Made By: Shahd A.

Gaber

(Test 3-1)
Question: 1
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Scientist 2 says that small comets originate from regions of the solar system beyond the
farthest planet's (Neptune's) orbit, choice (C).

Question: 2
Correct Answer: J
Explanation:
Scientist 1 says that small comets have a diameter of 20-30 ft and burn up in the
magnetosphere. Since larger comets burn up in the parts of the atmosphere closer to
the earth, a comet that burns up in the thermosphere must have a diameter of greater
than 30 ft, choice (J).

Question: 3
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
Scientist 1 states that small comets are too small to be meteors. Scientist 1 also states
that small comets burn up in the magnetosphere, but the passage says that meteors
burn up between 50 and 85 km above Earth's surface, in the mesosphere. The correct
choice, therefore, is that no small comet ever becomes a meteor, choice (A).

Question: 4
Correct Answer: J
Explanation:
The passage states that visible objects burning up in the atmosphere are called
meteors, so you should eliminate choices that do not call the objects meteors, choices
(F) and (G). Second, Scientist 2 tells you that meteors are seen "far less" often than
twice every five minutes, so to see bright objects every minute is not typical, eliminating
choice (H). This leaves the correct answer, choice (J).
Made By: Shahd A.Gaber

Question: 5
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
Scientist 1 says that all small comets burn up in the magnetosphere. Figure 1 shows the
magnetosphere is above 600 km, so the answer is choice (D). The other values given in
the answer choices represent altitudes in or above the magnetosphere.

Question: 6
Correct Answer: F
Explanation:
Scientist 1's viewpoint is that the dark spots are not mere noise; a change in the
atmospheric conditions around these spots would support that viewpoint. Scientist 1
also states that the comets release krypton as they burn up, so the discovery of krypton
around the spots confirms Scientist 1's viewpoint, choice (F). The other choices can be
eliminated because none state that Scientist 1's viewpoint was strengthened.

Question: 7
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
Scientist 1 states that small comets all burn up in the magnetosphere. According to this
hypothesis, only enhanced imaging technology that could take pictures of the
magnetosphere would be useful for seeing small comets. Therefore, only enhanced
imaging technology that could record data above 600 km above sea level would be
effective, choice (D).

(Test 6-2)
Question: 8
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Table 1 shows that as organic cover percentage increases, erosion from topsoil
deflation decreases, eliminating choices (A) and (B). Choices (C) and (D) both state that
increased rainfall will reduce erosion as shown in Table 3. The choice comes down to
the type of topsoil. Tables 1 and 3 consistently show that Soil Y resists erosion more
than Soil X does, eliminating choice (D).
Made By: Shahd A.Gaber

Question: 9
Correct Answer: G
Explanation:
Soil X contains 5% clay and Soil Y contains 40% clay. A soil with 10% clay should have
topsoil deflation between the values for X and Y with 0% organic cover in Table 1,
eliminating choices (F) and (J). Since 10% clay is most similar to the 5% clay found in
Soil X, the topsoil deflation value is expected to be closer to 105,000 kg/ha than to
65,000 kg/ha, eliminating choice (H) and making choice (G) the best answer.

Question: 10
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
Only Experiment 2 involved a variation in water content, eliminating choices (A) and (B).
Between choices (C) and (D), only choice (D) provides a clear manner of comparing
soils with different water contents.

Question: 11
Correct Answer: H
Explanation:
Experiment 1 investigates wind erosion of different types of topsoil with varying amounts
of organic cover. If the fans did not adequately simulate the effects of real wind, it would
be difficult to apply the findings to any practical situation, making choice (H) the best
answer. Choice (F) is not an assumption but a variable being tested by the experiment.
Choice (G) is the opposite of an assumption made in the experiment, that compost and
straw do adequately simulate vegetation and organic cover. Choice (J) is not addressed
in Experiment 1 because water content is not varied.

Question: 12
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Table 3 demonstrates that regardless of the water content, Soil X with the smaller clay
percentage is more prone to topsoil deflation, making choice (C) the correct answer.
Table 3 shows that erosion is related to water content for both soils, eliminating choice
(A). Further, erosion takes place in the presence of water content, eliminating choice
(B). Finally, Table 3 demonstrates that increased water content tends to decrease
topsoil deflation, eliminating choice (D).
Made By: Shahd A.Gaber

(Test 7-1)
Question: 1
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
According to Figure 1, bathypelagic, mesopelagic, and epipelagic zones are all within
mutually exclusive depth ranges. In other words, none of them overlap, so answer
choices (A), (B), and (D) are all eliminated and only choice (C) is possible. Depths
between 100 and 200 m can be categorized in either the epipelagic or thermocline zone
according to Figure 1.

Question: 2
Correct Answer: J
Explanation:
According to Figure 1, when total pressure is 1,200 kPa, the ocean zone can be
classified as epipelagic, continental shelf, or thermocline. Therefore, choice (J) is the
best answer. Choices (F) and (G) are at higher pressures, and choice (H) is at a lower
pressure.

Question: 3
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
The points on Figure 2 where the two oceans would be indistinguishable for any
temperature and depth combination would be where the two lines intersect. The tropical
and temperate lines on Figure 2 intersect at two points, at depths of approximately 125
m and 625 m. This makes choice (C) the best answer. All other answer choices give
depths where the two lines would yield different values of temperature and would thus
be distinguishable from one another.

Question: 4
Correct Answer: G
Explanation:
The general trend for both regions in Table 1 is a decrease in ocean temperature with
an increase in depth. This eliminates choices (F) and (H). However, Region 2 had a
temperature of 8°C at a depth of both 39.7 m and 49.6 m whereas Region 1 showed a
decrease in temperature for every increased depth. Therefore, only Region 1 showed a
consistent decrease in ocean temperature with increasing depth.
Made By: Shahd A.Gaber

Question: 5
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Both Figure 1 and Table 1 demonstrate that as depth increases, total pressure
increases. If the pressure at 79.5 m is 900 kPa, it would be expected to increase
beyond 900 kPa at greater depth. Only choice (B) is possible. Note that choice (D) is
eliminated because it is impossible to increase from 900 to 101 kPa.

(Test 8-1)
Question: 1
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
C Nothing is mentioned in the passage about how far back radiocarbon dating is
accurate, so choice (A) is incorrect. You are not told what motivation caused the
scientists to perform the study, and there is nothing to suggest that they are only
interested in a certain time period, so choice (B) can be eliminated. For choice (D), the
scientists do not try to determine the color of the shells; rather, they use a dye to
visualize the scutes so that they can determine their sizes and patterns. Without any
complete shells, it would be very difficult for the scientists to determine any of the
measurements used in Study 2—choice (C).

Question: 2
Correct Answer: G
Explanation:
G M hexagons are the longer ones; m hexagons are the smaller ones. Choice (G)
shows a band with two large, then two small, and another large hexagon in a band
down the middle of the shell.

