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EXAMINATION QUESTIONS

PERFORMANCE AND FLIGHT PLANNING

1. A climb gradient is the ratio (in the same units) expressed as percentage of :
a. Horizontal distance traveled over change in height
b. Change in height over vertical distance traveled
c. Change in height over horizontal distance traveled
d. Change in distance over horizontal distance traveled

2. Gross performance is the performance of the aircraft as established from the

certification test.
a. True
b. False

3. Given : change in height 1500 ft/min, ground speed 150 kt.

Calculate the climb gradient !
a. 0.1 %
b. 10.0 %
c. 0.5 %
d. 5.0 %

4. Minimum Control Speed ( VMC ) is based on all engine operative and angle
of bank in excess 5 degrees.?
a. True
b. False

5. The lowest limit for VR ( rotation speed ) is / are :

a. V1
b. 1.1 VMCG
c. 1.05 VMCA
d. Both a and c above

6. A maximum limit for V1 is :

a. VR
b. 1.05 VMCG
c. 0.9 VMCA
d. VMCG

7. A lower limit for V1 ( engine failure speed ) is :

a. VMCA
b. 1.05 VMCA
c. VMCG M TC QA APPROV ED
DATE SI GN & STAMP
d. 0.8 VMCG C
MT

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EXAMINATION QUESTIONS

8. The V2 minimum (minimum take-off safety speed) is the greater of 1.1 VMCA
or 1.2 VS
a. True
b. False

9. A take-off field length is said to be balance if :

a. TODA = ASDA = TORA
b. TODA = ASDA < TORA
c. TODA < ASDA = TORA
d. Both a and c above

10. If TODA > ASDA > TORA or TODA > ASDA = TORA, this should be said as
:
a. Balanced take-off field length
b. Unbalanced take-off field length

11. A Stopway may be taken into account for both take-off and landing field
length.
a. True
b. False

12. Is the runway is expected to be wet or slippery before take-off, the available
take-off field length should be factored by :
a. 100/125
b. 115/100
c. 125/100
d. 100/115

13. The availability of clearway permits :

a. A better climb gradient capability
b. Take-off at higher ambient temperature
c. Take-off at greater payload if otherwise; limiting conditions.
d. Both a and b above

14. A higher flap setting offers :

a. A Better climb gradient capability than a lesser flap setting.
b. A shorter runway req. length for take off than a lesser flaps
c. The same climb gradient capability as a lesser flap setting
d. Higher second segment limiting weight than a lesser flap setting

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EXAMINATION QUESTIONS

15. Accelerate-stop distance in normally based on use of :

a. Brakes alone because they most effective and reliable
b. Reverse thrust and brakes
c. Brakes, spoilers and reverse thrust
d. Idle power, maximum allowable wheel brakes (e.g. anti skid), and other
approved means of braking (e.g. spoilers).

16. The gross take-off flight path may be considered to extend from lift-off to :
a. The point where a height of 1500 ft above take-off surface is reached.
b. The point where the transition from take-off to clean configuration is
completed and the speed for compliance with the final take-off climb
requirement is reached.
c. Flaps retraction height is reached.
d. Both a and b above

17. Second segment may be considered to extend from :

a. The point where the gear is fully retracted to flaps retraction height.
b. 35 ft to height of 1200 ft above the take-off surface
c. The point where the gear is fully retracted to height of 900 ft above the
take-off surface.
d. 400 ft to a height of 1500 ft above the take-off surface

18. The minimum required second segment gross climb gradient for twin
engined aircraft is :
a. 1.6 %
b. 2.1 %
c. 2.4 %
d. 2.7 %

19. The minimum required final segment gross climb gradient for 3- engined
aircraft is :
a. 1.1 %
b. 1.2 %
c. 1.5 %
d. 1.7 %

20. To obtain the net climb gradient from a gross climb gradient for twin engined
aircraft, it should be reduced by :
a. 0.8 %
b. 0.9 %
c. 1.0 %
d. 1.1 %

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EXAMINATION QUESTIONS

21. The minimum first segment climb gradient for 4-engined aircraft is :
a. Positive climb gradient
b. 0.6 %
c. 0.5 %
d. 0.3 %

22. The final take-off segment will also limit the TOW, if take- off at height field
elevation and high ambient temperature.
a. True
b. False

23. The minimum lateral clearance for obstacle clearance is :

a. 500 m + D/8
b. 300 m + D/8
c. 200 m + D/8
d. 90 m + D/8

24. The minimum vertical clearance for obstacle clearance is :

a. 15 feet
b. 35 feet
c. 50 feet
d. 75 feet

25. The one engine inoperative en route flight path data for 2-engined aircraft
should be determined by reducing the gross climb gradient of :
a. 1.6 %
b. 1.5 %
c. 1.2 %
d. 1.1 %

26. After engine failure at the most critical point en route, the net flight path must
allow the aircraft to continue the flight from cruise altitude to usable airport
cleaning all obstruction within the zone specified by at lest 2000 ft.
a. True
b. False

27. The one engine altitude ceiling (for twin engined aircraft) will be lower if the
ambient air temperature is higher than standard temperature :
a. True
b. False

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EXAMINATION QUESTIONS

28. True air temperature and density altitude will be higher than indicated
pressure altitude if ambient temperature at the altitude higher than standard
temperature.
a. True
b. False

29. The minimum flaps retraction height is :

a. 800 above the take off surface
b. 600 above the take off surface
c. 400 above the take off surface
d. 200 above the take off surface

