-` Part I Diagnosis Examination

This an object type of examination wherein you are required to supply the answer to the identification questions. The
objective of this undertaking is to determine and gauge the examinee’s/ reviewee’s proficiency per subject category listed
under the new criminology licensure syllabus in compliance with CMO 21 s. this self assessment will guide the examinee
to identify specific areas and subjects which necessitates supplementary and trough study.
Criminal Law Book 1
1. The book of official rules and regulations, generally found in constitutions, legislation, judicial opinions, and the
like, that is use to govern a society and to control the behavior of its members.
2. A characteristic of criminal law which means that the provisions of the criminal or penal law must be applied
uniformly to all persons within the territory irrespective of nationality, gender, age and other personal
circumstances.
3. Refer to the quality by which an act may be credited to the person as the author or owner.
4. Reduces the penalty imposed by law lower by one or two degrees and cannot be offset by aggravating
circumstances.
5. Those who cooperate in the commission of the offense by another act without which it would not have been
accomplished.
Criminal law book II
1. To commit this felony the following circumstance must concur: the offender is a public officer or employee, he
detains a person and that the detention is without legal grounds.
2. A crime of masses or of a multitude where the object of the movement is to completely supercede and overthrow
the existing government. There must be a public uprising and taking arms against the duly constituted
government. It is a crime against public order.
3. May be committed by either making a false affidavit or by falsely testifying under oath.
4. Killing of a 3 day old child.
5. Shooting at another with any firearm.
Criminal Procedure
1. Vested with the court by substantive law it includes not only the power to determine a cause but also the power to
impose the judgment.
2. Is a sworn written statement charging a person with an offense, subscribed by the offended party, any peace offer,
or other public officer charged with the enforcement of the law violated.
3. The security given for the release of a person in custody of the law, furnished by him or a bondsman, to guarantee
his appearance before any court as required under the conditions here in after specified.
4. It is the stage where the accused is formally informed of the charges against him done in open court and asking
him whether he pleads guilty or not guilty.
5. The procedure whereby the accused, the plaintiff and the prosecution work out mutually satisfactory disposition
of the case which is subject to the approval of the court.
Evidence
1. A form of evidence either oral or written taken from the witness who may be asked about the question of issue.
2. It is a legal term and is defined as a written testimony of a witness given in course of a judicial proceeding, in
advance of a trial of hearing, upon oral examination or in response to written interrogatories and where an
opportunity is given for cross-examination.
3. The declaration of an accused acknowledging his guilt of the offense charged, or of any offense necessarily
included therein, may be given in evidence against him.
4. Statements made by a person while a starting occurrence is taking place or immediately prior or subsequent there
to with respect to the circumstances thereof.
5. In civil cases, the party having burden of proof must establish his case by _______.
Court Testimony

1
 1. When the judge enters the courtroom, the clerk of court or bailiff announces: “all rise, the court is now in session,
silence is enjoined”.
2. A court attendant or officer who as the responsibility of a court session in the matter of keeping order. Also
referred to as a sheriff, to whom some authority, guardianship, care is delivered, entrusted or committed.
3. One who is present and personally sees or perceives a thing, and makes it known to the judicial tribunal by way
of testimony.
4. It suggests or prompts the witness to give a reply the examiner wants to hear, it usually begins with “Did” or
Didn’t”.
5. Is used to test the credibility of the witness of the adverse party. It is composed of questions answerable by yes or
no.
Police organization and Administration with Police Planning
1. Police service gives the impression of being merely suppressive machinery. This philosophy advocates that the
yardstick of police competence is the increasing number of arrests, throwing offenders in detention facilities
rather than trying to prevent them from committing crimes.
2. In this type of organization, the performance of certain duties, at all levels, is controlled and directed by a separate
organizational authority.
3. The NAPOLCOM is an attached agency of the ________.
4. Position title of the Head of the PNP.
5. Refers to the power to direct, superintend, oversee and inspect the police units and forces. It shall include the
power to employ and deploy units or elements of the PNP, through station commander, to ensure public safety
and effective maintenance of peace and order within the locality
Industrial security Management
1. Connotes safety from harm; it has different dimensions in public safety, defense and military matters, information
access and psychology. It is the condition of being free from fear, doubt, apprehension, anxiety and danger.
2. It is concerned utilization of physical measures to prevent unauthorized access to facilities, plants, equipment and
safeguard them against man-made and natural hazards.
3. A line protection surrounding and removed from a protected area, such as fence and walls.
4. The simplest form of lock is a ward lock which uses a bolt containing a notch called talon. The bolt is removed
backward or forward by engaging a key in the talon. It offers little degree of security and is merely used to afford
one for obtaining privacy.
5. It refers to the importance of the establishment with reference to the national economy and security.
Police Patrol Operations with Police Communication System
1. The traditional type of patrol.
2. The most dominant form of patrol.
3. Known as community oriented Policing System in its application in Philippine Setting it has wide applications in
the Philippine National Police particularly in urban areas. This is a concept which involves teamwork with the
citizenry in combating crimes and prevention of delinquency in the community.
4. The theory underlying this patrol strategy is that t here are certain kinds of crimes that can be reduced by the “aura
of police omnipresence”.
5. A known doctrine of law wherein an individual is said to maintain on his business or residential premises a
condition, situation, instrumentality, or machine that is dangerous to the youth particularly for young children due
to their inability to recognize and appreciate peril.
Intelligence and secret Service
1. It serves as a clearing house of records that provides communicating information from the police force of one
country to those of another.

2
 2. It is an activity, which is intended to build an organization against the enemy by ensuring loyalty of its members
through stringent background investigation. Designed to thwart attempts and neutralize penetration activities, this
endeavor will ensure integrity among members of the police intelligence community.
3. It is a communicated knowledge obtained by study, observation, research and analysis.
4. Refers to the examination of raw materials in order to determine its reliability, credibility and relevance to police
operations.
5. Targets criminal activity considered to be of immediate importance to law enforcement units. It furnishes the
police with specifics about the individual, organizations and their type of activities.
Police Records and Personnel Management
1. The technique of organizing and handling of people at work in all levels and types of management.
2. State of being accountable.
3. Allows officers to influence decisions affecting them and seeks to form a cohesive team, this a shift from an
authoritarian management to leadership style that converges on teamwork.
4. Involves liaisoning among the staff of the same level for the benefit of entire organization.
5. Defined as a “general plan of action” that serves as a guide in the operation of the organization.
Comparative Police System
1. Considered as a “Father of Modern Policing” devised the traditional pyramid of authority and organizational
hierarchy based from that of the military, often called the paramilitary model of the metropolitan Police of
London.
2. The “Father of Professional Policing”, he was the primary advocate for requiring higher education for those
entering the law enforcement service.
3. It is the leading secret police organization of the Russian Federation and main successor of the Soviet Checka,
NKVD, and KGB. Its headquarters are still in Lubyanka Square, Moscow.
4. Established in 1908 and designated as the investigati9ve arm of the US Department of Justice. Under the
leadership of John Edgar Hoover, it was vested with the responsibility of handling domestic intelligence of the
United States.
5. Law enforcers or policemen are regarded as servants of the community, who rely for the efficiency of their
functions upon the express needs of the people.
Personal Identification
1. The process of comparing questioned and known friction skin ridge impressions from fingers, palms, toes to
determine if the impressions are from the same finger.
2. No two fingerprints are alike. The ridges on the hands and feet of all persons have three characteristics (ridge
endings, bifurcation and dots) which appear in combinations that are never repeated on the hands or feet of any
two persons.
3. Represents only about 5 percent of the fingerprint patterns encountered. In these patterns, the ridges run from one
side to the other of the pattern, making no backward turn.
4. Include patterns in which combinations of the tented arch, loop and whorl are found in the same print, also
patterns where the majority of ridges are loops and a few ridges at the center or side are whorls.
5. It provides to local, national criminal justice agencies access to electronic ten-print identification services, subject
search and criminal history database, latent fingerprint database, document and fingerprint services and remote
search service.
Police Photography
1. The sun is covered by the clouds and the shadow appears bluish because of the decrease of light falling on the
subjects in open space. The shadow cast is transparent to the eye and more details are visible under this lightning
condition than in bright sunlight.
2. Is sensitive to all colors, especially to blue and violet. It is suitable for general use in the preparation of black and
white photographs.

3
 3. Refers to the range of illumination or the light allowed to affect the sensitized material at a given time.
4. It is mainly responsible for the sharpness of the image formed through which light passes during the exposure.
5. A transparent medium which transmit and absorbs different wave length of lights.
Ballistics
1. The metallic or non-metallic objects propelled from a firearm.
2. Which refers to the sound created at the muzzle end of the barrel due to the sudden escape of expanding gas.
3. The speed of the bullet upon hitting the target.
4. An instrument used for the propulsion of projectiles by means of the expansive force of gases coming from
burning gunpowder.
5. A hand firearm which applies to single shot through a rifled-bore for every press of the trigger, usually applied to
semi-automatic loading.
Questioned Document
1. The study of handwriting to determine one’s personality trait.
2. Refers to any document completely signed and written by one person.
3. Is a disease where one losses the ability to write even though he could still grasp a writing instrument.
4. Is the combination of peculiarities of writing which is most personal and individual thing that a man does which
leaves a record that can be seen and analyzed.
5. Refers tot hat peculiar or distinct character which is used in describing handwriting to any identifying factor
which is related to the writing movement itself.
Polygraphy
1. A primitive practice of detecting deception whereby controversies in accusations are settled by means of duel, the
victor will be spared from the consequences while the loser will be pronounced guilty.
2. Its primarily serves as the paper feed mechanism of the polygraph machine. It is the device that records the
different tracings by driving the paper out under a recording pen unit.
3. Administered by the polygraph examiner designed to condition or prepare the subject for the actual polygraph
test. Its duration usually lasts 20 to 30 minutes.
4. It is similar to the method of interrogation administered by the polygraph examiner which is designed to obtain
admission or confession of the subject.
5. Designed to test for direct involvement which is specifically designed to produce an emotional response in guilty
subjects it having an intense specific relationship to the crime.
Forensic Medicine
1. The type of death characterized by the absence of cognitive function or awareness, although artificial support
system may maintain organ functioning.
2. A medico legal classification of death that occurs due to a disease or ailment in the body. The diseases may occur
spontaneously or it might have been the consequence of the physical injury inflicted prior to its development.
3. Refers to a specific impairment of the body structure or function caused by an outside force or agent.
4. It is the physical injury which is found not at the side but opposite the site of the application of force.
5. It is the burn which involves the superficial layer of the skin and tissue, nerve endings and is characterized by the
formation of blisters containing fluid over the tissues. This is the most painful burn because of the irritation of the
nerve endings.
Fundamentals of Criminal Investigation
1. Refers to the vigorous or forceful questioning of a person who is reluctant or unwilling to reveal and divulge
information.
2. Refers to the application of methods and applied sciences such as ballistics, dactyloscopy, polygraphy, forensic
medicine, forensic chemistry, questioned documents and photography in the detection of crimes and establishing
the link between the suspect and the crime and placing them in the crime scene.

4
 3. A confession outside the court and before the trial is said to be voluntarily when the accused person made the
declaration of guilt in his own freewill, without the influence of others or given not as a result of force or
intimidation, violence, treat or promise of reward or leniency.
4. Refers to the moving power which compels one to action for a specific and definite result.
5. This would include items which tend to es5tablish the identity of the suspect such as wallet, identification cards,
receipts, and other personal items.
Special crime investigation
1. Refers to the application of psychological theory to the analysis and reconstruction of the forensic evidence that
relates to a suspect’s crime scenes, victims and behavior.
2. Primary duty of a first responder to a crime science.
3. Is the conduct of processes, more particularly yhe recognition, search, collection, handling, preservation and
documentation of physical evidence to include the identification and interview of witnesses and the arrest of the
suspect/s at the crime scene.
4. Is a computer tool that presents police with information on where certain crimes are being committed. Link
charting enables detectives to plot the relationships between criminals and their activities.
5. Pertains to the number of persons who have access to the evidence on hand, from the time it was discovered,
collected, stored, examined until its presentation in court. As a rule, the chain should be kept to a minimum and
for its proper transfer; acknowledgement and receipt must be accomplished and duly recorded.
Traffic Management and Accident Investigation
1. Ares within the roadway constructed in a manner to establish physical channels which vehicular traffic is guided.
2. The science of measuring traffic and travel, the study of the basic laws relative to the traffic flow and generation,
and the application if this acknowledge to the professional practice of planning, designing and operating traffic,
systems to achieve safe and efficient movement of persons and goods.
3. Means a dangerous conduct and attitude which indicates a lack of concern for injurious consequences.
4. This is wholly police responsibility, which requires adequate training and experience on the part of the police to
make them more effective in their enforcement effort while assigned ion the field.
5. Is a detailed study made to determine the factors contributing to the occurrence of accidents. Identification of the
contributory factors is a must in implementing measures to prevent future and similar occurrences or lessen the
impact of effect of the accident.
Organized Crime Organization
1. Is a continuing and self-perpetuating criminal conspiracy engaged by congregation that are hierarchical in
structure, feed on fear and corruption, and are motivated by the probable generation of profits, impacting
particular regions or the nation as a whole.
2. It literally means sanctuary.
3. Literally meaning “Black Society”, a general term for criminal organizations is a term that describes many
branches of Chinese underground society and/or organizations based in Hong Kong and also operating in Taiwan,
mainland china, and countries with significant Chinese populations.
4. Crimes that are not only international , that is, crimes that cross borders between countries, but crimes that by
their nature have border crossing as an essential part of the criminal activity.
5. A term used to described violence or other harmful acts committed (or threatened) against civilians by groups or
persons for political or ideological goals.
Drug Education and Vice Control
1. Refers to any drug which produces insensibility, stupor, melancholy or dullness of mind with delusion and which
may be habit forming.
2. Chemical substance that generally speed up central nervous system function, resulting in alertness and
excitability.

5
 3. Sometimes known as “all arounders” and “mind expanders” these drugs affect a person’s perception, awareness
and emotions.
4. Refers to any immoral conduct or habit, the indulgence of which leads to depravity, wickedness and corruption of
the mind and body.
5. Propagated by the Europeans, this is also known as the “French Model” it maintains the idea that society cannot
do away with prostitution unless we consider the problem causing it and removing identified causes.
Arson Investigation
1. Is the chemical process whereby fire consumes most solid.
2. Refers to the heat at which a flammable liquid form a vapour-air mixture that ignites.
3. The colour of the flame is blue due to the almost complete combustion of the fuel and has relatively high
temperature and forms no soot deposit.
4. This is the acceleration of pyrolitic process. It is during this stage that the maximum heat and destructive
capabilities of fire develop.
5. Is a means by which heat is transformed by a circulating medium either gas or a liquid.
Introduction to Criminology with Psychology of Crimes
1. Persons whose mental retardation is similar than the intelligence of a child n2 years of age and below.
2. Crimes committed in a single instance and does not have any frustrated stage.
3. This index to criminality suggests that a person before committing a crime feels certain resentment, anger and
hate.
4. He coined in the word Criminology.
5. The study of population in relation to criminality.
Criminal Justice System
1. Refers to judges in general.
2. The community’s first line of defense against criminality.
3. Is the course of action or process whereby accusations are brought before a court of justice to determine the
innocence or guilt of the accused.
4. The primary prosecutorial arm of the state.
5. Often referred to as higher courts or appellate courts, are generally those to which appeals are made from
decisions of courts of inferior jurisdiction.
Ethics and Values
1. Is that viewpoint in which the highest good is pleasure.
2. Are implicitly related to a degree of behavioral freedom or autonomy by human beings; it steer or guide the
person, on the basis of internally chosen options.
3. Refers to the ability to govern and discipline oneself by means or logical reasoning and sound discretion. It is a
habit which inclines man to act in a way that harmonizes with nature.
4. The relinquishment and assumption of command or key position which is publicly announced.
5. The sacrifice of limbs and lives for the sake of their countrymen whom they have pledged to serve.
Juvenile Delinquency and Crime Prevention
1. Legal doctrine which allows the state to take custody and care of a child abused, abandoned or neglected by the
parents.
2. Form of delinquency where the errant child feels no remorse for his anti-social act.
3. Refers to conditions and elements which provokes crimes of factors such as personal problems, curiosity,
ignorance, necessities and diseases.
4. A child who has no proper parental care or guardianship, or whose parents or guardians have deserted him for a
period of at least six continuous months.
5. Refers to a child who is vulnerable to and at the risk of committing criminal offenses because of personal, family
and social circumstances.

6
Human Behavior and Crisis Management
1. The sum of qualities and potentialities genetically derived from one’s ancestors and the aggregate of social and
cultural conditions of a community wherein a person is situated will tremendously shape and influence the
development, character, type of human behavior of a person and of society in general.
2. Are human conduct in response to stimuli undertaken by means of substation.
3. Is a condition of psychological arousal an expression or display of distinctive somatic and autonomic responses.
4. Refers to the study of social interactions of people. Its objective is to provide better understanding of how people
relate to each other so that they may develop improve communication and human relationship.
5. Are unwarranted fear in specific situations when there is no real danger or fears that are totally out of
proportions.
Criminological Research
1. It means to investigate thoroughly.
2. Is a way of looking at natural phenomena that encompasses a set of philosophical assumptions and guide one’s
approach to inquiry.
3. Is the ethical principle that the moral worth an action is solely determined by its contribution to overall utility. It is
a form of consequentialism.
4. Focuses on the identity of the human subject, multiculturalism, feminism, and human relationships to deal with
the concepts of “Difference” and “otherness” without essentialism or reductionism, but its contributions are not
always appreciated.
5. An Interactionist theory of deviance. This theory centers on how individuals learn how to become criminals, but
does not concern itself with why they became criminals.
Institutional Corrections
1. A place of confinement for long term detention.
2. Corrections under the United Nation is classified as _____ defense.
3. Amnesty is a general from of pardon which is given by the chief executive and requires the concurrence of
congress is given to __________.
4. The best justification for punishment which calls for individualized treatment of convicted offenders.
5. An order in writing from the judge which orders the detention of a particular individual.
6. It exercises jurisdiction over all prison and jails in the Philippines.
7. A penalty instituted as a form of substitute to the old corporal punishment.
8. The physical plant of a medium security facility requires this barrier.
9. The ideal number of times in counting inmates.
10. Bulwark of community protection.
Non-institutional Corrections
1. To be qualified for parole what is the required service of sentence?
2. The origin of the word probation which calls for community rehabilitation.
3. The judge will require the prosecutor to submit his ____ on a petition for probation.
4. An alternative to imprisonment which calls for community rehabilitation.
5. Body which approves all cases of parole application.
6. This will serve as the basis and guide for the judge to approve a petition for probation.
7. The maximum period of probation for all cases where the penalty of imprisonment is not more than one year.
8. A probationer under medium supervision is mandated to report to his probation officer for _____ a week.
9. It refers to circumstances attendant and prior to the commission of a crime.
10. Form of probation where the probationer is required to report to another probation officer in cases of permitted
travel more than one month but not more than 6 months outside the original jurisdiction.

