A kind of evidence which may link the suspect to the crime scene or offense.
Examples are fingerprints, impressions, blood etc.
a. physical evidence b. associative evidence
c. tracing evidence d. factual evidence
34. Articles and materials which are found in connection with an investigation and
which help in establishing the identity of the perpetrator or the circumstances
under which the crime was committed or which in general, assist in the
prosecution of the criminal.
a. physical evidence b. documentary evidence
c. tracing evidence d. testimonial evidence
35. The following are different techniques in interrogation except one:
a. sympathetic approach b. emotional appeal
c. financial assistance d. friendliness
36. This may be applicable to a crime scene which is approximately circular or oval.
The searchers gather at the center and proceed outward along radii or spokes.
a. strip method b. wheel method
c. spiral method d. zone method
37. The area to be searched is divided into quadrants and each searcher is assigned
to one quadrant.
a. strip method b. wheel method
c. spiral method d. zone method
38. The searchers follow each other in the path of a crime scene beginning in the
outside and circling around a central point.
a. strip method b. wheel method
c. spiral method d. zone method
39. A kind of gathering information whereby a subject is being followed.
a. convoy b. caravan
c. tailing d. surveillance
40. Another term for tailing.
a. impersonating b. backing
c. supporting d. shadowing
41. A person who gives necessary information to the investigator. He may give the
information openly and even offer to be a witness or he may inform the
investigator surreptitiously and request to remain anonymous.
a. witness b. expert witness
c. hostile witness d. informant
42. The use of an equipment or tool to listen and record discreetly conversations of
other people.
a. bugging b. dubbing
c. mimicking d. tapping
43. The questioning of persons not suspected of being involved in a crime, but who
knows about the crime or individuals involved in it.
a. interrogation b. rumor mongering
c. interview d. inquiry
44. An objective of criminal invstigation.
a. determine the motive b. identify criminals
c. rehabilitate criminals d. prevent crimes
45. A term used to describe a transition which occur in the development of a fire,
when, for example, most of all the combustible surfaces within a room are heated
above their ignition temperature at the same time.
a. intensity b. ignition
c. flash over d. starter
46. A term of the start of the combustion, its detailed process of a solid is very
complicated, since the proportion of different flammable vapours vary from one
material to another and contact with oxygen must take place before combustion
can begin.
a. intensity b. ignition
c. flash over d. starter
47. The term describes the transfer of heat through a gas or vacuum in a similar way
to that of light.
a. ignition b. convection
c. radiation d. conduction
48. The transfer of heat within a solid material from hotter to cooler parts.
a. ignition b. convection
c. radiation d. conduction
49. The greatest concern of the firemen at the fire/crime scene is to….
a. interview witnesses
b. view the site of the crime
c. preserve the fire/crime scene
d. phot opportunity in the fire/crime scene
50. Most malicious fires are set by individuals secretly, it is either set for revenge or
self aggrandizing; or set by psychotic fire setter, or for sexual gratification.
a. group fire setter b. arson for profit
c. fire starter d. solitary fire setter
51. It is, in most cases, the initial step for obtaining information to determine the
origin and cause of fire.
a. evidence collection b. laboratory examination of evidence
c. interview witnesses d. interrogation of suspects
52. The primary course of action in case of a fire.
a. pack up and flee b. run for your life
c. call an ambulance d. raise the alarm
53. The main product of the combustion of carbon. It is not poisonous but is an
asphyxiant which lowers the proportion of oxygen available for breathing.
a. carbon oxide b. carbon monoxide
c. carbon paper d. carbon dioxide
54. A normal product of combustion, and is poisonous, especially when the air
supply to the fire is restricted.
a. carbon oxide b. carbon monoxide
c. carbon paper d. carbon dioxide
55. The fire resisting property of structural elements and the behavior of a building
material in a fire, it is used to predict how long it will resist the effect of a fire
before it fails.
a. fire resistance b. fire duration
c. fire proof d. fire strength
56. A type of fire that is the result of the combustion of certain metals in finely
divided forms; magnesium, potassium, zinc, etc….
a. class A b. class B
c. class C d. class D
57. A type of fire which results from burning of wood, paper, textiles, and other
carbonaceous materials. Extinguishment of this fire is by quenching and cooling.
a. class A b. class B
c. class C d. class D
58. The following are components of fire except one:
a. gas b. fuel
c. oxygen d. heat
59. It is observed in structural fires and can be an indicator of the fire travel and point
of origin.
a. charring b. alligatoring
c. V pattern d. pour pattern
60. A pattern or network of fine, irregular lines in glass and wood.
a. crazing b. spalling
c. light bulbs d. charring
61. A tool employed by an arsonist to delay the start of the fire and allow him to
establish an alibi.
a. accelerants b. delaying tactic
c. timing device d. stopper
62. It can be readily identified by their distinctive odors, and the most common
examples are gasoline, turpentine and kerosene.
a. accelerants b. trailers
c. timing device d. stopper
63. This catalytic combustion device is the most common means employed to detect
flammable vapors.
a. accelerant b. sniffer
c. timing device d. stopper
64. The irresistible impulse or compulsion to start a fire and experience gratification
and satisfaction from it.
a. fire starter syndrome b. pyrotechnic disease
c. pyromania d. pyrophobia
65. It is known as the “Fire Code of the Philippines.”
a. PD 1108 b. PD 1017
c. PD 1081 d. PD 1185
66. Any material or mixture consisting of a fuel and oxidizer used to set off
explosives.
a. blasting agent b. blasting cap
c. gun powder c. explosive primer
67. These are description of materials or compounds that are easily set on fire
except one:
a. combustible b. corrosive
c. flammable d. inflammable
68. Any material having a flash point at or above 37.80 degree Celsius or 100
degree Fahrenheit.
a. combustible liquid b. flammable liquid
c. inflammable liquid d. corrosive liquid
69. Any liquid that causes fire when in contact with organic matter.
a. combustible liquid b. flammable liquid
c. inflammable liquid d. corrosive liquid