30. The second segment / WAT limiting TOW depends on :

a. OAT, field elevation, and wind component.
b. OAT, wind component and runway length available
c. OAT, runway slope and wind component.
d. OAT, field elevation and take-off flap setting

31. If the rotation is too early or too much, the aircraft will pass low over the end
of the runway, well below normal rotation climb gradient.
a. True
b. False

32. The minimum width of the clear way is :

a. 150 feet
b. 200 feet
c. 400 feet
d. 500 feet

33. The Approach climb requirements based on one engine inoperative and
speed not in excess of 1.5 VS
a. True
b. False

34. The minimum required approach climb gradient for twin engine aircraft is :
a. 1.7 %
b. 2.1 %
c. 2.4 %
d. 2.7 %

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EXAMINATION QUESTIONS

35. Approach climb requirement will limit :

a. TOW
b. Landing Weight
c. Zero Fuel Weight

36. The minimum Threshold speed (VTH) or the speed at 50 ft above the
beginning of the landing runway length available is :
a. 1.6 VS
b. 1.5 VS
c. 1.3 VS
d. 1.1 VS

37. Landing climb requirements based on one engine inoperative and speed not
less than 1.3 VS :
a. True
b. False

38. If the runway is expected to be wet or slippery at arrival the available landing
field length should be factored by 100/115 :
a. True
b. False

39. The minimum required landing climb gradient shall not be less than :
a. 2.7 % for four engine aircraft
b. 2.4 % for twin engine aircraft
c. 3.2 % for all aircraft
d. 2.1 % for all aircraft

40. The two-engine net en route flight path for four-engined aircraft should be
determined by reducing the gross climb performance by a climb gradient of :
a. 0.2 %
b. 0.5 %
c. 0.1 %
d. 0.3 %

41. What effect would a change in ambient temperature or air density have on
engine performance ?
a. As air density decreases, thrust increase.
b. As temperature increases, thrust increases.
c. As temperature increases, thrust decreases.
d. As temperature decreases, thrust decreases.

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EXAMINATION QUESTIONS

42. Which condition increases the required runway for take off ?
a. Higher than recommended airspeed before rotation
b. Lower than standard air density
c. Increased tail wind component
d. All answer above are correct.

43. What effect does a tail wind have upon take off performance?
a. Increases take off distance
b. Decreases take off speed
c. Decreases take off distance
d. Both answer b and c above are correct

44. Which condition reduces the required runway for take off ?
a. Higher than recommended airspeed before rotation
b. Lower than standard air density
c. Increased head wind component
d. Decreased head wind component

45. The short distance altitude selection dependent on :

a. Take off weight, distance and temperature
b. Take off weight, distance and flight level
c. Landing weight, distance and flight altitude
d. Landing weight, distance and temperature

46. The scale of air density to altitude was made using a constant or standard
temperature and barometric pressure
a. Standard temperature at sea level is OAT and TAT
b. Standard temperature at sea level is 29.29 Hg
c. Standard temperature at sea level is 1001.25 Pa
d. All answer above are correct

47. The performance table of an aircraft for take off and climb are based on :
a. Pressure and density altitude
b. Cabin altitude
c. True altitude
d. Both b and c above are correct

48. Take off distance is displayed in the aircraft operating manual in graph form
or on chart, the variables are :
a. Pressure altitude and temperature
b. Aircraft weight
c. Head wind or tail wind component
d. All answer above are correct

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EXAMINATION QUESTIONS

49. The stalling speed ( VS ) depends primarily on

a. Weight and flaps setting
b. Altitude and temperature
c. Temperature and weight
d. Weight and altitude

50. Relative to a wet runway condition :

a. The required landing field length will be decreased
b. 115 % of the available landing distance is required
c. 115 % of the required landing field length is required
d. The available landing field length will be increased

51. Taxi fuel includes the fuel for :

a. The engine starting
b. Taxiing to the runway take off position
c. The APU
d. All answer above are correct

52. Selected cruising altitude determine by :

a. Distance from departure to destination
b. Weight of the aircraft
c. MORA, MOCA and MEA
d. All answer above are correct

53. Rate of climb has calculated in :

a. Feet per knots
b. Feet per hours
c. Feet per minutes
d. Feet per nautical miles

54. With increasing cruising level :

a. Fuel consumption decreases and flight time decreases
b. Fuel consumption decreases and flight time increases
c. Fuel consumption increases and flight time increases
d. Fuel consumption increases and flight time decreases

55. The trip distance is :

a. The distance along this route plus the longest SID and STAR
b. The distance from departure airport destination
c. The distance along this route plus the longest STAR
d. All answer above are correct

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ATPL-Performance & Flight Plan Merpati Training Centre / DGAC Approved No. 142-001 & 147/200
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EXAMINATION QUESTIONS

LEMBARAN JAWABAN

1. C 12. D 23. D 34. B 45. A

2. A 13. C 24. B 35. A 46. B

3. B 14. B 25. D 36. C 47. A
4. B 15. D 26. A 37. B 48. D
5. D 16. D 27. A 38. A 49. A
6. A 17. A 28. A 39. C 50. C
7. C 18. C 29. C 40. B 51. D
8. A 19. C 30. D 41. C 52. D
9. D 20. A 31. A 42. D 53. C
10. B 21. C 32. D 43. A 54. B
11. B 22. A 33. A 44. C 55. A

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