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HW5 Solutiontu

The document contains solutions to 5 physics homework problems. Problem 1 involves finding the normalization constant for a wavefunction and calculating the probability of finding a particle between two positions. Problem 2 proves the relationship between the expectation values of <px> and <xp> operators. Problem 3 explains why the wavelength and amplitude of a wavefunction change as shown in a diagram of a particle in a potential well. Problem 4 uses an identity involving sines to prove the eigenfunctions of a particle in a 1D box are orthogonal when integrated over the box volume. Problem 5 has several parts: (a) calculates the normalization constant for a particle wavefunction in a 3D box. (b) calculates

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
44 views

HW5 Solutiontu

The document contains solutions to 5 physics homework problems. Problem 1 involves finding the normalization constant for a wavefunction and calculating the probability of finding a particle between two positions. Problem 2 proves the relationship between the expectation values of <px> and <xp> operators. Problem 3 explains why the wavelength and amplitude of a wavefunction change as shown in a diagram of a particle in a potential well. Problem 4 uses an identity involving sines to prove the eigenfunctions of a particle in a 1D box are orthogonal when integrated over the box volume. Problem 5 has several parts: (a) calculates the normalization constant for a particle wavefunction in a 3D box. (b) calculates

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厭世仔
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© © All Rights Reserved
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近代物理 HW5 Solution

Q1.

𝑥2
(1) 求出波函數𝜓 = 𝐴𝑥𝑒 − 2 的正規化常數 A 值。(2%)

(2) 某個粒子在 內的波函數為 。(a) 求 A 值。(4%) (b) 求粒子在


𝑥 = 0 至 𝑥 = 𝜋/4 之間出現的機率。(4%)

A1.
2
(1) From 𝜓 ∗ 𝜓 = 𝐴2 𝑥 2 𝑒 −𝑥 ,

2 √𝜋
𝐴 ∫ 𝑥 2 𝑒 −𝑥 𝑑𝑥 ⇒ 𝐴2
2
= 1, 𝑠𝑜
−∞ 2

4 4 1/4 2 1/2
𝐴2 = √ , 𝐴=( ) =( )
𝜋 𝜋 √𝜋

(2) Both parts involve the integral ∫ 𝑐𝑜𝑠 4 𝑥𝑑𝑥, evaluated between different limits for the two parts. Of the

many ways to find this integral, including consulting tables and using symbolic-manipulation programs, a

direct algebraic reduction gives


2
1 1
𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝑥 = (𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝑥) = [ (1 + 𝑐𝑜𝑠 2 𝑥)] = [1 + 2 𝑐𝑜𝑠 2 𝑥 + 𝑐𝑜𝑠 2 ( 2𝑥)]
4 2 2
2 4
1 1 3 1 1
= [1 + 2 𝑐𝑜𝑠 2 𝑥 + (1 + 𝑐𝑜𝑠 4 𝑥)] = + 𝑐𝑜𝑠 2 𝑥 + 𝑐𝑜𝑠 4 𝑥,
4 2 8 2 8
1
where the identity cos 2  = (1 + cos 2 ) has been used twice.
2
(a) The needed normalization condition is
𝜋/2 𝜋/2
∗ 2
3 𝜋/2 1 𝜋/2
4
1 𝜋/2
2
∫ 𝜓 𝜓𝑑𝑥 = 𝐴 ∫ 𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝑥𝑑𝑥 = 𝐴 [ ∫ 𝑑𝑥 + ∫ 𝑐𝑜𝑠 2 𝑥𝑑𝑥 + ∫ 𝑐𝑜𝑠 4 𝑥𝑑𝑥] = 1.
−𝜋/2 −𝜋/2 8 −𝜋/2 2 −𝜋/2 8 −𝜋/2

The integrals

𝜋/2 𝜋/2 𝜋/2 𝜋/2


1 1
∫ 𝑐𝑜𝑠 2 𝑥𝑑𝑥 = 𝑠𝑖𝑛 2 𝑥| and ∫ 𝑐𝑜𝑠 4 𝑥𝑑𝑥 = 𝑠𝑖𝑛 4 𝑥|
−𝜋/2 2 −𝜋/2 4
−𝜋/2 −𝜋/2

are seen to vanish, and the normalization condition reduces to


3 8
1 = 𝐴2 ( ) 𝜋, 𝐴=√ .
8 3𝜋

(b) Evaluating the same integral between the different limits,

𝜋/2 𝜋/4
4
3 1 1 3𝜋 1
∫ 𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝑥𝑑𝑥 = [ 𝑥 𝑠𝑖𝑛 2 𝑥 + 𝑠𝑖𝑛 4 𝑥] = + .
0 8 4 32 0
32 4

The probability of the particle being found between 𝑥 = 0 and 𝑥 = 𝜋/4 is the product of this integral and

A2, or
3𝜋 1 8 3𝜋 1
𝐴2 ( + )= ( + ) = 0.462
32 4 3𝜋 32 4
Q2.


