Sia Mock Test II Csat Key
Sia Mock Test II Csat Key
INSTRUCTIONS
1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT
THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS,
ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.
2. ENCODE CLEARLY THE TEST BOOK SERIES A, B, C or D AS THE CASE MAY BE IN THE
APPROPRIATE PLACE IN THE ANSWER SHEET.
3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box.
Provided alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 80 items (questions). Each item is printed in English. Each item
comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the
Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which
you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in
the Answer Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks.
7. Sooner than you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test
Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with
your Admission Certificate.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has
concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take
away with you the Test Booklet.
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for Wrong Answers
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE
TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a
wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third (0.83) of the marks assigned to that
question will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of
the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that
question.
(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for
that question.
1
S.(1) Direction for the following 1 (one) item: Read the following Passage and answer the
items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.
PASSAGE 1
Indian English literature refers to the body of works by authors in India who write in English
and whose native or co-native language could be one of the numerous languages of India. It
is also associated with the works of members of the Indian diaspora. The very definition of
the adjective “Indian” here is hazy. Many of these writers neither live in India, nor are Indian
citizens. As a category, this production comes under the broader realm of post-colonial
literature – the production from previously colonised countries such as India. Though one
can trace such writers in India to a century back, Indian writing in English has come into
force only in the last couple of decades or so, as far as literature goes.
1. What is the most important implication made in the passage given above?
(a) Most of the authors of Indian English literature do not live in India
(b) India is the hub of postcolonial literature among Commonwealth nations
(c) The meaning of the word “Indian” in the context of Indian English literature is
ambiguous
(d) There were no Indian English literature authors in the 19th century
SOLUTION:
The author highlights that ‘The very definition of the adjective “Indian” here is hazy.’
Directions for (Questions 2-3): Study the information given below to answer these
questions
I. A, B, C, D, E and F are six members of a three generation family in which there are two
married couples.
II. C, a male member, is neither lightest nor the heaviest in the family but he is the
grandfather of this family.
III. E is lighter than C and C is lighter than B. A, the grandmother in the family, is the
lightest.
IV. D is the sister of F. Both D and F are heavier than B.
V. B is the mother of D and heavier than E.
2
SOLUTION:
3. Who among the following will be at 2nd place, if all the members in the family are arranged in
the descending order of their weights?
(a) D
(b) A
(c) C
(d) Data inadequate
SOLUTION:
As D or F can be at 2nd place but no definite information is available about it.
4. A person P asks one of his three friends A as to know how much money he had. A replied, “If
B gives me Rs. 400, then B will have half of as much as C, but if C gives me Rs. 400, then
three of us will have equal amount.” Then,
(a) A has the least amount among the three people
(b) B has the highest amount among the three people
(c) C has the least amount among the three people
(d) None of these
SOLUTION:
B is giving A Rs. 400,
Then, B – 400 = C/2 … (1)
C is giving A Rs. 400,
Then, A + 400 = B = C – 400 … (2)
Using (1) in (2),
C/2 + 400 = C – 400
C = 1600
Thus, B = 1200 and A = 800
A has the least amount.
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5. In an objective type test of 80 questions, 4 marks are allotted for every correct answer and 1
mark is deducted for every wrong answer. After attempting all the 80 questions, a student
got a total of 260 marks. What is the number of incorrect answers?
(a) 8
(b) 13
(c) 12
(d) 18
SOLUTION:
Incorrect answers = n
Correct answers = 80 – n
Total marks = (80 – n)(4) – n(1)
260 = 320 – 4n – n
5n = 60
n = 12
6. Consider the division problem NMM ÷ 3 = LM, where L, M and N are unique single digit
natural numbers and N ≠ 0. What is the value of L – N?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 5
(d) 6
SOLUTION:
NMM ÷ 3 = LM
So, NMM = LM x 3
i.e., 255 = 85 x 3
Hence, L = 8; M = 5; N = 2
L–N=8–2=6
S.(7-8) Direction for the following 2 (two) item: Read the following Passage and answer the
items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.
PASSAGE 2
The exploitation of wildlife for trade and other benefits of humans has resulted in enacting
and enforcing various legislations and Acts in almost all the countries of the world. India is
also not untouched by this as it is a country with a rich biodiversity. The laws enacted with
the objective of protecting and conserving wildlife have strict provisions, but despite these
laws, the exploitation of wildlife resources and their illegal trade continues. The hunting,
poaching of animals and uprooting of trees, using of various endemic species of plants for
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various purposes have led to the threat of extinction and loss of biodiversity in the country.
The Wildlife Protection (WP) Act, Customs Act, Import-Export policies in India have provisions
for regulating the conservation measures and trade of wildlife species, especially the
endangered species, but the illegal hunting and poaching activities and trade is still
flourishing and these endangered species are still being exploited. The WP Act also does not
cover the foreign endangered species of plants and animals and hence does not have the
authority to protect such foreign species if they are being hunted, poached or used.
7. Which of the following assumptions are implied in the passage given above?
I. The Wildlife Protection Act of India is not comprehensive in nature.
II. Illegal trade of wildlife resources is the highest in India and needs immediate official
attention.
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
SOLUTION:
The passage states that ‘the illegal hunting and poaching activities and trade is still
flourishing and these endangered species are still being exploited’ and that ‘The WP Act also
does not cover the foreign endangered species of plants and animals.’ However, there is no
indication that illegal trade of wildlife resources is the highest in India.
8. What is the most logical, rational and critical inference that can be drawn from the passage
given above?
(a) Most of the wildlife species in India have gone extinct
(b) The poaching of endangered wildlife resources cannot be stopped with the help of
legislation
(c) Poaching of wild animals is one of the main reasons for deforestation in India
(d) Exotic flora and fauna are not covered under the Wildlife Protection Act of India
SOLUTION:
The author concludes that ‘The WP Act also does not cover the foreign endangered species of
plants and animals.’
9. If in a certain code language ‘HEADING’ is written as ‘KPIDJGC’, then how will ‘NATURAL’ be
written in that language?
