Regd. Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.

011--47623456

Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

NEET 2020
MM : 720 Test - 4 Time : 3.00 Hrs.

Answer Key
1. (4) 38. (1) 74. (4) 110. (3) 146 (1)
2. (4) 39. (1) 75. (1) 111. (2) 147. (4)
3. (1) 40. (2) 76. (2) 112. (2) 148. (4)
4. (4) 41. (3) 77. (2) 113. (4) 149. (1)
5. (4) 42. (1) 78. (4) 114. (2) 150. (2)
6. (3) 43. (4) 79. (1) 115. (1) 151. (3)
7. (2) 44. (3) 80. (1) 116. (4) 152. (2)
8. (2) 45. (1) 81. (4) 117. (1) 153. (2)
9. (2) 46. (1) 82. (3) 118. (3) 154. (3)
10. (3) 47. (2) 83. (3) 119. (4) 155. (3)
11. (4) 48. (4) 84. (1) 120. (1) 156. (2)
12. (4) 49. (2) 85. (4) 121. (4) 157. (3)
13. (3) 50. (2) 86. (2) 122. (3) 158. (2)
14. (4) 51. (2) 87. (3) 123. (3) 159. (1)
15. (3) 52. (1) 88. (1) 124. (1) 160. (1)
16. (4) 53. (3) 89. (1) 125. (3) 161. (4)
17. (3) 54. (1) 90. (1) 126. (3) 162. (1)
18. (4) 55. (3) 91. (1) 127. (2) 163. (2)
19. (4) 56. (2) 92. (2) 128. (1) 164. (2)
20. (1) 57. (1) 93. (3) 129. (2) 165. (1)
21. (2) 58. (4) 94. (2) 130. (2) 166. (4)
22. (4) 59. (1) 95. (3) 131. (3) 167. (4)
23. (4) 60. (4) 96. (2) 132. (3) 168. (3)
24. (2) 61. (2) 97. (1) 133. (2) 169. (2)
25. (1) 62. (1) 98. (1) 134. (2) 170. (3)
26. (2) 63. (4) 99. (3) 135. (2) 171. (1)
27. (4) 64. (2) 100. (1) 136. (3) 172. (2)
28. (1) 65. (3) 101. (2) 137. (1) 173. (2)
29. (4) 66. (2) 102. (4) 138. (3) 174. (4)
30. (2) 67. (4) 103. (2) 139. (2) 175. (3)
31. (4) 68. (3) 104. (1) 140. (4) 176. (2)
32. (1) 69. (2) 105. (2) 141. (2) 177. (3)
33. (1) 70. (1) 106. (3) 142. (3) 178. (3)
34. (1) 71. (2) 107. (2) 143. (2) 179. (1)
35. (4) 72. (3) 108. (1) 144. (1) 180. (4)
36. (4) 73. (4) 109. (2) 145. (4)
37. (1)
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Test-4_(Hints & S olutions) Aakash Rank Booster
ster Test Series for NEET-2020

15/05/2020 CODE-A

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011--47623456

Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

NEET 2020
MM : 720 Test - 4 Time : 3:00 Hrs.

Hints and Solutions

PHYSICS
1. Answer (4) 12
 Cs  F
Farad 7
SI unit of  :
Meter Charge on C2 = Charge on Cs
2. Answer (4) C2V2 = CsV
Electrostatic lines of force do not form closed 12
loops, as electrostatic field is a conservative field. CSV  14
V2   7 4V
3. Answer (1) C2 6
4. Answer (4)
8. Answer (2)
1
Electric field due to short dipole varies as E  A    
r3

VA  VB  E. dr  E.[rA  rB ]
1 B
For point charge E 
r2     iˆ  ˆj 
 E.(rB  rA )  50 2   .(4iˆ  2 jˆ)
1  2 
For line charge E 
r
= – 300 volt
For large sheet E  r 0 9. Answer (2)
5. Answer (4) The Wheatstone bridge is in the balanced
When the Gaussian surface encloses no charge, condition.
then the electric flux through that surface is zero. Ceff = 6 F
Electric field over the Gaussian surface need not
1
be zero at every point on that surface. Total energy stored, U  Ceff V 2
2
6. Answer (3)
1
V   n 2/3V  82/3  2 volt  [6]  22  12 μJ
2
= 4 × 2 volt 10. Answer (3)
= 8 volt +Q
7. Answer (2)
Let Cs is the effective capacitance. Q P

