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Subject 1 Algebra Trigonometry Plane Geometry Solid Geometry Analytic Geometry Probability Physics

The document provides examples of problems from various topics in algebra, trigonometry, and geometry. It includes 10 problems related to trigonometric functions involving angles of elevation, depression, and bearings. It also provides 10 problems involving properties of triangles, such as using interior angles, side lengths, and angle measurements to solve for unknown distances and angles. The document serves as a study guide, providing practice problems across fundamental math topics to help students prepare for exams.

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Dani Lubos
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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
783 views49 pages

Subject 1 Algebra Trigonometry Plane Geometry Solid Geometry Analytic Geometry Probability Physics

The document provides examples of problems from various topics in algebra, trigonometry, and geometry. It includes 10 problems related to trigonometric functions involving angles of elevation, depression, and bearings. It also provides 10 problems involving properties of triangles, such as using interior angles, side lengths, and angle measurements to solve for unknown distances and angles. The document serves as a study guide, providing practice problems across fundamental math topics to help students prepare for exams.

Uploaded by

Dani Lubos
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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CE199-1L

SUBJECT 1
Algebra
Trigonometry
Plane Geometry
Solid Geometry
Analytic Geometry
Probability
Physics

SUBJECT 2
Fluid Mechanics
Hydraulics

SUBJECT 3
Engineering Mechanics
Strength of Materials
ALGEBRA
Proportions and Variations
1. If y varies directly with x and y = 4 when x = 5, what is the value of y when x = 8?
2. A military camp has 300 men. The required meal budget for six months of training is 1
million pesos. At the end of training period, 128 men were laid off and the remaining is
to undergo the next stage of training for 2 months. What is the required budget at this
point?
Motion Problem
3. Two trains leave a city at the same time, one traveling east and the other traveling west.
At the end of 9.5 hours, they are 1292 miles apart. If the rate of the train traveling east
is 8 miles per hour faster than the rate of the other train, find their rates.
4. On a 130-mile trip from Orlando to Sarasota, Roberto encountered a heavy
thunderstorm for the last 40 miles of the trip. During the thunderstorm he drove an
average of 20 miles per hour slower than before the storm. The entire trip took 2.5 hours.
How fast did he drive before the storm?
5. John Paul always runs his pontoon boat at full throttle, which results in the boat traveling
at a constant speed. Going up the river against the current the boat traveled 72 miles in
4.5 hours. The return trip down the river with the help of the current only took three
hours. Find the speed of the boat and the speed of the current.
Work Problem
6. If Jim can mow a lawn in 50 minutes, and his son, Todd, can mow the same lawn in 40
minutes, how long will it take them to mow the lawn if they work together?
7. It takes Pat 12 hours to detail a boat. After he had been working for 3 hours, he was
joined by his brother Mike, and together they finished the detailing in 5 hours. How
long would it take Mike to detail the boat by himself?
Systems of Three Linear Equations in Three Variables
8. The organizer for a church picnic ordered coleslaw, potato salad, and beans amounting
to 50 pounds. There was to be three times as much potato salad as coleslaw. The number
of pounds of beans was to be 6 less than the number of pounds of potato salad. Find the
number of pounds of each.
Inequality
9. Sari had scores of 94, 84, 86, and 88 on her first four exams of the semester. What score
must she obtain on the fifth exam to have an average of 90 or better for the five exams?
Exponential and Logarithmic
10. Suppose that in a certain culture, the equation Q(t) = 15,000e0.3t expresses the number
of bacteria present as a function of the time t, where t is expressed in hours. Find (a) the
initial number of bacteria, (b) the number of bacteria after 3 hours and (c) How long
will it take for the bacteria count to double
Arithmetic Progression
11. Find the first term of the arithmetic sequence if the fourth term is 26 and the ninth term
is 61.
12. Find the sum of the first 30 terms of the arithmetic sequence 3, 7, 11, 15, . . . .
13. State University had an enrollment of 15,600 students in 1994. Each year the enrollment
increased by 1050 students. What was the enrollment in 2009?
Geometric Progression
14. Find the ninth term of the geometric sequence 27, 9, 3, 1, . . . .
15. Find the sum of 1, 3, 9, 27, … , 6561.
16. Find the sum of the infinite geometric sequence 1, ½, ¼, 1/8 …
17. Suppose an element has a half-life of 3 hours. If at a particular moment we have 768
grams of the element, how many grams of it will remain 24 hours later?
18. A rubber ball is dropped from a height of 27 m. Each time that it hits the ground it
bounces to a height 2/3 of that from which it fell. Find the total distance travelled by the
ball until it comes to rest?
Binomial Theorem
19. Determine the 5th term of the expansion (2x+3y)12
20. Determine the middle term of the expansion of (3a – b)8
21. What is the coefficient of the term containing x4 in the expansion of (x – 2y)10

PRINCIPLE OF COUNTING
If some procedure can be performed in nl different ways, and if, following this procedure, a
second procedure can be performed in n2 different ways, and so forth; then the number of ways
the procedures can be performed in the order indicated is the products
𝑛1 ∙ 𝑛2 ∙ 𝑛3 …
1. Suppose a license plate contains two distinct letters followed by three digits with the first
digit not zero. How many different license plates can be printed? Ans. 585,000
2. In how many ways can one choose three cards in succession from a deck of 52 cards?
a. with replacement. Ans. 140,608
b. without replacement. Ans. 132,600
3. If repetitions are permitted, from the 6 digits 0, 2, 3, 4, 5, and 8
a. How many 3-digit numbers can be formed?
b. How many of these are even?
c. How many are less than 440?
d. How many are multiples of 5?
4. Answer the previous problem if repetitions are not permitted.

Permutations
An arrangement of “n” distinct objects taken “r” at a time.
𝑛!
𝑛𝑃𝑟 =
(𝑛 − 𝑟)!

5. In how many ways can a party of 7 persons arrange themselves?


a. In a row of 7 chairs. Ans. 5040
b. Around a circular table. Ans. 720
6. A group of 3 boys and 2 girls are to sit in a row.
a. In how many ways can they sit in a row without restrictions? Ans. 120
b. In how many ways can they sit in a row if the boys and girls are each to sit together?
Ans. 24
c. In how many ways can they sit in a row if just the girls are to sit together? Ans. 48

Permutation with Repetitions


- The number of permutations of n objects of which n1 are alike, n2 are alike, ..., nr are alike is
𝑛!
𝑛1 ! 𝑛2 ! … 𝑛𝑟 !
7. How many 5 letter words can be formed from the word DADDY? Ans. 20
8. How many different signals, each consisting of 8 flags hung in a vertical line, can be formed
from a set of 4 identical red flags, 3 identical white flags, and a blue flag? Ans. 280

Combination
A selection of “n” distinct objects taken “r” at a time.
𝑛!
𝑛𝐶𝑟 =
𝑟! (𝑛 − 𝑟)!

9. How many committees of 3 can be formed from 8 people? Ans. 56


10. In how many ways can a committee consisting of 3 men and 2 women be chosen from 7
men and 5 women? Ans. 350
11. A delegation of 4 students is selected each year from a college to attend the National Student
Association annual meeting.
a. In how many ways can the delegation be chosen if there are 12 eligible students?
Ans. 495
b. In how many ways if two of the eligible students will not attend the meeting
together? Ans. 450
c. In how many ways if two of the eligible students are married and will only attend the meeting
together? Ans. 255
TRIGONOMETRY
Trigonometric Functions
1. A surveyor can measure the width of a river by setting up a transit at a point C on one
side of the river and taking a sighting of a point A on the other side. After turning
through an angle of 90° at C, the surveyor walks a distance of 200 meters to point B.
Using the transit at B, the angle is measured and found to be 20°. What is the width of
the river rounded to the nearest meter?
2. Adorning the top of the Board of Trade building in Chicago is a statue of Ceres, the
Roman goddess of wheat. From street level, two observations are taken 400 feet from
the center of the building. The angle of elevation to the base of the statue is found to be
55.1° and the angle of elevation to the top of the statue is 56.5°. What is the height of
the statue?
3. A Boeing 777 aircraft takes off from O’Hare Airport on runway 2 LEFT, which has a
bearing of N20°E. After flying for 1 mile, the pilot of the aircraft requests permission
to turn 90° and head toward the northwest. The request is granted. After the plane goes
2 miles in this direction, what bearing should the control tower use to locate the aircraft?
4. A tree growing on hillside casts 10.2 meters shadow straight downhill. Find the vertical
height of the tree if, relative to the horizontal, the hill slopes 15° and the angle of
elevation of the sun is 62°.
5. From a building across, the angle of depression of the base of the front edifice is 23.5°
and the angle of elevation to the top is 52.78°. The height of observation is 14 m. What
is the height of edifice?
Triangles in General
6. Solve the interior angles of the triangle with and a = 3 ft, b = 4 ft, c = 6 ft.
7. A fire at F is spotted from two fire lookout stations, A and B, which are located 10.3 mi
apart. If station B reports the fire at angle ABF = 52.6°, and station A reports the fire at
angle BAF = 25.3°, how far is the fire from station A?
8. Cleveland, Columbus, and Toledo form a triangle in Ohio with Columbus 120 mi
southeast of Toledo, and Cleveland 112 mi northeast of Columbus. If the angle at Toledo
is 59.7°, how far is it from Toledo to Cleveland?
9. A ship sails 15.0 mi on a course S40°10’W and then 21.0 mi on a course N28°20’W.
Find the distance and direction of the last position from the first.
10. Coast Guard Station Zulu is located 120 miles due west of Station X-ray. A ship at sea
sends an SOS call that is received by each station. The call to Station Zulu indicates that
the bearing of the ship from Zulu is N 40° E (40° east of north). The call to Station X-
ray indicates that the bearing of the ship from X-ray is N 30° W (30° west of north).
How far is each station from the ship?