70. An extremely hot luminous bridge formed by the passage of an electric current
across the space between two conductors.
a. electrical arc b. damper
c. duct system d. ember
71. The active principle of burning, characterized by the heat and light combustion.
a. explosion b. arson
c. combustion d. fire
72. A type of fire, of flammable liquid and gasses.
a. class A b. class B
c. class C d. class D
73. A mass movement in a fluid, an example a liquid or a gas where fluid at one
temperature and density moves under the influence of gravity at different
temperatures.
a. conduction b. convection
c. radiation d. combustion
74. The temperature at which a liquid is transformed or converted to vapor.
a. burning point b. melting point
c. freezing point d. boiling point
75. The first action taken by a traffic unit to escape from a collision course or to avoid
hazard.
a. point of no return b. point of no escape
c. start of evasive action d. final position
76. The movement of vehicles, and pedestrians in a road or highway.
a. traffic b. flight
c. trip d. journey

77. A method of locating a spot in the area by measurements from two or more
reference points.
a. traffic report b. spot report
 c. triangulation d. accident investigation
78. The force that tends to pull all objects to the center of the earth.
a. inertia b. friction
c. energy d. gravity
79. Any motor vehicle accident that results in no death, but only injuries to one or
more persons.
a. fatal b. chronic
c. non fatal d. injurious
80. The “Traffic and Land Transportation Code of the Philippines>”
a. RA 7160 b. RA 8551
c. RA 6425 d. RA 4136
81. An occurrence in a sequence of events, which usually produces unintended
injury,
death or property damage.
a. traffic incidents b. traffic accidents
c. traffic hazards d. traffic events
82. Any motor vehicle accident occurring on a traffic way.
a. non motor vehicle traffic accident
b. non motor vehicle non-traffic accident
c. motor vehicle non-traffic accident
d. motor vehicle traffic accident
83. An order wherein a violator is commanded to appear in court, but without detaining him.
a. traffic citation b. traffic request
c. traffic warrant d. traffic violation
84. The first accidental touching of an object collision course or otherwise avoid a hazard.
a. primary contact b. secondary contact
c. disengagement d. initial contact
85. The following are the three E’s of Traffic Management and Operation except one:
a. Engineering b. Education
c. Enforcement d. Evaluation

86. The “Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act of 2002.”

a. RA 9870 b. RA 9165
c. RA 1017 d. RA 6195
87. Drugs that produce perceptual alteration, varying emotional change, thought disruption
and ego distortion.
a. tranquillisers b. hallucinogens
c. stimulants d. depressants
88. Drugs which produce insensibility, stupor, melancholy or dullness of the mind with
delusions.
a. stimulants b. narcotics
c. depressants d. hallucinogens
89. The practice or profession of having sexual intercourse for money or profit.
a. gynaecology b. prostitution
b. pornography d. sex business
90. The scientific name of marijuana.
a. cannabis sativa L b. pappaver somniferum
c. deoxyribonucleic acid d. methamphetamine
91. The original components of heroin and morphine.
a. codeine b. caffeine
c. opium d. methamphethamine
92. An inter department agency that enforce and carry out the law against illegal drugs.
a. Phil. Drug Enforcement Agency b. Bureau of Drugs
c. Dangerous Drug Board d. Food and Drug Administration
93. A harmful conduct or habit, the indulgence of which leads to depravity, wickedness and
corruption of the mind and body.
a. vice b. abuse
c. addiction d. virtue
94. The most common form of stimulant.
a. heroin b. codeine
c. morphine d. shabu
95. It is scientifically known as methamphethamine hydrochloride.
a. heroin b. codeine
c. morphine d. shabu
96. A derivative of opium which is used a cough reliever.
a. codeine b. heroin
c. morphine d. caffeine
97. Any part of the plant of the papaver somniferum, including the seeds.
a. opium poppy b. marijuana
c. caffeine d. codeine
98. Another term for drug addiction.
a. drug use b. drug net
c. drug pushing d. drug dependence
99. Commercially produced drugs that can be legally sold or dispensed only by a
physician’s order.
a. illegal drugs b. prohibited drugs
c. regulated drugs d. prescription drugs
100. Any chemical substance that by virtue of its chemical nature alters the structure and
functioning of living organism.
a. alcohol b. poison
c. drug d. vice

ANSWER KEY- CRIMINAL INVESTIGATION

1. C 26. A 51. C 76. A

2. D 27. A 52. D 77. C

3. D 28. D 53. D 78. D

4. D 29. B 54. B 79. B

5. D 30. A 55. A 80. D

6. A 31. A 56. D 81. B

7. C 32. B 57. A 82. D

8. A 33. C 58. A 83. A

9. A 34. A 59. A 84. D

10. A 35. C 60. A 85. D

11. D 36. B 61. C 86. B

12. D 37. D 62. A 87. D

13. D 38. C 63. B 88. B

14. B 39. C 64. C 89. B

15. C 40. D 65. D 90. A

16. C 41. D 66. A 91. C

17. D 42. A 67. B 92. A

18. D 43. C 68. A 93. A

19. D 44. B 69. A 94. D

20. B 45. C 70. A 95. D

21. A 46. B 71. D 96. A

22. A 47. C 72. B 97. A

23. A 48. D 73. B 98. D

24. B 49. C 74. D 99. D

25. B 50. D 75. C 100. C

MOCK BOARD EXAMINATION

 CORRECTIONAL ADMINISTRATION

INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. Write
the letter of your choice on the answer sheet provided.

