1.

Which of the following will help a user determine if they need to request an Amazon
EC2 service limit increase?
A. AWS Cost Explorer
B. AWS Trusted Advisor
C. AWS Personal Health Dashboard
D. AWS Service Health Dashboard

2. A user needs to identify underutilized Amazon EC2 instances to reduce costs.

Which AWS service or feature will meet this requirement?
A. AWS Personal Health Dashboard
B. AWS CodeBuild
C. AWS Cost Explorer
D. AWS Trusted Advisor

3. What is the best practice for managing AWS IAM access keys?
A. There is no need to manage access keys.
B. Never use access keys, always use IAM roles.
C. Customers should rotate access keys regularly.
D. AWS rotate access keys on a schedule.

4. Customers using AWS services must patch operating systems on which of the
following services?
A. Amazon DynamoDB
B. Amazon EC2
C. AWS Lambda
D. AWS Fargate

5. According to the AWS shared responsibility model, which of the following is a

responsibility of AWS?
A. Configuring network ACLs to block malicious attacks.
B. Updating security group rules to enable connectivity.
C. Updating the firmware on the underlying EC2 hosts.
D. Patching software running on Amazon EC2 instances.
6. What can a Cloud Practitioner use to categorize and track AWS costs by project?
A. Cost Allocation Tags
B. Consolidated billing
C. Multiple accounts
D. AWS Trusted Advisor

7. A user is planning to launch three EC2 instances behind a single Elastic Load Balancer.
The deployment should be highly available.
A. Launch the instances in multiple AWS Regions, and use Elastic IP addresses.
B. Launch the instances across multiple Availability Zones in a single AWS Region.
C. Launch the instances as EC2 Spot Instances in the same AWS Region and the same
Availability Zone.
D. Launch the instances as EC2 Reserved Instances in the same AWS Region, but in
different Availability Zones.

8. Which type of credential should a Cloud Practitioner use for programmatic access to
AWS resources from the AWS CLI/API?
A. Access keys
B. User name and password
C. SSL/TLS certificate
D. SSH public keys

9. A company is deploying an application on Amazon EC2 that requires low-latency

access to application components in an on-premises data center. Which AWS service
or resource can the company use to extend their existing VPC to the on-premises data
center?
A. Amazon Workspaces
B. AWS Direct Connect
C. AWS Outposts
D. Amazon Connect

10. A company is deploying a MySQL database on AWS. The database must easily scale
and have automatic backup enabled.
Which AWS service should the company?
A. Amazon Aurora
B. Amazon DocumentDB
C. Amazon Athena
D. Amazon DynamoDB
11. A company has many underutilized compute resources on-premises. Which AWS
Cloud feature will help resolve this issue?
A. Global deployment
B. Fault tolerance
C. High availability
D. Elasticity

12. Cloud Practitioner needs to monitor a new Amazon EC2 instances CPU and network
utilization. Which AWS service should be used?
A. Amazon Inspector
B. AWS Systems Manager
C. Amazon CloudWatch
D. AWS CloudTrail

13. A company plans to deploy a relational database on AWS. The IT department will
perform database administration. Which service should the company use?
A. Amazon RedShift
B. Amazon ElastiCache
C. Amazon EC2
D. Amazon DynamoDB

14. How much data can a company store in the Amazon S3 service?
A. 100 TB
B. Virtually unlimited
C. 1 PB
D. 100 PB

15. What are AWS Identity and Access Management (IAM) access keys used for?
A. Enabling encryption in transit for web servers.
B. Ensuring the integrity of log files.
C. Making programmatic calls to AWS from AWS APIs.
D. Logging in to the AWS Management Console.
16. A Cloud Practitioner requires point-in-time recovery (PITR) for an Amazon DynamoDB
table. Who is responsible for configuring and performing backups?
A. AWS is responsible for configuring and the user is responsible for performing
backups.
B. The customer is responsible for both tasks.
C. The customer is responsible for configuring and AWS is responsible for performing
backups.
D. AWS is responsible for both tasks.

17. A customer needs to determine Total Cost of Ownership (TCO) for a workload that
requires physical isolation. Which hosting model should be accounted for?
A. Spot Instances
B. Reserved Instances
C. On-Demand Instances
D. Dedicated Hosts

18. Which of the following AWS features or services can be used to provide root storage
volumes for Amazon EC2 instances?
A. Amazon Machine Image
B. Amazon Elastic Block Store (EBS)
C. Amazon Simple Storage Service (S3)
D. Amazon Elastic File System (EFS)

19. What is one method of protecting against distributed denial of service (DDoS) attacks
in the AWS Cloud?
A. Configure a firewall in front of resources.
B. Use Amazon CloudWatch monitoring.
C. Monitor the Service Health Dashboard.
D. Enable AWS CloudTrail logging.