ANALYTIC GEOMETRY
Distance Formula
1. Two surveyors need to find the distance across a lake. They place a reference pole at
point A in the diagram. Point B is 3 meters east and 1 meter north of the reference
point A. Point C is 19 meters east and 13 meters north of point A. Find the distance
across the lake, from B to C.
Equation of Lines
2. Determine the equation of the line passing through the points (-5, 3) and (4, 2).
Parallel and Perpendicular Lines
3. Find the equation of the line perpendicular to x–4y=3 and passing through the point
(2, -5)
Distance of a Point to a Line
4. Determine the distance from the point (5, -3) to the line 2x – 4y + 10 = 0
Angles between Two Lines
5. Determine the acute angle between the lines 4x – 3y +9 = 0 and 3x – 8y + 1 = 0.
Circles
6. Determine the center of the circle with equation x2 + y2 – 4x + 6y – 23=0.
Parabola
7. Where is the vertex of the parabola x2 – 4y + 8 = 0?
8. An arch 18 m high has the form of parabola with a vertical axis. The length of a
horizontal beam placed across the arch 8 m from the top is 64m. Find the width of the
arch at the bottom.
9. A mirror for a reflecting telescope has the shape of a (finite) paraboloid of diameter 8
inches and depth 1 inch. How far from the center of the mirror will the incoming light
collect?
Ellipse
10. The arch of a bridge is on the shape of a semi-ellipse having a horizontal span of 90 m
and a height of 30 m at its center. How high is the arch 25 m to the right or left of the
center?
11. Assume that the length of the major axis of Earth’s orbit is 186,000,000 miles and that
the eccentricity is 0.017. Approximate, to the nearest 1000 miles, the maximum and
minimum distances between Earth and the sun.
Hyperbola
12. A cooling tower is a hyperbolic structure. Suppose its base diameter is 100 meters and
its smallest diameter of 48 meters occurs 84 meters from the base. If the tower is 120
meters high, approximate its diameter at the top.

Area by Coordinates
13. Find the area of a polygon whose vertices are (3, 5), (-1, -7), (-2, 4) and (5, -6).
PLANE GEOMETRY

1. The sum of interior angles of a regular polygon is 1260 degrees. Find the area of the
polygon if its perimeter is 45 centimeters.
2. Determine the area of a regular polygon whose number of diagonals is 5 and its apothem
measures 4.

Triangles
1
𝐴1 = 𝑏ℎ
a c 2
1
h 𝐴2 = 𝑎𝑏 sin 𝜃
θ 2
b 𝑎+𝑏+𝑐
𝐴3 = √𝑠(𝑠 − 𝑎)(𝑠 − 𝑏)(𝑠 − 𝑐) 𝑤ℎ𝑒𝑟𝑒 𝑠 =
2
3. Two sides of a triangle measure 8 m and 12 m and the angle opposite the 8-m side is 30
degrees, determine the area of the triangle.
4. Given two similar triangles whose one triangle has sides 10 cm, 24 cm and 30 cm. Find
the area of the other triangle given that its smallest side measure 6 cm.
Quadrilaterals
5. If the sides of the parallelogram and an
included angle are 8m, 12m, and 120°,
respectively. Find the length of the shorter
diagonal and the area of the parallelogram.
Circles

Area = πr2 Circumference = 2πr


6. The circle of radius 18 cm is unbent to form an arc subtending a central angle of 300°.
Find the radius of the arc.
7. The chord that cuts the circle into two segments is 5 cm from the center. The area of the
circle is 1018 cm2. Find the ratio of the segments formed.
8. Two points on a circle is subtended by another point on a circle with an angle of 40°. If
the radius of the circle is 5, what is the distance between the two points along the circle
and what is the shortest distance between them?

SOLID GEOMETRY

Polyhedron
1. The areas of two similar tetrahedrons are 24 sq. in. and 96 sq. in. Find the ratio of their
volumes.

Prisms
- it is defined as a polyhedron with two congruent bases that lie in parallel planes, and
whose every section that is parallel to a base has the same area as that of the base.
2. A trough has triangular ends. The top of the through is a horizontal rectangle 50 cm by
80 cm having 50 as the base of the triangle. The depth of the trough is 40 cm, (a)
determine the capacity of the trough. (b) If it contains water at a depth of 30 cm
determine the wet portion of the trough.
3. A closed right cylindrical tank 8 m high and 4 m in diameter is ¼ full of water. What is
the height of the water when it is lying in horizontal position?
4. In a rectangular parallelepiped, the lengths and width of the base are 12 in. and 9 in.,
respectively. Find the volume of the solid if the length of the diagonal of the solid is 25
inches.
5. The total surface area of a cube is 150 in2. Find the measure of an edge and a diagonal
of the cube.

Pyramids/ Cones
- a polyhedron containing triangular lateral faces with common vertex and a polygon
base.

6. A circular piece of cardboard with diameter of 25 cm will be made into a conical hat of
10 cm high by cutting a sector and joining the edges to for a cone. Determine the angle
subtended by the sector which was removed and the volume of the conical hat.

Frustum
- is a solid figure created by slicing the tip of a pyramid or a cone with a plane parallel
to the base.

7. The base edges of a frustum of a regular square pyramid are 4 in and 8 in., and its altitude
is 10 in. Find the volume and the total area of the frustum.

Sphere
- is a solid bounded by a closed surface whose set of all points is equidistant from a
fixed point called center.
8. The surface area of a sphere is 314.16 cm2, determine its volume.
Spherical Segment
- is a solid formed by passing two parallel cutting planes through a sphere.

9. A sphere is cut by a plane which is 3 cm from the center of the sphere. If the diameter
of the plane area cut is 8 cm. determine the volume of the sphere.
10. A sphere is cut by a plane, if the radius of the plane cut is 4 cm and the diameter of the
great circle is 10 cm, determine the volume of the spherical segment and the total surface
area of the smaller segment.
DIFFERENTIAL CALCULUS
Derivative by Power, Product, and Quotient
1. Determine the derivative of (x+3)^2+x^3 with respect to x.
a. 3x^2+2x+3 b. 3x^2+2x+6 c. 3x^2+2x-3 d. 3x^2+2x-6
2. Determine the derivative of (x^2-1)(2x^2-3) with respect to x.
a. 4x(4x^2-5) b. 2x(4x^2-5) c. 2x(4x^2+5) d. 4x(4x^2+5)
3. Determine the derivative of (x+2)^3/x.
a. [3x(x+2)+(x+2)^3]/x^2 c. [3x(x+2)^2+(x+2)^3]/x^2
b. [3x(x+2)^2-(x+2)^3]/x^2 d. [3(x+2)^2-(x+2)^3]/x^2

Derivatives of Trigonometric Functions


4. Determine the derivative of sin43𝑥.
a. 12 sin33𝑥 cos 3𝑥 b. 4 sin33𝑥 cos 3𝑥 c. 12 sin33𝑥 d. 4 sin33𝑥
5. Given that 𝑦 = 𝑥 tan2𝑥, find y’ when x = 2.
a. 3.66 x 10^-3 b. -45.69 c. -0.212 d. 5.61

Derivatives of Logarithmic Functions


6. Determine the derivative of log (3𝑥 + 5)
7. Determine the derivative of ln|2𝑥2− 2𝑥|

Derivatives of Exponential Functions


8. Determine the derivative of 23𝑥.
9. Determine the derivative of 𝑒5𝑥+1

Implicit Differentiation
10. Find dy/dx of the function x2 + xy + 2y2 + 3x - 2y + 5 = 0.