1. It is the authority of the President of the Philippines to suspend the execution of a

penalty, reduce the sentence and extinguish criminal liability.
A. Parole C. Executive clemency
B. Pardon D. President’s clemency
2. B.J.M.P. is under the administration of the:
A. Executive DepartmentC. P.N.P.
B. D.I.L.G. D. none of theses
3. There are three (3) casework techniques applied by the parole officer, which one is not.
A. The trick and treat techniques
B. The executive techniques
C. The guidance, counseling and leadership techniques
D. The manipulative techniques
4. The basis of this old school of penology is the human free-will.
A. Penology School C. Classical School
B. Neo-classical D. Positivist
5. This helps the prisoner/detainee in the resolution of his problems
A. Meeting C. Working
B. Recreation D. Counseling
6. Takes charge of financial matters especially in programming, budgeting, accounting, and
other activities related to financial services. It consolidates and prepares financial reports
and related statements of subsistence outlays and disbursements in the operational of the
jail.
A. Budget and finance branch C. General services branch
B. Property and supply branch D. Mess services branch
7. Operation conducted by the BJMP wherein a prisoner maybe checked at any time. His
beddings, lockers and personal belongings may also be opened at anytime, in his
presence, whenever possible. This practice is known as:
A. Check and balance C. S.O.P.
B. Inventory D. Operation Greyhound
8. Pardon cannot be extended to one of the following instances.
A. Murder C. Brigandage
B. Rape D. Impeachment
9. It refers to commission of another crime during service of sentence of penalty imposed
for another previous offense.
A. Recidivism C. delinquency
B. Quasi-recidivism D. City prisoner
10. A person who is detained for the violation of law or ordinance and has not been convicted
is a -
A. Detention Prisoner C. Provincial Prisoner
B. Municipal Prisoner D. City Prisoner
11. Forms of executive clemency, EXCEPT
A. commutation C. reform model
B. amnesty D. probation
12. It is that branch of the administration of Criminal Justice System charged with the
responsibility for the custody, supervision, and rehabilitation of the convicted offender.
A. conviction C. corrections
B. penalty D. punishment

13. Pardon cannot be exercised in which of the following instances

A. before conviction C. before trial
B. after conviction D. before conviction and before trial
14. This is a procedure which permits a jail prisoner to pursue his normal job during the week
and return to the jail to serve his sentence during the weekend or non-working hours.
A. amnesty C. good conduct time allowance
B. probation D. delayed sentence
15. The following are the justifications of punishment, EXCEPT
A. Retribution C. deterrence
B. Happiness D. expiration or atonement
16. Pardon is exercised when the person is ___________________________.
A. already convicted C. not yet convicted
B. about to be convicted D. serve the sentence
17. This kind of punishment will be given to the offender by showing to others what would
happen to them if they have committed the heinous crime.
A. Protection C. Deterrence
B. Lethal injection D. Stoning
18. For a convicted offender, probation is a form of ______________________.
A. Punishment C. Treatment
B. Enjoyment D. Encarceration
19. For amnesty to be granted, there should be ____________________.
A. Recommendation from U.N. C. Recommendation from C.H.R.
B. Application D. Concurrence of the congress
20. The highest official of the bureau of corrections.
A. Director C. Secretary of the DND
B. Chief of Executive D. Prison Inspector
21. It plays a unique role in the moral and spiritual regeneration of man
A. vocation C. work
B. education D. religion
22. It is a penalty wherein a convicted person shall not be permitted to enter the place
designated in the sentence or within the radius therein specified, which shall not be more
than 250 and not less than 25 kilometers from the place designated.
A. P 30.00/day C. P 25.00/day
B. P 22.00/day D. P 19.00/day
23. Punishing a criminal to serve as example to others is a theory of ______________.
A. Self-defense C. Social defense
B. Exemplary D. Equality
24. The purpose of the decree on probation shall be to
 A. provide an opportunity for the reformation of a penitent offender
which might be less probable if he were to serve a prison sentence.
B. Prevent the commission of offenses
C. Promote the correction and rehabilitation of an offender by providing him
with individualized treatment
D. All of these
25. The most common problem of the National prison is
A. Excessive number of escapes C. Overcrowding
B. Disagreement about their mess D. Lack of adequate funding
26. Nobody can assume the suffering for a crime committed by others.
A. Justice C. Personal
B. Legal D. Certain
27. These are the factors considered in diversification, EXCEPT;
A. Age of offenders C. Mother of offender
B. Sex of offenders D. Medical condition