20. Which of the following AWS services are compute services? (Select TWO.)
A. AWS Batch
B. AWS Elastic Beanstalk
C. Amazon EFS
D. Amazon Inspector
E. AWS CloudTrail
21. A company needs to publish messages to a thousands of subscribers simultaneously
using a push mechanism.
A. Which AWS service should the company use?
B. Amazon Simple Workflow Service (SWF)
C. Amazon Simple Queue Service (Amazon SQS)
D. Amazon Simple Notification Service (Amazon SNS)
E. AWS Step Functions

22. An application uses a PostgreSQL database running on a single Amazon EC2 instance.
A Cloud Practitioner has been asked to increase the availability of the database so
there is automatic recovery in the case of a failure.
A. Which tasks can the Cloud Practitioner take to meet this requirement?
B. Migrate the database to Amazon RDS and enable the Multi-AZ feature.
C. Configure an Elastic Load Balancer in front of the EC2 instance.
D. Configure EC2 Auto Recovery to move the instance to another Region.
E. Set the DeleteOnTermination value to false for the EBS root volume.

23. How does the AWS cloud increase the speed and agility of execution for customers?
(Select TWO.)
A. Secured data centers
B. Private connections to data centers
C. Scalable compute capacity
D. Fast provisioning of resources
E. Lower cost of deployment

24. A company is deploying a new web application in a single AWS Region that will be
used by users globally.
Which AWS services will assist with lowering latency and improving transfer speeds
for the global users? (Select TWO.)
A. AWS Global Accelerator
B. AWS Snowcone
C. AWS Transfer Gateway
D. AWS Direct Connect
E. Amazon CloudFront
25. When running applications in the AWS Cloud, which common tasks can AWS manage
on behalf of their customers? (Select TWO.)
A. Creating a database schema
B. Application source code auditing
C. Application security testing
D. Taking a backup of a database
E. Patching database software

26. A company is deploying an application in the AWS Cloud. How can they secure the
application? (Select TWO.)
A. Configure public access for the AWS services used by the application.
B. Limit access privileges according to the principal of least privilege.
C. Enable encryption for the application data at rest.
D. Enable monitoring by turning off encryption for data in transit.
E. Provide full admin access to developer and operations staff.

27. Which design principles are enabled by the AWS Cloud to improve the operation of
workloads? (Select TWO.)
A. Customized hardware
B. Loose coupling
C. Minimum viable product
D. Minimize platform design
E. Remove single points of failure

28. Which AWS service can a team use to deploy infrastructure on AWS using familiar
programming languages?
A. Amazon CodeGuru
B. AWS Cloud Development Kit (AWS CDK)
C. AWS Config
D. AWS CodeCommit
29. A company is designing a new a service that must align with the operational
excellence pillar of the AWS Well-Architected Framework.
Which design principles should the company follow? (Select TWO.)
A. Create static operational procedures.
B. Anticipate failure.
C. Perform manual operations.
D. Perform operations as code.
E. Make large-scale changes.

30. A website has a global customer base and users have reported poor performance
when connecting to the site.
Which AWS service will improve the customer experience by reducing latency?
A. Amazon EC2 Auto Scaling
B. AWS Direct Connect
C. Amazon CloudFront
D. Amazon ElastiCache

31. Which of the following are valid benefits of using the AWS Cloud? (Select TWO.)
A. Total control over data center infrastructure.
B. Outsource all application development to AWS.
C. Outsource all operational risk.
D. Ability to go global quickly.
E. Fast provisioning of IT resources.

32. A company uses Amazon EC2 instances to run applications that are dedicated to
different departments. The company needs to break out the costs of these
applications and allocate them to the relevant department. The EC2 instances run in a
single VPC.
How can the company achieve these requirements?
A. Enable billing access for IAM users and view the costs in Cost Explorer.
B. Enable billing alerts through Amazon CloudWatch and Amazon SNS.
C. Create tags by department on the instances and then run a cost allocation report.
D. Add additional Amazon VPCs and launch each application in a separate VPC.
33. Which of the following is a sole responsibility of AWS?
A. Customer data access controls
B. Patch management
C. Availability Zone management
D. Application deployment

34. Which AWS service can a company use to discover and protect sensitive data that is
stored in Amazon S3 buckets.
A. Amazon Detective
B. Amazon Macie
C. Amazon GuardDuty
D. AWS Policy Generator