Slope of a Curve
11. What is the slope of the curve x2 + y2 – 6x + 10y + 5 = 0 at (1, 0)?
a. 2/5 b. 5/2 c. -2/5 d. -5/2
12. What is the equation of the tangent line to the curve x + y – 6x + 10y + 5 = 0 at (5, 0).
2 2

Maxima / Minima
13. Find the maximum value of y = 4sinx+3cosx.
a. 5 b. 4 c. 4.95 d. 7
14. A window is in the shape of a rectangle, surmounted by a semi-circle. If the perimeter of
the window is 20 ft, what is its maximum area?
a. 24 b. 26 c. 28 d. 30
15. A cylindrical can is to contain 2000 in^3 of liquid. What height will minimize the cost of
metal to be used in the construction of the can?
a. 8.60 b. 13.66 c. 6.83 d. 17.20
16. A rectangular poster, which contain 50 in^2 of print, must have a margin of 2 in on each
side and 4 in on top and bottom. What height will minimize the amount of material used?
a. 18 b. 16 c. 15 d. 12
17. A triangle has a base of 24 m and an altitude of 18 m. A rectangle is inscribed in it such that
its base coincides with the 24 m base. Determine the largest area of the rectangle.
a. 118 b. 108 c. 90 d. 135

Time Rates
18. From the same starting point, a snail and a turtle run at the same time in perpendicular
directions for 3 kph and 4 kph respectively. How fast is their distance changing after 2 hours?
a. 4.5 kph b. 5 kph c. 5.5 kph d. 6 kph
19. A man, 1.6 m tall is walking on a horizontal street at 3 kph away from a vertical street light,
3 m high. How fast is the length of his shadow increasing when he is 2 m from the street light?
20. A battle ship is 1.5 km from a straight shore. It is targeting an enemy troop running along
the shore at 4 kph. How fast is the gun of the battle ship rotating when the troop is 500 m from
the point on the shore nearest to the battle ship in revolutions per hour?
21. The legs of a right triangle are 70 cm. If one of the legs starts to shrink at the rate of 5
cm/min and the other increases at the same rate, how fast is the length of the hypotenuse of the
triangle changing 2 min later?
a. 1 cm/min b. 2 cm/min c. 5 cm/min d. 7 cm/min

Flow Rates
22. There is a constant inflow of liquid into a conical vessel 15 ft deep and 7.50 ft in diameter
at the top. Water is flowing at the rate of 6 ft3/min. When the water is 4 ft deep, determine the
rate of water rise.
a. 1.68 ft/min b. 1.78 ft/min c. 1.84 ft/min d. 1.91 ft/min
23. Water is flowing at constant rate of 125.664 cm3/s in a hemispherical bowl with radius 20
cm. If the height of water is increasing at 0.196 cm/s, what is the height of the water at this
instant?
a. 4 cm b. 5 cm c. 6 cm d. 7 cm
24. A spherical snowball is melting in such a way that its surface area decreases at the rate of 1
in2/min. How fast is its radius shrinking when it is 3 in?

Circle of Curvature
25. Determine the radius of curvature at (4, 4) of the curve y2 – 4x = 0.
a. 23.4 b. 22.4 c. 25.4 d. 24.4
26. Find the area of circle tangent to 𝑦 = 𝑥3 + 3𝑥 − 1 at (1, 3).
a. 3450 b. 4420 c. 4590 d. 5680
INTEGRAL CALCULUS
Integration of Powers
1. Evaluate:
𝑥 3 + 5𝑥 2 − 4
∫ 𝑑𝑥
𝑥2
2. Evaluate:
𝑥 2 𝑑𝑥
∫4
√𝑥 3 + 2

Integration of Trigonometric Functions


3. Evaluate:
∫ sin2 𝑥 cos 𝑥 𝑑𝑥
4. Evaluate:
cos √𝑥
∫ 𝑑𝑥
√𝑥

Integration of Exponential Functions


5. Evaluate:
∫ 3(2𝑥 ) 𝑑𝑥
6. Evaluate:
3
∫ 𝑥 2 𝑒 𝑥 𝑑𝑥

Equation of Curves
7. Find an equation of the curve passing through the point (3, 2) and having slope 5x2 − x + 1
at every point (x, y).

RECTANGULAR COORDINATES

Plane Areas
8. Find the area under the parabola y = x2 − 2x + 2, above the x axis, and between x = 0 and x
= 1.
1
9. Find the area of the region between the parabola y = x2 and the line 𝑦 = 2 𝑥 + 2.
10. Find the area of the region between the curves y = sin x and y = cos x from x = 0 to x = π/4.
Centroid and Moment of Inertia
1
11. (a) Find the centroid of the region bounded by the parabola y = x2 and the line 𝑦 = 2 𝑥 +
2.
(b) Find its moment of inertia with respect to the x – axis.

Length of Plane Curves


12. Find the arc length L of the curve y = x3/2 from x = 0 to x = 5.

Volume of a Solid of Revolution


13. Find the volume of the solid obtained by revolving about the y axis the region in the first
quadrant inside the circle x2 + y2 = 52.
14. Find the volume of the solid obtained by revolving about the y-axis the region in the first
quadrant bounded below by the parabola y = 2 − x2 and above by the parabola y = x2.

Area of a Surface of Revolution


15. Find the area of the surface of revolution generated by revolving about the x axis the arc of
the parabola y2 = 12x from x = 0 to x = 3.
PROBABILITY
𝑛𝑢𝑚𝑏𝑒𝑟 𝑜𝑓 𝑤𝑎𝑦𝑠 𝑡ℎ𝑎𝑡 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑒𝑣𝑒𝑛𝑡 𝐴 𝑐𝑎𝑛 𝑜𝑐𝑐𝑢𝑟
𝑃(𝐴) =
𝑛𝑢𝑚𝑏𝑒𝑟 𝑜𝑓 𝑤𝑎𝑦𝑠 𝑡ℎ𝑎𝑡 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑠𝑎𝑚𝑝𝑙𝑒 𝑠𝑝𝑎𝑐𝑒 𝑆 𝑐𝑎𝑛 𝑜𝑐𝑐𝑢𝑟
1. Let a card be selected at random from an ordinary deck of 52 cards. Determine the probability
that
a. the card is a spade. Ans. 1/4
b. the card is a face card. Ans. 3/13
c. the card is a spade and a face card. Ans. 3/52
d. the card is a spade or a face card. Ans. 11/26
2. Let 2 items be chosen at random from a lot containing 12 items of which 4 are defective.
Determine the probability that
a. both items are defective. Ans. 1/11
b. both items are non-defective. Ans. 14/33
c. at least one item is defective. Ans. 19/33
3. A coin is weighted so that heads is twice as likely to appear as tails. Find P(T) and P(H). Ans.
1/3 and 2/3
4. Two cards are drawn at random from an ordinary deck of 52 cards. Find the probability p
that
a. both are spades. Ans. 1/17
b. one is spade and one is heart. Ans. 13/102
5. Three light bulbs are chosen at random from 15 bulbs of which 5 are defective. Find the
probability p that
a. none is defective. Ans. 24/91
b. exactly one is defective. Ans. 45/91
c. at least one is defective. Ans. 67/91
6. When 100 coins are tossed, what is the probability that at most 50 are heads? Ans. 0.54
7. The probability that a person recovers from the fatal Kaharutan disease is 0.4. Fifteen people
contacted the disease. What is the probability that at least 5 of these people will survive the said
disease? Ans. 0.7827
8. One letter is taken from each words SCIENTIST and ENGINEER. Find the probability that
they are of the same letter. Ans. 7/72
9. The probability of getting a credit in an examination is 1/3. If 3 students are selected at
random. What is the probability that at least one of the students got credit? Ans. 19/27
10. With a throw of 2 dice, what is the probability of getting a 9 or an 11? Ans. 1/6
11. If two cards are drawn from a deck, what is the probability that at least one of the cards will
be a face card? Ans. 41%
12. Two cards are drawn at random from an ordinary deck of 52 cards. Find the probability that
both are spades. Ans. 1/17
13. Two cards are selected at random from 10 cards numbered 1 to 10. Find the probability that
the sum is odd if the two cards are drawn together. Ans. 5/9
14. The probability that A hits a target is 1/4 and the probability that B hits it is 2/5. What is the
probability that the target will be hit if A and B each shoot at the target? Ans. 11/20

Normal Distribution
15. The life span of a calculator has a normal distribution with a mean of 54 months and a
standard deviation of 8 months. The company guarantees that any calculator that starts
malfunctioning within 36 months of the purchase will be replaced by a new one.
a. About what percentage of such calculators made by this company has a life span
between 50 to 58 months?
b. About what percentage of such calculators made by this company has a life span from
60 months and beyond?
c. About what percentage of such calculators made by this company expected to be
replaced?