28. This branch takes charge of the preparation of the daily menu, makes foodstuff
purchases, prepares and cooks the food and serves it to the inmates. It maintains a record
of daily purchases and consumption and submits a daily report to the Warden.
A. General Services Branch C. Mittimus Computing Branch
B. Budget and Finance D. Mess services Branch
29. Under Article VII, Section 10 paragraph (B) of the Philippines Constitution, pardoning
power is vested with the
A. Department of Justice C. Judiciary
B. Chief Executive D. Legislative
30. It is a temporary stay of execution of sentence.
A. reprieve C. pardon
B. communication D. amnesty
31. Parole is not matter of _____________________.
A. privilege C. right
B. grace D. requirement
32. This group consists of chronic troublemakers but not as dangerous as the super
security prisoners. They are not allowed to work outside the institution.
A. maximum security prisoners C. super security prisoners
B. minimum security prisoners D. medium security prisoners
33. Parole is granted by the
A. President C. Board of Pardons and Parole
B. Director of Prison D. Court
34. A recipient of absolute pardon is ________ from civil liability imposed upon him by the
sentence.
A. partially exempted C. exempted
B. conditionally exempted D. not exempted
35. It is an act of clemency which changes a heavier sentence to a less serious one or a longer
term to a shorter term.
A. Amnesty C. commutation
B. Reprieve D. none of these
36. ____________ is an act of grace and the recipient is not entitled to it as a matter of right.
A. pardon C. parole
B. probation D. none of these
37. In probation system’s philosophy and concept, it is stated that the individual has the
ability to _________ and to modify his anti-social behavior with the right kind of help.
A. challenge C. none of these
B. change D. aggravate his behavior
38. The Bureau of Corrections is under the _________________.
A. Department of Social Welfare and Development
B. Department of Justice
C. Department of the Interior and Local Government
D. Department of Health
39. A person who is sentenced to serve a prison term of over three (3) years is a
_________________.
A. Municipal prisoner
B. Detention prisoner
C. National or Insular prisoner
D. City prisoner
40. The Head of Bureau of Corrections is known as -
A. Chief of the Bureau of Corrections
B. Director of the Bureau of Corrections
C. Superintendent of the Bureau of Corrections
D. None of these
41. What are the type of Jails under the Supervision of the BJMP?
A. Provincial and sub-Provincial Jails
B. City and Municipal Jails
C. District Jails
D. Insular Jails
42. Provincial Jails were first established in 1910 under the American Regime. At present,
who supervises and controls the said jails?
A. BJMP C. Provincial Government
B. DOJ D. LGU
43. What is the primary purpose of imprisonment?
A. Rehabilitation and Reformation C. to stand trial
B. Punishment D. socialization
44. A place of confinement for persons awaiting trial or curt action and where the convicted
offenders serve short sentences or penalty of imprisonment is known as:
A. Jail C. Lock-up
B. Penitentiary D. Detention Cells
45. A warrant issued by the court bearing its seal and signature of the judge directing the jail
or prison authorities to receive the convicted offender for service of sentence or detention
is known as -
 A. Mittimus C. Detention Mittimus
B. Sentence Mittimus D. Detention Warrant
46. The maintenance of care and protection accorded to people who by authority of law are
temporarily incarcerated for violation of laws and also those who were sentenced by the
court to serve judgment is called -
A. custody C. safe-keeping
B. classification D. caring
E. protection
47. Which of these refers to the assigning or grouping of offenders according to their
sentence, gender, age, nationality, health, criminal record, etc.?
A. classification C. custody
B. security D. safe-keeping
48. The open institution usually a penal farm or camp is known as the
A. NBP C. Medium Security Institution
B. Maximum Security Institution D. Minimum Security Institution
49. What is the act of grace from a sovereign power inherent in the state which exempts an
individual from the punishment which the law imposes or prescribes for his crime,
extended by the President thru the recommendation of the Board of Parole and Pardon?
A. Amnesty C. Parole
B. Pardon D. Probation
50. Under the prison service manual, the prescribed color of prison uniform for maximum
security prison is -
A. Orange C. Yellow E. Stripe Orange
B. Blue D. Pink
51. When an inmate is given a “shakedown” before admission it meant
A. Process of identification, record, fingerprint and photograph
B. Examination for contraband
C. His commitment paper are delivered to record clerk
D. All of these
52. An inmate maybe granted parole if he -
A. earned good conduct time allowance credit
B. serve minimum sentence
C. earned good behavior while serving prison term
D. all of these
53. Aside from protecting the public, imprisonment has for its latest objective, the -
A. reformation of offenders C. Deterrence
B. segregation of offender D. Confinement of Offenders
54. In the New Bilibid Prison, the medium security prisoners are confined at -
A. NBP Main Prison C. Camp Bukang Liwayway
B. Camp Sampaguita D. Medium Security Prison
55. Who is charged for the hearing of disciplinary cased in prison?
A. Classification Board C. Parole Board
B. Administrative Board D. Disciplinary Board
56. The form of conditional release that is granted after a prisoner has served a portion of his
sentence in a correctional
A. Conditional pardon C. Probation
 B. Parole D. Commutation
57. Which of the following is the function of the Custodial Division?
A. Supervision of prisoners C. escort
B. Keep records D. all of the above
58. The putting of offenders in prison for the purpose of protecting the public and at the same
time rehabilitating them by requiring the latter to undergo institutional treatment program
is referred to as:
A. imprisonment C. trial
B. conviction D. detention
59. The Sablayan Penal Colony and Farm, a National Penitentiary in the Philippines under
the BUCOR is located in _________________.
A. Palawan C. Zamboanga
B. Davao D. Occidental Mindoro
60. In Babylon, about 1990 BC, credited as the oldest code prescribing savage
Punishment but in fact ____ is older.
A. Hammurabic Code C. Sumerian Code
B. Justinian Code D. Code of Draco
61. The penalty imposed for offenders must be certain. This means that:
A. The guilty one must be the one to be punished, no proxy.
B. No one must escape its effect
C. It must be equal for all persons
D. The consequence must be in accordance with law.
62. The following are the duties of the custodial force in prison, except:
A. Censor offender’s inmate
B. Escort inmates
C. Inspect security devices
D. Conduct disciplinary hearing
63. When a jailbreak, escape or riot is in progress or has just been perpetuated in
the jail, the officer at the control centers shall immediately:
A. Sound the alarm C. locked prisoners in their respective cells
B. Notify the nearest police precinct D. call the warden or the director
64. In case of mass jailbreak, all members of the custodial force shall be immediately
issued firearms and assigned to critical posts to:
A. plug off the escape routes C. to shoot the escape
B. protect the other inmates D. to give warning shots
65. Which of these is known as the Adult Probation Law, which grants probation to
prisoner sentenced to term in prison of not more than six (6) years –
A. PD 603 C. RA 6127 E. PD 968
B. PD 869 D. PD 698
66. The continuing relationship between probation officer and probationer is known
as –
A. Affiliation Guidance C. Pre-sentenced Investigation
B. Supervision D. Probation Guidance
67. Those who have been once on probation under the Probation Law:
A. are qualified to apply for probation
B. are disqualified to apply for probation
C. may be granted for another probation
D. should be confined in prison
68. This pillar/component of our criminal justice system is responsible in the
confinement, rehabilitation and reformation of convicted offenders.
A. law enforcement C. prosecution
B. court D. corrections
69. The traditional and most basic goal of corrections.
A. retribution C. deterrence
B. incapacitation D. rehabilitation
70. The attempt to prevent future crimes through fear of punishment.
A. retribution C. deterrence
B. incapacitation D. rehabilitation
71. The task of changing an offender’s attitude so that he or she may not commit
another crime in the future.
A. retribution C. deterrence
B. incapacitation D. rehabilitation
72. This refers to the phased reentry of an offender into society rather than the usual
abrupt reentry at the end of a prison sentence.
A. reintegration C. deterrence
B. incapacitation D. rehabilitation
73. They were known as Bridewells, which started in 1553 and served as training
schools for delinquent youths, provided housing and support for older and poorer
persons, and detained vagrants.
A. House of Corrections C. workhouses
B common jails D. penal colonies
74. It direct, supervise and control the administration and operation of all district, city
and municipal jails to implement a better system of jail management nationwide
A. Bureau of Prisons C. Department of Justice
B. Bureau of Corrections D. Parole and Probation Administration
75. It exercise supervision and control over provincial jails.
A, BJMP B. Bureau of Corrections
B. Provincial Government D. Parole and Probation Administration
76. An agency under the Department of Justice that is charged with custody and
rehabilitation of national offenders, that is, those sentenced to serve a term of
imprisonment of more than three (3) years
A. BJMP C. Bureau of Corrections
B. Provincial Government D. Parole and Probation Administration
77. The New Bilibid Prison,The Correctional Institution for Women (CIW),Iwahig
Prison and Penal Farm, and Sablayan Prison and Penal Farm are all under this
agency.
A. BJMP C. Bureau of Corrections
B. Provincial Government D. Parole and Probation Administration
78. An attached agency of the Department of Justice which provides a less costly
alternative to imprisonment of offenders who are likely to respond to
individualized community based treatment programs.
A. BJMP C. Bureau of Corrections
B. Provincial Government D. Parole and Probation Administration
79. Prisoners whose sentences are more than three years to death penalty.
A. municipal prisoners C. provincial prisoners
B. city prisoners D. insular prisoners