35. A company is planning to deploy an application with a relational database on AWS.

The application layer requires access to the database instance’s operating system in
order to run scripts.
The company prefer to keep management overhead to a minimum. Which
deployment should be used for the database?
A. Amazon DynamoDB
B. Amazon EC2
C. Amazon S3
D. Amazon RDS

36. A company is planning to move a number of legacy applications to the AWS Cloud. The
solution must be cost-effective. Which approach should the company take?
A. Migrate the applications to dedicated hosts on Amazon EC2.
B. Rehost the applications on Amazon EC2 instances that are right-sized.
C. Use an Amazon S3 static website to host the legacy application code.
D. Use AWS Lambda to host the legacy applications in the cloud.

37. A company is launching a new website which is expected to have highly variable levels
of traffic. The website will run on Amazon EC2 and must be highly available.
What is the MOST cost-effective approach?
A. Create an Amazon EC2 Auto Scaling group and configure an Elastic Load Balancer.
B. Determine the highest expected traffic and use an appropriate instance type.
C. Launch the website using an Amazon EC2 instance running on a dedicated host.
D. Use the AWS CLI to launch and terminate Amazon EC2 instances to match demand.
38. Which AWS Cloud service provides recommendations on how to optimize
performance for AWS services?
A. AWS Trusted Advisor
B. Amazon CloudWatch
C. Amazon Inspector
D. AWS CloudTrail

39. A company is migrating a monolithic application that does not scale well into the
cloud and refactoring it into a microservices architecture.
Which best practice of the AWS Well-Architected Framework does this plan relate to?
A. Implement loosely coupled services.
B. Stop spending money on undifferentiated heavy lifting.
C. Manage change in automation.
D. Use multiple solutions to improve performance.

40. An individual IAM user must be granted access to an Amazon S3 bucket using a bucket
policy. Which element in the S3 bucket policy should be updated to define the user
account for which access will be granted?
A. Resource
B. Principal
C. Action
D. Condition

41. What advantages does a database administrator obtain by using the Amazon
Relational Database Service (RDS)?
A. RDS provides 99.99999999999% reliability and durability.
B. RDS simplifies relational database administration tasks.
C. RDS databases automatically scale based on load.
D. RDS enables users to dynamically adjust CPU and RAM resources.
42. A company runs a batch job on an Amazon EC2 instance and it takes 6 hours to
complete. The workload is expected to double in volume each month with a
proportional increase in processing time.
What is the most efficient cloud architecture to address the growing workload?
A. Change the Amazon EC2 volume type to a Provisioned IOPS SSD volume.
B. Run the batch workload in parallel across multiple Amazon EC2 instances.
C. Run the batch job on a larger Amazon EC2 instance type with more CPU.
D. Run the application on a bare metal Amazon EC2 instance.

43. Which AWS service provides a managed software version control system?
A. Amazon CodeDeploy
B. AWS CodeCommit
C. AWS CodePipeline
D. AWS DataSync

44. A company is deploying a new workload and software licensing requirements dictate
that the workload must be run on a specific, physical server.
Which Amazon EC2 instance deployment option should be used?
A. Spot Instances
B. Reserved Instances
C. Dedicated Hosts
D. Dedicated Instances

45. For what purpose would a Cloud Practitioner access AWS Artifact?
A. Gain access to AWS security and compliance documents.
B. Access training materials for AWS services.
C. Create a security assessment report for AWS services.
D. Download configuration details for all AWS resources.

46. Which tasks require the use of the AWS account root user? (Select TWO.)
A. Changing AWS Support plans.
B. Viewing AWS CloudTrail logs.
C. Changing the account name.
D. Enabling encryption for S3.
E. Changing payment currency.
47. A Cloud Practitioner needs a tool that can assist with viewing and managing AWS costs
and usage over time. Which tool should the Cloud Practitioner use?
A. AWS Budgets
B. AWS Cost Explorer
C. Amazon Inspector
D. AWS Organizations

48. A Cloud Practitioner anticipates an increase in application traffic at a future date and
time when a sales event will take place. How can the Cloud Practitioner configure
Amazon EC2 Auto Scaling to ensure the right number of Amazon EC2 instances are
available ahead of the event?
A. Configure predictive scaling.
B. Configure a target tracking scaling policy.
C. Configure a step scaling policy.
D. Configure a scheduled scaling policy.

