QUESTIONNAIRE FOR STAGE II(T) TRAINEES: CPL PATTERN

SUBJECT: AIR NAVIGATION

PART I
( FORM OF THE EARTH )
( Answers for definitions, short notes and other descriptive answers are given at the end of the
questionnaire. Short answers are given in the questionnaire itself in red italics)

1. Define the following

a) Rhumb line
b) Great circle
c) Orthomorphism
d) Scale factor
e) Variation
f) Isogonal
g) Deviation
h) Departure

2. Compression is expressed as
a) ratio of polar diameter to equatorial diameter
b) ratio of difference between Eq diameter and polar diameter to Eq diameter
c) difference between Eq diameter and Polar diameter
d) ratio of Eq diameter to Polar diameter

3. Shortest distance between two points on the Earth is along

a) The rhumb line joining the two places
b) Mean latitude between the two places
c) Great circle joining the two places
d) Chlong between the two places

4. Departure between any two meridians depends on the

a) cosecant of the latitude
b) cosine of the latitude
c) sine of the longitude
d) none of the above

5. Circumference of a parallel of latitude at 60N/S is

a) 21600 NM
b) 18706 NM
c) 10800 NM
d) Depends on whether the latitude is North or South

6. State true or false

a) One degree difference of latitude along a meridian measures 60 NM anywhere
between the Equator and the poles True
b) Equator is the only parallel of latitude which is also a Great Circle True
c) Any number of great circles can be drawn between any two places on the surface of
the Earth False, only if the places are diametrically opposite to each other
d) All latitudes and longitudes intersect each other at 90  True
e) Meridians and Equator are the only examples of great circles which are also rhumb
line True
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f) The length of a nautical mile is greater at the Equator than at the poles False, Greater at
poles
g) Parallels of latitude always define E/W direction True

7. Fill in the blanks

a) Length of international Nautical Mile is 6076 ft
b) Circumference of 30 S latitude is 18706 NM
c) Length of a Statute Mile 5080 ft
d) One meter is 1/10,000,000 of the average distance between Equator and pole
e) ABAC scale is used for measuring conversion angle
f) Radius of Earth is 250,000,000 inches

8 Convert the foll units

a) 66 nm = 76 sm
b) 41 nm = 76 Km
c) 100 km = 54 nm
d) 100 nm = 185 km
e) 66 km = 41 sm

9. Fill in the blanks

C D M V T
1 105 2E 107 3E 110
2 090 2W 088 6E 094
3 180 4W 176 5E 181
4 269 +4 273 2E 275
5 353 +2 355 2W 353
6 090 -3 087 7W 080

10. A pilot wishes to fly from ‘A’ ( 60N 90E) to ‘B’ ( 60N 90W ) along the shortest route.
Should he plan to fly
a) Rhumb line track of 090
b) Rhumb line track of 270
c) Great circle track of 360
d) Rhumb line track of 360

11. Which would be the shortest route to follow from ‘P’ ( 50N 20E )to ‘Q’ (55N 10E) in the
diagram below
55N
Q N

10E 20E

M P
50N

Should he follow P – N – Q or P – M - Q ? Is there any difference between the routes? If yes;

how much? P – N - Q. Difference of 41.525 nm
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12. What is the rhumb line distance between Calcutta ( 30N 90E ) and New Orleans
( 30N 90W ) . Given Cos 30 = 0.866. Calculate also the great circle distance between them.
RL Distance = 9353 nm; GC Distance = 7200 nm

13. An aircraft flies from ‘A’ (4730’ S 17830’W ) along a rhumb line track of 270 for 244 nm.
What is his new position? 175 29’ E Approx ( Dep = chlong x cos lat )

14. At what latitude would a distance of 1000nm cause a chlong of 25? 48 11’ approx

15. How long will it take to go round the Earth along the parallel of 75 N at a ground speed of
540 knots? Dist = 5590.49 nm, time taken = 10 hr 21 min approx

PART II
( CONVERGENCY; CONVERSION ANGLE )

