CSAT

Previous Year Questions

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 RRP 2021 - CSAT
UPSC Previous Year Questions

INDEX

No. of Page No.

S.No. Topic
Qns From To
Section A - Aptitude 275 1 87
Number System, H.C.F. and L.C.M. of Numbers, Decimal
1. 40 1 13
Fractions and Simplification
2. Square Roots and Cube Roots, Surds and Indices 3 14 14
3. Average 17 15 20
4. Problems on Numbers 36 21 30
5. Problems on Ages 6 30 32
6. Ratio and Proportion 14 32 37
7. Miscellaneous 9 37 40
8. Percentage, Profit and Loss 35 40 50
9. Pipes and Cisterns 1 50 51
10. Time and Work 13 51 55
11. Time and Distance 18 55 59
12. Problems on Trains 2 60 60
13. Alligation or Mixture 1 60 61
14. Simple Interest, Compound Interest 2 61 61
15. Calendar and Clocks 13 62 66
16. Permutations and Combinations 10 66 69
17. Probability 1 69 69
18. Heights and Distances and Trigonometry 2 70 70
19. Odd Man Out and Series 5 71 72
20. Data Interpretation 34 72 83
21. 2-D Mensuration 11 84 87
22. 3-D Mensuration 2 87 87
Section B : Reasoning 212 88 154
Section C - English 311 155 250
RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

Section A - APTITUDE

4. How many five-digit prime numbers

1. Number System, H.C.F. can be obtained by using all the digits
and L.C.M. of Numbers, 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 without repetition of
Decimal Fractions and digits?
Simplification (a) Zero
(b) One
(c) Nine
2020 (d) Ten

1. How many zeroes are there at the

end of the following product? 5. How many integers are there
between 1 and 100 which have 4
1 × 5 × 10 × 15 × 20 × 25 × 30 × 35 ×
as a digit but are not divisible by
40 × 45 × 50 × 55 × 60
4?
(a) 10
(a) 5
(b) 12
(b) 11
(c) 14
(c) 12
(d) 15
(d) 13

2. Let XYZ be a three-digit number,

6. In the sum ⊗ + 1 ⊗ + 5 ⊗ + ⊗ ⊗ +
where (X + Y + Z) is not a multiple of
⊗ 1 = 1 ⊗⊗ for which digit does
3. Then (XYZ + YZX + ZXY) is not
the symbol ⊗ stand?
divisible by
(a) 2
(a) 3
(b) 3
(b) 9
(c) 4
(c) 37
(d) 5
(d) (X + Y + Z)

7. A simple mathematical operation in

3. Let p, q, r and s be natural numbers
each number of sequence 14, 18, 20,
such that P – 2016 = q + 2017 = r –
24, 30, 32, 36 … results in a sequence
2018 = s + 2019.
with respect to prime numbers. Which
Which one of the following is the
one of the following is the next
largest natural number?
number in the sequence?
(a) p
(a) 34
(b) q
(b) 36
(c) r
(c) 38
(d) s
(d) 40

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

8. Which one of the following will have 12. The recurring decimal representation
minimum change in its value if 5 is 1.272727 … is equivalent to
added to both numerator and the (a) 13/11
denominator of the fractions 2/3, 3/4, (b) 14/11
4/5 and 5/6? (c) 27/99
(a) 2/3 (d) 37/99
(b) 3/4
(c) 4/5 13. What is the least four-digit number
(d) 5/6 when divided by 3, 4, 5 and 6 leaves a
remainder 2 in each case?
9. A digit n > 3 is divisible by 3 but not (a) 1012
divisible by 6. Which one of the (b) 1022
following is divisible by 4? (c) 1122
(a) 2n (d) 1222
(b) 3n
(c) 2n + 4 14. In adult population of a city, 40% men
(d) 3n + 1 and 30% women are married. What
percentage of adult population is
10. What is the largest number married if no man marries more than
among the following? one woman and no woman marries
−6
⎛1⎞ more than one man; and there are no
(a) ⎜ ⎟
⎝2⎠ widows and widowers?
−3 1
⎛1⎞ (a) 33 %
(b) ⎜ ⎟ 7
⎝4⎠ (b) 34%
−4
⎛1⎞ 2
(c) ⎜ ⎟ (c) 34 %
⎝3⎠ 7
−2 (d) 35%
⎛1⎞
(d) ⎜ ⎟
⎝6⎠
15. What is the remainder when 51 × 27 ×
35 × 62 × 75 is divided by 100?
11. What is the greatest length x such that
1 3 (a) 50
3 m and 8 m are integral (b) 25
2 4
multiples of x? (c) 50
1 (d) 1
(a) 1 m
2
1 16. A sum of Rs. 2,500 is distributed
(b) 1 m
3 among, X, Y and Z in two ratio
1 1 3 5
(c) 1 m : : . What is the difference
4 2 4 6
3 between the maximum share and the
(d) 1 m
4 minimum share?

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

(a) Rs. 300 Hence, it is divisible by (X + Y + Z).

(b) Rs. 350 Also, 111 is divisible by 3, as well as 37.
(c) Rs. 400 So, the expression XYZ + YZX + ZXY is
(d) Rs. 450 not divisible by 9.

17. For what value of n, the sum of digits 3. Answer: C

in the number (10n + 1) is 2? Explanation:
(a) For n = 0 only Method I:
(b) For any whole number n In questions like this, we need to keep in
(c) For any positive integer n only mind that we are just supposed to
(d) For any real number n compare the numbers and so we should
avoid wasting our time in finding their
2020 - Key and Explanation real values.
1. Answer: A p − 2016 = q + 2017
Explanation: or p = q + 2017 + 2016 (it means p > q)
Zeros at the end means multiple of 10, q + 2017 = r − 2018
i.e. (2 × 5). or r = q + 2017 + 2018 (it means r > q)
So, the number of 2s or the number of 5s r – 2018 = s + 2019
(whichever is lesser) will decide the or r = s + 2019 + 2018 (it means r > s)
number of zeros at the end of the p – 2016 = r – 2018
expression. or r = p – 2016 + 2018 = p + 2 (it means
Now, 1 × 5 × 10 × 15 × 20 × 25 × 30 × 35 r > p)
× 40 × 45 × 50 × 55 × 60 We already know that r > q, s
= 1 × 5 × (5 × 2) × (5 × 3) × (5 × 22) × (5 × Hence, r is the largest number.
5) × (5 × 3 × 2) × (5 × 7) × (5 × 23) × (5 × 9) Method II:
× (5 × 5 × 2) × (5 × 11) × (5 × 22 × 3) Let s = 0.
Here, number of 2s = 10 So, we get:
And number of 5s = 14 p – 2016 = q + 2017 = r – 2018 = 2019
The lesser of the two will determine the So, p – 2016 = 2019
number of zeros. Hence, there will be 10 Or p = 2019 + 2016 = 4035
zeros at the end in the given expression. And q + 2017 = 2019
or q = 2019 – 2017 = 2
2. Answer: B And r – 2018 = 2019
Explanation: Or r = 2019 + 2018 = 4037
XYZ is a three digit number. Hence, r is the largest number.
So, we can write this as: 100X + 10Y + Z
(as X is at hundreds place and Y is at 4. Answer: A
tens place) Explanation:
So, XYZ + YZX + ZXY = (100X + 10Y + Z) Prime number: A prime number is a
+ (100Y + 10Z + X) + (100Z + 10X + Y) = number which can only be completely
111 (X + Y + Z) divided by 1 and itself.

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

Given digits are 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 and we Method II:

are supposed to make five-digit prime The unit digit of the sum of the
numbers. expression is x. 34
We know that if the sum of the digits of a So, we will only check the unit place of
number is divisible by 3, then that expression by substituting the value of
number is also divisible by 3. symbol x from the given options.
Here, sum of the given digits = 1 + 2 + 3 Option (a): by substituting x = 2, we get:
+ 4 + 5 = 15 (which is divisible by 3) 2 + 12 + 52 + 22 + 21 = 122
So, any number formed using these 5 Sum of unit digits = 2 + 2 + 2 + 2 + 1 = 9
digits will always be divisible by 3. But unit digit of sum, 9 ≠ 2
Hence, no five-digit prime number can be Option (b): by substituting x = 3, we get:
made using these five-digits (without 3 + 13 + 53 + 33 + 31 = 133
repetition). Sum of unit digits = 3 + 3 + 3 + 3 + 1 =
13.
5. Answer: C So, unit digit of sum, 3 = 3
Explanation: Option (c): by substituting x = 4, we get:
The integers between 1 and 100 which 4 + 14 + 54 + 44 + 41 = 144
have 4 as a digit are: Sum of unit digits = 4 + 4 + 4 + 4 + 1 =
4, 14, 24, 34, 40, 41, 42, 43, 44, 45, 46, 17.
47, 48, 49, 54, 64, 74, 84 and 94 So, unit digit of sum, 7 ≠ 4
So, there are a total 19 such integers. Option (d): by substituting x = 5, we get:
Out of these, the integers which are 5 + 15 + 55 + 55 + 51 = 155
divisible by 4 are: Sum of unit digits = 5 + 5 + 5 + 5 + 1 =
4, 24, 40, 44, 48, 64 and 84 21.
So, the number of integers not divisible So, unit digit of sum, 1 ≠ 5
by 4 = 19 – 7 = 12 integers Hence, x = 3
Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.
7. Answer : C
6. Answer : B Explanation:
Explanation: As per the given condition in question:
Method I: 14 = 13 + 1
Let ⊗ = x 18 = 17 + 1
So, x + 1x + 5x + xx + x1 = 1xx 20 = 19 + 1
Or x + (10 + x) + (50 + x) + (10x + x) + 24 = 23 + 1
(10x + 1) 30 = 29 + 1
= 100 + 10x + x 32 = 31 + 1
Or 24x + 61 = 100 + 11x Next prime number after 31 is 37.
Or 13x = 39 So, 37 + 1 = 38
Or x = 3 Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

8. Answer : D Let n = 9
Explanation: Now checking the options:
Method I: (a) 2n = 2 × 9 = 18, which is not
Original fractions and their decimal divisible by 4.
values are given below: (b) 3n = 3 × 9 = 27, which is not
2/3 = 0.666 divisible by 4.
3/4 = 0.750 (c) 2n + 4 = 2 9 + 4 = 22, which is
4/5 = 0.800 not divisible by 4.
5/6 = 0.833 (d) 3n + 1 = 3 × 9 + 1 = 28, which is
The new fractions (after adding 5 to divisible by 4.
numerator and denominator) and their Hence, the correct answer is option (d).
decimal values are given below:
7/8 = 0.875 10. Answer : C
8/9 = 0.888 Explanation:
9/10 = 0.900 Option (a): 1/2–6 = 26 = 64
10/11 = 0.909 Option (b): 1/4–3 = 43 = 64
Now, change in values of fractions are: Option (c): 1/3–4 = 34 = 81
(7/8) – (2/3) = 0.875 – 0.666 = 0.209 Option (d): 1/6–2 = 62 = 36
(8/9) – (3/4) = 0.888 – 0.750 = 0.138 We can see that 81 is the largest number
(9/10) – (4/5) = 0.900 – 0.800 = 0.100 among the given four numbers.
(10/11) – (5/6) = 0.909 – 0.833 = 0.076
Hence, we can see that the minimum 11. Answer : D
change in value is in the fraction 5/6. Explanation:
Hence, the correct answer is option (d). 1 7 3 35
3 = and 8 =
Method II: 2 2 4 4
Bigger are the values in the numerator x = H.C.F. of (7/2) and (35/4) = H.C.F. of
and denominator, the less will be the 7 and 35/ L.C.M. of 2 and 4 = 7/4
impact of any addition. 3
Hence, x = 7 / 4 m or 1 m
For example, compare 1/2 4
Hence, the correct answer is option (d).
= 0.500 and 9/10 = 0.900.
If we add 1 in numerator and
12. Answer : B
denominator of both, we get 2/3 = 0.667
Explanation:
and 10/11 = 0.909
Method I:
As 5/6 has the biggest digits in
1.272727… can be written as 1 +
numerator and denominator, it will be
0.272727…
least impacted.
= 1 + 3(0.909…) = 1 + 3(1/11) {since,
0.909….
9. Answer : D
= 1/11}
Explanation:
= 1 + (3/11) = 14/11
Given that n is a digit greater than 3.
Hence, the correct answer is option (b).
It is divisible by 3 but not divisible by 6.

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

Method II: So, we need to find the remainder when

Let x = 1.272727…. 51 × 27 × 35 × 31 × 3 is divided by 2.
Then 100x = 127.272727…. The value of 51 × 27 × 35 × 31 × 3 must
So, 100x – x = (127.272727….) – be an odd number, as it is a
(1.272727….) = 126 multiplication of all odd numbers. Hence,
Or x = 126/99 = 14/11 when it is divided by 2, we will get 1 as
Hence, the correct answer is option (b). remainder.
But we cancelled out 50 earlier.
13. Answer : B So, the remainder when 51 × 27 × 35 ×
Explanation: 62 × 75 is divided by 100 = 1 × 50 = 50
L.C.M. of 3, 4, 5 and 6 = 60 Hence, the correct answer is option (a).
Let the required number be 60x + 2
If x = 17, then the number 16. Answer : C
= 60 × 17 + 2 = 1020 + 2 = 1022 Explanation:
Hence, the correct answer is option (b). Ratio of sum distributed among X, Y and
Z = (1/2) : (3/4) : (5/6) = 6 : 9 : 10
14. Answer : C Let the share of X, Y and Z be 6n, 9n and
Explanation: 10n respectively.
Number of married men and women Now, according to the question,
must be equal. 6n + 9n + 10n = Rs.2500
So, 40% of men = 30% of women Or 25n = 2500
Let there be 300 men and 400 women in Or n = Rs. 100
the city. Hence, there are a total of 700 Now, the difference between maximum
adults. share and minimum share = 10n – 6n =
Number of married men = 40% of 300 = 4n = 4 × 100 = Rs. 400
120 Hence, the correct answer is option (c).
Number of married women = 30% of 400
= 120 17. Answer : B
So, Number of married adults Explanation:
= 120 + 120 = 240 Given number, N = (10n + 1)
Percentage of married adults in the On putting n = 0, we get:
population = N = 100 + 1 = 1 + 1 = 2
2 {sum of digits is 2}
( 240 / 700 ) × 100 = 34 %
7 On putting n = 1, we get:
Hence, the correct answer is option (c). N = 101 + 1 = 10 + 1 = 11
{sum of digits is 2}
15. Answer : A On putting n = 2, we get:
Explanation: N = 102 + 1 = 100 + 1 = 101
{sum of digits is 2}
The expression is: 51 × 27 × 35 × 62 × 75 On putting n = 3, we get:
(51 × 27 × 35 × 62 × 75) / 100 = (51 × 27 N = 103 + 1 = 1000 + 1 = 1001
× 35 × 62 × 3) / 4 = (51 × 27 × 35 × 31 × {sum of digits is 2}
3) / 2

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

Hence, sum of digits of number N will 4. If the numerator and denominator of a

always be 2 if n = 0, 1, 2, 3 ... proper fraction are increased by the
Or we can say that the sum of digits of same positive quantity which is
number N will always be 2 if n is any greater than zero, the resulting
whole number. fraction is
Hence, the correct answer is option (b). (a) Always less than the original fraction
(b) Always greater than the original fraction
2019 (c) Always equal to the original fraction
1. The number of times the digit 5 will (d) Such that nothing can be claimed
appear while writing the integers 1 to definitely
1000 is
(a) 269 5. Number 136 is added to 5B7 and the
(b) 271 sum obtained is 7A3, where A and B
(c) 300 are integers. It is given that 7A3 is
(d) 302 exactly divisible by 3. The only
possible value of B is
2. In a school every student is (a) 2
assignment a unique identification (b) 5
number. A student is a football player (c) 7
if and only if the identification (d) 8
number is divisible by 4, whereas a
6. Sunita cuts a sheet of paper into three
student is a cricketer if and only if the
pieces Length of first piece is equal to
identification number is divisible by 6.
the average of the three single digit
If every number from 1 to 100 is
odd prime numbers. Length of the
assigned to a student, then how many
second piece is equal to that of the
of them play cricket as well as first plus one-third the length of the
football. third. The third piece is as long as the
(a) 4 other two pieces together. The length
(b) 8 of the original sheet of paper is
(c) 10 (a) 13 units
(d) 12 (b) 15 units
(c) 16 units
3. If x is greater than or equal to 25 and (d) 30 units
y is less than or equal to 40, then
which one of the following is always 7. How many triplets ( x, y , z ) satisfy the
correct? equation x + y + z = 6 , where x , y and
(a) x is greater than y z are natural numbers ?
(b) (y − x ) is greater than 15 (a) 4
(c) (y − x ) is less than or equal to 15 (b) 5
(d) (x + y ) is greater than or equal to 65 (c) 9
(d) 10

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

8. An 8 digit number 4252746B leaves In first (55–) and Second (5–5) it can be
remainder 0 when divided by 3. How filled in 8 ways.
many values of B are possible ? So total 9 + 9 + 8 = 26.
(a) 2 (c) All three digits are 5. Only one
(b) 3 possibility.
(c) 4 So total = 1 + 17 + 1 + 81 + 72 + 72 + 26
(d) 6 + 1 = 271.

2019 - Key and Explanation 2. Answer: B

1. Answer: C Explanation: The required number
Explanation: From 1 to 1000, the should be completely divisible by both 4
numbers in which 5 can occur could be and 6.
of one digit, 2 digits or 3 digits. That means it should be divisible by LCM
Case-I. If the number is of one digit – 5 of 4 and 6, which is 12.
will only appear one time. Such 8 numbers are possible (12, 24, 36,
Case-II. If the number is of 2 digits – 48, 60, 72, 84 & 96).
then.
(a) There is only one 5, this can happen 3. Answer: C
in 2 ways – 5 and 5 –. In the first case ((– Explanation: Given that x is greater than
5), the blank place can be filled in 8 ways or equal to 25.
(as 0 and 5 cannot appear at that place), Also, y is less than or equal to 40.
while in the second case (5 –) the blank Lets try to find the various values of y – x.
place can be filled in 9 ways (5 cannot If y = 40, x can take various values like
appear there). Total 9 + 8 = 17 ways. 25, 26, 27, ….. (not necessarily) integers
(b) There are two 5s. In this case only one – not given in question). In that case y – x
possibility – 1. will take values like 15, 14, 13, 12, ….. 0,
Case-II: If the number is of three digits – –1 etc.
If y = 39, x can take various values 25,
then. 26, 27 …… (not necessarily integers).
(a) Only one 5. Then, 5 can occupy three. In that case y – x will take values like 14,
Positions 5 – – or –5 – or – – 5. 13, 12, 11, ….. 0, –1 etc.
In the first case (5 – –), remaining two Similarly, if y = 38, values of y – x will be
positions can be filled in 9 ways each. 13, 12, 11, …… 0, –1 etc& so on.
So, we can say that value of y – x is less
So, total 9 × 9 = 81. Possibilities. In
than or equal to 15 in all cases.
second (–5).
First position can be filled in 8 ways and
4. Answer: B
last position in 9 ways. So total 9 × 8 =
Explanation: We known the basic
72 possibilities. Same will be true for the
property of ratios that if Numerator <
third case (– –5). So, total 72 possibilities
Denominator (which is the case of proper
again.
fraction), then the new fraction is greater
(b) Only two 5s. This can be done in three
than the original one if same positive
ways 55– or 5–5 or –66.

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

quantity is add to both numerator and 15. So, length of the original sheet = 5 +
denominator. 10 + 15 = 30 units.
a a+x
That is, <
b b+x 7. Answer: D
But, in above case we do not known Explanation: x, y and z are natural
whether the fraction is positive or numbers. So, x, y and z will be greater
negative. If it is positive, then the answer than zero. It also means that minimum 1
will be different from when it will be will be there at all places in (x, y, z).
negative. Hence can’t be determined. So, we can conclude that x1 + y1 + z1 = 6 –
(1+1+1) = 3. where x1, y1 and z1 can take
5. Answer: D value 0 too.
Explanation: It is given 136 + 5B7 = Now, this is a problem of distributing
7A3. three objects at three places (i.e., with 2
Add unit’s number to get 6 + 7 = 13. So, portions).
carry over 1. 5!
This can be done in = 10 .
⇒ 1 + 13 + B = 1A 3! × 1!
⇒ 1 + 3 + B = 10 + ⇒ B – A = 6. 8 Answer: B
Which means if A = 0, B = 6; If A = 1, B = Explanation: The rule of divisibility of 3
7, If A = 2, B = 8 and if A = 3, B = 9. is that the sum of all digits of the
But given 7A3 is completely divisible by number should be divisible by 3.
3. So, as per the rules of divisibility, 7 + We have, 4 + 2 + 5 + 2 + 7 + 4 + 6 + B =
A + 3 = 10 + A should be divisible by 3 30 + B.
completely. So, to be divisible by 3, B can take 0, 3, 6
So, the possible values of A are 2,5 and or 9 as values. 5 3
64
8. (12, 15, 18). Out of these, only 2
6

satisfies both the conditions. So A = 2, So 2018

86

B = 8.
1. A number consist of three digits of
71

which the middle one is zero and their

r-9

6. Answer: D
sum is 4. If the number formed by
ie

Explanation: The only three single digit

interchanging the first and last digits
op

odd prime numbers are 3, 5 and 7. So,

is greater than the number itself by
ec

the length of the first piece = (3 + 5 +

198, then the difference between the
kl

7)/3 = 5. Now, let the length of the

ar

first and last digits is

Sp

second piece = x units.

(a) 1
Then, by the condition given in question
(b) 2
we have length of the third piece = x + 5.
(c) 3
Length of the second piece
(d) 4
( x + 5)
=x =5+ .
3
Solve this to get x = 10. So, length of the
1st piece = 5, 2nd piece = 10 & 3rd piece =

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

2. While writing all the numbers from 2018 - Key and Explanation
700 to 1000, how many numbers 1. Answer: B
occur in which the digit at hundred’s Explanation: Let number be x0(4 – x)
place is greater than the digit at ten’s Now, value of number is
place is greater than the digit at unit’s 100 x + 10 (0) + 4 – x = 99x + 4.
place? On reversing, we get
(a) 61 100 (4 – x) + 10 (0) + x.
(b) 64 = 400 – 99 x.
(c) 85 The difference is 198.
(d) 91 400 – 99x = [99x + 4] = 198.
396 – 198x = 198.
3. A bookseller sold ‘a’ number of So, x = 1.
Geography textbooks at the rate of Rs. So, number is 103 and difference is 2.
x per book, a + 2 number of history
textbooks at the rate of Rs. ( x + 2 ) per
2. Answer: C
book and a −2 number of Explanation:
Mathematics textbooks at the rate of 700 – 1000
Rs. ( x − 2 ) per book. What is his total 700 Series. → Total sum
sale in Rs. ? 710 720 730 ….. 760
(a) 3x + 3a = (1 + 2 + 3 + …….6) + 1 + 2 + ….. + 7)
(b) 3ax + 8 1 2 3 ….. 6
(c) 9ax = (1 + 2 + 3 + …….8)
(d) x 3a 3 800 Series = 85
810 820 …….. 870
4. If x − y = 8 , then which of the 1 2 …….. 7
following must be true ?
1. Both x and y must be negative for any 3. Answer: B
value of x and y Explanation:
Sale from Geography → Rs.ax
2. If x is positive, y must be negative for any
value of x and y From History → ax + 2a + 2x + 4
From Maths → ax – 2a – 2x + 4
3. If x is negative, y must be positive for any
value of x and y So, total sale is Rs.3ax + 8.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only 4. Answer: D
(c) Both 1 and 2 Explanation:
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 nor 3 x = 10x = 5x = – 1
y = 2y = –3y = ± 9
If x > 0.
y can be both > 0 or < 0.
If x < 0.
Y < 0.

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

2017 5. A 2-digit number is reversed. The

1. If there is a policy that 1/3rd of a larger of the two numbers is divided
population of a community has by the smaller one. What is the largest
migrated every year from one place to possible remainder?
some other place, what is the leftover (a) 9
population of that community after (b) 27
the sixth year, if there is no further (c) 36
growth in the population during this (d) 45
period?
(a) 16/243rd part of the population 6. There are certain 2-digit numbers. The
(b) 32/243rd part of the population difference between the number and
(c) 32/729th part of the population the one obtained on reversing it is
(d) 64/729th part of the population always 27. How many such maximum
2-digit numbers are there?
2. Certain 3-digit numbers have the (a) 3
following characteristics: (b) 4
1. All the three digits are different. (c) 5
2. The number is divisible by 7 (d) None of the above
3. The number on reversing the digits is
also divisible by 7 7. What is the total number of digits
How many such 3-digits numbers are there? printed, if a book containing 150
(a) 2 pages is to be numbered from 1 to
(b) 4 150?
(c) 6 (a) 262 5 3
64
(d) 8 (b) 342
6

(c) 360
86

3. How many numbers are there (d) 450

71

between 99 and 1000 such t h a t

r-9

t h e d i g i t 8 occupies the units 2017 - Keys and Explanations

ie

place? 1. Answer: D
op

(a) 64 Explanation: As per the policy,

ec

(b) 80 population left after first year = 2/3 of

kl
ar

(c) 90 original, as 1/3 has left. Now apply a

Sp

(d) 104 simple logic using ratio. Population left

12
⎛2⎞
after second year = ⎜ ⎟ of original. And
4. If for a sample data Mean < Median ⎝3⎠
< Mode then the distribution is so on. So, population left after 6th year
16
(a) Symmetric ⎛2⎞
=⎜ ⎟ of original, which is equal to
(b) Skewed to the right ⎝3⎠
(c) Neither symmetric nor skewed 64
part of the population.
(d) Skewed to the left 729

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

2. Answer: B ⎛ 94 ⎞
94, and ⎜ ⎟ gives remainder 45. Hence
Explanation: Divide the numbers into ⎝ 49 ⎠
those divisible by 7, and falling between our answer is 45.
successive hundreds; now, remember
any number that has 2 similar digits is 6. Answer: D
cancelled out (Condition-1). And, when Explanation: Let the numbers be xy and
you find the first possible number (in yx.
this case 168), then you automatically So, their values will be (10x + y) and
find the second (reverse of 168 i.e., 861). (10y + x).
So we have 2 numbers. Keep checking Now, (10x + y) – (10y + x) = 27(given).
and you will find 259 is the next 952. 9x – 9y = 27 ⇒ x – y = 3.
So, possible combinations are 9 – 6, 8 –
3. Answer: C 5, 7 – 4, 6 – 3, 5 – 2, 4 – 1, 3 – 3.
Explanation: All the numbers will be 3 So, total no. of cases = 7.
digit numbers of the form – – 8, in which
the 1st place can be filled by 9 ways and 7. Answer: B
the 2nd place can be filled by 10 ways by Explanation: We have printed from page
10 digits. 1 to 150.
So, total no. of ways by the principle of [Question requires simple addition].
counting is 10 × 9 = 90 ways. Total digits from pages 1 to 9 = 9.
Total digits from pages 10 to 99
4. Answer: D = × 2 = 180.
Explanation: When the distribution is Total digits from pages 100 to 150
symmetric, it means. Mean = Mode = = 15 × 3 = 153.
Median. According to Pearson Mode and Sum of all digits = 342.
skewness, if Mode >Median? Mean, then
the data is skewed to the left. 2016
1. If R and S are different integers both
5. Answer: D
divisible by 5, then which of the
Explanation: Logically, since the largest
following is not necessarily true?
remainder is asked, start from option (D). (a) R − S is divisible by 5
If we get 45 as the remainder it is the (b) R + S is divisible by 10
final solution. Now, according to the (c) R × S is divisible by 25
basic mathematics, any number which is (d) R 2 + S 2 is divisible by 5
a divisor has to be greater than the
remainder. So, if we want 45 as
2. How many numbers are there between
remainder we need to pick a no. greater
100 and 300 which either begin or end
than 45 (which will be divisor). Correct?
with 2 ?
So first we try in the range of 46 to 49. (a) 110
On picking 49 we see that its reverse is (b) 111
(c) 112
(d) None of these

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

3. Four-digit numbers are to be formed 202, 212, ….. 292 (Total 10)
using the digits 1, 2, 3 and 4 ; and Between 100 and 300, the no. of
none of these four digits are repeated numbers beginning with 2 will be 200,
in any manner Further, 202, 202, ….. 299 (Total 100) of which 10
1. 2 and 3 each not to immediately follow end with 2 so subtract that. Final answer
each other = 100 – 10 + 10 + 10 = 110.
2. 1 is not to be immediately followed by 3
3. 4 is not appear at the last place 3. Answer: A
4. 1 is not appear at the first place Explanation: From the given conditions,
(a) 6 for the four positions available:
(b) 8 1 Cannot come at the 1st place. So, 2, 3 &
(c) 9 4 can appear there.
(d) None of the above 4 Cannot come at the last place. So 1, 2
& 3 can appear there.
4. If there is a policy that 1/3rd of a 2 & 3 cannot immediately follow each
population of a community has other. So 23 & 32 is not allowed.
migrated every year from one place to 1 cannot be immediately followed by 3.
some other place, what is the leftover So 13 is not allowed.
population of that community after the Let us list the possible numbers now.
sixth year, if there is no further growth
in the population during this period ? 2431; 2143; 3142; 3412; 3421; 4312
Total – 6.
(a) 16/243rd part of the population

(b) 32/243rd part of the population 4. Answer: D 5 3

64
(c) 32/729th part of the population Explanation: It is given 136 + 5B7 =
6

7A3.
86

(d) 64/729th part of the population

Add unit’s number to get 6 + 7 = 13. So,
71

carry over 1.
r-9

⇒ 1 + 13 + B = 1A ⇒ 1 + 3 + B
2016 - Key and Explanation
ie

= 10 + ⇒ B – A = 6.
op

1. Answer: B
Which means if A = 0, B = 6; If A = 1, B =
ec

Explanation: If R and S are multiple of 5,

7, If A = 2, B = 8 and if A = 3, B = 9.
kl

then R + S may or may not be divisible

But given 7A3 is completely divisible by
ar

by 10. To solve such questions, always

Sp

3. So, as per the rules of divisibility, 7 +

take actual values and check. For
A + 3 = 10 + A should be divisible by 3
example, if R=20 and S=15. You will see
completely.
that only (B) is correct.
So, the possible values of A are 2,5 and
8. (12, 15, 18). Out of these, only 2
2. Answer: A
satisfies both the conditions. So A = 2, So
Explanation: Between 100 and300, the
B = 8.
No. of numbers ending with 2 will be
102, 112, ….. 192 (Total 10)

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

2018
2. Square Roots and Cube 1. If X is between −3 and −1 , and Y is
Roots, Surds and Indices between −1 and 1, then X 2 − Y 2 is in
between which of the following ?
(a) −9 and 1
2020
(b) −9 and −1
1. How many pairs of natural numbers
(c) 0 and 8
are there such that the difference of
(d) 0 and 9
whose squares is 63?
(a) 3
2018 - Key and Explanation
(b) 4
(c) 5 1. Answer: D
(d) 2 Explanation:
x ⇒ 3 & −1 ⇒ x 2 = 3 & 1
y ⇒ −1 & 1 ⇒ y 2 = 0 & 1
2020 - Key and Explanation
∴ x 2 & y 2 must be in between 0 to 9.
1. Answer: A
Explanation:
Let the required pair of natural number is
2017
x and y. 1. The age of Mr. X last year was the
As per the question, square of a number and it would be
x2 – y2 = 63 the cube of a number next year. What
or (x + y) (x – y) = 63 is the least number of years he must
There are three possible cases in which wait for his age to become the cube of
product of two numbers is 63. a number again ?
Case 1 : (a) 42
(x + y) = 9 and (x – y) = 7 (b) 38
Then x = 8 and y = 1 (c) 25
Case 2 : (d) 16
(x + y) = 21 and (x – y) = 3
Then x = 12 and y = 9 2017 - Key and Explanation
Case 3 : 1. Answer: B
(x + y) = 63 and (x – y) = 1 Explanation: Calculate squares & cubes
Then x = 32 and y = 3172 from 1,2,3,….
Hence, there are three pairs of natural 12 = 1;13 = 1;22 = 4;23 = 8;32 = 9;
numbers such that the difference of their 33 = 27; 42 = 16; 43 = 64
squares is 63. 52 = 25;53 = 125
Hence, the correct answer is option (a). Consider 33 & 52 ⇒ 25 & 27 ⇒ the
present age is 26.
Go to options. Option A is 26+42 =
67,68,69- wrong.
Option B ⇒ 26 + 38 = 64 = 43

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

2020 - Key and Explanation

3. Average 1. Answer: A
Explanation:
Method I:
2020 Let the number of girls be g and number
1. Consider the following date: of boys be b.
Average Average Overall average marks in English = Total
marks in marks in
English Hindi marks in English / Total Students =
Girls 9 8 = (9g + 8b) / (g + b) = 8.8
Boys 8 7 or 9g + 8b = 8.8g + 8.8b
Overall 8.8 x or 0.2g = 0.8b
average
marks or g = 4b …(1)
What is the value of x in the Similarly, Overall average marks in Hindi
above table? = Total marks in Hindi / Total Students =
(a) 7.8 = (8g + 7b) / (g + b) = x
(b) 7.6 Putting value of g from (1), we get:
(c) 7.4 (8 × 4b + 7b) / (4b + b) = x
(d) 7.2 or 39b/5b = x
or x = 7.8
2. The average score of a batsman after Method II:
his 50th innings was 46.4. After 60th Average marks of girls and boys in
innings, his average score increases by English are 9 and 8 respectively, while
2.6. What was his average score in the the overall average is 8.8.
last ten innings?
5 3
64
(a) 122
6

(b) 91
86
71

(c) 62
r-9

(d) 49
ie
op

3. In a class, there are three groups A, B

ec

and C. If one student from group A By allegation method:

kl

and two students from group B are So, ratio of girls and boys
ar

shifted to group C, then what happens = 0.8 : 0.2 = 4 : 1

Sp

to the average weight of the students So, x = [(4 × 8) + (1 × 7)] / (4 + 1) = 39/5

of the class? = 7.8
(a) It increases
(b) In decreases
2. Answer: C
(c) It remains the same
Explanation:
(d) No conclusion can be drawn due to
Method I:
insufficient data
Average score after 50 innings = 46.4
So, total score after 50 innings

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

= 50 × 46.4 = 2320 2019

Average score after 60 innings = 46.4 + 1. The average marks of 100 students are
2.6 = 49 given to be 40. It was found later that
So, total score after 60 innings = 60 × 49 marks of one student were 53 which
= 2940 were misread as 83. The corrected
Hence, Average score of 10 innings = mean marks are
Runs scored in 10 innings/10 = (2940 – (a) 39
2320)/10 = 620/10 = 62 (b) 39.7
Method II: (c) 40
Average score after 50 innings = 46.4 (d) 40.3
After 10 more innings his average
increases by 2.6 runs, so his average 2. A family has two children along with
becomes 49. their parents. The average of the
Runs that he need to score in order to weights of the children and their
make this increase effective = The runs mother is 50 kg. The average of the
he need to fill the gap in average in the weights of the children and their
last 50 innings + The runs he need to father is 52 kg. If the weight of the
make in the 10 innings with an average father is 60 kg, then what is the
of 49 = (2.6 × 50) 55 weight of the mother ?
+ (49 × 10) = 130 + 490 = 620 (a) 48 kg
So, his average in last ten innings = Runs (b) 50 kg
scored in 10 innings/10 = 620/10 = 62 (c) 52 kg
(d) 54 kg
3. Answer: C
Explanation:
2019
Average weight of the students of the
1. Answer: B
class = Total weight of students of the
Explanation:
class / Total number of students in the
S1 + ..... + S100
class = 40
100
As no student left the class, nor any new S1 + .... + S100 = 4000
student joined, so both the total weight S1 + .... + S 99 − 83
and number of students remain the S1 + .... + S 99 + 53
same.
⇒ 83 − 53 = 30
Hence, the average weight remains the
4000 − 30 = 3970
same. S + S 2 + ..... + S100 3970
Hence, the correct answer is option (c). ∴ 1 = = 39.7
100 100
∴ 39.7 is the new & Correct average.

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

2. Answer: D (c) 0.80 inch

Explanation: (d) 0.90 inch
C1 + C 2 + M C1 + C 2 + F
= 50 = 52
3 3 4. Average hourly earnings per year (E) of
C1 + C 2 + M = 150 C1 + C 2 + F = 156 the workers in a firm are represented
F = 60 in figures A and B as follows :
C1 + C 2 + 60 = 156
C1 + C 2 = 156 − 60
C1 + C 2 = 96
C1 + C 2 + M = 150
96 + M = 150 ⇒ M = 150 − 96
⇒ M = 54 kg

2017
1. Suppose the average weight of 9
persons is 50 kg. The average weight
of the first 5 persons is 45 kg, whereas
the average weight of the last 5
persons is 55 kg. Then the weight of
the 5th person will be
(a) 45 kg
(b) 47.5 kg
(c) 50 kg
From the figures, it is observed that
(d) 52.5 kg
the
5 3
64

(a) Values of E are different

6

2. There are thirteen 2-digit consecutive

86

(b) Ranges of E are different

odd numbers. If 39 is the mean of the
71

(c) Ranges (i.e. the difference between the

first five such numbers, then what is
r-9

maximum and the minimum) of E are

the mean of all the thirteen numbers ?
ie

different
(a) 47
op

(d) Rates of increase of E are different

(b) 49
ec

(c) 51
kl

2017 - Key and Explanation

ar

(d) 45
Sp

1. Answer: C
3. The average rainfall in a city for the Explanation:
P1 + P2 + P3 + P4 + .... + P9
first four days was recorded to be 0.40 = 50
9
inch. The rainfall on the last two days
P1 + P2 + P3 + P4 + P5 + P6 + P7 + P8 + P9
was in the ratio of 4 : 3. The average
= 50 × 9
of six days was 0.50 inch. What was
the rainfall on the fifth day ? = 450
P5 + P6 + P7 + P8 + P9
(a) 0.60 inch = 55
5
(b) 0.70 inch

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

P1 + P2 + P3 + P4 + P5 4. Answer: C
= 45
5 Explanation: Option - D → it is clear
P5 + P6 + P7 + P8 + P9 = 55 × 5 = 275 that, the increase is on a scale of 5. So,
P1 + P2 + P3 + P4 + P5 = 45 × 5 = 225 option D is incorrect.
2P5 + P1 + P2 + P3 + P4 + P5 + P6 + P7 + P8 + P9 Option C is 2013 ways of A, is less than
= 275 + 225 ⇒ 500 that of till 2013 wage of B
But we know B has earnings before 2013 also. Hence,
P1 + ..... + P4 = 450
range are different.
⇒ P5 + ( P1 + ..... + P9 ) = 500
⇒ P5 + 450 = 500 2016
⇒ P5 = 500 − 450 = 50kg
1. The average monthly income of a
person in a certain family of 5 is Rs.
2. Answer: A
10,000. What will be the average
Explanation:
monthly income of a person in the
x + ( x + 2) + ( x + 4 ) + ( x + 6 ) + ( x + 8 )
= 39 same family if the income of one
5
person increased by Rs. 1,20,000 per
5x + 20
= 39 ⇒ 5x + 20 = 39 × 5 year ?
5
(a) Rs. 12,000
⇒ 5x + 20 = 195
(b) Rs. 16,000
⇒ 5x = 195 − 20
(c) Rs. 20,000
⇒ 5x = 175
(d) Rs. 34,000
175
⇒x = = 35
5
∴ that old no. is 35 2016 - Key and Explanation
⇒ x = 25 1. Answer: D
35, 37,39,41,43,45,47,49,51,53,55,57,59 P1 + P2 + P3 + P4 + P5
= 10000
Consecutive odd number. 5
35 + 37 + ...... + 57 + 59 611 P1 + P2 + P3 + P4 + P5 = 10000 × 5
= = 47
13 13 = 50000
1,20,000 increased per person ⇒ 50000
3. Answer: C + 12000
D1 + D2 + D3 + D4 1,20,000+50,000 = 1,70,000
Explanation: = 0.40
4 170000
Average of 1,70,000 = = 34000
D1 + D2 + D3 + D4 = 1.6 inch. 5
D1 + D2 + D3 + D4 + D5 + D6
= 0.50
6
1.6 + D5 + D6 = 3
D5 + D6 = 1.4
Ratio of D5 & D6 is 4 : 3 → 7
1.4
⇒ 4 × 0.2 ⇒ 0.8 inch on fifth day.
7

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

2015 2014
1. The graph below depicts the earnings Direction for the follows 4 (four) items:
of A and B over the period 2000 to The following graph shows the average profit
2010 of two fruit-sellers A and B in thousands (Rs)
per year from the year 1995 to 2000.
Consider the graph and answer the 4 (four)
items that follow :

From the graph, which one of the

following can be concluded?
(a) On the average A earned more than B
during this period.
(b) On the average B earned more than A
during this period.
(c) The earnings of A and B were equal 1. In which year is the average profit of A
during this period. and B same?
(d) The earnings of A were less as compared (a) 1995
to B during this period. (b) 1996
(c) 1997
(d) 1998
2015 - Key and Explanation 5 3
64
1. Answer: A
2. What is the difference between the
6

Explanation: Through during the three

86

average profit of B and A in the year

years from 2007 – 2010, B seems to be
71

1998?
higher, it is clear that A maintained high
r-9

(a) − Rs. 100

& hence on an average. A in higher than
ie

(b) − Rs. 1000

B.
op

(c) + Rs. 600

ec

(d) + Rs. 300

kl
ar

3. How much more average profit did A

Sp

make in the year 2000 than in the

year 1999?
(a) Rs. 200
(b) Rs. 1000
(c) Rs. 1500
(d) Rs. 2000

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

4. What is the trend of the average profit 3. Answer: D

of B from the year 1997 to the year Explanation: The average profit of A in
2000? the year 1999 is slightly higher than
(a) Non - increasing 3500, while in the year 2000, it was
(b) Non - decreasing 5500.
(c) Steady Hence the difference would be 5500-
(d) Fluctuating 3500=2000

5. The following table shows the marks 4. Answer: B

obtained by two students in different Explanation: As we see from the graph,
subjects: the average profit of B 1997 & 1998 is
Student Student Student Student 3500, it moved to 4800 in 1999 & 5200
A B C D
in 2000.
English 60 100 80 150 Hence, it is steady increasing. The correct
Psychology 70 100 70 100 owner is non – decreasing.
History 50 100 60 100
Sanskrit 30 50 15 25 5. Answer: D
The difference in the mean aggregate Explanation: By observing the graph, it
percentage marks of the students is is clear that the correct option is D. is
(a) 2.5 % zero.
(b) 13.75 %
(c) 1.25 % 2011
(d) Zero 1. A student on her first 3 tests receives
on an average score of N points. If she
2014 - Key and Explanation exceeds her previous average score by
1. Answer: B 20 points on her fourth test, then what
Explanation: Except in 1996, at all other is the average score for the first 4
year, the points of A & B didn’t coincide. tests?
Hence, it is clear that, the average profits (a) N + 20
of A & B are same in 1996. (b) N + 10
(c) N+4
2. Answer: C (d) N+5
Explanation: The average profit of B in
the year 1998 was at 3500 as per the 2011 - Key and Explanation
graph. 1. Answer : D
The average profit of A in the year 1998 Explanation : The average score of
was slightly less than 3000, which is student in 3 tests is N points. Hence the
equivalent to 2900. total score = 3N points.
Therefore the difference is 3500-2900 = Given the score in fourth test = N + 20, the
+600/- average score of student in four tests will
be = (3N +N+20)/4 = N+5

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

2020 - Key and Explanation

4. Problems on Numbers 1. Answer: B
Explanation:
Given sequence: 5 1 4 7 3 9 8 5 7 2 6 3 1
2020 5863852243496
1. Consider the following sequence The odd numbers followed by another
of numbers: 5 1 4 7 3 9 8 5 7 2 6 3 1 odd number are: 5, 7, 3, 5, 3, and 1.
5863852243496 So, required number of odd numbers = 6
How many odd numbers are followed
by the odd number in the above 2. Answer: B
sequence? Explanation:
(a) 5 Position of A: 16th from left end
(b) 6 Position of V: 18th from right end
(c) 7 Position of G: 11th from A towards the
(d) 8 right and 3rd from V towards the right.
Now, two cases are possible:
2. A is 16th from the left end in a row of Case I: A is to the right of V
boys and V is 18th from the right end. This case is not possible, because it is
G is 11th from A towards the right and given that G is 11th to the right from A. If
3rd from V towards the right end. How A is to the right of V and G is further 11
many boys are there in the row? positions to the right of A, then G must
(a) 40 be atleast 12 positions to the right of V.
(b) 41 But as per the question G is only three
(c) 42 5 3
positions to the right from V.
64
(d) Cannot be determined due to insufficient Case II: A is to the left of V
6

data
86
71

3. One page is torn from a booklet

r-9

whose pages are numbered in the

ie

usual manner starting from the

op

first page as 1. The sum of the

ec

numbers on the remaining pages

kl

G is 3rd from V towards the right, so

ar

is 195. The torn page contains

Sp

which of the following numbers. position of G = 18 – 3 = 15th from right

(a) 5, 6 end.
(b) 7, 8 G is 11th from A towards the right, so
(c) 9, 10 position of G = 16 + 11 = 27th from left
(d) 11, 12 end.
Hence, total number of boys in the row =
27 + 15 – 1 = 41 (we subtract one
because G has been counted twice)

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

3. Answer: B 1. At least 30 Indian participants are

Explanation: vegetarian.
This is a question of arithmetic 2. At least 10 Indian participants are non-
progression. Let the number of pages in vegetarian
the book be n. Select the correct answer using the
Sum of consecutive numbers from 1 to n codes given below :
= n(n + 1)/2 = around 195 (a) 1 only
or n(n + 1) = around 390 (b) 2 only
As a page with two numbers was torn, so (c) Both 1 and 2
the value of n(n + 1) must be more than (d) Neither 1 nor 2
390.
The minimum possible value of n(n + 1) 3. Seeta and Geeta go for a swim after a
over 390, such that n is an integer is got gap of every 2 days and every 3 days
when we put n = 20 respectively. If on 1st January both of
So, n(n+1) = 20 × 21 = 420 them went for a swim together, when
So, sum of 20 pages = n(n + 1)/2 will they go together next?
= (20 × 21)/2 = 210 (a) 7th January
Hence, sum of the two numbers on the (b) 8th January
torn page = 210 – 195 = 15 (c) 12th January
Only option (b) yields 15 as sum, i.e. (d) 13th January
7 + 8 = 15
Hence option (b) is the correct answer. 4. A printer numbers the pages of a book
starting with 1 and uses 3089 digits in
2019 all. How many pages does the book
1. Rakesh and Rajesh together bought 10 have?
balls and 10 rackets. Rakesh spent Rs. (a) 1040
1300 and Rajesh spent Rs. 1500. If (b) 1048
each racket costs three times a ball (c) 1049
does, then what is the price of a (d) 1050
racket?
(a) Rs. 70 2019 - Key and Explanation
(b) Rs. 90 1. Answer: C
(c) Rs. 210 Explanation:
(d) Rs. 240 Ball = x rocket = 3x
10 balls = 10x 10 rockets = 30x
2. In a conference, out of a total 100 Total = 10x + 30x = 40x
participants, 70 are Indians, If 60 of 40x = 1300 + 1500 of 40x = 2800
the participants are vegetarian, then x = 70
which of the following statements Price of each rocket = 210/-
is/are correct?

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

2. Answer: A The figures in the brackets indicate

Explanation: the average cost per ton over six
Maximum case – 70 Indians – 60 Veg months period.
10 Non. Veg
Minimum case – 30 Non Indians 1. By how much (measured in thousands
-30 can be Vegetarians & of tons) did the import of sheet steel
Still 30 would be left, who would exceed the import of coil steel in the
obviously be Indians. first three months of the year ?
(a) 11
3. Answer: D (b) 15
Explanation: (c) 19
Sita = 3rdday ; Gita = 4th day (d) 23
LCM = ( 3, 4 ) = 12
Jan 1st + 12 days = Jan 13th 2. What was the approximate total value
(in $) of sheet steel imported over the
4. Answer: C six months period?
Explanation: (a) 45,555
Digits required : (b) 50,555
(1to 9 ) = 1 × 9 = 9 (c) 55,550
(10 to 99 ) = 90 × 2 = 180 (d) 65,750

(100 to 999 ) = 900 × 3 = 2700

3. X and Y are natural numbers other
999 pages ⇒ 2700 + 180 + 9 = 2889 digits
than 1, and Y is greater than X. Which
4 digit = 3089 − 2889 = 200 digits

⇒
200
= 50 more digits.
3
of the following represents the largest
5
64
number?
4
6

⇒ 999 + 50 = 1049 pages. (a) XY

86

(b) X/Y
71

(c) Y/X
2018
r-9

(d) ( X + Y ) / XY
ie

Directions for the following 3 (three) items :

op

The following three items are based on the

4. A student has to get 40% marks to
ec

graph given below which shows imports of

pass in an examination. Suppose he
kl

three different types of steel over a period of

ar

gets 30 marks and fails by 30 marks,

six months of a year. Study the graph and
Sp

then what are the maximum marks in

answer the three items that follows.
the examination?
(a) 100
(b) 120
(c) 150
(d) 300

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

5. 19 boys turn out for playing hockey. (a) 2000

Of these, 11 are wearing hockey shirts (b) 2500
and 14 are wearing hockey pants. (c) 3000
There are no boys without shirts and / (d) 3500
or pants. What is the number of boys
wearing full uniform? 7. A lift has the capacity of 18 adults or
(a) 3 30 children. How many children can
(b) 5 board the lift with 12 adults?
(c) 6 (a) 6
(d) 8 (b) 10
(c) 12
6. Consider the following figures A and B: (d) 15

2018 - Key and Explanation

1. Answer: C
Explanation:
Sheet steel = 40 + 37 + 36 = 113 TT
Coil steel = 30+31+33=94TT
Difference = 113 – 94 = 19 TT

2. Answer: C
Explanation:
Sheet steel imports = 217 TT
Total = 40 + 37 + 36 + 36 + 34 + 34
= 217 TT
Cost = 217 × 256 × 1000 = 5552000

3. Answer: A
Explanation:
y > x >1
x y x
> as <1
y x y
x +y x 1 1 1
xy > as xy > + as + <2
xy y x y x
xy > 2
The manufacturing cost and projected
sales for a product are shown in the
above figures A and B respectively. 4. Answer: C
What is the minimum number of Explanation:
pieces that should be manufactured to Total pass makes = x
40
avoid a loss? ⇒ x = 30 + 30 ⇒ x = 150
100

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

5. Answer: C cm. B climbs on Y by 7 cm but slips

Explanation: down 3 cm. C climbs on Z by 6.5 cm
Total = 19 but slips down 2 cm. If each of them
Parts = 14 means 5 shorts requires 40 chances to reach the top
Only 5 are wearing shorts of the pillars, what is the height of the
11 → hockey shirts & 5 – only shirts shortest pillar?
Fall jerseys = 6 people. (a) 161 cm
(b) 163 cm
6. Answer: A (c) 182 cm
Explanation: (d) 210 cm
Minimum ⇒ sp = cp - to avoid loss.
sp ( 2000 pieces ) = 2000 × 350 = 7lakhs 3. 15 students failed in a class of 52.
∴cp = 7 lakhs After removing the names of failed
students, a merit order list has been
7. Answer: B prepared in which the position of
Explanation: Ramesh is 22nd from the top. What is
18 adults = 30 children. his position from the bottom ?
30 (a) 18th
1 adult = children.
18 (b) 17th
12 adults + 6 more adults. (c) 16th
30 (d) 15th
⇒ 12 + ( 6 ) ⇒ 22 people.
18
Out of 22; 10 are children. 4. Six boys A, B, C, D, E and F play a

3
game of cards. Each has a pack of 10
5
64
2017 cards. F borrows 2 cards from A and
6

1. The sum of income of A and B is more gives away 5 to C who in turn gives 3
86

than that of C and D taken together. to B while B gives 6 to D who passes

71

The sum of income of A and C is the on 1 to E. Then the number of cards

r-9

same as that of B and D taken possessed by D and E is equal to the

ie

together. Moreover, A earns half as number of cards possessed by

op

much as the sum of the income of B (a) A, B and C

ec

and D whose income is the highest ? (b) B, C and F

kl

(c) A, B and F
ar

(a) A
Sp

(b) B (d) A, C and F

(c) C
(d) D 5. In a test, Randhir obtained more
marks than the total marks obtained
2. There are three pillars X, Y and Z of by Kunal and Debu. The total marks
different heights. Three spiders A, B obtained by Kunal and Shankar are
and C start to climb on these pillars more than those of Randhir. Sonal
simultaneously. In one chance, A obtained more marks than Shankar.
climbs on X by 6 cm but slips down 1 Neha obtained more marks than

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

Randhir, who amongst them obtained 5. Answer: D

highest marks? Explanation:
(a) Randhir Data insufficient.
(b) Neha
(c) Sonal 2016
(d) Data are inadequate 1. There are some nectar-filled flowers on
a tree and some bees are hovering on
2017 - Key and Explanation it. If one bee lands on each flower, one
1. Answer: B bee will be left out. If two bees land on
Explanation: each flower, one flower will be left out.
A + B > C + D; A + C = B + D The number of flowers and bees
B +D B +D respectively are:
A= C=
2 2 (a) 2 and 4
3B D 3D B (b) 3 and 2
⇒ + > +
2 2 2 2 (c) 3 and 4
⇒ B > D ⇒ B − highest
(d) 4 and 3

2. Answer: B 2. In paid of charity, every student in a

Explanation: class contributes as many rupees as
Net climbs of A = 5 cms. the number of students in that class.
Net climbs of B = 4 cms. With the additional contribution of Rs.
Net climb of C = 4.5 cms. 2 by one student only, the total
A goes in 39 chances = 5 × 39 collection is Rs. 443. Then how many
B = 4 × 39 & C = 4.5 × 39
students are there in the class?
Length of the hole (a) 12
y = ( 4 × 39 ) + 7 = 163 cms
(b) 21
(c) 43
3. Answer: C (d) 45
Explanation:
Merit students = 52 – 15 = 37 3. In a class, there are 18 very tall boys.
Ramesh position of 37 = 22nd& 15 If these constitute three-fourths of the
students are behind him. boys and the total number of boys is
From bottom, he is balanced 16th. two – thirds of the total number of
students in the class, what is the
4. Answer: B number of girls in the class?
Explanation: (a) 6
Final cards : (b) 12
A − 8, B − 7,C − 12, D − 15, E − 11, F − 7 (c) 18
D + E = 26 (d) 21
F + B + C = 26

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

4. A daily train is to be introduced 2016 - Key and Explanation

between station A and B starting from
1. Answer: C
each end at 6 AM and the journey is to Explanation: BASIC LOGIC
be completed in 42 hrs. What is the
number of trains needed in order to 2. Answer: B
maintain the shuttle service? Explanation: Total = 443 – additional
(a) 2 Rs. 2 = 441
(b) 3 No. of students × equal contribution
(c) 4 ⇒ N 2 = 441
(d) 7 ⇒ N = 21

5. In a question paper there are five 3. Answer: B

questions to be attempted and answer Explanation:
to each question has two choices – Girls = x
True (T) or False (F). It is given that no Boys = 2x
two candidates have given the answer Total = 3x
to the five questions in an identical 3
Very tall boys ⇒ × 2x = 18
sequence. For this to happen the 4
maximum number of candidates is: ⇒ x = 12
(a) 10
(b) 18 4. Answer: C
(c) 26 Explanation:
(d) 32 Journey = 42 hrs.
Daily service necessary – 4 trains.
6. A person is standing on the first step
from the bottom of a ladder. If he has 5. Answer: D
5 3
64

to climb 4 more steps to reach exactly Explanation:

6

No. of cars = 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 = 25 = 32
86

the middle step, how many steps does

∴ 33rd candidate will make exactly the
71

the ladder have?

same answer as 1 of the 32 candidates.
r-9

(a) 8
(b) 9
ie

6. Answer: B
op

(c) 10
Explanation:
ec

(d) 11
Middle stop is 5th step.
kl

Top step = 4 steps ahead of middle step

ar

7. In a class of 60 students, where the

Sp

= 9 steps in total.
number of girls is twice that of boys,
Kamal, a boy, ranked seventeenth
7. Answer: B
from the top. If there are 9 girls ahead
Explanation:
of Kamal, the number of boys in rank
Total = 60; G=2B ⇒ G=40; B=20
after him is :
Kamal = 17 from top
th
(a) 13
= 16thstudens.
(b) 12
= 9 girls, 7 boys
(c) 7
Remaining boys = 20 − 7 − 1 = 12 boys.
(d) 3

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

2015 Total parked = x + y

4x + 2y = 2 ( x + y ) + 100
1. Each of A, B, C and D has Rs. 100. A
4x + 2y = 2x + 2y + 100
pays Rs. 20 to B, who pays Rs. 10 to
C, who gets Rs. 30 from D. In this 2x = 100
context, which one of the following x = 50
statements is not correct ?
(a) C is the richest 3. Answer: C
(b) D is the poorest Explanation: ABC × DEED = ABCABC
(c) C has more than what A and D have ABCABC − it has divisible by 13, 11, 7
together multiple of 1001
(d) B is richer than D 1001 = DEED
1001 = 13 × 11 × 7
2. In a parking area, the total number of ABC × DEED = ABCABC
wheels of all the cars (four – wheelers) ABC × 1001 = ABCABC
and scooters / motorbikes (two – ⇒ n = 1; e = 0
wheelers) is 100 more than twice the
number of parked vehicles. The 2014
number of cars parked is 1. A group of 630 children is seated in
(a) 35 rows for a group photo session. Each
(b) 45 row contains three less children than
(c) 50 the row in front of it. Which one of the
(d) 55 following number of rows is not
possible?
3. If ABC × DEED = ABCABC where A, B, (a) 3
C, D and E are different digits, what (b) 4
are the values of D and E? (c) 5
(a) D = 2, E = 0 (d) 6
(b) D = 0, E = 1
(c) D = 1, E = 0 2. The letters L, M, N, O, P, Q, R, S and T
(d) D = 1, E = 2 in their order are substituted by nine
integers 1 to 9 but not in that order 4
2015 - Key and Explanation is assigned to P. The difference
1. Answer: C between P and T is 5. The difference
Explanation: A, B, C, D = 100 between N and T is 3. What is the
A +20 B −10 C −30 D integer assigned to N?
⎯⎯⎯ → ⎯⎯⎯ → ⎯⎯⎯ →
80 120 140 70 (a) 7
C>A+D (b) 5
(c) 4
2. Answer: C (d) 6
Explanation:
Cars = x bikes = y

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

3. Four persons, Alok, Bhupesh, Chander 6x − 45 = 630

and Dinesh have a total of Rs. 100 6x = 675
among themselves. Alok and Bhupesh ⇒a ≠ 6
between them have as much money as
Chander and Dinesh between them, 2. Answer: D
but Alok has more money than Explanation: p = 4
Bhupesh and Chander has only half T −P =5⇒T =9
the money that Dinesh has. Alok has T = 9⇒T −N ⇒ 9−6 =3
in fact Rs. 5 maximum amount of
money? 3. Answer: A
(a) Alok Explanation:
(b) Bhupesh a + b + c + d = 100 a + b = c + d = 50
(c) Chander d d
c = ⇒ + d = 50 ⇒ d = 33.3
(d) Dinesh 2 2
∴d > c ⇒ a > b and = d + 5 ⇒ a > d
4. For a charity show, the total tickets ∴ A has maximum money.
sold were 420. Half of these tickets
were sold at the rate of Rs. 5 each, 4. Answer: C
one-third at the rate of Rs. 3 each and Explanation: Total 420
the rest for Rs.2 each. What was the 210 at Rs. 5 ⇒ 210 × 5 = 1050 / −
total amount received? 1
1/3rd at 3 Rs. ⇒ × 420 = 140 × 3 = 420
(a) Rs. 900 3
(b) Rs. 1540 70 at 2 Rs. ⇒ 140
⇒ 1050 + 420 + 140 = 1610
(c) Rs. 1610 5 3
64
(d) Rs. 2000
2013
6
86

2014 - Key and Explanation 1. In a class of 45 students, a boy is

71

1. Answer: D ranked 20th. When two boys joined, his

r-9

Explanation: Front row = x rank was dropped by one. What is his

ie

Next row & so on new rank from the end?

op

⇒ x − 3, x − 6, x − 9..... (n = 3 ) (a) 25th

ec

x + ( x − 3 ) + ( x − 6 ) = 630 (b) 26th

kl
ar

(c) 27th
3x = 639
Sp

(d) 28th
x = 213
x + ( x − 3 ) + ( x − 6 ) + ( x − 9 ) = 630
2. A gardener has 1000 plants. He wants
4x − 18 = 630
to plant them in such a way that the
x = 162
number of rows and the number of
( 4x − 18 ) + ( x − 12) = 630 (n = 5 ) columns remains the same. What is
5x − 30 = 630 the minimum number of plants that
x = 120 he needs more for this purpose?
x = 6 ⇒ ( 5x − 10 ) + ( x − 15 ) = 630

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

n
(a) 14 ⇒
2
( 2x + (n − 1) × 20 ) = 700
(b) 24
(c) 32 n =7
7
(d) 34 ( 2x + 120 ) = 700
2
3. A sum of Rs. 700 has to be used to ⇒ x = 40
give seven cash prizes to the students
of a school for their overall academic
performance. If each prize is Rs. 20 5. Problems on Ages
less than its preceding prize, what is
the least value of the prize ?
2020
(a) Rs. 30
(b) Rs. 40 1. Three Statements S1, S2 and S3
(c) Rs. 60 are given below followed by a
(d) Rs. 80 Question:
S1 : C is younger than D, but
older than A and B.
2013 - Key and Explanation
S2 : D is the oldest.
1. Answer: C
S3 : A is the older than B.
Explanation: After 2 boys joined;
strength = 45 + 2 = 47
Questions:
New rank = 21
Who among A, B, C and D is the
Rank from beginning = 21
youngest?
No of students below his rak
Which one of the following is correct in
= 47 – 21 = 20
respect of the above Statements and
Rank from end = 47–21+1 = 27
the Question?
(a) S1 alone is sufficient to answer the
2. Answer: B
Question.
Explanation: Total = 1000;
(b) S1 and S2 together are sufficient to
Rows = Columns = x
answer the Question.
Total plants = Rows × Columns
(c) S2 and S3 together are sufficient to
⇒ x 2 = 1000
answer the Question.
x = 1000
(d) S1 and S3 together are sufficient to
⇒ 312 < 1000 < 322
answer the Question.
⇒ 322 − 1000 = 1024 − 1000 = 24 plants

2. The average age of a teacher and

3. Answer: B three students in 20 years. If all
Explanation: Least = x
the three students are of same
Next value = x + 20
age and the difference between
= x + 40 & Soon
the age of the teachers and each
⇒ AP ; sum 700
student is 20 years, then what is
No of mines = 7 (N) the age of the teacher?