Question: 3
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
A 120,000 years ago, the average number of scutes was about 25, and now (at 0—the
furthest right point on the graph), it is about 32, so the average number of scutes is
larger. 120,000 years ago, the average bridge height was about 2.1 cm, and now it is
about 2.5 cm, so the average bridge height is also larger.
Made By: Shahd A.Gaber

Question: 4
Correct Answer: J
Explanation:
J The hypothetical 86,000-year-old data point falls between the 85,000 and 87,000-
year-old data points. Therefore, you should expect the percent of shells having each
pattern to be between the percentages at 85,000 and 87,000 years old. For the first
column (M-m-M-M-m), 25.5 is the average of 21 and 30, so choice (J) looks like a good
fit. To be sure, check the other columns as well. The value in the second column (M-M-
m-m-M) should be about 67-72, and the value in the third column should be around 3-7.
Choice (J) works well.

Question: 5
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
A The third graph in Figure 2 shows average shell surface area. Find the 80,000 years
point on the x-axis and move vertically to the data point. Move horizontally to the y-axis
to find the answer: 670 cm2.

Question: 6
Correct Answer: H
Explanation:
H The first study examines the relative frequency of occurrence of different patterns of
scutes (M-m-M-M-m, etc.). The second study looks at shell diameter, shell bridge height
and the number of scutes on shells—3 shape and size characteristics of turtle shells,
making choice (H) the best answer.

(Test 10-1)
Question: 1
Correct Answer: H
Explanation:
H Choice (H) is the correct answer for this problem because it is the straightest part of
the Neptune line. To solve this problem you should look at which answer choice
represents no temperature change, so which answer choice represents a section of the
line that is straight up and down. Choices (F), (G), and (J) all represent sections of the
line that represent relatively large changes in Neptune’s temperature.
Made By: Shahd A.Gaber

Question: 2
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
A Compare the changes in temperature for each range in the answer choices. The
question does not specify an increase or decrease, so you’ll want to pick the answer
choice containing the largest range of temperatures. Choice (A) ranges from about 150
K to 300 K; choice (B) ranges from about 150 K to 200 K; choice (C) does not have a
range any wider than about 30 K; choice (D) has a range similarly small to that of choice
(C). Choice (A) clearly contains the largest range of temperatures and so can be said to
change the most.

Question: 3
Correct Answer: H
Explanation:
H Compare the relative abundances of each gas in the answer choices. NH3, Choice
(H), is the only gas that has a higher relative abundance in Jupiter than in either
Neptune or Saturn. Choice (F) cannot be correct because H has a higher relative
abundance in Saturn than in Jupiter. Similarly, choice (G) cannot be correct because
Neptune has a higher relative abundance of CH3 than Jupiter, as is the case with He in
choice (J).

Question: 4
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
C To solve this problem, you must look at Figure 1 and see what temperature Saturn is
when the altitude above cloud tops equals 0 km, then compare to Table 2. Saturn is
about 100 K at a 0 km altitude above the cloud tops, so the answer must be choice (C),
because 100 K - 25 K = 75 K

Question: 5
Correct Answer: J
Explanation:
J Read the answer choices carefully. Since each answer choice is comparing the
relative abundance of He and H on the three planets, see if you can identify any general
trends in Table 1. You’ll notice that for each planet, the H values are much higher than
the He values, so in no case will the relative abundance of He be greater than or
equivalent to that of H. Only choice (J) has He and H in the proper relationship to one
another.
Made By: Shahd A.Gaber

(Test 11-2)
Question: 6
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
C Look at Figure 1: The shallow boundary of the mesosphere lies somewhere in the
outer mantle. The deep boundary lies at the interface between inner mantle and outer
core, but the outer core is not included. This eliminates I and choices (B) and (D). The
mesosphere includes only parts of the inner and outer mantle.

Question: 7
Correct Answer: G
Explanation:
G A K-wave does not appear in Figure 1, and velocity data is not included in the
passage, so choice (J) can’t work. Given that the waves have an average velocity of 3
m/s, they could either be L-waves or S-waves according to Table 1, and choice (H)
should be eliminated. Between L-waves and S-waves, only S-waves can travel to a
depth that spans the inner mantle as depicted in Figure 1, so eliminate choice (F).

Question: 8
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
C The bottom chart of Figure 2 refers to future probability. The percentage probability
of a 6.5 magnitude earthquake is 70%, and that of a 7.5 magnitude earthquake is 32%.
This is the only comparison among the answer choices that represents a decrease of
more than one half.

Question: 9
Correct Answer: J
Explanation:
J The likelihood of an earthquake of any particular magnitude refers to future
probability as depicted in the bottom chart of Figure 2. This chart illustrates that as
Richter scale magnitude increases, the probability of occurrence decreases. Therefore,
an earthquake between Richter scale 7.0 and 7.5 has the lowest probability of
occurrence.

Question: 10
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
B According to Figure 2, there were 31,860 Richter scale 5.5 earthquakes and 60,242
Richter scale 5.0 earthquakes in the past 30 years. Therefore, the ratio is
31,860/60,242, which is approximately 1/2.
Made By: Shahd A.Gaber

(Test 12-1)
Question: 1
Correct Answer: J
Explanation:
J You need to determine which farm’s soil has the greatest number of living cells per
mm3. To do that, look at Table 3. Farm 5 has the greatest number of living cells per
mm3, so it must also consume the most oxygen. If you selected choice (F), be careful—
you may have switched the information given in the question.

Question: 2
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
C The soil has all the water removed before it is heated to 500°C, so neither choice (A)
nor (B) is correct. The reason the scientists heat the soil to 500°C for 20 minutes is to
burn off all the organic matter. In other words, the minerals remain, and the organic
matter disappears. Therefore, if there is little or no organic matter, there will be little or
no change in mass of the soil.

Question: 3
Correct Answer: J
Explanation:
J The mass of organic matter was determined by heating the sample to 500°C,
removing the ash, and calculating the difference in mass before and after the heating. If
any water had been present, it would have evaporated, and its mass would have been
included in calculating the mass of organic matter. Including water in the initial weight
would have made the estimation for the weight of the organic matter artificially high,
which is correctly explained by choice (G).

Question: 4
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
B In Table 3, notice that as % organic matter increases, number of living cells per
mm3 also increases. With 2,100 living cells per mm3, the hypothetical sample would fall
somewhere between Farms 3 and 4. Therefore, the % organic matter should also fall
between farms 3 and 4, or between 4.8 and 6.6%.
Made By: Shahd A.Gaber

Question: 5
Correct Answer: F
Explanation:
F Looking at the levels of nitrogen and iron in Table 2, we find that the amounts in the
soil of Farm 5 (210 and 165, respectively) are the highest.
Question: 6
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
D At the end of the first paragraph in the passage, we find that a well-defined soil has
similar levels of minerals, relative to the minerals’ ideal levels. In other words, you are
looking for similar percentages in Table 2. The soil of Farm 4, with all values within 24
percent of each other, is the most well defined.