49. A Cloud Practitioner is developing a new application and wishes to integrate features
of AWS services directly into the application.
Which of the following is the BEST tool for this purpose?
A. AWS CodePipeline
B. AWS Command Line Interface (CLI)
C. AWS Software Development Kit
D. AWS CodeDeploy

50. A large company is interested in avoiding long-term contracts and moving from fixed
costs to variable costs.
What is the value proposition of AWS for this company?
A. Volume pricing discounts
B. Pay-as-you-go pricing
C. Automated cost optimization
D. Economies of scale
51. A company has multiple AWS accounts and is using AWS Organizations with
consolidated billing. Which advantages will they benefit from? (Select TWO.)
A. They will receive a fixed discount for all usage across accounts.
B. They may benefit from lower unit pricing for aggregated usage.
C. The default service limits in all accounts will be increased.
D. They will receive one bill for the accounts in the Organization.
E. They will be automatically enrolled in a business support plan.

52. Which benefits can a company gain by deploying a relational database on Amazon RDS
instead of Amazon EC2? (Select TWO.)
A. Software patching
B. Root access to OS
C. Schema management
D. Indexing of tables
E. Automated backups

53. An Amazon Virtual Private Cloud (VPC) can include multiple:

A. Availability Zones.
B. Internet gateways.
C. AWS Regions.
D. Edge locations.

54. Which AWS services can a company use to gather information about activity in their
AWS account? (Select TWO.)
A. Amazon CloudFront
B. Amazon Connect
C. Amazon CloudWatch
D. AWS Trusted Advisor
E. AWS CloudTrail

55. A company must provide access to AWS resources for their employees. Which security
practices should they follow? (Select TWO.)
A. Create IAM users in different AWS Regions.
B. Enable multi-factor authentication for users.
C. Disable password policies and management console access.
D. Create IAM policies based on least privilege principles.
E. Create IAM Roles and apply them to IAM groups.
56. A company plans to use reserved instances to get discounted pricing for Amazon EC2
instances. The company may need to change the EC2 instance type during the one
year period.
Which instance purchasing option is the MOST cost-effective for this use case?
A. Standard Reserved Instances
B. Regional Reserved Instances
C. Zonal Reserved Instances
D. Convertible Reserved Instances

57. Which AWS service or feature can assist with protecting a website that is hosted
outside of AWS?
A. Amazon VPC route tables
B. AWS Web Application Firewall (WAF)
C. Amazon EC2 security groups
D. Amazon VPC network ACLs

58. AWS are able to continually reduce their pricing due to:
A. Compute savings plans.
B. Pay-as-you go pricing.
C. Economies of scale.
D. Elastic compute services.

59. Which resource should a new user on AWS use to get help with deploying popular
technologies based on AWS best practices, including architecture and deployment
instructions?
A. AWS Config
B. AWS Quick Starts
C. AWS CloudFormation
D. AWS Artifact

60. Which of the following can an AWS customer use to launch a new ElastiCache cluster?
(Select TWO.)
A. AWS CloudFormation
B. AWS Data Pipeline
C. AWS Management Console
D. AWS Systems Manager
E. AWS Concierge
61. Which of the following represents a value proposition for using the AWS Cloud?
A. AWS provides full access to their data centers.
B. Customers can request specialized hardware.
C. It is not necessary to enter into long term contracts.
D. AWS is responsible for securing your applications.

62. Which AWS feature can be used to launch a pre-configured Amazon Elastic Compute
Cloud (EC2) instance?
A. Amazon Machine Image (AMI)
B. Amazon AppStream 2.0
C. Amazon EC2 Systems Manager
D. Amazon Elastic Block Store (EBS)

63. Which of the following deployments involves the reliability pillar of the AWS Well-
Architected Framework?
A. Attach a WebACL to a CloudFront distribution
B. Use CloudFormation to deploy infrastructure
C. Amazon RDS Multi-AZ deployment
D. Amazon EBS provisioned IOPS volume

64. Which tasks can a user complete using the AWS Cost Management tools? (Select
TWO.)
A. Launch either EC2 Spot instances or On-Demand instances based on the current
pricing.
B. Create budgets and receive notifications if current or forecasted usage exceeds the
budgets.
C. Break down AWS costs by day, service, and linked AWS account.
D. Move data stored in Amazon S3 Standard to an archiving storage class to reduce
cost.
E. Automatically terminate AWS resources if budget thresholds are exceeded.
65. Which of the following statements best describes the concept of agility in relation to
cloud computing on AWS? (Select TWO.)
A. The ability to experiment quickly.
B. The ability to automatically scale capacity.
C. The speed at which AWS resources can be created.
D. The speed at which AWS rolls out new features.
E. The elimination of wasted capacity.