TEST 1

PART I. LISTENING
Question 1: Listen to an interview between a young woman who has applied for a
position with a company and the personnel officer of the company. As you listen, fill in
the form below with NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS/NUMBER. You will hear this
piece twice. (14 points)
Name of applicant (1)...............................................
University attended (2)...............................................
Subject English
Year of graduation (3)...............................................
Work experience:
Last position a secondary school teacher
Years (4)...............................................
Salary (5)...............................................
Previous work (6)...............................................
Years 1990-1992

New job’s salary (7)...............................................

Benefit of the job Four hours per week at full pay to attend
college courses

Question 2. GAP FILLING (16 points)

Listen to the recording. Complete the notes below by writing no more than three words in
the space provide.
The Mystery Personality
 has played for (8)………………..
 is a (9)…………….
John Tebbit’s group
 aimed at young people (10)………………
  connected with sports which involve some (11)………………
 after appeal many people offered their services as (12)………………..
 received many offers (13)……………….free (14)……………….
 Some donations over (15)…………………
Your answers
8. 9. 10. 11. 12.
13. 14. 15.
Question 3: You are going to listen to a report from a local TV news program about the
island of Samsø in Denmark and decide whether the following statements are True (T)
or False (F) (10 points)

Your answers
T F
1. The major source of power on Samsø is oil.
2. Samsø produces more electricity than it needs.
3. Americans on average produce more carbon dioxide than Dutch
citizens.
4. The furnace is used for both heating and making fertilizer.
5. Farmers on Samsø have lost money by changing to
environmentally-friendly practices.

Question 4. You are going to hear an account of choirgirl Laura –Jane Foley’s
experiences in Faking it. As you listen, choose the best answer to each question. (10
points)
1.How did Laura-Jane and the program-makers first make contact?
A. The program-makers emailed lots of choir singers, including Laura-Jane.
B. Laura-Jane phoned the TV company.
C. The program-makers went to see her choir.
2. Laura-Jane was amazed that
 A. the program-makers were interested in a Cambridge student.
B. so many people from the TV company went to see her.
C. the program-makers started filming so soon.
3. According to Laura-Jane, why were arguments with Harry inevitable?
A. Harry leads a real rock singer’s lifestyle.
B. Harry and Laura-Jane both have strong opinion.
C. They only had four weeks for all the training.
4. In what sense was Laura-Jane’s training a failure?
A. She didn’t really change her style or attitude.
B. She didn’t enjoy the whole experience of becoming a rock singer.
C. She didn’t make the judges believe that she was a real rock singer.
5. One positive result of the experience is that it made Laura-Jane:
A. change her views on life
B. become a more confident person
C. change her opinion of rock singers
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

B. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (20 points)

Question 1. Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C, or D) which best completes each sentence
1.There is a strong movement supporting the abolition of the death ________ .
A. penalty B. punishment C. discipline D. condemnation
2. The study adds to a growing ________ of evidence that links a lack of sleep with weight
gain.
A. body B. form C. hulk D. soul
3. It is ________ probable that they are the original bindings of the manuscript.
A. widely B. highly C. utterly D. bitterly
4. The show was ________ bit as good as I expected.
A. every B. so C. very D. much
5. The similarities between all three crimes were such that they could not be ________ down
to chance.
A. put B. laid C. set D. taken
6. She doesn't mind working overtime because she gets paid ________ .
A. by the hour B. all the hour C. at the hour D. in the hour
7. People often complain that children nowadays don't seem to respect their ________ .
A. elderly B. elders C. aged D. age
8. All statistical analysis must allow for a ________ of error.
A. margin B. border C. frontier D. boundary
9. It's time to take a rough ________ against obesity.
A. stance B. measure C. legislation D. angle
10. The world's first boot camp for teenagers addicted to the Internet may be the ________ of
things to come.
A. draft B. formula C. character D. shape
11. We believe that the government has a duty ……… its pledges.
A. bear out B. standby C. go back D. count on
12. Don’t forget to buy a packet of ………. Peas
A. chilled B. frozen C. frosted D. chilly
13. He was so mean that he couldn’t bear to ………. the smallest sum of money for the
charity appeal.
A. pay off B. part with C. give in D. let out
14. A huge crowd ............. in the pouring rain to cheer the president.
A. turned out B. held up C. saw off D. dropped in
15. We hadn’t ............... for such heavy traffic, and we were delayed.
A. expected B. bargained C. calculated D. supposed
16. Beyond all ……………., it was Alice who gave away our secrets
A. fail B. conclusion C. dispute D. contradiction
17. The book says that the revolution was ………….off by the assassination of the state
governor.
A. launched B. cropped C. triggered D. prompted.
18. The hijackers have demanded a …………….to be paid for releasing the civilian hostages
from the plane
A. currency B. revenue C. deposit D. ransom
19. Just ………….these proofs for me as I’m in a hurry.
A. run into B. run off C. run over D. run out
20. She resigned …………. No one forced her to do so.
A. for her own sake B. of her own accord
C. with a will D. on purpose
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.

Question 2. Give the correct form of the words in the brackets (10 points)
1. They are waiting for the doctor’s …………………. . (diagnose)
2. There was a heavy …………yesterday afternoon which completely ruined the church
Garden Party. (pour)
3. His contribution to medical science was outstanding laying the foundations for research by
the scientists who would follow in his (foot)..................
4. Cigarettes, coffee and alcohol and other (addict) ………….... are known to have an
adverse influence upon human health.
5. Marie Curie's life offers us a profound and fascinating (sight) ............ into the changing
world of women in science and academia
6. Be careful! That’s a ………………poison. (dead)
7. The talks were totally ………… We didn’t reach agreement on anything. (product)
8. The boy was very violent and his parents found him ………… (manage)
9. Tax exemption only applies to those with ………………… status. (resident)
10. …………………… books have been written on the subject. (number)
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
Part 3: There are ten mistakes in the text below. Underline the mistakes and correct them
in the space provided. (10 points)
Although speech is the most advance form of communication, there are many ways of
communication without using speech. Signals, signs, symbols and gestures may be find in
every known culture. The basic function of a signal is to impinging on the
environment in such way that it attracts attention as the dots and the dashes of a
telegraph circuit. Coding to refer to speech, the potential for communication is very
great. Less adaptable to the codification of words, signs also contain meaning in and
of themselves. A stop sign or a barber pole conveys meaning quickly and
conveniently. Symbols are more difficult to describe than signals and signs because
of its relationship with the receiver's cultural perceptions. In some cultures,
applauding in a theatre provides performances with an auditory symbol of approval.
Gestures such as waving and handshaking also communicate some certain cultural
message. Although signals, signs, symbols and gestures are very useful, they do have
a major disadvantage. They usually do not allow ideas to share without the sender
being directly adjacent to the receiver.
Your answers:
1. 6.
2. 7.
3. 8.
4. 9.
5. 10.

PART III: READING (60 points)

Question 1. Read the following passage and choose one of four options A, B, C, or D to
answer each question. (10 points)
It was once believed that being overweight was healthy, but nowadays few people
subscribe to this viewpoint. While many people are fighting the battle to reduce weight,
studies are being conducted concerning the appetite and how it is controlled by both
emotional and biochemical factors. Some of the conclusions of these studies may give
insights into how to deal with weight problems. For example, when several hundred people
were asked about their eating habits in times of stress, 44 percent said they reacted to
stressful situations by eating. Further investigations with both humans and animals indicated
that it is not food which relieves tension but rather the act of chewing.
A test in which subjects were blindfolded showed that obese people have a keener sense
of taste and crave more flavorful food than non-obese people. When deprived of the variety
and intensity of tastes, obese people are not satisfied and consequently eat more to fulfill this
need. Blood samples taken from people after they were shown a picture of food revealed that
overweight people reacted with an increase in blood insulin, a chemical associated with
appetite. This did not happen to average-weight people.
In another experiment, results showed that certain people have a specific, biologically
induced hunger for carbohydrates. Eating carbohydrates raise the level of serotonin, a
neurotransmitter in the brain. Enough serotonin produces a sense of satiation, and hunger for
carbohydrates subsides.
Exercise has been recommended as an important part of a weight-loss program. However,
it has been found that mild exercise, such as using the stairs instead of the elevator, is better
in the long run than taking on a strenuous program, such as jogging, which many people find
difficult to continue over long periods of time and which also increases appetite.
(Adapted from Cambridge Preparation for the TOEFL Test by Jolene Gear)

1. “Subscribe to” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to __________.

A. disagree with B. agree with C. object to D. like
2. The word” crave” in bold in paragraph 2, can best be replaced with __________.
A. devour B. absorb C. season D. desire
3. It can be inferred from the passage that __________.
A.overweight people are tense
B.thin people don’t eat when under stress
C.weight watchers should chew on something inedible when tense
 D.56 percent of the population isn’t overweight
4. It can be inferred from the passage that __________.
A.thin people don’t enjoy food
B.a variety of foods and strong flavors satisfy heavy people
C.overweight people have an abnormal sense of taste
D.deprivation of food makes people fat
5. According to the passage, insulin __________.
A.increases in the bloodstream when people eat large amounts of food
B.can be used to lessen the appetite
C.causes a chemical reaction when food is seen
D.levels don’t change in average-weight people who see food
6. It can be inferred that for certain people __________.
A.eating carbohydrates eliminates hunger
B.carbohydrates biologically induce hunger
C.carbohydrates don’t satisfy a hungry person
D.carbohydrates subside when serotonin is produced
7. What can be said about serotonin?
A.It is a chemical that increases the appetite
B.Only certain people produce it in their brains
C.It tells the brain when a person is full
D.It neurotransmits carbohydrates to the brain
8. The word ‘mild’ in the last paragraph can best be replaced with __________.
A. important B. hard C. heavy D. light
9. In order to lose weight, it would be a good idea for heavy people to __________.
A.jog 3 miles daily and chew on carrot sticks
B.walk up stairs and look at pictures of food
C.eat plenty of chewy carbohydrates
D.avoid stressful situations and eat spicy foods
10. Which one of the following exercises might be best for an overweight person to engage
in daily?
 A. 10-mile bicycle rides B. cross- country skiing
C. a long swim D. an evening walk

Your answers
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Question 2: Read the passage and fill in each blank with ONE suitable word. (10 points)

The British are widely (1) _____ to be a very polite nation, and in (2)______ respects
this is true. An Italian journalist once commented of the British that they need (3) _____
fewer than four “thank yous” merely to buy a bus ticket. The first, from the bus conductor
means, “I’m here.”. The second accompanies the handing over of the money. The third,
again from the conductor, (4) ____ “Here is your ticket.”, and then the passenger utters a
final one as he accepts the tickets. Such transactions in most (5) ____ parts of the world are
usually conducted in total silence. In sharp contrast to this excessive politeness with
strangers, the British are strangely lacking (6) _____ ritual phrases for social interaction. The
exhortation “Good appetite”, uttered in so (7) ______ other languages to fellow-diners before
a meal, does not exist in English. The nearest equivalent – Enjoy your dinner! – is said only
by people who will not be pataking of the meal in question. What’s more, the British (8)
____ happiness to their friends or acquaintances only at the start of a new year and at
(9)_____ such as birthdays, (10) _____ the Greeks routinely wish all and sundry a “good
week” or a “good month”.
Your answers:

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Question 3. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer
sheet to indicate the correct word for each of the blanks. (10 points)

You will make the interview process easier for the employer if you prepare relevant
information about yourself. Think about how you want to present your (43)____,
experiences, education, work style, skills, and goals. Be prepared to supplement all your
answers with examples that support the statements you make. It is also a good idea to review
your resume with a critical eye and (44) ____ areas that an employer might see as limitations
or want further information. Think about how you can answer difficult' questions (45) ____
and positively, while keeping each answer brief.
An interview gives the employer a (46)_____ to get to know you. While you do want
to market yourself to the employer, answer each question with an honest (47) _____.
Never say anything negative about past experiences, employers, or courses and
professors. Always think of something positive about an experience and talk about that. You
should also be (48) ____. If you are genuinely interested (49) _____ the job, let the
interviewer know that.
One of the best ways to show you are keen on a job is to demonstrate that you have
researched the organization prior to the interview. You can also (50) ____ interest by asking
questions about the job, the organization, and its services and products. The best way to
impress an employer is to ask questions that build upon your interview discussion. This
shows you are interested and (51) ____ close attention to the interviewer. It is a good idea to
prepare a few questions in advance, but an insightful comment based on your conversation
can make an even stronger statement. At the (52) _____ of an interview, it is appropriate for
you to ask when you may expect to hear; from the employer.

1. A. pressures B. strengths C. practices D. promotions

2. A. hide                      B. limit C. express D. identify
3. A. accurately             B. rightly C. hardly D. sharply
4. A. change                  B. practice C. way D. chance
5. A. ability                   B. response C. expression D. respect
6. A. enthusiast             B. enthusiasm C. enthusiastic D. enthusiastically
 7. A. for B. on               C. with D. in
8. A. appear                  B. show C. conceal          D. cover
9. A. spend                  B. pay             C .choose           D. During
10. A. end                       B.close               C.finish       D. socialize
 
Your answers
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Question 4:
1. Reading the Passage, there are five paragraphs, A-E. Choose the correct heading for
paragraphs A-E from the list of headings below. Write the appropriate numbers (I-VI) in
boxes 1 – 5 on your answer box. (10 points)
TELESCOPE TO DETECT ET ON HIS MOBILE
A
Astronomers are planning to build the world’s largest telescope – a machine so powerful it
could detect radio signals from a planet up to 50 light years, or 13.5 billion years from Earth.
The giant radio – telescope is called the Square Kilometer Array (SKA) and will consist of
3,000 separate radio dishes and other antennae all linked together in to one huge machine. It
will generate 100 times more data than all the information Currently on the Internet and will
need the world’s most powerful supercomputer to analyse the information it collects.
B
The SKA will work in the similar way to other large radio telescopes such as Australia’s
CSLR Parkes radio telescope, also known as ‘’The Disk’ . The telescope gets its name from
the bowl-shaped reflector called a ‘dish’ that is used to collect radio waves from space. The
refectory focuses the waves onto an antenna that changes them into electric signals. From the
antenna, the signals are transmitted down into the control room at the base of the telescope
and are picked up by a radio receiver. This receiver makes the signals stronger. The signals
are then analysed by a computer at another location and the information is used to draw a
picture of the source of the radio waves.
C
Compared to ‘The Dish’, however, SKA will be thousands of times more sensitive. This
sensitivity is because of its size, the larger the dish, or the more dishes there are, the more
powerful the radio signal can be, allowing unknown areas of the universe to be discovered.
‘We know that the universe is incrediblyvast , containing hundreds of billions of stars’ said
Richard Schillzzi, director of the SKA project. ‘However, at present we carl only see a
fraction of what is out there. The SKA will enable us to explore some of its furthest reaches.’
Scientists hope to find alien life intelligent enough to invent radio. The SKA will be able to
detect a mobile phone system within 50 light years of Earth, but will also probably be able to
scan star systems which are much further away, because any advanced life form would have
powerful radio emitters such as radar and radio stations.
D
But looking for the evidence of extra-terrestrial life is just one of many tasks for the SKA.
Scientists also hope that the telescope will help them to understand how the first stars and
planets were formed, during a period of time called ‘first light.’ ‘The SKA is a bit like a time
machine,’ said Phil Diamond, head of the astronomy and space science division of CSIRO
the Australian Government’s research arm. ‘It will gather radiation emitted more than 13
billion years ago, , allowing us to get a picture of what the universe looked like then. By
choosing the type of radiation we look at, we can get similar pictures of the universe from
any other era we choose – so we can watch how it evolved.
E
More than 20 countries will share the estimated 1.4 billion pounds cost of the project for the
telescope. Two potential sites have been chosen, one in Western Australia and the other in
South Africa. Both are in the southern hemisphere because this will give the instrument a
direct line of sight into the heart of the Milky Way. The SKA must be built on a site
completely free of radio interference – with the host country promising it will prevent the
construction of any mobile phone, radio or TV masts for up to 50 years. This means it will
have to be built mainly in a desert-either in the outback of Western Australia or the Karoo of
South Africa.
List of headings
i Budgeting for the construction of SKA
ii Discovering the secret origins of the universe
iii Abilities of advanced life forms
iv Potential to see further than before
v Methods of mapping the location of the planets
vi Plans for the world’s largest telescope
vii Location considerations for SKA
viii The collection and analysis of radio waves

Your answers:

Paragraph Answer

1. Paragraph A

2. Paragraph B

3. Paragraph C

4. Paragraph D

5. Paragraph E

2. Question 5-10: Do the following statements agree with the information given in the
Reading Passage? (10 points)

TRUE if the statement agrees with the information

FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there’s no information on this
6. The SKA will be made from many parts.
7. The SKA will be the world’s most powerful telescope.
8. About one third of the universe has been discovered.
9. Scientists hope to get in touch with aliens by mobile phone.
 10. Governments have decided where the SKA will be built.
Your answers:

PART IV: WRITING (50 points)

Question 1: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the
same as the sentence printed before it using the given words. (10points)
1. He suddenly thought that he might have misunderstood her.
It crossed ……………………………………………………
2. She doesn’t know why they are attracted to spending all day on the beach
She can’t see …………………………………………………………………
3. The house is very beautiful. Its gate was painted blue.
The house, the ……………………………………………………
4. Do you think Sally will be able to come to us for Christmas?
Is there any……………………………………………………?

5. You may be disqualified if you don’t obey the regulations.

Failure to ……………………………………………………
Question 2: Rewrite the following sentences, using the word given in brackets. You must
not alter the word in any way. (10 points)
1. A government official leaked the story to the world press. (WIND)
…………………………………………………………………………………………
2. There is a risk that the black rhino will become extinct. (THREATENED)
…………………………………………………………………………………………
3. After the scandal, he was asked to resign. (HAND)
…………………………………………………………………………………………
4. He offers them more money to encourage them to do the job quickly. (INCENTIVE)
…………………………………………………………………………………………
5. Please don’t tell anyone about this for the time being. (SOONER)
…………………………………………………………………………………………
Question 3: Write a composition (about 200 – 250 words) on the following topic: (30
points)
Nowadays environmental problems are too big to be managed by individual persons or
individual countries. In other words, it is an international problem. To what extent do you
agree or disagree?

