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Copyright © Respiratory Therapy Zone

Introduction

Why hello there!

Thank you so much for downloading this study guide! In this book,
you will find a ton of helpful practice questions, all, of course,
covering the topic of — Pulmonary Function Testing.

These questions are designed to help you prepare for the PFT final
exam in Respiratory Therapy School.

Hopefully, by going through these practice questions, you will be

able to boost your knowledge to a whole new level and ace your
final exam.

This is definitely one of the most important subjects in Respiratory

Therapy School. Not to mention, it’s also the topic that some
students struggle with.

With that being said, (hopefully) this study guide, along with the
resources on our website and YouTube channel can help.

So if you’re ready, let’s go ahead and get started.

Good luck! J
1. A galvanic fuel cell oxygen analyzer fails to reach the proper
reading when analyzing an FIO2 of 100%.The respiratory care
practitioner should:
A. Continue using the analyzer
B. Replace the analyzer with a new one
C. Change the fuel cell
D. Replace the battery

2. A patient is diagnosed with septic shock and has a fever of 105

degrees Fahrenheit. The RCP fails to make a temperature
correction to the analyzer. How will this make the ABG analysis
inaccurate?
A. Lower CO2
B. Higher pH
C. Lower PO2
D. All of the above

3. A patient with kyphoscoliosis performs maximum inspiratory

and expiratory maneuvers with the following results:MIP +110
MEP -160. The correct interpretation would be:
A. The results are normal
B. The results are invalid and should not be reported
C. The results are normal on inspiration and abnormal on
expiration
D. The results are normal on expiration and abnormal on
inspiration

4. A patient with pulmonary fibrosis has a compliance study

performed. Which of the following indicate that the esophageal
balloon is placed correctly in the esophagus?
A. Cardiac pulsations are recorded by the pressure transducer
B. Inspiration causes a negative pressure deflection
C. Expiration causes a negative pressure deflection
D. No pressure change occurs during inspiration

5. All of the following statements are true concerning the Helium

analyzer EXCEPT:
 A. Measures percentage of He
B. Are safe to use with flammable gases
C. Are often found in pulmonary function equipment
D. Makes use of thermal conductivity

6. All of the following statements concerning blood-based

controls used in the ABG lab are correct EXCEPT:
A. They require refrigeration
B. They consist of human red blood cells
C. They must be ran every 8 hours
D. They are packaged in 2-3 ml ampoules

7. At what lung level should a maximum inspiratory pressure

maneuver be performed?
A. Functional residual capacity
B. Residual volume
C. End-tidal inspiration
D. Total lung capacity

8. Correct expressions for the relationship between respiratory

rate, tidal volume and minute ventilation include:
A. Rate = VE Vt
B. Vt = VE Rate
C. VE = Rate x Vt
D. All of the above

9. Data used for detecting a blood-gas machine that is out of

control is:
A. The + or – 2 standard deviation
B. The + or – 4 standard deviation
C. The + or – 1 standard deviation
D. The + or – 3 standard deviation

10. How would you correct an out of control situation for a blood
gas analyzer?
A. Replace the electrode that displays the out of control error
 B. Clean the membrane with the out of control error with a
pumice stone
C. Nothing is required for an out of control situation, continue
to use the blood gas analyzer
D. Remove the blood gas analyzer and replace it with a new
one

11. It would be appropriate to use the Wright respirometer to

measure which of the following parameters?
A. Tidal volume
B. Vital capacity
C. Minute volume
D. All of the above

12. Running the same sample on one or more other blood gas
analyzers in the ABG lab to assure accuracy is known as:
A. Monthly quality assurance
B. Multiple machine analysis
C. Proficiency Testing
D. Preventative maintenance

13. The RRT has been asked to measure a patient’s MIP. Which of
the following instruments should be selected to obtain this
measurement?
A. Pressure strain-gauge
B. Pneumotachometer
C. Pressure manometer
D. Pressure transducer

14. Tidal volume and minute ventilation must be determined from

a patient that has a measured minute volume of 7.35 L and a
respiratory rate of 18/minute. What is this patient’s tidal volume
value?
A. 132 ml
B. 408 ml
C. 180 ml
D. 735 ml
15. What should the pulmonary function technologist take into
consideration with each test before reporting test results?
A. Equipment performance
B. Technologist performance
C. Patient performance
D. All of the above

16. When calibration gas analyzers, which of the following should

be calibrated to a 0% reading as the first point (percentage)?
A. Nitrogen
B Carbon dioxide/Carbon monoxide
C. Helium
D. All of the above

17. When measuring minute ventilation using a Wright’s

respirometer:
A. A pressure manometer is needed to determine values
B. The number of breaths taken by the patient should be
counted during the measuring period
C. A value obtained by measuring inspiratory volumes will be
smaller than expiratory volumes
D. The tidal volume is collected (measured) for three minutes

