Civil Judge - Class

Madhya Pradesh
(Preliminary) Examination-2021
M.P.C.J.-2021| | Held on 20-3-201

CONSTITUTION OF INDIA

Court is wider than the Hic

1. Writ Jurisdiction
of Supreme
(B) Incorrect
High Cour.
(A) Correct

(C)only in some
conditions (D) both have same jurisdiction
The term "Justice" in Art. 38 of the Indian Constitution is sad
2. to
indicate :
Justice
(A) Social and Political
(B) Economic and Social Justice
(C) Political and Economic Justice
(D) Social, Economic and Political Justice
3. According to the Constitution of India, any law made by the State
which takes away or abridges the rights conferred by Part III shall
be
(A) Voidable to the extent of the contravention
(B) Void to the extent of the contravention
(C) all the above
(D) none of the above
Which Article of the Constitution of India Safeguards one's right to
marry the person of one's choice?
(A) Article 19 (B) Article 21
(C) Article 25 (D) Article 29
5. Which one of these is not a fundamental duty?
(A) To keep safeguard public property
(B) To promote international peace
(C) To defend the nation
(D) To protect natural environment
6. Which of the following statements is
true in respect of right to
property :
(A) right to property is a fundamental right
(B) it is a constitutional right
(C) no such right is in existence
(D) none of these

Ans. 1.() 2.(D) 3.(B) 4.(A&B) 5.(B) 6.(B)

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rliamentary privileges of the house of Parliament and of the

1. members and committees thereof includes
of speech in parliament
(A) freedom
R)immunity from liability to any proceedings in any court in respect
of anything said, or any vote given by a member in parliament and
any committee.

C) immunity form liability in respect of the publication by or order the

authority of either House of Parliament of any report, paper, votes
or proceedings
these
(D) All of
According to Article 254 of the
Constitution of India, such portion of
repugnant to a central law in the concurrent
the state law as are

sphere, become invalid. The test ofrepugnancy was summarised in:

(A) M. Karunanidhi vs. Union of India (1979)
Cotton Mills vs. Union of India (1981)
(B) Swadeshi
(C) Ram Jawaya vs. State of Punjab (1955)
R.C. Copper vs. Union of India (1970)
(D) transfer
the Constitution of India can the
Under which Schedule of
9. for mining be declared null and
void?
of tribal land to private parties
(A) Third Schedule
(B) Fifth Schedule
(C) Ninth Schedule
(D) Twelfth Schedule
Court of India exercises original jurisdiction in respect
10. The Supreme
nature
of any disputes of following States
of India and one or more
(A) between the Government on one
States
between the Government of India and any State or
(B)
one or more
other States on the other
side and
or more Sates
(C) between two
(D) All of these CODE, 1908
PROCEDURE
CIVIL assessed
of an undivided estate
11. Where the decree is for
the partition
the partition of the
to the Government,
to the payment of
revenue

estate shall be :

(A) made by Collector

the decree
(B) By Court which passed
(C) By Executing Court of an Advocate
commission comprising
(D) By issuing a
11.(A)
9.(B) 10.(D)
Ans. 7.(D) 8.(A)
 580 CIVILJUDGE (PRE.) EXAMINATION SOLVED PAPERS
12. A files against Bsuit on 6th January, 2020 and on the
one
same
grounds asking for same relief another on 18th February, 2020. Suit
filed in February is decided by the court of competent
jurisdiction on
merits before the Suit filed in January could be decided.
Examine the
validity of statement that 'suit filed on 6th January, 2020 is valid and
res judicata will apply on the suit filed in
February as it was filed
later
(A) The statement is true
(B) The statement is false
(C) Principle of res judicata has no application to decide the validity of
given statement
(D) Validity of statement depends
upon the discretionary power of Court
13. Which of the following statements is false
(A) no women can be arrested or detained in the civil prison in execution
of a decree except for the execution of a decree for the
payment of
money
(B) books of account, any right of personal service and a right to future
maintenance shall not be liable to attachment or sale in execution of
a decree
(C) where a decree is to be sent
for execution to another Court, the
Court which passed such decree shall send the decree
such other Court whether or not such Court is situated in
directly to
the same State
(D) Where the holder of a decree for the possession of immovable
property or the purchaser of any such property sold in execution
of a decree is resisted or obstructed
by any person obtaining
possession of the property, he may make an application to the Court
complaining of such resistance or obstruction
14. If the sole plaintiff dies after the hearing of the suit was concluded,
the suit shall
(A) abate
(B) continue as it is
(C) continue in the name of legal representatives
(D) continue only if an application has been submitted within limitation
for adding the legal
15. In
representatives
as plaintiff
a suit filed in representative capacity, the suit can be withdrawn,
compromised & abandoned etc. by the plaintiff ?
(A) without notice to all the persons interested.
(B) after notice to all the persons interested.
(C) neither (A) nor (B)
(D) either (A) or (B) or (C)

Ans. 12.(B) 13.(A) 14.(B) 15.(B)