TEST 2
PART I. LISTENING (50p)
Section 1. You will hear an interview to do a quesstionaire on the residency on the north.
For questions from 1 to 7, fill in each gap with NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS
AND/OR A NUMBER. (14p)
North Residency Questionaire
Example
Age of the interview 19
Current occupation: 1. ___________________
Length of living in the North 9 years
Exact living area: 2. ___________________
Type of accommodation: A shared 3. ___________________
Private transport: On foot and by bike
Public transport: Take the 4. ___________________ or a taxi.
Frequency of eating out 5. ___________________
Preferred exercises: Go swimming
Go to the gym
Go 6. ___________________
Part-time course: 7. ___________________

Your answers
1. 2. 3. 4.
5. 6. 7.

Section 2. Listen to the recording and complete each of the following sentences with NO
MORE THAN two words AND/ OR a number (16p)
Janet can now do voluntary work because she is free of 1. ______________.
Most of Janet’s friends were 2. ______________ by her decision to volunteer.
Janet disagrees with people who say that she is 3. __________ the people whe is trying to
help.
Janet advised on a project to improve 4. ______________ in a farming community.
The villagers had been dependent on 5. ______________ from charities to survive.
The scheme aimed to make the villagers 6. ______________ in agricultural production.
Janet’s job was to help the villagers sell any 7. ______________ crops.
She believes that the 8. ________ of the village have been changed dramatically by the
scheme.

Your answers
1. 2. 3. 4.
5. 6. 7. 8.

Section 3. You are going to listen to Martin talking about his journey from London to
Avignon by car. Listen and decide if the following statements are True (T) or False (F).
Check (√) the appropriate boxes. You will hear the talk TWICE.
T F
1. The man claimed he invented the idea of wrapping cars with advertisement.
2. People interested in having their cars wrapped must take a survey.
3. Ads on the Move will pay car owners over $300 a month to wrap their car.
4. The cost of advertising on billboards is going up.
5. The woman is interested in having her car wrapped.

Section 4: You will hear part of a radio interview in which David Evans, a chef in a
British school, is talking about his work. Choose the answer (А, В, C or D) which fits best
according to what you hear. (10p)
1.What was the students’s initial reaction to the food they were served?
A. They didn’t like being the subjects of an experiment.
B. They would rather have eaten traditional British food.
C. They were not sure whether it was good or bad.
D. They felt that it was an adventure for them.
2. According to David, why do some students have difficulty in accepting the “restaurant
system”?
A. They are uncomfortable eating meals with adults.
B. They are not used to having meals with others.
C. They don’t like talking about food.
 D. It takes too long to be served their food.
3. What main role do the staff play in the school restaurant?
A. They check that students are eating their meals.
B. They learn about the students’ home lives.
C. They deal with students’ complaints about the food.
D. They help students learn about a balanced diet.
4. In David’s view, which of his previous jobs prepared him best for his work as a school
chef?
A. teacher B. manager C. waiter D. cook
5. Why does David think that his approach could be difficult to introduce on other schools?
A. Many students are resistant to change.
B. Not all students see healthy eating as important.
C. Other schools don’t see healthy eating as a priority.
D. Parents would be unwilling to accept it.
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

PART II. LEXICO - GRAMMAR (40p)

Section 1. Choose the word or phrase that best fits each blank in the following sentences.
(20p)
1. Simon has a very strong _____ of duty so he will always carry out his promises.
A. sense B. idea C. mind D. thought
2. I slept badly last night and am feeling particularly _______ this morning.
A. far-reaching B. slow-witted C. off-hand D. top-heavy
3. My older brother is extremely fond of astronomy, he seems to ______ a lot of pleasure
from observing the stars.
A. possess B. seize C. reach D. derive
4. I’m sorry to _______ to your conversation but there’s an urgent message for you.
A. come in B. bump in C. butt in D. pop in
5. I’m not keen on ______ control of the project to a relative newcomer.
A. undertaking B. charging C. entrusting D. allowing
6. She went under ________ as a waitress to write an article on tipping.
A. cover B. act C. pose D. mask
7. Even at that early state the school felt that she ________ a good chance of passing her
exams.
A. possessed B. stood C. gained D. took
8. His speech ________ little or no relation to the topic given.
A. gave B. reflected C. bore D. was
9. He ______ in me on the understanding that I wouldn’t tell anyone else.
A. intimated B. confessed C. disclosed D. confided
10. We intend to ________ with the old system as soon as we have developed a better one.
A. do up B. do away C. do in D. do down
11. There is a huge amount of _______ associated with children’s TV nowadays.
A. produce B. manufacturing C. merchandising D. sales
12. As the order to abandon the ship was given, hundreds of people _________ into the icy
water.
A. plunged B. emerged C. drowned D. submerged
13. Not once did I see him _______ a finger to help in the home.
A. shift B. move C. click D. lift
14. The engineers won’t be able to repair the telephone system until they can _________ the
cause of the fault.
A. separate B. isolate C. estimate D. concentrate
15. He was ________ writer because he persuaded many people to see the truth of his ideas.
A. an exceptionally B. a prolific C. an unlimited D. an influential
16. They are happily married although, of course, they argue ________.
A. most times B. from day to day C. every now and then D. on the occasion
17. It is physically impossible for any human being to ________ such extreme cold for long.
A. endure B. persist C. withhold D. last
18. Terry is an old _____ of mine. We split up nine years ago but we’ve stayed friends.
A. fire B. flame C. spark D. blaze
19. You know how I worry about you driving at night. Call me when you arrive to set my
mind ________ .
A. easy B. at peace C. calm D. at rest
20. The celebrations were somewhat ______ by the announcement of her resignation.
A. outshone B. overshadowed C. overcast D. outweighed

Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
 Section 2. Fill each gap with the correct form of the words in brackets. (10p)
1. Be careful. You may be ________ to put all your eggs in one basket. (ADVICE)
2. The cancellation of the ccase resulted from the ________ in court of the defendant
resulted in. (APPEAR)
3. I’ve never met such a strong girl. Her energy seems ________. (EXHAUST)
4. It is very diffcult to find Mrs. Pie’s shop, for it was ________ from all others in the
street. (DISTINGUISH)
5. Students hate their classmates who get ________ treatment form their teachers.
(PREFER)
6. The educational program we are launching is to ________ teenage girls in rural areas.
(POWER)
7. Doesn’t she know that her good result will make her parents ________ proud of her?
(MEASURE)
8. A list of ________ events for the autumn is being prepared. (COME)
9. Most people who work feel that they are ________ (PAY)
10. She was the only visitor ________ into the sick room. (ADMISSION)

Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Section 3. The passage below contains TEN mistakes. Underline the mistakes and provide
the corrections in the spaces below. (10p)

Crime preventing is as crucial in the workplace as it is in the home or neighbourhood. Line 1

Reducing crime is as much a part of good management as prompt delivery, good staff Line 2
relations, and other acceptable management functions. Losses from shops through Line 3
shoplifting are extremely high and utimately, those losses are payment for by all of us in Line 4
high prices. There are many opportunities for shopkeepers themselves to reduce
Line 5
shoplifting. As with all types of criminal, prevention is better than cure. The best deterrent
Line 6
is the present of staff properly trained in how to identify potential shoplifters. There are
also many secure devices now available. Video camera surveillance is a popular system, Line 7
even with quite small retailers. In clothes shopping, magnetic tag marking systems that set Line 8
off an alarm if they are taken out of the shop have proved their worthless. However, there Line 9
are many simpler measures that retailers should consider. Better lighting and ceiling-hung Line 10
mirrors can help staff to watch all parts of the display area. Similarly, simply arrangement Line 11
shelves and display units to allow clear fields of visible is a good deterrent Line 12
Your answers:
1. 6.
2. 7.
3. 8.
4. 9.
5. 10.

PART III. READING (60p)

Section 1. Read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C, or D) best fits
each gap. Write your answer in corresponding numbered boxes. (10p)
STUNT WOMAN FOR A DAY
Lara Croft, the heroine of Tomb Raider, flies through the air and performs a range of
impressive movements. Somehow, the film-makers41 it look easy. The
Hollywood star Angelina Jolie, who plays Lara Croft, actually did most of the stunts
herself, which is quite a rare 2______________nowadays, what with computer-
generated graphics and
professional stunt people. At one time, I 3_ the idea
of becoming a stunt woman myself, but I was put off by the years of training I thought
it would 4______. So, I was thrilled to hear about a new stunt school where anyone
could 5 a go. Last Saturday,
me and three friends, all wearing stretchy fabric, made our way to the Real Action Stunt
Academy. Inside it looked like a 6 between a
children’s playground and a work of modern art, with trampolines, foam blocks and
soft mats. Training began with a trampoline session designed to help us 7
how to fall safely.
Our first real challenge, the instructor then explained, involved jumping off a high
platform and grabbing a trapeze bar in midair. I suddenly felt 8 stiff. The sight of a
safety net helped me 9 _________the worst of my fears, however, and by the end of
the day I had got through the trapeze challenge, learned how to fall down stairs safely
and climbed a huge wall. We gave ourselves a deserved 10 ____of applause
after the final stunt, but I know I’ll never be Lara Croft.
1. A. get B. find C. cause D. make
2. A. matter B. phenomenon C. incident D. appearance
3. A. fancied B. aspired C. dreamed D. wished
4. A. entail B. oblige C. expect D. insist
5. A. try B. give C. have D. take
6. A. blend B. stew C. cross D. combination
7. A. figure out B. run down C. shape up D. follow through
8. A. frightened B. scared C. terrified D. afraid
 9. A. overstep B. overrule C. overcome D. overload
10. A. roll B. turn C. circle D. round

Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Section 2. Read the passage and fill in each gap with ONE suitable word. (10p
)
FUNCTIONAL FOODS
In the 21 century food will do more than just feed you. A new range of products
st

appearing (1) _____ shelves in shops and supermarkets is designed to give you specific
health benefits. The demands of modern life make these foods very attractive. Not only do
they provide proven ways to improve health, but they are also very attractive (2) _____ a
quick and convenient way of making sure we enjoy a healthy diet.
In some countries it is already possible to buy crisps that make you feel (3) _____
depressed, chewing gum that increases your brain power and tea that helps you (4) _____
over the tiredness associated with long-distance air travel. (5) _____ the future, experts
promise biscuits that will keep your heart healthy, and a hot chocolate drink to give you
strong bones.
Despite the fact that these “functional” foods cannot replace a balanced diet and
regular exercise they can help the body perform at (6) _____ best a lot of the time. At
present, these foods are more expensive than other foods, but that is due to the ingredients
they (7) _____ of and the way they are made. All the foods contain probiotics (8) _____
increase the number of “good” bacteria in your stomach, helping to keep your digestive
system healthy.
There may even (9) _____ a functional food to protect eyesight, so keep an eye out as
you never know (10) _____ you might be eating tomorrow.

Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Section 3. Read the following passage and choose the correct answer to each of the
following questions. Write your answers in the box provided. (10p)
Population ecology is the science that measures changes in population size and
composition and identities the causes of these fluctuations. Population ecology is not
concerned solely with the human population. In ecological terms, a population consists of
the individuals of one species that simultaneously occupy the same general area, rely on the
same resources, and are affected by similar environmental factors. The characteristics of a
population are shaped by its size and by the interactions among individuals and between
individuals and their environment.
Population size is a balance between factors that increase numbers and factors that
decrease numbers. Some factors that increase populations are favorable light and
temperature, adequate food supply, suitable habitat, ability to compete for resources, and
ability to adapt to environmental change. Factors that decrease populations are insufficient or
excessive light and temperature, inadequate food supply, unsuitable or destroyed habitat, too
many competitors for resources, and inability to adapt to environmental change.
Another important characteristic of any population is its density. Population density is
the number of individuals per unit, such as the number of maple trees per square kilometer in
a county. Ecologists can rarely determine population size by actually counting all individuals
within geographical boundaries. Instead, they often use a variety of sampling techniques to
estimate densities and total population sizes. For example, they might estimate the number of
black bears in a national park by counting individuals in a few sample plots representative of
the whole park. In some cases, they estimate population size through indirect indicators, such
as the number of nests or burrows, or signs such as tracks or droppings.
Another important population characteristic, dispersion, is the pattern of spacing
among individuals within the population’s geographical boundaries. Various species are
distributed in their habitats in different ways to take better advantages of food supplies and
shelter, and to avoid predators or find prey. Within a population’s range, densities may vary
greatly because not all areas provide equally suitable habitat, and also because individuals
space themselves in relation to other members of the population.
Three possible patterns of dispersion are clumped, uniform, and random. A clumped
dispersion pattern means that individuals are gathered in patches throughout their habitat.
Clumping often results from the irregular distribution of resources needed for survival and
reproduction. For example, fallen trees keep the forest floor moist, and many forest insects
are clumped under logs where the humidity is to their liking. Clumping may also be
associated with mating, safety, or other social behavior. Crane flies, for example, swarm in
great numbers, a behavior that increase mating chances, and some fish swim in large schools
so they are less likely to be eaten by predators.
A uniform or evenly spaced distribution results from direct interactions among
individuals in the population. For example, regular spacing of plants may result from shading
and competition for water. In animal populations, uniform distribution is usually caused
completion for some resource or by social interactions that set up individual territories for
feeding, breeding, or resting.
 Random spacing occurs in the absence of strong attraction or repulsion among
individuals in a population. Overall, random patterns are rare in nature, with most
populations showing a tendency toward either clumped or uniform distribution.
Populations change in size, structure, and distribution as they respond to changes in
environmental conditions. Four main variables- births, deaths, immigration, and
emigration- determine the rate of change in the size of the population over time. A change in
the birth rate or death is the major way that most populations respond to changes in resource
availability. Members of some animal species can avoid or reduce the effects of
environmental stress by emigrating from one are and immigrating to another with more
favorable environmental conditions, thus altering the population’s dispersion.
1.Which sentence best expresses the essential information in the highlighted sentence in
paragraph 1?
A. Any species of life can be studied in population ecology.
B. Population ecologists care about the future of humanity
C. The growth of the human population is a major concern.
D. Population ecology does not consider humans worthy of study.
2. According to the passage, which factors might cause the population of a species to
decrease in size?
A. A favorable amount of light and water
B. An ability to hide from or defend against predators
C. A large number of other species competing for food
D. A greater number of births than deaths
3. Which of the following is an indirect indicator of a population’s density?
A. The distribution of food in a given area
B. The number of nests in a given area
C. The number of births in a given period of time
D. The number of individuals counted in a given area
4. The distribution pattern of individuals within a population’s geographical boundaries is
known as____________
A. population ecology B. population density
C. population change D. population dispersion
5. The word range in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to___________.
A. territory B. control C. history D. shelter
6. The word their in paragraph 5 refers to___________.
A. resources B. trees C. insects D. logs
7. All of the following are given as reasons for clumping EXCEPT_________.
 A. uneven resource distribution B. territorial disputes
C. mating behavior D. safety from predators
8. The phrase set up in paragraph 6 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. forbid B. establish C. increase D. conceal
9. Which of the following situations would be most likely to result in a uniform dispersion
pattern?
A. Birds compete for a place to build their nests.
B. Fish swim in large schools to avoid predators.
C. Whales develop strong bonds among relatives.
D. Elephants form a circle to protect their young.
10. Why does the author mention immigration and emigration in paragraph 8?
A. To identify factors affecting population dispersion
B. To give examples of territorial behavior in animals
C. To show that population balance themselves over time
D. To explain why animals populations are uniformly dispersed
Your answers
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Section 4. Read the following passage and do the tasks that follow. (20p)
A. The software tools of research are typically more abundant than hardware tools in the
social sciences. Software is usually thought of as meaning computer programs that tell
the hardware what to do, but any tool not related to a physical device can be considered
software. Included in this category are published tests and questionnaires.
B. Often researchers want to gather information related to a general area such as personality
or intelligence. For these instances, the use of a standardized test may be the best choice.
With already published tests you can be sure of both validity and reliability and can save
a lot of time that might otherwise be spent on test construction. Standardized tests can be
classified into five main categories: achievement, aptitude, interest, personality, and
intelligence.
C. Achievement tests are designed specifically to measure an individual's previously learned
knowledge or ability. They are available for many topic areas related to psychology,
education, business, and other fields. Achievement tests require that prior learning take
place and that this learning be demonstrated in order to pass.
D. Aptitude tests attempt to predict an individual’s performance in some activity at some
point in the future. They do not require any specific prior learning although basic
knowledge related to reading and writing is usually required and some preparation, such
as studying up on math formulas or sentence structure, can be helpful. A well-known
 example of this type is the Scholastic Achievement Test (SAT) designed to predict future
college performance.

E. Interest inventories also require only general knowledge but no preparation is needed.
These tests look at an individual's subjective interests in order to make predictions about
some future behavior or activity. Perhaps the most used interest inventory is the Strong
Interest Inventory, which compares interests related to specific careers in order to help
guide an individual's career path. Endorsed interests are compared with the interests of
successful individuals in various fields and predictions are made regarding the test-taker's
fit with the various career fields.
F. Typically designed to assess and diagnose personality and mental health related disorders,
personality tests are used extensively by psychologists in clinical, educational, and
business related settings. By far the most widely used test of this type is the Minnesota
Multiphasic Personality Inventory, Second Edition (MMPI-2), which compares an
individual's responses on a series of true-false items to those suffering from various
mental disorders such as depression, schizophrenia and anxiety. The theory behind the test
argues that if you endorse items similar to the items endorsed by those with depression, for
example, then the chances that you are also depressed increases.

G. Intelligence tests could be classified as aptitude tests since they are sometimes used to
predict future performance. They could also be classified as personality tests since they
can be used to diagnose disorders such as learning disabilities and mental retardation.
However, because of their limited scope, we will place them in their own category. The
purpose of an intelligence test is to attain a summary score or intelligence quotient (IQ) of
an individual's intellectual ability. Scores are compared to each other and can be
broken down into different subcategories depending on the intelligence test used. The
most commonly used tests of this type are the Wechsler Scales, including the Wechsler
Adult Intelligence Scale (WAIS), the Wechsler Intelligence Scale for Children (WISC),
and the Wechsler Preschool and Primary Scale of Intelligence (WPPSI).