證明期望值〈px〉和〈xp〉符合下式的關係:〈𝑝𝑥〉 − 〈𝑥𝑝〉 = 𝑖 。(10%)

A2.
It’s crucial to realize that the expectation value 〈𝑝𝑥〉 is found from the combined operator 𝑝̂ 𝑥̂, which, when

operating on the wave function Ψ(x, t), corresponds to “multiply by x, differentiate with respect to x and

multiply by ħ/𝑖,” whereas the operator 𝑥̂𝑝̂ corresponds to “differentiate with respect to x, multiply by ħ/𝑖

and multiply by x”. Using these operators,


ћ 𝜕 ћ 𝜕
(𝑝̂ 𝑥̂)𝛹 = 𝑝̂ (𝑥̂𝛹) = (𝑥𝛹) = [𝛹 + 𝑥 𝜓],
𝑖 𝜕𝑥 𝑖 𝜕𝑥
where the product rule for partial differentiation has been used. Also,
ћ 𝜕 ћ 𝜕
(𝑥̂𝑝̂ )𝛹 = 𝑥̂(𝑝̂ 𝛹) = 𝑥 ( 𝛹) = [𝑥 𝛹].
𝑖 𝜕𝑥 𝑖 𝜕𝑥
Thus
ћ
(𝑝̂ 𝑥̂ − 𝑥̂𝑝̂ )𝛹 = 𝛹,
𝑖
and

ћ ћ ∞ ћ
⟨𝑝𝑥 − 𝑥𝑝⟩ = ∫ 𝛹 ∗ 𝛹𝑑𝑥 = ∫ 𝛹 ∗ 𝛹𝑑𝑥 =
−∞ 𝑖 𝑖 −∞ 𝑖
for Ψ(x, t) normalized.
Q3.

位能井中粒子的一個可能的波函數如圖5.17所繪。解釋為何 𝛹 的波長(5%)與振幅(5%)如圖變化。
A3.

The wave function must vanish at x = 0, where V → 0. As the potential energy increases with x, the particle’s

kinetic energy must decrease, and so the wavelength increases.

The amplitude increases as the wavelength increases because a larger wavelength means a smaller

momentum (indicated as well by the lower kinetic energy), and the particle is more likely to be found where

the momentum has a lower magnitude. The wave function vanishes again where the potential V → ∞; this

condition would determine the allowed energies.


Q4.

一個系統的本徵函數具有一個重要的特性就是它們彼此正交(orthogonal),也就是說

∫ 𝜓𝑛 𝜓𝑚 𝑑𝑉 = 0 , 𝑛 ≠ 𝑚
−∞
利用式(5.46)證明在一維箱中粒子的本徵函數有這樣的特性。(10%)

A4.

The necessary integrals are of the form



2 𝐿 𝑛𝜋𝑥 𝑚𝜋𝑥
∫ 𝜓𝑛 𝜓𝑚 𝑑𝑥 = ∫ 𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝑑𝑥
−∞ 𝐿 0 𝐿 𝐿
for integers 𝑛, 𝑚, with 𝑛 ≠ 𝑚 and 𝑛 ≠ – 𝑚. (A more general orthogonality relation would involve the

integral of 𝜓𝑛∗ 𝜓𝑚 , but as the eigenfunctions in this problem are real, the distinction need not be made.)