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Which of the folloWing statements is false
16.
(A) every suit by a minor shall be instituted in his name
in such suit shall be called the next friend
by person who
no temporary injunction shall be granted by a Court
Rule 1 or 2 Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 where no
under Order39
perpetual
injunction could be granted in view of the provisions of section 38
and section 41 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963
C) where it appears to the Court to be just and convenient, the Court
may by order appoint a receiver of any property, whether before or
after decree
(D) none of these statements are false
Suit for partition of joint immovable property shall be instituted in
17.
the court within the local limits of whose jurisdiction
(A) Property is situated (B) Plaintiff resides
(C) Defendant resides (D) All of these
What is the limitation to file application under Order 9 R7 of CPC?
18.
(A) 30 Days (B) 60 Days
C) 90 Days (D) None of these
An application for the withdrawal of suit has been filed along with
19.
in such
permission for grant of liberty to file fresh suit, an

application court can

file fresh suit
(A) allow the application without leave to
Toto
(B) reject or allow the application in
(C) can pass any appropriate order
(D) All of these
passing order for the arrest or
Under order 21 rule 37 before
an
20. detention in the civil prison of Judgment debtor, court :
issue show cause notice instead of warrant for the arrest
(A) shall that
issue warrant of arrest if it is shown on affidavit
(B) May
Judgment debtor is about to abscond
warrant
attachment warrant before arrest
(C) shall issue
are correct
(D) option (A) & (B) giving notice to the
without
21. Where an injunction has been granted of
endeavour to finally dispose
court shall make a
opposite party the
days from the date in which injunction
the application within.
was granted.
(B) 45
(A) 30
(D) 90
(C) 60

19.(B) 20.(D) 21.(A)

21.(4)
17.() 18.(D)
Ans. 16.()
582 CIVILJUDGE (PRE)EXAMINATION SOLVED PAPERS

22. Which among the following is not correct in relation to consideration

oforder 21 rule 90
(A) there must be a material irregularity or fraud in publishing or
conducting of the sale
(B) it must relate to conduct of sale alone
(C)the applicant must have sustained substantial injury
(D) such injury must have been caused by material irregularity or fraud
23. A suit in representative capacity can be filed by virtue of .
(A) Under Order I, Rule 8A of CPC
(B) Under Order I, Rule 10A of CPC
(C) Under Order I, Rule 8 of CPC
Under Order 1, Rule 9 of CPC
24.
(D)
Where a suit is abated or dismissed under Order 22 of CPC on the
same cause of action
(A) New suit may be instituted with the consent of parties
8 Fresh suit may be filed with prior permission of the court
(C) No fresh suit shall be brought
(D) New suit may be filed if sufficient cause is shown
25. Which of the following statement is true
(A) according to section 9 of the Code of Civil Procedure, the Courts
shall have jurisdiction to try all suits of a civil nature excepting suits
of which their cognizance is expressly barred
(B) according to section 9 of the Code of Civil Procedure, the Court
shall have jurisdiction to try all suits of a civil nature excepting suits
of which their cognizance is impliedly barred
(C)according to section 9 of the Code of Civil Procedure, the Court
shall have jurisdiction to try all suits of a civil nature excepting suits
of which their cognizance is either expressly or impliedly barred
(D) none of these
TRANSFER OF PROPERTY ACT, 1882
26. Which of the following can be considered implied surrender of the lease?
(A) acceptance of a new lease taking effect during the continuance of
the existing lease
(B) Abandonment of possession by the lessee
(C) lessee yields up his interest under the lease to the lessor, by mutual
agreement between them.
(D) None of these
27. The right of a third person for maintenance cannot be
enforced
under Section 39 against
Transferee who is
(A) gratuitous
(B) for consideration without notice of the
right
(C) gratuitous transferee without notice
(D) for consideration but with notice of the
right
Ans. 22.(B) 23.(C) 24.(C) 25.(C) 26.(A) 27.(B)
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lease of immovable property is not
A
28.
(A) Lease from year to year.
compulsorily registrable
(B) Lease for a term of one year.
(C) Lease receiving a yearly rent.

(D) None of these.

The condition restraining absolute alienation is not void when it is
29 (A) for the benefit of lessor
B)for the benefit of the legal heir of lessee
(C) for the benefit of lessee
(D) None of these.
30. Where, without delivering possession of the mortgaged property, the
mortgagor binds himself personally to pay the mortgage-money, and
agrees that, in the event of his failing to pay according to his
contract, the mortgagee shall have a right to cause the mortgaged
property to be sold and the proceeds of sale to be applied in payment
the transaction is called
of the mortgage-money,
(A) Simple mortgage (B) Usufructuary mortgage
(C) Mortgage by conditional sale
(D) English Mortgage
31. What is not a condition precedent for creation of an interest in
favour of unborn person -
(A) prior interest should be created in the same transfer
(B)whole of the remaining interest of the transferor in the property
should be given to unborm
(C) prior interest should be for life
(D) prior interest should be created before transfering the remaining
interest in favour of unborn person
32. According to provisions of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, the
easements:-
(A) Can be transferred
(B) Cannot be transferred
(C) Cannot be transferTed apart from the dominant heritage
(D) Can be transferred apart from the dominant heritage
INDIAN CONTRACT ACT, 1872
33. Where both parties are under mistake as to matter of the fact the
agreement will be :
(A) Enforceable (B) Voidable
(C) Not void (D) Void

Ans. 28.(B) 30.(A) 31.(C) 32.(C)

29.(A) 33.(D)
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34. A Guru (spiritual advisor) induced the Chela (his devotee) to gift
him the whole of his property to secure benefit to his soul in the next

world. The gift shall be

(B) Voidable
(A) Void
(D) Immoral
C) Valid
Finder ofa lost thing which is commonly the subject of sale, may sell
35.
it when lawful charges of the finder, in respect of the thing find

amountto:-
(A) One-fourth of its value
Half of its value
(B)
(C) One-third of its value
(D) Two-thirds of its value
"A" hires a carriage of "B". The carriage is unsafe though "B" is
36.
not aware of it and "A" is injured then what will be consequence of
it?
(A) B is not responsible to A for injury
(B) B is responsible to A for injury
(C) Both are contributory negligent
(D) No one is responsible for A's injury
37. Every agreement in restraint of marriage of any person other than
a minor i
(A) is voidable (B) is illegal
(C) is void (D) is valid
38. Ifa promisee accepts the anticipatory breach by promisor then
(A) the promisee need not perform his part of contract but not entitled
to claim damages from promisor
(B) the promisee need not perform his part of contract but entitled to
claim damages from promisor only after the date of performance
(C) the promisee need not perform his part of contract but entitled to
claim damages from promissory without waiting till the date of
performance
(D) the promisee must perform his part of contract before claiming
damages
39. A contracet by which one party promises to save the other from loss
caused to him by the conduct of the promisor himself, or by the
conduct of any other person, is ealled
(A) Contract of guarantee (B) Contract of surety
(C) Contract of indemnity (D) None of these