(Test 20-1)
Question: 1
Correct Answer: H
Explanation:
H Examine the relationship between the line for Sample 1 and the line for Sample 4.
Between the 30-60-cm depth range and the 60-90-cm depth range, the line for Sample
1 crosses over to become higher than the line for Sample 4. Choices (F) and (G)
suggest that the lines would never cross over, while choice (J) incorrectly states that
Sample 4's shallower sodium concentrations were lower than Sample 1's.

Question: 2
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
B On the line for Sample 3 in Figure 2, the second data point most closely matches
17%. Choice (A) would describe the earliest data point for Sample 3, from a soil depth
of 0-30 cm; choices (C) and (D) describe Samples 4 and 5 at this depth, respectively.

Question: 3
Correct Answer: J
Explanation:
J Use Sample 4, because the question asks you for soil 40 m away from the river.
Remember the definitions given for EC and ESP: EC is the total electrical conductivity
of the soil, while ESP is the percentage of that amount which is due to sodium ions. To
find the total EC due to sodium ions, you would need to multiply the total EC by the
percentage due to sodium. Since the total EC for Sample 4 is significantly less at the
90-120 cm depth than at the 60-90 cm depth, while the ESP is roughly the same, (H) is
Made By: Shahd A.Gaber

incorrect; similarly, the low total EC at the 0-30 cm depth rules out the possibility of it
having the greatest total EC due to sodium ions. Since the EC at the 0-30 cm depth and
30-60 cm depth are nearly the same, the much lower ESP at the 0-30 cm depth makes
(J) the correct answer.

Question: 4
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
C This question is essentially asking you to convert one set of data points on a line
graph into a bar graph. Choice (C) does this correctly, while choice (A) inverts the
values, making small values large and large values small. Choice (B) measures the
wrong data point-it would be accurate for a sample depth of 60-90 cm, not 90-120 cm.
Choice (D) is very close, but mixes up the values for Sample 4 and Sample 1.

Question: 5
Correct Answer: G
Explanation:
G Compare all five samples in Figure 1 using a common depth such as 30-60 cm. In
Sample 1, the EC is approximately 1 mS/cm; 20 mS/cm in Sample 2; 1 mS/cm in
Sample 3; 0.5 mS/cm in Sample 4; 8 mS/cm in Sample 5. Thus, there is no consistent
trend in the electrical conductivity, which means salinity does not increase with
consistency with distance from the river, eliminating choices (H) and (J). The
explanation in choice (F) is also not supported by passage.

(Test 22-6)
Question: 28
Correct Answer: G
Explanation:
G Examine Figure 3 along the x-axis. Notice how the farther you go to the right along
the x-axis, the weaker the wave type becomes. Only choice (G) accurately describes
this phenomenon.

Question: 29
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
B First, examine Figures 3 and 4 closely. In both figures, the transition lines show that
at densities between 1,000 and 2,000 kg/m3, strong waves appear always to begin to
propagate at shorter distances from the epicenter than moderate waves. Thus, choices
Made By: Shahd A.Gaber

(C) and (D) may be eliminated. Since the maximum distance from the epicenter is less
for strong waves than moderate waves, choice (A) may also be eliminated.

Question: 30
Correct Answer: J
Explanation:
J Look at the passage closely, the passage states that ground density and propagation
duration were controlled in the experiment. Thus, answer choices (G) and (H) may be
eliminated. Choice (F) may be eliminated because in each experiment, the sound
intensity was controlled. The wave type formed in the experiments was not controlled as
it varied with distance and density.

Question: 31
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
D Examine Figure 1 closely. A wavelength constitutes the distance from one hump to
the next. The moderate wave is approximately 150 cm, and the weak wave is
approximately 500 cm. Subsequently, neither wave type exhibits a wave length of less
than 100 cm.

Question: 32
Correct Answer: J
Explanation:
J From the passage, Studies 1 and 2 were conducted using sound intensities of 60 and
80 dB, respectively. Accordingly, the resulting waveform plot of study using 70 dB
should exhibit wave types reminiscent of Figures 2 and 3. Both figures exhibit all three
types of waves; therefore choice (J) is the best answer. The waveform plot of Study 3
does not include weak waves, but its sound intensity was set to 100 dB, well above the
sound intensity of 70 dB given in this question.

Question: 33
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
A Use the range of sound intensities given in the passage to determine which waveform
plot you need to use. Since this range is 75 dB to 85 dB, you can confidently use the
waveform plot from Study 2, which has as its sound intensity 80 dB. Using Figure 3
(Study 2), therefore, note the range of distances from the epicenter for strong waves:
roughly 0 m to 2.3 m. Accordingly, any distance from the epicenter for strong waves
between sound intensities of 75 dB and 85 dB can be reasonably expected to have a
distance shorter than 2.5 m.
Made By: Shahd A.Gaber

(Test 23-1)
Question: 1
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
C The moon blocks the transmission of the Sun's rays over a range of 0.52 degrees.
The lunar orbiter at Point P is located within this range of 0.52 degrees, so he or she is
able to view only the moon and the Earth. Therefore, choice (C) is the best answer.

Question: 2
Correct Answer: F
Explanation:
F Figure 1 shows that during a solar eclipse, the moon does not allow the transmission
of the Sun's rays to the Earth. Therefore, the Sun's rays stop transmitting forward and
do not continue to the Earth's surface, so choice (F) is the best answer.

Question: 3
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
B The water level is highest on the first day at around t = 0 hours. The water level is
highest on the next day at around t = 26 hours. The difference in time between these
instances is 24 hours, so choice (B) is the best answer.

Question: 4
Correct Answer: G
Explanation:
G According to Figure 2, during the 60-hour period, the ocean surface level had a
maximum of 6 feet above mean sea level and a minimum of 1 foot below mean sea
level (-1 feet). Of the choices provided, only the month of March shows this exact range,
so choice (G) is the best answer.

Question: 5
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
D Figure 2 indicates a water level of 6 feet at t = 0. The water then falls until about t = 8
hours when it reaches about -1 feet. Then, the water level rises again, reaching about 2
feet at t = 12 hours. Thus, choice (D) is correct.
Made By: Shahd A.Gaber

(Test 23-2)
Question: 6
Correct Answer: G
Explanation:
G Examine the shale layer in Figure 2 closely-given the choices in the answers, find
which site or city has the thickest layer of shale. The shale layers at Middleton at Site 1
clearly go deeper than those at Site 3 and West Union, so you can eliminate choices (H)
and (J). Between Middleton and Site 1, look closely to see that the highest and lowest
extremes in Site 1 are farther apart-the best answer is choice (G).