18. Which agency sets forth standards that must be met to assure
accuracy of equipment?
A. ALA (American Lung Association)
B. CGA (Compressed Gas Association)
C. ACCP (American College Chest Physicians)
D. ATS (American Thoracic Society)

19. Which of the following diseases will most likely exhibit an

increased compliance?
A. Pulmonary fibrosis
B. Chronic bronchitis
C. Scoliosis
D. Asbestosis
20. Which of the following statements are correct regarding total
lung and thoracic compliance?
A. There is less inspired volume per cmH2O in CLT than in
either CL or CT alone
B. There is more inspired volume per cmH2O in CT than in CL
C. There is less inspired volume per cmH2O in CT than in CL
D. There is more inspired volume per cmH2O in CLT than in
CT alone

21. Which of the following test is used as an indicator of

ventilatory inspiratory muscle strength?
A. Forced vital capacity
B. Expiratory reserve volume
C. Maximal inspiratory pressure
D. Maximal expiratory pressure

22. Which of the following types of equipment would enable the

measurement of the transpulmonary pressure, which is
needed to calculate pulmonary compliance?
A. Fiber-optic bronchoscope
B. Intraesophageal balloon
C. Transcutaneous PO2 electrode
D. Co-oximeter

23. Which of the following is NOT a good indication to perform

MIPs and MEPs?
A. Inability to cough effectively
B. Myasthenia gravis
C. Pulmonary hypertension
D. Amothopic lateral sclerosis

24. While working in a PFT lab, you discover that the nitrogen
analyzer is not functioning correctly. You would do which of
the following?
A. Go ahead and use the analyzer as long as it is working
B. Replace the nitrogen analyzer with a helium analyzer
 C. Take the analyzer to Biomedical lab for corrective
maintenance
D. Ask a technician to perform preventative maintenance on
the analyzer

25. You are a respiratory therapist in charge of the ABG lab. One of
your responsibilities is calibration of the gases used by the
blood gas machines. The tank containing O2 is a 20%
concentration. The barometric pressure is 760 mmHg on this
particular day. Calculate the concentration of the O2 in mmHg
so that you can compare your readouts to assure proper
calibration.
A. 162 mmHg
B. 125 mmHg
C. 158 mmHg
D. 143 mmHg

26. You are calibrating a spirometer with a super syringe, and

after injecting 3L of air for three consecutive calibrations; the
results are 2.8L, 3.0L, and 3.2L. Based on these results, the
spirometer is considered:
A. Accurate
B. Precise
C. Valid
D. Reliable

27. Which of the following is equal to RV?

A. FRC – IRV
B. TLC – VC
C. VC – IRV
D. IC – IRV

28. Which of the following is equal to IC?

A. TLC – RV
B. VC – ERV
C. RLC – IRV
D. VT + ERV
29. A patient has a VC of 4200 ml, an FRC of 3300 ml, and ERV of
1500 ml. What is the patient’s RV?
A. 2700 ml
B. 3700 ml
C. 1500 ml
D. 1800 ml

30. Results of a pulmonary function study on a patient indicate a

VC of 3600 ml, a FRC of 2000 ml, and a RV of 1000 ml. What is
the TLC?
A. 5500 ml
B. 7000 ml
C. 4600 ml
D. 8600 ml

31. If VT is 650 ml, ERV is 1100 ml, and RV is 1150 ml; FRC would be
equal to:
A. 3650 ml
B. 4750 ml
C. 2250 ml
D. 2900 ml

32. Which of the following would be most consistent with an

obstructive disorder?
A. FEV1/FVC% greater than 80% predicted
B. 15% improvement in bronchodilator challenge
C. Increased PEFR
D. TLC values of 55% of predicted

33. Compared to predicted normal values, a patient has a normal

FEV1/FVC ratio, normal FEF 25-75%, but a markedly reduced
FVC. Which of the following is most likely the problem?
A. A combined restrictive and obstructive disorder is present
B. A restrictive disorder is present
C. Poor patient effort during the test procedure
D. An obstructive disorder is present
34. Compared to predicted normals, a patient has a reduced FVC,
RV, and TLC, and a reduced FEV1 and FEV1/FVC ratio. Which of
the following is most likely the problem?
A. Small airways obstruction is present
B. A restrictive disorder is present
C. An obstructive disorder is present
D. Combined restrictive and obstructive disorder is present

35. A patient has a prebronchodilator FEV1 value of 2.5 L/sec and a

postbronchodilator value of 3,0 L/sec, what is the percent
change?
A. 15%
B. 30%
C. 20%
D. 25%

36. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis on the basis
of the following PFT results?
FVC 80% predicted
FEV1 50% predicted
FEV1/FVC% 55% predicted
FEF 25-75% 40% predicted
A. Silicosis
B. Kyphoscoliosis
C. Pneumothorax
D. Chronic bronchitis

37. Which of the following gases are needed to calibrate a N2

analyzer?
A. 100% CO2
B. 21% O2
C. 79% N2
D. 10% N2

38. A severely hypothermic patient is brought to the ER. The

patient has a temperature of 82 Degrees F, agonal respirations
and a heart rate of 30 beats per minute. CPR is initiated and
 an ABG is ordered. Which of the following inaccurate results
would occur if the RCP failed to make a temperature
correction to the ABG analyzer?
A. Higher CO2, and lower O2 and pH than acutal results
B. Lower CO2 and O2, higher pH than actual results
C. Elevated CO2 and O2, lower pH than actual results
D. Results would not be affected

39. When calibrating gas analyzers, which of the following should

be calibrated back to a 0% reading as the last point?
A. Nitrogen
B. Oxygen
C. Nitric oxide
D. Carbon dioxide/carbon monoxide

40. A medical gas analyzer that is capable of performing breath

by breath analysis during a nitrogen wash out study is the:
A. Mass spectrometry
B. Infrared analyzer
C. Nitrogen analyzer
D. Gas chromatography

41. Which of the following types of analyzers would be

appropriate to use for measurement of exhaled CO2 when
performing a Vd/Vt study at the bedside?
A. Gas chromatograph
B. Thermal conductive
C. Infrared
D. Wheatstone bridge

42. Which of the following is an disadvantage of using the Gas

Chromatograph analyzer?
A. Expensive and hard to maintain
B. Requires longer time for analysis
C. Requires a vacuum and an ionization chamber
D. Can analysis several gases at once
43. Which of the following statements are correct regarding
airway conductance (Gaw)?
A. Gaw is the same as Ra
B. Normal value is 0.96 to 2.70 L/sec/cmH2O
C. Gaw increases as Raw decreases
D. It is calculated by pressure difference divided by flowrate

44. Which of the following is the correct classification or severity

range for a Raw reading of 7.5 cmh2O/L/sec?
A. Severe Raw
B. Mild Raw
C. Moderate Raw
D. Normal Raw

45. A correctly performed nitrogen washout test requires that the

test last for:
A. 7 minutes and/or a final N2 concentration of 10% is
measured
B. 10 minutes and/or until a final N2 concentration of 5% is
measured
C. A final concentration of 10% is measured for 3 successive
breaths
D. A final N2 concentration of 1.5% is measured for 3
successive breaths

46. A helium dilution study is being performed on a patient with a

history of asbestosis’ exposure. After the test is completed, the
following information is obtained: A spirometer holding 7 liters
of air (Vs) was used with an initial concentration of He
analyzing at 10%. Final concentration of He analyzed at 8%.
According to the above information, you would record the
patient’s FRC to be:
A. 3.58 Liters
B. 4.26 Liters
C. 1.75 Liters
D. 750 ml
47. A patient is to perform a nitrogen washout test for
determination of FRC. At what point in the patient’s
ventilation should the patient be switched in to 100% O2?
A. At the end expiratory level
B. At the beginning of normal expiration
C. At the beginning of normal inspiration
D. At the end inspiratory level

48. A patient who cannot pant correctly during a body box test
should be instructed to:
A. Breathe at a slower rate and tidal volume
B. Place hands on the cheeks and prevent movement during
panting maneuver
C. Close the glottis while panting
D. Remove nose clips and continue panting

49. A patient with air trapping must have determination of lung

volumes for determination of FRC. The physician asks you to
recommend the methods would best determine actual values
for this patient. You would suggest:
A. Nitrogen washout
B. Helium dilution
C. Body plethysmography
D. Forced vital capacity

50. A patient’s vital capacity can be calculated by using which of

the following equations?
A. TLC – IC
B. IC + FRC
C. IRV + VT + ERV
D. FRC + VT

51. All of the following equations are correct with the EXCEPTION
of:
A. IC = IRV + VT
B. VC = IC + FRC
C. VT = IC – IRV
 D. ERV = VC – IC

52. All of the following equipment would be necessary for a

nitrogen washout test, EXCEPT:
A. Valve that opens to 100% O2
B. He analyzer
C. N2 analyzer
D. Spirometer and recording device

53. All of the following statements are true regarding the use of
the body plethysmograph EXCEPT:
A. Patients should be taught correct technique by
demonstration prior to testing
B. The body plethysmograph should be calibrated weekly
C. PFT technicians should acquire at least three acceptable
panting maneuvers
D. IV’s should be temporarily disconnected prior to testing