STATISTICS
Situation 1. The following are the grades of the 15 students: 75, 78, 83, 84, 79, 88, 93, 89, 91,
84, 86, 88, 93, 79, and 84.

1. Find the average performance of 15 students.


a. 83.94 c. 89.34
b. 84.93 d. 83.49

2. Determine the score that divides the distribution into 2 equal halves.

a. 84 c. 85
b. 89 d. 91

3. Find the score that appears most frequently.


a. 79 c. 84
b. 88 d. 78

4. Determine the mean absolute deviation.


a. 2.446 c. 6.244
b. 2.644 d. 4.462

5. Compute the standard deviation.


a. 5.522 c. 5.552
b. 2.552 d. 2.255

6. Calculate the variance.


a. 30.825 c. 30.495
b. 6.513 d. 5.085
PHYSICS
Newton’s Law of Motion: ∑ 𝐹 = 𝑚𝑎

1. Superman must stop a train in 150 m to keep 120 km/h it from hitting a stalled car on
the tracks. If the train’s mass is 3.6 x 105 kg, how much force must he exert?
2. A woman stands on a bathroom scale in a motionless elevator. When the elevator begins
to move, the scale briefly reads only 0.75 of her regular weight. Calculate the
acceleration of the elevator, and find the direction of acceleration.
3. Two crates, of mass 65 kg and 125 kg, are in contact and at rest on a horizontal surface.
A 650-N force is exerted on the 65-kg crate. If the coefficient of kinetic friction is 0.18,
calculate (a) the acceleration of the system, and (b) the force that each crate exerts on
the other. (c) Repeat with the crates reversed.

Circular Motion
𝑣2
Radial (centripetal) Acceleration: 𝑎𝑅 = 𝑟
Centripetal force: ∑ 𝐹𝑅 = 𝑚𝑎𝑅

4. A jet plane traveling 1890 kph pulls out of a dive by moving in an arc of radius 5.20
km. What is the plane’s acceleration?
5. A horizontal force of 310 N is exerted on a 2.0-kg ball as it rotates (at arm’s length)
uniformly in a horizontal circle of radius 0.90 m. Calculate the speed of the ball.
6. A 0.55-kg ball, attached to the end of a horizontal cord, is revolved in a circle of radius
1.3 m on a frictionless horizontal surface. If the cord will break when the tension in it
exceeds 75 N, what is the maximum speed the ball can have?
7. A 0.90 kg body attached to a cord is whirled in a vertical circle of radius 2.50 m. What
minimum speed must it have at the top of the circle so as not to depart from the circular
path?
8. A car at the Indianapolis 500 accelerates uniformly from the pit area, going from rest to
in a semicircular arc with a radius of 220 m. Determine the tangential and radial
acceleration of the car when it is halfway through the arc, assuming constant tangential
acceleration.

Law of Universal Gravitation


𝑚 𝑚
Gravitational Force: 𝐹𝐺 = 𝐺 𝑟1 2 2

9. Two objects attract each other gravitationally with a force of 2.5 x 10-10 N when they
are 0.25 m apart. Their total mass is 4.00 kg. Find their individual masses.
10. Calculate the acceleration due to gravity on the Moon, which has radius 1.74 x 106 m
and mass 7.35 x 1022 kg.
Work and Energy
Work: 𝑊 = 𝐹 × 𝑑
1
Kinetic Energy: 𝐾𝐸 = 2 𝑚𝑣 2
Work-Energy Principle: 𝑊𝑛𝑒𝑡 = ∆𝐾𝐸
Potential Energy: 𝑃𝐸 = 𝑚𝑔ℎ
1
Potential Energy of Elastic Spring: 𝑃𝐸𝑆𝑃 = 2 𝑘𝑥 2
Conservation of Mechanical Energy: 𝐾𝐸1 + 𝑃𝐸1 = 𝐾𝐸2 + 𝑃𝐸2

11. How much work did the movers do (horizontally) pushing a 46.0-kg crate 10.3 m across
a rough floor without acceleration, if the effective coefficient of friction was 0.50?

12. What is the minimum work needed to push a 950-kg car 710 m up along a 9.0° incline?
Ignore friction.

13. How much work must be done to stop a 925-kg car traveling at 95 km/h?

14. By how much does the gravitational potential energy of a 54-kg pole vaulter change if
her center of mass rises about 4.0 m during the jump?

15. A spring has a spring constant k of 88 m/s. How much must this spring be compressed
to store 45.0 J of potential energy?

16. A spring with k = 83 N/m hangs vertically next to a ruler. The end of the spring is next
to the 15-cm mark on the ruler. If a 2.5-kg mass is now attached to the end of the spring,
and the mass is allowed to fall, where will the end of the spring line up with the ruler
marks when the mass is at its lowest position?

Linear Momentum
- product of its mass and its velocity: 𝑝 = 𝑚𝑣
The rate of change of momentum is equal to the net force applied to it.
∆𝑝 𝑚∆𝑣
𝐹 = ∆𝑡 = ∆𝑡 = 𝑚𝑎 (Newton’s Second Law)

Impulse-Momentum
Impulse = F∆𝑡=∆𝑝

17. Calculate the force exerted on a rocket when the propelling gases are being expelled at
a rate of with a 1300 kg/s speed of 4.5 x 104 m/s.

18. What is the magnitude of the momentum of a 28-g sparrow flying with a speed of 8.4
m/s?

19. A 0.145-kg baseball pitched at 31.0 m/s is hit on a horizontal line drive straight back at
the pitcher at 46.0 m/s. If the contact time between bat and ball is 5 x 10 -3 s, calculate
the force (assumed to be constant) between the ball and bat.
Conservation of Momentum
momentum before = momentum after
𝑚𝐴 𝑣𝐴 + 𝑚𝐵 𝑣𝐵 = 𝑚𝐴 𝑣′𝐴 + 𝑚𝐵 𝑣′𝐵
Collision
𝑣𝑠𝑒𝑝 𝑣 ′ −𝑣 ′
Coefficient of restitution: 𝑒 = 𝑣 = 𝑣2−𝑣1
𝑎𝑝𝑝 1 2
Perfectly Inelastic: e = 0
Perfectly Elastic: e = 1
Elastic/Inelastic: 0 < e < 1

20. A 22-g bullet traveling 240 m/s penetrates a 2.0-kg block of wood and emerges going
150 m/s. If the block is stationary on a frictionless surface when hit, how fast does it
move after the bullet emerges?

21. A 10,000-kg railroad car, A, traveling at a speed of 24.0 m/s strikes an identical car, B,
at rest. If the cars lock together as a result of the collision, what is their common speed
just afterward?

22. A ball of mass 0.440 kg moving east (±x direction) with a speed of 3.8 m/s collides
head-on with a 0.220-kg ball at rest. If the collision is perfectly elastic, what will be the
speed and direction of each ball after the collision?

Rotational Motion
23. A carousel is initially at rest. At t = 0 it is given a constant angular acceleration α =
0.060 rad/s2, which increases its angular velocity for 8.0 s. At t = 8.0 s, determine the
angular velocity of the carousel.
a. 0.0075 rad/s b. 0.48 rad/s c. 133.33 rad/s d. 4.8 rad/s

24. In the previous problem, determine the linear velocity of a child located 2.5 m from the
center.
a. 0.019 m/s b. 1.2 m/s c. 12 m/s d. 3.33 m/s

25. A centrifuge rotor is accelerated for 30 s from rest to 20,000 rpm (revolutions per
minute). What is its average angular acceleration?
a. 69.81 rad/s2 b. 66.67 rad/s c. 63.66 rad/s d. 62.83 rad/s
FLUID MECHANICS
FLUID
Any substance that flows or deforms continuously when subjected to shearing forces.