16. Convergency is
a) the angular difference between Great Circle and the Rhumb Line bearings
b) Angle of inclination between two meridians
c) Equal to the angular difference between Great Circle bearings at the two meridians
d) Both b) and c) above are correct

17. Conversion angle is

a) the angular difference between a radio bearing and a straight line on a Mercator
chart
b) Equal to half the Convergency
c) Angular difference between GC bearing and RL bearing on a Mercator projection
d) All the above three options are correct

18. Convergency depends on

a) Change of Longitude
b) Change of latitude
c) Sine value of the mean latitude
d) Both a) and c) above are correct

19. If RL bearing from A from B is 070, what is the RL bearing of B from A? 250

20. On a Mercator projection the Rhumb Line always appears

a) Concave to the Equator
b) Convex to the Equator
c) As a straight line anywhere on the projection
d) As a straight line only at the Equator

21. State whether True or False

a) Convergency is zero at Equator and increases to max at poles True
b) Conversion angle is equal to twice convergency. False, equals half convergency
c) Convergency can be calculated between two places only if they are on the same
latitude False, can be calculated for any two places using mean latitude
d) Radio bearings define the great circle path on the surface of the earth True
e) Two places on the same meridian, but at diff latitudes measure zero convergency T
f) In practical plotting CA values below 2 are ignored True
g) A rhumb line makes the same angle at each meridian True
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h) On a Mercator projection Great Circles always appear as curves convex to the

Equator False, appear as curves concave to the Equator

22. The great circle bearing of M from N is 040; The rhumb line bearing of M from N is 042
a) What is the conversion angle? 2
b) In which hemisphere are the two places? North
c) What is the rhumb line bearing of N from M 222
d) What is the great circle bearing of N from M 224

23. To plot on a mercator chart radio bearings as taken by a shore station on an ac, the
conversion angle must be
a) Added in the N Hemisphere if the ac is west of the station
b) Added in the S Hemisphere if the ac is west of the station
c) Subtracted in the S Hemisphere if the ac is West of the station

24. The Great circle bearing of A from B is 160: If CA= 2, what is the
a) GC bearing of B from A in the Northern hemisphere 344
b) GC bearing of B from A in the Southern hemisphere 336

25. The Earth convergency between two positions on the same parallel, which are 8 of
longitude apart, is 7.2. On the same parallel X is at 173W and Y is at 176E.
a) What is the GC bearing of X from Y in the Northern Hemisphere 085
b) What is the GC bearing of Y from X in the Southern Hemisphere 265

26. An ac takes off from 4805’ N 0100W and flies a track of 270(T) for 2h 15min. It then
alters track to 000(T). Later it alters track on to 090(T) and having flown on this track for 01h
40min it recrosses the original meridian of 0100W. If its ground speed was a constant 440kt
throughout, what was the flight time in the second leg? 01hr 40min

Part III
( PROJECTIONS )

27. Differentiate between

a) perspective and non-perspective projections
b) Orthomorphism and Equivalence
c) Scale and scale factor
d) Stereographic and Gnomonic projections

28. List properties of an ideal map projection

29. Name three main projections which are used in air navigation
a) Mercators projection
b) Lambert’s conical orthomorphic
c) Polar stereographic

30. What are the methods by which relief is shown on a map projection?
a) Contour lines
b) Layer tinting
c) Hachuring
d) Spot and trig heights
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31. Name the methods in which scale is represented

a) Representative fraction
b) As a statement
c) As a graduated scale

32. Fill in the blanks

a) Transverse Mercator projection is used for regions having great N-S extent
b) Plane of projection is tangential to the earth’s surface in a perspective projection.
c) The ideal projection for equatorial regions is Mercator
d) Oblique Stereographic projections are ideal for areas which are approximately
circular in area
e) Areas which have an E-W extent are best represented on a Lambert’s Conformal
with two standard projection
f) On a mercator projection the scale varies as the secant of the latitude

33. What are the two main requirements of orthomorphism?

a) Meridians and parallels should cut each other at 90
b) Scale should be constant and correct in all directions around a point