54. Body plethysmographs are most beneficial for the

determination of:
A. Peak expiratory flowrate
B. Intrathoracic gas volume
C. Inspiratory resistance
D. Intrapulmonary gas diffusion

55. Calculate the IC when the TLC is 5500 ml and the FRC is 2300
ml.
A. 2300 ml
B. 3200 ml
C. 5500 ml
D. 7800 ml

56. Calculate the RV when the TLC is 6200 ml and the VC is 4900
ml.
A. 1200 ml
B. 1100 ml
C. 1300 ml
 D. 1400 ml

57. During the measurement of FRC using the body

plethysmograph, at least three to five satisfactory panting
maneuvers should be obtained, with at least three FRC values
that agree within:
A. 5%
B. 0.200 liters
C. 7%
D. 10%

58. Given IRV = 2900 ml, Vt = 400 ml, ERV = 1350 ml, and RV = 1400
ml. The FRC would be calculated as:
A. 3300 ml
B. 2750 ml
C. 1600 ml
D. 4650ml

59. Given IRV = 2900 ml, Vt = 400 ml, ERV = 1350 ml, and RV = 1400
ml. The IC would be calculated as:
A. 6050 ml
B. 3300 ml
C. 1400 ml
D. 4650ml

60. Given IRV = 2900 ml, Vt = 400 ml, ERV = 1350 ml, and RV = 1400
ml. The TLC would be calculated as:
A. 2750 ml
B. 3300 ml
C. 1600 ml
D. 6050 ml

61. Given IRV = 3000 ml, VT = 650 ml, ERV = 1100 ml, RV = 1150 ml,
FRC is equal to:
A. 3650 ml
B. 2250 ml
C. 2900 ml
 D. 4750 ml

62. Given IRV = 3000 ml, VT = 650 ml, ERV = 1100 ml, RV = 1150 ml,
IC is equal to:
A. 3650 ml
B. 2250 ml
C. 4750 ml
D. 2900 ml

63. Given IRV = 3000 ml, VT = 650 ml, ERV = 1100 ml, RV = 1150 ml,
TLC is equal to:
A. 2900 ml
B. 5900 ml
C. 4800 ml
D. 3650 ml

64. Given IRV = 3000 ml, VT = 650 ml, ERV = 1100 ml, RV = 1150 ml,
VC is equal to:
A. 3650 ml
B. 4750 ml
C. 2900 ml
D. 2250 ml

65. Given: IRV = 2900 ml, Vt = 400 ml. ERV = 1350 ml, RV = 1400 ml.
The VC would be calculated as:
A. 2750 ml
B. 3300 ml
C. 6050 ml
D. 4650 ml

66. If the IC is 3200 ml, and the VT is 500 ml, what is the IRV?
A. 3200 ml
B. 2700 ml
C. 500 ml
D. 3700 ml
67. Results of a pulmonary function study on a patient report a VC
of 3600 ml, a FRC of 6000 ml, and an RV of 1000 ml. What is
the total lung capacity?
A. 9600 ml
B. 7000 ml
C. 8600 ml
D. 4600 ml

68. TLC is equal to which of the following?

A. VC + IC
B. IC + FRC
C. VC + FRC
D. IC + ERV

69. The FRC measured by body plethysmography is 30% larger

than that measured by Helium dilution. This difference is best
explained by an increase in which of the following?
A. Airway resistance
B. Diffusing capacity
C. Residual volume
D. Lung compliance

70. The largest volume of gas that can be expired from a resting
end-expiratory level is known as the:
A. Expiratory reserve volume
B. Inspiratory reserve volume
C. Residual volume
D. Vital capacity

71. The largest volume of gas that can be inspired above a normal
tidal volume breath is the:
A. Tidal volume
B. Residual volume
C. Inspiratory reserve volume
D. Inspiratory capacity
72. The operation of the body box is based on which of the
following laws?
A. Charles’
B. Poiseuille’s
C. Boyle’s
D. Dalton’s

73. The sum of IRV and Vt is equal to:

A. VC
B. FRC
C. TLC
D. IC

74. The total amount of gas in the lungs following a maximum

inspiration is described as the:
A. Total lung capacity
B. Vital capacity
C. Inspiratory reserve volume
D. Tidal volume

75. The volume of gas in the lungs that can be exhaled from end-
inspiratory level during normal or tidal breathing is the:
A. Expiratory reserve volume
B. Functional residual capacity
C. Residual volume
D. Total lung capacity

76. The volume of gas which remains in the lung at the end of a
maximum expiration is known as:
A. Residual Volume
B. Expiratory Reserve Volume
C. Functional Residual Capacity
D. Vital capacity