Question: 7
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
A From Figure 2, the limestone layer appears to increase in thickness as you move
from Site 2 toward Site 3. Therefore, answer choices (B), (C), and (D) may be
eliminated.

Question: 8
Correct Answer: H
Explanation:
H Examine Figure 2; the shale layer at Site 2 is slightly thicker than that of Site 3,
eliminating answer choices (F) and (J). A comparison of the shale thickness at Sites 1
and 2 shows that the shale layer at Site 2 is slightly less thick than that of Site 1,
eliminating choice (G).

Question: 9
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
A Based on Figure 3, at greater depths below the surface the number of counts of
uranium decreases. Therefore, the greatest counts of uranium should be observed
closest to the surface as seen in choice (A).

Question: 10
Correct Answer: G
Explanation:
G Examine Figure 2: Site 2 exhibits 8 counts of Uranium in the deepest layer. Using the
equation given in Figure 3, the age of the rock at Site 2 is most nearly 8 (64/8) times
700 million or 5600 million years. Of the answer choices, only choice (G) matches this
age.
Made By: Shahd A.Gaber

(Test 33)
Question: 1
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
(B) Organic molecules are found only in the bodies or products of living organisms.
Carbohydrates, lipids, proteins, and nucleic acids are all produced by living organisms.
Although living organisms are composed largely of water, water is inorganic because it
is not produced by living organisms.

Question: 2
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
(D) Both the primordial soup theory and the hydrothermal vents theory assume that
organic molecules can be produced by reactions that cause the rearrangement of atoms
in certain inorganic molecules. Scientists believe this to be an important step toward the
existence of life on the earth.

Question: 3
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) In Figure 4.1, the heat source is located underneath the small sphere that simulates
the water in the earth's oceans. According to the diagram, the ocean (small sphere)
supplies water vapor for the reactions in the atmosphere (large sphere). The heat
source facilitates the production of water vapor.

Question: 4
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) According to the passage, ammonia was believed to be a major inorganic
component of the primitive atmosphere that contributed to the production of organic
molecules.

Question: 5
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
(B) In Figure 4.1, the small sphere simulates the ocean, which provides water vapor for
the primitive atmosphere. The actual reaction that produces organic molecules occurs
as the electrical current is passed through the large sphere that simulates the primitive
atmosphere. The condenser then cools the gases in the atmosphere, allowing newly
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produced organic molecules to condense into solution and travel to the trap for
sampling.

Question: 6
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
(D) The passage states that the minimum and maximum temperatures around
hydrothermal vents are 4°C and 300°C, and organic molecules are only stable within a
narrow temperature window. An optimal temperature range of 4°C to 25°C meets both
of these criteria.

Question: 7
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
(C) Both theories identify water as playing an integral role in the development of organic
compounds on Earth. The primordial soup theory identifies water as one of the four
major components of the primitive atmosphere. The hydrothermal vents theory identifies
deep ocean water as the site of organic compound formation.

Question: 8
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
(C) The two theories disagree on the energy source used to fuel the reactions that
originally produced organic compounds. The primordial soup theory identifies
atmospheric lightning as the energy source, whereas the hydrothermal vents theory
argues that the energy came from within the earth.

Question: 9
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
(D) The primordial soup theory is based on the assumption that the primitive
atmosphere was mainly composed of methane, ammonia, hydrogen, and water vapor.
Helium is not believed to have made up a significant percentage of that atmosphere.

Question: 10
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
(C) The presence of a constant electrical charge is a potential limitation of the Miller-
Urey apparatus, because it causes experimental conditions to differ from the conditions
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scientists believe actually existed in the primitive atmosphere. The constant charge
simulates a constant supply of lightning that scientists do not believe existed.

Question: 11
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
(C) The hydrothermal vents theory identifies the location of organic molecule formation
as the deep ocean. Hot gases and energy from inside the earth enter the deep ocean
through hydrothermal vents. The theory suggests that organic molecules are then
produced within the temperature gradient generated at hydrothermal vents.

Question: 12
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
(B) The Miller-Urey experiment supports the primordial soup theory because it
successfully produced organic compounds under the same conditions as scientists
believed existed on primitive Earth. The experiment was specifically designed to
investigate this theory and does not provide direct evidence to support or reject the
hydrothermal vents theory.

Question: 13
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) Based on the passage, the constant release of hot gases into the cold deep ocean
water produces a temperature gradient. This temperature gradient is believed to provide
sufficient conditions for the production of organic molecules.

Question: 14
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
(B) The primordial soup theory assumes that the compositions of the primitive and
current atmospheres vary widely. This assumption led to the development of the Miller-
Urey experiment, which produced various organic molecules from the compounds
thought to be most abundant in the primitive atmosphere. The current atmosphere is
composed mostly of nitrogen and oxygen.
Made By: Shahd A.Gaber

(Test 65-1)
Question: 1
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
(D) If there were a correlation one way or the other between mass and orbital distance,
then the planets in Table 2 would be getting either consistently larger or smaller as the
orbital distances increase. But they're not: there are large and small planets all over the
place. For example, the two largest planets have orbital distances of 4.0 and .35,
whereas the two smallest planets have orbital distances of 4.0 and .25. Therefore, there
is no correlation between mass and orbital distance.

Question: 2
Correct Answer: F
Explanation:
(F) By looking at Table 1, we know that the answer has to be either OGLE TR 132 or
Gliese 777, because those are the two stars with Gas Giants orbiting them. Next, we
look at Table 2 and see that the planet orbiting Gliese 777 (500 Earth masses) is bigger
than the planet orbiting OGLE TR 132 (315 Earth masses).

Question: 3
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
(D) Table 1 establishes the only planet type with a mass over 250 Earth masses and
composed of hydrogen is a Gas Giant.

Question: 4
Correct Answer: G
Explanation:
(G) Table 1 shows the planets orbiting Gliese 581 are Water type with a mass range of
.5–25 Earth masses. Also, Table 2 shows the most massive planet is orbiting Gliese
777. Therefore, the statement is NOT true and must be correct.

Question: 5
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) Every planet shown in Table 2 has a mass less than 20 Earth masses. The Kepler
11 planet has a mass of 15 and the HD 6980 planet has a mass of 15.
Made By: Shahd A.Gaber

(Test 65-2)
Question: 6
Correct Answer: F
Explanation:
(F) All you have to do here is go to Figure 1, look at the (vertical) column for Zone 5,
and find the biggest number. The biggest number is 0.93, which is in the (horizontal)
column for coal.

Question: 7
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
(B) The numbers across zones vary more in Table 1 (energy savings) than they do in
Table 2 (GHGs avoided). In Table 2, the numbers for all three zones are often identical,
and are still very close even when they are not identical.