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 3R
      R
2
Cs C1 C2 C3 3 6 12

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Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-4_(Hints & Solutions)

The field at point P due to charge Q within the 14. Answer (4)
shell and charge induced on the inner surface of R1 = 6  R2 = 18 
the shell is zero. The field at point P is only, due i – i1 i1
i – 2i1
to the induced charge on the outer surface of
R5 = 6 
shell. a i b
1 Q 1 Q i1 d i – i1
 E 2
 2
R3 = 18  R4 = 6 
40  R 4  0  7R 
By symmetry, currents through R1 and R4 must
3R  2   2 
    be same
11. Answer (4) Also, currents through R2 and R3 must be same

 R2R3  R1R4  The loop equation for the left loop is

Vb  Vd   V 6i – 6i1 – 18i1 + 6i – 12i1 = 0 
 (R1  R2 )(R3  R4 ) 
  12i = 36i1
 600  200 
   15 = 4 volt  i = 3i1
 (30)(50) 
Now Va – Vb = +18(i1) + 6[i – i1] = 6i + 12i1
12. Answer (4)
= 6i + 4i = 10i
By symmetry, the given circuit can be drawn as:
But [Va – Vb] = i Reff
3
3  Reff = 10 

2 3 2  Or
2R1R2  R1R3  R2 R5
a 6 6 b RAB   10 
6 2R5  R1  R2
4 6
4
15. Answer (3)

6 Let Re is the effective resistance between a and

6
b. The equivalent circuit is
R R
a a
a 12  b  Rab = 3 RRe
R Re R + Re
12 
b b
13. Answer (3) RRe R 2  2RRe
Now, Rab  R   Re 
Before switch S is closed, the charge on each of R  Re R  Re
the 12 F and 4 F capacitors is
 5  1
Q
 12  4   Re2  RRe  R 2  0  Re   R
  9  27 C.  2 
12  4 

The current flowing through the 6  and 3   5  1  5  1

Re    [1.235]    [2.235  1]
resistors is i =
9
= 1 A. So P.D. across 6   2   2 
63
 5  1 4
resistor = 6 V and P.D. across 3 resistor = 3 V   [ 5  1]   2 
 2  2
Now, when the switch S is closed,
16. Answer (4)
Charge on 4 F capacitor is 4 × 3 = 12 C
1 2
and charge on 12 F capacitor is 12 × 6 = 72 C. 
r1 r2 10  5 5
net   
 Charge flowed from a to b through switch S is 1 1 1 1 2

[(+72) – 12] = 60 C r1 r2

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Test-4_(Hints & S olutions) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

5 = 8 × 10–3 A
net 2 = 8 mA
i  1A
r1r2 1
R 2 22. Answer (4)
r1  r2 2
Ohm’s law is TRUE, when the resistivity of the
Since b is at higher potential then a, current flows material is independent of the applied electric
from b to a. field.
17. Answer (3) 23. Answer (4)
At time t = 0 ; capacitor offer zero opposition. J
4 Vd 
So, i   4 mA Mobility,    ne   Constant
500  500 E J ne
At time t = , capacitor offers infinite opposition. 
4 24. Answer (2)
So, i   2 mA
500  1000  500 Straight wire will experience force only and
circular wire will experience torque only so,
P.D. across 1000  resistor = 2 × 10–3 × 1000 =
overall conductor will experience both torque as
2V
well as force.
 Charge on 6 F capacitor = 6 × 2 = 12 C
25. Answer (1)
18. Answer (4)
L
The branch ab containing the 3  resistor is NOT Radius of circular path, r 
2
a part of the closed circuit. If current flows in this
branch then Kirchoff’s first law will be violated. So Magnetic moment
no current flows through the 3  resistor.  I  L2 ˆ I L2 ˆ
M  IL2 (  jˆ )  (  i )  IL2 ˆj  i
19. Answer (4) 2 4 8
R 26. Answer (2)
A B Due to outward centrifugal force, tension in wire
2R
 mR2 
becomes  BiR  
 2 
2R 2R
R 27. Answer (4)
Direction of magnetic force remains perpendicular
A B to direction of velocity so no work is done on
charge particle.
3R 28. Answer (1)
3R In parallel, emf across both inductors are same
RAB 
4 d 1 d 2
  or 1 = 2
20. Answer (1) dt dt
First band : Violet = 7 29. Answer (4)
Second band : Green = 5
Third band : Orange = 3
dx
 Multiplier = 103
Last band : Gold : Tolerance = ± 5% x