77. When measuring FRC in the body plethysmograph, the

relationship between mouth pressure and body box volume
changes occur during:
 A. The closed-shutter maneuver
B. The open-shutter maneuver
C. Looping of the mouth pressure signal
D. Hard and fast panting

78. Which of the following are true concerning the measurement

of FRC using the multiple-breath closed-circuit helium (He)
dilution test:
A. The volume in the spirometer and circuit must be known
B. The test continues until equilibration (change in He
concentration < 0.02% over 30 seconds
C. Carbon dioxide must be absorbed
D. All of the above

79. Which of the following could result in inaccurate results

during a helium dilution test?
A. Ruptured eardrum
B. “Switch-in” occurred prematurely
C. Failure to use nose clips during test
D. All of the above

80. Which of the following equations is INCORRECT for

calculating the total lung capacity?
A. TLC = IRV + VT + ERV
B. TLC = IC + FRC
C. TLC = VC + RV
D. TLC = IRV +VT + ERV+ RV

81. Which of the following is equal to RV?

A. FRC – ERV
B. TLC – IC
C. VC – ERV
D. IC – IRV

82. Which of the following methods of lung volume

determination correlates best with body plethysmography in
patients with obstructive diseases?
 A. Helium dilution
B. Single-breath washout
C. Radiological estimation
D. Nitrogen washout

83. Which of the following methods would provide the most

accurate determination of the volume of gas in the lungs at
end-tidal expiration for a patient who has severe emphysema?
A. Nitrogen washout
B. Body-box
C. Helium dilution
D. Single breath studies

84. Which of the following parameters cannot be directly

obtained from a spirometry tracing?
A. IRV
B. FRC
C. IC
D. ERV

85. Which of the following statements are correct about the

measurement of FRC by the nitrogen washout method?
A. A nitrogen analyzer is required
B. The test is continued until alveolar N2 is less than 1.5%
C. Patient breathes 100% O2
D. All of the above

86. Which of the following tests can be used to determine FRC?

A. FVC
B. Peak flow
C. Nitrogen Washout
D. Peak flow studies

87. While performing a closed-circuit gas dilution test, the

patient’s breathing pattern begins to increase and an increase
in the patient’s tidal volume is noticed. Which of the following
best explains the patient’s symptoms?
 A. The CO2 scrubber is missing from the circuit
B. The patient has exerted too much effort during expiration
C. The patient has developed bronchospasm
D. The patient is fatigued from testing

88. You have just completed a Nitrogen washout test to

determine a patient’s FRC. The computer has given you an
erroneous reading and you wish to calculate the FRC yourself.
The following results are available: Initial N2 reading – 75%.
Final N2 reading – 9%. Exhaled volume in Tissot spirometer –
26 Liters. What would you record as your patient’s FRC?
A. 2.97 L
B. 4.12 L
C. 3.52 L
D. 3.12 L

89. You instruct your patient to take a maximum inspiration

followed by a maximum expiration. You have just instructed
your patient to perform a:
A. Inspiratory Reserve Volume
B. Tidal volume breath
C. Vital Capacity
D. Inspiratory Capacity

90. A normal RV/TLC ratio value is indicated by:

A. 25%
B. 40%
C. 45%
D. 15%

91. Carbon monoxide is the recommended gas used in

determining DLCO because:
A. It has a greater affinity for HB molecules than O2
B. It will oxidize the iron atoms in the Hb molecules
C. Reduces the solubility of O2 in the plasma
D. It shifts the O2Hb dissociation curve to the right
92. Diffusion studies can be performed by which of the following
test?
A. Single-breath technique (DLCOSB)
B. FVC
C. Oxygen consumption
D. None of the above

93. Examples of restrictive disease processes include:

A. Emphysema
B. Pulmonary fibrosis
C. Asthma
D. None of the above

94. Factors that can limit the rate of diffusion across the
Alveolar/Capillary membrane include:
A. Decreased surface area
B. Increased distance for gas molecules to travel
C. Decreased pressure gradients between air and blood
D. All of the above

95. In patients with emphysema the DL,CO is reduced because of:

A. Low FEV1
B. An increase in lung volume
C. Decreased pulmonary artery pressure
D. Loss of alveolar-capillary membrane surface area

96. In single-breath diffusion capacity, the recommended time for

breath holding is:
A. 12 seconds
B. 10 seconds
C. 7 seconds
D. 5 seconds

97. Obstructive disorders with air-trapping display which of the

following values
A. Increased RV
B. Increased VC
 C. Decreased FRC
D. None of the above

98. Patient conditions that result in increased DLCO values

include which of the following?
A. Exercise
B. Left heart failure
C. Asthma
D. All of the above

99. The movement of oxygen in alveolar gas, across the alveolar-

capillary membrane, into the blood, and the exchange of
carbon dioxide in the reverse direction is caused by:
A. Ventilation
B. Distribution
C. Osmosis
D. Diffusion