H. Self-response questionnaires are a great way to gather large amounts of information in a

relatively short amount of time. A questionnaire, similar to a survey you might see on a
web page, allows subjects to respond to questions, rate responses, or offer opinions. Their
responses can then be used to place them in specific categories or groups or can be
compared to other subjects for data analysis. A concern with self- report, however, is the
accuracy of the responses. Unlike direct observation, there is no way of knowing if the
subject has told the truth or whether or not the question was understood as intended.
There are several different methods for gathering information on a questionnaire or
survey, including a Likert scale, the Thurstone technique, and the semantic differential.
The Likert scale is a popular method used in surveys because it allows the researcher to
quantify opinion based items. Questions are typically grouped together and rated or
responded to based on a five-point scale. This scale typically ranges in order from one
extreme to the other, such as (1) very interested; (2) somewhat interested; (3) unsure; (4)
 not very interested; and (5) not interested at all. Items that might be rated with this scale
representing the subject's level of interest could include a list of careers or academic
majors, for example.

Choose the most suitable headings for sections A–F from the list below. Use each
heading once only.Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.

List of Headings
i. Testing acquired knowledge
ii. The way future performance is forecast through testing
iii. The Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory
iv. Software tools in research explained
v. The use of a five-point scale in testing
vi. A test used to obtain a summary score of an individual's intelligence
vii. The method most widely used by psychologists in various situations
viii. Subjective interests employed to predict future behaviour
ix. The different classes of standardized tests
x. The importance of prior learning in tests
xi. Information gathered by self-reporting

Your answer:
1. Para A: iv 1. Para B: ______ 2. Para C: ______ 3. Para D: ______
4. Para E: ______ 5. Para F: ______ 6. Para G: ______ 7. Para H: ______
For questions 8-10, do the following statements agree with the views of the writer?
Write:
YES if the statement agrees with the writer
NO if the statement does not agree with the writer
NOT GIVEN if there is no information about this in the passage   
8. The Wechsler Scales are the only type of intelligence test now used.
9. Where large quantities of data need to be collected fairly quickly self-response
questionnaires work well.
10. The Likert Scales ensures greater accuracy than other techniques
Your answers
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

PART IV. WRITING (50 points)

Section 1: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the
sentence before it. (10p)
1. One advantage of living in the city is the range of clothes shops.
One point in__________________________________________________.
2. We have credited the money to your current account at this bank..
We have placed _______________________________________________.
3. You may be disqualified if you don’t obey the regulations.
Failure _____________________________________________.
4. The police’s prejudice against foreigners could not be recorded in the official files.
The fact that ____________________________________________________.
5. As people grow older, they become more and more forgetful.
The ______________________________________________________________.
Section 2: Rewrite these sentences using the words in CAPITAL. You must not change the
given words. (10p)
1. We did not think that canceling the order was a good idea .
(INADVISABLE)
We thought _______________________________________________________.
2. We will ultimately all feel the effects of pollution. (END)
In ____________________________________________________ us all.
3. He finally accepted the situation, although he was concerned. (TERMS)
Despite his _________________________________________________________________.
4. Being inexperienced was a disadvantage to her when she applied for promotion .
(COUNTED)
Her ______________________________________when she applied for promotion.
5. This medicine will relieve the pain, but it will not cure everything.
(MIRACLES)
This medicine ____________________________________ bring some pain relief.
Section 3: Paragraph writing (30p)
Nowadays, there is a trend that reports of media focus on problems and emergencies
rather than positive developments. Do you think it is harmful to individuals and to
society?
You should write a paragraph of 150-180 words to express your viewpoint.

TEST 3

I. Part 1- LISTENING (50 points) :

 1. Complete the following notes using NO MORE THAN THREE words/ number for
each answer. (14 points)
Borchester University

Example: Where to get …food…on campus

PLACE CAPACITY REGULAR MENU COST
Main Refectory Hall space for Vegetarian, fish, (1) (3) _________ £3
about (4) _______________.
Open: (2) ________ _____ people

tea, coffee, hot chocolate,

Arts Building Café sandwiches (5) _________ £1.30

Open: 9 - 6

tea, coffee, (7) ________

sandwiches
(6) _________ Bar

Open: 10 - 4

Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4.
5. 6. 7.

2. You will hear part of a radio talk about how to choose houseplants. For questions 8-15,
complete the sentences that summarize what the speaker says with NO MORE THAN
THREE words. You will hear the recording twice.

Write your answer in the box provided. (16 points)

Before you get the plant, choose the (8)____________________.

You must make sure there is enough (9)____________________.

Check that plants have been well looked after at the garden centre.

Plants in poor condition mean the garden centre might not be (10)_______________.

Choose plants with healthy green (11)____________________.

It could take months or years for a plant to reach the size you want.

It may be better to buy a large plant even if it is (12)____________________.

Do not buy plants that have just been put (13)____________________.

It is not a good idea to buy plants in (14) _____________________.

You should look under the leaves for unwanted (15)_____________________.

Your answers:
8. 9. 10. 11.
12. 13. 14. 15.

3. Listen to a nutritionist called Penny Flack talking about the effects of health and diet in
some countries around the world. Are these statements True (T) or False (F)? (10 points)

EATING FOR HEALTH

1 A quarter of Europeans and Americans are now said to be obese.

2 American politicians have been discussing how to tackle the causes and
consequences of obesity.

3 High-fat cheese and meat is causing the French to become obese.

4 Heart disease is becoming more common in Japan and Greenland.

5 Scientists have discovered that a number of spices used in Indian cooking can
improve brain health.

Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

4. You are going to listen to a journalist called Max Wilson talking about a book about
luck in sport by Matthew Syed. Listen to the whole interview and choose the best answer
A, B, or C. (10 points)

1. Max says that top sportspeople usually believe their success is due to

A. good fortune
 B. hard work

C. natural skill

2. According to Max, the examples of recent sporting achievements prove

A. that people in general have become stronger and fitter

B. that standards are getting higher

C. that technology is responsible for improved performance

3. In the book Matthew Syed says he had a greater chance of success because of

A. his parents’ love of table tennis.

B. his competitive brother.

C. his own ambition.

4. That advantage is mentioned of the Omega Club when Matthew joined?

A. It was open all the time.

B. It had a lot of good players.

C. It had great facilities.

5. Max says that a ten-year investigation has shown that lucky people

A. believe they will succeed.

B. look for good opportunities.

C. depend less on talent.

Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Part II: LEXICO-GRAMMAR: 40/200

1. Choose the best option A, B, C, or D to complete the following sentences and write your
answers in the corresponding numbered boxes.(20 points)
1. I always take my lucky _________with me into an exam.

A. sign B. item C. charm D. spell

2. I didn’t know my guess was going to be right – It was just __________

A. pot luck B. odds C. draw D. gamble

3. Why are all your clothes in a __________on the floor?

A. bulk B. heap C. batch D. sum

4. Sending out e-mails that people haven’t asked for to ______addresses is often known.

A. sufficient B. countless C. widespreadD. multiple

5. We all have to follow the rules, and none of us is ________ the law.

A. beyond B. over C. above D. onto

6. We are pleased to inform you that we have decided to _________your request for British
citizenship.

A. give B. grant C. permit D. donate

7. We can only _______ as to the causes of the disaster.

A. think B. consider C. speculate D. ponder

8. The professor’s _______ theory is that singing preceded speech.

A. preferable B. pet C. fond D. fancied

9. I’m not sure if I’m doing it right, but I’ll try to ___________ahead with it anyway.

A. drive B. bang C. touch D. press

10. Could you lend me some money to _____________ me over to the end of the month?

A. hand B. tide C. get D. make

11. I’m not a serious investor, but I like to _______ in the stock market.

A. splash B. splatter C. paddle D. dabble

12. Who else is of the ______ that we should break the camp?

A. conclusion B. opinion C. remark D. theory

13. The local press has been pouring ______ on the mayor for dissolving the council.

A. blame B. hatred C. disapproval D. scorn

14. I’m ______ too keen on visiting the Parkers again so soon.

A. that B. none C. such D. very

15. If I make a fool of myself in front of my friends, I’ll never ________ it down.

A. let B. give C. settle D. live

16. Because of his poor health, it took him along time to ________ his bad cold.

A. throw off B. throw away C. throw down D. throw over

17. In spite of his poor education, he was the most ________ speaker.

A. articulate B. ambiguous C. attentive D. authoritarian

18. “Another cup of coffee?” — “No, but thanks __________.

A. not at all B. for all C. all the same D. you for all

19. He said he would contribute money, but later he backed ___________of it.

A. down B. away C. off D. out

20. Can you recite the alphabet___________?

A. reverse B. around C. backwards D. returned

Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
2. Give the correct form of the word in the brackets. (10 pts)

1. Deforestation and excessive farming have _____________ the soil. (POOR)

2. In his _____________, Mike smashed all the breakable items in the kitchen. (FURIOUS)

3. The building looks a bit ______________ from the outside but it’s quite traditional inside.
(FUTURE)

4. I sat completely ____________as the spider crawled along my arm. (MOTION)

5. The heavy snow meant that the mountain roads were ____________for over a week.
(PASS)

6. She was charged with being disorderly and ____________. (INTOXICANT)

7. The damage caused by the terrible storm two days ago was____________ by the
government. The real figures go up every minute. (ESTIMATE)

8. They exchanged ____________ for a few minutes before saying goodbye. (PLEASANT)

9. There is a decline in the ____________ of cigarette smoking among young men.

(PREVAIL)

10. They are planning for an advertising campaign to ____________the new film.
(PUBLIC)

Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

3. There are 10 mistakes in the passage. Find out and correct them. (10 points)
Line After inventing dynamite, Swedish-born Alfred Nobel became very rich man.
Therefore, he foresaw its universally destructive powers too late. Nobel
preferred not to remember as the inventor of dynamite, so in 1895, just two
weeks before his death, he created a fund to be used for rewarding prizes to
people who had made worthwhile contributions to mankind. Originally there
were five awards: literature, physics, chemistry, medicine, and peace. Economy
was added in 1968, just sixty-seven years after the first award ceremony.
Nobel’s original legacy of nine millions dollars was invested, and the interest in
 this sum is used for the awards which vary from 30,000 to 125,000.
5
Every year on December 10, the anniversary of Nobel’s death, the awards (gold
medal, illuminated diploma, and money) is presented to the winners. Sometimes
politics plays an important role in the judges decisions. Americans have won
numerous science awards, but relatively few literature prizes. No awards were
presented from 1940 to 1942 at the beginning of World War II. Some people
have won two prizes, but this is scarce; others have shared their prizes.

Your answers:
Line Mistakes Corrections
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.

Part III. READING (60 pts)

1. Fill the blanks with one of four options to complete the passage (10 points)

Romania’s name itself suggests what makes it different from its neighbours. The
connection is with the Imperial Rome and coming from that is the language which sounds
like Italian. The country is about the (1)_________ of Great Britain and has a population of
23 million, of whom ninety percent are Romanians.

The scenery is (2) _________: mountainous areas with summer and winter resorts, a
marvellous stretch of the Danube as it descends towards the Iron Gates, not to mention
castles, palaces and monasteries with impressive frescoes. There are also historic towns
from the 13th of century, Black Sea beach resorts and the astonishing bird-life of the
(3)_________ Danube delta. And if this is not enough, there are no (4) _________ than 160
spas offering cures for nearly every illness (5)_________ to man.
Romania is perhaps most famous abroad for being the home of Dracula the famous creation
of the Irish writer, Bram Stoker. However, while the story is (6)_________, the character is
based on a Romanian prince called Vlad Dracula (son of Dracul) or Tepes (the Impaler)
because of such cruelty (7) _________ his enemies. On one occasion he is supposed to have
sat down to a meal to enjoy the spectacle of some prisoners (8)_________ their arms and
legs cut off. He asked for their blood to be collected and brought to him as a dip for his
bread.

So, when you visit Romania you may like to visit Bran Castle which was built in 1377 and is
the castle most (9)_________ identified with Dracula. But, if you do, don’t forget how much
(10)_________ there is to see in Romania.

1. A. size B. area C. proportion D. extent

2. A. different B. various C. varied D. diverse

3. A. tremendous B. vast C. huge D. gigantic

4. A. better B. less C. more D. fewer

5. A. belonging B. familiar C. known D. accustomed

6. A. false B. fiction C. fake D. unauthentic

7. A. regarding B. with C. for D. towards

8. A. when B. while C. having D. with

9. A. tightly B. closely C. nearly D. strictly

10. A. else B. more C. remaining D. left

Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

2. Fill each of the blanks with ONE suitable word. (10 pts)

THE CUCKOO ROLLER OF MADAGASCAR

This bird is about the same size as the European roller, and has many features in common
(1)________ its near relatives. (2) ________ the European family, however, the cuckoo
roller can reverse its outer toes, (3) ________ it to perch by gripping a branch with two toes
forward and two back. Its eating habits are also quite different. (4) ________ nearly all other
rollers take food on the wing or pluck reptiles or large insects from the ground, the cuckoo
roller stays high up in the forest canopy, (5) ________ on caterpillars, stick insects and, most
important of all, chameleons.

Subtly blending its colours to the forest backcloth, and (6) ________ leaving the safety of the
branches except to cross from one tree to another, the chameleon is an elusive prey. Even on
open ground, (7) ________ myriad dangers it normally avoids, the chameleon’s slow,
swaying walk makes it difficult to see against the leaves. (8) ________ good is it camouflage
that the cuckoo roller has to put up with long periods of watching and waiting, (9) ________
a tell-tale movement betrays its victim’s presence. At least, experts assume this is what
happens, because despite the fact that this bird is widespread throughout Madagascar, (10)
________ observer has yet seen it in the process of catching its prey.

Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

3. Read the passage and choose one of four options to answer the questions (10 pts)

It is estimated that over 99 percent of all species that ever existed have become extinct. What
causes extinction? When a species is no longer adapted to a change environment, it may
perish. The exact causes of a species’ death vary from situation to situation. Rapid ecological
change may render an environment hostile to a species. For example, temperatures may
change and a species may not be adapt. Food resources may be affected by environmental
changes, which will then cause problems for a species requiring these resources. Other
species may become better adapted to an environment, resulting in competition and,
ultimately, in the death of a species.

The fossil record reveals that extinction has occurred throughout the history of Earth. Recent
analyses have also revealed that on some occasions many species became extinct at the same
time - a mass extinction. One of the best - known examples of mass extinction occurred 65
million years ago with the demise of dinosaurs and many other forms of life. Perhaps the
largest mass extinction was the one that occurred 225 million years ago, when approximately
95 percent of all species died. Mass extinctions can be caused by a relatively rapid change in
the environment and can be worsened by the close interrelationship of many species. If, for
example, something were to happen to destroy much of the plankton in the oceans, then the
oxygen content of Earth would drop, affection even organisms not living in the oceans. Such
a change would probably lead to a mass extinction.

One interesting, and controversial, finding is that extinctions during the past 250 million
years have tended to be more intense every 26 million years. The periodic extinction might
be due to intersection of the earth’s orbit with a cloud of comets, but this theory is purely
speculative. Some researchers have also speculated that extinction may often be random.
That is, certain species may be eliminated and others may survive for no particular reason. A
species’ survival may have nothing to do with its ability or inability to adapt. If so, some of
revolutionary history may reflect a sequence of essentially random events.
1: The underlined word “ ultimately “ is closest in meaning to
A. exceptionally B. unfortunately
C. eventually D. dramatically
2: What does the author say in paragraph 1 regarding most species in Earth’s history?
A. They have been able to adapt to ecological changes.
B. They have caused rapid change in the environment .
C. They have remained basically unchanged from their original forms
D. They are no longer in existence.
3: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in paragraph 1 as resulting from rapid
ecological change?
A. Availability of food resources B. Introduction of new species
C. Temperature changes D. Competition among species
4: The word “demise” is closest in meaning to
A. help B. death. C. recovery D. change
5: Why is “ plankton” mentioned in the second paragraph?
A. To emphasize the importance of food resources in preventing mass extinction
B. To illustrate a comparison between organisms that live on the land and those that live in
the ocean
C. To point out that certain species could never become extinct
D. To demonstrate the interdependence of different species
6: According to paragraph 2, evidence from fossils suggests that
A. There has been only one mass extinction in Earth’s history.
B. Extinction of species has occurred from time to time throughout Earth’s history.
C. Extinctions on Earth have generally been massive.
D. Dinosaurs became extinct much earlier than scientists originally believed.
7: The underlined word “ finding” is closest in meaning to
A. published information
B. research method
C. scientific discovery.
D. ongoing experiment
8: Which of the following can be inferred from the theory of periodic extinction mentioned
in paragraph 3?
A. The theory is no longer seriously considered.
B. Most scientists believe the theory to be accurate.
C. Many scientists could be expected to disagree with it.
D. Evidence to support the theory has recently been found.
9: In paragraph 3, the author makes which of the following statements about a species’
survival?
A. It is associated with astronomical condition
B. It may depend on chance events.
C. It does not vary greatly from species to species
D. It reflects the interrelationship of may species.
10: According to the passage, it is believed that the largest extinction of the species occurred
A. 65 million years ago B. 250 million years ago
C. 225 million years ago D. 26 million years ago

Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

4. Read the following passage then do the tasks that follow. (10 pts)
HOW DOES THE BIOLOGICAL CLOCK TICK?
A Our life span is restricted. Everyone accepts this as 'biologically' obvious. ‘Nothing lives
for ever!’ However, in this statement we think of artificially produced, technical objects,
products which are subjected to natural wear and tear during use. This leads to the result that
at some time or other the object stops working and is unusable ('death' in the biological
sense). But are the wear and tear and loss of function of technical objects and the death of
living organisms really similar or comparable?
B Our ‘dead’ products are ‘static’, closed systems. It is always the basic material which
constitutes the object and which, in the natural course of things, is worn down and becomes
'older’. Ageing in this case must occur according to the laws of physical chemistry and of
thermodynamics. Although the same law holds for a living organism, the result of this law is
not inexorable in the same way. At least as long as a biological system has the ability to
renew itself it could actually become older without ageing; an organism is an open, dynamic
system through which new material continuously flows. Destruction of old material and
formation of new material are thus in permanent dynamic equilibrium. The material of which
the organism is formed changes continuously. Thus our bodies continuously exchange old
substance for new, just like a spring which more or less maintains its form and movement,
but in which the water molecules are always different.
C Thus ageing and death should not be seen as inevitable, particularly as the organism
possesses many mechanisms for repair. It is not, in principle, necessary for a biological
system to age and die. Nevertheless, a restricted life span, ageing, and then death are basic
characteristics of life. The reason for this is easy to recognise: in nature, the existent
organisms either adapt or are regularly replaced by new types. Because of changes in the
genetic material (mutations) these have new characteristics and in the course of their
individual lives they are tested for optimal or better adaptation to the environmental
conditions. Immortality would disturb this system - it needs room for new and better life.
This is the basic problem of evolution
D Every organism has a life span which is highly characteristic. There are striking
differences in life span between different species, but within one species the parameter is
relatively constant. For example, the average duration of human life has hardly changed in
thousands of years. Although more and more people attain an advanced age as a result of
developments in medical care and better nutrition, the characteristic upper limit for most
remains 80 years. A further argument against the simple wear and tear theory is the
observation that the time within which organisms age lies between a few days (even a few
hours for unicellular organisms) and several thousand years, as with mammoth trees.
E If a lifespan is a genetically determined biological characteristic, it is logically necessary to
propose the existence of an internal clock, which in some way measures and controls the
aging process and which finally determines death as the last step in a fixed programme. Like
the fife span, the metabolic rate has for different organisms a fixed mathematical relationship
to the body mass. In comparison to the life span this relationship is ‘inverted’: the larger the
organism the lower its metabolic rate. Again this relationship is valid not only for birds, but
also, similarly on average within the systematic unit, for all other organisms (plants, animals,
unicellular organisms).
F Animals which behave ‘frugally’ with energy become particularly old for example,
crocodiles and tortoises. Parrots and birds of prey are often held chained up. Thus they are
not able to ‘experience life’ and so they attain a high life span in captivity. Animals which
save energy by hibernation or lethargy (e.g. bats or hedgehogs) live much longer than those
which are always active, The metabolic rate of mice can be reduced by a very low
consumption of food (hunger diet) They then may live twice as long as their well fed
comrades. Women become distinctly (about 10 per cent) older than men. If you examine the
metabolic rates of the two sexes you establish that the higher male metabolic rate roughly
accounts for the lower male life span. That means that they live life ‘energetically’ - more
intensively, but not for as long.

