AQUATIC ANIMAL HEALTH MANAGEMENT

1. The study of disease and the bodily changes produced by them is called as __________.

a) Etiology b) Pathology c) Both a & b d) None

2. With respect to the fish pathology which of the following terms is used:

a) Symptoms b) Clinical Signs c) Both a & b d) None

3. Any gross, microscopic or biochemical tissue abnormality is called as _________.

a) Lesion b) Virulence c) Edema d) Haemorrhage

4. Bulging of blood vessels in fish gills is called as ____________.

a) Aneurysm b) Embolism c) Hyperemia d) Telangiectasis

5. Mr. Piyush has a 1ha pond with 3m depth, the pond was stocked with murrels (Channastriata) but
the entire stock was affected with EUS. Calculate the amount of Aquaneem-10X required to apply in
the pond.

a) 1L b) 2L c) 3L d) 4L

6. Assertion: Nile tilapia is susceptible to Epizootic Granulomatous Aphanomycosis (EGA).

Reason: EGA is caused by Saprolegniaparasitica.

a) Both Assertion and Reason are true.

b) Assertion is true but Reason is false.

c) Reason is true but assertion is false.

d) Both Assertion and reason are false.

7. Which type of haemorrhage is seldom seen in fish?

a) Petechiae b) Ecchymosis c) Paintbrush d) Hematomas

8. Which of the following is used in tissue fixation in histology?

a) Bouins Fluid b) Phosphate Buffer Formalin c) Carnoys fluid d) All

9. Deficiency of Lysine in diet causes:

a) Scoliosis b) Lordosis c) Kyphosis d) Dorsal fin Erosion

10. IPN virus is a:

a) -ve sense ss RNA b) Ds DNA c) +ve sense ss RNA d) Ds RNA

11. Carp pox comes under:

a) Paramyxoviridae b) Adenoviridae c) Herpesviridae d) Retroviridae

12. White muscle necrosis is due to:

a) Reovirus b) Nodavirus c) Ranavirus d) Iridovirus

13. VHS mainly infects:

a) Convolutions in brain b) Liver c) MMC d) Swim bladder

14. Lepidorthosis is associated with which pathogen?

a) A. hydrophila b) F. columnare c) E. tarda d) All

15. Neoplasia of cartilage refers to

a) Rhabdomyoma b) Liposarcoma c) Chondrosarcoma d) Fibroma

16. Vitamin produced by gut bacteria is

a) Vit A b) Vit B7 c) Vit B5 d) Vit D

17. Which Vitamin is responsible for Hitra Disease?

a) Vit A b) Vibrio sp. c) Vit E d) None

18. Obligate intracellular parasite is

a) Bacteria b) Virus c) Fungi d) All

19. The instrument used for sectioning in histology is

a) Tissue Processor b) Tissue Fixator c) Coplin Jar d) Microtome

20. Intermediate host of nematode is

a) Arthropod b) Digenean c) Snail d) Bird

21. The following is a acid fast bacteria

a) Bacillus b) Pseudomonas c) Mycobacterium d) Alteromonas

22. One detoxifying enzyme for reactive oxygen intermediate is

a) SOD b) Hydroxygenase c) Nitrogenase d) Galactosidase

23. Hitra Disease is also known as:

a) MAS b) Cold water vibriosis c) Gill rot d) None

24.Columnaris is otherwise known as:

a) Cauliflower disease b) Slime Disease c) Cotton Wool d) ICH disease

25. Viral Replication takes place

a) Outside the cell b) Inside the cell c) Both d) None

26. 'Hay Stack' formation is characteristics of

a) Cold water disease b) Saprolegniasis c) Columnaris d) None

27. Organization responsible for fish quarantine in India is:

a) CIBA b) RGCA c) CIFA d) CMFRI

28. Recently emerging most important disease of L. Vannamei

a) EMS b) WSSV c) WTD d) TSV

29. Causative agent of EMS is:

a) TSV b) WSSV

c) V. parahaemolyticus d) B. Subtilis

30. Probiotics are mainly active in

a) Large intestine b) Small intestine c) Stomach d) None

31. Prebiotics are mainly active in

a) Large intestine b) Small intestine c) Stomach d) None

32. Blood poisoning by toxins from a local bacterial infection is known as

a) Bacteraemia b) Anaemia c) Toxamia d) None

33. Brown Blood Disease or New tank syndrome is caused due to

a) Algal toxin poisoning b) Nitrite poisoning c) Afla toxin d) None

34. Which of the following media is used in isolation and identification of fungi?

a) GPY b) TCBS c) KDM2 d) None

35. Trophont is _____________ stage of parasite

a) Larval b) Egg c) Resting d) Adult

36. The encyst form of I. Multifilisis called

a) Thereont b) Trophont c) Tomont d) Dormant

37. The intermediate host of the parasite helminth Acanthocephalan is

a) Arthropod b) Coelenterate c) Mollusc d) Fish

38. The stage of Diplostomum that causes black disease

a) Metacercaria b) Cercaria c) Miracidia d) Caracidia

39. Following is a hypertrophic disease

a) Mycobacteriosis b) Lymphocystis c) MAS d) Hitra

40. Genome surrounded by protein coat is seen in

a) Bacteria b) Fungi c) Virus d) Protozoa

41. Decrease in production of haemoglobin carrying cells causes

a) Haemorrhagic anemia b) Haemolytic anemia

c) Sickle cell anemia d) Hypoplasticanemia

42. Bankruptcy disease is caused by

a)R.salmoninarum b)A.hydrophila c)P.fluorescence d)C.botulinum

43. Which medicine is used as inhibitor of cell wall?

a) Penicillin b) Isoniazid c) Polymyxins d) Tetracyclines

44. Erythromycin is used as inhibitors of

a) Mycolic acid synthesis b) Enzyme synthesis c) Protein synthesis d) Cell wall

45. ______________ is the inhibitor of nucleic acid synthesis

a) Aminoglucosides b) Quinolones c) Nitrofurans d) Isoniazid

46. Example of Quinolones antibiotic

a) Sulphamerazine b) Polymyxins c) Penicillin d) Nalidixic acid

47. Inhibitor of cytoplasmic membrane is

a) Cephalosporins b) Polymyxins c) Isoniazid d) Chloramphenicol

48. _________ is a Nitrofuran derivative which is used as antibacterial agent against fish diseases

a) Nifuripirinol b) Neomycin c) Nuvan d) Neguvon

49. Which drug is used against whirling disease?

a) Isoniazid b) Furazolidone c) Cephalosporins d)

Erythromycin

50. Which drug is not a probiotic?

a) Lactobacillus b) Vibrio c) Pseudomonas d) Laminarin

51. Example of Immunostimulant

a) Glucans b) Laminarin c) Peptidoglycans d) All

52. Which drug is used as Dopamine antagonist?

a) Domperidone b) Ostradiol c) Pimozide d) Both a& c

53. Menthol is a type of

a) Immunostimulant b) Probiotic c) Anaesthetic d) Antiprotozoal

drug

54. Which one is not used as hormone?

a) Vanomycin b) Ostradiol c) Domperidone d) Somatotropin

55. Among these which one is the odd one

a) Neomycin b) Kanamycin c) Erythromycin d) Amikacin

56. Macrogard is a

a) Glucan b) Laminarin c) Peptidoglycan d) Zymosan

57. Disease caused by fungus is called

a) Vibriosis b) Mycoses c) Tuberoculosis d) All

58. A toxin release by fungus which effect liver

a) Chemotoxin b) Neurotoxin c) Hepatotoxin d) None

59. Following which genera cause fungal disease

a) Saprolegnia b) Aphanomyces c) Achyla d) All

60. Leutexmayer mixture is a mixture of

a) Malachite green & Formalin b) Formalin & EDTA

c) EDTA &HCl d) Malachite green &HCl

61. Which of the following is a surface barrier in fish

a) Mucus b) Skin c) Gill d) All

62. α-2 macroglobulin act as

a) Growth inhibitor b) Enzyme inhibitor c) Precipitins d) None

63. Which of the following phagocytic cell is present in fish

a) Macrophage b) Monocytes c) Neutrophils d) All

64. Siderophores has high binding capacity for

a) Iron b) Copper c) Zinc d) None

65. _____________ is produced after viral infection

a) Interferon b) Transferrin c) Lysozyme d) CRP

66. Which of the complement pathway is common in teleost?

a) Classical b) Alternative c) Lectin d) All

67. Which of the following is universal antimicrobial peptides found in fish?

a) LEAP b) Piscidines c) Cathelicidins d) All

68. CRP binds with ___________ component of microorganism

a) Sugar b) Phosphoethanomine c) Phosphoryl Choline d) None

69. Myeloperoxidase present in _______ blood cells of fish

a) Neutrophils b) Eosinophils c) Basophils d) RBC

70. Memory cell is derived from

a) Plasma cell b) B cell c) T cell d) None

71. T helper cell recognize the microbial antigen in association with

a) Class I MHC b) Class II MHC c) Class III MHC d) All

72. Which of the following is secondary lymphoid organ?

a) Kidney b) Spleen c) MALT d) All

73. Small molecules incapable of inducing antibody response is called

a) Epitopes b) Haptens c) Antibody d) None

74. Prophenoloxidase system is induced by

a) LPS b) Peptidoglycan c) β 1-3 Glucan d) All

75. Which cell is mainly involved in phagocytic activity in crustaceans?

a) Hyaline b) Semigranular c) Macrophage d) Neutrophils

76. Anamnestic response is due to presence of

a) Plasma cell b) Memory cell c) T cell d) NCC

77. CD8+ cell is

a) Th b) Tc c) Ts d) Td

78. NCC in fish is similar to _____ cells of mammals

a) NK cell b) B cell c) T suppressor cell d) None

79. Immunology is derived from the word 'Immunis', which is a ______ word

a) Greek b) Latin c) Arabic d) French

80. The name B cell derives from

a) Bone marrow b) Bursa of Fabricius c) β-cell d) Birds

81. Fish IgM is

a) Pentamer b) Tetramer c) Dimer d) Monomer

82. Immunoglobulin present in fish mucus

a) IgM b) IgD c) IgT d) All

83. When the area of haemorrhage is less than 1-2 mm then it is called

a) Ecchymotic b) Petechiae c) Paintbrush d) Hematoma

84. MS-222 is a/an

a) Preservative b) Colouring agent c) Flavouring agent d)Anaesthetic

85. Types of complement system found in fish

a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5

86. Dissolution of nucleus is known as

a) Karyolysis b) Karyohexis c) Pyknosis d) Phagocytosis

87. Blood volume of teleost fish

a) 2% b) 6% c) 5% d) 8%

88. Most abundant leukocyte

a) Macrophages b) Neutrophils c) Thrombocytes d) Basophils

89. Complex sequence of events that takes place when a tissue is injured is called as ______

a) Inflammation b) Haemorrhage c) Ulcer d) All

90. Cells responsible for immune response in fish

a) Erythrocytes b) Lymphocytes c) Megakaryocytes d) Thrombocytes

91. Cells responsible for antibody formation in fish

a) Megakaryocytes b) B cells c) Thrombocytes d) Erythrocytes

92. Thymus mainly produces

a) Neutrophils b) B cells c) T cell d) Eosinophils

93. Main envelope protein responsible for infection in WSSV

a) VP 15 b) VP 26 c) VP 28 d) VP 19

94. Staining method used for bacterial differentiation

a) PAS b) Giemsa c) Gram d) Haematoxylin & Eosin

95. Cultural medium commonly used for Vibrio parahaemolyticus

a) TCBS b) EMB c) RS d) TSA

96. Professional antigen presenting cell

a) Eosinophil b) Macrophages c) B cell d) Thrombocytes

97. First cell to reach at the site of inflammation

a) Eosinophil b) Macrophages c) Neutrophils d) Thrombocytes

98. First fish established cell line

a) CHE b) TO c) RTG-2 d) BB

99. The enzyme used in PCR

a) DNA replicase b) EcoRI c) Taq polymerase d) All

100. Portion or site of an antigen that specifically react with an antibody

a) Paratope b) Agratope c) Isotope d) Epitope

101. The temperature and pressure used in an autoclave for sterilization

a) 121 C at 15 lb/sq. Inch b) 121 C at 10 psi c) 112 C at 10 lb/sq. Inch d) All

102. Which of the following is a method of cold sterilization

a) Autoclaving b) Irradiation c) Filtration by PES d) All

103. Abnormality associated with increased number of cells of an organ is known as:

a) Hyperplasia b) Hypertrophy c) Atrophy d) Hypoplasia

104. Abnormality associated with increased size of cells of an organ is known as:

a) Hyperplasia b) Hypertrophy c) Atrophy d) Metaplasia

105. Metastasis is shown by

a) Benign tumour b) Malignant tumour c) Both d) None

106. The lymphoid organ where the pathogens encounters with the lymphocytes

a) Primary b) Secondary c) Tertiary d) Both a & b

107. The first person to describe microorganisms

a) Galileo Galelei b) Robert Hooke c) A. V. Leeuwenhoek d) Janssen

108. Antibiotics was first discovered by

a) Alexander Flemming b) Ian Flemming c) Iwanoski d) Paul Ehrlich

109. Who established the causal relationship between a microorganism and a specific disease

a) AgostinoBassi b) Robert Koch c) Beijerinick d) Winogradsky

110. Chemotherapy is a drug selective toxicity against

a) Virus & Bacteria b) Bacteria & Fungi c) Fungi &Helminths d) All

111. Antimicrobials inhibits the growth of microorganism but

a) Cause no damage to host b) Cause host damage c) Both a & b d) None

112. Father of chemotherapy

a) Sidney Farber b) Paul Ehrlich c) Alexander Fleming d) Gerhard Domagk

113. Chemotherapy is necessary/required in

a) Acute infection b) Chronic Infection c) Both a & b c) None

114. Prophylactic chemotherapy is to

a) Continue the therapy b) Test for cure c) Avoid surgical site infection d) None

115. Chemical name β-Lactam antibiotics are

a) Penicilins&Cephalosporins b) Oxytetracycline&oxycline

c) Streptomycin & Neomycin d) Erythromycin &Clanthromycin

116. Inhibition of protein synthesis by AMS mechanism is

a) Chloramphenicol b) Cephalosporin c) Sulphones d)Fluoroquinoles

117. Broad spectrum penicillin, erythromycin is effective against

a) Gram +ve b) Gram -ve c) Both a & b d) None

118. ________ is an example of bacteriostatic?

a) Sulphonamides b) Tetracyclines c) Penicillins d) Chloramphenicol

119. Which one is anti protozoal

a) Diethyl carbamazine b) Chloroquinone c) Ketoconazole d) Aminoglycosides

120. Which of the following mode of action is by oxidation

a) KMnO4 b) NaCl c) Malachite Green d) HCHO

121.Ichthyophthiriasis is a ------------- disease?

A. Protozoan disease B. Fugal disease C. Bacterial disease D. Viral disease

122.Adult parasitic stage of ichthyopthiriusmultifilis?

A. Thereont B. Trophont C. Tomont D. Cyst

123.Ductylogyrus is

A. Oviparus B. Viviparus C. Ovoviviparus D. Both A and B

124.Digenictrematods are

A. Oviparus B. Viviparus C. Ovoviviparus D. Both A and B

125.Hatched larvae of Diplostomumpigmentate

A. Thereont B. Trophont C. Tomont D. Miracidium

126.Which is the first intermediate host of Diplostomum?

A. Mollusc B. Fish C. Birds D. Shrimp

127.Locomotion of Diplostomum larvae start on which stage?

A. Thereont B. Metacercaria C. Cercaria D. Tomont

128.Which stage of Ligula intestinalis causes ligulosis disease?

A. Metacercoid B. Plerocercoid C. Cercoid D. Urecollarid

129.EUS was first reported in Assam in

A. 1977 B. 1988 C. 1975 D. 1985

130.EUS is a

A. Viral disease B. Fungal disease C. Bacterial D. Protozoan

131.EUS is mainly affecting which fish?

A. Surface feeder B. Column feeder C. Bottom dweller D. Hill stream fishes

132.In India which bird is responsible to complete the life cycle of Ligula intestinalis?

A. Anhinga melanogaster B. Anhinga anhinga

C. Anhinga rufa D. Anhinga novaehollandiae

133.Minimum period required for completion of life cycle of Argulus sp. is

A. 3-6 weeks B. 6-9 weeks C. 3-6 days D. 6-9 days

134.Which is the causative agent of Ergasilosis?

A. Male Ergasilus B. female Ergasilus C. Both D. only the cyst of Ergasilus

135. Which is the causative agent of Lernaeosis?

A. Male Lernaea B. female Larnea C. Both D. only the cyst of Larnea

136.In gas bubble disease, accumulation of gasses occurred in

A. Intestine B. Oesophagus C. Gills D. Stomach

137.Water-borne irritants responsible for gill disease are having size of

A. < 0.45 micron B. > 0.45 micron C. < 4.5 micron D. > 4.5 micron

138.Brand name of Chlorotetracyclin?

A. Aurofac-20 B. TM-50 C. Bifuran D. Bactrisol

139.Brand name of Oxytetracyclin?

A. Aurofac-20 B. TM-50 C. Bifuran D. Bactrisol

140.One-month mortality syndrome mainly affects

A. Fish (Carps) B. Shrimp (P. monodon)

C. Prawn (M. gangeticum) D. Crab (S. serrata)

141.Furunculosis is caused by

A. A. salmonicida B. A. hydrophila

C. Yesneniaruckeri D. Flexibactercolumnaris

142.Bacterial kidney disease is caused by

A. R. salmoninarum B. E. tarda

C. Yesneniaruckeri D. Flexibactercolumnaris

143.Viral Encephalopathy and Retinopathy is mostly affecting

A. Carp B. Murrel C. Sea bass D. Anabas

144.Nodavirus is a

A. DNA Virus B. RNA Virus C. Both D. None

145.Which stage of P. monodon is affected mostly by baculo virus disease?

A. PL and Neo adults B. Neo adult and adult C. Adult and brooders D. both B and C

146.Family of yellow head disease virus?

A. Nodaviridae B. rhabdoviridae C. novirabdoviridae D. Nimaviridae

147.Family of WSSV?

A. Nodaviridae B. rhabdoviridae C. novirabdoviridae D. Nimaviridae

148. Which is also called as Gill maggot?

A. Ergasilus B. Caligus C. Lepopthrius D. Argulus

149. Spot agglutination kit for bacterial gill diseases has been developed by

A. CIFA B. CIBA C. CMFRI D. CIFT

150. Semi nested PCR for early detection of WSSV has been developed by

A. CIFA B. CIBA C. CMFRI D. CIFT

**********************************

All the best

 Anatomy of Fishes and Shell Fishes
1. Presence of short and stumpy gill takers in this fish
a) Herbivore b) Carnivore c) Omnivore d) Piscivore
2. Present of rectal gland that removes excess NaCl in
a) Teleost b) Sharks c) Molluscs d) Crustaceans
3. Blood filling cavity in fish is called as
a)Gonocoel b) Nephrocoel c) Collum d) Haemocoel
4. Special type of teeth in Gastropods
a) Villiform b) Radula c) Molariform d) Canine
5. Salivary gland is present in
a) Bivalves b) Fishes c) Gastropods d) Elasmobranch
6. Ink gland present in
a) Cephalopods b) Bivalves c) Gastropods d) b&c
7. Method of blood circulation in fish
a) Double and closed circulation b) Double and open circulation
c) Single and closed circulation d) Single and open circulation
8. The function of heparin in blood
a) Induce blood clotting b) Induce bleeding c) Induce hormone d) Induce enzymes
9. Freezing point of blood in fresh water fishes
a) -0.1oC b) -0.3oC c) -0.6oC d) -1.0oC
10. Oxygen carrying compounds in hemoglobin of fish
a) Ferrous ion b) Copper ion c) Calcium ion d) Sodium ion
11. Gill of mollusc is known as
a) Pseudobranch b) Holobranch c) Ctenidium d) Nephridia
12. Number of hearts in cephalopods
a) Two b) Three c) One d) Four
13. Oxygen carrying component in crustacean blood
a) Hemoglobulin b) Blood plasma c) Hemocyanin d) Haparin
14. Three chambered heart is present in
a) Bivalves b) Gastropods c) Cephalopods d) Fishes
15. Osphradium is a sense organ present in
a) Arthropods b) Molluscan c) Teleost d) Elosmobranch
16. Arteries & veins opening in crustacean heart is known as
a) Coelm b) Ostia c) Gonocoel d) Valves
17. Blood volume of bony fishes
a) 2-4ml b) 5-7ml c) 8.5ml d) 17ml
18. Rectal gland is present in
a) Fishes b) Shrimp c) Shark d) Bivalves
19. Podobranch is the
a) Joint gill b) Foot gill c) Side gill d) False gill
20. The number of gills in hag fishes
a) 5-15 b) 10-15 c) 15-20 d) 20-25
21. External gill present in
a) Shrimp b) Lung fish c) Shark d) All
22. Complete gill is called as
a) Hemibranch b) Pseudobranch c) Holobranch d) Arthrobranch
23. The number of gills in fishes
a) Three b) Four c) Five d) Six
24. The type of gill in teleost
a) Lamellai form b) Filliform pectinate c) Podobranch d) Phyllobranch
25. Pseudobranch is present in
a) Catla b) Sturgeons c) Rainbow trout d) All
26. The larvae of lampreys is called
a) Leptocephalus b) Alima c) Ammocoetes d) Elvin
27. Number of gill arch in hag fishes
a) 5-15 b) 10-15 c) 15-20 d) 2-5
28. Gill of crustacean is termed as
a) Pleurobranch b) Phyllobranch c) Arthrobranch d) Podobranch
29. Pulmonary sac is present in
a) Gastropods b) Crustacean c) Bivalves d) Elasmobranch
30. Study of skeleton system is termed as
a) Histology b) Osteology c) Ancology d) Anatomy
31. Unpaired testis is present in
a) Shark b) Teleost c) Lung fish d) Hag fish
32. Clasper is copulatory organ present in
a) Teleost b) Elasmobranch c) Primitive fishes d) Molluscs
33. Gymnovarian type of ovary is present in
a) Bony fish b) Notopterius c) Shark d) Molluscs
34. Nidamental gland is present in
a) Shark b) Bony fishes c) Lung fishes d) Molluscs
35. Membrane in which testis get attached in the fish
a) Connective tissue b) Meso ovarium c)Mesochium d) Collagen
36. Caudal fin is absent in
a) Lung fish b) Sun fish c) Angel fish d) Hag fish
37. Membrane in which ovary get attached in the fish
a) Connective tissue b) Mesovarium c) Mesorchium d) Collagen
38. Simple tube testis in
a) Syngnathids b) Notopterus c) Lampray d) Shark
39. Weight of the testis in more than ------% of body weight
a) 2% b) 5% c) 12% d) 20%
40. Color of testis in mostly
a) Red b) Yellow c) Orange d) Creamy white
41. Sperm duct is otherwise called as
a) Vas deferens b) Seminal vesicle
c) Wolffian duct d) Gonadal duct
42. Vas deferent is absent in
a) Tilapia & Carps b) Gold fish & angel fish
c) Salmon and Trout d) Shark& Rays
43. The fully mature ovary weight is ------% of body weight
a) 70% b) 60% c) 65% d) 75%
44. Cytovarian type of ovary is present in
a) Shark b) Bony fishes c) Lung fishes d) Hag fishes
45. Oviduct is absent in
a) Salmon & Trout b) Tilapia & Carps
c) Sharks & Rays d) Gold fish & Guppy
46. A hermaphroditism bivalves
a) Anadora sp b) Ostrea sp c) Donax d) None
47. In gastropod, the modification of the 5th left arm of the male that help in sex
differentiation is termed as
a) Homo cotylixed arm b) Heterocotylixed arm
c) Hectocotylixed arm d) Endocotylixed arm
48. Petasma is the male organ and thelycum is the female organ of
a) non-penaeid shrimps b) Penaeid shrimps
c) Fresh water prawns d) All the above
49. Open thelycum is present in
a) Litopenaeus b) Penaeus c) Macrobrachium d) Metapenaeus
50. Closed thelycum is present in
a) Metapenaeus b) Litopenaeus c) Penaeus d) Macrobrachium