Question: 8
Correct Answer: J
Explanation:
(J) In Figure 1, the black bar representing GHG payback for Zone 3 stops just under the
line representing 10 years, and so 9 years is clearly the closest of the answer choices.

Question: 9
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
(D) All the question is asking is "Which box in Table 1 has the highest number in it, not
counting averages and totals?" The highest number is 4.2, representing the savings for
natural gas in Zone 1.

Question: 10
Correct Answer: J
Explanation:
(J) The bars in Figure 1 represent how long it takes to profit from the installation of
plastic foam insulation. Since both the white and black bars in Zone 3 have "run out" by
the 10-year mark, this means that at that point the customer will have both saved on
energy costs and produced fewer pounds of GHGs.
Made By: Shahd A.Gaber

Question: 11
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) In Table 1, the three highest numbers in the U.S. Average column, starting with the
highest and decreasing, are for natural gas (2.37), coal (0.76), and nuclear (0.25).

(Test 67-2)
Question: 8
Correct Answer: F
Explanation:
(F) Right above the point on the x-axis (horizontal) of Figure 1 that indicates 1954, the
line that is the highest (just above 500) is the one with diamonds on it, representing
alewives.

Question: 9
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
(B) Figure 4 indicates that, in 2004, bloaters comprised 43% of the fish population of
Lake Michigan, and sculpin 33%. So there were indeed more bloaters than sculpin.

Question: 10
Correct Answer: J
Explanation:
(J) The 155-mm bar in the 2002 graph (Figure 2) is almost up to the 40% mark, clearly
higher than the 155-mm bar in the 2004 graph (Figure 3), which is not even up to the
20% mark. Therefore, there were not more 155-mm alewives in 2004 than in 2002, and
so choice J is the statement that is NOT true.

Question: 11
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
(B) The question states that alewives get increasingly longer with age. Since Figure 3
(representing 2004) shows us more long and fewer short alewives than does Figure 2
(representing 2002), it would appear that Lake Michigan had more adult alewives in
2004 than in 2002. You may have also noticed that the other three choices all say the
same thing. (As with many questions on the ACT, "which of these things is not like the
others" is a good strategy here!)
Made By: Shahd A.Gaber

Question: 12
Correct Answer: H
Explanation:
(H) Figure 1 shows that the density of bloater fish (triangle line) increased steadily up
until about 1973, and then decreased steadily from that point until around 2003.
Although it is not conclusive proof, these data are consistent with the idea that the
bloater population fluctuates according to a 60-year cycle.

(Test 70-2)
Question: 7
Correct Answer: G
Explanation:
(G) The key indicates that white bars represent clay. In Figure 2 (but not Figure 1) the
bar representing the depth between 3 and 4 meters is white. Clay is found at a depth of
3.5 m in Zone 4 and only in Zone 4.

Question: 8
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
(D) All this question is asking you to do is find the biggest number in the right-hand
column in Table 1 (Plant Height in meters). The biggest number in that column is 2.4,
for the Compass Plant.

Question: 9
Correct Answer: F
Explanation:
(F) In Figure 3, the black bars representing the number of plants per zone in Zone 4 are
higher than the white bars representing the number of plants per zone in Zone 3 for
every type of plant studied. Therefore, all the plants studied grow more easily in Zone 4.

Question: 10
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
(D) In both Figure 1 and Figure 2, the highest white bar (indicating clay) represents a
depth between 2 and 3 meters. Therefore, the roots of plants in Zone 3 and Zone 4
would hit clay at the same time (i.e., the clay is equally far down in both places).
Made By: Shahd A.Gaber

Question: 11
Correct Answer: H
Explanation:
(H) This is one of those questions that require you to look in two places. Table 1
indicates that Lead Plants have roots that go 4.5 m deep, and then Figure 1 indicates
that a depth of 4.5 m in Zone 3 would be in a gravel layer (gray shading).

(Test 72-1)
Question: 1
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
(D) The tornado in Figure 2 is represented by the number 6. The paragraph above
Figure 2 explains this (it is logical that the sixth and final step in the explanation would
be the one that involves the tornado, since the paragraph is an explanation of how
tornadoes are formed).

Question: 2
Correct Answer: J
Explanation:
(J) The F4 box in Figure 1 (fifth box over, second one down) includes wind speeds from
207 to 261 mph.

Question: 3
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
(B) In the paragraph above Figure 2, a mesocyclone is formed in step 3. Since a
spinning wall-cloud is formed in step 5, this would be the one that does NOT precede
the formation of a mesocyclone.

Question: 4
Correct Answer: F
Explanation:
(F) The paragraph above Figure 3 explains that "Tornado Alley" is in the central United
States, and that the number over each state represents its number of tornadoes in
2005. Texas had 105 (higher than any of the other choices) and is in the central United
States.
Made By: Shahd A.Gaber

Question: 5
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
(B) The intersection box of the horizontal "Brick Structure" row and the vertical "Minor
Damage" column says f0. The key within Figure 1 explains that the f scale (lower case)
must then be converted into the F scale (upper case), and f0 + 1 = F1.

(Test 77-2)
Question: 7
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
(C) That is the relationship shown in Figure 2. The key shows that salt marsh water is
represented by the line with the x markers. The x-axis represents the aqueous
concentration. The line with x markers clearly increases steadily, showing a direct
relationship between the aqueous concentration and the white phosphorus mass: as the
concentration increases, so does the mass.

Question: 8
Correct Answer: H
Explanation:
(H) This is correct because of the data presented in Table 2. Look for the smallest
number in the table. It is 29.1, in the first row and the last column. Look at the column
and row headings to determine the answer is Trial 1 after 5-minutes static.

Question: 9
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
(D) This is correct because of the information presented in the opening passage. The
third sentence explains the SPME technique and states, "a thin fused silica fiber…is
exposed to a sample…."

Question: 10
Correct Answer: H
Explanation:
(H) This is correct because of the data presented in Table 2. In order for the scientist's
theory to be supported by the data, the numbers in the third column, titled 10-Min Sonic,
would need to be larger than the numbers in the second column, titled 5-Min Sonic.
Made By: Shahd A.Gaber

However, that is not the case. The numbers in the second column are larger than those
in the third column for Trials 2 and 3, meaning that more white phosphorus was
extracted after 5-minutes sonication for those two trials only.

Question: 11
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
(C) Choice C is correct because of the data presented in Table 1. The last row in the
table displays the mean mass of white phosphorus extracted from each type of water.
The largest number in this row is 36.3, in the column with the heading Pond.

Question: 12
Correct Answer: G
Explanation:
(G) This is correct because of the data presented in Figure 2. The x-axis represents the
aqueous concentration, but the graph only includes concentrations up to 0.14 μg/L. To
infer the amount of white phosphorus that would be extracted at a concentration of 0.2
μg/L, the line that represents pond water needs to be traced farther to the right along
the x-axis. The key shows that the line with the triangle marker represents pond water.
Following this line to the right demonstrates that the white phosphorus mass would
continue to increase as the aqueous concentration increases. Since the line increases
at a steep slope, and 0.2 μg/L is much larger than 0.14 μg/L, we can infer that the
answer would be much larger than 45, making 100 pg the only reasonable answer.