G It follows from the above that sparing use of energy reserves should tend to extend life.
Extreme high performance sports may lead to optimal cardiovascular performance, but they
quite certainly do not prolong life. Relaxation lowers metabolic rate, as does adequate sleep
and in general an equable and balanced personality. Each of us can develop his or her own
‘energy saving programme’ with a little self observation, critical self-control and, above all,
logical consistency. Experience will show that to live in this way not only increases the life
span but is also very healthy. This final aspect should not be forgotten.
The Reading Passage has seven paragraphs, A-G,
For question 1-6, choose the correct heading for paragraphs A-G from the list of
headings below.

Write the correct number, i-x, in the corresponding numbered boxes.

LIST OF HEADINGS

i The biological clock

ii Why dying is beneficial

iii The ageing process of men and women

iv Prolonging your life

v Limitations of life span

vi Modes of development of different species

vii A stable life span despite improvements

viii Energy consumption

ix Fundamental differences in ageing of objects and organisms

x Repair of genetic material

Example answer: Paragraph A: v

Your answers
1. Paragraph B …............. 2. Paragraph C …............. 3. Paragraph D ….............

4. Paragraph E …............. 5. Paragraph F …............. 6. Paragraph G ….............

Questions 7-10, complete the notes below

Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer. Write your
answers in boxes 7-10

 Objects age in accordance with principles of (7) __________ and of (8) _________
 Through mutations, organisms can (9) __________ better to the environment
 (10) __________ would pose a serious problem for the theory of evolution

Your answers
7. 8. 9. 10.

PART IV: WRITING ( 50 pts)

1/ Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first one, using the
word given. Don’t change the word given. You must use between three and eight words
including the word given. (10pts)

1. Carol has trouble communicating her ideas to other. (ACROSS)

Carol ……………………………………………..............

2. Tom’s presence at parties adds to everyone’s enjoyment. (SOUL).

Tom………………………………………………………………… parties.

3. His colleague will do anything to avoid confrontation. (LENGTHS)

His colleague ………………………………………………to avoid confrontation.

4. Margaret is said to be a very good cook. (REPUTATION)

Margaret……………………………………………………very good cook.

5. I think this word comes from ancient Greece. (DERIVED)

……………………………………………………………………………………

b/ Complete the second sentence so that it has similar meaning to the first sentence.(10 pts)

1. Whatever the methods used to obtain the result, drugs were definitely not involved.

-> There was no question……………………………………………………..

2. She chooses the kinds of the hotels she stays in very carefully.
-> She is very fussy…………………………………………………………………
3. Although the papers claim that they are going to get divorced, they are not.

-> Contrary ………………………………………………………………………..

4. I have been told that you have been late for work every day this week.
-> It has been brought …………………………………………………….
5. The fund-raisers haven’t officially decided where to send the proceeds of the concert.
-> No …………………………………………………………………………

3. Write a paragraph of about 150 -180 words to express your opinion on the following
topic (30 points)

“Modern technology has increased our material wealth but not our happiness”

TEST 4
PART I. LISTENING (50p)
Section 1. You will hear a talk about North Residency Questionnaires. For questions from
1 to 7, fill in each gap with NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER.
(14p)

North Residency Questionnaire

Current occupation: (1) _________________________________

Exact living area (2) _________________________________
Type of accommodation: a shared (3) ______________________
Private transport: on foot and by bike
Public transport: take the train or a (4)______________________
Frequency of eating out: (5) ___________________________________________
Places for entertainment: the places people usually go to, such as some great
(6) ___________________________________________
Other free time activity: go to the (7) ________________________________
Preferred exercise go swimming
go to the gym
go sailing
Part-time course Japanese

Your answer
1. 2. 3. 4.
 5. 6. 7.

Section 2. Listen to the recording about a human resources manager talking about
people’s relationship with their colleagues. Complete each of the following sentences with
NO MORE THAN two words AND/ OR a number (16p)

1. The company that Ann Gates works for produces

_____________________________________________________
2. The women used to complain about
____________________________________________________________________
3. The men used to complain about people causing problems with the
________________________________
4. Both men and women get annoyed by their colleagues’ overuse of
__________________________________
5. Men nowadays get annoyed by their colleagues’ choice of
____________________________________________
6. Women want all their colleagues to take their turn at
_________________________________________________
7. People said they would be happy to sacrifice a _____________________________ to
have nice colleagues.
8. __________________________________ People would be prepared to take a pay cut in
order to have a pleasanter work environment.
Your answers
1. 2. 3. 4.
5. 6. 7. 8.

Section 3: Listen to a man giving a talk on current crime trends and decide if the
following statements are true (T) or false (F). (10p)
1. Compared to the past, current court sentences are less strict, which is the main reason for
the increase in crime. _____
2. Most crime is committed against retired people. _____
3. Violent crimes are uncommon, with the likelihood of becoming a victim of violent crime
being higher in large cities. _____
4. The majority of the crimes committed are theft-related. _____
5. The report mentions pick-pocketing and joy-riding as examples of common rural crime.
_____
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Section 4: You will hear an interview with a woman called Sally Gartree, who works as an
organizer of the three-day Ixford Music Festival. For the question 1-5, choose the best
answer (A, B or C) (10p)
1. Sally says that her involvement with the festival began __________________.
A. before her parents were asked to help run it. 
B. after she had started attending the event regularly. 
C. when she was working for a music company
D. when it was first held over twenty years ago.
2. Sally feels that the biggest change in the festival has been in _______________________.
A. the scale of the event   B. the atmosphere at night 
C. the facilities for performers D.  the performance of the
artist.
3. Sally regrets that some people attending the festival now seem most interested in
__________________.
A. how well known the bands are. B. trying out different types of
food.
C. the retail outlets selling souvenirs. D. facilities used by
performers.
4.  What would Sally like to change about the festival?
A. so many people arriving by car  B. the reliance on good weather 
C. how poor advertised it is D. the indoor decorations of the
festival
5. Sally hopes that in the future the festival will ___________________________.
A. go on for longer B. be shown on TV
C. move to the other place D.  stay the same size

Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

PART II. LEXICO - GRAMMAR (50p)

Section 1. Choose the word or phrase that best fits each blank in the following
sentences. (20p)
1. This neighborhood looks a little _________________ and tatty these days.
A. well-heeled B. run down C. well-off D. down and out
2. He’s been ____________________ her to go out with him for months.
A. persisting B. pestering C. persevering D. sticking to
3. I have English classes __________________ day – Mondays, Wednesdays and Fridays.
A. each other B. this and the other C. all other D. every other
4. I really want to help you, but I’ve got __________________ organizing the school play.
A. my head over heels B. up to my ears
C. my nose choked D. my hands full
5. Many children who get into trouble in their early teens go on to become
_________________ offenders.
A. consistent B. resistant C. insistent D. persistent
6. That judge is feared because she takes a hard ____________ in the fight against drugs.
A. line B. lane C. path D. rule
7. A retired woman has been tricked ________________ of her life savings by a bogus
financial adviser.
A. into B. out C. on D. for
8.He stopped the thief right at the corner, and up
_____________________________________________________.
A. did a policeman walk B. a policeman walked
C. walked a policeman D. walk a policeman
9. It turned out that we ______________ rushed to the airport as the flight was delayed by
several hours.
A. needn’t have B. shouldn’t have C. mustn’t have D. hadn’t
10. The photographer took a picture of the deer the moment it came into
_________________.
A. light B. scene C. lens D. sight
11. Luckily, my bag was handed into the police station with all its contents
_______________________.
A. preserve B. unscathed C. unsafe D. intact
12. Ben: “Didn’t you go to cinema last night?”
Sophie: “______________________________________”.
A. Yes, I lost the ticket B. No. It was too cold to go out
C. Ok. That was a good idea D. Yes, I stayed at home
13. You really dropped ____________________ the other day when you told Keith you’d
seen his wife at the cinema. He thought she was her mother’s
A. a brick B. a stone C. a log D. a plank
14. A wave of bombings ______________ through the capital’s business district.
A. slashed B. hacked C. incised D. ripped
15. The government must never fall into the ______________ of a political party again.
A. clutches B. groups C. heads D. hoofs
16. Those students don’t like to read novels ______________________ textbooks.
A. in any case B. forgetting about
C. leaving out of the question D. much less
17. Can I ______________your brains for a moment? I can’t do this crossword by myself.
A. have B. pick C. mind D. use
18. The job wasn’t giving the _____________________ of the experience he wanted.
A. width B. depth C. length D. breadth
19. _________ of the financial crisis, all they could do was hold on and hope that things
would improve.
A. At the height B. At the bottom C. On the top D. In the end
20. The new speed restrictions were a ________________________ debated issue.
A. heavily B. hotly C. deeply D. profoundly
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
16. 17. 18. 19. 20.

Section 2. Fill each gap with the correct form of the words in brackets. (10p)
1. She was completely ____________________________ by severe burns. (FIGURE)
2. The government is now faced with the ______________________ problems of
unemployment. (SUPER)
3. Part of the _________________ process involved changing the names of all the hospitals.
(STANDARD)
4. Every man talking with Katie like her. She is very nice and _________________. (LADY)
5. A bank _________ credited its customer's account twice with the amount of a single
remittance. (ERR)
6. Nobody in his country dared to ___________________ him because of his important
status. (FRIEND)
7. Being happy doesn't mean that everything is perfect. It means that you've decided to look
beyond the _____________________. (PERFECT)
8. We have our ________________________ advertising department; therefore, we don’t
need to hire other companies to publish the materials. (HOUSE)
9. She left the theatre feeling that two hours had been ______________________ spent.
(GAIN)
10. Coupled with a ___________________ thunderstorm drifting overhead just now, it's
been quite an eventful afternoon. (SIZE)

Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Section 3. The passage below contains TEN mistakes. Underline the mistakes and
provide the corrections in the spaces below. (10p)
Human memory happens in many parts of the brain in once, and some types of Line 1
memories stick around longer than other. It was formally believed to be rather Line 2
inefficient, however, it is really more sophisticated than that of a computer. Line 3
Researchers approached the problem from a variety of point of view have all Line 4
concluded that there is a great deal more store in our minds than has been generally Line 5
supposed. Dr. Wilder Penfield, a Canadian neurosurgeon, proved that by Line 6
stimulating their brains electrically he could elicit the total recall of specific events Line 7
in his subjects’ life. The memory trace is the term for whatever is the internal Line 8
representation of the specific information about the event stored in the memory. Line 9
Assumed to have been done by structural changes in the brain, the memory trace is Line 10
not subject for direct observation but is rather a theoretical construct that we use to Line 11
speculate about how information presented at a later time. Almost theories include Line 12
the strength of the memory trace as a variable in the degree of learning, retention, Line 13
and retrieval possible for a memory. One theory is that it is the result of an limited Line 14
combination of interconnections between brain information that support recall. Or, Line 15
to put it other way, improved performance is the result of strengthening the
chemical bond in the memory.

Example:
0. Line 1: in => at
Your answers:
Lines Mistake and correction Line Mistake and correction
1. 6.
2. 7.
3. 8.
4. 9.
5. 10.
PART III. READING (60p)
Section 1. Read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C, or D) best fits
each gap. Write your answer in corresponding numbered boxes. (0) has been done as
an example. (10p)
GERARD MERCATOR: THE MAN WHO MAPPED THE PLANET
When Gerard Mercator was born in 1512, the geography of the globe still remained a
mystery. It was unclear whether America was part of Asia, if there was a vast 1
of sea at the top of the world or if Australia was connected to Antarctica.
Mercator’s childhood was spent chiefly in Rupelmonde, a Flemish trading town on the
river, and it was here that his geographical imagination was 2 by the
ships which passed to and from the rest of the world. Alongside imagination, he
developed two very different skills. The first was the ability to gather, 3
and co-ordinate the geographical information provided
by explorers and sailors who frequented the margins of the known. He also had to be
able to imagine himself 4 _ from the heavens, to achieve the visionary 4
of gods in the skies, 6 down on
the world. The main reason why Mercator’s name is familiar to us is because of the
Mercator Projection: the solution he 7 to represent
the spheroidal surface of the globe on a two-dimensional plane. It is less well known that
Mercator was the first man to conceive of mapping the 8 surface of the
planet or that he 9 the idea of multiple maps being presented in
bound books, to which he gave the name ‘Atlas’.
It is difficult for us now to be surprised by maps, so many are there, and of such detail and
coverage, but we should bear in mind that Mercator lived at a time when such knowledge
was far from 10 . He was the man who altered our worldview for ever.

1. A. territory B. distance C. range D. expanse

2. A. raised B. reared C. supplied D. nourished
3. A. congregate B. amass C. assimilate D. construct
4. A. suspended B. located C. situated D. attached
5. A. inspection B. observation C. perspective D. assessment
6. A. glimpsing B. scrutinizing C. watching D. gazing
7. A. invented B. contrived C. devised D. schemed
8. A. sheer B. full C. entire D. utter
9. A. pioneered B. initiated C. lead D. prepared
10. A. typical B. common C. routine D. normal
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
Section 2. Read the passage and fill in each gap with ONE suitable word. (10p)
Spending a summer in the company (0) _____of______ whales off the coast of Patagonia is
a (1) _____________ in a lifetime opportunity. We spent at least twelve hours on the boat
every day and learned a great deal about the whales’ behavior. It seemed that our interest (2)
___________________ reciprocated!
To encourage the whales to approach the boat we simply had to move a short distance from
the coast, switch off the engines and wait. Younger whales who attempted to come closer
were pushed (3) ___________ by their mothers, but older ones were allowed to play nearby.
Some of these even came close enough for us to touch them.
On some occasions the sea seemed to be full of whales jumping (4) _______________ of the
water but at other times we saw (5) _____________ any at all. Sometimes we could go for
several days and (6) _______________ see a single whale.
Later, however, we adopted a pattern. One day we had come upon a whale and (7)
__________________ baby and we decided to keep visiting the pair at the same time every
day. At (8) __________________ the mother would not let the baby approach us but, as time
(9) ______________ by, she allowed him to come closer and closer to the boat. It was a truly
amazing experience to be rewarded with (10) ________________ trust at the end of our six
weeks.
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Section 3. Read the following passage and choose the correct answer to each of the
following questions. Write your answers in the box provided. (10p)