7
 PART II - PRE-BOARD EXAMINATION
CRIMINAL LAW AND JURISPRUDENCE
CLJ - I. CRIMINAL LAW BOOK I
1. Under this, crimes are not triable in that country unless they merely affect things within the vessel or they refer to the
internal management thereof.
a. French rule c. Law of preferential application
b. English rule d. Spanish rule
2. It refers to inaction, by which a person may be considered criminally liable when the law requires the performance of a
certain act, e.g. failure to assist one's own victim.
a. Act c. Fraud
b. Intent d. Omission
3. It indicates a deficiency of action.
a. Negligence c. Lack of skill
b. Imprudence d. Lack of foresight
4. It refers to deficiency of perception.
a. Negligence c. Lack of skill
b. Imprudence d. Lack of foresight
5. For an act to be considered to be done with malice or dolo, which among the following must be present?
a. Freedom c. Intent
b. Intelligence d. All of the foregoing
6. Refers to that cause which in natural is a continuous sequence, unbroken by any efficient superseding ground, produces
the injury and without which the result would not have occured.
a. Proximate cause c. Over acts
b. Intervening cause d. Active force
7. It is the portion of the acts constitutingthe felony, starting from the point where the offenders begins the commission of
the crime to the point where he has control over his acts.
a. Objective phase c. Over acts
b. Subjective phase d. Attempted felony
8. Generally they are punishable only when they have been consummated, with the exemption of those crime committed
against person or property.
a. Light felonies c. Grave felonies
b. Less grave felonies d. All of the foregoing
9. Self defense or one’s natural instinct to repel, protect and save his person or right from impending peril or danger is an
example of what circumstance which affect criminal liability?
a. Justifying c. Aggravating
b. Exempting d. Mitigating
10. A inflicted slight physical injuries to B without intention to inflict other injuries, B then attacked A is an example of?
a. Self defense c. Retaliation
b. Interveningcause d. Proximate cause
11. The basis of this circumstances affecting criminal liability is the complete absence of freedom of action, intelligence,
intent or negligence on the part of the accused.
a. Justifying c. aggravating
b. Exempting d. mitigating
12. Under our laws, what is the age of full responsibility?
a. 9 years and below of infancy
b. between 9 and 15 years
c. 18 to 70n years of age (adolescence to maturity)
d. over 9 under 15 acting with discernment, 15 or over but less than 18; over 70 years of age
13. Age of absolute responsibility
a. 9 years and below of infancy
b. between 9 and 15 years
8
 c. 18 to 70n years of age (adolescence to maturity)
d. over 9 under 15 acting with discernment, 15 or over but less than 18; over 70 years of age
14. Which among the following may be considered as an alternative circumstances.
a. relationship c. degree of instruction and education of the offender
b. intoxication d. all of the foregoing
15. X and Y stabbed Z, injuring the Z in the process, X and Y are considered as;
a. principal by direct participation c. principal by indispensable cooperation
b. principal by induction d. co-principals
16. Boy forcibly took Maria to a vacant lot and allowed his friends Lando and Tinoy to rape Maria Boy is liable as;
a. principal by direct participation c. principal by indispensable cooperation
b. principal by induction d. co-principals
17. it refers to those penalties expressly imposed by the court in the judgment of conviction.
a. principal penalties c. subsidiary penalties
b. accessory penalties d. fine
18. in the crime of theft, the culprit is duty-bound to return the stolen property.
a. restitution c. indemnification for consequential damages
b. reparation d. civil liability
19. Crimes punishable by correctional penalties, except those punishable by arresto mayor shall prescribe in how many
years?
a. 20 years c. 10 years
b. 15 years d. 5 years
20. it includes rivers, creeks, bays, gulfs, lakes, coves lying wholly within the three mile limit of any nation.
a. maritime zone c. low water mark
b. interior waters d. high seas
21. It makes criminal an act done before the passage of the law which was innocent when done, and punish it.
a. ex post facto law c. law in preferential application
b. bill of attainder d. self repealing laws
22. refers to one of three equal portions, minimum, medium and maximum of a divisible penalty.
a. degree c. prescription
b. period d. duration
23. which among the foregoing is considered as a primary source of criminal law?
a. Act No. 3815 c. penal presidential decrees
b. special penal law d. constitution
24. Those punishable by arresto mayor penalties shall prescribed in how many years?
a. 20 years c. 10 years
b. 5 years d. 15 years
25. it is the forfeiture of the right of the state to execute the final sentence after a certain lapse of time.
a. prescription of the crime c. degree of the penalty
b. prescription of the penalty d. period of the penalty
26. it is the branch or division of law which defines crimes treat of their nature, and provide for their punishment.
a. civil law c. procedural law
b. criminal law d. substantive law
27. refers to a sentence of imprisonment for the maximum period defined by law subject to the termination by the parole
board at any time after service of the sentence.
a. suspension c. prescription
b. indeterminate sentence d. period of penalty
28. refers to the purpose to use a particular means to effect such result.
a. intent c. deceit
b. motive d. fault
29. John commences with the execution of a felony but fails to perform all acts which should produce it, the development
or stage refers to:
a. consummated c. frustrated
b. attempted d. negligence
30. any bodily movement that tends to produce some effect in the external world.

9
 a. act c. dolo
b. omission d. culpa
31. libel and other similar offenses shall prescribe in how many years?
a. 15 years c. 5 years
b. 10 years d. 1 year
32. an entire penalty enumerated in the graduated scale of penalties.
a. degree c. prescription
b. period d. duration
33. refers generally to acts made criminal by special laws.
a. felony c. mala inse
b. mala ince d. mala prohibita
34. under RA 7659, the death penalty may be suspended when the accused is among the foregoing except:
a. a woman while pregnant c. woman within one year after delivery
b. persons over 70 years old d. persons over 18 but under 21 years of age
35. which among the foregoing is not a requisite for dolo?
a. intelligence c. intent
b. freedom d. deceit
36. refers to the loss of the right of the state to prosecute the offender after a certain lapse of time.
a. prescription of the crime c. degree of the penalty
b. prescription of the penalty d. period of the penalty
37. things which are wrongful on the nature.
a. evil c. mala inse
b. mala ince d. mala prohibita
38. felonies punishable by death, reclusion perpetua and reclusion temporal shall prescribe in:
a. 20 years c. 10 years
b. 15 years d. 5 years
39. acts and omissions punishable by law.
a. dolo c. felonies
b. culpa d. crime
40. Ariel intending to kill Jiggs to avenged lost honor stabbed the latter three times in the chest, how ever due to prompt
medical attention Jiggs was able to survive the attack, Ariel is liable for:
a. physical injuries c. frustrated homicide
b. attempted homicide d. frustrated murder
41. when all the elements necessary for the execution and accomplishment of a felony are present it is said to be:
a. consummated c. frustrated
b. attempted d. negligence
42. it is a physical activity or dead, indicating the intention to commit a particular crime.
a. act c. fault
b. omission d. over act
43. Abberatio ictus refers to:
a. mistake of the facts c. mistake in the blow
b. mistake in the identity d. ignorance of the law
44. what must be considered in determining whether the crime committed is only attempted, frustrated or consummated?
a. nature of the offense d. manner if commission
b. elements constituting the felony d. all of these
45. refers to crimes consummated in one instant or by a single act.
a. formal crimes c. rational crimes
b. informal crimes d. irrational crimes
46. refers to the obligation or suffering the consequences of crime.
a. imputability c. liability
b. culpability d. responsibility
47. a quality which an act may be ascribed to a person as the author of owner.
a. imputability c. liability
b. culpability d. responsibility

10
48. refers to felonies which the law imposes penalties which are correctional in nature.
a. grave c. light
b. less grave d. slight
49. when the law attaches capital punishment or affictive penalties the felony is said to be?
a. grave c. light
b. less grave d. slight
50. infractions to the law punishable by arresto menor or a fine not exceeding 200 pesos or both.
a. grave c. light
b. less grave d. slight
51. light felonies are made punishable only when they are:
a. consummated c. frustrated
b. attempted d. intended
52. exemption to the general rule in cases of light felonies.
a. when committed against person c. when committed against honor
b. when committed against chastity d. when committed against liberty
53. it exist when two or more persons come to an agreement to commit a felony.
a. plan c. proposal
b. conspiracy d. none of the above
54. what occurs when a person who has decided to commit a felony recommends its execution to some other person?
a. conspiracy c. proposal
b. piracy d. none of the above
55. acts of a person which are said to be in accordance with the law, so that such person is deemed not to have
transgressed the law and is free from both criminal and civil liability except for state of necessity.
a. justifying circumstances c. exempting circumstances
b. mitigating circumstances d. aggravating circumstances
56. equivalent to assault or at least threatened assault of an immediate nature.
a. intent c. dolo
b. culpa d. unlawful aggression
57. the following are the requisites for self-defense, except:
a. unlawful aggression
b. reasonable necessity of the means employed to prevent or repel it
c. lack of sufficient provocation on the part of the person defending himself
d. lack of intent on the part of the defending himself
58. what crime exists when a single act constitutes two or more grave or less grave felonies?
a. complex c. composite
b. continuing d. compound
59. who among the following are not exempted from criminal liability/
a. children under 9 years of age
b. insane persons
c. children over 9 under 15 years of age acting with discernment
d. imbecile persons
60. refers to desired acts if a person to commit a crime.
a. motive c. fault
b. intent d. deceit
61. those circumstances which if attendant to the commission of the crime would serve to lower the penalty to a lesser
degree.
a. justifying c. mitigating
b. exempting d. aggravating
62. an aggravating circumstance which generally apply to all crimes such as dwelling, nighttime or recidivism.
a. generic c. qualifying
b. specific d. inherent
63. refers to occurrences which happen beyond the sway of man’s will.
a. nature c. events
b. accidents d. phenomenon

11
64. Boy a policeman persuades Allan to commit a felony, he arrested the latter after its execution is committing.
a. instigation c. conspiracy
b. entrapment d. proposal
65. refers to circumstances which if attendant in the commission of a crime serve to increase the penalty, without however
exceeding the maximum of the penalty provided by law for the offense.
a. justifying c. mitigating
b. exempting d. aggravating
66. they are aggravating circumstances which change the nature of the crime, e.g. homicide to murder in case of treachery.
a. generic c. qualifying
b. specific d. inherent
67. refers to aggravating circumstance which applies only to particularly crimes.
a. generic c. qualifying
b. specific d. inherent
68. an aggravating circumstance which come in the commission of the crime.
a. a. generic c. qualifying
b. specific d. inherent
69. refers to a building or structure exclusively used for rest or comfort.
a. House c. dwelling
b. home d. all of the above
70. whenever more than three armed malefactors shall have acted together in the commission of an offense it is deemed to
have been committed by:
a. group c. band
b. brigands d. team
71. refers to a person who at the time of his trial for one crime shall have been previously convicted by final judgment of
another crime embraced in the same title of the RPC.
a. delinquent c. recidivist
b. habitual delinquent d. offender
72. a person who has within a period of 10 years from the date of release or last conviction is said to have been found
guilty of the same offense particularly those of physical injuries, estafa, theft and robbery is considered as a :
a. recidivist c. habitual delinquent
b. delinquent d. quasi-recidivist
73. any person who shall commit a felony while serving his sentence with a previous conviction is classified as a:
a. recidivist c. habitual delinquent
b. delinquent d. quasi-recidivist
74. which among the following is not among the requisites of evident premeditation?
a. sufficient lapse of time c. act indicating the has clung to his determination
b. time when the offender decided to commit the felony d. deliberate intent
75. it involves trickery and cunning on the part or the offender.
a. craft c. fault
b. deceit d. intent
76. Gloria lends Nany a bolo which was used in the murder of Mike is liable as an:
a. principal c. accomplice
b. accessory d. conspirator
77. persons who aide the felons to hide away evidences or profit from the fruits of the crime are said to be:
a. principals c. accomplices
b. accessories d. conspirators
78. the following are exempt from criminal liability as accessories in cases that the principal should be the foregoing
relatives except:
a. spouse c. descendant
b. ascendant d. cousins
79. capital punishment or maximum penalty imposed by law.
a. reclusion perpetua c. arresto mayor
b. reclusion temporal d. death by lethal injection
80. refers to alevosia, or means and methods employed to insure its execution.

12
 a. craft c. intent
b. deceit d. treachery
81. it pertains to moral order, adding disgrace to the material injury caused by the crime.
a. craft c. ignominy
b. treachery d. evident premeditation
82. the following circumstances are always mitigated in terms of alternative circumstances, except:
a. low degree of education
b. intoxication wherein the drunk person has not intended it or not a habitual drunkard
c. relationship in crimes in against property
d. relationship in crimes against persons
83. poly stabbing Army is considered as a :
a. principal c. accomplice
b. accessory d. instigator
84. Emil persuades Jude to steal from his boss is a principal by:
a. direct participation c. indispensable cooperation
b. induction d. instigation
85. which in the following enumeration is an example of an effective penalty
a. fine c. distierro
b. arresto mayor d. prison mayor
86. what would be the nature of action for a person over nine years of age and under fifteen to incur criminal liability?
a. act with discernment c. show criminal intent
b. show malice d. act negligently
87. it shall serve to deprive the offender rights of parental authority or guardianship.
a. subsidiary penalty c. suspension
b. distierro d. civil interdiction
88. personal liability to be suffered by the convict who has no property to meet the fine.
a. subsidiary penalty c. suspension
b. distierro d. civil interdiction
89. a form of protection rather than a penalty in cases of Art 247 of the RPC.
a. subsidiary penalty c. suspension
b. distierro d. civil interdiction
90. the moving power which impels one to action for a definite result.
a. intent c. deceit
b. motive d. fault
91. it refers to an act committed or omitted in violation of a public law forbidding or commanding it.
a. dolo c. felony
b. culpa d. crime
92. in cases wherein the commission of an offense is necessary in the commission of another it is that the crime is:
a. formal crime c. compound crime
b. informal crime d. complex crime
93. when did Act no. 3815 take effect?
a. January 1, 1931 c. January 1, 1933
b. January 1, 1932 d. January 1, 1934]
94. Ignorantia Facti Excusat means:
a. ignorance of the law c. mistake of the blow
b. mistake of facts d. mistake in identity
95. under this rule, crimes are not triable in the courts of that country, unless their commission affects the peace and
security of the territory or the safety of the state is endangered.
a. French Rule c. Spanish Rule
b. American Rule d. English Rule
96. failure to perform a positive duty which one is bound to do.
a. Act c. dolo
b. omission d. culpa
97. light offenses prescribe in:

13
 a. 12 months c. consul
b. 6 months d. 2 months
98. the foregoing are persons evempt from the operation of criminal law by virtue of the principles of public international
law, except;
a. heads of state c. consul
b. ambassadors d. charges d’ affaires
99. it is characteristic of criminal law stating that the law is binding on all persons who live and sojourn in Philippine
territory.
a. general c. retrospective
b. territorial d. universal
100. it refers to a legislative act which inflicts punishment without a trial.
a. Ex post facto law c. law on preferential application
b. bill of attainder d. self-repealing laws

14
CLJ-II. Criminal Law Book 2

1. SPO 3 Bautista inflicted physical injuries on a detainee to obtain relevant information in the commission of the crime,
he may be liable for;
a. physical injuries c. misfeasance
b. Maltreatment of prisoners d. malfeasance
2. Refers to physical ugliness or permanent and definite abnormality.
a. Injury c. Deformity
b. scar d. all of the foregoing
3. Andy punched Max on the eye which produced a contusion, what crime was committed?
a. Slight physical injuries c. Serious physical injuries
b. less serious physical injuries d. Maltreatment
4. it is a building or structure devoted for comfort or rest.
a. house c. dwelling place
b. residence d. abode
5. Mario hunted and shot down a wild boar while inside a private farm owned by Mr. Amoranto, the former may be liable
for;
A. theft c. trespass
b. robbery d. qualified theft
6. Jose agreed to sell Wally first class rice and received from the latter the purchase price thereof, but Jose delivered poor
quality rice, He may be liable for;
a. theft c. abuse of confidence
b. Qualified theft d. Estafa
7. Pedro gave Eddie 3,500 pesos for payment of a Ralph Blue perfume, hpwever Eddie did not gave Pedro the perfume
and instead absconded, what crime was committed?
a. Estafa c. Robbery
b. Theft d. Malversation
8. W pawned his car to W, later pretending to have money for redeeming the car X asked for it and rode away without
paying the loan, x is liable for;
a. Estafa c. Robbery
b. Theft d. Malversation
9. Refers to a home of the husband and wife
a. Conjugal Dwelling c. Dwelling place
b. Residence d. Abode
10. H who was very fond of M, kissed and embraced the latter and touching the girl’s breast as a mere incident of the
embraced is liable for;
a. attempted rape c. unjust vexation
b. Acts of lasciviousness d. Lewd conduct
11. it requires the concurrence of two things, that there being an actual assembly of men and for such purpose of executing
a treasonable design by force.
a. Aid of comfort c. adherence to the enemy
b. Levying war d. all of the foregoing
12. what crime is committed against mankind, and whose jurisdiction consequently recognizes no territorial limits?
a. Mutiny c. Piracy
b. Espionage d. Sedition
13. a person who executes a false affidavit may be held liable for:
a. Forgery c. Falsification
b. Perjury d. False Testimony
14. a threatened to kill B if the latter will not give him 2,000 pesos. What crime has been committed by A?
a. Grave threat c. Kidnapping for ransom
b. Grave coercion d. Attempted murder
15. the degree of proof required to convict a person accused of treason.