DENSITY, ρ (rho) UNIT WEIGHT, γ (gamma) SPECIFIC GRAVITY, SG


𝑚𝑎𝑠𝑠 𝑤𝑒𝑖𝑔ℎ𝑡 𝜌𝑙𝑖𝑞𝑢𝑖𝑑 𝛾𝑙𝑖𝑞𝑢𝑖𝑑
𝜌= 𝛾= 𝑆𝐺 = =
𝑣𝑜𝑙𝑢𝑚𝑒 𝑣𝑜𝑙𝑢𝑚𝑒 𝜌𝑤𝑎𝑡𝑒𝑟 𝛾𝑤𝑎𝑡𝑒𝑟

PROPERTIES OF WATER
(At standard temperature)
Density, ρw Unit Weight, γw
1 g/cm3 1000 kg/m3 1.94 slug/ft3 9.81 kN/m3 9810 N/m3 62.4 lb/ft3

ACCELERATION DUE TO GRAVITY, g


9.81 m/s2 32.2 ft/s2

SIT A. A tank contains Carbon tetrachloride which has a mass of 743 g and a total volume of
0.0015 m3.

A. Determine its weight.


B. Determine its density.
C. Determine its unit weight.
D. Determine its specific gravity.

FLUID STATICS
Study of fluids at rest in stable equilibrium.

PRESSURE
Absolute Zero Atmospheric Pressure Gage Pressure
The lower limit of The pressure measured
Pressure exerted by the
atmospheric pressure or relative to the
weight of air above us.
the “perfect vacuum” atmosphere
Atmospheric Pressure at sea level:
1 atm 101.325 kPa 14.7 psi
760 mm Hg 29.9 in Hg 10.34 m. H2O 33.91 ft. H2O

HYDROSTATIC
PRESSURE HEAD EQUIVALENT HEIGHT
PRESSURE
The vertical height ‘h’ of
Pressure acted by liquid Height of another liquid
any liquid of specific
(gage pressure) plus any which gives the same
weight, which can be
pressure acting on the amount of pressure as a
converted to a gage
surface of the liquid. certain liquid.
pressure ‘P’

SIT B. If the pressure in a tank is 50 psi, find the equivalent pressure head of:
A. Water
B. Mercury
C. Heavy fuel oil with a specific gravity of 0.92

SIT C. A pressure gage 7.0 m. above the bottom of a tank containing a liquid reads 64.94 kPa;
another gage at height 4.0 m. reads 87.53 kPa.
A. Compute the specific weight of the fluid.
B. Compute the mass density of the fluid.

SIT D. For the figure shown, the SIT E. A manometer is attached to a tank containing
absolute pressure at the bottom of three different fluids, as shown. What will be the
the tank is 231.3 kPa. If the different in elevation of the mercury column in the
atmospheric pressure is 101.3 kPa, manometer, ‘y’?
what is the specific gravity of olive
oil?
SIT F. Find the difference in pressure between tanks A and B if d1 = 330 mm, d2 = 160 mm, d3
= 480 mm, and d4 = 230 mm.

HYDROSTATIC FORCE ON PLANE SURFACES

SIT G. Gate AB shown is semicircular, and hinged at B.

A. Determine the hydrostatic force acting on Gate AB.


B. Determine its distance from hinge B.
C. Determine the horizontal force P required at A for equilibrium.

SIT H. The gate, 4-foot wide, is hinged at point B, and rests against a smooth wall at A.

A. Compute the force on the gate due to seawater pressure.


B. What is the distance of the hydrostatic force from point B measured along the gate?
C. Compute the horizontal force exerted by the wall at point A.
D. Determine the reaction at hinge B.
SIT I. Water in a tank is pressurized to 85 cm Hg. Determine the hydrostatic force per meter
width on panel AB. (Use γw = 9.79 kN/m3)
HYDROSTATIC FORCE ON CURVED SURFACES

SIT J. In the figure, surface AB is a circular arc with a radius of 2 m. and a depth of 1 m. into
the paper. The distance EB is 4 m. The fluid above the surface AB is water, and atmospheric
pressure prevails on the free surface of the water and on the bottom side of surface AB.
A. The horizontal component of the hydrostatic on curve AB is
B. The vertical component of the hydrostatic on curve AB is
C. The resultant force on the curve is
D. The line of action of the resultant force with respect to the horizontal is

SIT K. The crest gate shown consists of a cylindrical surface which AB is the base,
supported by a structural frame hinged at C. The length of the gate perpendicular to
the paper is 10 m.
A. Determine the hydrostatic force on the gate.
B. Determine the position of the line of action of the force.
C. Determine the depth of center of pressure

BUOYANCY

SIT L. A stone weighs 120 lb in air. When submerged in water, it weighs 73 lb.
A. Find the volume of the stone.
B. Find the specific gravity of the stone.

SIT M. A cylinder having a diameter of 1.20 m., and weighing 800 N is held in position in sea
water (SG = 1.03) by a cable tied to an anchor block resting at the bottom of the sea such that
0.30 m. of the cylinder is below the surface of the water with its axis vertical. The anchor block
has a volume of 0.50 m3 and weighs 24 kN/m3 in air. Neglect the weight and volume of the
cable.
A. Determine the buoyant force acting on the cylinder at the position indicated.
B. Determine the tension on the cable at the position of the cylinder indicated.
C. Determine the rise in the tide that will lift the anchor block from the bottom of the sea.

SIT N. The uniform 5-meter long round wooden rod in the figure below is tied to the bottom
by a string. Determine the tension in the string and the specific gravity of the wood.

ANALYSIS OF HYDRAULIC DAMS

SIT O. A concrete dam retaining water is shown (left). If the specific weight of the concrete is
24 kN/m3, determine the following: (assume there is no hydrostatic uplift below the dam)

A. Factor of safety against sliding, μ = 0.51


B. Factor of safety against overturning
C. Maximum soil pressure intensity
D. Minimum soil pressure intensity
SIT P. A concrete dam retaining water is shown in the figure (right). There is a hydrostatic
uplift that varies uniformly from full hydrostatic head at the heel of the dam to zero at the toe.
If the specific weight of concrete is 23.5 kN/m3, determine the following:

A. Resultant vertical force acting on the dam


B. Hydrostatic force acting on the retaining side of the dam
C. Factor of safety against sliding, μ = 0.45
D. Factor of safety against overturning
E. Minimum and Maximum soil pressure intensity

LIQUIDS IN RIGID BODY MOTION


The fluid will move as a rigid mass with each particle having the same acceleration.

VERTICAL ACCELERATION – liquid gets heavier (up) or lighter (down)

SIT Q. An open cubical tank of dimension 1 m. has oil with specific gravity of 0.80 is
accelerated upward at 5 m/s2.
A. Determine the pressure at 0.20 m. from the liquid surface.
B. Determine the force at the bottom of the tank.
C. If the container is accelerated downward, determine the required acceleration to
reduce the pressure at the bottom to zero.

SIT R. An unbalanced vertical force of 450 N downward accelerates a volume of 0.060 m3 of


oil (SG = 0.88). If the oil is 1.50 m. deep in a tank having a square base,
A. What is the acceleration of the tank?
B. What is the pressure at the bottom of the tank?
C. What is the force acting at the bottom of the tank?
HORIZONTAL ACCELERATION – liquid surface becomes inclined

SIT S. An open tank has a square base with side 1 m contains 1.5 m of water is accelerated
horizontally to the right at 4m/s2.

A. Determine the height of the tank so that no water will be spilled.


B. If the acceleration is increased to 7m/s2, determine the volume of water spilled.
C. If the tank was closed initially and accelerated at 7m/s2, determine the hydrostatic
force on the left wall.

ROTATIONAL ACCELERATION – liquid surface becomes parabolic

SIT T. An open cylindrical tank having a radius of 0.30 m. and a height of 1.20 m. is filled with
water at a depth of 0.90 m.
A. How fast will it be rotated about its vertical axis so that no water will be spilled out?
B. How fast will it be rotated about its vertical axis if half of its volume is spilled out?
C. How fast will it be rotated about its vertical axis to produce a zero pressure within 0.20
m. from the center of the tank?

SIT U. A vertical cylindrical tank has a diameter of 0.50 m. and is 1.5 m. high and closed at the
top. It contains water to a depth of 1.2 m. The air above the water surface has a pressure of
49.05 kPa. When the tank is rotated about its vertical axis at the rate of 200 rpm,
A. Determine the height of fluid above the top along its periphery.
B. Determine the pressure at the bottom of the tank at the center.
C. Determine the pressure at the bottom of the tank at the side (periphery).
HYDRAULICS
Concerned with the practical applications of fluids, primarily liquids in motion. It deals with
such matters as the flow of liquids in pipes, rivers, and channels.