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

(a) 25 years 2019

(b) 30 years 1. In 2002, Meenu’s age was one-third of
(c) 35 years the age of Meera, whereas in 2010,
(d) 45 years Meenu’s age was half the age of Meera.
What is Meenu’s year of birth?
2020 - Key and Explanation (a) 1992
1. Answer: D (b) 1994
Explanation: (c) 1996
S1: C is younger than D, but older than A (d) 1998
and B, i.e. D > C > A/B. Positions of A
2. Ena was born 4 years after her parents
and B are not defined so using statement
marriage. Her mother is three years
1 alone we cannot determine who is the
younger than her father and 24 years
youngest.
older than Ena, who is 13 years old. At
S2: D is the oldest, i.e. D > A/B/C.
what age did Ena’s father get married?
Positions of A,B and C is not defined .So
(a) 22 years
Using statement 2 alone we cannot
(b) 23 years
determine who is the youngest.
(c) 24 years
S3: A is older than B, i.e. A > B. No
(d) 25 years
information regarding C and D is there.
Using statement 3 alone we cannot
2019 - Key and Explanation
determine who is the youngest.
Using S1 and S3, we get: 1. Answer: B
D>C>A>B Explanation: Assume, Meenu age in
So, B is the youngest. 2002 = M 53
64
Hence, to find the youngest S1 and S3 Meeias age in 2002 = P
6

Meera P
together are sufficient to answer the In 2002 ⇒ Meenu = ⇒M =
86

3 3
question. So, option (d) correct answer.
71

In
r-9

Meera P +8
2. Answer: C 2010 ⇒ Meenu = ⇒M +8=
ie

3 2
Explanation:
op

P P +8
Let the age of each student be x years M = M +8=
ec

3 2
and the age of the teacher be y years.
kl

P +8
M = =8
ar

According to the question, 2

Sp

3x + y = 20 × 4 P + 8 − 16
M =
Or 3x + y = 80 …(1) 2
Also, y – x = 20 …(2) P P −8
M = M =
By subtracting equation (1) by (2) we get: 3 2
4x = 60 P P −8
= ⇒ 2P = 3P − 24
Or x = 15 years 3 2
So, y = x + 20 = 15 + 20 = 35 years ⇒ 3P − 2P = 24
Hence, the age of teacher is 35 years. P = 24
Born year 1994.

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

2. Answer: B 2011
Explanation: Present age of Ena = 13 1. Consider the four age pyramids given
Present age of Ena mother = 13+24=37 below namely A, B, C and D
Present age of Ena father = 37+3=40 representing four different countries.
Ena was born after 4 years of her parents
marriage.
They were married 17 years ago.
∴ Father age 17 years ago = 40 − 17 = 23
years.

2016 Which one of them indicates the declining

1. The sum of the ages of 5 members population?
comprising a family, 3 years ago was (a) A
80 years. The average age of the (b) B
family today is the same as it was 3 (c) C
years ago, because of an addition of a (d) D
baby during the intervening period.
How old is the baby ? 2011 - Key and Explanation
(a) 6 months 1. Answer: C
(b) 1 year The base in the pyramid denotes the
(c) 2 years number of children and the top denotes
(d) 2 years and 6 months number of senior citizens. Now clearly if
the top is wider than the bottom, it means
2016 - Key and Explanation fewer births are taking place and more
1. Answer: B deaths are taking place. So population will
Explanation: Average age of females 3 reduce.
80
years ago = = 16 years.
5
Today – sum of ages = 80 + ( 3 × 5 )
= 80 + 15
6. Ratio and Proportion
= 95 years.
Average age of family including new baby
95 + B 2020
= ≅ 16 years.
6
1. A bottle contains 20 litres of liquid A.
95 + B
∴ = 16 ⇒ 95 + B = 16 × 6 4 litres of liquid A is taken out of its
6
and replace by same quantity of liquid
⇒ 95 + B = 96
B. Again 4 litres of the mixture is
⇒ B = 96 − 95
taken out and replaced by same
⇒ B = 1 year.
quantity of liquid B. What is the ratio
of quantity of liquid A to that of liquid
B in the final mixture?

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

(a) 4:1 2019

(b) 5:1 1. The ratio of a two-digit natural number
(c) 16 : 9 to a number formed by reversing its
(d) 17 : 8 digits is 4 : 7. The number of such
pairs is
2020 - Key and Explanation (a) 5
(b) 4
1. Answer: C
(c) 3
Explanation:
(d) 2
Method I :
Liquid A Liquid B
2. In an examination, A has scored 20
Initial 20 0
marks more than B. If B has scored 5%
quantities
less marks than A, how much has B
Quantities 16 4
scored?
after 1st mix
(a) 360
Quantities 16 − [4 × 4 – [4 × (b) 380
after 2nd mix (16/20)] = 16 – (4/20)] + 4 =
(c) 400
16/5 = 64/5 8 – 4/5 =
(d) 420
36/5
So, ratio of A and B in the final mixture
2019 - Key and Explanation
= 64/5 : 36/5 = 16 : 9
1. Answer: B
Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
Explanation:
Method II: Let the number, be ab
Let us just focus on liquid A. 10s digit ‘a’
5 3
64

Out of initial 20 liters, 4 liters is taken out, Unit digit ‘b’

6
86

i.e. a decrease of 20%. Number = 10a + b

71

This process is repeated again, i.e. again a Reverse = 10b + a

10a + b 4
r-9

decrease of 20%. So, this is a case of a 1

= ⇒ =
successive percentage change. 10b + a 7 b 2
ie
op

Net percentage change Therefore, total, 4 pairs are possible

ec

= x + y + (xy/100) = − 20 – 20 + 4 = 36% (12, 21)

kl

(24, 42)
So, if initially liquid A was 100 liters, now
ar

after 36% reduction, only 64 liters is left. (48, 84)

Sp

The rest 36 liters is liquid B.

2. Answer: B
So, ratio of A and B in the final mixture
Explanation: Go by options
= 64 : 36 = 16 : 9
Option A ⇒ B = 360 ; A = 380 ;
Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
380 × 5% = 361
Option B ⇒ B = 380 ; A = 400 ;
400 × 5% = 380

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

2018 2. The monthly incomes of X and Y are

the ratio of 4 : 3 and their monthly
Directions for the following 1 (one) items:
expenses are in the ratio of 3 : 2.
The following three items are based on the
However, each saves Rs. 6000 per
graph given below which shows imports of
month. What is their total monthly
three different types of steel over a period of income ?
six months of a year. Study the graph and (a) Rs. 28000
answer the three items that follows. (b) Rs. 42000
(c) Rs. 56000
(d) Rs. 84000

2017 - Key and Explanation

1. Answer: A
Explanation:
The figures in the brackets indicate the
P = 3x P & Q = 4x
average cost per ton over six months period.
Q =x R=x
1. What was the approximate ratio of
3x : x : x ⇒ 3 :1 :1
sheet steel and scrap steel imports in
2. Answer: B
the first three months of the year ?
Explanation:
(a) 1:1
Same figures as in problem 5
(b) 1.2 : 1
But the monthly incomes shall be added.
(c) 1.4 : 1
⇒ 24000 + 18000 = 42000 / −
(d) 1.6 : 1

2016
2018
1. The total emoluments of two persons
1. Answer: B
are the same, but one gets allowances
Explanation:
to the extent of 65% of his basic pay
Sheet steel = 40 + 37 + 36 = 113
and the other gets allowances to the
Scrap steel = 32 + 34 + 32 = 98 extent of 80% of his basic pay. The
113 : 98 ⇒ 1.2 :1 ratio of the basic pay of the former to
Answer is 1.2 : 1 the basic pay of the latter is :
(a) 16 : 13
2017 (b) 5:4
(c) 7:5
1. P works thrice as fast as Q, whereas P
(d) 12 : 11
and Q together can work four times as
fast as R, If P, Q and R together work
2016 - Key and Explanation
on a job, in what ratio should they
share the earnings ? 1. Answer: D
(a) 3:1:1 Explanation:
Let the basic ways be P1 & P2
(b) 3:2:4
Allowances = 65 % & 80 % of P1 & P2
(c) 4:3:4
(d) 3:1:4 respectively.

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

Solving of P1 = 1.65P1 2. Answer: A

Solving of P2 = 1.80P2 Explanation:
Enrolments are same ⇒ 1.65P1 = 1.80P2 Go by the options
P2 1.65 165 11 Option D will be climated straight away.
⇒ = = =
P1 1.80 180 12 Option A ⇒ 24000 :18000
∴ Correct option is 12 : 11 ⇒ 4:3
24000 – 6000 = 18000
2015 6000 savings
1. In a 500 meters race, B starts 45 18000 – 6000 = 12000
meters ahead of A, but A wins the race Rest express which must be in 3 : 2 ratio.
18000 :12000
while B is still 35 meters behind. What
⇒ 3 : 2 satisfied.
is the ratio of the speeds of A and B
assuming that both start at the same Hence Option A is correct.
time ?
(a) 25 : 21 2013
(b) 25 : 20 Direction for the following questions.
(c) 5:3 Study the two figures given below and answer
(d) 5:7 the questions.

2. The monthly income of Peter and Paul

are in the ratio of 4 : 3. Their expense
are in the ratio of 3 : 2. If each saves
Rs. 6000 at the end of the month,
their monthly incomes respectively
5 3
64
are (in Rs.)
6

(a) 24,000 and 18,000

86

(b) 28,000 and 21,000

71

(c) 32,000 and 24,000

r-9

(d) 34,000 and 26,000

ie
op

Figure 1: Number of Professors in

2015
ec

selected disciplines in a University by

kl

1. Answer: A sex.
ar

Explanation: Figure 2 : Age of Physics Professors

Sp

Distance covered by A & B in given time 1. Which one of the following disciplines
is has the highest ratio of males to
A = 500 females?
B = 500 – 45 – 35 = 420 (a) Physics
Distance ratio = 500 : 420 (b) Mathematics
= 25 : 21 (c) Chemistry
T = DS ⇒ speeds ratio = 25 : 21 (d) Economics

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

2. In a rare coin collection, there is one Total coins

gold coin for every three non-gold = 10 + G + S = 10 + 20 + 60 = 90 coins
coins. 10 more gold coins are added to
the collection and the ratio of gold 3. Answer: C
coins to non-gold coins would be 1 : 2. Explanation:
Based on the information, the total Total Males Females
number of coins in the collection now 120 70 50
becomes. Lecence = 80 members.
(a) 90 Minimum males ⇒ fall females = 50
(b) 80 50F = 30m
(c) 60 Maximum males ⇒ full males + 10
(d) 50 females
⇒ 70Males; 10 Females
3. Out of 120 applicants for a post, 70 Minimammales : Maximum males
are male and 80 have a driver’s ⇒ 30M : 70M
license. What is the ratio between the ⇒ 3:7
minimum to maximum number of
males having dirver’s license ? 2012
(a) 1 to 2
1. Two glasses of equal volume are
(b) 2 to 3
respectively half and three-fourths
(c) 3 to 7
filled with milk. They are then filled to
(d) 5 to 7
the brim by adding water. Their
contents are then poured into another
2013 - Key and Explanation vessel. What will be the ratio of milk to
1. Answer: A water in this vessel?
Explanation: (a) 1:3
Physics – 4:1 (b) 2:3
Maths – 7:2 (c) 3:2
Chemistry – 8 : 11 (d) 5:3
Economics - 3:1
It is clear that the ratio is height in 2012 - Key and Explanation
physics.
1. Answer: D
Explanation :
2. Answer: A
Lets say both glasses have 100 ml
Explanation: Let us assume, the non-
capacity.
gold coins to be site
Glass 1: 50 ml water and 50 ml milk
G :S ⇒ 1: 3
Glass 2: 25 ml water and 75 ml milk
After adding 10 gold coins
Total when poured together = 200 ml
(G + 10 ) : S = 1 : 2
Milk = 125 ml
From the above solution, Water = 75 ml
we get G = 20, S = 60 Ration = 125:75 = 5:3

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

2011 2. A vessel full of water weighs 40 kg. If

1. A village having a population of 4000 it is one-third filled, its weight
requires 150 liters of water per head per becomes 20 kg. What is the weight of
day. It has a tank measuring 20 m × 15 the empty vessel?
m × 6 m. The water of this tank will last (a) 10 kg
for (b) 15 kg
(a) 2 days (c) 20 kg
(b) 3 days (d) 25 kg
(c) 4 days
(d) 5 days 3. A frog tries to come out of a dried well
4.5 m deep with slippery walls. Every
time the frog jumps 30 cm, slides
2011 - Key and Explanation
down 15 cm. What is the number of
1. Answer : B
jumps required for the frog to come
Explanation : Total requirement
out of the well?
= 4000 × 150 = 6,00,000 litres
(a) 28
Volume (capacity) of tank = L x B x H (for
(b) 29
cuboids) = 20 X 15 X 6 = 1800 m3
(c) 30
1m = 1000 litres
(d) 31
So, capacity = 18,00, 000
So water will last for
2020 - Key and Explanation
18,00,000/6,00,000 = 3 days.
1. Answer: D
Explanation:
7. Miscellaneous
53
The path taken by the man has been
64
depicted below:
6
86
71

2020
r-9

1. A man walks down the backside of his

ie

house straight 25 metres, then turns

op

to the right and walks 50 metres

ec

again; then he turns towards left and

kl

again walks 25 metres. If his house

ar

faces to the East, what is his direction

Sp

from the starting point?

(a) South-East
(b) South-West By looking at the diagram we can easily
(c) North-East say that the direction of man from the
(d) North-West starting point is North-25 West.

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

2. Answer: A 2018
Explanation: 1. The figure drawn below gives the
Let the weight of vessel be x and weight of velocity graphs of two vehicles A and
water in the vessel be y. B. The straight line OKP represents
Now according to the question, the velocity of vehicle A at any
x + y = 40 kg … (1) instant, whereas the horizontal
And x + (y/3) = 20 kg straight line CKD represents the
Or 3x + y = 60 kg … (2) velocity of vehicle B at any instant. In
On subtracting equations (1) from the figure, D is the point where
equation (2), we get: perpendicular from P meets the
2x = 20 horizontal line CKD such that
Or x = 10 kg 1
PD = LD
Hence, option (a) is the correct answer. 2

3. Answer: B
Explanation:
Total length of the wall = 4.5 m = 450 cm
Total length covered by frog in one jump
= 30 – 15 = 15 cm
Number of jumps required by frog to
cover What is the ratio between the distance
420 cm = 420/15 = 28 jumps covered by vehicles A and B in the
In the 29th jump the frog will reach at the time interval OL?
top of the wall and will not slide down. (a) 1:2
Hence, total no. of jumps required = 29 (b) 2:3
Hence, the correct answer is option (b). (c) 3:4
(d) 1:1
2019
1. The number of parallelograms that can 2018 - Key and Explanation
be formed from a set of four parallel 1. Answer: C
lines intersecting another set of four Explanation:
parallel lines is:
(a) 18
(b) 24
(c) 32
(d) 36
1
2019 - Key and Explanation Area (V A ) (O2 )( P2 ) 1 P
Ratio = = 2 = 2

1. Answer: A
Area (VB ) (O2 )( D2 ) 2 D2
Explanation: Same as 1  2D 1 ⎡ 3x ⎤ 3
= = = 3:4
Mensuration. 2 ⎢⎣ 2x ⎥⎦ 4

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

2017 (a) Z, U and W are parallel

1. Two walls and a ceiling of a room meet (b) X, V and Y are parallel
at right angles at a point P. A fly is in (c) Z, V and U are all perpendicular to W
the air 1m from one wall, 8m from the (d) Y, V and W are parallel
other wall and 9 m from the point P.
How many meters is the fly from the 2015 - Key and Explanation
ceiling? 1. Answer: D
(a) 4 Explanation:
(b) 6
(c) 12
(d) 15

2017 - Key and Explanation

1. Answer: A
y, v & w are parallel.
Explanation:

2014
1. A straight line segment is 36 cm long.
Points are to be marked on the line
from both the end points. From each
end, the first point is at a distance of
1 cm from the end, the second point is
at a distance of 2cm from the first
5 3
point and the third point is at a
64
distance of 3cm from the second point
xy plane = ceiting
6

and so on. If the points on the ends

86

yz plane = W1
are not counted and the common
71

xz plane W2
points are counted as one, what is the
r-9

distance from p = 9m
number of points?
ie

distance from ceiting = z m

op

(a) 10
( x − x1 ) + ( y − y1 ) + ( y − y1 )
2 2 2
⇒
(b) 12
ec

⇒ p ( 0,0,0 ) = (1 − 0 ) + (8 − 0) + ( z − 0) = 9
2 2 2
(c) 14
kl
ar

S.O.B.S 1 + 64 + z 2 = 81 ⇒ z = 4 (d) 16
Sp

2015 2014 - Key and Explanation

1. In a plane, line X is perpendicular to 1. Answer: C

line Y and parallel to line Z line U is Explanation:
perpendicular to both lines V and W
line X is perpendicular to line V.
Which one of the following statements
→ 1 + 2 + 3 + .... + n = 36
is correct?

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

n (n + 1)
⇒ = 36 8. Percentage,
2
⇒ n (n + 1) = 72 Profit and Loss
⇒n =8
Leaving the end points, the total points
2020
are 7 + 7 = 14
1. As a result of 25% hike in the price of
2012 rice per kg, a person is able to
purchase 6 kg less rice for Rs. 1,200.
1.
What was the original price of rice per
kg?
(a) Rs. 30
(b) Rs. 40
(c) Rs. 50
(d) Rs. 60

In the above figure, circle P represents

hardworking people, circle Q 2. A person bought a car and sold it for
represents intelligent people, Circle R Rs. 3,00,000. If he incurred a loss of
represents truthful people and circle S 20%, then how much did he spend to
represents honest people. Which buy the car?
region represents the people who are (a) Rs. 3,60,000
intelligent, honest and truthful but not (b) Rs. 3,65,000
hardworking? (c) Rs. 3,70,000
(a) 6 (d) Rs. 3,75,000
(b) 7
(c) 8 2020 - Key and Explanation
(d) 11 1. Answer: B
Explanation:
2012 - Key and Explanation Method I:
1. Answer: (A) Let the original price be Rs. 100x /kg
Explanation: Choose a sector that Original quantity purchased for
excludes P, but includes all others Q, R
Rs. 1200
and S. It is 6.
= 1200/100x = 12/x kg
After 25% hike, the price will be
Rs. 125x /kg
Quantity purchased for Rs. 1200 after
the hike
= 1200/125x = 48/5x kg
According to the question,
(12/x) – (48/5x) = 6

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

Or 30x = 60 – 48 = 12 weight of A and B, if B is removed

Or x = 2/5 = 0.4 from the top of A?
So, original price = 100x = 100 × 0.4 (a) 60 %
= Rs. 40 per kg (b) 45.5 %
(c) 40 %
Method II:
(d) 37.5 %
Expenditure is constant. So, if the price
is increased by 25%, the quantity
2. Raju has Rs. 9000 with him and he
purchased will decrease by 20%. As per
wants to buy a mobile handset but he
the question, 20% = 6 kg.
finds that he has only 75% of the
So, 100% = 6 × 5 = 30 kg
amount required to buy the handset.
Hence, original price
Therefore, he borrows Rs. 2000 from a
= Expenditure/Original Quantity friend. Then
= 1200/30 = Rs. 40 per kg. (a) Raju still does not have enough amount
to buy the handset.
2. Answer: D (b) Raju has exactly the same amount as
Explanation: required to buy the handset.
Method I: (c) Raju has enough amount to buy the
Let CP be Rs. 100 x handset and he will have Rs. 500 with
SP of car = Rs 3,00,000 him after buying the handset.
Loss percent = 20% (d) Raju has enough amount to buy the
So loss = 20% of 100 x = 20x handset and he will have Rs. 1000 with
We know CP − SP = Loss. him after buying the handset.
100x − 3,00,000 = 20x 3.
3
All members of a club went to Mumbai
5
64
∴ 80x = 300000 and stayed in a hotel. On the first day,
6

Or x = 300000/80 80% went for shopping and 50% went

86

Or 100x = Rs. 3,75,000 for sightseeing, whereas 10% took rest

71

Method II: in the hotel. Which of the following

r-9

Loss of 20%, means SP is 20% less than conclusion(s) can be drawn from the
ie

CP. above data ?

op

It means CP must be 25% more than SP. 1. 40 % members went for shopping as well
ec

So, CP = SP + 25% of SP = 300000 + 25% as sightseeing.

kl

2. 20 % members went for only shopping.

ar

of 300000 = 300000 + 75000 = Rs.

Sp

3,75,000
Select the correct answer using the code
2019 given below :
(a) 1 only
1. A and B are two heavy steel blocks. If
(b) 2 only
B is placed on the top of A, the weight
(c) Both 1 and 2
increases by 60%. How much weight
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
will reduce with respect to the total

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

4. In a school, 60% students play cricket. 3. Answer: A

A student who does not play cricket, Explanation:
play football. Every football player has
got a two-wheeler. Which of the
following conclusions cannot be drawn
from the above data ?
1. 60% of the students do not have two-
wheelers
4. Answer: D
2. No cricketer has a two wheeler.
Explanation: Self explanation.
3. Cricket players do not play football.
A cricketer may or may not hate a two-
Select the correct answer using the
wheeler.
code given below
(a) 1 and 2 only
5. Answer: B
(b) 2 and 3 only
Explanation:
(c) 1 and 3 only
D = MP − SP
(d) 1,2 and 3
MP (10 ) = 100
MP ( 8 ) = 80
5. Rakesh had money to buy 8 mobile
handsets of a specific company. But MP (1) = 10
the retailer offered very good discount Rakesh bought 10 mobiles for 80.
on that particular handset. Rakesh SP = 80
could by 10 mobile handsets with the D = 20 %
amount he had. What was the discount
the retailer offered? 2018
(a) 15 % 1. A shopkeeper sells an article at Rs. 40
(b) 20 % and gets X % profit. However, when he
(c) 25 % sells it at Rs. 20, he faces same
(d) 30 % percentage of loss. What is the original
cost of the article ?
2019 - Key and Explanation (a) Rs. 10
1. Answer: D (b) Rs. 20
Explanation: Let weight of A = 100 kg. (c) Rs. 30
A + B = 160 kg (d) Rs. 40
60 kg reduced. Directions for the following 2(two)
60 100 items :
%= × ⇒ 37.5%
1 160 Consider the following graph in which
2. Answer: A the birthrate and death rate of a
Explanation: 75% of mobile cost = 9000 country are given, and answer the two
∴ Lost of mobile = 12000 items that follows.
He borrows 2000 ⇒ 9000 + 2000
= 11000
Still 1000 needed.

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

2. Looking at the graph, it can be

inferred that from 1990 and 2010
(a) Population growth rate has increased
(b) Population growth rate has decreased
(c) Growth rate of population has remainded 4. With reference to the above table,
stable which of the following is/are the most
(d) Population growth rate shows no trend logical and rational inference /
inferences that can be made?
3. With reference to the above graph 1. Higher per capita income is generally
consider the following statements associated with higher Tele-density.
considering 1970 as base year: 2. Higher GDP growth rate always ensure
1. population has stabilized after 35 years. higher per capita income.
2. population growth rate has stabilized 3. Higher GDP growth rate does not
after 35 years. necessary ensure higher Tele-density.
3. Death rate has fallen by 10% in the first
5 3
Select the correct answer using the
64

10 years code given below

6
86

4. Birthrate has stabilized after 35 years. (a) 1 only

71

Which of the above are the most (b) 2 and 3

r-9

logical and rational statements that (c) 1 and 3

(d) 3 only
ie

can be made from the above graph ?

op

(a) 1 and 2 only

ec

(b) 1, 2 and 3 2018 - Key and Explanation

kl

(c) 3 and 4 1. Answer: C

ar

(d) 2 and 4 x
Sp

Explanation: CP + CP = 40
100
Directions for the following 2 (two) items : x
CP − CP = 20
The following table gives the GDP growth 100
rate and Tele-density data of different states Solving CP = 30/-
of a country in a particular year. Study the ⇒ x = 33.33
table and answer the two items that follow.

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

2. Answer: A many households earn between Rs.

Explanation: First there is increase in 1,00,000 and Rs. 2,00,000 per year ?
both birth & death & later it stabilized. (a) 250
(b) 240
3. Answer: D (c) 230
Explanation: Growth has been stabilized (d) 225
after 35 years & the difference between
birth & death later is ≅ 2000 2017 - Key and Explanation
1. Answer: C
4. Answer: D Explanation: CP for Gopal = 100
Explanation: Explanation from table. ………… (i)
Gopal ⎯⎯⎯⎯
10%P
→ Ram = 110
2017 Ram ⎯⎯⎯⎯
10%loss
→ Gopal
1. Gopal bought a cell phone and sold it 10
⇒ 110 − 110 × ⇒ 99..... (ii )
to Ram at 10% profit. Then Ram 100
wanted to sell it back to Gopal at 10% Compare (i) & (ii) ⇒ 1% GAIN
loss. What will be Gopal’s position if
he agreed? 2. Answer: D
(a) Neither loss nor gain Explanation:
(b) Loss 1 % P = ( 40% of A ) + ( 65% of B )
(c) Gain 1 % Q = ( 50% of A ) + ( 50% of B )
(d) Gain 0.5 % P − Q = (15% of B ) − (10% of A )
If B = 100 & A = 110; P − Q ⇒ P > Q
2. P = ( 40% of A ) + ( 65% of B ) and If B=100 & A=150; P – Q = 0 ⇒ P = Q
Q = ( 50% of A ) + ( 50% of B ) where A is If B = 100 & A = 200; P − Q = −5 ⇒ P < Q
greater than B No relation established.
In this context, which of the following
statements is correct? 3. Answer: B
(a) P is greater than Q Explanation:
(b) Q is greater than P B > 1,00,000 = 22 %
(c) P is equal to Q > 2,00,000 = 6 %
(d) None of the above can be concluded with 1,00,000 – 2,00,000 = 22 – 6 = 16 %
certainty < 30,000 = 12 %
30,000 – 1,00,000 = 100 – (22 + 12)
3. In a city, 12 % of households earn less = 66 %
than Rs. 30,000 per year, 6% = 990
households earn more than Rs. 100
100% = 990 × = 1500
2,00,000 per year, 22% households 66
earn more than Rs. 1,00,000 per year ∴1,00,000 − 1,00,000 = 16%
and 990 households earn between Rs. 16
= × 1500 = 240
30,000 and Rs. 1,00,000 per year. How 100

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

2016 gain. What is the cost price of the toy

1. Anita’s mathematics test had 70 which is marked Rs. 770 ?
problems carrying equal marks i.e. 10 (a) Rs. 610
arithmetic, 30 Algebra and 30 (b) Rs. 620
geometry. Although she answered 70% (c) Rs. 630
of the arithmetic, 40 % of algebra and (d) Rs. 640
60% of the geometry problems
correctly, she did not pass the test 2016 - Key and Explanation
because she got less than 60% marks. 1. Answer: B
The number of more questions she Explanation: Let every question = 1
would have to answer correctly to earn mark.
a 60% passing marks is: Total marks = 70
(a) 1 Passing marks = 60 % of 70 = 42
(b) 5 Anitha ensured 70% of anikhematic (102)
(c) 7 =7
(d) 9 40 % of algebra = 12
60 % of Geometry = 18
2. The monthly average salary paid to all ⇒ 7 + 12 + 18 = 37 marks + 5 – pass mark
the employees of a company was Rs. (42)
5000. The monthly average salary paid Marks for passing
to male and female employees was Rs.
5200 and Rs. 4200 respectively. Then 2. Answer: B
the percentage of males employed in Explanation: Total male = M;
the company is Female = F
5 3
64
(a) 75 % Male salary = 5200 M
6

(b) 80 % Female salary = 4200 F

86

(c) 85 % 5200 M + 4200 F = 5000 M + 5000 F

71

(d) 90 % 200 M = 800 F

r-9

M = 4F
ie

3. Two members X and Y are respectively 4F

op

% of males employed = × 100 ⇒ 80%

20% and 28% less than a third number 5F
ec

Z. By what percentage is the number Y

kl
ar

less than the number X ? 3. Answer: B

Sp

(a) 12 % Explanation:
(b) 10 % 10 Let third number = 100
(c) 9% ⇒ x = 80 ; y = 70
(d) 8% 80 − 72
% of y less than x = × 100
80
8
4. A person allows a 10% discount for = × 100
80
cash payment from the marked price
= 10%
of a toy and still he makes a 10 %

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

4. Answer: C 3. The proportion of expenditure on

Explanation: MP = 770/- CP = x various item by two families A and B
Discount = 10 % of MP are represented in the following Bar
10 Charts :
= × 770 = 77 / −
100
Price after D = 770 – 77 = 693
10
693 – x = of x ⇒ 693 − x = 0.1x
100
⇒ 1.1x = 693 ⇒ x = 630
90
SP after ‘D’ ⇒ × 7700 = 693
100
CP after 10% gain
100 90
= × × 770 = 630 / − Total expenditure Total expenditure
110 100
Rs. 20,0000 Rs. 1,00,000
From these charts, we can conclude
2015
that
1. An automobile owner reduced his
(a) Family A spent more money on food than
monthly petrol consumption when the
family B
prices went up. The price-
(b) Family B spent more money on food than
consumption relationship is as
family A
follows:
(c) Family A and Family B spent the same
Price (in Rs. Per litre) 40,50,60,75
amount on food
Monthly consumption (in. L)
(d) The expenditure on food by family A and
60,48,40,32
family B cannot be compared.
If the price goes up to Rs. 80 per litre,
his expected consumption (in litres)
4. A cow costs more than 4 goats but less
will be :
than 5 goats. If a goat costs between
(a) 30
Rs. 600 and Rs. 800, which of the
(b) 28
following is a most valid conclusion?
(c) 26
(a) A cow costs more than Rs. 2,500
(d) 24
(b) A cow costs less than Rs. 3,600
(c) A cow costs between Rs. 2,600 and
2. In a test, a candidate attempted only 8
Rs. 3,800
questions and secured 50% marks in
(d) A cow costs between Rs. 2,400 and
each of the questions. If he obtained a
Rs. 4,000
total of 40% in the test and all
questions in the test carried equal
marks, how many questions were 5. Candidates in a competitive
there in the test? examination consisted of 60% men
(a) 8 and 40% women. 70% men and 75%
(b) 10 women cleared the qualifying test and
(c) 15 entered the final test where 80% men
(d) 16 and 70% women were successful.

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

Which of the following statements is 5. Answer: C

correct? Explanation: Assume = 100
(a) Success rate is higher for women Men women
(b) Overall success rate is below 50% ↓ 60% ↓ 40%
(c) More men cleared the examination than 60 40
women.
↓ 70% ↓ 75%
(d) Both (a) and (b) above are correct.
42 30
↓ 80% ↓ 70%
2015 - Key and Explanation
33 21
1. Answer: A
Men cleared more than women.
Explanation: Total expenditure = 2400
Price increasing 80 / litre
2400
Consumption increase = = 30 / litre 2014
80
1. If Sohan, while selling two goats at the
2. Answer: B same price, makes a profit of 10% on
Explanation: Each question – x marks. one goat and suffers a loss of 10 % on
50 the other
⇒ 8x × ⇒ 40
100 (a) He makes no profit and no loss
40
x= ⇒ 10 (b) He makes a profit of 1%
4
100 (c) He suffers a loss of 1%
No of questions = = 10
10 (d) He suffers a loss of 2%

3. Answer: C 2.
5 3
Out of a total of 120 musicians in a
64

Explanation: club, 5% can play all the three

6
86

A B instruments, guitar, violin and flute. It

71

Food 10000 10000 so happens that the number of

r-9

Other 6000 60000 musicians who can play any two and
ie

Education 4000 30000 only two of the above instruments is

op

30. The number of musicians who can

ec

4. Answer: D play the guitar alone is 40. What is the

kl

Explanation: Cost of goat = g

ar

total number of those who can play

4g < cow < 5g
Sp

violin alone or flute alone?

g = 600
(a) 49
2400 < C < 3000
g = 800 (b) 44
(c) 38
3200 < Cow < 4000
(d) 30
∴ Cow costs between 2400 to 4000

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

3. The following table gives population 2. Answer: B

and total income of a city for four Explanation:
years. 49
Year 1992 1993 1994 1995
Population
20 21 22 23
In lakhs
Income
Increases 1010 1111 1225 1345
crores (Rs.)
Which one of the following statements
40 + 6 + a + b + c + d + e = 120
is correct in respect of the above
a + b + c = 30
data?
(a) Population increased by 5% or more
every year.
(b) Income increased by 10% or more every
3. Answer: C
year. income
(c) Per capita income was always above Rs. Explanation: pci = => 7500
population
5000
dividing whole period.
(d) Per capita income was highest in 1994

4. Answer: C
4. A and B decide to travel from place X
⎛ 100 ⎞
to place Y by bus. A has Rs. 10 with Explanation: ⎜ ⎟ × 10 = 12.5
⎝ 80 ⎠
him and he finds that it is 80 % of the
for 2 persons.
bus fare for two persons. B finds that
after buying 2 tickets, A = 10 + 3 − 12.5
he has Rs. 3 with him and hands it
1
over to A. In this context, which one = rupee
2
of the following statements is correct?
(a) Now the money A has is just enough to
2013
buy two tickets.
(b) A still needs Rs. 2 for buying the tickets. Direction for the following questions.
(c) After buying the two tickets A will be left Study the two figures given below and answer
with 50 paise. the questions.
(d) The money A now has is still not
sufficient to buy two tickets.

2014 - Key and Explanation

1. Answer: C
Explanation:
cp1 = 100 cp2 = 100 cp1,2 = 200
sp1 = 110 sp2 = 90 sp1,2 = 1% loss

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

2013 - Key and Explanation

1. Answer: C
Explanation:
4M + 6F ⇒ 10 Psychology teachers.
6
⇒ × 100 = 60%
10
Figure 1: Number of Professors in
selected disciplines in a University by 2. Answer: A
sex. Explanation: Same as 1N DI.
Figure 2: Age of Physics Professors
3. Answer: B
1. What percentage of all Psychlology 2% = 4(Male Prof.) +6(Female Prof.)=10
professors are females? 100% = 10 × 50 = 500
(a) 40 %
(b) 50 % 2011
(c) 60 %
1. There are 100 students in a particular
(d) 70 %
class. 60% students play cricket, 30%
student play football and 10% student
2. If the number of female Physics
play both the games. What is the
professors in the age group 25 – 34
number of students who play neither
equals 25% of all the Physics
cricket nor football?
professors in that age group, then
(a) 25
what is the number of male Physics
(b) 20
professors in the age group 25 -34 ?
(c) 18
53
64
(a) 9
(d) 15
6

(b) 6
86

(c) 3
71

2. In a group of persons, 70% of the

(d) 2
r-9

persons are male and 30% of the

persons are married. If two sevenths of
ie

3. If the Psychology professors in the

op

males are married, what fraction of the

University constitute 2% of all the
ec

females is single?
professors in the university, then what
kl

(a) 2/7
ar

is the number of professors in the

(b) 1/3
Sp

university ?
(c) 3/7
(a) 300
(d) 2/3
(b) 500
(c) 600 Read the following passage and answer the 3
(d) 700 (three) items that follow:
In a survey regarding a proposed measure to be
introduced, 2878 persons took part of which
1652 were males. 1226 persons voted against
the proposal of which 796 were males. 1425

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

persons voted for the proposal. 196 females were 3. Answer: (B)
undecided. Explanation : Total number of males =
1652. Hence the number of females =
3. How many females voted for the 1226.
proposal? Given 796 males voted against the
(a) 430 proposal out of 1226. Therefore 430
(b) 600 females voted against the proposal. We
(c) 624 also know 196 females were undecided.
(d) 640 Therefore, the number of females who
voted for the proposal = 1226 – 430 – 196
4. How many males were undecided ? = 600.
(a) 31
(b) 227 4. Answer: (A)
(c) 426 Explanation : 1425 people voted for the
(d) 581 proposal. Hence the number of males who
voted for the proposal = 1425 – 600 = 825.
5. How many females were not in favour Therefore the number of males who were
the proposal ? undecided = 1652 – 825 – 796 = 31
(a) 430
(b) 496 5. Answer: (A)
(c) 586 Explanation : Clear from the equations
(d) 1226 above.

2011 - Key and Explanation

1. Answer : (b) 9. Pipes and Cisterns
Explanation : If 60% play cricket, and
30% play football then total percentage
that plays both = 60 + 30 = 90% 2015
But out of these, 10% that play both need 1. Two pipes A and B can independently
to be subtracted as they are counted twice. fill a tank completely in 20 and 30
So, 80% play both. Those who play neither minutes respectively. If both the pipes
will be 100-80 = 20%. are opened simultaneously, how much
time will they take to fill the tank
2. Answer: (d) completely ?
Explanation : 70% males, so 30% (a) 10 minutes
females. (b) 12 minutes
If 2/7th of males are married, this means (c) 15 minutes
2/7 (70 %) = 20% males are married. So, (d) 25 minutes
10% females are married (out of 30% total
married). So, single females will be 20%
out of total 30% females. The fraction is
2/3.

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

2015 - Key and Explanation So, they need 15 days to complete the
1. Answer: B whole work.
Explanation: Hence, so the time needed to complete
A B 40% of the work = 40% of 15 = 6 days
20 30 Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
ab 20 × 30
Direct formula ⇒
a +b 20 + 30 2016
20 × 30
⇒ = 12 min. 1. There are five hobby clubs in a college
50
… photography, yachting, chess,
electronics and gardening. The
gardening group meets every second
10. Time and Work
day, the electronics group meets every
third day, the chess group meets every
fourth day, the yachting group meets
2020
every fifth day and the photography
1. A person x can complete 20% of group meets do all the five groups
work in 8 days and another meet on the same day within 180
person Y can complete 25% of days?
the same work in 6 days. If they (a) 5
work together, in how many days (b) 18
will 40% of the work by (c) 10
completed? (d) 3
(a) 6
(b) 8 2.
53
There is an order of 19000 quantity of
64
(c) 10 a particular product from a customer.
6

(d) 12 The firm produces 1000 quantity of

86

that product per day out of which 5%

71

2020 - Key and Explanation are unfit for sale. In how many days
r-9

1. Answer: A will the order be completed?

ie

(a) 18
op

Explanation:
(b) 19
ec

X can complete 20% of work in 8 days.

(c) 20
kl

So, he will complete 100% work in 40

ar

days. (d) 22
Sp

Similarly, Y can complete 25% of work in

6 days. 3. A class starts at 11.00 am and lasts till
So, he will complete 100% work in 24 2.27pm. Four periods of equal
days. duration are held during this interval.
In 1 day the amount of work they will After every period, a rest of 5 minutes
complete while working together is given to the students. The exact
= 1/40 + 1/24 = (3 + 5)/120 = 8/120 = duration of each period is :
1/15

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

(a) 48 minutes 6. W can do 25% of a work in 30 days, X

(b) 50 minutes can do ¼ of the work in 10 days, Y can
(c) 51 minutes do 40% of the work in 40 days and Z
(d) 53 minutes can do 1/3 of the work in 13 days.
Who will complete the work first ?
4. Four friends A, B, C and D need to (a) W
cross a bridge. A maximum of two (b) X
persons can cross it at a time. It is (c) Y
night and they just have one lamp. (d) Z
Persons that cross the bridge must
carry the lamp to find the way. A pair 2016 - Key and Explanation
must walk together at the speed of 1. Answer: D
slower person. After crossing the Explanation: Gardening – 90 times in
bridge, the person having faster speed 180 days.
in the pair will return with the lamp Electronics – 60 times
each time to accompany another Chess – 45 times.
person in the group. Finally, the lamp Yacting – 36 times.
has to be returned at the original Photo graphy – 30 times.
place and the person who returns the HCF (30,36,45,60,90) = 3 times.
lamp has to cross the bridge, the time
taken by them is as follows : A : 1 2. Answer: C
minutes, B : 2 minutes, C : 7 minutes Explanation: If quantity
and D : 10 minutes. What is the total 5
= 1000 × = 1000 − 50 = 950 to go.
minimum time required by all the 100
friends to cross the bridge? Total = 19000 ⇒ 950 / day
(a) 23 minutes 19000
⇒ = 20days
(b) 22 minutes 950
(c) 21 minutes
(d) 20 minutes 3. Answer: A
Explanation: 11.00 am – 2.27 pm
5. Ram and Shyam work on a job ( 3 × 60 ) + 27 min utes ⇒ 180 + 27 = 207 min.
together for four days and complete Four periods = 3 breaks
60% of it. Ram takes leave then and = 3×5
Shyam works for eight more days to = 15 min.
complete the job. How long would Ram 207 − 15 = 192 min. − effective class time
take to complete the entire job alone? 192
⇒ = 48 times.
(a) 6 days 4
(b) 8 days
(c) 10 days 4. Answer: A
(d) 11 days Explanation:
A + B = 2 min+ 1return min. = 3 min.
A + C = 7 + 1 = 8 min.

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

A + D = 10 + 1 = 11min. 2014 - Key and Explanation

A = 1min.
1. Answer: B
⇒ 3 + 8 + 11 + 1
Explanation:
⇒ 23 min.
2 6,7,8,9,12
2 3,7,4,9,6
5. Answer: C 2 3,7,2,9,3
Explanation: 3 3,7,1,9,3
R + S − 60% work – 4 days.
1,7,1,3
1 1 60 1 3 ⇒ 2 × 2 × 2 × 3 × 7 × 3 sec
R + S / day ⇒ + = × =
R S 100 4 20
1 hr. = 3600 sec
40 % remaining is done by ‘S’ in 8 days. 3600 50 1
8 ⇒ = = 7 = 7times.
100 % by shyam = = × 100 = 20 2×2×2×3×7×3 7 7
40
1 1 3 1 3 1 2 1
+ = ⇒ = − = = 2013 - Key and Explanation
R 20 20 R 20 20 20 10
∴R = 10days 1. Consider the following diagrams :
x men, working at constant speed, do
6. Answer: D a certain job in y days. Which one of
Explanation: these diagrams shows the relation
W = 25 % of work in 30 days. between x and y ?
= 100 % in 30 x 4 = 120 days.
1
x= in 10 days ⇒ whole work = 40
4
days.
y = 40% in 40 days. 5 3
64
= 100% in 100 days.
6

1
86

z = × 13 days ⇒
3
71

whole work = 39 days…….’Z’

r-9

Z will finish fast.

ie
op

2014
ec

(a) Diagram I
kl

1. Five persons fire bullets at a target at (b) Diagram II

ar

an interval of 6,7,8,9 and 12 seconds (c) Diagram III

Sp

respectively. The number of times (d) Diagram IV

they would fire the bullets together at
the target in an hour is 2. In a garrison, there was food for 1000
(a) 6 soldiers for one month. After 10 days,
(b) 7 1000 more soldiers joined the
(c) 8 garrison. How long would the soldiers
(d) 9 be able to carry on with the remaining
food?

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

(a) 25 days 25
⇒ 20 × ⇒ 20 + 5 = 25
(b) 20 days 100
(c) 15 days 200
= 8 days
(d) 10 days 25

3. The tank – full petrol in Arun’s motor- 2012

cycle lasts for 10 days. If he starts 1. Mr. Kumar drives to work at an
using 25% more everyday, how many average speed of 48km/hr. The time
days will the tank – full petrol last ? taken to cover the first 60% of the
(a) 5 distance is 10 minutes more than the
(b) 6 time taken to cover the remaining
(c) 7 distance. How far is his office?
(d) 8 (a) 30km
(b) 40km
2013 - Key and Explanation (c) 45km
1. Answer: D (d) 48km
Explanation: It is clear that, less
members of men, more days of work & 2012 - Key and Explanation
vice – versa. 1. Answer: (B)
Hence, diagram D is correct. Explanation : Let the distance be N.
First 60% distance is covered in 10 more
minutes more time than that of the rest
40% distance
So, 0.6 × N distance is covered in 10
more minutes more than that of the rest
0.4 × N distance
Which means 0.2 × N is covered in 10
2. Answer: D
minutes i.e., 1/6 hr
Explanation: 1000 soldiers – 30 days.
Hence, Average speed = distance/time =
Tectrinically after 10 days, the food left
0.2 × N /(1/6) = 48
would be sufficient for 1000 soldiers to
⇒ x = 48/6 × 0.2 = 40 km
sustain for 20 more days.
But 1000 more soldiers are added,
2011
therefore the sufficiency would be
decreased by half. 1. A contract on construction job specifies
= 10 days. a penalty for delay in completion of the
work beyond a certain date is as
3. Answer: D follows: Rs. 200 for the first day, Rs.
Explanation: For example, Arun travels 250 for the second day, Rs. 300 for the
20 km a day 20 × 10 = 200 litres − fuel third day etc., the penalty for each
tank capacity. succeeding day being 50 more than that
25% more usage of the preceding day. How much

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

penalty should the contractor pay if he (c) lies between 2v and 3v km/hr
delays the work by 10 days ? (d) lies between 3v and 4v km/hr
(a) Rs. 4950
(b) Rs. 4250 2. A man takes half time in rowing a
(c) Rs. 3600 certain distance downstream than
(d) Rs. 650 upstream. What is the ratio of the
speed in still water to the speed of
2011 current?
1. Answer : (b) (a) 1:2
Explanation : The penalty for delay on (b) 2:1
first day is 200, for second day is 250, for (c) 1:3
third day is 300 and so on. (d) 3:1
The penalties form an arithmetic
progression (AP) with a common difference 2020 - Key and Explanation
of 50 and first element (a) as 200.
1. Answer: B
The sum of penalties for 10 days is thus
Explanation:
same as the sum of numbers in the A.P.
Let the distance between X and Y be 12
with n as 10.
km and v = 1 km/hr.
Sum of AP (formula)
Time taken in 1st journey =
n Distance/Speed
= ⎡2a + (n − 1) d ⎤⎦
2⎣ = 12/v = 12/1 = 12 hrs
10 Time taken in 2nd journey = 12/2v =
= ⎡2 × 200 + (10 − 1) × 50 ⎤⎦
2 ⎣ 12/2 = 6 hrs 5 3
Time taken in 3rd Journey
64
= 4250
= 12/3v = 12/3 = 4 hrs
6
86

Time taken in 4th Journey

71

= 12/4v = 12/4 = 3 hrs

r-9

11. Time and Distance Now, total distance = 12 × 4 = 48 kms

ie

Average Speed = Total Distance/Total

op

Time = 48 / (12 + 6 + 4 + 3) = 48/25 (this

2020
ec

value lies between 1 and 2)

kl

1. A car travels from a place X to place Y So, the average speed of the car for the
ar

at an average speed of V km/hr, from entire journey lies between v and 2v.
Sp

Y to X at an average speed of 2v Hence option (b) is the correct answer

km/hr, again from X to Y at an
average speed of 3v km/hr and again 2. Answer: D
from Y to X at an average speed of 4v Explanation:
km/hr. Then the average speed of the Method I:
car for the entire journey Let the speed of man in still water be x
(a) is less than v km/hr and the speed of current be y.
(b) lies between v and 2v km/hr Let the total distance be D.

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

So, Downstream speed = x + y 2019 - Key and Explanation

And Upstream speed = x – y 1. Answer: B
According to the question, Explanation:
Time taken in rowing upstream 12
12km = 0.8R ⇒ R = = 15
= 2 × Time taken in rowing downstream 0.8
Or D/(x – y) = 2 × [D/(x + y)]
Or x + y = 2x – 2y 2. Answer: B
Or x = 3y Explanation:
∴x:y=3:1 x − y = 40m start
Hence, option (d) the correct answer. x − z = 64 m start
Method II: y − lead = 1000 − 40 = 960 race
If time taken half, then the speed must 24
y= × 1000 = 25m
be double, as the distance is constant. 960
So, x + y = 2(x – y)
Or x = 3y 71 2017
∴x:y=3:1
1. A freight train left Delhi for Mumbai at
Hence, option (d) the correct answer.
an average speed of 40 km/hr. Two
hours later, an express train left Delhi
2019 - Key and Explanation for Mumbail, following the freight
train on a parallel track at an average
1. When a runner crossing the 12 km
speed of 60 km/hr. How far from Delhi
mark, she was informed that she had
would the express train meet the
completed only 80%of the race. How
freight train?
many kilometers was the runner
(a) 480 km
supposed to run in this event?
(b) 260 km
(a) 14
(c) 240 km
(b) 15
(d) 120 km
(c) 16
(d) 16.5
2. Two persons, A and B are running on a
circular track. At the start, B is ahead
2. X, Y and Z are three contestants in a
of A and their positions make an angle
race of 1000 m. Assume that all run
of 300 at the centre of the circle.
with different uniform speeds. X gives
When A reaches the point
Y a start of 40 m and X gives Z a start
diametrically opposite to his starting
of 64 m. If Y and Z were to compete in
point, he meets B. What is the ratio of
a race of 1000 m, how many meters
speeds of A and B, if they are running
start will Y give to Z ?
with uniform speeds ?
(a) 20
(a) 6:5
(b) 25
(b) 4:3
(c) 30
(c) 6:1
(d) 35
(d) 4:2

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

2017 - Key and Explanation (a) 40 m

1. Answer: C (b) 50 m
Explanation: Average speed of (c) 75 m
frieghttrian = 40 kmph. (d) 150 m
Travelled for 2 hrs. = 80 kms.
Speed of express train = 60 kmph. 2016 - Key and Explanation
Relative speed = 20 kmph. 1. Answer: A
80 km with velocity speed by 20 Explanation: Length of the track = D
80 Speed of A = 2 radius per hour = 1 round
kmph = = 4hrs.
20 = 3 kmph.
Actual distance = 4 × 60 = 240 km. D
⇒
30
2. Answer: A D
B ⇒ 3 rounds per hour ⇒
180 6 20
Explanation: =
150 5 Relative speed = addition
D D 20 × 30 × 0
Time = ⇒ =
2016 RS ⎡ D D ⎤ 200 + 30D
⎢ 30 + 20 ⎥
⎣ ⎦
1. A and B walk around a circular park.
20 × 30 × D
They start at 8 am. From the same =
50 D
point in the opposite directions. A and
= 12 min.
B walk at a speed of 2 rounds per hour
8.00 → 9.30am ⇒ 90 min.
and 3 rounds per hour respectively.
90
How many times shall they cross each ⇒ = 7.5times.
12
other after 8.00 am and before 9.30
2. Answer: D
5 3
64
am. Explanation: 2 ( 5 + 8 + 11 + 14 + 17 + 20 )
6

(a) 7
86

= 2 × 75 = 150 m.
(b) 6
71

(c) 5
r-9

2015
(d) 8
ie

1. In a 500 meters race, B starts 45

op

2. In a race, a competitor has to collect 6 meters ahead of A, but A wins the race
ec

apples which are kept in a straight while B is still 35 meters behind. What
kl
ar

line on a track and a bucket is placed is the ratio of the speeds of A and B
Sp

at the beginning of the track which is assuming that both start at the same
starting point. The condition is that time ?
the competitor can pick only one (a) 25 : 21
apple at a time, run back with it and (b) 25 : 20
drop it in the bucket, how much total
(c) 5:3
distance he has to run if the bucket is
(d) 5:7
5 meters from the first apple and all
other apples are placed 3 meters
apart?

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

2. Two cities A and B are 360 km apart. A 2. Two cars start towards each other,
car goes from A to B with a speed of from two places A and B which are at a
40 km/hr and returns to A with a distance of 160 km. They start at the
speed of 60 km/hr. What is the same time 08 : 10 AM. If the speeds of
average speed of the car ? the cars are 50 km and 30 km per
(a) 45 km/hr hour respectively, they will meet each
(b) 48 km/hr other at
(c) 50 km/hr (a) 10 : 10 AM
(d) 55 km/hr (b) 10 : 30 AM
(c) 11 : 10 AM
2015 - Key and Explanation (d) 10 : 20 AM
1. Answer: A
Explanation: Same problem as in Ratio 2014 - Key and Explanation
& proportion. 1. Answer: C
Explanation: Assume original time = ‘t’
2. Answer: B ⎛ 3 ⎞ ⎛ 7 ⎞ 57
5 ⎜t + ⎟ = 6 ⎜t − ⎟ ⇒t = hrs.
D ⎝ 60 ⎠ ⎝ 60 ⎠ 60
Explanation: D = TS ⇒ =T
S ⎛ 57 3 ⎞
360 360 D = 5⎜ + ⎟ = 5hrs.
⇒ + =T ⎝ 60 60 ⎠
40 60
⇒ 9 + 6 = 15hrs.
2. Answer: A
⇒ D = 360
Explanation: Travelling in opposite –
D 360
=S ⇒ =S relative speed odds up.
T 18
S A + S B = 50 + 30 = 80kmph
⇒ S = 24kmph
D = 160km
160
2014 ⇒ 2hrs.
80
1. A worker reaches his factory 3 8.10 am – 10.10 am.
minutes late if his speed from his
house to the factory is 5 km/hr. If he 2013
walks at a speed of 6 km/hr. then he
1. A thief running at 8 km/hr is chased
reaches the factory 7 minutes early.
by a policeman whose speed is 10
The distance of the factory from his
km/hr. If the thief is 100 m ahead of
house is
the policeman, then the time required
(a) 3 km
for the policeman to catch the thief
(b) 4 km
will be
(c) 5 km
(a) 2 min
(d) 6 km
(b) 3 min
(c) 4 min
(d) 6 min

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

2. Four cars are hired at the rate of Rs. 6 2120

110 = 2120 ⇒ D = = 192.7km
per km plus the cost of diesel at Rs. 11
192.7
40 a litre. In this context, consider Average speed of A = = 9.6kmph
20
the details given in the following
D
table: B= × 40 ⇒ 40 + 60
10
1950
⇒ 100 = 1950 ⇒ ⇒ 195
10
195 39
SB ⇒ = = 7.4
28 5
D
C = × 40 same process D − same
9
Which car maintained the maximum process. Assume is A.
average speed?
(a) Car A (b) Car B 3. Answer: A
(c) Car C (d) Car D Explanation:
Walk + Walk = 10 hrs.
3. A person can walk a certain distance 1 walk = 5 hrs.
and drive back in six hrs. He can also 1 walk + 1 car = 6 hrs.
walk both ways in 10 hrs. How much 1 car = 1 hrs.
time will he take to drive both ways? 2 car = 2 hrs.
(a) Two hours
(b) Two and a half hours 2011
(c) Five and a half hours 1. If a bus travels 160 km in 4 hours and a
(d) Four hours 5 3
train travels 320 km in 5 hours at
64
uniform speeds, then what is the ratio
6

2013 - Key and Explanation

86

of the distances travelled by them in

71

1. Answer: B one hour?

(a) 8:5
r-9

Explanation:
ST = 8 kmph. Assume – time = 1 hr. (b) 5:8
ie
op

SP = 10 kmph. D = 1 km = 1000 m. (c) 4:5

ec

D = 1km = 1000m (d) 1:2

kl

SP = 1000 m – 60 mins.
ar

100 m - ? 2011 - Key and Explanation

Sp

60
100 × ⇒ 6 min. 1. Answer : (b)
1000
Explanation : Take the ratio of both the
Relative speed = 10-8 = 2 kmph.
speeds. First bus = 40 kmph, so 40 Kms in
⇒ 3 mins.
one hour. Second bus = 64 kmph, so 64
2. Answer: A
kms in one hour.
Explanation:
Assume distance … D Ratio = 40:64 = 5:8
D D
Disel = ⇒ diselcont. ⇒ × 40 ⇒ 50
8 8

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

62 72
+ =3
12. Problems on Trains S 6+S
Go by option → 63 − 7 and 5
In options 42 is the only one which goes
2018 with 7
63 72 9 8 3 3 3
1. A train 200 metres long is moving at ⇒ + ⇒ + ⇒ + ⇒ 2× ⇒ 3
42 48 6 4 2 2 2
the rate of 40 kmph. In how many
Hence satisfied.
seconds will it cross a man standing
near the railway line?
(a) 12
13. Alligation or Mixture
(b) 15
(c) 16
(d) 18
2017
1. There is a milk sample with 50% water
2018 - Key and Explanation
in it. If 1/3rd of this milk is added to
1. Answer: D
equal amount of pure milk, then water
Explanation:
in the new mixture will fall down to :
5 100
D = 200 ; S = 40kmph ⇒ 40 × = (a) 25%
18 9
100 9 (b) 30%
D = TS ⇒ 200 = T × ⇒ 200 × =T (c) 35%
9 100
⇒ T = 9 + 2 = 18 seconds. (d) 40%

2013 2017 - Key and Explanation

1. A train travels at a certain average 1. Answer: A

speed for a distance of 63 km and Explanation:
then travels a distance of 72 km at an Original 18 litres (9 milk + 9 water)
1
average speed of 6 km/hr more than ⇒ 18 × ⇒ 6litre. (3milk + 3 water)
3
its original speed. If it takes 3 hours
Pure milk 18 litres (18 milk + 0 water)
to complete the total journey, what is
+ 3 milk +3 water
the original speed of the train in
New mixture = 24 litre (21 milk + 3 water)
km/hr?
⇒ 25%
(a) 24
(b) 33
2016
(c) 42
(d) 66 1. 30 g of sugar was mixed in 180 ml
water in a vessel A, 40 g of sugar was
2013 - Key and Explanation mixed in 280 ml of water in vessel B
and 20 g of sugar was mixed in 100 ml
1. Answer: C
of water in vessel C. The solution in
Explanation: Let the speed = ‘S’
vessel B is :

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

(a) Sweeter than that in C 2018 - Key and Explanation

(b) Sweeter than that in A 1. Answer: D
(c) As sweet as that in C
(d) Less sweet than that in C Explanation: Interest in first year
12.5
= 22800 × ⇒ 2850
2016 - Key and Explanation 100

1. Answer: D End of I Year = 22800 + 2850 = 25650

Explanation: Payment mode for first year
V A = 180ml = 30g
⇒ 25650 − 8650 = 17000
100 × 30 50
⇒ ⇒ ⇒ 16.67
180 3 12.5
17000 × = 2125
VB = 280ml = 40g 100
100 × 40 100 ⇒ 17000 + 2125 = 19125
⇒ ⇒ ⇒ 14.2
280 7 12.5
10000 + 10000 ×
VE = 100ml − 20g ⇒ 20 100
⇒ 1250 ⇒ 10000 + 1250 = 11250 / −
Proportionately ⇒ In 100ml water of
each vessel contains highest amount of
sugar ⇒ B less sweet than that in C 2014
1. As per agreement with a bank, a
businessman had to refund a loan in
some equal instalments without
14. Simple Interest, interest. After paying 18 instalments
Compound Interest
3
he found that 60 percent of his loan
5
64
was refunded. How many instalments
6

were there in the agreement?

86

2018 (a) 22
71

1. A person bought a refrigerator worth (b) 24

r-9

Rs. 22800 with 12.5% interest (c) 30

ie

(d) 33
op

compounded yearly. At the end of first

ec

year he paid Rs. 8650 and at the end

2014 - Key and Explanation
kl

of second year Rs. 9125. How much

ar

1. Answer: C
will he have to pay at the end of third
Sp

Explanation:
year to clear the debt? 60% of the loan = 18 instalments.
(a) Rs. 9990 100% of loan
(b) Rs. 10000 18 100
= × = 3 × 10 = 30 instalments.
(c) Rs. 10590 3 60

(d) Rs. 11250

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

Days between 15th July and 12th

15. Calendar and Clocks January
= (31 – 11) + 28 + 31 + 30 + 31 + 30 + 14
= 184
2020 (we need to count either the first day or
1. In the particular year 12th January is the last day, not both. Here we have
a Sunday, then which one of the counted the first day and excluded the
following is correct? last).
(a) 15th July is a Sunday if the year is a leap Odd days = Remainder (184/7) = 2
year. So, day on 15th July if that year is a non-
(b) 15th July is a Sunday if the year is not a leap year = Sunday + 2 = Tuesday
leap year. If it was a leap year than we need to take
(c) 12th July is Sunday if the year is a leap into account one extra day in the month
year. of February, i.e. 29th February.
(d) 12th July is a not Sunday if the year is a So, day on 15th July if that year is a leap
leap year. year = Sunday + 3 = Wednesday
Similarly, the day on 12th July (non-leap
2. Consider the following data: year) = Day on 15th July – 3 = Tuesday –
Year Birth rate Death rate 3 = Saturday
1911-1921 48.1 35.5 The day on 12th July (leap year) = Day on
15th July – 3 = Wednesday – 3 = Sunday
1921-1931 46.4 36.3
Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
1931-1941 45.2 31.2
Method II:
1941-1951 39.9 27.4 Let’s just count the odd days.
1951-1961 41.7 22.8 Odd days in January = Remainder
1961-1971 41.1 18.9 [(31 – 11)/7] = Remainder (20/7) = 6
1971-1981 37.1 14.8 Odd days in February = 0 (if non-leap
year), 1
For which period was the natural growth rate
(if leap year)
maximum?
Odd days in March = 3
(a) 1911-1921
Odd days in April = 2
(b) 1941-1951
Odd days in May = 3
(c) 1961-1971
Odd days in June = 2
(d) 1971-1981
So, number of odd days till June end in a
non-leap year = 6 + 0 + 3 + 2 + 3 + 2 = 16
2020 - Key and Explanation
=2
1. Answer: C So, number of odd days till June end in a
Explanation: leap year = 6 + 1 + 3 + 2 + 3 + 2 = 17 = 3
Method I: July 12 means 11/7, i.e. 4 more odd
12th January – Sunday days.
If it is not a leap year than: July 15 means 14/7, i.e. 0 more odd
days.