15
 a. dangerous tendency rule c. Proof beyond reasonable doubt
b. two witness rule d. substantial evidence
16. PO 2 Mendoza detains Ms. Sagun for being ugly is liable for:
a. illegal detention c. Kidnapping
b. Arbitrary detention d. Expulsion
17. it is committed by a person, who being under oath is required to testify as to the truth of a certain matter at a hearing
before a competent authority, shall deny the truth or say something contrary to it.
a. Forgery c. Falsification
b. Perjury d. False Testimony
18. a detained prisoner was allowed to eat and drink in a nearby restaurant on several occasions; he was at all times duly
guarded. Assuming that it was done with the warden’s a permission, the warden may be charges with what particular
offense?
a. Infidelity c. Laxity
b. Negligence of duty d. Dereliction of duty
19. Refers to the omission of some acts which ought to be performed.
a. misfeasance c. nonfeasance
b. Malfeasance d. dereliction of duty
20. consist of acts which are offensive to decency and good customs, which having been committed publicly, have given
rise to public scandal to persons who have witness the same.
a. immortal doctrines c. grave scandal
b. slander d. libel
21. a person arrested for the commission of an offense punishable by afflictive penalties must be delivered to the proper
judicial authority within how many hours?
a. 12 c. 36 hours
b. 18 d. 48 hours
22. it is the unauthorized act of a public officer who compels a person to change his residence
a. violation of domicile c. trespass to dwelling
b. arbitrary detention d. expulsion
23. a person having knowledge of the plans to commit treason and fails to disclose such information to the governor,
fiscal or mayor is guilty of what crime?
a. Treason c. Conspiracy to commit treason
b. Espionage d. Misprision of treason
24. it is felony which in its general sense is raising of commotions or disturbances in the state outside of the legal method.
a. treason c. Coup d’ etat
b. Rebellion d. Sedition
25. a police officer who arrested a member of congress while going to attend a senate session for a traffic violation is
liable for.
a. crime against popular representation
b. acts tending to prevent the meeting of the National assembly
c. violation of parliamentary immunity
d. all of the foregoing
26. Exemption to violation of parliamentary immunity, when a member of congress while in regular session:
a. committed a crime punishable by the revised penal code
b. committed a crime punishable by prison mayor
c. committed a crime punishable by a penalty higher than prison mayor
d. none of the foregoing
27. refers to persons having no apparent means of subsistence but has the physical ability to work and neglects to apply
himself or herself to lawful calling.
a. bum c. prostitute
b. vagrant d. destitute
28. this crime is committed by raising publicly and taking arms against government to completely overthrow and
supersede said existing government.
a. Treason c. coup d’ etat
b. Rebellion d. sedition

16
29. the nature of the crime of treason and espionage.
a. war crime
b. crime against national security and the law of nations
c. crimes against public order
d. crimes against the state
30. a swift attack accompanied by violence, intimidation, stealth , directed against duly constituted authorities, public
utilities, military camps and installation with or without civilian support, for the purpose of diminishing state power.
a. treason c. coup d’ etat
b. rebellion d. sedition
31. groups which are organized for the purpose of committing any crime against the RPC or for other purposes contrary to
public morals.
a. illegal assembly c. sedition
b. illegal association d. rebellion
32. when a gathering of persons is held with the presence of armed men and the purpose of the meeting is to commit any
crime punishable under the RPC, what crime is committed?
a. illegal assembly c. sedition
b. illegal association d. rebellion
33. implies anything which includes offensive or antagonistic movement or action of any kind.
a. overt acts c. Attack
b. Employ force d. Stealth
34. mass uprising has been undertaken by supporters of Gloria Pandaka wherein they resort to violence to stop the holding
of the forthcoming elections, what crime was committed?
a. Illegal assembly c. rebellion
b. violation of parliamentary immunity d. sedition
35. X a PCCr student assisted SPO 1 Anico who being assaulted by Mr. A while resisting arrest, Mr. A then kicked Mr. X.
What was the crime committed by Mr. A with respect to X?
a. Direct assault c. Resistance
b. Indirect assault d. disobedience
36. Jason, a college student punched his gay teacher while on class may be held liable for:
a. Direct insult c. Resistance
b. Indirect assault d. Subversion
37. Includes medley of discordant voices, a mock serenade of discordant noises designed to annoy and insult.
a. outcry c. Assault
b. tumultuous d. Charivari
38. Mr. K fired his pistol towards the sky during the celebration of his birthday is liable for:
a. Illegal possession of firearms c. Alarm and scandal
b. Illegal discharge d. All of the foregoing
39. Poly who frequently introduces himself as an NBI agent under false pretense may be held liable for:
a. Usurpation of Authority c. Disobedience
b. Estafa d. Resistance
40.Lex having been convicted of estafa escaped from BJMP personnel, what felony was committed?
a. delivering prisoners from jail c. resistance
b. Evasion of service of sentence d. Disobedience
41. to settle his debt, Lucas imitated 500 peso, he is liable for:
a. Falsification of documents c. Forgery
b. Intercalation d. Rubric
42. Branch of allegiance to a government, committed by a person who owes allegiance to it.
a. Treason c. Adherence to the enemy
b. Espionage d. Levying war
43. Any other name of a person which publicly applies to himself without authority of the law.
a. Alias c. Fictitious name
b. AKA d. True name

17
44. to avoid being charged with delay in the delivery of persons to proper judicial authorities, a person caught in the act of
committing a felony punishable by penalties which are correctional in nature must be delivered to said authorities within
how many hours?
a. 12 c. 36
b. 18 d. 48
45. Refers to the gathering, transmitting or losing information relative to national defense with intent to be used to the
injury of the Republic of the Philippines.
a. Treason c. Conspiracy to commit treason
b. Espionage d. Misprision of treason
46. PO2 Paras, forcibly entered the dwelling of Benjie who is a suspected drug pusher, what crime was committed by the
public officer?
a. Violation of domicile c. trespass to dwelling
b. arbitrary detention d. expulsion
47.Refers to the resistance to a superior officer, and or raising of commotions and disturbance on board a ship against the
authority of the commander.
a. Mutiny c. Piracy
b. Espionage d. Sedition
48. the following are legal grounds for detention, except;
a. Commission of a crime ` b. violent insanity
c. Ailment requiring compulsory confinement
d. Suspected of committing a felony under the revised Penal Code
49. it means intent to betray a person’s country of origin.
a. Aid of comfort c. Adherence to the enemy
b. Levying war d. all of these
50. to expedite the processing of benefit claims from the GSIS a clerk accepted 1000 pesos from the Mr. H., the clerk is
liable for:
a. Bribery c. indirect bribery
b. Qualified bribery d. direct bribery
51. B wanted to kill A, he then executed his plan by ramming over the latter with his automobile killing B instantly, what
was the crime committed?
a. Parricide c. Homicide
b. Murder d. Infanticide
52. Anne killed her husband Jojo by means of poison, she is liable for:
a. Parricide c. Homicide
b. Murder d. Infanticide
53. Pedro due to his addiction killed his child less than 3 days old, he is guilty of what crime?
a. Parricide c. Homicide
b. Murder d. Infanticide
54. it is the violent expulsion of a human fetus from the maternal womb of birth which resulrs in death.
a. Infanticide c. Murder
b. abortion d. Parricide
55. Takes place whenever a person is killed during a confusion attendant to a quarrel among several persons not
constituting a group and the perpetuators cannot be ascertained.
a. Homicide c. Death caused by tumultuous affray
b. Murder d. riots
56. A public officer who refrains from arresting a person who has committed a crime punishable by reclusion perpetua in
exchange for money.
a. Bribery c. indirect bribery
b. Qualified Bribery d. Direct bribery
57. it is embezzlement by means of appropriating funds or taking and misappropriating the same.
a. Malversation c. Malfeasance
b. Misfeasance d. Nonfeasance
58. a person who shall kill his father, mother or child shall guilty of what felony?
a. Parricide c. Homicide

18
 b. Murder d. Infanticide
59. the unlawful killing of a child less than three years old.
a. Parricide c. Homicide
b. Murder d. Infanticide
60. A person fired his pistol while paramour of his father was walking farther away from him killing the latter instantly is
guilty of?
a. Parricide c. Homicide
b. Murder d. Infanticide
61. Romeo, having carnal knowledge with a prostitute less than 12 years old is liable for:
a. Rape c. Seduction
b. Acts of lasciviousness d. Abduction
62. A private individual who detains another for the purpose of depriving the latter of his liberty for more than three days
is guilty of:
a. Illegal detention c. Serious illegal detention
b. Arbitrary detention d. slight illegal detention
63. Jun who got into a dispute with Jeff, assaulted the latter for the purpose of delivering his victim to the jailer is guilty of
what crime?
a. Illegal detention c. Unlawful arrest
b. Illegal arrest d, Physical injuries
64. Refers to a crime committed by any person who threatens another with the infliction upon the person, honor, or
property of the latter or of his family of any wrong amounting to a crime.
a. Grave threat C. Grave coercion
b. Light threat d. Light coercion
65. When a warning to commit a wrong not constituting a crime is made by another, what crime is committed?
a. Grave threat C. Grave coercion
b. Light threat d. Light coercion
66. A husband punched his pregnant wife due to constant nagging, caused the death of ther unborn child is guilty of:
a. Parricide c. Intentional Abortion
b. Abortion d. Unintentional Abortion
67. A formal and regular combat previously concerted between two parties in the presence of two or more seconds of
lawful age on each side, who make the selection of arms and fix all other conditions.
a. Riot c. Tumultuous affray
b. Duel d. Mutilation
68. A woman cutting the penis of a male lover to deprive the latter of its use, is committing what crime?
a. Physical injury c. Tumultuous affray
b. Duel d. Mutilation
69. what crime was committed by a Mike who bit off the ear of his opponent while in a boxing match?
a. Mutilation c. Less serious physical injuries
b. Serious physical injury d. Slight physical injury
70. What crime is committed by a person who assaulted another, causing the latter to be absent from work for two weeks?
a. Mutilation c. Less serious physical injuries
b. Serious physical injury d. Slight physical injury
71. It is a felony wherein a person compels another by means of force, violence or intimidation to do something against
his will, whether right or wrong.
a. Grave threat C. Grave coercion
b. Light threat d. Light coercion
72. Any person who, by means of violence shall seize anything belonging to his debtor for the purpose of applying the
same to the payment of a debt, is committing:
a. a. Grave threat C. Grave coercion
b. Light threat d. Light coercion
73. It includes human conduct which, although not productive of some physical or material harm would annoy an
innocent person.
a. Light threat c. Unjust vexation
b. Light coercion d. None of these

19
74. Issuing a check without sufficient fund constitute what offense?
a. Swindling c. Violation of BP 22
b. Estafa d. All of these
75. What crime was committed when a person burned the house of his dead victim to hide the body of the crime?
a. Complex crime c. Arson with homicide
b. Murder d. Homicide and Arson
76. PO 3 diokno was stabbed while walking along a dark alley, he died on the spot and the perpetrator took his service
pistol?
a. Murder c. Homicide and robbery
b. Robbery d. Robbery with homicide
77. It is the willful damaging of another’s property for the sake of causing damage due to hate, revenge or other evil
motive.
a. Swindling c. Malicious mischief
b. Destruction of property d. Chattel mortgage
78. What crime was committed by Tess a married person, having sexual intercourse with Ody who is not her husband?
a. Adultery c. act of lasciviousness
b. Concubinage d. Seduction
79. Boy, a married man who allowed his paramour to live in their conjugal dwelling is liable for what crime?
a. Adultery c. Acts of lascivoiousness
b. Concubinage d. Seduction
80. Lewd acts committed upon persons of either sex not amounting to rape by using force or intimidation.
a. Adultery c. Act of lasciviousness
b. Concubinage d. Seduction
81. a person who ripped the dress of a women and rubbed his penis over ther woman’s genetal without taking off the
panty is liable for what crime?
a. Rape c. Forcible abduction
b. Seduction d. Acts of lasciviousness
82. Pedro was able to have carnal knowledge with his girlfriend by promising the latter with marriage, what crime was
committed?
a. Seduction c. Abduction
b. Acts of lasciviousness d. None of these
83. Is the taking of personal property belonging to another, with intent to gain, by means of violence against, or
intimidation upon things of any person, or using force upon anything.
a. Robbery c. Brigandage
b. Theft d. Estafa
84. Allan took several jewelry from a room in which he entered through the window committed what crime?
a. Robbery c. Brigandage
b. Theft d. Estafa
85. A genuine key stolen from the owner is considered as a :
a. False Key c. Stolen item
b. Hot item d. Pick lock
86.G stole a Rolex watch from a locker by means of the key of the owner. What crime was committed?
a. Theft c. Possession of pick locks
b. Robbery d. Possession of false key
87. A crime committed by more than three aemed malefactors who form a band for the purpose of committing robbery in
the highway or kidnapped persons for the purpose of extortion or to obtain ransom, or for any other purpose to be attained
by means of force and violence.
a. Robbery c. Brigandage
b. Kidnapping d. Theft
88. Committed by any person who, with intent to gain but without violence or intimidation of persons nor force upon
things, shall take personal property of another without the latter’s consent.
a. Robbery c. Brigandage
b. Kidnapping d. Theft

20
89. Jolina a housemaid who was caught in the act of carting away the furniture of her employer would be charged of what
crime?
a. Theft c. Qualified theft
b. Robbery d. Estafa
90. Altering the place of a mojon in the lot to insure that the property woiuld be larger when surveyed is a crime of:
a. Estafa c. Usurpation
b. Chattel mortgage d. Altering boundaries or landmarks
91. It is estafa or defrauding another by abuse of confidence, false pretences or any other similar means.
a. Swindling c. Usurpation
b. Brigandage d. All of these
92. A college professor having sexual intercourse with his student is guilty of what crime?
a. Seduction c. Abduction
b. Qualified seduction d. None of these
93. Joe recruited several barrio mates to engage in the sex trade, what crime was committed?
a. Prostitution c. Slavery
b. White slave trade d. None of the foregoing
94. A person who forced his girlfriend to elope with him is guilty of what crime?
a. Forcible abduction c. Seduction
b. Consented abduction d. Qualified seduction
95. Dingoy was able to have carnal kwnoeledge with Maria his girlfriend while the latter was drunk, what crime was
committed?
a. Acts of lasciviousness c. Qualified seduction
b. Rape d. None of these
96. Having carnal Knowledge with a 16 year old girl with the use of deceit constitutes what crime?
a. Seduction c. Acts of lasciviousness
b. Abduction d. Rape
97. A public and Malicious imputation of a crime, vice or defect.
a. Libel c. Slander
B. Slander by deed d. Incriminatory machination
98. Police officers to ensure conviction of the suspects were caught planting evidence, may be held liable for what
offense?
a. Libel c. Slander by deed
b. Slander d. Incriminatory machination
99. Unlawful extortion of money by threats of accusation or exposure.
a. Slander c. Coercion
b. Libel d. Blackmail
100. Voluntary but without malice failing to do an act from which material damage results by reason of inexcusable lack
of precaution on the part of the person performing the act.
a. Negligence c. Reckless imprudence
b. Imprudence d. Reckless negligence

21
CLJ-III. Criminal Procedure
1. Preliminary investigation is required before the filing of information or complaint where the penalty for the offense is:
a. At least 4 years, 2 months and 1 day c. Exceeding 6 years
b. At least 6 years d. Exceeding 4 years, 2 months
2. Which among the foregoing pleadings may be filed in a criminal case?
a. Cross claim c. Third party complainant
b. Counterclaim d. Counter-affidavit
3. When may the reservation of the right to institute a separate civil action shall be made?
a. Before the presentation of evidence of the prosecution
b. Before the prosecution rest
c. Before arraignment
d. During the pre-trial conference
4. The following except one, are valid venues, where may petition for suspension of criminal action by reason of a
pending prejudicial question in a civil proceeding:
a. Office of the prosecutor
b. The court where the criminal case is pending
c. The court where the civil case is pending
d. The court conducting preliminary investigation
5. The foregoing offenses shall only be prosecuted upon a complaint of the offended party, her parents or grandparents
except:
a. Rape c. Seduction
b. Abduction d. Acts of lasciviousness
6. In designating the offense, which among the following is not included in the complaint or information?
a. Name of the offense c. Acts which constitute the offense
b. Mitigating circumstances d. Aggravating circumstances
7. Civil action for the recovery of civil damages arising from a criminal offense is deemed instituted with the criminal
action. This rule does not apply in the following cases, except:
a. When the offended party institutes the criminal action
b. When the offended party waives the civil action
c. When the offended party institutes the civil action before the criminal action.
d. When the offended party reserves the right to institute a separate civil action.
8. Amendment without court permission may be allowed in the following instances, except:
a. Amendment as to form
b. Amendment that downgrades the nature of the offense
c. Amendment as to substance
d. Amendment that reflects typographical errors.
9. In a preliminary investigation, which among the following may not be submitted by the respondent?
a. Motion to dismiss c. Supporting documents
b. Counter affidavit d. Witnesses’ counter affidavit
10. Where a preliminary investigation has been undertaken, warrant of arrest is not necessary in the following
circumstances, except:
a. When the penalty for the offense is a fine

22
 b. When there is probable cause
c. When warrant of arrest has already been issued
d. When the information or complaint has been filed under section 7, rule 112.
11. Refers to the authority of the court to hear and decide cases.
a. Venue c. Jurisdiction
b. Criminal Procedure d. Jurisprudence
12. Summary procedures may be applied in the following cases except:
a. Violation of rental laws
b. Violation of traffic laws, rules and regulation
c. Violation of city or municipal ordinances
d. Criminal cases where the penalty prescribed for by law is imprisonment not exceeding six years
13. Court which exercise jurisdiction over cases involving RA 3019.
a. Supreme court c. Regional trial courts
b. Court of appeals d. Sandiganbayan
14. In the metropolitan trial courts, the complaint may be filed with:
a. Office of the prosecutor c. Office of the judge
b. Office of the clerk of court d. Office of the ombudsman
15. Which among the following is not an essential requisite of complaint or an information?
a. It must be filed in court c. It must be in the name of the people of the Philippines
b. It must be in writing d. It must be filed with the office of the prosecutor
16. Generally, the following are requisites for an information, except:
a. The offended party
b. Any peace officer
c. Any public officer charged with the enforcement of the law violated
d. Any fiscal
17. In crimes involving adultery and concubinage, who may file the compliant?
a. The prosecutor
b. Any peace officer charged with enforcement of the law violated
c. The offended spouse
d. All of the foregoing
18. the information or complaint should state the following except:
a. Name of the accused c. name of the court
b. Name of the offended party d. Designated of the offense by statue
19. When may the offended party be allowed to intervene in criminal cases?
a. When he has not waived the civil action
b. When he has waived the civil action
c. When he has filed the civil action before filing the criminal case
d. When he has expressly reserved the right to institute a separate civil action.
20. When may bail be considered as a matter of discretion?
a. In capital offense
b. In cases involving graft and corrupt practices of government officials
c. In cases punishable by penalties which are not afflictive
d. In capital offenses when the evidence of guilt is strong
21. When may bail bond be cancelled?
a. Acquittal of the accused c. Execution of the final judgment of conviction
b. Dismissal of the case d. All of the foregoing
22. In fixing the amount of bail, which among the following is not essential?
a. Age and health of the accused
b. Character and reputation of the accused
c. Probability that the accused will appear in the trial
d. None of the foregoing
23. If the crime charged is unclear, what motion may be filed before the arraignment?
a. Bill of particular c. Motion to quash
b. Motion for new trial d. Motion to dismiss