Global warming could cause drought and possibly famine in China, the source of much of
Hong Kong’s food, by 2050, a new report predicts. Hong Kong could also be at risk from
flooding as sea levels rose. The report recommends building sea-walls around low-lying
areas such as the new port and airport reclamations. Published by the World Wide Fund for
Nature (WWF), the report, which includes work by members of the Chinese Academy of
Meteorological Sciences, uses the most recent projections on climate change to point to a
gloomy outlook for China.
By 2050, about 30 to 40 per cent of the country will experience changes in the type of
vegetation it supports, with tropical and subtropical forest conditions shifting northward and
hot desert conditions rising in the west where currently the desert is temperate. Crop-growing
areas will expand but any benefit is expected to be negated by increased evaporation of
moisture, making it too dry to grow crops such as rice. The growing season also is expected
to alter, becoming shorter in southern and central China, the mainland’s breadbasket. The
rapid changes make it unlikely that plants could adapt.
“China will produce smaller crops. In the central and northern areas, and the southern part,
there will be decreased production because of water limitations”, Dr. Rik Leemans, one of
the authors of the report, said during a brief visit to the territory yesterday. Famine could
result because of the demands of feeding the population - particularly if it grows - and the
diminished productivity of the land. “It looks very difficult for the world as a whole”, he
said.
Global warming is caused by the burning of large amounts of fossil fuels, such as coal and
oil, which release gases that trap heal in the atmosphere. World temperatures already have
increased this century by about 6 degrees Celsius and are projected to rise by between 1.6
degrees and 3.8 degrees by 2100.
Dr. Leemans said China’s reliance on coal-fired power for its industrial growth did not bode
well for the world climate. “I  think  the  political  and  economic  powers  in  China  are 
much  greater  than  the environmental powers, and [greenhouse gas emissions] could
accelerate,” Dr. Leemans said. “China is not taking the problem seriously yet, although it is
trying to incorporate this kind of research to see what is going to happen.”
The climate change report, which will be released tomorrow, focuses on China but Mr.
David Melville of WWF-Hong Kong said some of the depressing scenarios could apply to
the territory. Food supplies, for instance, could be affected by lower crop yields. “Maybe we
could afford to import food from elsewhere but you have to keep in mind that the type of
changes experienced in southern China will take place elsewhere as well,” he  said.  Sea 
levels  could  rise  as  glaciers  melted  and  the  higher temperatures expanded the size of the
oceans, threatening much of developed Hong Kong which is built on reclaimed land. Current
projections are that sea levels worldwide will rise by 15 to 90 centimeters by 2100,
depending on whether action is taken to reduce greenhouse gas emissions.
“Hong Kong has substantial areas built on reclaimed land and sea level rises could impact on
that, not only on Chek Lap Kok but the West Kowloon Reclamation and the Central and
Western Reclamation - the whole lot,” Mr. Melville said, adding that sea walls would be
needed. Depleted fresh water supplies would be another problem because increased
evaporation would reduce levels. Mr. Melville said the general outlook could be helped if
Hong Kong used water less wastefully and encouraged energy efficiency to reduce fuel-
burning. He also called on the West to help China improve its efficiency.
1. Overall, what sort of picture is painted of the future effects of global warming?
A. disastrous                                   B. potentially disastrous
C. relatively optimistic                   D. on balance things are going to be
satisfactory
2. What is this passage?
A. a report                                             B. a preview of a report
C. an article describing a response to a report D. an article previewing a report
3. Mr. David Melville suggests that in future more food could be imported into Hong
Kong. He thinks these measures could be _____.
A. efficient                  B. sufficient                C. insufficient            
D. inefficient
4. The main point of paragraph 3 is to describe _____.
A. effects of changes in the climate of China on food production
B. future changes in the climate of China.
C. effects of changes in the climate of China on the growing season
D. projected future changes in the climate of China
5. The main point of paragraph 5 is to describe _____.
A. global warming                                      
B. the effects of global warming
C. the causes and projected effects of global warming
D. the causes and effects of global warming
6. Why does the writer add the information in square brackets in paragraph 5?
A. because the quote is from a second language user whose command of English is not
perfect
B. because, although they are not part of the original quote, the additional information given
is necessary to understand the statement
C. because the writer is quoting from another source
D. because the writer wants to emphasize the meaning of these words
7. In paragraph 7, which point is Mr. Melville NOT making?
A. suggesting that there is a potential disaster in Hong Kong
B. suggesting that reclamation areas are at risk
C. criticizing current safeguards                
D. making a call for action
8. How would you describe the Dr. Leman’s attitude towards China?
A. mainly favorable                      B. critical C. supportive in theory             D.
admiring
9. In paragraph 2, “negated” is closest in meaning to _____.
A. made possible         B. made ineffective   C. reduced                    D. paid for
10. In paragraph 7, “depleted” could be replaced by which of the following?
A. reduced                  B. poor                        C. decaying                 D. decimated

Your answers
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
Section 4. Read the following passage and do the tasks that follow. (20p)
“Freebie” Marketing

A. In the late 1890s while travelling as an Itinerant salesperson for the Crown. Cork, and
Seal Company. King C. Gillette observed how his corked bottle caps were discarded
immediately after opening. Nevertheless, his company turned a healthy profit and there was
immense business value. Gillette soon came to realise, in a product that was used only a few
times. Gillette had his own personal breakthrough while struggling with a straight-bladed
razor – a slow, fiddly, and potentially dangerous instrument that required sharpening on a
regular basis. A simple, disposable blade that could be thrown away when it dulled would
meet a real need and generate strong profits, he correctly reasoned. After founding the
American Safety Razor Company in 1901, his sales leapt from 168 blades in 1903 to
123.648 blades only a year later.

B. What King C. Gillette pioneered is far more than a convenient and affordable way for men
to shave, however, it is the business practice now known as “freebie marketing” that has
inspired many more companies over the years. Gillette’s approach was contrary to the
received wisdom of his era, which held that a single, durable, high-quality, and relatively
expensive consumer item with a high profit margin was the best foundation for a business.
Freebie marketing involves two sets of items: a master product that is purchased once, and a
consumable product that is frequently disposed of and repurchased on an ongoing basis. In
this instance, the master product is often sold with little to no profit margin and is sometimes
even dispensed at a loss. As the consumables are purchased over months and years, however,
this can yield a much greater overall profit.

C. Freebie marketing only works if the producer of the master item is also able to maintain
control over the creation and distribution of the consumables. If this does not happen, then
cheaper versions of the consumable Items may be produced, leaving the original company
without a source of profit. The video game company Atari, for example, initially sold its
Atari 2600 consoles at cost price while relying on game sales for profit. Several
programmers left Atari, however, and began a new company called Activision which
produced cheaper games of a similar quality. Suddenly. Atari was left with no way to make
money. Lawsuits to block Activision failed, and Atari survived only by adding licensing
measures to its subsequent 5200 and 7800 consoles.

D. In other instances, consumers sometimes find that uses for a master product circumvent
the need to purchase consumables. This phenomenon is well known to have afflicted the
producers of CueCat barcode readers. These were given away free through Wired magazine
with the Intention that they would be used by customers to scan barcodes next to
advertisements in the publication and thus generate new revenue flows. Users discovered,
however, that the machines could be easily modified and used for other purposes, such as
building a personal database of book and CD collections. As no licensing agreement was
ever reached between Wired and Its magazine subscribers. CueCat were powerless to
intervene, and after company liquidation, the barcode readers soon became available in
quantities over 500.000 for as little as US$0.30 each.

E. Not all forms of freebie marketing are legal. One notable example of this Is the use of
freebie marketing to “push” habit-forming goods in areas where there is otherwise no
market. For illegal substances, this is already restricted on the basis of the product’s
illegality, but the use of freebie marketing to promote legal goods such as tobacco, alcohol,
and pharmaceuticals is also outlawed because the short-term gain to a small number of
commercial outlets is not deemed worth the social cost of widespread substance abuse.

F. Another practice that is prohibited under antitrust laws is a form of freebie marketing
known as “tying”. This is when a seller makes the sale of one good conditional on the
acquisition of a second good. In these instances, the first good is typically important and
highly desirable, while the .second is inferior and undesirable. A music distributor who has
the rights to an album that it is in high demand, for example, might only allow stores to
purchase copies of this album if they also buy unpopular stock that does not sell very easily.
Because this typically relies on the manipulation of a natural monopoly on the part of the
distributor, such practices are widely understood to constitute anti-competitive behaviour.

For questions 1 – 5, choose correct heading for sections B – F from the list of headings
below.
List of Headings

I No give-aways for addictive products

II Sales of razor blades increase astronomically
III Monopoly of consumables is vital for success
IV Video gaming – a risky business
V A novel method of dual marketing ruled out
VI Freebie marketing restricted to legal goods
VII Buyer ingenuity may lead to bankruptcy
VIII A marketing innovation
IX A product innovation
X More money to be made from high – quality products
Example: Section A: IX
1. Section B ___________ 2. Section C ___________
3. Section D ___________ 4. Section E ___________
5. Section F ___________

For quesions 6 – 10, complete the sentences and summary passage below.  Choose NO
MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the text for each answer.
6. Occasionally, people who buy a master product find ways of using it that get around the
necessity of buying more __________________________.
7. Wired never had a _________________________with its customers about the use of the
barcode readers.
Summary
Freebie marketing is not permitted by law for either illegal or legal (8) ___________________
products. This type of promotion of goods such as tobacco and alcohol is not considered worth
the social cost and has consequently been outlawed. 
“Tying” is also prohibited. This is when the sale of an attractive product is (9)
__________________ on the purchase of another. It tends to occur when the seller takes
advantage of a natural monopoly and is generally considered to be (10)
____________________.

Your answers
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

PART IV. WRITING (50 points)

Part 1: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the
sentence before it. (10p)
1. It wasn’t clear to us at the time how serious the problem was.
Little______________________________________________________________________
2. I want you to apologize to him for being rude immediately
You are___________________________________________________.
3. What put me off the idea was simply how expensive it was going to be.
The sheer _________________________________________________________________.
4. I’m not friendly with him; in fact, I hardly even know him. 
Far ____________________________________________________________________.
5. Attendance at the exhibition has been down this year.
 The exhibition __________________________________________________________.

Part 2: Rewrite these sentences using the words in CAPITAL. You must not change the
given words. (10p)
1. James is not feeling healthy today (COLOUR)
James ______________________________________________________today.
2. They designed the stadium to make hooliganism impossible (SUCH)
The stadium ________________________________________________________ out
hooliganism.
3. Doing regular exercise often helps improve your attitude to life. (DO)
Many __________________________________________________________ on life.
4. I don’t really know why, but I don’t trust him. (FINGER)
I __________________________________________________ but I don’t trust him.
5. I was about to hand in my notice when I was unexpectedly offered promotion (ON)
I was _______________________________when I was unexpectedly offered promotion.
Part 3: Paragraph writing (30p)
Some people believe that the media like the press, television, and the Internet should be
more strictly controlled. Are you for or against this view?
You should write a paragraph of 150-180 words to express your viewpoint.

TEST 5
A. LISTENING (50 pts)
Part 1: You will hear a conversation between a Scottish student called John and a Finish
student called Pirkko about the Tampere Student Games in Finland. For questions 1-5,
complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A
NUMBER for each answer in the corresponding numbered boxes. (10 pts)
Tampere Student Games
- Dates of the games: (1) ______________
- Cost of taking part (2) ______________ euros per day each
- Entry fee includes competition entrance, meals and (3) ______________
- Hotel (4) ______________ has a special rate during the games
- Hotel is close to (5) ______________
- Website address: www.sellgames.com
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Part 2. Listen and complete the sentences below. Write no more than three words for each
answer. (20 pts)
1. Governments have been mistaken to ...................... slums.
2. There is often a lack of .................... concerning housing projects.
3. Housing policies which are based on principles of .................... are particularly effective.
4. Some ......................... should always be provided by governments.
5. Migrants will only ........................ in housing if they feel secure.
6. Governments often underestimate the importance of ...................... to housing projects.
7. The availability of ..................... is the starting point for successful housing development.
8. Urbanisation can have a positive effect on the ......................... of individuals.
9. The population size of cities enables a range of ........................... to occur.
10. City living tends to raise the level of .................................... to occur.

Part 3. You will hear an extract from a radio programme and decide whether the
statements are true or false. (10 pts)
 1.Mrs Kent is worried about the weather in the near future.
2. According to Tom Sheridan, people don’t talk about the weather any more.
3. Paul Spenser does the production of a cookery programme.
4. Jane thinks that students should be given free books.
5. An elderly listener doesn’t think young people should have to pay in the discos.
Your answers
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Part 4: You will hear a radio discussion about children who invent imaginary friends.
Choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which fits best according to what you hear. Write your
answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (10 points)
1. In the incident that Liz describes,
A. her daughter asked her to stop the car.
B. she had to interrupt the journey twice.
C. she got angry with her daughter.
D. her daughter wanted to get out of the car.
2. What does the presenter say about the latest research into imaginary friends?
A. It contradicts other research on the subject.
B. It shows that the number of children who have them is increasing.
C. It indicates that negative attitudes towards them are wrong.
D. It focuses on the effect they have on parents.
3. How did Liz feel when her daughter had an imaginary friend?
A. always confident that it was only a temporary situation
B. occasionally worried about the friend’s importance to her daughter
C. slightly confused as to how she should respond sometimes
D. highly impressed by her daughter’s inventiveness
4. Karen says that one reason why children have imaginary friends is that
A. they are having serious problems with their real friends.
B. they can tell imaginary friends what to do.
C. they want something that they cannot be given.
D. they want something that other children haven’t got.
5. Karen says that the teenager who had invented a superhero is an example of
A. a very untypical teenager.
B. a problem that imaginary friends can cause.
C. something she had not expected to discover.
D. how children change as they get older.
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
SECTION 2. LEXICO-GRAMMAR
Part 1. For question 1-20, read the following sentences and then decide which word A, B, C
or D best fits each space. Circle the correct answer.
1. For a team to be successful, all members have to ________ their weight.
A. take B. make C. get D. pull
2. You really will have to be able to ________ down a job for more than six weeks.
A. keep B. turn C. take D. hold
3. It took him a long time to come to ________ with the fact that he was homeless.
A. terms B. acceptance C. tabs D. agreement
4. Simon has a very strong ________ of duty so he will always carry out his promises.
A. sense B. idea C. mind D. thought
5. The birth of their first child caused a lot of ________ in Angela Ken’s lives.
A. uproar B. upheaval C. outcry D. overthrow
6. The interviewer’s warm smile soon put Jill at her ________.
A. comfort B. leisure C. rest D. ease
7. No ________ how long it takes, I will keep trying to find an answer.
A. way B. matter C. worry D. mind
8. I ________ to think how you’re going to cope all by yourself with two babies.
A. fear B. avoid C. dread D. worry
9. However at the last training session there was a very poor ________.
A. turn-up B. turnover C. turnout D. turn-off
10. The old lady ________ on going to court to give evidence.
A. demanded B. urged C. begged D. insisted
11. We all know that you are guilty so why don’t you ________ up?
A. give B. turn C. own D. say
 12. How could we have been so gullible- it was all a ________ of lies.
A. pack B. heap C. bunch D. pile
13. They were caught because their sudden wealth gave the ________ away.
A. fact B. game C. idea D.
match
14. Kate ________ Tim that he had an appointment after lunch.
A. remembered B. recalled C. reminded D. recollected
15. Police are trying to ________ the stolen goods.
A. trace B. track C. shadow D. stalk
16. I am ________ my brother is.
A. nowhere like ambitious as B. nothing near as ambitious as
C. nothing as ambitious like D. nowhere near as ambitious as
17. ________ are considered humorous is mainly due to his characters’ use of slang.
A. That Myan’s stories B. Myan’s stories, which
B. Myan’s stories D. Because Myan’s stories
18. After a six-year relationship, Martha and Billy have decided to ________.
A. break the bank B. turn the page C. tie the knot D. make the grade
19. After the accident, there was considerable doubt ________ exactly what had happened.
A. in the question of B. as to C. in the shape of D. for
20. Most discounts have been dramatically ________ in the final days of our clearance sale
from 15% to 5%.
A. declined B. diminished C. slashed D. taken down

Part 2. For question 1-10, use the word in capitals at the end of the sentence to form one
word that fits in the space. There is an example at the beginning (0).
1. We really must look for staff who have good ___qualification_____.
QUALIFY
2. ________ is much more effective than aggression.
ASSERT
3. The singer’s ________ lifestyle attracts the attention of the press.
CONVENTION
4. When she passed 30, Sue became increasingly ________ for a baby.
DESPAIR
5. The unresponsive audience made the lecturer somewhat ________ .What a shame.
HEAR
6. My brother’s a comedian who specializes in doing ________ of famous people.
PERSON
7. Michael Spencer’s ________ book is likely to be a huge success. COME
 8. Some ________ now have their own nursery facilities for staff with children.
WORK
9. He won’t get angry with you- he has a very calm ________.
TEMPER
10. Sam was very grateful to his ________ parents for their generosity.
ADOPT
11. The subtle photography and music make the film very ________.
ATMOSPHERE

Part 3. The passage below contains 10 mistakes. Identify and correct the mistakes. Write
your answers in the answer box below. Line (0) has been done for you as an example. (10
points)

Line THE EIGHTH WONDER OF THE WORLD

0 The Thames Barrier is a major part of the flood defending scheme for protecting
1 London against rise water levels. The defenses also include raised river embankments
2 and additional flood gates at strategic points, including the Barking Barrier. The
3 unique structure that are the Barrier spans the 520-metre wide Woolwich reach and
4 consist of 10 separate movable gates, each pivoting and supported between concrete
5 structures which house the operating machinery. When raising, the four main gates
6 each stands as high as a five-storey building and as wide as the opening of Tower
7 Bridge. Each weights 3700 tonnes. During the first twelve years of operation, the
8 Barrier has closed twenty-nine times to protect London.  
9 View the Barrier from the comfortable cafeteria. Picnic at the riverside embankment.
10 Enjoy beautiful views from the riverside walk. Visit the shop stocks a large selection
11 of souvenirs, books and Barrier information.  
12 There is a children play area suitable for 4-to-12-year olds, located adjacent near the
13 riverside walk. A visit to the spectacular Thames Barrier is a memorable experience.
 Source: FCE successful practice tests
Your answers
e.g. Line 0: defending  defence
Line Mistake Correction Line Mistake Correction