100. The volume of gas discarded before collecting the alveolar

sample when performing a single breath diffusing capacity is
called:
A. Washout volume
B. Compressible gas volume
C. Deadspace volume
D. Back extrapolated volume

101. When performing a DLCOSB, the inspired volume should be

at least what percent of the VC to be valid?
A. 85%
B. 100%
C. 70%
D. 80%

102. When performing the single breath CO diffusion capacity

(DLCOSB) test, the patient is instructed to inhale to TLC a
mixture of:
A. 0.1% CO, 10% helium, 20% O2 and remainder air
 B. 0.5% CO, 15% helium and remainder O2
C. 0.5% CO, 10% helium, and remainder nitrogen
D. 0.3% CO, 10% helium, and remainder air

103. When preparing a patient for the administration of a

diffusing capacity test
A. The patient should be in the sitting position and wearing
nose clips
B. Supplemental O2 should be worn during a DLCO test
C. The patient should sit and rest at least 5 minutes prior to
the test
D. All of the above

104. Which of the following are characteristic of a restrictive lung

disease when measured volumes are compared with
predicted volumes?
A. The VC is increased
B. The FRC is decreased
C. The RV is increased
D. The RV/TLC ratio is increased

105. Which of the following gas analyzers are typically needed to

perform DLCO testing?
A. CO analyzer
B. N2 analyzer
C. CO2 analyzer
D. None of the above

106. Which of the following is a normal DLCO measurement?

A. 30 ml CO/min/mmHg STPD
B. 25 ml CO/min/mmHg STPD
C. 35 ml CO/min/mmHg STPD
D. 20 ml CO/min/mmHg STPD

107. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis on the

basis of the pulmonary function results below?
FVC 80% of predicted
 FEV1 59% of predicted
FEV1/FVC% 55% of predicted
FEF 25-75% 40% of predicted
DLCO 95% of predicted
A. Chronic Bronchitis
B. Kyphoscoliosis
C. Emphysema
D. Silicosis

108. Which of the following methods can be used to determine

lung volumes?
A. Body plethysmograph
B. Nitrogen washout study
C. Helium dilution
D. All of the above

109. Which of the following patient conditions can decrease the

DLCO?
A. Decreased HB
B. Exercise
C. Supine position
D. None of the above

110. Which of the following is a normal respiratory exchange ratio

(RER)?
A. 0.5
B. 0.6
C. 0.8
D. .10

111. Which of the following parameters measured during a

cardiopulmonary stress test is a good indicator of workload
achieved or how well a person can exercise?
A. VO2
B. VCO2
C. RQ of 1.2
D. Blood pressure of 90/60 after 5 minutes of testing
112. A patient with suspected asthma performs a methacholine
challenge. The following data are recorded:
Baseline – 4.1L (99% of predicted)
Diluent – 4.0 L
First dose – 0.0625 mg/ml – 3.5 L
Second dose – 0.250 mg/ml – 3.0 L
Third dose – 1.0 mg/ml – 2.7 L
Fourth dose – 4.0 mg/ml – 2.2 L
Which of the following best describes these findings?
A. The test was negative
B. The test was positive after the first dose of methacholine
C. The test was positive after the second dose of
methacholine
D. The patient does not have asthma

113. A purpose of using the steady-state protocol would be too:

A. Determine response to medication
B. Determine maximum exercise capacity
C. Determine if blockages to heart exist
D. Determine if patient is a candidate to run a marathon

114. Which of the following statements are true regarding

bronchoprovocation studies?
A. Can assess the severity of asthma
B. Most often use Methacholine as the agent that is
administered by aerosol
C. Uses 20% decrease in FEV1 as an indicator that a significant
bronchoconstriction response has occurred
D. All of the above

115. In bronchial provocation testing, the minimal index of positive

response is a:
A. 20% increase in FEV1
B. 10% increase in FEV1
C. 20% decrease in FEV1
D. 10% decrease in FEV1
116. A patient is seen by his pulmonologist with chief complaint of
being dyspneic most of the time even when he tries to walk to
his mailbox. What test would the pulmonologist order for this
patient?
A. Cardiac stress testing
B. Lung compliance study
C. Cardiopulmonary stress testing
D. Methacholine challenge testing

117. Which of the following statements BEST describes anaerobic

threshold?
A. Occurs when heart rate exceeds 175 beats/min
B. Occurs when patient’s minute ventilation equals his MVV
C. Occurs when anaerobic metabolism begins to supplement
aerobic metabolism
D. Occurs when S-T changes begin to occur on cardiac
monitor

118. The criteria for the termination of an exercise test includes:

A. Chest pain with ST segment changes
B Diastolic pressure change from 88 to 94 mmHg
C. Diaphoresis
D. Increased heart rates with exercise