23
24. When an accused is discharged as a state witness, it is comparable to:
a. Reprieve c. Conviction
b. Acquittal d. Commutation
25. Arraignment may be suspended when the accused appears to be of unsound mental condition or the court finds the
existence of a ____________.
a. Valid prejudicial question c. Motion to dismiss
b. Motion to squash d. Bill of particulars
26. In cases punishable by destierro, how many days or preventive detention is prescribed for by law?
a. 5 days c. 30 days
b. 15 days d. 60 days
27. Where may the application for bail be filed?
a. Office of the prosecutor c. Court where the case is pending
b. Office of the Ombudsman d. All of the foregoing
28. Ground for demurrer to evidence:
a. Insufficiency of evidence c. Motion to squash
b. Irrelevant evidence d. Prejudicial question
29. Refers to an undertaking constituted as a lien on real property given as a security for the amount of bail.
a. Surety bond C. Recognizance
b. Property bond d. Bail
30. A counsel de officio is generally given how many days to prepare for trial?
a. 2 days c. 5 days
b. 3 days d. 15 days
31. What determines the jurisdiction in criminal cases?
a. Subject matter c. Person accused
b. Territory d. Extent of the penalty
32. This system of criminal justice is conducted either at the initiative of the public prosecutor or the offended party and
the right to appeal is limited to the defense.
a. Fixed c. Inquisitorial
b. Mixed d. Accusatorial
33. Defined as a method fixed by law for the apprehension and prosecution of persons alleged to have committed a crime,
and for their punishment in case of conviction.
a. Criminal Justice System c. Criminal procedure
b. Rules of court d. Rules of procedure
34. A system characterized by the right to confrontation, to a public trial and be heard by competent counsel.
a. Fixed c. Inquisitorial
b. Mixed d. Accusatorial
35. Refers to a territorial unit where the power of the court is to be exercised.
a. Venue c. Jurisprudence
b. Jurisdiction d. Trial courts
36. The procedure in witness examination is:
a. Direct, cross, re-direct, re-cross examination
b. Direct, re-direct, cross, re-cross examination
c. cross, Direct, re-direct, re-cross examination
d. cross, Direct, re-cross, re-direct examination
37. In the Philippines, the system of criminal procedure is:
a. Fixed c. Inquisitorial
b. Mixed d. Accusatorial
38. A sworn statement charging a person with an offense subscribed by the offended party, any peace officer or other
peace officer charged with the enforcement of the law violated.
a. Complaint c. Blotter
b. Charge sheet d. information
39. Authority to hear and decide a case.
a. Venue c. Jurisprudence
b. Jurisdiction d. Hearing

24
40. Jurisdiction of the court is said to be ______ when the law organizing a court does not expressly enumerate the cause
of which it may take cognizance.
a. Limited c. Appellate
b. General d. Original
41. Which among the following may not be files before the judgment becomes final?
a. Motion to squash c. Motion for new trial
b. Motion for reconsideration d. Notice of appeal
42. Validity of the warrant of arrest expires:
a. After 10 days c. After 365 days
b. After 30 days d. No fixed duration
43. Lifetime of a search warrant:
a. 10 days c. 45 days
` b. 30 days d. 60 days
44. In criminal cases, the people of the Philippines is the:
a. Plaintiff c. Offended party
b. Complainant d. Aggrieved party
45. In civil cases the person charged is called:
a. Accused c. Defendant
b. Suspect d. Respondent
46. Refers to an accusation in writing charging a person with an offense subscribed by the fiscal and filed with the court.
a. Complaint c. Blotter
b. Charged sheet d. Information
47. Prescription of the crime commence to run:
a. Upon re-appearance of the accused
b. Upon escape of the accused
c. Upon discovery of the crime by the offended party
d. Upon filing of the complaint or information
48. The duty of the party to present evidence to establish his claim is referred to as:
a. Burden of proof c. Bill of particulars
b. Burden of evidence d. Presentation of evidence
49. The law expanding the jurisdiction of the MTC.
a. RA 7691 c. RA 7975
b. RA 7961 D. RA 7169
50. Which among the following is not covered by the rules on summary procedures?
a. Violation of traffic laws
b. Violation of rental laws
c. Where the penalty does not exceed 6 months imprisonment
d. Where the penalty is more than six months imprisonment
51. IN criminal cases, the person charged is referred to as:
a. Accused c. Defendant
b. Suspect d. Respondent
52. The part of trial wherein the civil aspect of the case may be amicably setteled.
a. Plea bargaining c. Preliminary investigation
b. Hearing d. Pre-trial
53. in administrative cases the person charges is:
a. Accused c. Defendant
b. Suspect d. Respondent
54. It is usually referred to as the court of first instance.
a. Metropolitan trial court c. court of appeals
b. Regional trial court d. Supreme court
55. In rape case, who among the following may file a complaint?
a. Offended party c. Public officer charged with enforcement of the law violated
b. Peace officer d. All of the foregoing
56. Who among the following may not conduct a preliminary investigation?

25
 a. City or provincial fiscals and their assistants c. National and regional prosecutors
b. Judges of the MTC’s d. DOJ personnel
57. Taking of a person into custody in order that he may be bound to answer for the commission of an offense
a. Detention c. Arrest
b. Restraint d. Seizure
58. Refers to persons given by law the duty and power to exercise jurisdiction and maintenance of peace and order as well
as the protection of life liberty and property.
a. Persons in authority c. Policeman
b. Judges d. Prosecutors
59. Refers to a security given for the temporary release of a person in the custody of the law.
a. Bond c. Surety
b. Bail d. Insurance
60. Which among the following is a non-bailable offense?
A. Rape c. Robbery
b. Homicide d. Libel
61. It is not a necessity to file a complaint or information:
A. Name of the court c. Name of the offended party
b. Name of the accused d. Designation of the offense by statue
62. The authority of the court to take cognizance of the case in the first instance is regarded as:
a. General jurisdiction c. Delegated jurisdiction
b. Original jurisdiction d. Appellate jurisdiction
63. Judiciary Reoragnization Act:
a. PD 968 c. BP 129
b. PD 1612 d. BP 22
64. In the metropolitan courts, the complainants is filed with the:
a. Office of the Secretary of justice c. Office of the ombudsman
b. Office of the clerk of court d. Office of the prosecutor
65. cases on appeal on judgment rendered by a Municipal Trial Court shall be elevated where?
a. Metropolitan Trial court c. Court of appeals
b. Regional Trail court d. Supreme court
66. Decisions rendered by the Court of appeals may be further elevated to what court?
a. Metropolitan Trial court c. Court of appeals
b. Regional Trail court d. Supreme court
67. A judicial examination and determination of the issues in an action or proceeding, civil or criminal.
a. Plea trial c. Plea bargaining
b. Pre-trial d. Trial
68. Period provided for by law to post an appeal after receipt of judgment of conviction.
a. 5 days c. 15 days
b. 10 days d. 30 days
69. Order of trial is:
a. Prosecution, rebuttal, defense, submission for decision
b. Defense, prosecution, rebuttal, submission for decision
c. Prosecution, defense, rebuttal, submission for decision
d. Defense, rebuttal, prosecution, submission for decision
70. A geographical division in which the action is allowed to be brought.
a. Venue c. Jurisprudence
b. Jurisdiction d. Territory
71. A person designated by the court to assist destitute litigants.
a. Counsel c. Attorney at law
b. Attorney on record d. Counsel de officio
72. It refers to the answer given by the accused to a charge indictment
a. Reply c. Plea
b. Motion d. Confession
73. Generally, after a plea of not guilty is entered, how many days are given by law for the accused to prepare for his trial.

26
 a. 2 days c. 4 days
b. 3 days d. 5 days
74. Refers to the adjudication by the court that the accused is guilty of the offense charged, and the imposition of proper
penalty and civil liability provided for by law on the accused.
a. Conviction c. Decision
b. Judgment d. Conclusion
75. Days mandated by law for the perfection of a decision.
a. 10 days c. 30 days
b. 15 days d. 45 days
76. The foregoing personal property may be considered as objects of the search warrant, except those which are:
a. Subject of the offense
b. Stolen or embezzled and other fruits of the crime
c. Used or intended to be used as a means of committing an offense
d. Property of the accused
77. A move for the annulment of the criminal charge made by an accused is:
a. Plea bargaining c. Motion to dismiss
b. Motion to squash d. Bill of particulars
78. When can arrest be made?
a. At any day c. At any time of the night
b. At any time of the day d. At any time of the day and night
79. Cases wherein the penalty does not exceed 6 months fall under the rule on:
a. Civil procedure c. Summary procedure
b. Criminal procedure d. special procedure
80. The existence of a prejudicial question may cause the suspension of the :
a. Arraignment c. Trial
b. Judgment d. Preliminary investigation
81. Who among the following is not authorized to conduct a preliminary investigation?
a. PNP chief c. MTC judges
b. City prosecutors d. Provincial prosecutors
82. Upon learning that a complaint or information has been filed without a preliminary investigation, within how many
days is allowed by the rules for the accused to ask for a preliminary investigation?
a. 5 days c. 15 days
b. 10 days d. 30 days
83. If the judgment rendered by the trial court changes the nature of the offense form a non-bailable, where can the bail
application be resolved?
a. Appellate court c. Regional trial court
b. Trial court d. Metropolitan Trial Court
84. In which of the following instance is bail not considered as a matter of right?
a. Before conviction of the RTC imposing the death penalty
b. Before conviction of the RTC
c. Before conviction by the MTC
d. Before conviction of the RTC of an offense not punishable by death
85. Which among the following offense where bail may be applied?
a. Frustrated murder c. Parricide
b. Rape d. Murder
86. Refers to an offense under the law existing at the time of the commission and application for admission to bail may be
punished with death.
a. Heinous crime c. Capital punishment
b. Special crime D. Capital offense
87. A person may be released on bail in the following forms except:
a. Corporate surety c. Property bond
b. Recognizance d. Performance bond
88. In the following instances the accused is allowed under the rules to plead guilty, except:
a. At the arraignment c. After arraignment but before trial

27
 b. Upon entering his plea d. During trial
89. When may the accused admitted to bail be allowed to question the legality of his arrest?
a. Before trial c. Before the preliminary
b. Before arraignment d. Before conviction
90. An accused who pleads guilty but offers exculpatory evidence will cause an effect of:
a. He is making a conditional plea
b. A lea of not guilty shall be entered for him
c. He shall be treated as guilty and will eventually be convicted
d. He will be treated as refusing his plea
91. The following are requisites before a court can validly exercise jurisdiction, except:
a. It must have jurisdiction over the investigation
b. It must have jurisdiction over the person of the accused
c. It must have jurisdiction over the subject matter
d. It must have jurisdiction over the territory where the offense was committed.
92. The jurisdiction of the courts in criminal cases is determined by the extent of the penalty which the law imposes for
the offense charged with the offense.
a. Partly true c. Absolutely true
b. Partly false d. Absolutely false
93. The metropolitan trial courts shall exercise exclusive original jurisdiction over all offenses punishable with
imprisonment-
a. Not exceeding 6 years c. Not exceeding 4 years 2 months and 1 day
b. Not exceeding 4 years d. Not exceeding 6 months
94. The prosecution of offenses shall be commenced by filing of a complaint or information.
a. Partly true c. true
b. Partly false d. false
95. in general, the formal requisites of a complaint or information are as follows, except:
a. It must be filed in court
b. It must be in writing, in the name of the People of the Philippines
c. It must be files with the office of the prosecutor
d. It must be subscribed by the prosecutor
96. Criminal cases where the penalty prescribed by law foe the offense charged does not exceed six months falls under the
rule on:
a. Criminal procedure c. Civil procedure
b. Regular procedure d. Summary procedure
97. Under the Local Government code of 1991, the Lupon of each Barangay shall have authority to bring together the
parties actually residing in the same city or municipality for amicable settlement where the offense committed is punished
by imprisonment exceeding one year. This is:
a. Partly true c. Absolutely true
b. Partly false d. Absolutely false
98. The following are requisites of information, except:
a. It must be in writing charging a person with an offense
b. It must be filed in the offended party
c. It must be subscribed by the fiscal
d. It must be filed in court
99. Only offended apouse may file the complaint in the crimes of:
a. Bigamy c. Concubinage
b. Adultery d. Both A and B
100. All criminal actions shall be prosecuted under the direction and control of the prosecutor, this statement is:
a. Partly true c. Wholly true
b. Partly true d. Wholly false

28
CLJ – IV. Criminal Procedure
1. It consist of any reprehensible deed or word that offends public conscience.
A. Scandal c. Indignity
b. Unjust vexation d. Disgrace
2. What is needed to be proven that scandalous circumstance is an element in the crime of concubinage?
a. If the man is legally married c. If the mistress is a relative
b. If the mistress is kept outside the conjugal dwelling d. If the mistress is a virgin
3. It means dwelling together as husband and wife.
a. Cohabit c. Live-in
b. Marriage d. Joint house-hold
4. They should be objected to tat the time they are being offered in court.
a. Oral evidence` c. Expert evidence
b. Documentar6y evidence d. Testimonial Evidence
5. To appreciate this evidence, it is always a question of logic and experience.
a. Real evidence c. Relevant evidence
b. Object evidence d. Material evidence
6. Evidence whose admission is prohibited by law.
a. Incompetent evidence c. Inadmissible evidence
b. Unreal evidence d. None of these
7. Which among the following may be considered as subjects inquiring expert opinion?
a. Medical science c. Undeciphered writings
b. Forensic science d. All of these
8. When it prompts the witness to give an answer the examiner wants to hear it is said to be:
a. Leading question c. Compound question
b. Misleading question d. General question
9. What did you observe after they got married is an example of a
a. Compound question c. Misleading question
b. Leading question d. General question
10. A question which is made up of two or more queries connected by conjunctions and or.
a. Compound question c. Misleading question
b. Leading question d. General question

29
11. The following are the criteria used to determined whether or not a child regardless of age may be considered as a
competent witness, except:
a. Capacity of observation c. Capacity of communication
b. Capacity of recollection d. None of these
12. What must be established, in addition to sexual intercourse in cases of rape?
a. Use of force or intimidation by the offender c. Sterility of the offender
b. Resistance on the part of the victim d. All of the foregoing
13. When may evidences be considered as admissible in court?
a. When it is relevant to the issue c. When it is competent
b. When it is not excluded by the law or the rules of court d. All of the foregoing
14. Refers to statement made by the litigants in he judicial proceedings.
a. Judicial notice c. Judicial confession
b. Judicial admissions d. Pleadings
15. These evidences which results in the greatest certainty of the fact in question?
a. Primary or best evidence c. Competent evidence
b. Secondary evidence d. Conclusive evidence
16. Refers to evidence which indicates that a better kind of evidence exists.
a. Primary or best evidence c. Competent evidence
b. Secondary evidence d. Conclusive evidence
17. It forbids the addition or contradiction in terms of a written instrument6 by testimony purporting to show that other or
different terms were orally agreed upon by the parties.
a. Best evidence rule c. Hearsay rule
b. Parol evidence rule d. Res Gestae rule
18. Martial disqualification may apply, except:
a. The spouses was legally married
b. The husband is a party to the case
c. The wife is a party to the case
d. It involves civil cases filed by one against the other
19. Refers to matters which are learned in confidence
a. Private communication c. Dying declaration
b. Privilege communication d. Confidential Communication
20. The following are requisites for the disqualification based on attorney-client privilege, except:
a. Existence of an attorney client relation
b. Communication was made in the course of professional employment
c. No consent was given by the client to the attorney testifying thereon
d. None of the above
21. When may a descendant be compelled to witness against his parents or grandparents?
a. A crime against him
b. A criminal case by one the parent against the other
c. A criminal case by one grandparent against another
d. All of the foregoing
22. An agreement made between two or more parties as a settlement of matters in question.
a. Compromise c. Plea bargaining
b. Stipulation d. Contract
23. In admission by third party, the rights of a party cannot be prejudiced by an act , declaration or omission of another,
except:
a. Admission by a co-partner/ joint owner of the debtor c. Admission by agent or privies
b. Admission by conspirator d. All of the foregoing
24. Admission by agents shall be allowed when:
a. The agency is provided by evidence other the admission itself
b. The admission was made during the existence of the agency
c. The admission refers to a matter within the scope of his authority
d. All of the foregoing
25. A dying declaration may be admissible as evidence in cases, except:

30
 a. Imminent death but the declaration is conscious of facts
b. The declaration must concern the crime regarding the declarant’s death
c. The declarant is a competent witness and the declaration is offered in a criminal xase wherein the declaran’s
death is subject to the inquiry
d. None of the above
26. Refers to inferences which the law makes so preemptory that it will not allow them to be overturned by any contrary
proof.
a. Presumption c. Disputable presumption
b. Conclusive presumption d. Estoppel
27. A witness of the adverse oarty may be impeached, except:
a. A contradictory evidence d. None of the above
b. By evidence of his general reputation and integrity, and conviction of a crime involving moral turpitude
c. By evidence of other statement made by the witness which are inconsistent
28. Refers to an official entry of the proceedings in the court of justice
a. Judicial notice c. Blotter
b. Judicial record d. Official record
29. When may circumstantial evidence be sufficient to obtain conviction?
a. There is more than one circumstance
b. The facts from which the inference are derived were proven
c. When combined proof beyond reasonable doubt may be established
d. All of the foregoing
30. Which among the following are not elements of a corpus deliciti?
a. The accused need not necessarily be the doer of the act
b. Some person is criminally responsible for the act
c. That a certain result has been produced
d. None of the foregoing
31. Which among the following may be used as evidence in a judicial proceeding?
a. Privileged conversation c. Filial privilege
b. Dying declaration d. Parental privilege
32. In PD 1612, the possession of the stolen gods is:
a. Evidence against the accused c. Means that the accused is an accessory to the crime
b. Means that the accused is not the owner d. Prima facie evidence of fencing
33. Occurs when the evidence adduced proves the disputes fact.
a. Cumulative c. Circumstantial
b. Corroborative d. Relevant
34. Evidence of this kind is those which are capable of perception.
a. Testimonial c. Real
b. Corroborative d. Relevant
35. A priest may not be able to testify on pertinent matters to the case if said conversation or facts relates to that told in the
confession made by the:
a. Penitent c. Client
b. Patient d. Secretary
36. Who among the following are automatically disqualified to take the witness stand?
a. Sick person c. Homosexual and lesbians
b. Children d. Insane persons
37. Evidence which shows that a best evidence existed as to the proof of the fact in question.
a. Real evidence c. Secondary evidence
b. Best evidence d. Res gestae
38. Legal fitness of a witness to be heard on the trial
a. Admissibility c. Qualification
b. Competency d. Eligibility
39. Means sanctioned by the rules of court to ascertain the truth respecting a matter of fact.
a. Proof c. Motive
b. Intent d. Evidence

31
40. A duplicate receipt signed and carbon copied at the same time is in terms of its evidentiary value is deemed as:
a. Duplicate c. Authentic
b. Original d. Genuine
41.Exemption to the hearsay rule made under the consciousness of an impending death
a. Parol evidence c. Dead man statue
b. Ante mortem statement d. Mu ultimo adios
42. When are children deemed not competent qualify as a witness?
a. They understand the obligation of the oath
b. They have not reached the age of discernment
c. They must have sufficient knowledge to receive just impressions as to the facts on which testify
d. They can relate to those facts truly to the court at the time they are offered a s witness
43. That degree of proof which produces in the mind of as unprejudiced person, that moral certainty or moral conviction
that the accused did commit the offense charged
a. Ultimate facts c. Preponderance of evidence
b. Proof beyond reasonable doubt d. Substantial evidence
44. Circumstantial facts and declarations incidental to the main fact; means things done
a. Factum probans c. Res gestae
b. Factum probandum d. Owes probandi
45. A person who gives testimonial evidence to a judiciary tribunal.
a. Witness c. defense
b. Prosecution d. Clerk of court
46. In this sort of action, a person merely acknowledges certain facts but does not admit his guilt.
a. Testimony c. Confession
b. Admission d. Extra-judicial confession