Answers:
1.c 2.b 3.d 4.b 5.c 6.a 7.c 8.b 9.c 10.a 11.c 12.b
13.c 14.a 15.b 16.b 17.a 18.c 19.b 20.a 21.b 22.c 23.c 24.b
25.d 26.c 27.a 28.b 29.a 30.b 31.c 32.b 33.c 34.a 35.c 36.b
37.b 38.a 39.c 40.d 41.a 42.c 43.a 44.b 45.a 46.b 47.c 48.b
49.a 50.c
 AQUACULTURE ENGINEERING

1. In a topographic map, if the contour lines are close together that indicates the ground is
a. Level b. Steep c. Undulated d. Uniform gentle slope

2. In levelling, if the reading or sight taken on a staff held at a point of known elevation is
known as
a. Fore sight b. Back sight c. Turning point d. Height of instrument

3. In levelling, if the reading or sight taken on a staff held at point of both back sight and
foresight is known as
a. Fore sight b. Back sight c. Intermediate sight d. Turning point

4. In plane table surveying the instrument used for sighting the object is called as

a. Alidade b. Compass c. Sprit level d. Plumbing fork

5. The lines which are run in the field to check the accuracy of the work and also to take the
details of the nearby object is called as
a. Check lines b. Base line c. Tie lines d. Survey lines

6. The surveying in which the shape of the earth is not taken into consideration is known as
a. Plane surveying b. Geodetic surveying c. Chain surveying d. Compass surveying

7. The tape having a length of 100m is

a. Cloth tape b. Steel tape c. Metallic tape d. Invar tape

8. Sand and gravel are belongs to

a. Cohesive soil b. Non-cohesive soil c. Red soil d. Clayey soil

9. The site is considered to be ideal for pond construction if the pH of the soil ranges
between
a. 2-4 b. 4-6 c. 6-8 d. 8-10

10. The ponds built one after the other in the form of string is known as
a. Parallel system b. Rosary system c. Diversion system d. Barrage ponds

11. Ponds are constructed across the source of water by constructing a dam or dyke is known
as
a. Excavated ponds b. Embankment ponds c. Sunken ponds d. Diversion ponds

12. In order to achieve quicker filling and emptying of the pond, the site should have
a. Uniform gentle slope b. Undulated ground c. Steep slope d. Forest area

13. The site is considered to be ideal for pond construction, if the surface of the land having
a. Steep slope b. Uniform gentle slope c. Undulated surface d. Rocky surface

14. According to particle size classification of the soil, the size of the sand is
a. < 0.002 b. 0.02 to 2mm c. 0.002 to 0.02mm d. >2mm
15. If the voids of the soil sample is partially filled with air and water, the soil sample is
called as
a. Saturated soil b. Dried soil c. Moist soil d. Clay soil

16. In soils the process of seepage or passage of water through its inter-connected voids is
called as
a. Compaction b. Swelling c. Compressibility d. Permeability

17. The soil sample in which both natural structure and moisture content can be preserved is
called as
a. Disturbed sample b. Undisturbed sample c. Moist sample d. Clay soil

18. The soil sample with continuous voids is called as

a. Permeable soil b. Impermeable soil c. Red soil d. Black soil

19. With Cohesion as the classification criteria, sand and gravel belong to
a. Cohesive soil b. Non Cohesive soil c. Red soil d. Black soil

20. From economical point of view the most suitable shape of the pond is
a. Hexagonal b. Square c. Rectangular d. Trapezoidal

21. From operation and maintenance point of view the most suitable shape of pond is
a. Hexagonal b. Square c. Rectangular d. Trapezoidal

22. In fish culture the percentage of area is usually allocated for construction of rearing pond
is
a. 1-5% b. 20-25% c. 40-50% d. 60-75%

23. In fish culture, the average depth of water required for stocking ponds is
a. 1-2m b. 2-3m c. 4-5 m d. 6-8m

24. In fish culture, the percentage of area is usually allocated for breeding ponds is
a. 1.5% b. 5% c. 20% 60%

25. The vertical distance between full tank levels to the bed of the pond is known as
a. Depth of water b. Wave height c. Free board d. Height of settlement

26. The vertical distance between top of the dyke to full tank level of the pond is known as
a. Depth of water b. Wave height c. Free board d. Height of settlement

27. Clearing of the pond site by using chemicals to kill the bacteria is called as
a. Manual clearing
b. Mechanical clearing
c. Chemical clearing
d. Negative clearing
28. Clearing of the pond site by using machines is called as
a. Manual clearing
b. Mechanical clearing
c. Chemical clearing
d. Ordinary clearing

29. Earthen ponds are suited for

a. Extensive system
b. Intensive system
c. Super intensive system
d. Hatchery

30. The best time period to construct the aqua farm is

a. Late winter to early summer
b. Summer
c. Rainy season
d. Throughout the year

31. In earth work calculation at any station, if the formation line is above the existing ground,
the ground is said to be
a. Excavation b. Embankment c. Level ground d. Sloped ground

32. In earth work calculation, the slope of the ground perpendicular to the given line is known
as
a. Vertical slope b. Horizontal slope c. Longitudinal slope d. Transverse slope

33. In earthwork calculation, at any station if the formation line is lower than the existing
ground, the ground is said to be
a. Excavation b. Embankment c. Level ground d. Undulated ground

34. Pump fed farms are best suited for

a. Extensive culture
b. Intensive culture
c. Traditional culture
d. None of the above

35. The dyke which is used to retain water for culture operation as well as to provide over all
protection to the farm from flood, spring and storm is known as
a. Main dyke b. Secondary dyke c. Protection dyke d. Control dyke

36. The site is considered as not suitable for coastal aquaculture, if the elevation of the site is
above
a. Mean sea level
b. Mean higher high water level
c. Sea bed level
d. Mean lower low water level
37. Tide fed aqua farm generally have only one water channel which is called as
a. Feeder cum drainage canal
b. Feeder canal
c. Drainage canal
d. Diversion canal

38. Tide fed farms are best suited for

a. Extension culture
b. Intensive culture
c. Super intensive culture
d. Semi- intensive culture

39. Generally the shape of the artemia hatching tank is

a. Square b. Rectangle c. Cylendro – conical d. Triangle

40. In fresh water prawn hatchery, the most suitable soil for construction of brood stock
ponds is
a. Sandy loam b. Sand clay c. Salty clay loam d. All the above

41. In fresh water prawn hatchery, the salinity of the brackish water normally ranges between
a. 8 ± 2ppt b. 14 ± 2 ppt c. 20 ± 2 ppt d. 26 ± 2 ppt

42. In hatcheries the chemical used to eliminate dissolved heavy metal is

a. EDTA b. H2 SO4 c. HCl d. MNSO4

43. In hatcheries the chlorinated water should be de-chlorinated using

a. Sodium Thiosulphate b. Chlorine c. Sodium sulphate d. Hydrochloric acid

44. In raceway culture, the ponds can be constructed in series system if the ground is
a. Uniform gentle slope b. Undulated c. Elevated d. Steep

45. In raceway system, the slope of the ground considered to be ideal for pond construction is
a. 0.5-1% b. 1-2% c. 2-3% d. 3-4%

46. The ratio of flow through rearing unit to the volume of rearing unit is called as
a. Volumetric density b. Exchange rate c. Areal density d. Loading

47. The ratio of mass of the animals to volume of rearing unit is known as
a. Areal density b. Volumetric density c. Loading d. Exchange rate

48. A channel, which gives maximum discharge for a given cross section and bed slope is
called as
a. Most economical section
b. Most profitable section
c. Rectangular section
d. Trapezoidal section

49. Earthen canals are usually having a cross section of

a. Rectangular shape b. Trapezoidal shape c. Triangular shape d. Circular shape
50. In aquafarm the approximate slope required for drainage canal is
a. 1 in 100 b. 1 in 500 c. 1 in 1000 d. 1 in 1500

51. In the fish farm the approximate slope required for supply canal is
a. 1 in 100 b. 1 in 500 c. 1 in 1000 d. 1 in 2000

52. In water controlling system, the gate which connects the main channel of the pond system
to the water source is known as
a. Main gate b. Secondary gate c. Tertiary gate d. Pond inlet gate

53. The approximate slope required for earthen water supply canal in ordinary soil is
a. 1 in 500 b. 1 in 1000 c. 1 in 1000 d. 1 in 2000

54. The canal which is used to prevent the entry of unwanted or surface run off into main
canal is known as
a. Feeder canal b. Protection canal c. Drainage canal d. Diversion canal

55. The canal which is used to supply water from main water intake structure to the fish pond
is called as
a. Protection canal b. Feeder canal c. Diversion canal d. Drainage canal

56. In aquaculture system the filters used for the separation of liquids and solids is known as
a. Chemical filter b. Mechanical filter c. Biological filter d. Ordinary filter

57. Stationary screens are best examples for

a. Chemical filter b. Mechanical filter c. Biological filter d. Gravitational filter

58. The dissolved oxygen concentration is considered to be ideal for aquatic animals if it
ranges
a. 1-3 mg/lt b. 4-7 mg/lt c. 7-10 mg/lt d. 10-13 mg/lt

59. The end of the suction pipe should be submerged in water to prevent admission air atleast
a. 2 times its diameter
b. 3 times its diameter
c. 4 times its diameter
d. 5 times its diameter

60. The lowest dissolved oxygen concentration is generally occur during

a. Afternoon b. Night c. Dawn d. Evening

61. The pumps discharges the same volume of water regardless of the head against which
they operate is known as
a. Variable displacement pump
b. Negative displacement pump
c. Positive displacement pump
d. Neutral displacement pump

62. When the pressure of oxygen in the water equals the pressure of oxygen in the air is
known as
a. Equilibrium stage
 b. Un equilibrium stage
c. Stable equilibrium
d. Unstable equilibrium
e. The lines which are run in the field to check the accuracy of the work and also to take
the details of the nearby object is called as
a. Check lines b. Base line c. Off-sets d. Survey lines

63. The site is considered to be ideal for pond construction, if the surface of the land having
a. Steep slope
b. Uniform gentle slope
c. Undulated surface
d. Rocky surface

64. From operation and maintenance point of view the most suitable shape of pond is
a. Hexagonal b. Square c. Rectangular d. Trapezoidal

65. In fish culture, the average depth of water required for stocking ponds is
a. 1-2m b. 2-3m c. 4-5 m d. 6-8m
66. The site is considered to be ideal for pond construction if the pH of the soil ranges
between
a. 2-4 b. 4-6 c. 6-8 d. 8-10
67. The vertical distance between full tank levels to the bed of the pond is known as
a. Depth of water
b. Wave height.
c. Free board
d. Height of settlement

68. Clearing of the pond site by using machines is called as

a. Manual clearing
b. Mechanical clearing
c. Chemical clearing
d. Ordinary clearing

6 9. The best time period to construct the aqua farm is

a. Late winter to early summer
b. Summer
c. Rainy season
d. Throughout the year

70. Tide fed farms are best suited for

a. Extension culture
b. Intensive culture
c. Super intensive culture
d. Semi- intensive culture

71. Generally the shape of the Artemia hatching tank is

a. Square b. Rectangle c. Cylendro – conical d. Triangle
72. Earthen canals are usually having a cross section of
a. Rectangular shape
b. Trapezoidal shape
c. Triangular shape
d. Circular shape

73. The dissolved oxygen concentration is considered to be ideal for aquatic animals if it
ranges
a. 1-3 mg/lt b. 4-7 mg/lt c. 7-10 mg/lt d. 10-13 mg/lt

74. Brackish water farms can be done in

a. Tidal mud flats b. Estuarine area c. Salt pans d. All the above

75. In case of sandy soil, which method should be followed to seal the pond bottom?
a. Clay puddle lining
b. Brick lining
c. PVC sheet lining
d. All the above

76. To check the soil erosion, the rear side of dyke is to be protected by
a. Stone pitching b. Cement pitching c. Grass turfing d. All the above

77. Crest width of dyke depends on

a. Settlement allowance
b. Height of dyke
c. Free board
d. None of the above

78. The drain pipe should be placed just how many centimetres above the pond bottom
a. 10 b. 25 c.40 d.50

79. One acre of area of land equals to

a. 1000 m2 b. 2500 m2 c. 4000 m2 d. 10000 m2

80. Estuarine silt can trap a large amount of

a. Nitrogen b. Phosphorus c. Sulphur d. Potassium

81. if a pond with 1500 sqare meters is losing water at 2 cm/day what is the water
requirement
a. 3000 L/day b. 30000 L/day c. 300000 L/day d. 150000 L/day

82. Factors to be considered for site selection for Aquaculture practice include
a) Ecological factors
b) Primary factors
c) Secondary factors
d) Tertiary factors
83. Site ideal for fish farm construction can have a
a) slope less than 1%
b) slope more than 1%
c) slope more than 10%
d) slope less than 10%

84. Ideal soil for fish farm is

a) sandy b) clayey c) sandy clayey d) loamy

85. As there is no separate drainage system ,tide-fed farms are unsuitable for
a) Intensive culture
b) Semi intensive
c) Super intensive
d) All the above

86. Which one of the following item is a primary structure of fish form
a) ponds b) pumps c) generator d) Aerator

87. Man power planning deals with the economical aspects of

a) Total number of skilled labours
b) Total number of unskilled labours
c) Technical and scientific personals required
d) All the above

88. Tide fed forms are suitable in places where mean spring tide range is in between
a) 1.3 to 2m b) 2 to 4m c) 4 to 6m d) 1 to 1.3m

89.Advantages of Tide fed forms include

a) Bundhs can be formed to a minimum height
b) Excavated earth is enough for bundh making
c) Water exchange can be done at any time
d) None of the above

90.The ratio of nursery, rearing and stocking ponds may vary from
a) 1:2:4 to 1:2:8
b) 1:2:2 to 1:2:4
c) 1:2:8 to 1:2:12
d) 1:2:12 to 1:2:24

91. Which one of the following is not a component of fish pond

a) slope b) bundh c) bench d) pump house

92. Chinese hatchery otherwise called as

a) Jar hatchery
b) Rectangular hatchery
c) Galveston system
d) Eco hatchery
93. Where is Central Institute of Coastal Engineering for Fishery located?
a) Cochin b) Barrackpore c) Lucknow d) Bangalore

94. Bio filtration decreases .............................in water

a. H2S b. NH3 c. CO2 d. Nitrogen

95. The ideal depth for fish rearing pond is

a. 1.5-2m b. 0.5-2m c. 2-2.5m d. 1-1.5m

96. The instrument used for chain survey

a. Spirit level b. Alidade c. Drawing paper d. Arrows
 Match the following
1. Primary structure - Flumes
2. Generator - Water transporting system
3. Sedimentation pond - Serve as both inlet and outlet
4. Minimum free board for peripheral dike - Secondary structure
5. Settlement allowance for quality soil - Diameter lass than 0.002 mm
6. Elevated canals - Sewage fed aqua farming
7. Sluice - Easy water exchange
8. Clay particle - Velocity of water flow
9. Chezy’s equation - 15-20%
10. Pump fed pond - 0.6 m
 COLLEGE OF FISHERIES
CHHATTISGARH KAMDHENU VISHWAVIDYALAYA
KAWARDHA, CHHATTISGARH

JRF (GEAR TECHNOLOGY)

1. Swivel in an integral part of ………… and is used in between branch line proper and
snood wire.
a. Gill net b. purse seine c. long line d. cast net
2. The main function of swivel is to ……………………………………………………..
a. Prevent the rope from cut b. join two ropes c. prevent twisting of ropes d. none
3. Swivel are made up of …………………………………… material.
a. Bronze b. galvanized iron c. steel d. all
4. Which of the following is a type of shackles ………………………………………..
a. Anchor shackle b. D-shackles c. eyebolt shackles d. all
5. D-shackle is mainly used to join …………………………………………………………
a. Anchor with anchor cable b. all types of lines and ropes c. two ropes d. all
6. Shackle is made up of ………………………………………material.
a. Bronze b. galvanized forged iron c. steel d. plywood
7. Thimble is a ………………………………… ring.
a. Long b. smooth c. grooved d. plane
8. Thimble prevent ………………………………………………………………………….
a. Chafing b. deforming c. both d. none
9. Thimble mainly used in ………………………………. Net.
a. Purse seine b. lift net c. cast net d. trawl net
10. Core is also known as ……….. of the wire rope.
a. Surface b. base c. heart d duplicate
11. Bobbin is mostly used in …………… gear.
a. Gillnet b. purse seine c. trawl net d. long line
12. Tickler chain used in …………………… gear.
a. Cast net b. fish trawl c. shrimp trawl d. traps
13. …………. Buoy is used to mark the places where the fishes are found in abundance.
a. Radio buoy b. Dahn buoy c. light buoy d. All
14. Radio buoy is used in ………………………………………………………………..
a. Trawl net b. gillnet c. Tuna long line d. Troll line
15. Radio buoy has transmission range of ……………………………………………….
a. 20 km b. 50 km c. 90 km d. 120 km
16. The bulb used in light buoy have visibility range ……………….. km.
a. 2 b. 3 c. 5 d. 10

1
17. Siamese twin float is made up of ……………………. Material.
a. Plastic b. cork c. aluminium d. steel
18. Hydrodynamic float have a length of …………………… cm.
a. 20 b. 28 c. 30 d. 38

19. Which of the following is not a low density float?

a. Wooden float b. cork float c. glass float d. none
20. ……… float absorb water and on drying they crack.
a. Thermocol b. wood c. sponge plastic float d. cork float
21. The density of wooden float is ………………………………………….
a. 900gm/1000cc b. 825gm/1000cc c. 6.5gm/1000cc d. none
22. ………… float cannot withstand pressure.
a. Wooden b. thermocol c. rubber d. cork
23. ……… floats are hollow spheres and can withstand pressure at depth more than 200
fathoms.
a. Aluminium b. glass c. cork d. wooden
24. The length of each unit of tuna long line varies from …………….. meters.
a. 100 to 200 b. 200 to 400 c. 300 to 600 d. 400 to 800
25. Sekiyama is used in ………………………… gear.
a. Trawl net b. long line c. gillnet d. purse seine
26. In long line ………………….. is used.
a. Shackle b. Swivel c. Bobbins d. All
27. The purse seine length is about ………. Times more than length of purse seiner.
a. 5 b. 10 c. 15 d. 20
28. The main body of purse seine lies in between ………………………………….
a. Head rope and bolch line b. wing and bunt c. purse line and foot rope d. none
29. Bunt of purse seine is made up of webbing with ………………. Mesh size.
a. No uniform b. uniform c. smaller d. smaller
30. The portion between bunt and main webbing is called ………………………………
a. Choke b. wing c. shoulder d. purse ring
31. Which of the following is a type of bridle?
a. Ring bridle b. haul in bridle c. both d. none
32. ………. Is a short piece of rope connecting each purse ring with foot rope.
a. Selvedge b. lead line c. bridle d. breast line
33. Breast line used in ………………………… net.
a. Trawl net b. gillnet c. Purse seine d. long line
34. Purse ring attached with …………………………………………..
35. Head rope b. foot rope c. Both d. none
36. ……… is the portion of the purse seine where catch accumulates during hauling.
a. Wing b. bunt c. Bridle d. All

2
37. Gillnet is a ………………….. gear.
a. Size selective b. passive c. both d. none
38. In gillnet the webbing is mounted between head rope and ………………….
a. Foot rope b. Sinker c. Brace line d. none
39. …………. Means the enmeshing of fish at the point of snout.
a. Snagging b. entangling c. gilling d. none
40. ………….Means the enmeshing of fish at the point before the opercular cover.
b. Snagging b. entangling c. gilling d. none

41. The gillnet having three wall is called …………………………………

a. Simple gillnet b. vertical line gillnet c. framed gillnet d. trammel net
42. Now a days ……………. Float is normally used in gillnets.
a. Thermocol b. wood c. lead d. HDPE
43. In gillnet master float is attached at ……………………….
a. End b. middle c. below d. All
44. In gillnet…………. Rope will bear sinker
a. Head rope b. foot rope c. both d. none
45. Which sinker material is suitable for gillnet?
a. Iron b. lead c. both d. none
46. In gillnet the master sinker will be ………………………………………….
a. Stone b. Anchor c. flags d. none
47. Mounting twine of gillnet is ……………….. twine.
a. Thicker b. thinner c. very thin d. None
48. ……….. is used to join a gillnet with other gillnets.
a. Mounting twine b. bridle c. selvedge d. vertical line
49. Trammel nets are mostly use to capture …………….
a. Shrimp b. lobster c. both d. none
50. ……….. net is known as wall of the sea.
a. Trawl net b. gillnet c. long line d. cast net
51. Length of mounting rope/horizontally stretched length of webbing is the formula of …
a. Horizontal hanging coefficient b. Vertical hanging coefficient c. both d. none
52. The color of gillnet depends on …………………………………………………….
a. Fish color b. time of operation c. water color d. none
53. L = 3D + 7.5 formula for ……………………………….is given by Miyamoto.
a. Purse seine b. gillnet c. trawl net d. All
54. The efficiency of trawl net greatly depends on ………… opening of the trawl mouth.
a. Horizontal b. vertical c. Both d. None
55. In 1960 Deshpande developed a method to estimate approximate distance between
……..of trawl net.
a. Floats and sinker b. otter boards c. Boat and net d. All