Ans. > 34.(B) 35.(D) 36.(B) 37.(C) 38.(C) 39.(C)

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promises
to paint a picture for B up to Dec.31 and accepts an
A
40. Rs. 1,000/ After making of the contract, A's hands are
advance of 25. B is entitled to the refund of
accident on Dec.
chopped off in an Section
Rs. 1,000/- from A under which one ofthe following
(B) Section 64
(A) Section 73
(D) Section 75
(C) Section 65
SPECIFIC RELIEF ACT, 1963
a contract in writing does
due to fraud played by the parties,
When, remedy would be a
41. its real intention, then appropriate
not express
suit for
Performance of contract
(A) Specific (C) Rectification of Instrument
(B) Declaration
(D) Perpetual Injunction favour of
cannot be enforced in
of a contract
42. Specific performanee substituted performance of
contract

who has obtained

a person
under Section 20: statement is correct
statement is incorrect (B)
(A) to discretion of
court
can be performed according
(C)
(D) None of these. rescission of a
down that the court
on adjudging the
43. Section 30 lays whom such relief is granted
the party to
contract may require benefit which he may
have
so far as may be, any
(A) to restore, other party and
received from the require.
which justice may
to make any
compensation to him
(B) (D) None of
these.
(C) Both (A) and (B) furniture under theie care
care of his
'A' while going abroad, leaves his 'A' under
44. In suit filed by
the furniture to 'C'.
a
friend 'B'. 'B' pledges
Relief Act, 1963 :
Section 8 of Specific furniture to 'A'.
specifically to deliver the
compelled
(A) 'C' may be
not be compelled.
(B) C'may 'B'.
be compelled only by
(C) C may claim relief against
'C.
Neither 'A' nor 'B' can
mentioned in
(D) infrastructure project
is not
45. Which of the following
schedule to the Specific
Relief Act of more than
located outside the city with population
star hotel
five
(A)
I million with population of
more
outside the city
(B) three star hotel located
than 1 million than
city with population of more
located within the
(C) Five star hotel
I million
(D) Ropeways
42.(B) 43.(C) 44.(A) 45.(C)
45.(C)
Ans. 40.(C) 41.(C)
 CIVILJUDGE (PRE.) EXAMINATION SOLVED PAPE
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statement is false :-
46. Which of the following
(A) An injunction can not be granted
to
prevent the breach of a Contrae
the performance of which would not be specifically enforced
to prevent, on ground of nuisance
(B) An injunction can not be granted
an act of which it is not reasonably clear that it will be a nuisance

(C) An injunction can not be granted to prevent a

continuing breach in
which the plaintiff has acquiesced
(D) None of these.
LIMITATION ACT, 1963
Negotiations for settlement taking place between a claimant and a
47.
claim is made
person against whom
(A) bars the defendant from pleading a statute of limitation where the
negotiations have led to delay in bringing the action by the claimant
(B) does not debar the defendant from pleading a statute of limitation
even though the negotiations have led to delay in bringing the action
by the claimant
(C) may bar the defendant from pleading a statute of limitation

depending on the facts and circumstances of each case

(D) shall bar the defendant from pleading a statute of limitation absolutely.
48. Under section 21, a suit is deemed to have been instituted, in case
of a new plaintiff impleaded/added
(A) on the date on which the new plaintiff is impleaded
(B) on the date on which the suit was initially instituted
(C) on the date on which the application for impleading a new plaintiff
is made
(D) none of these
49. The jurisdiction to grant exemption under Section 14 of Limitation
Act, 1963 is given exclusively too
(A) Court of first instance (B) High Court
(C) Supreme Court (D) Only Civil Court
50. In a suit filed by the plaintiff, the defendant in his written statement
has taken the objection of non-impleadment of necessary party.
Despite such objection the plaintiff continued the suit and the suit
finally was decreed. At the first appellate stage, the plaintiff
withdraws the suit with liberty to file a fresh one on the same cause
of action and subsequently filed a fresh suit, the period spent by the
plaintiff in the earlier suit, under section 14 of Limitation Act is :
(A) liable to be excluded on the ground that the plaintiff was prosecuting
the earlier suit with due diligence and in
good faith
(B) not liable to be excluded as the plaintiff cannot be said to be
prosecuting the earlier suit with due diligence and in good faith
(C) liable to exclude under section 14(3) of Limitation act
(D) to be excluded or not to be excluded is in the discretion of the court

Ans. 46.(D) 47.(B) 48.(A) 49.(A) 50.(A)

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M.P. ACCOMMODATION CONTROLACT, 1961

Section 13(1)
51. If a tenant makes deposit or payment as provided by
or (2), no decree or order shall be made by
the court for the recovery
of possession of accommodation on ground of :
(A) Section 12(1)(a) (B) Section 12(1Xb)
(C) Section 12(1)c) (D) Section 12(1)(d)
no
Where a landlord has acquired any accommodation by transfer,
52. shall be maintainable
suit for eviction under Section 12(1%e) or ()
t i l l . . . . period is over :-
(A) 3 months (A) 6 months
18 months
(A) 1 year (A)
53. Which of the following statement is correct?
(A) Married Daughter is family member
(B) Sub-Lease is not included in "Lease" covered under
land which is not used for agricultural purposes is
(C) Any
accommodation