47. When a categorical statement of guilt was made before a competent tribunal we classify it as:
a. Confession c. Judicial confession
b. Admission d. Extra-judicial confession
48. any evidence whether oral pr documentary wherein the probative value is not based on personal knowledge of the
witness but that from another
A. Testimonial evidence c. res gestae
b. Dying declaration d. Hearsay
49. Refers to family history or descent
a. Pedigree c. inheritance
b. Tradition d. heritage
50. Obligation imposed upon a party to establish their alleged fact by proof are termed as “burden of proof”, what is its
Latin translation?
a. Factum probans c. Owe fact
b. Factum probandum d. Owes probandi
51. The probative value given by the court to a particular evidence
a. Preponderance of evidence c. Ultimate fact
b. Evidentiary fact d. Weight of evidence
52. A degree of proof below that of proof beyond reasonable doubt, which taken in its entirely is superior to that of
another.
a. Best evidence c. Preponderance of evidence
b. secondary evidence d. Weight of evidence
53. The body of a crime.
a. Corpus delicti c. Autoptic evidence
b. Real evidence d. Physical evidence
54. Which among the foregoing is not part of the judicial rule for sufficiency of circumstantial evidence to convict an
accused?
a. There is more than one circumstance
b. The facts frome whoch the inference are derived must be proved
c. The combination of all the circumstance is such as to produced a conviction beyond reasonable doubt

32
 d. It must be judicial recognizance
55. Minimum number of witness required in rape cases to secure a conviction.
a. 1 c. 3
b. 2 d. None
56. Presumption which the law makes so preemptory that it will not allow them to be reversed by any contrary evidence.
a. Presumption c. Conclusion
b. Disputable presumption d. Conclusive presumption
57. Logical necessity which rests upon a party at any particular time during the trial to create a prima facie case in his own
favor or to overthrow one created gainst him.
a. Res gestae c. Burden of proof
b. Burden of evidence d. Estoppel
58. It is a bar which precludes a person from denying or asserting anything to the contrary of established truth.
a. Res gestae c. Burden of proof
b. Estoppel d. Burden of evidence
59. These questions suggest to the witness the answers to which an examining party requires.
A, Leading c. Estoppel
b. Misleading d. Res gestae
60. A written act or record of acts of a sovereign authority or provide writing acknowledge before a notary public.
a. Public document c. private document
b. Official document d. Official record
61. Which among the following may disqualify a witness?
a. Capacity of observation c. Capacity of knowledge
b. capacity of recollection d. Capacity of communication
62. What would overturn an alibi and denial in a hearing?
a. Testimony c. Proof
b. Evidence d. Positive identification
63. Prescribes the governing rules on evidence?
a. Revised Penal Code c. Rules on criminal procedure
b. Rules of criminal procedure d. Rules of court
64. Factum probans means:
a. Evidentiary fact c. Weight of evidence
` b. Ultimate fact d. Preponderance of evidence
65. Evidence which has some relation to what is sought to be proved.
a. Relevant c. Competent
b. Material d. Admissible
66. It affects an issue in an important or substantial matter.
a. Relevant c. Competent
b. Material d. Direct
67. Thos evidence which are admissible in court are held to be:
a. Relevant c. Competent
b. Material d. Direct
68. Refers to an evidence of the same kind adduced to prove the same fact.
a. Real c. Corroborative
b. Cumulative d. Circumstantial
70. Oral testimony given in open court.
a. Real evidence c. Testimonial evidence
b. Documentary evidence d. Admission evidence
71. Evidence delivered in open court wherein the witness states that he does not know whether a fact did or did not occur
a. Positive c. Direct
b. Negative d. Circumstantial
72. Evidence which is sufficient to prove an issue unless overcome or rebutted by other evidences
a. Primary c. Prima Facie
b. Secondary d. Best
73. Given by a person of specialized knowledge in some particular field

33
 a. Primary c. Secondary
b. Best d. Expert
74. That kind of evidence which cannot be rebutted or overcome.
a. Primary c. Real
b. Best d. Conclusive
75. Legal basis of inadmissibility of evidences obtained thru torture, threat, violence or intimidation
a. Sec 2 Bill of Rights c. Sec 12 Bill of Rights
b. Sec 3 Bill of Rights d. Sec 17 Bill of Rights
76. Cognizance of certain facts which judges may property take as fact because they are already known to them.
a. Cognizance c. Judicial knowledge
b. Judicial Admission d. Judicial notice
77. One which assumes as true a fact not yet testified to by the witness, or contrary to that which he has previously stated.
a. Leading c. Confusing
b. Misleading d. Res gestae
78. In case of falsification of document what would be the best evidence?
a. Authentic document c. Questioned document
b. Holographic document d. Genuine document
79. When a witness affirms tha a fact did or did not occur, such testimony is said to be:
a. Relevant evidence c. Positive evidence
b. Material evidence d. Negative evidence
80. which among the following may not be a means to impeach a judicial record?
a. Want of jurisdiction in the court of judicial officer c. Fraud in the party offering the record
b. Collusion between the parties d. Altertions
81. What is meant by demurrer to evidence?
a. Motion to dismiss c. Motion to inhibit
b. Plea to dismiss d. Motion to postpone
82. when can a circumstantial evidence sufficient to convict?
a. there is more than one circumstance d. All of these
b. The facts from which the inference are derived must be proved
c. The combination of all the circumstances is such as to produce conviction beyond reasonable doubt
83. The following are elements of corpus delicti, except:
a. That a certain result has been produced c. the accused need not necessarily be the doer of the act
b. Some person is criminally liable for the act d. the accused must be the doer of the act
84. Private document are proved by:
85. Any deed or instrument executed by a private person without the intervention of a notary public.
a. Holographic document b. Genuine Document c. Public document d. private document
86. Who among the following may be used to proved the handwriting of a person in open court?
a. Secretary of the accused for 20 years c. Friend and co-employee of the accused for more than 20 years
b. A questioned document examiner d. Any of the foregoing
87. Under the rules, a judicial record may be impeached by:
a. Evidence of fraud in the party offering the record with respect to the proceedings.
b. Evidence of collusion between the parties in the proceedings.
c. Evidence of want in the jurisdiction in the court or judicial officer with respect to the proceeding
d. Any of the foregoing
88. When shall the offer of testimonial evidence made?
a. Before testimony of the witness c. At the time the witness is called to testify
b. After testimony d. After the oath of taken by the witness
89. when can the adverse party object to any testimonial evidence?
a. After the testimony of the witness c. During the cross examine
b. After the direct examination of the witness
d. at any time and as soon a sthe grounds therefore become reasonably apparent
90. Several documentary evidences were not formally offeres at the hearing of the case, this would;
a. Be of no bearing since it is related and important with the case at hand
b. Prompt the court to accept it

34
 c. Prompt the court to exclude the same from the records
d. Prompt the court to issue a subpoena
91. Generally, objection to documentary evidences must be made;
a. Before it has been offered in evidence b. After it has been offered in evidence
c. Within 3 days after notice of the offer unless a different period is allowed by the court d. None of these
92. When may a formal offer of object and documentary evidence is made?
a. After the presentation of witnesses of both litigants c. After pre-trial
b. After a party’s testimonial evidence d. During pre-trial
93. The degree of proof which produces in the mind of an unprejudiced person, that moral certainty or moral conviction
that the accused did commit the offense charged. Also known as the quantum of evidence used to convict the person
charged in criminal cases.
a. Weight of evidence c. Preponderance of evidence
b. Sufficiency of evidence d. Proof beyond reasonable doubt
94. Generally leading questions are allowed on direct examinations in the following cases, except;
a. By contradictory evidence c. When they relate to preliminary matters
b. In interrogation of an unwilling or hostile witness
d. When there is difficulty in obtaining direct and intelligible answers from the witness
95. who among the following may give intelligible answers as witnesses?
a. A registered voter c. A feeble minded person
b. A child of tender age d. A deaf-mute person
96. when may a party impeach his own witness?
a. in case of a hostile witness d. any of the foregoing
b. Where the witness is not voluntarily offered but required by law to be presented by the proponent
c. Where the witness is the adverse party or the representative of a juridical person which is the adverse party
97. The following are means of impeaching a witness of the adverse partry, except:
a. in case of a hostile witness b. By contradictory evidence
c. Evidence that his general reputation for truth or integrity is bad
d. Inconsistencies of statements made with respect to the testimony
98. these are testimonies which are read and submitted as evidence provided that the despondent is dead or cannot testify
or outside the country
a. Deposition b. Oral testimony c. Testimonial evidence d. Extra judicial statements
99. The following are factors required to qualify a person as an expert witness, except:
a. Extensive training and education c. Of legal age
b. Particular first hand familiarity with the facts of the present case
d. Presentation of the authorities on which his opinions are based
100. Res getae may be admissible with the following requisites, except:
a. There must be a startling occurrence d. It must exist previous to the controversy
b. The statement must be spontaneous
c. The statement made must refer to the occurrence in question and its attending circumstance
CLJ- V. COURT TESTIMONY
1. the relevance of the study of practice court is to criminology is:
a. Acquaintance court room conduct and trial procedure d. all of the above
b. familiarization with court personnel and legal forms
c. Train criminologist how to testify effectively and properly
2. THE USUAL ROLE OF POLICE OFFICERS DURING JUDICIAL PROCEEDINGS.
A. To protect the judge c. to protect the accused
b. To serve as a witness d. To act as an expert witness
3. this occurs when the judge enters the court room and the clerk or bailiff announces his presence.
a. Roll call of case b. Call to order c. Arraignment d. Order to trial
4. when the call to order has been undertaken, it is an indication that:
a. All must rise b. All must be silent c. The court is in session d. All of the above
5. Which among the following is not a court personnel?
a. Clerk of court b. Stenographer c. Interpreter d. Policeman
6. his primary duty is to keep peace during trials.

35
 a. Clerk of court b. Baillif c. Policeman d. Judge
7. The prosecutor in a criminal case usually utter in roll call:
a. “for the accused your honor, ready” c. “for the people your honor, ready”
b. “for the plaintiff your honor, ready” d. “for the state your onor, ready”
8. It is a list of cases usually placed or posted on the door of a trial court.
a. Roll call of cases b. Calendar c. Call of order d. All of these
9. Trials and court sessions are usually:
a. Open to the public c. Exclusive to the litigants and their relatives
b. Exclusive for the litigants d. Open to them emebers of the bar
10. Before giving his testimony the witness must:
a. Undertake the witness oath c. Must pray for truthful answer
b. Must sign his affidavit d. Must pledge to tell the truth
11. When evidences are presented to the court, this constitute.
A. Witness oath b. Call to order c. Roll call of case d. Marking of exhibits
12. A procedure where in the case number is called and the litigants represented by counsel should signify their readiness
for trial.
a. Witness oath b. Call to order c. Roll call of cases d. Marking of exhibits
13. Primary duty of the prosecutor.
a. To see to it that due process is observed b. to acquit the accused
c. To prove the guilt of the accused beyond reasonable doubt d. To secure justice
14. he is the lawyer for the plaintiff
a. Counsel de officio b. Private prosecutor c. Public prosecutor d. Counsel for the defense
15. Another lawyer hired by the victim is designated as:
a. Counsel de officio b. Private prosecutor c. Public prosecutor d. Counsel for the defense 16. When an
objection has been made to the testimony of the witness and the judge orders that it be sustained, the witness:
a. Is allowed to continue and answer b. Is not allowed to answer the question directed by counsel
c. Is instructed to sit down d. Is instructed to get out of the witness stand
17. The question, “when did you first meet the accused” is an example of a:
a. Direct examination b. Cross examination c. Re-direct question d. Re-cross examination
18. After the evidence of the defense is presented, the next step for the order of trial is:
a. Evidence for the prosecution c. Sur-rebuttal evidence
b. Rebuttal evidence d. Cross examination
19. It is usually used to test the credibility of the witness and leading questions may be allowed.
a. Direct examination b. Cross examination c. Re-direct question d. Re-cross examination
20. It is used to establish facts wherein leading questions are not allowed.
a. Direct examination b. Cross examination c. Re-direct question d. Re-cross examination
21. A person named and appointed by the court to defend an absentee defendant in suit which the appointment is made.
a. Attorney at law b. Attorney ad Hoc c. Counsel de officio d. Attorney of record
22. an attorney whose name must appear in the permanent record or file of the case.
a. Attorney at law b. Attorney ad Hoc c. Counsel de officio d. Attorney of record
23. The counsel on either side of the litigated action who is charges with the principal management and direction of
party’s case.
a. Attorney in fact b. Attorney ad Hoc c. Lead counsel d. House counsel
24. Literally it means a friend of the court, a person with strong interest in or views on the subject matter of an action but
not a party to it.
a. Attorney in fact b. Amicus curiae c. Counsel de officio d. House counsel
25. A preliminary fee given to an attorney or counsel to insure and secure services and induce him to act for the client.
a. General retainer b. Retaining fee c. Special retainer d. Acceptance fee

LAW ENFORCEMENT ADMINISTRATION

LEA-1 POLICE ORGANIZATION AND ADMINISTRATION WITH POLICE PLANNING
1. the most common type of police organizational structure in the rural areas is the:
a. Line b. Functional c. Line and Staff d. Functional line
2. Outside his own office the police personnel director is a:

36
 a. Line officer b. Staff officer c. Line and staff officer d. Agency head representative
3. Inside his own office, the police budget director is a:
a. Line officer b. Staff officer c. Line and Staff officer d. Commanding officer
4. Command responsibility generally means;
a. Each members is held responsible for his own acts or performance
b. Each ranking officer is held responsible for the acts of his subordinates
c. The director general cannot be held responsible for all acts of his subordinates
d. Ministerial authority should be delegated
5. Which of the following laws initially created the National Police Commission?
a. RA 4864 b. RA 6975 c. PD 765 d. PD 1184
6. It is the law or act that abolished the Integrated National Police and the Philippine Constabulary.
a. RA 6975 b. PD 8551 c. RA 7610 d. RA 6713
7. It is the presidential decree that abolished local police departments, fire departments and local municipal city jails into
an integrated police force.
a. PD 765 b. PD 1184 c. PD 421 d. PD 971
8. Which of the various police laws has for its purposes the promotion of a higher degree of efficiency in the organization,
administration and operation of local police agencies and to place the local police service on a professional level:
a. RA 4864 b. RA 6975 c. RA 8551 d. PD 765
9. it is the presidential decree that the integrated cities and municipalities into a single unit known as metropolitan police
force.
a. PD 421 b. PD 482 c. PD 531 d. PD 585
10. In this police law, the state, among other goals, shall bolster a system of coordination and cooperation among the
citizenry, local executives and the integrated law enforcement and public safety agencies.
a. RA 4864 b. RA 6975 c. RA 8551 d. PD 765
11. All except one is a basic police activity:
a. Apprehension of criminals c. Prosecution of criminals
b. Crime prevention d. Recovery of stolen property
12. Created by royal decree to relieve partially Spanish Peninsular Troops in their duty in policing towns in the
Philippines in 1852.
a. Guardilleros b. Politia c. Guardia Civil d. Barangay Police
13. A statue which provides for the organization and government of insular constabulary.
a. Act 225 b. RA 4864 c. PD 765 d. RA 6975
14. The gauge of police efficiency is the absence of crimes
a. Old concept b. Modern Concept C. Continental Theory d. Home rule Theory
15. This viewpoint stresses that punishment is the sole instrument of social control
a. Old concept b. Modern Concept C. Continental Theory d. Home rule Theory 16. Control would entail
which activity?
a. Inspection c. Follow-up procedure
b. Periodic report of activities d. All of these
17. Routine and frequent rotation of transfer of personnel is desirable in which type of police work?
a. Vice b. Patrol c. Investigation d. Juvenile
18. To determine a supervisor’s span of control, what has to be taken into consideration?
a. The number of superiors who gives him orders
b. The number of superiors to whom he reports
c. The functions for which he assumes full responsibility
d. The number of subordinates who directly reports to him
19. Administrative tools designed to assure top management that direction of the department is effective
a. Control devices b. Planning devices c. Organization devices d. Coordinating devices
20. An expert or specialist is usually assigned to which type of organization?
a. Functional b. Line c. Line and Staff d. Staff
21. Which of the following is not a principle of “Line and Staff” relationship?
a. Span of control b. Staff advise c. Staff independence D. Limitation of staff economy
22. Which of the following is not a basic type of organization structure?
a. Functional b. Line c. Line and Staff D. Staff and Auxiliary

37
23. The three basic formal relationship in an organization are:
a. Responsibility, authority and chain of command
b. Authority, Span of control and responsibility
c. Responsibility, Functional growth and accountability
d. Authority responsibility and accountability
24. Of the Principle of “Span of Control” it may be said
a. It limits subordinates to eight c. It has little to do with human limitations
b. It is Closely related to the necessarily for functional differentiation downwards
d. It is independent of the variety of functions supervised.
25. When a supervisor delegates responsibility to a subordinate;
a. He shall set clear limits. C. He takes no risks
b. He rids himself of the responsibility
d. He should do well to make sure that another subordinate shares the responsibility
26. Except for one, listed functions are all operational tasks:
a. Patrol b. Investigation c. Traffic control d. Inspection and audit
27. Crime Laboratory, transportation, communications that assist primary task are referred to as:
a. Auxiliary se4rvice work c. Administrative service work
b. Line service work d. Primary Service work
28. In strikes, the police and military line should be at least ______ meters away from the picket line.
a. 20 B. 30 C. 40 D. 50
29. Except for one, listed functions are all auxiliary tasks:
a. Crime laboratory b. Records c. Communication d. Juvenile control
30. Which of the following functions are not classified as auxiliary service task?
a. Records management c. Communications management
b. Property management d. Security management
31. During the Pre-Spanish Period, the function of policing was a job of the:
a. Guardia Civil b. Barangay Headman c. Sultan d. Guardrilleros
32. Rural Philippine police organized in each town in 1836 is known as:
a. Guardrilleros b. Guardia Civil c. Politia d. Barangay Police
33. Which of the following is not a basic police activity?
a. Crime prevention b. Crime repression c. Arrest of offender d. Prosecution of criminal
c. Orders should direct, not segregate d. Orders must be complete and detailed

38
34. The yardstick of efficiency of the police can be determined by absence of crime and the welfare of the individual and
society as its objective. This described as the:
a. Traditional concepts c. Community oriented public Service
b. Police Service Oriented Concept d. Modern Concept
35. Peace officers are treated as state servants and people have minimal share in their duties or any direct connection with
them. This reflected as:
a. Old concept b. New concept c. Continental Theory d. Home rule theory
36. Policeman depends for their effectiveness in their functions upon express wishes of the community because they are
considered as servants of the people. This concept is described as:
a. Home rule Theory b. Traditional theory on policing c. Continental Theory d. Old concept
37. continuing Police Education and Training for PNP uniformed personnel is a basic responsibility of:
` a. National Police Commission c. Philippine Public Safety College
b. Philippine National Police d. National Police College
38. The organization rule of unity of command is done thru:
a. Subordinate reports to one supervisor only
b. Subordinate reports to one immediate supervisor
c. Subordinate reports to the same functional supervisor
d. A supervisor is responsible for unified group function
39. The development and use of an effective communication system theoretically gives greatest impetus to which of the
following organizational principles.
a. Line of Command b. Unity of command c. Span of Control d. Chain of command
40. Transport Police Service is embraced in the general police function of
a. Line b. Staff c. Line-staff d. Secondary
41. Coordination as an administrative function:
a. Requires without question acceptance of authority from above
b. Can always be achieved if subordinates are adequately remunerated