Such integrals are tabulated, or may be found from symbolic-manipulation programs. As an example, the

Maple commands that show this result are:

>assume(n, integer); additionally(m,integer);

>int(sin(n*Pi*x/L)*sin(m*Pi*x/L),x=0..L);

>int(sin(n*Pi*x/L)*sin(n*Pi*x/L),x=0..L);

To do the integrals directly, a convenient identity to use is


1
sin 𝛼 sin 𝛽 = [cos(𝛼 − 𝛽) − cos(𝛼 + 𝛽)]
2
as may be verified by expanding the cosines of the sum and difference of 𝛼 and 𝛽. To show orthogongality,

the stipulation 𝑛 ≠ 𝑚 means that 𝛼 ≠ 𝛽 and 𝛼 ≠ – 𝛽, and the integrals are of the form

1 𝐿 (𝑛 − 𝑚)𝜋𝑥 (𝑛 + 𝑚)𝜋𝑥
∫ 𝜓𝑛 𝜓𝑚 𝑑𝑥 = ∫ [𝑐𝑜𝑠 − 𝑐𝑜𝑠 ] 𝑑𝑥
−∞ 𝐿 0 𝐿 𝐿
1 𝐿 (𝑛 − 𝑚)𝜋𝑥 𝐿 (𝑛 + 𝑚)𝜋𝑥 𝐿
= [ 𝑠𝑖𝑛 − 𝑠𝑖𝑛 ] = 0,
𝐿 (𝑛 − 𝑚)𝜋 𝐿 (𝑛 + 𝑚)𝜋 𝐿 0

where 𝑠𝑖𝑛 (𝑛 – 𝑚)𝜋 = 𝑠𝑖𝑛(𝑛 + 𝑚)𝜋 = 𝑠𝑖𝑛 0 = 0 has been used.


Q5. (內文提到的 Excerise 21 為 Q5-(a))

(a) 一個有無限堅硬的正立方體箱,邊長為L(如圖 5.18),其中有一粒子。粒子的波函數如下

求出正規化常數 A 的值。(4%)

𝐿
(b) 習題 21 箱中的粒子若在基態,即 𝑛𝑥 = 𝑛𝑦 = 𝑛𝑦 = 1。(a) 求粒子在 0 ≦ 𝑥 ≦ 4,

𝐿 𝐿
0 ≦ 𝑦 ≦ 4 , 0 ≦ 𝑧 ≦ 4 內體積中出現的機率。(4%) (b) 將 𝐿/4 改為 𝐿/2 再做一次。(4%)

(c) 求出習題 21 箱中粒子的可能能量,將波函數 𝛹 代入薛丁格方程式解出 E。【提示:箱中


𝑈 = 0。】(5%) 比較長度 𝐿 之一維箱中粒子的基態能量與三維時有何不同。(3%)
A5.
(a) The normalization constant, assuming A to be real, is given by
𝐿 𝐿 𝑛𝑦 𝜋𝑥 𝐿
𝑛𝑥 𝜋𝑥
2 2 2
𝑛𝑧 𝜋𝑥
∫ 𝜓 ∗ 𝜓𝑑𝑉 = 1 = ∫ 𝜓 ∗ 𝜓𝑑𝑥𝑑𝑦𝑑𝑧 = 𝐴 (∫ 𝑠𝑖𝑛 ( )𝑑𝑥) (∫ 𝑠𝑖𝑛 ( )𝑑𝑦) (∫ 𝑠𝑖𝑛2 ( )𝑑𝑧).
0 𝐿 0 𝐿 0 𝐿
𝐿
Each integral above is equal to (from calculations identical to Equation (5.43)). The result is
2

𝐿 3 2 3/2
𝐴2 ( ) = 1 , 𝐴 = ( ) .
2 𝐿

(b) Using the result of Problem 5-21 (Q5-(a)),


8 𝜋𝑥 𝜋𝑦 𝜋𝑧
∫ 𝜓 ∗ 𝜓𝑑𝑉 = 3
∫ 𝑠𝑖𝑛2 𝑠𝑖𝑛2 𝑠𝑖𝑛2 𝑑𝑥𝑑𝑦𝑑𝑧
𝐿 𝐿 𝐿 𝐿
𝐿/4 𝐿/4 𝐿/4 𝐿/4 3
8 2
𝜋𝑥 2
𝜋𝑦 2
𝜋𝑧 8 𝜋𝑥
= 3 (∫ 𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝑑𝑥) (∫ 𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝑑𝑦) (∫ 𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝑑𝑧) = 3 (∫ 𝑠𝑖𝑛2 𝑑𝑥) ,
𝐿 0 𝐿 0 𝐿 0 𝐿 𝐿 0 𝐿
where the fact that each integral is the same has been used to ease the calculation. The intermediate step in

Example 5.4, with 𝑥1 = 0 and 𝑥2 = 𝐿/4, may be used to give the probability as

1 1 3
( − ) = 7.5 × 10−4
4 2𝜋
(b) Repeating the above calculation with the upper limit as L/2 instead of L/4,
𝐿/2
2𝜋𝑥 𝐿
∫ 𝑠𝑖𝑛2 = ,
0 𝐿 4
so that the probability is

8 𝐿 3 1
( ) =
𝐿3 4 8
This should be expected from the symmetry of the wave function in the box; each octant of the cube is the

same as any of the others, and the probability that the particle is in any one of the octants must be equal, and

equal to one-eighth.