(D) Garden is not accommodation

54. Which of the following statements is false:contained in law
to the contrary
any other
(A) Notwithstanding anything the tenant
no suit shall be filed
in any civil Court against
or contract, one or more of
from accommodation except on
for his eviction any
to 12(1)(p)
the grounds mentioned in Section 12(1)(a) no suit
contained in any contract,
(B) subject to anything to the contrary
for his eviction from any
shall be filed in any civil Court against
on one or more of
the grounds mentioned
accommodation except to the contrary
or in the contract
either in Section 12(1)Ma) to 12(1)p)
in writing of the
No tenant shall, without the previous consent
(C) of the accommodation held by
landlord, sub-let the whole or any part
him as a tenant
of the Accommodation Control Act,
1961,
(D) according to section 23-J Government,
retired servant ofany
landlord" means a landlord who is a the
a company owned
or controlled either by
a retired servant of
widow or a divorced wife or physically
Central or State Government, a
or a servant of any Government including a
handicapped person
to his service conditions,
member of defence services who according
accommodation on his posting to a
is not entitled to Government accommodation
house or is entitled to such
place where he owns a
rent on his posting to such a place
only on payment of a penal 1961 does not apply to
55.
55. M.P. Accommodation Control Act,
used for residential purpose
(A) Property of Municipal Corporation
Corporation used exclusively for
non-
(B) Property of Municipal
residential purposes
Both
(C) Property of Government (D) Option (B) and (C)

Ans. 51.(A) 52.(C) 53.(C) 54.(B) 55.(D)

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CIVILJUDGE (PRE)EXAMINATION SOLVEN PERS
M.P. LAND REVENUE CODE, 1959

court tis not

of the civil
ln which of the following matters, Jurisdiction caued
56.
excluded?
of Government Lessee
(A) Ejectment
of possession of an occupancy tenant
CB) Restoration
to modity any entry
in nistar patrak
(C) Any claim
of holdings
(D) Partition is not a Revenue Officer
57. Who among the following
(A) Commissioner (B) Deputy Survey Officer
(C) Revenue Inspector (D) Superintendent
of Land
Records
58. Where a partition proceeding is friled before Tehsildar and a question
58.
the Tehsildar
of title is raised in it,
(A) shall proceed to partition
the holding in accordance with the enti
in the record of rights
(B) shall stay the proceedings for 3 months to facilitate the institution of
a civii suit for
determination of question of title
C) shall send the proceedings to the civil court for appropriate decision
of title and partition of holding accordingly
(D) shall dismiss the partition proceeding as partition is not possible until
decision of title
A Bhumiswami may transfer an interest in his land
59
(A) by way of lease even if the period of lease does not exceed 5 years
at a time
(B) by way of sale even if the individual buying it becomes entitled to an
aggregated land exceeding ceiling limits
(C) by way of mortgage even if after this transfer he is left with 5 acres
of un-irrigated land
(D) by way of usufructuary mortgage even if it is for a period exceeding
6 years
60. Choose the correct answer in relation to the following "A widow who
is occupancy tenant can":
(A) Sale the property (B) Gift the Property
(C) Sub-Lease the Property (D) None of these
INDIAN EVIDENCEACT, 1872
61. As per Act a fact is said "not
proved" when:
(A) when it is proved incorrect
(B) when court believes that it does not exist
(C) when a prudent man considers that the fact does not exist
(D) when it is neither proved nor
disproved
Ans. 56.(D) 57.(C) 58.(B) 59.(A) 60.() 61.(D)
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Section 27 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 is an exception to the

62.
rules enacted :
(A) Only in Section 24 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
(B) Only in Section 25 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
(C) Only in Section 26 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
(D) In Sections 24, 25 and 26 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
Best Evidence rule" is exciusively associated with the rule laid down
63.
in
Evidence Act
(A) S. 62 of the
(B) S. 90 of the Evidence Act
(C) S. 93 of the Evidence Act
(D) S. 91 of the Evidence Act
A witness who is unable to speak, gives his evidence in open court
64.
in the written form, it is a
(A) Documentary evidence (B) Oral evidence
(C) doubtful evidence (D) inadmissible evidence
accused
65. Which section makes anything said, done or written by an
to a conspiracy, relevant as against co-conspirators
in reference to
their common intention?

(A) Section 10 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872

(B) Section 6 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
(C) Section 15 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
(D) Section 14 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
Which of the following couid be proved as dying declaration after the
66.
death of a person?
(A) FIR lodged by the person (deceased)
ws. 161 Cr.P.C.
(B) Statement of the person (deceased) to poiice, recorded
Executivve
(C) Statement of the person (deceased) recorded by the
Magistrate
(D) All of these
67. Public documents are mentioned in :-
(A) Section 72 of Evidence Act
(B) Section 73 of Evidence Act
(C) Section 74 of Evidence Act
(D) Section 75 of Evidence Act
The general rule is that the opinion or belief of a witness is
68.
irrelevant. Certain exceptions to this rule have been laid down in
Indian Evidence Act. The sections containing these exceptions are :
(A) Section 52 to 55 (B) Section 10 to 15
(C) Section 6 to 9 (D) Section 45 to 51

Ans. 62.(B&C) 63.(D) 64.(B) 65.(A) 66.(D) 67.(C) 68.(D)

590 CIVILJUDGE (PRE,)EXAMINATION SOLVED PAPER
69. Which one of the following is not a "Public Document"2
(A) A document forming the acts of a sovereign authority
(B) A document forming the acts of official body
(C) A document forming the acts of officer of Government of India