39
 c. Can generally be achieved without acceptance of control
d. Can likely be achieved if policies are clear with capable supervisors following established lines of authority
42. Staff responsibilities differ from those of the lines in that;
a. Staff has no direct authority, but operates as representative of a particular line officer
b. Line carries out its work under direct supervision by the staff
Staff officers never give direct orders
d. Line Carries out its work under direct supervision by the staff
43. In regard to the police planning function, it may be said that;
a. Planning is essentially decision-making in advance of action
b. Planning is essentially order-giving
c. Policemen must plan carefully than their supervisors.
d. the higher the job in the organization, the shorter the time-lag between planning and execution.
44. Recognition and definition of a problem is the first step in planning. Which of the following in not a further step in
planning?
a. Delegation of responsibility c. Collection and analysis of facts
b. Determination of possible solutions d. Selection of best solution
45. The structure of an organization should be such that;
a. It can adjust to short-term variations in workloads.
b. It can adjust as necessary to the capability of the people who man it.
c. Its functions has resources compatible with its contribution to the whole
d. It can weather the years without substantial structure changes
46. With respect to orders and commands, it may be said that:
a. Supervisors would do well to explain why, when issuing orders
b. Orders should be personal not impersonal
47. Delegation of responsibility to subordinates:
a. Cannot be undertaken unless the supervisor is sure his men can do the work
b. Seldom proves his men to be an effective motivating factor
c. Does not put the subordinate on his own
d. will not succeed unless the subordinate have self confidence in their capabilities
48. The function of control can be divided into three parts. Which of the following is not a part of control?
a. Initiation of activities c. Comparison of results with standards
b. Supervision of activities d. Corrective action
49. The most complex of the factors with which top management must deal with is:
a. Men b. Money c. Materials d. Mechanics
50. Police executive’s prime responsibility in law enforcement is the welfare and well-being of:
a. Personnel of the organization c. Leader of the mobilized community
c. Client of the organization d. Community, townspeople
51. The staff officer of the Chief of police is related to the latter as his:
a. Alta ego b. Extension c. Administrative support d. Coordinator
52. The 1987 constitutional Mandate on the establishment of a police force is attained thru:
a. RA 6975 b. RA 8551 c. RA 6975 and RA 8551 d. RA 4864
53. The 1973 constitutional Mandate on the establishment of a police force is attained thru:
a. PD 421 b. PD 448 c. PD 765 d. PD 1184
54. Field policemen recommend locating the communications center on the records division under the control of a
Records Officer primarily because of:
a. The records officer usually has higher rank than communications officer
b. Communications center usually prepares the original records of complaints received
c. Communications should be coordination with records division
d. Training for records and communications is similar
55. Provision for police radio is primarily important because it increases t6he speed of police action and observes it.
a. provides a sense of security to patrolling officers
b. Makes possible more effective use of the patrol force
c. Attracts better men to the police service
d. Aids the police in obtaining public acceptance of its crime prevention program

40
56. The smooth interchange of thought, ideals and opinions and the effective communication within an organization
requires that all the lines of communication be essentially.
a. Upward movement b. Downward-across c. Across-upward d. Upward, downward and across
57. The most basic considerations in locating a police station within a fixed political jurisdiction are:
a. Center of community progress c. Near working center of police activities
b. Convenience to public clientele d. Consistent within local zoning restrictions
58. Police organization revolves around _______ to be effective:
a. Operations b. Management c. Personnel d. People
59. Refers to the executing arm of the administration of any organization
a. Chain of command b. Board of directors c. Auxiliary service d. Operations
60. A superior or ranking officer may find it is sometimes more effective to warn his subordinate rather than to punish
them, the main reason for such response is that:
a. Warnings may generate a more cooperative attitude
b. Punishment is always viewed as negative
c. Punishment has been proven ineffective as a deterrent
d. Warnings are more acceptable than punishment
61. Plans utilized by patrol, traffic, vice and juvenile control
a. Tactical plans b. Operational plans c. Policy plans d. Special operating plan
62. An area assigned for patrol purposes
A. Post b. Beat c. Sector d. Route
63. A medium through which work is accomplished by individuals or groups associated with each other
a. Functional units b. Organization c. Association d. All of these
64. One man must be in complete command in every situation
a. Chain of command b. Unity of command c. Command responsibility d. Span of control
65. Intended to be used in all situations of all kinds
a. Office procedures b. Field procedures c. Special operating procedures d. Tactical plans
66. Procedures in copying for specific locations at known locations
a. Tactical plans b. Operational plans c. Policy plan d. special operating plan
67. operating procedure designed to guide members in routine assignments
a. Tactical plans b. Operational plans c. Policy plan d. special operating plan
68. Ability of one man to control, direct and coordinate immediate subordinate
a. Chain of command b. Unity of command c. Command responsibility d. Span of control
69. Geographical subdivision of a city for patrol purposes
a. Bureau b. Section c. Division d. District
70. Sound organization involves delegation of decision-making authority. It should involve:
a. Immediate subordinates only c. All line and staff personnel who have reached supervisory status
b. All line personnel d. As far down the organization as competence and required information are available
71. What is the civil Service eligibility equivalent of Master of Public Safety Administration under Executive Order 400?
a. Career service Professional Eligibility c. Career Executive Service Officer Eligibility
b. Honor’s first Grade Eligibility for PPSC scholar d. Senior Officer Public Safety Eligibility
72. Except for one the following are practical methods of Police Supervisory training:
a. Conference method b. Lecture method c. Study method d. Role playing method
73. Of the following, what collegiate educational programs is most related to public training courses?
a. Criminology b. Police administration c. Criminal Justice d. Public safety administration
74. It is the training of an individual already proficient in one line to be trained in another, usually allied to what he has
specialized.
a. Cross-training c. Technical specialized training
b. Enhanced specialized training d. Maximized specialized trining
75. A kind of training taken by members of the force to prepare them intellectually as temperamentally for supervisory
positions.
a. Specialization b. Management training c. Police basic training d. Command training
76. For promotion to P/Inspector, the training required for permanent status is:
a. Public Safety officer Candidate Course c. Public safety basic officer’s Course
b. Public safety officer supervisory course d. Public safety inspector’s course

41
77. Permanency is extended to a PNP officer promoted to Chief inpector if he has among others completed successfully
the career course on:
A. Public safety officer basic Course c. Public Safety supervisory advance course
b. Public safety Officer advance course d. Public Inspector’s Course
78. What is the highest Police career training given by the PPSC for permanent appointment as Police Superintendent?
a. PS officer Advance Course c. PS officer Senior Executive Course
b. PS officer Advance Management Course d. PS officer Senior Supervisor’s Course
79. The PPSC thru the PNPA grants a bachelor’s degree for permanent appointment as inspector in the police, fire and jail
service. This bachelor’s degree is officially described as:
a. Bachelor of Science in Police Administration c. Bachelor of Science in Public Safety Management
b. Bachelor of Science in Public Safety d. Bachelor of Science in Public Safety Administration
80. What constitutive unit of the PPSC grants Master’s degree in Public Safety Administration?
a. Philippine National Police Academy c. National Public Safety College
b. National Police College d. National Public Safety Academy
81. The Philippine Public Safety College was created as an attached agency to the DILG. The enabling congressional act
is:
a. RA 6975 b. RA 8551 c. RA 7610 d. RA 6713
82. The Philippine National Police Academy is an educational institution under the direction and supervision of:
a. Philippine National Police c. Office of the Secretary, DILG
b. Philippine Public Safety College d. National Police Commission
83. As an External Disciplinary Authority in the PNP the People’s Law Enforcement Board is empowered to investigate,
decide citizen’s complaints against members. These boards are created by what agency in government?
a. National Police Commission b. PNP c. City/Municipal Mayors d. Sangguniang PAnglungsod
84. Women’s desk in all police stations nation-wide shall be established by the ____ to administer and attend to cases
involving crimes against chastity, sexual harassment, abuses against women and children among others.
A. PNP b. Local city/municipal mayor c. National police commission d. Sangguniang panglunsod
85. The internal affairs services of the PNP created under RA 8551 as part of the reform-reorganization movement in the
PNP performs the following, except for one:
a. Investigative-prosecutorial function c. Adjudicatory functions
b. Investigative and monitoring functions d. Appellate function
86. it is the premier educational institution in the national government created to provide continuing education and career
training and human resource development of all personnel of the PNP, Fire and Jail Bureaus.
a. Philippine Public Safety college c. Philippine national Training Institute
b. Philippine National Police d. Directoate for human Resource Development
87. The following, except for one educational institution are initial constitutive units of the PPSC on its creation in 1991
a. PNPA b. Jail Service Training Service Center c. Philippine National Training Center d. National Police
College
88. What is the entry training for PNP permanent appointment in the initial rank of Police Officer I?
a. On the job training for recruits c. Basic orientation course
b. Basic Police Training For recruits d. Police recruit candidate course
89. For permanent promotion to Senior Police Officer I or SPO2, what is the career police tyraining required?
a. Public Safety Officer Supervisor’s Course c. Public safety Junior Supervisor’s Course
b. Public Safety Junior Leadership Course d. Public safety Senior Leadership Course
90. The Career training required for lateral entry as a professional in the rank of inspector or senior inspector, PNP is:
a. Public Safety Officer Candidate Course c. Public Safety Officer Inspector’s Course
b. Public Safety Officer Orientation Course d. Public safety Basic Officer Course
91. That level of training that prepares the top that prepare the top administrative personnel of the force
maximizes/enhances decision-making policy deliberating responsibilities.
a. Management training c` c. Advanced Leadership Training
b. Total Quality Executive Training d Proficiency Occupational Training
92. Under the police reform and reorganization law, a Field training Program for all PNP uniformed members is required
for permanency of their appointment consisting of 12 months. Basic areas of actual Experience and assignment during this
period shall be on:
a. Patrol, traffic and investigation c. Patrol, investigation and auxiliary service

42
 b. Patrol, Investigation and instructional duties d. Traffic, investigation and staff duty
93. The increased educational qualification for appointment as Director of a Provincial Police Officer are:
a. Completion of academic units towards a masters degree in criminology or related mater’s degree
b. Hods a master’s degree in public administration, Sociology, criminology, criminal justice, law enforcement and
related discipline
c. Holds any master’s degree needed by the PNP
d. Completed at least 24 academic master’s units as mentioned above
94. The increased minimum educational qualifications for APPOINMENT AS CHIEF OF Police of municipal police
station are the following, except for one:
a. Finished at least 2nd year bachelors of laws c. Member of the bar
b. Earned at l;east 12 units in masters degree program in public administration, criminology, criminal justice, law
enforcement, national security administration and related programs
d. Licensed criminologist or PNPA graduates.
95. If he military service top officer’s corps has their National Defense College of the Philippines for their highest
educational program, what has the police service have by way of identical educational program?
a. Philippine national Police c. National Police College
b. Philippine Public Safety College System d. Police College of the Philippines
96. Largest organic unit within a large department
a. Division b. Bureau c. Section d. Functional units
97. Functional unit necessary for specialization
a. Division b. Bureau c. Section d. Functional units
98. Primary subdivision of a bureau
a. Division b. Bureau c. Section d. Functional units
99. Except for one the following are identifiable as administrative service function
a. Police training b. Police personnel management c. Accounting, auditing and budgeting d. Transportation
management
100. Patrol, investigation, vice control is classified as:
a. Auxiliary service work b. Line service work c. Administrative service work d. all of these
101. an officer who is in dominion of the department, district or bureau
a. Line Officer b. Superior officer c. Commanding officer d. Ranking officer
102. Refers to the officer having the highest rank or grade according to their date of appointment to that grade.
a. Superior officer b. Sworn officer c. Commanding officer d. Ranking officer
103. Refers to an officer having supervisory responsibilities either temporarily or permanently over officers of lower rank
a. Superior officer b. Sworn officer c. Commanding officer d. Ranking officer
104. A personnel of the police department who possess the power of arrest and has an oath of office
a. Superior officer b. Sworn officer c. Commanding officer d. Ranking officer
105. Refers to those police officers whose ranks ranges from PO1 to SPO4
a. Ordinary police units b. Non-commissioned officers c. Commissioned officers d. None of these
106. In the Philippine National police four stars is the delegated insignia of;
a. Deputy director General b. Director c. Chief Superintendent d. Director General
107. They constitute police officers from the director General to police inspectors
a. Commanding officers b. Superior officers c. Ranking officers d. Commissioned officers
108. A police rank of Superintendent is represented by the insignia;
a. one sun b. Two suns c. Three suns d. one stars
109. Under RA 8551, suppression of insurgency and iother serious threats to national security shall be the responsibility
of;
a. PNP b. DILG c. DND d. AFP
110. Ex-officio chairman of the NAPOLCOM
a. DOJ secretary b. DND secretary c. DILG secretary d. President

43
LEA II. Industrial security management
1. Primary requirement in maintaining and organizing a private security agency.
a. It should be 100% Filipino owned and controlled by Filipino citizens c. Equipment requirement
b. Bond requirements d. Trained, skilled and qualified personnel
2. Restriction for high powered firearms, prescribed that its number should not exceed ____ percent of the total number
of guards of a private security agency
a. 5 b. 10 c. 15 d. 20
3. Third line of physical defense
a. Perimeter defense b. Inside perimeter defense c. Storage system d. Clear zone
4. Doors, floors, window, roofs and walls constitute the second line of defense usually referred to as:
a. . Perimeter defense b. Inside perimeter defense c. Storage system d. Clear zone
5. Common weakness for a sentry dog when used as an animal barrier
a. Ability to check identity b. Keen sense of smell and hearing c. Incorruptible d. Loyalty
6. Most common animal barrier used to secure facilities.
a. Geese b. Sentry dogs c. Cats d. Parrots
7. Refers to a line protection adjacent to a protected area and passing thru points of possible entry
a. Clear zone b. Inside perimeter c. Outside perimeter d. Restricted areas
8. A line protection surrounding and removed from protected areas
a. Clear zone b. Inside perimeter c. Outside perimeter d. Restricted areas
9. From the standpoint of security, when should locks be changed?
a. At least once a year b. At least twice a year c. At least three times a year d. On a quarterly basis
10. If utility openings such as air intakes, sewers, and exhaust tunnels have a cross section of ninety-six inches or more, as
a security consultant what should be the appropriate recommendation?
a. It should be protected by filters and bar grills c. It should be manned with an armed guard at all times
b. It should be closed immediately to avoid entry of persons with petit physique
d. Sensors should be place on it to detect movements
11. Minimum acceptable height for a fence used as a security barrier
a. 5 feetb. 8 feetc. 10 feet d. 12 feet
12. To deny outsiders from visual access in a certain facility what must be constructed
a. Full view fence b. Chain link fence c. Solid fence d. Multiple fences
13. To prevent unauthorized persons from jumping from one fence to another in case of multiple fences they should be
installed at least _____ feet apart.
a. 6 feetb. 9 feetc. 12 feet 15 feet
14. as a security consultant you have noticed that windows of a particular building has been constructed less than 18 feet
from the ground and 14 feet away from another building, what will be your recommendation to fortify said facility?
a. The windows must be reinforcement with steel grills
b. A fence of at least 18 feet must be constructed around the building
c. Screens should be installed to prevent petty thievery
d. A wall should be constructed around the building
15. The simplest form of lock which uses a bolt containing a notch called talon
a. Warded locks b. Coded locks c. Disc tumbler locks d. Cylinder locks
16. It serves as the trigger apparatus for protective alarms
a. Circuit b. Sensor c. Signaling device d. Alarm device
17. Vicinity wherein access is restricted to all unauthorized personnel
a. Controlled areas b. Exclusion areas c. Limited areas d. Clear zones
18. Areas wherein additional security measures are utilized
a. Controlled areas b. Exclusion areas c. Limited areas d. Clear zones
19. Areas which are always in close surveillance
a. Controlled areas b. Exclusion areas c. Limited areas d. Clear zones
20. An inquiry into the reputation, integrity, character, morals and loyalty of an individual to determine a person’s
suitability for appointment or access to classified matters
a. Security promotion b. Background check c. Personnel Security investigation d. Loyalty check
21. Refers to the working protective ail that provides close physical security to the principal
a. VIP security b. Personal security c. Close in security d. Protective security

44
22. A vehicle always fronting the principal’s vehicle to neutralize any possible threat
a. Escort vehicle b. Recon vehicle c. Decoy vehicle d. Shield vehicle
23. Maximum number of guards for company guard forces
a. 200 b. 500 c. 800 d. 1000
24. Minimum number of guards allowed for private security agencies
a. 200 b. 500 c. 800 d. 1000
25. Minimum number of guards for company guard forces
a. 20 b. 30 c. 50 d. 200
26. It includes barriers, perimeter fences or guards at the gate
a. Perimeter defense b. Inside perimeter defense c. Storage system d. Exclusion area
27. The following are examples of an inside perimeter defense except:
`a. Doors b. Floors c. Vaults d. Grills
28. It is an independent structure designed to control physical and/or visual access between outside areas, usually
classified as solid and plain view
a. Masonry walls bn. Chain link c. Fence d. Utility openings
29. House-like structures placed above the fence installed to provide additional view to human guards around the
perimeter
a. Masonry walls b. Top guard c. Guard control system d. Towers
30. Usually installed at residences, it is also Called night latch and is operated by a key on the outside and a knob on the
inside
a. Cylinder lock b. Lever lock c. Disc Tumbler lock d. Code operated lock
31. Refers to a key that will open everything in a system involving two or more master key groups
a. Grand master key b. Master key c. Sub master key d. Change key
32. A term used in England for lock pickers, safe combination crackers
a. A padlock expert b. Peterman c. Peter pan d. Grand master
33. It projects light in concentrated beams, and ideal to use in illumination of buildings, perimeter areas and boundaries
a. Flood lights b. Search lights c. Fresnel lights d. Street Lights
34. A type of detection system wherein when the security has been breached, the siren is sounded in remote stations
located in the immediate vicinity of the installation
a. Central station system b. Local alarm system c. Proprietary alarm system d. Local alarm by chance system
35. A metallic container use primarily for safekeeping usually anchored to the building and should be at least 750 lbs.
A. Safe b. Vault c. File room d. Depository
36. A heavily constructed fire resistant storage facility and is always part of the building structure
A. Safe b. Vault c. File room d. Depository
37. It includes all measures designed to prevent individuals of doubtful loyalty, character and integrity from gaining
access to classified information and sensitive facilities
a. Document security b. Personnel security c. Personal security d. VIP security
38. IT consists of devices, patterns or compilation of information which is used un one’s business and gives the user
advantage over competitors
a. Trade secrets b. Formula c. Proprietary information d. Intellectual property
39. A private security applying for a regular license to operate must possess how many pieces of licensed firearms for
guard duty purposes?
a. 50 b. 60 c. 70 d. 100
40. When may firearms issued to private security agencies be confiscated?
a. When the firearm has been used or is about to be used in the commission of a crime
b. When the firearm’s caliber is not among those prescribe by law for use
c. When the firearm is carried or used outside the property or compound services by the agency without property
authority
d. All of the foregoing
41. He exercise the power to revoke, for causes licensed issued to security guards
a. Chief, PNP b. USec. For peace and order, DILG c. NAPOLCOM Chairman d. Secretary, DILG
42. Industrial establishments must establish the first line of physical defense, it refers to:
a. Perimeter barriers c. Doors, locks and window barriers
b. The building itself d. Entry points where security guards are located