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

So, day on July 12th (non-leap year): 2. A wall clock moves 10 minutes fast in
Sunday + 2 + 4 = Saturday every 24 hours. The clock was set
And, day on July 12th (leap year): right to show the correct time at 8.00
Sunday + 3 + 4 = Sunday am. on Monday. When the clock shows
Hence option (c) is the correct answer. the time 6.00 pm. On Wednesday,
what is the correct time ?
2. Answer: D (a) 5 : 36 pm
Explanation: (b) 5 : 30 pm
We know that, Natural growth rate (c) 5 : 24 pm
= Birth rate – Death rate (d) 5 : 18 pm
Considering the given years in the
options: 3. Which year has the same calendar as
Natural growth rate in the period 1911- that of 2009?
1921 (a) 2018
= 48.1 – 35.5 = 12.6 (b) 2017
Natural growth rate in the period 1941- (c) 2016
1951 (d) 2015
= 39.9 – 27.4 = 12.5
Natural growth rate in the period 1961- 2019 - Key and Explanation
1971 1. Answer: B
= 41.1 – 18.9 = 22.2 Explanation:
Natural growth rate in the period 1971- Nov – 30 days. ⇒ 7 × 4 = 28 days.
1981 ⇒ 2days − 2weeks Repeats.
= 37.1 – 14.8 = 22.3 5
29/30 Nov – Thursday 3
64
Hence, we can say that, for the period If 29 Nov is Thu, 20 Dec will also be Thu
6

1971-1981, natural growth rate was the If 30 Nov is Thu, 20 Dec will be Wed
86

maximum. As per the options, the correct is

71

Hence, the correct answer is option (d). Thursday.

r-9
ie

2019 2. Answer: A
op

1. Mr X has three children. The birthday Explanation:

ec

of the first child falls on the 5th Correct clock moves = 1440 min / day
kl
ar

Monday of April, that of the second 10 mins. Fast = 1450 mins / day.
Sp

one falls on the 5th Thursday of Incorrect clock = 58 hrs.

November. On which day is the Last clock – 1 min, normal clock
birthday of his third child, which falls 1440
= min.
on 20th December? 1450
(a) Monday Last clock moved = 58 × 60 = 3480 min.
(b) Thursday Normal clock = 3456 mins.
(c) Saturday 3456 573
3456 min. into hrs. = =
(d) Sunday 60 5

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

3. Answer: D at 5 o’clock, what is the time taken by

Explanation: it to strike at 10 o’clock
First day of the year – 2009 – (a) 20 seconds
Mon - 2010 - (b) 24 seconds
Tues - 2011 - (c) 28 seconds
Wed - 2012 - (d) 30 seconds
Thu - 2013 -
Sat (Leap Year) - 2014 - 2017 - Key and Explanation
Sun - 2015 - 1. Answer: B
Mon Explanation:
Smallest month = 28 = Feb (Non-leap)
2017 Max of 4 Sundays = 24
1. If second and fourth Saturdays and all 2nd& 3rd Saturday = 22
the Sundays are taken as only ∴ 22 days.
holidays for an office, what would be
the minimum number of possible 2. Answer: D
working days of any month of any year Explanation: C1 gain 2 mins. & C2 loses
? 2 mins.
(a) 23 Net difference = 4 mins 1 day.
(b) 22 These will be identical when the 4 minute
(c) 21 and difference becomes 24 hrs.
(d) 20 1440
24 × 60 = 1440 min. ⇒ = 360 days.
4
2. A watch loses 2 minutes in every 24
hours while another watch gains 2 3. Answer: C
minutes in every 24 hours. At a Explanation:
particular instant, the two watches 5’o clock = 12 seconds.
showed an identical time. Which of 4 intervals = 12 seconds
the following statements is correct if 1 interval = 3 seconds.
24 hour clock is followed ? 10’o clock = 9 intervals.
(a) The two watches show the identical time 9 intervals = 9 × 3 = 27 seconds.
again on completion of 30 days
(b) The two watches show the identical time 2015
again on completion of 90 days 1. Between 6 PM and 7 PM the minute
(c) The two watches show the identical time hand of a clock will be ahead of the
again on completion of 120 days hour hand by 3 minutes at
(d) None of the above statements is correct. (a) 6 : 15 PM
(b) 6 : 18 PM
3. A clock strikes once at 1 o’clock, twice (c) 6 : 36 PM
at 2 o’clock and thrice 3 o’clock, and (d) 6 : 48 PM
so on. If it takes 12 seconds to strike

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

2015 - Key and Explanation 2014 - Key and Explanation

1. Answer: C 1. Answer: C
Explanation: Explanation: Same position will be
30h × 2 30 × 6 × 2 8 possible only after minutes hand gain
M = = ⇒ 32 min.
11 11 11 2
360o . It happens after 360 × min.
= 6.36 pm 11

2014 2. Answer: B
1. Assume that Explanation:
L.C.M. ⇒ 2 18,24,32
1. The hour and minute hands of a clock
move without jerking. 2 9,12,16
2. The clock shows a time between 8’0 clock 2 9,6,8
⇒ 2×2×2×2×2×3×3
and 9’o clock.
3. The two hands of the clock are one above 2 9,3,4 288
the other. 2 9,3,2 4 hrs. 48
After how many minutes (nearest mins.
integer) will the two hands be again 3 9,3,1 12 : 48
lying one above the other? 3 3,1,1
(a) 60 1,1,1
(b) 62
(c) 65 3. Answer: C
(d) 67 Explanation:
3rd day – Monday 5th day from 25th is
2. A bell rings 18 minutes. A second bell Wednesday 53
64
rings every 24 minutes. A third bell M – 3,10,17 24
6

T – 4,11,18 25
86

rings every 32 minutes. If all the three

W – 5,12,19 26
71

bells ring at the same time at 8

o’clock in the morning, at what other T – 6,13,20
r-9

time will they all ring together? F – 7,14,23

ie

S – 8,15,22
op

(a) 12 : 40 hrs.
S – 9,16,23
ec

(b) 12 : 48 hrs.
kl

(c) 12 : 56 hrs.
ar

(d) 13 : 04 hrs. 2013

Sp

1. There are five hobby clubs in a college.

3. If the 3rd day of a month is Monday, photography, yachting, chess,
which one of the following will be the electronics and gardening. The
fifth day from 21st of this month? gardening group meets every second
(a) Monday day, the electronics group meets every
(b) Tuesday third day, the chess group meets every
(c) Wednesday fourth day, the yachting group meets
(d) Friday every fifth day and the photography

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

group meets do all the five groups Number of ways to use three
meet on the same day within 180 denominations
days? = 5C3 = 5C2 = (5 × 4)/2 = 10
(a) 3 (these are 350, 650, 2150, 750, 2250,
(b) 5 2550, 800, 2300, 2600, 2700)
(c) 10 Hence, the number of different sums that
(d) 18 can be formed = 1 + 5 + 10 = 16
Hence, the correct answer is option (a).
2013 - Key and Explanation
1. Answer: A 2019
Explanation: Same as Previous problem.
1. Suppose you have sufficient amount of
rupee currency in three
denominations: Rs. 1, Rs. 10, Rs. 50.
16. Permutations and In how many different ways can you
Combinations pay a bill of Rs. 107 ?
(a) 16
2020 (b) 17
1. How many different sums can be (c) 18
formed with the denomination (d) 19
Rs. 50, Rs. 100, Rs. 200, Rs. 500,
and Rs. 2,000 taking at least 2019 - Key and Explanation
three denominations at a time? 1. Answer: C
(a) 16 Explanation: Case – I: We use two Rs. 50
(b) 15 notes – one possibility
(c) 14 −50 (×2) + 1 (×7 ) = 107
(d) 10 Case – II :We use one Rs. 50 note.
Six possibilities (by adding Rs. 10 note
2020 - Key and Explanation from one to five._
1. Answer: A 50 (×1) + 10 (×0 ) + 1 (×57 )
Explanation: = 107;50 (×1) + 10 (×1) + 1 ( 47 ) = 107
Number of denominations = 5 50 (×1) + 10 (×2 ) + 1 (×37 ) = 107 ;
Case I : Using all the 5 denominations 50 (×1) + 10 (×5 ) + 1 (×7 ) = 107
Number of ways = 1
Case – III : we use no Rs. 50 note (only
Case II : Using 4 denominations
Rs. 10 and Rs. 1 note) – Ten possibilities
Using 4 denominations means we need to
Case – IV : we use only Rs. 1 – one
leave out 1 of the denomination. possibility −1 (×107 ) = 107
Number of ways to leave out one of the
So, total 18 possibilities.
denomination = 5C1 = 5
(1 + 6 + 10 + 1)
(these are 2800, 2750, 2650, 2350, 850)
Case III : Using 3 denominations

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

2018 2018 - Key and Explanation

1. A bag contains 15 red balls and 20 1. Answer: B
black balls. Each ball is numbered Explanation: Probability of picking a
either 1 or 2 or 3. 20% of the red balls random ball is
are numbered 1 and 40% of them are Red – 15 / 35 {within the 15 red balls :
numbered 3. Similarly, among the Red with number 1 → 20 % of 15 →
black balls, 45% are numbered 2 and 3/15}
30% are numbered 3. A boy picks a Red with number 3 → 40 % of 15 = 6/15
ball at random. He wins if the ball is Black → 20/35 {within the 20 black
red and numbered 3 or if it is black balls : black with number 2 = 45 % of 20}
and numbered 1 or 2. What are the = 9/20, black with number 3 = 30% of 20
chances of his winning? = 6/20}
1 So, we have to find probability of red
(a)
2 balls with number 3 or black balls with
4 numbers 1 and 2 so probability is
(b)
7 ⎛ 15 6 ⎞ ⎛ 20 5 ⎞ ⎛ 20 9 ⎞ 4
5 ⎜ 35 × 15 ⎟ + ⎜ 35 × 20 ⎟ + ⎜ 35 × 20 ⎟ = 7
(c) ⎝ ⎠ ⎝ ⎠ ⎝ ⎠
9
12 2. Answer: A
(d) Explanation: The stand can be painted
13
in 6 x 5 x 4 = 120 ways in which no.
colour will be clashing.
2. For a sports meet, a winner’s stand
comprising three wooden blocks is in
the following form : 2017
1.
5 3
A bag contains 20 balls. 8 balls are
64

green, 7 are white and 5 are red. What

6
86

is the minimum number of balls that

71

must be picked up from the bag

r-9

blindfolded (without replacing any of

ie

it) to be assured of picking at least one

There are six different colours
op

ball of each colour?

available to choose from and each of
ec

(a) 17
the three wooden blocks is to be
kl

(b) 16
ar

painted such that no two of them has

(c) 13
Sp

the same colour. In how many

(d) 11
different ways can the winners’ stand
be painted?
2. If 2 boys and 2 girls are to be arranged
(a) 120
in a row so that the girls are not next
(b) 81
to each other, how many possible
(c) 66
arrangements are there ?
(d) 36
(a) 3 (b) 6
(c) 12 (d) 24

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

Directions for the following questions: 3. Answer: D

Consider the given information and Explanation: The following paths are
answer the items that follow: possible
Eight railway stations A, B, C, D, E, F, G F – D – E – C – A or F – D – H – G – C – A
and H are connected either by two – way or F – D – E – A or F – D – E – G – C – A
passages or one-way passages. One-way So there are 4 ways of going from F to A
passages are from C to A, E to G, B to F, without respectively a station.
D to H, G to C, E to C and H to G. Two –
way passages are between A and E, G 2015
and B, F and D, and E and D. 1. There are 5 tasks and 5 persons.
Tasks-1 cannot be assigned to either
3. In how many different ways can a train person-1 or person-2. Task -2 must be
travel from F to A without passing assigned to either person-3 or person-
through any station more than once? 4. Every person is to be assigned one
(a) 1 task. In how many ways can the
(b) 2 assignment be done ?
(c) 3 (a) 6
(d) 4 (b) 12
(c) 24
2017 - Key and Explanation (d) 144
1. Answer: B
Explanation: There are 8 green balls, 7 2. In a box of marbles, there are three
white balls & 5 red balls less white marbles than the red ones
8 G + 7 W + 5 R = 20 and five more white marbles than the
Now if we pick 8 +7 = 15 balls, there green ones. If there are a total of 10
remains a chance that 8/8 are green & white marbles, how many marbles are
7/7 are white, that is all 15 are green there in the box ?
and white but, if we pick 15 + 1 = 16 (a) 26
balls, there cannot be more than 15 balls (b) 28
that are green and white, so we will get (c) 32
atleast 1 red ball. So 16 is the answer (d) 36
when we are sure of picking at least on
ball of each colour. 2015 - Key and Explanation
1. Answer: C
2. Answer: C Explanation: Task -2 can be done by
Explanation: Simple seating question. persons 3 or 4 i.e. 2 ways.
Possible cases are GBBG – 4 cases (as Task – 1 can be done by persons 3,4 or 5
boys & Girls can exchange seats within i.e. 3 ways but one of the persons 3 or 4
the group making it 2 × 2 , BGBG – 4
have already done task – 2. So task – 1
cases, GBGB – 4 cases. can be done by 3 – 1 = 2 persons i.e. 2
Total = 4 + 4 + 4 = 12 ways.

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

Now, remaining 3 tasks can be done by (5

– 2 ) = 3 persons i.e. 3 ways. 17. Probability
So, Total 2 × 2 × 3 = 2 × 2 × 3 × 2 × 1 = 24

2. Answer: B 2016
Explanation: Total no.of white marbles = 1. A round archery target of diameter 1m
10 is marked with four scoring regions
Number of red marbles = 10 + 3 = 13 from the centre outwards as red, blue,
No of green marbles = 10 – 5 = 5 yellow and white. The radius of the
Total no of marble = 10 + 13 + 5 = 28 red band is 0.20m. The width of all the
remaining bands is equal. If archers
2014 throw arrows towards the target, what
1. Sis identical cards are placed on a is the probability that the arrows fall
table. Each card has number 1 marked in the red region of the archery
on one side and number 2 marked on target?
its other side. All the six cards are (a) 0.40
placed in such a manner that the (b) 0.20
number 1 is on the upper side. In one (c) 0.16
try, exactly four (neither more nor
(d) 0.04
less) cards are turned upside down. In
how many least number of tries down.
In how many least number of tries can
2016 - Key and Explanation
the cards be turned upside down such 1. Answer: C
that all the six cards show number 2 Explanation: Total area of archery target
on the upper side ? = πr 2
5 3
64
(a) 3 = π ( 0.5 )
2
6

(b) 5
86

0.25π
(c) 7
71

(d) This cannot be achieved.

r-9
ie

2014 - Key and Explanation

op
ec

1. Answer: A
kl

Explanation: Before trying the card show

ar

111111
Sp

First try (make only 4 cards show 2) 2 2 2

Area of band = π ( 0.2) = 0.04π
2

211
Second try (take one of those showing 1 Probability that the arrows fall in red
and three of those showing two and flip) region
211121 Area of red band 0.04π
= =
3rd try (flip all ones) 2 2 2 2 2 2 Total Area 0.25π
The logic used here is that you should be 4 16
= = = 0.16
able to get four 1s which we achieved in 25 100
the 2nd try.

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

Length of stick S1 = 7.5 feet = 15/2 feet

18. Heights and Distances And Length of stick S2 = 3.25 feet
and Trigonometry = 13/4 feet
The maximum possible size of a piece
= HCF of (15/2 and 13/4) = HCF of
2020
(15, 13) / LCM (2, 4) = 1/4 = 0.25 feet
1. If you have two straight sticks of So, number of minimum possible pieces
length 7.5 feet and 3.25 feet, of equal size = (7.5 + 3.25)/0.25 = 43
what is the minimum length can
your measure? 2016
(a) 0.05 foot
(b) 0.25 foot 35 1. AB is a vertical trunk of a huge tree
(c) 1 foot with A being the point where the base
(d) 3.25 feet
of trunk touches the ground. Due to a
cyclone the trunk has been broken at
2020 - Key and Explanation C which is at a height of 12 meters,
1. Answer: C broken part is partially attached to
Explanation: the vertical portion of the trunk at C.
It’s given that: If the end of the broken part B
Length of stick S1 = 7.5 feet and Length touches the ground at D which is at a
of stick S2 = 3.25 feet distance of 5 meters from A, then the
To get the minimum length which we can original height of the trunk is
measure, we will use stick S2 and (a) 20 m
measure the length of stick S1. (b) 25 m
Therefore, we get: (c) 30 m
Total length of S1 = 3.25 + 3.25 + (d) 35 m
remaining length of S1
Or 6.5 + remaining length of S1 = 7.5
Or remaining length of S1 = 7.5 – 6.5 = 1 2016 - Key and Explanation
foot
1. Answer: B
Explanation: Pythagoras theorem

Hence, the minimum length which we

can measure is 1 foot.
Note: CD 2 = AC 2 + AD 2
If the question would have asked, “What = 122 + 52 ⇒ 144 + 25 = 169
are the minimum possible pieces of equal CD 2 = 169 ⇒ CD = 169 = 13
size that we can make by cutting the two Decimal height = AC + CB
sticks?”, then we would have solved it as = 12 + 13
follows: = 25 metre

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

2018
19. Odd Man Out and Series 1. Consider the following pattern of
numbers :

2019
1. What is X in the sequence:
132, 129, 124, 117, 106, 93, X ?
(a) 74 What is the number at? in the above
(b) 75 pattern ?
(c) 76 (a) 17
(d) 77 (b) 19
(c) 21
2. What is X in the sequence: (d) 23
4, 196, 16, 144, 36, 100, 64, X ?
(a) 48 2. Consider the sequence given below :
(b) 64 4/12/95, 1/1/96, 29/1/96, 26/2/96,
(c) 125 …. What is the next term of the
(d) 256 series?
(a) 24/3/96
2019 - Key and Explanation (b) 25/3/96
1. Answer: C (c) 26/3/96
Explanation: (d) 27/3/96
Reduction by prime number starting from
3
5 3
2018 - Key and Explanation
64
Primes → 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17….. 1. Answer: A
6
86

(a) 132 − 3 = 129 Explanation:

71

(b) 129 − 5 = 124 8 10 15 13

(c) 124 − 7 = 117
r-9

6 5 7 4
(d) 117 − 11 = 106
ie

4 6 8 8
op

(e) 106 − 13 = 93 6 11 16 ?
ec

(f) 93 − 17 = 76 8+4−6=6
kl

10 + 6 − 5 = 11
ar

2. Answer: B 15 + 8 − 7 = 16
Sp

Explanation: 13 + 8 − 4 = 17
4, 196, 16, 144, 36, 100, 64, x ? = 17
4 = 22 196 = 142
16 = 42 144 = 122 2. Answer: B
36 = 6 2
100 = 102 Explanation:
64 = 82 x = 82 04/12/1995 → 4th December 1995
∴ x = 64
+ 28 days.
01/01/1996 → 1996 is a Leap year

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

= 28 days
29/01/1996 + 28 days 20. Data Interpretation
26/02/1996 + 28 days
25/03/1996
2019
Passage :
2013
Six students A, B, C, D, E and F
1. Consider the following matrix: appeared in several tests. Either C or F
3 370 7 scores the highest. Whenever C scores
2 224 6 the highest, then E scores the least.
1 730 X Whenever F scores the highest, B scores
What is the number at X in the above the least.
matrix? In all the tests they got different marks :
(a) 5 D scores higher than A, but they are
(b) 8 close competitors; A scores higher than
(c) 9 B; C scores higher than A
(d) 11 1. If F stands in the ranking, then the
position of B is
2013 - Key and Explanation (a) Third
1. Answer: C (b) Fourth
Explanation: (c) Fifth
3 370 7 Row 1 (d) Sixth
2 224 6 Row 2
1730 X Row 3 2. If B scroes the least, the rank of C will
370 be
Row 1 ⇒ ⇒ 3 + 7 + 0 ⇒ 10
C2 (a) Second
3 7 (b) Third
C1 C3 (c) Fourth
⇒ 3 + 7 = 10 (d) Second or third
224
Row 2 ⇒2+2+4⇒8
C2 3. If E is ranked third, then which one of
2 6 the following is correct?
(a) E is gets more marks than C
C1 C3
(b) C gets more marks than E
⇒2+6=8
(c) A is ranked fourth
730
Row 3 ⇒ ⇒ 7 + 3 + 0 ⇒ 10 (d) D is ranked fifth
C2
1 X
Directions for the following 2 (two)
C1 C3
items :
⇒ 1 + x = 10
Read the following statements S1 and S2
⇒ x = 10 − 1
and answer the two items that follow.
⇒x =9

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

S1: Twice the weight of Sohan is less than by condition (iii) E scores the lead. And
the weight of Mohan or that of Rohan wing condition v, vi, vii but got the
S2: Twice the weight of Rohan is greater than following order C-F-D-A-B-I.
the weight of Mohan or that of Sohan Option (c).

4. Which one of the following statements 2. Answer: D

is correct? Explanation: Scores least means C is not
(a) Weight of Mohan is greatest the first position (condition ii) so on the
(b) Weight of Sohan is greatest first position there be F. Now out of six
(c) Weight of Rohan is greatest positions fifth and last positions are fixed
(d) Whose weight is greatest cannot be F……..B answer (d).
determined.
3. Answer: B
5. Which one of the following statements Explanation: E is ranked third, it means
is correct? it is not ranked last, it means C is not
(a) Weight of Mohan is least fifth, it means F is fifth, it mean B is last.
(b) Weight of Sohan is least So we have the following arrangements.
(c) Weight of Rohan is least Answer (b).
(d) Whose weight is least cannot be
determined. 4. Answer: D
Explanation: Let higher of sohan = S
2019 - Key and Explanation weight of Mohan – M, weight of Rohan R
1. Answer: C than by the condition given as
Explanation: Lets first number the
5 3
25 < M, than double of S is can than M.
64
condition given in question that are effect So S < M
6

conditions in all. 25 < R then double of S is can than R so

86

(i) Six students A, B, C, D, E, F S<R

71

appeared in several tests. So, we can conclude that S is less than M

r-9

(ii) Either C or F scores the highest. and R but we do not know the order
ie

(iii) Either C or F scores the weight then relation between M and R. again 2R
op

E scores the learn. >M,mean either R = M or R > M as R < H

ec

(iv) Whenever F scores the highest B so we cannot conclude relation between

kl

R & M.
ar

scores the learn.

Sp

(v) In all the tenth they got difficult 2R>S is Obion an we have concerned R>S
marks. above answer (d).
(vi) D scores higher than A,but they are
class computers. 5. Answer: B
(vii) A scores higher than B Explanation: It is clean that height of
(viii) C scores higher than A sohan is least. Option (b).
If F stands scores than by condition (ii) C
will be first. If C is first (i.e. score highest)

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

2018 4. For a sports meet, a winner’s stand

Directions for the following 3 (three) items : comprising three wooden blocks is in
The following three items are based on the the following form :
graph given below which shows imports of
three different types of steel over a period of
six months of a year. Study the graph and
answer the three items that follows. There are six different colours
available to choose from and each of
the three wooden blocks is to be
painted such that no two of them has
the same colour. In how many
different ways can the winners’ stand
be painted ?
(a) 120
The figures in the brackets indicate the
(b) 81
average cost per ton over six months period.
(c) 66
(d) 36
1. By how much (measured in thousands
of tons) did the import of sheet steel
Directions for the following 2(two)
exceed the import of coil steel in the
items :
first three months of the year?
Consider the following graph in which
(a) 11
the birthrate and death rate of a
(b) 15
country are given, and answer the two
(c) 19
items that follows.
(d) 23

2. What was the approximate total value

(in $) of sheet steel imported over the
six months period?
(a) 45,555
(b) 50,555
(c) 55,550
(d) 65,750
5. Looking at the graph, it can be
3. What was the approximate ratio of inferred that from 1990 and 2010
sheet steel and scrap steel imports in (a) Population growth rate has increased
the first three months of the year ? (b) Population growth rate has decreased
(a) 1:1 (c) Growth rate of population has remainded
(b) 1.2 : 1 stable
(c) 1.4 : 1 (d) Population growth rate shows no trend
(d) 1.6 : 1

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

6. With reference to the above graph 8. Consider the following figures A and B:
consider the following statements
considering 1970 as base year :
1. Population has stabilized after 35 years.
2. Population growth rate has stabilized
after 35 years.
3. Death rate has fallen by 10% in the first
10 years
4. Birthrate has stabilized after 35 years.
Which of the above are the most
logical and rational statements that
can be made from the above graph ?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1,2 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only The manufacturing cost and projected
(d) 2 and 4 only sales for a product are shown in the
above figures A and B respectively.
7. Average hourly earnings per year (E) of What is the minimum number of
the workers in a firm are represented pieces that should be manufactured to
in figures A and B as follows : avoid a loss ?
(a) 2000
(b) 2500
(c) 3000
(d) 3500 53
64

9. Consider the following graphs. The

6
86

curves in the graphs indicates

71

different age groups in the population

r-9

of two countries A and B over a period

ie

of few decades :
op
ec
kl

From the figures, it is observed that

ar
Sp

the
(a) Values of E are different
(b) Ranges of E are different
(c) Ranges (i.e. the difference between the
maximum and the minimum) of E are
different
(d) Rates of increase of E are different

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

With reference to the above graphs, (c) Encouraging both public and private
which of the following are the most savings.
logical and rational inferences that can (d) Anti-inflationary stance
be made
1. Over the last two and a half decade, the Directions for the following 2 (two)
dependency ratio for country B has items:
decreased. The following table gives the GDP
2. By the end of next two and a half growth rate and Tele-density data of
decades, the dependency ratio of country different states of a country in a
A will be much less than that of country particular year. Study the table and
B answer the two items that follow.
3. In the next two decades, the work force
relative to its total population will
increase in country B as compared to
country A.

Select the correct answer using the

code given below
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1,2 and 3

10. The graph given below indicates the 11. With reference to the above table,
changes in key policy rates made by which of the following is/are the most
the central Bank several times in a logical and rational inference /
year : inferences that can be made?
1. Higher per capita income is generally
associated with higher Tele-density.
2. Higher GDP growth rate always ensure
higher per capita income.
3. Higher GDP growth rate does not
necessary ensure higher Tele-density.

Select the correct answer using the

code given below
Which one of the following can be the
(a) 1 only
most likely reason for the Central
(b) 2 and 3
Bank for such an action
(c) 1 and 3
(a) Encouraging foreign investment
(d) 3 only
(b) Increasing the liquidity

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

12. With reference to the above table, the Select the correct answer using the
following assumption have been made: code given below:
1. Nowadays, prosperity of an already high (a) 1 only
performing stata cannot e sustained (b) 2 only
without making further large (c) Both 1 and 2
investments in its telecom infrastructure. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. Nowadays, a very high Tele-density is the
most essential condition for promoting 2018 - Key and Explanation
the business and economic growth in a 1. Answer: C
state. Explanation: Sheet steel imports
Which of the above assumptions is/are = 40 + 37 + 36 thousands than
valid? s = 113TT
(a) 1 only Coil steel imports 30 + 31 + 33TT = 94TT
(b) 2 only Difference = 113 – 94 = 19 TT (option C)
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 2. Answer: C
Explanation: Amount of sheet steel
13. The following graph indicates the imported = 217 TT
composition of our tax revenue for a This is total of all month
period of two decades : = 40 + 37 + 36 + 34 + 34 = 212TT
So cost = 217 × 256 × 1000 = 55,552,000
option (c).

3. Answer: B
5 3
64
Explanation: Amount of sheet steel
6

imported = 40 + 37 + 36 = 113TT
86

Amount of scrap steel imported

71

= 32 + 34 + 32 = 98TT
r-9

With reference to the above graph, which So the ratio will be 113/98 = 1.15 = 1.2
ie

of the following is/are the most logical (approx) hence option (b).
op

and rational inference / inferences

ec

that can be made? 4. Answer: A

kl
ar

1. During the given period, the revenue from Explanation:

Sp

Direct Taxes as percentage of gross tax

revenue has increased while that of
Indirect Taxes decreased.
2. The trend in the revenue from excise duty The stand can be painted in
demonstrates that the growth of 6 × 5 × 4 = 120 ways in which no colour
manufacturing sector has been negative will be clearing. Option (a)
during the given period

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

5. Answer: A 10. Answer: B

Explanation: If we observe carefully for Explanation: This is a question barred
1990 to 2010, we can see that there is a on general knowledge where as the
decrease in birth rates and there is a central bank ruish policy ratio, its is a
huge fall in death rate. and thus on way to suck out liquidity from the
continuous watching from 1990 to 2010 symptom. Normally this is due to
the population growth has increased. centered bank respiration of rising
option (a). injection. Hence a continuously rising up
rate indication an anti inflationary stove.
6. Answer: D Hence option (d).
Explanation: Population growth rate has
been stabilized after 35 years as the 11. Answer: D
difference between the birth rate and the Explanation: See the state 15 & 16, state
death rate has been same from 15 has a high GDP growth rate but per
approximately 2000. Option (d). capital income.
So standard which sap that higher GDP
7. Answer: C growth are not always hence high per
Explanation: Slope of first graph capital income.
25 − 20 Statement – 1: says that higher capita
= =5
2014 − 2013 income is amounted with higher
25 − 20 teledensity but if you look at statement 2
Slope of second graph = =5
2014 − 2013 is the relationship it income. There are
Hence option (c). other example also. So statement 1 is
wrong.
8. Answer: A
Explanation: To avoid loss SP ≥ CP 12. Answer: D
Minimum care SP = CP Explanation: Statement 1 is to common
So the selling since should be equal to CP higher GDP growth ratio only with
SP of 2000 pices = 2000 x 350 = 7 lakhs. function large in telecom. That is wrong.
Cost price of 2000 pieces = 7 lakhs. Hence statement 1 is said statement 2 to
So option (a). be statement 1 in rewnded from. Hence
option (d).
9. Answer: C
Explanation: Standard 1 is correct. 13. Answer: A
Depending ratio is the ratio of Explanation: Check from graph. Answer
year 15 − 64
option (a).
year < 15 + year > 64
Standard 3 is correct see graph.
Option (c).

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

2015 1. In which year is the average profit of A

1. Year – wise variation of the price of a and B same ?
certain commodity is shown in the (a) 1995
following graph : (b) 1996
(c) 1997
(d) 1998

2. What is the difference between the

average profit of B and A in the year
1998?
(a) − Rs. 100
The price of the commodity in the
(b) − Rs. 1000
year 1990
(c) + Rs. 600
(a) Must have been Rs. 10
(d) + Rs. 300
(b) Must have been Rs. 12
(c) Must have been anywhere between
3. How much more average profit did A
Rs. 10/- and 20/-
make in the year 2000 than in the
(d) Is higher than that in the year 1991
year 1999?
(a) Rs. 200
2015 - Key and Explanation
(b) Rs. 1000
1. Answer: C (c) Rs. 1500
Explanation: From the graph we can find (d) Rs. 2000
the near value the price of commodity in
1990 is anywhere between 10% & 20 %
hence option (c).
4.
3
What is the trend of the average profit
5
64
of B from the year 1997 to the year
6

2000?
86

2014 (a) Non - increasing

71

Direction for the follows 4 (four) items : (b) Non - decreasing

r-9

The following graph shows the average profit (c) Steady

ie

of two fruit-sellers A and B in thousands (Rs) (d) Fluctuating

op

per year from the year 1995 to 2000.

ec

Consider the graph and answer the 4 (four) 5. The following table gives population
kl

and total income of a city for four

ar

items that follow :

Sp

years.
Year 1992 1993 1994 1995
Population
20 21 22 23
In lakhs
Income
Increases 1010 1111 1225 1345
crores (Rs.)

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

Which one of the following statements So as the denomination groups in a

is correct in respect of the above constant, the value of the factor will be
data? lesser than time.
(a) Population increased by 5% or more i.e. less than 3% of all coming years. So
every year. you need most calculate percentage
(b) Income increased by 10% or more every growth for all year and wants you time.
year.
(c) Per capita income was always above Rs. 2013
5000 Direction for the following questions.
(d) Per capita income was highest in 1994 Study the two figures given below and answer
the questions.
2014 - Key and Explanation
1. Answer: B
Explanation: B Look at the graph
intersects, they have the same value
across y-axis (i.e. average-profit)

2. Answer: C
Explanation: Repeated

3. Answer: D
Explanation: From the graph answer (d)
2000 Rs. Figure 1: Number of Professors in selected
disciplines in a University by sex.
4. Answer: B Figure 2: Age of Physics Professors.
Explanation: From the graph non-
decreasing (b) 1. How many Physics professors belong
to the age group 35 – 44
5. Answer: C (a) 18
Explanation: Simple calculation for every (b) 16
option. (c) 14
To calculate % growth in population – (d) 12
look at the growth than 1992-93
Its 2. Which one of the following disciplines
⎛ 1 ⎞
⎣⎡( 21 − 20 ) / 20 ⎦⎤ × 100 = ⎜ 20 ⎟ × 100 = 5% has the highest ratio of males to
⎝ ⎠ females ?
Now you know that every year the growth (a) Physics
is by 1 lakh, but the denomination bar is (b) Mathematics
growing for (c) Chemistry
1993-94. Its 1/21 for 1994-95 Its 1/22. (d) Economics

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

3. What percentage of all Psychlology 2. Answer: A

professors are females ? Explanation: Simple solution just take
(a) 40 % the concerned ratios is physics.
(b) 50 % Answer (a) Physics.
(c) 60 %
(d) 70 % 3. Answer: C
Explanation: There are the 40 males and
4. If the number of female Physics 6 females, psychology professors – totally
professors in the age group 25 – 34 10 Psychology professors. There are
equals 25% of all the Physics female professors out of all Psychology
professors in that age group, then ⎛ 6 ⎞
professors so ⎜ × 100 ⎟ = 60% : Answer
what is the number of male Physics ⎝ 10 ⎠
professors in the age group 25 -34 ? (c) – 60%
(a) 9
(b) 6 4. Answer: A
(c) 3 Explanation: Look at figure 2 – 30% of
(d) 2 physics professors belong to the age
group 15-34. Then from figure 1 we know
5. If the Psychology professors in the there are 32 male and 8 female physics
University constitute 2% of all the professors.
professors in the university, then what So totally 40 physics professors out of
is the number of professors in the that 30% belong to 25-34 age group. So
university? there are 12 (30% of 40) physics
(a) 400
3
professors in the age group of 25-34.
5
64
(b) 500 Further its given that the number of
6

(c) 600 females physics professor in the age

86

(d) 700 group 25-34 equals of all the physics

71

professors in that age group, so 25% 12

r-9

2013 - Key and Explanation in 3 as females, professors in that age

ie

1. Answer: B group for S1& S2 : 12 – 3 = 9 male

op

Explanation: From figure 2, you can see professors belong to 25-34 age group.
ec

that 40 % of physics professors as belong Answer (a)

kl
ar

to the age group 35 – 44 . From figure 1

Sp

we can find there are 32 male and 8 5. Answer: B

females physics professors. Explanation: Simple matrix 25% of
Totally there are 40 physics professors – professor is psychology then number of
out of which 40% belong to 35 -44 age professors from diagram is 500
group. Answer (b) 500.
∴ 40 % of 40 will be 16.
Hence answer is 16

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

2012 Which curve indicates the exponential

1. Consider the following information growth?
regarding the performance of class of (a) A
1000 students in four different tests: (b) B
(c) C
(d) D

Directions for the following 2 (two) items:

The following pie charts show the break-up of
disease categories recorded in the patients
from two towns, Town A and Town B. Pie
If a student scores 74 marks in each of the
charts plot the disease Categories as
four tests, in which one of the following tests
percentage of the total number of patients.
is her performance the best comparatively?
Based on these, answer the two items that
(a) Test I
follow the charts.
(b) Test II
(c) Test III
2. Which of the two towns has a higher
(d) Test IV
number of persons with Diabetes?

2012 - Key and Explanation

1. Answer: B
Explanation : If she scores 74 marks, we
can assume that this will be her best
performance if he scored 74 marks in a
subject which has least highest marks
and the least higher range of marks. Test
II satisfies this best.

2011
1. The followings figures has four curves
namely A, B, C and D, Study the figure
and answer the item that follows.

(a) Town A
(b) Town B
(c) Same in Town A and Town B
(d) No inference can be drawn

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

3. What can we say about persons with Curve D is not exponential as it remains
more than one disease from these constant for a period of almost upto 1000
graphs? years and then shows a sudden increase.
(a) There are likely to be persons with more Curve C is exponential as it increases
than one disease in Town A. continuously and also slowly in the early
(b) There are likely to be persons with more stage and at a fast pace in later stages.
than one disease in Town B.
(c) There are likely to be persons with more 2. Answer : D
than one disease in both Towns A and B. Explanation : Simple question. As the
(d) No inference can be drawn. total population of Town A and Town B is
not given we cannot determine the number
4. Consider the following Velocity-Time of persons with diabetes.
graph. It shows two trains starting
simultaneously on parallel tracks. 3. Answer: B
Explanation : If you add all the
percentages of the pie chart for both the
towns, town A = 100%, but town B =
121%. Only if a person has more than one
disease, can he be counted twice, which
will increase the percentage.

4. Answer : D
With reference to the above graph, which one
Explanation : Acceleration in a velocity
of the following statements is not correct ?
(a) Train B has an initial acceleration greater
5 3
time graph can be seen from the graph’s
64
slope (tilt with respect to horizontal). B’s
than that of Train A.
6

slope is more than A, which means for the

86

(b) Train B is faster than Train A at all times.

same time period, it is changing velocity
71

(c) Both trains have the same velocity at time

faster than that of A. Hence more
to'
r-9

acceleration.
(d) Both trains travel the same distance in
ie

Option (b) and (c) can be verified from y-

op

time to units.
axis.
ec

To calculate distance in a velocity-time

kl

2011 - Key and Explanation

graph, simply take the area under the
ar

1. Answer: C
Sp

curve. It is more for B than A.

Explanation : Exponential curve is the
one where the slope of the curve increases
exponentially. The equation is y = e x
Curve A is not exponential as it shows a
slight decrease.
Curve B is also not exponential (it is
linear)

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

Mass of P = m; Mass of Q = n
21. 2-D Mensuration It is given that, Mass of Q = 2 × Mass of P
Or n = 2m
Also, each side of Q is two times that of P.
2020
Let each side of P be ‘a’ units and that of
1. Let x, y be the volumes; m, n be the
Q be ‘2a’ units.
masses of two metallic cubes P and Q
So, x = a3
respectively. Each side of Q is two
And y = (2a)3 = 8a3
times that of P and mass of Q is two
According to the question,
times that of P. Let u = m / x and v =
u = m/x
n /y. Which one of the following is
or u = m/a3 …. (1)
correct?
And v = n/y
(a) u = 4v
or v = 2m/8a3 = m/4a3 …..(2)
(b) u = 2v
From (1) and (2) we get:
(c) v=u
u/v = 4
(d) v = 4u
or u = 4v
Hence, option (a) is correct answer.
2. Consider the following statements:
1. The minimum number of points of
2. Answer : B
intersection of a square and a circle is 2.
Explanation:
2. The maximum number of points of
Considering statement 1: The minimum
intersection of a square and circle is 8.
number of points of intersection of a
Which of the above statements is/are
square and a circle is 2.
correct?
It has been represented in the figure
(a) 1 only 69
below:
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

3. If 1 litre of water weighs 1 kg, then But there might be a case wherein the
how many cubic millimetres of water square is just touching the circle. So,
will weigh 0.1 gm? minimum number of points of
(a) 1 intersection of a square and a circle is 1.
(b) 10 So, statement 1 is incorrect.
(c) 100 Considering statement 2: The
(d) 1000 maximum number of points of
intersection of a square and a circle is 8.
A circle can only cross a straight line in
2020 - Key and Explanation
two places. So, maximum points of
1. Answer : A intersection of a square and circle
Explanation: =4×2=8
Given: Volume of P = x; Volume of Q = y;

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

It has been represented in the figure 2018

below: 1. How many diagonals can be drawn by
joining the vertices of an octagon?
(a) 20
(b) 24
So, statement 2 is correct. 70
(c) 28
Hence, the correct answer is option (b).
(d) 64

3. Answer : C
2. There are 24 equally spaced points
Explanation:
lying on the circumference of a circle.
We know that, 1 cubic millimeters
What is the maximum number of
= (10)–6 liters
equilateral triangles that can be drawn
Or 1 liter = 106 cubic millimeters
by taking sets of three points as the
Now, Weight of 1 kg or 1000 grams = 106
vertices?
cubic millimeters
(a) 4
Then, Weight of 0.1 grams = 102 or 100
(b) 6
cubic millimeters
(c) 8
Hence, the correct answer is option (c).
(d) 12

2019 3. Twelve equal squares are placed to fit

in a rectangle of diagonal 5 cm. There
1. The number of parallelograms that can
are three rows containing four squares
be formed from a set of four parallel
each. No gaps are left between
lines intersecting another set of four
parallel lines is :
5 3
adjacent squares. What is the area of
64
each square?
(a) 18
6

5 7
86

(b) 24 (a) sq cm (b) sq cm

7 5
71

(c) 32
25
r-9

(d) 36 (c) 1 sq cm (d) sq cm

12
ie
op

2019 - Key and Explanation

2018 - Key and Explanation
ec

1. Answer: D
kl

1. Answer: A
Explanation:
ar

Explanation:
Sp

D (1 − 3 )(1 − 4 )(1 − 5 )(1 − 6 )(1 − 7 )

1×1 parallelograms = 9 ( 2 − 4 )( 2 − 5 )( 2 − 6)( 2 − 7 )( 2 − 8 )
1× 2 = 6 ( 3 − 5 )( 3 − 6 )( 3 − 7 )( 3 − 8 )
1× 3 = 3 ( 4 − 6 )( 4 − 7 )( 4 − 8 ) = 20 diagonals.
2 × 1 = 6; 2 × 2 = 4; 2×3 = 2
(5 − 7 )(5 − 8 )
3 ×1 = 3 3×2 = 6 3×3 = ?
∴ total = 36 (6 − 8)
Using P & C ⇒ 4C 2 × 4C 2 = 36 ways

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

2017 - Key and Explanation

1. Answer: C
Explanation:
4 horizontal & 4 vertical lines
To make a rectangle we used 2 lines each
4.3 4.3
⇒4 C 2 ×4 C 2 = ×
1.2 1.2
= 2 × 3 × 2 × 3 = 36ways
2. Answer: C
Explanation: Angle subtended at the
centre is double than that of 2016
circumference. 1. An agricultural field is in the form of a
600 − equi Δ rectangle having length X1 meters and
1200 − centre breadth X2 meters (X1 and X2 are
24 variable). If X1 + X 2 = 40 meters, then
⇒ = 8 equi triangles
⎡ 360 ⎤ the area of the agricultural field will
⎢ 120 ⎥
⎣ ⎦ not exceed which one of the following
values ?
3. Answer: C (a) 400 sq m
Explanation: (b) 300 sq m
(c) 200 sq m
(d) 80 sq m

2. A and B walk around a circular park.

Pythagoras theorem They start at 8 am. from the same
⇒ ( 5 ) = ( 3 x ) + ( 4x )
2 2 2
point in the opposite directions. A and
⇒ 25 = 9x 2 + 16x 2 B walket at a speed of 2 rounds per
⇒ 25 = 25x 2 ⇒ x = 1 hour and 3 rounds per hour
Area of the square x 2 = 1 respectively. How many times shall
they cross each other after 8 am and
2017 before 9.30 am. ?
(a) 7 (b) 6
1. There are 4 horizontal and 4 vertical
(c) 5 (d) 8
lines, parallel and equidistant to one
another on a board. What is the
maximum number of rectangles and
2016 - Key and Explanation
squares that can be formed ? 1. Answer: A
(a) 16 Explanation:
X1 + X 2 = 40 ⇒ X1 = X 2 = 20 metres
(b) 24
Maximum area = 20 × 20 = 400 sq .m
(c) 36
(d) 42 2. Answer: A
Explanation: Same problem as in Time
& distance.

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

2014 2. A cylindrical overhead tank of radius

1. A gardener increased the area of his 2m and height 7 m is to be filled from
rectangular garden by increasing its an underground tank of size
length by 40% and decreasing its 5.5 m × 4m × 6m . How much portion of
width by 20%. The area of the new the underground tank is still filled
garden. with water after filling the overhead
(a) Has increased by 20 % tank completely?
(b) Has increased by 12 % (a) 1/3
(c) Has increased by 8 % (b) 1/2
(d) Is exactly the same as the old area. (c) 1/4
(d) 1/6
2014 - Key and Explanation
1. Answer: B 2016 - Key and Explanation
Explanation:
1. Answer: C
Explanation: SA of the cube = Area of
rectangle.
6a 2 = 12 × 8
‘L’ increased by 40% 12 × 8
a2 =
40 6
20 × ⇒8
100 a 2 = 16
Now the New Length is 20+8=28 a =4
20
‘b’ decreased by 20 % ⇒ 10 × ⇒ 2
100 2. Answer: A
Now the new breadth is 10 − 2 = 8
New Area of rectangle ⇒ 28 × 8 = 224
Explanation: 3
5
64
Volume of Cylindrical tank
6

200 + X%(200) = 224 = 5.5 × 4 × 6 = 132m 3

86

X = (24/200) × 100 = 12 Volume of tank = πr 2h

71

22
= ×2×2×7
r-9

7
22. 3-D Mensuration
ie

= 88m 3
op

Volume left 132 − 88 = 44

ec

44 1
Ratio = =
kl

2016 172 3
ar
Sp

1. A piece of tin is in the form of a

rectangle having length 12cm and
width 8cm. This is used to construct a
closed cube. The side of the cube is :
(a) 2 cm
(b) 3 cm
(c) 4 cm
(d) 6 cm

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

Section B : REASONING

2020 (b) S2 alone is sufficient to answer the

1. Two Statements S1 and S2 are given Question.
below with regard to four members P, (c) S1 and S2 together are sufficient to
Q, R and S followed by a Questions: answer the Question, but neither S1
S1 : R is greater than P as well as Q. alone nor S2 alone is sufficient to answer
S2 : S is not the largest one. the Question.
(d) S1 and S2 together are not sufficient to
Question: answer the Question.
Among four numbers P, Q, R and S, which
one is the largest? 3. Two Statements S1 and S2 are given
Which one of the following is correct in below with regard to two numbers
respect of the above Statements and the followed by a Question:
Question? S1 : Their product is 21.
(a) S1 alone is sufficient to answer the S2 : Their sum is 10.
Question. Question:
(b) S2 alone is sufficient to answer the What are the two numbers?
Question. Which one of the following is correct in
(c) S1 and S2 together are sufficient to respect of the above Statements and the
answer the Question, but neither S1 Question?
alone nor S2 alone is sufficient to answer (a) S1 alone is sufficient to answer the
the question. Question.
(d) S1 and S2 together are not sufficient to (b) S2 alone is sufficient to answer the
answer the Question. Question.
(c) S1 and S2 together are sufficient to
2. Two Statements S1 and S2 are given answer the Question, but neither S1 nor
below followed by a Question: S2 alone is sufficient to answer the
S1 : n is a prime number. Question.
S2 : n leaves a remainder of 1 when (d) S1 and S2 together are not sufficient to
divided by 4. answer the Question.
Question:
If n is a unique natural number between 10 4. Two statements are given followed by
and 20, then what is n? two Conclusions:
Which one of the following is correct in Statements:
respect of above Statements and the All numbers are divisible by 2.
Question? All numbers are divisible by 3.
(a) S1 alone is sufficient to answer the Conclusion-I:
Question. All numbers are divisible by 6.
Conclusion-II:

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

All numbers are divisible by 4. what is the difference between the

Which of the above Conclusions logically values of A and D?
follows/follow from the two given (a) 1
Statements? (b) 2
(a) Only Conclusion-I (c) 3
(b) Only Conclusion-II (d) 4
(c) Neither Conclusion-I nor Conclusion-II
(d) Both Conclusion-I and Conclusion-II 8. Two statements S1 and S2 are given
below followed by a Question:
5. Two Statements are given followed by S1 : There are not more than two
two Conclusions: figures on any page of a 51-page book.
Conclusions: S2 : There is at least one figure on
Statements: every page.
All cats are dogs. Question:
All cats are black. Are there more than 100 figures in
Conclusion-I: that book?
All dogs are black. Which one of the following is correct in
Conclusion-II: respect of the above Statements and the
Some dogs are not black. Question?
Which of the above Conclusions logically (a) Both S1 and S2 are sufficient to answer
follows/follow from the two given the Question, but neither S1 alone nor
Statements, disregarding commonly known S2 alone is sufficient to answer the
facts? Question.
(a) Only Conclusion-I (b)
3
S1 alone is sufficient to answer the
5
64
(b) Only Conclusion-II Question.
6

(c) Neither Conclusion-I nor Conclusion-II (c) S1 and S2 together are not sufficient to
86

(d) Both Conclusion-I and Conclusion-II answer the Question.

71

(d) S2 alone is sufficient to answer the

r-9

6. Consider the following arrangement Question.

ie

that has some missing letters:

op

abab_b_bcb_dcdcded_d 9. A family of two generations consisting

ec

The missing letters which complete of six members P, Q, R, S, T and U has

kl

the arrangement are three males and three females. There

ar
Sp

(a) a, b, c, d are two married couples and two

(b) a, b, d, e unmarried siblings. U is P’s daughter
(c) a, c, c, e and Q is R’s mother-in-law. T is an
(d) b, c, d, e unmarried male and S is a male.
Which one of the following is correct?
7. Let A3BC and DE2F be four-digit (a) R is U’s husband
numbers where each letter represents (b) R is S’s wife
a different digit greater than 3. If the (c) S is unmarried
sum of the numbers is 15902, then (d) None of the above

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

10. How many different 5-letter words Reading both statements together, we
(with or without meaning) can be can conclude that:
constructed using all the letters of the R > P/Q/S
word ‘DELHI’ so that each word has to Hence, we can say that S1 and S2
start with D and end with I? together are sufficient to answer the
(a) 24 question.
(b) 18 Hence, option (c) is the answer.
(c) 12
(d) 6 2. Answer: D
Explanation:
11. The letters from A to Z are numbered It’s given that n is a unique natural
from 1 to 26 respectively. If GHI = number between 10 and 20.
1578 and DEF = 912, then what is ABC According to S1, n is a prime number.
equal to? So, our number n may be: 11, 13, 17 or
(a) 492 19.If a statement is sufficient it provides
(b) 468 a unique answer. But S1 has four
(c) 262 answers so S1 is not sufficient.
(d) 246 According to S2, on dividing n by 4 we get
a remainder of 1.
12. What is the missing term @ in the So, n can be: 13, 17.S2 is not providing
following? any unique answer so S2 is not
ACPQ : BESU : MNGI : @ sufficient.
(a) NPJL Either of the two statements alone is not
(b) NOJM sufficient to answer the question.
(c) NPIL Even if we read both the statements
(d) NPJM together, we do not get a unique value of
n. Instead, we end up with two possible
2020 - Key and Explanation values of n, i.e. 13 & 17.
1. Answer: C Hence, we can say that even S1 and S2
Explanation: together are not sufficient to answer the
S1: R is greater than P as well as Q, i.e. question.
R > P/Q. But S1 is not sufficient enough Hence, option (d) is the answer.
to tell us whether R > S. So we cannot
say which one is largest. 3. Answer: C
S2: S is not the largest number. Explanation:
S2 is not providing any data regarding P, According to S1, the product of numbers
R and Q is 21.
So S2 is not sufficient. So, numbers can be: (3, 7) or (1, 21).We
Either of the two statements alone is not are getting two answers not a unique one.
sufficient to answer the question. So S1 is not sufficient.
According to S2, sum of numbers is 10.

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

So, numbers can be: (1, 9), (2, 8), (3, 7), From this case it is clear that
(4, 6) or (5, 5).Multiple numbers are Conclusion-I, “All dogs are black.” is not
there. So always true.
S2 is not sufficient. Case II :
Either of the two statements alone is not
sufficient to answer the question.
If we read both the statements together,
we can see that the required two
numbers with product of 21 and sum of
10 are: (3, 7)
Hence, we can say that both S1 and S2
together are sufficient to answer the From this case it is clear that
question. Conclusion-II, “Some Dogs are not black.”
Hence, option (c) is the answer. is not always true.
So, seeing cases I and II we can say that
4. Answer: A none of the two conclusions logically
Explanation: follow from the given statements.
Given statements are: Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.
1. All numbers are divisible by 2
2. All numbers are divisible by 3 6. Answer: C
Conclusion-I is true, because all numbers Explanation:
which are divisible by 2 and 3 must also The given sequence follows following
be divisible by 6. sequence
Conclusion-II is false, because all ababa 5 3
64
numbers which are divisible by 2 and 3 bcbcb
6

need not be divisible by 4. cdcdc

86

Hence, only conclusion l logically follows. deded

71

Option (a) is the correct answer. So, the missing letters are: a, c, c, e
r-9
ie

5. Answer: C 7. Answer: C
op

Explanation: Explanation:
ec

Based on the two statements, we can As per the given condition in the
kl

have these scenarios:

ar

question, each letter represents a

Sp

Case I : different digit greater than 3.

So we can replace the letters with 4, 5, 6,
7, 8, or 9.
A3BC + DE2F = 15902
Step 1: Unit digit
If we add C & F, then we should get 12.
Only then can we get 2 at the unit place
in the sum (15902).
So, C, F can be (4, 8) or (5, 7)

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

Step 2: Tens digit And the minimum possible images in the

We got a carry of 1 from 12. Now, we book
know that the tens digit of the sum, = 51 × 1 = 51
15902 is 0. But we still cannot answer whether there
So, B + 2 = 9 are more than 100 figures in the book.
Or B = 7 So, even S1 and S2 together are not
Hence, C, F cannot be (5, 7). They must sufficient to answer the question.
be (4, 8).
Step 3: Hundreds digit 9. Answer: B
We got a carry of 1 from 10. Now, we Explanation:
know that the hundreds digit of the sum, We know that:
15902 is 9. There are two generations.
So, E + 3 = 8 There are 6 members – 3 males (T, S and
one other) and 3 females (U, Q and one
Or E = 8 – 3 = 5 more). We do not know about the gender
Hence, we found that B =7, C = 4/8, of P and R.
E = 5 and F = 4/8 There are two couples and rests of the
So, A/D = 6/9 two are unmarried siblings. These are
So, difference between A and D definitely married – P, Q, R. Because P
=9–6=3 has a daughter and Q is R’s mother-in-
law
8. Answer: C These are definitely single – T(given in
Explanation: question). We do not know whether S and
As per statement 1, there are 2, 1 or 0 U are married or not.
figures on each page. There are 51 pages As U is P’s daughter and Q is R’s mother-
in the book. So, maximum possible in-law, it means that P and Q belong to
images in the book the senior generation and U a n d R
= 51 × 2 = 102 belong to the junior generation.
And the minimum possible images in the So, we get the following family diagram:
book = 0
So, statement 1 alone is not sufficient.
As per statement 2, there is 1, 2, 3, 4, …
∞ images on each page. But we do not
know the number of pages in the book.
So, statement 2 alone is not sufficient.
If we use the two statements together,
U and T are the unmarried siblings. R is
then we know that there are 51 pages in
S’s wife.
the book. Every page must have 1 or 2
Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
images.
So, maximum possible images in the
book
= 51 × 2 = 102

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

10. Answer: D 2019

Explanation: 1. A solid cube is painted yellow, blue
Positions of D and I are fixed. and black such that opposite faces are
So, E, L, H can be arranged in 3! of same colour.
= 3 × 2 × 1 = 6 ways. The cube is then cut into 36 cubes of
Hence option (d) is the correct answer. two different sizes such that 32 cubes
are small and the other four cubes are
big. None of the faces of the bigger
11. Answer: D
cubes is painted blue. How many
Explanation: cubes have only one face painted?
When alphabets are numbered as per its (a) 4
alphabetical position, then: (b) 6
GHI = 789 (c) 8
(d) 10
DEF = 456
ABC = 123
2. Consider the following Statements and
According to the question, Conclusions:
GHI = 1578 = 789 × 2 Statements:
DEF = 912 = 456 × 2 1. Some rats are cats.
2. Some cats are dogs.
ABC = 123 × 2 = 246
3. No dog is a cow.
Conclusions:
12. Answer: D I. No cow is a cat.
Explanation: II. No dog is a rat.
5 3
64
In such questions, we are supposed to III. Some cats are rats.
6

Which of the above conclusions is/are drawn

86

decipher the pattern in the first pair and

from the statements?
71

then apply the same pattern in the

second pair to find the answer. (a) I, II and III
r-9

(b) Only I and II

ie

The pattern has been depicted in the

(c) Only III
op

following diagram (+1 means the letter is

(d) Only II and III
ec

just ahead of the previous letter):

kl
ar

3. A five-storeyed building with floors

Sp

from I to V is painted using four

different colours and only one colour
is used to paint a floor.
Consider the following statements: -
1. The middle three floors are painted in
different colours.
2. The second (II) and the fourth (IV) floors
are painted in different colours.

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

3. The first (I) and the fifth (V) floors are 7. Consider the following sequence that
painted red. follows some arrangement:
To ensure that any two consecutive floors c_accaa_aa_bc_b
have different colours The letters that appear in the gaps are
(a) Only statement 2 is sufficient (a) abba
(b) Only statement 3 is sufficient (b) cbbb
(c) Statement 1 is not sufficient, but (c) bbbb
statement 1 along with statement 2 is (d) cccc
sufficient
(d) Statement 3 is not sufficient, but 8. 'A' started from his house and walked
statement 3 along with statement 2 is 20 m towards East, where his friend B
sufficient joined him. They together walked 10
m in the same direction. Then 'A'
4. P, Q and R are three towns. The turned left while friend 'B' turned
distance between P and Q is 60 km, right and travelled 2 m and 8 m
whereas the distance between P and R respectively. Again 'B' turned left to
is 80 km. Q is in the West of P and R travel 4 m followed by 5 m to his right
is in the South of P. What is the to reach his office. 'A' turned right and
distance between Q and R? travelled 12 m to reach his office.
(a) 140 km
(b) 130 km What is the shortest distance between the
(c) 110 km two offices?
(d) 100 km (a) 15 m
(b) 17 m
5. In a group of 15 people; 7 can read (c) 19 m
French, 8 can read English while 3 of (d) 20 m
them can read neither of these two
languages. The number of people who 9. Consider two statements S1 and S2
can read exactly one language is followed by a question:
(a) 10 S1: p and q both are prime numbers.
(b) 9 S2: p + q is an odd integer.
(c) 5 Question: Is pq an odd integer?
(d) 4
Which one of the following is correct?
6. A printer numbers the pages of a book (a) S1 alone is sufficient to answer the
starting with 1 and uses 3089 digits in question
all. How many pages does the book (b) S2 alone is sufficient to answer the
have? question
(a) 1040 (c) Both S1 and S2 taken together are not
(b) 1048 sufficient to answer the question
(c) 1049 (d) Both S1 and S2 are necessary to answer
(d) 1050 the question

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

10. If every alternative letter of the different ways can the cube be
English alphabet from B onwards painted?
(including B) is written in lower case (a) 9
(small letters) and the remaining (b) 10
letters are capitalized, then how is the (c) 11
first month of the second half of the (d) 12
year written?
(a) JuLY 14. If $ means 'divided by'; @ means
(b) jULy 'multiplied by'; # means 'minus', then
(c) jUly the value of 10#5@1$5 is
(d) jUlY (a) 0
(b) 1
11. In the sequence 1, 5, 7, 3, 5, 7, 4, 3, (c) 2
5, 7, how many such 5s are there (d) 9
which are not immediately preceded
by 3 but are immediately followed by 2019 - Key and Explanation
7? 1. Answer : C
(a) 1 Explanation:
(b) 2 Let us assume the top and bottom sides
(c) 3 of solid cube are painted black, the slide
(d) None towards the viewer and away from viewer
are yellow and the other two sides are
12. A joint family consists of seven blue.
members A, B, C, D, E, F and G with 5 3
Assume the cube side = 4 cm.
64
three females. G is a widow and sister- It is given that cube is cut into 36 cubes,
6

in-law of D's father F. B and D are cut of which 32 are small and 4 are big
86

siblings and A is daughter of B. C is and none of 4 bigger cubes is painted

71

cousin of B. Who is E? blue.

r-9

1 Wife of F This can be achieved by cutting 16 cubes

ie

2 Grandmother of A of 1 cm each from the faces having blue

op

3 Aunt of C color.
ec

Then from both sides having blue color,

kl

Select the correct answer using the code

ar

we get 16 +16 = 32 small cubes of 1cm.

Sp

given below: Then a cuboid of 2 × 4 × 4 dimensions

(a) 1 and 2 only will be left over. This can be cut into four
(b) 2 and 3 only cubes of 2 cm each, with black and
(c) 1 and 3 only yellow faces.
(d) 1, 2 and 3 The cubes that have only one face
painted = 4 + 4 = 8
13. Each face of a cube can be painted in (From the blue color side, in the middle)
black or white colours. In how many Hence C is the correct answer.

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

2. Answer : C It is given that 7 can read French and 8

Explanation: can read English.
I. No cow is a cat = This statement is wrong 3 can read both the languages.
in 2nd & 3rd possibility. Therefore, people who can read exactly
II. No dog is rat = This statement is wrong one language = 4 + 5 = 9
in 3rd possibility. Hence B is the correct answer.
III. Some cats are rats = This is true in all
cases. 6. Answer : C
Hence only III is correct and C is the Explanation:
correct answer. Number digits required:
1 − 9 pages = 1 × 9 =9
3. Answer : B 10 − 99 pages = 2 × 90 = 180
Explanation: 100 − 999 pages = 3 × 900 = 2700
To ensure that any two consecutive floors Total = 2889
have different colors, It is given that printer used 3089 digits.
I. If middle three are painted in different So, 3089 – 2889 = 200 digits
colors, then it B sufficient. From 1000 – 1049 pages = 50 × 4=200
II. Second and fourth floors are painted in Therefore, the book has 1049 pages
different colors. This is not sufficient, as Hence C is the correct answer.
1st floor can have same color as 2nd floor.
III. The first and fifth floors are painted red. 7. Answer : B
This is sufficient the remaining 3 colors Explanation:
can be used to pain middle three floors. ccacc\aabaa\bbcbb
Therefore, only statement 1 or only The sequence is of five letters. After 5th
statement 3 are sufficient. letter a replaces c, b replaces a and c
From the options, best answer is B. replaces b.
Hence B is the correct answer. Hence B is the correct answer.