34. State true or false; If false give the correct answer.

a) 1:500,000 scale is smaller scale than 1:1,000,000 False, it is larger
b) Scale can never be constant and correct on any projection True
c) A mercator projection is an azimuthal projection. False, it is a cylindrical projection
d) Lamberts conformal is a perspective projection. False, nonperspective
e) In a Lamberts projection Rhumb lines are curves concave to the nearer pole True
f) In a polar stereographic projection scale expands away from the poles True
g) Great circle is a straight line on the polar stereographic projection False, only near
polar regions, but for practical purposes can be considered as a straight line
h) GC on a Lamberts conformal is a curve convex to the nearer pole. False, concave to
parallel of origin

35. Numericals on scale

a) How many nm to an inch are represented by a scale of 1:2,500,000 34.2nm
b) If 100nm are represented by a line 7.9 inches long on a chart, what is the length of
the line representing 50km? 2.14”
c) Express a scale of 4 inches = 1 statute mile as a representative fraction 1:15,840
d) If on a chart, 30 statute miles are represented by 30 cm, what is the scale of the
chart? 1: 160,934
e) On a chart having a scale of 1:2,000,000, how many km are represented by a line
3.7 inches long? 188 km
f) At what distance would two pinpoints taken at a 20 minute interval appear on a chart
whose scale is 1: 1,000,000, if the G/S was 180 kts? 4.3 inches
g) An ac takes 15min 12 sec to cover the distance 6.6cm between A and B on a chart
having a scale of 1:2,000.000. Calculate the aircraft’s ground speed in knots. 281 kt
h) The scale at the equator on a mercator is 1: 4,000,000. The distance as measured
on the chart by a straight line between A(60 N 70 W) and B(60 N 80 W ) is 9.2 in
( Cos 60=0.5, Sec 60 = 2.0)
What is the scale at 60N? What is the chart length in cm along the equator
representing 60nm? What is the earth distance in km between A and B?
i) 1:2,000,000
ii) 2.34 cm
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iii) 555 km
36 List the main differences between Mercator, Lamberts conformal and Polar stereographic
projections

37. What are the limitations of a Lamberts projection?

PART IV
( MENTAL DR )

38. Define the foll

a) Track made good
b) Drift
c) Track error
d) Heading

39. Choose the correct answer

a) TAS is RAS corrected for density error
b) Groundspeed is the actual speed of the ac over the ground
c) Estimated groundspeed is the TAS corrected for wind effect
d) All the above are correct

40. Choose the correct answer

a) The true heading is coincident with the path of the ac over the ground
b) Track made good is the actual path of the ac on ground
c) Track error is the angular difference between Hdg(T) and Magnetic North
d) None of the above are correct

41. An ac is flying into a headwind of 25kts

a) If the TAS is 100 knots the GS will be 125 knots
b) If the IAS is 100 knots then GS will be 124 knots
c) If the TAS is 120 knots then GS will be 95 knots
d) If the RAS is 98 knots and the IAS is 103 knots then TAS will be 123 knots

42. Which of the foll is correct

a) A wind blowing from East to West is known as a westerly wind
b) The RAS will have to be first established by applying density error
c) A wind blowing from South to North at 25 knots will be reported as 360/25
d) The term DR is used to describe the estimated position of an ac

43. With respect to the diagram choose the correct answers

a) X= TAS and track
Y = Hdg and GS
b) X = GS X
Y = TAS
c) X = Track and GS Y
Y = Hdg and TAS
e) X = TAS and Track
Y = Wind velocity
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44. Three sides of the wind triangle are

a) Hdg and TAS; Track and GS; wind direction and velocity
b) Hdg and GS; Track made good and TAS; wind direction and velocity
c) Track and TAS; Hdg and GS; wind direction and velocity
d) None of the above

45. Hdg(T) 090, TMG 099, TAS 200 kts, Ground speed 210 kts, Find W/V on DR computer
355/33 kts

46. In the wind triangle

a) The Hdg/TAS vector always follows the Track/GS vector
b) The Hdg/TAS vector and the Track/GS vector are always in opposition
c) The Hdg/TAS and W/V vectors always follow each other
d) Both b) and c) above are correct