45
43. Minimum age requirement for security manager or operator of a security agency:
a. 25 years old b. 30 years old c. 35 years old d. 40 years old
44. Refers to a natural or man-made structure which is capable of delaying illegal; access to a facility
a. Wall b. Fence c. Barrier d. Beach d. Beach front
45. IT refers to means and ways that personnel and employees making them security conscious
a. Security promotion b. Security education c. Security investigation d. security seminar
46. Registration of a security agency must be processed at what particular government agency?
a. PNP SAGSD b. NAPOLCOM c. DND, Civil Defense Office d. Securities and exchange commission
47. Physical security is a system of barriers placed between the potential intruder and the object/matter to be protected. As
a criminologist, this is simply a denial of __________
a. Opportunity to commit the offense c. Opportunity and access to object of protection
b. Access to the object of protection d. Criminal instinct to surface in the potential offender
78. Weakest link in the security chain
a. Security guards b. Managers c. Barriers d. Personnel
49. Perimeter barriers, protective lightning, and _______ system are known in industrial security as physical security.
a. Guarding b. reporting c. Relieving d. Accounting
50. This is an additional outwardly inclined fixed structure, usually barbed wires placed above vertical fences to increase
physical protection from intruders of a certain area, this is known as _____
a. Cellar guard b. Tower guardhouse c. Twilight zone d. Patrol lane zone
51. The exterior and interior parallel area near the perimeter barrier of an industrial compound to afford better observation
and patrol. Movement is known as ______.
a. Protective zone b. Clear zone c. Twilight zoned. Patrol lane zone
52. Protective guarding in a compound can be done by the use of electronic hardware, human guards and even animals. In
England, an owner to protect his compound used this and they are not only effective but also the cheapest to maintain.
This man is using ____.
a. Doberman dogs b. Tamed tigers and lions c. Geese d. Ducks
53. The government agency that issues licenses for private and government security guards is?
a. PNP SAGSD b. Municipal/city mayor’s office c. PNP FEO d. PNP SOSIA
54. If access is limited only to authorized personnel, this particular place is referred to as-
a. Compromise area b. Danger area c. Restricted area d. Exclusive area
55. First measure undertaken before a comprehensive security program for an industrial plan could be developed
a. Security survey b. Security education c. Security check d. Security inspection
56. A security suvey of a plant or industrial firm is also known by other terms except-
a. Security auditb. Risk assessment c. Vulnerability d. Robbery evaluation
57. Today there are three categories of security guards belonging to the “blue Army”. One of those listed below does not
belong to the group
a. Body guards b. Agency guards c. Company guards d. Government security guards
58. Whether to put up its own security guards organic to the firm or hire contractual agency guards have their individual
merits and disadvantages. To determine which type of guarding system an industrial firm will require, management must
consult ________.
a. A security agency owner b. A police officer c. A military intelligence officer
d. A security consultant not connected to or owning a security agency, or part thereof
59. As a security officer, you cannot prevent not predict natural hazards like storm earthquakes, floods and the like. In
order to reduce the disastrous effects of these natural hazards, you will ________.
a. Prepare a disaster or emergency plan for these hazards for the firm c. Alert your guards when hazards occur
b. Not take any concern on such hazards d. All PAGASA and inquire when the next storm is coming
60. Practical exercise or test of a plan or activity to determine its effectiveness is called-
a. Evac. Plan b. Dry run c. Fire drill d. Sham drill
61. The management of keys used in plant, office or business organization to prevent unauthorized access is referred to as-
a. Key management b. Key control c. Lock control d. Security key control
62. there are many types of electronic and electric protective devices available for security buildings, storehouses and
compounds. One of the following is true.
a. Electronic/electric devices eliminate human guards
b. Each building or compound requires particular electronic/electrical protective devices

46
 c. Types of alarms needed can best be given by the dealers of said devices
d. Electronic/electrical devices provided total protection for the place to be safeguarded
63. As a security chief of an industrial firm, inventory shows that pilferage is rampant in the warehouses. What will be
your choice of action?
a. Tighten checking at exits of vehicles of the compound/complex
b. Prepare your protective plans and confer with management for their immediate implementation
c. Deploy intelligence men in pilferage prone areas to catch the culprits
d. To resign as you have failed your job
64. In an industrial firm, there is a need for document security. As a security officer, you can advice management on this
aspect although ths is not totally your assigned work. Document security is not na preotection of vital records from-
a. Unauthorized access b. Compromise or destruction c. Theft or loss d. Authorized handling
65. The main reason for a personnel security investigation is—
a. To weed out undesirable employees b. To check loyalty of employees to the organization
c. preclude assignment to sensitive positions for those who are security risks
d. To determine the character and reputation of certain employees secretly tagged as risks
65. It is defined as a system of barriers placed between the matters protected and the potential intruder
a. To weed out undesirable employees b. to check loyalty of employees to the organization
c. Preclude assignment to sensitive positions for those who are security risks
d. To determine the character and reputation of certain employees secretly tagged as risks
66. It is defined as a system of barriers placed between the matters protected and the potential intruder.
a. Physical Security b. Document Security c. Personnel Security d. Computer security
67. This type of alarm system utilizes a station located outside the compound
a. A Local alarm system b. Central Alarm system c. Proprietary system d. Auxiliary system
68. It is installed as part of the building which holds up to 10,00 cubic meters of essential items. At least 12 feet in height,
with enough ventilation and fire proof of at least 1 hour.
A. Safe b. Vault c. File room d. protective cabinet
69. It is the susceptibility of a plant or establishment to damage, loss or disruption of operations due to various hazards
a. Relative criticality b. Relative vulnerability c. Risk assessment d. Risk analysis
70. It refers to the importance of the establishment with reference to the national economy and security
a. Relative criticality b. Relative vulnerability c. Risk assessment d. Risk analysis
71. Classification of one who steals due to irresistible urge primarily because of unexpected opportunity and little chance
of detection
a. Systematic pilferer b. Ordinary pilferer c. Pickpocket d. Casual pilferer
72. They are installed between the prospective intruder and the target installation
a. Barriers b. Hazards c. Locks d. ?Guards
73. For new applicants trying to acquire a security guard license, the maximum age is;
a. 30 b. 35 c. 40 d. 50
74. A security consultant must have at least __ years experience in the operation and management of security business
a. 5 years b. 10 years c. 15 years d. 20 years
75. A regular license granted as private security license card is valid for;
a. 1 year b. 2 years c. 3 years d. 5 years
76. A security unit operated and maintained by any government entity other than the military or the police, which is
established and maintained for the purpose of securing the office or compound and/or extension of such government entity
a. Company security force b. Agency Security Force c. Government security unit d. None of these
77. Refers to a security force maintained and operated by any private company or corporation for its own security
requirement only.
a. Company security force b. Agency Security Force c. Government security unit d. None of these
78. Refers to the association of all licensed security agencies and company security forces
a. PADPAO b. PNP SOSIA c. PNP SAGSD d. PNP CSG
79. Under the law, the maximum ratio of a firearm to every security guard in the employ of private security agencies is:
a. 1:1 b. 1:2 c. 1:3 d. 1:4
80. A private security agency must initially procure at least__ pieces of licensed firearms for use of its security guards
a. 20 b. 30 c. 50 d. 70
81. The licensed or permit to own a firearm for security agencies is applied and processed at:

47
 a. PNP civil security group c. PNP firearms and explosive office
b. PNP Security agencies and guards supervision d. Any of these
82.
Refers to the merger with any person or a group of persons for the purpose of organizing a brach, unit or subsidiary under
separate control and ownership
a. Security corporation b. Kabit system c. Merger system d. Illegal association
83. A lock Which is commonly installed in safe deposit boxes and is deemed pick proof since it is operated by utilizing
combinations by means of a dial
a. Lever Lock b. Combination Lock c. Cylinder Lock d. Code operated locks
84. A disc tumbler lock which is used in automobiles would afford delay of at least;
a. 5 to 10 minutes b. 10 to 15 minutes c. 15 to 20 minutes d. 20 to 30 minutes
85. Earliest known lock in existence
a. Egyptian lick b. Greek lock c. Roman lock d. Persian lock
86. For illumination of covered pathways and sidewalks it is wiser to install;
a. Fresnel lights b. search lights c. Street lights d. Flood lights
87. Vaults are storage devices which are usually designed to be at least __ hours for resistance
a. 3 b. 6 C. 9 D. 12
88. Conducted for a period of at least 4 hours, its concern is to reiterate to employees that security is an additional burden
imposed on everyone who is part of the company
a. Refresher conference b. Training conference c. Security reminders d. Debriefing
89. This serves as a forum to resolve security problem and explain new rules and regulations
a. Refresher conference b. Training conference c. Security reminders d. Debriefing
90. A positive effort to sell security or make the employees more involved in the implementation of security measures
a. Refresher conference b. Training conference c. Security reminders d. Security promotion
LEA-III. Police Patrol and Operations
1. Etymology of the word police, meaning government of a city.
a. Patrouiller b. Politia c. Polista d. Politeia
2. Specific conditions and place that requires patrol officer’s special attention.
a. Hazards b. Attractive nuisance c. Uninhabited places d. Bars and night clubs
3. In his contact with the public a police officer on patrol should consider primarily the;
a. Public attitude towards the police c. Character of persons in his beat
b. Impression he creates d. Time he stays in a particular area
4. Which among the following is a component of a targeted oriented patrol?
a. Event oriented patrol b. Offender oriented patrol c. Location oriented patrol d. All of these
5. The unit within the police department primarily responsible for taking direct police intervention whenever a crime is
committed
a. Petrol b. Investigation c. Vice d. Traffic
6. Territorial decentralization is more appropriate in which police function?
a. Patrol b. Investigation c. Vice d. Traffic
7. Justification for the creation and maintenance of specialization police units within the police organization
a. It is aimed to relieve patrol units in cases of special operations c. It assists the patrol force
b. Assumes complete responsibility in a specialized area or problem d. It is used to deter specialized and high tech
crimes
8. It is considered as the busiest shift for patrol duty and offers a wide variety of challenges and activities
a. Morning shift c. Afternoon shift c. Midnight shift d. Grave yard shift
9. In terms of shift scheduling of patrol units, it is wiser to deploy younger police officers in the:
a. Morning shift c. Afternoon shift c. Midnight shift d. Grave yard shift
10. Among the activities usually undertaken by patrol offers in this shift are; handling service calls, dealing with youth
related problems and intensified police omnipresence in downtown areas
a. Morning shift c. Afternoon shift c. Midnight shift d. Grave yard shift
11. Majority of contracts between the public and police occur between the citizen and:
a. Patrolman b. Criminal investigation c. Traffic officer d. Police supervisor
12. Backbone Organization of a police department is generally its:
a. Traffic division b. Patrol division c. Crime investigation division d. Operations division

48
13. For maximum effectiveness, a member of the police force who is generalist or “all around man” should be assigned to:
a. Patrol duty b. Criminal investigation duty c. Community relations job d. Traffic enforcement duty
14. That unit in the police force best suited and is primarily responsible for taking direct action when crime is committed
is:
a. Patrol Division b. Investigation Division c. Criminalistic Division d. Inspection Division
15. Deployment of patrol personnel is normally done according to some measure of the need for police service. Of the
following which one is the least valid factor than can be used as, or included in, a measure of perceived need.
a. Number of complaints b. Number of arrest c. Number of crime committed d. Peso value of property
losses
16. The best reason why patrol service is being considered backbone of the police department is:
a. Patrol provides service to a greater number of people at any time c. Patrol function is very wide in scope
b. Patrol function is largely preventive in nature d. Patrol is the only service that carries out the basic police jobs
17. That member of the law enforcement agency to be involved in practically every incident calling for police action
a. Patrol officer b. Traffic officer c. Investigation officer d. Police Liaison officer
18. It designed to increase the rate of apprehension of persons engaged in selected types of crimes
a. High visibility patrol b. Low visibility patrol c. Directed deterrent patrol d. Split force patrol
19. It refers to a patrol activity wherein police personnel drives around a particular area or waits at the station for any call
requiring police assistance
a. Patrol b. Reactive patrol c. Proactive patrol d. Police patrol
20. it has been considered as the most effective and efficient means of in guarding, in terms of increasing community
support and cooperation?
a. Foot patrol b. Automobile patrol c. Helicopter and fixed wing aircraft patrol d. Motorcycle patrol
21. It refers to a repeated circuit of in guarding, primarily to prevent the commission of crimes and maintain the peace and
order situation in a particular area
a. Patrol b. Surveillance c. Investigation d. Apprehension
22. In areas wherein the terrain is said to be rough, what would be an appropriate means or type of patrol, which may be
utilized?
a. Bicycle patrol b. Foot patrol b. Automobile patrol d. Horse patrol
23. Which type of patrol would enable the police officers to have the advantage of stealth and at the same time the
element of surprise?
a. Motorcycle patrol b. Automobile patrol c. Bicycle patrol d. Foot patrol
24. It refers to the core mission of police patrol operations
a. Crime prevention b. Law enforcement c. Order maintenance d. Criminal apprehension
25. Ideal manning level of the Philippine National Police in relation to the population is required the National Capital
Region?
a. 1:1000 b. 1:1500 c. 1:500 d. 1:150
26. When patrol officers saturates a given area with additional units, walking beats to increase the area of police
omnipresence, what particular patrol operational tactics do they employ?
a. High visibility patrol b. Low visibility patrol c. Directed deterrent patrol d. Split force patrol
27. Community Oriented Policing System widely applied in Metro Manila aims to establish teamwork among the police
and the persons residing in the community, it is a concept which bent on accomplishing what particular goal?
a. Prevention of criminal and Delinquent Behavior c. Participative Law Enforcement
b. Repression of crimes d. All of the above
28. It is regarded as the most dominant method of conducting patrol.
a. Motorcycle patrol b. Automobile patrol c. Bicycle patrol d. Foot patrol
29. What do we refer to in determining the crimes per 100,000 population?
a. Crime rate b. Crime statistics c. Peace and order situation d. All of these
30. Maximum tolerable level, to indicate that the peace and order situation is still within the control or within the
capability of the police force to handle
a. 30 index b. 35 index c. 40 index d. 45 index
31. It refers to a fixed point or ;location to which an officer is assigned for duty
a. Post b. Route c. Beat d. Line beat
32. This type of patrol would afford police officers to cover vast area particularly inaccessible remote areas at the least
possible time without the benefit of refueling in cases of long distance, which has to be traversed

49
 a. Automobile patrol b. Fixed wing aircraft patrol c. Helicopter patrol d. Foot patrol
33. Pete is a thief who is eyeing at the cell phone of mary’s SPO 2 jaen is standing a few meters from Mary, the thief’s
desire is not diminished by the police presence but the __ for successful theft is:
a. Ambition b. Intention c. Feeling d. Opportunity
34. Small alley’s can be best penetrated by the police through:
a. Foot patrol b. Motorcycle patrol c. Helicopter patrol d. Automobile patrol
35. When police officers are not bent on waiting for something to happen and respond but instead utilizes some other
means to effect crime prevention, the focus is said to be a type of what kind of Patrolling?
a. Reactive patrol b. Patrol c. Proactive Patrol d. Police patrol
36. P/Insp. Ponce is a chief of police of a certain municipality in vigan, he wants his subordinates to be drawn closer to the
people. He should adopt which of the following concepts?
a. Oplan sandugo b. Oplan pagbabago c. Opla Bakal d. COPS on the Block
37. To drive defensive in patrol means:
a. TO always assume that the other drivers will commit a mistake c. Never drive fast
b. Stop, look and listen d. Drive slowly
38. This kind of call requires the use of flashing light and the siren and may violate traffic laws provided that extreme is
exercise.
a. Routine cell b. Urgent Call c. Emergency call d. All of the above
39. Walking closest to the building at night is a tactic in patrol which makes the policemen less visible during the night.
Its purpose is:
a. To surprise criminals in the act of committing a crime c. To attract less attention
b. To have sufficient cover d. For safety of the police officer
40. Considered as the backbone of police operations
a. Patrol b. Investigation c. Traffic management d. Crowd control
41. This is a patrol program designed to ensure law abiding citizens feeling of security but the reaction of fear for would
be violators
a. Low visibility patrol b. High visibility patrol c. Police omnipresence d. Single office patrol
42. Police visibility in strategic locations and crime prone areas projects ____, which is an effective crime prevention
strategy
a. Fear b. Discretion c. Omnipresence d. All of these
43. A beat refers to:
A. Number of crimes to be solved c. number of residence to be protected
b. Geographical area to be patrolled d. Geographical area to be patrolled
44. A crew complement of a mobile patrol division is organized into shifts for each turn of duty
a. One shift daily b. Daily 3 shift assignment c. Daily 2 shift assignment d. Daily 4 shift assignment
45. A doctrine of law wherein an individual is said to maintain on his business or residence a situation, condition,
instrumentality or machine that is dangerous to the youth due to their inability to recognize and appreciate peril.
a. Hazards b. Attractive nuisance c. Uninhabited places d. Bars and night clubs
46. They refer to conditions which posses a high potential for criminal attack or cause any type of problem necessitating a
demand for immediate police service
a. Hazards b. Attractive nuisance c. Uninhabited places d. Bars and night clubs
47. Any person, place, thing or condition which if allowed to exist may induce an incident or cause the commission of a
crime
a. Hazards b. Attractive nuisance c. Uninhabited places d. Bars and night clubs
48. It involved from the new Cops on the Block and Community Oriented Policing System, wherein smaller police units
are established and deployed below the police station level
a. Police Community Precinct b. House visitation c. Team policing d. Barangay Police
49. Usually performed by patrol units where a policemen routinely offer crime prevention tips and organize community
crime groups
a. Police Community Precinct b. House visitation c. Team policing d. Barangay Police
50. A grass root approach undertaken to bring the people and the police closer together in a more cooperative condition
a. Police Community Precinct b. House visitation c. Team policing d. Barangay Police