4. Answer : D 8. Answer : B
Explanation : Explanation:
From the data, Shortest distance between their offices=
Distance between Q and R = square root square root 15 + 8 = 17m
60 + 80 = 100km Hence B is the correct answer.
Hence D is the correct answer.
9. Answer : D
5. Answer : B Explanation:
Explanation: Let us take P = 3 Q = 2 in S1.
Total no. of people = 15 S2: p + q is an odd integer
People who can't read = 3 pq is an even integer
People who can read either of French & Let us take P = 3 Q = 7 in S1
English = 15 − 3 =12 S2: p + q = 10 is an even integer
Pq is an odd integer

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

Hence, to decide if pq is an odd integer, 14. Answer : D

both S1 and S2 are necessary. Explanation:
Hence D is the correct answer. 10 − 5 × 1 / 5 = 9
Hence D is the correct answer.
10. Answer : D
Explanation: 2018
It is given that starting from B, every 1. Consider the following three
alternate letter of alphabet is written in dimensional figure:
lower case.
Then July month is written as 'jUly'
Hence D is the correct answer.

11. Answer : A
Explanation:
1, 5, 7, 3, 5, 7, 4, 3, 5, 7
The only 5 which is not immediately
preceded by 3 but immediately followed
by 7 is the one between 1 and 7.
Hence A is the correct answer. How many triangles does the above figure
have?
12. Answer : D (a) 18
Explanation: (b) 20
(c) 22
(d) 24 5 3
664

2. Consider the following sum:

86

*+1*+2*+*3+*1= 21*
71

In the above sum, * stands for

r-9

From the given data, above family (a) 4

ie

diagram can be drawn. (b) 5

op

E is wife of F, grandmother of A and also (c) 6

ec

aunt of C. (d) 8
kl

Hence D is the correct answer. Rotated positions of a single solid are

ar
Sp

shown below. The various faces of the

13. Answer : D solid are marked with different symbols
Explanation: like dots, cross and line. Answer the
A cube has 6 faces. Given that each face three items that follow the given figures.
can be painted in black or white i.e., two
ways for each face.
Total no. of ways that cube can be
painted = 6 × 2 = 12
Hence D is the correct answer.

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

3. What is the symbol on the face and C occupy officers to the right of the
opposite to that containing a single corridor (as one enters the office block)
dot? and A occupies on the left of the corridor.
(a) Four dots E and F occupy officers in opposite sides
(b) Three dots the corridor but their offices do not face
(c) Two dots each. The offices of C and D face each
(d) Cross other. E does not have a corner office. F’s
office is further down the corridor than
4. What is the symbol on the face A’s but on the same side.
opposite to that containing two dots?
(a) Single dot 8. If E sits in his offices and faces the
(b) Three dots corridor, whose office is to his left?
(c) Four dots (a) A
(d) Line (b) B
(c) C
5. What is the symbol on the face (d) D
opposite to that containing the cross?
(a) Single dot 9. Who is/ are F’s immediate neighbour/
(b) Two dot neighbours?
(c) Line (a) A only
(d) Four dots (b) A and D
(c) C only
6. If LSJXVC is the code for MUMBAI the (d) B and C
code for DELHI is
(a) CCIDD 10. A solid cube of 3 cm side, painted on
(b) CDKGH all its faces is cut up into small cubes
(c) CCJFG of 1 cm side. How many of the small
(d) CCIFE cubes will have exactly two painted
faces?
7. If RAMON is written as 12345 and (a) 12
DINESH as 675849 then HAMAM will (b) 8
be written as (c) 6
(a) 92233 (d) 4
(b) 92323
(c) 93322 11. If pen<pencil, pencil < book and
(d) 93232 book> cap then which one of the
following is always true?
Directions for the following 2 items (a) Pen>cap
Read following information and answer (b) Pen<book
the two items that follow. (c) Pencil=cap
The plan of an office block for six officers (d) Pencil>cap
A, B, C, D, E and F is as follows: both B

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

Direction for the following 6 Items: (c) A is studying in Kerala

Read the information given below and (d) Engineering college is located in Gujarat.
answer the six items that follow.
A B C and D are students they are 16. Which one of the following statements
studying in four different cities, viz, P Q is correct regarding Engineering
R and S (not necessarily in that order). college?
They are studying in Science college, Arts (a) C is studying there
college, Commerce and Engineering (b) B is studying there
college (not necessarily in that order) (c) It is located in Gujarat
which are situated in four different states (d) D is studying there
viz., Gujrat, Rajasthan, Assam and
Kerala (not necessarily in that order) 17. Which one off the following
further, it is given that- statements is the correct?
(a) D is studying in Assam (a) Engineering college is located in Assam.
(b) Arts college is located in city S which is (b) City Q is situated in Assam
in Rajasthan (c) C is studying in Kerala
(c) A is studying in commerce college (d) B is studying in Gujarat.
(d) B is studying in city Q
(e) Science college is located in Kerala 18. Consider the figures given below:

12. A is studying in
(a) Rajasthan
(b) Gujarat
(c) City Q 53
64
(d) Kerala
6
86

13. Science college is located in

71

(a) City Q
r-9

(b) City S
ie

(c) City R
op

(d) City P
ec
kl

14. C is Studying in
ar

To fit the question mark the correct answer

Sp

(a) Science college is

(b) Rajasthan (a)
(c) Gujarat
(b)
(d) City Q
(c)
15. Which one of the following statements
(d)
is correct?
(a) D is not studying in city S
(b) A is studying in Science college

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

19. Consider the following figures 2018 - Key and Explanation

1. Answer : B
Explanation :
The given figure is a 3 – dimensional
symmetrical figure. The number of
triangles visible on the from side can be
doubled to get total triangles. The front
side has 10 triangles. So total 20
triangles.
In the figures I to IV above, some parts Hence B is the correct answer.
are shown to change their position in
regular directions. Following the same 2. Answer : D
sequence which of the figures given Explanation :
below will appear at VII stage? Let * be x.
Then x + 1x + 2x + 3x + 21 = 21z
(a) x + (10 + x ) + ( 20 + x ) +
(10x + 3) + (10x + 1) = 200 + 10 + x
23x + 39 ⇒ 210 + x
(b)
22x = 176
x =8
Hence D is the correct answer.
(c)

3. Answer : B
(d) Explanation:
Observing figure I and II
Single dot and three dots are opposite to
20. Lakshmi, her brother, her daughter each other.
and her son are badminton players. A Hence B is the correct answer.
game of doubles is about to begin:
1. Lakshmi’s brother is directly across the 4. Answer : C
net from her daughter. Explanation :
2. Her son is diagonally across the net from By observing figure II and III
the worst player’s sibling Two dots and four dots are opposite to
3. The best player and the worst player are each other.
on the same side of the net. Hence C is the correct answer.
Who is the best player?
(a) Her brother 5. Answer : C
(b) Her daughter Explanation :
(c) Her son By observing figure I and II cross and
(d) Lakshmi line are opposite to each other.
Hence C is the correct answer.

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

6. Answer : A If E sits in office facing corridor, C will be

Explanation : to his left.
Hence C is the correct answer.

9. Answer : A
Explanation :
F’s immediate neighbor is A only.
Hence A is the correct answer.

Hence A is the correct answer. 10. Answer : A

Explanation :
7. Answer : B If we cut the cube into 1cm cubes, each
Explanation : side will have 9 squares. Every corner
Given that will have 3 painted faces and way middle
R A M O N place will have 1 painted face.
Each edge of the cube will have 1 piece
with 2 painted face. On the cube there
1 2 3 4 5 are 12 edges. Thus there will be 12 small
D I N E S H cubes with 2 painted faces.
Hence A is the correct answer.

6 7 5 8 4 9 11. Answer : B
H A M A M Explanation :
From the given data :
5 3
64
Pen < Pencil
6

Cap < Pencil < Book

86

9 2 3 2 3
Pen < Pencil < Book
71

Hence B is the correct answer. Pen is always greater than Book.

r-9

Hence B is the correct answer.

ie

8. Answer : C 12. Answer : A

op

Explanation : Explanation :
ec

Student City College State

kl

F B
ar

A P/R Commerce Gujarat

Sp

B Q Science Kerala
A E
C S Arts Rajasthan
D R/P Engineering Assam
D C A is studying in Gujarat.
Hence B is the correct answer.

corridor

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

13. Answer : A
Explanation :
Science college is located in city Q Lakshmi's Brother Lakshmi
Hence A is the correct answer.

14. Answer : B
Explanation :
C is studying in Rajasthan.
Hence B is the correct answer. Lakshmi's daughter Lakshmi's son

15. Answer : A
Explanation :
Lakshmi → worth player.
D is not studying in city S. This is a
Lakshmi’s brother → best player.
correct statement.
Hence A is the correct answer.
Hence A is the correct answer.

2017
16. Answer : D
Explanation : 1. Four tests-Physics, Chemistry,
D is studying in Engineering college. Mathematics and Biology are to be
Hence D is the correct answer. conducted on four consecutive days,
not necessarily in the same order. The
17. Answer : A Physics test is held before the test
Explanation : which is conducted after Biology.
Engineering college is located in Assam, Chemistry is conducted exactly after
This is the correct answer. two tests are held. Which is the last
Hence A is the correct answer. test held?
(a) Physics
18. Answer : A (b) Biology
Explanation : (c) Mathematics
The upper part of the figure is moving (d) Chemistry
towards left in a cyclical manner.
Hence A is the correct answer. 2. Consider the following:
Statement: Good voice is a natural gift
19. Answer : B but one has to keep practicing to improve
Explanation : and excel well in the field of music.
The square is moving in clockwise and Conclusions:
triangle is moving in anticlockwise. I. Natural gifts need nurturing and care.
Hence B is the correct answer. II. Even though one's voice is not good, one
can keep practicing.
20. Answer : A Which one of the following is correct in
Explanation : respect of the above statement and
From given data : conclusions?

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

(a) Only conclusion I follows from the Conclusions:

statement. 1. All healthy people go for morning walk.
(b) Only conclusion II follows from the 2. Morning walk is essential for maintaining
statement, good health.
(c) Either conclusion I or conclusion II What is / are the valid conclusions /
follows from the statement. conclusion?
(d) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II (a) 1 only
follows from the statement. (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
3. Consider the following: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
A+B means A is the son of B.
A – B means A is the wife of B. 6. Examine the following statements:
1. All colours are pleasant.
What does the expression P+R – Q mean? 2. Some colours are pleasant.
(a) Q is the son of P 3. No colour is pleasant.
(b) Q is the wife of P 4. Some colours are not pleasant.
(c) Q is the father of P Given that statement 4 is true, what can be
(d) None of the above definitely concluded?
(a) 1 and 2 are true
4. In a group of six women, there are four (b) 3 is true
tennis players, four postgraduates in (c) 2 is false
Sociology, one postgraduate in (d) 1 is false
Commerce and three bank employees.
Vimala and Kamla are the bank 7.
3
Consider the following relationships
5
64
employees while Amala and Komala among members of a family of six
6

are unemployed. Komala and Nirmala persons A, B, C, D, E and F:

86

are among the tennis players. Amala, 1. The number of males equals that of
71

Kamla, Komala and Nirmala are females

r-9

postgraduates in Sociology of whom 2. A and E are sons of F

ie

two are bank employees. If Shyamala 3. D is the mother of two, one boy and one
op

is a postgraduate in Commerce. Who girl

ec

among the following is both a tennis 4. B is the son of A

kl

player and a bank employee? 5. There is only one married couple in the
ar
Sp

(a) Amala family at present.

(b) Komala
(c) Nirmala Which one of the following inferences can be
(d) Shyamala drawn from the above?
(a) A, B and C are all females
5. Consider the given statement and the (b) A is the husband of D
two conclusions that follow: (c) E and F are children of D
Statement: Morning walk is good for (d) D is the daughter of F
health.

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

8. The outer surface of a 4 cm × 4 cm × 4 A, B, C, D, E, F and G are Lecturers from

cm cube is painted completely in red. different cities-Hyderabad, Delhi,
It is sliced parallel to the faces to Shillong, Kanpur, Chennai, Mumbai and
yield sixty-four 1 cm × 1 cm x 1 cm Srinagar (not necessarily in the same
small cubes. How many small cubes do order) who participated in a conference.
not have painted faces? Each one of them is specialized in a
(a) 8 different subject, viz., Economics,
(b) 16 Commerce, History, Sociology,
(c) 24 Geography, Mathematics and Statistics
(d) 36 (not necessarily in the same order).
Further.
9. Consider the following: 1. Lecturer from Kanpur is specializedin
A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are standing in Geography
a row facing North. 2. Lecturer D is from Shillong
B is not neighbour of G. 3. Lecturer C from Delhi is specializedin
F is to the immediate right of G and Sociology
neighbour of E 4. Lecturer B is specialized in neither
G is not at the extreme end. History nor Mathematics
A is sixth to the left of E. 5. Lecturer A who is specialized in
H is sixth to the right of C. Economics does not belong to Hyderabad
Which one of the following is correct in 6. Lecturer F who is specialized in
respect of the above? Commerce belongs to Srinagar.
(a) C is to the immediate left of A 7. Lecturer G who is specialized in Statistics
(b) D is immediate neighbour of B and F belongs to Chennai.
(c) G is to the immediate right of D
(d) A and E are at the extreme ends 11. Who is specialized in Geography?
(a) B
10. In a certain code, ‘256’ means 'red (b) D
colour chalk', '589’ means 'green (c) E
colour flower and 254' means white (d) Cannot be determined as data are
colour chalk'. The digit in the code inadequate
that indicates white' is
(a) 2 12. To which city does the Lecturer
(b) 4 specialized in Economics belong?
(c) 5 (a) Hyderabad
(d) 8 (b) Mumbai
(c) Neither Hyderabad nor Mumbai
Directions for the following 3 (three) (d) Cannot be determined as data are
Items: inadequate
Consider the given information and
answer the three items that follow.

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

13. Who of the following belongs to 3. Answer : C

Hyderabad? Explanation :
(a) B P + R → P is son of R
(b) E R − Q → R is wife of Q
(c) Neither B nor E So the family diagram is
+ −
(d) Cannot be determined as data are Q =R
inadequate |
P
+
14. In a school, there are five teachers A,
Q is the father of P.
B, C, D and E. A and B teach Hindi and
Hence C is the correct answer.
English. C and B teach English and
Geography. D and A teach
4. Answer : C
Mathematics and Hindi. E and B teach
Explanation :
History and French. Who teaches
From the data, following table can be
maximum number of subjects?
made.
(a) A
(b) B
(c) D
(d) E

2017 - Key and Explanation Nirmala is both a tennis player and a

1. Answer : D rank employee.
Explanation : Hence C is the correct answer.
From the given data, the arrangement of
5 3
64
tests is : 5. Answer : D
6

Day 1 – Biology Explanation :

86

Day 2 – Physics It is not given that all healthy people go

71

Day 3 – Chemistry for morning walk. So conclusion I is

r-9

Day 4 – Mathematics incorrect.

ie

Hence C is the correct answer.

op

The statement didn’t say that morning

ec

walk is essential for good health. So

2. Answer : D
kl

conclusion I is incorrect.
ar

Explanation : Hence D is the correct answer.

Sp

From the given statement, we can’t

conclude both the conclusion. As in the 6. Answer : D
statement only info on practicing is given Explanation :
not on nutrition and care. Also, If the statement – “Some colours are not
information regarding non good voice is pleasant” is true, then statement “All
not there. colours are pleasant” is definitely false.
Hence D is the correct answer.

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

7. Answer : B 11. Answer : A

Explanation : Explanation :
From the given data From the given data following table can
Males Females be made.
A,E,B D,F,C
A, E are sons of F
B , C are children of D
A and D are couple
Hence B is the correct answer.

8. Answer : A
Explanation :
B is the specialized in geography.
If the 4 × 4 × 4 cube is cut into 1 × 1 × 1
cubes. Hence A is the correct answer.
Then only the cubes come from inside
won’t have painted faces. 12. Answer : B
If we remove 1cm from top, bottom and
Explanation :
each side, then 2 × 2 × 2 will remain.
This gives 8 cubes. Lecturer specialized in economics
Hence A is the correct answer. belongs to Mumbai.
Hence B is the correct answer.
9. Answer : C
Explanation :
From the given data, the seating 13. Answer : B
arrangements. Explanation :
E belongs to Hyderabad.

G is to the immediate right of D. Hence B is the correct answer.

Hence C is the correct answer.
14. Answer : B
10. Answer : B
Explanation :
Explanation :
(i) 256 – Red colour chalk. From the given data :
(ii) 589 – Green colour flower.
(iii) 254 – White colur chalk.
From (i), (ii) → 5 → colour
From (ii), (iii) → 2 → chalk
4 → white
Hence B is the correct answer. Therefore B teaches maximum number
of subjects.
Hence B is the correct answer.

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

2016 in a parallel. He started at the

1. A ate grapes and pineapple; B ate intersection of two roads, drove 3 km
grapes and oranges; C ate oranges, north, 3. km west and 4 km south.
pineapple and apple; D ate grapes, Which further
apple and pineapple. After taking route could bring him back to his
fruits, B and C fell sick. In the light of starting point, if the same route is not
the above facts, it can be said that the repeated ?
cause of sickness was : (a) 3 km east, then 2 km south
(a) Apple (b) 3 km east, then 1 km north
(b) Pineapple (c) 1 km north, then 2 km west
(c) Grapes (d) 3 km south, then 1 km north
(d) Oranges
4. There were 50 faculty members
2. Consider the following statements : comprising 30 males and the rest
1. The rate of population growth is females. No male faculty member
increasing in the country knew music, but many of the female
2. The death rate is declining faster in the faculty members did. The Head of the
country compared to birth rate institution invited six faculty
3. The birth rate is declining faster in the members to a tea party by draw of
country compared to death rate lots. At the party it was discovered
4. Rural-urban migration is taking place that no member knew music. The
regularly in the country conclusion is that:
(a) The party comprised male faculty
Which one of the following conclusions may members only 53
64
be true in the light of the above facts? (b) The party comprised only those female
6

(a) The rate of population growth is faculty members who could not give
86

increasing due to rural-urban migration renderings in music

71

(b) The rate of population growth is (c) The party comprised both male and
r-9

increasing due to decline in death rate female faculty members

ie

only (d) Nothing can be said about the gender

op

(c) The rate of population growth is composition of the party

ec

increasing due to increase in birth rate

kl

5. Five people A, B, C, D and E are seated

ar

only
Sp

(d) The rate of population growth is about a round table. Every chair is
increasing due to faster decline in death spaced equidistant from adjacent
rate than in birth rate chairs.
(i) C is seated next to A
3. A person X was driving in a place (ii) A is seated two seats from D
where all roads ran either north-south (iii) B is not seated next to A
or east-west, forming a grid. Roads are
at a distance of 1 km from each other

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

On the basis of above information, which of Directions for the following 5 (five)
the following must be true ? items: Consider the following
1. D is seated next to B information and answer the five items
2. E is seated next to A that follow :
3. D and C are separated by two seats There are five persons in a group — P, Q,
R, S and T. The group has one doctor,
Select the correct answer using the code one lawyer and one artist. P and S are
given below: unmarried students. T is a man married
(a) 1 only to one of the group members. Q is the
(b) 1 and 2 only brother of P and is neither doctor nor
(c) 3 only artist. R is not doctor.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 nor 3
8. Who is the doctor ?
6. There are five hobby clubs in a college (a) T
… photography, yachting, chess, (b) P
electronics and gardening. The (c) Q
gardening group meets every second (d) R
day, the electronics group meets every
third day, the chess group meets 9. Who is the artist ?
every fourth day, the yachting group (a) P
meets every fifth day and the (b) Q
photography group meets every sixth (c) R
day. How many times do all the five (d) T
groups meet on the same day within
180 days ? 10. Who is the spouse of R ?
(a) 5 (a) P
(b) 18 (b) T
(c) 10 (c) Q
(d) 3 (d) S

7. There are some nectar-filled flowers 11. Who is the lawyer ?

on a tree and some bees are hovering (a) P
on it. If one bee lands on each flower, (b) Q
one bee will be left out. If two bees (c) R
land on each flower, one flower will be (d) S
left out. The number of flowers and
bees respectively are : 12. Who of the following is definitely a
(a) 2 and 4 man?
(b) 3 and 2 (a) P
(c) 3 and 4 (b) S
(d) 4 and 3 (c) Q
(d) None of the above

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

13. Four friends A,B,C and D need to cross Direction for the following 3 (three)
a bridge. A maximum of two persons items : Consider the given information
can cross it at a time. It is night and and answer the three items that
they just have one lamp. Persons that follow.
cross the bridge must carry the lamp Six boxes A, B, C, D, E and F have been
to find the way. A pair must walk painted with six different colours viz.,
together at the speed of slower violet, indigo, blue, green, yellow and
person. After crossing the bridge, the orange and arranged from left to right
person having faster speed in the pair (not necessarily either kept or painted
will return with the lamp each time to with the colours in the same order). Each
accompany another person in the box contains a ball of any one of the
group. Finally, the lamp has to be following six games: cricket, hockey,
returned at the original place and the tennis, golf, football and volleyball (not
person who returns the lamp has to necessarily in the same order). The golf
cross the bridge without lamp. The ball is in violet box and is not in the box
time taken by them is as follows: A: 1 D. The box A which contains tennis ball
minute, B: 2 minutes, C: 7 minutes is orange in colour and is at the extreme
and D:10 minutes. What is the total right. The hockey ball is neither in box D
minimum time required by all the nor in box E. The box C having cricket
friends to cross the bridge? ball is painted green. The hockey ball is
(a) 23 minutes neither in the box painted blue nor in the
(b) 22 minutes box painted yellow. The box C is fifth
(c) 21 minutes from right and next to box B. The box B
(d) 20 minutes
3
contains volleyball. The box containing
5
64
the hockey ball is between the boxes
6

14. Consider the following statements : containing golf ball and volleyball.
86

1. Either A and B are of the same age or A

71

is older than B 15. Which one of the following boxes

r-9

2. Either C and D are of the same age or D contains the golf ball ?
ie

is older than C (a) F

op

3. B is older than C (b) E

ec

(c) D
kl

Which of the following conclusions can be (d) None of the above

ar
Sp

drawn from the above statements ?

(a) A is older than B 16. Which of the following statements
(b) B and D are of the same age is/are correct?
(c) D is older than C (a) D is painted yellow
(d) A is older than C (b) F is painted indigo
(c) B is painted blue
(d) All of the above

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

17. The football is in the box of which (c) 17 km

colour? (d) 11km
(a) Yellow
(b) Indigo 21. A person is standing on the first step
(c) Cannot be determined as data are from the bottom of a ladder. If he has
inadequate to climb 4 more steps to reach exactly
(d) Blue the middle step, how many steps does
the ladder have ?
18. A piece of tin is in the form of a (a) 8
rectangle having length 12 cm and (b) 9
width 8 cm. This is used to construct (c) 10
a closed cube. The side of the cube is : (d) 11
(a) 2 cm
(b) 3 cm Direction for the following 3 (three)
(c) 4 cm items : Consider the given information
(d) 6 cm and answer the three items that
follow.
19. In a question paper there are five When three friends A, B and C met, it
questions to be attempted and answer was
to each question has two choices – found that each of them wore an outer
True (T) or False (F). It is given that no garment of a different colour. In random
two candidates have given the answer order, the garments are: jacket, sweater
to the five questions in an identical and tie; and the colours are: blue, white
sequence. For this to happen the and black. Their surnames in random
maximum number of candidates is : order are: Ribeiro, Kumar and Singh.
(a) 10 Further, we know that :
(b) 18 1. Neither B nor Ribeiro wore a white
(c) 26 sweater
(d) 32 2. C wore a tie
3. Singh's garment was not white
20. A person climbs a hill in a straight 4. Kumar does not wear a jacket
path from point 'O' on the ground in 5. Ribeiro does not like to wear the black
the direction of north-east and colour
reaches a point 'A' after travelling a 6. Each of the friends wore only one outer
distance of 5 km. Then, from the garment of only one colour
point 'A' he moves to point 'B' in the
direction of north-west. Let the 22. What is C's surname ?
distance AB be 12 km. Now, how far is (a) Ribeiro
the person away from the starting (b) Kumar
point 'O'? (c) Singh
(a) 7 km (d) Cannot be determined
(b) 13 km

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

23. What is the colour of the tie? 28. If R and S are different integers both
(a) Black divisible by 5, then which of the
(b) Blue following is not necessarily true ?
(c) White (a) R − S is divisible by 5
(d) Cannot be determined (b) R + S is divisible by 10
(c) R × S is divisible by 25
24. Who wore the sweater ? (d) R 2 + S 2 is divisible by 5
(a) A
(b) B 29. How many numbers are there between
(c) C 100 and 300 which either begin or end
(d) Cannot be determined with 2 ?
(a) 110
25. A person walks 12 km due north, then (b) 111
15 km due east, after that 19 km due (c) 112
west and then 15 km due south. How (d) None of these
far is he from the starting point ?
(a) 5 km 2016 - Key and Explanation
(b) 9 km 1. Answer : D
(c) 37 km Explanation :
(d) 61 km Lets take A-apple, P-pineapple, G-Grapes,
O-Orange
26. A cube has all its faces painted with A ate G, P
different colours. It is cut into smaller B ate G, O
cubes of equal sizes such that the side C ate O, P 5 3
64
of the small cube is one-fourth the big D ate G, A, P
B and C fell ill because orange is the
6

cube. The number of small cubes with

86

only one of the sides painted is : cause of sickness

71

Hence D is the correct answer.

(a) 32
r-9

(b) 24
2. Answer : D
ie

(c) 16
op

Explanation :
(d) 8
ec

From the given statements, best possible

conclusion can be “the rate of population
kl

27. A military code writes SYSTEM as

ar

growth is increasing due to faster decline

Sp

SYSMET and NEARER as AENRER. in death rate than in birth rate”

Using the same code, FRACTION can Hence D is the correct answer.
be written as :
(a) CARFTION 3. Answer : B
(b) FRACNOIT Explanation :
(c) NOITCARF Person A started at A and currently at B.
(d) CARFNOIT To reach A, X has to move 3km east then
1km north.

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

7. Answer : C
Explanation :
Let b − no of bees
f − no of flowers given that
i. B = f × 1 +1
ii. B = (f − 1)2
From i and ii f +1 = 2f − 2
F=3 ; B=4
Hence C is the correct answer.
Hence B is the correct answer.

8. Answer : A
4. Answer : A
Explanation :
Explanation :
It is given that no male member knew
music and many of the female faculty
knew music. As no member at sea party
knew music, the possible options are
i. The tea party comprised only male From the given data, we can conclude
ii. Tea party has males and females who that T married R.
don’t know music T is a doctor
From the given options, the best possible Hence A is the correct answer.
one is A
Hence A is the correct answer. 9. Answer : C
Explanation :
5. Answer : B From the above table, R is the artist.
Explanation : Hence C is the correct answer.
The possible seating arrangements are
10. Answer : B
Explanation :
From above table, T is the spouse of R.
Hence 1 and 2 only are correct. Hence B is the correct answer.
Thus B is the correct answer.
11. Answer : B
6. Answer : D Explanation :
Explanation : From above table, Q is the lawyer
The least common multiple of 2, 3, 4, 5, Hence B is the correct answer.
6 is 60. That means all groups meet on
the same day on every 60th day. 12. Answer : C
In 180 days, they meet 3 times. Explanation :
Hence D is the correct answer. From the table we can definitely say that
Q and T are men.
Hence C is the correct answer.

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

13. Answer : A 16. Answer : B

Explanation : Explanation :
Given times are A- 1 minute Colors of B, D cant be said conclusively.
B – 2 minute Color of F is Indigo
C – 7 minute Hence B is the correct answer.
D -10 minutes
Step time taken in minutes 17. Answer : C
A and D crosses 10 Explanation :
A returns with lamp 1 Color of the box containing foot ball cant
A and C crosses 7 be determined from the given data
A returns with lamp 1 Hence C is the correct answer.
A and B crosses 2
A returns with lamp 1 18. Answer : C
A crosses without lamp 1 Explanation :
Total time taken 23 minutes Total area of the tin = 12 × 8 = 96 cm2
Hence A is the correct answer. If this sheet is used to construct a closed
cube, then total surface area of the cube
14. Answer : D must be 96cm2
Explanation : If a is the side of the cube, then
The expression that can be derived from 6a2 = 96
given data is A ≥ B > C ≤ D a 2 = 16
The conclusion that can be drawn is A is a=4
older than C. hence C is the correct answer
Hence D is the Correct answer. 5 3
64
19. Answer : D
6

15. Answer : B Explanation :

86

Explanation : It is given that there are 5 questions

71

From the given data, following table can possible responses of every question = 2
r-9

be made. hence total number of unique responses

ie

Position possible are = 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 = 32

op

Ball Color Box

from left thus max 32 candidates can give
ec

Golf Violet E 5 answers without any two persons giving

kl

identical responses
ar

Tennis Orange A 6
Sp

Hockey Indigo F 4 hence D is the correct answer.

Cricket Green C 2
Volley ball − B 3 20. Answer : B
Foot ball − D 1 Explanation :
Golf ball is in box E From the given data, following can be
Hence B is the correct answer. drawn
OAB is a right angle triangle with sides
5, 12

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

24. Answer : A
Explanation :
From above table, A wore sweater
Hence A is the correct answer

25. Answer : A
OB = hypotenuse = 52 + 122 = 13km Explanation :
Hence B is the correct answer. Let the person start at O

21. Answer : B
Explanation :
Given that person is on 1st step from
bottom

2
Distance OB = 3 + 42 = 5 km
Hence A is the correct answer.

26. Answer : B
5th step is the middle step Explanation :
So total number of steps on the ladder It is given that side of small cube is 1/4th
=4+1+4=9 of the side of big cube
Hence B is the correct answer. That means every side of big cube is cut
into smaller cubes as shown below.
22. Answer : A
Explanation :
Following table can be made using the
given date.
Person Surname Color Garment
A Kumar White Sweater
B Singh Black Jacket
C Robeiro Blue Tie
C’s surname is Robeiro This is the view of one side of big cube
Hence A is the correct answer. (4cm)
When cut into 16 smaller cubes (1cm)
23. Answer : B In above small cubes only 6, 7, 10, 11
Explanation : have only one face pointed.
From above table, color of tie is blue Therefore, total number of small cubes
Hence A is the correct answer with one face painted = 4 × 6 sides
= 24 cubes
Hence B is the correct answer.

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

27. Answer : D 2. An automobile owner reduced his

Explanation : monthly petrol consumption when the
prices went up. The price-
consumption relationship is as
follows:
Price (in Rs. Per litre)
40,50,60,75
divide into equal halfs. Write from right Monthly consumption (in.L)
to left. Hence D is the correct answer 60,48,40,32
If the price goes up to Rs. 80 per litre,
28. Answer : B his expected consumption (in litres)
Explanation : will be :
Let us take R = 10, S = 5 (a) 30
R-S = 5 divisible by 5 ; (b) 28
R+S = 15 not divisible by 10 (c) 26
Hence B is not necessarily true (d) 24

29. Answer : A 3. Consider the following given below :

Explanation :
Number ending with 2 between 100 and
199 are 102,112,122.......192 10 in
number
To fit the question mark, the correct
Number either starting with 2 or ending
answer is :
with 2 between 200 and 300 are 100 in
(a)
5 3
64
number (200, 201, 202.............299)
6

Hence total = 10 + 100 = 110

86

Hence A is the correct answer. (b)

71
r-9

(c)
2015
ie
op

1. Twelve people form a club. By picking

(d)
ec

lots, one of them will host a dinner for

kl

all once in a month. The number of

ar

dinners a particular member has to 4. Consider the following matrix :

Sp

host in one year is 3 8 10 2 ? 1

(a) One 6 56 90 2 20 0
(b) Zero
What is the missing number at ‘?’ in the
(c) Three
matrix ?
(d) cannot be predicted
(a) 5
(b) 0
(c) 7
(d) 3

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

5. What is the missing number 'X' of the 8. Four persons A, B, C and D consisting
series 7, X, 21, 31, 43? of two married couples are in a group.
(a) 11 Both the women are shorter than their
(b) 12 respective husbands. A is the tallest
(c) 13 among the four. C is taller than B. D is
(d) 14 B's brother. In this context, which one
of the following statements is not
6. Four cardboard pieces of specific correct?
shapes are shown in the following (a) All four have family ties.
figure : (b) B is the shortest among the four.
(c) C is taller than D
(d) A is B's husband.

9. Consider the following statements :

Which one of the following figures given can 1. A man had a wife, two sons and two
be formed by joining these pieces together? daughters in his family.
(a) 2. The daughters were invited to a feast and
the male members of the family went out
to take part in a picnic.
(b)
3. The man's father did not return from his
work.
(c) Which of the following statements is true?
(a) Only the man's wife was left at home.
(b) It is likely that the man's wife was left at
(d) home.
(c) None was left at home.
(d) More than one person was left at home.
7. In a test, a candidate attempted only
8 questions and secured 50% marks in 10. Geeta : Naresh has become a better
each of the questions. If he obtained a boxer since he started meditation.
total of 40% in the test and all Radha : Impossible. A boxer's most
questions in the test carried equal important asset is his aggressiveness.
marks, how many questions were Radha's statement reflects her belief
there in the test ? that
(a) 8 (a) meditation tends to make a person less
(b) 10 aggressive.
(c) 15 (b) meditation has little or no effect on the
(d) 16 person who practises it.
(c) Naresh was a poor boxer earlier because
he was not aggressive enough.
(d) Naresh would not have taken to
meditation as he was a boxer.

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

11. All good athletes want to win and all The conclusion that can be drawn from these
athletes who want to win eat a well- statements is that
balanced diet therefore all athletes (a) peas are as tasty as lady's finger.
who do not eat a well-balanced diet (b) peas are as tasty as cauliflower and
are bad athletes. lady's finger.
The best conclusion from this statements is (c) cabbage is the least tasty of the four
that vegetables.
(a) no bad athlete wants to win (d) cauliflower is tastier than cabbage.
(b) no athlete who does not eat a well-
balanced diet is a good athlete 15. Shahid and Rohit start from the same
(c) every athlete who eats a well – balanced point in opposite directions. After
diet is a good athlete each 1 km, Shahid always turns left
(d) all athlete who want to win are good and Rohit always turns right. Which of
athletes the following statements is correct?
(a) After both have travelled 2 km, the
12. If A runs less fast than B, and B runs distance
as fast but not faster than C; then, as between them is 4 km.
compared to A, C runs (b) They meet after each has travelled 3 km.
(a) slower than A (c) They meet for the first time after each
(b) faster than A has travelled 4 km
(c) with same speed as A (d) They go on without ever meeting again.
(d) Given data is not sufficient to determine
16. Each of the six different faces of a
13. Each of A, B, C and D has Rs. 100. A
3
cube has been coated with a different
5
64
pays Rs. 20 to B, who pays Rs. 10 to colour i.e., V, I, B, G, Y and O.
6

C, who gets Rs. 30 from D. In this Following information is given :

86

context, which one of the following 1. Colours Y, O and B are on adjacent

71

statements is not correct? faces.

r-9

(a) C is the richest 2. Colours I, G and Y are on adjacent faces.

ie

(b) D is the poorest 3. Colours B, G and Y are on adjacent

op

(c) C has more than what A and D have faces.

ec

together 4. Colours O, V and B are on adjacent

kl

(d) B is richer than D faces.

ar
Sp

Which is the colour of the face opposite to

14. Examine the following statements: the face coloured with O ?
1. Lady's finger is tastier than cabbage. (a) B
2. Cauliflower is tastier than lady's finger. (b) V
3. Cabbage is not tastier than peas. (c) G
(d) I

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

17. Consider the following statements 20. Which one of the following is possible?
followed by two conclusions : (a) D is 20 years old
Statements : Some men are great. (b) F is 18 years old
Some men are wise. (c) F is 19 years old
Conclusion 1 : Men are either great or wise. (d) F is 20 years old
Conclusion II : Some men are neither great
nor wise. 21. What is the number of logically
Which one of the following is correct? possible orders of all six cousins in
(a) Only conclusion I is valid terms of increasing age ?
(b) Only conclusion II is valid (a) 1
(c) Both the conclusions are valid (b) 2
(d) Neither of the conclusions is valid (c) 3
(d) 4
18. If ABC × DEED = ABCABC where A, B,
C, D and E are different digits, what 22. Two men, Anil and David, and two
are the values of D and E? women, Shabnam and Rekha are in a
(a) D = 2, E = 0 sales group. Only two speak Tamil.
(b) D = 0, E = 1 The other two speak Marathi. Only
(c) D = 1, E = 0 one man and one woman can drive a
(d) D = 1, E = 2 car. Shabnam speaks Marathi. Anil
speaks Tamil. Both Rekha and David
19. Usha runs faster than Kamala, Priti can drive.
runs slower than Swati, Swati runs Which of the following statements is true?
slower than Kamala. Who is the (a) Both the Tamil speakers can drive a car.
slowest runner ? (b) Both the Marathi speakers can drive a
(a) Kamala car.
(b) Priti (c) Both of those who can drive a car speak
(c) Swati Marathi.
(d) Usha (d) One of those who can drive a car speaks
Tamil.
Directions for the following 2 (two)
items: Read the following passage and 23. In a plane, line X is perpendicular to
answer the 2 (two) items that follow : line Y and parallel to line Z; line U is
A, B, C, D, E and F are cousins. No two perpendicular to both lines V and W;
cousins are of the same age, but all have line X is perpendicular to line V.
birthdays on the same day of the same Which one of the following statements is
month. The youngest is 17 years old and correct ?
the (a) Z, U and W are parallel
oldest E is 22 years old. F is somewhere (b) X, V and Y are parallel
between B and D in age. A is older than (c) Z, V and U are all perpendicular to W
B. C is older than D. A is one year older (d) Y, V and W are parallel
than C.

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

24. A society consists of only two types of So when the petrol price per litre = 80
people - fighters and cowards. Two 2400
Expected consumption = = 30
cowards are always friends. A fighter 80
and a coward are always enemies. Hence A is the correct answer.
Fighters are indifferent to one
another. If A and B are enemies, C and 3. Answer : A
D are friends, E and F are indifferent Explanation :
to each other, A and E are not The objects at the end of the lines are
enemies, while B and F are enemies. moving in anti-clock wise direction.
Which of the following statements is correct? The triangle is moving in clockwise
(a) B, C and F are cowards. direction by 900 and is getting inversed.
(b) A, E and F are fighters. Hence A is the correct answer.
(c) B and E are in the same category.
(d) A and F are in different categories. 4. Answer : A
Explanation :
25. Candidates in a competitive The given number matrix followed a
examination consisted of 60% men pattern of n 2 = n
and 40% women. 70% men and 75% 32 − 3 = 6
women cleared the qualifying test and 82 − 8 = 56
entered the final test where 80% men 102 − 10 = 90
and 70% women were successful. Hence 52 − 5 = 20 and A is the correct
Which of the following statements is correct? answer.
(a) Success rate is higher for women
(b) Overall success rate is below 50% 5. Answer : A 5 3
64
(c) More men cleared the examination than Explanation :
6

women.
86

(d) Both (a) and (b) above are correct.

71
r-9

Therefore x = 7 + 6 = 13
2015 - Key and Explanation
ie

Hence A is the correct answer.

1. Answer : D
op

Explanation :
ec

6. Answer : D
As they are deciding the host by picking
kl

Explanation :
ar

lots , the number of times a particular The given pieces are two rectangles and
Sp

member has to host dinner can’t be two right angle triangles. By joining
determined. them, we get only the figure given in
Hence D is the correct answer. option D.
2. Answer : A Hence D is the correct answer.
Explanation : 7. Answer : B
The price incurred by automobile owner Explanation :
every month is fixed at 2400. Let there are n numbers of questions,
( 60 × 40,50 × 45, 40 × 60,75 × 32) each carrying x marks.

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

Candidate obtained 40% of total marks = boring performance, which require

0.4n x. aggression would not have improved.
Given that candidate attempted 8 Hence A is the correct answer.
questions. And obtained 0.5x matrix in
each question, 11. Answer : B
Therefore, 8 × 0.5x = 0.4nx Explanation :
8 × 0.5 Let the rectangle be all Athletes
n=
0.4
n = 10
Hence B is the correct answer.

8. Answer : C
Explanation :
Given that there are two couples in A, B,
C, D
D is B’s brother ⇒ D is male. Athletes outside the outer are those who
A is tallest of all ⇒ A is male don’t eat a well balance diet, they are bad
C is taller than B ⇒ is shortest of all Athletes.
From the options, C and D can be
A, D are males
eliminated by looking at the Venn
B, C are females
diagram above. There is no conclusive
AB, CD are couples.
statements that no bad.
The question is asking for incorrect
Want to win ⇒ option A can be
statement.
eliminated.
C is taller than D is incorrect as the
Hence best conclusion can be option B
husbands are taller their wives.
No athlete who doesn’t eat a well –
Hence is C the correct answer.
balanced diet is a good athlete.
Hence B is the correct answer.
9. Answer : B
Explanation :
12. Answer : B
It is given that the daughters were
Explanation :
invited to a feast. It is not sure whether
From the given data we can conclude
they went for it or not.
that speeds of C > B > A
By considering all the given statements,
Hence B is the correct answer.
the correct conclusion can be – it is likely
that the man’s wife was left at home.
13. Answer : C
Hence B is the correct answer.
Explanation :
Initial amounts with A, B, C, D = 100
10. Answer : A
After transactions, amounts are
Explanation :
A – 80
Radha’s statement reflect that meditation
B – 110
makes a person less aggressive. As
C – 140
Naresh has started meditation, his

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

D – 70 Hence C is the correct answer.

Statement C is incorrect as A and D
together have more amount than C. 17. Answer : D
Hence C is the correct answer. Explanation :
From the given statements, we can’t
14. Answer : C conclusively say that men are either wise
Explanation : or great. In the same way, we can’t
Given data conclude some men are neither great nor
(i) Califlower > Lady’s finger > Cabage wise.
(ii) Cabbage > Peas Hence D is the correct answer.
The best conclusion that can be drawn is
cabbage is the least tasty of the four 18. Answer : C
vegetables. Explanation :
Hence C is the correct answer. Given that ABC × DEED × ABCABC
(100A + 10B + C )(10000 + 100E + 10E + D )
15. Answer : B = 105 A + 104 B + 103 C + 100 A + 10B + C
Explanation : (100A + 10B + C )(1001D + 110E )
= 100100 A + 10010B + 1001C
Comparing both sides
100100 AD = 100100 A
D = 1; E = 0
Hence C is the correct answer.

19. Answer : B 5 3
64
Explanation :
Rohit and Shahid starts at 0. Rohit takes
6

From the given data

86

right turn and shahid takes left after

Preethi < Swati < Kamala < Usha
71

every 1km. If they continue, they meet at

Preethi is the slowest runner.
r-9

M after travelling 3 km each.

Hence B is the correct answer.
ie

Hence B is the correct answer.

op

20. Answer : B
ec

16. Answer : C
Explanation :
kl

Explanation :
ar

From the given data, possible

Sp

arrangements are
(i) E – 22 (ii) E – 22
A – 21 B – 21
C – 20 A – 20
B – 19 C –19
F – 18 F – 18
D – 17 D – 17
Hence color of the face opposite to orange
Hence B is the correct answer.
is Green.

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

21. Answer : A (ii) C, D are friends ⇒ both C, D are

Explanation : cowards.
From the above arrangements, 2 ways (iii) E, F are indifferent ⇒ both are
are possible. fighters.
Hence B is the correct answer.
(iv) A, E are not enemies ⇒ A is also a
fighter.
22. Answer : D
(v) B, F are enemies ⇒ B is a coward.
Explanation :
Given that Anil, David → Men Hence A, E, F are fighters.
Retha, Shabam → women B, C, D are cowards
Only two can speak Tamil. Hence B is the correct answer.
Only two can speak Marathi.
Only one Men and are Women can drive
25. Answer : C
a car.
A D R S Explanation :

Language T M Let us assume there are 100 candidates.

Car driving P P Men = 60
From the statements given, only possible Women = 40
statement is D. Candidates clearing qualifying test
Hence D is the correct answer.
70
Men = 60 × = 42
100
23. Answer : D
75
Explanation : Women = 40 × = 30
100
Given that :
Candidates who were successful in final
test
80
Men = 42 × = 33.6
100
70
Women = 30 × = 21
100
Success rate for Men
Hence D is the correct answer. 33.6 11.2
= ⇒
60 20
24. Answer : B Success rate for Women
Explanation : 21 10.5
= ⇒
Given that two cowards are always 40 20
friends, a fighter and a coward are Over all success rate = 54.6
always enemies, two fighters are Hence C is the correct answer.
indifferent to one another.
(i) A, B are enemies ⇒ one of them is
a fighter and another is coward

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

2014 F is 1 km to the West of D

1. A group of 630 children is seated in B is 1 km to the East of E
rows for a group photo session. Each A is 2 km to the North of E
row contains three less children than C is 1 km to the East of A.
the row in front of it. Which one of the D is 1 km to the South of A.
following number of rows is not Which three villages are in the line ?
possible? (a) A, C, B
(a) 3 (b) A, D, E
(b) 4 (c) C, B, F
(c) 5 (d) E, B, D
(d) 6
5. Four children are sitting in a row. A is
2. There are seven persons up on a occupying the seat next to B but not
ladder A, B, C, D, E, F and G (not in next to C. If C is not sitting next to D,
that order). A is further up than E but who is/are occupying seat/seats
is lower than C,B is in the middle. G is adjacent to D ?
between A and B. E is between B and (a) B
F. If F is between E and D, the person (b) A
on the bottom step of the ladder will (c) B and A
be (d) Impossible to tell
(a) B
(b) F 6. Six books are labeled A,B,C,D,E and F
(c) D and are placed side by side. Books
(d) C
5 3
B,C,E, and F have green covers while
64
others have yellow covers. Books A,B
6

3. Consider that : and D are new while the rest are old
86

1. A is taller than B volumes. Books A,B and C are law

71

2. C is taller than A reports while the rest are medical

r-9

3. D is taller than C extracts. Which two books are old

ie

4. E is the tallest of all medical extracts and have green

op

If they are made to sit in the above covers?

ec

order of their height, who will occupy (a) B and C

kl

(b) E and F
ar

the mid position?

Sp

(a) A (c) C and E

(b) B (d) C and F
(c) C
(d) D 7. A straight line segment is 36 cm long.
Points are to be marked on the line
4. Consider the following statements : from both the end points. From each
There are six villages A, B, C, D, E and end, the first point is at a distance of
F. 1 cm from the end, the second point
is at a distance of 2cm from the first

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

point and the third point is at a Which one of the following figures fits
distance of 3cm from the second point into the blank part of the above
and so on. If the points on the ends matrix?
are not counted and the common
(a)
points are counted as one, what is the
number of points ?
(a) 10
(b) 12 (b)
(c) 14
(d) 16
(c)
8. Examine the following figure :

(d)

Which one of the following figures has

10. Consider the table given below in
the above figure embedded in it ?
which the numbers bear certain
relationship among themselves along
(a)
rows :
29 13 18
33 X 19
(b) 30 27 3
Which one of the following numbers is the
missing number indicated above by X?
(a) 19
(c) (b) 15
(c) 14
(d) 8

(d)
11. Consider the following matrix with
one empty block in the lower extreme
corner:
9. Consider the following matrix :

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

Which of the following figures could fit in the

empty block and thus complete the matrix ?

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

12. With reference to the figure given

below, the number of different routes
14. "Price is not the same thing as value.
from S to T without retracting from U
Suppose that on a day the price of
and /or V, is
everything viz., coal, bread, postage
stamps, a day's labour, the rent of
houses, etc. were to double. Prices
then would certainly rise, but values
5 3
of all things except one would not."
64

(a) 3
6
86

(b) 6 The writer wants to say that if prices of all

71

(c) 9 things were doubled

r-9

(d) 18 (a) The values of all things would remain

constant.
ie
op

13. Consider the following figures : (b) The values of the things sold would be
ec

doubled.
kl

(c) The values of the things bought would be

ar

halved.
Sp

Change in positions of beads in the (d) The value of money only would be
four figures above follows a sequence. halved.
Following the same sequence, which
of the figures below should appear as 15. A and B decide to travel from place X
the fifth figure above ? to place Y by bus. A has Rs. 10 with
him and he finds that it is 80 % of the
bus fare for two persons. B finds that
he has Rs. 3 with him and hands it

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

over to A. In this context, which one (a) Jalaja

of the following statements is correct? (b) Pooja
(a) Now the money A has is just enough to (c) Shailaja
buy two tickets. (d) Tanuja
(b) A still needs Rs. 2 for buying the tickets.
(c) After buying the two tickets A will be left 18. The letters L, M, N, O, P, Q, R, S and T
with 50 paise. in their order are substituted by nine
(d) The money A now has is still not integers 1 to 9 but not in that order 4
sufficient to buy two tickets. is assigned to P. The difference
between P and T is 5. The difference
16. A question paper must have a question between N and T is 3. What is the
on one of the eight poets: A, B, C, D, integer assigned to N ?
E, F, G or H. The first four belong to (a) 7
the medieval period while the rest are (b) 5
considered modern poets. Generally, (c) 4
modern poets figure in the question (d) 6
paper in alternate years. Generally,
those who like H like G also; and those 19. The number of deaths among the army
who like F like E also. The paper- personnel is 8 in 1000, but among the
setter does not like to ask about F as civilian population it is 20 per 1000.
he has written a book on F, but he Which one of the following inferences
likes F. Last year, the paper contained can be drawn from this statement?
a question on A. On the basis of the (a) It is better to join the army.
information given, this year's paper is (b) The relationship is fortuitous.
most likely to contain a question on (c) Quality of Life Index is very high within
(a) C the armed forces.
(b) E (d) The groups cannot be compared due to
(c) F their heterogeneity.
(d) H
20. Given the statement: "Buses are the
17. In a group of six women there are four cause of more accidents than cars,
dancers, four vocal musicians, one and trucks cause fewer accidents than
actress and three violinists. Girija and buses", which of the following
Vanaja are among the violinists while conclusions can we draw ?
Jalaja and Shailaja do not know how (a) There are more buses on the road than
to play on the violin. Shailaja and trucks.
Tanuja are among the dancers. Jalaja, (b) Car drivers are more careful than bus
Vanaja, Shailaja and Tanuja are all drivers.
vocal musicians and two of them are (c) Truck drivers are more skilled than
also violinists. If Pooja is an actress, either car or bus drivers.
who among the following is certainly a (d) None of the above
dancer and a violinist?

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

21. Four persons, Alok, Bhupesh, Chander (c) 25

and Dinesh have a total of Rs. 100 (d) 24
among themselves. Alok and Bhupesh
between them have as much money as 24. Location of B is north of A and
Chander and Dinesh between them, location of C is east of A. The
but Alok has more money than distances AB and AC are 5 km and 12
Bhupesh and Chander has only half km respectively. The shortest
the money that Dinesh has. Alok has distance (in km) between the locations
in fact Rs. 5 more than Dinesh has. B and C is
Who has maximum amount of money? (a) 60
(a) Alok (b) 13
(b) Bhupesh (c) 17
(c) Chander (d) 7
(d) Dinesh
Directions for the following 3 (three)
22. Examine the following statements : items : Read the passage given below
1. George attends Music classes on and answer the items that follow.
Monday. A, B, C, D, E, F are members of a
2. Heattends Mathematics classes on family. They are engineer,
Wednesday. stenographer, doctor, draughtsman,
3. His Literature classes are not on Friday. lawyer and judge (not in order). A, the
4. He attends History classes on the day engineer is married to the lady
following the day of his Mathematics stenographer. The judge is married to
classes.
3
the lawyer. F, the draughtsman is the
5
64
5. On Tuesday, he attends his Sports son of B and brother of E. C, the
6

classes. lawyer is the daughter-in-law of D. E is

86

the unmarried doctor, D is the

71

If he attends just one subject in a day and his grandmother of F. There are two
r-9

Sunday is free, then he is also free on married couples in the family.

ie

(a) Monday
op

(b) Thursday 25. What is the profession of B ?

ec

(c) Saturday (a) Judge

kl

(d) Friday (b) Lawyer

ar
Sp

(c) Draughtsman
23. In a row 'A' is in the 11th position from (d) Cannot be determined
the left and 'B' is in the 10th position
from the right. If 'A' and 'B' 26. Which of the following is/are a couple
interchange, then 'A' becomes 18h / couples?
from the left. How many persons are (a) AD only
there in the row other than 'A' and 'B'? (b) BC only
(a) 27 (c) Both AD and BC
(b) 26 (d) Both AC and BD

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

27. What is the profession of D ? C is the top most.

(a) Judge From (iv) & (v) EFD will be the
(b) Stenographer arrangement in bottom 3.
(c) Doctor Hence D is the bottom person, C is the
(d) Cannot be determined correct answer.

2014 - Key and Explanation 3. Answer : C

1. Answer : D Explanation :
Explanation : From given data
Total no. of children = 630 (i) A > B
Let x be the no. of children in front row (ii) C > A
So, children in subsequent rows will be (iii) D > C
x − 3, x − 6, x − 9, x − 12, x − 15 and so on (iv) E is tallest
This question can be easily solved by ∴ The arrangement is E > D > C > A > B
eliminating options. Middle position is occupied by C
If there are 6 no. of rows, then Hence C is the correct answer.
x +x −3+x −6+x −9
+ x − 12 + x − 15 = 630 4. Answer : B
6x = 630 + 45 Explanation :
6x = 675 From the data
675
x= ⇒ 112.5
6
Clearly fractions are not possible.
Hence D is the correct answer.

2. Answer : D
Explanation :
C
A
G From the above, A, D, E are in line.
B Hence B is the correct answer.
E
F 5. Answer : B
D Explanation :
(i) C>A>E C B A D
(ii) B in the middle (i) A is next to B but not next to C
(iii) BGA (or) AGB (ii) C is not next D
(iv) BEF (or) FEB Hence A is adjacent to D
(v) EFD (or) DFE Hence B is the correct answer.
From (i), (ii), (iii) ⇒ A & G will be
above B

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

6. Answer : B Second arrow remain the same and first

Explanation : arrow flips 180 o (when compared to first
Books Color Volume Subject column figure) in the third column.
A Yellow New Law Hence B is the correct answer.
B Green New Law
C Green Old Law 10. Answer : D
D Yellow New Medical Explanation :
E Green Old Medical If we add the number in each row we are
F Green Old Medical getting 60.
E and F are old medical extracts with So, 33 + x + 19 = 60
green cover. x=8
Hence A is the correct answer. Hence D is the correct answer.

7. Answer : B 11. Answer : A

Explanation : Explanation :
The number of squares are decreasing by
1 and number of triangles are increasing
by 1
As we move from one column to another
column in every row.
Hence A is the correct answer.

Find points are not counted ⇒ 0,36 cm

12. Answer : D
are to be discarded.
Common points are connected as one
Explanation : 53
64

points at 15 cm, 21 cm, are counted as

6
86

ones.
71

Therefore total 12 points.

r-9

Hence B is the correct answer. No. of different routes from S to T are

(No. of options at = 3 × 2 × 3 = 18 every
ie
op

8. Answer : C node)
ec

Explanation : Hence D is the correct answer.

kl

We can trace the given figure in option C

ar

diagram. 13. Answer : B

Sp

Hence C is the correct answer. Explanation :

The figures followed two step pattern.
9. Answer : B Step 1 : a) The two beads on the left are
Explanation : vertically inverted to obtain left two
First arrow remains the same and second beads in second image.
arrow flips 180o in the second column. b) The two beads on the right are
horizontally inverted to obtain right two
beads in second image.

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

Step 2 : positive of left and right beads 17. Answer : D

interchanged to obtain third image. Explanation :
The same sequence of steps are repeated Total 6 women.
next on the third image. Dances Local music Actress Violinist
Hence B is the correct answer. (4) (4) (1) (3)
Jalaja
Girija
14. Answer : D Shailaja Vanaja Pooja
Vanaja
Explanation : Thanuja Shailaja
Januja
This can be answered by elimination a, b Tanuja
options can be straight away eliminated From the given information the above
as the question statement mentions that can be obtained.
values of all the things would not rise. So, Tanuja is certainly a danced and
Value of all the except one would not violinist.
rise. Hence D is the correct answer.
C value of thing would be halved is
wrong only option left is D. 18. Answer : D
This is true in economic sense, as the Explanation :
value of money would be halved when L M N O P Q
prices of goods are doubled. R S T
Hence D is the correct answer. 6(9-3)
9(4+5)
15. Answer : C Hence D is the correct answer.
Explanation :
80 % of bus fare for 2 persons = 10 19. Answer : D
Let x be fare / person Explanation :
Then 2 × 0.8 × x = 10 Heterogeneous groups can’t be compared
5 on a parameter.
x= = 6.25
0.8 Hence D is the correct answer.
B gave 3 rupees ⇒ total money = Rs. 13
Fare for people = Rs. 12.5 20. Answer : D
So, still A will have 50 paise. Explanation :
Hence C is the correct answer. None of the conclusions can be deduced
logically from the given information.
16. Answer : B Hence D is the correct answer.
Explanation :
Medieval poets = A, B, C, D 21. Answer : A
Modern poets = E, F, G, H Explanation :
Last year questions given about medieval A – Alok ; B – Bhupeh; C – Chander ; D –
poet. Dinesh
The paper setter likes F = (so likes E also) Money with A + B + C + D = 100
but does not want to give questions on F. Given that
Hence B is the correct answer.

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

(i) A + B = C + D ⇒ A + B = C = D = 50 25. Answer : A

(ii) A > B Explanation :
(iii) D = 2C Person Profession Couples
(iv) A = D + 5 (M) A Engineer A-D
From above, we can clearly say that A (M) B Judge B-C
has maximum money. (F) C Lawyer
Hence A is the correct answer. (F) D Steno grapher
E Doctor
22. Answer : D (M) F Draughtsman
Explanation : From the given data, B is judge.
Mon – Music Hence A is the correct answer.
Tue – Sports
Wed – Mathematics 26. Answer : C
Thu – History Explanation :
Fri – X AD and BC are the two couples.
Sat – Literature Hence C is the correct answer.
Hence Geography is free on Friday.
Hence D is the correct answer. 27. Answer : B
Explanation :
23. Answer : C Profession of D is stenographer.
Explanation : Hence B is the correct answer.

When A ∪ B interchanges A becomes 2013

18th from left. 1.
5 3
Four friends A, B, C & D distribute
64
Hence 11 + x = 17 ⇒ x = 6
some money among themselves in
6

_____ ( B ) _____ ( A )
86

(10 ) (x ) such a manner that A gets one less

71

_______(17)_______ than B, C gets 5 more than D, D gets 3

r-9

∴ Total persons in row = 21 + 6 = 27 more than B. Who gets the smallest

amount?
ie

Total 4 other than A and B = 25

op

Hence C is the correct answer. (a) A

ec

24. Answer : B (b) B

kl

Explanation : (c) C
ar

(d) D
Sp

Directions for the following 4 (four) items:

Read the following statements and
answer the four items that follow :
5, 12 are two sides of a right angle Five cities P, Q, R, S and T are connected
triangles. by different modes of transport as
Shortest distance between B and C is the follows:
P & Q are connected by boat as well as
third side = 52 + 122 = 13
rail.
Hence B is the correct answer.

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

S and R are connected by bus and boat. Directions for the following 3 (three)
Q and T are connected by air only. items:
P and R are connected by boat only. Read the following passage and answer
T and R are connected by rail and bus. the three items that follow :
A tennis coach is trying to put together a
2. Which mode of transport would help team of four players for the forthcoming
one to reach R starting from Q, but tournament. For this 7 players are
without changing the mode of available : Males A,B and C and Females
transport ? W, X, Y and Z. All players have equal
(a) Boat capability and at least 2 males will be
(b) Rail there in the team. For a team of four, all
(c) Bus players must be able to play with each
(d) Air other. But, B cannot play with W, C
cannot play with Z and W cannot play
3. If a person visits each of the places with Y.
starting from P and gets back to P,
which of the following places must be 6. If Y is selected and B is rejected, the
visit twice ? team will consist of which one of the
(a) Q following groups ?
(b) R (a) A, C, W and Y
(c) S (b) A, C, X and Y
(d) T (c) A, C, Y and Z
(d) A, W, Y and Z
4. Which one of the following pairs of
cities is connected by any of the 7. If B is selected and Y is rejected, the
routes directly without going to any team will consist of which one of the
other city ? following groups ?
(a) P and T (a) A, B, C and W
(b) T and S (b) A, B, C and Z
(c) Q and R (c) A, B, C and X
(d) None of these (d) A, W, Y and Z

5. Between which two cities among the 8. If all the three males are selected,
pairs of cities given below are there then how many combinations of four
maximum travel options available ? member teams are possible?
(a) Q and S (a) 1
(b) P and R (b) 2
(c) P and T (c) 3
(d) Q and R (d) 4

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

9. The music director of a film wants to Out of four friends A, B, C and D,

select four persons to work on A and B play football and cricket,
different aspects of the composition of B and C play cricket and hockey,
a piece of music. Seven persons are A and D play basketball and football,
available for this work; they are Rohit, C and D play hockey and basketball.
Tanya, Shobha, Kaushal, Kunal,
Mukesh and Jaswant. 11. Who does not Play hockey?
Rohit and Tanya will not work (a) D
together. (b) C
Kunal and Shobha will not work (c) B
together. (d) A
Mukesh and Kunal want to work
together. 12. Who plays football, basketball and
Which of the following is the most hockey ?
acceptable group of people that can be (a) D
selected by the music director ? (b) C
(a) Rohit, Shobha, Kunal and Kaushal (c) B
(b) Tanya, Kaushal, Shobha and Rohit (d) A
(c) Tanya, Mukesh, Kunal and Jaswant
(d) Shobha, Tanya, Rohit and Mukesh 13. Which game of B, C and D play ?
(a) Basketball
10. Five people A, B, C, D and E are seated (b) Hockey
about a round table. Every chair is (c) Cricket
spaced equidistant from adjacent (d) Football 5 3
64
chairs.
6

(i) C is seated next to A. 14. Geeta is older than her cousin Meena.
86

(ii) A is seated two seats from D. Meena’s brother Bipin is older than
71

(iii) B is not seated next to A. Geeta. When Meena and Bipin visit
r-9

Which of the following must be true ? Geeta, they like to play chess. Meena
ie

I. D is seated next to B. wins the game more often than

op

II. E is seated next to A. Geetha.

ec

Select the correct answer from the codes Based on the above information, four
kl

given below : conclusions, as given below, have been

ar
Sp

(a) I only made. Which one of these logically

(b) II only follows from the information given
(c) Both I and II above ?
(d) Neither I nor II (a) While playing chess with Geeta, and
Directions for the following 3 (three) Meena, Bipin often loses.
items : (b) Geeta is the oldest among the three.
Examine carefully the following (c) Geeta hates to lose the game.
statements and answer the three items (d) Meena is the youngest of the three.
that follow :

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

15. A, B, C, D and E belong to five (c) is equal to yellow balls minus green
different cities P, Q, R, and T (not balls.
necessarily in that order). Each one of (d) cannot be ascertained.
them comes from a different city.
Further it is given that : 18. In a class of 45 students, a boy is
1. B and C do not belong to Q ranked 20th. When two boys joined, his
2. B and E do not belong to P and R rank was dropped by one. What is his
3. A and C do not belong to R, S and T new rank from the end?
4. D and E do not belong to Q and T (a) 25th
(b) 26th
Which one of the following statements is not (c) 27th
correct ? (d) 28th
(a) C belongs to P
(b) D belongs to R 19. Consider the following figures 1, 2, 3
(c) A belongs to Q and 4 :
(d) B belongs to S

16. Seven men, A, B, C, D, E, F and G are

standing in a queue in that order.
Each one is wearing a cap of a In the figures from 1 to 4 above, two
different colour like violet, indigo, symbols are shown to change their
blue, green, yellow, orange and red. D position in a regular direction.
is able to see in front of him green and Following the same sequence, which
blue, but not violet. E can see violet one of the following will appear at the
and yellow, but not red. G can see fifth stage?
caps of all colours other than orange.
(a)
If E is wearing an indigo coloured cap
then the colour of the cap worn by F is
(a) Blue
(b) Violet
(b)
(c) Red
(d) Orange

17. There are some balls of red, green and (c)

yellow colour lying on a table. There
are as many red balls as there are
yellow balls. There are twice as many
yellow balls as there are green ones. (d)
The number of red balls
(a) is equal to the sum of yellow and green
balls.
(b) is double the number of green balls.