3
56. Who has worked on estimation of surface area of otter board?
a. Miyamotto b. Koyama c. Both d. None
57. ………… facilitate the otter board to drive it at required angle.
a. Brackets b. wooden planks c. Rear rings d. none
58. Brackets are fitted at the inner side of the otter board to connect otter board with ………
a. Towing warp b. wings c. boat d. All
59. Shoe is a thick iron plate fitted on ………… side of the otter board to prevent wear and
tear of the otter board from ground attack.
A. Upper side b. lower side c. both side d. in between
60. Recessed link is a point on otter board where …….. can connect and disconnect.
a. G-link b. Kelly’s eye c. Heaving link d. All
61. Stopper link help to connect or disconnect the otter board with ………………………
a. Recessed link b. G-link c. Kelly’s eye d. Sweep line
62. G-link is used to connect or disconnect the otter board with ……………………..
a. Sweep line b. heaving link c. towing warp d. stopper link
63. ……. Is a shackling device help to connect or disconnect the sweep line.
A. Recessed link b. G-link c. Kelly’s eye d. Sweep line

64. The ratio between warp length and depth of the ground is called ……………..
a. warp ratio b. depth ratio c. scope ratio d. Piece ratio
65. Who has described the method to make a square mesh cod end?
a. Brodhurst b. Larsen c. both d. none
66. Appron is used in………………………………………………..
a. trawl net b. Purse seine c. Gillnet d. all
67. Who has established a relation between horse power of the engine and mesh size of the
trawl net.
a. Miyamotto b. Koyama c. Both d. None
68. Who has established a relation between length of head rope and horse power of the
engine.
a. Nair b. George c. both d. None
69. Trawl net is a …………… gear.
a. passive b. Active c. both d. none
70. Warp is a rope used for towing ………………………………………………………..
a. net b. boat c. both d. none
71. Otter board is also known as …………………………………………………………..
a. Trawl doors b. trawl board c. Both d. none
72. Sweep lines attached between net and ………………………………………………..
a. boat b. otter board c. rope d. none
73. The extension of head rope and foot rope is called ……………………………………
a. wings b. bridles c. extended line d. all
74. Side extension of the trawl net is called ……………………………………………….
a. wings b. bridles c. extended line d. all

4
75. ……… is the rope to which the upper edge of the belly and inner edge of the top wings
are attached.
a. Head rope b. foot rope c. both d. none
76. Head rope of trawl net is also called ……………………………………………………
a. head line b. float line c. cork line d. all
77. The length of Trawl net and its head rope length is ……………………………………
a. Same b. Less c. more d. None
78. foot rope is also known as ………………………………………………………………
a. ground rope b. ground line c. foot line d. all
79. Jibs are also called as ……………………………………………………………………
a. Wedge b. quarter c. both d. none
81. The middle portion of the trawl net between the wings of the upper and lower panel is
called …………………………………………
a. Bosum b. jibs c. Wings d. Square
82. Square is also called ………………………………………………………………
a. Over hang b. Bosum c. Jibs d. all

83. The portion between square and throat or cod end ……………………………
a. Top belly b. lower belly c. throat d. All
84. Throat is also called ……………………………………………………………..
a. extension piece b. intermediate c. lengthiners d.all
85. Bag is the another name of ……………………………………………………..
a. belly b. wings c. cod end d. All
86. The longitudinal piece of webbing is called …………………………………
a. Flapper b. top wedge c. side wedge d. none
87. The webbing attached to the forepart of the cod end inside the net as a safety device to
prevent the escape of fish from the end.
a. Side wedge b. Flapper c. Apron d. All
88. The rope used for seaming the cod end during the net operation and opening the cod
end after fishing to release the catch.
a. Cod end rope b. bobbins c. Bloch line d. none
89. Apron is also called as …………………………………………………………….
a. Chafing gear b. Dress c. Both d. none
90. The color of webbing is ……………………………………………………………
a. Black b. white c. yellow d. Brown
91. Halfer is also called as ………………………………………………………..
a. X – mesh b. Y – mesh c. both d. none
92. fly mesh have …………… knot.
a. One b. two c. three d. four

5
 93. The polythene melts at ………… 0C.
a. 125 – 140 b. 100 – 125 c. 150 – 200 d. none
94. polyamide fibres are soluble in ………………………………………………..
a. hydrochloric acid b. Acetic acid c. both d. None
95. …………. Is formed by passing the end of the line over the standing part and through
the eye it is used for simple tying.
a. Overhand knot b. reef knot c. Bowline knot d. None
96. The reef knot consists of ……………… overhabd knots.
a. one b. two c. three d. four
97. Fisherman knot is mainly used to join ……………. Smaller ropes.
a. one b. two c. three d. four
98. ………….. knot is also known as trawl knot.
a. Fisherman knot b. Single sheet bend knot c. Bowline knot d. All
99. ………….. is used generally to resist a side ways pull.
a. Clove hitch b. Rolling hitch c. Both d. None
100. Clove hitch is made up of …………………. Half hitches.
a. Two b. three c. four d. one
101. Which of the following is not a type of grappling and wounding gear?
a. harpoons b. tongs c. bow and arrow d. none
102. Fyke net is type of …………………………………… gear.
a. falling gear b. lift net c. traps d. harvesting machine

103. Trammel net is made up of …………. Number of wall of webbing.

a. One b. four c. three d. All
104. Blanket net is a type of ………………………………… net.
a. Falling b. lift c. traps d. none
105. Lampara net is a type of ………………………….. net.
a. surrounding b. Seine c. Dredges
106. Which of the following is not a type of seine net?
a. Beach seine b. Boat seine c. Purse seine d. None
107. ISSCFG classification of fishing gear accepted by …………….
a. ICAR b. FAO c. BIS d. CSIR
108. Pump fishing is popular of ……………………………………..
a. Squid b. Tuna c. Mackerel d. Sardine
109. The method to entangle fins, scales, teeth etc. in ……….. net.
a. Tangle net b. Double walled net c. Triple walled net d. All
110. The gear which is thrown to catch fishes is ………………..
a. cast net b. harpoons c. Arrow d. All
111. The artificial bait used to catch squid is called ………………….
a. bait b. lure c. Food d. None

6
 112. Box trap is very much suitable for ……….. fish in northern Europe.
a. Tuna b. mackerel c. Salmon d. Anchovies
113. The trained animals which is used for catching fishes are ……………
a. Dogs b. Otters c. Cormorants d. All
114. A Von Brandt classified the fish catching methods in ……….. groups.
a. 10 b. 16 c. 20 d. 06
115. Commonly used splices in fishing gear are ………………………..
a. Eye splice b. Short splice c. Back splice d. All
116. ………….. is a process of repairing the damaged fishing net.
a. Splicing b. mending c. Klinching d. All
117. Which of the following is the method of joining of webbing?
a. Sewing b. Seaming c. both d. none
118. Norselling is a method ………………………………………….
a. mending b. mounting c. both d. none
119. ………… method of mounting used commercially in fishing.
a. Reeving b. Stapling c. Norselling d. All
120. Which of the following is method of shaping of webbing?
a. bating b. Creasing c. Fly meshing d. All
121. Tannin is fixed by oxidation using …………………………
a. Copper sulphate b. Sodium dichromate c. Potassium dichromate d. All
122. In tannin fixation copper sulphate dissolved in water to form …..% solution.
a. 1 b. 2 c.3 d. 5
123. Fixation of tannin by using potassium dichromate is a ………………… method.
a. Dutch method b. Japanese method c. both d. none
124. In tarring, the tar is diluted with ……………………………………………….
a. Kerosene b. turpentine c. Both d. None
125. The tannin fixation by sodium/potassium dichromate take ………. Hours time.
a. 2 – 3 b. 5 – 6 c. 5 – 10 d. 10 – 20
126. Which net have high sinking speed?
a. Gillnet b. trawl net c. Purse seine d. Long line
127. Which material is most suitable for the construction of purse seine?
a. PES continuous filament b. PA continuous filament c. both d. None
128. ……… is the curved part with flukes at their terminals.
a. Arms b. Anchor ring c. stock d. All
129. The triangular structures at the end of the arms which dig into the bottom are called ….
a. Arms b. Anchor ring c. stock d. flukes
130. Sharp end of the flukes are called ………………………………
a. bills b. points c. both d. None
131. ………………… anchor is an American design.
a. Danforth b. CQR c. Admirality d. Patent

7
 132. ………………… anchor is also known as plough anchor.
a. Danforth b. CQR c. Patent d. all
133. ……………….. anchor is a five prolonged stockless anchor.
a. Grapnel b. CQR c. Patent d. None
134. ……….. is a grooved ring set in the rope to prevent chafing.
a. Thimble b. Shackle c. Swivel d. None
135. ………… is a connecting device used for fastening parts together.
a. Thimble b. shackle c. Both d. None
136. Which of the following is not a type of anchor?
a. anchor shackle b. D – shackle c. Eye – bolt shackle d. X – shackle
137. ……………. Is used to prevent twisting and kinking.
a. Anchor b. Swivel c. Buoy c. Chain
138. ……… buoy is used in set gill net as well as in Danish seine net.
a. Dahn b. Light c. Both d. None
139. …………. Test is best to distinguish between manila and sisal.
a. water b. Burning c. both d. None
140. Combination rope is formed by combination of natural fibre and …………….
a. Synthetic fibre b. metal wires c. both d. none
141. In direct numbering system the yarn number is expressed in terms of …………
a. mass per unit weight b. weight per unit mass c. mass per unit length d. none
142. In indirect numbering system the yarn number is expressed in terms of …………
a. length per unit mass b. weight per unit mass c. mass per unit length d. none
143. The spiral deposition of the components of a single yarn is called………………….
a. tensile strength b. twist c. fibre d. none
144. …………. Fibre has poor resistance to acid.
a. Natural b. synthetic c. both d. none
145. In synthetic fibre ……….. has high resistance to acid
a. PA b. PES c. PVC d. All
146. Breaking strength per unit denier is called …………………………
a. tenacity b. tensile strength c. Breaking length d. All
147. Tenacity is equal to ……………. X tenacity.
a. 6 b. 9 c. 3 d. 7
148. The density of PVD is …………….. than PES and PA.
a. Lesser b. more c. Equal d. None
149. …………. Fibres are made up of cutting filaments.
a. Staple b. monofilament c. Split d. Continuous
150. ……………….. is a fruit fibre.
a. Ramie b. linen c. manila d. coir

8
 SET B
(1) Monofilaments are preferred for
(A) Shore seines (B) gillnets (C) Pure seine (D) Trawl nets
(2) Selvedge is found in gill nets for
(A) Safe guard the netting (B) Safe guard the ropes
(C) Safe guard the floats (D) Safe guard the sinkers
(3) Selection of fishing gear is influenced by
(A) Nature of fishing ground
(B) Depth of fishing ground
(C)Topography of fishing ground
(D) All the above
(4) The size of trawl net is designated by
(A) Length of head rope
(B) Length of foot rope
(C) Over all length of net
(D) None of these
(5)Tickler chain is attached to
(A) Foot rope of gill net
(B) Foot rope of Trawl net
(C) Head rope of gill net
(D) Head rope of trawl net
(6) Ideal gear to catch lobster is
(A) Gill net (B) Trawl net (C) Trap (D) Long line

(7) Vertical Hanging co-efficient of gillnet is calculated by

(A) 1-E (B) √1-E2 (C) √1-E (D) √ E2-1

(8) A mesh consist of

(A) Four knots and Five bars
 (B) Four bars and Four knots
(C) Four bars and Five knots
(D) Five bars and six knots
(9) Tanning process will useful to the netting
(A) by destroying the microbes
(B) by destroying the borers
(C) by destroying the foulers
(D) by increasing the strength
(10) Baiting of webbing is
(A) Increasing the number of meshes
(B) Increasing the number of rows
(C) Decreasing the number of meshes
(D) Decreasing the number of rows
(11) Kitchen of vessel is called as
(A) Deck (B) Cook (C) Gally (D) Bilge
(12) Name of the pump used to pump out water collected inside the boat
is known as
(A) Deck pump (B) Engine pump (C) Properller pump
(D) Bilge pump
(13) Hanging co-efficient plays major role in determining the mesh
shapes in
(A) Trawl net (B) seine net (C) gill net (D) none of these
(14) The floor over which the full size of the lines of plan of a boat is
drawn is called
(A) Dock floor (B) Loft floor (C) Boat floor (d) Yard Floor
(15) Heavy chain attached to foot rope of trawl net is known as
(A) Anchor chain (B) Otter chain (C) Buoy chain
(D)Thicker Chain

(16) Waterproof hull can be obtained by sheathing the wooden hull with
(A) Copper sheet (B) Aluminium sheet (C) FRP (D) steel plates
(17) Ideal material for making propeller blade is
(A) Bronze (B) Stainless steel (C) Zinc (D) Silver
(18) Which of the following vessel will have the lowest light displacement
when constructed for the same design.
(A) Wooden boat (B) Steel boat (C) FRP boat
(D) Ferrocemnt boat
(19) Trim of a boat refers to
(A) Longitudinal inclination (B) Transverse oscillation
(C) Transverse inclination (D) Longitudinal oscillation
(20) Device hung along the sides of a boat to prevent damage is known
as
(A) Fender (B) Camber (C) Sheer (D) none of these
(21) Gally of a vessel is
(A) Fish hold (B) Kitchen (C) Cook (D) Deck
(22) Which of the following is not a method of joining wood for boat
building
(A) Splicing (B) Butt joint (C) LAP joint (D) Scarf joint
(23) Dry dock means
(B) Repairing of under water portion of vessel
(C) Building a new vessel
(C) Mechanization of a vessel (D) None of these
(24) Reverse gear is not needed when there is a provision of
(A) Stern tube (B) Controllable pitch propeller
(C) winch (D) Gantry
(25) FRP means
(A) Fire Resistance Plastic (B) Fibre glass Reinforced Plastic
(C) Fibre Resist Plastic (D) None of these
 CRAFT & GEAR QUESTIONS

1. The method of hand collection of invertebrates called as _________________

(Gleaning)
2. Von Brandt (1992) classify fishing gears in to___________ major groups (16)
3. Singa ropes is used to catch _______________along ____________. (Octopus, Palk
bay)
4. _______________ is a barrier used in Ganges to catch Hilsa. (Bandal)
5. Verandah net is type of ________________ trap (Aerial).
6. _____________ is a gape net without wing used along N-W coast of India. (Dol net)
7. ____________is Beach seine without bag used along Karnataka coast. (Rampani net)
8. _____________ Single walled entangle net used in reservoir. (Rangoon net)
9. Trawls in which otterboard is directly connected to wing_________. (Hoower rig
trawl)
10. Trawl having bridles between otter board and wing____________. (Vigneron Dahl
trawl)
11. FAO classified fishing gears in ____________ groups. (12)
12. _____________link is present between G- link and otter board. (Banana link)
13. ____________is used to engage and disengage the sweep lines from the otter board.
14. Pareja trawling refers to ____________________ (Bull trawling or pair trawling)
15. Midwater trawling is also called as ______________ trawling (Larsan trawling)
16. _______________ Type of otter board is used in mid-water trawling.
17. _______________ is present to avoid escape of fish from cod end. (Chocking strap)
18. _______________ rope is used to take the cod end on board while hauling. (Bull
rope)
19. _______________ is used to monitor the net opening while trawl operation. (Net
sonde)
20. HSDT (High speed demersal trawl) introduced by __________. (CIFT)
21. Hybrid trawls are used for____________. (squids)
22. Aspect ratio of otter board_____________ (Height/Length)
23. Aspect ratio of superkurb otter board____________. (2)
24. For pair trawling scope ratio is _____________ (1/5-1/10).
25. Purse line is present in _________ and absent in _________. (ring seine, lampara
net).
26. Danish seine is a ____________one boat seine.
27. Tuna long line first introduced at ____________ in year__________(Tuticorin, 1963)
28. Towing speed of bottom trawl_________________.(1.5 to 2 knot)
29. Shooting speed of a gillnet ___________________. (1-6 knot)
30. Longline shooting speed_______ and Hauling speed_________(3-5 knot and 2-
3knot)
31. Towing speed of a troll line____________________(4.5-6 knots)
32. _______________ is used for hauling the gill nets. (Gurdies)
33. Triangular piece of webbibg in purse seine is called_________ whereas in trawl it is
called as__________(choke and Jibs)
34. ___________of poles used in pole and line (Three).
35. _______________scale is used for hook size (Redditch)
36. Targeted longlining of shark____________(Tuthhoor district, Tamilnadu)
37. _______________ in long line is a secondary leader connected to branched line.
(Sekiyama)
38. ____________ is provided to avoid twisting of warps and lines (Swivel)
39. ____________ joins main line to branch line (snap on clip)
40. Breaking strength of main line of tuna long line__________ (200kg)
41. Gilling- undergill; wedging-around body; snagging- around head
42. _____________ lines attached to the sides of netting (Gravel line)
43. Mesh size for gill net=2/3*L/Km
44. During hauling gill net vessel maintain an angle of _______with main line (15 to 45
degree)
45. ____________ method of numbering hook is followed in india (Norwegian Method)
46. Breaking strength (PA>PP>PE>PES)
47. Smallest dia is possible for ___________(PES continuous filament)
48. Materials for gears bottom trawl (PE monofilament), purse seine (PES continuous
filament), Gill net (PA monofilament)
49. Readymade tannin extract called as ___________(Cutch) used at a concentration of
________(4-6%)
50. Fixation method: Dutch method (1% CuSO4) and Japanese method (K+ dichromate)
51. Kalava trap for perch and grouper
52. Koodu trap for perch in__________ (GOM and Palk bay)
53. Colachal trap used for lobsters made of _____________leaf used along _____ coast
of India (Palmyrah leaf, S-W coast of India)
54. ________ has developed a semi cylindrical hexagonal mesh traps for lobsters. (CIFT)
55. ___________is used in purse seine instead of power block (triplex)
56. ________ is provided in purse seine to carry out______ operation to avoid dolphin
bycatch in purse seining (Medina panel, Back down operation)
57. Indian purse seine foot rope is _______% longer than head rope(4-5%) [American
foot rope shorter and Japanese both are equal)
58. First purse seine in world (1893) in ____________ for sardines and mackeral
(California)
59. Purse seine in introduced in India in _______________(1977)
60. Maximum marine capture landing is contributed by _______________trawlers
(=40%)
61. _____________is provided in trawl to provide vertical opening.
62. Horizontal spread is provided by ________(Otter board)
63. Best angle of attack for bottom trawls_____________.(25-27 degree)
64. Otter board used to control the depth of operation in mid-water
trawl________(rotor door)
65. Inclination of otter board from vertical called_____________(Heel)
66. Inclination of otter board from horizontal called_____________(Tilt)
67. Angle between warp and horizontal______________(declination)
68. Angle between warps_____________(Divergence)
69. Aspect ratio of rectangular flat otter board____________(0.3-0.5)
70. Scope ration of mid water trawl____________(1/10)
71. ___________ along with stopper link help to haul sweep line (Kellys eye)
72. ___________is an iron bobbin provided in trawls for horizontal spread and
_________ for vertical opening. (Danleno &Butterfly)
73. Scope ratio for bottom trawling_________(1/3-1/5)
74. Catch per tow (midwater trawl:bottom trawl) __________(10:1)
75. A mid water trawl having meshes in upper belly larger than
lower__________(Cosmos trawl)
76. Otter board accounts for _______________ of total drag. (24%)
77. Moisture content of timber should be___________ (18-20%)
78. Deep sea vessel are operated ______________(<40 fathom)
79. Batchari & chot boat are boats from ___________(W.B)
80. _________ in 2-seam trawl and __________in 4 seam trawl are triangular piece
attached on either side of belly at junction with wings. (Jibs, dog ear)
81. An Old piece of webbing attached to the belly of trawl to prevent damage________
(apron/chaffing gear)
82. ____________ is a bull rope attached between head line and cod end (Lazy
line/poop line/perk line)
83. Rope or line that connect wing to otter board _________________(sweep lines)
84. Otter board connected to sweep lines by _____________(back strope)
85. Towing warp connected or disconnected to otter board by ___________(G-link)
86. Bull trawling in spain is referred as ________________(Pareja trawl)
87. Simple gill net horizontal hanging coefficient and vertical hanging coefficient are
_______ & _______ respectively (0.50, 0.87)
88. Vertical line gill net horizontal hanging coefficient and vertical hanging coefficient
are _______ & _______ respectively (0.50, 0.70)
89. Framed gill net horizontal hanging coefficient and vertical hanging coefficient are
_______ & _______ respectively (0.50, 0.50)
90. Velocity of sound in water at 15oc and 35 ppt ___________________ (1500m/s)
91. Sound speed increases by ______m/s/0C, _______m/s/ppt & by _______m/s/100m.
(4.5, 1.3, 1.7)
92. Speed of sound is ______ % higher in sea water than freshwater (3)
93. Transducer converts _________ signals into _________. (electrical to sound)
94. Ideal position for setting transducer is between ___________ from stern (1/3rd to ½)
95. ___________ ecosounder are used for bottom trawls as they cannot detect fish
without airbladder but has good ground discrimination. (Low frequency high depth)
96. Angle at which the energy at edges is half of what is at centre_______. (Beam angle)
97. ________pulse and ______beam angle is preferred for deep waters. (longer, narrow)
98. SONAR stands for (Sound Navigation and Ranging)
99. A bottom set lines used to catch shark, perches and catfishes_______(Wagha)
100. Maribale is a _________ seine operated along Karnataka coast (boat seine)
Choose the correct answer :
1. Which of the following is not a boat building material
a) FRP b) wood c) steel d) catamaran

2. Orderly removal of moisture from the timber is called

a) drying b) heating c) soaking d) seasoning

3. Scientific name of teak wood is

a) Tectona grandis b) Pterocarpus hirsuta c) Pterocarpus dalbergioides d) Pterocarpus
marsupium

4. Specific gravity of wood is about

a) 5.3 b) 0.5 c) 1.56 d) 8.0

5. Mild steel contains the carbon content of

a) 0.15 to 0.30% b) < 0.15% C) 0.8 to 1.5% d) 0.3 to 0.8%
6. The major problem in steel vessel is
a) fouling b) boring c) corrosion d) rotting

7. Steel is an ideal boat building material for boats with the length exceeding
a) 5m b) 10m c) 15m d) 20m

8. Specific gravity of Ferro-cement is

a) 0.96 b) 1.025 c) 2.4 to 2.6 d) 15

9. Which of the following is not a material used in FRP boat construction

a) Epoxy esin b)Chopped mat c)Accelerator d) Polypropylene

10. FRP hull is

a) highly toxic b) medium toxic c) less toxic d) non-toxic

11. Specific gravity of FRP laminate is

a) 0.53 b) 8.3 c) 3.8 d) 1.6

12. FRP boat is ideal for building

a) distant water vessels b) deep sea vessels c)mother vessels d) small type
vessels

13. Depth below water line of a boat is

a) draft b) depth c) free boat d) non of them

14. Beam refers to

a) camber b) sheer c) length d) width

15. Which of the following hull form will have relatively low displacement
a) flat bottom b) V-bottom c) round bottom d) trapezoidal bottom

16. Froude’s number refers to

a) length-breadth ratio b)length speed ratio c)length depth ratio d)breadth depth ratio

17. Ship’s capacity to carry cargo, fuel, passengers etc. is called

a) dead weight b) light ship weight c) GRT d)displacement

18. Vessel fitted with engine is called

a) inshore vessel b) outboard vessel c) machanized vessel d) motorized vessel
19. Which of the following vessels are not classified under liners
a) hand liners b) long liners c) shore seiner d) tuna long liner

20. Which of the following is a non-fishing vessel

a) Factory vessel b) trawler c)gill netter d) long liner

21. One of the undesirable property of fishing vessel is

a) sea worthiness b) sea kindliness c) speed d) list

22. Boat catamarans are popular in Southern coast of Tamil Nadu due to
a) surf-beaten coast b) enclosed bay c) easy availability of wood d) calm sea

23. Which of the following is not a type of raft catamaran

a) periyamaram b) chinnamaram c) kolamaram d) teppalu

24. The catamaran used for capturing flying fishes is called

a) periyamaram b) chinnamaram c) kolamaram d) teppalu
25. Nava is a premative plank built boat operated along the coast of
a) Kerela b)Tamil Nadu c) Andrapradesh d) Orissa

26. Batchari boats are used along the coast of

a) Kerela b)Tamil Nadu c) Andrapradesh d) West Bengal

27. Coracle is a craft used in

a) reservoirs b) back waters c) sheltered bays d) near shore waters

28. Paul B Zeiner introduced the designs of

a) Catamarans b) Dug out canoes c) Machanized vessel d) Motorized vessel

29. The centre through which all the weights constitute in the ship assumed to act is called
a) centre of gravity b) centre of floatation c) transverse metacentre d) centre of buoyancy

30.In vessel with staple equilibrium

a) ‘G’ must be bellow ‘M’ b) ‘G’ and ‘M’ at the same level c) ‘G’ must be above ‘M’
d) None of them

1. Block coefficient of a box shaped vessel will be

a) one b) more than one c) less than one d) none of them

32. The common rule used for the estimation of water plane area and volume displacement is
a) Trpezoidal rule b) Simposon’s rule c) Tchebycheff’s rule d) none of them

33.The power required to overcome resistance of the ship is called

a) BHP b) IHP c) SHP d) EHP

34. Propeller converts

a) torque to thrust b) thrust to torque c) reciprocator movement to rotary movement
d) none of them

35. Which one of the below, when fitted in the vessel reduces fuel consumption
a) Rudder b) propeller c) propeller nozzle d) stern tube.