(a) TCNUPCV
(b) TCOUPVC
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(c) TCUOPVC
(d) TCOUVCP
SOLUTION:
Directions for (Question 10): Study the information given below to answer the
question
I. A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting in a row facing North
II. A is fourth to the right of E
III. H is fourth to the left of D
IV. C and F, who are not at the ends, are neighbours of B and E, respectively.
V. H is next to the left of A and A is the neighbour of B
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11. Priya and Gowri go for swim after a gap of every 3 days and 4 days respectively on a non-leap
year. On the 1st of February both of them went from swim together. If they became friends on
their 4th meeting, when did they become friends?
(a) 8th March
(b) 9th March
(c) 20th March
(d) 21st March
SOLUTION:
LCM (3, 4) = 12 days
They’ll meet each other on every 12th day, starting from Feb 1.
Their meetings; 1st Feb, 13th Feb, 25th Feb, 9th March, 21st March
Fourth meeting happened on 9th March.
12. Abilash scored 12% less than Vinodh in an examination. If Vinodh scored 36 marks more
than Abilash, then how much did Abilash score?
(a) 264
(b) 274
(c) 358
(d) 426
SOLUTION:
Marks of Vinodh = x
Marks of Abilash = x – 12% x = 88% x
Vinodh – Abilash = 36
x – 88% x = 36
12%x = 36
x = 300
Marks of Abilash = 88% of 300 = 264
13. Arumugam buys 20kg of rice every month for the family. The cost of rice is increased from
Rs. 14 per kg to Rs. 16 per kg. If Arumugam doesn’t want to increase his expenditure on the
rice, then what would be the quantity he could afford to buy after the price increment?
(a) 12.5 kg
(b) 22 kg
(c) 22.5 kg
(d) 17.5 kg
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SOLUTION:
If the cost is increased by a fraction x/y, then the quantity should be decreased by the fraction
x/(y+x).
Cost increment = Rs. 14 to Rs. 16 = 1/7
Quantity reduction = (1/8) of the usual quantity
= (1/8)*20 = 2.5 kg
So, Quantity afforded = 20 – 2.5 = 17.5 kg.
S.(14-16) Direction for the following 3 (three) item: Read the following Passage and answer
the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.
PASSAGE 3
Green revolution technologies have more than doubled the yield potential of rice and wheat,
especially in Asia. These high input production systems requiring massive quantities of
fertilizers, pesticides, irrigation and machines, however, disregard the ecological integrity of
land, forests and water resources, endanger the flora and fauna and cannot be sustained
over generations. To a great extent, future food security and economic independence of
developing countries would depend on improving the productivity of biophysical resources
through the application of sustainable production methods, by improving tolerance of crops
to adverse environmental conditions and by reducing crop and post-harvest losses caused by
pests and diseases.
Indigenous agricultural practices can play a key role in the design of sustainable and eco-
friendly agricultural systems, increasing the likelihood that the rural population will accept,
develop and maintain innovations and interventions. In this context, those eco-friendly
methods are being considered as environmentally safe, selective, biodegradable, economical
and renewable alternatives for use in the organic farming system. Organic farming implies
the use of organic nutrients and adoption of natural methods of plant protection in place of
fertilizers and pesticides. To the maximum extent feasible, organic farming systems rely upon
crop rotations, crop residues, animal manures, legumes, green manures, mineral bearing
rocks and aspects of biological pest control to maintain soil productivity and tilth to supply
plant nutrients and to control insects, weed and other pests.
14. Which of the following statements are true based on the passage given above?
I. Modern green revolution technologies in agriculture are unsustainable.
II. Developing countries must improve their biophysical resources to ensure food security
and economic development.
III. Organic farming is the only way to ensure sustained economic growth in the future.
(a) Only I and II
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(b) Only III
(c) Only I
(d) Only II and III
SOLUTION:
The passage states that ‘These high input production systems requiring massive quantities
of fertilizers, pesticides, irrigation and machines, however, disregard the ecological integrity
of land, forests and water resources, endanger the flora and fauna and cannot be sustained
over generations’ and that ‘future food security and economic independence of developing
countries would depend on improving the productivity of biophysical resources.’ There is no
indication that organic farming is the only way to ensure sustained economic growth.
15. What is the main message conveyed by the passage given above?
(a) Pest and crop diseases are the result of green revolution agricultural technologies
(b) Animal and green manure are better than synthetic pesticides for promoting productivity
(c) Indigenous agricultural practices can restore balance and lay the foundation of a
sustainable agricultural system
(d) Crop rotations are the most important aspect of organic farming
SOLUTION:
The author gives the opinion that ‘Indigenous agricultural practices can play a key role in the
design of sustainable and eco-friendly agricultural systems, increasing the likelihood that the
rural population will accept, develop and maintain innovations and interventions.’
16. Which of the following assumptions are implied in the passage given above?
I. Rice and wheat are the most widely cultivated crops in India.
II. It is difficult to teach sustainable agricultural practices to the rural population in India.
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
SOLUTION:
Neither assumption forms the basis for the arguments presented in the passage.
17. One morning at 7’0 clock, Rishabh started walking with his back facing towards the Sun.
Then, he turned towards left, walked straight 1 km and then turned towards right and walked
straight 4km. Then, he again turned towards left walked straight 1 km. Now, in which
direction is he from the starting point?
(a) North-east
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(b) South-east
(c) North-west
(d) South-west
SOLUTION:
18. Which of the following conclusions follows based on the given statements?
Statements
All glasses are frames
Some frames are metals
All blocks are glasses
Conclusions
I. All blocks are either metals or glasses
II. Some blocks are metals
III. Some frames are blocks
(a) Only III follows
(b) Only II follows
(c) Only I follows
(d) I and III follow
SOLUTION:
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Directions for (Question 19): Study the information given below to answer the
question
Anitha, Kavita, Sabitha, Guna and Madhesh are friends and good players. Anitha and Kavita
are good in hockey and volleyball. Sabitha and Anitha are good in hockey and tennis. Guna
and Kavita are good in cricket and volleyball. Sabitha, Guna and Madhesh are good in football
and tennis.