(Test 80-1)
Question: 1
Correct Answer: J
Explanation:
(J) This is a simple "Go Up, Hit Line, Go Over." Starting from October in the x-axis
(horizontal) of Figure 2, the line representing ex situ permeability (the one with squares
on it) is roughly as high as 30 on the y-axis (vertical).

Question: 2
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) This is an "extrapolation" question, meaning that you have to guess about a value
not pictured on the graph based on the way the data are trending. The Site 1 line
(squares) in Figure 4 appears to rise roughly 0.1 m3/s for every 100 Pa of pressure, and
at that rate would have been at around 0.5 m3/s by 800 Pa.
Made By: Shahd A.Gaber

Question: 3
Correct Answer: G
Explanation:
(G) This question just asks you to compare the data in the figures and paragraph and
then pick the answer that presents true statements as indicated by that data. Figure 3
indicates that soil porosity is highest at Site 2, as choice G suggests, and Figure 4
indicates that flow rate is highest at Site 2, another indicator that choice G is a good bet.

Question: 4
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) This is an "If the data are typical…" question, asking you to select which of the
choices is true based on what has been observed. In both Figure 1 and Figure 2, air
permeability is higher ex situ than it is in situ. (This is to be expected, since the
paragraph explains that in situ means that the instrument is buried in the dirt, and ex
situ means that it is not!)
Question: 5
Correct Answer: J
Explanation:
(J) In Figure 1, permeability was highest for water during all the months, including
November.

(Test 87-1)
Question: 1
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
C Look up the value on Figure 2. Conductivity of aquifer groundwater is the top graph of
Figure 2, and 2000 is the solid-line curve.

Question: 2
Correct Answer: H
Explanation:
H Continue the trend shown in Figure 2: The pH of groundwater is the bottom of the two
graphs, and 2001 is the dashed-line curve. Choice (J) is a trap answer and is wrong
because 260 is barely above 250 when pH is 7. The pH will not increase in 10 cm to
8.5.
Made By: Shahd A.Gaber

Question: 3
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
D Common sense and outside knowledge are often the solutions for "why" questions. A
drought means a lower amount of rainfall, and a lower amount of rainfall means the
wetland would receive less water.

Question: 4
Correct Answer: J
Explanation:
J Use POE. Choices (F) and (G) are disproven by the data in Figures 2 and 3 because
the soil layer for an aquifer is from the water table (0 cm below) to 200 cm below, and
the soil layer for a wetland is shown from the water table (0 cm below) to 350 cm below.
Choice (H) is wrong because the soil layer is thinner in an aquifer.

Question: 5
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
C The introduction clarifies that the drought occurred in 2000, the solid-line curve, which
is greater at 0 to 300 cm than is the dashed-line curve in both the aquifer and wetland.

(Test 92-1)
Question: 1
Correct Answer: F
Explanation:
F According to Scientist 1, Between 1950 and 2000, global average sea level rose by
0.1m. Choices (G), (H), and (J) show a general decrease in sea level, so all three can
be eliminated. A jump 100 times more than 0.1m would be approximately 10, and only
(F) shows an appropriately large jump in the sea level.

Question: 2
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
C Use POE! Scientist 2 draws heavily on Figure 2, and his basic argument is that rises
and falls in the global average sea level occurred many times in the last 150,000 years.
He would not say that the temperature has remained constant, eliminating (A), nor
would he attribute global temperature change only to industrial activity, eliminating
choice (B). Later in the passage, Scientist 2 states, In general, global average sea level
rises and falls with global average temperature, which is paraphrased in (C).
Made By: Shahd A.Gaber

Question: 3
Correct Answer: J
Explanation:
J According to Figure 1, the change in average global sea level in 2000 was
approximately 0.05 m. According to Scientist 1, Since 2000 the change in global
average sea level has increased at a rate of 2% per year. Since you don't have a
calculator, make the math easier for yourself—instead of 0.05 m, use 500. If the change
in 2000 was 500, in 2001 it was 510, in 2002 it was approximately 520, and in 2003 it
was approximately 530. Translate this back into the numbers you started with to find a
change of approximately 0.053 m, (J). Even if you found this math a little tricky, you can
certainly eliminate (F) and (G) because they are smaller, and you may have ballparked
to see that (H) would not be quite high enough.

Question: 4
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
A If you're unsure how to answer the question, use POE on the reasons. Figure 1
shows data from the years 1500 to 2000. This eliminates (B) and (D). Then, because it
is clear that Figure 1 does not address climate changes from 150,000 years ago, Figure
1 cannot be said to provide sufficient support Scientist 1's claim, making (A) the correct
answer.

Question: 5
Correct Answer: J
Explanation:
J According to Figure 2, 100,000 years ago, the change in average sea level from
present was approximately ?60 m. If the present location is fixed 90 m above a fixed
landmark, then the level 100,000 years ago would be 60 m less than that or 30 m, (J).

Question: 6
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
C There are two major peaks in average global sea level according to Figure 2. One
occurred recently, and the other occurred approximately 115,000 years ago. Scientist 2
would therefore cite the 115,000 - year figure as evidence that sea levels have risen to
present levels before. Choice (C) is therefore the best answer. If you chose (D), be
careful! You may have been looking at the axis for air temperature rather than the one
for global sea level.
Made By: Shahd A.Gaber

Question: 7
Correct Answer: F
Explanation:
F According to Figure 1, the change in average global sea level hovered between ?0.15
m and ?0.10 m from 1500 to 1800. Scientist 1 would likely consider this a negligible
change, and because Scientist 1 sees a direct correlation between rising sea levels and
rising temperatures, he would likely consider the rise in temperature to be negligible as
well, as (F) suggests. Scientist 1's bigger point is that temperatures followed a natural
course until 1800, when they began to rise dramatically.

(Test 94)
Question: 1
Correct Answer: F
Explanation:
The best answer is F. Scientist 1 discusses nature as the major factor contributing to
the low lake levels. Scientist 2 discusses human activities as the major contributing
factor. This is the major difference between the scientists' viewpoints.

Question: 2
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
The best answer is C. The two scientists are discussing the causes of low lake levels in
the Great Lakes. This implies that both scientists agree recent trends show that the lake
levels are decreasing. Answer choice B can be eliminated because only Scientist 2
supports this viewpoint.