80. Prisoners whose sentences are from one day to six months.
A. municipal prisoners C. provincial prisoners
B. city prisoners D. insular prisoners
81. A prison model which sought penitence ( hence the term penitentiaries) through
total individual isolation and silence.
A. Pennsylvania Prison Model C. Auburn Prison Model
B. Work Release D. Halfway Houses
82. Incarcerated persons are allowed to work outside the institution that houses
them.
A. Pennsylvania Prison Model C. Auburn Prison Model
B. Work Release D. Halfway Houses
83. An alternative granted after a convicted person served a part of his sentence and
is allowed to complete a sentence at large, subject to restrictions and
supervision.
A. probation C. work release
B. parole D. halfway houses
84. An alternative to incarceration and allows convicted persons to remain at
large under varying degrees of restriction and supervision and certain
conditions.
A. probation C. work release
B. parole D. halfway houses
85. A correctional institution that has the authority to detain persons awaiting trial
or adjudication or confine convicted offenders for a short period of time.
A. halfway house C. penal colony
B. jail D. farm
86. A correctional institution that has the authority to detain convicted offenders for
a longer or extended period of time, including those who are waiting their death
sentence.
A. halfway house C. halfway house
B. jail D. prison
87. The law creating the Bureau of Jail Management and Penology (BJMP).
A. RA 8551 C. RA 9165
B. RA 6975 D. BP 22
88. Who among the following is the provincial prisoner?
A. A prisoner serving a term below six (6) years
B. A prisoner serving a term of six (6) years and up
 C. A prisoner serving a term of six (6) months and one (1) day to three (3) years
D. A prisoner serving a term of three (3) years and one (1) day up
89. This theory in criminology states that are totally responsible for their behaviors and
the stress in more on the effect of their felonious act than upon the criminal
himself.
A. Positivist Theory C. Biological Theory
B. Biological Theory D. Classical Theory
90. Which of the following is exercised by executive elementary with the concurrence of
congress?
A. Probation C. Pardon
B. Amnesty D. Parole
91. The Parole and Probation Administration administers a ________corrections program.
A. Institutional C. Integrated
B. Community – based D. Traditional
92. A minimum and maximum amount of time to be served in prison is referred to us _______
A. A corporal punishment C. A determinate sentence
B. An indeterminate sentence D. A capital punishment
93. Juana was required to provide financial remuneration for the losses incurred by the victim.
What is the type of sentence?
A. Payment C. Retribution
B. Restitution D. Fines
94. ________ program employs prisoners in various product or good producing tasks
A. Agricultural C. Operational
B. Industrial D. Administrative
95. What crimes apparently have no complaining victims such as gambling, prostitution and
drunkenness?
A. Complex Crime C. Organized crimes
B. Blue Collar crimes D. Victimless crimes

96. Which agency performs the evaluation of prisoner’s fitness and qualifications for the grant
of pardon or parole?
A. Punishment, confinement retribution, treatment
B. Retribution, Deterrence, incapacitation, rehabilitation
C. Deterrence, retribution, punishment treatment
D. Deterrence, punishment, incapacitation, treatment
97. Which of the following should be a probationer NOT DO?
A. Make periodic report
B. Go and play in the gambling den
C. Work regularly to support family
D. Stay away from bad associates.
98. The Supreme Court automatically reviews the cases of criminals convicted and meted out
the penalty of
A. 12 years 6 months and one day C. Death
B. Life imprisonment D. 6 years one month and one day
99. The ________ theory in crime causation focuses on the criminal disorders, chromosomes
 irregularity and abnormal brain activity.
A. Age Reform C. Age of Discernment
B. Age of Rehabilitation D. Age of Reason
100. What correctional institution houses accused persons awaiting trial?
A. Rehabilitation center C. Jail
B. Halfway house D. Prison

ANSWER KEY- CORRECTIONAL ADMIN

1. C 26. C 51. B 76. C

2. B 27. C 52. D 77. C
3. A 28. D 53. A 78. D
4. C 29. B 54. B 79. D
5. D 30. A 55. D 80. A
6. A 31. C 56. B 81. A
7. D 32. A 57. C 82. B
8. D 33. C 58. A 83. B
9. B 34. D 59. D 84. A
10. A 35. C 60. A 85. B
11. C 36. A 61. C 86. D
12. C 37. B 62. D 87. B
13. A,C,D 38. B 63. A 88. C
14. D 39. C 64. A 89. D
15. B 40. B 65. D 90. B
16. A 41. B 66. B 91. B
17. C 42. C 67. B 92. B
18. C 43. A 68. D 93. B
19. D 44. A 69. A 94. B
20. A 45. A 70. C 95. D
21. D 46. A 71. D 96. BONUS
22. BONUS 47. A 72. A 97. B
23. B 48. C 73. A 98. C
24. D 49. B 74. BONUS 99. BONUS
25. D 50. A 75. B 100. C
REVIEW QUESTIONS IN
LAW ENFORCEMENT ADMINISTRATION SET ONE

INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following

questions. Mark only one answer for each item by marking the box
corresponding to the letter of your choice on the answer sheet
provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED. Use pencil no. 1 only.