S.(20-22) Direction for the following 3 (three) item: Read the following Passage and answer
the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.
PASSAGE 4
India has undergone rapid urbanisation and industrial development in the past decades,
leading to increasing pollutant emissions and formation of tropospheric ozone, which can
accumulate to hazardous levels under certain meteorological conditions. In India, increasing
ozone pollution is already known to be one of the major problems for urban agriculture, which
is important for nutrition of the population in large areas of the country. In addition to the
deleterious impact of ozone on vegetation and human health, ozone is a greenhouse gas with
long-lasting impacts on global climate change through atmospheric chemistry. The tropical
area is the most active photochemical region of the atmosphere for production of ozone and
several chemical transport models estimate large increases in the ozone production efficiency
over the Indian region due to anthropogenic emissions. While trends of increasing ozone
concentration have been recorded at several sites of China and Japan, long-term monitoring
has been more fragmental over the Indian region, focusing on a few metropolitan areas.
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20. What is the central theme of the passage given above?
(a) The problem of ozone pollution in India may be more severe than what it appears
to be
(b) India has witnessed rapid industrial development post-independence
(c) Industrial emissions are the major reason behind ozone pollution in India
(d) China and Japan have more overall ozone pollution than India does
SOLUTION:
The author highlights that ‘long-term monitoring has been more fragmental over the Indian
region, focusing on a few metropolitan areas,’ indicating that monitoring is not
comprehensive.
21. Which of the following statements are false based on the passage given above?
I. Ozone is not a greenhouse gas.
II. Ozone is a potentially hazardous gas.
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
SOLUTION:
The passage clearly states that ozone is a greenhouse gas and also that it has a deleterious
impact on vegetation and human health.
22. Which of the following assumptions are implied in the passage given above?
I. Ozone is harmful to both, plant as well as human life.
II. Ozone emissions contribute to global warming by changing atmospheric chemistry.
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
SOLUTION:
The passage mentions the ‘deleterious impact of ozone on vegetation and human health’ and
that ‘ozone is a greenhouse gas with long-lasting impacts on global climate change through
atmospheric chemistry.’
12
Directions for (Questions 23-24): Study the information given below to answer these
questions
Eight friends A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circle facing the centre. D is
between A and E only, F is second to the left of E. B is between C and G only. F is between G
and H only.
23. In which of the following pairs, second person is to the immediate left of the first person?
(a) H, E
(b) D, A
(c) B, G
(d) B, C
SOLUTION:
25. If the price of an article is decreased by 10% and then the new price is increased by 20%,
then what is the net change in the price?
(a) 10% increase
(b) 12% increase
(c) 8% increase
(d) 8% decrease
SOLUTION:
Let the price be Rs. 100
First it is decreased by 10%.
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Cost = 100 – 10% of 100 = 90
Later it is increased by 20%.
Cost = 90 + 20% of 90 = 108
In total, the cost of the article is increased from 100 to 108.
% variation = 8%
26. Mani gave a discount of 10% on an electronic gadget with the listed price Rs. 1080. If he still
gets the profit of 20%, what is the cost price of the gadget?
(a) Rs. 820
(b) Rs. 810
(c) Rs. 972
(d) Rs. 927
SOLUTION:
SP = MP (1 – D%)
SP = 1080 (1 – 10%) = 972
972 = CP (1 + 20%)
SP = 972 /1.2 = 810
27. There are three points A, B and C on a straight line such that AB : BC = 5 : 7. If ‘m’ is the
number of possible values of AB : AC, then what is ‘m’ equal to?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
SOLUTION:
AB/BC = 5/7
Case (1): Suppose, B is an internal point on a line AC.
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28. In a village, 60% of the people are male and half of the people are educated. If 30% of the
male are educated, then what percentage of female is uneducated?
(a) 20%
(b) 30%
(c) 40%
(d) 45%
SOLUTION:
Total number of people = 100
Male = 60
Female = 40
Educated = 50
Male educated = 30% of 60 = 18
Female educated = 50 – 18 = 32
Female uneducated = 40 – 32 = 8
Female uneducated percentage = 8/40*100 = 20%
S.(29) Direction for the following 29 (one) item: Read the following Passage and answer
the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.
PASSAGE 5
As far as rainwater harvesting in India is concerned, the entire past can be divided into three
time capsules. Up to say, 3000 B.C is the first capsule and in this time period, rainwater got
harvested naturally without any human intervention, in rivers and natural depressions.
Rivers were the first known secondary source of freshwater. It was during this period that
civilizations flourished on the banks of rivers not only in India but the world over. Egypt rose
on the banks of the Nile, Mesopotamia rose on the banks of the Euphrates and Tigris, Europe
on the Danube and China on the Yellow river. In India, the Harappan civilization flourished
on the banks of Ravi and Mohenjo-Daro on the banks of the Indus.
29. What is the most logical, rational and important implication made in the passage given above?
(a) Civilizations arose for the first time on the banks of rivers in the ancient world
(b) Rainwater harvested in rivers gave rise to various civilizations including those in
ancient India
(c) Rainwater harvesting has assumed the great significance in the modern world
(d) There is no need of any human intervention to harvest rainwater
SOLUTION:
The author states that ‘It was during this period that civilizations flourished on the banks of
rivers not only in India but the world over.’
15
30. Aakash and Ashwin are twins. Ashwin’s sister is Trisha. Trisha’s husband is Mano. Aakash’s
mother is Saranya. Saranya’s husband is Vinay. How is Vinay related to Mano?
(a) Uncle
(b) Son-in-law
(c) Father-in-law
(d) Cousin
SOLUTION:
Let us draw the family diagram
31. From the given four positions of a single dice, find the colour at the face opposite to the face
having red colour.
(a) Yellow
(b) Pink
(c) Green
(d) Black
SOLUTION:
From the given four positions of a single block,
Faces adjacent to face having red colour = blue, pink, yellow, green
Clearly, black is opposite to red.