119. A 57-year old male is scheduled for an exercise stress test

using the ergometer exercise bike. Calculate 60% of his
maximum heart rate.
A. 160
B. 130
C. 105
D. 98

120. In a healthy adult subject with a resting BP of 120/80, which

of the following responses would be expected during a
maximal incremental exercise test?
A. Systolic increases to 200, diastolic to 90
B. Systolic increases to 300, diastolic to 140
 C. Systolic increases to 160, diastolic to 130
D. Systolic remains at 120, diastolic decreases to 60

121. It is determined that a patient has a FEV1 of 3.3 L.The patient is

unable to perform an MVV maneuver. The estimated MVV
would be:
A. 80 Liters
B. 116 Liters
C. 150 Liters
D. 176 Liters

122. In order to ensure safety for methacholine challenge testing,

the PFT technologist should:
A. Have a physician readily available if needed
B. Test in a well-ventilated room
C. Warn those in the testing area to sit or stand way from
nebulized medication
D. All of the above

123. Which of the following are normal ventilatory responses to

exercise?
A. Minute ventilation will increase linearly with exercise
B. Breathing reserve will be decreased in patients with
cardiovascular disease
C. Patients with restrictive disease will decrease minute
ventilation by decreasing respiratory rate
D. None of the above

124. A relative contraindications for conducting a

cardiopulmonary exercise evaluation include all of the
following except:
A. Diastolic blood pressure greater than 90 mm Hg
B. Serious cardiac arrhythmias
C. Unstable angina
D. Recent myocardial infarction

125. Contraindications to methacholine challenge testing include:

 A. Recent MI
B. Patient unable to comprehend instructions to procedure
C. Uncontrolled hypertension
D. All of the above

126. You are performing an exercise stress test to determine

cardiac ability when suddenly your patient develops a second
degree heart block and pallor. What action should you take?
A. Slow the speed and grade of treadmill and continue
exercising
B. Stop the test and administer oxygen
C. Do nothing, this is normal
D. Stop the test and administer lidocaine

127. The purpose of obtaining an anaerobic threshold is to:

A. Produce respiratory acidosis
B. Prescribe an effective exercise program
C. Increase the respiratory rate
D. Produce metabolic alkalosis

128. In order to perform cardiopulmonary stress testing, it is

decided to exercise a patient using a cycle ergometer.
Workload for this piece of equipment would be increased by
which of the following?
A. Adjusting the speed of pedaling
B. Increased incline and speed of equipment
C. Increasing pedaling frequency and resistance
D. Decreasing incline while increasing speed of device

129. All of the following would be necessary equipment to perform

a cardiopulmonary exercise test EXCEPT:
A. Breathing valves
B. Small volume nebulizer
C. Spirometer
D. Emergency equipment
130. What RER suggest that the anaerobic threshold has been
reached for a patient performing a cardiopulmonary stress
test?
A. 1.0
B. 0.8
C. 0.6
D. 0.4

131. A cardiopulmonary exercise evaluation is conducted on a

patient before participation in pulmonary rehabilitation for
what purposes?
A. To determine the patient’s baseline exercise capacity
B. To develop an exercise prescription (including target heart
rate)
C. To determine how much desaturation occurs with exercise
D. All of the above

132. When preparing a patient for a methacholine challenge

study, the PFT technologist should inform the patient to:
A. Not take any bronchodilators prior to the test
B. Avoid antigen exposure at least 24 hours prior to testing
C. Postpone study if patient has had viral infection in the last
3 weeks
D. All of the above

133. Which of the following exercise protocols would you

recommend to implement a maximal symptom-limited
incremental protocol?
A. cycle ergometer at 50 watts for 10 minutes
B. A treadmill at a speed of 5 miles/hour with 10% grade
increased by 2% every 3 minute
C. A constant treadmill with increasing speed every 8
minutes
D. A cycle ergometer at 50 watts for 8 minutes

134. Absolute contraindications to exercise stress testing include:

A. Ventricular arrhythmias
 B. SpO2 of 75% on room air
C. Unstable angina
D. All of the above

135. Which of the following is an indication for cardiopulmonary

stress exercise testing?
A. Determine ventilatory limitations to exercise
B. Evaluate patients prior to surgery
C. Evaluate patients with cardiovascular disease
D. All of the above

136. A pulmonologist asks you to assess airway responsiveness

during a pulmonary function exam. He wants to rule out
asthma from chronic bronchitis in a patient complaining of
nocturnal wheezing. You should consider all of the following
tests EXCEPT:
A. Thoracic gas volume
B. Histamine challenge test
C. Methacholine challenge test
D. Mannitol challenge test

137. The final interpreted report of results from a methacholine

challenge study should include:
A. Patient’s SpO2
B. Patient’s weight
C. Provocative substance used
D. Family history

138. Which of the following are normal gas exchange responses to

exercise:
A. VO2 (oxygen consumption) increases
B. VCO2 (CO2 production) decreases
C. Physiologic deadspace increases
D. None of the above

139. All of the following should be monitored during a

cardiopulmonary exercise evaluation except:
A. Respiratory rate
B. HbO2 saturation
C. ECG and blood pressure
D. Raw
Conclusion

So there you have it! Wow, you made it all the way to the end —
that’s impressive!