Question: 3
Correct Answer: J
Explanation:
The best answer is J. Scientist 1 says, "the influence of human regulation on lake levels
is inconsequential. Because water is added through snow and rain and taken away
through evaporation, nature has most of the control over lake levels." The scientist
believes that the lake levels are mainly controlled by nature, and human manipulation
does not interfere.
Made By: Shahd A.Gaber

Question: 4
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
The best answer is B. Scientist 2 talks about a number of ways that human activity
causes the Great Lakes' water levels to decrease. Activities such as the Lake Michigan
diversion at Chicago, the dredging and modifying of the St. Clair and Detroit rivers, and
channeling and shore lining modifications in connecting the channels of the Great Lakes
have all contributed to the low lake levels. This information best supports answer choice
B.

Question: 5
Correct Answer: G
Explanation:
The best answer is G. If studies have shown precipitation and evaporation levels to be
stable for the last 50 years, Scientist 1's viewpoint would be weakened. This is because
Scientist 1 says a recent increase in evaporation has contributed to lower lake levels:
"The recent decline of water levels in the Great Lakes, now at lows not seen since the
mid-1960s, is due to a number of causes. High degrees of evaporation from warmer
than usual temperatures in recent years …" Because this statement would be
disproved, the scientist's viewpoint would be weakened.

Question: 6
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
The best answer is A. The best way to answer this question is by the process of
elimination. Answer choice B is incorrect because the passage says, "the Lake
Michigan diversion at Chicago moves water out of Lake Michigan and into the
Mississippi River for domestic, navigation, hydroelectric, and sanitation purposes."
Answer choice C is incorrect because the passage states "the St. Clair and Detroit
rivers have been dredged and modified. This has caused some drop in the levels of
Lake Michigan and Lake Huron." Answer choice D is incorrect because the passage
says, "the infilling of shoreline areas can reduce the flow carrying capacity of the river."
Answer choice A is correct because it is the only answer choice that is not discussed by
Scientist 2.
Made By: Shahd A.Gaber

Question: 7
Correct Answer: G
Explanation:
The best answer is G. If the water deposited in aquifers surrounding the Great Lakes
was used within the Great Lakes' watershed, the water would be cycling through the
Great Lakes, and no water would be taken outside of the cycle.

(Test 101)
Question: 1
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
The best answer is D. Scientist 2 states that when iron is "hotter than 1043K, its Curie
temperature, iron loses its magnetic properties." The scientist is implying that the
Earth's core has a temperature above 1043K; therefore, it has lost its magnetic
properties and cannot cause the Earth's magnetic fields. Answer choice B can be
eliminated because this is the viewpoint of Scientist 1 only.

Question: 2
Correct Answer: H
Explanation:
The best answer is H. Scientist 1 states: "The magnetic field grows and wanes, and the
Earth's poles drift and occasionally flip as the rotation of the core changes." Scientist 2
states that the molten outer core and the Coriolis effects "generate the fluctuating
magnetic field." Both scientists address the Earth's changing magnetic field and,
therefore, would be in agreement with the statement in the question.

Question: 3
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
The best answer is C. Both scientists talk about the fluctuations in Earth's magnetic
field. They would both agree with answer choice C because it describes the varying
magnetic properties in volcanic rocks as the result of the fluctuations they have talked
about. Answer choices B and D can be eliminated because solar wind is only discussed
by Scientist 1. Answer choice A supports Scientist 2 only.
Made By: Shahd A.Gaber

Question: 4
Correct Answer: J
Explanation:
The best answer is J. According to Scientist 1, "The inner core … consists of a solid iron
ball, which would exhibit properties or ferromagnetism…." Scientist 2, on the other
hand, suggests that the core is too hot to maintain its magnetic properties. This
information best supports answer choice J.

Question: 5
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
The best answer is B. According to Scientist 1, the coordinated motions of electrons
within iron atoms create the Earth's magnetic field. According to Scientist 2, the Earth's
magnetic field is created from the circulating electric currents in the Earth's molten outer
core.

Question: 6
Correct Answer: G
Explanation:
The best answer is G. Scientist 2 says, "The Earth's magnetic field is attributed to
a dynamo effect of circulating electric current in the molten outer core." If a new type of
sensor detected electric currents in the outer core, the new technology would be
consistent with the view of Scientist 2. Scientist 1, however, does not talk about the
outer core.

Question: 7
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
The best answer is A. Scientist 2 says that the Earth's inner core does not influence the
Earth's magnetic field because iron loses its magnetic properties at high temperatures
(reached by the inner core). This contradicts what Scientist 1 says, so it is likely that
Scientist 1 would consider this a flaw in Scientist 2's theory.
Made By: Shahd A.Gaber

(Test 107)
Question: 1
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. In Figure 2, lake clay is indicated by the horizontal stripes. Of
the 4 areas listed (Genola, Site 1, Site 2, and Provo) the lake clay deposit is thinnest at
Genola.

Question: 2
Correct Answer: H
Explanation:
The correct answer is H. The passage states that Lake Bonneville was formed "about
32,000 years ago" and that "it existed until about 16,800 years ago." Therefore, you can
determine that it existed in its entirety for approximately 32,000 - 16,800 = 15,200 years.

Question: 3
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. To answer this question, look at the relationship between the
area marked by horizontal stripes (lake clay) and the area marked by vertical stripes
(bedrock). As the lake clay gets thicker, the bedrock below it gets thinner. Therefore, the
thickness of the bedrock decreases.

Question: 4
Correct Answer: G
Explanation:
The correct answer is G. According to Figure 2, both Site 1 and Site 2 are situated atop
the lake clay layer, with Site 2 at a slightly higher elevation than Site 1. The only graph
that shows Site 2 at a higher elevation is answer choice G.

Question: 5
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. The passage states that, "Over time, increasing temperatures
in North America caused the lake to begin drying up, leaving Great Salt Lake … the
salinity levels are higher than normal." You can deduce from this statement that rising
temperatures led to increased water evaporation, which led to increased salinity levels.
Therefore, a decrease in temperature and an increase in freshwater rainfall would likely
lead to decreased salinity levels in Great Salt Lake.
Made By: Shahd A.Gaber

(Test 114)
Question: 1
correct Answer: D
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. According to Scientist 1, "Recent studies by researchers at
Northeastern University and the University of Victoria may suggest that dark matter …
does not actually exist." Additionally, Scientist 1 goes on to say that, "a galaxy, seen
collectively, has its own gravity and essentially drives its own rotation at a constant
rate." This information best supports answer choice D.

Question: 2
Correct Answer: G
Explanation:
The correct answer is G. The process of elimination is a good approach to correctly
answering this question. Scientist 2 believes that dark matter is responsible for the
warped shape of galaxies such as the Milky Way, so eliminate answer choice F. Both
scientists conclude that not all questions about the universe have been answered,
which supports answer choice G. Only Scientist 2 believes that cosmic microwave
radiation suggests the presence of dark matter, and neither scientist believes that dark
matter can be easily observed in the universe, so eliminate answer choices H and J.