(c) (a) For the wave function of Problem 5-21, Equation (5.33) must be used to find the energy. Before

substitution into Equation (5.33), it is convenient and useful to note that for this wave function
𝜕 2𝜓 𝑛𝑥2 𝜋 2 𝜕 2 𝜓 𝑛𝑦2 𝜋 2 𝜕 2 𝜓 𝑛𝑧2 𝜋 2
= − 2 𝜓, 2 = − 2 𝜓, 2 = − 2 𝜓.
𝜕 2𝑥 𝐿 𝜕 𝑦 𝐿 𝜕 𝑥 𝐿
Then, substitution into Equation (5.33) gives

𝜋2 2 2𝑚
− 2 (𝑛𝑥 + 𝑛𝑦2 + 𝑛𝑧2 )𝜓 + 2 𝐸𝜓 = 0,
𝐿 ℏ
and so the energies are

𝜋 2 ℏ2 2
𝐸𝑛𝑥 ,𝑛𝑦 ,𝑛𝑧 = (𝑛 + 𝑛𝑦2 + 𝑛𝑧2 ).
2𝑚𝐿2 𝑥
(b) The lowest energy occurs when 𝑛𝑥 = 𝑛𝑦 = 𝑛𝑦 = 1. None of the Integers nx, ny or nz can be zero, as

that would mean ψ = 0 identically. The minimum energy is then

3𝜋 2 ℏ
𝐸𝑚𝑖𝑛 =
2𝑚𝐿2
which is three times the ground-state energy of a particle in a one-dimensional box of length L (Equation (5.40)

with n = 1).
Q6.

(a) 具有能量 0.400 𝑒𝑉 的電子射向高 3.00 𝑒𝑉、寬 0.100𝑛𝑚 的障。求出電子穿越障的近似機率。(5%)


(b) 一束電子射向高 6.00 𝑒𝑉 寬 0.200 𝑛𝑚 障。利用式 (5.60),求出如果要有 1% 的電子穿越障,則
這些電子應該具有多少能量?(5%)

A6.

(a) Using the approximate form for the transmission probability as given in Equation (5.60),
2𝑚(𝑈−𝐸)
(−2√ 𝐿)
(−2𝑘2 𝐿) ℏ
𝑇≈𝑒 =𝑒
√2(9.1095×10−31 kg)(1.602×10−19 J/eV)
(−2 (0.100×10−9 )𝑚)
(1.055×10−34 𝐽⋅𝑠)
=𝑒

= 0.19.

(b) Solving Equation (5.60) for k2,


1 1 1
𝑘2 = 𝑙𝑛 = 𝑙𝑛( 100) = 1.1513 × 1010 𝑚−1 ,
2𝐿 𝑇 2(0.200 × 10−9 𝑚)
keeping extra significant figures. Equation (5.86), from the Appendix, may be solved for the energy E, but a

more direct expression is

𝑝2 (ℏ𝑘2 )2
𝐸 = 𝑈 − KE = 𝑈 − =𝑈−
2𝑚 2𝑚
((1.055 × 10−34 𝐽 ⋅ 𝑠)(1.1513 × 1010 𝑚−1 ))2
= 6.00eV −
2(9.1095 × 10−31 kg)(1.602 × 10−19 𝐽/eV)
= 0.949eV.

As the potential is given to the nearest 0.01 eV, the electron energy would be known to this precision, or

0.95 𝑒𝑉.
Q7.