(D) A document forming the acts of an employee cf an educational

institution.
70. Which of the following statements is not correct?
(A) A rule of iaw can not be nullified by resorting to doctrine of

estoppel.
(B) Assurances held out but not incorporated in an agreement would
not attract doctrine of estoppel.
(C) Plea of promissory estoppel siall be available even if an officer of
the Government acts outside the scope of his authority.
(D) An estoppel arises as soon as the relationship of landlord and tenant
is created and tenant is not pernitted to deny the title of his

landlord.
71. "Test identification parade" under the law of evidence is
(A) Substantive evidence (B) Corroborative evider.ce
(C) Hearsay evidence (D) No evidence
The confession of an accused is only relevant against him. Which of
12.
the following Section of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 is an exceptioa
to this Rule?
(A) Section 23 (B) Section 25
(C) Section 28 (D) Section 30
73. A retracted confession :-

(A) be made solely the basis of conviction

can
(B) cannot be made solely the basis of conviction under any

circumstances
be made the basis of conviction unless the same is
(C) cannot solely
cerroborated
(D) both (A) and (C) are incorrect
in *
74. Necessity rule' as to the admissibility of evidence is contained
(A) Section 31 of Evidence Act
(B) Section 32 of Evidence Act
(C) Section 60 of Evidence Act
(D) Section 61 of Evidence Act

74.(B)
Ans. 69.(D) 70.(C) 71.(B) 72.(D) 73.(C)
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letter
In a murder before identification of the culprit, B wrote a
case
75. the letter
of confession to the police officer. At the time of writing
there was no suspicion cast on B. Choose the most appropriate
answer from the following choices
(A) is inadmissible as it was made to a police officer.was made before
it
(B) Admissible as it was made voluntarily, the fact
the police officer is irrelevant.
nor in the
(C) Admissible it was neither made in police custody
as

presence of the police officer.

(D) Inadmissible as it was not made before the magistrate.
INDIAN PENAL CODE, 1860
Preparation of which of the following offences
is punishable
76.
() Waging war against India
(ii) Sedition
(ii) Murder
(iv) Dacoity
(A) ). (ii) and (iv) (B) ), (i) and (ii)
(D) () and (iv)
(C) ) and (ii)
of a bikini model
77. A man who regularly visits the instagram page
commits the offence of :
women celebrity and also follows her,
(A) stalking (B) voyeurism
offence
(C) obscenity (D) man commits no

is false :
18. Which of the following statements
the theft, or in
theft is "robbery" if, in order to the committing of
(A) or attempting to carry
committing the theft, or in carrying away for that end,
obtained by the theft, the offender,
away property or hurt
to cause to any person death
voluntarily causes or attempts of instant hurt, or
or fear of instant death or
or wrongful restraint,
of instant wrongful restraint
the time of committing the
Extortion is "robbery" if the offender, at
(B) the person put in fear, and commits
extortion, is in the presence of
in fear of instant death, of
the extortion by putting that person
to that person or to
instant hurt, or of instant wrongful restraint,
so putting in fear, induces
the person,
some other person, and, by

so put in fear then

and there to deliver up the thing extorted
whereof has been transferred by theft, or
(C) Property, the possession which has been criminally
by extortion, or by robbery, anyofproperty
which criminal breach of trust has
misappropriated or in respect
as "stolen property"
been committed, is designated
(D) none of these
this act, A's shoulder was dislocated (not
79. A was beaten by B. In
fractured). B is liable for
(A) simple hurt (B) grievous hurt

(C) assault (D) affray

Ans. 75.(C) 76.(D) 77.(D) 78.(D) 79.(B)

592
CIVILJUDGE(PRE)EXAMINATION
rIONSOLVEDPAPE
80. A finds a ring belonging to
B on a table in the house which
B occuni
Here the ring is in possession of B and A in good faith
it belongs to him takes it. A commits the offence of
believing
that
(A) theft (B) criminal misappropriation
(C) criminal breach of trust (D) none of these
81. A, residing in Calcutta, is agent for Z, residing at Delhi.
There is aan
express or implied contract between A and Z, that all sums
remitted
by Z to A shall be invested by A, according to Z's direction. Z
a lakh of rupees to A, with directions to A to
remits
invest the same in
Company's paper. A in good faith, believing that it will be more for
Z's advantage to hold shares in the Bank of Bengal, disobeys Z's
directions, and buys shares in the Bank of Bengal, for Z, instead of
buying Company's paper. Z suffers loss. A is liable for
(A) cheating (B) criminal breach of trust
(C) eriminal misappropriation (D) no offence is committed
82. Where the accused caught hold of a girl, grabbed her
by force by the
side of the bushes, threw her down on the
ground, removed her
under garments, got over her and
attempted penetrate, but before
to
he could succeed, the girl started bleeding:-
(A) the accused was guilty of preparation of rape only
(B) the accused was guilty of outraging modesty of the girl
(C) the accused was guilty of attempted rape
(D) the accused was guilty of insulting the modesty of the girl
83. A, a shopkeeper, to protect his own money says to B, who
his business-"Sell nothing to Z unless he
manages
pays you ready money, for
I have no good opinion of his
honesty." is :
A
(A) liable for defamation under section 499 of I.P.C.
(B) liable for defamation under section 496 of I.P.C.
(C) liable for defamation under section S06 of I.P.C.
(D) not liable for defamation
84. A places men with firearms at the outlets of a
building, and tells Z
that they will fire at Z if Z attempts to leave the
offence has A committed ?
building.
What

(A) Wrongful confinement (B) Wrongful restraint

(C) Criminal intimidation (D) (A) and (C) both are correct
85. In which case, offence under section 377
was held to be partially
unconstitutional -
(A) Navtej Singh Johar Vs. Union of India
(B) Joseph Shine Vs. Union of India
(C) Malkiat Singh Vs. State of Punjab
(D) Balwant Singh Vs. State of Punjab