SECTION 3. READING
Part 1. Choose which answer best fits each gap. (10 points)
FRIENDSREUNITED.CO.UK
Have you ever looked into what happened to your old friends? Friends Reunited is a
website which puts old school and college friends back in (1) ________ with one another. It was
(2) ________ by a husband and wife team when the wife, Julie Pankhurst, decided she wanted to
track (3) ________ some of her own school friends. The website now has over five million (4)
________ and is one of the most popular websites in the UK. You pay a small (5) ________ to
join, and then add your name and email address to a list. This list is (6) ________ by school and
year, so it is easy to find people.
Thousands of reunions have now (7) ________ place across the UK and the idea has
spread to many other countries. So if you join Friends Reunited, you can find the person who
was your best friend when you were eight, even if he or she's now living on the other side of the
world! There may even be some surprises (8) ________ for you! You might (9) ________ that
the quiet boy who everyone used to tease in school has now become a professor of Physics, and
the tall shy girl has now become a top fashion model with her picture in Vogue magazine. Or,
(10) ________, you might find that no one you knew has changed much at all!
1. A. connection B. association C. meeting D. touch
2. A. set up B. made out C. put on D. got off
3. A. for B. down C. in D. out
4. A. players B. holders C. users D. consumers
5. A. price B. fare C. expense D. fee
6. A. organized B. demonstrated C. managed D. controlled
7. A. made B. taken C. given D. done
8. A. in store B. on order C. in place D. en route
9. A. investigate B. identify C. discover D. invent
10. A. in particular B. in effect C. on the whole D. on the other hand
Part 2. Read the following text and fill in the blank with ONE suitable word. Write your
answers in corresponding numbered boxes. (10 pts)
The origin of language
The truth (0).___is __ nobody really knows how the language first began. Did we all start talking
at around the same time 1._______ of the manner in which our brains had begun to develop?
Although there is a lack of clear evidence, people have come up with various theories about the
origins of language. One recent theory is that human beings have evolved in 2._______ a way
that we are programmed for language from the moment of birth. In 3.________ words, language
came about as a result of an evolutionary change in our brains at some stage.
Language 4._________ well be programmed into the brain but, 5._________ this, people still
need stimulus from others around them. From studies, we know that 6. ________ children are
isolated 7.________ human contact and have not learnt to construct sentences before they are
ten, it is doubtful they will ever do 8._________. This research shows, if 9. __________ else,
that language is a social activity, not something invented 10._________isolation.
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Part 3. Read the passage and choose the best answer to each of the questions. (10 pts)
Legend has it that sometime toward the end of the Civil War (1861-1865) a
government train carrying oxen traveling through the northern plains of eastern Wyoming
was caught in a snowstorm and had to be abandoned. The driver returned the next spring to
see what had become of his cargo. Instead of the skeletons he had expected to find, he saw
his oxen, living, fat, and healthy. How had they survived?
The answer lay in a resource that unknowing Americans lands trampled underfoot in
their haste to cross the "Great American Desert" to reach lands that sometimes proved
barren. In the eastern parts of the United States, the preferred grass for forage was a
cultivated plant. It grew well with enough rain, then when cut and stored it would cure and
become nourishing hay for winter feed. But in the dry grazing lands of the West that familiar
bluejoint grass was often killed by drought. To raise cattle out there seemed risky or even
hopeless.
Who could imagine a fairy-tale grass that required no rain and somehow made it
possible for cattle to feed themselves all winter? But the surprising western wild grasses did
just that. They had wonderfully convenient features that made them superior to the cultivated
eastern grasses. Variously known as buffalo grass, grama grass, or mesquite grass, not only
were they immune to drought; but they were actually preserved by the lack of summer and
autumn rains. They were not juicy like the cultivated eastern grasses, but had short, hard
stems. And they did not need to be cured in a barn, but dried right where they grew on the
ground. When they dried in this way, they remained naturally sweet and nourishing through
the winter. Cattle left outdoors to fend for themselves thrived on this hay. And the cattle
themselves helped plant the fresh grass year after year for they trampled the natural seeds
firmly into the soil to be watered by the melting snows of winter and the occasional rains of
spring. The dry summer air cured them much as storing in a bam cured the cultivated
grasses.
1. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. A type of wild vegetation B. Western migration after Civil War
C. The raising of cattle D. The climate of the Western United States
2. What can be inferred by the phrase "Legend has it" in line I?·
A. Most history book include the story of the train.
B. The story of the train is similar to other ones from that time period.
C. The driver of the train invented the story.
D. The story of the train may not be completed factual.
3. The word "they" in line 4 refers to ………….. .
A. plains B. skeletons C. oxen D. Americans
4. What can be inferred about the "Great American Desert" mentioned in line 7?
A. Many had settled there by the 1860's.
B. It was not originally assumed to be a fertile area.
C. It was a popular place to raise cattle before the Civil War.
D. It was not discovered until the late 1800's.
5. The word "barren" in line 7 is closed in meaning to …………… "
A. lonely B. uncomfortable C. infertile D. dangerous
6. The word "preferred" in line 8 is closed in meaning to ………….. .
A. favored B. available C. ordinary D. required
7. Which of the following can be inferred about the cultivated grass mentioned in
the second paragraph?
A. Cattle raised in the Western United States refused to eat it.
 B. It had to be imported into the United States.
C. It would probably not grow in the western United States.
D. It was difficult for cattle to digest.
8. Which of the following was NOT one of the names given to the western grasses?
A. Mesquite grass B. Bluejoint grass C. Buffalo grass D. Grama grass
9. Which of the following was NOT mentioned as a characteristic of western grasses?
A. They contain little moisture B. They have tough stems
C. They can be grown indoors D. They are not affected by dry weather
10. According to the passage, the cattle help promote the growth of the wild grass by
……………"
A. eating only small quantities of grass.
B. continually moving from one grazing area to another.
C. naturally fertilizing the soil.
D. stepping on and pressing the seeds into the ground.
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Part 4. Read the following passage and do the tasks that follow. (20 pts)
THE PROBLEM OF SCARCE RESOURCES
Section A
The problem of how health-care resources should be allocated or apportioned, so that they are
distributed in both the most just and most efficient way, is not a new one. Every health system in
an economically developed society is faced with the need to decide (either formally or
informally) what proportion of the community’s total resources should be spent on health-care;
how resources are to be apportioned; what diseases and disabilities and which forms of treatment
are to be given priority; which members of the community are to be given special consideration
in respect of their health needs; and which forms of treatment are the most cost-effective.
Section B
What is new is that, from the 1950s onwards, there have been certain general changes in outlook
about the finitude of resources as a whole and of health-care resources in particular, as well as
more specific changes regarding the clientele of health-care resources and the cost to the
community of those resources. Thus, in the 1950s and 1960s, there emerged an awareness in
Western societies that resources for the provision of fossil fuel energy were finite and
exhaustible and that the capacity of nature or the environment to sustain economic development
and population was also finite. In other words, we became aware of the obvious fact that there
were ‘limits to growth’. The new consciousness that there were also severe limits to health-care
resources was part of this general revelation of the obvious. Looking back, it now seems quite
incredible that in the national health systems that emerged in many countries in the years
immediately after the 1939-45 World War, it was assumed without question that all the basic
health needs of any community could be satisfied, at least in principle; the ‘invisible hand’ of
economic progress would provide.
Section C
However, at exactly the same time as this new realization of the finite character of health-care
resources was sinking in, an awareness of a contrary kind was developing in Western societies:
that people have a basic right to health-care as a necessary condition of a proper human life. Like
education, political and legal processes and institutions, public order, communication, transport
and money supply, health-care came to be seen as one of the fundamental social facilities
necessary for people to exercise their other rights as autonomous human beings. People are not in
a position to exercise personal liberty and to be self-determining if they are poverty-stricken, or
deprived of basic education, or do not live within a context of law and order. In the same way,
basic health-care is a condition of the exercise of autonomy.
Section D
Although the language of ‘rights’ sometimes leads to confusion, by the late 1970s it was
recognized in most societies that people have a right to health-care (though there has been
considerable resistance in the United Sates to the idea that there is a formal right to health-care).
It is also accepted that this right generates an obligation or duty for the state to ensure that
adequate health-care resources are provided out of the public purse. The state has no obligation
to provide a health-care system itself, but to ensure that such a system is provided. Put another
way, basic health-care is now recognized as a ‘public good’, rather than a ‘private good’ that one
is expected to buy for oneself. As the 1976 declaration of the World Health Organisation put it:
‘The enjoyment of the highest attainable standard of health is one of the fundamental rights of
every human being without distinction of race, religion, political belief, economic or social
condition’. As has just been remarked, in a liberal society basic health is seen as one of the
indispensable conditions for the exercise of personal autonomy.
Section E
Just at the time when it became obvious that health-care resources could not possibly meet the
demands being made upon them, people were demanding that their fundamental right to health-
care be satisfied by the state. The second set of more specific changes that have led to the present
concern about the distribution of health-care resources stems from the dramatic rise in health
costs in most OECD countries, accompanied by large-scale demographic and social changes
which have meant, to take one example, that elderly people are now major (and relatively very
expensive) consumers of health-care resources. Thus in OECD countries as a whole, health costs
increased from 3.8% of GDP in 1960 to 7% of GDP in 1980, and it has been predicted that the
proportion of health costs to GDP will continue to increase. (In the US the current figure is about
12% of GDP, and in Australia about 7.8% of GDP.)
As a consequence, during the 1980s a kind of doomsday scenario (analogous to similar
doomsday extrapolations about energy needs and fossil fuels or about population increases) was
projected by health administrators, economists and politicians. In this scenario, ever-rising health
costs were matched against static or declining resources.
Notes:
- OECD: Organisation for Economic Cooperation and Development
- GDP: Gross Domestic Products
Questions 1-5: (10pts)
Choose the correct heading for the five sections A-E of the Reading Passage from the list of
headings below.
List of Headings
i The connection between health-care and other human rights
ii The development of market-based health systems.
iii The role of the state in health-care
iv A problem shared by every economically developed country
v The impact of recent change
vi The views of the medical establishment
vii The end of an illusion
viii Sustainable economic development

1. Section A: ……………
2. Section B: ……………
3. Section C: ……………
4. Section D: ……………
5. Section E: ……………
Questions 6-10: (10 pts)
Do the following statements agree with the view of the writer in the Reading Passage?
Write
YES if the statement agrees with the views of the writer
NO if the statement contradicts the views of the writer
NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this
6. ………… Personal liberty and independence have never been regarded as directly linked to
health-care.
7. ………… Health-care came to be seen as a right at about the same time that the limits of
health-care resources became evident.
8. ………… In OECD countries population changes have had an impact on health-care costs in
recent years.
9. ………… OECD governments have consistently underestimated the level of health-care
provision needed.
10. ………… In most economically developed countries the elderly will to make special
provision for their health-care in the future.
SECTION 3. WRITING
Part 1. For questions 1-5, complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to
the first sentence, using the word given. Do not change the word given. (10 points)
1. I fully intended to find out who is responsible for the graffiti. INTENTION
………………………………………………………………………………………….
2. Absolute secrecy was crucial to the success of the mission. SUCCESS
…………………………………………………………………………………………….
3. He would never agree to sell his business, even if he received a very temping offer. OFFER
……………………………………………………………………………………….
4. Something must be done quickly to solve the problem of homelessness. ACTION
…………………………………………………………………………………………….
5. Philip’s inability to make decisions dates from his accident. UNABLE
……………………………………………………………………………………………….

Part 2. For questions 1-5, complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to
the first sentence. (10 points)
1. Apparently, the restaurant in town has been bought out by someone else.
I hear the restaurant in town is ....................................................................................
2. Sarah cried her eyes out immediately she was told she'd failed her driving test.
Sarah broke...................................................................................................................
3. The Government recently said our problems are the fault of the worldwide economic
slowdown.
The Government have placed..................................................................................
4. You led me to believe the job was mine if I wanted it.
I was left........................................................................................................................
5. He would never have guessed that at the age of 17 he would be playing for his country.
Little.........................................................................................................................................

Part 3. Write a paragraph. (30 points)

Write a paragraph of at least 200 words about the folloing topic:
Learning to play team sport is an important part of a child’s education.
Do you agree or disagree?
Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your own knowledge
or experience.
(IELTS PRACTICE EXAMS_ PRACTICE TEST 4_ BARRON)

TEST 6
SECTION A. LISTENING (50 points)
Part 1. Complete the notes below. For question 1-7, write  NO MORE THAN TWO
WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER  for each answer. Write your answers in the
corresponding numbered boxes.(14 points)
Notes on Island Hotel
Type of room required: double room
Time
 The length of stay: approx (1 )_________
 Starting date: 25th April
Temperature
 Daytime: up to (2)___________ C
 Erratic weather
Transport
 Free (3)___________
 Normally transferring to the airport takes about (4)___________en-suite facilities
and a (5)___________
 gym and spa facilities
 a large outdoor (6 ) ____________
  three standard (7)___________

Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4.
5. 6. 7.

Part 2. You will hear an interview with a man called Richard Porter who is a maker of
musical instruments called organs. For questions 1 - 8, complete the sentences. Write NO
MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER. Write your answers in the answer
box below. (16 points)

Richard’s first ambition was to be a ________________ (1).

Richard makes organs which are used in (2) _______________ and churches worldwide.
It cost £ (3) ___________ to buy one of the organs which Richard makes.
According to Richard, personal (4) _____________ provide him with most of his oversea
clients.
Richard says he is involved in (5) ______________ organs, as well as building and selling
them.
In terms of raw materials, only the (6) _____________ that Richard uses comes from Britain.
Richard’s new workshop will be in a building that was once used as a (7) __________.
Richard will have to work in a (8) __________ as well as in his new workshop.
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4.
5. 6. 7. 8.

Part 3. You will hear a talk about the program named Focus on the Arts. For questions 1-
5, decide whether the statement is TRUE (T) or FALSE (F). Write your answers in the
corresponding numbered boxes (10 points)
1.The National Arts Center is a well-known place for music performances of different types.
2. The National Arts Center provides a variety of entertainment choices.
3. The Center has been situated in the heart of the city since 1940.
4. The City Council, the National Symphony Orchestra and National Theatre Company are
based in the Center.
5. There are 2-3 days a year when visitors cannot go to the Center.

Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Part 4. You will hear an interview with a man called O’Toole, who works as a teacher
trainer. For questions 1-10, listen to the conversation carefully and choose the correct
answer A, B, C or D for each question. Write your answers in the corresponding
numbered boxes. (10 points).

1. Why are many teachers leaving the profession, according to Mike?

A. They don’t feel it is financially rewarding any more.
B. They are not being given the respect they once were.
C. They are investing too much in it without getting enough back.
D. They find the subject matter they have to teach too difficult.

2. Mike believes that without radical changes _______

A. education in the UK will begin to get worse.
B. UK schools will lose their ability to compete with one another.
C. the UK will soon no longer be a leader in education.
D. the educational system in the UK can be transformed.

3. The main failing of the UK education system is _______

A. the inability of students to use computers.
B. the resistance within schools to the introduction of technology.
C. the failure of government to invest in hardware for schools.
D. the lack of training for teachers in the use of technology in the classroom.

4. Why is teacher training failing teachers, according to Mike?

 A. It is not helping them to keep pace with developments.
B. It does not use technology in its training classrooms.
C. It uses hardware and software that are out of date.
D. It is suffering from a lack of trainers with specialist knowledge.

5. Teachers can only benefit from technology if _______

A. they cease to see it as a threat.
B. they can combine it with traditional methods.
C. they are allowed to use it in their own way.
D. they are willing to research its possibilities on their own.

Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

SECTION B. LEXICO- GRAMMAR (40 points)

Part 1. Choose the best option A, B, C, or D to complete the following sentences and write
your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (20 points)
1. Without additional funds from the government, the principal cannot ___________ the
issue of overcrowding in his school.
A. rectify B. banish C. sanction D. maltreat
2. Salt intake may lead to raised blood pressure in __ _________ adults.
A. susceptible B. dangerous C. futile D. feasible
3. No one appreciated his work during his lifetime, but ___________ it is clear that he is a
great artist.
A. in the aftermath B. by the timeC. in retrospect D. in this eventuality

4. All things ________, she is the best student to represent our school.

A. considered B. involved C. taken D. dealt with

5. The little children watched the performance in _________ amazement.

A. wide-eyed B. open-eyed C. eagle-eyed D.hawk-eyed

6. The Prime Minister gave a press conference to deny the charges ________ at him.

A. leveled B. accused C. targeted D. blamed

7. Don’t trust what you hear on the grapevine. It’s best to hear it straight from the
___________ mouth so you know it’s true.
A. dog’s B. horse’s C. camel’s D. cat’s

8. When Tet Holiday comes, Vietnamese people often feel inclined to ________ their
houses.

A. do over B. do in C. do through D. do up

9. ________, modelling is actually hard work.

A. Even it may seem glamorous B. Yet it may seem glamorous

C. However glamorous it may seem D. Glamorous as though it is

10. You can’t tell what someone is like just from their ________.

A. character B. looking C. appearance D. personality

11. After so many years, it is great to see him ________ his ambitions.

A. get B. realise C. possess D. deserve

12. Archaeology is one of the most interesting scientific _______.

A. divisions B. disciplines C. matters D. compartments

13. Don’t worry: this is nothing that ________ you.

A. matters B. entails C. concerns D. complicates

14. As always, I am ________ with everything you say.

A. agree B. agreeing C. agreeable D. in agreement

15. It may be raining, but I’m ________ enjoying myself.

A. thoroughly B. highly C. extremely D. desperately

16. The report claimed the Internet currently _______ 9% of the electricity demand of the
whole city, and predicted that it will grow to 40% in the next five years.

A. pursues B. accounts for C. estimates D. consists of

17. In the end, I just lost my ________ and started gabbling incoherently.

A. head B. mind C. brain D. intelligence

18. He had such a bad stomach that he was _________ with pain.

A. bent down B. folded over C. snapped off D. doubled up

19. I read the contract again and again _____ avoiding making spelling mistakes.

A. in terms of B. by means of C. with a view to D. in view of

20. That’s exactly what I mean, Tom. You’ve _________!

A. put your foot in it B. killed two birds with one stone

C. put two and two together D. hit the nail on the head

Answers:

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
16. 17. 18. 19. 20.

Part 2. Write the correct form of the words given in the brackets. Write your answers in
the spaces provided below. (10 points)

1. Our teacher told us not to include ______information in our essay. RELEVANCE

2. __________ is one of the qualities required of a social worker FLEXIBLE

3. The new leisure centre doesn’t quite come up to my __________ EXPECT

4. Caffeine is very ____________, which is why people drink much coffee. Addict
 5. It is an ____________fact that children watch too much television deny

6. Swimming can be one of the most __________ forms of exercise. BENEFIT

7. Flooding is ___________ rare in this part of the world. compare

8. One of the guests began to show signs of _________ at Tom’s non-stop IRRITATE
joke telling.

9. The record of 47 hours for watching TV without stopping was set last year BREAK
is still ____________.

10. I find the driver over the mountain very __________ FRIGHT

Your answers:
1. 6.
2. 7.
3. 8.
4. 9.
5. 10.

Part 3. Read the passage below which contains 10 mistakes. Identify the mistakes and
write the corrections in the corresponding numbered boxes. (10 points)

Human memory, formerly believed to be rather inefficient, is really more sophisticated than
that of a computer. Researchers approaching the problem from a variation of viewpoints have
all concluded that there is a great deal more storing in our minds than has been generally
supposed. Dr. Wilder Penfield, a Canadian neurosurgery, proved that by stimulating their
brains electrically, he can elicit the total recall of specific events in his subjects’ lives. Even
dreams and another minor events supposedly forgotten for many years suddenly emerged in
details. Although the physical basic for memory is not yet understood, one theory is how the
fantastic capacity for storage in the brain is the result of an almost unlimited combination of
interconnections between brain cell, stimulated by patterns of activity. Repeated references
with the same information support recall. In other words, improved performance is the result
of strengthening the chemical bonds in the memory.