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

Directions for the following 2 (two) 22. Consider the following diagrams:
items : x men, working at constant speed, do
In each item, there are two sets of a certain job in y days. Which one of
figures, first four figures named problem these diagrams shows the relation
figures and next four figures named between x and y?
answer figures indicated as (a), (b), (c)
and (d). The problem figures follow a
particular sequence. In accordance with
the same which one of the four answer
figures should appear as the fifth figure ?
20. Problem figures :

Answer figures :
(a) diagram I
(b) diagram II
(c) diagram III
(d) diagram IV

21. Problem figures : 23. Examine the following three figures in

which the numbers follow a specific
pattern : 5 3
64
6
86
71

Answer figures :
r-9

The missing number (?) in the third figure

(a)
ie

above is :
op

(a) 7
ec

(b) 16
kl

(c) 21
ar

(b)
Sp

(d) 28

24. A cube has six numbers marked 1, 2,

(c)
3, 4, 5 and 6 on its faces. Three views
of the cube are shown below :

(d)

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

What possible numbers can exist on 2013 - Key and Explanation

the two faces marked (A) and (B) 1. Answer : A
respectively on the cube ? Explanation :
Let M be the money with them
From the given data,
Money with A = m ( A ) = m ( B ) − 1

(a) 2 and 3 C = m (C ) = m ( D ) + 5 =
Money with
(b) 6 and 1 (m ( B ) + 3 ) + 5 = m ( B ) + 8
(c) 1 and 4 Money with D = m ( D ) = m ( B ) + 3
(d) 3 and 1
We have converted money with every one
in terms of m(B)
25. Consider the following figures :
Hence A has the smallest amount.

2. Answer : A
Explanation :

Which one of the following figures would

logically come in the 7th position indicated
above by a question mark ? Let modes of transport be :
B – Boat
R – Rail
(a)
Bu – Bus
A – Air
From the given data
Starting from Q, moving to R without
(b) changing mode of transport is possible
only through boat. (Q → P → R )
Hence A is the answer.

3. Answer : B
(c)
Explanation :
Person starting from P, visiting each of
the places and coming back to P will
move in the following manner.
(d)
P →Q →T → R →S → R → P
∴ R must be visited twice.
Hence B is the correct answer.

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

4. Answer : D 8. Answer : B
Explanation : Explanation :
None of the pairs of cities given are If all males are selected ⇒ CZ can’t play
directly connected. A,B,C,X
Hence D is the correct answer. A,B,C,Y
Only two combinations possible.
5. Answer : A Hence B is the correct answer.
Explanation :
Pairs of cities Max. No.of travel 9. Answer : C
options. Explanation :
Q&S 4 (A,B,Bu,R) Rohit & Tanya can’t work together
P&R 1(B) Kunal & Shobha can’t work together
P&T 3(B,R,Bu) Mukesh & Kunal wan’t to work together
Q&R 3(A,R,Bu) Best possible group is Tanya, Mukesh,
Hence A is the correct answer. Kunal, Jaswant.
From given data : Hence C is the correct answer.
Male Players Female players
A W 10. Answer : C
B X Explanation :
C Y
Z
(i) At least 2 males in team of 4 players.
(ii) Players that can’t be part of team
together are BW, CZ, WY 53
6 64

6. Answer : B From the given data, above arrangement

86

Explanation : is possible.
71

Y is selected and B is rejected. Both the given statements must be true.

r-9

A,C must be there in team as per Hence C is the correct answer.

ie

condition (i) 11. Answer : D

op

As Y is there, W can’t play and as C is Explanation :

ec

there Z can’t play (condition ii)

kl

Hence team must have A,C,X and Y

ar
Sp

Hence B is the correct answer.

Hence D is the correct answer.
7. Answer : C
Explanation : 12. Answer : A
B selected ⇒ W can’t play Explanation :
Y is rejected, C and Z can’t play D plays FB, BK, HK
Therefore team consist of A, B, C and X Hence A is the correct answer.
Hence C is the correct answer.

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

13. Answer : B A → Green

Explanation : B → Blue
B,C and D all play Hockey. C → Yellow
Hence B is the correct answer. Remaining color, Red, with by F.
Hence C is the correct answer.
14. Answer : D
Explanation : 17. Answer : B
From the given data G – Geeta; Explanation :
M – Meena ; B – Bipin ; > - Older. n ( R ) = n (y ) = x
(i) G > M x
n (G ) =
(ii) B > G 2
(iii) Meena wins after than G Hence B is the correct answer.
Out of the given options, logically correct.
Conclusion is Meena is the youngest of 18. Answer : C
all. Explanation :
Hence D is the correct answer. Total strength = 45
Rank = 20 ⇒ ↓ 19 members
15. Answer : D Boy
Explanation : ↑ 25 members
Person A B C D E Two boys joined ⇒ new strength = 47
City Q T P R S New rank from top = 21 ↓ 20
(i) B, C ∉ Q members Boy
(ii) B, E ∉ P, R ↑ 26 members
(iii) A, C ∉ R, S, T New rank from the end = 27th
(iv) D, E ∉ Q, T Hence C is the correct answer.
From (i), (iii) ⇒ C belongs to P, A belongs
to P 19. Answer :B
(ii), (iv) ⇒ E belong to S, B belongs to T, Explanation :
D belongs to R The sun moving in anti clock wise
Hence D is the correct answer. direction within the square.
The triangle is following zig-zag ( <
<)
16. Answer : C pattern.
Explanation : Hence B is the correct answer.

20. Answer : C
(i) A, B, C → Green, Blue (X violet)
Explanation :
(ii) A, B, C, D → Violet, Yellow, Green,
The triangle is rotating 120o in clock wise
Blue, (y, Red)
direction.
(iii) G → Orange
The arrow is following up – down pattern
(iv) E → Indigo
in subsequent figures.
From (i) , (ii) ⇒
Hence C is the correct answer.
D → Violet

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

21. Answer : B first, then anti clockwise and then upper

Explanation : two face each other with bottom one
Three segments of the image (2 Ls and moving anti-clockwise.
one arrow) are moving left. When they Hence D is the correct answer.
reach extreme left (first position), they
come back inverted vertically from the 2012
other end. Directions for the following 5 (five)
Hence B is the correct answer. items :
Examine the information given in the
22. Answer : D following paragraph and Solution: the
Explanation : items that follow:
Given that x men can do a job in y days. Guest lectures on five subjects viz.,
By working at constant speed. Economics, History, Statistics, English
i.e. ( xy = work = some constant k )
and Mathematics have to be arranged in
k a week from Monday to Friday. Only one
x= ⇒ inverse relation.
y
lecture can be arranged on each day.
Between Men (x) and days (y) ⇒ diagram Economics cannot be scheduled on
iv Tuesday. Guest faculty for History is
Hence D is the correct answer. available only on Tuesday. Mathematics
lecture has to be schedules immediately
23. Answer : B after the day of Economics lecture.
Explanation : English lecture has to be scheduled
84 immediately before the day of Economics
× 2 = 14 in first year.
12
lecture.
5 3
64
84
× 2 = 18 in second year.
9
6

1. Which lecture is scheduled on

86

88
× 2 = 16 Monday?
71

11
(a) History
r-9

Hence B is the correct answer.

(b) Economics
ie

(c) Mathematics
op

24. Answer : A
(d) Statistics
ec

Explanation :
kl

From the given views of cube 1 & 5

ar

2. Which lecture is scheduled between

opposite.
Sp

Statistics and English?

A ∪ B asked in the question can’t be 1.
(a) Economics
By elimination technique A is the correct
(b) History
answer.
(c) Mathematics
(d) No lecture
25. Answer : D
Explanation:
Square and circle coming alternatively
inside. Outside arrows move clockwise

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

3. Which lecture is the last one in the 7. Examine the following statements:
week? 1. I watch TV only if I am bored
(a) History 2. I am never bored when I have my
(b) English brother’s company.
(c) Mathematics 3. Whenever I go to the theatre I take my
(d) Economics brother along.

4. Which lecture is located scheduled on Which one of the following conclusions is

Wednesday? valid in the context of the above statements?
(a) Statistics (a) If I am bored I watch TV
(b) Economics (b) If I am bored, I seek my brother’s
(c) English company.
(d) History (c) If I am not with my brother, than i'll
watch TV.
5. Which lecture is scheduled before the (d) If I am not bored I do not watch TV.
Mathematics lecture?
(a) Economics 8. Only six roads A, B, C, P, Q and R
(b) History connect a military camp to the rest of
(c) Statistics the country. Only one out of A, P, and
(d) English R are open at any one time. If B is
closed so is Q. Only one of A & B is
6. In five flats, one above the other, live open during storms. P is closed during
five professionals. The professor has floods. In the context, which one of
to go up to meet his IAS officer friend. the following statements is correct?
The doctor is equally friendly to all, (a) Under normal conditions only three
and has to go up as frequently as go roads are open.
down. The engineer has to go up to (b) During storms at least one road is open.
meet his MLA friend above whose flat (c) During floods only three roads are open
lives the professor's friend. (d) During calamities all roads are closed
From the ground floor to the top floor,
in what order do the five professionals 9. Examine the following statements:
live? 1. None but students are the members of
(a) Engineer, Professor, Doctor, IAS officer, the club.
MLA 2. Some members of the club are married.
(b) Professor, Engineer, Doctor, IAS officer, 3. All married persons are invited for dance.
MLA
(c) IAS officer, Engineer, Doctor, Professor, Which one of the conclusions can be drawn
MLA from the above statements?
(d) Professor, Engineer, Doctor, MLA, IAS (a) All students are invited for dance
officer (b) All married students are invited for
dance

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

(c) All members of the club are married 12. Consider the following statements:
person The Third World War, if it ever starts will
(d) None of the above conclusions can be end very quickly with possible end of
drawn civilization. It is only the misuse of
nuclear power which will trigger it.
10. Four political parties W, X, Y and Z Based on the above statement which one
decided to set up a joint candidate for of the following inferences is correct?
the coming parliamentary elections. (a) Nuclear power will be used in Third
The formula agreed by them was the World War.
acceptance of a candidate of the most (b) There will be no civilization left after the
of the parties. For aspiring candidates third world war.
A, B, C and D approached the parties (c) The growth of nuclear power will destroy
for their ticket. civilization in the long run.
A was acceptable to W but not Z (d) The third world war will not take place.
B was acceptable to Y but not X
C was acceptable to W and Y 13. Figures given below are changing with
D was acceptable to W and X certain rules as we observe them from
When candidate B was preferred by W and Z, left to right:
candidate C was preferred by X and Z and
candidate A was acceptable to X but not Y:
Who got the ticket? According to this rule which of the
(a) A following would be the next figure if the
(b) B changes were made in the same rule?
(c) C 5 3
64
(d) D
6
86

11. Consider the following statements:

71

1. All X-brand cars parked here are white.

r-9

2. Some of them have radial tyres

14. Six squares are coloured, front and
ie

3. All X-brand cars manufactured after

op

back, red(R), blue(B), yellow (Y), green

1986 have radial tyres are parked here.
ec

(G), white (W), orange (O) and are

4. All cars are not X-brand.
kl

hinged together as shown in the figure

ar

given below. If they were folded to

Sp

Which one of the following conclusions can

form a cube what would be the face
be drawn from the above statements?
opposite to white face?
(a) Only white cars are parked here.
(a) R
(b) Some white X-brand cars with radial
(b) G
tyres are parked here.
(c) B
(c) Cars other than X-brand cannot have
(d) O
radial tyres.
(d) Most of the X-brand cars are
manufactured before 1986.

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

15. Three views of a cube following a 18. Examine the following statements:
particular motion are given below: 1. Either A & B are of same age or A is older
than B
2. Either C & D are of same age or D is
older than C
3. B is older than C
What is letter opposite to A?
(a) H
Which of the following conclusions can be
(b) P
drawn from the above statements?
(c) B
(a) A is older than B
(d) M
(b) B and D are of the same age
(c) D is older than C
16.
(d) A is older than C

19. Examine the following statements:

1. Only those who have a pair of binoculars
can become the member of the
birdwatcher's club.
2. Some members of the birdwatcher's club
have cameras.
3. Those members who have cameras can
Which one of the figures shown below
take part in photo-contests.
occupies the blank space(?) in the matrix
given below?
Which of the following conclusions can be
drawn from the above statements?
(a) All those who have a pair of binoculars
are members of the birdwatcher's club.
(b) All members of the birdwatcher's club
have a pair of binoculars.
(c) All those who take part in photo-contests
17. Consider the following statements: are members of the birdwatcher's club.
1. All artists are whimsical. (d) No conclusion can be drawn.
2. Some artists are drug addicts.
3. Frustrated people are prone to become 20. During the summer vacation Ankit
drug addicts. went to a summer camp where he took
From the above three statements it may part in hiking, swimming and boating.
be concluded that: This summer, he is looking forward to
(a) Artists are frustrated a music camp where he hopes to sing,
(b) Some drug addicts are whimsical dance and learn to play the guitar.
(c) All frustrated people are drug addicts. Based on the above information four
(d) Whimsical people are generally frustrated conclusions as given below, have been

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

made. Which one of these logically (c) At least one discontinued show was a
follows from the information given above? drama.
(a) Ankit's parents want him to play guitar. (d) Viewers prefer sitcoms over drama.
(b) Ankit prefers music to outdoor activities.
(c) Ankit goes to some type of camp every 23. Gita is prettier than Sita but not as
summer. pretty as Rita. Then,
(d) Ankit likes to sing and dance (a) Sita is not as pretty as Gita
(b) Sita is prettier than Rita
21. Three persons A, B & C wear shirts of (c) Rita is not as pretty as Gita
Black, Blue and Orange colours (not (d) Gita is prettier than Rita
necessarily in the order) and pants of
green, yellow and orange (not 24. Given that,
necessarily in that order). No person 1. A is the brother of B
wore shirt and pant of the same 2. C is the father of A.
colour. Further, it is given that, 3. D is brother of E.
1. A did not wear shirt of black colour. 4. E is the daughter of B
2. B did not wear shirt of blue colour. Then, the uncle of D is?
3. C did not wear shirt of orange colour. (a) A
4. A did not wear the pants of green colour (b) B
5. B wore pants of orange colour. (c) C
(d) E
What were the colours of the pants and shirts
worn by C respectively? 25. Who scored the highest?
(a) Orange and black (a) Rama 5 3
64
(b) Green and blue (b) Padma
6

(c) Yellow and blue (c) Rani

86

(d) Yellow and black (d) Ratna

71
r-9

22. Ten new TV shows started in January- 2012 - Key and Explanation
ie

5 sitcoms, 3 drama and 2 news 1. Answer: D

op

magazines. By April, only seven of the Explanation:

ec

new shows were still on, five of them Simply write the days and cross the ones
kl

being sitcoms.
ar

that are not applicable. You will get the

Sp

Based on the above information, for answer. Since Tuesday’s schedule is

conclusions, as given below, have been fixed – for English to come immediately
made. Which of these logically follows before economics, and economics to
from the information given above? come immediately before maths, this will
(a) Only one news magazine show is still be the arrangement.
going on. Monday - Statistics
(b) Only one of the drama show is still going Tuesday – E, H
on. Wednesday – English

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

Thursday – Economics Bored

Friday –Mathematics X Only then Watch TV
Y etc.
2. Answer: B Here being bored or X or Y is leading to
Explanation: the action “Watch TV”. But if the person
As seen from the table we drew. is watching TV, it does not mean that he
was necessarily bored. The cause could
3. Answer: C have been X or Y or anything. So, option
Explanation: (a) is incorrect. But, at the same time, he
As from the table. will not watch TV, if he is note bored.
Same diagram can be visualized for the
4. Answer: C relation between “not being bored” and
Explanation: “being in brother’s company “. You will
Straight from the table. see that his brother’s company is not the
only way in which he can escape
5. Answer: A boredom. This tells that (c) is wrong
Explanation: because he may not be bored when he
This is clear from the question itself. doesn’t have his brother’s company.

6. Answer: D 8. Answer: B
Explanation: Explanation:
It is clear that the doctor is at the centre Verify logically for each option.
and the MLA stays above the Engineer. Take the first one - In this case, if R is
It is also given that IAS officer is open, then B, C and Q can also be open.
professor’s friend. So, IAS officer must 4 roads can be open. So its wrong.
stay above Engineer and MLA. Only the Take the second one - In storm either A
last option is satisfying the above or B is open. Hence, it has to be correct.
conditions. Take the third one - P is closed during
You can also check it by drawing a flooding. Therefore, if A is open then
diagram. neither of B and Q will be open. So, at
S1: IAS>....>Prof most two roads can be open. So, This
S2: Doc is in the middle may or may not be true.
S3: IAS>..MLA>..>Engineer Take the fourth one - From option 2, we
Now only way in which these can be know that at least one road is open.
satisfied is: Hence, this is incorrect.
IAS>MLA>Doctor> Engineer> Professor In all three given situations - Normal,
Storms and Floods, there is no closed
7. Answer: D condition on road C.
Explanation: Hence, (B).
This is a typical logic based reasoning.
To make such questions easier, always
draw a logical flow diagram.

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

9. Answer: B 11. Answer: B

Explanation: Explanation:
This is a typical syllogism question. Draw You can draw a Venn diagram or solve
Venn diagrams to solve easily or use logically. But in this case you can just
logic, whichever way you feel approach logically verifying each
comfortable. statement option.
In Venn diagrams, sometimes there is Take (a): Its wrong because only X-brand
more than one possibility. For e.g. here cars parked here are white.
possibility 1 is: (that people who dance Take (b): All X-brand cars are white and
may not be club members at all) some have radial tyres which means its
Students correct.
Club Members Take (c): Its an out of the league
Dance statement.
Married Take (d): An illogical and out of the
Possibility 2: Those who dance can be context statement.
club members or even married students.
Students 12. Answer: A
Club Members Explanation:
Dance Very clear when its mentioned that only
Married the misuse of nuclear power will trigger
Now, check options individually. world war. So nuclear power has to be
Option (a) is wrong, because not all used in the third world war.
students are married, so, cannot be
invited for dance. 13. Answer: D 5 3
64
Option (b) is correct because by Explanation:
6

statement 3 all married students are You need to pick up just the pattern of
86

invited to dance also by statement 1 only triangle and you have the answer. See
71

students are members of the club. the triangle is moving corners anti-
r-9

Option (c) is wrong because clearly only clockwise and turning upside down
ie

some are married in the club. successively. So in the answer figure it

op

has to be at the left top and vertical up.

ec

10. Answer: C Only one option (d) satisfies this

kl

Explanation: condition.
ar
Sp

As it is given, A is accepted by W, Z and Learn saving time. You need not solve
X. the full question to arrive at the solution.
B accepted by Y, W and Z.
C accepted by W, Y, X and Z. 14. Answer: C
D accepted by W and X. Explanation:
So, C can be accepted by all the four Take G or Y as the base of the cube and
parties. start folding the cube to fit adjacent
sides. Use your imagination a little. Or
write these letters in that order on a

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

rubber (cuboid/cube) shape to see how completely inside whimsical OR outside

the letters will align. it cutting it.
If you take G as the base, these will be Whimsical
opposite faces: GO, YR, BW. Artists
Even if you take Y as the base, you will Whimsical
find the same opposite faces. OR
Drug
15. Answer: A Drug
Explanation: Artists
If you observe first two figures, you will S3: If frustrated people MAY become
know that A, B, H and M are adjacent to drug addicts (not all), then Frustrated (F)
K. can be a smaller circle cutting the drug
So, letter opposite to A has to be either H circle.
or M. Whimsical
Now, there are two conditions. One, if M Whimsical
is opposite to A, then H will be opposite OR
to B. But, by third figure, we see it is not Drug
possible. Artists
Hence, H has to be opposite to A. Drug
Artists
16. Answer: D F
Explanation: F
In first and third set, the black portion of Now, check the options.
middle image is diagonally opposite to Option (a) can be dismissed easily.
that of first image. This is the pattern. Option (b) has to be correct, because no
So, second image in second set must be matter what the drug circle has to cut
diagonally opposite to the first one. the whimsical circle.
Hence, (d). Option (c) too can be dismissed based on
the diagram.
17. Answer: B Option (d) is also wrong, because the
Explanation: diagram does not support it.
Again try drawing a Venn diagram.
S1: If all artists are whimsical, it means 18. Answer: D
that whimsical is a big category (or circle) Explanation:
and all artists will be one small circle in From S1: A>=B
that. From S2: D>=C
Whimsical From S3: B>C
Artists Now if B (which is either equal or older
S2: If some artists are drug addicts, draw than A) is greater than C, then A has to
a circle that cuts the circle of Drug be older than C.
addicts. Now, that circle can either be

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

19. Answer: B discontinued, the discontinued ones

Explanation: must be either drama or news
You can use a Venn diagram but use magazines. Now, there were only two
logic, you can solve it quicker. news magazines. So, atleast one
See, option 1 and 3 are too general and discontinued show was a drama.
not necessarily true. But option 2 is a
correct conclusion as all the club 23. Answer: A
members definitely have a pair of Explanation:
binoculars. Simple symbols will get you the answer.
R> G>S
20. Answer: D Options (b), (c) and (d) are false.
Explanation:
Parents are not even in the picture. So, 24. Answer: A
no to (a). Explanation:
(b) Conclusion cannot be made. We can’t Draw a family tree diagram and it
compare his likings with the information becomes easy.
we have. C
(c) Would be too general to say, because we (Arrow denotes father/mother – son
know only about two summer camps relationship)
that he has been to. A–B
(d) Is the choice left which is evident from D - E (Dash denotes brothers/sisters)
his joining the camps. Uncle of D is A.

21. Answer: B 25. Answer: D 5 3

64
Explanation: Explanation:
6

Make a small table from the given data. Again simple symbols.
86

Shirt Pant S1: Rama>...... Rani

71

A - Black Green S2: Ratna>.....Rani

r-9

B - Blue Orange S3: Ratna>...>Rama>...Rani

ie

C - Orange S4: Ratna>Padma>Rama>Rani

op

Now, from the above information, this Ratna scored the highest.
ec

can be the deduced table.

kl

Shirt Pant 2011

ar
Sp

A - Black Blue/Orange Green, Yellow 1. Consider the following distance - time

B - Blue Black/Orange Orange graph.
The graph shows three athletes A, Band
C - Orange Blue Green
C running side by side for a 30 km race.
Answer is green and blue. With reference to the above graph
consider the following statements:
22. Answer: C 1. The race was won by A.
2. B was ahead of A up to 25 km 26 mark.
Explanation:
3. C ran very slowly from the beginning.
Three shows were discontinued as given.
Since no sitcoms shows were

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

4. Consider the following figure and

answer the item that follow :

What is total number of triangles in the above

grid ?
Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) 27
correct ?
(b) 26
(a) 1 only
(c) 23
(b) 1 and 2 only
(d) 22
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Directions for the following 3 (Three)
items: Read the passage given below,
2. Consider the following figures:
study the graph that follows and answer
2 6 3 ?
the three items given below the figure.
80 24 120 36
During a party, a person was exposed to
What is the missing number?
contaminated water. A few days later, he
(a) 7
developed fever and loose motions. He
(b) 8
suffered for some days before going to a
(c) 9
doctor for treatment. On starting the
(d) 10
treatment, he soon became better and
recovered completely a few days later.
3. Study the following figure:
The following graph shows different
A person goes from A to B always moving
phases of the person's disease condition
to the right or downwards along the
as regions A, B, C, D and E of the curve.
lines. How many different routes can he
adopt?

Select the correct answer from the codes

given below: 5. Which region/regions of the curve
(a) 4 correspond/corresponds to incubation
(b) 5 phase of the infection ?
(c) 6 (a) A only
(d) 7 (b) B only

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

(c) B and C perpendicular to each other. S is the

(d) No part of the curve indicates the direction of a beam of light falling on the
incubation phase mirror OP 1. The direction of the
reflected beam of light from the mirror
6. Which region of the curve indicates OP 2 will be (a) Perpendicular to the
that the person began showing the direction S. (b) At 45° to the direction S.
symptoms of infection ? (c) Opposite and parallel to the direction
(a) A S. (d) At 60° to the direction S.
(b) B
(c) C 10. Consider the following figure and
(d) D answer the item that follows:

7. Which region of the curve indicates

that the treatment yielded effective
relief?
(a) C
(b) D
(c) E
(d) The curve does not indicate the
What is the minimum number of different
treatment
colours required to paint the figure given
above such that no two adjacent regions have
8. There are four routes to travel from
the same colour ?
city A to city B and six routes from
(a) 3
city B to city C. How many routes are
(b) 4
5 3
64
possible to travel from the city A to
(c) 5
6

city C?
86

(d) 6
(a) 24
71

(b) 12
r-9

11. Consider the following figure and

(c) 10
ie

answer the items that follows:

(d) 8
op
ec

9. Consider the figure given below and

kl

answer the items that follows:

ar
Sp

A square is divided into four

rectangles as shown above. The
lengths of the sides of rectangles are
natural n umbers. The areas of two
rectangles are indicated in the figure.
What is the length of each side of the
In the figure shown above, OP 1 and OP
square?
2 are two plane mirrors kept

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

(a) 10 Read the following passage and answer the 3

(b) 11 (three) items that follow:
(c) 15 A, B, C, D and E are members of the same
(d) Cannot be determined as the given data family. There are two fathers, two sons, two
are Insufficient wives, three males and two females. The teacher
was the wife of a lawyer who was the son of a
12. A person has only Rs. 1 and Rs. 2 doctor. E is not a male, neither also a wife of a
coins with her. If the total number of professional. C is the youngest person in the
coins that she has is 50 and the family and D is the eldest. B is a male.
amount of money with her is Rs. 75,
then the number of Rs. 1 and Rs. 2 15. How is D related to E ?
coins are, respectively (a) Husband
(a) 15 and 35 (b) Son
(b) 35 and 15 (c) Father
(e) 30 and 20 (d) Wife
(d) 25 and 25
16. Who are the females in the group ?
13. Three persons start walking together (a) C and E
and their steps measure 40 cm, 42 cm (b) C and D
and 45 cm respectively. What is the (c) E and A
minimum distance each should walk (d) D and E
so that each can cover the same
distance in complete steps ? 17. Whose wife is the teacher?
(a) 25 m 20 cm (a) C
(b) 50 m 40 cm (b) D
(c) 75 m 60 cm (c) A
(d) 100 m 80 cm (d) B

14. The houses of A and B face each other 18. In a queue, Mr. X is fourteenth from
on a road going north-south, A's being the front and Mr. Y is seventeenth
on the western side. A comes out of from the end, while Mr. Z is exactly in
his house, turns left, travels 5 km, between Mr. X and Mr. Y. If Mr. X is
turns right, travels 5 km to the front ahead Mr. Y and there are 48 persons
of D's house. B does exactly the same in the queue, how many persons are
and reaches the front of C's house. In then between Mr. X and Mr. Z ?
this context, which one of the (a) 6
following statements is correct? (b) 7
(a) C and D live on the same street. (c) 8
(b) C's house faces south. (d) 9
(c) The houses of C and D are less than 20
km apart.
(d) None of the above

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

19. Consider the following three Codes:

statements: (a) 1 and 2
1. Only students can participate in the (b) 2 and 3
race. (c) 1 and 3
2. Some participants in the race are girls. (d) 1 and 4
3. All girl participants in the race are
invited for coaching. 2011 - Key and Explanation
Which one of the following conclusions can 1. Answer: B
be drawn from the above statements? Explanation:
(a) All participants in the race are invited for As per the graph, A has taken just below
coaching. 30 min to complete the race whereas B
(b) All students are invited for coaching. has taken more than 35 min and C did
(c) All participants in the race are students. not finish the race. So statement 1 is
(d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) correct.
given above is correct. B has taken less time than A upto 25
Directions for the following 2 (two) km. Hence B was ahead of A upto 25 km.
items: So statement 2 is also correct.
Each of the following two items consists You can observe that C has taken less
of four statements. Of these four time than A and B upto 25 km. So,
statements, two cannot both be true, but statement 3 is wrong.
both can be false. Study the statements
carefully and identify the two that satisfy 2. Answer: C
the above condition. Select the correct Explanation:
answer using the codes given below each
3
5
6, second column = 2 multiplied by 3; 24
64
set of statements : = 6 X 4 and 80 = 2 X 40
6

Use the same pattern. So, 36 should be

86

20. Examine the following statements: multiplied by 4 to get 9 (which is also 3

71

1. All animals are carnivorous. times 3).

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2. Some animals are not carnivorous.

ie

3. Animals are not carnivorous. 3. Answer: C

op

4. Some animals are carnivorous. Explanation:

ec

Codes: Technique 1:
kl

(a) 1 and 3
ar

You can check all the routes manually

Sp

(b) 1 and 2 and count the total number.

(c) 2 and 3 Technique 2:
(d) 3 and 4 Avoid technique 1 if the diagram has
more boxes. Use logic.
21. Examine the following statements: You can more from A to B in the given
1. All trains are run by diesel engine. manner from point A node in two ways
2. Some trains are run by diesel engine. (right or downward). In each way there
3. No train is run by diesel engine.
4. Some trains are not run by diesel engine.

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

are 3 ways to go to B. Hence total 3+3 = 7. Answer: A

6. Explanation:
Technique 3: Relief is when the number of bacteria
Use permutation & combination. starts going down.
Consider a p x q rectangular grid with
top left corner A and bottom right corner 8. Answer: A
B. The number of distinct paths available Explanation:
to traverse from A to B moving downward Simple arithmetic. For every one route,
and rightward is p + q C p or p +q C q you will have six routes to take. So, total
We have a 2 X 2 rectangular grid in this number of routes is 6 × 4 = 24
case. So, the number of paths to traverse
from A to B = 4C 2 = 6 9. Answer: C
Explanation:
4. Answer: C Use the laws of reflection that you learnt
Explanation: in Science. You need not do all the
The triangles given are equilateral arithmetic and geometry. Just visualize
triangles of different lengths 1, 2, 3 and 4 the rays being reflected at equal angles
units. from OP1 and OP2, and you will know
The number of triangles of 1 unit length how the rays will pass from OP2. Its
= 1 + 3 + 5 + 3 = 12 opposite and parallel to the direction of
The number of triangles of length 2 units S.
= 1 + 2 + 3 = 6. Plus there is one inverted
triangle of length 2 units. So the number 10. Answer: A
of triangles of length 2 units = 7 Explanation:
The number of triangles of length 3 units
=1+2=3
The number of triangles of length 4 units
=1
So, the total number of triangles = 12 + 7
+ 3 + 1 = 23
You can paint the figure using the
colours A, B and C like this.
5. Answer: A
Explanation:
11. Answer: B
Incubation means where the bacteria
Explanation:
just started multiplying after insertion in
Area 15 units can be 15 × 1 or 5 × 3.
the body. Thus A.
Area 48 units can be 48 × 1 or 24 × 2 or
16 × 3 or 12 × 4 or 8 × 6
6. Answer: B
Since the bigger figure is a square choose
Explanation:
a combination with the length and
Clear from the diagram.
breadth that forms a square: So if you
take 5 units (from 15 units area) + 6

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

units (from 48 units area) or 8 units

(from 48 units area) + 3 units (from 15
units area), it is equal to a side 11
square.

12. Answer: D From the first arrangement, D is E’s

Explanation: husband.
Let the Rs. 1 and Rs. 2 coins be x and y
in number respectively. 16. Answer: C
Given x + y = 50 and x + 2y = 75 Explanation:
Solving the above two equations, you get Clear from the arrangement.
x = 25 and y = 25.
17. Answer: D
13. Answer: A Explanation:
Explanation: Clear from the diagram.
It’s a simple LCM problem. Take the LCM
of 40, 42 and 45 to know at what point 18. Answer: C
will they find a common multiple. It is Explanation:
2520 cm i.e. 25 m 20 cm. Since X is 14th from the front, Y is 17th
from the end, and also X is ahead of Y,
14. Answer: C there must be 48 – (14 + 17) = 17
Explanation: persons in between X and Y.
From the arrangement, it is clearly Now, as there are equal number of people
visible that
3
between X and Z; and Z and Y. So, the
5
64
The distance between C and D, is twice number of persons between X and Z has
6

the distance between C and A. to be 8.

86

Between C and A, we use Pythagoras It will be like

71

theorem i.e. square root of – 13 ---X ----(8)----Y----(8)-----Z

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(5 2
) (
+ 52 = )
25 + 25 = 50
ie

19. Answer: C
op

So, distance between C-D will

2 50 = 14.12km approx. Explanation:
ec

Option C can be easily seen from

kl
ar

statement 1.
15. Answer: A
Sp

Others are not correct as if you can draw

Explanation:
the Venn diagram. Let students be a
Clearly the family has three generations.
bigger group out of which people
We are putting the male first and then
participate in race. Out of students let
the female in the couple. Now, there can
Girls be a sub-group; and let these two
be 2 possibilities.
groups intersect as given in the
statement. Now draw the coaching
group; it will look something like this.

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

Consider S2: if 1 is correct, 2 is false. If 2

is correct, 1 has to be false. Now check
other statements, 3 and 4. If 3 is correct,
then 1 is incorrect, but 2 can be correct.
Consider S3: Both can be true at the
same time. Hence incorrect option.
Consider S4: If 3 is correct, 4 is incorrect
and vice versa. If 1 is correct, then 3 is
incorrect, but 4 can be correct. If 2 is
20. Answer: A
correct, then 3 can be correct, but 4 will
Explanation:
be incorrect.
The approach of solving such questions
is that you check the validity of each and
21. Answer: C
every statement for each option.
Explanation:
Consider any one statement to be true at
This question is exactly similar to the
one time, and then check whether that
one above. Only the wordings have been
option combination can be correct.
changed. Apply the exact same
Check all 4 like this, you will know.
technique.
Consider S1: If all animals are
carnivorous, then the statement 3 is
wrong. And if 3 is right, 1 is wrong. So,
both are not true together. But if some
animals are carnivorous (as per S4), the
both of these are false. Hence correct
option is (a).

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

Section C - ENGLISH

2020
Passage – 1 Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
Private investment in general is volatile. Foreign (a) 1, 2 and 4
private investment is more volatile because the (b) 1, 3 and 5
available investment avenues are significantly (c) 2, 4 and 5
greater (i.e., the entire world). Therefore, the (d) 3 only
responsibility of providing employment cannot
be left to Foreign District Investment (FDI). The Passage – 2
current FDI inflows are volatile over time and Many opportunities to harness the highly
across sectors and regions, which is a necessary skewed, seasonal and spatial distribution of
consequence of their search for the highest monsoon floes, which occur in a four-month
returns. The adverse consequences are unstable period from June to September annually, have
employment and an accentuation of income and been lost. Since these few months account for
regional inequalities. A probable positive most of the rainfall and consequent freshwater
consequence of foreign investment is the inflow availability, the need for holding rainwater in
of new technology and its subsequent diffusion. reservoirs, for subsequently releasing it for use
However, the technology diffusion is not at all over the year, is a necessity nobody can afford to
certain because the existing state of physical overlook. Climate change will continue to affect
and human capital in India may prove weather conditions and create water shortages
inadequate for the diffusion.
5 3
and excesses. While millions suffer from
64
droughts and floods, waters in the country’s
6
86

1. With reference to the above passage, many rivers flow unutilized, and are discharged
71

the following assumptions have been into the sea every year.
made:
r-9

1. Relying on foreign investment in the long 2. With reference to the above passage,
ie
op

run is not an economically sound policy. which of the following could be the
ec

2. Policies must be undertaken to reduce most rational and practical

kl

volatility in foreign private investment. implications for India?

ar

3. Policies must be undertaken to 1. Inter-linking of rivers should be

Sp

strengthen domestic private investment. undertaken.

4. Public investment should be given 2. A network of dams and canals should be
priority over private investment. built across the country for proper
5. Substantial public investment in distribution of water.
education and health should be 3. Farmers should be provided easy loans
undertaken. for digging borewells.
4. Usage of water for agriculture should be
regulated by law.

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

5. Distribution of river water among regions Passage – 4

should be regulated by the Union Our urban bodies cannot possibly ensure
Government. sustainable delivery of water in our cities unless
Select the correct answer using the code financing mechanisms are put in place. Water
given below. delivery requires heavy investment in collecting
(a) 1 and 2 it from a natural source, treating it to make it
(b) 2, 4 and 5 potable, and laying a distribution network of
(c) 1, 3 and 4 pipes for delivery to the users. It also requires
(d) 2, 3 and 5 investments in sewerage infrastructure and
sewage treatment plants so that the sewers can
Passage – 3 carry the wastewater to these plants to ensure
People will invest in education whenever they are that no untreated sewage is discharged back
granted the economic freedom to fully enjoy its into natural water bodies. If our cities were rich
benefits. Again, this is for the obvious reason enough to meet the entire cost, water could be
that the return on education increases as the delivered free. They are not.
level of economic freedom rises. When people,
thanks to lower tax rates, are allowed to retain 4. What is the most logical and crucial
most of the higher income that they gain from message conveyed by the passage?
each incremental level of education, it makes (a) Urban local bodies must recover costs
eminent sense to invest in education. On the through user charges.
other hand, when the government decides to tax (b) Urban local bodies are not efficient
the higher income of educated individuals at enough to meet the water requirements
even higher rates, it makes very little sense to of our cities.
invest in educating oneself further. The same (c) Water shortage in our cities is a perennial
incentives apply to parents who decide on problem that cannot be solved.
whether to invest in their children’s education. (d) In view of the water crisis in our cities,
there is an urgent need to limit the
3. Which references to the above passage, population of cities by adopting an upper
the following assumptions have been limit of population size.
made: 5. Which reference to the above passage,
1. Lower tax rates in a country invariably the following assumptions have been
translate into greater investments in made:
higher education. 1. Rich cities only can ensure sustainable
2. Investment in the education of children delivery of water.
ensures their economic freedom. 2. Sustainable delivery of water in cities
3. Economic freedom has a positive impact means much more than supplying water
on building up human capital. to households.
Which of the above assumptions is/are valid? Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
(a) 1 only (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only (b) 2 only
(c) 3 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

Passage – 5 (c) 2 and 3

In India, agriculture still engages about half of (d) 3 and 4
its workforce, and about 85 per cent of its farms
are small and marginal. Compared to China and 7. Which one of the following statements
Vietnam, which have experienced fast structural best reflects the critical message of
and rural transformation, India’s story is of slow the passage?
transformation. As a result, poverty reduction in (a) India should create large-scale off-farm
India was at much slower pace during 1988- rural employment to reduce poverty in
2014, compared to China and Vietnam. India’s the near future.
poverty reduction was slow during 1988-2005, (b) India should create a large number of
but during 2005-2012, it accelerated farmer producer companies.
dramatically-almost three times faster than (c) Private investment in agriculture should
during the earlier period. What did India do be given priority over public investment.
during this period? Research reveals that the (d) Inclusive agricultural growth is key to
relative price scenario changed significantly (by reduce poverty in the near future.
more than 50%) in favour of agriculture in the
wake of rising global prices. This boosted private Passage – 6
investments in agriculture by more than 50%. In India, over the last decade or so, labour has
As a result, agri-GDP growth touched 4.1% been departing agriculture, but is only going to
during 2007-2012 as against 2.4% during 2002- construction and unregistered manufacturing
2007. The net surplus of agri-trade touched $25 which are not markedly better jobs. Services,
billion in 2013-2014; real farm wages rose by 7% where labour tends to be most productive, are
per annum. All this led to unprecedented fall in not generating the additional jobs the country
poverty.
3
needs. India will need 24 million or so jobs over
5
64
the next decade. The new sector, e-commerce,
6

6. With reference to the above passage, can at best close only half the jobs gap. Only
86

the following assumptions have been those sectors that drive domestic demand such
71

made: as health and education can comfortably fill the

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1. Structural and rural transformation is other half.

ie

impossible when farms are mainly small

op

and marginal. 8. Which one of the following is best

ec

2. A good price incentive can trigger implied in the passage?

kl

investments in agriculture. (a) Strong measures need to be taken to

ar
Sp

3. India needs to build value chains for reduce the rural to urban migration of
high-value agri-products like livestock labour.
and horticulture. (b) The working condition in construction
4. Higher global prices of agricultural and unregistered manufacturing needs to
commodities are essential for India’s be improved.
poverty reduction. (c) Service sector has been reducing the
Which of the above assumptions are valid? problem of unemployment.
(a) 1 and 3 (d) Increased social sector spending is
(b) 2 and 4 imperative for large-scale job creation.

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

Passage – 7 10. Which one of the following is the most

In India, the current focus on the right to logical and rational inference that can
privacy is based on some new realities of the be made from the above passage?
digital age. A right is a substantive right only if it (a) Rivers and other wetlands should be
works in all situations, and for everyone. A right protected under Ramsar Convention.
to free expression for an induvial about her (b) Engineering water systems should be
exploitation, for instance, is meaningless modernized and further augmented.
without actual availability of security that (c) Wetlands need to be reinforced as more
guarantees that private force cannot be used to than just open sources of water.
thwart this right. The role of the State, therefore, (d) Water supply should not be free of cost
is not just to abstain from preventing rightful so as to prevent its misuse or overuse.
free 15 expression, but also to actively ensure
that private parties are not able to block it. Passage − 9
Asset allocation is the most important
9. On the basis of the above passage, the investment decision we will ever make and
following assumptions have been sadly, most of us do not give that decision, the
made: importance it deserves. We are adamant about
seeking predictability with our future. We tend
1. State should have some institutions to
to think of investing in risky assets as extremely
ensure its appropriate role in a digital
volatile and value eroding. We also dislike
society.
fluctuating returns and the loss of control of
2. State should ensure that private parties
investment. We think our money is best left idle,
do not violate the citizens’ right to unproductive but safe. There is no asset that is
privacy. risk-free. We could lose our jobs, our homes can
3. Digital economy is not compatible with lose value, our banks can go bankrupt, our
the idea of not violating the citizens’ bonds can default, the government can collapse
privacy. and companies we chose fondly may cease to
Which of the above assumptions is/are valid? exist. But we cannot live life assuming that all
(a) 1 and 2 these extreme events are waiting to happen, and
(b) 3 only all at the same time. All these extreme forms of
(c) 1 and 3 risks we know will not manifest at the same
(d) 2 only time.

Passage – 8 11. Which one of the following statements

One of the biggest ironies around water is that a best implies the suggestion given by
comes from rivers and other wetlands. Yet it is the author of the passage?
seen as divorced from them. While water is used (a) Distribute your wealth across different
as a resource, public policy does not always kinds of assets so that your risks would
grasp that it is a part of the natural ecosystem. be minimized.
Efforts at engineering water systems are thus (b) Risk-taking behaviour should be a
effort at augmenting water supply rather than necessary component of your personality
strengthening the capacities of ecological if you want to generate wealth.
systems.

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

(c) While making investments, find a effectiveness in dealing with the

trustworthy asset management country’s trade policies and international
organization which would manage your obligations.
wealth for you. Which of the above assumptions are valid?
(d) You should know that investing your (a) 1, 2 and 4 only
money is a risky business. (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
Passage – 10 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Although most of the Genetically Modified (GM)
crops cultivated now are genetically engineered 13. Which one of the following statements
for a single trait, in future, crops genetically best implies the crux of the passage?
engineered for more than one trait will be the (a) Precautionary principle is not given
norm. Thus, biotechnology’s role in agriculture importance in current debate on
and the regulation of the same cannot be developing GM crops.
generation of GM crops. Instead, there is a need (b) Biotechnology is not currently used in
to take a comprehensive look, taking into climate change mitigation and adaptation
account various aspects, including socio- mechanisms.
economic impacts, so that the potential of the (c) Biotechnology’s role is not confined to the
technology can be harnessed while minimizing current priorities of developing GM crops.
negative impacts. Given the importance of (d) The negative impacts of biotechnology are
biotechnology in developing varieties that can not properly understood.
help in climate change mitigation and
adaptation, not using biotechnology as a part of Passage – 11
the climate change action plan cannot be an
3
Bank credit to the industrial sector has started
5
64
option. Domestic regulation of biotechnology shrinking. Its decline has been a serious
6

cannot be viewed in isolation of trade policy and concern as credit growth is essential to revive
86

obligations under various international treaties investment. The problem’s origins lie in the
71

and conventions. incomplete reforms of the last 25 years. An

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institutional change that should have followed

ie

12. With reference to the above passage, the 1991 reforms should have been setting up of
op

the following assumptions have been a resolution corporation for banks. In a market
ec

made: economy with booms and busts, banks should

kl

1. Biotechnology regulation is an evolving be allowed to be set up and to fail. Today, we

ar
Sp

process. cannot shut down banks because there is not

2. Participation of people is needed in policy proper system to shut them down. Weak loss
decisions regarding biotechnology making banks continue to need more capital.
regulation.
3. Biotechnology regulation should take into 14. Which one of the following is the most
account socio-economic aspects in logical and rational inference that can
decision-making. be made from the above passage?
4. Wider involvement of political executive (a) Indian banking system is not able to help
in biotechnology regulation improved its the country in its economic growth.

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

(b) Economic reforms that started in 1991 16. With reference to the above passage,
have not helped in improving the the following assumptions have been
economy to expected levels. made:
(c) India lacks the institutional mechanisms 1. Governments often provide inefficient and
to deal with the failure of banks. costly subsidies for technologies that
(d) Encouraging the foreign investments in may not be ready in the near future.
our industrial sector is a good alternative 2. India’s commitment of reducing
to this sector’s dependence on banks for emissions by 33% by 2030 shall be on
credit. the basis of gas-based economy.
Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
Passage – 12 (a) 1 only
India has tremendous potential for solar energy. (b) 2 only
We all realize that we have to stop burning fossil (c) Both 1 and 2 48
fuels to meet our energy needs. But certain (d) Neither 1 nor 2
renewable resources are still going through their
cost curves and learning curves to get the Passage – 13
required amount of output. The Indian Genome editing is different from genome
Government has strongly committed to its modification. Genome editing typically involves
targets of reducing emissions by 33 per cent by finding the part of a plant genome that could be
2030, and towards this it has initiated a strong changed to render it less vulnerable to disease,
push towards a gas-based economy-and has or resistant to certain herbicides, or to increase
also invested heavily in renewable energy. yields. Researchers use ‘molecular scissors’ to
However, business houses are wary of investing dissects the genome and repair it, which is a
too heavily in renewable energy at a time when process that occurs naturally when plants are
the technology is not yet ready. under attack from diseases and can throw up
new mutations that enable the plant to survive
15. Which one of the following is the most future attacks. This evolutionary process can
logical and rational inference that can effectively be speeded up now that it is possible
be made from the above passage? to examine plant genome in detail in
(a) India’s commitment to reduce emissions laboratories, and create mechanisms through
by 33% is unlikely to be achieved. which the relevant genes can be altered very
(b) India should import gas rather than precisely.
invest in renewable resources.
(c) Getting renewable resources to market 17. With reference to the above passage,
too soon may be costly. the following assumptions have been
(d) India should put in more efforts in the made:
exploration of natural gas. 1. Genome editing does not require the
transfer of genes from one plant to
another.
2. Through genome editing, the chosen
genes can be altered precisely in a
manner akin to the natural process that

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

helps plants to adapt to the Passage – 15

environmental factors. In Part III of the Constitution, which assures
Which of the above assumptions is/are valid? people certain fundamental rights, Article 25
(a) 1 only 49 proclaims that “all persons are equally entitled
(b) 2 only to freedom of conscience and the right freely to
(c) Both 1 and 2 profess, practise and propagate religion”. What
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 people fail to notice is that this proclamation is
prefixed with the words “subject to public order,
Passage – 14 morality, health and to the other provisions of
Many people understand the connection this Part”, which set conditions precedent for
between solid waste management and health in the legal protection of religious practices of any
terms of the consequences of unattended heaps community. The closing words of this prefatory
of dry garbage which become home for flies and rider in Article 25 virtually constitute a
other vermin. However, there is another aspect subordination clause placing other fundamental
that is not well-understood, that is, what rights mentioned in Part III over and above the
happens when unscientific solid waste right to religious freedom. Among those other
management combines with poor drainage and fundamental rights is the right to equality before
dumping of untreated sewage into drains which law and equal protection of laws–assured at the
are meant to carry storm water during rains. outset and elaborated in later articles to mean,
The result is choked drains which are full of inter alia, that the State shall not deny equal
stagnant water breeding mosquitoes, resulting protection of laws to any person or group of
in the spread of water-borne diseases. persons on the basis of religion alone.

18. In the context of India, which one of 19.

3
What is the most logical inference
5
64
the following statements best reflects from the above passage?
6

the critical message of the passage? (a) State shall not interfere with the religious
86

(a) In India, the drainage networks are not affairs of the citizens.
71

separate for sewerage and storm water. (b) Religious freedom under the Constitution
r-9

(b) Urban local bodies do not have enough is open to State intervention.
ie

resources and legislative authority to (c) Religious freedom of the citizens is not
op

deal with the problems of waste covered under fundamental rights.

ec

management. (d) Religious practices of any community are

kl

(c) Solid waste management should be immune to State laws.

ar
Sp

integrated with the maintenance of

drainage and sewerage networks. Passage – 16
(d) Bad management of solid waste and Spanish ships in the late 16th century first
sewerage systems by our municipalities brought the potato tuber from South America to
is the reason for drinking water Europe whereby in the early 19th century, it had
shortages in our cities. become a reliable backup to cereal crops,
particularly in the cold, rain-soaked soils of
Ireland. The Irish were soon almost wholly
dependent on the potato as their staple food.

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

And they were planting primarily one prodigious 21. With reference to the above passage,
variety, the ‘Lumper’ potato, whose genetic which of the following is/are the most
frailty would be cruelly exposed by the fungus rational and practical implication /
‘Phytophthora infestans’. In 1845, spores of the implications?
deadly fungus began spreading across the 1. India’s Public Distribution System should
country, destroying nearly all the Lumpers in its be monitored by the Union Government.
path. The resulting famine killed or displaced 2. Girls should be encouraged to delay
millions. marriage and first pregnancy.
3. Mothers should be encouraged to
20. Which one of the following statements breastfeed their children immediately
best reflects the critical message of after birth.
the passage? 4. The supply of safe drinking water and
(a) For introducing any foreign plant into a proper sanitation facilities to all should
country, the soil and climate conditions be ensured.
of that country should be suitable. 5. Authorities should ensure the
(b) As a staple food of a country, tuber crops vaccination should ensure the
like potato cannot replace cereal crops. vaccination as prescribed.
(c) Some of the fungal infections of plants Select the correct answer using the code given
cannot be prevented or stopped from below.
spreading across large areas. (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) Relying on a homogeneous food source is (b) 2, 3, 4 and 5
not desirable. (c) 1 only
(d) 3 and 5 only
Passage – 17
India is at once among the fastest growing Passage – 18
global economies and home to the largest The pulse variety ‘Pusa Arhar 16’ has the
number of malnourished children in world. potential to be grown in the paddy-growing
There are regions where malnutrition is not the regions of Punjab, Haryana and Uttar Pradesh
exception but the norm. And across the country, and eventually in all of India. It’s yield (about
malnutrition is the cause of death for roughly 2000 kg/hectare) will be significantly greater
half the 1.3 million children who die before their than those of the existing varieties and because
fifth birthday each year. Even those children its size will be uniform, it will be amenable to
who survive suffer permanently from the mechanical harvesting, an attractive feature for
damage that has already been done to their farmers in northern India who currently use
bodies and minds from not getting enough of this technology for paddy. Most important,
the right foods and nutrients. Around 44 million Arhar straw, unlike paddy straw, is green and
children under 5 are stunted. That makes it can be ploughed back into the soil. In paddy
harder for them to learn in school and straw, the problem is the high silica content,
subsequently earn a living as adults. Their which does not allow for easy decomposition. In
lifetime earnings potential is almost a quarter the case or Arhar, the farmer, even after
less than of their healthy peers. combine harvesting, just needs to run a
rotovator to cut the leftover straw into pieces,

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

which can be ploughed back and will decompose monsoon, only to ensure greater electricity
very fast. All this is difficult with leftover paddy generation and irrigation.
stalks that cannot be easily salvaged or
ploughed back. Farmers, therefore, choose the 23. With reference to the above passage,
easiest option of simply burning it. the following assumptions have been
made:
22. Which of the following are the most 1. High risks involved in holding maximum
rational inferences that can be made water in reservoirs are due to our over-
from the passage? dependence on hydropower projects.
1. Farmers’ income will be higher with pulse 2. Storage capacity of dams should not be
cultivation than with paddy cultivation. fully used before or during monsoon
2. Pulse cultivation causes less pollution as season.
compared to paddy cultivation. 3. Role of dams in flood control is
3. Pulse straw can be used to improved soil underestimated in India. Which of the
quality. above assumptions is/are valid?
4. In the context of northern Indian (a) 1 and 2 only
agriculture, paddy straw has no (b) 2 only
usefulness. (c) 3 only
5. Mechanized agriculture is the main cause (d) 1, 2 and 3
for stubble burning.
Select the correct answer using the code Passage – 20
given below. Economic liberalization in India was shaped
(a) 2, 3 and 5 largely by the economic problems of the
(b) 1, 4 and 5
3
government than by the economic priorities of
5
64
(c) 2 and 3 only the people or by the long-term development
6

(d) 1 and 4 only objectives. Thus, there were limitations in

86

conception and design which have been

71

Passage – 19 subsequently validated by experience. Jobless

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In India, authorities always look to store the growth, persistent poverty and rising inequality
ie

maximum amount of water in reservoirs during have mounted as problems since economic
op

the monsoon season, which is then used for liberalization began. And all these years later,
ec

irrigation and generation of electricity during four quite crises confront the economy;
kl

the summer months. It is an internationally agriculture, infrastructure, industrialization and

ar
Sp

accepted practice that the water level of a education as constraints on the country’s future
reservoir should be kept below a certain level prospects. These problems must be resolved in
before the onset of monsoon season. This is so economic growth has to be sustained and
that when monsoon rains come, there is space transformed into meaningful development.
to store the excess rainwater and also so that
water can be released in a regulated manner. 24. Which of the following is/are the most
But the authorities store the maximum amount rational and logical inference/
of water in reservoirs even before the close of the inferences that can be made from the
passage?

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

1. It is essential to rethink and redefine the Which one of the following is correct?
economic role of the State in the quest (a) 1 only is the best option for the customer.
for development. (b) 2 only is the best option for the customer.
2. India has not made effective (c) 3 only is the best option for the customer.
implementation of its policies in social (d) All the options are equally good for the
sectors nor made sufficient investments customer.
in them.
Select the correct answer using the code 2020 - Key
given below.
(a) 1 only 01.(b) 02.(a) 03.(c) 04.(b)
(b) 2 only 05.(b) 06.(b) 07.(d) 08.(d)
(c) Both 1 and 2 09.(a) 10.(c) 11.(a) 12.(b)
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 13.(c) 14.(c) 15.(c) 16.(a)
17.(c) 18.(a) 19.(b) 20.(d)
25. With reference to the above passage, 21.(d) 22.(d) 23.(b) 24.(c)
the following assumptions have been 25.(d) 26.(d)
made:
1. India’s economy needs to be greatly
integrated with global economy so as to 2019
create large number of jobs and to Passage – 1
sustain its growth momentum. Political theorists no doubt have to take history
2. Economic liberalization would cause of injustice, for example, untouchability,
large economic growth which would seriously, The concept of historical injustice
reduce poverty and create sufficient takes note of a variety of historical wrongs that
employment in the long run. continue into the present in some form or the
Which of the above assumptions is/are valid? other and tend to resist repair. Two reasons
(a) 1 only might account for resistance to repair. One, not
(b) 2 only only are the roots of injustice buried deep in
(c) Both 1 and 2 history, injustice itself constitutes economic
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 structures of exploitation, ideologies of
discrimination and modes of representation.
26. A shop owner offers the following Two, the category of historical injustice generally
discount options on an article to a extends across a number of wrongs such as
customer: economic deprivation, social discrimination and
1. Successive discounts of 10% and 20%, lack of recognition. This category is complex, not
and then pay a service tax of 10%. only because of the overlap between a number of
2. Successive discounts of 20% and 10%, wrongs, but because one or the other wrong,
and then pay a service tax of 10%. generally discrimination, tends to acquire partial
3. Pay a service tax of 10% first, then autonomy from others. This is borne out by the
successive discounts of 20% and 10%. history of repair in India.

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

1. What is the main idea that we can 3. On the basis of the above passage, the
infer from the passage ? following assumptions have been
(a) Untouchability in India has not been made:
taken seriously by political theorists. 1) A society without well educated people
(b) Historical injustice is inevitable in any cannot be transformed into a modern
society and is always beyond repair. society.
(c) Social discrimination and deprivation 2) Without acquiring culture, a person’s
have their roots in bad economies. education is not complete”.
(d) It is difficult, if not impossible, to repair
every manifestation of historical Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
injustice. (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
2. On the basis of the above passage, the (c) Both 1 and 2
following assumptions have been (d) Neither 1 nor 2
made:
1) Removal of economic discrimination Passage – 3
leads to removal of social discrimination. Soil, in which nearly all our food grows, is a
2) Democratic polity is the best way to living resource that takes years to form. Yet it
repair historical wrongs. can vanish in minutes. Each year 75 billion
tonnes of fertile soil is lost to erosion. That is
Which of the above assumptions is/are valid? alarming - and not just for food producers. Soil
(a) 1 only can trap huge quantities of carbon dioxide in the
(b) 2 only form of organic carbon and prevent it from
(c) Both 1 and 2
3
escaping into the atmosphere.
5
64
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
6

4. On the basis of the above passage, the

86

Passage - 2 following assumptions have been

71

Education plays a great transformatory role in made:

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life, particularly so in this rapidly changing and 1) Large scale soil erosion is a major reason
ie

globalizing world. Universities are the custodians for widespread food insecurity in the
op

of the intellectual capital and promoters of world.

ec

culture and specialized knowledge. Culture is an 2) Soil erosion is mainly anthropogenic.

kl

activity of thought, and receptiveness to beauty 3) Sustainable management of soils helps

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Sp

and human feelings. A merely well informed man in combating climate change.
is only a bore on God’s earth. What we should
aim at is producing men who possess both Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
culture and expert knowledge. Their expert (a) 1 and 2 only
knowledge will give them a firm ground to start (b) 3 only
from and their culture will lead them as deep as (c) 2 and 3 only
philosophy and as high as art. Together it will (d) 1, 2 and 3
impart meaning to human existence.

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

Passage – 4 practices will influence how farms fare in the

Inequality is visible, even statistically future.
measurable in many instances, but the
economic power that drives it is invisible and not 6. Which one of the following is the most
measurable. Like the force of gravity, power is logical and rational inference that can
the organizing principle of inequality, be it of be made from the above passage ?
income, or wealth, gender, race, religion and (a) Farmers who modernize their methods
region. Its effects are seen in a pervasive manner and diversify their fields will be in an
in all spheres, but the ways which economic advantageous position in future.
power pulls and tilts visible economic variables (b) Climate change will adversely affect the
remain invisibly obscure. crop diversity.
(c) Shifting major crops to new croplands
5. On the basis of the above passage, the will lead to a great increase in the total
following assumptions have been area under cultivation and thus an
made: increase in overall agricultural
1) Economic power is the only reason for production.
the existence of inequality in a society. (d) Climate change is the most important
2) Inequality of different kinds, income, factor affecting the agricultural economy
wealth, etc. reinforces power. in the future.
3) Economic power can be analyzed more
through its effects than by direct Passage – 6
empirical methods. A bat’s wings may look like sheets of skin. But
underneath, a bat has the same five fingers as
Which of the above assumptions is/are valid? an orangutan or a human, as well as a wrist
(a) 1 and 2 only connected to the same cluster of wrist bones
(b) 3 only connected to the same long bones of the arm.
(c) 1 and 3 only What can be more curious than that the hand of
(d) 1, 2 and 3 a man, formed for grasping, that of a mole for
digging, the leg of the horse, the paddle of the
Passage – 5 porpoise, and the wing of the bat, should all be
Climate change may actually benefit some plants constructed on the same pattern ?
by lengthening growing seasons and increasing
carbon dioxide. Yet other effects of a warmer 7. Which one of the following is the most
world, such as more pests, droughts, and logical, scientific and rational
flooding, will-be less benign. How will the world inference that can be made from the
adapt ? Researchers project that by 2050, above passage?
suitable croplands for four commodities - maize, (a) Different species having similar structure
potatoes, rice and wheat - will shift, in some of hands is an example of biodiversity.
cases pushing farmers to plant new crops. Some (b) Limbs being used by different species for
farmlands may benefit from warming, but others different kinds of work is an example of
won’t. Climate alone does not dictate yields; biodiversity.
political shifts, global demand, and agricultural

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

(c) Man and the aforementioned animals Which of the assumptions given above are
having similar structure of limbs is an valid?
example of coincidence in evolution. (a) 1 and 2
(d) Man and the aforementioned animals (b) 3 and 4
have a shared evolutionary history. (c) 1 and 3
(d) 2 and 4
Passage – 7
Around 56 million years ago, the Atlantic Ocean Passage – 8
had not fully opened and animals, perhaps Low-end IoT (Internet of Things) devices are
including our primate ancestors, could walk cheap commodity items : addressing security
from Asia to North America through Europe and would add to the cost. This class of items is
across Greenland. Earth was warmer than it is proliferating with new applications; many home
today, but as the Paleocene epoch gave way to appliances, thermostats, security and
Eocene, it was about to get much warmer still- monitoring devices and personal convenience
rapidly and radically. The cause was a massive devices are part of the IoT. So are fitness
geologically sudden release of carbon. During trackers, certain medical implants and
this period called Paleocene – Eocene Thermal computer-like devices in automobiles. The IoT is
Maximum or PETM, the carbon injected into the expected to expand exponentially - but new
atmosphere was roughly the amount that would security challenges are daunting.
be injected today if humans burned all the
Earth's reserves of coal, oil and natural gas. The 9. Which one of the following statements
PETM lasted for about 1,50,000 years, until the is the most logical and rational
excess carbon was reabsorbed. It brought on inference that can be made from the
drought, floods, insect plagues and extinctions. above passage ?
3
5
64
Life on Earth survived – indeed, it prospered - (a) Development of enabling technologies in
6

but it was drastically different. India can be a big boost to its

86

manufacturing sector.
71

8. Based on the above passage, the (b) India is not yet fully ready to adopt IoT in
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following assumptions have been view of the imminent security challenges.