36.The fishing fleet of India is mainly constituted by

a)Primitive plank built boats b)Catamarans c) FRP boats d)Mechanized boats
37.Which of the following fishing craft sector contributes more to the fish catch
a)Motarized vessels b)Mechanized vessels c)Deep sea vessels d)Non-motarized traditional crafts

38. In a four stroke engine the burnt fuel of the engine is sent out during
a)Exhaust stroke b)power stroke c)suction stroke d)Compression stroke

39.Caulking is done for

a)FRP vessel b)Ferro cement vessel c)Steel vessel d)Wooden vessel

40.Zinc block is an example for

a) Sacrificing anode b)sacrificing cathode c)anti fouling agent d)none of them

41.Ideal material for making Propeller is

a)Bronze b)Steel c)Stainless steel d)Zinc

42.Boats fitted with controllable pitch propeller does not require

a)Rudder b)reverse gear c)stern tube d)Winch

43.Trim of a boat refers to

a) transverse inclination b)longitudinal inclination c)transverse oscillation d)longitudinal oscillation

44.Dead wood is
a)wood after drying b)wood after seasoning c)wood under seasoning d)integral part of
backbone assembly

45.Device hung along the sides of boat to prevent damage is called as

a) Fender b)camber c)sheer d)none of them

46.Among the various types of steel, the most preferred type of steel for boat building is
a ) Low carbon steel b)High carbon steel c)Mild steel d)Stainless steel

47.Which of the following vessel float due to low specific gravity

a)Ferro cement vessel b)Steel vessel c)FRP vessel d)Cattamaran

48.Which one of the following is not a type of wood preservatives

a)Organic solvent type b)Oil type c)Water-borne type d)Poly ethylene

49.Planks are attached to the backbone assembly of the wooden boat with
a)the length parallel to the length of the boat b) the length perpendicular to the length of the boat
c) the direction according to the convenience d)None of them

50.Which of the following vessel will have the lowest light displacement when constructed for the same
design
a)FRP boat b)Ferro cement boat c)Wooden boat d)Steel boat

51.Which of the following vessel will have the lowest highest displacement when constructed for the
same design
a)FRP boat b)Ferro cement boat c)Wooden boat d)Steel boat

52.Which of the following craft operation has been banned in East coast of India
a)Trawler b)Gill netter c)Long liner d)Purse seiner

53.If the RPM of propeller shaft increases beyond the optimum level, it would lead to
a)Slip b)Rake c)Skew d)pitch
54.The compression ratio is less in
a)Petrol enging b)Diesel engine c)four stroke enging d)two stroke engine

55.Water proof hull can be obtained by sheathing the wooden hull with
a)Copper sheet b)Alluminium sheet c)FRP d)Steel plates

56.Which one of the following is not a method of joining wood in boat building
a)Scarf joint b)LAP joint c)Butt joint d)Splicing

57.Gally means
a)Kitchen of a vessel b)Fish hold c)Cook d)Upper deck

58.Clamp of a wooden boat is

a)a longitudinal wood b)transverse wood c) longitudinal partition b)transverse partition

59.The pump used to pump out water collected inside the boat is called
a)Bilge pump b)Deck pump c)Engine pump d)Propeller pump

60.The floor over which the full size of the lines of plan of a boat is drawn is called
a)Loft floor b)Dock floor c)Boat floor d)Yard floor
 EXTENSION, ECONOMICS & ENVIRONMENT
1. The word extension is derived from _____________
a) Latin
b) Greek
c) German
d) French
2. Extension education is ____________
a) Out of school education
b) School education
c) College education
d) Staff education
3. The extension teaching method is_____________
a) Vertical
b) Horizontal
c) Straight
d) None
4. ______________is the process by which a person becomes changed in his behavior
through self activity
a) Teaching
b) Learning
c) Knowledge
d) Seeing
5. The cone of experience was devised by ______________
a) Edgar dale
b) Wilson
c) Paul leagans
d) Gallup g
6. Farm and home visits are classified under______________
a) Individual contact method
b) Group contact method
c) Mass contact method
d) None
7. The community development programme was launched in the year____________
a) 1952
b) 1965
c) 1978
d) 1960
8. The first KVK was established in _____________
a) Cochin
b) Pondicherry
c) Mandapam
d) Mangalore
9. Any idea or practice that is perceived as new by the farmers is called______________
a) Adoption
b) Innovation
c) Diffusion
d) Rejection
10.The book extension education was written by ____________
a) Adivi reddy
b) G.ray
c) Edgar dale
d) None
11.The process of providing situation in which learning takes place____________
a) Learning
b) Teaching
c) Motivation
d) Education
12.Feed back is maximum in ____________
a) Personal contact method
b) Group contact method
c) Mass contact method
d) Circulation of extension material
13.The mass contact method is _____________
a) Public speaking
b) Meetings
c) Door to door campaign
d) Field trips
14.Method demonstration is used when ____________
a) Skills has to be taught in a better way
b) Results have to be shown
c) Participants are asked to discuss a topic
d) Experts need to find the problems of the clientele
15.Extension education is a___________ science
a) A pure science
b) A behavioral science
c) An applied science
 d) An applied behavioral science
16.Lab to land programme is implemented through___________
a) Agricultural universities
b) The ICAR institutes
c) State department of agriculture
d) All the above
17.The concept of KVK was introduced by __________
a) Mohan Singh Mehta
b) Balawant Rai Mehta
c) Hemant Mehta
d) Prashant Mehta
18.The non-formal education is _____________
a) Highly institutionalized
b) Life long process
c) Systematic and well organized
d) None
19.____________is the stage of putting an idea or practice into operation
a) Desire
b) Conviction
c) Action
d) Satisfaction
20.A short series of lecture is known as___________
a) Seminar
b) Symposium
c) Discussion
d) Debate
21._________are the first to adopt a new idea
a) Innovators
b) Early adaptors
c) Late majority people
d) Early majority people
22.__________are the traditional and last people to adopt a new practice
a) Innovators
b) Laggards
c) Late majority
d) Early adopters
23.What is the smallest unit of computer memory_____________
a) Byte
b) Bits
 c) Kilobyte
d) Mega byte
24.Expansion of ALU
a) Arithmetic logic unit
b) Algorithmic logic unit
c) Algebraic logic unit
d) Arithmetic local unit
25.Which is the volatile memory_____________
a) RAM b) ROM c) FDD d) HOD
26.Which one of the following is an input device?
a) Monitor
b) Printer
c) Keyboard
d) Plotter
27.First generation computers used______________
a) Valves
b) Transistors
c) IC’s
d) None
28.What was the period of second generation?
a) 1955-1964
b) 1965-1974
c) 1975-1982
d) 1946-1954
29.Floppy disc is ______________
a) Input device
b) Output device
c) Input/output device
d) None
30.Abbreviate URL
a) Unit resource locator
b) Unit resource level
c) Uniform revenue layout
d) Uniform resource locator
31. Which is the organization providing financial support for the fisheries sector?
a) FFDA
b) BFDA
c) MPEDA
d) NABARD
32.For the conservation of endangered species which is the most effective method of
extension?
a) Mass awareness programme
b) Formal education
c) Informal education
d) Ranching programme
33.MPEDA comes under_________
a) Ministry of agriculture
b) Ministry of commerce
c) Ministry of animal husbandry
d) None
34.The Indian fisheries act was passed in 1897 by____________
a) President of India
b) Director of fisheries
c) The governor general of India
d) The chief minister of Tamilnadu
35.The first state to impose the fisheries act was ____________
a) Punjab
b) Gujarat
c) Kerala
d) Maharashtra
36.BFDA started in the year ___________
a) 1974
b) 1984
c) 1976
d) 1972
37.The chairman of managerial committee of BFDA ____________
a) Tashildar
b) VAO
c) District collector
d) BDO
38.Scalar process is called as____________
a) Hierarchy
b) Span of control
c) Line unit
d) Staffing
39.The department of fisheries was established in the year_________
a) 1908
b) 1907
 c) 1910
d) 1911
40.The NFDB ( national fisheries development board) work towards____________
a) Blue revolution
b) Red revolution
c) Green revolution
d) White revolution
41.Binomial distribution is applied for trials having_______
a) One outcome
b) Two outcomes
c) Three outcomes
d) Four outcomes
42.For the estimation of experimental error following is required ______________
a) Randomization
b) Replication
c) Local control
d) Confounding
43.F-test is used to test the significance of___________
a) Two means
b) Three means only
c) Single means
d) More than two means
44.The major factor on which fisheries production function depends in addition to capital is
_______
a) Market
b) Fish hold on vessels
c) Labour
d) Fishing area
45.According to Giffen paradox , as price increases , demand________
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remain Constant
d) None
46.Population size is denoted by which letter___________
a) N
b) S
c) P
d) n
47.Which sampling method do you suggest for heterogeneous population?
 a) Simple random
b) Systematic
c) Stratified
d) Sequential
48.Which technique do you recommend for comparison of several means?
a) t-test
b) F-test
c) ANOVA
d) X2- test
49.Symbol for null hypothesis___________
a) H0
b) HA
c) HO
d) NONE
50.Symbol for alternate hypothesis__________
a) HO
b) HA
c) HO
d) NONE
51.Accepting the null hypothesis when it is actually false is called___________
a) Type I error
b) Type II error
c) Standard error
d) None
52.Rejecting the null hypothesis when it is actually true is called __________
a) Type I error
b) Type II error
c) Standard error
d) None
53.Chi square is applied to which type of data?
a) Interval
b) Attribute
c) Measurement
d) Rank
54.The values of simple correlation lies between ___________
a) 0 and 1
b) -1 and + 1
c) -0.9and +0.9
d) None
55.When Z=3.5 & I =2.1 then M is ?
a) 1.4 b) 2.4 c) 5.6 d) 0.4
56.The graph of cumulative frequency is known as__________
a) Histograph
b) Ogive
c) Frequency polygon
d) Frequency curve
57.If mean of binomial distribution is 6 and variance 2.4, probability of success is
_________
a) 0.4
b) 0.5
c) 0.6
d) 0.7
58.Equality of variance of two normal population based on independent sample is tested
using ________
a) Z test
b) Chi square test
c) F test
d) T test
59.Test of goodness of fit is known as__________
a) Z test
b) Chi square test
c) F test
d) T test
60.The appropriate form of production function in marine capture fisheries is _________
a) Linear form
b) Parabolic form
c) Quadratic form
d) Exponential form
61.GDP is product produced -__________
a) Within the country
b) Outside the country
c) By Indians
d) By all
62.For complementary goods price elasticity of demand will be_________
a) Upward sloping
b) Downward sloping
c) Parallel to X axis
d) Parallel to Y axis
63.The most frequently occurring value is called as_____________
a) Median
b) Mode
c) Mean
d) Range
64.Father of economics
a) Alfred Marshall
b) Adam Smith
c) Aristotle
d) Robbins
65.Law of diminishing marginal utility was given by _____________
a) Alfred Marshall
b) Adam smith
c) Aristotle
d) Robbins
66.NABARD was established in the year_____________
a) 1972
b) 1982
c) 1992
d) 1974
67.MPEDA was established in the year ____________
a) 1982
b) 1972
c) 1984
d) 1974
68.Major component of operational cost in shrimp hatchery___________
a) Feed
b) Seed
c) Water quality
d) Salary
69.In price elasticity or supply becomes zero, then ___________
a) Supply is variable
b) Supply is fixed
c) Supply is increasing
d) Average fixed cost
70.The wealth of nation’ book was published by ___________
a) Adam smith
b) Sismondi
c) Robbins
 d) Aristotle
71.Father of limnology:-
a) J. Lorenz
b) V. Hansen
c) F. Simony
d) F.A.Forel
72.The word plankton was coined by__________
a) Ernst hackle
b) V. Hansen
c) F.A.Forel
d) John Leslie
73.In estuaries _______is the most crucial factor
a) Salinity
b) Ph
c) Temperature
d) Dissolved oxygen
74.NIO is located in ________
a) Dona Paula
b) Mumbai
c) Cochin
d) Mumbai
75.Preliminary treatment of sewage ________
a) Screen larger objects
b) Removes only floating material
c) Kills pathogens
d) None
76.Environmental protection act came into force in ___________
a) 1972
b) 1986
c) 2001
d) 1897
77.Animals having wide range of temperature tolerance______________
a) Stenothermic
b) Eurythermic
c) Homeothermic
d) Poikilothermic
78.The larval forms which are present temporarily in the plankton are called as___________
a) Holoplankton
b) Rheoplankton
 c) Macro plankton
d) Meroplankton
79.Red tide occurs when there is bloom of _____________
a) Diatoms
b) Dinoflagellates
c) Coccolithopores
d) None
80.The oceanic province which extends from 200-1000 meters in depth is ___________zone
a) Hadopelagic
b) Abyss pelagic
c) Mesopelagic
d) Bathypelagic
81.Water bodies containing low concentrations of nutrient matter is called __________
a) Oligotrophic
b) Eutrophic
c) Geotrophic
d) Dystrophic
82.The process of oxidation of No2 to No3 by nitrifying bacteria is called as ____________
a) Carbonification
b) Ammonification
c) Nitrification
d) Denitrification
83.Blue book is a combination of ____________
a) Endangered species
b) Animal species
c) Protected plants
d) Insect species
84.Azolla fixes nitrogen with the help of _________
a) Chlorella
b) Anabaena
c) Tetraselmis
d) Spirulina
85.The assemblage of living and non living components floating in water__________
a) Plankton
b) Seston
c) Periphyton
d) Saproplankton
86.The test used to assess the level of pollution is __________
a) BOD
 b) COD
c) Acidity
d) Odor
87.The organisms, which live attached to foreign body are , known as_________
a) Benthos
b) Nekton
c) Periphyton
d) Seston
88.Oxbow lakes are formed due to ____________
a) River meandering
b) Volcanic eruption
c) Flooding
d) Cyclones
89.Fresh water dolphin is found in ______________
a) Ganga river
b) Mahanadi
c) Tapti river
d) Godavari
90.Euphotic zone is characterized by _____________
a) High productivity
b) Low productivity
c) Low temperature
d) High turbidity
91.The endangered fresh water fish _____________
a) Tor putitoria
b) Clarias batrachus
c) Labeo calbasu
d) Labeo beta
92.Minamita disease is due to ____________
a) Cadmium
b) Mercury
c) Lead
d) Cyanide
93.The effect of EL Nino occurred on which of the following fish?
a) Californian sardine
b) Alaskan Pollock
c) Peruvian anchovy
d) Blue greedier
94.The steep, torrential upper zone of the river is _________
 a) Rhithron
b) Potamon
c) Riffles
d) Rapids
95.Potamoplankton is the plankton of _________
a) Ponds
b) Household pot
c) Lotic waters
d) Lakes
96.The deepest lake in the world____________
a) Tanganyika
b) Baikal
c) Manasarovar
d) Ontario
97.C 14 technique was introduced by__________
a) Gardner and gram
b) Ward and whippier
c) Steel man and nelson
d) Kreps and verbenkia
98.Limiting nutrient in fresh water___________
a) P
b) Ca
c) N
d) K
99.The amount of energy lost at every trophic level in food chain ___________
a) 50%
b) 90%
c) 60%
d) 10%
100. The lakes where the temperature never goes above 40 c are known as_________
a) Polar lakes
b) Temperate lakes
c) Trophical lakes
d) None
101. Fragilaria oceanica is an indicator of ______________
a) Sardine
b) Mackerel
c) Bombay duck
d) Tuna
102. Beels/oxbow lakes are mostly distributed in _____________
a) Tamilnadu
b) Assam
c) Gujarat
d) West Bengal
103. Salt content of sea water is ___________
a) 3-3.5%
b) 3-5%
c) 4-5%
d) 5-6%
104. Point at which respiration and photosynthesis are equal_________
a) Average depth
b) Compensation depth
c) Mean depth
d) None
105. Chilka lake is a___________
a) Lagoon
b) Bhery
c) Backwater
d) Mangrove
106. Which areas of oceans are rich in fish populations?
a) Upwelling area
b) Down welling area
c) Pelagic region
d) Benthic region
107. The brackish water which acts as a buffer zone between sea and land is_________
a) Lagoon
b) Bhery
c) Backwater
d) Embanked brackish water
108. The largest estuary in India__________
a) Hooghly matlah estuary
b) Mahanadi estuary
c) Godavari estuary
d) Narmada estuary
109. The BOD of Indian coastal waters is __________mg/l
a) 50
b) 100
c) 150
 d) 10

110. Water mass is characterized by _________

a) Sea surface temperature
b) Zooplankton indication
c) Temperature salinity profile
d) Density
111. Tide pattern in India _________
a) Semidiurnal
b) Neap tide
c) Diurnal
d) None
112. Tsunami is an ___________
a) Surface current
b) Internal wave
c) Deep water current
d) Storm
113. Transparency is measured by using__________
a) Photometer
b) Secchi disc
c) Calorimeter
d) Hydrometer
114. Exosmosis occurs in _________
a) Marine animals
b) Fresh water animals
c) Estuarine animals
d) All
115. The word ecosystem was coined by _____________
a) Hansen
b) Tansley
c) Charles Elton
d) Srinivasan
116. Percentage of co2 in air _________
a) 0.03
b) 0.3
c) 3
d) 30
117. Estuary which is not found in India________
a) Salt wedge
 b) Bar built
c) Fjord
d) Well mixed estuary
118. Bioluminescence is also called as __________
a) Day light
b) Night light
c) Living light
d) None
119. Ouch ouch disease is caused due to _____________
a) Cadmium
b) Mercury
c) Lead
d) Iron
120. Higher plants which float either upon the surface or within the water______________
a) Seston
b) Pleuston
c) Neuston
d) Plankton

121. Match the following

1 Limnetic plankton A Running water
2 Rheoplankton B Lake
3 Heleo plankton C Brackish water
4 Haliplankton D Pond
5 Hypalmyro plankton E Salt water

122.
1 Welfare definition A Income theory
2 Scarcity definition B Alfred Marshall
3 Growth definition C Lionel Robbins
4 Macro economics D Paul Samuelson
5 Micro economics E Price theory

123.
1 Red mangrove A Laguncularia
2 Black mangrove B Rhizophora
3 White mangrove C Avicenia
4 Psammon D Flat slow flowing river
5 potamon E Sand grains

124
1 El lino A Surface current
2 Gulf stream B Coral
3 Seiches C upwelling
4 Atolls D Sea floor spreading
5 tectonics E Internal wave

125.
1 National demonstrations A 2005
2 NFDB B 1974
3 KVK C 1979
4 Lab to land programme D 1986
5 MANAGE E 1964
126.
1 RAM A Brain of computer
2 ROM B Input/output device
3 MS EXCEL C Volatile
4 FLOPPY D Data base arrangement
5 CPU E Nonvolatile

Answers -match

121 1-B 2-A 3-D 4-E 5-C

122 1-B 2-C 3-D 4-A 5-E
123 1-B 2-C 3-A 4-E 5-D
124 1-C 2-E 3-A 4-B 5-D
125 1-E 2-A 3-B 4-C 5-D
126 1-C 2-E 3-D 4-B 5-A
 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
A A B B A A A B A A
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
B A A A D B A B C B
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
A B B A A C A B C D
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
D A B C A A C A A A
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
B B D A B A C C A B
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
B A B B A B C C B B
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A B B B A A A A B A
71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
D C A A A B B D B C
81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
A C A B B A C A A A
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A B C A C B Find A B A
101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A B A B A A A A A C
111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A C B A B A C C A B

EZHIL NILAVAN,
PG SCHOLAR,
AQUATIC ANIMAL HEALTH,
CENTRAL INSTITUTE OF FISHERIES EDUCATION,
ANDHERI (W), MUMBAI 61.
e mail: [email protected]
 Fish Health Management (PTF-222)