47. 1 in 60 rule states that

a) an ac will be one nm off track after 60 nm
b) an angle of one degree subtends an arc distance of one nm at a distance of 60 nm
c) an angle of one minute subtends an arc distance of one nm at a distance of 60 nm
d) Once in every 60 nm the ac will drift one nm irrespective of heading flown

48. An ac pinpoints itself at 7 nm port of required track 088, after flying for 21 min along a
heading of 093. Winds experienced 180/20. Distance to go to next reporting point is 90 nm
a) what is the closing angle to next reporting point 4.7 stbd
b) what is the heading to fly 102
c) how much time will it take to reach rep point if TAS is 240 knots 23 min

49. Choose the most appropriate answer

a) Relative bearing is measured with respect to the fore and aft axis of the ac
b) Back bearing is the direction as observed of an object over which the ac has
flown and is measured with respect to a datum North
c) Relative bearing and back bearing are one and the same
d) Back bearing is the reciprocal of track made good

PART V
(TIME, RISINGS,SETTINGS )

50. Fill in the blanks

a) The time interval between two successive transits of the apparent sun is called
apparent solar day
b) One hour of time equals 15 degrees of arc of the equator
c) Each degree of the arc of the equator equals four minutes of time
d) The day begins when the sun is transiting over the observer’s anti meridian
e) 180 E/W longitude is known as the International Date Line
f) 341 17’ of arc equals 22hrs 47 min 08 sec in terms of time
g) Civil twilight is when the sun’s centre is 6 below the horizon
h) Nautical twilight is when the sun’s centre is 12 below the horizon
j) Astronomical twilight is when the sun’s centre is 18 below the horizon
k) Places East of Greenwich are ahead of GMT and those to the West are behind
l) Each time zone has an extent of 15 degrees of longitude equal to one hour of time
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51. For an observer at 50 W 0000 hours LMT is

a) when the Sun is transiting 50W
b) When the Sun is transiting 130 E
c) When the Sun s transiting 130 W
d) None of the above

52. While crossing the IDL, you gain a day ( go to the previous day ) if you
a) are on a easterly track
b) are steering a course 090
c) are flying from Tokyo to Honolulu
d) none of the above are correct

53. For an observer in north polar latitudes

a) the sun remains below the horizon all day in winters
b) the sun remains above the horizon all day in summers
c) both a) and b) are correct
d) both a) and b) are wrong

54. Timings of sunrise, sunset, twilight as given in the Air Almanac are given as
a) LMT of occurrence
b) GMT of occurrence
c) Standard time of the country
d) None of the above

55. The tabulations of sunrise, sunset, twilight in the Air Almanac are
a) As at mean sea level
b) As per elevation at the place of observation
c) To be corrected for observer’s altitude
d) None of the above

56. Find LMT and UTC of a place 30N 165W, when LMT date and time of 30N 17510’E is
2222 hr on 31 Dec 02 LMT = 00hr 41min 20sec on 30 Dec 02; GMT= 10hr 41min 20sec same day

57. Greenwich hour angle of a body is defined as the angle measured

a) Westwards from Greenwich to the celestial meridian of the body
b) Eastwards from Greenwich to the celestial meridian of the body
c) Westwards from the body to the Greenwich meidian
d) Eastwards from the body to the Greenwich meidian

58. A heavenly body which is above the horizon will be visible

a) when LHA is between 090 and 270
b) when LHA is between 270 to 090
c) when LHA is between 000 and 180
d) when LHA is between 180 and 000

59. What is the LMT in Istanbul (41N 29 E ) when

a) LMT in Paris ( long 0230’ E) is 0800hr 0946 LMT at Istanbul
b) LMT in Rome ( long 12E ) is 1900hr 2008 LMT at Istanbul
c) LMT in Baghdad ( long 4417’ E is 1300hr on 01 May 1159 on 01 May at Istanbul
d) LMT in Delhi ( long 77 35’ E) is 0520 hr 0206 LMT at Istanbul
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60. An ac takes off from Kolkatta ( long 8830’) at 0715 LMT for Mumbai( long 7250’). If the
flight time is 2h 20min
a) what is the LMT and GMT of arrival LMT= 0832, GMT= 0341
b) What is the GMT of departure 0121
c) What is the IST of departure and arrival Dep = 0651, Arr = 0911