Directions for (Questions 32): Study the information given below to answer these
questions
Question given below consists of five or six statements followed by options consisting of three
statements put together in a specific order. Choose the option which indicates a valid
argument containing logically related statements that is, where the third statement is a
conclusion drawn from the preceding two statements.
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32. A: All heroines are pretty
B: Some heroines are popular
C: Sweta is pretty
D: Sweta is a popular heroine
E: Some popular heroines are pretty
(a) ABE
(b) ACD
(c) DCA
(d) EDC
SOLUTION:
33. Which letter is 10th to the left of 18th letter from left in the reverse order of English alphabet?
(a) L
(b) J
(c) H
(d) I
SOLUTION:
Reverse Order of English Alphabet :
ZYXWVUTSRQPONMLKJHIGFEDCBA
18th letter from left = I
10th letter to the left of I= S
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34. If ‘football’ is called ‘hockey’, ‘hockey’ is called ‘badminton’, ‘badminton’ is called ‘cricket’,
‘cricket’ is called ‘tennis’, ‘tennis’, is called ‘squash’ and ‘squash’ is called ‘chess’, then which
game Cristiano Ronaldo associated with?
(a) Squash
(b) Cricket
(c) Hockey
(d) Tennis
SOLUTION:
Cristiano Ronaldo is a cricketer but here football is called Hockey. Hence, in this case
Cristiano Ronaldo is associated with Hockey.
S.(35-36) Direction for the following 2 (two) item: Read the following Passage and answer
the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.
PASSAGE 6
India has become one of the world's most promising tourist destinations for its diverse
climatic features and cultural heritage, with a large number of visitors each year. It has
experienced dramatic growth of tourism over the last 25 years and it is one of the most
remarkable economic changes. India is the only country that offers different categories of
tourism every year to enthusiastic visitors. The Indian government has taken efforts to
encourage different kinds of tourism in India and has adopted different approaches for the
promotion of tourism in India. Moreover, India plans to modify its visa policy in 2014 by
allowing visitors from most countries to obtain an electronic visa online. This is because the
Indian government has decided to increase revenues from the tourism sector by projecting
India as the "ultimate tourist spot". So, there is no doubt that the development of the tourism
industry in India will be very strong in the next ten years.
35. Which of the following corollaries can be derived from the passage given above?
(a) India will become a global leader in tourism in the next 10 years
(b) Tourist were not allowed to obtain electronic visas online before 2014
(c) Domestic tourism is more popular than international tourism in India
(d) A liberal visa policy and official patronage are likely to fuel the growth of the
tourism sector in India
SOLUTION:
The author states that ‘India plans to modify its visa policy in 2014 by allowing visitors from
most countries to obtain an electronic visa online. This is because the Indian government has
decided to increase revenues from the tourism sector by projecting India as the "ultimate
tourist spot".’
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36. Which of the following assumptions are implied in the passage given above?
I. Tourism will become India’s leading industry in the next 10 years.
II. India is the ‘ultimate tourist spot’ for anyone who wishes to travel abroad.
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
SOLUTION:
Neither assumption forms the basis for the arguments presented in the passage.
Directions for (Question 37): Study the information given below to answer the
question
Seven students PQRSTU and V take a series of tests
No two students get similar marks
V always scores more than P
P always scores more than Q
Each time either R scores the highest and T gets the least or alternatively S scores the highest
and U or Q scores the least.
37. If S is ranked sixth and Q is ranked fifth, which of the following can be true?
(a) V is ranked fifth or fourth
(b) R is ranked second or third
(c) P is ranked second or fourth
(d) U is ranked third of fourth
SOLUTION:
If S is ranked 6th and Q is ranked 5th, we have O > O > O > O > Q > S > O
In this case, R will rank the highest and thus T will rank the least,
We have, R > O > O > O > Q > S > T
Also, the order V > P > Q will be maintained
The possible arrangements are
R>U>V>P>Q>S>T
or R > V > U > P > Q > S > T
or R > V > P > U > Q > S > T
Thus, option (d) i.e., U can be ranked third or fourth is true.
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38. Ayyappan from place X and Koshi from place Y set out at the same time to walk towards each
other. The places are separated by a distance of 30km. Ayyappan walks with a uniform speed
of 3 kmph and Koshi walks with a uniform speed of 1 kmph and thereby increase his speed
by 1 kmph every hour.
Which of the following is/are correct?
1. They take 5 hours to meet
2. They cover equal distance when they meet.
3. On average Koshi covers more distance than Ayyappan when they meet.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) None of these
SOLUTION:
Distance covered by Ayyappan in 5 hours = 3*5 = 15 km
Distance covered by Koshi in 5 hours = 1 + 2 + 3 + 4 + 5 = 15 km
1. They take 5 hours to meet – True
2. They cover equal distance when they meet – True
3. On average Koshi covers more distance than Ayyappan when they meet – False.
39. A train travels from Station A to Station B. It reaches Station B 15 minutes earlier than the
scheduled time if it runs at the average speed of 42 kmph. While returning it runs at the
average speed of 35 kmph and reaches Station A 5 minutes later than the scheduled time.
The distance between the Station A and B is:
(a) 56 km
(b) 63 km
(c) 70 km
(d) 77 km
SOLUTION:
D/42 = T – 15/60 … (1)
D/35 = T + 5/60 … (2)
(2) – (1) gives,
D/35 – D/42 = 20/60
D/210 = 1/3
D = 70 km
40. A train of length 150m moving at a speed of 90 kmph can cross a 250m tunnel is:
(a) 10 seconds
(b) 12 seconds
(c) 16 seconds
(d) 17 seconds
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SOLUTION:
Time = (L1 + L2) / Speed of the train (in m/s)
T = (150 + 250) / 90*(5/18)
T = 400 / 25 = 16 seconds
S.(41-42) Direction for the following 2 (two) item: Read the following Passage and answer
the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.