FLUID FLOW - continuous deformation of fluid upon the application of shear force

CLASSIFICATIONS OF FLOW:
A. REAL FLOW - considers energy losses in the flow
B. IDEAL FLOW - neglects the effects of viscosity and friction in fluid flow, thus no
energy losses are considered
C. UNIFORM FLOW - flow velocity and cross-sectional area of flow at a given instant
do not change with distance
D. NON-UNIFORM FLOW - flow velocity and cross-sectional area of flow varies with
distance
E. STEADY FLOW - flow velocity and area of flow do not change with time, a = 0
F. UNSTEADY FLOW - flow velocity and area of flow varies with time, a ≠ 0

FLOW RATE – amount of flow with time


A. Mass Flow Rate (mass per unit time)
B. Weight Flow Rate (weight per unit time)
C. Volume Flow Rate (Discharge) (volume per unit time)

SIT V. Water flows through a 150-mm diameter pipe at a velocity of 5 m/s.


A. Find the volume flow rate.
B. Find the mass flow rate.
C. Find the weight flow rate.

BASIC PRINCIPLES OF FLUID DYNAMICS


A. Continuity principle: Qin = Qout (mass flow rate is constant)
B. Bernoulli’s Principle: In an ideal, steady flow, the sum of all forms of energy in a fluid along
a streamline is the same at all points on that streamline.

ENERGY HEADS:
1. Z = Elevation head, potential energy per unit weight of fluid
2. V2/2g = Velocity head, kinetic energy per unit weight of fluid
3. P/γ = Pressure head, work done per unit weight of fluid

SIT W. Water flows through the horizontal branching pipe shown in the figure below at a
rate of 10 cfs. If viscous effects are negligible,
a. Determine the water speed at section (2)
b. Find the pressure at section (3).
c. Find the flow rate at section (4).
FLOW MEASUREMENT:
1. PITOT TUBE – a small open, bent tube with its open end pointing upstream used to
measure velocity of flow of liquids

SIT X. A mercury-kerosene manometer is connected to a Pitot tube as shown in the figure.


The deflection on the manometer is 7 in. Assume specific gravity of kerosene is
0.81.

A. What is the difference in pressures between point 1 and point 2?


B. What is the kerosene velocity in the pipe?
C. What is the flow rate in the pipe if its diameter is 6”?

2. VENTURIMETER – uses a rapidly converging section (gradually increases the


velocity of flow to reduce the pressure), thus measuring fluid flow

SIT Y. A Venturi meter of throat diameter 0.076 m is fitted in a 0.152 m diameter vertical
pipe in which liquid of relative density 0.8 flows downwards. Pressure gauges are
fitted to the inlet and to the throat sections. The throat of the meter is 0.914 m
below the inlet.
a. Taking the coefficient of the meter as 0.97 find the velocity of flow at the throat when
the inlet gauge reads 15170 Pa higher than the throat gauge.
b. Calculate the measured flow rate.
3. ORIFICE METER – abruptly contracts the area of flow using a small opening,
increasing velocity with corresponding drop in pressure

SIT Z. A 2-in circular orifice (not standard) at the end of the 3-in-diameter pipe shown in
the figure discharges into the atmosphere a measured flow of 0.60 cfs of water when
the pressure in the pipe is 10 psi. The jet velocity is determined by a pitot tube to be
39.2 fps.

A. Find the coefficient of velocity, Cv.


B. Find the coefficient of contraction, Cc.
C. Find the coefficient of discharge, Cd.

4. WEIR – is a notch on a larger scale - usually found in rivers used as a flow measuring
device and a device to raise water levels

SIT AA. Determine the discharge if a rectangular suppressed weir 2.0 m. high extends across
a rectangular channel 5 m. wide. Upon measurement, the head was determined to be 100 cm.
Use Francis formula.

SIT BB. Determine the head on a 45° V-notch weir for a discharge of 200 L/s. Use Cd = 0.57

SIT CC. The discharge over a trapezoidal weir at 1.325 m3/s. The crest length is 2 m. and the
sides are inclined at 75°57’49” with the horizontal. Find the head on the weir in meters.

FLOW THROUGH AN ORIFICE

SIT DD. A calibration test of a 12.5-mm diameter circular sharp-edged orifice in a vertical side
of a large tank showed a discharge of 590 N of water in 81 seconds at a constant head of 4.70
m. Measurement of the jet showed that it traveled 2.35 m. horizontally while dropping 300 mm.
Compute for the nearest value of the following:

A. Coefficient of discharge
B. Coefficient of contraction
C. Coefficient of velocity
SIT EE. A circular orifice 20-mm-diameter is located at the bottom of a tank 0.4 m2 in plan
area. At a given instant the head above the orifice is 1.2 m. 307 seconds later the
head is reduced to 0.6 m.

A. Calculate the coefficient of discharge.


B. Using the calculated Cd, determine the time for the head to fall from 1.2 m to 0.8 m.
C. Determine the head above the orifice from 1.2 m after 240 seconds.

PIPE FLOW
Always full flowing, pressurized flow, constant velocity if constant diameter, wall drag and
changes in pressure lead to pressure drops

SIT FF. A pipe has a diameter of 500 mm. It has a total length of 600 m. Its discharge was
measured to be 0.06 m3/s. Determine its head lost using:
A. Darcy-Weisbach, f = 0.015
B. Manning’s, n = 0.012
C. Hazen Williams, C = 120

SIT GG. For the pipe system shown in the figure below, n = 0.015 for all pipes and the flow
in pipe 4 is 12 cfs.

A. Which of the following is closest to the head lost in pipe 1?


B. Which of the following is closest to the flowrate in pipe 2?
C. Which of the following is closest to the total head lost?
SIT HH. A pump draws 20 liters per second of water from reservoir A (Elev 20) and lifts it to
reservoir B (Elev 260) as shown. The head lost from A to 1 is three times the velocity head in
the 150-mm suction line and the head lost from 2 to B is fifteen times the velocity head in the
100-mm discharge line.

A. What is the power delivered by the pump to the system?


B. What is the pressure head at point 1 in meters of water?
C. What is the pressure head at point 2 in meters of water?

SIT II. A hydroelectric power generating system is shown. Water flows from an upper reservoir
to a lower one passing through a turbine at the rate of 150 liters per second. The total length of
pipe connecting the two reservoirs is 100 m. The pipe diameter is 250 mm, and the Hazen-
Williams coefficient is 120. The water surface elevations of Reservoir 1 and 2 are 197 m., and
50 m., respectively.

A. Which of the following most nearly gives the velocity of flow in the pipe?
B. Which of the following most nearly gives the frictional head lost in the pipe?
C. Which of the following most nearly gives the power generated by the turbine? Neglect
minor losses?

SIT JJ. Three reservoirs A, B and C are connected to pipes 1, 2 and 3 joining at a common
junction at P. The properties of each pipe are as follows:
L1 = 2000 m, D1 = 1 m, f1 = 0.013;
L2 = 2300 m, D2 = 0.6 m, f2 = 0.02;
L3 = 2500 m, D3 = 1.2 m, f3 = 0.023

A. If the flow from reservoir A is 4.39 m3/s, calculate the head loss in pipe 1.
B. Calculate the flow in pipe 3 in cu.m/s.
C. Calculate the elevation of water surface in reservoir B for the flow conditions to occur.
OPEN CHANNEL FLOW

SIT KK. Water flows uniformly in a 4.5-meter wide, 1.2-meter deep rectangular channel. The
channel slope is 0.0028, and roughness coefficient n = 0.014.
A. Calculate the velocity of the channel
B. Calculate the flow rate of the channel
C. Calculate the average boundary shear stress
D. What is the critical depth of the channel?
E. What is the critical velocity of the channel?
F. Considering its most efficient proportion, what is its depth at this condition? What is
its base?
G. How much will the excavation of the channel be reduced if the channel is of most
efficient proportion carrying the same capacity?
H. With the most efficient proportion, how much will the lining of the channel be
reduced?

SIT LL. A trapezoidal channel has a bottom width of 6 m. and side slopes of 2H:1V. If the
depth of flow 1.2 m. and the flow is 20 m3/s.
A. Compute the specific energy.
B. Compute the slope of the channel if n = 0.014.
C. Compute the average shearing stress at the boundary.

SIT MM. A triangular channel with most efficient proportion discharges water at the rate of 1
m3/s. Assuming n = 0.018, and S = 0.0021, calculate the normal depth of flow in meters.
ENGINEERING MECHANICS
STATICS
FORCE VECTORS
Resultant - is a force or a couple that will have the same effect to the body, both in
translation and rotation, if all the forces are removed and replaced by the resultant.