 R = [75 × 10+3 ] ± 5% O
21. Answer (2) b

e = B x dx
q  1
i  q  fe a
T T 
B 2
= 5 × 1016 × 1.6 × 10–19 = (b  a 2 )
2
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Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-4_(Hints & Solutions)

30. Answer (2) 37. Answer (1)

Twisting torque= deflecting torque Value of average current depends on interval
Case-I : k(181 – 37) = M1H sin 37º chosen.
38. Answer (1)
3 Maximum current in L. C oscillation
k144 = M1 H ...(i)
5
1
Case-II : k(273 – 53) = M2Hsin53° imax  q0   CV
LC
4 C
k220 = M 2 H ...(ii) imax  V
5 L
Dividing eq. (i) by eq. (ii), 39. Answer (1)
3 N  = Li
M1
144 Li 8  10 3  5  10 3
 5 = =

= 10–7 Wb = 0 Wb
220 4 N 400 4
M
5 2
40. Answer (2)
4 144 M1 
   e= 
3 220 M 2 t
48 M1 n  2  1 
  e= 
55 M 2 t
31. Answer (4) n  2  1 
i × 5R = 
a t
Side length = a  L  , aL 2
2 n  2  1 
i= 
emf between point a & d along path (abcd) 5Rt
 dB  3 41. Answer (3)
 m, n   2L2 
 dt  4 T = mgsin mgcos
32. Answer (1) 2T = Bil
Let i is increasing 2mg sin   2mg cos 
i=
Bl
dI
 VA  1 2  6  10  10 3  VB 42. Answer (1)
dt
F = 2T
Since VA = VB
2irB = 2T
di T = Bir
 400 A/s
dt T Bir
v= 
33. Answer (1) m m
Since current in ab and ac are same therefore, 43. Answer (4)
potential at b and c are same hence current in bc Magnetic force does not do any work.
is zero.   1  qE  2
Displacement by E , S   ˆ
34. Answer (1) t i
2 m 
E0  Use work-energy theorem
c 
B0 k   1
35. Answer (4)

F .S  m (2v 0 )2  v 02
2

UE = UB 1  qE  2 1
qE0   0
2 m
2
 t  m 3v 0
 2
 
36. Answer (4)
V0 l0  3mv 0
Power, P  cos  0 t=
2 2 qE0

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Test-4_(Hints & S olut ions) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

44. Answer (3) 45. Answer (1)

Net force on current carrying loop in uniform Two current carrying wires with parallel current
magnetic field is zero. always attract each other.