PASSAGE 7
Food quality and safety are two important factors that have gained ever-increasing attention
among general consumers. Conventionally grown foods have immense adverse health effects
due to the presence of higher pesticide residue, more nitrate, heavy metals, hormones,
antibiotic residue, and also genetically modified organisms. Moreover, conventionally grown
foods are less nutritious and contain lesser amounts of protective antioxidants. In the quest
for safer food, the demand for organically grown foods has increased during the last decades
due to their probable health benefits and food safety concerns. Organic food production is
defined as cultivation without the application of chemical fertilizers and synthetic pesticides
or genetically modified organisms, growth hormones, and antibiotics. The popularity of
organically grown foods is increasing day by day owing to their nutritional and health
benefits. Organic farming also protects the environment and has a greater socio-economic
impact on a nation. India is a country that is bestowed with indigenous skills and the
potential for growth in organic agriculture. Although India was far behind in the adoption of
organic farming due to several reasons, presently it has achieved rapid growth in organic
agriculture and has now become one of the largest organic producers in the world. Therefore,
organic farming has a great impact on the health of a nation like India by ensuring
sustainable development.
41. What is the most logical, rational and critical inference that can be drawn from the passage
given above?
(a) Organic farming is the predominant form of agriculture in India
(b) The use of heavy metals and pesticides in farming is the most harmful to human health
(c) Organically grown food is more nutritious than conventionally grown food
(d) Organic farming has no negative impact on the environment
SOLUTION:
The passage states that ‘conventionally grown foods are less nutritious and contain lesser
amounts of protective antioxidants.’
21
42. Which of the following assumptions are implied in the passage given above?
I. Consumers are generally more health conscious now than they used to be in the past.
II. Organic farming was not allowed in India pre-independence.
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
SOLUTION:
The passage states that ‘Food quality and safety are two important factors that have gained
ever-increasing attention among general consumers,’ but does not indicate that organic
farming was not allowed in India pre-independence.
43. A man completes 7/8 of a job in 14 days. How many more days will it take him to finish the
job if quantum of the work is further increased by 75%?
(a) 28 days
(b) 32 days
(c) 16 days
(d) 14 days
SOLUTION:
Time taken to complete 7/8 of work = 14 days
Time taken to complete the whole work = 16 days
Then, 75% of work extra = 75% of total days extra.
i.e., 175% of work = 16 + 12 = 28 days
More days to work = 28 – 14 = 14 days.
44. A conveyer belt in Chennai Domestic Airport delivers at the rate of 3 kg in 5 minutes and a
second conveyer belt delivers baggage at the rate of 1kg in 2 minutes. How much time will it
take to get 44 kg of baggage delivered using both conveyer belts?
(a) 32 minutes 30 seconds
(b) 36 minutes
(c) 38 minutes 20 seconds
(d) 40 minutes
SOLUTION:
Efficiency of conveyer belt 1 = 3/5
Efficiency of conveyer belt 2 = 1/2
Combined efficiency = 3/5 + 1/2 = 11/10 per minute
Time taken = Work to be done / Efficiency
Time = 44/(11/10) = 40 minutes
22
45. The first Earth Day was celebrated in 1970, when a United States senator
from Wisconsin organized a national demonstration to raise awareness about environmental
issues. Rallies took place across the country and, by the end of the year the U.S. government
had created the Environmental Protection Agency. Likewise, at the event of reforestation on
The Earth Day dated 22nd April 2022, a team of people planted trees equal to the number of
people of that team. With 21 trees extra planted by the team leader alone, the total number
of trees planted on that day is 1870. Then how many people were there in the team?
(a) 37
(b) 39
(c) 43
(d) 44
SOLUTION:
Number of people in the team = n
Number of trees planted by one person = n
Total number of trees = n2 + 21 [21 extra trees planted by the team lead]
n2 + 21 = 1870
n2 = 1849
n = 43
S.(46-47) Direction for the following 2 (two) item: Read the following Passage and answer
the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.
PASSAGE 8
Schools in rural areas are promoted to raise the level of education and literacy in rural India.
More than 40 per cent of India’s population is illiterate and cannot read or write, and schools
in rural areas are inadequate and often equivalent to being non-existent. Thus, the
government's initiative to set up schools in rural areas came into the picture. According to
Just Indian Schools, the condition of rural education in India is improving steadily and the
government is also providing full support and launching many initiatives. The fee structure
in these schools is also very low so that every child can study and afford it. There are many
initiatives undertaken by the government, but they are not implemented in the schools, so
the present scenario remains the same.
46. What is the most logical, rational and crucial message conveyed by the passage given above?
(a) More schools in rural India an affordable for majority of the children
(b) People in rural India do not give importance to going to school
(c) The Government of India has successfully achieved widespread attendance in rural
schools
(d) Government initiatives need better implementation in schools and rural India
23
SOLUTION:
The author concludes that ‘There are many initiatives undertaken by the government, but
they are not implemented in the schools, so the present scenario remains the same.’
47. Which of the following statements are false based on the passage given above?
I. Education is free in most of the schools in Indian villages.
II. Most of India's population is illiterate and cannot read or write.
III. The government has undertaken many initiatives in schools in rural India.
IV. Every child can afford to go to school in India.
V. The initiatives undertaken by the government in rural schools in India are not effective.
(a) Only I and II
(b) II, III and IV
(c) I, II, IV and V
(d) All of the above
SOLUTION:
The author states that ‘there are many initiatives undertaken by the government.’ This
supports statement III, but there is no support for any of the other statements; hence, all of
the others are false.
24
SOLUTION:
11*2+1 = 23
11*3-2 = 31
11*4+3 = 47
11*5-4 = 51
11*6+5 = 71
11*7-6 = 71
50. Khatija correctly remembers that she took leave after 21st August and before 27th August. Her
colleague Rita took leave on 23rd August but Khatija was present on that day. If 24th August
was a public holiday and 26th August was Sunday, on which day in August did Khatija take
leave?
(a) 22nd August
(b) 25th August
(c) 22nd or 25th August
(d) Data inadequate
SOLUTION:
According to Leave Data
But Khatija was present on 23rd. Also, it was holiday on 24th and 26th August was Sunday.
Hence, possible date may be either 22nd or 25th August
Directions for (Question 51): Study the information given below to answer the
question
A family consists of six members P, Q, R, X, Y and Z. Q is the son of R but R is not the mother
of Q.