Question: 3
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. According to the passage, Scientist 2 believes that dark matter
can explain many cosmological phenomena. Therefore, you can eliminate answer
choice A. Scientist 2 does not indicate that dark matter is visible using modern
instruments, only that its effect on other objects in the universe can be detected;
eliminate answer choice C. Scientist 2 does not suggest that dark matter was ever a
part of the general theory of relativity, so eliminate answer choice D.

Question: 4
Correct Answer: J
Explanation:
The correct answer is J. Both scientists mention the existence of warped galaxies in
their discussions regarding the existence of dark matter in the universe. Clearly, this
phenomenon is critical to their viewpoints, so eliminate answer choices F and G.
Scientist 2 references Newtonian physics in order to suggest the existence of dark
Made By: Shahd A.Gaber

matter in order to explain the additional gravitational pull needed to account for warped
galaxies, so eliminate answer choice H.

Question: 5
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. According to Scientist 2, "Without the existence of dark matter,
the Magellanic Clouds would not have sufficient mass to have such a strong effect on
the bend of the Milky Way galaxy." If it were discovered that the Magellanic Clouds are
actually more massive than previously thought, Scientist 2's theory would be weakened.
The other answer choices are not supported by the passage.

Question: 6
Correct Answer: F
Explanation:
The correct answer is F. The main point of difference between the two positions is
whether dark matter exists. Scientist 1 believes that it does not, while Scientist 2
believes that it does. The other answer choices are not supported by the passage.

(Test 121)
Question: 1
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
The best answer is B. Scientist 1 argues that technology has played a huge role in
helping humans to adapt to conditions on this planet. Scientist 1 goes on to explain
some technological advances that might change the natural processes of the sun and
says that there is enough time and incentive to discover ways to thwart the natural
progress of nature. This best supports answer choice B.

Question: 2
Correct Answer: H
Explanation:
The best answer is H. According to Scientist 2, a significant drop in carbon dioxide
levels could lead to the end of photosynthesis, which, in turn would result in dramatic
temperature increases. Once the temperature reaches a certain point, the water on the
surface and in the atmosphere will evaporate. This information best supports answer
choice H.
Made By: Shahd A.Gaber

Question: 3
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
The best answer is C. Scientist 1 states that humans could "develop technology that
would stir the sun and bring new hydrogen to the sun's core. This would greatly extend
the current phase that our sun is in." The passage clearly indicates that our sun is not
yet in the Red Giant phase, so this technological advance could postpone the sun
reaching that stage.

Question: 4
Correct Answer: F
Explanation:
The best answer is F. Scientist 1 believes that in 7 billion years, humans will have more
than enough time to "advance technology and find solutions to adapt to the atmospheric
changes the Red Giant phase would bring." This suggests that Scientist 1 believes in
human beings' ability to adapt and adjust to changes in Earth's atmosphere and
environment. The other answer choices are not supported by Scientist 1's viewpoint.

Question: 5
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
The best answer is A. Scientist 1 believes that there is plenty of time for technology to
evolve in time to change Earth's environment. Scientist 2, on the other hand, states that
there is not enough time "for humans to evolve in order to meet large atmospheric and
environmental changes, or to develop the technology needed to make Earth habitable."
The other answer choices are not supported by the passage.

Question: 6
Correct Answer: H
Explanation:
The best answer is H. According to the passage, the only thing that both scientists
would agree on is the notion that the earth is going to undergo dramatic changes in the
future. The other answer choices are not supported by the passage.
Made By: Shahd A.Gaber

(Test 124)
Question: 1
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
The best answer is B. According to Table 1, animals and plants contribute to physical
weathering. The passage states that plants also contribute to biological weathering.

Question: 2
Correct Answer: J
Explanation:
The best answer is J. Table 1 shows that temperature variation can lead to physical
weathering, specifically cracks and splits in rocks caused by mineral expansion and
contraction.

Question: 3
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
The best answer is C. According to the passage, the "ultimate product of biological
weathering agents on rock is soil." Plants and bacteria are organic, or living, and the
passage indicates that they contribute to biological weathering. This information best
supports answer choice C.

Question: 4
Correct Answer: G
Explanation:
The best answer is G. Table 2 shows factors of chemical weathering. The presence of
water contributes to almost all of the weathering mechanisms listed in Table 2.
Therefore, you can safely assume that the presence of water is the greatest contributing
factor to the alteration of minerals and rock.

Question: 5
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
The best answer is D. Table 3 indicates that lichens are rich in chelating agents and that
chelating agents "trap elements of decomposing rock, resulting in etching and
grooving." The other answer choices are not supported by the passage.
Made By: Shahd A.Gaber

Question: 6
Correct Answer: H
Explanation:
The best answer is H. According to Table 2, the result of hydrolysis is the disruption of
"the chemical composition of the minerals, destabilizing the rock." Table 2 indicates that
rainwater is the usual cause of this type of weathering, which best supports answer
choice H.

(Test 127)
Question: 1
Correct Answer: H
Explanation:
The best answer is H. Figure 1 shows that the temperatures near the bottom of the lake
are lower than the temperatures near the surface of the lake. The thermocline is shown
as a layer separating the surface water from the deeper water. This best supports
answer choice H.

Question: 2
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
The best answer is A. According to the passage, spring turnover "eliminates the
temperature stratification that was established during the winter." This turnover "results
in a relatively even distribution of O2 throughout the lake." The graph shown in answer
choice A indicates an even distribution of O2 at every depth of the lake.

Question: 3
Correct Answer: J
Explanation:
The best answer is J. The passage states that the thermocline is the "narrow zone of
water undergoing rapid temperature changes," which separates the layers in the lake.
This best supports answer choice J.
Made By: Shahd A.Gaber

Question: 4
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
The best answer is A. According to the passage, each of the Great Lakes, including
Lake Michigan, "tends to stratify, … depending on the season." The passage goes on to
say that this stratification occurs during the winter and the summer. Water in the Great
Lakes is mixed during the spring and fall, which effectively eliminates the stratification.

Question: 5
Correct Answer: G
Explanation:
The best answer is G. According to the passage, the stability of a lake's stratification
depends on "both the inflow and outflow of lake water. Lakes with a lot of water flowing
into and out of them do not develop consistent and lasting thermal stratification." This
best supports answer choice G, since the question indicates that the river flows into the
lake.

Question: 6
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
The best answer is D. Figure 1 shows that the temperatures near the bottom of the lake
are lower than the temperatures near the surface of the lake. This best supports answer
choice D.

Question: 7
Correct Answer: G
Explanation:
The best answer is G. The passage states that the lake's depth, the amount of wind
present, and the amount of water flowing into the lake affect the stability of the lake's
thermal stratification. "Seasonal turnover" is the name given to the stratification of lakes,
so it is the exception here.