CHEMISTRY
46. Answer (1) 53. Answer (3)
In mercury cell cathode used is paste of HgO Temperature distribution curve for K.E. of gas
and carbon. molecules
47. Answer (2) 54. Answer (1)
 = icRT 2.303 100
t93.75  t1/ 2 log
 i 0.693 6.25
2.303
0.38 iAB2 t 93.75  t1/ 2 log 16
  iAB2  2.37 2.303  0.3010
0.16 1
t1/ 2
48. Answer (4) t 93.75  4 log 2
0.3010
Henry law, is p = KHx
t93.75 = 4 t1/2
x = mole fraction of dissolved gas 55. Answer (3)
p = Partial pressure of gas In Frenkel defect density of the crystal remains
 log p = log KH + log x unchanged.
log x = log p – log KH 56. Answer (2)
Edge Length of original cube = 1 m = 103 mm
49. Answer (2)
Total surface area of cube = 6 × (103)2 = 6 × 106
Acetone and aniline mixture show negative mm2
deviation.
When cube is Broken into cubes of edge length 1
50. Answer (2) mm then 109 cubes will be obtained due to
1 1 constant volume.
Conductance (G)  
R 200 Total surface area = 109 × 6 × (1)2 = 6 × 109 mm2
 l  Increase in surface area = 6 × 109/ 6 × 106 = 103
K  G  57. Answer (1)
A
Positively charged colloid is easily coagulated by
 l  0.015 species having higher negative charge on it.
   Cell constant =  200  3 cm 1
A 1 58. Answer (4)
51. Answer (2) Butter is an example of emulsion.
 t1/ 2 1 a 
n 1 59. Answer (1)
 2
 t1/ 2 2  a1 
n 1
75  2 
 
150  1  60. Answer (4)
 2–1 = 2n–1 In CCP (FCC) lattice,
–1 = n – 1 1 unit cell contain
 n = 0 = 1 atom  3 atom  4 atoms
(Corner ) ( face centre)
So it is zero order reaction.
Atoms removed from face centre
52. Answer (1)
2
(1) Zero order = 3   2 atom
3
(2) First order
Since atoms become half so occupied space will
(3) First order 1
(4) Pseudo First order become half that is = 74   37%
2

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Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-4_(Hints & Solutions)

61. Answer (2) 68. Answer (3)

For depression in freezing point In same group hydrides bond angle decreases
1000  K f  w down the group due to decrease in s-character.
Tf  69. Answer (2)
m  W(H2O)
Tf = 9.3, w = 65, K f  1.86 mGlycol = 62
Phosphonic acid is ,
1000  1.86  65
9.3 
62  W
tetrahedral geometry.
W water = 209.67 g
70. Answer (1)
The mass of ice separated Nitrates are not ore due to water soluble nature.
= 250 – 209.67 = 40.33 g 71. Answer (2)
62. Answer (1) Pb can be oxidised easily than Ag.
K2 Ea  T2  T1  72. Answer (3)
log 
K1 2.303 R  T1T2  When curves of metals crosses each other then
Ea 10 G = 0
log 2   73. Answer (4)
2.303  8.314 298  308
Highly electropositive metals like s-block
Ea = 52.89 kJ elements and Al are extracted by electrolytic
63. Answer (4) extraction
x 1
x 1 74. Answer (4)
 KP n  log  log K  log P
m m n Cr2+ is stronger reducing agent than
64. Answer (2) Fe2+[Cr3+ = 3d3] because d3 is more stable than
d5(Fe3+) due to high CFSE.
Higher the value of standard reduction potential
higher is the oxidising power of the metal. Oxides exhibits higher oxidation state of metal
due to more stronger double bond formation.
65. Answer (3)
(Mn2+/Mn0) Eo is more negative due to less
Cell reactions is 2Ag+ + Cu  Cu2+ + 2Ag
sublimation energy.
º
Ecell = 0.80 – 0.34 = 0.46 75. Answer (1)
Apply Nernst equation : LnC is not formed.
º 0.0591 [Cu2 ] 76. Answer (2)
Ecell  Ecell  log
2 [Ag ]2 H
CrO24 

 Cr2O72
0.0591 1.5  104 OH 
Ecell  0.46  log Cr2O72   CrO24
2 (4.5  104 )2
77. Answer (2)
Ecell = 0.375
K2Cr2O7 + 7H2SO4 + 6KI 
G = –nFE = –2 × 96500 × 0.375 = –72375 J
4K2SO4 + Cr2(SO4)3 + 3I2 + 7H2O
66. Answer (2)
KI is reducing agent
nEocell 2  0.591
log(K c )    20 78. Answer (4)
0.0591 0.0591
Because HCl itself can reduce KMnO4 and HNO3
Kc = 1020
itself act as oxidizing agent.
67. Answer (4)
79. Answer (1)
1 –
CN is ambidentate ligand.
Freezing point of solution 
i 80. Answer (1)
[Co(H2O)6]Cl3 , i=4 The complex is [Cr(NH3)4Cl2]Cl. Hence two
[Co(H2O)5Cl]Cl2·H2O, i = 3 chlorides are coordinated.
[Co(H2O)4Cl2]Cl·2H2O, i = 2 81. Answer (4)
[Co(H2O)3Cl3]·3H2O, i=1 EAN = 24 – 3 + 2 × 6 = 33