P and R are married couple. Y is the brother of R. X is the daughter of P and Z is the brother
of P.
51. Who is the brother-in-law of R?
(a) P
(b) Z
(c) Y
(d) X
25
SOLUTION:
Z is brother-in-law of R
52. An agricultural field is in the form of a rectangular shape having length and breadth whose
sum is 80m. Then the area of the agricultural field will not exceed which one of the following
values?
(a) 800 sq. m
(b) 1600 sq. m
(c) 1200 sq. m
(d) 80 sq. m
SOLUTION:
“A rectangle with given perimeter, to have a maximum area – it has to be a square.”
So, in the above case, L = B
Then, L + L = 80
L = 40
Maximum area of the field = 402 = 1600
Thus the area of the field will not exceed 1600 sq. m.
53. The length of the longest pole that can be placed in a room 24m long, 18m wide and 16m
high, is
(a) 24 m
(b) 28 m
(c) 34 m
(d) 42 m
SOLUTION:
Length of the diagonal = √𝑙 2 + 𝑏 2 + ℎ2
= √242 + 182 + 162 = √1156 = 34
54. The average salary of 4 people of a family is Rs. 5300 per month. If the average of 3 elders of
the family is Rs. 6300, the average salary of the youngest is:
(a) Rs. 2300
(b) Rs. 3000
26
(c) Rs. 2500
(d) Rs. 3250
SOLUTION:
Total salary = 4*5300 = 21200
Salary of 3 elders = 3*6300 = 18900
Salary of the youngest = 21200 – 18900 = 2300
55. A cask contains 20 litres of 100% pure milk. 8 litres of milk is taken out from the cask and
is replaced by water. If this process is done for 3 more times, what is the ratio between milk
and water in the cask?
(a) 81 : 625
(b) 81 : 544
(c) 544 : 625
(d) 100 : 625
SOLUTION:
FC = IC [1 – Q/T]n
FC = 1 [1 – 8/20]4
FC = [3/5]4
FC = 81/625
Final concentration of Milk = 81/625
So, Final concentration of Water = 1 – 81/625 = 544/625
Ratio, Milk : Water = 81 : 544
S.(56-57) Direction for the following 2 (two) item: Read the following Passage and answer
the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.
PASSAGE 9
India’s dalliance with the nuclear question goes way back to the early 1940s. Well before
India shook itself free from British colonialism, the American use of atomic bombs against
Japan, and the full story of the efforts – unsuccessful in Germany and successful in the
United States – to build nuclear weapons came to light. India’s interest in the nuclear issues
was spurred by the emergence of an impressive community of scientists in the early decades
of the 20th century in India, who managed to produce world quality work despite the utter
backwardness of the country. Scientists like C.V. Raman, Ramanujam and S.N. Bose were
making substantive contributions to international scientific development. Indians, with a
long tradition of excellence in mathematics, took eagerly to modern physics that was about
to fundamentally transform the world.
27
56. Which of the following statements can be inferred from the passage given above?
(a) India was a well-established nuclear power in the 1940s
(b) India has the most impressive scientist in the world at the beginning of the 20th century
(c) Indian scientists contributed greatly to international scientific development in
spite of domestic problems
(d) India's nuclear programme has been successful since the latter part of the 20th century
SOLUTION:
The author mentions that ‘India’s interest in the nuclear issues was spurred by the emergence
of an impressive community of scientists in the early decades of the 20th century in India,
who managed to produce world quality work despite the utter backwardness of the country.’
57. Which of the following assumptions are implied in the passage given above?
I. Indians have always been excellent in mathematics.
II. America drop several atomic bombs on Germany during the Second World War.
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
SOLUTION:
Neither assumption forms the basis for the arguments presented in the passage.
58. If in a certain code language ‘BETTER’ is written as ‘EHWQBO’ then how will ‘FORMAL’ be
written in that language?
(a) IRJUXI
(b) IRUIXJ
(c) IRUJXI
(d) IRUJIX
SOLUTION:
28
59. Shalini is shorter than Kiran but taller than Ragini, Madhavi is the tallest. Aarohi is a little
shorter than Kiran and little taller than Shalini. If they stand in the order of increasing
heights, who will be the second?
(a) Aarohi
(b) Shalini
(c) Ragini
(d) Madhavi
SOLUTION:
(K= Kiran,
S= Shalini,
R= Ragini,
M= Madhavi,
A= Aarohi)
According to the question,
K>S>R
Madhavi is the tallest
K>A>S
On arranging the above data, we get
M>K>A>S>R
Or
R <S< A < K < M
↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓
1 2 3 4 5
Hence, Shalini will be the second.
S.(60-61) Direction for the following 2 (two) item: Read the following Passage and answer
the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.
PASSAGE 10
Modernity and democracy are products of a dual revolution in Europe: The industrial
revolution and the French revolution. Modernity is followed by liberal democracy. We in India
have adopted the principles of these two revolutions, (and more, we even hoped for a vague
socialism), into the theory and practice of our democracy. However, of the principles of the
two revolutions, the political principles of the French revolution, liberty, equality and
fraternity, however internally contradictory in a capitalist society, have been postulated
without the accompanying industrial revolution and development. The situation is that we
have provided for ourselves political rights and democracy without providing accompanying
means to realise them.
29
60. What is the most logical, rational and critical inference that can be drawn from the passage
given above?
(a) Industrial development can facilitate the realization of political rights in a
democracy
(b) The industrial revolution was more important than the French revolution in European
history
(c) India is primarily a capitalist society with socialistic undertones
(d) Liberty and equality were the most highly valued pillars of the French revolution
SOLUTION:
The author states that ‘liberty, equality and fraternity, however internally contradictory in a
capitalist society, have been postulated without the accompanying industrial revolution and
development’ and that ‘we have provided for ourselves political rights and democracy without
providing accompanying means to realise them.’ The implication is that industrial revolution
and development would have provided the accompanying means.