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made: (c) Life becomes more comfortable with the

op

1) Global warming has a bearing on the development of cheap low-end IoT

ec

planet’s biological evolution. devices.

kl

2) Separation of land masses causes the (d) As we go digital, we must recognize the
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Sp

release of huge quantities of carbon into huge threat to Internet security from
the atmosphere. some IoT devices.
3) Increased warming of Earth's
atmosphere can change the composition Passage – 9
of its flora and fauna. With the digital phenomenon restructuring most
4) The present man-made global warming social sectors, it is little surprise that global
will finally lead to conditions similar to trade negotiations are now eyeing the digital
those which happened 56 million years area in an attempt to pre-emptively colonies it.
ago. Big Data is freely collected or mined from

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

developing countries, and converted into digital rely on historical averages for rainfall and
intelligence in developed countries. This temperature, and the more frequent and extreme
intelligence begins to control different sectors weather events, such as droughts and floods,
and extract monopoly rents. A large foreign can spell disaster. And there are new threats,
company providing cab service, for instance, is such as sea level rise and the impact of melting
not a network of cars and drivers; it is digital glaciers on water supply. How significant are
intelligence about commuting, public transport, small farms ? As many as two billion people
roads, traffic, city events, personal behavioural worldwide depend on them for their food and
characteristics of commuters and drivers and so livelihood. Small-holder farmers in India produce
on. 41 percent of the country’s food grains, and
other food items that contribute to local and
10. Which one of the following is the most national food security.
logical and rational corollary to the
above passage ? 12. What is the most logical and rational
(a) Globalization is not in the interests of corollary to the above passage ?
India as it Undermines its socio- (a) Supporting small farmers is an
economic structures. important part of any agenda regarding
(b) India should be careful to protect its environmentally sustainable
digital sovereignty in global trade talks. development.
(c) India should charge monopoly rents from (b) Poor countries have little role to play in
multinational companies in exchange for the mitigation of global warming.
Big Data. (c) Due to a large number of farmer
(d) The loss of Big Data from India is households, India will not have food
proportional to the degree/value of its security problem in the foreseeable
foreign trade. future.
(d) Only small-holder farmers in India can
11. Which of the following is most ensure food security.
definitively implied by the above
passage? 13. The above passage implies that
(a) Big Data is the key resource in the digital 1) There is a potential problem of food
space. insecurity in India.
(b) Big economies create Big Data. 2) India will have to strengthen its disaster
(c) Access to Big Data is the prerogative of management capabilities.
developed countries. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
(d) Access to and possession of Big Data is a (a) 1 only
characteristic of developed countries. (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
Passage – 10 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
The rural poor across the world, including India,
have contributed little to human-induced Passage – 11
climate change, yet they are on the frontline in A changing climate, and the eventual efforts of
coping with its effects. Farmers can no longer governments (however reluctant) to deal with it,

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

could have a big impact on investors’ returns. outside the space that private school principals
Companies that produce or use large amounts of inhabit. Therefore, the imposition of the quotas
fossil fuels will face higher taxes and regulatory has led to resistance, sometimes justified.
burdens. Some energy producers may find it
impossible to exploit their known reserves, and 15. With reference to the above passage,
be left with “stranded assets” - deposits of oil the following assumptions have been
and coal that have to be left in the ground. made :
Other industries could be affected by the 1) Making equality of opportunity a reality
economic damage caused by more extreme is the fundamental goal of the Indian
weather - storms, floods, heat waves and education system.
droughts. 2) The present Indian school system is
unable to provide egalitarian education.
14. On the basis of the above passage, the 3) Abolition of private schools and
following assumptions have been establishment of more government
made: schools is the only way to ensure
1) Governments and companies need to be egalitarian education.
adequately prepared to face the climate
change. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
2) Extreme weather events will reduce the (a) 1 and 2 only
economic growth of governments and (b) 2 only
companies in future. (c) 2 and 3 only
3) Ignoring climate change is a huge risk for (d) 3 only
investors.
Passage – 13 5 3
64
Which of the above assumptions is/are valid? A majority of the TB infected in India are poor
6

(a) 1 and 2 only and lack sufficient nutrition, suitable housing

86

(b) 3 only and have little understanding of prevention, TB

71

(c) 1 and 3 only then devastates families, makes the poor poorer,
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(d) 1, 2 and 3 particularly affects women and children, and

ie

leads to ostracisation and loss of employment.

op

Passage – 12 The truth is that even if TB does not kill them,

ec

Access to schooling for those coming of school hunger and poverty will. Another truth is that
kl

age is close to universal, but access to quality deep-seated stigma, lack of counselling,
ar
Sp

exhibits socio-economic status. Quotas for the expensive treatment and lack of adequate
weaker sections in private schools is a provision support from providers and family, coupled with
introduced by the Right of Children to Free and torturous side-effects demotivate patients to
Compulsory Education Act, 2009. The quotas continue treatment - with disastrous health
have imposed a debate on issues of social consequences.
integration and equity in education that private
actors had escaped by and large. The idea of 16. Which one of the following is the most
egalitarian education system with equality of logical, rational and crucial message
opportunity as its primary goal appears to be conveyed by the above passage?

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

(a) TB is not a curable disease in Indian (c) Private corporations should not be
circumstances. allowed to do agribusiness in India,
(b) Curing TB requires more than diagnosis particularly the seed business.
and medical treatment. (d) Present Indian circumstances do not
(c) Government’s surveillance mechanism is favour the cultivation of genetically
deficient; and poor people have no access modified crops.
to treatment.
(d) India will be free from diseases like TB Passage - 15
only when its poverty alleviation Most invasive species are neither terribly
programmes are effectively and successful nor very harmful. Britain’s invasive
successfully implemented. plants are not widespread, not spreading
especially quickly, and often less of a nuisance
Passage – 14 than vigorous natives such as bracken. The
What stands in the way of the widespread and arrival of new species almost always increases
careful adoption of ‘Genetic Modification (GM)’ biological diversity in a region; in many cases, a
technology is an ‘Intellectual Property Rights’ flood of newcomers drives no native species to
regime that seeks to create private monopolies extinction. One reason is that invaders tend to
for such technologies. If GM technology is largely colonies disturbed habitats like polluted lakes
corporate driven, it seeks to maximize profits and post-industrial wasteland, where little else
and that too in the short run. That is why lives. They are nature's opportunists.
corporations make major investments for
herbicide-tolerant and pest-resistant crops. 18. Which one of the following is the most
Such properties have only a short window, as logical and rational inference that can
soon enough, pests and weeds will evolve to be made from the above passage ?
overcome such resistance. This suits the (a) Invasive species should be used to
corporations. The National Farmers Commission rehabilitate desert areas and wastelands
pointed out that priority must be given in genetic of a country.
modification to the incorporation of genes that (b) Laws against the introduction of foreign
can help impart resistance to drought, salinity plants are unnecessary.
and other stresses. (c) Sometimes, the campaigns against
foreign plants are pointless.
17. Which one of the following in the most (d) Foreign plants should be used to
logical, rational and crucial message increase the biodiversity of a country.
conveyed by the above passage ?
(a) Public research institutions should take Passage – 16
the lead in GM technology and priorities Diarrhoeal deaths among Indian children are
the technology agenda. mostly due to food and water contamination.
(b) Developing countries should raise this Use of contaminated groundwater and unsafe
issue in WTO and ensure the abolition of chemicals in agriculture, poor hygiene in storage
Intellectual property Rights. and handling of food items to food cooked and
distributed in unhygienic surroundings; there
are myriad factors that need regulation and

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

monitoring. People need to have awareness of 20. The passage seems to argue
adulteration and ways of complaining to the (a) Against the monopoly of builders and the
relevant authorities. Surveillance of food-borne interests of elite groups.
diseases involves a number of government (b) Against the need for global and smart
agencies and entails a good training of cities.
inspection staff. Considering the proportion of (c) In favour of planning cities mainly for
the urban population that depends on street working class and poor people.
food for its daily meals, investing in training and (d) In favour of participation of peoples’
education of street vendors is of great groups in city planning.
significance.
Passage – 18
19. On the basis of the above passage, the A vast majority of Indians are poor, with barely
following assumptions have been 10 percent employed in the organized sector. We
made: are being convinced that vigorous economic
1) Food safety is a complex issue that calls growth is generating substantial employment.
for a multipronged solution. But this is not so. When our economy was
2) Great investments need to be made in growing at 3 percent per year, employment in
developing the manpower for surveillance the organized sector was growing at 2 percent
and training. per year. As the economy began to grow at 7 - 8
3) India needs make sufficient legislation percent per year, the rate of growth of
for governing food processing industry. employment in the organized sector actually
declined to 1 percent per year.
Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
(a) 1 and 2 only 21.
3
The above passage seems to imply
5
64
(b) 3 only that
6

(c) 1 and 3 only 1) Most of modern economic growth is

86

(d) 1, 2 and 3 based on technological progress.

71

2) Much of modern Indian economy does

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Passage – 17 not nurture sufficient symbiotic

ie

The interests of working and poor people have relationship with labour-intensive,
op

historically been neglected in the planning of our natural resource-based livelihoods.

ec

cities. Our cities are increasingly intolerant, 3) Service sector in India is not very labour-
kl

unsafe and unlivable places for large numbers of intensive.

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Sp

citizens and yet we continue to plan via the old 4) Literate rural population is not willing to
ways - the static Development Plan - that draws enter organized sector.
exclusively from technical expertise, distanced
from people’s live experiences and needs, and Which of the statements given above are
actively excluding large number of people, correct ?
places, activities and practices that are an (a) 1 and 2 only
integral part of the city. (b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

Passage – 19 especially needs an effective long-term

India has banking correspondents, who help regulatory system based on collaboration rather
bring people in the hinterland into the banking than the current top-down approach.
fold. For them to succeed, banks cannot crimp Regulations seek desirable outcomes yet are
on costs. They also cannot afford to ignore repeatedly used as political tools to push one
investing in financial education and literacy. agenda or another. Often, regulations fail to
Banking correspondents are way too small to be consider impacts on jobs and economic growth -
viewed as a systemic risk. Yet India’s banking or less restrictive. alternatives. Regulations may
regulator has restricted them to serving only one be used to protect local markets at the expense
bank, perhaps to prevent arbitrage. Efforts at of more widely shared prosperity in the future.
banking outreach may succeed only if there are Additionally, regulations inevitably result
better incentives at work for such last-mile numerous unintended consequences. In today’s
workers and also those providers who ensure hyper competitive global economy, regulations
not just basic bank accounts but also products need to be viewed as “weapons” that seek cost-
such as accident and life insurance and micro justified social and environmental benefits while
pension schemes. improving the economic well-being of most
citizens.
22. Which one of the following is the most
logical, rational and crucial inference 23. Which one of the following is the most
that can be derived from the above logical, rational and crucial’ inference
passage? that can be derived from the above
(a) Efforts to bring people in India’s passage?
hinterland into the banking system are (a) A better regulatory system will help India
not successful. achieve the size of economy appropriate
(b) For meaningful financial inclusion, to its population.
India’s banking system needs more (b) In a competitive global economy, India
number of banking correspondents and must use regulations strategically.
other such last-mile workers. (c) Regulations in India do not favour its
(c) Meaningful financial inclusion in India integration with today’s hyper
requires that banking correspondents competitive global economy.
have diverse skills. (d) Job creation and economic growth
(d) Better banking outreach would be should be dominant considerations in
impossible unless each banking developing India’s regulatory system.
correspondent is allowed to serve a
number of banks. 24. On the basis of the above passage, the
following assumptions have been
Passage – 20 made: In today's global economy,
India’s economic footprint, given its population, 1) Regulations are not effectively used to
still remains small compared to the US, the protect local markets.
European Union or China. It has much to learn 2) Social and environmental concerns are
from other economies, yet must implement generally ignored by the governments
solutions that fit its unique circumstances. India

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

across the world while implementing the sialylated oligosaccharides instead of

regulations. mother’s milk.
(d) Research on benign effects of gut
Which of the above assumptions is/are valid? bacteria on nutrition has policy
(a) 1 only implications.
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 26. On the basis of the above passage, the
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 following assumptions have been
made:
Passage – 21 1) Processed probiotic foods are a solution
In a study, scientists compared the microbiomes to treat the children suffering from
of poorly nourished and well nourished infants malnutrition due to immature gut
and young children. Gut microbes were isolated bacteria composition.
from faecal samples of malnourished and 2) The babies of malnourished mothers
healthy children. The microbiome was generally tend to be malnourished.
“immature” and less diverse in malnourished
children compared to the better developed Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
“mature” microbiome found in healthy children (a) 1 only
of the same age. According to some studies, the (b) 2 only
chemical composition of mother’s milk has (c) Both 1 and 2
shown the presence of a modified sugar (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(sialylated oligosaccharides). This is not utilized
by the baby for its own nutrition. However, the Passage – 22
bacteria constituting the infant’s microbiome
3
Temperatures have risen nearly five times as
5
64
thrive on this sugar which serves as their food. rapidly qn the Western Antarctic Peninsula than
6

Malnourished mothers have low levels of this the global average over the past five decades.
86

sugar in their milk. Consequently, the Researchers have now found that melting
71

microbiomes of their infants fail to mature. That glaciers are causing a loss of species diversity
r-9

in turn, leads to malnourished babies. among benthos in the coastal waters off the
ie

Antarctic Peninsula, impacting an entire seafloor

op

25. Which one of the following is the most ecosystem. They believe increased levels of
ec

logical, rational and crucial inference suspended sediment in water to be the cause of
kl

that can be derived from the above the dwindling biodiversity in the coastal region.
ar
Sp

passage?
(a) If malnourished condition in children is 27. On the basis of the above passage, the
caused by gut bacteria, it cannot be following assumptions have been
treated. made:
(b) The guts of malnourished babies should 1) Regions of glaciers warm faster than
be inoculated with mature microbiomes. other regions due to global warming.
(c) Babies of malnourished mothers should 2) Global warming can lead to seafloor
be fed with dairy milk fortified with sedimentation in some areas.

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

3) Melting glaciers can reduce marine Passage - 24

biodiversity in some areas. Food varieties extinction is happening all over
Which of the above assumptions is/are valid? the world- and it is happening fast. For example,
(a) 1 and 2 only of the 7,000 apple varieties that were grown
(b) 3 only during the nineteenth century, fewer than a
(c) 2 and 3 only hundred remain. In the Philippines, thousands
(d) 1, 2 and 3 of varieties of rice once thrived; now only up to a
hundred are grown there. In China, 90 percent
Passage – 23 of the wheat varieties cultivated just a century
A research team examined a long-term owl roost. ago have disappeared. Farmers in the past
Owls prey on small mammals and the excreted painstakingly bred and developed crops well
remains of those meals that accumulated over suited to the peculiarities of their local climate
the time, provide us an insight into the and environment. In the recent past, our heavy
composition and structure of small mammals dependence on a few high yielding varieties and
over the past millennia. The research suggested technology-driven production and distribution of
that when the Earth went through a period of, food is causing the dwindling of diversity in food
rapid warming about 13,000. years ago, the crops. If some mutating crop disease or future
small mammal community was stable and climate change decimates the few crop plants we
resilient. But, from the last quarter of the have come to depend on to feed our growing
nineteenth century, human-made changes to the population, we might desperately need some of
environment had caused an enormous drop in those varieties we have let go extinct.
biomass and energy flow. This dramatic decline
in energy flow means modern ecosystems are not 29. On the basis of the above passage, the
adapting as easily as they did in the past. following assumptions have been
made:
28. On the basis of the above passage, the 1) Humans have been the main reason for
following assumptions have been the large scale extinction of plant
made: species.
1) Global warming is a frequently occurring 2) Consumption of food mainly from locally
natural phenomenon. cultivated crops ensures crop diversity.
2) The impending global warming will not 3) The present style of production and
adversely affect small mammals. distribution of food will finally lead to the
3) Hurans are responsible for the loss of the problem of food scarcity in the near
Earth’s natural resilience. future.
4) Our food security may depend on our
Which of the above assumptions is/are valid? ability to preserve the locally cultivated
(a) 1 and 2 only varieties of crops.
(b) 3 only Which of the above assumptions are valid?
(c) 2 and 3 only (a) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 4
(d) 1 and 4

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

2019 - Key Passage – 2

Many pathogens that cause foodborne illnesses
01.(d) 02.(d) 03.(b) 04.(b) are unknown. Food contamination can occur at
05.(b) 06.(a) 07.(d) 08.(c) any stage from farm to plate. Since most cases of
09.(d) 10.(b) 11.(a) 12.(a) food poisoning go unreported, the true extent of
13.(c) 14.(c) 15.(b) 16.(d) global foodborne illnesses is unknown.
17.(a) 18.(d) 19.(c) 20.(d) Improvements in international monitoring have
21.(a) 22.(b) 23.(b) 24.(d) led to greater public awareness, yet the rapid
25.(c) 26.(b) 27.(b) 28.(b) globalization of food production increases
consumers’ vulnerability by making food harder
29.(b)
to regulate and trace. “We have the world on our
plates”, says an official of WHO.
2018
Passage – 1 2. Which of the following is the most
Global population was around 1.6 billion in logical corollary to the above passage?
1990-today it is around 7.2 billion and growing. (a) With more options for food come more
Recent estimates on population growth predict a risks.
global population of 9.6 billion in 2050 and 10.9 (b) Food processing is the source of all
billion in 2100. Unlike Europe and North foodborne illnesses.
America, where only three to four percent of (c) We should depend on locally produced
population is engaged in agriculture, around 47 food only.
percent of India’s population is dependent upon (d) Globalization of food production should
agriculture. Even if India continues to do well in be curtailed.
the service sector and the manufacturing sector
picks up, it is expected that around 2030 when
5 3
64
Passage - 3
India overtakes China as the world's most
6

I am a scientist, privileged to be somebody who

86

populous country, nearly 42 Per cent of India's tries to understand nature using the tools of
71

population Will still be predominantly dependent science. But it is also clear that there are some
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on agriculture. really important questions that science cannot

ie

really answer, such as : Why is there something

op

1. Which of the following is the most instead of nothing? Why are we here? In those
ec

logical and rational inference that can domains, I have found that faith provides a
kl

be made from the above passage? better path to answers. I Find it oddly
ar

(a) Prosperity of agriculture sector is of

Sp

anachronistic that in today’s culture there

critical importance to India. seems to be a widespread presumption that
(b) Indian economy greatly depends on its scientific and spiritual views are incompatible.
agriculture.
(c) India should take strict measures to 3. Which of the following is the most
control its rapid population growth. logical and rational inference that can
(d) India's farming communities should be made from the above passage?
switch over to other occupations to (a) It is the faith and not science that can
improve their economic conditions. finally solve all the problems of mankind.

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

(b) Science and faith can be mutually they may drop out after a few months. Through
complementary if their proper domains school and social mapping, we must address the
are understood. entire gamut of social, economic, cultural and
(c) There are some very fundamental indeed linguistic and pedagogic issues, factors
questions Which cannot be answered by that prevent children from weaker sections and
either science or faith. disadvantaged groups, as also girls,
(d) In today's culture, scientific views are complementing elementary education. The focus
given more importance than spiritual must be on poorest and most vulnerable since
views. these groups are the most disempowered and at
the greatest risk of violation or denial of their
Passage – 4 right to education.
Though I have discarded much of past tradition The right to education goes beyond free and
and custom, and am anxious that India should compulsory education to include quality
rid herself of all shackles that bind and contain education for all. Quality is an integral part of
her and divide her people, and suppress vast the right to education. If the education process
numbers of them, and prevent the free lacks quality, children are being denied their
development of the body and the spirit; though I right. The Right of Children to Free and
seek all this, yet I do not wish to cut myself off Compulsory Education Act lays down that the
from that past completely. I am proud of that curriculum should provide for learning through
great inheritance that has been and is, ours and activities, exploration and discovery. This places
I am conscious that I too, like all of us, am a link an obligation on us to change our perception of
in that unbroken chain which goes back to the children as passive receivers of knowledge, and
dawn of history in the immemorial past of India. to move beyond the convention of using
textbooks as the basis of examinations. The
4. The author wants India to rid herself teaching-learning process must become stress-
of certain past bonds because free; and a massive programme for curricular
(a) He is not able to see the relevance of the reform should be initiated to provide for a child-
past friendly learning system, that is more relevant
(b) There is not much to be proud of and empowering. Teacher accountability
(c) He is not interested in the history of systems and processes must ensure that
India children are learning, and that their right to
(d) They obstruct her physical and spiritual learn in a child-friendly environment is not
growth. violated. Testing and assessment systems must
be reexamined and redesigned to ensure that
Passage – 5 these do not force children to struggle between
It is no longer enough for us to talk about school and tuition centres, and bypass
providing for universal access to education. childhood.
Making available schooling facilities is an
essential prerequisite, but is insufficient to 5. According to the passage, which of the
ensure that all children attend school and following is/are of paramount
participate in the learning process. The school importance under the Right to
may be there, but children may not attend or Education?

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

1) Sending of children to school by all 8. What is the essential message in this

parents passage?
2) Provision of adequate physical (a) The Right to Education now is a
infrastructure in schools Fundamental Right.
3) Curricular reforms for developing child- (b) The Right to Education enables the
friendly learning system children of poor and weaker sections of
Select the correct answer using the code the society to attend schools.
given below. (c) The Right to Free and Compulsory
(a) 1 only Education should include quality
(b) 1 and 2 only education for all.
(c) 3 only (d) The Government as well as parents
(d) None of the above should ensure that all children attend
schools.
6. With reference to the above passage,
the following assumptions have been Passage - 6
made : ‘Desertification' is a term used to explain a
1) The Right to Education guarantees process of decline in the biological productivity
teachers’ accountability for the learning of an ecosystem, leading to total loss of
process of children. productivity. While this phenomenon is often
2) The Right to Education guarantees 100% linked to the arid, semi-arid and sub-humid
enrolment of children in the schools. ecosystems, even in the humid tropics, the
3) The Right to Education intends to take impact could be most dramatic. Impoverishment
full advantage of demographic dividend. of human-impacted terrestrial ecosystems may

3
exhibit itself in a variety of ways : accelerated
5
64
Which of the above assumptions is/are valid? erosion as in the mountain regions of the
6

(a) 1 only country, salinization of land as in the semi-arid

86

(b) 2 and 3 only and arid ‘green revolution' areas of the country,
71

(c) 3 only e.g., Haryana and western Uttar Pradesh, and

r-9

(d) 1, 2 and 3 site quality decline-a common phenomenon due

ie

to general decline in tree cover and monotonous

op

7. According to the following is critical monoculture of rice/wheat across the Indian

ec

in bringing quality in education? plains. A major consequence of deforestation is

kl

(a) Ensuring regular attendance of children that it relates to adverse alterations in the
ar
Sp

as well as teachers in school hydrology and related soil and nutrient losses.
(b) Giving pecuniary benefits to teachers to The consequences of deforestation invariably
motivate them arise out of site degradation through erosive
(c) Understanding the socio-cultural losses. Tropical Asia, Africa and South America
background of children have the highest levels of erosion. The already
(d) Inculcating learning through activities high rates for the tropics are increasing at an
and discovery alarming rate (e.g., through the major river
systems-Ganga and Brahmaputra, in the Indian
context), due to deforestation and ill-suited land

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

management practices subsequent to forest 2) Salinization of land takes place due to

clearing. In the mountain context, the declining human activities only.
moisture retention of the mountain soils, drying 3) Intense monoculture practice in plains is
up of the underground springs and smaller a major reason for desertification in
rivers in the Himalayan region could be Tropical Asia, Africa and South America.
attributed to drastic changes in the forest cover. Select the correct answer using the code
An indirect consequence is drastic alteration in given below.
the upland-lowland interaction, mediated (a) 1 only
through water. The current concern the tea (b) 1 and 2 only
planter of Assam has is about the damage to tea (c) 2 and 3 only
plantations due to frequent inundation along the (d) None of the above is a correct inference
flood-plains of Brahmaputra, and the damage to
tea plantation and the consequent loss in tea 11. With reference to ‘desertification’, as
productivity is due to rising level of the river described in the passage, the following
bottom because of siltation and the changing assumptions have been made :
course of the river system. The ultimate 1) Desertification is a phenomenon in
consequences of site desertification are soil tropical areas only.
degradation, alteration in available water and its 2) Deforestation invariably leads to floods
quality, and the consequent decline in food, and desertification.
fodder and fuel-wood yields essential well-being Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
of rural communities. a) 1 only
b) 2 only
9. According to the passage, which of the c) Both 1 and 2
following are the consequences of d) Neither 1 nor 2
decline in forest cover?
1) Loss of topsoil Passage – 7
2) Loss of smaller rivers A diversity of natural assets will be needed to
3) Adverse effect on agricultural production cope with climate change and ensure productive
4) Declining of groundwater agriculture, forestry, and fisheries. For example,
Select the correct answer using the code crop varieties are needed that perform well
given below. under drought, heat, and enhanced CO2. But
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only the private-sector and farmer-led process of
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only choosing crops favours homogeneity adapted to
(c) 1 and 4 only past or current conditions, not varieties capable
(d) 1, 2 , 3 and 4 of producing consistently high yields in warmer,
wetter, or drier conditions. Accelerated breeding
10. Which of the following is/are the programmes are needed to conserve a wider pool
correct Inference/inferences that can of genetic resources of existing crops, breeds,
be made from the passage? and their wild relatives. Relatively intact
1) Deforestation can cause changes in the ecosystems, such as forested catchments,
course of rivers. mangroves, wetlands, can buffer the impacts of
climate change. Under a changing climate, these

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

ecosystems are themselves at risk, and possible than if we view the planet as a giant
management approaches will need to be more shopping mall. We need to get beyond the
proactive and adaptive. Connections between fascination with glitter and understand that the
natural areas such as migration corridors, may planet works as a biological system.
be needed to facilitate species movements to
keep up with the change in climate. 14. Which of the following is the most
crucial and logical inference that can
12. With reference to the above passage, be made from the above passage?
which of the following would assist us (a) The Earth can meet only the basic needs
in coping with the climate change? of humans for food, clothing and shelter.
1) Conservation sources of natural water (b) The only way to meet environmental
2) Conservation of wider gene pool challenge is to limit human population.
3) Existing crop management practices (c) Reducing our consumerism is very much
4) Migration corridors in our own interest.
(d) Knowledge of biological systems can only
Select the correct answer using the code help us save this planet.
given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only Passage – 9
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only Some people believe that leadership is a quality
(c) 3 and 4 only which you have at birth or not at all. This theory
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 is false, for the art of leadership can be acquired
and can indeed be taught. This discovery is
13. With reference to the above passage, made in time of war and the results achieved
the following assumptions have been
3
can surprise even the instructors. Faced with
5
64
made : the alternatives of going left or right, every
6

1) Diversification of livelihoods acts as a soldier soon grasps that a prompt decision either
86

coping strategy for climate change. way is better than an endless discussion. A firm
71

2) Adoption of monocropping practice leads choice of direction has an even chance of being
r-9

to the extinction of plant varieties and right while to do nothing will be almost certainly
ie

their wild relatives. wrong.

op
ec

Which of the above assumptions is/are valid? 15. The author of the passage holds the
kl

(a) 1 only view that

ar
Sp

(b) 2 only (a) Leadership can be taught through war

(c) Both 1 and 2 experience only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) Leadership can be acquired as well as
taught
Passage - 8 (c) The results of training show that more
Today, the top environmental challenge is a people acquire leadership than are
combination of people and their aspirations. If expected
the aspirations are more like the frugal ones we (d) Despite rigorous instruction, very few
had after the Second World War, a lot more is leaders are produced

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

Passage – 10 using clean cooking fuels, such as LPG, natural

All actions to address climate change ultimately gas and electricity, is slowly rising, the number
involve costs. Funding is vital in order for using polluting solid fuels as their primary
countries like India to design and implement cooking fuel has remained static for nearly 30
adaptation and mitigation plans and projects. years at about 70 crore.
The problem is more severe for developing
countries like India, which would be one of the 17. Which of the following is the most
hardest hit by climate change, given its need to crucial and logical inference that can
finance development. Most countries do indeed be made from the above passage?
treat climate change as real threat and are (a) Rural people are giving up the use of
striving to address it in a more comprehensive polluting solid fuels due to their
and integrated manner with the limited increasing awareness of health hazards.
resources at their disposal. (b) Subsidizing the use of clean cooking
fuels will solve the problem of India's
16. With reference to the above passage, indoor air pollution.
the following assumptions have been (c) India should increase its import of
made : natural gas and produce more electricity.
1) Climate change is not a challenge for (d) Access to cooking gas can reduce
developed countries. premature deaths in poor households.
2) Climate change is a complex policy issue
and also a development issue for many Passage - 12
countries. Scientific knowledge has its dangers, but so has
3) Ways and means of finance must be every great thing. Over and beyond the dangers
found to enable developing countries to with which it threatens the present, it opens up
enhance their adaptive capacity. as nothing else can, the vision of a possible
happy world; a world without poverty, without
Which of the above assumptions is/are valid? with little illness Science. Whatever unpleasant
(a) 1 and 2 only consequences it may have by the way, is in its
(b) 3 only very nature a liberator.
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 18. Which one of the following is the most
important implication of the passage?
Passage – 11 (a) A happy world is a dream of science.
Cooking with biomass and coal in India is now (b) Science only can build a happy world,
recognized to cause major health problems, with but it is also the only major threat.
women and children in poor populations facing (c) A happy world is not possible without
the greatest risk. There are more than 10 lakh science.
premature deaths each year from household air (d) A happy world is not at all possible with
pollution due to polluting cooking fuels with or without science.
another 1.5 lakh due to their contribution to
general outdoor air pollution in the country.
Although the fraction of the Indian population

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

Passage - 13 20. What is the crucial message conveyed

The Arctic’s vast reserves of fossil fuel, fish and by the above passage?
minerals are now accessible for a longer period (a) India should revise its PDS.
in a year. But unlike Antarctica, which is (b) India should not be a member of WTO
protected from exploitation by the Antarctic (c) For India, food security collides with
Treaty framed during the Cold War and is not trade.
subject to territorial claims by any country, (d) India provides food security to its poor
there is no legal regime protecting the Arctic
from industrialization, especially at a time when Passage – 15
the world craves for more and more resources. India’s educational system is modelled on the
The distinct possibility of ice-free summer has mass education system that developed in the
prompted countries with Arctic coastline to 19th century in Europe and later spread around
scramble for great chunks of the melting ocean. the world. The goal of the system is to condition
children as ‘good’ citizens and productive
19. Which one of the following is the most workers. This suited the industrial age that
important implication of the passage? needed the constant supply of a compliant
(a) India can have territorial claims in the workforce with a narrow set of capabilities. Our
Arctic territory and free access to its educational institutes resemble factories with
resources. bells, uniforms and batch-processing of learners,
(b) Melting of summer ice in the Arctic leads designed to get learners to conform. But, from
to changes in the geopolitics. an economic point of view, the environment
(c) The Arctic region will solve the world’s today is very different. It is a complex, volatile
future problem of resource crunch. and globally interconnected world.
(d) The Arctic region has more resources 5 3
64
than Antarctica. 21. With reference to the above passage,
6

the following assumptions have been

86

Passage – 14 made :
71

Being a member of the WTO, India is bound by 1) India continues to be a developing

r-9

the agreements that have been signed and country essentially due to its faulty
ie

ratified by its members, including itself. education system.

op

According to Article 6 of the Agriculture 2) Today’s learners need to acquire new-age

ec

Agreement, providing minimum support prices skill-sets.

kl

for agricultural products is considered distorting 3) A good number of Indians go to some

ar
Sp

and is subject to limits. The subsidy arising from developed countries for education
‘minimal supports’ cannot exceed 10 percent of because the educational systems there
the value of agricultural production for are a perfect reflection of the societies in
developing countries. PDS in India entails which they function.
minimum support prices and public Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
stockholding of food grains. It is possible that, in (a) 1 and 3 only
some years, the subsidy to producers will exceed (b) 2 only
10 per cent of the value of agricultural (c) 2 and 3 only
production. (d) 1, 2 and 3

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

Passage - 16 23. Which of the following is the most

The practice of dieting has become an epidemic; logical, rational and crucial message
everyone is looking out for a way to attain that given by the passage?
perfect body. We are all different with respect (a) Preserving crop genetic diversity is an
our ethnicity, genetics, family history, gender, insurance against the effects of climate
age, physical and mental and spiritual health change.
status, lifestyles and preferences. Thereby we (b) Despite great risks, monoculture is the
also differ in what foods we tolerate or are only way to ensure food security in the
sensitive to. So we really cannot reduce so many world.
complexities into one diet or diet book. This (c) More and more genetically modified
explains the failure of diets across the world in crops only can save the world from
curbing obesity. Unless the reasons for weight impending shortages of food.
gain are well understood and addressed and (d) Asia and North America will be worst
unless habits are changed permanently, no diet sufferers from climate change and the
is likely to succeed. consequent shortage of food.

22. What is the most logical and rational Passage – 18

inference that can be made from the The quest for cheap and plentiful meat has
above passage? resulted in factory farms where more and more
(a) Obesity has become an epidemic all over animals are squeezed into smaller lots in cruel
the world. and shocking conditions. Such practices have
(b) A lot of people are obsessed with resulted in many of the world’s health
attaining a perfect body. pandemics such as the avian flu. Worldwide,
(c) Obesity is essentially an incurable livestock are increasingly raised in cruel,
disease. cramped conditions, where animals spend their
(d) There is no perfect diet or one solution short lives under artificial light, pumped full of
for obesity. antibiotics and growth hormones, until the day
they are slaughtered. Meat production is water-
Passage - 17 intensive. 15000 liters of water is needed for
Monoculture carries great risks. A single disease every kilogram of meat compared with 3400
or pest can wipe out swathes of the world’s food liters for rice, 3300 liters for eggs and 255 liters
production, an alarming prospect given that its for a kilogram of potatoes.
growing and wealthier population will eat 70%
more by 2050. The risks are magnified by the 24. What is the most rational and crucial
changing climate. As the planet warms and message given by the passage?
monsoon rains intensity, farmlands in Asia will (a) Mass production of meat through
flood. North America will suffer more intense industrial farming is cheap and is
droughts, and crop diseases will spread to new suitable for providing protein nutrition to
latitudes. poor countries.
(b) Meat-producing industry violates the
laws against cruelty to animals.

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

(c) Mass production of meat through 2) India does not have suitable legislation to
industrial farming is undesirable and save the tigers, and its conservation
should be stopped immediately. efforts have failed which forced the tigers
(d) Environmental cost of meat production is to
unsustainable when it is produced 3) Live outside protected areas.
through industrial farming.
Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
Passage - 19 (a) 1 only
A male tiger was removed from Pench Tiger (b) 2 only
Reserve and was relocated in Panna National (c) Both 1 and 2
Park. Later, this tiger trekked toward his home (d) Neither 1 nor 2
250 miles away. The trek of this solitary tiger
highlights a crisis. Many wildlife reserves exist
as islands of fragile habitat in a vast sea of 2018 - Key
humanity, yet tigers can range over a hundred
miles, seeking prey, mates and territory. Nearly 01.(b) 02.(a) 03.(b) 04.(d) 05.(c) 06.(a)
a third of India’s tigers live outside tiger 07.(d) 08.(c) 09.(b) 10.(a) 11.(d) 12.(c)
reserves, a situation that is dangerous for both 13.(b) 14.(c) 15.(b) 16.(b) 17.(d) 18.(a)
human and animal. Prey and tigers can only 19.(b) 20.(c) 21.(b) 22.(d) 23.(a) 24.(d)
disperse if there are recognized corridors of land 25.(b) 26.(d)
between protected areas to allow unmolested
passage.
2017
Passage – 1
25. Which of the following is the most
3
5
What climate change will undeniably do is cause
64
rational and crucial message given by
or amplifies events that hasten the reduction of
6

the passage?
86

resources. Competition over these diminishing

(a) The conflict between man and wildlife
71

resources would ensue in the form of political or

cannot be resolved, no matter what
r-9

even violent conflict. Resource-based conflicts

efforts we make.
ie

have rarely been overt and are thus difficult to

(b) Safe wildlife corridors between protected
op

isolate. Instead they take on veneers that appear

areas is an essential aspect of
ec

more politically palatable. Conflicts over

conservation efforts.
kl

resources like water are often cloaked in the

(c) India’s National Parks and Tiger Reserves
ar

guise of identity or ideology.

Sp

need to be professionally managed.

1. What does the above passage imply?

26. With reference to the above passage,
(a) Resource-based always conflicts are
the following assumptions have been
politically motivated.
made :
(b) There are no political solutions to resolve
1) The strategy of conservation of wildlife by
environmental and resource-based
relocating them from one protected area
conflicts.
to another is not often successful.

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

(c) Environmental issues contribute to 3. Which among the following is the

resource stresses and political conflict. most crucial message conveyed by the
(d) Political conflict based on identity or above passage?
ideology cannot be resolved. (a) Climate change has caused Arctic
summer to be short but Temperature to
Passage – 2 be high.
The man who is perpetually hesitating which of (b) Polar bears can be shifted to South Pole
the two things he will do first, will do neither. to ensure their survival.
The man who resolves, but suffers his resolution (c) Without the presence of polar bears, the
to be changed by the first counter -suggestion of food chains in Arctic region will
a friend-who fluctuates from opinion to opinion disappear.
and veers from plan to plan-can never (d) Climate change poses a threat to the
accomplish anything. He will at best be survival of polar bears
stationary and probably retrograde in all. It is
only the man who first consults wisely, then Passage – 4
resolves firmly and then executes his purpose Why do people prefer open defecation and not
with inflexible perseverance, undismayed by want toilets or, if they have them, only use them
those petty difficulties which daunt a weaker sometimes? Recent research has shown two
spirit-that can advance to eminence in any line. critical elements: ideas of purity and pollution,
and not wanting pits or septic tanks to fill
2. The keynote that seems to be because they have to be emptied. These are the
emerging from the passage is that issues that nobody wants to talk about, but if we
(a) We should first consult wisely and then want to eradicate the practice of open defecation,
resolve firmly they have to be confronted and dealt properly.
(b) We should reject suggestions of friends
and remain unchanged 4. Which among the following is the
(c) We should always remain broad-minded most crucial message conveyed by the
(d) We should be resolute and achievement- above passage?
oriented (a) The ideas of purity and pollution are so
deep-rooted that they cannot be removed
Passage – 3 from the minds of the people.
During the summer in the Arctic Ocean, sea ice (b) People have to perceive toilet use and pit-
has been melting earlier and faster, and the emptying as clean and not polluting.
winter freeze has been coming later. In the last (c) People cannot change their old habits.
three decades, the extent of summer ice has (d) People have neither civic sense nor sense
declined by about 30 per cent. The lengthening of privacy.
period of summer melt threatens to undermine
the whole Arctic food web, atop which stand Passage-5
polar bears. In the last two decades, the world’s gross
domestic product (GDP) has increased by 50 per
cent, whereas inclusive wealth has increased by
a more 6 per cent. In recent decades, GDP-

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

driven economic performance has only harmed (b) Labour reforms are required in India to
inclusive wealth like human capital; and natural make optimum use of its vast labour
capital like forests, land and water. While the force productively.
world’s human capital which stands at 57 (c) India is poised to achieve the double-
percent of total inclusive wealth grew by only 8 digit growth very soon.
percent, the natural capital which is 23 percent (d) India is capable of supplying the skilled
of total inclusive wealth declined by 30 percent young people to other countries.
worldwide in the last two decades.
Passage – 7
5. Which of the following is the most The very first lesson that should be taught to us
crucial inference from the above when we are old enough to understand it is that
passage? complete freedom from the obligation to work is
(a) More emphasis should be laid on the unnatural, and ought to be illegal, as we can
development of natural capital. escape our share of the burden of work only by
(b) The growth driven by GDP only is neither throwing it on someone else’s shoulders. Nature
desirable nor sustainable. ordains that the human race shall perish of
(c) The economic performance of the famine if it stops working. We cannot escape
countries of the world is not satisfactory. from this tyranny. The question we have to settle
(d) The world needs more human capital is how much leisure we can afford to allow
under the present circumstances. ourselves.

Passage – 6 7. The main idea of the passage is that

By 2020, when the global economy is expected (a) it is essential for human beings to work
to run short of 56 million young people, India, (b)
3
there should be a balance between work
5
64
with its youth surplus of 47 million, could fill and leisure
6

the gap. It is in this context that labour reforms (c) working is a tyranny which we have to
86

are often cited as the way to unlock double-digit face

71

growth in India. In 2014, India’s labour force (d) Human’s understanding of the nature of
r-9

was estimated to be about 40 percent of the work is essential

ie

population, but 93 percent of this force was in

op

unorganized sector. Over the last decade, the Passage – 8

ec

compound annual growth rate (CAGR) of There is no harm in cultivating habits so long as
kl

employment has slowed to 0.5 percent, with they are not injurious. Indeed, most of us are
ar
Sp

about 14 million jobs created during last year little more than bundle of habits. Take away our
when the labour force increased by about 15 habits and the residuum would hardly be worth
million. bothering about. We could not get on without
them. They simplify the mechanism of life. They
6. Which of the following is the most enable us to do a multitude of things
rational inference from the above automatically, which, if we had to give fresh and
passage? original thought to them each time, would make
(a) India must control its population growth existence an impossible confusion.
so as to reduce its unemployment rate.

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8. The author suggests that habits (b) What is articulated by the elected
(a) Tend to make our lives difficult representatives of the individuals
(b) Add precision to our lives (c) The collective good as distinct from
(c) Make it easier for us to live private wills of the individuals
(d) Tend to mechanize our lives (d) The material interests of the community

Passage – 9 Passage – 11
We have hard work ahead. There is no resting In a democratic State, where a high degree of
for any of us fill we redeem our pledge in full, till political maturity of the people obtains, the
we make all the people of India what destiny conflict between the will of the sovereign law-
intends them to be. We are citizens of a great making body and the organized will of the people
country, on the verge of bold advance, and we seldom occurs.
have to live up to that high standard. All of us,
to whatever religion we may belong, equally the 11. What does the above passage imply?
children of India with equal rights, privileges and (a) In a democracy, force is the main
obligations. We cannot encourage communalism phenomenon in the actual exercise of
or narrow-mindedness, for no nation can be sovereignty.
great whose are people are narrow in thought or (b) In a mature democracy, force to great
action. extent is the main phenomenon in the
actual exercise of sovereignty.
9. The challenge the author of the above (c) In a mature democracy, use of force is
passage throws to the public is to irrelevant in the actual exercise of
achieve sovereignty.
(a) A high standard of living, progress and (d) In a mature democracy, force is
privileges narrowed down to marginal phenomenon
(b) Equal privileges, fulfillment of destiny in the actual exercise of sovereignty
and political tolerance
(c) Spirit of adventure and economic parity Passage – 12
(d) Hard work, brotherhood & national unity A successful democracy depends upon
widespread interest and participation in politics,
Passage – 10 in which voting is an essential part. To
“The individual, according to Rousseau, puts his deliberately refrain from taking such an interest,
person and all his power in common under the and from voting, is a kind of implied anarchy, it
supreme direction of the General Will and in our is to refuse one’s political responsibility while
corporate capacity we receive each member as enjoying the benefits of a free political society.
an indivisible part of the whole.”
12. This passage relates to
10. In the light of the above passage, the (a) Duty to vote
nature General Will is Best described (b) Right to vote
as (c) Freedom to vote
(a) The sum total of the private wills of the (d) Right to participate in politics
individuals

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

Passage – 13 Which of these assumptions is / are valid?

In a free country, the man who reaches the (a) 1 only
position of leader is usually one of outstanding (b) 2 only
character and ability. Moreover, it is usually (c) Both 1 & 2
possible to foresee that he will reach such a (d) Neither 1 nor 2
position, since early in life one can see his
qualities of character. But this is not always true Passage – 15
in the case of a dictator; often he reaches his There is more than a modicum of truth in the
position of power through chance, very often assertion that “a working knowledge of ancient
through the unhappy state of his country. history is necessary to the intelligent
interpretation of current events”. But the sage
13. The passage seems to suggest that who uttered these words of wisdom might well
(a) A leader foresees his future position have added something on the benefits of
(b) A leader is chosen only by a free country studying particularly the famous battles of
(c) A leader must see that his country is free history for the lessons they contain for those of
from despair us who lead or aspire to leadership. Such a
(d) Despair in a country sometimes leads to study will reveal certain qualities and attributes
dictatorship which enabled the winners to win-and certain
deficiencies which caused the losers to lose. And
Passage – 14 the student will see that the same pattern
The greatest blessing that technological progress consistently, again and again, throughout the
has in store for mankind is not of course an centuries.
accumulation of material possessions. The
amount of these that can be effectively enjoyed 15.
3
With reference to the above passage,
5
64
by one individual in one lifetime is not great. But the following assumptions have been
6

there is not the same narrow limit to the made :

86

possibilities of the enjoyment of leisure. The gift 1) A study of the famous battles of history
71

of leisure may be abused by people who have would help us understand the modern
r-9

had no experience of making use of it. Yet the warfare.

ie

creative use of leisure by a minority in societies 2) Studying the history is essential for
op

has been the mainspring of all human progress anyone who aspires to be a leader.
ec

beyond the primitive level. Which of these assumptions is/are valid?

kl

(a) 1 only
ar
Sp

14. With reference to the above passage, (b) 2 only

the following assumptions have been (c) Both 1 and 2
made: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
1) People always see the leisure time as a
gift and use it for acquiring more Passage – 16
material possessions. Disruption of traditional institutions,
2) Use of leisure by some people to produce identifications and loyalties is likely to lead to
new and original things has been the ambivalent situations. It is possible that some
chief source of human progress. people may renew their identification with

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

traditional groups whereas others align 17. Which among the following is the
themselves with new groups and symbols most logical, rational and critical
emergent from processes of political Inference that can be made from the
development. In addition, political development above passage?
tends to foster group awareness of a variety of (a) Emergence of powerful mass leaders is
class, tribe, region, Clan, language, religion, essential to create sub-national political
occupation and others. entities and thus ensure successful
devolution and decentralization.
16. Which one of the following is the best (b) The upper tier of government should
explanation of the above passage? impose devolution and decentralization
(a) Political development is unilinear process on the regional communities by law or
for it involves both growth and decay. otherwise.
(b) Traditional societies succeed in resisting (c) Devolution, to be successful, requires a
positive aspects of political development. democracy in which there is free
(c) It is impossible for traditional societies to expression of the will of the people at
break away from lingering loyalties. lower level and their active participation
(d) Sustenance of traditional loyalties is at the grassroots level.
conducive political development. (d) For devolution to take place, a strong
feeling of regionalism in the masses is
Passage - 17 essential.
There has been a significant trend worldwide
towards regionalism in government, resulting in Passage-18
a widespread transfer of powers downwards We live in digital times. The digital is not just
towards regions and communities since 1990s. something we use strategically and specifically
This process, which involves the creation of new to do a few tasks. Our very perception of who we
political entities and bodies at a sub-national are, how we connect to the world around us, and
level and an increase in their content and the ways in which we define our domains of life,
powers, is known as devolution. Devolution has labour and language are hugely structured by
been characterized as being made up of three the digital technologies. The digital is everywhere
factors-political legitimacy, decentralization of and, like air, invisible. We live within digital
authority and decentralization of resources. systems, we live with intimate gadgets, we
Political legitimacy here means a mass demand interact through digital media, and the very
from below for the decentralization process, presence and imagination of the digital has
which is able to create a political force for it to dramatically restructured our lives. The digital,
take place. In many cases, decentralization is far from being a tool, is a condition and context
initiated by the upper tier of government without that defines the shapes and boundaries of our
sufficient political mobilization for it at the understanding of the self, the society, and the
grassroots level, and in such cases the structure of governance.
decentralization process often does not fulfill its
objectives.

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

18. Which among the following is the (d) As regard growth of productivity, the
most logical and essential message performance of Asian economies is not
conveyed by the above passage? satisfactory.
(a) All problems of governance can be solved
by using digital technologies. Passage - 20
(b) Speaking of digital technologies is An innovative India will be inclusive as well as
speaking of our life and living. technologically advanced, improving the lives of
(c) Our creativity and imagination cannot be all Indians. Innovation and R&D can mitigate
expressed without digital media. increases in social inequality and relieve the
(d) Use of digital systems is imperative for pressures created by rapid urbanization. The
the existence of mankind in future growing divergence in productivity between
agriculture and knowledge-intensive
Passage – 19 manufacturing and services threatens to
The IMF has pointed out that the fast growing increase income inequality. By encouraging
economies of Asia face the risk of falling into India’s R&D labs and universities to focus on the
‘middle-income trap’. It means that average needs of poor people and by improving the
incomes in these countries, which till now have ability of informal firms to absorb knowledge,
been growing rapidly, will stop growing beyond a an innovation and research agenda can counter
point-a point that is well short of incomes in the this effect. Inclusive innovation can lower the
developed West. The IMF identifies a number of costs of goods and services and create income-
causes of middle-income trap-none of which is earning opportunities for the poor people.
surprising-from infrastructure to weak
institutions, to less than favourable 20. Which among the following is the
macroeconomic conditions. But the broad,
3
most logical and rational assumption
5
64
overall cause, says IMF, is a collapse in the that can be made from the above
6

growth of productivity, passage?

86

(a) Innovation and R&D is the only way to

71

19. Which among the following is the reduce rural to urban migration.
r-9

most logical, rational and critical (b) Every rapidly growing country needs to
ie

inference that can be made from the minimize the divergence between
op

above passage? productivity in agriculture and other

ec

(a) Once a country reaches middle- income sectors.

kl

stage, it runs the risk of falling (c) Inclusive innovation and R&D can help
ar
Sp

productivity which leads to stagnant create an egalitarian society

incomes. (d) Rapid urbanization takes place only
(b) Falling into middle-income trap is a when a country’s economic growth is
general characteristic of fast growing rapid.
economies.
(c) There is no hope at all for emerging Passage - 21
Asian economies to sustain the growth Climate change is likely to expose a large
momentum. number of people to increasing environmental
risks forcing them to migrate. The international

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

community is yet to recognize this new category nature and resurgence of treated populations.
of migrants. There is no consensus on the Natural pest control using the botanical
definition and status of climate refugees owing pesticides is safer to the user and the
to the distinct meaning the term refugees carry environment because they break down into
under international laws. There are still gaps in harmless compounds within hours or days in
understanding how climate change will work as the presence of sunlight plants with pesticidal
the root cause of migration. Even if there is properties have been in nature for millions of
recognition of climate refugees, who is going to years without any ill or adverse effects on the
provide protection? More emphasis has been ecosystem. They are easily decomposed by many
given to international migration due to climate microbes common in most soils. They help in the
change. But there is a need to recognize the maintenance of biological diversity of predators
migration of such people within the countries and the reduction of environmental
also so that their problems can be addressed contamination and human health hazards.
properly. Botanical pesticides formulated from plants are
biodegradable and their use in crop protection is
21. Which of the following is the most a practical sustainable alternative.
rational inference from the above
passage? 22. On the basis of the above passage, the
(a) The world will not be able to cope with following assumptions have been
large-scale migration of climate refugees. made:
(b) We must find the ways and means to 1) Synthetic pesticides should never be
stop further climate change. used in modern agriculture.
(c) Climate change will be the most 2) One of the aims of sustainable
important reason for the migration of agriculture is to ensure minimal
people in the future. ecological imbalance.
(d) Relation between climate change and 3) Botanical pesticides are more effective as
migration is not yet properly understood. compared to synthetic pesticides
Which of the assumptions given above is/are
Passage - 22 correct?
Many farmers use synthetic pesticides to kill (a) 1 and 2 only
infesting insects. The consumption of pesticides (b) 2 only
in some of the developed countries is touching (c) 1 and 3 only
3000 grams/hectare. Unfortunately, there are (d) 1, 2 and 3
reports that these compounds possess inherent
toxicities that endanger the health of the farm 23. Which of the following statements
operators, consumers and the environment. is/are correct regarding biopesticides?
Synthetic pesticides are generally persistent in 1. They are not hazardous to human
environment. Entering in food chain they health.
destroy the microbial diversity and cause 2. They are persistent in environment.
ecological imbalance. Their indiscriminate use 3. They are essential to maintain the
has resulted in development of resistance among biodiversity of any ecosystem.
insects to insecticides, upsetting of balance in

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

Select the correct answer using the code Passage – 24

given below. Productive jobs are vital for growth and a good
(a) 1 only job is the beat form of inclusion. More than half
(b) 1 and 2 only of our population depends on agriculture, but
(c) 1 and 3 only the experience of other countries suggests that
(d) 1, 2 and 3 the number of people dependent on agriculture
will have to shrink if per capita incomes in
Passage – 23 agriculture are to go up substantially. While
An air quality index (AQI) is a Way to combine industry is creating jobs, too many such jobs are
measurements of multiple air pollutants into a low-productivity non-contractual jobs in the
single number or rating. This index is ideally unorganized sector, offering low incomes, little
kept constantly updated and available in protection, and no benefits. Service jobs are
different places. The AQI is most useful when relatively of high productivity, but employment
lots of pollution data are being gathered and growth in services has been slow in recent years.
when pollution levels are normally, but not
always, low. In such cases, if pollution levels 25. Which among the following is the
spike for a few days, the public can quickly take most logical and rational inference
preventive action (like staying indoors) in that can be made from the above
response to an air quality warning. passage?
Unfortunately, that is not urban India. Pollution (a) We must create conditions for the faster
levels in many large Indian cities are so high growth of highly productive service jobs
that they remain well above any health or to ensure employment growth and
regulatory standard for large part of the year. If inclusion.
our index stays in the ‘Red/Dangerous’ region (b)
3
We must shift the farm workers to the
5
64
day after day, there is not much any one can do, highly productive manufacturing and
6

other than getting used to ignoring it. service sectors to ensure the economic
86

growth and inclusion.

71

24. Which among the following is the (c) We must create conditions for the faster
r-9

most logical and rational inference growth of productive jobs outside of

ie

that can be made from the above agriculture even while improving the
op

passage? productivity of agriculture.

ec

(a) Our governments are not responsible (d) We must emphasize the cultivation of
kl

enough to keep our cities pollution free. high-yielding hybrid varieties and
ar
Sp

(b) There is absolutely no need for air genetically modified crops to increase the
quality indices in our country. per capita income in agriculture.
(c) Air quality index is not helpful to the
residents of many of our large cities. Passage -25
(d) In every city, public awareness about A landscape-scale approach to land use can
pollution problems should increase encourage greater biodiversity outside protected
areas. During hurricane ‘Mitch’ in 1998, farms
using eco agricultural practices suffered 58
percent, 70 percent and 99 percent less damage

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

in Honduras, Nicaragua and Guatemala, of manufacturing in overall GDP to the projected

respectively, than farms using conventional 25 percent, Indian manufacturing needs to
techniques. In Costa Rica, vegetative windbreaks capture the global rising trend in largely high
and fencerows boosted farmers’ income from market in sectors showing demand. These
pasture and coffee while also increasing bird sectors are technology and capital intensive.
diversity. Bee pollination is more effective when
agricultural fields are closer to natural or semi 27. Which among the following is the
natural habitat, a finding that matters because most logical and rational inference
87 per cent of the world’s 107 leading crops that can be made from the above
depend on animal pollinators. In Costa Rica, passage?
Nicaragua and Colombia silvopastoral systems (a) India’s GDP displays high value- added
that integrate trees with pastureland are and high productivity levels in medium
improving the sustainability of cattle production tech and resource processing industries.
and diversifying and increasing farmers’ income (b) Promotion of capital and technology
intensive manufacturing is not possible
26. Which among the following is the in India.
most logical and rational inference (c) India should push up the public
that can be made from the above investments and encourage the private
passage? investments in research development,
(a) Agricultural practices that enhance upgradation and skill development.
biodiversity can often increase farm (d) India has already gained a great share in
output and reduce the vulnerability to global markets in sectors showing a
disasters. rising trend in demand.
(b) All the countries of the world should be
encouraged to replace eco agriculture Passage – 27
with conventional agriculture. Over the last decade, Indian agriculture has
(c) Ecoagriculture should be permitted in become more robust with record production of
protected areas without destroying the food grains and oilseeds. procurement,
biodiversity there. consequently, has added huge stocks of food
(d) The yield of food crops will be very high if grains in the granaries. India is one of the
ecoagricultural practices are adopted to world’s top producers of rice, wheat, milk, fruits
cultivate them. and vegetables. India is still home to a quarter of
all undernourished people in the world. On an
Passage - 26 average, almost half of the total expenditure of
The medium term challenge for Indian nearly half of the households is on food.
manufacturing is to move from lower to higher
tech sectors, from lower to higher value- added 28. Which among the following is the
sectors, and from lower to higher productivity most logical corollary to the above
sectors. Medium tech industries are primarily passage?
capital intensive and resource processing; and (a) Increasing the efficiency of farm-to-fork
high tech industries are mainly capital and value chain is necessary to reduce the
technology intensive. In order to push the share poverty and malnutrition.