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Test-4_(Hints & S olut ions) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

82. Answer (3) 85. Answer (4)

Since different energy d-orbitals not allowed in
hybridisation hence both 4d orbitals are used in
hybridisation.

83. Answer (3)

Since fluoride ion is weak field ligand therefore Due to strong field ligand.
configuration of metal is high spin 86. Answer (2)
The ligand which can accept electron from metal
in its vacant antibonding orbital is a
-acid ligand.
87. Answer (3)
Now CFSE = [2 × 0.6 + 4 × (–0.4)] 0 = –0.4 0 The overall instability constant is the reciprocal of
overall formation constant.
84. Answer (1) 88. Answer (1)
25 × 2 + x + 2 × 10 = 2 × 36
x = 2 etc
Cr3+  d3 Hence one metal-metal bond is present
(OC)5Mn – Mn(CO)5
  3(3  2)  15 B.M. 89. Answer (1)
Strong ‘Jahn-Teller’ effect observed in
Fe2+  d6 due to strong ligand incomplete eg orbitals.
90. Answer (1)
  0(0  2)  0
-acid ligands exerts strong trans effect.

BOTANY
91. Answer (1) 1
Ploidy of PEN = Ploidy of female plant +
Geitonogamy occurs on monoecious plant. 2
ploidy of male plant = 2n + 1/2(4n) = 4n
92. Answer (2)
1 1
Removal of stamens is required in female Ploidy of zygote = ploidy of female plant +
2 2
flowers.
ploidy of male plant
93. Answer (3) = 1/2(2n) + 1/2(4n)
Epiblast is present in embryo of monocot seeds. = n + 2n
94. Answer (2) = 3n
Remnant of nucellus is called perisperm and 98. Answer (1)
seeds having this are called perispermic seeds. In ex-albuminous seeds endosperm is completely
95. Answer (3) consumed during embryonic development and
these seeds are also called non-endospermic
Filiform apparatus is present in synergids of seeds.
female gametophyte.
99. Answer (3)
96. Answer (2) The viability of seeds of Lupinus arcticus is
Hydrophily is seen in 30 genera, of 10000 years and it is oldest till date.
monocotyledons. 100. Answer (1)
97. Answer (1) Cells of endothecium are persistent.
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Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-4_(Hints & Solutions)