Ans. 80.(D) 81.(D) 82.() 83.(D) 84.(D) 85.(A)

sOLVED PAPER -
M.P.C.J. -2021 593

86. A man who monitors the use by a woman of internet, e-mail or any
form of electronic communication, commits the offence of
(A) Sexual harassment (B) Criminal trespass
(C) Voyeurism (D) Stalking
A and B, being, joint owners of a elephant, A takes the elephant out
87.
of B's possession, intending to use it. A, then, sells the elephant and
appropriates the whole proceeds to his own use. What offence has A
committed ?
(A) Cheating (B) Theft
(C) Criminal breach of trust (D) Dishonest Misappropriation
A concerts and agrees with B for poisoning C in order to murder him,
88.
for which B agrees to procure the poison, but did not procure. A and
B are guilty of
(A) abetment of murder by conspiracy
(B) attempt to murder with the aid of Section 34
(C) criminal conspiracy to murder C
(D) No offence
89. A', a blacksmith, is seized by a gang of dacoits and forced, by threat
of instant death to take his tools and to open the dor of B's house.
The dacoits 10 in number, loot B's money and jewels and kill B's son.
A is guilty of which offence ?
(A) Dacoity with Murder
to murder
(B) Culpable homicide not amounting
(C) His act is excusable. His act is covered under general exception
(D) Causing death by negligence
A instigates B to burn Z's house. B sets fire to the house and at the
90.
same time commits theft of property there. Then A is guilty of which

offence ?
(A) Guilty of abetting theft
(B) Guilty of abetting the burning of house and theft
of theft
(C) Guilty of abetting the burning of house but is not guilty
(D) None of these
CRIMINAL PROCEDURE CODE, 1973
91. In a case of warrant trial :-
(A) the court in its first instance, will issue a warrant of arrest against
the accused
(B) the police officer can not arrest without warrant
(C) only those offences are included, which are punishable with
imprisonment for a term not exceeding two years
(D) Only those offences are included, which are punishable with death,
imprisonment for life or a term exceeding two years

Ans. 86.(D) 87.(D) 88.(D) 89.(C) 90.(C) 91.(D)

594 CIVILJUDGE (PRE.)EXAMINATION SOLVED PAPERS
92. Under Section 156(3) of Cr.P.C., the power to direct
investigation i
vested only in -
(A) High Court (B) Sessions Judge
(C)Magistrate (D) All of these
93. Magistrate can invoke power under Section 156(3) Cr.P.C, even a
post-cognizance stage. It is held in :
(A) Vinubhai Haribhai and others Vs. State of Gujarat and another (2019)
(B) Alok Verma v. Union of India (2019
(C) B.K. Pavitra v. Union of India (2019)
(D) Pattu Rajan v. Union of India (2019)
94. If the accused though not of unsound mind, can not be
made to
understand the proceedings, the court-
(A) will stay the proceedings
(B) may proceed with the proceeding
(C) will forward the proceeding to the High Court
(D) None of these
95. Constitution Bench of Supreme Court resolved the conflict of its
earlier decision regarding criminal Court power in matter of adding
additional accused in a criminal case, in
(A) Hardeep Singh Vs. State of Punjab & others.
(B) Mohd. Shafi Vs. Mohd. Rafiq
(C) Ranjit Singh Vs. State of Punjab
(D) Hema Mishra Vs. State of U.P
96. A commits robbery on B, and in
doing so voluntarily causes hurt to
him. Whether A may be
separately charged with offences under
section 323, 392 and 394 of the I.P.C.
(A) yes
(B) no, only under section 394
(C) In all said offences only with the consent of accused
(D) In all said offences only upon application of prosecution
97. When can an offence
otherwisecompoundable not be compounded
(A) When the person competent to compound is dead
(B) When the person competent to compound is under eighteen years of
age
(C) When the accused has been committed for trial
(D) When the accused is, by reason of a previous conviction, liable either
to enhanced
punishment or to a punishmentof a different kind for
such offence.

Ans. 92.(C) 93.(A) 94.(B) 95.(A) 96.(A) 97.(D)

 595
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New chapter of "plea bargaining" was added in the Criminal

98.
Procedure Code by -

(A) Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2005

(B) Criminal Procedure Code (Amendment) Act, 2005
(C) Indian Evidence (Amendment) Act, 2005
(D) Indian Penal Code (Amendment) Act, 2005
99. Any dispute relating to possession of immovable property is decided
by:
(A) Judicial Magistrate
(B) Executive Magistrate
(C) Either (A) or (B)
(D) Neither (A) nor (B)
that
100. A magistrate dismisses a complaint after inquiry holding
order of the
1dentity of the accused is not disclosed in complaint
Inagistrate is :
accused
(A) correct since it is mandatory to describe the identity of
it is not revealed
(B) correct even if the identity is disclosed in the inquiry
from the complaint
incorrect since it is not mandatory to describe
the iderntity of accused
(C)
in complaint
incorrect since the proper course for the magistrate was to reject the
(D)
complaint that an
in a complaint case it is
made to appear to Magistrate
101. If,
in progress in relation to the same
investigation by the police is
a Magistrate may pass
under
offence, which of the following order(s)
1973?
Section 210 of Code of Criminal Procedure,
after police investigation
I. Return the complaint to be re-filed
the proceeding of inquiry or trial on such complaint
II. Stay
Officer
m. Calla report from the Investigating
IV. Refer the complaint for investigation by
police
V.Refer the complaint to Chief Judicial Magistrate
(B) II and V
(A) !I and V
(D) II only
(C) II and III
incluces :-
102. Victim means ana
(A) a person who has
suffered any loss or injury caused by reason of the
act or omission for which the accused pe1son has becn charged
(B) his or her guardian
(C)his or her legal heir
(D) all of these

Ans. 98.(A) 99.() 100.(C) 101.(C) 102.(D)