考慮具有動能 𝐸 的粒子束射向 𝑥 = 0 處高度為𝑈 的電位梯階,且 𝐸 > 𝑈(圖5.19)。



(a) 解釋為何解𝐷𝑒 −𝑖𝑘 𝑥 (如附錄中的標示)在這裡沒有物理意義,因此 𝐷 = 0。(2%)
𝐶𝐶 ∗ 𝑣 ′ 4𝑘1 2
(b) 證明穿隧機率𝑇 = 𝐴𝐴∗𝑣 = (𝑘 ′ )2
。(3%)
1 1 +𝑘

(c) 一個 1.00 𝑚𝐴 的電子束以速度2.00 × 106 𝑚/𝑠進入一邊界陡峭變化的區域後,因為位能變化,速


度降至1.00 × 106 𝑚/𝑠。求穿隧(3%)與反射(2%)的電流。

A7.
(a) In the notation of the Appendix, the wave function in the two regions has the form

𝑖𝑘 ′  𝑥 ′  𝑥
𝜓𝐼 = 𝐴 𝑒 𝑖𝑘1 𝑥 + 𝐵 𝑒 −𝑖 𝑘1 𝑥 , 𝜓II = 𝐶 𝑒 + 𝐷 𝑒 −𝑖𝑘 ,

where

2𝑚𝐸 2𝑚(𝐸 − 𝑈)
𝑘1 = √ , 𝑘′ = √ .
ℏ ℏ
′𝑥
The terms corresponding to 𝑒 −𝑖𝑘1 𝑥 and 𝑒 −𝑖𝑘 represent particles traveling to the left; this is possible in

region I, due to reflection at the step at 𝑥 = 0, but not in region II (the reasoning is the same as that which
′𝑥
lead to setting G= 0 in Equation (5.82)). Therefore, the 𝑒 −𝑖𝑘 term is not physically meaningful, and

𝐷 = 0.
(b) The boundary conditions at x = 0 are then
𝑘′
𝐴 + 𝐵 = 𝐶, 𝑖 𝑘1  𝐴 − 𝑖 𝑘1  𝐵 = 𝑖 𝑘 ′ 𝐶 or 𝐴 − 𝐵 = 𝐶.
𝑘1
𝑘′
Adding to eliminate 𝐵, 2𝐴 = (1 + 𝑘 ) 𝐶, so
1

𝐶 2 𝑘1 𝐶𝐶 ∗ 4 𝑘12
= and = .
𝐴 𝑘1 + 𝑘 ′ 𝐴𝐴 ∗ (𝑘1 + 𝑘 ′ )2
(Note that the ratios 𝐶/𝐴 and C*/A* are real in this case.)

(c) The particle speeds are different in the two regions, so Equation (5.83) becomes
|𝜓II |2 𝜐 ′ 𝐶𝐶 ∗ 𝑘 ′ 4𝑘1 𝑘 ′ 4(𝑘1 /𝑘 ′ )
𝑇= = = = .
|𝜓𝐼 |2 𝜐1 𝐴𝐴 ∗ 𝑘1 (𝑘1 + 𝑘 ′ )2 ((𝑘1 /𝑘 ′ ) + 1)2
𝑘1 𝜐1 (4)(2) 8
For the given situation, = = 2.00, so 𝑇 = ((2)+1)2 = 9. The transmitted current is
𝑘′ 𝜐′

(T)×(1.00 mA) = 0.889 mA, and the reflected current is 0.111 mA.

As a check on the last result, note that the ratio of the reflected current to the incident current is, in the

notation of the Appendix,


|𝜓𝐼+ |2 𝜐1 𝐵𝐵 ∗
𝑅= = .
|𝜓𝐼+ |2  𝜐1 𝐴𝐴 ∗
Eliminating C from the equations obtained in part (b) from the continuity condition as x = 0,
𝑘′ 𝑘′
𝐴 (1 − ) = 𝐵 (1 + ) ,so
𝑘1 𝑘1
2
(𝑘1/𝑘 ′ ) − 1 1
𝑅=( ) = = 1 − 𝑇,
(𝑘1 /𝑘 ′ ) + 1 9
as expected.
Q8.
60ℏ2
Consider the finite potential well, if the potential energy is equal to , how many energy levels are
𝑚𝐿2

ℏ2
allowed in the potential well? What are their values (in unit of )? (10%)
𝑚𝐿2

Please also compare them with those in the infinite potential well. (Hint: you can use the supplemental
material and matlab codes to answer this question.)(10%)

Note:
1. You can use the symbolic math toolbox of Matlab or symbolic python SymPy to perform the integration
of wave functions.
2. For Questions 5 and 8, it is 20 points in each question. The remaining questions are each 10 points.

A8.

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