50
51. Its distinct feature is establishing a neighborhood crime watch for the purpose of encouraging the people to report all
suspicious conditions in their locality and the police to take greater responsibility and interest in preventing and
representing crimes
a. Police Community Precinct b. House visitation c. Team policing d. Barangay Police
52. Which among the following is necessary for team policing to be successful?
a. Public cooperation b. Public trust C. Public support d. All of these
53. They refer to a factor which influences patrol force deployment and depends on how the public view the role of the
police in the community
a. Type of crime and police problem experienced c. Community expectations
b. financial material and human resources d. Community expectations
54. A patrol objective wherein the police perform a variety of duties in which the possibility of legal sanction usually
exists but not imposed
a. Crime prevention b. Law enforcement c. Order maintenance d. Criminal apprehension
55. The primary problem when patrol officers utilize discretion
a. Bias implementation of the law c. It may be to abuse
b. Laws are not equally enforced d. It becomes a tool for social control
56. In performing this police objective, the police play a vital role in influencing the wuality of life in the community
a. Crime prevention b. Law enforcement c. Order maintenance d. Criminal apprehension
57. Although police discretion is utilized by all patrol officers, this would help limit police discretion
a. Community values b. Public attitude c. Rules and regulations d. Both A and B
58. An area containing two or more beats
a. Line Beat b. Route c. District d. Sector
59. This patrol unit is particularly effective in hot pursuits
a. Automobile patrol b. Helicopter patrol c. Foot patrol d. Canine units
60. Often used in lieu of a second officer in a motorized patrol unit
a. Robots b. Cameras c. Radio equipment d. Canine units

LEA-IV. INTELLIGENCE AND SECRET SERVICE

1. Known as Napoleon’s eye, he conducted counter intelligence against spies, who utilized deceit and blackmail to gain
information
a. Schulmeister b. Edward I c. Steiber d. Redl
2. Known protector of queen Elizabeth I who organized the British secret police to detect the naval operation and fleet
movements of Portugal
a. Walsingham of England b. Edward I c. . Steiber d. Redl
3. The Rusian King of sleuth hounds, he utilized censorship and statistics in intelligence accounting
a. Walsingham of England b. Edward I c. . Steiber d. Redl
4. Regarded as the most infamous double spy and was responsible for approximately 500,000 deaths of Australians,
Hungarians and Russians in his 13 years career as the intelligence director of Hungary and Australia.
a. Walsingham of England b. Edward I c. . Steiber d. Redl
5. Which among the following is not a component of the central intelligence service?
a. Information procurement division c. Administration division
b. Evaluation and distribution division d. Intelligence division
6. Research and analysis as well as interrogation and debriefing are a common function of:
7. Which among the following is not an inherent function of secret intelligence?
a. Espionage b. Sabotage c. Surveillance d. Undercover work
8. Counter intelligence, security of VIP’s and Dissemination of propaganda are known activities of what particular unit
within the intelligence?
a. Intelligence proper unit b. Intelligence operations c. Secret intelligence d. Evaluation and distribution division
9. An intelligence data which has little or no value
a. A1 b. B4 c. C 5 D. E6
10. In terms of reliability of the source the letter B would mean:
a. Completely reliable b. Usually reliable c. Fairly reliable d. Not usually reliable

51
11. An information which is probably true would be given an evaluation number of:
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
12. When the reliability of source is unknown, intelligence evaluator would give it a classification of:
a. A b. C c. E ` d. F
13. Refers to the organized information available in the police records division
a. Department intelligence b. Police intelligence c. Counter Intelligence d. Combat intelligence
14. An organized and relatively stable business which uses violence and threat against competitors
a. Criminal syndicates b. Criminal world c. Organized crime d. Mafia
15. Refers to the social organization of criminals with its own social classes and norms
a. Criminal syndicates b. Criminal world c. Organized crime d. Mafia
16. Regarded as the first utilized the principles of intelligence
a. Sun Tzu b. Moses c. Abraham Alexander the great
17. a product resulting from the collection, analysis, integration and interpretation of all available information which
concerns one or more aspects of area of
a. Assets b. Research c. Intelligence d. Cryptography
18. Law which was enacted last June 19, 1987 which lead to the creation of the National Bureau of Investigation
a. RA 147 b. RA 157 c. RA 6075 d. RA 8551
19. It is undertaken by shifting and sorting of all available intelligence materials
a. Analysis b. Integration c. Deduction d. Evaluation
20. Indexed memorandum pad for recording of information regarding the enemy, its movement, location and anticipated
action
a. Intelligence journal b. Enemy situation map c. Intelligence worksheet d. Intelligence files
21. An evaluation code of F4 would means that the intelligence data is:
a. Unreliable, doubtfully true c. unreliable, improbable report
b. Reliability unknown, doubtfully true d. Reliability unknown, improbable report
22. Refers to the determination of the significance of the intelligence data in order to draw conclusion
a. Collation b. Evaluation c. Interpretation d. Deduction
23. It is a technique designed to show relationship between individuals and organizations by visual graphic designs
a. Link analysis b. Flowcharting c. Data collection d. Data analysis
24. Offensive measure taken to respond to terrorist attacks
a. Counter intelligence b. counter subversion c. Counter terrorism d. Counter insurgency
25. refers to the information or knowledge pertaining to a person or organization engaged in illegal activities
a. Police strategic intelligence b. Police counter intelligence c. Police line intelligence d. Criminal Intelligence
26. An intelligence material given an evaluation code of A1 would mean:
a. Completely reliable, probably true c. Usually reliable, probably true
b. Completely reliable, confirmed by other sources d. Usually reliable, confirmed by other sources
27. It refers to a document which contains information pertaining to enemy location, movement and possible actions
a. Intelligence Journal b. Intelligence Worksheet c. Enemy Situation Map d. Intelligence Files
28. refers to a person being protected or the object of secret service
a. Principal b. Private individual service c. Protective security d. Decoy
29. Father of Organized Military espionage
a. Alexander the Great b. Hannibal c. Frederick the Great d. Moses
30. Established after world War II, it serves as a clearinghouse of records that provides information from a police force of
one country to another
a. Federal Bureau of Investigation b. Central Intelligence Agency c. Scotland Yard d. Interpol
31. Russian counterpart of the Central Intelligence Agency
a. Committee for state Security c. Central Intelligence Group
b. National Intelligence Authority d. Office Strategies Services
32. Encrypted and coded messages are converted to intelligible language by;
a. Encoding b. Decoding` c. Processing d. Labelling
33. A philosopher who wrote the book the Art of War, which diverted world philosophy regarding intelligence gathering
from the traditional approach which resorts to prophecy and dream to scientific methods of information gathering and
processes.
`a. Alexander the great b. Frederick the Great c. Sun Tzu d. Moses

52
34. Former head of the Office of Strategic Service who gave vital military intelligence which contributed to the end of
World War II
a. Donovan b. Redl c. Walsingham of England d. Edward I
35. Agency vested with handling domestic Intelligence in the United States
a. federal Bureau of Investigation c. Central Intelligence Group
b. International Police Organization d. Office of Strategic Services
36. Its role is to Provide law Enforcement agencies with Criminal intelligence and Information nationally and
internationally about major criminals and serious crimes.
a. International Police Organization c. National Criminal Intelligence Service
b. Office of Strategic Services d. Police National Computer
37. Since 1974, it gives information to police agencies of all registered vehicle and their owners, and an index of more
than five million criminal records
a. International Police Organization c. National Criminal Intelligence Service
b. Office of Strategic Services d. Police National Computer
38. Refers to altruism, in which persons give information by motivation of unselfish regard for the welfare of others
a. Renumeration b. Civic mindedness c. Vanity d. Fear
39. Most dangerous kinds of informants because they may sell information to the highest bidder.
a. Mercenary informants c. Rival elimination informants
b. Confidential informants d. Double cross informants
40. It would entail the recording or organization of raw materials so that they may be readily compared with other items
a. Collation b. Evaluation c. Interpretation d. Deduction
41. It is the greatest tongue loosener and should be avoided by intelligence agents during missions.
a. Drugs b. Women c. Alcohol d. Gambling
42. Information procured in the open is a product of what type of intelligence?
a. Covert b. overt c. Undercover d. Surveillance
43. This type of intelligence is primarily long range in nature
a. Counter intelligence b. Line intelligence c. Departmental intelligence d. Strategic intelligence
44. If the information is procured without the knowledge of the subject it is said to be:
a. Covert b. overt c. Undercover d. Surveillance
45. A common technique used in data description and integration. It demonstrates the chain of event or activities over a
period
a. Link analysis b. Flowcharting c. Data collection d. Data nanalysis
46. Finest intelligence agency in the world
a. Mossad b. KGB c. CIA d. Interpol
47. An intelligence data that is immediate in nature
a. Line intelligence b. Counter intelligence c. Strategic intelligence d. Combat intelligence
48. Gradual penetration into enemy domain and territory.
a. Surveillance b. Elicitation c. Infiltration d, All of the foregoing
49. Altruism which is a motive of information in cooperating with police authorities motivated by their sense of unselfish
regard for or devotion to the welfare of others
a. Repentance b. Civic mindedness c. Renumeration d. Vanity
50. Wide variety of tactics employed by which a state or person misleads or confuses the enemy; generally as to its
capabilities.
a. Deception b. Espionage c. Sabotage d. Infiltration
51. It refers to the combination of all analyzed data to form a logical picture or theory
a. Integration b. Deduction c. Evaluation d. Interpretation
52. It refers to any formula, device pattern or compilation of information utilized in industry
a. Proprietary information b. Intellectual property c. Trade secret d. Secret formula
53. This unit usually takes care of the publication of intelligence reports
a. Administration Division c. Information procurement Division
b. Evaluation and Distribution Division d. Intelligence proper unit
54. Established by Henry Peel in 1829, it was held as the premier institution in gathering of information regarding the
identity, activities of criminals as well as obtaining evidences and effecting the arrest of the same.
a. FBI b. NBI c. Scotland Yard d. INTERPOL

53
55. It refers to clandestine or secret means of obtaining information
a. Covert intelligence b. Overt intelligence c. Infiltration d. Surveillance
56. Is a step by which the intelligence is transformed from raw facts to intelligence data.
a. Collection b. Processing c. Evaluation d. Dissemination
57. A vehicle fronting the principal’s vehicle to neutralize
a. Escort vehicle b. Counter attack vehicle c. Decoy vehicle d. Shield vehicle
58. refers to something that is concealed or hidden
a. Overt b. Covert c. Crypt d. Code
59. A method of collection of information wherein the investigator trails the subject
a. Research b. Surveillance c. Casing d. Undercover operation
60. In formulating a fictitious identity, what is the primary consideration?
a. Preliminary investigation of the target c. Familiarize with community
b. Choosing suitable background or cover to fit the role d. Have fictitious credentials
61. Forging or changing a person’s real identity
a. Cover b. Deception c. Defection d. Infiltration
62. Refers to the examination or raw materials to determine its reliability, credibility and relevance to operations
a. Collation c. Evaluation c. Processing d. Interpretation
63. Measures undertaken to deny the enemy of any information consisting of active and passive intelligence measures
a. Combat intelligence b. Strategic intelligence c. Line intelligence d. Counter intelligence
64. Refers to particular requirement for information which the end user needs to govern the conduct of operation
a. Essential elements of information b. Mission order c. Directives d. Intelligence
65. Any form of communicated knowledge which serves as the bloodline of police intelligence
a. Information b. Reports c. Crime rate d. Research
66. To what unit do police personnel belong when they infiltrate crowd and gather information regarding criminal
syndicate
a. Intelligence b. Investigation c. Patrol d. Any of these
67. This police activity increases the number of arrests of criminal syndicate members
a. Intelligence b. investigation c. Patrol d. Crime search
68. In intelligence functions, a black list means
a. Neutral b. Friendly c. Unwanted d. Unfriendly
69. A _____ list contains a roll of citizens and officials who are cleared to attend classified meetings
a. Black b. White c. Target d. Principal
70. They are documents classification wherein the loss or damage of which will pose a threat to operations
a. Class I b. Class III c. Class II d. Class IV
71. This refers to duly processed intelligence reports not made available for public consumption
a. Vital/top secret documents b. Secret documents c. Confidential documents d. Restricted documents
72. This contains operational procedures and guideline, wherein loss or compromise would hamper operations but may
easily be restored
a. Vital/top secret documents b. Secret documents c. Confidential documents d. Restricted documents
73. They are considered as irreplaceable official matters the unauthorized disclosure of which would cause exceptionally
grave damage to the interest of an establishment since it is vital to its survival
a. Top secret documents b. Secret documents c. Confidential documents d. Restricted documents
74. It is a form of intelligence dissemination wherein the data is dispatched to the addressee in the personal care of
authorized personnel
a. Transmission by safe hand method c. Transmission by Delivery
b. Transmission by Personal Contact d. Transmission by Courier
75. PO 2 Mai Lap is deployed in bars and establishments usually frequented by syndicate members for information
gathering, his mission is classified as:
a. Social assignments b. Work assignments c. Organizational assignments d. Community assignments
76. An intelligence personnel who was instructed to apply as a staff of his target is performing which mission?
a. Social assignments b. Work assignments c. Organizational assignments d. Community assignments
77. A certain neighborhood is known to be a major source of prohibited drugs, to solve this problem intelligence
personnel were deployed to live in the area for a considerable amount of time t determine the veracity of such reports
a. Social assignments b. Work assignments c. Organizational assignments d. Community assignments

54
78. They are intelligence personnel who may no longer be used for undercover work since their duties and responsibilities
revolve around office work for the intelligence community
a. Social assignments b. Work assignments c. Organizational assignments d. Community assignments
79. defined as an art and science of making. Devising and protecting codes and ciphers
a. Crypt b. Intelligence c. Crypto-analysis d. Cryptography
80. A data transmission system using telephone lines or other private channels wherein a great deal of confidential
information is routinely sent by substitution and transposition from one computer to another by government agencies,
banks and other companies
a. Data Encryption standard b. LUCIFIER c. Enigma d. RSA
81. This makes use of the computer binary code consisting of ‘s and 1’s and transform 64 bit messages into 64 bit
segments of cipher texts.
a. Data Encryption standard c. Enigma
b. LUCIFER d. RSA
82. The forwarding address of agents for mail packages and other communications.
a. White List b. Target list c. Bigot list d. Accommodation address
83. A list of names with authorized access to sensitive information.
a. White list b. Target List c. Bigot list d. Accommodation address
84. To fully study the target person, a complete background investigation is undertaken; this would check the personal
data and activity of the target covering ______ years.
a. 5 b. 10 c. 15 d. 20
85. This deals with the extended and utilization of natural and human resources and industrial potential of a nation.
a. Economic intelligence b. Geographical intelligence c. Domestic Intelligence d. Industrial Intelligence
86. Refers to the gathering of information pertaining to manufacturing technique, processes from formula which may be
of great use and value.
a. Economic intelligence b. Geographical intelligence c. Domestic Intelligence d. Industrial Intelligence
87. The full measure taken by the state to free and protect its own society from lawlessness, insurgency, terrorism and
subversion.
a. Internal defense b. Department defense c. External defense d. Institutional defense
88. This outlines the primary threat to national security hence occupies the greatest attention and concern of intelligence
operatives.
a. Bigot list b. Black List c. Order of Battle d. Primary orders
89. They are politically sensitive military operations normally characterized by the short term and rapid projections of
forces in conditions short of conventional war.

a. Peace time contingency c. Psychological warfare

b. Psychological warfare consolidation d. Psychological operation
90. Refers to the planned use of propaganda having the primary purpose of influencing the opinions, attitudes. Emotions
and behavior of hostile groups.
a. Peace time contingency c. Psychological warfare
b. Psychological warfare consolidation d. Psychological operation
91. They are operations directed towards populations in unfriendly areas occupied by friendly forces used to facilitate
operation and promote maximum cooperation.
a. Peace time contingency c. Psychological warfare
b. Psychological warfare consolidation d. Psychological operation
92. They are planned activity in peace and war directed towards enemy, friendly and neutral audiences in order to create
an attitude and behavior favorable to the achievement of political and military objective.
a. Peace time contingency c. Psychological warfare
b. Psychological warfare consolidation d. Psychological operation
93. An open activity used to clear out government image.
a. Black propaganda c. Red propaganda
b. White propaganda d. Spin
94. Refers to the area which separates the VIP or principal from attack.
a. Defense ring c. Buffer zone
b. Kill zone d. None of these

55
95. The arrangement of protective personnel and or physical barriers to negate potential attack.
a. Defense ring c. Buffer zone
b. Kill zone d. None of these
96. The protective personnel asked to conduct, inspect and survey on the area of visit, performs coordination and make the
required arrangement of the VIP in a specific area is known as:
a. Advance party c. Route security
b. Destination security d. Convoy security
97. In emergency situations which pose threats to the object of VIP protection, the first duty of the agents assigned to the
principal is:
a. Remove the VIP as quickly as possible from known or impending danger.
b. Neutralize all probable threats.
c. To attempt to cover the VIP as closely as possible to shield him by placing themselves between the VIP
and any source of danger.
d. Call for back-up.
98. In the defense ring, the outer ring is composed of personnel deployed in:
a. Immediately outside the VIP’s door or close in
b. Inside quarters, residence, office
c. Sidewalks, stationed in front of quarters and covering all entrances
d. All of these
99. This personnel assigned to protect the VIP are posted as close in or placed outside the VIP’s door.
a. Defense ring c. Middle ring
b. Outer ring d. Inner ring
100. The VIP limousine, wherein in the front seat the driver and communication officers is detailed and at least not less
than 5 security personnel is assigned maintains a distance of ________ behind the lead car.
a. 4 to 5 cars length c. 6 to 7 cars length
b. 5 to cars length d. 10 meters away
LEA – V. POLICE RECORDS AND PERSONNEL MANAGEMENT
1. these include pendable and non-expendable commodities except real property
a. personal property c. non-expandable supplies
b. expandable supplies d. supplies
2. they are commodities which are durable in nature and when used do not suffer any substantial alteration in form and
size
a. personal property c. non-expandable supplies
b. expandable supplies d. supplies
3. they are perishable and consumable in nature
a. personal property c. non-expandable supplies
b. expandable supplies d. supplies
4. in directing the efforts of subordinates under a particular command, which among the following is not considered as an
efficient means in attaining proper direction to achieve pre-determined goals?
a. observation c. guidance
b. inspection d. all of the above
5. training required for promotion to the rank of P/Insp.
a. OSEC c. OBC
b. POAC d. OCC
6. It is derived from repeated practices and customs, duties and responsibilities vested upon a certain organization and
rules of conduct for common observance and benefit.
a. Authority c. Responsibility
b. Law d. Delegation
7. The 1987 Constitution of the Republic of the Philippines mandated the creation of the Philippine National Police, what
provision of the fundamental law prescribed that it would assume an identity of civilian in character and national in scope.
a. Article VI Section XVI c. Article III Section V
b. Article III Section IV Article XVI Section VI
8. It is a function of management, which makes the supervisors and superior officers within the chain of command to
make decisions in advance.

56
 a. Organizing c. Directing
b. Planning d. Staffing
9. it is part of the functions of management wherein the proper allocation and distribution of able personnel into positions
for which their capabilities would afford optimum output.
a. Organizing c. Staffing
b. Budgeting d. Planning
10. It refers to entrustment of a particular workload to some other person within an organization making him accountable
for the accomplishment of said undertaking
a. Command Responsibility c. Directing
b. Delegation d. All of the above
11. Obligation imposed by law and regulation on any morals of the personnel for the proper use, care and maintenance of
supplies entrusted to him.
a. Property accountability c. Personal responsibility
b. Property responsibility d. Responsibility
12. Primary obligation to keep forward and maintain actual record of equipment, supplies entrusted to an office/personnel.
a. Property accountability c. Personal responsibility
b. Property responsibility d. Responsibility

57