61. Find the std time of sunrise, sunset and twilight at Leningrad ( 5946’N 3020’E) on 25 Aug
(Use the Air Almanac)

62. An ac wishes to arrive at Guwahati ( 2606N 9135E) one hour before sunset on 31 Dec 02.
The flight time is 4hr 22min. What is the latest LMT it can take off from Jamnagar ( 2228N 7001E).
Find LMT of sunset at Guwahati from Air Almanac 11h 21m 56sec LMT at Jamnagar; Sunset at
Guwahati = 1810 LMT

63. An ac ‘A’ takes off from P (1615N 17620E) at 0900LMT on 10 Aug 02 and flies due South
at a ground speed of 180 knots. Another ac ’B’ takes off from Q on the Equator and longitude
16025E at 0900 LMT on 09 Aug 02 and flies due West. Both ac meet at a point. What is the
ground speed of ac ‘B’. 180 kts

64. An ac departs a place 6800N 7800E and flies a westerly track. After covering a rhumb line
distance of 2268 KM the crew find that the LMT of the present position is the same as the LMT of
departure. Find the Ground speed of the ac and the flight time GS= 338 kts; Time = 3h 14min

PART VI
FLIGHT PLANNING

65. How is fuel for a route planned as per MATO?

66. What are the factors to be considered for selecting flight levels for a route

67. While flying a constant pressure altitude

a) there is no effect of varying density on ac performance
b) ac performance is vitally effected by varying density
c) the TAS of the ac increases as density decreases
d) none of the above

68. Density altitude is

a) Pressure altitude corrected for humidity
b) Pressure altitude corrected for temperature
c) Pressure altitude corrected for terrain features
d) The true altitude of the ac

69. Winds as experienced during the climb phase

a) is a mean wind
b) is only of academic interest and cannot be used for further calculations
c) is important since it gives an indication of upper level winds
d) is not calculated since none of the parameters are constant
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70. MSA as given in an approach chart gives clearance of 300 meters

a) from the highest obstruction within the charted area
b) from the highest obstruction within a radius of 25 nm of the designated radio aid
c) from all the obstructions indicated within the chart area
d) from the highest obstruction only in the primary area

71. Expand the following abbreviations

a) TORA Take off run availble
b) ASDA Acceleration stop distance available
c) TDZ Touch down zone
d) MOCA Minimun obstacle clearance altitude
e) ARP Aerodrome reference point
f) ATIS Automatic terminal information service
g) EOBT Estimated off block time
h) HIALS High intensity approach lighting system
i) SELCAL Selective call system

72. Fill in the blanks

a) There are 05 FIRs in India and they are Delhi, Mumbai, Kolkatta, Chennai and
Guwahati
b) The ADIZs in India are North, East, Central, South, West, Delhi, Mumbai, Kolkatta
c) Max characters for entering ac identification in the flight plan form are seven
d) In the flight rules column ‘Z ’ is entered if the sortie is VFR first followed by IFR
e) Standard equipment in item No 10 of Flight Plan form is VHF RT, ADF, VOR, & ILS
f) Letter ‘O’ is entered in COM/NAV column when VOR is fitted on board
g) Cruise climb technique is filled as C/ point at which cruise climb is commenced
h) Scale of the latest Jeppesen M/L route chart is 1 inch = 30 nm
i) Colour of Grid MORA in the Jeppesen route chart is indicated in maroon colour if
more than 14000 ft
j) Standard holding procedure is one minute right hand race track

73. List the occasions when a Flt Clearance form is required to be filed

74. State true or false

a) The registration marking of the ac is entered as identification when ac is not
equipped with radio True
b) In flight rules column Y is entered if IFR first followed by VFR True
c) Change of speed is to entered in the route column only if speed change is more
than 5% of TAS or 0.01M True
d) Letter C in Dinghies column indicates colour of the dinghy carried. False, colour of
cover
e) Checking O/ H from direct entry sector, an ac may proceed directly O/B of the IAP
without joining the hold irrespective of the I/B radial False, only if within 30 of QDM