1. Fish lice is known as

a. Ichthyophthrius b. Lernaea c. Ergasilus d. Argulus
2. The causative organism for Bacterial Kidney Disease is
a. Aeromonas b. Renibacterium c. Mycobacterium d. Edwardsiella
3. Which one is a protozoan disease.
a. Salmonellosis b. Costiasis c. Tuberoculosis d. Saprolegniosis
4. Common disinfectant containing iodine is
a. Iodex b. Iridophore c. Iodophore d. Acriflavin
5. Which group has a direct life cycle without involvement of intermediary hosts.
a. Crustaceans b. Digeneans c. Monogeneans d. Protozoans
6. Fish immunoglobulin belongs to which class.
a. IgA b. IgG c. IgD d. IgM
7. Yeast glucan is used as
a. Antibiotic b. Probiotic c. Bioremediator d. Immunostimulant
8. Formalin is used as a chemotherapeutic through which method of treatment.
a. Oral b. Injection c. Immersion d. Spray
9. Which causes cotton wool disease in fish.
a. Ichthyobodo b. Aspergillus c. Saprolegnia d. Aphanomyces
10. Enteric Red Mouth disease is caused by
a. Yersenia b. Yellow Head Virus c. Renibacterium d. Aeromonas
11. Best growth performance in fishes is observed at what ppm of DO2 in pond water.
a. 4.0 b. 4.5 c. 5.0 d. 5.5
12. Dropsy can be treated with
a. Formalin b. Aeration c. Lime d. Chloramphenicol
13. Luminiscent Vibrios are associated with diseases in
a. Crabs b. Carps c. Catfishes d. Shrimps
14. Haemolymph is found in
a. Labeo rohita b. Clarias batrachus c. Penaeus indicus d. Tilapia mosambica
15. Which one is known as blood fluke.
a. Dactylogyrus b. Gyrodactylus c. Diplostomum d. Sanguinicola
16. E.U.S. is caused by
a. Aeromonas b. Rhabdovirus c. Aphanomyces d. Saprolegnia
17. SEMBV is associated with
a. Crabs b. Carps c. Catfishes d. Shrimps
18. Myolema cells are prerequisite in which technique.
a. PCR b. Monoclonal antibody c. Immunofluorescence d. Cell culture
19. Poly acrylamide gel electrophoresis is used to detect
a. Carbohydrate b. Protein c. DNA d. RNA
20. Which one is used as fish anaesthetics.
a. Tri-sodium citrate b. Benzocaine c. Tricaine d. All of these
21. Which one has a life cycle with no involvement of intermediate host.
a. Monogeneans b. Digeneans c. Cestodes d. Crustaceans
22. The reaction of tissues to injury characterized clinically by swelling and redness is called as
a. Infection b. Inflammation c. Incubation d. Inoculation
23. Disease/Infection naturally transmitted between a vertebrate animal and human is called as
a. Transgenic b. Transboundary c. Zoonotic d. Traumatic
24. Which larval stage of digeneans cause extensive losses and mortality in fishes.
a. Cercaria b. Metacercaria c. Miracidium d. Oncomiracidium
25. Renibacterium salmoninarum is the causative agent of
a. EUS b. ERM c. BKD d. IHHNV
26. Argulus foliaceus belongs to sub-class
a. Copepoda b. Branchiura c. Isopoda d. Gastropoda
27. Gas bubble disease occur due to super saturation of
a. Ammonia b. Carbon dioxide c. Oxygen d. Hydrogen sulphide
28. Which one is the possible causative agent of EUS.
a. Aphanomyces sp. b. Saprolegnia sp. c. Aeromonas sp. d. Vibrio sp.
29. More number of fishes can be vaccinated by which method
a. Immersion b. Injection c. Oral d. Bath
30. Which cells are called phagocytic cells in fish.
a. Epithellial cells b. Red blood cells c. Lymphocyte cells d. Macrophage cells
31. Skin fluke in teleost is
a. Dactylogyrus sp. b. Gyrodactylus sp. c. Diplostomum sp. d. Ligula sp.
32. What is used to correct water during EUS outbreak.
a. Formalin b. KMnO4 c. Butox d. CIFAX
33. White tail disease is a what type of disease of prawn.
a. Bacterial b. Viral c. Fungal d. Parasitic
34. Which one is an endoparasite in fish.
a. Ichthyophthrius b. Ichthyobodo c. Sangunicola d. Argulus
35. The common fungus that affects the fish eggs is
a. Aspoergillus b. Aphanomyces c. Fusarium d. Saprolegnia
36. Which one is an excellent virucidal agent used to disinfect hatchery equipments.
a. Chlorine b. U-V rays c. Ozone d. Iodofor
37. Channel catfish viral disease causes most severe loss when water temperature reaches
a. 5°C b. 10°C c. 15°C d. 20°C
38. Which one is caused by Branchiomyces sangunis.
a. Ulcerative disease b. Whirling disease c. Gill rot d. Columnaris
39. The main route of entry of vaccine by immersion vaccination is through
a. Mouth b. Skin c. Lateral line d. Gill
40. Large scale outbreaks of communicable diseases occurring over a large geographical area is
a. Epizootics b. Epidemics c. Zoonotics d. Infections
41. Lernea is otherwise known as
a. Fish lice b. Tape worm c. Anchor worm d. Luke worm
42. Exuvia entrapment disease is commonly found in
a. Carps b. Catfishes c. Prawns d. Bivalves
43. Which one causes protozoan fouling in shrimp.
a. Ichthyophthrius b. Ichthyobodo c. Myxobolus d. Zoothamnium
44. Which is one of the larval stages of digenetic trematode.
a. Tomite b. Fry c. Miracidium d. Procercoid
45. Enteric red mouth disease is more common in
a. Salmons b. Trouts c. Channel catfish d. IMC
46. Ulcerative diseases in fish are caused by
a. Aeromonas b. Pseudomonas c. Vibrio d. Myxobacterium
47. Aphanomyces invadens is the causative organism of
a. Mycotic granulommatosis
b. Red spot disease
c. EUS
d. All of these
48. Which is known as luminescent vibrio in shrimp culture.
a. V. Harveyi b. V. alginolyticus c. V. parahaemolyticus d. All of these
49. Which is responsible for Scoliosis in fish.
a. Lactic acid b. Ascorbic acid c. Aspartic acid d. Sulphuric acid
50. Asphyxiation in fish is due to
a. Air embolism b. O2 depletion c. NH3 production d. H2S production

Answer Key to Fish Health Management

1. d 2. b 3. b 4. c 5. c 6. d 7. c 8. c 9. c 10. a
11. c 12. c 13. d 14. c 15. d 16. c 17. d 18. b 19. b 20. d
21. a 22. b 23. c 24. b 25. c 26. b 27. c 28. a 29. c 30.d
31. b 32. d 33. b 34. c 35. d 36. a 37. c 38. c 39. d 40. a
41. c 42. c 43. d 44. c 45. c 46. c 47. c 48. a 49. b 50. b
 FISH PROCESSING TECHNOLOGY

1. The microbial species present during low temperature spoilage is

_____________
a. Pseudomonas b. Micrococcus c. Bacillus d. Aspergillus

2. Indicator organism in fish handling and processing______________

a. E.coli b. Pseudomonas c. Flavobacterium d. Aeromonas

3. Those organisms which grow at a temperature of 15-40 degree is

____________
a. Psycrophiles b. Thermopiles c. Mesophiles d. Psycrotrops

4. How many calories are absorbed when 1 kg of ice melt equivalent to latent
heat__________
a. 5 b. 144 c. 80 d. 318

5. The processing technique commonly used for Bombay duck is ___________

a. Canning b. freezing c. smoking d. drying

6. Name the traditional method of fish processing and preservation ________

a. Drying b. canning c. freezing d. irradiation

7. What is the name of processed dried fish air bladders___________

a. Isinglass b. pearl essence c. chitin d. factice

8. Chitin is a _____________
a. Polysaccharide b. polyphosphate c. poly peptide d. cellophane
paper

9. Isinglass is made from _____________

a. Shark fin b. fish maws c. prawn shell d. fish scale

10.Shell life of salted fish depends on _____________

a. Moisture % b. Salt % c. temperature d. water salinity
11.Masmin is prepared from ____________
a. Shark b. tuna c. whale d. sea cucumber

12.The highest protein is found in ____________

a. Fish meal b. rice bran c. tapioca flour d. GNOC

13.TMA is released from TMAO by ____________

a. Autolysis b. pseudomonas sp c. photo bacterium d. alteron sp

14.Chitosan can be used as an absorbent for _______

a. Heavy metals b. sewage bacteria c. oil pollutants d. suspended
particles

15.Freshness is nearly preserved by this method_________

a. Marinating b. drying c. canning d. freezing

16.Protein is estimated by __________method

a. Kjeldhal b. Fiske c. Winkler’s d. none

17.The highest annual marine fish production is from ___________

a. Kerala b. Gujarat c. Maharashtra d. Andhra Pradesh

18.Major carbohydrate present in shrimp muscle is ____________

a. Starch b. glycogen c. Triglycerides d. glycine

19.Percentage of protein in fish muscle____________

a. 16-20 b. 20-25 c. 10-15 d. 2-8

20.The degradation of histidine in fish produces ________--

a. Trimethylamine b. histamine c. ammonia d. glucosamine

21.The chemical formula of dry ice ______________

a. Cl4 b. CO2 c. CH4 d. CH3COOH
22.Traditional method of fish processing __________
a. Salt and drying b. freezing c. IQF d. slow freezing

23.Brine solution is mainly made up of ___________

a. Potassium b. sodium chloride c. permanganate d. cobalt

24.The chemical compound present only in marine fish ____________

a. TMAO b. free amino acid c. nucleotide d. glucose

25.Biggest inland fish market in India is ___________

a. Bombay b. Chennai c. Howrah d. Delhi
26.Pearl essence is ____________
a. Guanine b. Guanine hydrochloride c. guanosine d. none of
these

27.Recommended level of chlorination of processed water in processing plants

is _______
a. 1 ppm b. 5 ppm c. 10 ppm d. 50 ppm

28.Sodium tripolyphosphate treatment of frozen prawns __________

a. Reduces thaw drip b. prevents rancidity c. kills bacteria d.
increases thaw drip
29.Teradotoxin is seen in ___________
a. Sea snakes b. puffer fish c. jelly fish d. Bombay duck

30.Casein is the protein derived from _________

a. Milk b. wheat c. Fish d. fruits

31.Aflatoxins are __________

a. Bacterial origin b. fungal origin c. viral origin d. algal origin

32.Surimi is ____________
a. Dried squid b. Gelled fish meat c. minced myofibrillar protein
from fish d.none
33.Bech-de-mer is __________
a. Dried squid b. Gelled fish meat c. dried sea cucumber d.none

34.Pink discoloration in salted fish products is caused by ____________

a. Halophilic bacteria b. tyrosinases enzyme c. fat oxidation d.
none

35.The richest source of vitamin A _____--

a. Isinglass b. fish body oil c. fish liver oil d. fish manure

36.The rate of glycolysis is ___________

a. Faster in fresh water fish than marine fish
b. Faster in marine fish than fresh water fish
c. Equal in both cases
d. Not related with habitat

37.The quality and taste of the preserved fish will be high ____________
a. Prior to rigor mortis b. during rigor mortis c. post rigor mortis
d. none

38.Heavier load of bacteria is reported from fish caught in ___________

a. Long line b. trawl net c. cast net d. pole and line

39.Ambergris is a metabolic product of ______________

a. Shark bb. Sperm whale c. Blue whale d. cuttle fish

40.During rigor mortis the ph of fish may fall to ____________

a. 3.5 b. 4.5 c. 5.5 d. 6.5

41.The poisoning of histamine is known as ___________

a. Scombroid fish poisoning
b. Gadoid fish poisoning
c. Mackerel fish poisoning
d. Cod fish poisoning
42.ATP synthesis takes place when electrons are transferred from
_____________
a. FAD to CoQ b. Cyt c1 to Cyt c2 c. coenzyme and NAD

43.The non protein nitrogen matter involved in the bitter taste of fish
___________
a. TMAO b. glycine c. hypoxanthine d. creatinine

44.The major pigment present in shrimp_____________

a. Phenol b. alanine c. Astaxanthin c. leucotriene

45.The major omega 3 fatty acid in fish lipid____________

a. EPA b. lauric acid c. palmitic acid d. stearic acid

46.Synthesis of protein takes place in _____________

a. Mitochondria b. ribosomes c. cytoplasm d. nucleus

47.Quality of shrimp can be assessed by the estimation of _____________

a. Indole b. glucose c. vit C D. arginine

48.N-acetyl glucosamine is the component of ___________

a. Starch b. agar c. poly saccharide d. chitin
49.Quality of fish can be estimated by the ___________
a. Peroxide value b. glucose c. Vit C d. arginine

50.The compound responsible for pleasant flavor_________

a. ATP B. GTP C. IMP D. ADP

51.Limits of mercury in canned fishery products_________

a. 0.5 ppm b. 1.0 ppm c. 5 ppm d. 10 ppm

52.The number of ATP molecules formed by the aerobic oxidation of 1

molecule of glucose is __________
a. 15 b. 12 c. 38 d. 2
53.The caloric value of fats is equal to ____________kcal
a. 9.5 b. 9.3 c. 9.1 d. 9.2

54.Triglycerols constitute about ____________% of total dietary lipids

a. 90 b. 75 c. 85 d. 95

55.‘Irish moss ‘ is _____________

a. Pectin b. carrageen c. chitin d. gelatin

56.Fish with Hx content more than ____________is regarded as spoiled

a. 3.5 micromoles /gram b. 2.5 micromoles/g ram c. 1.5
micromoles/gram

57.___________is responsible for flat sour spoilage

a. B.stearothermophiles b. B.coagulans c. B.mycoides d. B.
cereus

58.Ceviche ; is a ______________product
a. Fermented b. canned c. marinated d. salted

59.Most halophilic bacteria are inhibited at the water activity of ____________

a. 0.65 b. 0.75 c. 0.8 d. 0.85

60.Liquefied fish protein is ___________-

a. Fish silage b. Fish paste c. Fish gelatin d. fish albumin

61.trepang’ is ______________
a. Processed sea cucumber b. Processed jelly fish c. processed sea
anemone

62.indole can be used as quality index in _____________

a. fish b. shrimp c. crab d. lobster
63.Which is the sulphur containing amino acid ____________?
a. Methionine b. cysteine c. arginine d. both a&b

64.The frozen fish industry in India was first established in __________

a. Tamil nadu b. Mumbai c. Kerala d. Karnataka

65.IMVIC test is related to ______________

a. Salmonella b. E.coli c. Listeria d. Vibrio

66.Enzyme responsible for browning in shrimp ___________

a. Tyrosinase b. tyrosine c. protease d. catalase

67.Sublimation is the principle in ____________

a. Solar drying b. spray drying c. freeze drying d. all

68.At present largest importer of Indian sea foods____________

a. USA b. EU c. Japan d. china

69.Instrument used for testing the gel strength of surimi is ____________

a. Torry meter b. rheometer c. gel meter d. both b & c

70.Fish containing high moisture content _______________

a. Sardine b.bombay duck c. Tuna d. cat fish

71.Maximum permissible limits of TMA in seafood is ________mg/kg

a. 10-15 b. 25-35 c. 15-20 d. 5-10

72.The fish used for surimi preparation in India ___________

a. Thread fin bream b. Lizard fish c. sardine d. all

73.Fish scales contain___________

a. Guanine b. glucose c. calcium d. all
74.The most commonly used layers of retort pouch _______
a. PES/AL FOIL/ PP b.PE/AL FOIL /PES c. AL FOIL/ PES/ PP
d. PE/PES/AL FOIL
75.Canning of ______is most popular in US
a. Sardine b. tuna c. seer fish d. shrimps

76.K value is related to __________

a. Quality index b. fat oxidation c. protein denaturation d. none

77.Flavor enhancer in sea food________

a. MSG B. STP C. SPP D. NONE

78.Caviar is prepared from___________

a. Meat b. roe c. shell d. all

79.Micro flora of marine fish is dominated by___________

a. G+ve b.G-ve c. both

80.The recommended ratio of fish to sea water in CSW is between___________

a. 5:1-4:1 b. 6:1- 2:1 c. 3:1- 4:1 d. 2:1- 4:1

81.The critical limit of dehydration of frozen fish in cold store is ________

a. 10g/m2/24h b. 50g/m2/24h c. 15g/m2/24h 100g/m2/24hr

82.Blood of freshly caught fish is red due to the presence of ___________

a. Oxyhemoglobin b. hemoglobin c. myoglobin d.
methemoglobin

83.Torry meter is used to check ___________

a. Nucleotide b. fish smell c. fish rigor d. freshness of fish

84.Dun spoilage occur due to___________

a. Halophilic bacteria b. halophilic mould c. thermophilic bacteria
d. none

85.Iodophores are used as __________

 a. Disinfectants b. sequesterants c. surface active agent d.
detergent

86.Maximum permissible level of E .coli in frozen shrimps____________

a. 0 b. 20 c. 10 c. 100
87.The moisture content of freeze dried product should not be more than
_________
a. 5% b. 1-3% c. 10 % d. 15 %

88.The maximum dose recommended for irradiation in food is ____________

a. 5 KGY B. 50KGY C. 10KGY D. 100 KGY

89.Carcinogenic compound present in smoked product is _________

a. Formaldehyde b. phenol c. benzopyrene d. pyretherene

90.Pearl essence is prepared from __________

a. Shell waste b. fish scale c. fish liver d. shark fin

91.Clarifying agent in wine preparation ____________

a. Ambergris b. squalene c. isinglass c. chitin

92.Compounds that are responsible for the bacterial property of smoke

___________
a. PAH b. phenolic c. organic d. inorganic

93.Squalene is present in ___________

a. Shark b. fish c. rays d. shrimps

94.Natural antioxidant is _____________

a. Phosphoric acid b. ascorbic acid c. BHA d. citric acid

95.Masmin is also known as ___________

a. Dried swim bladder b. smoked tuna c. dry fish d. dried bonito
sticks
 96.Freezing point of sea water ___________
a. -50 degree b. -2 degree c. -10 degree d. -18 degree

97.Permissible limits of staphylococcus in sea foods __________

a. 100 b. 0 c. 10 d. 1000

98.Shaped products can be obtained from _________freezers

a. Spiral b. air blast c. horizontal d. liquid nitrogen freezer

99.Agar agar is prepared from ____________

a. Brown sea weed b. red sea weed c. green sea weed d. all
100. Fish liver oil is an important source of ___________
a. Vit A B. vit c c. vit D D. vit A&D

101. Copper containing protein found in the blood of shell fish is _______
a. Hemoglobin b. myoglobin c. haemocyanin d. oxy hemoglobin

102. Vibrio is __________

a. Gram +rod b. gram-ve rod c. gram-ve comma shaped rod d. gram
+ve cocci

103. The food poisoning organism in canned fish products ________

a. C.perferinges b.c. botulinum c.bacillus sp d. vibrio sp

104. The most commonly used source of gamma rays is _________

a. Caesium16 b. cobalt-60 c. carbon 14 d. uranium 40

105. A recommended head space is ____________

a. 2-3mm b. 5-6mm c. 6-9mm d. 6-8mm

106. Botulinum cook refers to ________

a. 1210 c for 2.52 min b. 1210 c for 15 pounds c. 2500 c for 2.52 min
d. 2500 c for 15 pounds
107. Time in minutes required to kill an organism in a specific medium is called
as __________
a. Z –value b. 12-D concept c. F value d. none

108. The proteins involved in muscle contraction are ________

a. Actin and myosin b. collagen c. albumin d. hemoglobin

109. Unit of irradiation _________

a. Gray b. watts c. ampere d. volts

110. Primary structure of protein is due to ________bond

a. Hydrogen b. peptide c. ionic d. none

111. Which one is associated with the quality assurance in seafood _______
a. MPEDA B. HACCP C. IFS D. SART

112. Ciguatera toxin is produced by _________

a. Dinoflagellates b. green algae c. red algae

113. Best icing ratio_________

a. 1: 1 b. 1: 2 c. 1: 3 d. 1: 4

114. The optimum overlap percentage in double seamed cans is _______

a. 45 % b. 60 % c. 55 % d. 35 %

115. The number of principles used in HACCP is _________

a. 5 b. 6 c. 7 d. 8

116. The Japanese name of fillets used for raw consumption is ___________
a. Sashimi b. sushi c. Kebab d. nobashi

117. The base material used for crab analogues is __________

a. Minced fish b. shrimp paste c. fish paste d. surimi

118. The decimal reduction time is known as ________

 a. D value b. F value c. Z value d. Y value

119. Vertical plate freezer are used in ____________

a. Processing plants b. onboard fishing vessels c. landing centres
d. all

120. The most common refrigerant used in fish freezing industry is ___________
a. Ammonia b. carbon di oxide c. nitrogen d. Freon

MATCH THE FOLLOWING

121

1 Formaldehyde A n-acetyl glucosamine

2 Kamabako B Bactericide

3 Agar- agar C Steamed

4 Holothurians D Red sea weed

5 chitin E Bech de mer

122

1 Surimi A Lean fish

2 Dun spoilage B Fatty fish

3 Dry reduction C Myofibrillar protein

4 Pickling process D Halophilic mould

5 Wet reduction E Colombo curing

123

1 Fish satay A Salted fish

2 Maldive fish B Myofibrillar protein

3 Surimi C Smoked tuna

4 Columbo fish D Fermented fish

5 pindong E Marinated fish

124

1 Diarrhetic shell fish poisoning A Dinophysis

2 Paralytic shell fish poisoning B Gonyulax

3 Neurotoxic shell fish poisoning C Prychodiscus breve

4 Amnestic shell fish poisoning D Nitchia

5 Puffer fish toxin E Tetradotoxin

125

1 Chitosan A Fish cans

2 Heat sealable layer B Fruit cans

3 Mechanical strength and low OTR C Shrimp shells

4 SR laquer D Cast PP

5 AR laquer E NYLON
ANSWERS

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
A A C C D A A A B A
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
B A A C D A A B A B
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
B A B A C A 2-5 A B A
ppm
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
B C C A C A A B B D
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A A C C A B A D A C
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
A C A B B A B A B A
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A B D C B A C B B B
71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
A A A A A A A B B C
81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
B A D B A B B C C B
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
C B A B B B A C B D
101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
C C B B B A C A A B
111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
B A A A C A D A B A
MATCH

121: 1-B, 2-C, 3-D, 4-E, 5-A

122: 1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-E,5-B

123: 1-D, 2-C, C-2, 4-E, 5-A

124: 1-A,2-B, 3-C, 4-D, 5-E

125:1-C, 2-D, 3-E, 4-A, 5-B

EZHIL NILAVAN,
PG SCHOLAR,
AQUATIC ANIMAL HEALTH,
CENTRAL INSTITUTE OF FISHERIES EDUCATION,
ANDHERI (W), MUMBAI 61.
e mail: [email protected]
 Practice set for ARS Prelims (FRM)