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. The amount and nature of the demands of the police service are
not the same on all three (3) shifts. It is therefore necessary
to make available maximum manpower at the time the police service
is of greatest demand. This is organization by:
A. Clientele
B. Purpose
C. Time
D. Process

2. The PNP has a program which ensures the deployment of policemen

in busy and crime prone areas. This is called
A. patrol deployment program
B. roving patrol program
C. patrol and visibility program
D. police patrol program

3. All regional appointments of commissioned officers commence with

the rank of:
A. Senior Police Officer I
B. Inspector
C. Police Officer III
D. Senior Inspector

4. In busy and thickly populated commercial streets like those in

Divisoria, police patrol is very necessary. Since there are
several types of patrol, which of the following will you
recommend:
A. Horse patrol
B. Mobile patrol
C. Foot patrol
D. Helicopter patrol

5. It is the product resulting from the collection, evaluation,

analysis, and interpretation of all available information which
concerns one or more aspects of criminal activity and which is
immediately or potentially significant to police planning.
A. Investigation
B. Information

C. Data
D. intelligence
6. These are work programs of line divisions which related to the
nature and extent of the workload and the availability of
resources.
A. administrative plan
B. operational plan
C. strategic plan
D. tactical plan

7. It is the premier educational institution for the police, fire

and jail personnel.
A. Philippine Military Academy (PMA)
B. Development Academy of the Philippines
C. Philippine College of Criminology (PCCR)
D. Philippine Public Safety College (PPSC)

8. A crew which is assigned to a mobile car usually consist of

___________________.
A. a driver and intelligence agent
B. a driver and traffic man
C. a driver and a recorder
D. a driver, recorder and supervisor

9. An industrial complex must establish its first line of physical

defense. It must have
A. the building itself
B. perimeter barriers
C. communication barriers
D. window barriers

10. All of the following are members of the People’s Law Enforcement
Board (PLEB), EXCEPT:
A. Three (3) members chosen by the Peace and Order Council from
among the respected members of the community.
B. Any barangay Captain of the city/municipality concerned
chosen by the association of the Barangay Captains.
C. Any member of the Sangguniang Panglungsod/Pambayan
D. A bar member chosen by the Integrated bar of the Philippines
(IBP)

11. It is the circumspect inspection of a place to determine its

suitability for a particular operational purpose.
A. Inspection
B. Surveillance
C. Survey
D. Casing

12. In the civil service system, merit and fitness are the primary
considerations in the ______________.
A. two-party system
B. evaluation system
 C. promotional system
D. spoils system

13. In the de-briefing, the intelligence agent is asked to discuss

which of the following:
A. his educational profile and schools attended
B. his personal circumstances such as his age, religious
affiliation, address, etc.
C. his political inclination and/or party affiliation
D. his observations and experiences in the intelligence

14. It is a natural or man-made structure or physical device which is

capable of restricting, determine, or delaying illegal access to
an installation.
A. alarm
B. wall
C. barrier
D. hazard

15. What form of intelligence is involved when information is

obtained without the knowledge of the person against whom the
information or documents may be used, or if the information is
clandestinely acquired?
A. covert
B. overt
C. active
D. underground

16. The provincial Governor shall choose the provincial Director from
a list of ___________ eligible recommended by the PNP Director,
preferable from the same province, city, municipality.
A. six (6)
B. three (3)
C. five (5)
D. four (4)

17. Republic Act 6975 provides that on the average nationwide, the
manning levels of the PNP shall be approximately in accordance
with a police-to-population ratio of:
A. one (1) policeman for every seven hundred (700) inhabitants.
B. one (1) policeman for every one thousand five hundred
(1,500) inhabitants.
C. one (1) policeman for every five hundred (500) inhabitants.
D. one (1) policeman for every one thousand (1,000)
inhabitants.

18. In disaster control operations, there is a need to establish a

___________ where telephones or any means of communication shall
ensure open lines of communication.
A. command post
B. operations center
 C. field room
D. safe house

19. Registration of a security agency must be done at the

_______________________.
A. Securities and Exchange Commission
B. National Police Commission
C. Department of National Defense
D. PNP Criminal Investigation Group

20. Bicycle patrol has the combined advantage of ________________

since they can be operated very quietly and without attracting
attention.
A. reduced speed and greater area covered.
B. Mobility and wide area coverage
C. Shorter travel time and faster response
D. Mobility and stealth

21. The budget is a _________________ in terms of expenditure

requirements.
A. tactical plan
B. financial plan
C. work plan
D. control plan

22. The term used for the object of surveillance is a subject while
the investigator conducting the surveillance is:
A. rabbit
B. surveillant
C. traffic enforcement
D. patrol

23. It is a police function which serves as the backbone of the

police service. In all types of police stations, there is a
specific unit assigned to undertake this function in view of its
importance.
A. vice control
B. criminal investigation
C. traffic management
D. patrol

24. It is the weakest link in security chain.

A. managers
B. Barriers
C. Personnel
D. inspections

25. Which of the following is considered as the most important factor

I formulating an effective patrol strategy?
A. training of station commander
B. adequacy of resources of the police station
C. rank of the patrol commander
 D. salary rates of police personnel

26. Who among the following have summary disciplinary powers over
errant police members?
A. District Director
B. Provincial Director
C. Chief of Police
D. Chief, PNP

27. You are the Patrol Supervisor for the morning shift. You don’t
have enough men to cover all the patrol beats. Which of the
following will you implement?
A. assign roving mobile patrol with no foot patrol
B. assign mobile patrols only in strategic places
C. maintain your patrolmen at the station and just wait for
calls for police assistance
D. assign foot patrol in congested and busy patrol beats but
assign a roving mobile patrol to cover beats which are not
covered by foot patrol

28. The father of organized military espionage was:

A. Akbar
B. Alexander the Great
C. Genghis Khan
D. Frederick the Great

29. Which of the following is the most common reason why informer can
give information to the police?
A. wants to be known to the policeman
B. monetary reward
C. as a good citizen
D. revenge

30. To improve delegation, the following must be done, EXCEPT:

A. establish objectives and standards
B. count the number of supervisor
C. require completed work
D. define authority and responsibility

31. What administrative support unit conducts identification and

evaluation of physical evidences related to crimes, with emphasis
on their medical, chemical, biological and physical nature.
A. Logistics Service
B. Crime Laboratory
C. Communication and Electronic service
D. Finance Center

32. Those who are charged with the actual fulfillment of the agency’s
mission are ________.
A. staff
B. supervision
 C. management
D. line

33. When the subject identifies or obtains knowledge that the

investigation is conducting surveillance on him, the latter is:
A. cut out
B. sold out
C. burnt out
D. get out

34. Small alley like those in the squatters area of Tondo can be best
penetrated by the police through:
A. foot patrol
B. mobile patrol
C. highway patrol
D. helicopter patrol