596
CIVILJUDGE (PRE.)EXAMINATIONSOLVED PAPERS
103. What persons may be charged
jointly?
i. Persons accused of the same offence committed in the
course
of the same transaction.
ii. Persons accused of an offence and
persons accused of abetment
of, or attempt to commit, such offence.
ii. Persons accused of more than one offence of the same
kind,
and
persons accused of abetment of, or attempt to0 commit, such
offence.
iv. Persons accused of more than one offence of the same
kind,
within the meaning of Section 219 committed by them
within the period of twelve months.
jointly
(A) i, i and ii (B) i, ii and iv
(C) all of these (D) none of these
104. With regard to the place of
inquiry or trial, which of the following
statements is false :-
(A) When it is uncertain in which of several local areas an offence was
committed, it may be inquired into or tried by a Court having
jurisdiction over any of such local areas
(B) Where an offence is committed partly in one local area and partly in
another, it may be inquired into or tried by a Court havingjurisdiction
over any of such local areas
(C) Where an offence is a continuing one, and continues to be committed
in more local areas than one, it may be
inquired into or tried by a
Court having jurisdiction over any of such local areas
(D) When it consists of several acts done in different local
areas, it may
be inquired into or tried by a Court having jurisdiction over the local
in which first of such acts was committed.
area
105. Any private person may arrest any person who in his presence
commits
(A) Cognizable offence (B) Non-bailable offence
(C) Cognizable and non-bailable offence
(D) Non-cognizable and non-bailable offence
NEGOTIABLE INSTRUMENTS ACT, 1881
106. 'A' signs the instrument in the following terms. State the instrument
which cannot be considered as promissory note
:
(A) I promise to pay B or order INR 500
(B) I acknowledge myself be indebted to B for INR
to 1,000 to be paid
on demand for value received
(C) I promise to pay B INR 10,000 after three months
(D) I promise to pay B INR S00 seven days after my marriage with C

Ans. 103.(*) 104.(D) 105.(C) 106.(D)

 597
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A court trying an offence under section 138 may order the drawer of
107.
the cheque to pay interim compensationnot
(A) In summon case when drawer plead guilty
In other case after drawer's statement under section 313 CrPC has
(B)
been recorded
is issued
(C) In a case tried summarily when notice for appearance of drawer
(D) All of these
the person committing
108. Which of the following statements is false, If
an offence under Section 138
of the Negotiable Instruments Act is a

company in
time the offence was committed, was
(A) every person who, at the
the company for the conduct of
charge of, and was responsible to shall be deemed
the business of the company, as well as the company,
to be guilty virtue
as a Director of a company by
(B) where person is nominated
a
in the Central or State
of his holding any office or employment
liable for prosecution
Government, he shall not be
has been committed with the
consent
(C) If it is proved that the offence
on the part of, any
or connivance of, or
is attributable to, any neglect
or other officer of
the company, such
director, manager, secretary
officer shall also be deemed to
director, secretary or other
manager,

beguilty
(D) none of these
the instrument, interest
When no rate of interest is specified in
109.
at the rate of :
the amount due shall be calculated
(B) 9 percent
(A) 6 percent
(D) 18 percent
(C) 12 percent Instruments Act, 1881
Amendment in Section 148
of the Negotiable
110. effect
2018 shall have a retrospective
September,
effective from 01st
is held in the case of
Deswal Vs. Virender Gandhi (2019)
(A) Surinder Singh
Promila (2020)
(B) Indian Bank Vs.
Kameshwar Singh (2020)
(C) Canara Bank Vs.
Vs. Nathu Ram (2020)
(D) Sri Utam Chand
GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
direction -
River "Narmada" flows in
which of following
111.
(B) East to West
(A) North to South
(D) South to North
(C) West to East Pradesh -
situated in Madhya
112. Which of the Water falls is
(B) Chachai
(A) Dhua dhar (Bhedaghat)
(C) Kapil dhara (D) All of these
112.(D)
111.(B) 112(D)
108.(D) 109.(D) 110.(A)
Ans. 107.(A)
 CIVILJUD (PRE.) EXAMINATIONSOLVED
598 PAPERS
Institute of Physical Education is estahi..
113. Lakshmibai National established in:
(A) Indore
(B) Bhopal
(D) Rewa
(C) Gwalior
114. Who was the Chief Justice of India when pubic interest litigati
introduced in Indian Judicial system?
(P.IL.) first time
(B) Justice A.H. Ahamadi
(A) Justice M. Hidaytullah
Anand (D) Justice P.N. Bhagwati
(C) Justice A.S.
115. Which one is not 'Rabi' crop?
(A) Wheat
(B) Gram
(C) Lentil (D) Paddy
site in India is situated at?
116. The world famous rock-art
(B) Gupteshwar
(A) Adamgarh
(D) Kabra Pahad
(C) Bhimbetka
and China is known
117. Boundary line drawn on map between India as

(A) McMohan Line B) Red Cliff Line

(C) Durand Line (D) Red Line

118. Which of the following has won the Nobel peace prize 2020?
(A) World Economic Forum
(B) World Food Program

(C) Food and Agriculture Organization

(D) None of these
which in news recently is related to?
119. Sputnik V' was

(A) a missile (B) a chatbot

Russian artificial satellite (D) a vaccine
(C) a

of in lndia according to
120. Which state is the largest producer pulses
latest figures?
(A) Madhya Pradesh (B) Rajasthan
(C) Uttar Pradesh (D) Maharashtra
Where was freedom fighter Tatya Tope hanged in Madhya Pradesh
121.
A) Indore (B) Shivpuri
(C) Gwalior (D) Vidisha
122. "Satya Mev Jayate" is taken from which Upanishad?
(A) Prashna Upanishad (B) Aitereya Upanishad
(C) Mundak Upanishad (D) Chandogya Upanishad
Ans.1134C) 1144*) 115(D) 11640) 174A) 118/B) 19,4D) 1204A) 1214B) 12
 2021 599
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123. Artist Shri Beohar Rammanohar Sinha who illustrated the preamble
to the original Constitution of India is related to
which district of