101. Answer (2)

The mass of parenchymatous tissue enclosed
within the integument of an ovule is known as
nucellus.
102. Answer (4) a b
Multiple allelism I I genotype is not possible hence progeny of
AB blood group is also not possible.
103. Answer (2)
116. Answer (4)
Phenotype of dihybrid cross in F2 generation.
Colour blindness is X-linked recessive disorder
= Round yellow : Round green : Wrinkled yellow : 117. Answer (1)
Wrinkled green
Terror of Bengal-water hyacinth (Eichhornia).
=9:3:3:1
118. Answer (3)
Hence, ratio of round green and wrinkled yellow
Asexual spores structure in Penicillium is non-
=3:3 motile spores called conidia.
=1:1 119. Answer (4)
104. Answer (1) The process of formation of microspores from a
One dominant allele masks the effect of other pollen mother cell (PMC) through meiosis is
allele i.e. recessive. called microsporogenesis.
105. Answer (2) 120. Answer (1)
Type of gametes = 2n. Exine is outer wall of pollen grain.
Here n is heterozygous pair of alleles = 22 = 4 121. Answer (4)
106. Answer (3) Drosophila melanogaster—related to linkage and
Algae are both isogamous and heterogamous but chromosomal mapping.
pollens are not produced. Bryophytes are 122. Answer (3)
heterogamous. Transcription unit start from a promoter region
107. Answer (2) and ends with terminator region in both
Embryogenesis is a post fertilisation event. prokaryotes and eukaryotes.
108. Answer (1) 123. Answer (3)
In Apple 2n = 34. A in template DNA will transcribe into U in RNA
not T.
109. Answer (2)
124. Answer (1)
Genotype of dominant trait, which may be either
homozygous or heterozygous, can be Exons are called expressed sequence and
determined by test cross of F1 to recessive introns interrupt exons sequences.
parent. 125. Answer (3)
110. Answer (3) a. Coding strand  5′  3′ polarity
In human, on Y-chromosome fewest genes are b. Template strand  3′  5′ polarity
present i.e. 231 genes. c. SnRNAs  Intron removal
111. Answer (2) d. Termination of transcription  ρ factor
Yellow seed is a dominant trait in pea plant. e. Initiation of transcription  σ factor
112. Answer (2) 126. Answer (3)
It is trisomy of 21st chromosome (2n + 1) = 47. U U U U U U U U U (9 units)
113. Answer (4) UUU Phenylalanine
Overall masculine development occur in Kind of amino acid polymerised - 1
Klinefelter’s syndrome.
114. Answer (2) (12 repeating units)
CUC Leucine
During pedigree analysis, consanguineous UCU Serine
mating is represented by the above symbol. Kind of amino acid polymerised - 2
115. Answer (1) 127. Answer (2)
Blood group  AB × O
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Test-4_(Hints & S olutions) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

Covalent bonds are responsible for nucleotide F. Miescher  Term ‘Nuclein’

bonding within same strand. J.H. Taylor  Replication of DNA in Faba beans
128. Answer (1) 131. Answer (3)
A = 17% S is the part of capsid proteins found in medium
A = T = 17% and not the part of DNA.
A + T + G + C = 100% 132. Answer (3)
34% + G + C = 100% DNA should provide the scope for slow changes
G + C = 66% (mutation) that are required for evolution.
or G = C = 33% 133. Answer (2)
G + T = 33 + 17 = 50% RNA cannot act as genetic material as it mutate
and change at very fast rate, a feature which is
C = 33%
not suitable for genetic material.
129. Answer (2) 134. Answer (2)
9
Total bp of diploid human cell is 6.6 × 10 bps DNA has deoxyribose sugar while RNA has
and total length is ribose sugar.
9 –9
6.6 × 10 bp × 0.34 × 10 m = 2.2 meters 135. Answer (2)
130. Answer (2) RNA is formed and processed in the nucleus and
F. Griffith  Transformation principle then translated in cytoplasm.
Kornberg enzyme  DNA polymerase I

ZOOLOGY
136. Answer (3) IUI – Intra uterine insemination
ZIFT – Zygote Intra Fallopian Transfer. AI – Artificial insemination
MESA – Microsurgical Epididymal Sperm 144. Answer (1)
Aspiration
Condoms, diaphragms, cervical caps and vaults
137. Answer (1) are barriers for birth control.
Menstrual cycle is present in all primates. 145. Answer (4)
138. Answer (3) Saheli was prepared by CDRI, Lucknow.
Amniocentesis can be used to test for the 146 Answer (1)
presence of certain genetic disorders such as
Down’s syndrome, haemophilia, sickle-cell Menarche is onset of menstruation.
anemia, etc. 147. Answer (4)
139. Answer (2) One prostate gland is present in humans.
Libido remains unaffected after vasectomy since 148. Answer (4)
there is no hormonal imbalance.
IgA antibody is present in colostrum.
140. Answer (4)
149. Answer (1)
IUDs need to be inserted with help of a
gynaecologist/nurse. Tubal pregnancy is most common ectopic
pregnancy.
141. Answer (2)
150. Answer (2)
Lactational amenorrhoea is effective only upto a
maximum period of six months. Yolk sac - site of formation of RBCs in initial
stages of embryonic development.
142. Answer (3)
151. Answer (3)
IUDs increase phagocytosis of sperms within the
uterus and the Cu ions released suppress sperm Spermatid conversion into sperm is called
motility and fertilising capacity of sperms. spermiogenesis/spermateleosis.
143. Answer (2) 152. Answer (2)
GIFT – Gamete intra fallopian transfer Acrosome is derived from Golgi body.