75. What are the various wake turbulence categories with weight limits for purpose of filling of
flight plan? H – Heavy, ac gross weight > 1,36,000 kg
M – Medium, ac gross weight < 1,36,000 kg but more than 7,000 kg
L – Light, ac gross weight less than 7,000 kg
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76. What are the ICAO designators for the foll types of ac
a) Boeing 737 B 737/M
b) HS 748 HN74
c) HJT 16 HN16/L
d) IL 76 IL76/M
e) Dornier 228 – 100 DO81/L

77. How are the foll equipment indicated in the COM/NAV eqpt column
a) DME D
b) Doppler -
c) HF RT H
d) GNSS G

78. What do the following letters in SSR equipment indicate

a) N Nil
b) A Mode A ( 4 digits 4096 codes )
c) C Mode A + mode C
d) S Mode S including alt and ac ident
e) P Mode S including Alt but no ac ident
f) X Mode S without both Alt and Ident

79. Lowest flt lvl above 300 available for an ac from Delhi to Kolkatta is
a) 310
b) 320
c) 330
d) 340

PART VII
TACTICAL AND GENERAL NAVIGATION

80. Define the following

a) Critical point
b) Point of No Return
c) Last Point of Diversion
d) Radius Of Action

81. What are the conditions for an interception to take place between two aircraft
a) Both ac to maintain Line of Constant Bearing
b) Both ac to be on converging tracks

82. Two aircraft are initially separated by 240 nm and are approaching each other on reciprocal
tracks. Ground speeds of the ac are 280 and 200 knots respectively. How long will they take to
cross each other? 30 min

83. An aircraft A @ 360 knots is overtaking B ( GS 280 knots) with initial separation of 50 nm.
a) When will A overtake B 37.2 min
b) When will ac A be 3 min behind B 24 min

84. With headwind on outbound leg as against nil wind

a) CP is closer to place of departure
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b) CP moves towards destination

c) There is no effect on CP
85. With headwind on O/B if TAS reduces
a) distance to CP decreases
b) distance to CP increases
c) remains same

86. On a flight from A to B distance 925 nm, Track 310, TAS 175 knots, Fuel consumption 680
lbs/hr, Fuel on board 6400 lbs, W/V 025/25 , Find
a) Distance to PNR with 1000 lbs as reserve 694 nm
b) Time to Critical Point 2h 49 min

87. Critical point is exactly midway between base and destination when
a) Fuel carried is just sufficient for the flight
b) Ground speed out and home are equal
c) When distance between the base and destination is small

88. Radius of action is normally calculated to find out

a) endurance of the aircraft
b) max dist ac can fly along a track within a specified patrol time
c) max distance ac can fly within its absolute endurance
d) max dist ac can fly along a given track and come back to base within a specified
patrol time

89. PNR is maximum

a) when tailwinds are experienced on outbound
b) when headwinds are experienced on outbound
c) when winds are beam
d) in nil winds

90. Calculate CP on route from Chennai to Port Blair distance 743 NM at FL 250, IAS 240
Knots, OAT –20 deg C, Track 093, W/V 130/20, Reduced IAS 200 knots.
TAS = 303 kts, O = 286 kts, H = 318 kts, CP = 390 nm

91. Calculate CP along route VOHY to VAJM as per details given below
Leg Track Dist W/V
HHY-GGB 267 97nm 230/ 15
GGB-BBB 290 280nm 180/ 25
BBB-BVR 345 250nm 140/ 30
BVR-JMR 330 175nm 020/ 10

Normal TAS = 300 knots, Single engine TAS = 240 knots

What is the ETA CP if ATD VOHY is 0230 Z
CP lies on leg BBB-BVR, 10 nm from BBB, ie 387 nm from HHY.
Time to CP = 76min at full TAS:
ETA CP = 0230+0116 ie 0346Z