35. Some of the instructions in foot surveillance are the following,

EXCEPT
A. stop quickly, look behind
B. drop paper, never mind what happens to the paper
C. window shop, watch reflection
D. retrace steps

36. On many occasions, the bulk of the most valuable information

comes from:
A. business world
B. newspaper clippings
C. an underworld informant
D. communications media

37. Highly qualified police applicants such as engineers, nurses and

graduates of forensic sciences can enter the police service as
officers through:
A. regular promotion
B. commissionship
C. lateral entry
D. attrition

38. Police Inspector Juan Dela Cruz is the Chief of Police of a

municipality. He wants his subordinates to be drawn closer to
the people in the different barangays. He should adopt which of
the following projects?
A. COPS on the blocks
B. Oplan Bakal
C. Oplan Sandugo
D. Complan Pagbabago

39. What should be undertaken by a Security Officer before he can

prepare a comprehensive security program for his industrial plan?
A. security conference
 B. security check
C. security survey
D. security education

40. This patrol method utilizes disguise, deception and lying in wait
rather than upon high-visibility patrol techniques.
A. low-visibility patrol
B. directed deterrent patrol
C. decoy patrol
D. high-visibility patrol

41. It enforces all traffic laws and regulations to ensure the safety
of motorists and pedestrians and attain an orderly traffic.
A. Civil Relations Unit
B. Traffic Operations Center
C. Traffic Management Command
D. Aviation Security Command

42. A method of collecting information wherein the investigator

merely uses his different senses.
A. observation
B. casing
C. research
D. interrogation

43. In stationary surveillance, the following must be observed,

EXCEPT
A. never meet subject face to face
B. avoid eye contact
C. recognize fellow agent
D. if burnt out, drop subject

44. Pedro is a thief who is eying at the handbag of Maria. PO1

Santos Reyes is standing a few meters from Maria. The thief’s
desire to steal is not diminished by the presence of the police
officer but the _______________ for successful theft is.
A. ambition
B. feeling
C. intention
D. opportunity

45. Graduates of the Philippine National Police Academy (PNPA) are

automatically appointed to the rank of:
A. Senior Superintendent
B. Inspector
C. Senior Police Officer 1
D. Superintendent

46. 48.PNP in-service training programs are under the responsibility

of the:
 A. PNP Directorate for Plans
B. PNP Directorate for Human Resource and Doctrine Development
C. PNP Directorate for Personnel and Records Management
D. PNP Directorate for Comptroller ship

47. One way of extending the power of police observation is to get

information from persons within the vicinity. In the police
work, this is called:
A. data gathering
B. field inquiry
C. interrogation
D. interview

48. Dogs have an acute sense of _______________ thus, their

utilization in tracking down lost persons or illegal drugs.
A. smell
B. hearing
C. eating
D. drinking

49. Intelligence on _________________ makes heavy use of geographic

information because law enforcement officials must know exact
locations to interdict the flow of drugs.
A. Logistics
B. Human Cargo Trafficking
C. Narcotics Trafficking
D. Economic resources

50. Which of the following is most ideally suited to evacuation and

search-and-rescue duties?
A. motorcycle
B. helicopter
C. patrol car
D. bicycle

51. A method of collection of information wherein the investigator

tails or follows the person or vehicle.
A. research
B. undercover operation
C. casing
D. surveillance

52. This is a person who does detective work for hire, reward or
commission, other than members of the AFP, BJMP, provincial
guards, PNP or any law enforcement agency of the government.
A. Secret Agent
B. “Tiktik”
C. Private detective
D. Undercover
E. All of these
53. The uprightness in character, soundness of moral principles,
honesty and freedom from moral delinquencies is referred to as
A. integrity
B. loyalty
C. discretion
D. moral
E. all of these

54. Going east while foot patrolling and turning right after reaching
the end of your beat and turning right after reaching the other
end of the road and again turning right until you completed the
cycle by reaching back to your origin of patrolling. What patrol
pattern have you applied?
A. clockwise
B. straightway
C. counter clockwise
D. free-wheeling
E. criss-cross

55. Which theory of patrol state that police visibility increases the
opportunity to apprehend criminals by soothing them and letting
them believe that their crimes will not be detected?
A. low profile theory
B. high visibility
C. theory of omnipresence
D. team policing

56. Without air force capability, patrol operation that covers large
park areas, grassy fields or wooded areas requires the use of
A. bike patrol
B. horse patrol
C. marine patrol
D. helicopter patrol

57. Which of the following refers to the long range planning?

A. Intermediate
B. Strategic
C. Medium
D. short

58. The operational plan which is designed to met everyday or year

around needs is called
A. meeting unusual needs
B. extra office
C. regular operating programs
D. special operating programs

59. Which of the following is the oldest type of patrol?

A. horse
B. foot
C. canine
D. police
60. The act of expelling a squatter by the legal process is called:
A. demolition
B. squadron
C. eviction
D. tear down

61. Which of the following is not a commissioned officer?

A. Inspector
B. senior superintendent
C. asst. chief
D. chief superintendent
E. all of the above

62. Which of the following words has the same meaning as the word
credibility?
A. ability
B. capacity
C. believability
D. vulnerability
E. all of these

63. Which of the following best defines the word self-reliant?

A. observation
B. crime prevention
C. called for service
D. criminal apprehension

64. All but one are the primarily line operation in police
organization
A. patrol
B. records
C. investigation
D. traffic

65. Criminals can hear the sound of the helicopter coming and so
element of surprise is lost which is one of the ______________ of
air patrol:
A. advantages
B. features
C. disadvantages
D. importance
E. errors

68. What is the patrol used to locate prowlers, burglars hiding in

large buildings or stores, and the control of unruly crowds and
riots?
A. foot
B. horse
 C. bicycle
D. dog

69. Which of the following laws established the Police Organization

under the DILG?
A. R.A. 5487
B. R.A. 8551
C. R.A. 1174
D. R.A. 6975

70. Who is the most important officer in the police organization?

A. general
B. investigator
C. patrol officer
D. traffic officer
E. The Chief of Police

71. Which of the following is the oldest warning device?

A. trumpet
B. horn
C. radio
D. siren

72. What type of cover uses actual or true background?

A. artificial
B. multiple cover
C. natural
D. cover within a cover

73. What is the principle of organization suggesting that

communication should ordinarily go upward and downward through
establish channels in the hierarchy?
A. Chain of Command
B. Span of Control
C. Unity of Command
D. Delegation of Authority