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153. Answer (2) q = 40% = 0.4 = Recessive allele frequency

Formation of sperms is called spermatogenesis. So p = 1 – q = 0.6 = dominant allele frequency
154. Answer (3) Individuals with dominant phenotype
Embedding of blastocyst in the endometrium = p2 + 2 pq
is called implantation. Immediately after
implantation, the inner cell mass (embryo)  (0.6)2 + (2) × (0.6) × (0.4)
differentiates into ectoderm and endoderm. = 0.36 + 0.48 = 0.84
155. Answer (3)   84% of total population
Depolarisation of ovum membrane constitutes
fast block to check polyspermy. 84
  400 = 336
100
156. Answer (2)
If only one ovary is removed the remaining ovary 167. Answer (4)
will compensate for the one that was removed Darwin and Wallace independently proposed the
and would lead to normal menstrual cycles and theory of evolution through natural selection.
female can become pregnant. Organisms better adapted to their environment
157. Answer (3) tend to survive and reproduce more than those
less adapted to their environment in the theory of
The female external genitalia include mons natural selection.
pubis, labia majora, labia minora, hymen and
clitoris. 168. Answer (3)
158. Answer (2) Ramapithecus and Dryopithecus were hairy and
Primary sex organs produce gametes and also walked like gorillas and chimpanzees.
secrete sex hormones. 169. Answer (2)
159. Answer (1) Ichthyosaurus evolved around 200 mya.
Oogenesis is initiated during the embryonic 170. Answer (3)
development stage when a couple of million
gamete mother cells (oogonia) are formed in S.L. Miller obtained amino acids in the
each fetal ovary; no more oogonia are formed experiment like - Alanine, Glycine and Aspartic
and added after birth. acid.
160. Answer (1) 171. Answer (1)
Estrogen, LH and FSH are at high level during A founder effect occurs when a small group of
mid cycle. individuals is separated from the parent/large
population and is a case of genetic drift.
161. Answer (4)
Zygote divides completely into two blastomeres 172. Answer (2)
in holoblastic cleavage. All these different birds arose from the original
162. Answer (1) seed eating birds of mainland i.e. from common
ancestor.
Low sperm motility is called Asthenozoospermia.
173. Answer (2)
163. Answer (2)
Flying phalanger is Australian marsupial.
Meiosis starts in primary oocyte.
164. Answer (2) Flying squirrel is placental mammal.

Formation of corpus luteum during menstrual 174. Answer (4)

cycle and formation of placenta during pregnancy In isolated populations, many genetic differences
occur to release hormones. accumulate and can lead to generation of many
165. Answer (1) distinct species.
Embryonic development has four main steps, i.e., 175. Answer (3)
formation of zygote, morula, blastula and First vertebrates were cyclostomes while earliest
gastrula. gnathostomes were also pisces. Coelacanth
166. Answer (4) have bony endoskeleton, earliest chordates were
Population size = 400 urochordates.

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176. Answer (2) Evolution is not always from simple form to

Homologous organs are anatomically similar but complex form.
are adapted to different functions. Analogous 179. Answer (1)
organs perform similar function but are Hominid fossils taller than present day man were
anatomically dissimilar. not selected by nature while orthognathous face
177. Answer (3) has been favoured by natural selection.
Darker forms had an advantage of not being 180. Answer (4)
seen by insectivorous birds as they camouflaged Mutations are pre-adaptive, implying that
in the dark trunk of trees. Darker forms were antibiotic or pesticide resistant strains were
already present in the population before already existing in nature. They were 'selected
industrialisation. for' by nature when environmental stress
178. Answer (3) appeared.

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