By doing so, that lets me know that you have what it takes to
become a successful Respiratory Therapist.

You’re definitely on the right track, so keep working and studying

hard and you’ll be just fine.

And not to worry — we’re going to be with you every step of the
way along your journey.

Thanks again for reading through this study guide! If you thought
that these questions were helpful, you should definitely consider
checking out our TMC Test Bank.

It’s a MASSIVE bank of practice questions that are designed to

teach you everything you need to know in order to pass the TMC
Exam.

It comes in PDF format (like this book) and also has helpful audio
and videos as well.

Not to brag or anything, but it’s already successfully helped

thousands of students pass the TMC Exam!

Are you next??

It’s never too early to start preparing for the exam!

And going through practice questions is one of the most effective

strategies that students are using to pass the exam.

That’s why our TMC Test Bank is so effective.

So if you’re interested, just click the link below to learn more.

Click Here to Get Access to the TMC Test Bank

Breathe easy, my friend! 🙏

Johnny Lung RRT

One more thing!
How would you like to get new TMC Practice Questions sent to
your inbox every single day?

If this is something that sounds interesting to you, Click Here to

learn more.

As I mentioned before, going through practice questions is one of

the most effective strategies when it comes to passing the TMC
Exam.

Well now, you can get new practice questions delivered straight to
your inbox on a daily basis.

This way, over time, you can master every single topic that you
need to know to increase your chances of passing the exam on
your first (or next) attempt.

Let’s go through an example so that you can see what I’m talking
about.

Here’s an example of a TMC Practice Question:

After reviewing the results of a patient’s pulmonary function tests,

you note that the FEV1, FVC, and total lung capacity are all
reduced. The FEV1/FVC ratio is normal. What is the interpretation
based on these findings?
A. Restrictive lung disease
B. Obstructive lung disease
C. Combined obstructive-restrictive lung disease
D. The test is invalid

Do you know the answer? Not to worry, let’s break it down!

The explanation that you get along with each practice question is
the most important part!

This is your typical PFT interpretation question. You will see a few
of these on the TMC Exam. And to get them right, you must
understand what each value means in regards to knowing the
difference between an obstructive and restrictive disease.

Since this patient has a normal FEV1/FVC ratio, this indicates that
there is not an obstructive disease.

And since the FEV1, FVC, and TLC are all reduced, this indicates a
restrictive disease. This one is simple — we know that the correct
answer has to be A.

The correct answer is: A. Restrictive lung disease

Well, what did you think? Do you see how valuable this
information can be??

Are you ready to start receiving these practice questions and

explanations every day?

If so, just click on the link below

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References

1. AARC Clinical Practice Guidelines, (2002-2019) Respirator Care.

www.aarc.org.

2. Egan’s Fundamentals of Respiratory Care. (2010) 11th Edition.

Kacmarek, RM, Stoller, JK, Heur, AH. Elsevier.

3. Mosby’s Respiratory Care Equipment. Cairo, JM. (2014) 9th

Edition. Elsevier.

4. Pilbeam’s Mechanical Ventilation. (2012) Cairo, JM. Physiological

and Clinical Applications. 5th Edition. Saunders, Elsevier.

5. Ruppel’s Manual of Pulmonary Function Testing. (2013) Mottram,

C. 10th Edition. Elsevier.

6. Rau’s Respiratory Care Pharmacology. (2012) Gardenhire, DS. 8th

Edition. Elsevier.

7. Perinatal and Pediatric Respiratory Care. (2010) Walsh, BK,

Czervinske, MP, DiBlasi, RM. 3rd Edition. Saunders.

8. Wilkins’ Clinical Assessment in Respiratory Care (2013) Heuer, Al.

7th Edition. Saunders. Elsevier.

9. Clinical Manifestations and Assessment of Respiratory Disease.

(2010) Des Jardins, T, & Burton, GG. 6th edition. Elsevier.

10. Neonatal and Pediatric Respiratory Care. (2014) Walsh, Brian K.

4th edition. RRT. Elsevier.

11. Clinical Application of Mechanical Ventilation (2013) Chang,

David W. 4th edition. Cengage Learning.