61. Which of the following assumptions are implied in the passage given above?
I. Liberty, equality and fraternity run against the fabric of a capitalist society.
II. Democracy cannot occur before modernity has been established.
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
SOLUTION:
The passage mentions that ‘the political principles of the French revolution, liberty, equality
and fraternity, however internally contradictory in a capitalist society, have been postulated,’
but does not state that ‘democracy cannot occur before modernity has been established.’
62. At what time between 30 past 11 and 12, the hands of a clock incline at right angle?
5
(a) 14 minutes past 11.30
11
7
(b) 12 minutes past 11.30
11
𝟕
(c) 13 minutes past 11.30
𝟏𝟏
5
(d) 12 minutes past 11.30
11
SOLUTION:
11
θ = |30H − M|
2
30
11
90 = |30(11) − M|
2
11
90 = 330 − M
2
11
240 = M
2
480 7
M= = 43
11 11
7
13 minutes past 11: 30.
11
63. From the squad of 14 players, in how many ways a team of 11 be chosen where the captain
and wise captain are already selected for the team?
(a) 168
(b) 220
(c) 210
(d) 245
SOLUTION:
Out of 14 players, 2 are already in the team.
So, we need 9 more players to be chosen from the remaining 12 players.
Number of ways = 12C9 = 12C3 = 220
S.(64-65) Direction for the following 2 (two) item: Read the following Passage and answer
the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.
PASSAGE 11
Time management is considered to be a skill that should be mastered by all the individuals
at all levels and in all walks of life. Some people keep extremely busy schedules that arise out
of their educational requirements, office work, job duties or household chores. In order to
avoid feeling stressed or pressurised due to work, it is required to effectively implement time
management. Time management is also considered to be the management of one's life in an
appropriate manner. Good time management means deciding what an individual wants to
achieve in life and how he should establish ways to attain his desires and objectives.
Appropriate time management involves less stress and pressure, increased recreation, more
contentment, and greater completion and success.
64. What is the main message conveyed by the passage given above?
(a) Alleviation of stress is an integral part of proper time management
(b) People who are not good at time management cannot be successful in life
(c) Office work is the major cause of stress in most people's lives
(d) People with busy schedules are more likely to be stressed then those who are less
occupied
31
SOLUTION:
The author concludes that ‘Appropriate time management involves less stress and pressure,
increased recreation, more contentment, and greater completion and success.’
65. Which of the following assumptions are implied in the passage given above?
I. There are some people for whom time management is not an important skill to master.
II. Good time management leads to more contentment and recreation in life.
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
SOLUTION:
The author opines that ‘Time management is considered to be a skill that should be mastered
by all the individuals at all levels and in all walks of life’ and that ‘Appropriate time
management involves less stress and pressure, increased recreation, more contentment, and
greater completion and success.’
66. Surface area of the two spherical balls is in the ratio 4 : 9. Find the radius of the bigger ball,
if the radius of the smaller ball is 4cm.
(a) 5 cm
(b) 7.5 cm
(c) 6 cm
(d) 9 cm
SOLUTION:
Surface Area 1 : Surface Area 2 = 4πR 12 : 4πR22
4 : 9 = 4πR12 : 4πR22
R12 : R22 = 4 : 9
R1 : R2 = 2 : 3
Here, R1 = 4cm.
4/R2 = 2 /3
R2 = 6
67. Three unbiased dice are thrown. What is the probability of at least one dice shows the least
prime number?
(a) 13/36
(b) 17/36
(c) 91/216
(d) 125/216
32
SOLUTION:
Total number of outcomes = 6 x 6 x 6 = 216
Least prime number = 2.
Number of outcomes where there is no die having 2 on it = 5 x 5 x 5 = 125
Numbers of outcomes where at least one die shows 2 on it = 216 – 125 = 91
Probability = 91/216
S.(68) Direction for the following 1 (one) item: Read the following Passage and answer the
items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.
PASSAGE 12
When we talk of Indian culture, we actually speak of a rich plurality of cultural traditions
and not a monolithic entity. This plurality in some cases is the consequence of a common
origin (as in the case of the majority of Indian languages); in other cases of shared heritage
(such as our music, architecture, many popular religious cults etc.); and in still others a
common struggle against colonial rule. Equally important is the fact that we also perceive
ourselves as part of a common culture cutting across national boundaries. This common
cultural heritage is the legacy of a complex interaction of various cultures through centuries
of shared existence.
68. What is the most logical, rational and crucial message conveyed by the passage given above?
(a) Indian culture is multi-dimensional and the oldest in the world
(b) There are various factors that have contributed to the plurality of Indian culture
(c) Indian music is more diverse than the music found in other parts of the world
(d) Indian culture finds its roots in various geographies spread out all over the world
SOLUTION:
The author highlights that ‘This plurality in some cases is the consequence of a common
origin (as in the case of the majority of Indian languages); in other cases of shared heritage
(such as our music, architecture, many popular religious cults etc.); and in still others a
common struggle against colonial rule.’
Directions for (Questions 69-70): Study the information given below to answer these
questions
I. Six flats on a floor in two rows facing North and South are allotted to A, B, C, D, E and
F.
II. B gets a North facing flat and is not next to D.
III. D and F get diagonally opposite flats.
IV. C next to F, gets a South facing flat and E gets a North facing flat.
33
69. Whose flat is between B and D?
(a) E
(b) F
(c) C
(d) A
SOLUTION:
70. The flats of which of the pair, other than DF, are diagonally opposite to each other?
(a) AE
(b) BA
(c) BC
(d) ED
SOLUTION:
Flats of B and A are diagonally opposite to each other.
S.(71-72) Direction for the following 2 (two) item: Read the following Passage and answer
the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.
PASSAGE 13
The history of sports in India can be traced back to the ancient time of Vedic era. At that
time, sports were used for the development of the physique and for defence. It is well said
that “a healthy mind resides in a healthy body” and with this we can recognise the importance
of games in our life. India was one of the most developed countries in the ancient period. It
gave many games and sports to the world and also accepted the modernised or improved
version of them from the world. India has a rich heritage of different sports activities which
can be found in archaeological excavations of Mohenjo Daro and Harappa, the Vedic
literature, the other epics and the literary works of different cultures.
71. Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from the passage given above?
(a) India was the most developed country in the ancient world
(b) Archaeological excavations of Mohenjo Daro and Harappa reveal detailed sculptures of
sporting events
34
(c) Most of the modern sports played today find their origins in India
(d) Sports were used in the Vedic era for physical development and defence
SOLUTION:
The passage states that ‘At that time, sports were used for the development of the physique
and for defence.’
72. Which of the following assumptions are implied in the passage given above?
I. Ancient India was open to accepting improvised versions of its own sporting exports.
II. The development of sports is not a new phenomenon in India.
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
SOLUTION:
The author states that ‘It gave many games and sports to the world and also accepted the
modernised or improved version of them from the world’ and also that ‘The history of sports
in India can be traced back to the ancient time of Vedic era.’
73. A person lives in a far off village which is almost two hours by bus. The villager’s neighbor is
a very powerful landlord who is trying to occupy the poor villager’s land by force. You are the
District Magistrate and busy in a meeting called by a local minister. The villager has come all
the way, by bus and on foot, to see you and give an application seeking protection from the
powerful landlord. The villager keeps on waiting outside the meeting hall for an hour. You
come out of the meeting and are rushing to another meeting. The villager follows you to
submit his application. What would you do?
(a) Tell him to wait for another two hours till you come back from your next meeting
(b) Tell him that the matter is actually to be dealt by a junior officer and that he should give
the application to him
(c) Call one of your senior subordinate officers and ask him to solve the villager’s problem
(d) Quickly take the application from him, ask him a few relevant questions regarding
his problem and then proceed to the meeting
SOLUTION:
Here, we have two objectives to achieve at the same time. Firstly, we have to help the villager
who has come from far off. Secondly, we have to reach the second meeting on time. Option
(d) allows us to achieve both.
35
Option (c) also achieves the same objectives though it means that the villager will have to wait
for a little more time. Options (a) and (b) are wrong as, they will increase the troubles of the
villager who might not be able to wait longer.
75. A shop keeper mixes two varieties of sugar costing Rs. 78 per kg and Rs. 90 per kg respectively
and sold the mixture at the rate of Rs. 85 per kg. Then, ratio between the sugar varieties in
the mixture is
(a) 5 : 6
(b) 4 : 3
(c) 5 : 7
(d) 2 : 5
SOLUTION:
36
76. Find out which statement is/are sufficient to answer the question:
Three people A, B and C are getting money which sums to Rs.80. How much amount does B
get?
1. B gets 40% of the total amount.
2. A and C get Rs. 45 together.
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Either 1 or 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
SOLUTION:
Total amount = 80
Case 1:
B gets 40%
Amount given to B = 40% of 80 = 32
Case 2:
A and C get Rs.45 together
Amount given to B = 80 – 45 = 35
S.(77) Direction for the following 1 (one) item: Read the following Passage and answer the
items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.
PASSAGE 14
The working of Indian Railways is caught up between making it a self-sufficient organisation
and serving it as a transport system for the poor. The result being no rise in passenger fares,
and new trains and routes being decided for non-commercial reasons. The passenger fares
usually remain static for years, burdening the Union Budget. In order to keep finances in
check, freight charges have been raised in the past. But the discrepancy between freight
charges and passenger fares seems to distort the Railways' performance. Therefore, the recent
decision of surge pricing of tickets in premium trains is a move in the correct direction. But
the biggest headache for Railways is expansion of their freight basket.
77. Which of the following assumptions are implied in the passage given above?
I. The pricing mechanism of the Railways in India is hampered by the pressure for low
passenger fares.
II. The Indian Railways is a self-sufficient organisation.
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
37
SOLUTION:
The author states that ‘The passenger fares usually remain static for years, burdening the
Union Budget,’ but does not state that the Indian Railways is already a self-sufficient
organisation.
78. In a box there are twice as many as apples as there are bananas. Also, three lesser oranges
than apples. If there are ten bananas in the box and you have to take one fruit at a time
randomly from the box blindfolded, how many fruits you have to take to ensure that you had
taken at least one from each variety of the fruit?
(a) 28
(b) 31
(c) 38
(d) 47
SOLUTION:
Bananas = 10
Apples = 2(Bananas) = 20
Oranges = Apples – 3
= 20 – 3 = 17
To ensure we had taken at least one, you have to take fruits in worst case possible mode.
That is in descending order with respect to the number of fruits in each variety.
i.e., Worst case scenario = 20 + 17 + 1 = 38
79. The following table shows the distribution of topics given in UPSC - GS paper 1 on the year
2019.
Topics in GS paper 1 Number of Questions
Agriculture 4
Art and Culture 3
Current Affairs 14
Economy 20
Environment 22
Geography 14
History 12
Science and Tech 11
If the table content is drawn into a pie diagram, what is the central angle of the sector
representing the topic Economics on the pie diagram?
(a) 79.2°
(b) 72°
(c) 50.4°
(d) 68.4°
38
SOLUTION:
Economics to Total Questions ratio = 20 : 100
Angle of the sector = (20/100) x 360° = 72°
S.(80) Direction for the following 1 (one) item: Read the following Passage and answer the
items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.
PASSAGE 15
India is poised to experience a rapid upswing in the business aviation sector due to its
strategic geographic location, favourable demographics and robust economic growth. Located
strategically between the Middle East and Europe on one side and the East Asian economies
on the other, India’s geography offers a lucrative opportunity for growth of general and non-
scheduled aviation due to the rising demand from the ever-growing volume of high net-worth
individuals and business houses in the country.
80. What is the main idea conveyed by the passage given above?
(a) There are many high net-worth individuals in India
(b) India has a strategic geographic location
(c) India has favourable circumstances for the development of the general aviation
sector
(d) Aviation industry in India is still in its nascent stages
SOLUTION:
The author concludes that ‘India’s geography offers a lucrative opportunity for growth of
general and non-scheduled aviation due to the rising demand from the ever-growing volume
of high net-worth individuals and business houses in the country.’
39