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(b) Increasing the agricultural productivity (c) Rule of the poor

will automatically eliminate the poverty (d) Expropriation of the rich
and malnutrition in India.
(c) India’s agricultural productivity is 2017 - Key
already great and it is not
(d) necessary to increase it further.
01.(c) 02.(d) 03.(d) 04.(b) 05.(b) 06.(b)
(e) Allocation of more funds for social
07.(c) 08.(c) 09.(d) 10.(a) 11.(a) 12.(d)
welfare and poverty alleviation
13.(d) 14.(a) 15.(d) 16.(a) 17.(c) 18.(b)
programmes will ultimately eliminate the
19.(b) 20.(c) 21.(d) 22.(b) 23.(a) 24.(c)
malnutrition in India.
25.(a) 26.(a) 27.(a) 28.(a) 29.(b) 30.(b)

Passage – 28
2016
The States are like pearls and the Centre is the
thread which turns them into a necklace; if the Passage – 1
thread snaps, the pearls are scattered. Accountability, or the lack of it, in governance
generally, and civil services, in particular, is a
29. Which one of the following views major factor underlying the deficiencies in
corroborates the above statement? governance and public administration.
(a) A strong Centre and strong States make Designing an effective framework for
the federation strong. accountability has been a key element of the
(b) A strong Centre is a binding force for reform agenda. A fundamental issue is whether
national integrity. civil services should be accountable to the
(c) A strong Centre is a hindrance to State political executive of the day or to society at

3
autonomy. large. In other words, how should internal and
5
external accountability be reconciled? Internal
64
(d) State autonomy is a prerequisite for a
accountability is sought to be achieved by
6

federation
86

internal performance monitoring, official

71

Passage – 29 supervision by bodies like the Central Vigilance

r-9

Really I think that the poorest he that is in Commission and Comptroller and Auditor
ie

England has a life to live, as the greatest he, and General, and judicial review of executive
op

therefore truly, I think it is clear that every man decisions. Articles 311 and 312 of the Indian
ec

that is to live under a government ought first by Constitution provide job security and safeguards
kl

his own consent to put himself under the to the civil services, especially the All India
ar

Services. The framers of the Constitution and

Sp

government, and I do think that the poorest man

in England is not at all bound in a strict sense to envisaged that provision of these safeguards
that government that he has not had a voice to would result in a civil service that is not totally
put himself under. subservient to the political executive but will
have the strength of function in larger public
30. The above statement argues for interest. The need to balance internal and
(a) Distribution of wealth equally to all external accountability is thus built into the
(b) Rule according to the consent of the Constitution. The issue is where to draw the
governed line. Over the years, the emphasis seems to have

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tilted in favour of greater internal accountability Select the correct answer using the code
of the civil services to the political leaders of the given below :
day who in turn are expected to be externally (a) 1 only
accountable to the society at large through the (b) 2 and 3 only
election process. This system for seeking (c) 1 and 4 only
accountability to society has not worked out, (d) 2, 3 and 4
and has led to several adverse consequences for
governance. 2. With reference to the passage, the
Some special measures can be considered for following assumptions have been
improving accountability in civil services. made:
Provisions of articles 311 and 312 should be 1) Political executive is an obstacle to the
reviewed and laws and regulations farmed to accountability of the civil services to the
ensure external accountability of civil services. society.
The proposed Civil Services Bill seeks to address 2) In the present framework of Indian
some of these requirements. The respective roles polity, the political executive is no longer
of professional civil services and the political accountable to the society.
executive should be defined so that professional Which of these assumptions is/are valid ?
managerial functions and management of civil (a) 1 only
services are depoliticized. For this purpose, (b) 2 only
effective statutory civil service boards should be (c) Both 1 and 2
created at the centre and in the states. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Decentralization and devolution of authority to
bring government and decision making closer to 3. Which one of the following is the
the people also helps to enhance accountability. essential message implied by this
passage ?
1. According to the passage, which of the (a) Civil services are not accountable to the
following factor/factors led to the society they are serving.
adverse consequences for governance (b) Educated and enlightened persons are
/ public administration ? not taking up political leadership.
1. Inability of civil services to strike a (c) The framers of the Constitution did not
balance between internal and external envisage the problems being encountered
accountabilities. by the civil services.
2. Lack of sufficient professional training to (d) There is a need and scope for reforms to
the officers of All India Services. improve the accountability of civil
3. Lack of proper service benefits in civil services.
services. 4. According to the passage, which one
4. Lack of Constitutional provisions to of the following is not a means of
define the respective roles of professional enhancing internal accountability of
civil services vis-à-vis political executive civil services ?
in this context. (a) Better job security and safeguards
(b) Supervision by Central Vigilance
Commission

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

(c) Judicial review of executive decisions (b) Having relationship to the divine
(d) Seeking accountability through principle is a great virtue.
enhanced participation by people in (c) Balance between rights and duties is
decision making process. crucial to the delivery of justice in a
society.
Passage – 2 (d) Religious concept of rights is primarily
In general, religious traditions stress our duty to derived from our relationship to god.
god, or to some universal ethical principle. Our
duties to one another derive from these. The Passage – 3
religious concept of rights is primarily derived Biomass as fuel for power, heat, and transport
from our relationship to this divinity or principle has the highest mitigation potential of all
and the implication it has on our other renewable sources. It comes from agriculture
relationships. This correspondence between and forest residues as well as from energy crops.
rights and duties is critical to any further The biggest challenge in using biomass residues
understanding of justice. But, for justice to be is a long-term reliable supply delivered to the
practiced; virtue, rights and duties cannot power plant at reasonable costs; they key
remain formal abstractions they must be problems are logistical constraints and the costs
grounded in a community (common unity) of fuel collection. Energy crops, if not managed
bound together by a sense of common union properly, compete with food production and may
(communion). Even as a personal virtue, this have undesirable impacts on food prices.
solidarity is essential to the practice and Biomass production is also sensitive to the
understanding of justice. physical impacts of a changing climate.
Projections of the future role of biomass are
5. With reference to the passage, the
3
probably overestimated, given the limits to the
5
64
following assumptions have been sustainable biomass supply, unless
6

made: breakthrough technologies substantially

86

1) Human relationships are derived from increase productivity, Climate-energy models

71

their religious traditions. project that biomass use could increase nearly
r-9

2) Human beings can be duty bound only if four-fold to around 150-200 exajoules, almost a
ie

they believe in god. quarter of world primary energy in 2050.

op

3) Religious traditions are essential to However the maximum sustainable technical

ec

practice and understand justice potential of biomass resources (both residues

kl

Which of these assumption (s) is/are valid ? and energy crops) without disruption of food and
ar
Sp

(a) 1 only forest resources ranges from 80-170 exajoules a

(b) 2 and 3 only year by 2050, and only part of this is realistically
(c) 1 and 3 only and economically feasible. In addition, some
(d) 1, 2 and 3 climate model rely on biomass-based carbon
capture and storage, an unproven techonology,
6. Which one of the following is the crux to achieve negative emissions and to buy some
of this passage ? time during the first half of the century.
(a) Our duties to one another derive from Some liquid biofuels such as corn-based
our religious traditions. ethanol, mainly for transport, may aggravate

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

rather than ameliorate carbon emissions on a 1) Biomass as a fuel for power generation
life-cycle basis. Second generation biofuels, could meet all the primary energy
based on lingo-cellulosic feedstock’s – such as requirements of the world by 2050
straw, bagasse, grass and wood – hold the 2) Biomass as a fuel for power generation
promise of sustainable production that is high- does not necessarily disrupt food and
yielding and emit low levels of greenhouse gases, forest resources.
but these are still in the R & D stage. 3) Biomass as a fuel for power generation
could help in achieving negative
7. What is /are the present constraint / emissions, given certain nascent
constraints in using biomass as fuel technologies.
for power generation ? Select the correct answer using the code
1) Lack of sustainable supply of biomass given below :
2) Biomass production competes with food (a) 1 and 2 only
production. (b) 3 only
3) Bio-energy may not always be low carbon (c) 2 and 3 only
on a life-cycle basis. (d) 1, 2 and 3
Select the correct answer using the code
given below : 10. With reference to the passage,
(a) 1 and 2 only following assumptions have been
(b) 3 only made:
(c) 2 and 3 only 1) Some climate-energy models suggest that
(d) 1, 2 and 3 the use of biomass as a fuel for power
generation helps in mitigation
8. Which of the following can lend to greenhouse gas emissions.
food security problem ? 2) It is not possible to use biomass as a fuel
1) Using agricultural and forest residues as for power generation without disrupting
feedstock for power generation. food and forest resources.
2) Using biomass for carbon capture and Which of these assumptions is / are valid ?
storage. (a) 1 only
3) Promoting the cultivation of energy (b) 2 only
crops. (c) Both 1 and 2
Select the correct answer using the code (d) Neither 1 and 2
given below :
(a) 1 and 2 only Passage – 4
(b) 3 only We are witnessing a dangerous dwindling of
(c) 2 and 3 only biodiversity in our food supply. The green
(d) 1, 2 and 3 revolution is a mixed blessing. Over time farmers
have come to rely heavily on broadly adapted,
9. In the context of using biomass, which high yield crops to the exclusion of varieties
of the following is /are the adapted to the local conditions. Monocropping
characteristic / characteristics of the vast fields with the same genetically uniform
sustainable production of biofuel ? seeds helps boost yield and meet immediate

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

hunger needs. Yet high-yield varieties are also (a) Launching more welfare schemes and
genetically weaker crops that require expensive allocating more finances for the current
chemical fertilizers and toxic pesticides. In our schemes are urgently needed.
focus on increasing the amount of food we (b) Efforts should be made to push up
produce today, we have accidentally put economic growth by other means and
ourselves at risk for food shortages in future. provide licenses to the poor.
(c) Greater transparency in the functioning
11. Which among the following is the of the government and promoting the
most togical and critical inference financial inclusion are needed at present.
that can be made from the above (d) We should concentrate more on
passage ? developing manufacturing sector than
(a) In our agricultural practices, we have service sector.
become heavily dependent on expensive
chemical fertilizers and toxic pesticides Passage - 6
only due to green revolution. Climate adaptation may be rendered ineffective if
(b) Monocropping vast fields with high-yield policies are not designed in the context of other
varieties is possible due to green development concerns. For instance, a
revolution comprehensive strategy that seeks to improve
(c) Monocropping with high-yield varieties is food security in the context of climate change
the only way to ensure food security to may include a set of coordinated measures
millions. related to agricultural extension, crip
(d) Green revolution can pose a threat to diversification, integrated water and pest
biodiversity in food supply and food management and agricultural information
security in the long run.
3
services. Some of these measures may have to
5
64
do with climate changes and others with
6

Passage – 5 economic development.

86

By killing transparency and competition, crony

71

capitalism is harmful to free enterprise, 13. What is the most logical and rational
r-9

opportunity and economic growth. Crony inference that can be made from the
ie

capitalism, where rich and the influential are above passage ?

op

alleged to have received land and natural (a) It is difficult to pursue climate
ec

resources and various licenses in return for adaptation in the developing countries.
kl

payoffs to venal politicians, is now a major issue (b) Improving food security is far more
ar
Sp

to be tackled. One of the greatest dangers to complex issues than climate adaptation
growth of developing economies like India is the (c) Every developmental activity is directly
middle-income trap where crony capitalism or indirectly linked to climate adaptation.
creates oligarchies that slow down the growth. (d) Climate adaptation should be examined
in tandem with other economic
12. Which among the following is the development options.
most logical corollary to the above
passage ?

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

Passage – 7 (a) Need for more automation and more

Understanding of the role of biodiversity in the products of banks.
hydrological cycle enables better policy-making. (b) Need for a radical restructuring of our
The term biodiversity refers to the variety of entire public finance system
plants, animals, microorganisms, and the (c) Need to integrate banking and non-
ecosystems in which they occur. Water and banking institution.
biodiversity are interdependent. In reality, the (d) Need to promote financial inclusion.
hydrological cycle decides how biodiversity
functions. In turn; vegetation and soil drive the Passage – 9
movement of water. Every glass of water we Safe and sustainable sanitation in slums has
drink has, at least in part, passed through fish, immeasurable benefits to women and girls in
trees, bacteria, soil and other organisms. terms of their health, safety, privacy and dignity.
Passing through these ecosystems, it is cleansed However, women do not feature in most of the
and made fit for consumption. The supply of schemes and policies on urban sanitation. The
water is a critical service that the environment fact that even now the manual scavenging
provides. exists, only goes to show that not enough has
been done to promote pour-flush toilets and
14. Which among the following is the discontinue the use of dry latrines. A more
most critical inference that can be sustained and rigorous campaign needs to be
made from the above passage ? launched towards the right to sanitation on a
(a) Biodiversity sustains the ability of nature very large scale. This should primarily focus on
to recycle water the abolition of manual scavenging.
(b) We cannot get potable water without the
existence of living organisms. 16. With reference to the above passage,
(c) Plants, animals and microorganisms consider the following statements :
continuously interact among themselves 1) Urban sanitation problems can be fully
(d) Living organism could not have come solved by the abolition of manual
into existence without hydrological cycle. scavenging only
2) There is a need to promote greater
Passage – 8 awareness on sage sanitation practices
In the last decade, the banking sector has been in urban areas
restructured with a high degree of automation Which of the statements given above is / are
and products that mainly serve middle-class and correct ?
upper middle-class society. Today there is a (a) 1 only
need for a new agenda for the banking and non- (b) 2 only
banking financial services that does not exclude (c) Both 1 and 2
the common man. (d) Neither 1 nor 2

15. Which one of the following is the Passage – 10

message that is essentially implied in To understand the nature and quantity of
the above passage ? government proper for man, it is necessary to
attend to his character. As nature created him

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

for social life, she fitted him for the station she from livestock, rice production, and manure
intended. In all cases she made his natural storage; and carbon dioxide (CO2) from burning
wants greater than his individual powers. No one biomass, but this excludes CO2 emissions from
man is capable, without the aid of society of soil management practices, savannah burning
supplying his own wants; and those wants, and deforestation. Forestry, land use, and land-
acting upon every individual, impel the whole of use change account for another 17 percent of
them into society. greenhouse gas emissions each year, three
quarters of which come from tropical
17. Which among the following is the deforestation. The remainder is largely from
most togical and rational inference draining and burning tropical peat land. About
that can be made from the above the same amount of carbon is stored in the
passage ? world’s peat lands as is stored in the amazon
(a) Nature has created a great diversity in rainforest.
human society
(b) Any given human society is always short 19. Which among the following is the
of its wants most logical and rational inference
(c) Social life is a specific characteristic of that can be made from the above
man passage ?
(d) Diverse natural wants forced man (a) Organic farming should immediately
towards social system replace mechanized and chemical
dependent agricultural practices all over
Passage 11 the world.
The nature of the legal imperatives in any given (b) It is imperative for us to modify our land
state corresponds to the effective demands that
3
use practices in order to mitigate climate
5
64
state encounters, and that these, in their turn, change.
6

depend, in a general way, upon the manner in (c) These are no technological solutions to
86

which economic power is distributed in the the problem of greenhouse gas emissions
71

society which the state controls. (d) Tropical areas are the chief sites of
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carbon sequestration.
ie

18. The statement refers to :

op

(a) The antithesis of politics and economics Passage – 13

ec

(b) The interrelationship of politics and As we look to 2050, when we will need to feed
kl

economics two billion more people, the question of which

ar
Sp

(c) The predominance of economics over diet is best has taken on new urgency. The foods
politics we choose to eat in the coming decades will have
(d) The predominance of polities over dramatic ramifications for the planet. Simply
economics put, a diet that revolves around meat and dairy,
a way of eating that is on the rise throughout the
Passage – 12 developing world, will take a greater toll on the
About 15 percent of global greenhouse gas world’s resources than one that revolyes around
emissions come from agricultural practices. This unrefined grains, nuts, fruits and vegetables.
includes nitrous oxide from fertilizer; methane

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

20. What is the critical message conveyed Passage – 15

by the above passage ? “The conceptual difficulties in National Income
(a) Our increasing demand for foods sourced comparisons between underdeveloped and
from animals puts a greater burden on industrialized countries are particularly serious
our natural resources. because a part of the national output in various
(b) Diets based on grains, nuts, fruits and underdeveloped countries is produced without
vegetables are best suited for health in passing through the commercial channels”.
developing countries.
(c) Human beings change their food habits 22. In the above statement, the author
from time to time irrespective of the implies that :
health concerns. (a) The entire national output produced and
(d) From a global perspective, we still do not consumed in industrialized countries
know which type of diet is best for us. passes through commercial channels.
(b) The existence of non-commercialized
Passage – 14 sector in different underdeveloped
All humans digest mother’s milk as infants, but countries renders the national income
until cattel began being domesticated 10,000 comparisons over countries difficult.
years ago, children once weaned no longer (c) No part of national output should be
needed to digest milk. As a result, they stopped produced and consumed without passing
making the enzyme lactase, which breaks down through commercial channels.
the sugar lactose into simple sugars. After (d) A part of the national output being
humans began herding cattle, it became produced and consumed without passing
tremendously advantageous to digest milk, and through commercial channels is a sign of
lactose tolerance evolved independently among underdevelopment.
cattle herders in Europe, the middle East and
Africa. Groups not dependent on cattle, such as Passage – 16
the Chinese and Thai, remain lactose intolerant. An increase in human-made carbon dioxide in
the atmosphere could initiate a chain reaction
21. Which among the following is the between plants and microorganisms that would
most logical assumption that can be unsettle one of largest carbon reservoirs on the
made from the above passage ? planet – soil. In a study, it was found that the
(a) About 10,000 years ago, the soil, which contains twice the amount of carbon
domestication of animals took place in present in all plants and Earth’s atmosphere
some parts of the world combined, could become increasingly volatile as
(b) A permanent change in the food habits of people add more carbon dioxide to the
a community can bring about a genetic atmosphere. This is largely because of increased
change in its members. plant growth. Although a greenhouse gas and a
(c) Lactose tolerant people only are capable pollutant, carbon dioxide also supports plant
of getting simple sugars in their bodies. growth. As trees and other vegetation flourish in
(d) People who are not lactose tolerant a carbon dioxide-rich future, their roots could
cannot digest any dairy product. stimulate microbial activity in soil that may in
turn accelerate the decomposition of soil carbon

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

and its release into the atmosphere as carbon of elemental significance to basic human
dioxide. existence, the issue of worldwide supply of food
has been gaining significance, in recent times,
23. Which among the following is the both because the quantum and the composition
most logical corollary to the above of demand has been undergoing big changes,
passage ? and because, in recent years, the capabilities of
(a) Carbon dioxide is essential for the individual countries to generate uninterrupted
survival of microorganisms and plants. chain of food supplies have come under strain.
(b) Humans are solely responsible for the Food production, marketing and prices,
release of carbon dioxide into the especially price-affordability by the poor in the
atmosphere. developing world, have become global issues that
(c) Microorganisms and soil carbon are need global thinking and global solutions.
mainly responsible for the increased
plant growth 24. According to the above passage, which
(d) Increasing green cover could trigger the of the following are the fundamental
release of carbon trapped in soil. solutions for the world food security
problem ?
Passage – 17 1) Setting up more agro-based industries.
Historically, the biggest challenge to world 2) Improving the price affordability by the
agriculture has been to achieve a balance poor
between demand for and supply of food. At the 3) Regulating the conditions of marketing
level of individual countries, the demand-supply 4) Providing food subsidy to one and all
balance can be a critical policy issue for a closed Select the correct answer using the code
economy, especially if it is a populous economy given below : 53
64
and its domestic agriculture is not growing (a) 1 and 2 only
6

sufficiently enough to ensure food supplies, on (b) 2 and 3 only

86

an enduring basis; it is not so much and not (c) 1, 3 and 4 only

71

always, of a constraint for an open, and growing (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

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economy, which has adequate exchange

ie

surpluses to buy food abroad. For the world as a 25. According to the above passage, the
op

whole, supply-demand balance is always an biggest challenge to world agriculture is:

ec

inescapable prerequisite for warding off hunger a) to find sufficient land for agriculture and
kl

and starvation. However, global availability of to expand food processing industries

ar
Sp

adequate supply does not necessarily mean that b) to eradicate hunger in underdeveloped
food would automatically move from countries of countries
surplus to countries of deficit if the latter lack in c) to achieve a balance between the
purchasing power. The uneven distribution of production of food and non-food items
hunger, starvation, under- or malnourishment, d) to achieve a balance between demand for
etc., at the world-level, thus owes itself to the and supply of food
presence of empty-pocket hungry mouths,
overwhelmingly confined to the underdeveloped
economies. Inasmuch as ‘a two-square meal’ is

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

26. According to the above passage, which of 2015

the following helps/help in reducing hunger Passage – 1
and starvation in the developing economies? Human history abounds in claims and theories
1. Balancing demand and supply of food confining the right of governing to a few select
2. Increasing imports of food citizens. Exclusion of the many is justified on
3. Increasing purchasing power of the poor the ground that human beings may be rightfully
4. Changing the food consumption patterns segregated for the good of society and viability of
and practices the political process.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below : 1. Which one of the following statements
(a) 1 only is least essential as a part of the
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only argument in the above passage?
(c) 1 and 3 only (a) Man seeks control over external things
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 affecting him.
(b) In society, there are ‘super’ and ‘sub’
27. The issue of worldwide supply of food human beings.
has gained importance mainly because (c) Exceptions to universal citizen
of: participation are conducive to systemic
1. overgrowth of the population worldwide efficacy.
2. sharp decline in the area of food (d) Governing implies recognition of
production disparities in individual capacities.
3. limitation in the capabilities for
sustained supply of food Passage – 2
Select the correct answer using the code By 2050, the Earth’s population will likely have
given below : swelled from seven to nine billion people. To fill
(a) 1 and 2 only all those stomachs – while accounting for
(b) 3 only shifting consumption patterns, climate change,
(c) 2 and 3 only and a finite amount of arable land and potable
(d) 1, 2 and 3 water – some experts say food production will
have to double. How can we make the numbers
2016 - Key add up? Experts say higher yielding crop
varieties and more efficient farming methods will
01.(c) 02.(b) 03.(d) 04.(d) be crucial. So will waste reduction. Experts urge
05.(b) 06.(d) 07.(d) 08.(b) cities to reclaim nutrients and water from waste
09.(b) 10.(a) 11.(d) 12.(c) streams and preserve farmland. Poor countries,
13.(d) 14.(a) 15.(d) 16.(b) they say, can improve crop storage and
17.(d) 18.(c) 19.(b) 20.(a) packaging and rich nations could cut back on
21.(b) 22.(b) 23.(d) 24.(b) resource-intensive foods like meat.
25.(c) 26.(a) 27.(b)

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

2. Which one of the following statements this is the absence of steps to propagate basic
best sums up the above passage? health practices relating to breast feeding and
(a) The population of the world is growing immunization. Also the large reproductive
very fast. population of 2.6 crore remains bereft of care
(b) Food security is a perennial problem only during the critical phases of pregnancy and
in developing countries. post-delivery. Added to this is the prevalence of
(c) The world does not have enough child marriages, anaemia among young women
resources to meet the impending food and lack of focus on adolescent sanitation, all of
scarcity. which impact child death rates.
(d) Food security is increasingly a collective
challenge. 4. Which is the critical inference that
can be made from the above passage?
Passage – 3 (a) A lot of Indians are illiterate and hence
Many people in India feel if we cut our defence do not recognize the value of basic health
expenditure on weapon-building, we can create a practices.
climate of peace with our neighbours, (b) India has a very huge population and the
subsequently reducing the conflict or creating a government alone cannot manage public
no-war situation. People who proclaim such health services.
ideas are either the victims of war or the (c) Universalization and integration of
propagators of false argument. maternal health and child health services
can effectively address the problem.
3. With reference to the above passage, (d) The nutrition of women in child bearing
which of the following is the most age does not affect child mortality rate.
valid assumption? 5 3
64
(a) Building of weapons systems by us has Passage – 5
6

instigated our neighbours to wage wars Food travel more than the people who eat them.
86

against us. Grocery stores and supermarkets are loaded

71

(b) The greater spending on weapon-building with preserved and processed foods. This,
r-9

by us would lessen the possibility of however, often leads to environmental threats,

ie

armed conflict with our neighbours. such as pollution generated by long distance
op

(c) It is necessary to have state of the art food transportation and wastage of food during
ec

weapons systems for national security. processing and transportation, destruction of

kl

(d) Many people in India believe that we are rain forests, reduced nutritional content,
ar
Sp

wasting our resources on weapon- increased demand for preservation and

building. packaging. Food insecurity also increases as the
produce comes from regions that are not feeding
Passage – 4 their own population properly.
India accounts for nearly a fifth of the world’s
child deaths. In terms of numbers, it is the 5. With reference to the above passage,
highest in the world – nearly 16 lakhs every which of the following statements is /
year. Of these, more than half die in the first are true?
month of life. Officials believe that the reason for

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

1) Consuming regionally grown food and the world. It is so much waste of time. My
not depending on long travelled food is a shyness has been in reality my shield and
part of eco-friendly behavior. buckler. It has allowed me to grow. It has helped
2) Food processing industry puts a burden me in my discernment of truth.
on our natural resources.
Select the corrects answer using the code 6. The author says that a thoughtless
given below: word hardly ever escapes his tongue or
(a) 1 only pen. Which one of the following is not
(b) 2 only a valid reason for this?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (a) He has no intention to waste his time.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) He believes in the economy of words.
(c) He believes in restraining his thoughts.
Passage – 6 (d) He has hesitancy in his speech.
I must say that, beyond occasionally exposing
me to laughter, my constitutional shyness has 7. The most appropriate reason for the
been of no disadvantage whatever. In fact I can author to be spared many a mishap is
see that, on the contrary, it has been all to my that
advantage. My hesitancy in speech, which was (a) He hardly utters or writes a thoughtless
once an annoyance, is now a pleasure. Its word.
greatest benefit has been that it has taught me (b) He is a man of immense patience.
the economy of words. I have naturally formed (c) He believes that he is a spiritual person.
the habit restraining my thoughts. And I can (d) He is a votary of truth.
now give myself the certificate that a thoughtless
word hardly ever escapes my tongue or pen. I do 8. For the author, silence is necessary in
not recollect ever having had to regret anything order to surmount
in my speech or writing. I have thus been spared (a) Constitutional shyness.
many a mishap and waste of time. Experience (b) Hesitancy in speech.
has taught me that silence is part of the (c) Suppression of thoughts.
spiritual discipline of a votary of truth. (d) Tendency to overstate.
Proneness to exaggerate, to suppress or modify
the truth, wittingly or unwittingly, is a natural Passage – 7
weakness of man, and silence is necessary in The richer States have a responsibility to cut
order to surmount it. A man of few words will down carbon emissions and promote clean
rarely be thoughtless in his speech; he will energy investments. These are the States that
measure every word. We find so many people got electricity, grew faster and now have high per
impatient to talk. There is no chairman of a capita income, making them capable of sharing
meeting who is not pestered with notes for India’s burden of becoming eco-friendly. Delhi,
permission to speak. And whenever the for example, can help by generating its own
permission is given the speaker generally clean electricity using solar rooftop panels or
exceeds the time-limit, asks for more time, and even help poor States finance their clean energy
keeps on talking without permission. All this projects. It is no secret that State Electricity
talking can hardly be said to be of any benefit to Boards, which control 95% of the distribution

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

network, are neck-deep in losses. These losses (a) Male chauvinism and infidelity
further discourage State utilities from adopting (b) Love and betrayal
renewable energy as it is more expensive than (c) Lack of legal safeguards for women
fossil fuels. (d) Influence of patriarchal mindset

9. Which among the following is the Passage - 9

most logical and rational assumption The ultimate aim of government is not to rule or
that can be made from the above control by fear, nor to demand obedience, but
passage ? conversely, to free every man from fear, that he
(a) The richer States must lead in the may live in all possible security. In other words,
production and adoption of renewable to strengthen his natural right to exist and work
energy. without injury to himself or others. The object of
(b) The poor States always have to depend government is not to change men from rational
on rich States for electricity. beings into beasts or puppets. It should enable
(c) The State Electricity Boards can improve them to develop their minds and bodies in
their finances by undertaking clean security, and to employ their reason unshackled.
energy projects.
(d) The high economic disparity between the 11. Which among the following is the
rich and poor States is the major cause most logical and rational inference
of high carbon emissions in India. that can be made from the above
passage ?
Passage – 8 (a) The true aim of government is to secure
Set against a rural backdrop, ‘Stench of the citizens their social and political
kerosene’ is the story of a couple, Guleri and freedom. 5 3
64
Manak, who have been happily married for (b) The primary concern of government is to
6

several years but do not have a child. Manak’s provide absolute social security to all its
86

mother is desperate to have a grandchild to citizens.

71

carry on the family name. Hence, she gets (c) The best government is the one that
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Manak remarried in Guleri's absence. Manak, allows the citizens to enjoy absolute
ie

who acts as a reluctant but passive spectator, is liberty in all matters of life.
op

meanwhile, informed by a friend that Guleri, on (d) The best government is the one that
ec

hearing about her husband’s second marriage, provides absolute physical security to the
kl

poured kerosene on her clothes and set fire to people of the country.
ar
Sp

them. Manak is heartbroken and begins to live

as if he were a dead man. When his second wife Passage – 10
delivers a son, Manak stares at the child for a Our municipal corporations are understaffed.
long time and blurts out, “Take him away! He The issue of skills and competencies of the staff
stinks of kerosene”. poses an even greater challenge. Urban services
delivery and infrastructure are complex to plan
10. This is a sensitive issue-based story and execute. They require a high degree of
which tries to sensitize the readers specialization and professionalism. The current
about framework within which municipal employees,

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

including senior management, are recruited does (a) Mass nesting in all species of birds is
not adequately factor in the technical and essential to ensure complete survival of
managerial competencies required. Cadre and their offspring.
recruitment rules only specify the bare (b) Only birds have the capacity to develop
minimum in academic qualifications. There is no social behavior and thus can do mass
mention of managerial or technical nesting to raise their chicks in safety.
competencies, or of relevant work experience. (c) Social behavior in some species of birds
This is the case with most municipal increases the odds of survival in an
corporations. They also suffer from weak unsafe world.
organization design and structure. (d) All species of birds set up crèches for
their chicks to teach them social
12. Which among the following is the behavior and loyalty
most logical and rational assumption
that can be made from the above Passage -12
passage ? Vast numbers of Indian citizens without bank
(a) The task of providing urban services is a accounts live in rural areas, are financially and
complex issue which requires the functionally illiterate, and have little experience
organizational expansion of municipal with technology. A research study was
bodies all over the country. conducted in a particular area in which
(b) Our cities can provide better quality of electronic wage payments in Mahatma Gandhi
life if our local government bodies have National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme
adequate staff with required skills and (MGNREGS) are meant to go directly to the poor.
competencies. It was observed that recipients often assume
(c) Lack of skilled staff is due to the absence that the village leader needs to mediate the
of institutions which offer the requisite process, as was the case under the previous
skills in city management. paper-based system. Among households under
(d) Our country is not taking advantage of this research study area who claimed to have at
the demographic dividend to manage the least one bank account, over a third reported
problems associated with rapid still receiving MGNREGS wages in cash directly
urbanization. from a village leader.

Passage – 11 14. What is the most logical, rational and

Flamingos in large flocks in the wild are social crucial message that is implied in the
and extremely loyal. They perform group mating above passage ?
dances. Parents are very fond of their chicks, (a) MGNREGS should be extended only to
gathering them into crèches for protection while those who have a bank account.
both males and females fly off to search for food. (b) The paper-based system of payments is
more efficient than electronic payment in
13. Which among the following is the the present scenario.
most logical corollary to the above (c) The goal of electronic wage payments
passage ? was not to eliminate mediation by village
leaders.

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

(d) It is essential to provide financial literacy (c) 2 only

to the rural poor. (d) 1, 2 and 3

Passage 13 16. With reference to the above passage,

Individuals, groups and leaders who promote the following assumptions have been
human development operate under strong made :
institutional, structural and political constraints 1) Higher economic growth is essential to
that affect policy options. But experience ensure reduction in economic disparity.
suggests broad principles for shaping an 2) Environmental degradation is sometimes
appropriate agenda for human development. a consequence of economic growth.
One important finding from several decades of
human development experience is that focusing Which of the above is/are valid assumption
exclusively on economic growth is problematic. /assumptions ?
While we have good knowledge about how to (a) 1 only
advance health and education, the causes of (b) 2 only
growth are much less certain and growth is often (c) Both 1 and 2
elusive. Further, an unbalanced emphasis on (d) Neither 1 nor 2
growth is often associated with negative
environmental consequences and adverse Passage – 14
distributional effects. The experience of China, Climate change is already making many people
with its impressive growth record, reflects these hungry all over the world, by disrupting crop
broader concerns and underlines the importance yields and pushing up prices. And it is not just
of balanced approaches that emphasize food but nutrients that are becoming scarcer as
investments in the non-income aspects of
3
the climate changes. It is the poorest
5
64
human development. communities that will suffer the worst effects of
6

climate change, including increased hunger and

86

15. With reference to the above passage, malnutrition as crop production and livelihoods
71

consider the following statements : are threatened. On the other hand, poverty is a
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1) In developing countries, a strong driver of climate change, as desperate

ie

institutional framework is the only communities resort to unsustainable use of

op

requirement for human development and resources to meet current needs.

ec

policy options.
kl

2) Human development and economic 17. Which among the following is the
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Sp

growth are not always positively inter- most logical corollary to the above
related. passage ?
3) Focusing only on human development (a) Government should allocate more funds
should be the goal of economic growth. to poverty alleviation programmes and
increase food subsidies to the poor
Which of the above statements is/are communities.
correct? (b) Poverty and climate impacts reinforce
(a) 1 only each other and therefore we have to re-
(b) 2 and 3 only imagine our food systems.

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

(c) All the countries of the world must unite defecation. Many ingested germs and worms
in fighting poverty and malnutrition and spread diseases. They prevent the body from
treat poverty as a global problem. absorbing calories and nutrients. Nearly one-half
(d) We must stop unsustainable of India's children remain malnourished. Lakhs
agricultural practices immediately and of them die from preventable conditions.
control food prices. Diarrhoea leaves Indians’ bodies smaller on
average than those of people in some poorer
Passage – 15 countries where people eat fewer calories.
The Global Financial Stability Report finds that Underweight mothers produce stunted babies
the share of portfolio investments from advanced prone to sickness who may fail to develop their
economies in the total debt and equity full cognitive potential. The germs released into
investments in emerging economies has doubled environment harm rich and poor alike, even
in the past decade to 12 percent. The those who use latrines.
phenomenon has implications for Indian policy
makers as foreign portfolio investments in the 19. Which among the following is the
debt and equity markets have been on the rise. most critical inference that can be
The phenomenon is also flagged as a threat that made from the above passage ?
could compromise global financial stability in a (a) The Central and State governments in
chain reaction, in the event of United States India do not have enough resources to
Federal Reserve's imminent reversal of its afford a latrine for each household.
“Quantitative Easing” policy. (b) Open defecation is the most important
public health problem of India.
18. Which among the following is the (c) Open defecation reduces the human
most rational and critical inference capital of India’s workforce.
that can be made from the above (d) Open defecation is a public health
passage ? problem in all developing countries.
(a) Foreign portfolio investments are not
good for emerging economies. Passage – 17
(b) Advanced economies undermine the We generally talk about democracy but when it
global financial stability. comes to any particular thing, we prefer a
(c) India should desist from accepting belonging to our caste or community or religion.
foreign portfolio investments in the So long as we have this kind of temptation, our
future. democracy will remain a phoney kind of
(d) Emerging economies are at a risk of democracy. We must be in a position to respect
shock from advanced economies a man as a man and to extend opportunities for
development to those who deserve them and not
Passage – 16 to those who happen to belong to our
Open defecation is disastrous when practiced in community or race. This fact of favoritism has
very densely populated areas, where it is been responsible for much discontent and ill-will
impossible to keep away human faces from in our country.
crops, wells, food and children’s hands.
Groundwater is also contaminated by open

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20. Which one of the following statements (c) Both 1 and 2

best sums up the above passage ? (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) Our country has a lot of diversity with its
many castes, communities and religions. 22. What is the crucial message conveyed
(b) True democracy could be established by in the passage
providing equal opportunities to all. (a) Establish more banks
(c) So far none of us have actually (b) Increase the Gross Domestic Product
understood the meaning of democracy. (GDP) growth rate
(d) It will never be possible for us to (c) Increase the interest rate of bank
establish truly democratic governance in Deposits
our country. (d) Promote financial inclusion

Passage – 18 Passage – 19
The existence/establishment of formal financial Governments may have to take, steps which
institutions that offer safe, reliable, and would otherwise be an infringement on the
alternative financial instruments is Fundamental Rights of individuals, such as
fundamental in mobilizing savings. To save, acquiring a person’s land against his will, or
individuals need access to safe and reliable refusing permission for putting up a building,
financial institutions, such as banks, and to but the larger public interest for which these are
appropriate financial instruments and done must be authorized by the people
reasonable financial incentives. Such access is (Parliament). Discretionary powers to the
not always available to all people in developing administration can be done away with. It is
countries like India and more so, in rural areas. becoming more and more difficult to keep this
Savings help poor households manage volatility
3
power within limits as the government has many
5
64
in cash flow, smoothen consumption, and build number of tasks to perform. Where discretion
6

working capital. Poor households without access has to be used, there must be rules and
86

formal savings mechanism encourage immediate safeguards to prevent misuse of that power.
71

spending temptations. Systems have to be devised which minimize, if

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not prevent, the abuse of discretionary power.

ie

21. With reference to the above passage, Government work must be conducted within a
op

consider the following statements : framework of recognized rules and principles,

ec

1) Indian financial institutions do not offer and decisions should be similar and predictable.
kl

any financial instruments to rural

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households to mobilize their savings. 23. Which among the following is the
2) Poor households tend to spend their most logical assumption that can be
earnings/savings due to lack of access to made from the above passage ?
appropriate financial instruments. (a) Government should always be given wide
discretionary power in all matters of
Which of the statements given above is/are administration.
correct ? (b) The supremacy of rules and safeguards
(a) 1 only should prevail as opposed to the
(b) 2 only

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influence of exclusive discretion of Passage - 21

authority. No Right is absolute, exclusive or inviolable. The
(c) Parliamentary democracy is possible only Right of personal property, similarly, has to be
if the Government has wider perceived in the larger context of its assumed
discretionary power. legitimacy. The Right of personal property
(d) None of the above statements is a logical should unite the principle of liberty with that of
assumption that can be made from this equality, and both with the principle of
passage. cooperation.

Passage – 20 25. In the light of the argument in the

India has suffered from persistent high inflation. above passage, which one of the
Increase in administered prices, demand and following statements is the most
supply imbalances, imported inflation convincing explanation ?
aggravated by rupee depreciation, and (a) The Right of personal property is a
speculation - have combined to keep high Natural Right duly supported by statutes
inflation going. If there is an element common to and scriptures.
all of them, it is that many of them are the (b) Personal property is a theft and an
outcomes of economic reforms. India's instrument of exploitation. The Right of
vulnerability to the effects of changes in personal property is therefore violative of
international prices has increased with trade economic justice.
liberalization. The effort to reduce subsidies has (c) The Right of personal property is violative
resulted in a continuous increase in the prices of of distributive justice and negates the
commodities that are administered. principle of cooperation.
(d) The comprehensive idea of economic
24. What is the most logical, rational and justice demands that the Right of each
crucial message that is implied in the person to acquisition of property has to
above passage ? be reconciled with that of others.
(a) Under the present circumstances, India
should completely avoid all trade Passage - 22
liberalization policies and all subsidies. The conflict between man and State is as old as
(b) Due to its peculiar socio-economic State history. Although attempts have been
situation, India is not yet ready for trade made for centuries to bring about a proper
liberalization process. adjustment between the competing claims of
(c) There is no solution in sight for the State and the individual, the solution seems to
problems of continuing poverty and be still far off. This is primarily because of the
inflation in India in the near future. dynamic nature of human society where old
(d) Economic reforms can often create a values and ideas constantly yield place to new
high inflation economy. ones. It is obvious that if individuals are allowed
to have absolute freedom of speech and action,
the result would be chaos, ruin and anarchy.

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26. The author's viewpoint can be best 27. According to the passage, which of the
summed up in which of the following following is/are a matter of intense
statements ? debate in the multilateral negotiations
(a) The conflict between the claims of State under UNFCCC regarding the role of
and individual remains unresolved. developing countries in climate
(b) Anarchy and chaos are the obvious change ?
results of democratic traditions. 1) The scale and size of required financial
(c) Old values, ideas and traditions persist support.
despite the dynamic nature of human 2) The crop loss due to climate change in
society. the developing countries.
(d) Constitutional guarantee of freedom of 3) To enhance the mitigation and
speech is not in the interest of society. adaptation actions in the developing
countries.
Passage – 23 Select the correct answer using the code
Climate change is a complex policy issue with given below :
major implications in terms of finance. All (a) 1 only
actions to address climate change ultimately (b) 2 and 3 only
involve costs. Funding is vital for countries like (c) 1 and 3 only
India to design and implement adaptation and (d) 1, 2 and 3
mitigation plans and projects. Lack of funding is
a large impediment to implementing adaptation 28. In this passage, the Convention puts
plans. The scale and magnitude of the financial the responsibility for the provision of
support required by developing countries to financial support on the developed
enhance their domestic mitigation and countries because of
5 3
64
adaptation actions are a matter of intense 1) Their higher level of per capita incomes.
6

debate in the multilateral negotiations under the 2) Their large quantum of GDP.
86

United Nations Framework Convention on 3) Their large contribution to the stock of

71

Climate Change (UNFCCC). The Convention GHGS in the atmosphere.

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squarely puts the responsibility for provision of

ie

financial support on the developed countries, Select the correct answer using the code
op

taking into account their contribution to the given below :

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stock of greenhouse gases (GHGS) in the (a) 1 only

kl

atmosphere. Given the magnitude of the task (b) 1 and 2 only

ar
Sp

and the funds required, domestic finances are (c) 3 only

likely to fall short of the current and projected (d) 1, 2 and 3
needs of the developing countries. Global
funding through the multilateral mechanism of 29. With regards to developing countries,
the Convention will enhance their domestic it can be inferred from the passage
capacity to finance the mitigation efforts. that climate change is likely to have
implications on their
1) Domestic finances.
2) Capacity for multilateral trade.

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Select the correct answer using the code proceed to implement, it is worthwhile
given below : elaborating on the idea of inclusive growth that
(a) 1 only constitutes the defining concept behind this
(b) 2 only government’s various economic policies and
(c) Both 1 and 2 decisions. A nation interested in inclusive
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 growth views the same growth differently
depending on whether the gains of the growth
30. Which one of the following is are heaped primarily on a small segment or
essentially discussed in the passage ? shared widely by the population. The latter is
(a) Conflict between developed and cause for celebration but not the former. In
developing countries regarding support other words, growth must not be treated as an
for mitigation end in itself but as an instrument for spreading
(b) Occurrence of climate change due to prosperity to all. India’s own past experience and
excessive exploitation of natural the experience of other nations suggests that
resources by the developed countries growth is necessary for eradicating poverty but it
(c) Lack of political will on the part of all is not a sufficient condition. In other words,
the countries to implement adaptation policies for promoting growth need to be
plans complemented with policies to ensure that more
(d) Governance problems of developing and more people join in the growth process and,
countries as a result of climate change. further, that there are mechanisms in place to
redistribute some of the gains to those who are
2015 - Key unable to partake in the market process and,
hence, get left behind.
01.(a) 02.(d) 03.(b) 04.(c) 05.(c) A simple way of giving this idea of inclusive
06.(a) 07.(a) 08.(d) 09.(a) 10.(d) growth a sharper form is to measure a nation’s
11.(b) 12.(b) 13.(c) 14.(d) 15.(c) progress in terms of the progress. Of its poorest
16.(b) 17.(b) 18.(d) 19.(c) 20.(b) segment, for instance the bottom 20 percent of
21.(b) 22.(d) 23.(a) 24.(d) 25.(d) the population. One could measure the per
26.(a) 27.(a) 28.(c) 29.(a) 30.(a) capita income of the bottom quintile of the
population and also calculate the growth rate of
income; and evaluate our economic success in
2014
terms of these measures that pertain to the
Passage – 1
poorest segment. This approach is attractive
In recent times, India has grown fast not only
because it does not ignore growth like some of
compared to its own past but also in comparison
the older heterodox criteria did. It simply looks
with other nations. But there cannot be any
at the growth of income of the poorest sections
room for complacency because it is possible for
of the population. It also ensures that those who
the Indian economy to develop even faster and
are outside of the bottom quintile do not get
also to spread the benefits of this growth more
ignored. If that were done, then those people
widely than has been done thus far. Before going
would in all likelihood drop down into the
into details of the kinds of micro-structural
bottom quintile and so would automatically
changes that we need to conceptualize and then
become a direct target of our policies. Hence the

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criterion being suggested here is a statistical Passage – 2

summing up of the idea of inclusive growth, It is easy for the government to control State-
which, in turn, leads to two corollaries : to wish owned companies through nods and winks. So
that India must strive to achieve high growth what really needs to be done as a first step is to
and that we must work to ensure that the put petrol pricing on a transparent formula – if
weakest segments benefit from the growth. the price of crude is x and the exchange rate y,
then every month or fortnight, the government
1. The author’s central focus in on announces a maximum price of petrol, which
(a) Applauding India’s economic growth not anybody can work out from the x and the y. the
only against its own past performance, rule has to be worked out to make sure that the
but against other nations. oil-marketing companies can, in general, cover
(b) Emphasizing the need for economic their costs. This will mean that if one company
growth which is the sole determinant of a can innovate and cut costs, it will make greater
country’s prosperity. profits. Hence, firms will be more prone to
(c) Emphasizing inclusive growth where innovate and be efficient under this system.
gains of growth are shared widely by the Once the rule is announced, there should be no
population. interference by the government. If this is done
(d) Emphasizing high growth. for a while, private companies will re-enter this
market. And once a sufficient number of them
2. The author supports policies which are in the fray, we can remove the rule-based
will help pricing and leave it truly to the market (subject
(a) Develop economic growth. to, of course, the usual regulations of anti-trust
(b) Better distribution of incomes and other competition laws).
irrespective of rate of growth. 5 3
64
(c) Develop economic growth and 4. Consider the following statements :
6

redistribute economic gains to those According to the passage, an oil company

86

getting left behind. can make greater profits, if a transparent

71

(d) Put an emphasis on the development of formula for petrol pricing is announced
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the poorest segments of society. every fortnight or month, by

ie

1) Promoting its sales.

op

3. Consider the following statements : 2) Undertaking innovation.

ec

According to the author, India’s economy 3) Cutting costs.

kl

has grown but there is no room for 4) Selling its equity shares at higher prices.
ar
Sp

complacency as
1. Growth eradicates poverty. Which of the statements given above is/are
2. Growth has resulted in prosperity for all. correct ?
Which of the statements given above is/ are (a) 1 only
correct ? (b) 2 and 3
(a) 1 only (c) 3 and 4
(b) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 4
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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5. Consider the following statements : thereafter. It will be critical to provide incentives

According to the passage, private oil to plan for these large- scale shifts in agro-
companies re-enter the oil producing ecological conditions.
market if India needs to make long term investment in
1) A transparent rule-based petrol pricing research and development in agriculture. India
exists. is likely to experience changed weather patterns
2) There is no government interference in in future.
the oil producing market.
3) Subsidies are given by the government. 6. Consider the following statements :
4) Regulations of anti-trust are removed. Climate change may force the shifting of
Which of the statements given above are locations of the existing crops due to
correct ? 1) Melting of glaciers.
(a) 1 and 2 2) Water availability and temperature
(b) 2 and 3 suitability at other locations.
(c) 3 and 4 3) Poor productivity of crops.
(d) 2 and 4 4) Wider adaptability of crop plants.

Passage - 3 Which of the statements given above are

Climate change poses potentially devastating correct ?
effects on India’s agriculture. While the overall (a) 1, 2 and 3
parameters of climate change are increasingly (b) 2 and 3 only
accepted – a 1°C average temperature increase (c) 1 and 4 only
over the next 30 years, sea level rise of less than (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
10 cm in the same period, and regional monsoon
variations and corresponding droughts – the 7. According to the passage, why is it
impacts in India are likely to be quite site and important to promote agricultural
crop specific. Some crops may respond favorably research in India?
to the changing conditions, others may not. This (a) to predict variations in monsoon patterns
emphasizes the need to promote agricultural and to manage water resources.
research and create maximum flexibility in the (b) To make long term investment decisions
system to permit adaptations. for economic growth
The key ingredient for “drought proofing” is the (c) To facilitate wider adaptability of crops
managed recharge of aquifers. To ensure (d) To predict drought conditions and to
continued yields of important staple crops (e.g. recharge aquifers.
wheat), it may also be necessary to shift the
locations where these crops are grown, in Passage – 4
response to temperature changes as well as to It is essential that we mitigate the emissions of
water availability. The latter will be a key factor greenhouse gases and thus avoid some of the
in making long term investment decisions. worst impacts of climate change that would take
For example, water runoff from the Himalayas is place in coming years and decades. Mitigation
predicted to increase over the next 30 years as would require a major shift in the way we
glaciers melt, but then decline substantially produce and consume energy. A shift away from

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overwhelming dependence on fossil fuels is now 18 percent of the total. The reduction of
long overdue, but unfortunately, technological emissions from this source is entirely in the
development has been slow and inadequate hands of human beings, who have never
largely because government policies have not questioned the impacts that their dietary habits
promoted investments in research and of consuming more and more animal protein are
development, myopically as a result of relatively bringing about. Mitigation overall has huge co-
low prices of oil. It is now, therefore, imperative benefits, such as lower air pollution and health
for a country like India treating the opportunity benefits, higher energy security and greater
of harnessing renewable energy on a large scale employment.
as a national imperative. This country is
extremely well endowed with solar, wind and 8. According to the passage, which of the
biomass sources of energy. Where we have following would help in the mitigation
lagged, unfortunately, is in our ability to develop of greenhouse gases?
and to create technological solutions for 1) Reducing the consumption of meat
harnessing these resources. 2) Rapid economic liberalization
One particulars trajectory for carrying out 3) Reducing the consumerism
stringent mitigation of greenhouse gas emissions 4) Modern management practices of
assessed by the intergovernmental panel on livestock
Climate change (IPCC) clearly shows the need for Select the correct answer using the code
ensuring that global emissions of greenhouse given below:
gases peak no later than 2015 and reduce (a) 1, 2 and 3
rapidly thereafter. The cost associated with such (b) 2, 3 and 4
a trajectory is truly modest and would amount, (c) 1 and 3 only
in the estimation of IPCC, to not more than 3 (d) 2 and 4 only 5 3
64
percent of the global GDP in 2030. In other
6

words, the level of prosperity that the world 9. Why do we continue to depend on the
86

would have reached without mitigation would at fossil fuels heavily ?

71

worst be postponed by a few months or a year at 1) Inadequate technological development

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the most. This is clearly not a very high price to 2) Inadequate funds for research and
ie

pay for protecting hundreds of millions of people development

op

from the worst risks associated with climate 3) Inadequate availability of alternative
ec

change. Any such effort, however, would require sources of energy

kl

lifestyles to change appropriately also. Mitigation Select the correct answer using the code
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Sp

of greenhouse gas emissions is not a mere given below :

technological fix, and clearly requires changes in (a) 1 only
lifestyles and transformation of a country’s (b) 2 and 3 only
economic structure, whereby effective reduction (c) 1 and 3 only
in emissions is brought about, such as through (d) 1, 2 and 3
the consumption of much lower quantities of
animal protein. The food and agriculture 10. According to the passage, how does
Organization (FAO) has determined that the the mitigation of greenhouse gases
emissions from the livestock sector amount to help us ?

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

1) Reduces expenditure on public health Further, it needs to be emphasized that the

2) Reduces dependence on livestock endemics with restricted distribution, and most
3) Reduces energy requirements often with specialized habitat requirements, are
4) Reduces rate of global climate change among the most vulnerable elements. In this
respect the Himalayan biodiversity hotspot, with
Select the correct answer using the code rich endemic diversity, is vulnerable to climate
given below: change.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 The threats include possible loss of genetic
(b) 1, 3 and 4 resources and species, habitats and
(c) 2, 3 and 4 concomitantly a decrease ecosystem services.
(d) 1 and 4 only Therefore, conservation of endemic elements in
representative ecosystems/habitats assumes a
11. What is the essential message of the great significance while drawing conservation
passage ? plans for the region.
(a) We continue to depend on fossil fuels Towards achieving the above, we will have to
heavily Shift toward contemporary conservation
(b) Mitigation of the greenhouse gases is approaches, which include a paradigm of
imperative landscape level interconnectivity between
(c) We must invest in research and protected area systems. The concept advocates a
development shift from the species-habitat focus to an
(d) People must change their lifestyle. inclusive focus on expanding the biogeographic
range so that natural adjustments to climate
Passage – 5 change can proceed without being restrictive.
The Himalayan ecosystem is highly vulnerable to
damage, both due to geological reasons and on 12. Consider the following statements :
account of the stress caused by increased According to the passage, the adverse
pressure of population, exploitation of natural impact of climate change on an
resources and other related challenges. These ecosystem can be a
aspects may be exacerbated due to the impact of 1) Permanent disappearance of some of its
climate change. It is possible that climate flora and fauna.
change may adversely impact the Himalayan 2) Permanent disappearance of ecosystem
ecosystem through increased temperature, itself.
altered precipitation patterns, episodes of Which of the statements given above is/are
drought and biotic influences. This would not Correct ?
only impact the very sustenance of the (a) 1 only
indigenous communities in uplands but also the (b) 2 only
life of downstream dwellers across the country (c) Both 1 and 2
and beyond. Therefore, there is an urgent need (d) Neither 1 nor 2
for giving special attention to sustain the
Himalayan ecosystem. This would require 13. Which one of the following statements
conscious efforts for conserving all the best implies the need to shift toward
representative systems. contemporary conservation approach?

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

(a) Exploitation of natural resources causes Passage – 6

a stress on the Himalayan ecosystem. It is often forgotten that globalization is not only
(b) Climate change alters precipitation about policies on international economic
patterns, causes episodes of drought and relationships and transactions, but has equally
biotic interference. to do with domestic policies of a nation. Policy
(c) The rich biodiversity, including endemic changes necessitated by meeting the
diversity, makes the Himalayan region a internationally set conditions (by WTO etc.) of
biodiversity hotspot. free trade and investment flows obviously affect
(d) The Himalayan biogeographic region domestic producers and investors. But the basic
should be enable to adapt to climate philosophy underlying globalization emphasizes
change smoothly. absolute freedom to markets to determine prices
and production and distribution patterns, and
14. What is the most important message view government interventions as processes that
conveyed by the passage ? create distortions and bring in inefficiency.
(a) Endemism is a characteristic feature of Thus, public enterprises have to be privatized
Himalayan region. through disinvestments and sales; sectors and
(b) Conservation efforts should emphasize activities hitherto reserved for the public sector
on biogeographic ranges rather than on have to be opened to the private sector. This
some species or habitats. logic extends to the social services like education
(c) Climate change has adverse impact on and health. Any restrictions on the adjustments
the Himalayan ecosystem. in workforce by way of retrenchment of workers
(d) Without Himalayan ecosystem, the life of should also be removed and exit should be made
the communities of uplands and down easier by removing any restrictions on closures.
streams will have no sustenance.
3
Employment and wages should be governed by
5
64
free play of market forces, as any measure to
6

15. With reference to the passage, the regulate them can discourage investment and
86

following assumptions have been also create inefficiency in production. Above all,
71

made: in line with the overall philosophy of reduction

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1) To maintain natural ecosystems, in the role of the State, fiscal reforms should be
ie

exploitation of natural resources should undertaken to have generally low levels of

op

be completely avoided. taxation and government expenditure should be

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2) Not only anthropogenic but also natural kept to the minimum to abide by the principle of
kl

reasons can adversely affect ecosystems. fiscal prudence. All these are policy actions on
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Sp

3) Loss of endemic diversity leads to the the domestic front and are not directly related to
extinction of ecosystems. the core items of the globalization agenda,
Which of the above assumptions is/are namely free international flow of goods and
correct ? finance.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only 16. According to the passage, under the
(c) 2 and 3 globalization, government intervene
(d) 3 only tions are viewed as processes leading
to

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

(a) Distortions and inefficiency in the Passage – 7

economy. Many nations now place their faith in capitalism
(b) Optimum use of resources. and governments choose it as the strategy to
(c) More profitability to industries. create wealth for their people. The spectacular
(d) Free play of market forces with regard to economic growth seen in Brazil, China and India
industries. after the liberalization of their economies is proof
of its enormous potential and success. However,
17. According to the passage, the basic the global banking crisis and the economic
philosophy of globalization is to recession have left many bewildered. The
(a) Give absolute freedom to producers to debates tend to focus on free market operations
determine prices and production. and forces, their efficiency and their ability for
(b) Give freedom to producers to evolve self correction. Issues of justice, integrity and
distribution patterns. honesty are rarely elaborated to highlight the
(c) Give absolute freedom to markets to failure of the global banking system. The
determine prices, production and apologists of the system continue to justify the
employment. success of capitalism and argue that the recent
(d) Give freedom to producers to import and crisis was a blip.
export. Their arguments betray an ideological bias with
the assumptions that an unregulated market is
18. According to the passage, which of the fair and competent, and that the exercise of
following is/are necessary for ensuring private greed will be in the larger public interest.
globalization? Few recognize the bidirectional relationship
1) Privatization of public enterprises between capitalism and greed; that each
2) Expansionary policy of Public reinforces the other. Surely, a more honest
expenditure conceptualization of the conflicts of interest
3) Free play of market forces to determine among the rich and powerful players who have
wages and employment benefited from the system, their biases and
4) Privatization of social services like ideology is needed; the focus on the wealth
education and health creation should also highlight the resultant
Select the correct answer using the code gross inequity.
given below :
(a) 1 only 20. The apologists of the “Free Market
(b) 2 and 3 only System”, according to the passage,
(c) 1, 3 and 4 believe in
(d) 2, 3 and 4 (a) Market without control by government
19. According to the passage, in the authorities.
process of globalization the State (b) Market without protection by the
should have government.
(a) Expanding role. (c) Ability of market to self correct.
(b) Reducing role. (d) Market for free goods and services.
(c) Statutory role
(d) None of the above roles.

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

21. With reference to “ideological bias”, unviable, have to be on the balance-sheet of the
the passage implies that State. If the government did not own rural roads,
(a) Free market is fair but not competent. they would not exist. Similarly, public health
(b) Free market is not fair but competent. capital in our towns and cities will need to come
(c) Free market is fair and competent. from the public sector. Equally, preservation and
(d) Free market is neither fair nor biased. improvement of forest cover will have to be a
new priority for the public sector assets.
22. “The exercise of private greed will be Take the example of steel. With near-zero tariffs,
in the larger public interest” from the India is a globally competitive market for the
passage metal. Indian firms export steel into the global
1) Refers to the false ideology of capitalism. market, which demonstrates there is no gap in
2) Underlies the righteous claims of the free technology. Indian companies are buying up
market. global steel companies, which shows there is no
3) Shows the benevolent face of capitalism. gap in capital availability. Under these
4) Ignores resultant gross inequity. conditions, private ownership works best.
Which of the statements given above is/are Private ownership is clearly desirable in
correct? regulated industries, ranging from finance to
(a) 1 only infrastructure, where a government agency
(b) 2 and 3 performs the function of regulation and multiple
(c) 1 and 4 competing firms are located in the private sector.
(d) 4 only Here, the simple and clean solution-government
as the umpire and the private sector as the
Passage – 8 players is what works best. In many of these
Net profits are only 2.2% of their total assets for
3
industries, we have a legacy of government
5
64
central public sector undertakings, lower than ownership, where productivity tends to be lower,
6

for the private corporate sector. While the public fear of bankruptcy is absent, and the risk of
86

sector or the State-led entrepreneurship played asking for money from the tax payer is ever
71

an important role in triggering India’s present. There is also the conflict of interest
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industrialization, evolving development needs, between government as an owner and as the

ie

comparatively less – than – at is factory regulator. The formulation and implementation

op

performance of the public sector enterprises, the of competition policy will be more vigorous and
ec

maturing of our private sector, a much larger fair if government companies are out of action.
kl

social base now available for expanding

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Sp

entrepreneurship and the growing institutional 23. According to the passage, what is/are
capabilities to enforce competition policies would the reason/reasons for saying that the
suggest that the time has come to review the role time has come to review the role of
of public sector. public sector?
What should the portfolio composition of the 1) Now public sector has lost its relevance
government be? It should not remain static all in the industrialization process.
times. The airline industry works well as a 2) Public sector does not perform
purely private affair. At the opposite end, rural satisfactorily.
roads, whose sparse traffic makes tolling

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

3) Entrepreneurship in private sector is (c) Government has no control over private

expanding. sector players.
4) Effective competition policies are (d) None of the above statements is correct
available now. in this context.

Which of the statements given above is/are Passage – 9

correct in the given context? In front of us was walking a bare-headed old
(a) 1 and 3 only man in tattered clothes. He was driving his
(b) 2 only beasts. They were all laden with heavy loads of
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only clay from the hills and looked tired. The man
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 carried a long whip which perhaps he himself
had made. As he walked down the road he
24. According to the passage, rural roads stopped now and then to eat the wild berries
should be in the domain of public that grew on bushes along the uneven road.
sector only. Why? When he threw away the seeds, the bold birds
(a) Rural development work is the domain of would fly to peck at them. Sometimes a stray
government only. dog watched the procession philosophically and
(b) Private sector cannot have monetary then began to bark. When this happened, my
gains in this. two little sons would stand still holding my
(c) Government takes money from tax hands firmly. A dog can sometimes be
payers and hence it is the responsibility dangerous indeed.
of government only.
(d) Private sector need not have any social 27. The author’s children held his hands
responsibility. firmly because
(a) They were scared of the barking dogs.
25. The portfolio composition of the (b) They wanted him to pluck berries.
government refers to (c) They saw the whip in the old man’s
(a) Public sector assets quality. hand.
(b) Investment in liquid assets. (d) The road was uneven.
(c) Mix of government investment in
different industrial sectors. 28. The expression “a stray dog watched
(d) Buying Return on Investment yielding the procession philosophically” means
capital assets. that
(a) The dog was restless and ferocious.
26. The author prefers government as the (b) The dog stood aloof, looking at the
umpire and private sector as players procession with seriousness.
because (c) The dog looked at the procession with
(a) Government prescribes norms for a fair big, wondering eyes.
play by the private sector. (d) The dog stood there with his eyes closed.
(b) Government is the ultimate in policy
formulation.

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

Passage – 10 (c) The surprise on the faces of her

Cynthia was a shy girl. She believed that she classmates.
was plain and untalented. One day her teacher (d) The stunning performance of Cynthia.
ordered the entire class to show up for audition
for the school play. Cynthia nearly died of fright 2014 - Key
when she was told that she would have to stand
on stage in front of the entire class and deliver
01.(c) 02.(c) 03.(d) 04.(b)
dialogues. The mere thought of it made her feel
05.(a) 06.(a) 07.(c) 08.(c)
sick. But a remarkable transformation occurred
09.(a) 10.(d) 11.(b) 12.(a)
during the audition. A thin, shy girl, her knees
13.(d) 14.(b) 15.(c) 16.(a)
quaking, her stomach churning in terror, began
17.(c) 18.(c) 19.(b) 20.(a)
to stun everyone with her excellent performance.
21.(b) 22.(d) 23.(b) 24.(b)
Her bored classmates suddenly stopped their
25.(c) 26.(d) 27.(a) 28.(c)
noisy chat to stare at her slender figure on the
29.(c) 30.(b) 31.(a) 32.(d)
stage. At the end of her audition, the entire room
erupted in thunderous applause.
2013
29. Cynthia was afraid to stand on stage Passage - 1
because The subject of democracy has become severely
(a) She felt her classmates may laugh at her. muddled because of the way the rhetoric
(b) Her stomach was churning. surrounding it has been used in recent years.
(c) She lacked self-confidence. There is, increasingly, an oddly confused
(d) She did not like school plays. dichotomy between those who want to ‘impose’

3
democracy on countries in the non-Western
5
64
30. Cynthia’s classmates were chatting world (in these countries' ‘own interest’, of
6

because course) and those who are opposed to such

86

(a) It was their turn to act next. ‘imposition’ (because of the respect for the
71

(b) They were bored of the performances. countries’ ‘own ways'). But the entire language of
r-9

(c) Cynthia did not act well. ‘imposition’, used by both sides, is
ie

(d) The teacher had no control over them extraordinarily inappropriate since it makes the
op

implicit assumption that democracy belongs

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31. Cynthia’s knees were quaking because exclusively to West, taking it to be a

kl

(a) She felt nervous and shy. quintessentially ‘Western’ idea which has
ar
Sp

(b) The teacher scolded her. originated and flourished only in the West.
(c) She was very thin and weak, But the thesis and the pessimism it generates
(d) She was afraid of her classmates. about the possibility of democratic practice in
the world would be extremely hard to justify.
32. The transformation that occurred There were several experiments in local
during the audition refers to democracy in ancient India. Indeed, in
(a) The nervousness of Cynthia. understanding the roots of democracy in the
(b) The eruption of the entire room in world, we have to take an interest in the history
thunderous applause. of people participation and public reasoning in

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

different parts of the world. We have to look take democracy to be a specialized

beyond thinking of democracy only in terms of cultural product of the West.
European and American evolution. We would fail 2) Western countries are always trying to
to understand the pervasive demands for impose democracy on non-Western
participatory living, on which Aristotle spoke countries.
with far-reaching insight, if we take democracy Which of the above is/are valid assumption /
to be a kind of a specialized cultural product of assumptions ?
the West. It cannot, of course, be doubted that (a) 1 only
the institutional structure of the contemporary (b) 2 only
practice of democracy is largely the product of (c) Both 1 and 2
European and American experience over the last (d) Neither 1 nor 2
few centuries. This is extremely important to
recognize since these developments in Passage – 2
institutional formats were immensely innovative Corporate governance is based on principles
and ultimately effective. There can be little doubt such as conducting the business with all
that there is a major ‘Western’ achievement here. integrity and fairness, being transparent with
regard to all transactions, making all the
1. Which of the following is closest to necessary disclosures and decisions, complying
the view of democracy as mentioned with all the laws of the land, accountability and
in the above passage? responsibility towards the stakeholders and
(a) The subject of democracy is a muddle commitment to conducting business in an
due to a desire to portray it as a Western ethical manner. Another point which is
concept, ‘alien’ to non- Western highlighted on corporate governance is the need
countries. for those in control to be able to distinguish
(b) The language of imposition of democracy between what are personal and corporate funds
is inappropriate. There is, however, a while managing a company.
need to consider this concept in the Fundamentally, there is a level of confidence
backdrop of culture of ‘own ways’ of non- that is associated with a company that is known
Western society. to have good corporate governance. The presence
(c) While democracy is not essentially a of an active group of independent directors on
Western idea belonging exclusively to the the board contributes a great deal towards
West, the institutional structure of ensuring confidence in the market. Corporate
current democratic practices has been governance is known to be one of the criteria
their contribution. that foreign institutional investors are
(d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) increasingly depending on when deciding on
given above is correct. which companies to invest in. It is also known to
have a positive influence on the share price of
2. With reference to the passage, the the company. Having a clean image on the
following assumptions have been corporate governance front could also make it
made: easier for companies to source capital at more
1) Many of the non-Western countries are reasonable costs. Unfortunately, corporate
unable to have democracy because they governance often becomes the centre of

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

discussion only after the exposure of a large Passage – 3

scam. Malnutrition most commonly occurs between the
ages of six months and two years. This happens
3. According to the passage, which of the despite the child’s food requirements being less
following should be the than that of an older child. Malnutrition is often
practice/practices in good corporate attributed to poverty, but it has been found that
governance? even in households where adults eat adequate
1) Companies should always comply with quantities of food, more than 50 percent of
labour and tax laws of the land. children-under-five do not consume enough
2) Every company in the country should food. The child’s dependence on someone else to
have a government representative as one feed him/her is primarily responsible for the
of the independent directors on the board malnutrition. Very often the mother is working
to ensure transparency. and the responsibility of feeding the young child
3) The manager of a company should never is left to an older sibling. It is therefore crucial to
invest his personal funds in the increase awareness regarding the child’s food
company. needs and how to satisfy them.
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below : 5. According to the passage,
(a) 1 only malnutrition in children can be
(b) 2 and 3 only reduced
(c) 1 and 3 only (a) If the children have regular intake of
(d) 1, 2 and 3 food.
(b) After they cross the age of five.
4. According to the passage, which of the (c)
3
If the food needs of younger children are
5
64
following is/are the major known.
6

benefit/benefits of good corporate (d) If the responsibility of feeding younger

86

governance ? children is given to adults.