A. Co-Planar Forces
𝑅𝑦
𝑅 = √𝑅𝑥 2 + 𝑅𝑦 2 𝜃𝑅 = tan−1 | |
𝑅𝑥
where
𝑅𝑥 = ∑ 𝐹𝑥 𝑅𝑦 = ∑ 𝐹𝑦

For a single force:


𝐻
𝐹𝑥 = 𝐹 cos 𝜃 = 𝐹 ( )
𝐷
𝑉
𝐹𝑦 = 𝐹 sin 𝜃 = 𝐹 ( )
𝐷

SIT A. Determine the magnitude and direction of the resultant of the three forces.

SIT B. Determine the angle θ for connecting member A to the plate so that the resultant force
of FA and FB is directed horizontally to the right. Also, what is the magnitude of the resultant
force?

SIT A SIT B
B. Space Forces
𝑅 = √𝑅𝑥 2 + 𝑅𝑦 2 + 𝑅𝑧 2
𝑅𝑥 𝑅𝑦 𝑅𝑧
𝜃𝑥 = cos −1 | | 𝜃𝑦 = 𝑐𝑜𝑠 −1 | | 𝜃𝑧 = 𝑐𝑜𝑠 −1 | |
𝑅 𝑅 𝑅
where
𝑅𝑥 = ∑ 𝐹𝑥 𝑅𝑦 = ∑ 𝐹𝑦 𝑅𝑧 = ∑ 𝐹𝑧

For a single force:


𝑥
𝐹𝑥 = 𝐹 cos 𝜃𝑥 = 𝐹 ( )
𝑑
𝑦
𝐹𝑦 = 𝐹 cos 𝜃𝑦 = 𝐹 ( )
𝑑
𝑧
𝐹𝑧 = 𝐹 cos 𝜃𝑧 = 𝐹 ( )
𝑑

SIT C. Determine the magnitude of the resultant force at A.

EQUILIBRIUM OF A PARTICLE
∑ 𝐹𝑥 = 0 ∑ 𝐹𝑦 = 0 ∑ 𝐹𝑧 = 0

SIT D. Determine the maximum weight of the flowerpot that can be supported without
exceeding a cable tension of 50 lb in either cable AB or AC.

SIT E. If the bucket and its contents have a total weight of 20 lb, determine the force in the
supporting cables DA, DB, and DC.
SIT D SIT E

FORCE SYSTEM RESULTANT


Moment – is the turning effect the force produces with respect to a certain point. It is measured
as the product of force and the perpendicular distance of the force from the center of rotation.

The Principle of Moments, also known as Varignon's Theorem, states that the moment of any
force is equal to the algebraic sum of the moments of the components of that force.
𝑀𝑟𝑒𝑠𝑢𝑙𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑡 = 𝑀𝑐𝑜𝑚𝑝𝑜𝑛𝑒𝑛𝑡𝑠

SIT F. (a) Determine the moment of each of the three forces about point A. (b) Determine the
magnitude of the resultant force and its location from point A.

EQUILIBRIUM OF RIGID BODIES


∑ 𝐹𝑥 = 0 ∑ 𝐹𝑦 = 0 ∑𝑀 = 0

SIT G. Determine the horizontal and vertical components of reaction at the pin A and the
reaction on the beam at C.
SIT G SIT H
SIT H. Determine the tension in the cable and the horizontal and vertical components of
reaction of the pin A. The pulley at D is frictionless and the cylinder weighs 80 lb.

SIT I. Determine the magnitude of minimum force P needed to pull the 50-kg roller over the
smooth step. Use θ = 30°.

TRUSS ANALYSIS
Method of Joints – The method centers on the joints or connection points between the members.
Method of Sections – The method involves breaking the truss down into individual sections and
analyzing each section as a separate rigid body.

SIT J. Determine the force in each member of the truss and state if the members are in tension
or compression. Set P1 = 6 kN, P2 = 9 kN.

SIT J SIT K
SIT K. Determine the force in members BC, CF, and FE. State if the members are in tension
or compression.
FRICTION
Impending Motion – refers to the state just before surfaces start to slip. In this case the static
frictional force has reached its upper limit. [𝑓𝑚𝑎𝑥 = 𝜇𝑠 𝑁]

SIT L. Determine the friction developed between the 50-kg crate and the ground if a) P = 200
N, and b) P = 400 N. The coefficients of static and kinetic friction between the crate and the
ground are µs = 0.3 and µk = 0.2.

SIT M. Determine the minimum force P to prevent the 30 kg rod AB from sliding. The contact
surface at B is smooth, whereas the coefficient of static friction between the rod and the wall at
A is µs = 0.2.

SIT L SIT M

SIT N. Determine the smallest coefficient of static friction at both A and B needed to hold the
uniform 100-lb bar in equilibrium. Neglect the thickness of the bar. Take µA = µB = µ.

SIT N SIT O

SIT O. Determine the reversed horizontal force − P needed to pull out wedge A. The coefficient
of static friction between A and C and between B and D is µs = 0.2, and between A and B µs =
0.1. Neglect the weight of each wedge.
CENTROID and MOMENT OF INERTIA
SIT P. (a) Determine the coordinates of the centroid of the given area. (b) Determine its moment
of inertia with respect to its centroidal x-axis.

STRAIGHT CABLES
SIT Q. Determine the tension in each segment of the cable and the cable’s total length.

PARABOLIC CABLES
SIT R. The cable is subjected to a uniform loading of 200 lb/ft. Determine the maximum and
minimum tension in the cable.

SIT R SIT S
SIT S. The cable supports a girder which weighs 850 lb/ft. Determine the tension in the cable
at points A, B, and C.
ENGINEERING MECHANICS
DYNAMICS
RECTILINEAR MOTION
𝑣𝑓 = 𝑣𝑜 + 𝑎𝑡
2𝑎𝑠 = 𝑣𝑓2 − 𝑣𝑜2
1
𝑠 = 𝑣𝑜 𝑡 − 𝑎𝑡 2
2

A. Constant Acceleration
1. A car starts from rest and with constant acceleration achieves a velocity of 15 m/s when it
travels a distance 200 m. Determine the acceleration of the car and the time required.
2. A train starts from rest at a station and travels with a constant acceleration of 1 m/s 2.
Determine the velocity of the train when t = 30s and the distance traveled during this time.
3. A car is travelling at 15 m/s when the traffic light 50 m ahead turns yellow. Determine the
required constant deceleration of the car and the time needed to stop the car at the light.
4. Resolve problem 3 assuming the perception reaction time of the driver to be 1.5 s.

B. Variable Acceleration
5. A particle is moving along a straight line with the acceleration 𝑎 = (12𝑡 − 3𝑡1/2 ) m/s2,
where t is in seconds. Determine the velocity and the position as a function of time. When t=0,
v=0 and s=15 m. Calculate the velocity at t = 3 seconds. Determine the position at t = 5 seconds.
6. The acceleration of a particle as it moves along a straight line is given by a = (2t – 1) m/s,
where t is in seconds. If s = 1 m and v = 2 m/s when t = 0, determine:
a. Particle’s velocity when t = 6 s
b. Position when t = 6 s
c. Total distance travelled during 6-second time interval.

C. Free-Fall and Vertical Motion


7. A stone is dropped from deck of Ayala Bridge. If the sound of splash reaches the deck 3
seconds later, how high is the deck above the water? Assume sound travels 342 m/s.
8. Bullet A is fired vertically with a muzzle velocity of 450 m/s. Three seconds later, bullet B
is fired upward with a muzzle velocity of 600 m/s.
a. Determine the time (since A was fired) as to bullet B passes bullet A.
b. At what altitude does this occur?
9. Ball A is released from rest at a height of 40 ft at the same time that a second ball B is thrown
upward 5 ft from the ground. If the balls pass one another at a height of 20 ft, determine the
speed at which ball B was thrown upward.
PROJECTILE MOTION
10. The girl always throws the toys at an angle of 30ᵒ from point A as shown.
a. Determine the time between throws so that both toys strike the edges of the pool B
and C at the same time.
b. With what speed must she throw each toy?

7. Measurements of a shot recorded on a videotape during a basketball game are shown. Tetsuya
Kuroko shoots the ball at A, but Andrewver jumped high enough to block the shot at B. The
ball should have dropped to the hoop if Andrewver wasn’t monster enough to make the block.
a. Determine the velocity of ball at the hands of Kuroko.
b. Find the height, h, Andrewver reached the ball.