I. Choose the correct answer

1. Torsion is a characteristic of............

a. Gastropoda c) Cephalopoda
b. Bivalvia d) Crustacea
2. ............. is a genus of barnacles
a. Balanus c) Saccostrea
b. Penaeus d) Panulirus
3. King crab belongs to family……..
a. Triospidae c)Limnadidae
b. Limulidae d) Cytherellidae
4. The swimming legs of prawns
a. Pereopods c) Pleopods
b. Uropod d) Telson
5. The word “Mollusca” indicates……….
a. Hard bodied animals c) Hard shell animals
b. Soft bodied animals d) Soft shell animals
6. The largest invertebrate Phylum is………
a. Mollusca c) Coelenterata
b. Crustacea d) Porifera
7. The periodic shedding of exoskeleton by crustaceans is called.......
a. Symbiosis c) Aestivation
b. Ecdysis d) Mutation
8. Scientific name of Godavari prawn is…….
a. Macrobrachium rosenbergii c) Macrobrachium rude
b. Macrobrachium malcolmsonii d) Penaeus monodon
9. Cowry shells belong to Genus………
a. Cyprea c) Xancus
b. Babylonia d) Trochus
10. Cuttle fish belongs to group……….
a. Octapoda c) Decapoda
b. Ostracoda d) Neogastropoda
11. Byssus threads are characteristics of ....................
a. Cephalopoda c) Bivalvia
b. Gastropoda d) Scaphopoda
12. Lobsters come under Class ...........
a. Insecta c) Crustacea
b. Arachnida d) Brachyura

1
13. Hermit crabs come under.......
a. Brachyura c) Macrura
b. Anomura d) Cuticura
14. Megalopa is the larval stage of ........
a. Lobsters c) Prawns
b. Crabs d) Squilla
15. ......... expel a cloud of dark ink to confuse predators
a. Cephalopods c)Bivalves
b. Gastropods d)Scaphopods
16. Fish lice falls under Genus.......
a. Argulus c) Pediculus
b. Lernea d) Porcellio
17. Abalone belongs to Genus....
a. Pictada c) Anadara
b. Perna d) Haliotis
18. Nautilus is a ........
a. Cephalopod c) Bivalve
b. Gastropod d) Scaphopod
19. Moina and Daphnia belong to .....
a. Copepoda c) Calanoida
b. Cladocera d) Amphipoda
20. Antarctic Krill is ............
a. Balanus amphitrite c) Procambarus clarkia
b. Euphausia superba d) Thenus orientalis
21. Star fish belong to phylum

a) Arthropoda c) Coelenterata
b) Mollusca d) Echinodermata
22. Red tide is caused by
a) Diatoms c) Dinoflagelates
b) Green algae d) All of these
23. Estuarine food chain is mainly based on
a. Detritus c) Nekton
b. Plankton d) None
24. Organisms spend part of their life cycle in the planktonic phase is called
a. Meroplankton c) Holoplankton
b. Megaplankton d) Mesoplankton
25. The cell wall of diatom is made up of
a. CaCO3 c) CaCl2
b. SiO2 d) CaO

2
26. The scientific name of green mussel is
a. Perna viridis c) Perna indica
b. Crassostrea madrasensis d) Perna edulis
27. Class Dinophyceae is characterized by the presence of ………..pair(s) of flagella.
a. Four c) One
b. Two d) Three
28. Which of the following is/are marine cladoceran(s)
a. Evadne c) Podon
b. Penila d) All of these
29. Which of the following is known as Portuguese man of war
a. Doliolum c) Asterias
b. Pelagia d) Physalia
30. Ciguatera poisoning is caused by

a. Diatom c) Green algae

b. Blue green algae d) Dinoflagellates

31. Orderly process of community change through modification of physical

environment is called

a. Ecological succession c) Ecological control

b. Ecological recession d) None of these

32. The entire area of open water of the sea is called

a. Pelagic realm c) Littoral zone
b. Benthic realm d) Tidal zone
33. The transition area where fresh and salt water meet and mix is called
a. Surf zone c) Photic zone
b. Estuarine zone d) Aphotic zone
34. Organisms spend their entire lives in the planktonic phase is called
a. Meroplankton c) Holoplankton
b. Megaplankton d) Mesoplankton
35. The scientific name of brown mussel is
a. Perna viridis c) Perna indica
b. Crassostrea madrasensis d) Perna edulis
36. Class Phaeophyceae is characterized as………..algae.
a. Green c) Red
b. Brown d) Blue Green
37. Which of the following is/are freshwater Cladoceran(s)

3
 a. Daphnia c) Bosmina
b. Moina d) All of these
38. Which of the following shows discontinuous distribution in Indian waters.
a. Bombay duck c) Coilia spp.
b. Oil sardine d) Both a & c
39. The primary productivity is expressed as
a. gC/m2/year c) gN2/m2/year
b. gP/ m2/year d) gK/m2/year
40. Length of coastline of India............km.
a. 9129 c) 8967
b. 8129 d) None of these
41. Potential yield of Indian EEZ is revalidated as………..
a. 3.93 mmt c) 4.53 mmt
b. 2.93 mmt d) 6.95 mmt
42. Production from marine capture fisheries of India is stagnated around …….. mmt.
a. 2 c) 4
b. 3 d) 5
43. Continental shelf area of India is………….
a. 0.5 km2 c) 0.5 million km2
b. 2.5 million km 2 d) 1. 5 million km2
44. The approximate coast line of Gujarat is ……….km.
a. 1500 c) 1600
b. 1400 d) 1900
45. …………… is a most selective gear.
a. Bag net c) Trawl net
b. Purse seine d) Gill net
46. Major source of agar-agar is from………….
a. Sargassum sp. C) Gelidium sp.
b. Hypnea sp. D) Laminaria sp.
47. Dol net is mainly used for catching………….
a. Sardine c) Ribbon fish
b. Mackerel d) Bombay duck
48. Masula boat is commonly used along ………… coast.
a. Kerala c) Andhra Pradesh
b. Karnataka d) Maharastra
49. Salinity of Arabian ocean is ………………… Bay of Bengal.
a. Less than c) Equal to
b. More than d) Not different from
50. Indian EEZ extends upto............km.

4
 a. 370.4 c) 340.7
b. 375.7 d) None of these
51. Potential yield of world ocean is……….
a. 300mmt c) 400 mmt
b. 200 mmt d) 500 mmt
52. Peruvian anchovy fishery is found in ………..
a. Indian ocean c) Arctic Ocean
b. Pacific ocean d) Atlantic Ocean
53. “Choodai” fishery is found in …………coast.
a. West Bengal c) Goa
b. Odisha d) Tamilnadu
54. Boat seine is mainly operated for catching….........
a. Sardine c) Ribbon fish
b. Mackerel d) Bombay duck
55. Scientific name of Alaska Pollok is.............
a. Theragra chalcogramma c) Clupiea heringus
b. Engraulis rinsens d) Gadus morhua
56. Maximum no. Of traditional boats are found along ………… coast.
a. Kerala c) Andhra Pradesh
b. Karnataka d) Maharashtra
57. . ……………….. is called as “Sleeping Giant” for inland fish production
a. Reservoir b. River
b. Lakes d. Canals
58. …………. Is the major tributary of Ganga river system
a. Chambal b. Yamuna
b. Koshi d. Ghagra
59. . ……………… river does not join into the Bay of Bengal
a. Godavari b. Krishna
b. Mahanadi d. Narmada
60. Chakara is a common feature during monsoon along the coast of state ...….
a. Kerala b. Karnataka
b. Tamilnadu d. Andhra Pradesh
61. Head quarter of CIFNET is located in…………..
a. Kerala b. Karnataka
b. Odisha d. Andhra Pradesh
62. Hirakud dam is built across river ………………….
a. Krishna b. Cauvery
b. Mahanadi d. Ganga
63. IPCC (Switzerland) catering the need of

5
 a. Assessment of climate change b. Assessment of ICAR scientist
b. Assessment of fish disease d. Assessment of the fish stocks
64. No. of maritime states in India is --------------------
a. 5 b. 8
b. 6 d. 9
65. Lates calcarifer shows …………. Hermaphroditism.
a. Protogynous b. Protandrous
b. Both a & b d. None of them
66. The most common cause for eutrophication in freshwater lakes is due to excess
of….......................
a. Ammonia b. Nitrates
b. Phosphates c. Sulphur
67. ………….. is an example of mass contact method
a. Group discussions b. Television
b. Personal letter d. Photographs
68. All India Coordinated Research Projects (AICRP) was launched during……….
a. 1962-63 b. 1966-67
b. 1968-69 d.1964-65
69. NAEP stands for………..
a. National Agricultural Extension Projects
b. National Agricultural Economics Projects
c. National Agricultural Economics Programmes
d. National Agricultural Extension Programmes
70. Indian Fisheries Act came into force during………..
a. 1987 b.1997
b. 1897 d. 1947
71. Ramsar convention related to………….
a. Conservation of wetlands b. Sustainable agriculture
b. Sustainable aquaculture d. All of the above
72. The headquarter of Biodiversity Authority of India is located at………
a. Delhi b. Bangalore
b. Hyderabad d. Chennai
73. Fisheries Extension falls under ….……. type of education system
a. Formal c. Informal
b. Non-formal d. Distant
74. Tetradotoxin is related to………..

a. Cuttlefish c. Puffer fish

b. Conus sp. D. Both b & c
75. Agricultural banks in India are refinanced by………..

6
 a. Reserve Bank c. World Bank
b. NABARD d. Federal Bank
76. …………… is a highly non selective gear
a. Boat seine c. Waghra jal
b. Shore seine d. Gill net
77. Cage culture technology for raising fish fingerlings has been popularized
by………
a. CIFE, Mumbai c. CIFA, Bhubaneswar
b. CIFT, Cochin d. CIFRI, Barrackpore
78. ………….is an active fishing gear
a. Trap c. Trawl net
b. Hook & line d. Gill net
79. Irrawardy dolphin is found in ………………
a. Pulicate lake c. Vembanad lake
b. Chilika lake d. None
80. Class Dinophyceae is characterized by …………...
a. Blue green algae c. Diatoms
b. Green algae d. Dinoflagellates
81. The end product of anaerobic Glycolysis is…………..
a. Ascorbic acid c. Lactic acid
b. Formic acid d. Acetic acid
82. Five fingered threadfin is………….
a. Polynemus indicus c. Polynemus paradiseus
b. Polynemus hetptadactylus d. All of the above
83. Rhizophora mangle is also known as……….
a. Green mangrove. C. Black mangrove
b. Red mangrove d. None of these
84. World fisheries data has been collected by............since 1947.
a. UNEP c. CITES
b. IUCN d. FAO
85. The scientific name of window pane oyster is ……..
a. Placenta placenta c. Saccostrea cucullata
b. Crassostrea madrasensis d. Donax spp
86. The ratio of fishing mortality to total mortality is called…………..
a. Exploitation rate c. Exploitation level
b. Exploitation ratio d. All of the above
87. State with highest fish consumption rate is …………
a. West Bengal c.Tamilnadu
b. Kerala d. Karnataka

7
88. River is a …………. Water body.
a. Lentic c. Lotic
b. Both a & b. D. None
89. Dol net is mainly used for catching ………
a. Sardines c. Mackerel
b. Bombay duck d. Ribbon fish
90. Mariana Trench is located in ………..
a. Indian ocean c. Pacific ocean
b. Arctic ocean d. Atlantic ocean
91. Estuarine food chain is mainly based on…………..
a. Detritus c. Nekton
b. Plankton d. None
92. Pole and line fishing is popular in …………….
a. Kerala c. Karnataka
b. Tamilnadu d. Lakshadweep
93. Area under Indian Exclusive Economic zone is…………..
a. 2.50 milliom sq. Km c. 0.202 million sq. Km
b. 20.02 million sq. Km d. 2.02 million sq. Km
94. ……………. Has developed By-catch Reduction Devices (BRDs) in India.
a. CIFRI, Kolkata c. CIFT, Cochin
b. CMFRI, Cochin d. CIBA, Chennai
95. Natural mortality rate (M) in most cases closely related to…………..
a. Individual growth rate, K c. T0
b. Total mortality, Z d. All of the above
96. Coracles are commonly used in …………
a. Estuaries c. Rivers
b. Reservoirs d. Both b & c
97. The area under Indian reservoirs cover is………….
a. 3.15 million ha. C. 5.5 million ha.
b. 2.5 million ha. D. 2.25 million ha.
98. Rampani” boats are mainly used for …………fishery
a. Groupers c.Sardine
b. Anchovy d. Mackerel
99. Fragilaria 8ceanic is preferred food for………………….
a. Indian oil sardine c. Mackerel
b. Baracuda d. Ribbon fish
100. ……………… contains maximum amount of water in its body composition
a. Ribbon fish c.Sardine
b. Mackerel d. Bombay Duck

8
101. Cod liver contains mainly vitamin ………………
a. A c. E
b. K d. C

102. HACCP stands for ……………….

a. Hazard Analysis Critical Control Programme
b. Hazard And Critical Control Points
c. Hazard Analysis Critical Control Process
d. Hazard Analysis Critical Control Points

103. Salinity of Arabian ocean is ………………… Bay of Bengal

a. Less than c. More than
b. Equal to d. Cann’t say
104. Which of the following is/are known as biological reference point(s)………
a. MSY c. Bmsy
b. F0.1 d. All of the above
105. In fish, moisture and fat content are ……….proportional to each other
a. Direct c. Inversely
b. No relation d. Equal to
106. The Fish aggregating Devices help in…….
a. Aggregating the fishes c. Both a & b
b. Saving labour and time in fishing d. None of these
107. Scientific name of Godavari prawn is…….
a. Macrobrachium rosenbergii c. Macrobrachium rude
b. Macrobrachium malcolmsonii d. Penaeus monodon
108. Sutlej river is part of .....................river system
a. Ganga river system c. East coast
b. West coast d. Indus
109. Fishing Gears commonly used in Ganga river system is/are…………
a. Drag net c. Both a & b
b. Cast net d. Trawl net
110. Brahmaputra is also called as.....................
a. Wein ganga c. Tungabhadra
b. Tsangpo d. None of these
111. Mettur dam is located on river.......................
a. Cauvery c. Krishna
b. Narmada d. Tapti

9
112. Ganga river system doesn’t not cover state.....................
a. UP c. West Bengal
b. Rajasthan d. Gujarat
113. Lobster trap has been developed by...........
a. CIFRI c. CIFT
b. CMFRI d. NRCCWF
114. Gahirmatha is the only marine wildlife sanctuary located in state.................
a. Odisha c. Assam
b. Gujarat d. Tamilnadu
115. ..............is/are Biosphere Reserve (s) of India.
a. Palk bay c. Sundarban
b. Gulf of Mannar d. Both b & c
116. River Krishna originates from............................
a. Surat c. Mahabaleswar
b. Amarkantak d. None of these
117. Gahirmatha marine wildlife sanctuary is famous for
a. Olive ridley turtle c. Rock oyster
b. Green turtle d. All of the above
118. Winkler’s method is used for estimation of ...............
a. Phosphate c. Nitrate
b. DO2 d. Potassium
119. Code of Conduct for Responsible fisheries (CCRF) has...................articles
a. 9.0 c. 10.0
b. 11.0 d. 12.0
120. Turtle Excluder Device (TED) is used first time along coast...............
a. Kerala c. Tamilnadu
b. Odisha d. Maharashtra
121. In CCRF article no.2 covers........................
a. Nature & scope of code c. Objective of code
b. General principle of code d. All of the above
122. The state having maximum continental shelf area is…………
a. Maharashtra c. Kerala
b. Odisha d. Gujarat
123. Which of the following state does not have fishing regulation act?
a. UP c. Gujarat
b. Orissa d. Maharashtra
124. United Nations conventions on the Laws of Sea-III (UNCLOS-III) held in
a. 1956 c. 1960

10
 b. 1973 d. 1990
125. World total fish production during 2011 was………….
a. 143.1 mmt c. 145.3 mmt
b. 154.0 mmt d. 90.4 mmt
126. Which gear is usually used in small water body?
a. Gill net c. Cast net
b. Trawl d. Purse seine
127. Logtak lake is located in the state............
a. Mizoram c. Tripura
b. Manipur d. Sikim
128. River raft widely used in the rivers and reservoirs of Andhra Pradesh is……….
a. Catamaran c. Dinghi
b. Masula d. Coracle
129. The VBGF parameter “t0” means………..
a. Length at zero age c. Age at length infinity
b. Growth coefficient d. Age at zero length
130. The Book.”Fauna of British India” written by……………
a. Francis Day c. H. L. Chaudhary
b. S.N. Diwedi d. K. H. Alikhuni
131. ...........is used for preparing ising glass
a. Skin c. Fins
b. Gills d. Swim bladder
132. Maximum bacterial load is found on ………………
a. Skin c. Intestine
b. Liver d. Gills
133. Masmin is obtained from...............
a. Tuna c. Mackerel
b. Catla d. Cat fish
134. Chitin is an example of …………..
a. Lipo Polysaccharides c. Polysaccharides
b. Protein d .Fatty acids
135. Estimation of MSY by Schaefer model is …………..
a. MSY = -a2/4b c. MSY= -a/2b
b. MSY = -a2/2b d. MSY= -a/4b
136. Oxidation of fat renders to...............
a. Reddining c. Blackening
b. Whitening d. Rancidity
137. Wet rendering method is used for producing..................
a. Kamaboko c. Fish oil
b. Ising glass d. All of the above

11
138. .............. is considered as reference bacteria in canned food
a. E. Coli c. Shigella
b. L. Cytogens d. Clostridium botulinum
139. Brachinous is a genus of............
a. Protozoa c. Rotifer
b. Porifera d. None of these
140. . .......................is used for collection of sediment sample
a. Peterson grab c. Wind vane
b. Hensen net d. Dredger
141. Deeper water sample is collected by............
a. Peterson grab c. Wind vane
b. Hensen net d. Nansen reversing bottle
142. As concentration of DO2 decreases, CO2..............
a. Decreases c. Increases
b. Remains constant d. None
143. Temperature and DO are...............
a. Directly proportional c. No relation at all
b. Inversely proportional d. Can’t say
144. Coastal Regulation Zones notification came in..................
a. 2002 c. 1991
b. 1897 d. 1992
145. Choodai fishery is prevalent in..................
a. Karnataka c. AP
b. Tamilnadu d. Goa
146. Student’s t-test is used when..............
a. Sample size less than 30 c. Sample size more than 30
b. Comparing mean values d. Comparing of two variances
147. Standard deviation is square root of......................
a. Standard error c. Variance
b. Mean d. Median
148. L∞ and K in Gulland and Holt are………..respectively.
a. –a/b and –b c. –ln b
b. –b and –a/b d. a/(1-b)

149. Plotting the natural logarithm of numbers against their respective age is
called……..
a. Catch curve c. Growth curve
b. Catch scenario d. Yield curve

12
150. Individuals belong to same age group and same species is called................
a. Unit stock c. One batch
b. Cohort d. Multi-Stock
151. Lc 50 lethal concentration of toxicant indicates...................
a. Less than 50% of population dies
b. More than 50% of population survives
c. Exactly 50 % of population dies
d. None of them
152. . ................is used as an absorbent for oil pollutant
a. Chitosan c. Chitin
b. Agar d. All of the above
153. ...............fishes are more prone to histamine production
a. Silirudae c. Scombridae
b. Claridae d. All of the above
154. Clupeid without abdominal scute is.................
a. Tenualosa ilisha c. Nematolosa nasus
b. Chirocentrus dorab d. All of the above
155. Ambergris is produced from.............
a. Sperm whale c. Dolphin
b. Killer whale d. All of the above
156. Fishes die after their first spawning is called...........
a. Semelparous c. Viviparous
b. Itereoparous d. Ovoviviparous
157. . ............is used to compare mean value of paired samples
a. t-test c. Z –test
b. F-test d. None of these
158. Whale shark is………….
a. Oviparous c. Viviparous
b. Ovoviviparous d. None
159. If treatment and replicates are same and more than 9 then.........is used for
designing the experiment
a. RBD c.CRD
b. LSD d. None of these
160. CRD is used when.................
a. Treatment constant replicates constant
b. Treatment constant replicates vary
c. Both vary
d. None of these
161. Fresh water dolphin found in river..............
a. Cauvery c. Krishna

13
 b. Ganga d. All of the above
162. Density of Fresh water is maximum at ............
a. 4.0 o c c. 4.5 o c
b. 5.5 o c d. 3.5 o c
163. Schaefer model is an example of ...............
a. Holistic model c. Swept Area Survey
b. Analytical model d. None of these
164. Presence of scutes on the lateral line is the characteristic of family
a. Carangidae c. Sciaenidae
b. Polynemidae d. Scombridae

165. ..................kcal heat is required for melting 1 kg ice

a. 60 c. 80
b. 20 d. 50
166. Largest cephalopod in terms of length & weight is
a. Loligo duvanceli c. Sepiella inermis
b. Sepia pharonis d. Sepiotutheis lessoniana

167. Maithon reservoir is located in state.................

a. UP b. Bihar
b. Jharkhand d. MP
168. ……………is an air breathing cat fish
a. Heteropneustes fossilis c. Channa marulius
b. C. Striatus d. C. Punctatus
169. ….is an exotic fish to India
a. Oreochromis mossambicus c. Labeo calbasu
b. Catla catla d. Tor tor
170. The distress sale of produce refers to
a. Selling price>MSP
b. Selling price<MSP
c. Selling price>Cost of production
d. Selling price<Cost of production
171. …..is a tributary of river Godavari
a. Wain Ganga c. Both a & b
b. Manjira d. Betwa
172. Beach-de-mer is obtained from……..
a. Jelly fish c. Sea cucumber
b. Murrels d. Shark fin
173. Vembnad lake is a………………
14
 a. Back water c. Lagoon
b. Swamp d. None of these
174. The Head Quarter of Chilka Development Authority is at
a. Cuttack c. Bhubaneswar
b. Vishakhapatnam d. Hyderabad
175. The biological optimal catch is called as
a. MEY c. MSY
b. Fmsy d.SOY

176. As per the basic concept of logistic model, is the effort goes on increasing the
CPUE goes on
a. Decreasing c. Increasing
b. Adding d. Remaining same

177. The value of M/K lies between …………………..

a. 2.5-3.0 c. 0.5-1.0
b. 1.5-2.5 d. 5.5-6.5
178. Sambhar lake is located in state……..
a. Punjab c. Rajasthan
b. UP d. J & K
179. Rajsamand lake is in state ………….
a. Up c. Punjab
b. Rajasthan d. MP
180. Eagle ray is found in ………lake of India
a. Logtak c. Chilika
b. Sambhar d.Vembnad
181. A& N islands come under CRZ…….category
a. I c. II
b. III d. IV
182. ………….is the most effective gear for exploiting the demersal resources
a. Hook and lines c. Purse seine
b. Gill net d. Trawl net
183. ………………is an epipelagic planktonic shrimp
a. P. Monodon c. Acetes indicus
b. F. Indicus d. P. Semisalcatus
184. Analytical model requires……………….. sets of input parameters.