92. Distance between A and B is 2000 nm, Usable fuel is 1500 gallons, fuel consumption is 110
gallons per hour, TAS = 240 knots, There is a certain headwind component.
a) Find headwind component if distance to CP is 1090 nm 216 kts
b) Find headwind component if distance to PNR is 1250 nm 91 kts
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93. The formula to calculate Critical point is

a) DH b) D+H c) DOH d) DH

OH O+H O+H O+H

94. How is variation indicated on a Jeppesen route chart? Green line of broken dashes with
variation value written on top at intervals

95. Find out GEOREF co ordinates of a place a) N 301645 E 0823515 b) S 124515 E 0453345
a) TJHA35161545 b) RFAC33144545

96. What are the basic principles of map reading at medium level?
a) Anticipation
b) Orientation
c) Recognition
d) Note time
e) Cross check

97. What are the problems of low level navigation?

a) Reduced field of view
b) Less time for recognition of features
c) Low range of radio nav aids
d) Turbulence due ground proximity
e) Increased possibility of bird strikes
f) High fuel consumption
g) Low reaction time in case of emergency

98. What are the occasions for compass swing?

a) Periodic as required by manufacturers
b) After ac has flown through magnetic storms
c) After change of any major component likely to effect ac magnetism
d) After a long period of ac being on ground

99. Give the amount of time lost in the following dog leg procedures
a) 60 deg length of one leg
b) 30 deg 1/4 the time of each leg
c) 90 deg 45 seconds
d) 45 deg ½ the time of each leg

100. What are the main differences between a map and a chart?

Both maps and charts are projections of the earth’s surface on to a plane sheet of paper.
The main distinction between a map and a chart is one of details.. A map has maximum
topographic details and is used for comparing features on earth with those on the map. Fixing
position on the map is done essentially by visual means. A chart on the other hand has minimum
topographic details and is used mainly for plotting.
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DESCRIPTIVE ANSWERS TO CPL PATTERN QUESTIONNAIRE

SUBJECT: AIR NAVIGATION

PART I

Q1. Define the following

a) Rhumb line A regularly curved line on the surface of the earth which cuts all
meridians at the same angle

b) Great Circle A circle on the surface of the earth whose centre and radius are the
same as that of the earth

c) Orthomorphism Is the property of a projection where the angles and bearings

are depicted correctly as on the earth

d) Scale Factor is the factor by which scale on a projection differs from the chosen
scale of the reduced earth and is expressed as a ratio of chart length to reduced earth
length.

e) Variation Is the angular difference between the true north and the magnetic
north and is expressed as east or west depending on whether the magnetic north lies east
or West of the True North

f) Isogonal Is the line joining places of equal variation

g) Deviation Is the angular difference between the direction of magnetic north and
that of compass north and is measured east or west depending on whether compass north
lies east or west of the magnetic north

h) Departure The distance measured between two meridians along a parallel of

latitude is known as departure

PART III

Q27. Differentiate between

a) Perspective and Non perspective projections A perspective projection is one
that is directly derived by projecting the graticule of the reduced earth on to the surface of
the chart. Non perspective projections are those that are derived through mathematical
formalae.

b) Orhtomorphism and Equivalence Orthomorphism is the property of a projection

where the angles and bearings are represented correctly as on the earth. Equvalence is the
property of the projection where the shapes and areas are correctly depicted as on the
surface of the earth.

c) Scale and Scale Factor Scale is the ratio of the distance measured on the
chart to the corresponding distance on the earth’s surface. Scale factor is the ratio of the
chart length to the reduced earth length.
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d) Stereographic and Gnomonic Projections Stereographic projections are those

azimuthal projections where the point of projection is diametrically opposite to the point of
tangency of the chart. Gnomonic projections are those azimuthal projections where the
point projection is the centre of the reduced earth

Q28. Properties of an Ideal Map

a) Scale of the projection should be constant and correct
b) Shapes and areas should be correctly represented
c) Co ordinates should be readily extractable
d) Angles and bearings should be correctly represented
e) Rhumb line should be represented as a straight line
f) Great circle should be represented as a straight line
g) Adjacent sheets should fit
h) Coverage should be world wide