Madhya Pradesh?
(A) Datia (B) Jabalpur
C) Indore (D) Gwalior
collection of the
124. The book named "Three Decades in Parliament' is a

speeches of:
(A) A.B. Vajpayee (B) Somnath Chatterjee
(C) L.K. Advani (D) N.G. Ranga
125. Entomology is the science that studies
(A) Behaviour of human beings
(B) Insects
and scientific terms
(C) The origin and history of technical
(D) The formation of rocks
in..?
126. Independent India won its first Olympie hockey gold
(A) 1952 1956 (B)
(C) 1960 (D) 1948 musical
Ali Khan is associated with which of the following
127. Amjad
instruments?
(B) Veena
(A) Sarod
(C) Sitar
(C) Violin chief organ of the
United Nations
128. Which of the following is not a

Organisations?
(A) International Labour Organisation
(B) Security Council
International Court of Justice
(C)
(D) General Assembly
resolutions sponsored by India :
129. UN adopted which of the following
) Reducing Nuclear Danger Nuclear Weapons
Prohibition of the Use of
i) Convention on
differences
(ii) Reducing Labour
and Harmony
(iv) Promoting Peace (B) ) and (i)
(A) Only () (D) (i) and (iv)
(C) (i), Gi) and (ii) reserves was awarded with the status of
130. Which of the following tiger
UNESCO Biosphere Reserve?
Park
(A) Kanha National Park (B) Bandhavgarh National
(C) Panna Tiger Reserve (D) Madhav Tiger Reserve
COMPUTER KNOWILEDGE

131. Information on computer is stored

a as :

(A) analogue data (B) tabular data

(C) digital data (D) longitudinal data

Ans.123(B) 124(4) 125.(B) 126.0D) 127(A) 128.(*) 129.(B) 130(C) 131.(C)

600 CIVILJUDGE(PRE.) EXAMINATIONSOLVED PAPDe
132. In computer networking, FTP stands for
(A) Fimware transfer Protocol (B) Firewall Transfer Protocol
(C) File Transfer Protocol (D) None of these
133. Which of the following statement is false
(A) Operating system is a software which pertorms all the basic tasks
like file management, memory management, process management
(B) Establishment of communication/interaction in between hardware
and software is called interface
(C) Software's may broadly be categorized into system software
software and programming software
application
D) none of these
134. Assembler is a program that translate the program from :-
(A) High-level to assembly (B) Assembly to machine
(C)Machine to assembly (D) Machine to low-level
135. Device which is used to read a mark sense answer sheet of particular
test is :
(A) image scanner (B) Bar-code reader
(C) facsimile machine
(D) character or mark recognition device
136. Which of the following is not used as secondary storage?
(A) Semiconductor memory (B) magnetic disks
(C)magneticdrums (D) Magnetic tapes
137. Which of one is a open source operating system?
(A) Microsoft (B) Linux
(C) MacOs (D) None of these
138. "Miracast" is
(A) Wireless Content Streaming Technology
(B) Wired Content Streaming Technology
(C) Feature in Chrome browser to cast webpages side by side.
(D) None of these
139. When discussing technology, a hot spot is?
(A) A small overheated area on a CPU
(B) A place served by public wireless access
(C) Jargon for an X-rated Web site
(D) A faulty area in the programming code
140. Shorteut for displaying
the full page as they are printed
(A) Ctrl + Fl
(B) Ctrl+F2
(C) Shift +FI (D) Shift +F2

Ans.132.(C) 133.(D) 134.(B) 135(D) 136(*) 137(B) 138(A) 139.(B) 1406)|

 M.P.C.J. -2021 601
SOLVED PAPER
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ENGLISH KNOWLEDGE
the one which can be substituted
141. Out of the given alternatives, choose
and sacred emotions"
for the sentence "A song embodying religious
(B) Ode
(A) Lyric
(D) Ballad
(C) Hymn
142. "A past master" is person who-
a

(A) Knows everything of the past

(B) Was perfect nothing now
in the past but knows
Is thorough in a chosen field
(C) Possesses shallow knowledge (D)
nearest in meaning to the bold
143. Select the option that is the
(underlined) word.
The portal will help victims and complainants to anonymously report
cyber crime.
(A) incognito (B) directly
(D) in situ
(C) unfailingly
:
144. Choose the exact meaning of the idioms/phrase
the last several weeks.
Mrs. Hashmi has been in the blues for
(B) unwell
(A) abroad
(C) depressed (D) penniless
word substitution "One who pretends to be somebody else"
145. Give one

called
(A) Narcissist (B) Imposter
(D) Stoic
(C) Apostate
:-
146. Impasse means (B) Open to public
(A) Hidden
(C) Deadlock (D) Choice
to indirect speech :-
147. Change this sentence from direct
so hard".
"I said to him, why are you working
so hard
(A) I asked him why he was working so hard
he working
(B) I asked him why was
he been working so hard
(C) I asked him why had
been working so hard
(D) I asked him why he had given
can be substituted for the
148. Choose the one word which
corrected" :
sentence: "That which cannot be
(B) Indelible
(A) Unintelligible
(C) lilegible (D) Incorrigible
word "Diminish".
149. Find out the correct antonyms for the
(A) Plummet (B) drop off
(C) Increase (D) Reduce
Bird's eye view :
150. Choose the exact meaning of the idioms/phrase:
(A) to view something closely a general view from above
(B)
(C) to view suspiciously (D) to look írom a different angle

O00
Ans. 1414C) 142D) 1434A) 144/C) 145(B) 146(C) 1474A) 148(D) 1494C) 150/B)