71

1) Good corporate governance leads to

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increase in share price of the company. 6. According to the author, poverty is

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2) A company with good corporate not the main cause of malnutrition,

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governance always increases its business but the fact that

ec

turnover rapidly. 1) Taking care of younger ones in not a

kl

3) Good corporate governance is the main priority for working mothers.

ar
Sp

criterion for foreign institutional 2) Awareness of nutritional needs is not

investors when they decide to buy a propagated by the public health
company. authorities.
Select the correct answer using the codes Select the correct answer using the code
given below : given below :
(a) 1 only (a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

Passage – 4 7. The need for policy intervention to

A number of empirical studies find that farmers mitigate risks in agriculture is because
are risk-averse, though only moderately in many (a) Farmers are extremely risk-averse.
cases. There is also evidence to show that (b) Farmers do not know how to mitigate
farmers’ risk aversion results in cropping risks.
patterns and input use designed to reduce risk (c) The methods adopted by farmers and
rather than to maximize income. Farmers adopt existing risk sharing institutions are not
a number of strategies to manage and cope with adequate.
agricultural risks. These include practices like (d) Majority of farmers depends on rain-fed
crop and field diversification, non-farm agriculture.
employment, storage of stocks and strategic
migration of family members. There are also 8. Which of the following observations
institutions ranging from share tenancy to emerges from the above passage?
kinship, extended family and informal credit (a) One can identify a single policy that can
agencies. One major obstacle to risk sharing by reduce risk without nay side-effect.
farmers is that the same type of risks can affect (b) No single risk-specific policy is sufficient
a large number of farmers in the region. to reduce agricultural risk.
Empirical studies show that the traditional (c) Policies which affect risk indirectly can
methods are not adequate. Hence there is a need eliminate it.
for policy interventions, especially measures that (d) Government’s policy intervention can
cut across geographical regions. mitigate agricultural risk completely.
Policies may aim at tackling agricultural risks
directly or indirectly. Examples of risk-specific 9. Consider the following statements
policies are crop insurance, price stabilization (i) A primary group is relatively smaller in
and the development of varieties resistant to size.
pests and diseases. Policies which affect risk (ii) Intimacy is an essential characteristic
indirectly are irrigation, subsidized credit and of a primary group.
access to information. No single risk-specific (iii) A family may be an example of a
policy is sufficient to reduce risk and is without primary group.
side-effects, whereas policies not specific to risk In the light of the above statements, which
influence the general situation and affect risks one of the following is true?
only indirectly. Crop insurance, as a policy (a) All families are primary groups.
measure to tackle agricultural risk directly, (b) All primary groups are families.
deserves careful consideration in the Indian (c) A group of smaller size is always a
context and in many other developing countries primary group.
– because the majority of farmers depend on (d) Members of a primary group know
rain-fed agriculture and in many areas yield each other intimately.
variability is the predominant cause of their
income instability. Passage – 5
Financial markets in India have acquired greater
depth and liquidity over the years. Steady
reforms since 1991 have led to growing linkages

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

and integration of the Indian economy and its Select the correct answer using the code
financial system with the global economy. Weak given below :
global economic prospects and continuing (a) 1 and 2 only
uncertainties in the international financial (b) 1, 2 and 3
markets therefore, have had their impact on the (c) 2 and 3 only
emerging market economies. Sovereign risk (d) 2, 3 and 4
concerns, particularly in the Euro area, affected
financial markets for the greater part of the year, 11. The Indian financial markets are
with the contagion of Greece's sovereign debt affected by global changes mainly due
problem spreading to India and other economies to the
by way of higher-than-normal levels of volatility. (a) Increased inflow of remittances from
The funding constraints in international abroad.
financial markets could impact both the (b) Enormous increase in the foreign
availability and cost of foreign funding for banks exchange reserves.
and corporates. Since the Indian financial (c) Growing global linkages and integration
system is bank dominated. Banks’ ability to of the Indian financial markets.
withstand stress is critical to overall financial (d) Contagion of Greece’s sovereign debt
stability, Indian banks, however, remain robust, problem.
notwithstanding a decline in capital to risk-
weighted assets ratio and a rise in non- 12. According to the passage, in the
performing asset levels in the recent past. Indian financial system banks’ ability
Capital adequacy levels remain above the to withstand stress in critical to
regulatory requirements. The financial market ensure overall financial stability
infrastructure continues to function without any
3
because Indian financial system is
5
64
major disruption. With further globalization, (a) Controlled by the government of India
6

consolidation, deregulation, and diversification (b) Less integrated with banks.

86

of the financial system, the banking business (c) Controlled by Reserve Bank of India.
71

may become more complex and riskier. Issues (d) Dominated by banks.
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like risk and liquidity management and

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enhancing skill therefore assume greater 13. Risk and liquidity management
op

significance. assumes more importance in the

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10. According to the passage, the Indian banking system in future due
kl

financial markets in the emerging to

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Sp

market economies including India had 1) further globalization.

the adverse impact in recent years due 2) more consolidation and deregulation of
to the financial system.
1) Week global economic prospects. 3) Further diversification of the financial
2) Uncertainties in the international system.
financial markets. 4) More financial inclusion in the economy.
3) Sovereign risk concerns in the Euro area.
4) Bad monsoons and the resultant crop
loss.

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

Select the correct answer using the code 15. Sedimentary rock leads to the
given below : formation of oil deposits because
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (a) There are no saline conditions below it.
(b) 2, 3 and 4 (b) It allows some dissolved oxygen to enter
(c) 1 and 2 only the dead organic matter below it.
(d) 3 and 4 only (c) Weight of overlying sediment layers
causes the production of heat.
Passage – 6 (d) It contains the substances that catalyze
Crude mineral oil comes out of the earth as a the chemical reactions required to
thick brown or black liquid with a strong smell. change dead organisms into oil.
It is a complex mixture of many different
substances, each with its own individual Passage – 7
qualities. Most of them combinations of The law in many parts of the world increasingly
hydrogen and carbon in varying proportions. restricts the discharge of agricultural slurry into
Such hydrocarbons are also found in other watercourses. The simplest and often the most
forms such as bitumen, asphalt and natural gas. economically sound practice returns the
Mineral oil originates from the carcasses of tiny material to the land as semisolid manure or as
animals and from plants that live in the sea. sprayed slurry. This dilutes its concentration in
Over millions of years, these dead creatures form the environment to what might have occurred in
large deposits under the sea-bed; and ocean a more primitive and sustainable type of
currents cover them with a blanket of sand and agriculture and converts pollutant into fertilizer.
silt. As this mineral hardens, it becomes Soil microorganisms decompose the organic
sedimentary rock and effectively shuts out the components of sewage and slurry and most of
oxygen, so preventing the complete the mineral nutrients become available to be
decomposition of the marine deposits absorbed again by the vegetation.
underneath. The layers of sedimentary rock The excess input of nutrients, both nitrogen and
become thicker and heavier. Their pressure phosphorus - based, from agricultural runoff
produces heat, which transforms the tiny (and human sewage) has caused many ‘healthy’
carcasses into crude oil in a process that is still oligotrophic lakes (low nutrient concentrations,
going on today. low plant productivity with abundant water
weeds, and clear water) to change to eutrophic
14. Mineral oil deposits under the sea do condition where high nutrient inputs lead to
not get completely decomposed high phytoplankton productivity (sometimes
because they dominated by bloom-forming toxic species). This
(a) Are constantly washed by the ocean makes the water turbid, eliminates large plants
currents. and, in the worst situations, leads to anoxia and
(b) Become rock and prevent oxygen from fish kills; so called cultural eutrophication.
entering them. Thus, important ecosystem services are lost,
(c) Contain a mixture of hydrogen and including the provisioning service of wild-caught
carbon. fish and the cultural services associated with
(d) Are carcasses of organisms lying in recreation.
saline conditions.

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

The process of cultural eutrophication of lakes pollutant and what is fertilizer in this
has been understood for some time. But only context. ?
recently did scientists notice huge ‘dead zones’ (a) Decomposed organic component of slurry
in the oceans near river outlets, particularly is pollutant and microorganisms in soil
those draining large catchment areas such as constitute fertilizer.
the Mississippi in North America and the (b) Discharged agricultural slurry is
Yangtze in China. The nutrient-enriched water pollutant and decomposed slurry in soil
flows through streams, rivers and lakes, and is fertilizer.
eventually to the estuary and ocean where the (c) Sprayed slurry is pollutant and
ecological impact may be huge, killing virtually watercourse is fertilizer.
all invertebrates and fish in areas up to 70,000 (d) None of the above expressions is correct
km2 in extent. More than 150 sea areas in this context.
worldwide are now regularly starved of oxygen as
a result of decomposition of algal blooms, fuelled 18. According to the passage, what are the
particularly by nitrogen from agricultural runoff effects of indiscriminate use of
of fertilizers and sewage from large cities. fertilizers ?
Oceanic dead zones are typically associated with 1) Addition of pollutants to the soil and
industrialized nations and usually lie off water.
countries that subsidize their agriculture, 2) Destruction of decomposer
encouraging farmers to increase productivity microorganisms in soil.
and use more fertilizer. 3) Nutrient enrichment of water bodies.
4) Creation of algal blooms.
16. According to the passage, why should Select the correct answer from the codes
the discharge of agricultural slurry given below : 5 3
64
into watercourses be restricted ? (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
6

1) Losing nutrients in this way is not a good (b) 1, 3 and 4 only

86

practice economically. (c) 2 and 4 only

71

2) Watercourses do not contain the (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

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microorganisms that can decompose

ie

organic components of agricultural 19. What is/are the characteristics of a

op

slurry. water body with cultural

ec

3) The discharge may lead to the eutrophication ?

kl

eutrophication of water bodies. 1) Loss of ecosystem services

ar
Sp

Select the correct answer using the codes 2) Loss of flora and fauna
given below : 3) Loss of mineral nutrients
(a) 1 only Select the correct answer using the code
(b) 2 and 3 only given below :
(c) 1 and 3 only (a) 1 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
17. The passage refers to the conversion (d) 1, 2 and 3
of “pollutant to fertilizer”. What is

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

20. What is the central theme of this 22. With reference to the passage, the
passage? following assumptions have been
(a) Appropriate legislation is essential to made:
protect the environment. 1) The author gives primary importance to
(b) Modern agriculture is responsible for the physical and material help in eradicating
destruction of environment. human misery.
(c) Improper waste disposal from agriculture 2) Charitable homes, hospitals, etc. can
can destroy the aquatic ecosystems. remove human misery to a great extent.
(d) Use of Chemical fertilizers is undesirable Which of the assumptions is/are valid?
in agriculture. (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
Passage – 8 (c) Both 1 and 2
The miseries of the world cannot be cured by (d) Neither 1 nor 2
physical help only. Until man's nature changes,
his physical needs will always arise, and Passage – 9
miseries will always be felt, and no amount of Ecological research over the last quarter of the
physical help will remove them completely. The century has established the deleterious effects of
only solution of the problem is to make mankind habitat fragmentation due to mining, highways
pure. Ignorance is the mother of evil and of all and such other intrusions on forests. When a
the misery we see. Let men have light, let them large block of forests gets fragmented into
be pure and spiritually, strong and educated; smaller bits, the edges of all these bits come into
then alone will misery cease in the world. We contact with human activities resulting in the
may convert every house in the country into a degradation of the entire forests. Continuity of
charitable asylum, we may fill the land with forested landscapes and corridors gets disrupted
hospitals, but human misery will continue – affecting several extinction-prone species of
until man's character changes. wildlife. Habitat fragmentation is therefore
considered as the most serious threat to
21. According to the passage, which of the biodiversity conservation. Ad hoc grants of forest
following statements is most likely to lands to mining companies coupled with
be true as the reason for man's rampant illegal mining is aggravating this threat.
miseries ?
(a) The poor economic and social conditions 23. What is the central focus of this
prevailing in society. passage ?
(b) The refusal on the part of man to change (a) Illegal mining in forests
his character. (b) Extinction of wildlife
(c) The absence of physical and material (c) Conservation of nature
help from his society. (d) Disruption of habitat
(d) Ever increasing physical needs due to
changing social structure. 24. What is the purpose of maintaining
the continuity of forested landscapes
and corridors ?
1) Preservation of biodiversity.

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

2) Management of mineral resources. Passage – 11

3) Grant of forest lands for human It was already late when we set out for the next
activities. town, which according to the map was about
fifteen kilometers away on the other side of the
Select the correct answer using the codes hills. There we felt that we would find a bed for
given below: the night. Darkness fell soon after we left the
(a) 1 only village, but luckily we met no one as we drove
(b) 1 and 2 swiftly along the narrow winding road that led to
(c) 2 and 3 the hills. As we climbed higher, it became colder
(d) 1, 2 and 3 and rain began to fall, making it difficult at
times to see the road. I asked John, my
Passage – 10 companion, to drive more slowly. After we had
Seven-year-old Jim came home from the park travelled for about twenty kilometers, there was
without his new bicycle. “An old man and a little still no sign of the town which was marked on
boy borrowed it,” he explained. “They are going the map. We were beginning to get worried. Then
to bring it back at four o’clock”. His parents were without warning, the car stopped and we found
upset that he had given his expensive new we had run out of petrol.
bicycle, but were secretly proud of his kindness
and faith. Came four o’clock, no bicycle. The 27. The author asked John to drive more
parents were anxious. But at 4:30, the door bell slowly because
rang, and there stood a happy man and a boy, (a) The road led to the hills.
with the bicycle and a box of chocolates. Jim (b) John was an inexperienced driver,
suddenly disappeared into his bedroom, and (c) The road was not clearly visible.
then came running out. “All right”, he said, after (d)
3
They were in wilderness.
5
64
examining the bicycle. “You can have your watch
6

back !” 28. The travellers set out for the town

86

although it was getting dark because

71

25. When Jim came home without his (a) They were in a hurry.
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bicycle, his parents (b) The next town was a short distance away
ie

(a) Were angry with him. and was a hill-resort.

op

(b) Were worried. (c) They were in wilderness.

ec

(c) Did not feel concerned. (d) The next town was a short distance away
kl

(d) Were eager to meet the old man and the and promised a good rest for the night.
ar
Sp

little boy.
29. The travellers were worried after
26. Jim returned the watch to the old twenty kilometers because
man and the little boy because (a) It was a lonely countryside.
(a) They gave him chocolates. (b) They probably feared of having lost their
(b) His father was proud of him. way
(c) He was satisfied with the condition of his (c) The rain began to fall
bicycle. (d) It was getting colder as they drove
(d) They were late only by 30 minutes.

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Passage – 12 2013 - Key

A stout old lady was walking with her basket
down the middle of a street in Petrograd to the
01.(b) 02.(d) 03.(a) 04.(a)
great confusion of the traffic and no small peril
05.(c) 06.(d) 07.(c) 08.(b)
to herself. It was pointed out to her that the
09.(d) 10.(b) 11.(c) 12.(d)
pavement was the place for foot-passengers, but
13.(a) 14.(b) 15.(c) 16.(c)
she replied, “I’m going to walk where I like. We’ve
17.(b) 18.(b) 19.(b) 20.(a)
got liberty now”. It did not occur to the dear lady
21.(d) 22.(a) 23.(d) 24.(a)
that if liberty entitled the foot-passenger to walk
25.(b) 26.(c) 27.(c) 28.(d)
down the middle of the road it also entitled the
29.(b) 30.(a) 31.(b) 32.(b)
taxi-driver to drive on the pavement, and that
the end of such liberty would be universal
chaos. Everything would be getting in everybody 2012
else’s way and nobody would anywhere. Passage 1
Individual liberty would have become social The poor especially in market economics need
anarchy. the strength that collectivities offer for creating
more economic, social and political space for
30. It was pointed out to the lady that she themselves, for enhancing their socioeconomic
should walk on the pavement because well-being and voice, and as a protection against
she was free market individualism. It has been argued
(a) A pedestrian. that a group approach to farming, especially in
(b) Carrying a basket. the form of bottom up agricultural production
(c) Stout. collectivities, offers substantial scope for poverty
(d) An old lady. alleviation and empowering the poor as well as
enhancing agricultural productivity. To realize
31. The lady refused to move from the this potential, however, the groups would need
middle of the street because to be voluntary in nature, small in size,
(a) She was not afraid of being killed. participative in decision making and equitable in
(b) She felt that she is entitled to do work sharing and benefit distribution. There are
whatever she liked. many notable examples of such collectivities to
(c) She did not like walking on the be found in varied contexts, such as in
pavement. transitions economies. All of them bear witness
(d) She was confused. to the possibility of successful cooperation under
given conditions. And although the gender
32. The old lady failed to realize that impact of the family cooperatives in the
(a) She was not really free. transition economies are uncertain, the Indian
(b) Her liberty was not unlimited. examples of women-only groups farming offer
(c) She was an old person. considerable potential for benefiting women.
(d) Roads are made for motor vehicles only.
1. Agricultural collectivities such as
group based farming can provide the
rural poor

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

1) Empowerment communities or groups. Individuals are getting

2) Increased agricultural productivity. involved in the public sphere not as ‘atomized’
3) Safeguard against exploitative markets. individuals but as members of primordial
4) Surplus production of agricultural communities drawn on religious or caste
commodities. identity. Community-identity seems to be the
Select the correct Solution: using the codes governing force. It is not therefore surprising
given below: that the so-called peripheral groups continue to
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 maintain their identities with reference to the
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only social groups {caste, religion or sect} to which
(c) 2 and 4 only they belong while getting involved in the political
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only processes despite the fact that their political
goals remain more or less identical. By helping
2. What does the author imply by to articulate the political voice of the
“gender impact”? marginalized, democracy in India has led to ‘a
(a) Women are doubtful participants in loosening of social strictures’ and empowered
cooperatives. the peripherals to be confident of their ability to
(b) Family cooperatives may not include improve the socio economic conditions in which
women they are placed. This is a significant political
(c) Women benefitting from group farming. process that had led to a silent revolution
(d) Women’s role in transition economies is through a meaningful transfer of power from the
highly restrictive. upper caste cities to various subaltern groups
within the democratic framework of public
3. Consider the following assumptions: governance.
1) It is imperative for transition economies 5 3
64
to have agricultural collectivities. 4. According to the passage, what does
6

2) Agricultural productivity can be “deepening of democracy” mean in the

86

increased by group approach to farming. Western context?

71

(a) Consolidation of group and class

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With reference to the above passage which of identities.

ie

these assumptions is/are valid? (b) Democratization translated as greater

op

(a) 1 only involvement of people.

ec

(b) 2 only (c) Democratization as greater involvement

kl

(c) Both 1 and 2 of ‘atomized’ individuals in the public

ar
Sp

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 sphere.

(d) None of the statements a, b and c given
Passage 2 above is correct in this context.
In a typical Western liberal context, deepening of
democracy invariably leads to consolidation of 5. Greater democratization in India has
‘liberal values’. In the Indian context, not necessarily led to
democratization is translated into greater (a) The dilution of caste and communal
involvement of people not as ‘individuals’ which identities in the public sphere.
is a staple to liberal discourse, but as

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

(b) Irrelevance of community identity as turning out of the mind – the creation,
governing force in Indian politics. sustenance and development of self-critical
(c) Marginalization of elite groups in society. awareness and independence of thought. It is an
(d) Relative unimportance of hereditary inner process of moral-intellectual development.
identities over class identities.
7. What do you understand by the
6. What is the “silent revolution” that 'instrumentalist' view of education?
has occurred in the Indian democratic (a) Education is functional and utilitarian in
process? its purposes.
(a) Irrelevance of caste and class hierarchies (b) Education is meant to fulfill human
in political processes needs
(b) Loosening of social strictures in voting (c) The purpose of education is to train the
behavior and patterns. human intellect
(c) Social change through transfer of power (d) Education is meant to achieve moral
from upper caste elites to subaltern development
groups. 8. According to the passage, education
(d) All the statements a), b) and c) given must be respected in itself because
above are correct in this context. (a) It helps to acquire qualifications for
employment.
Passage 3 (b) It helps in upward mobility and
Education, without a doubt, has an important acquiring social status.
functional, instrumental and utilitarian (c) It is an inner process of moral and
dimension. This is revealed when one asks intellectual development
questions such as 'what is the purpose of (d) All the a), b) and c) given above are
education?'. The Solutions, too often, are 'to correct in this context.
acquire qualifications for employment/upward
mobility', 'wider/higher (in terms of income) 9. Education is a process in which
opportunities', and 'to meet the needs for trained (a) Students are converted into trained
human power in diverse field for national professionals.
development'. But in its deepest sense education (b) Opportunities for higher income are
is not instrumentalist. That is to say, it is not to generated
be justified outside of itself because it leads to (c) individuals develop self-critical
the acquisition of formal skills or of certain awareness and independence of thought
desired psychological – social attributes. It must (d) qualifications for upward mobility are
be respected in itself. Education is thus not a acquired
commodity to be acquired or possessed and then
used, but a process of inestimable importance to Passage 4
individuals and society, although it can and Chemical pesticides lose their role in sustainable
does have enormous use value. Education then, agriculture if the pests evolve resistance. The
is a process of expansion and conversion, not in evolution of the pesticide resistance is simply
the sense of conversion turning students into natural selection in action. It is almost certain to
doctors or engineers, but the widening and occur when vast numbers of a genetically

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

variable population are killed. One or a few social and health costs of using pesticides have
individuals may be unusually resistant (perhaps to be ignored. In general the use of pesticides is
because they possess an enzyme that can justified by objective measures such as 'lives
detoxify the pesticide). If the pesticide is applied saved', 'economic efficiency of food production'
repeatedly, each successive generation of the and 'total food produced'. In these very
pest will contain a larger proportion of resistant fundamental senses, their use may be described
individuals. Pests typically have a high intrinsic as sustainable. In practice, sustainability
rate of reproduction, and so a few individuals in depends on continually developing new
one generation may give rise to hundreds or pesticides that keep at least one step ahead of
thousands in the next, and resistance spreads the pests – pesticides that are less persistent,
very rapidly in a population. biodegradable and more accurately targeted at
This problem was often ignored in the past, even the pests.
though the first case of DDT
(dichlorodiphenyltrichloroethane) resistance was 10. “The evolution of pesticide resistance
reported as early as 1946. There is an is natural selection in action.” What
exponential increase in the numbers of does it actually imply?
invertebrates that have evolved resistance and in (a) It is very natural for many organisms to
the number pesticides against which resistance have pesticide resistance.
has evolved. Resistance has been recorded in (b) Pesticide resistance among organisms is
every family of arthropod pests (including a universal phenomenon.
dipterans such as mosquitoes and house flies, (c) Some individuals in any given population
as well as beetles, moths, wasps, fleas, lice and show resistance after the application of
mites) as well as in weeds and plant pathogens. pesticides
Take the Alabama leaf worm, a moth pest of (d)
3
None of the statements a), b) and c) given
5
64
cotton, as an example. It has developed above is correct.
6

resistance in one or more regions of the world to

86

aldrin, DDT, dieldrin, endrin, lindane and 11. With reference to the passage,
71

toxaphene. consider the following statements:

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If chemical pesticides brought nothing but 1) Use of chemical pesticides has become
ie

problems, - if their use was intrinsically and imperative in all the poor countries of the
op

acutely unsustainable – then they would already world.

ec

have fallen out of widespread use. This has not 2) Chemical pesticides should not have any
kl

happened. Instead, their rate of production has role in sustainable agriculture

ar
Sp

increased rapidly. The ratio of cost to benefit for 3) One pest can develop resistance to many
the individual agricultural producer has pesticides
remained in favour of pesticide use. In the USA, Which of the statements given above is/are
insecticides have been estimated to benefit the correct?
agricultural products to the tune of around $5 (a) 1 and 2 only
for every $1 spent. (b) 3 only
Moreover, in many poorer countries, the (c) 1 and 3 only
prospect of imminent mass starvation, or of an (d) 1, 2 and 3
epidemic disease, are so frightening that the

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

12. Though the problems associated with 3) The social and health costs of pesticide
the use of chemical pesticides is use are generally ignored in poor and
known for a long time, their developing countries.
widespread use has not waned. Why? Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) Alternatives to chemical pesticides do not correct?
exist at all. (a) 1 only
(b) New pesticides are not invented at all. (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) Pesticides are biodegradable. (c) 2 only
(d) None of the statements a), b) and c) given (d) 1, 2 and 3
above is correct.
15. What does the passage imply?
13. How do pesticides act as agents for (a) Alternative options to chemical pesticides
the selection of resistant individuals should be promoted.
in any pest population? (b) Too much use of chemicals is not good
1) It is possible that in a pest population for the ecosystem.
the individuals will behave differently (c) There is no scope for the improvement of
due to their genetic makeup. pesticides and making their use
2) Pests do possess the ability to detoxify sustainable
the pesticides. (d) Both the statements a) and b) above are
3) Evolution of pesticide resistance is correct.
equally distributed in pest population.
Which of the statements given above is/are Passage 5
correct? Today's developing economies use much less
(a) 1 only energy per capita than developed countries such
(b) 1 and 2 only as the United State did at similar incomes,
(c) 3 only showing the potential for lower-carbon growth.
(d) 1, 2 and 3 Adaptation and mitigation need to be integrated
into a climate-smart development strategy that
14. Why is the use of chemical pesticides increases resilience, reduces the threat of
generally justified by giving the further global warming, and improves
examples of poor and developing development outcomes. Adaptation and
countries? mitigation measures can advance development,
1) Developed countries can afford to do and prosperity can raise incomes and foster
away with use of pesticides by adapting better institutions. A healthier population living
to organic farming, but it is imperative in better – built houses and with access to bank
for poor and developing countries to use loans and social security is better equipped to
chemical pesticides. deal with a changing climate and its
2) In poor and developing countries, the consequences. Advancing robust, resilient
pesticide addresses the problem of development policies that promote adaptation is
epidemic diseases of crops and eases the needed today because changes is the climate,
food problem. already begun, will increase even in the short
term. The spread of economic prosperity has

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

always been intertwined with adaptation to Select the correct Solution: using the codes
changing ecological conditions. But as growth given below:
has altered the environment and as (a) 1 only
environmental change has accelerated, (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
sustaining growth and adaptability demands (c) 1 and 4 only
greater capacity to understand our environment, (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
generate new adaptive technologies and
practices, and diffuse them widely. As economic 17. What does low-carbon growth imply in
historians have explained, much of humankind's the present context?
creative potential has directed at adapting to the 1) More emphasis on the use of renewable
changing world. But adaptation cannot cope sources of energy.
with all the impacts related to climate change, 2) Less emphasis on manufacturing sector
especially as larger changes unfold in the long and more emphasis on agricultural
term. Countries cannot grow out of harm's way sector.
fast enough to match the changing climate. And 3) Switching over from monoculture
some growth strategies, whether driven by the practices to mixed farming
government or the market, can also add to 4) Less demand for goods and services.
vulnerability – particularly if they over exploit Select the correct Solution: using the codes
natural resources. Under the Soviet development given below:
plan, irrigated cotton cultivation expanded in (a) 1 only
water-stressed Central Asia and led to the near (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
disappearance of the Aral Sea, threatening the (c) 1 and 4 only
livelihoods of fishermen, herders and farmers. (d) None of the above implies low-carbon
And clearing mangroves- the natural coastal growth 53
64
buffers against storm surges – to make way for
6

intensive farming or housing development, 18. Which of the following conditions

86

increases the physical vulnerability of coastal is/are necessary for the sustainable
71

settlements, whether in Guinea or in Louisiana. economic growth?

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1) Spreading of economic prosperity more.

ie

16. Which of the following conditions of 2) Popularizing/spreading of adaptive

op

growth can add to vulnerability? technologies widely

ec

1) When the growth occurs due to excessive 3) Investing on research in adaptation and
kl

exploitation of mineral resources and mitigation technologies.

ar
Sp

forests Select the correct Solution: using the codes

2) When the growth brings about a change given below:
in humankind's creative potential. (a) 1 only
3) When the growth is envisaged only for (b) 2 and 3 only
providing houses and social security to (c) 1 and 3 only
the people. (d) 1, 2, and 3
4) When the growth occurs due to emphasis
on farming only.

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

19. Which of the following inferences can (d) Some countries resort to over
be made from the passage? exploitation of natural resources for the
1) Rainfed crops should not be cultivated in sake of rapid development.
irrigated areas
2) Farming under water-deficient areas Passage 6
should not be a part of development Invasions of exotic species into new geographical
strategy. areas sometimes occur naturally without human
agency. However, human actions have increased
Select the correct Solution: using the codes this trickle to a flood. Human caused
given below: introductions may occur either accidently or as
(a) 1 only a consequence of human transport, or
(b) 2 only intentionally but illegally to serve some private
(c) Both 1 and 2 purpose or legitimately to procure some hoped-
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 for public benefit by bringing a pest under
control, producing new agricultural products or
20. Consider the following assumptions: providing novel recreational opportunities. Many
1) Sustainable economic growth demands introduced species are assimilated into
the use of creative potential of man. communities without much obvious effect.
2) Intensive agriculture can lead to However some have been responsible for
ecological backlash. dramatic changes to native species and native
3) Spread of the economic prosperity can communities. For example, the accidental
adversely affect the ecology and introduction of the brown tree snake,
environment Boigairregularis into Guam, an island in the
With reference to the passage, which of the pacific, has through nest predation reduced 10
above assumptions is/are valid? endemic forest bird species to the point of
(a) 1 only extinction.
(b) 2 and 3 only One of the major reasons for the world’s great
(c) 1 and 3 only biodiversity is the occurrence of centres of
(d) 1, 2 and 3 endemism so that similar habitats in different
parts of the world are occupied by different
21. Which one of the following statements groups of species that happen it have evolved
constitutes the central theme of this there. If the species naturally had access to
passage? everywhere on the globe, we might expect a
(a) Countries with greater economic relatively small number of successful species to
prosperity are better equipped to deal become dominant in each biome. The extent to
with the consequences of climate change. which this homogenisation can happen naturally
(b) Adaptation and mitigation should be is restricted by the limited powers of dispersal of
integrated with development strategies most species in the face of the physical barriers
(c) Rapid economic growth should not be that exist to dispersal. By virtue of the transport
pursued by both developed and opportunities offered by humans, these barriers
developing economies. have been breached by an ever-increasing
number of exotic species. The effects of

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

introductions have been to convert a hugely (c) 1 and 3 only

diverse range of local community compositions (d) 1, 2 and 3
into something much more homogenous.
It would be wrong, however, to conclude that 24. How is homogenization prevented
introducing species to a region will inevitably under natural conditions?
cause a decline in species richness there. For (a) Evolution of groups of species specific to
example, there are numerous species of plants, local habitats.
invertebrates and vertebrates found in (b) Presence of oceans and mountain ranges
continental Europe but absent from the British (c) Strong adaptation of groups of specific to
Isles (many because they have so far failed to local physical and climatic conditions
recolonize after the last glaciations).Their (d) All the statements (a), (b) and (c) given
introduction would be likely to augment British above are correct in this context.
biodiversity. The significant detrimental effect
noted above arises where aggressive species 25. How have the human beings
provide a novel challenge to endemic biotas ill- influenced the biodiversity?
equipped to deal with them. 1) By smuggling live organism
2) By building highways
22. With reference to the passage, which 3) By making ecosystems sensitive so that
of the following statements is correct? new species are not allowed
(a) Introduction of exotic species into new 4) By ensuring that new species do not
geographical areas always leads to have major impact on local species.
reduced biodiversity.
(b) Exotic species introduced by man into Which of the statements given above are
new areas have always greatly altered the correct? 5 3
64
native ecosystems. (a) 1 and 2
6

(c) Man is the only reason to convert a (b) 2 and 3

86

hugely diverse range of local community (c) 1 and 3

71

compositions into more homogenous (d) 2 and 4

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ones.
ie

(d) None of the statements (a), (b), and (c) is 26. What can be the impact of invasion of
op

correct in this context. exotic species on an ecosystem?

ec

1) Erosion of endemic species.

kl

23. Why does man introduce exotic 2) Change in the species composition of the
ar
Sp

species into new geographical areas? community of the ecosystem

1) To bread exotic species with local Select the correct Solution: using the codes
varieties. given below:
2) To increase agricultural productivity. (a) 1 only
3) for beautification and landscaping (b) 2 only
Which of the above statements is/are (c) both 1 and 2
correct? (d) neither 1 nor 2
(a) 1 only
(b) 2and 3only

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

Passage 7 Even though the question has often been asked

Most champions of democracy have been rather whether political freedom is “conductive to
reticent in suggesting that democracy would development”, we must not miss the crucial that
itself promote development and enhancement of political liberties and democratic rights are
social welfare – they have tended to see them as among the “constitutive components” of
good but distinctly separate and largely development does not have to be established
independent goals. The detractors of democracy, indirectly through their contribution to the
on the other hand, seemed to have been quite growth of GNP.
willing to express their diagnosis of what they
see as serious tensions between democracy and 27. According to the passage, why is a
development. The theorists of the practical spirit serious tension perceived between
- “Make up your mind: do you want democracy, democracy and development by the
or instead, do you want development?”- often detractors of democracy?
came ,at least to start with , from East Asian (a) Democracy and development are distinct
countries, and their voice grew in influence as and separate goals
several of these countries were immensely (b) Economic growth can be promoted
successful – through the 1970s and 1980s and successfully without pursuing a
even later – in promoting economic growth democratic system of governance
without pursuing democracy. (c) Non-democratic regimes deliver economic
To deal with these issues we have to pay growth faster and far more successfully
particular attention to both the content of what than democratic ones.
can be called development and to the (d) All the statements (a), (b) and (c) given
interpretation of democracy (in particular to the above are correct in this context.
respective roles of voting and of public
reasoning). The assessment of development 28. According to the passage, what should
cannot be divorced from the lives that people be the ultimate assessment/aim/view
can lead and the real freedom that they enjoy. of development?
Development can scarcely be seen merely in (a) Rise in the per capita income and
terms of enhancement of inanimate objects of industrial growth rates.
convenience, such as a rise in the GNP (or in (b) Improvement in the Human Development
personal incomes), or industrialisation – Index and GNP.
important as they may be as means to the real (c) Rise in the savings and consumption
ends. Their value must depend on what they do trends.
to the lives and freedom of the people involved, (d) Extent of real freedom that citizens
which must be central to the idea of enjoy.
development.
If development is understood in a broader way, 29. What does a “constitutive” connection
with a focus on human lives, then it becomes between democracy and development
immediately clear that the relation between imply?
development and democracy has to be seen (a) The relation between them has to be
partly in terms of their constitutive connection, seen through external links.
rather than only through their external links.

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

(b) Political and civil rights only can lead to 1) It is desirable that the impact of Foreign
economic development Direct investment should be pro-
(c) Political liberties and democratic rights competitive.
are essential elements of development. 2) The entry of foreign investors invariably
(d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) leads to the inflated prices in domestic
given above is correct in this context. markets.
Which of the statements given above is/are
Passage 8 correct?
The need for Competition Law becomes more (a) 1 only
evident when foreign direct investment (FDI) is (b) 2 only
liberalised. The impact of FDI is not always pro- (c) Both 1 and 2
competitive. Very often FDI takes the form of a (d) Neither 1 nor 2
foreign corporation acquiring a domestic
enterprise or establishing a joint venture with 31. According to the passage, how does a
one. By making such an acquisition the foreign foreign investor dominate the relevant
investor may substantially lessen competition domestic market?
and gain a dominant position in the relevant 1) Multinational companies get accustomed
market, thus charging higher prices. Another to domestic laws.
scenario is where the affiliates of two separate 2) Foreign companies establish joint
multinational companies (MNCs) have been ventures with domestic companies.
established in competition with one another in a 3) Affiliates in a particular market/sector
particular developing economy, following the lose their independence as their parent
liberisation of FDI. Subsequently, the parent companies overseas merge.
companies overseas merge. With the affiliates no 4)
3
Foreign companies lower the cost of their
5
64
longer remaining independent, competition in products as compared to that of products
6

the host country may be artificially inflated. of domestic companies.

86

Most of these adverse consequences of mergers Which of the statements given above are
71

and acquisitions by MNCs can be avoided if an correct?

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effective competition law is in place. Also, an (a) 1 and 2 only

ie

economy that has implemented an effective (b) 2 and 3 only

op

competition law is in a better position to attract (c) 1, 2 and 3 only

ec

FDI than one that has not. This is not just (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
kl

because most MNCs are expected to be

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Sp

accustomed to the operation of such a law in 32. What is the inference from this
their home countries and know how to deal with passage?
such concerns but also that MNCs expect (a) Foreign investors and multinational
competition authorities to ensure a level playing companies always dominate domestic
field between domestic and foreign firms. market.
(b) It is not in the best interest of domestic
30. With reference to the passage, economy to allow mergers company.
consider the following statements:

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

(c) With competition law, it is easy to ensure 35. The author of the passage seems to
a level playing field between domestic suggest that
and foreign firms. (a) It is possible to adjust one-self to
(d) For countries with open economy Foreign uncongenial surroundings.
Direct investment is essential for growth. (b) The conditions in Indian prisons are not
bad
Passage 9 (c) It is not difficult to spend one's time in
For fourteen and half months I lived in my little prison
cell or room in Dehradun jail, and I began to feel (d) There is a need to improve the conditions
as if I was almost a part of it. I was familiar with in our jails.
every bit of it, I knew every mark and dent on
the whitewashed walls and on the uneven floors Passage 10
and on the ceiling with the moth eaten rafters. We started pitching the highest camp that has
In the little yard outside I greeted little tufts of been ever made. Everything took five times as
grass and odd bits of stone as old friends. I was long as it would have taken in the place where
not alone in my cell, for several colonies of wasp there was enough air to breathe; but at last we
and hornets lived there, and many lizards found got tent up, and when we crawled in, it was not
the home behind the rafters, emerging in the too bad. There was only a light wind and inside
evening in the search of prey. it was not too cold for us to take off our gloves.
At night most climbers take off their boots; but I
33. Which of the following explains best prefer to keep them on. Hilary, on the other
the sentence in the passage “I was hand took his off and lain them next to his
almost a part of it”? sleeping bag.
(a) I was not alone in the cell
(b) I was familiar with every bit of the cell 36. What does the expression “pitching
(c) I greeted little tufts of grass like old the highest camp” imply?
friends. (a) They reached the summit of the highest
(d) I felt quite at home in the cell mountain in the world.
(b) Those who climbed that far earlier did
34. The passage attempts to describe: not pitch any camp.
(a) The general conditions of the country's (c) So far nobody climbed that high.
jail (d) They were too many climbers and needed
(b) The prisoner's capacity to notice the to pitch a big camp
minute details of his surroundings
(c) The prisoner's conscious efforts to 37. They took a long time to finish the
overcome the loneliness work because:
(d) The prisoner's ability to live happily with (a) They were very tired.
other creatures (b) There was not enough air to breathe
(c) It was very cold
(d) It was very dark

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

38. When they crawled into the tent 2012 - Key

(a) They took off their gloves because it was
not very cold
01.(b) 02.(c) 03.(b) 04.(c)
(b) They could not take off their gloves
05.(b) 06.(c) 07.(a) 08.(c)
because it was very cold.
09.(c) 10.(c) 11.(b) 12.(d)
(c) They took of their gloves though it was
13.(b) 14.(c) 15.(b) 16.(a)
very cold.
17.(d) 18.(b) 19.(d) 20.(b)
(d) They did not take off their gloves though
21.(d) 22.(b) 23.(b) 24.(a)
it was not very cold.
25.(c) 26.(a) 27.(d) 28.(c)
29.(a) 30.(b) 31.(c) 32.(c)
Passage 11
33.(b) 34.(c) 35.(a) 36.(c)
A local man, staying on the top of the floor of an
37.(b) 38.(a) 39.(b) 40.(d)
old wooden house, was awakened at midnight by
fire. Losing his way in the smoke-filled passage,
he missed the stairway and went into another 2011
room. He picked a bundle to protect his face Passage - 1
from fire and immediately fell through the floor For achieving inclusive growth there is-a critical
below where he managed to escape through a need to rethink the-role of the State. The early
clear doorway. The “bundle” proved to be the debate among economists about the size of the
baby of the Mayor's wife. The “hero” was Government can be misleading. The need of the
congratulated. hour is to have an enabling Government. India is
too large and complex a nation for the State to
39. The man went to another room be able to deliver all that is needed. Asking the
because
3
Government to produce all the essential goods,
5
64
(a) He did not know where the stairway was create all the necessary jobs, and keep a curb on
6

(b) The passage was full of smoke the prices of all goods is to lead to a large
86

(c) He was extremely nervous cumbersome bureaucracy and widespread

71

(d) He stumbled on bundle corruption. The aim must be to stay with the
r-9

objective of inclusive growth that was laid down

ie

40. The man was called hero because by the founding fathers of the nation and also to
op

(a) Expressed his willingness to risk his life take a more modern view of what the State can
ec

to save others realistically deliver. This is what leads to the

kl

(b) Managed to escape from fire idea of an enabling State, that is, a Government
ar
Sp

(c) Showed great courage in fighting the fire. that does not try to directly deliver to the citizens
(d) Saved a life everything that they need. Instead, it (1) creates
an enabling ethos for the market so that
individual enterprise can flourish and citizens
can, for the most part, provide for the needs of
one another, and (2) steps in to help those who
do not manage to do well for themselves, for
there will always be individuals, no matter what
the system, who need support and help. Hence

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

we need a Government that, when it comes to 3. What constitutes an enabling

the market, sets effective, incentive-compatible Government?
rules and remains on the sidelines with minimal 1. A large bureaucracy.
interference, and, at the same time, plays an 2. Implementation of welfare programmes
important role in directly helping the poor by through representatives.
ensuring that they get basic education and 3. Creating an ethos that helps individual
health services and receive adequate nutrition enterprise.
and food. 4. Providing resources to those who are
underprivileged.
1. According to passage: 5. Offering direct help to the poor regarding
1) The objective of inclusive growth was laid 6. basic services.
down by the founding fathers of the Select the correct answer from the codes
nation. given below:
2) Need of the hour is to have an enabling (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
Government. (b) 4 and 5 only
3) The Government should engage in (c) 3, 4 and 5 only
maximum interference in market (d)1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
processes.
4) There is a need to change the size of the 4. Why is the State unable to deliver "all
Government. that is needed"?
1) It does not have sufficient bureaucracy.
Which of the statements given above are 2) It does not promote inclusive growth.
correct ? Select the correct answer from the codes
(a) 1 and 2 only given below :
(b) 2 and 3 only (a) 1 only
(c) 1 and 4 only (b) 2 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. According to the passage, the strategy
of inclusive growth can be effected by 5. What is essential message being
focussing on conveyed by the author of the
(a) meeting all the needs of every citizen in passage?
the country. (a) The objectives of inclusive growth laid
(b) Increasing the regulations over the down by the founding fathers of the
manufacturing sector. nation should be remembered.
(c) Controlling the distribution of (b) The Government needs to make available
manufacturing goods. more schools and health services.
(d) Delivery of the basic services to the (c) The Government needs to establish
deprived sections of the society. markets and industries to meet the
needs of the poor strata of the society.
(d) There is a need to rethink the role of the
State in achieving inclusive growth.

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Passage – 2 3) Quest for social equality and individual

The concept of 'creative society' refers to a phase freedom.
of development of a society in which a large 4) Urge for granting privileges and self-
number of potential contradictions become respect to disparaged sections of the
articulate and active. This is most evident when society.
oppressed social groups get politically mobilised Select the correct answer using the codes
and demand their rights. The upsurge of the given below:
peasants and tribals, the movements for regional (a) 1 and 3 only
autonomy and self-determination, the (b) 2 and 4 only
environmental movements, and the women's (c) 3 and 4 only
movements in the developing countries are signs (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
of emergence of creative society in contemporary
times. The forms of social movements and their 8. With reference to the passage consider
intensity may vary from country to country and the following statements:
place to place within a country. But the very 1) To be a creative society, it is essential to
presence of movements for social transformation have a variety of social movements.
in various spheres of a society indicates the 2) To be a creative society, it is imperative
emergence of a creative society in a country. to have potential contradictions and
conflicts.
6. What does the author imply by
"creative society"? Which of the statements given above is/are
1) A society where diverse art forms and correct?
literary writings seek incentive. (a) 1 only
2) A society where social inequalities are (b) 2 only 5 3
64
accepted as the norm. (c) Both 1 and 2
6

3) A society where a large number of (d) Neither 1 nor 2

86

contradictions are recognised.

71

4) A society where' the exploited and the Passage – 3

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oppressed groups grow conscious of their Ecosystems provide people with a variety of
ie

human rights and upliftment. goods and services; food, clean water, clean air,
op

Select the correct answer using the codes flood control, soil stabilization, pollination,
ec

given below : climate regulation, spiritual fulfilment and

kl

(a) 1, 2 and 3 aesthetic enjoyment, to name just a few. Most of

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(b) 4 only these benefits either are irreplaceable or the

(c) 3 and 4 technology necessary to replace them is
(d) 2 and 4 prohibitively expensive. For example, potable
fresh water can be provided by desalinating sea-
7. What according to the passage are the water, but only at great cost. The rapidly
manifestations of social movements? expanding human population has greatly
1) Aggressiveness and being incendiary. modified the Earth's ecosystems to meet their
2) Instigation by external forces. increased requirements of some of the goods and
services, particularly food, fresh water, timber,

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

fibre and fuel. These modifications have Which of the statements given above is/are
contributed substantially to human well being correct?
and economic development. The benefits have (a) 1 only
not been equally distributed. Some people have (b) 2
actually been harmed by these changes. (c) 1 and 3
Moreover, short-term increases in some (d) None of the statements given above
ecosystem goods and services have come at the
cost of the long-term degradation of others. For 11. With reference to the passage,
example, efforts to increase the production of consider the following statements:
food and fibre have decreased the ability of some 1) It is imperative to modify the Earth's
ecosystems to provide clean water, regulate ecosystems for the well being of
flooding and support biodiversity. mankind.
2) Technology can never replace all the
9. With reference to the passage, goods and services provided by
consider the following statements. ecosystems.
Expanding human' population has an Which of the statements given above is/are
adverse effect on: correct ?
1) Spiritual fulfilment (a) 1 only
2) Aesthetic enjoyment (b) 2 only
3) Potable fresh water (c) Both 1 and 2
4) Production of food and fibre (d) Neither 1 nor 2
5) Biodiversity
Which of the statements given above are Passage – 4
correct ? A moral act must be our own act; must spring
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only from our own will. If we act mechanically, these
(b) 2, 4 and 5 only is no moral content in our act. Such action
(c) 3 and 5 only would be moral, If we think it proper to act like a
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 machine and do so. For, in doing so, we use our
discrimination. We should bear in mind the
10. The passage mentions that "some distinction between acting mechanically and
people have actually been harmed by acting intentionally. It may be moral of a king to
these changes." What does it imply? pardon a culprit. But the messenger carrying
1) The rapid expansion of population has out the order of pardon plays only a mechanical
adversely affected some people. part in the king's moral act. But if the
2) Sufficient efforts have not been made to messenger were to carry out the king's order
increase the production of food and fibre. considering it to be his duty, his action would be
3) In the short term some people may be a moral one. How can a man understand
harmed, but in the long term everyone morality who does not use his own intelligence
will benefit from modifications In the and power of thought, but lets himself be swept
Earth's ecosystems. along like a log of wood by a current? Sometimes
a man defies convention and acts on his own
with a view to absolute good.

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

12. Which of the following statements (c) 2 and 3

best describe/describes the thought of (d) 1 and 4
the writer?
1) A moral act calls for using our discretion. Passage – 5
2) Man should react to a situation A country under foreign domination seeks
immediately. escape from the present in dreams of a vanished
3) Man must do his duty. 4. Man should be age, and finds consolation in visions of past
able to defy convention in order to be greatness. That is a foolish and dangerous
moral. pastime in which many of us indulge. An equally
Select the correct answer from the codes questionable practice for us in India is to
given below : imagine that we are still spiritually great though
(a) 1 only we have come down, in the world in other
(b) 1 and 3 respects. Spiritual or any other greatness cannot
(c) 2 and 3 be founded on lack of freedom and opportunity,
(d) 1 and 4 or on starvation and misery. Many western
writers have encouraged that notion that Indians
13. Which of the following statements is are other-worldly. I suppose the poor and
the nearest definition of moral action, unfortunate in every country become to some
according to the writer? extent other-worldly, unless they become
(a) it is a mechanical action based on official revolutionaries, for this world is evidently not
orders from superiors. meant for them. So also subject peoples.
(b) It is an action based on our sence of As a man grows to maturity he is not entirely
discretion. engrossed in, or satisfied with, the external
(c) It is a clever action based on the clarity
3
objective world. He seeks also some inner
5
64
of purpose. meaning, some psychological and physical
6

(d) It is a religious action based on satisfactions. So also with peoples and

86

understanding. civilizations as they mature and grow adult.

71

Every civilization and every people exhibit these

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14. The passage contains a statement parallel streams of an external life and an
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"lets himself be swept along like a log internal life. Where they meet or keep close to
op

of wood by a current." Among the each other, there is an equilibrium and stability.
ec

following statements, which is/are When they diverge conflict arises and the crises
kl

nearest in meaning to this? that torture the mind and spirit.

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Sp

1) A person does not use his own reason.

2) He is susceptible to influence/pressure. 15. The passage mentions that "this world
3) He cannot withstand is evidently not meant for them". It
difficulties/challenges. refers to people who
4) He is like a log of wood. 1) seek freedom from foreign domination.
Select the correct answer using the codes 2) live in starvation and misery.
given below: 3) become revolutionaries.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2

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Which of the statements given above is/are 18. According to the passage, the torture
correct ? of the mind and spirit is caused
(a) 1 and 2 (a) by the impact of foreign domination.
(b) 2 only (b) by the desire to escape from foreign
(c) 2 and 3 domination and find consolation in
(d) 3 only visions of past greatness.
(c) due to lack of equilibrium between an
16. Consider the following assumptions: external life and an internal life.
1) A country under foreign domination (d) due to one's inability to be either
cannot indulge in spiritual pursuit. revolutionary or other-worldly.
2) Poverty is an impediment in the spiritual
pursuit. Passage – 6
3) Subject peoples may become other- During a party, a person was exposed to
wordly. contaminated water. A few days later, he
With reference to the passage, which of the developed fever and loose motions. He suffered
above assumptions is/are valid ? for some days before going to a doctor for
(a) 1 and 2 treatment. On starting the treatment, he soon
(b) 2 only became better and recovered completely a few
(c) 2 and 3 days later. The following graph shows different
(d) 3 only phases of the person's disease condition as
regions A, B, C, D and E of the curve.
17. The passage thematically centres on
(a) the state of mind of oppressed people
(b) starvation and misery
(c) the growth of civilization
(d) body, mind and spirit of people in
general
The essence of the passage is that when a
person is dissatisfied with external world he
seeks inner meaning.
19. Which region/regions of the curve
This refers directly to the state of mind of the
correspond/corresponds to incubation
oppressed people as in the passage. Hence, (a)
phase of the infection ?
Option (b) is a reason why a person is issatisfied
(a) A only
with the external world, so it cannot be the
(b) B only
entral idea.
(c) Band C
Option (c) is too general.
(d) No part of the curve indicates the
In option (d), 'people in general' makes it
incubation phase
incorrect.
The passage does not talk about people in
general, it talks about the oppressed people in
the society.

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

20. Which region of the curve indicates bed extended farther down into the intertidal
that the person began showing the zone, showing that sea stars are able to
symptoms of infection ? eliminate mussels completely where they are
(a) A covered with water most of the time. Second,
(b) B and more dramatically, 28 species of animals
(c) C and algae disappeared from the sea star removal
(d) D zone. Eventually only Mytilus, the dominant
competitor, occupied the entire substratum.
21. Which region of the curve indicates Through its effect on competitive relationships,
that the treatment yielded effective predation by Pisaster largely determines which
relief? species live in these rocky intertidal ecosystems.
(a) C
(b) D 22. What is the crux of the passage ?
(c) E (a) Sea star has a preferred prey.
(d) The curve does not indicate the (b) A preferred prey determines the survival
treatment of a keystone species.
(c) Keystone species ensures species
Passage – 7 diversity.
A species that exerts. an influence out of (d) Sea star is the only keystone species on
proportion to its abundance in an ecosystem is the Pacific coast of North America.
called a keystone species. The keystone species
may influence both the species richness of 23. With reference to the passage,
communities and the flow of energy and consider the following statements :
materials through ecosystems. The sea star 1) Mussels-are generally the dominant
Pisaster the flow of energy and materials species in intertidal ecosystems.
through ecosystems. The sea star 2) The survival of sea stars is generally
Pisasterochraceus, which lives in rocky intertidal determined by the abundance of
ecosystems on the Pacific coast of North mussels.
America, is also an example of a keystone Which of the statements given above is /are
species. Its preferred prey is the mussel correct?
Mytiluscalifornianus. In the absence of sea- (a) 1 only
stars, these mussels crowd out other (b) 2 only
competitors in a broad belt of the intertidal zone. (c) Both 1 and 2
By consuming mussels, sea star creates bare (d) Neither 1 nor 2
spaces that are taken over by a variety of other
species. A study at the University of washington 24. Which of the following is/are implied
demonstrated the influence of Pisaster on by the passage ?
species richness by removing sea stars from 1) Mussels are always hard competitors for
selected parts of the intertidal zone repeatedly sea stars.
over a period of five years. Two major changes 2) Sea stars of the Pacific coast have
occurred in the areas from which sea stars were reached the climax of their evolution.
removed. First, the lower edge of the 46. mussel

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3) Sea stars constitute an important battle fought on behalf of a child is eventually

component in the energy flow in won, it may be of little use to the boy or girl
intertidal ecosystem. because the opportunity missed at school during
Which of the statements given above is/are childhood cannot serve the same purpose later
correct? in life. This may be painfully true for girls
(a) 1 and 2 because our society permits them only a short
(b) 2 only childhood, if at all. The Right to Education (RTE)
(c) 1 and 3 has become law at a point in India's history
(d) 3 only when the ghastly practice of female infanticide
has resurfaced in the form of foeticide. This is
25. Consider the following assumptions: "symptomatic of a deeper turmoil" in society
1) The food chains/food web in an which compounding the traditional obstacles to
ecosystem are influenced by keystone the education of girls. "Tenacious prejudice
species. against the intellectual potential of girls runs
2) The presence of keystone species is a across our cultural diversity and the system of
specific characteristic of aquatic education has not been able to address it.
ecosystems.
3) If the keystone species is completely 26. With reference to the passage,
removed from an ecosystem, it will lead consider the following statements:
to the collapse of the ecosystem. 1) When children are denied education,
With reference to the passage, which of the adult society does not act on behalf of
above assumptions is/are valid? them.
(a) 1 only 2) Right to Education as a law cannot be
(b) 2 and 3 only enforced in the country.
(c) 1 and 3 only Which of the statements given above is/are
(d) 1, 2 and 3 correct ?
(a) 1 only
Passage – 8 (b) 2 only
Now India's children have a right to receive at (c) Both 1 and 2
least eight years of education, the gnawing (d) Neither 1 nor 2
question is whether' it will remain 'on paper' or
'become a reality. One hardly needs a reminder 27. According to the passage, what could
that this right is different from the others be the traditional obstacles to the
enshrined in the Constitution, that the education of girls?
beneficiary - a six year old child cannot demand 1) Inability of parents to fight a legal battle
it, nor can she or he fight a legal battle when the when the Right to Education is denied to
right is denied or violated. In all cases, it is the their children.
adult society which must act on behalf of the 2) The traditional way of thinking about
child. In another peculiarity, where a child's girl's role in society.
right to education is denied, no compensation 3) The prejudice against the intellectual
offered later can be adequate or relevant. This is potential of girls.
so because childhood does not last if a legal 4) Improper system of education.

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

Select the correct answer from the codes (c) The legal fight to get education for
given below: children is often protracted and
(a) 1 and 2 only prohibitive.
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) There is no sufficient substitute for
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only education received in childhood.
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Passage – 9
28. On the basis of the passage, consider He walked several miles that day but could not
the following statements: get anything to eat or drink except some dry
1) Right to Education is a legal right and bread and some water, which he got from
not a fundamental right. cottagers and farmers. As night fell, he slept
2) For realising the goal of universal under a haystack lying in a meadow. He felt
education, the education system in the frightened at first, for the wind blew awfully over
country must be made identical to that of the empty fields. He felt cold and hungry, and
developed countries. was feeling more lonely than he had ever felt
Which of the statements given above is/are before. He however, soon fell asleep, being much
correct? tired with his long walk. When he got up next
(a) 1 only day, he was feeling terribly hungry so he
(b) 2 only purchased a loaf of bread with a few coins that
(c) Both 1 and 2 he had.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
31. When the night fell, he slept
29. Which one of the following statements (a) in the open field
conveys the key message of the (b) under a pile of dry grass
passage? (c) in a farmer's cottage
(a) India has declared that education is (d) under a tree
compulsory for its children.
(b) Adult society is not keen on 32. He soon fell asleep because
implementing the Right to Education. a) he was exhausted
(c) The Right to Education, particularly of a b) he was all alone
girl child, needs to be safeguarded. c) he had not slept for days
(d) The system of education should be d) he was very frightened
address the issue of right to education.
33. With reference to the passage,
30. Which one of the following statements consider the following statements :
conveys the inference of the passage? 1) He was walking through the countryside,
(a) The society has a tenacious prejudice 2) The cottagers and farmers gave his
against the intellectual potential of girls. enough food so that he could sleep at
(b) Adults cannot be relied upon to fight on night without feeling hungry.
behalf of children for their Right to
Education.

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RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

Which of the statements given above is/are Passage –11

correct ? In spring, polar bear mothers emerge from dens
(a) 1 only with three month old cubs. The mother bear has
(b) 2 only fasted for as long as eight months but that does
(c) Both 1 and 2 not stop the young from demanding full access
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 to her remaining reserves. If there are triplets,
the most persistent stands to gain an extra meal
Passage –10 and it may have the meal at the expense of
I opened the bag and packed the boots in; and others. The smallest of the litter forfeits many
then, just as I was going to close it, a horrible meals to stronger siblings. Females are
idea occurred to me - Had I packed my protective of their cubs but tend to ignore family
toothbrush ? I don't know how it is, but I never rivalry over food. In 21 years of photographing
do know whether I've packed my toothbrush. My polar bears, I've only once seen the smallest of
toothbrush is a thing that haunts me when I'm triplets survive till autumn.
travelling, and makes my life a misery, I dream
that haven't packed it, and wake up in a cold 37. Female polar bears give birth during
perspiration, and get out of bed and hunt for it. (a) spring
And, in the morning, I pack it before I have used (b) summer
it, and it is always the last thing I turn out of the (c) autumn
bag; and then repack and forget it, and have to (d) winter
rug upstairs for it at the last moment and carry
it to the railway station, wrapped up in my 38. Mother bear
pocket-handkerchief. (a) takes sides over cubs
(b) lets the cubs fend for themselves
34. When he was going to close the bag, (c) feeds only their favourites
the idea that occurred to him was (d) see that all cubs get an equal share
(a) unpleasant
(b) sad 39. With reference to the passage, the
(c) fantastic following assumptions have been
(d) amusing made:
1) Polar bears fast as long as eight months
35. What makes his life miserable due to non-availability of prey.
whenever he undertakes travelling? 2) Polar bears always give birth to triplets.
(a) Going to railway station Which of the assumptions given above is/are
(b) Forgetting the toothbrush valid?
(c) Packing his bag (a) 1 only
(d) Bad dreams (b) 2 only
36. His toothbrush is finally (c) Both 1 and 2
(a) in his bag (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) in his bed
(c) in his handkerchief
(d) lost

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 125

RRP 2021-CSAT UPSC Previous Year Questions

2011 - Key

01.(a) 02.(d) 03.(b) 04.(d)

05.(d) 06.(c) 07.(c) 08.(a)
09.(c) 10.(a) 11.(b) 12.(d)
13.(b) 14.(b) 15.(b) 16.(a)
17.(a) 18.(c) 19.(a) 20.(b)
21.(c) 22.(c) 23.(a) 24.(d)
25.(a) 26.(d) 27.(b) 28.(d)
29.(d) 30.(d) 31.(b) 32.(a)
33.(a) 34.(a) 35.(b) 36.(a)
37.(d) 38.(b) 39.(d)

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