74. What is the optional retirement for officers and new officers of
the police service?
A. 15 years
B. 25 years
C. 30 years
D. 20 years
E. 35 years

75. Governors and mayors, upon having been elected and having
qualified as such, are automatically deputized as representatives
of the
A. NAPOLCOM
B. DND
 C. PLEB
D. none of these

76. It is constitutionally and legally mandated to administer and

control the Philippine National Police.
A. DILG
B. DND
C. NAPOLCOM
D. DFA

77. It is the central receiving entity for any citizen’s complaint

against the members and officers of the PNP.
A. DILG
B. NAPOLCOM
C. PLEB
D. IAS
E. Ombudsman

78. When we say that a commander is directly responsible for any act
or omission of his subordinates in relation to the performance
of their official duties, we are referring to:
A. chain of command
B. delegation of responsibility
C. Command responsibility
D. span of control
E. responsible parenthood

79. A police strategy which aims to directly involve members of the

community in the maintenance of peace and order by police
officers.
A. Integrated Police System C. Police Visibility
B. Comparative Police System
C. Police Visibility
D. Police Pangkalawakan System
E. Community Oriented Policing System(COPS)

80. No person in an organization can do all the tasks necessary for

accomplishing group objective. Also, no one should exercise all
the authority for making decisions. This refers to
A. chain of command
B. command responsibility
C. unity of command
D. delegation of authority
E. span of control)

81. Under RA 6975, a police officer is entitled to a longevity pay

equivalent to how many percent (%) of his monthly basic salary
for every five years of service, to be reckoned from the date of
his original appointment in the police, fire, jail or other
allied services?
A. 2 percent
B. 5 percent
 C. 10 percent
D. 15 percent
E. 20 percent

82. This term refers to the period when a police officer is actively
engaged in the performance of his duty.
A. off duty
B. off limits
C. on call
D. on duty
E. on the way

83. The act of temporarily denying an officer the privilege of

performing his police duties in consequence of an offense and
violation of rules and regulations.
A. dismissal
B. restriction
C. suspension
D. reprimand
E. incarceration

84. The credential extended by the Civil Service Commission/National

Police Commission for the purpose of conferring status for
permanent appointment in the police service.
A. police credibility
B. police visibility
C. Criminology Board Examination
D. police patrol examination
E. police eligibility

85. In the history of our police force, who was the first Director
General of the Philippine National Police (PNP)?
A. Gen. Cesar Nazareno
B. Gen. Raul Imperial
C. Gen. Umberto Rodriquez
D. Gen. Recaredo Sarmiento

86. The premier educational institution for the training, human

resource development and continuing education of all the
personnel of BJMP, BFP and PNP.
A. PNPA
B. PCCR
C. PNTC
D. PPSC
E. NSTC

87. Under the law, the city/municipal jail warden should have a rank
of __.
 A. Inspector
B. Chef Inspector
C. Senior Inspector
D. Superintendent
E. Chief Superintendent

88. The required rank for the Chief of Jail Bureau.

A. Chief Superintendent
B. Director General
C. Director
D. Deputy Director General
E. Senior Superintendent

89. It exercise supervision and control over the provincial jails.

A. BJMP
B. Bureau of Prisons
C. Department of Justice
D. Provincial Government

90. The required rank for the head of the Fire Bureau.
A. Chief Superintendent
B. Director General
C. Director
D. Deputy Director General
E. Senior Superintendent

91. It exercise supervision and control over all city and municipal
jails.
A. BJMP
B. Bureau of Prisons
C. Department of Justice
D. Local Government

92. The annual reservation percentage quota for women in the PNP
recruitment is __.
A. 25%
B. 5%
C. 10%
D. 20%

93. Which of the following administers and attends to cases involving

crimes against chastity?
A. CIDG
B. DSWD
C. Women’s Desk
D. Homicide Division

94. They are automatically deputized as NAPOLCOM representatives to

exercise supervision and control over PNP units.
A. Chief of Police
B. Judges
 C. Local Government Executives
D. Fiscals

95. They have the authority to recommend to the Provincial Director

the transfer, reassignment of PNP members outside of their town
residences.
A. Regional Directors
B. Priests
C. Chiefs of Police
D. Mayors

96. The head of a local peace and order council is the __.
A. judge
B. chief of police
C. mayor
D. governor

97. The utilization of units or elements, of the PNP for the purpose
of protection of lives and properties, enforcement of laws and
maintenance of peace and order.
A. employment
B. deployment
C. assignment
D. designation

98. The orderly and organized physical movement of elements or units

of the PNP.
A. employment
B. deployment
C. assignment
D. designation

99. One of the following exercises control and supervision over the
PNP units during elections.
A. NBI
B. Ombusdman
C. COMELEC
D. DILG

100.The number of eligible for which the Regional Director may

recommend for Provincial Director to the governor is __.
A. 2
B. 3
C. 5
D. 4

ANSWER KEY – LAW ENFORCEMENT ADMINISTRATION

1. C 26. C 51. C 76. C
2. C 27. B 52. B 77. C
3. B 28. D 53. D 78. C
4. C 29. D 54. C 79. E
5. D 30. D 55. A 80. D
6. B 31. B 56. A 81. C
7. D 32. B 57. C 82. D
8. C 33. B 58. D 83. C
9. B 34. D 59. B 84. E
10. D 35. C 60. C 85. A
11. D 36. A 61. B 86. D
12. C 37. B 62. C 87. C
13. D 38. B 63. C 88. C
14. BONUS 39. C 64. C 89. D
15. BONUS 40. A 65. BONUS 90. C
16. C 41. C 66. B 91. A
17. A 42. A 67. C 92. C
18. B 43. C 68. D 93. C
19. D 44. A 69. D 94. C
20. A 45. C 70. C 95. D
21. A 46. D 71. A 96. C
22. D 47. B 72. C 97. A
23. B 48. B 73. A 98. B
24. B 49. A 74. D 99. D
25. D 50. A 75. A 100. B