Your answers:
Line Mistakes Corrections
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.

SECTION C. READING (60 points)

1. Read the text below and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer which best fits each space from 1 to 10. (10 points)

The paintings of Leonardo da Vinci have always attracted controversy. Only 14 works
have ever been attributed to him and experts have (1)……..the authenticity of several. Not
even the Mona Lisa is above (2)…….. . The painting is neither signed nor dated and no (3)
…….. of payment to Leonardo has ever been found . Believed to be the portrait of the wife
of Florentine merchant Francesco del Giaconda dating from 1502, it has been on public
display in the Louvre since 1804. Now housed in a bullet- (4)……..glass case, it has always
been surrounded by (5)……..security.
 Even so, on 24th August 1911, it was stolen. Initial leads came to nothing and no (6)
…….. to the thief's motives or the whereabouts of the picture materialized for 15 months. In
November 1913, Florentine art dealer Alfredo Geri received a letter from someone (7)
……..they had the Mona Lisa and were prepared to sell it back to Italy for 500,000 lire. Geri
contacted the director of the Uffizi museum who arranged a meeting with the alleged
vendor. 

He turned out to be an Italian carpenter Vicenza Perugia , who made the painting's
protective wooden box for the Louvre and was able to steal it because he knew the museum's
(8)……... The Mona Lisa he produced was proclaimed genuine by the Uffizi and sent back
to Paris. But a British con man, Jack Dean, later insisted that he had helped Peruggia steal
the painting but (9)……..a copy before Peruggia took it to Italy. Could it be that the painting
seen by thousands of visitors every day in the Louvre museum is a total (10)……..?

1. A. asked B. questioned C. wondered D. enquired

2. A. query B. question C. suspicion D. doubt
3. A. bill B. document C. record D. receipt
4. A. proof B. secure C. guard D. strong
5. A. tight B. safe C. careful D. accurate
6. A. tips B. hints C. clues D. indications
7. A. pretending B. persuading C. claiming D. arguing
8. A. working B. routine C. doors D. security
9. A. copied B. replaced C. taken over D. substituted
10. A. counterfeit B. substitute C. false D. fake

YOUR ANSWER:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
2. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each gap. Use only ONE word
in each gap. Write your answers in corresponding numbered boxes. (10 points)

HERBS AND SPICES

There is nothing (1) ________in the use of herbs and spices. They have enriched human life
for thousands of years, providing (2) _______comfort and luxury. They have flavored our
food, cured our ailments and surrounded us with sweet scents. They have also played their
(3) ______in our folklore and magic. It (4) _______be a very different world without them.

Nobody really knows who first used herbs and spices, or for (5) ______ purpose. All their
properties were known to the ancient Greeks and Egyptians as well as those (6) ______ in
early Biblical times. The knowledge that they employed, and that we still use today, must
have been based on the trial and (7) ______ of early human, who was originally drawn to the
plants (8)______ of their tantalizing aroma. He gradually discovered their individual effects
on his food and well-being and our use of them comes from those early experiments. For
centuries herbs and spices were appreciated to the (9)_______ but in modern times the
arrival of the convenience foods and new medicines of the twentieth century almost made us
forget them. But anything that has been so much loved and valued will never be completely
neglected. The knowledge has been (10) ______ alive and in our present-day search for all
things natural, herbs and spices have come into their own again.

Your answers

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Part 3: Read the following passage and choose the best answer for each of the questions
below. (10 points)

SURFACE WATER AND GROUND WATER

 Ensuring the reliability and purity of the water supply is one of the more significant
challenges facing an ever growing world population. Unfortunately, only about 3% of the
world’s total water supply is fresh; the rest is sea water and is unusable for most of our
purposes. Furthermore, of that 3%, three fourths are largely inaccessible because it exists as
frozen ice locked in the polar ice caps or as glaciers high in mountains. The remaining
percentage of fresh water that is available for human use exists in two forms: surface water
and ground water.

Surface water is found in rivers, lakes, and man-made reservoirs fad by either rainfall
or snowmelt. Surface water makes up nearly 80% of all the water utilized by humans,
primarily due to its accessibility. Nearly every river or lake in the world contains one or more
pumping stations to divert a portion of its flow to nearby population centers. However,
surface water supplies present several disadvantages. First, surface water is easily polluted.
Chemical pollution from the air enters surface water in the form of rain, and ground pollution
is either dumped directly into lakes and rivers or washed into them by rainwater. In addition,
biological pollution caused by the dumping of raw sewage into a water source, can lead to
dangerous levels of bacteria. Another problem is relying on surface water is that its supply is
highly variable. Water levels in lakes and rivers can fall drastically in periods of severe
drought. In places that are prone to extended dry periods, such as Australia or much of
California, some rivers are even known to occasionally run dry due to a combination of
drought and overuse.

The other primary source of fresh water is ground water. Although ground water is
estimated to be as much as 50 times more abundant than surface water, it constitutes only
20% of all the fresh water used by human s, and much of this usage occurs in rural areas.
This is a reflection of the relative difficulty in obtaining ground water. Ground water exists
in underground deposits known as aquifers, layers of porous rock in the Earth. As rainwater
sinks into the ground it eventually reaches the aquifer where it is absorbed, much as a kitchen
sponge absorbs water.

To obtain ground water, a well must be drilled down to the level of the aquifer, and
then the water must be pumped to the surface. Aquifers occur at different depths in different
areas, and the deeper the aquifer, the more difficult and more expensive it is to extract its
water. Furthermore, if water is taken from an aquifer at a higher rate than it is recharged
naturally, its level will drop, necessitating ever deeper wells. This also creates problems with
ground stability. As water is drained out of an aquifer, the ground naturally tends to sink and
compress, leading to greater risk of subsidence and landslides. Since aquifers are fed through
a slow acting system of drainage, they have much slower recharge rates than surface water
resources and are easily overtaxed. Therefore, ground water is generally only used when
surface water is unavailable, even though ground water is far more abundant.

Like surface water, ground water can also become polluted, although not as easily.
The soil that water sinks through before reaching the aquifer acts as a natural filter, leaching
out some of the pollutants. Furthermore, the lack of oxygen in the aquifer generally restricts
the growth of bacteria, so most ground water can be utilized safely without treatment.
However, pollution can enter an aquifer when pollution sources are buried underground, such
as they are in landfills. In other areas, the presence of heavy metal, nearly all of which are
highly toxic in the human body, may render ground water undrinkable.

1. According to paragraph 1, all of the following are true of fresh water EXCEPT:

A. It makes up a minute proportion of the world’s total water supply.

B. Much of it is unavailable for human use.

C. Its supply is endangered by the melting of the ice caps.

D. Its reliable supply is a growing problem in the world.

2. What is the source of most surface water?

A. Melting glaciers

B. Underground springs

C. Precipitation

D. Filtration of seawater
3. Based on the information in paragraph 2, what can be inferred about most population
centers?

A. They have grown to sixes unsustainable by current water resources.

B. They generally can be found in close proximity to a source of surface.

C. They always contribute to great levels of pollution in surface water.

D. They are unable to cope with rising levels of bacteria in surface water.

4. The word prone in the passage is closest meaning to

A. inclined B. experienced C. recognized D. associated

5. According to paragraph 2, what causes increases in bacteria in surface water?

A. Increased industrial pollution

B. The dumping of human and animal waste

C. Overexploitation of a surface water source

D. Drops in the overall level of a surface water source

6. The word porous in the passage is closest meaning to

A. sodden B. absorptive C. permeable D. submerged

7. In paragraph 3, the author mentions the abundance of the ground water in order to

A. suggest that it may offer a solution to the world’s water needs

B. contrast with its relatively low usage by humans

C. explain the lack of surface water in many areas

D. explain why it is only used in rural areas

8. According to paragraph 4, increased danger of subsidence is caused by

A. excessive drops in the level of an aquifer

B. the holes created by large numbers of wells

C. the compression of water in an aquifer

D. landsides beneath an aquifer

9. According to paragraph 5, bacteria are generally not a concern in ground water because

A. heavy metals prevent their growth

B. they is not enough air to support them

C. they are filtered out before they reach the aquifer

D. bacteria would make the water undrinkable

10. Which of the following can be inferred from paragraph 5 about heavy metals?

A. They only occur in aquifers.

B. They cannot be filtered out of water.

C. They are generally water soluble.

D. They can be detected by their foul taste.

Your answer:

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Part 4: The Reading Passage has five paragraphs (A-E). Choose the most suitable
heading for each paragraph from the list of headings below. Write the appropriate
numbers (i-vi) in boxes 1-5 on your answer part. (5 points)

NB There are more headings than paragraphs so you will not use all of them.

PAPER RECYCLING

A. Paper is different from other waste produce because it comes from a sustainable resource:
trees. Unlike the minerals and oil used to make plastics and metals, trees are replaceable.
Paper is also biodegradable, so it does not pose as much threat to the environment when it is
discarded. While 45 out of every 100 tones of wood fibre used to make paper in Australia
comes from waste paper, the rest comes directly from virgin fibre from forests and
plantations. By world standards this is a good performance since the world-wide average is
33 per cent waste paper. Governments have encouraged waste paper collection and sorting
schemes and at the same time, the paper industry has responded by developing new recycling
technologies that have paved the way for even greater utilization of used fibres. As a result,
industry’s use of recycled fibres is expected to increase at twice the rate of virgin fibres over
the coming years.

B. Already, waste paper constitutes 70% of paper used for packaging and advances in the
technology required to remove ink from the paper have allowed a higher recycled content in
newsprint and writing paper. To achieve the benefits of recycling, the community must also
contribute. We need to accept a change in the quality of paper products; for example
stationery may be less white and of a rougher texture. There also needs to be support from
the community for waste paper collection programs. Not only do we need to make the paper
available to collectors but it also needs to be separated into different types and sorted from
contaminants such as staples, paperclips, string and other miscellaneous items.

C. There are technical limitations to the amount of paper which can be recycled and some
paper products cannot be collected for re-use. These include paper in the form of books and
permanent records, photographic paper and paper which is badly contaminated. The four
most common sources of paper for recycling are factories and retail stores which gather large
amounts of packaging material in which goods are delivered, also offices which have
unwanted business documents and computer output, paper converters and printers and lastly
households which discard newspapers and packaging material. The paper manufacturer pays
a price for the paper and may also incur the collection cost.

D. Once collected, the paper has to be sorted by hand by people trained to recognise various
types of paper. This is necessary because some types of paper can only be made from
particular kinds of recycled fibre. The sorted paper then has to be repulped or mixed with
water and broken down into its individual fibres. This mixture is called stock and may
contain a wide variety of contaminating materials, particularly if it is made from mixed waste
paper which has had little sorting. Various machineries are used to remove other materials
from the stock. After passing through the repulping process, the fibres from printed waste
paper are grey in colour because the printing ink has soaked into the individual fibres. This
recycled material can only be used in products where the grey colour does not matter, such as
cardboard boxes but if the grey colour is not acceptable, the fibres must be de-inked. This
involves adding chemicals such as caustic soda or other alkalis, soaps and detergents, water-
hardening agents such as calcium chloride, frothing agents and bleaching agents. Before the
recycled fibres can be made into paper they must be refined or treated in such a way that they
bond together.

E. Most paper products must contain some virgin fibre as well as recycled fibres and unlike
glass, paper cannot be recycled indefinitely. Most paper is down-cycled which means that a
product made from recycled paper is of an inferior quality to the original paper. Recycling
paper is beneficial in that it saves some of the energy, labour and capital that go into
producing virgin pulp. However, recycling requires the use of fossil fuel, a non-renewable
energy source, to collect the waste paper from the community and to process it to produce
new paper. And the recycling process still creates emissions which require treatment before
they can be disposed of safely. Nevertheless, paper recycling is an important economical and
environmental practice but one which must be carried out in a rational and viable manner for
it to be useful to both industry and the community.
(Cambridge IELTS)
i. Process of paper recycling
ii. Less threat of waste paper to the environment
iii. Collection of paper for recycling
iv. Sources of paper for recycling
v. Bad sides of paper recycling
vi. Contribution of community to recycling paper
Your answer

1. Paragraph A __________
 2. Paragraph B __________

3. Paragraph C __________

4. Paragraph D __________

5. Paragraph E __________

SUMMARY
Complete the summary below of the first two paragraphs of the Reading Passage. Choose
ONE OR TWO WORDS from the Reading Passage for each answer. Write your answers
inboxes 1-5 on your answer part. (5 points)

From the point of view of recycling, paper has two advantages over minerals
and ...........oil.......... in that firstly it comes from a resource which is ........ (1) ........ and
secondly it is less threatening to our environment when we throw it away because it is .......
(2) ...... Although Australia’s record in the re-use of waste paper is good, it is still necessary
to use a combination of recycled fibre and ........ (3) ........ to make new paper. The paper
industry has contributed positively and people have also been encouraged by .........
(4) ......... to collect their waste on a regular basis. One major difficulty is the removal of ink
from used paper but ......... (5) ......... are being made in this area.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

SECTION D. WRITING (50 points)

Part 1: Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence.
(10 points)
1. The boy wasn't allowed to have any friends, so he became an introvert.
=> Deprived...............................................................................................................
2. What a pity these shops close at lunch-time.
=> I wish.........................................................................................................................
3. I wasn't surprised when they refused to pay me.
=> As I.............................................................................................................................
4. It probably takes at least six hours to drive to Glasgow from here.
=> It’s.............................................................................................................................
5. It was such an appalling sight that we reeled back in horror.
=> So...........................................................................................................................
Part 2. Rewrite the following sentences with the given word. The given words can’t be
changed. (10 points)
1. Most people know that Britain’s economy is heavily dependent on North Sea oil.
(COMMON)
………………………………………………………………………………………
2. The police arrived as the thieves were committing the crime. ( RED-HANDED)
………………………………………………………………………………………
3. We were lucky to find somewhere to park so quickly. (STROKE)
…………………………………………………………………………………
4. The house shouldn’t be left unlocked for any reason. (ACCOUNT)
……………………………………………………………………………………
5. I preferred to take a course in psychology instead of wasting my time at the mathematics
department. (RATHER)
……………………………………………………………………………………

Part 3. In about 150 words, write a paragraph to suggest measures governments and
individuals can take to reduce the global warming. ( 30 points)

TEST 7
PART I- LISTENING (50 POINTS)
Question 1. Listen and fill the missing words in the blanks. Write NO MORE THAN
THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer. (14 points)
THE URBAN LANDSCAPE
 Two areas of focus:
1. the effect of vegetation in the urban climate
2. ways of planning our (1) __________ better

Large-scale impact of trees:

1. they can make cities more or less (2) __________
2. in summer they can make cities cooler.
3. they can make inland cities more (3) __________

Local impact of tress:

1. they can make local areas
- more (4) __________
- cooler
- more humid
- less windy
- less dangerous

Comparing tress and buildings

Temperature regulation:
2. trees (5) __________ water through their leaves
3. building surfaces may reach high temperatures
Wind force:
1. tall buildings cause more wind at ground level
2. trees (6) __________ the wind force
Noise:
1. trees have a small effect on traffic noise
2. (7) __________ noise passes through trees

Important points to consider:

1. trees require a lot of sunlight, water and space to grow.
Your answers
1. ………………. 2. ………………. 3. ………………. 4. ……………….
5. ………………. 6. ………………. 7. ……………….
Question 2. You will hear an interview with a man called Daren Howarth, who works
as a carbon coach. Listen and complete the sentences. (16 points)
The Carbon Coach

Daren says that a carbon coach works full-time as a (1) ____________ with various
clients.
 Before becoming a carbon coach, Daren trained to be an (2) ___________.
When assessing a family's carbon footprint, Daren looks first at their (3) __________.
Daren uses what's called a (4) ________ to see how much electricity things use.
Daren points out that the government will help pay for roof insulation.
Daren feels that using (5) __________ of the old type is the worst waste of energy he sees.
Daren helped to reduce a band's carbon footprint at their concerts as well as on its CDs.
Daren mentions a new type of green home called an (6) ________ .
The new green home uses both the sun and (7) _______ to produce electricity.
Daren suggests buying a (8) ________ which gives more information about the new green
home..
Your answers
1. ………………. 2. ………………. 3. ………………. 4. ……………….
5. ………………. 6. ………………. 7. ………………. 8. ……………….
Question 3. You will hear a woman asking a tutor for more information about a Media
Studies course at a university. Listen and decide whether the following statements are
true (T) or false (F). (10 points)
1. Louise worked at a radio station for about 4 years.
2. Louise wants to do a Masters because employers like post-graduate qualifications.
3. It will take 4 years to do the Masters part-time rather than the modular route.
4. To join the course, Louis must have research experience and a completed thesis
5. Students can find the details on funding on the university website.
Your answers
1. …………… 2. …………… 3. …………… 4. …………… 5. ……………
Question 4. You will hear an interview with the television actress Donna Denton.
Choose the best answer (A, B, or C) for each of the following questions. (10 points)
1. As a child, Donna started going to dancing classes because_________.
A. her mother persuaded her to
B. they were relatively expensive
C. she wanted to be with friends
2. What did Donna do to get a place at Knightswell Stage School?
A. She took part in a musical show.
B. She got her parents to pay in advance.
C. She gave a demonstration of her skills.
3. Donna believes that she won the school singing competition because_________.
A. she had learnt to be less nervous when performing.
B. she had chosen to perform her favourite song.
C. she had been practicing one particular song for years.
4. What does Donna say about her first parts on television?
A. A private teacher helped her find them.
B. They were useful in developing her career.
C. It was easy enough for students to get them.
5. When talking about near future, Donna says that_________.
A. she has agreed to record a music CD soon.
B. she has accepted an unexpected invitation.
C. she has had to make a difficult choice.
Your answers
1. …………… 2. …………… 3. …………… 4. …………… 5. ……………
PART II – LEXICO AND GRAMMAR (40 POINTS)
Question 1. Choose the option (A, B, C or D) that best completes each of the following
sentences. (20 points)
1. The boxer hit his opponent so hard that he was ___________ for ten minutes.
A. asleep B. knocked about C. unconscious D. stopped
2. Because of an unfortunate ______ your order was not dispatched by the date requested.
A. hindrance B. oversight
C. negligence D. transgression
3. The death ___________ in the earthquake has been put at over one thousand.
A. damage B. toll C. rate D. loss
4. Don’t be __________ by false advertisements. If something looks too good to be true, it
probably is.
A. put off B. given up C. taken in D. put down
5. By next Saturday you ___________ with us for 6 months.
A. will have stayed B. will stay C. have stayed D. are staying
6. The child sat in the middle of the floor and ___________ refused to move.
A. distinctively B. decisively C. flatly D. totally
7. The manager told his assistant to ___________ the mistake immediately.
A. rectify B. maltreat C. sanction D. banish
8. After a six-year relationship, Martha and Billy have decided to ___________.
A. break the bank B. turn the page C. tie the knot D. make the
grade
9. Not until the seventeenth century ___________ to measure the speed of light.
A. anyone did even attempt B. did anyone even attempt
C. even did anyone attempt D. did even attempt anyone
10. The director retired early ___________ ill health.
 A. on behalf of B. ahead of C. on account of D. in front of
11. Little did I imagine The Amazing Race would entail long-winded journeys and ups and
downs __________ .
A. aplenty B. inexhaustibly C. profusely D. superabundant
12. It stands to reason that a touch of humor and optimism can work ____________ .
A. on all cylinders B. spectacles
C. wonders D. your fingers to the bone
13. I admit that I am late for the conference, but by _______________ of excuse let me
explain: my plane was delayed for 6 hours in Hanoi.
A. courtesy B. dint C. means D. way
14. A lot of criticism and scorn has been heaped _____________ his opinions.
A. above B. beyond C. on D. up
15. At first, she was ____________ dumbfounded to hear that he wanted to break up, and
then came the stirrings of auto-hypnotic perturbation.
A. exceedingly B. out-and-out C. somewhat D. utterly
16. What stands out from The Voice Kids is that many young children are ___________ with
natural talent for music.
A. bestowed B. conferred C. endowed D.
vouchsafed
17. With the economic situation looming large, many families find it difficult to rear their
________.
A. descendant B. lineage C. offspring D. successor
18. Researchers have made a(n) __________ plea for more sponsorship so that they can
continue their project.
A. compassionate B. dispassionate C. encompassed D. impassioned
19. That Mary is an ______ liar: you must take what she says with a small grain of salt.
A. incorrigible B. incurable C. irredeemable D. irremediable
20. Unanswered, the demands for nuclear deterrents have _________ fears of civil war.
A. flashed up B. prognosticated C. sidetracked D. stoked up
Answers:
 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.