8. A golf ball is struck at A with a velocity of 80 ft/s to reach up the slope at B, at an angle of
45ᵒ from the sloping ground. If A and B are on a ground with slope of 10ᵒ from horizontal, find
the distance of A to B along the slope.
STRENGTH OF MATERIALS

SIT A. A hole is to be punched out of a plate having a shearing strength of 40 ksi. The
compressive stress in the punch is limited to 50 ksi.
(a) Compute the maximum thickness of the plate from which a hole 2.5 in. in diameter
can be punched.
(b) If the plate is 0.25 in. thick, determine the diameter of the smallest hole that can be
punched.

SIT A SIT B
SIT B. A steel strut S serving as a brace for a boat hoist transmits a compressive force P = 12
kips to the deck of a pier. The strut has a hollow square cross section with wall thickness t =
0.375 in, and the angle θ between the strut and the horizontal is 40°. A pin through the strut
transmits the compressive force from the strut to two gussets G that are welded to the base plate
B. Four anchor bolts fasten the base plate to the deck. The diameter of the pin is dpin = 0.75 in.,
the thickness of the gussets is tG = 0.625 in., the thickness of the base plate is tB = 0.375 in., and
the diameter of the anchor bolts is dbolt = 0.50 in. Determine the following stresses: (Disregard
any friction between the base plate and the deck.)
(a) the bearing stress between the strut and the pin,
(b) the shear stress in the pin,
(c) the bearing stress between the pin and the gussets,
(d) the bearing stress between the anchor bolts and the base
plate, and
(e) the shear stress in the anchor bolts.

SIT C. A compression bar having a square cross section of width


3” must support a load P. The bar is constructed from two pieces of
material that are connected by a glued joint (known as a scarf joint)
along plane pq, which is at an angle α = 40° to the vertical. The
material is a structural plastic for which the allowable stresses in
compression and shear are 1100 psi and 600 psi, respectively. Also,
the allowable stresses in the glued joint are 750 psi in compression and 500 psi in shear.
Determine the maximum force P it could carry.

AXIAL DEFORMATION

SIT D. A compound bar consisting of bronze, aluminum, and steel segments is loaded axially
as shown in the figure. Determine the maximum allowable value of P if the change in length of
the bar is limited to 2 mm and the working stresses prescribed in the table are not to be exceeded.
SIT E. The rigid bar AB, attached to aluminum and steel rods, is horizontal before the load P
is applied. Find the vertical displacement of point C caused by the load P = 50 kN. Neglect all
weights.

SIT E SIT F
SIT F. The rigid bar BC is supported by the steel rod AC of cross-sectional area 0.25 in2. Find
the vertical displacement of point C caused by the 2000-lb load. Use E = 29 x 106 psi for steel.
SIT G. A reinforced concrete column 200 mm in diameter is designed to carry an axial
compressive load of 300 kN. Determine the required area of the reinforcing steel if the
allowable stresses are 6 MPa and 120 MPa for the concrete and steel, respectively. Use Ec =14
GPa and Es = 200 GPa.

THERMAL STRESS
SIT H. A steel rod is stretched between two rigid walls and carries a tensile load of 5000 N at
20°C. If the allowable stress is not to exceed 130 MPa at –20°C, what is the minimum diameter
of the rod? Assume α = 11.7 µm/(m∙°C) and Est = 200 GPa.
SIT I. At a temperature of 80°C, a steel tire 12 mm thick and 90 mm wide that is to be shrunk
onto a locomotive driving wheel 2 m in diameter just fits over the wheel, which is at a
temperature of 25°C. Determine the contact pressure between the tire and wheel after the
assembly cools to 25°C. Neglect the deformation of the wheel caused by the pressure of the
tire. Assume E = 200 GPa and α = 11.7 µm/(m∙°C)
TORSION

SIT J. A stepped shaft ABC consisting of two solid circular segments is subjected to torques
T1 and T2 acting in opposite directions, as shown in the figure. The larger segment of the shaft
has diameter d1 = 2.25 in. and length L1 = 30 in.; the smaller segment has diameter d2 = 1.75
in. and length L2 = 20 in. The material is steel with shear modulus G = 11 x 106 psi, and the
torques are T1 = 20,000 lb-in. and T2 = 8,000 lb-in. Calculate the following quantities: (a) the
maximum shear stress tmax in the shaft, and (b) the angle of twist (in degrees) at end C.

SIT K. A composite shaft is manufactured by shrink-fitting a steel sleeve over a brass core so
that the two parts act as a single solid bar in torsion. The outer diameters of the two parts are
dbr = 40 mm for the brass core and dst = 50 mm for the steel sleeve. The shear moduli of
elasticity are Gbr = 35 GPa for the brass and Gst = 80 GPa for the steel. Allowable shear stresses
in the brass and steel are 48 MPa and 80 MPa, respectively. Determine the maximum
permissible torque in N-m that may be applied to the shaft.
FLEXURAL STRESS

SIT L. A steel wire (E = 200 GPa) of diameter d = 1.25 mm is bent around a pulley of radius
R0 = 500 mm. What is the maximum stress in the wire?

SIT L SIT M SIT N

SIT M. A simply supported wood beam AB with span length L = 4 m carries a uniform load of
intensity q = 5.8 kN/m. Calculate the maximum bending stress due to the load if the beam has
a rectangular cross section with width b = 140 mm and height h = 240 mm.

SIT N. A cantilever beam AB of circular cross section and length L = 450 mm supports a load
P = 400 N acting at the free end. The beam is made of steel with an allowable bending stress of
60 MPa. Determine the required diameter dmin of the beam, considering the effect of the beam’s
own weight. (γsteel = 77 kN/m3)
SIT O. The simply supported beam has the T-shaped cross section shown. Determine the values
and locations of the maximum tensile and compressive bending stresses.

SHEAR STRESS

SIT P. A metal beam is simply supported and sustains


a uniform load of 160 lb/in including its own weight.
The beam is rectangular with width b = 1 in. and height
h = 4 in. Determine the normal stress and shear stress
at point C which is located 1 in. below the top of the
beam and 8 in. from the right support.
SIT Q. A beam having a T-shaped section is subjected to a vertical shear force of V = 10,000
N. The cross-sectional dimensions are flange width, bf = 100 mm, flange thickness, tf = 25
mm, gross depth of h = 200 mm and web thickness of 25 mm. Determine the maximum and
minimum shear stresses in the junction and the maximum stress in the web.
SIT R. A box beam of wood is constructed of two 260 mm x
50 mm boards and two 260 mm x 25 mm boards. The boards
are nailed at a longitudinal spacing s = 100 mm. If each nail
has an allowable shear force F = 1200 N, what is the
maximum allowable shear force Vmax?

COMBINED STRESS
𝑃 𝑀𝑐
𝜎= ±
𝐴 𝐼

SIT S. A cylindrical brick chimney of height H weighs w = 825 lb/ft of height. The inner and
outer diameters are d1 = 3 ft and d2 = 4 ft, respectively. The wind pressure against the side of
the chimney is p = 10 lb/ft2 of projected area. Determine the maximum height H if there is to
be no tension in the brickwork.

SIT T. A plain concrete wall, ideally fixed at the foundation, serves as a small dam on a creek
as shown in the figure. The height of the wall h = 6.0 ft and the thickness of the wall is t = 1.0
ft. Determine the maximum tensile and compressive stresses at the base of the wall when the
water level reaches the top. Assume plain concrete weighs 145 lb/cu.ft. Determine the
permissible depth of water if there is no tension in the concrete.

SIT U. A short column of wide flange shape is subjected to a compressive load that produces
a resultant force of 60 kN acting at the midpoint of one flange. Determine the maximum tensile
and compressive stresses in the column. Locate the neutral axis under this loading condition.
DETERMINACY
Classify each of the beams and pin-connected structures shown as statically determinate or
statically indeterminate. If statically indeterminate, determine the degree of indeterminacy.

SIT A:

SIT B:

INFLUENCE LINES

Properties of Influence Lines


The value of the function due to a single concentrated moving load equals the magnitude
of the load multiplied by the ordinate of the influence diagram.
The value of a function due to several concentrated moving loads equals the algebraic
sum of the effects of each load described in property number
The value of the function due to a uniformly distribute load (w N/m) equals the product
of w and the area of the influence line under the uniform load.

SIT C: A 10-m beam is simply supported; a moving wheel load of 30 kN is imposed. Using
the concept of influence line. Determine the: (a) maximum reaction at the left support; (b)
maximum positive shear at a point 2 m from the left support; (c) maximum negative shear at a
point 2 m from the left support; (d) the maximum positive moment at the mid span.

SIT D: The beam supports a distributed live load of 1.5 kN/m and single concentrated load of
8 kN. The dead load is 2 kN/m. Determine (a) the maximum positive moment at C, (b) the
maximum positive shear at C.

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