15
 a. Four c. Three
b. Two d. Five
185. Pneumatophores are found in ………………………
a. Seaweeds c. Mangroves
b. Sea grasses d. All of the above
186. The largest class of phylum Mollusca is…………..
a. Gastropoda c. Bivalvia
b. Cephalopoda d. Crustacea
187. …………………….are fastest marine invertebrates
a. Gastropods c. Bivalves
b. Cephalopods d. Crustacean
188. The shape of the trawl net selectivity curve is ……………

a. Parabolic c. Sigmoid
b. Bell shaped d. Rhomboid
189. For a virgin fish stock, the relationship of mortalities is, Z =……….
a. F+M c. M
b. F-M d. M2
190. ……….coast is famous for ornamental gastropods production.
a. Gujarat c. Maharaashtra
b. Goa d. Tamilnadu
191. Chumming is associated with ………………
a. Hook & lines c. Squid jigging
b. Pole & line d. All of the above
192. The OLS estimates are obtained by minimizing………….
a. ESS c. RSS
b. TSS d. All of these
193. Farrakka barrage commissioned during the year………..
a. 1975 c. 1970
b. 1960 d. 1965
194. Pulicate lake is located at borders of states………….
a. UP & Uttarakhand c. MP & Chhatishgarh
b. AP & TN d. Kerala & Karnataka
195. Gears operated in Godavari and Krishna estuaries are…………
a. Rangoon net c. Stake net
b. Cast net d. All of the above
196. Occurrence of too many old fish indicates…………..
a. Overexploitation c. Exploitation
b. Underexploitation d. None of these

16
197. MSY = 0.5*M*Bv Gulland formula is used for estimation of maximum
sustainable yield for………….
a. Virgin stock c. Exploited stock
b. Shared stock d. All of the above

198. Growth over fishing referrers to………..

a. Catching of juveniles c. Catching brooders
b. Catching of more by-catch d. None of these
199. The length w. R. T. Zero increment is…………
a. L∞ c. Lm
b. Lmax d. Lc
200. Tropical short lived species have………. ‘K’ value.
a. High c. Medium
b. Low d. None
201. Protonibea diacanthus is locally known as
a. Ghol c. Koth
b. Dhoma d. Dara
202. Father of ichthyology is
a. Linnaeus c. Peter Artidi
b. Aristotle d. Francis Day
203. Growth coefficient (K) is .............proportional to gonad weight and fecundity.
a. Inversely c. Equally
b. Directly d. Not related
204. Who has given the concept of fishing down the food web?
a. Sparre c. Pauly
b. Venemma d. Gayanilo
205. The original specimen described by the original author is called
a. Para Type c. Holo Type
b. Neo Type d. Lecto Type

-----------------------------

17
 ORNAMENTAL FISH BREEDING AND AQUARIUM
1. In India, the first aquarium called Taraporevala aquarium was built in Mumbai in 1951.
2. hobby of ornamental fish keeping as pets has originated from –China
3. Indigenous species—
Scientific Name Common Name
Puntius denisonii Deninson, S barb
Puntius conchonius Rosy barb
Colisa chune Honey gourami
Brachydanio rerio Zebra fish
Chandra nama Glass fish
Botia lohachata Reticulated loach
Notopterus notopterus Black knife fish
Lebeo calbasu All black shark
Labeo nandina Pencil gold labeo
Oreichthys cosuatis Hi fin barb
4. Types of plants—
a. Floating plants-- Eicchornia, Pistia, Spirodela, Lemna, Azolla, Wolffia, Salvinia, Riccia
b. Emergent plants-- Nymphaea, Nelumbo, Nymphoides
c. Submerged plants—
i. Rooted plants : Hydrilla, Najas, Ottelia, Vallisneria, Potomogeton,
Lagarosiphon, Chara, Nitella.
ii. Devoid of roots : Ceratophyllum, Utricularia
d. Marginal plants—
i. Typha, Cyperus, Ipomea, Eleocharis, Cryptocoryne, Echinodorus.
5. Marsilia-- Four leaved water clover, clover fern
6. Vallisneria-- Tape-grass, eel grass, ribbon grass
7. Ipomoea-- Water spinach
8. Ceratophyllum --Horn wort
9. Aponogeton-- Lace plant
10. Ceratopteris - Indian fern (or) water sprite
11. Crypotocoryne - Hidden club
12. Myriophyllum – Milfoil
13. Sagittaria - Arrow weed
14. Eleocharis-- Hair grass or needle grass
15. Disease and prophylaxis---
a. Red Pest—Acriflavine
b. Mouth Fungus—chloromycetin
c. Dropsy-- chloromycetin (chloramphenicol)
d. Tail Rot & Fin Rot-- chloromycetin (chloramphenicol)
e. Velvet or Rust—Acriflavine
f. Ichthyphthiriosis-- quinine hydrochloride/ Quinine sulphate/ malachite green
g. Fungus (Saprolegnia)-- methylene blue(for fish eggs)
 h. Nematoda-- Food containing Thiabendazole
i. Leeches—Trichlorofon
16. Koi-carp-- called nishikigoi
17. Xiphophorus(Platy) --- most variable of animals within the natural environment
18. "Trophy" --means the whole or any part of any captive or wild animal
19. "Taxidermy" --means the curing, preparation or preservation of trophies
20. "Vermin"-- means any wild animal specified in Schedule V
21. schedule I of wild life act—
a. PART I – MAMMALS
b. PART II – AMPHIBIANS AND REPTILES
c. PART II A – FISHES
d. PART IV- CRUSTACEA AND INSECTS
e. PART IV A – COELENTERATES
f. PART IV B – MOLLUSCA
g. Part IV C – ECHINODERMATA
 FISH PATHOLOGY

1. Bacterial kidney disease is caused by _________

a) Renibacterium salmonarium
b) Flexibacter columnaris
c) Vibrio anguillarum
d) Aerinibsa saknibucuda

2. Causative agent for columnaris disease__________

a) Pseudomonas
b) Flexibacter
c) Aeromonas
d) Edwarsiella

3. Aphanomyces invadens is the causative agent for ___________

a) Taura syndrome
b) EUS
c) Larval mycosis
d) Velvet disease

4. Cotton shrimp disease is caused by ___________

a) Protozoans
b) Wssv
c) Microsporidian
d) Poor water quality

5. Luminous bacterial disease in shrimp is caused by ____________

a) Leucothrix minor
b) Vibrio anguillarum
c) Vibrio harveyi
d) Aeromonas salmonicida

6. Furunculosis is caused by _________________

a) Pseudomonas aeroginosa
b) Vibrio anguillarum
c) Vibrio cholera
d) Aeromonas salmonicida
7. Enteric red mouth disease is caused by_________
a) Aeromonas hydrophila
b) Pseudomonas sp
c) Yersinia ruckeri
d) Mycobacterium sp

8. Black grub disease is caused by______________

a) Cestodes
b) Nematodes
c) Digenetic trematodes
d) Protozoan

9. The most pathogenic virus of shrimp____________

a) MBV
b) BP
c) WSSV
d) HPPV

10.Whirling disease in fish is caused by ____________

a) Myxosoma cerebralis
b) Pseudomonas fluorescens
c) Achyla hoferi
d) Leptolignia marina

11.Dropsy in fish is caused by _____________

a) Tricodina
b) Myxosporidia
c) Aeromonas
d) Vibrio sp

12.Gill rot in fishes is caused by _____________

a) Branchiomyces
b) Bacteria
c) Saprolegnia
d) None of these
13.Ich disease is caused by ___________
a) Aeromonas
b) Pseudomonas
c) Ichthyopthirius
d) None of these

14.Fin rot and tail rot is caused by ___________

a) Pseudomonas
b) Aeromonas
c) Ichtyopthrius
d) Gyrodactylus

15.The infective larval stage of digenetic trematodes______________

a) Miracidium
b) Nauplius
c) Metacercaria
d) None of these

16.Scoliosis and lordosis in carps occur due to ______________

a) Vit C deficiency
b) Vit B deficiency
c) Vit A deficiency
d) Calcium deficiency

17.Gas bubble disease is associated with super saturation of _______

a) O2
b) Co2
c) So2
d) NH3

18.Argulus is commonly found in ponds with________

a) Low salinity
b) Low alkalinity
c) High turbidity
d) High organic matter
19.The haemoflagellate protozoan parasite of fish ___________
a) Trypanasoma
b) Tricodina
c) Microsporidian
d) Amylodinium

20.Fish tape worm is known as___________

a) Bothriocephalus
b) Diphyllopthrium
c) Ticodina
d) Ligula

21.Protozoan gill disease of Penaeid shrimp is caused by _______

a) Zoothamnium
b) Epistylis
c) Costia
d) Vorticella

22.IHHNV contains_______________
a) DNA containing parvolike virus
b) RNA containing picorna like virus
c) DNA containing picorna like virus
d) RNA containing parvolike virus

23.Gram negative bacteria differs from gram positive bacteria in _________

a) Their response to gram stain
b) Their susceptibility to antibiotics
c) The makeup of their cell walls
d) All the above

24.External crustacean parasites on carps___________

a) Lernea
b) Sacculina
c) Artemia
d) Cypris
25.Gammaxene is used to control __________
a) Lernea
b) Argulus
c) Glochidia
d) Costia

26.Formalin can be used for the treatment of _____________

a) Ectoparasite
b) Endoparasite
c) Viral diseases
d) Bacterial diseases

27.Abdominal dropsy in fishes is also known as ____________

a) Bacterial hemorrhagic septicemia
b) Enteric disease
c) Runt disease
d) Pseudo kidney disease

28.External or internal bleeding caused by rupture of blood vessels is known as______

a) Haemolysis
b) Hyperplasia
c) Histolysis
d) Hemorrhage

29._____________is a stress hormone

a) Arginine
b) Urotensin
c) Cortisol
d) Thyroxine

30.Increase in cell size is called as________

a) Hyperplasia
b) Hypertrophy
c) Atrophy
d) Neoplasia
31.Increase in cell numbers is called as_________
a) Hyperplasia b)hypertrophy c) atrophy d)neoplasia

32.Viruses are classified based on their ____________

a) RNA
b) DNA
c) RNA & DNA
d) RNA & DNA , PROTEIN PROFILE

33.Find the odd one out:

a) ELISA
b) Immunodot
c) Western blot
d) PCR

34.What is cytopathetic effect?

a) Damage to cell by bacteria
b) Damage to cell by virus
c) Damage to cell by protozoans
d) Damage to cell by fungus

35.The first report of EUS outbreak in India was in the year_________

a) 1988
b) 1991
c) 1990
d) 1993

36.The first report of WSSV outbreak in India was in the year_________

a) 1984
b) 1992
c) 1994
d) 1996

37.The function of opsonin is to __________

a) Enhance the rate of phagocytosis
b) Clear the cell debris
c) Prevent the viral entry
d) Precipitate the pathogens
38.Transferin starves bacteria by binding ___________in serum
a) Iron
b) Magnesium
c) Calcium
d) Sodium

39.Interferon is ____________
a) Antifungal protein
b) Antiviral protein
c) Antibacterial protein
d) Component of specific defense mechanism

40.______________is regarded as the primary lymphoid organ

a) Kidney
b) Heart
c) Liver
d) Thymus

41.Antibodies are synthesized by __________

a) Plasma cells
b) Memory cells
c) Follicular cells
d) RBCs

42._____________are the preparations of antigens derived from pathogenic organisms

rendered non-pathogenic by various means
a) Antibodies
b) Vaccines
c) Probiotics
d) None

43.The most important character of specific immunity is/are__________

a) Specificity
b) Memory
c) Specificity & memory
d) Adaptive changes
44._____________is used to control EUS
a) CIFAX
b) KMnO4
c) OTC
d) NONE
45.CIFAX designed by_____________
a) CIFE
b) CIBA
c) CIFA
d) CMFRI
46.Gaffikemia is the disease related to ___________
a) Lobsters
b) Crab
c) Shrimp
d) Fish
47.The teleost fish has the following class of immunoglobulin__________
a) IgE
b) IgM
c) IgA
d) IgG
48.PCR method of detection of Vibrio cholera was standardized by_________
a) CIFE
b) CCMB
c) CIFT
d) CMFRI
49.DNA polymerase is isolated from ___________
a) Thermos aquaticus
b) Aeromonas
c) Pseudomonas
d) All the above
50.Cotton wool disease in fish is caused by ____________
a) Saproegniasp
b) Branchimyces sp
c) Achyla sp
d) Exophila sp

51.Red tail disease in shrimp is caused by___________

a) MBV B) TSV C) WSSV D)IHHNV
52.The concentration of KMno4 for treating argulus infection_______
a) 10 ppm
b) 5 ppm
c) 20 ppm
d) 2 ppm
53.The common medium employed for fish cell line is ________
a) TCBS
b) MEM
c) TSA
d) None
54.Blue disease in shrimp is caused due to ______________
a) Bacteria
b) Virus
c) Fungi
d) Nutritional deficiency
55.ELISA is basically___________
a) Hematological test
b) Immunological test
c) Calorimetric test
d) Electrophoresis
56.MBV is diagnosed by squash method using the stain___________
a) Malachite green
b) Giemsa stain
c) Ziel-neilson stain
d) Gram stain
57.Chronic soft shell syndrome in shrimps is caused due to the deficiency of _______
a) Ca & P
b) Fe & Cu
c) Mg &Mn
d) Ca & Fe

58.The nutritional disorder reported due to methionine deficiency________

a) Skin discoloration
b) Fin erosion
c) Cataract
d) Slime disease
59.Cytokines are produced by ________
a) Viral infected cells
b) Lymphocytes
 c) Cytotoxic cells
d) T helper cells

60.Hybridoma is the cell formed by the fusion of__________

a) Melanin cell with B lymphocyte
b) Meninges cell with antibody producing cell
c) Myeloma cell with T lymphocyte
d) Myeloma cell with B lymphocyte

61.The most common fungus that attack the fry and fingerlings ________
a) Saprolegnia parasitica
b) Branchiomyces species
c) Aspergillus sp
d) Tricodina sp
62.Malathion dosage for argulosis disease_________
a) 0.25 ppm
b) 25 ppm
c) 0.025 ppm
d) 0.5 ppm
63.Condensation of nuclei of cells ______________
a) Pyknosis
b) Apoptosis
c) Karyorexis
d) Karyolysis
64.L-15 medium is used for the isolation of ____________
a) Virus
b) Bacteria
c) Fungus
d) None
65.The rapid and advanced PCR is _________
a) Nested PCR
b) RT PCR
c) Multiplex PCR
d) Double time PCR
66.WSSV is also called as _______________
a) HHNBV
b) RV-PJ
c) SEMBV
d) All
 67.PCR was discovered in the year __________
a) 1990
b) 1983
c) 1980
d) 1974
68.Methemoglobinemia is related to __________ toxicity
a) Ammonia
b) Nitrate
c) Nitrite
d) All
69.Infectious Pancreatic Necrosis virus mainly affects _________
a) Carps
b) Channel catfish
c) Salmonids
d) Shrimp
70.White tail disease is caused in __________
a) Shrimp
b) Fresh water prawn
c) Salmon
d) Carps

71. Match the following

1 Dactylogyrus sp A Skin fluke

2 Gyrodactylus sp B Gill fluke
3 Lernea C Carp lice
4 Ergasilus D Anchor worm
5 Argulus E Gill lice
72

1 Cestodes A Sanguinicola sp
2 Nematodes B Tape worm
3 Trematodes C Thorny headed worms
4 acanthocephalans D Round worms
5 Blood fluke E Flat worms
73

1 Denaturation A 550 c
2 Annealing B 940 c
3 Extension C 720 c
4 Anesthetic D ERM
5 vaccine E MS 222
74

1 Protozoan disease A Lymphocystis disease

2 Bacterial disease B Tricodinosis
3 Mycotic disease C Hemorrhagic septicemia
4 Gill rot disease D Branchiomycosis
5 Viral disease E Saprolegniasis
75

1 Primer length in PCR A Anesthetic

2 L-15 medium B Vibrio isolation
3 TCBS medium C Virus isolation
4 MEM D 20-24 base pairs
5 Sodium amytal E Cell lines

Answers –pathology

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
A B B C C D C C C A
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
C A C A C A A D A A
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
C A D A A A A D C B
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A D D B A C A A B D
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A B C A A A B C A A
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
B A B D B A A C D D
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A A A A B D B C C B
MATCH

71 1-B 2-A 3-D 4-E 5-C

72 1-B 2-D 3-E 4-C 5-A
73 1-B 2-A 3-C 4-E 5-D
74 1-B 2-C 3-E 4-D 5-A
75 1-D 2-C 3-B 4-E 5-A

EZHIL NILAVAN,
PG SCHOLAR,
AQUATIC ANIMAL HEALTH,
CENTRAL INSTITUTE OF FISHERIES EDUCATION,
ANDHERI (W), MUMBAI 61.
e mail: [email protected]
 MARINE ENVIRONMENT
Q. 1. The dry zone of the ocean is
a. Supralittoral Zone b. Intertidal zone c. Eulittoral Zone d. Sublittoral zone

Q.2. The sudden sloppy zone of the ocean is

a. Continental shelf b. Continental slope c. None d. Both a & b

Q.3. Deepest zone of the ocean is

a. bathyal zone b. Abyssal zone c. Hadal Zone d. All

Q.4.Trenches are feature of _____________ zone of the ocean

a. bathyal zone b. Abyssal zone c. Hadal Zone d. All

Q.5.The zone of total darkness in ocean is beyond______________ depth

a. 1000m b. 2000m c. 4000m d. 6000m

Q.6. Deep-sea refers to

a. Beyond 200m b. Beyond 1000m c. Beyond 2000m d. Beyond 4000m

PROFILE OF THE SEA-FLOOR

Q. 1. ‘Deep-ocean rises’ in ocean

a. Islands b. Seamounts c. Guyots d. All

Q. 2. ‘Deep-ocean rises’ in ocean

a. oceanic rises b. Oceanic ridges c. Both a & b d. None

Q.3. Non-seismic rise in ocean

a. Oceanic rises b. Islands c. Seamounts d. Guyots

Q.4. Of the given which is not a ‘Deep-ocean rises’ ?

a. Ocean trenches b. Islands c. Seamounts d. Guyots

Q.5. Highest number of ocean trenches are found in

a. Pacific ocean b. Atlantic ocean c. Indian ocean d. Antarctic ocean

Q.6. World Deepest ocean trench is in

a. Pacific ocean b. Atlantic ocean c. Indian ocean d. Antarctic ocean

Q.7. Marianas trench is in

a. Pacific ocean b. Atlantic ocean c. Indian ocean d. Antarctic ocean

Q.8. Depth of Marianas trench is

a. 11,034m b. 10,850m c. 10,176m d. 10, 766m
Q.9. Depth of Tonga trench is
a. 11,034m b. 10,850m c. 10,176m d. 10, 766m

Q.10. Depth of Tonga trench is

a. 11,034m b. 10,850m c. 10,176m d. 10, 766m

Q.11. Trenches found in Indian ocean

a. Java Trench b. Chagos Trench c. Vema Trench d. All

SEDIMENTS OF THE SEA-FLOOR

Q. 1. Sources of sediments in ocean

a. volcanic b. Erosion c. Skeletal remains d. All

Q.2. Sources of sediments in ocean

a. Cosmic b. inorganic precipitation c. Chemical transformation d. All

Q.3. Sediment of ocean having influence on land is

a. Terrigenous sediments b. Pelagic sediments c. Both a & b d. All

Q.4.The principal constituents of ‘Calcareous oozes’

a. CaCO3 b. MgCO3 c. Both a & b d. None

Q.5.The ‘Calcareous oozes’ is formed by

a. Foraminiferans b. pteropods c. coccoliths d. All

Q.6. The ‘Siliceous oozes’ is formed by

a. diatoms only b. radiolarians only c. Both a & b d. None

Q.7. The main constituent of ‘red-clay’ is

a. silica b. Al2O3 c. Organic materials d) All

CLASSIFICATION OF PLANKTON
Q. 1. Based on nutrition plankton are classified into
a. Phytoplankton b. Zooplankton c. Both a &b d. None

Q.2. Based on life history plankton are classified into

a. Holoplankton b. Meroplankton c. Both a &b d. None

Q.3. Infraplankton come under plankton classification of

a. Nutrition b. Life history c. Depth d. size

Q.4. Mesoplankton come under plankton classification of

a. Nutrition b. Depth c. Size d. Both b &c
Q.5.Net plankton are
a. Megaplankton b. Macroplankton c. Mesoplankton d. All

Q.6.Ultraplankton are
a. <5 µm b. <60 µm c. Both a &b d. None

Q.7.Nannoplankton are
a. <5 µm b. <60 µm c. 5-60 µm d. None

Q.8.______________________ is a heterotrophic plankton

a. phytoplankton b. zooplankton c. Both d. None

Q.9. Megaplankton, macroplankton, mesoplankton, microplankton, nannoplankton, picoplankton,

femtoplankton and ultraplankton come under plankton classification of
a. Nutrition b. Life history c. Depth d. size

PHYTOPLANKTON
Q.1. Essential nutrients of phytoplankton growth
a. nitrates b. phosphates c. silicates d. All

Q.2. Diatoms are dominant phytoplankton which belong to the class

a. Dinophyceae b. Chlorophyceae c. Myxophyceae d. Bacillariophyceae

Q.3. Dinoflagellates belong to the class

a. Dinophyceae b. Chlorophyceae c. Myxophyceae d. Bacillariophyceae

Q.4. Green algae belong to the class

a. Dinophyceae b. Chlorophyceae c. Myxophyceae d. Bacillariophyceae

Q.5. Blue-green algae belong to the class

a. Dinophyceae b. Chlorophyceae c. Cyanophyceae d. Bacillariophyceae

Q.6. Cell wall of diatom is called

a. Frustule b. Girdle c. Raphe d. Sulcus

Q.7. Mobility of diatom is due to presence of

a. Frustule b. Girdle c. Raphe d. Sulcus

Q.8. Overlapping region of diatom valves is called

a. Frustule b. Girdle c. Raphe d. Sulcus

Q.9. Cell covering of diatom are

a. Epitheca & hypotheca b. Epicone & hypocone c. both a &b d. None
Q.10. Cell covering of dinoflagellates are
a. Epitheca & hypotheca b. Epicone & hypocone c. both a &b d. None