Q36. What are the main differences between Mercator, lamberts Conformal and the Polar
stereographic projection?
a) Mercator It is a cylindrical projection. Scale is correct only at the equator
and varies as the secant of the latitude. Angle of inclination of the meridians is zero and
hence convergency is correct only at the equator. Great circles are curves concave to the
equator. Rhumb lines appear as straight lines since they cut all meridians at the same
angles. Shapes of small areas are not distorted

b) Lamberts conformal It is a conical projection which is orthomorphic by

construction. The scale is constant along the two standard parallels and contracts between
the standard parallels and expands outside the standard parallels. But for practical
purposes it can be termed as a constant scale chart. Convergence between two meridians
depends on the value of sine of the parallel of origin and is correct only at the parallel of
origin. Convergence is high towards the equator and low towards the poles. Great circles
are curves concave to the parallel of origin, but for practical purposes can be considered as
a straight line. Rhumb lines are curves concave to the pole. Shapes are sensibly preserved
over the area of coverage. Sheets fit E/W and N/S only if the scale and the standard
parallels are the same.

c) Polar stereographic Projection It is an azimuthal orthomorphic projection. The

scale is correct at the pole of tangency. Distances measured near the poles are very nearly
correct. Away fro the pole the scale expands at the rate of sec² ( x/2) where x is the co-
latitude( 90 – lat). Although scale varies from point to point it is the same at a given point.
The chart convergency is constant at one and correct only at the poles and too large away
from the poles. Great circle is not a straight line, since convergency is not correct, but near
the poles it can be considered as straight line becoming concave to the pole at distance
from pole increases. Rhumb lines are curves concave to the poles, areas are correctly
depicted only for small areas, but it is not an equal are projection.. sheets do not fit in any
direction.

37. What are the limitations of a Lamberts projection?

The limitation of a lamberts conformal lies in the North – south coverage Scale and
orthomorphism will be retained as long as the chlat between the two standard parallels is not too
large. The greater the latitude difference between the two standard parallels, the greater the scale
error and distortion of shapes. If the shapes are distorted, so are directions, with an associated
loss of orthomorphism.
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PART IV

38. Define the following

a) Track made good is the path which the aircraft actually follows on the ground

b) Drift The angle between the heading of the aircraft and the track made good

c) Track error The angle between the required track and the track made good

d) Heading The direction in which the fore and aft axis aircraft is pointing

PART VI

Q65. Fuel calculation as per MATO

a) Fuel from Departure airfield to Destination
b) Fuel from destination to diversion
c) 10% of a) and b) above
d) Fuel required for 30 min of ODR
e) Fuel for start up, taxi and T/O

Q66. Factors for selection of flight levels

a) Orientation of track
b) route restrictions
c) Terrain
d) aircraft performance
e) Meteorological considerations

Q73. A flight plan is required to be filed prior to

a) any flight or portion thereof to be provided with air traffic control service
b) any IFR flight within advisory airspace
c) any flight within or into designated areas, or along designated routes, when so
required by the appropriate ATS authority to facilitate the provision of flight information,
alerting and search and rescue services.
d) any flight within or into designated areas, or along designated routes, when so
required by the appropriate ATS authority to facilitate co-ordination with appropriate military
units or with ATS units in adjacent states in order to avoid the possible need for interception
for identification purposes
e) any flight or a a portion of a flight outside the controlled airspace or LFA of the
aerodrome, even though the flight is planned to arrive at the aerodrome of departure
f) any flight which requires special handling by ATS units
g) any flight which intends to operate beyond 10 nm from the coast
h) any flight from one to another aerodrome
j) any flight across international borders
k) any flight as required by the competent authority
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PART VII

Q80. Define the following

a) Critical point It is that point between two bases from which it will take the same time to fly
to either base

b) Point of No return It is that point furthest removed from base to which an aircraft can fly
and return to base within the endurance of the aircraft

c) Last Point of Diversion It is the furthest point along track between two bases to which
an aircraft can fly and then divert to a third base

d) Radius of Action The radius of action of an aircraft is the maximum distance it can
travel outwards from a base, before returning to the same base or to some other base within a
given specific patrol time
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