Q.11. Floatation adaptation of diatoms are

a. spines b. oil droplets c. disc shaped body d. All

Q.12. Diatoms belong to order

a. Centrales b. Pennales c. Both a & b d. None

Q.13. Bilaterally symmetrical diatoms belong to order

a. Centrales b. Pennales c. Both a & b d. None

Q.14. Radially symmetrical diatoms belong to order

a. Centrales b. Pennales c. Both a & b d. None

Q.15. Common constituent of cell wall of diatoms

a. Silicon dioxide b. lipid c. Both a & b d. None
 ICAR MODEL QUESTION

FISHERIES BIOLOGY

1. Fishes belong to the order Myxiniformes are commonly called as____________

a) Lung fishes
b) Lampreys
c) Hagfishes
d) Bony fishes

2. The type of tail in which the upper and lower lobes are same in size is known as_____________

a) Homocercal
b) Heterocercal
c) Emarginated
d) Truncate

3. Adipose fin as second dorsal fin is present in ___________________

a) Salmon
b) Catfish
c) Sting ray
d) Mackerel

4. Bottom feeding fish have _________mouth

a) Terminal
b) Pointed
c) Sub terminal
d) Superior

5. The first chamber of fish heart is known as____________

a) Bulbus arteriosus
b) Sinus venosus
c) Atrium
d) Auricle

6. Fishes having mixed diet is known as_________

a) Stenophagus
b) Monophagus
c) Euryphagus
d) Microphagus

7. Semelparity is a type of reproduction where___________

a) The adult spawn and die

b) The adult guard the eggs
c) The adult spawn and go away
d) The adult carry the eggs with them
8. Oxidised haemoglobin which cannot function as respiratory pigment is known as______________

a) Heme
b) Oxyhaemoglobin
c) Globin
d) Methemoglobin

9. Skates belong to the family__________________

a) Pristidae
b) Rajidae
c) Torpedinidae
d) Squalidae

10. Scientific name of lizard fish________

a) Harpodon nehereus
b) Saurida tumbil
c) Atropus atropus
d) Silage sihama

11. Electric organs are present in __________________

a) Rajiformes
b) Torpediniformes
c) Squaliformes
d) Hexanchiformes

12 . The dorsal fin is short and feather like in ___________

a) Notopterus
b) Sardine
c) Tuna
d) Horse mackerel

13. Herring and anchovies belong to the order___________

a) Elopiformes
b) Anguilliformes
c) Clupeiformes
d) Perciformes

14. Gambusia affinis is also known as__________

a) Lantern fish
b) Mosquito fish
c) Guppy
d) Zebra fish

15. Catla has ____________type of mouth

a) Superior
b) Inferior
c) Sub terminal
d) Terminal
16. Teeth present on the tongue of fishes is known as______________

a) Vomer
b) Palatine
c) Glossohyal
d) Pterygoid

17.____________scale are found in cartilaginous fishes

a) Placoid
b) Cycloid
c) Ctenoid
d) Ganoid

18. The term taxonomy was proposed by__________

a) Rao
b) Randolle
c) Candolle
d) Sampson

19.___________the world’s largest living arthropod

a) American Cray fish

b) Mantis shrimp
c) Japanese spider crab
d) Krill

20. Class of family argulidae______________

a) Cirripedia
b) Copepod
c) Branchiyura
d) Mystacocarida

21. Scientific name of kuruma shrimp___________

a) Penaeus semisulcatus
b) Penaeus indicus
c) Penaeus merguiensis
d) Penaeus japonicas

22. Among the crustaceans the most dominant representative group in the Indian fishery _______

a) Crab
b) Prawn
c) Lobster
d) Bivalve

23. The brown mussel available in the Indian coast_______________

a) Perna indica
b) Perna viridis
c) Modiolus spp.
d) Pinus nigreum
24. Chalky type of internal shell of cuttle fish is called as__________

a) Cuttle stick
b) Cuttle bone
c) Fan shell
d) Cuttle pad

25. Fastest swimming invertebrate is__________

a) Sepia
b) Loligo
c) Octopus
d) Prawn

26. Common name of Metapenaeus affinis____________

a) Tiger prawn
b) Banana prawn
c) Brown prawn
d) Flower prawn

27. Concentration of formalin required to preserve the marine shell fishes________

a) 5%
b) 10%
c) 15%
d) 20%

28. Spermatozoa receiving organ in female penaeid prawn is ________

a) Petasma
b) Thelycum
c) Hard point
d) Appendix musculina

29. Blood of crustaceans is blue due to_________

a) Haemoglobin
b) Erythrocruorin
c) Haemocyanin
d) Blood lymph

30. Taxonomy which deals with the inter specific variations and their evolutionary relationship

a) Alpha taxonomy
b) Beta taxonomy
c) Gamma taxonomy
d) Classical taxonomy

31. A poisonous shelled mollusk________

a) Terebra
b) Conus
c) Xancus
d) Babylonia
32. Bivalve species known as ship the ship worm_________

a) Mya spp.
b) Bornea spp.
c) Teredo spp.
d) Hiatella spp.

33. Poikilothermy in the true sense means_____________

a) Cold-blooded
b) Warm blooded
c) Cold blooded but with limitations on temperature tolerance
d) None of the above

34. Most abundant form of natural food of fishes____________

a) Plankton
b) Nekton
c) Benthos
d) Detritus

35. Planktivores , filter the food particles from the water by adaptations known as ____________

a) Gill filaments
b) Gill lamellae
c) Gill rackers
d) Gills

36. Guts of mullet carry a characteristic feature known as ____________

a) Spiral valve
b) Gizzard
c) Gastric mill
d) Pyloric ceacae

37. The largest digestive gland in fishes is__________

a) The liver
b) The pancreas
c) Spleen
d) Midgut gland

38. Haemopoetic tissue in fishes is concentrated in ___________

a) Liver
b) Bone marrow
c) Spleen and kidneys
d) None of the above

39. The part of the stomach adjacent to the intestine____________

a) Pyloric stomach
b) Stomach proper
c) Cardiac stomach
d) Gastric gland
40. The yearly ring formed on the scales of fishes is ________

a) Circulus
b) Radulus
c) Focus
d) Annulus

41. Isometric growth_____________________

a) b =3
b) b>3
c) b<3
d) none of the above

42. Conus arteriosus is present in____________________

a) Bony fishes
b) Elasmobranches
c) Labyrinth fishes
d) None of the above

43. Spiral valves are the characteristic feature of _____________

a) Whales
b) Barracudas
c) Tuna
d) Sharks

44. Which of the following is not true of hermaphrodites_______

a) Simultaneous
b) Protandrous
c) Protogynous
d) Bisexual

45. Which of the following is not true of migration_______________

a) Alimental
b) Gametic
c) Climatic
d) Wandering

46. Quantity of egg depends upon____________

a) Size of the egg

b) Weight of the egg
c) Amount of the yolk present
d) All of the above

47. Fishes detect food by_______________

a) Sight
b) Lateral line system
c) Smell and taste
d) All the above
48. Catadromous migration involves the movement from_____________

a) Seawater to fresh water

b) Fresh water to sea water
c) Within fresh water
d) Within seawater

49. In majority of teleosts fertilization is ___________

a) Internal
b) External
c) Both of the above
d) None of the above

50. Index of preponderance is associated with___________________________

a) Gut content analysis

b) Reproductive analysis
c) Condition factor analysis
d) None of the above

51. Which of the following is a part of volumetric method of food analysis________

a) Eye estimation method

b) Points method
c) Displacement method
d) All the above

52. Gonado somatic index tracks the

a) Seasonal changes in the gonad weight

b) Seasonal changes in the gonad weight in relation to body weight
c) Changes in gonad volume
d) None of the above

53. Fecundity and parental care shows__________

a) Direct relationship
b) Inverse relationship
c) No relationship
d) Positive relationship

54. In Von Bertalanffy Growth formula K ‘stands for___________

a) Condition factor
b) Pondrel index
c) Curvature parameter
d) Growth factor

55. In Von Bertalanffy Growth formula, t0 stands for ________________

a) Age at length zero

b) Length at age zero
c) Time of birth
d) None of the above
56. The external layer of integument in fish is __________which is mainly mucopolysaccharide
layer approximately 1 micrometer thick

a) Epidermis
b) Dermis
c) Scales
d) Cuticle

57. The_________layer of dermis has a loose network of collagen and reticulin fibres

a) Stratum compactum
b) Stratum spongiosum
c) Stratum corneum
d) Stratum germinativum

58. The __________layer of skin plays the main role in the formation of scales and related
integumentary structures

a) Epidermis
b) Dermis
c) Cuticle
d) Integument

59.___________scales are developed from the secretory activity of the both dermis and epidermis

a) Placiod
b) Cycloid
c) Ctenoid
d) Non-placoid

60. __________scales are developed only from the dermis

a) Placoid
b) Non-placoid
c) Cycloid
d) Ctenoid

61. ____________in fishes serve as accessory feeding structures that carry sensory organs

a) Flaps
b) Teeth
c) Sting
d) Barbels

62.___________species has teeth on the tongue

a) Notopterus
b) Wallago
c) Baracudda
d) Clarias

63.____________have digestive function, absorptive function or both

a) Liver
b) Pyloric cecae
 c) Spleen
d) Gall bladder

64. The ________is the temporary storage organ for the secretion of liver

a) Gall bladder
b) Liver
c) Spleen
d) Gastric glands

65. Aerobic metabolism in cells of body by using oxygen and removal of carbon dioxide from the
body is called____________________________

a) Aspiration
b) Respiration
c) Circulation
d) None of the above

66. The condition where air-bladder of fish is connected through a functional pneumatic duct
with the gut is called as _________________

a) Physostomus
b) Physoclistous
c) Physostatis
d) Physoglotous

67. The heart in fish is located in the _____________cavity

a) Pericardial
b) Peretonium
c) Neurocranium
d) Cardiac

68._____________carrys the blood away from the heart and the veins towards it

a) Dorsal aorta
b) Arteries
c) Ventral aorta
d) Capillaries

69. The fish brain lies in the ____________cavity

a) Cranial
b) Branchiocranium
c) Pericardial
d) Neurocranium

70. The fore brain is the site of ___________sense

a) Olfactory
b) Optic
c) Sight
d) Humoral

71.________________is the primary function of mid brain or mesencephalon

 a) Smell
b) Vision
c) Taste
d) Sense

72. The color of ovaries in fish is ____________in matured/ripe adults

a) White
b) Green
c) Grey
d) Golden yellow

73. The main blocks of which the muscles are made up of are known as___________

a) Axial muscles
b) Skeletal muscles
c) Myomeres
d) Smooth muscles

74. Balanus larva is known as__________

a) Alima
b) Phyllosoma
c) Cypris
d) Manca

75. Science dealing with the form and structure of an organism is called as________

a) Physiology
b) Morphology
c) Anatomy
d) Taxonomy

76. Which species of penaeid shrimp spend their whole life in the sea__________

a) P.monodon
b) P.merguiensis
c) Parapenaeopsis stylifera
d) M.affinis

77. Ecdysis means ___________

a) Process of spawning
b) Enlargement of shell
c) Formation of new exoskeleton in place of old exoskeleton
d) Fattening of shell fishes

78. Post larva of spiny lobster is called as ___________

a) Megalopa
b) Phyllosoma
c) Mysis
d) Alima

79. M.rosenbergii larvae pass through _________stages before becoming post larva
 a) 10
b) 11
c) 09
d) 13

80.The optimum salinity for rearing larvae of M.rosenbergii is __________________

a) 10 ppt
b) 15 ppt
c) 13 ppt
d) 20 ppt

81. Early larval stage of penaeid shrimps feed on _________

a) Phytoplankton
b) Zooplankton
c) Mixed plankton
d) Artificial feed

82. Glands which secrete Moult Inhibiting Hormone_______________________

a) GIH
b) Antennal gland
c) Maxillary gland
d) Hepatopancreas

83. Example for an open thelycum in shrimp_________________

a) P.monodon
b) P.semisulcatus
c) P.vannamei
d) P.indicus

84. The oviparity matured stage recognized as ‘mature’ in penaeid shrimp___________________

a) Stage I
b) Stage II
c) Stage III
d) Stage IV

85. Small solid mass of nervous tissue containing numerous cell bodies________

a) Nerve
b) Ganglion
c) Commisure
d) Nerve cord

86. Circulatory system in crustacean is ________type

a) Closed
b) Open
c) Partly closed
d) Partly open

87. Important digestive gland of the digestive system in penaeid shrimps ________
 a) Pyloric caecae
b) Hepatopancreas
c) Intestinal bulb
d) Corfrontle

88. Fish have _________chambered heart and single circulation

a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 1

89. ___________includes the perception of taste and smell

a) Mechanoreception
b) Chemoreception
c) Radioreception
d) Electroreception

90._____________is the major nitrogenous waste product excreted by fish

a) Urea
b) Ammonia
c) Uric acid
d) Amino acids

91. __________fish has high water content of about 95%

a) Bombay duck
b) Jelly fish
c) White fish
d) Lizard fish

92. The largest bivalve in the world________

a) Perna viridis
b) Crassostrea gryphoides
c) Tridacna gigas
d) Paphia malabarica

93. Crustacean shell is mainly composed of ___________

a) Ca
b) CaCO3
c) CaSO4
d) All the above

94. Internal shell of loligo is called as_________

a) Pen
b) Cuttle bone
c) Conch
d) All the above

95. Name the chocolate mahaseer from the following

 a) Amblypharyngodon
b) Ctenopharyngodon
c) Acrossocheilus hexagonalepis
d) Hypopthalmicthys

96. Medium size reservoirs have water spread area of __________________

a) >500 ha
b) 1000-5000 ha
c) <500 ha
d) <1000 ha

97. Oxbow lakes are formed by_________

a) Volcanic activity
b) River activity
c) Glacial activity
d) Tectonic activity

98. In an aquatic ecosystem, a depth where respiration and photosynthesis is balanced is_____

a) Euphotic zone
b) Abyssal depth
c) Profundal depth
d) Compensation depth

99. Farraka barrage is on the river________

a) Brahmaputra
b) Ganga
c) Narmada
d) Hooghly

100. Euryhaline species are adopted to ___________

a) Wide range of salinity variations

b) Narrow range of salinity variations
c) Inhabitants of sea
d) None of the above

101. Which of the following exotic fish is introduced in India from Italy________

a) Salmo trutta
b) Puntius javonicus
c) Ctenopharyngodon idella
d) Gambusia affinis

102. Pangassius spp. is abundant in ________

a) Narmada and Tapti river system

b) Jhelum and Indus river system
c) Ganga and Brahmaputra river system
d) Sabarmati river system

103. What is the total area of estuaries in India?

 a) 2.8 million ha
b) 2.7 million ha
c) 2.85 million ha
d) 2.75 million ha

104. Globally as per FAO, major inland fishing zones of the world are divided into_______

a) 19 zones
b) 8 zones
c) 17 zones
d) 27 zones

105. The marshy deltaic area of Hooghly matlah estuary is known as__________

a) Hooghly area
b) Sundar forest
c) Sundarban
d) None of the above

106. Which estuary lies between Cuttack and Puri district of Orissa?

a) Godavari estuary
b) Narmada
c) Cauvery
d) Mahanadi

107. The largest brackish water lake in India is __________

a) Pulicat lake
b) Vembanad lake
c) Chilka lake
d) Dal lake

108. The Brahmaputra river in Tibet is locally called as __________

a) T Sangpo
b) Sangpo
c) Sanapo
d) None of the above

109. Which state always leads in inland fish production__________

a) Maharashtra
b) Andhra Pradesh
c) Bihar
d) West Bengal

110. Cold water fish introduced in the river Beas and Kully vally of Kashmir_________

a) Rainbow trout
b) Brown trout
c) Deccan mahaseer
d) Golden mahseer

111. Hilsa ilisha is the predominant species available in the ___________of Ganga river
 a) Upper stretch
b) Lower stretch
c) Middle stretch
d) Entire river stretch

112. Average fish yield from Indian large and medium size reservoirs is _________

a) 20kg/ha/yr
b) 24kg/ha/yr
c) 10kg/ha/yr
d) 14kg/ha/yr

113. Which common carp was introduced in India in the year 1939_________

a) Scale carp
b) Mirror carp
c) Leather carp
d) All the above

114. In the year 1957 strains of the common carp were brought into the country from_________

a) China
b) Nepal
c) Japan
d) Thailand

115. Temperature range of cold water is __________

a) 0-20 degree
b) 5-20 degree
c) 10-12 degree
d) 10-15 degree

116. Cold waters are characterized by the presence of __________

a) High oxygen
b) Low Co 2
c) Low fertility
d) All the above

117. Which of the following country always leads in inland fish production_________

a) India
b) China
c) Japan
d) Thailand

118. Mirror carp was first introduced in India in _________

a) Kodaikanal
b) Ooty
c) Himalayan region
d) Nilgris region

119. The dominant fish in Dal lake is ________

 a) Catla
b) Rohu
c) Common carp
d) Wallago

120. The most important work on Indian fishes was contributed by:______________________

a) Engel
b) Holden
c) Hamilton
d) Nicolson

121. Temperate fish stocks differs from tropical fish stocks with respect to

a) Less species diversity

b) Ease of aging
c) Single and short annual spawning durations
d) All of the above

122. Mortality in smaller fish when compared to larger fish is ________

a) Higher
b) Lower
c) Equal
d) No particular trend

123. Data that is indicative of stock abundance or of changes in the stock abundance________

a) Total catch
b) Amount of fishing
c) CPUE
d) Length –weight data

124. Surplus production is denoted by__________

a) Y
b) C
c) B
d) Y’

125. Annual growth rate of fishes is denoted by__________

a) h
b) H
c) G
d) None

126. In population dynamics, recruitment means__________

a) Addition of new fish to the population

b) Addition of new weight to the population
c) Both of the above
d) Addition of new fish by growth from smaller size groups to vulnerable population

127. Instantaneous rate of natural mortality_________

 a) m
b) N
c) M
d) Z

128. Konkan coast is famous for its large shoals of _________

a) Pomfret fishery
b) Sardine fishery
c) Mackerel fishery
d) Bombay duck fishery

129. The net used in mackerel fishing is known as___________

a) Koli vala
b) Rampani
c) Cast net
d) Ring net

130. The dol net is popular for Bombay duck fishery off_______

a) Goa coast
b) Gujarat coast
c) Karnataka coast
d) Kerala coast

131. The widest area of continental shelf belongs to__________

a) Maharashtra coast
b) Andhra coast
c) Gujarat coast
d) Tamilnadu coast

132. EEZ was established in the year_____________

a) 1970
b) 1967
c) 1977
d) 1957

133. First CMFRI station was established in the year 1947 at _________

a) Madras
b) Cochin
c) Mandapam
d) Karwar

134. The Indo-Norwegian project was started in the year_______

a) 1950
b) 1952
c) 1960
d) 1962

135. Mesopelagic zones of ocean refer to the depth of _________

 a) 1000-1500 m
b) 1500-2000m
c) 200-1000m
d) >2000m

136. The commercial landings of oil sardine are mainly contributed by the individuals belonging
to________

a) 4 year group
b) 0-1 year group
c) 5 year group
d) 3 year group

137. The richest beds of pearl oysters are at _________

a) Goa coast
b) Andhra coast
c) Tuticorin coast
d) Karnataka coast

138. Floral components of mangrove ecosystem include__________

a) Epiphytes
b) Sea grass
c) Phytoplankton
d) All of the above

139. Sodium alginate is manufactured from_____________

a) Sea urchin
b) Ulva
c) Red sea weed
d) Brown sea weed

140. Almost 90% of the fish production is obtained from within the depth zone_________

a) 60m
b) 40m
c) 50m
d) 80m

141. Which state ranks first in the total marine fish production among the maritime states of
India______

a) Gujarat
b) Maharashtra
c) Kerala
d) Tamil nadu

142. The most popular method of fishing in the Lakshadweep for skipjack tuna is by________

a) Gill netting
b) Pole and line fishing
c) Trawling
d) Purse seining
143. The Indian fisheries act was enacted in the year__________

a) 1897
b) 1887
c) 1987
d) 1997

144. The sea adjacent to the territorial sea and having together a width of not more than 24
miles is known as__________________

a) Continental shelf
b) Territorial sea
c) Contiguous zone
d) EEZ

145. L stands for ________

a) Asymptotic length
b) Mean length at recruitment
c) Length of fish
d) Instantaneous rate of growth

146. The weight of the fish stock , or some of its defined portion is called as_______

a) Equilibrium catch
b) Catchability
c) Biomass
d) Absolute recruitment

147. ____________ is an intraspecific group of randomly mating individuals with temporal or

spatial integrity

a) Stock
b) Biomass
c) Population
d) Standing crop

148. Offshore area means water depth up to_________

a) 40-100 fathom
b) 50-100 fathom
c) 10-100 fathom
d) 100-150 fathom

149. Which one of the following is a famous fishery scientist?

a) Dr.A.D.Diwan
b) Dr.N.K.Pannikar
c) Dr.K.L.Rao
d) Dr.K.J.Bose

150. The institute responsible to carry out research and developmental work in inland fisheries
sector in India is ___________

a) CIFE
 b) CIFT
c) CMFRI
d) CIFRI

Match the following

151.

Column A Column B
1 Demersal fish a Purse seining
2 Shoaling fish b Teredo
3 Bombay duck c Bottom trawl
4 Tuna d Dol net
5 Ship worm e Pole and line

152

Column A Column B
1 Sea bass a Elops machnata
2 Milk fish b Lates calcarifer
3 Pearl spot c Etroplus suratensis
4 Mullet d Chanos chanos
5 Ten pounder e Mugil cephalus

153

Column A Column B
1 Patinopecten spp a White bait
2 Nemipterus japonicus b Malabar sole
3 Colia dussumeri c Lizard fish
4 Saurida tumbil d Pink perch
5 Cyanoglossus macrostomus e Scallops

154

Column A Column B
1 q a Instantaneous rate of natural mortality
2 Z b Annual growth rate
3 F c Instantaneous rate of fishing mortality
4 h d Instantaneous rate of recruitment
5 M e Catchability

155

Column A Column B
1 Shipworm a Outer shell layer
2 Ink sac b Teredo
3 periostracum c Cephalopod
4 Giant clam d Abalone
5 haliotis e Tridacna

156

Column A Column B
1 Penaeus monodon a Kiddy shrimp
2 Fenneropenaeus merguiensis b Yellow shrimp
3 Penaeus japonicus c Indian tiger prawn
4 Parapeneopsis stylifera d Kuruma prawn
5 Metapenaeus brevicornis e Banana prawn

157

Column A Column B
1 Elasmobranches a Long thin walled , highly coiled intestine
2 Cyprinids, Hippocampus b Taste buds
3 Catla, Rohu c Short and straight intestine
4 Herbivorous fishes d J –shaped stomach
5 Carnivorous fishes e Stomach absent

158

Column A Column B
1 Grazer a Sharks, barracuda
2 Strainers b Parrot fish, butterfly fish
3 Parasites c Mullet
4 Suckers d Lamprey
5 Predators e Sucker fish

159

Column A Column B
1 Crab a Nauplius
2 Artemia b Phyllosoma
3 Squilla c Cypris
4 Balanus d Megalopa
5 Lobster e Alima

160

Column A Column B
1 Pulicat lake a Manipur
2 Ooty lake b Andhra Pradesh
3 Logtak lake c Tamilnadu
4 Chilka lake d Rajasthan
5 Jaismand lake e Orissa

EZHIL NILAVAN,
PG SCHOLAR,
AQUATIC ANIMAL HEALTH,
CENTRAL INSTITUTE OF FISHERIES EDUCATION,
ANDHERI (W), MUMBAI 61.
e mail: [email protected]