Question 2. Use the word given in capitals at the end of each sentence to form a word
that fits in the space in the sentence. There is an example. (10 points)
0. admirable
Example:
0. Mr. Brown has a great many ______qualities. ADMIRE
1. Deaths caused by reckless driving are ______. AVOID
2. The coat was ______ in shades of blue and green. PATTERN
3. Most tinned fruits contain ______amounts of sugar. EXCESS
4. He fell off the bike, but his______ were not serious. INJURE
5. In electronics, we learn to repair______ appliances. HOUSE
6. Trung's sense of humor______ him from other students. DISTINCT
7. People use first-aid to ease the victim's pain and______. ANXIOUS
8. The scenery was really ______ beautiful. BREATHE
9. You don't respond well to positive______, which is only made to CRITIC
help you.
10. ______as it may seem, mammoths were alive only five CREDIBLE
thousand years ago.
Your answers:
1. …………. 2. …………. 3. …………. 4. …………. 5. ………….
6. …………. 7. …………. 8. …………. 9. …………. 10. ………….
Question 3. Each line of the following passage contains ONE mistake. Identify and
correct them. Write your answer in the space given. (10 points)
Sport in society
The position of sport in today’s society has changed out of all recognization. People no
longer seem to think about sport as ‘just a game’ – to be watched or played for the sake of
enjoyment. Instead, it has become large business worldwide. It has become accepted
practice for heading companies to provide sponsorship. TV companies pay large sums of
money to screen important matches. The result has been huge financial awards for athletes,
some of them are now very wealthy, particularly top football players, golfers and tennis
players. In addition, it is not usual for some athletes to receive large fees on top of their
salary, for advertising products or making individual appearances. A trend towards shorter
working hours mean that people generally tend to have more free time, both to watch and
to take part in sport activity.
Your answers:
Mistake Correction Mistake Correction
1. ………………… ………………… 6. ………………… …………………
2. ………………… ………………… 7. ………………… …………………
 3. ………………… ………………… 8. ………………… …………………
4. ………………… ………………… 9. ………………… …………………
5. ………………… ………………… 10. ………………… …………………

PART III – READING (60 POINTS)

Question 1. Choose the best option (A, B, C or D) that best fits the blank space in the
following passage. (10 points)
Proof that silence is golden for studying
The combination of music and study has long been a source of disagreement between
adults and children. Parents and teachers alike maintain that silence is important when
learning, (1) ________ youngsters insist that their favourite sounds help them concentrate.
Now a study shows the grown-ups have been right all along. Psychologists in Florida
tested how fast students wrote essays with and without music in the (2) ________. They
found that the sounds (3) ________ progress down by about sixty words per hour. 'This
demonstrates clearly that it is difficult to (4) ________ with listening and writing at the same
time,' said Dr Sarah Randall. She also (5) ________ to conclusion that it is a myth that
instrumental music is less distracting that vocals. 'All types of music had the same (6)
________,' she said in her report. 'One's ability to pay attention and write fluently is likely to
be (7) ________ by both vocal and instrumental music,' she added.
Dr Randall claimed the research demonstrated that the idea that music could improve
performance was wrong. 'Writing an essay is a complex (8) ________. You are (9) ________
information and putting it in order. An additional stimulus in the form of music is bound to
distract. But music is not the only distractor. What is (10) ________ worrying is that more
and more teenagers are studying in front of the television.
1. A. whereas B. unlike C. besides D. despite
2. A. setting B. background C. surrounding D. circumstances
3. A. slowed B. reduced C. lowered D. decreased
4. A. manage B. support C. cope D. stand
5. A. reached B. drew C. arrived D. came
6. A. affect B. effect C. consequence D. result
7. A. disturbed B. interfered C. bothered D. shocked
8. A. project B. concern C. scheme D. task
9. A. recalling B. memorizing C. remembering D. organizing
10. A. partly B. largely C. particularly D. mainly
Your answers:
1. …………. 2. …………. 3. …………. 4. …………. 5. ………….
6. …………. 7. …………. 8. …………. 9. …………. 10. ………….
 Question 2. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use
only ONE word in each space. (10 points)

SHARKS
For anyone who wants either to film or study great white sharks, Australian expert, Rodney
Fox, is the first contact. Fox knows exactly (1) ________the sharks will be at different times
of the year; and can even predict (2) ________ they will behave around blood, divers and
other sharks. He understands them as well as anyone else alive. In fact, he’s lucky to be
alive; a ‘great white’ once (3) ________ to bite him in half.
Three decades (4) ________this near-fatal attack, Fox still carries the physical scars, but
feels no hate for his attacker. Instead he organizes three or four trips (5) ________ year to
bring scientists and photographers to the kingdom of the great white shark. The main aim of
these trips is to improve people’s understanding of an animal (6) ________ evil reputation
has become an excuse for killing it.
Great white sharks are not as amusing as dolphins and seals, (7) ________their role in the
ocean is critical. They kill off sick animals, helping to prevent the spread of disease and to
maintain the balance in the ocean’s food chains. Fox feels a responsibility to act (8)
________ a guardian of great white sharks. (9) ________ the scientists, film makers and
photographers can communicate their sense of wonder (10) ________ other people, he is
confident that understanding will replace hatred.
Your answers:
1. …………. 2. …………. 3. …………. 4. …………. 5. ………….
6. …………. 7. …………. 8. …………. 9. …………. 10. ………….
Question 3. Read the passage and choose the option (A, B,C or D) that best answer each
of the following questions. (10 points)
Printmaking is the generic term for a number of processes, of which woodcut and
engraving are two prime examples. Prints are made by pressing a sheet of paper (or other
material) against an image-bearing surface to which ink has been applied. When the paper is
removed, the image adheres to it, but in reverse.
The woodcut had been used in China from the fifth century A.D. for applying patterns
to textiles. The process was not introduced into Europe until the fourteenth century, first for
textile decoration and then for printing on paper. Woodcuts are created by a relief process;
first, the artist takes a block of wood, which has been sawed parallel to the grain, covers it
with a white ground, and then draws the image in ink. The background is carved away,
leaving the design area slightly raised. The woodblock is inked, and the ink adheres to the
raised image. It is then transferred to damp paper either by hand or with a printing press.
Engraving, which grew out of the goldsmith's art, originated in Germany and northern
Italy in the middle of the fifteenth century. It is an intaglio process (from Italian intagliare,
"to carve"). The image is incised into a highly polished metal plate, usually copper, with a
cutting instrument, or burin. The artist inks the plate and wipes it clean so that some ink
remains in the incised grooves. An impression is made on damp paper in a printing press,
with sufficient pressure being applied so that the paper picks up the ink.
Both woodcut and engraving have distinctive characteristics. Engraving lends itself to
subtle modeling and shading through the use of fine lines. Hatching and cross-hatching
determine the degree of light and shade in a print. Woodcuts tend to be more linear, with
sharper contrasts between light and dark. Printmaking is well suited to the production of
multiple images. A set of multiples is called an edition. Both methods can yield several
hundred good-quality prints before the original block or plate begins to show signs of wear.
Mass production of prints in the sixteenth century made images available, at a lower cost, to
a much broader public than before.
1. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The origins of textile decoration
B. The characteristics of good-quality prints
C. Two types of printmaking
D. Types of paper used in printmaking
2. The word "prime" in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to __________.
A. principal B. complex C. general D. recent
3. The author's purposes in paragraph 2 is to describe __________.
A. the woodcuts found in China in the fifth century
B. the use of woodcuts in the textile industry
C. the process involved in creating a woodcut
D. the introduction of woodcuts to Europe
4. The word "incised" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. burned B. cut C. framed D. baked
5. Which of the following terms is defined in the passage?
A. "patterns" (paragraph 2) B. "grain" (paragraph 2)
C. "burin" (paragraph 3) D. "grooves" (paragraph 3)
6. According to the passage, all of the following are true about engraving EXCEPT that it
__________.
A. developed from the art of the goldsmiths
B. requires that the paper be cut with a burin
C. originated in the fifteenth century
D. involves carving into a metal plate
7. The word "yield" in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. imitate B. produce C. revise D. contrast
8. According to the passage, what do woodcut and engraving have in common?
A. Their designs are slightly raised.
B. They achieve contrast through hatching and cross-hatching.
C. They were first used in Europe.
D. They allow multiple copies to be produced from one original.
 9. According to the author, what made it possible for members of the general public to own
prints in the sixteenth century?
A. Prints could be made at low cost.
B. The quality of paper and ink had improved.
C. Many people became involved in the printmaking industry.
D. Decreased demand for prints kept prices affordable.
10. According to the passage, all of the following are true about prints EXCEPT that they
__________.
A. can be reproduced on materials other than paper
B. are created from a reversed image
C. show variations between light and dark shades
D. require a printing press
Your answers:
1. …………. 2. …………. 3. …………. 4. …………. 5. ………….
6. …………. 7. …………. 8. …………. 9. …………. 10. ………….
Question 4. Read the passage and do the tasks that follow.
The Hollywood Film Industry
A This chapter examines the ‘Golden Age’ of the Hollywood film studio system and
explores how a particular kind of filmmaking developed during this period in US film
history. It also focuses on the two key elements which influenced the emergence of the
classic Hollywood studio system: the advent of sound and the business ideal of vertical
integration. In addition to its historical interest, inspecting the growth of the studio system
may offer clues regarding the kinds of struggles that accompany the growth of any new
medium. It might, in fact, be intriguing to examine which changes occurred during the
growth of Hollywood studio, and compare those changes to comtemporary struggles in
which production companies are trying to define and control emerging industries, such as
online film and interactive television.
B The shift of the industry away from ‘silent’ films began during the late 1920s. Warner
Bros.’ 1927 film The Jazz Singer was the first to feature synchronized speech, and with it
came a period of turmoil for the industry. Studios now had proof that ‘talkie’ films would
make them money, but the financial investment this kind of filmmaking would require,
from new camera equipment to new projection facilities, made the studios hesitant to
invest at first. In the end, the power of cinematic sound to both move audiences and
enhance the story persuaded studios that talkies were worth investing in. Overall, the use
of sound in film was well-received by audiences, but there were still many technical
factors to consider. Although full integration of sound into movies was complete by 1930,
it would take somewhat longer for them to regain their stylistic elegance and dexterity.
The camera now had to be encased in a big, clumsy, unmoveable soundproof box. In
addition, actors struggled, having to direct their speech to awkwardly-hidden
microphones in huge plants, telephones or even costumes.
C Vertical integration is the other key component in the rise of the Hollywood studio
system. The major studios realized they could increase their profits by handling each
stage of a film’s life: production (making the film), distribution (getting the film out to
people) and exhibition (owning the theaters in major cities where films were shown first).
Five studios, ‘The Big Five’, worked to achieve vertical integration through the late
1940s, owning vast real estate on which to construct elaborate sets. In addition, these
studios set the exact terms of films’ release dates and patterns. Warner Bros., Paramount,
20th Century Fox, MGM and RKO formed this exclusive club. ‘The Little Three’ studios
- Universal, Columbia and United Artists - also made pictures, but each lacked one of the
crucial elements of vertical integration. Together these eight companies operated as a
mature oligopoly, essentially running the entire market.
D During the Golden Age, the studios were remarkably consistent and stable enterprises,
due in large part to long-term management heads - the infamous ‘movie moguls’ who
ruled their kingdoms with iron fists. At MGM, Warner Bros, and Columbia, the same
men ran their studios for decades. The rise of the studio system also hinges on the
treatment of stars, who were constructed and exploited to suit a studio’s image and
schedule. Actors were bound up in seven-year contracts to a single studio, and the studio
boss generally held all the options. Stars could be loaned out to other production
companies at any time. Studio bosses could also force bad roles on actors, and manipulate
every single detail of stars’ images with their mammoth in-house publicity departments.
Some have compared the Hollywood studio system to a factory, and it is useful
to remember that studios were out to make money first and art second.
E On the other hand, studios also had to cultivate flexibility, in addition to consistent
factory output. Studio heads realized that they couldn’t make virtually the same film over
and over again with the same cast of stars and still expect to keep turning a profit. They
also had to create product differentiation. Examining how each production company tried
to differentiate itself has led to loose characterizations of individual studios’ styles. MGM
tended to put out a lot of all-star productions while Paramount excelled in comedy and
Warner Bros, developed a reputation for gritty social realism. 20th Century Fox forged
the musical and a great deal of prestige biographies, while Universal specialized in classic
horror movies.
F In 1948, struggling independent movie producers and exhibitors finally triumphed in
their battle against the big studios’ monopolistic behavior. In the United States versus
Paramount federal decree of that year, the studios were ordered to give up their theaters in
what is commonly referred to as ‘divestiture’ - opening the market to smaller producers.
 This, coupled with the advent of television in the 1950s, seriously compromised the
studio system’s influence and profits. Hence, 1930 and 1948 are generally considered
bookends to Hollywood’s Golden Age.
For question 1- 4 : The reading passage has seven paragraphs A - G. Choose the correct
heading for paragraphs A - G from the list of headings below.

List of Headings
i. The power with each studio
ii. The movie industry adapts to innovation
iii. Contrast between cinema and other media of the time
iv. The value of studying Hollywood’s Golden Age
v. Distinguishing themselves from the rest of the market
vi. A double attack on film studios’ power
vii. Gaining control of the industry
viii The top movies of Hollywood’s Golden Age

Example: Paragraph A ______iv____

1. Paragraph B __________
2. Paragraph C __________
Example: Paragraph D ____i_____
3. Paragraph E __________
4. Paragraph F __________
For question 5- 7: Do the following statements agree with the information given in
Reading Passage?
TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this
5. After The Jazz Singer came out, other studios immediately began making movies with
synchronized sound.
6. There were some drawbacks to recording movie actors’ voices in the early 1930s.
7. There was intense competition between actors for contracts with the leading studios.
Complete the summary below.
For questions 8 – 10, choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each
answer.
THE HOLLYWOOD STUDIOS
Throughout its Golden Age, the Hollywood movie Industry was controlled by a
handful of studios. Using a system known as (8) ______________, the biggest studios not
only made movies, but handled their distribution and then finally showed them in their own
theaters. These studios were often run by autocratic bosses - men known as (9)
______________, who often remained at the head of organisations for decades. However,
the domination of the industry by the leading studios came to an end in 1948, when they
were forced to open the market to smaller producers - a process known as (10)
______________.
Part 7:
PART IV – WRITING (50 POINTS)
Question 1. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first
sentence, using the words given. (10 points)
1. Martin may not be very well but she still manages to enjoy life.
Martin’s poor…………………………………………………………………
2. The Pacific Ocean is on average deeper than the Atlantic.
The average …………………………………………………………………
3. The fire led to the setting up of a public enquiry.
As a ……………………………………………………………………………
4. Vitamin intake and intelligence are not connected.
There is ……………………………………………………………………………
5. The only reason the party was a success was that a famous film star attended.
Had it ……………………………………………………………………………
Question 2. For each of the sentences below, write a new sentence as similar as possible
in meaning to the original one, using the word given. DO NOT CHANGE the word
given. (10 points)
1. A rise in temperature in the next century seems likely. (CHANCE)
………………………………………………………………………………
2. You must accept the fact that she has left you. (RESIGN)
……………………………………………………………………………
3. They arrived at the station with only a minute to spare. (NICK)
…………………………………………………………………………………
4. They sent him to prison for three years. (SENTENCED)
…………………………………………………………………………………
5. I don’t intend to tell you my plans. (INTENTION)
…………………………………………………………………………………
Question 3. Write a paragraph (120-150 words) on the following topic. (30 points)
‘Books are the best source of knowledge’
To what extent do you agree or disagree with this statement? Give example and
explanation to justify your viewpoint.

TEST 8
I. LISTENING( 40 pts)
1. Part 1
You will hear a conversation between two students about the course feedback form.
Complete the table below.
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.
STUDENT FEEDBACK FORM

Faculty :Politics and Economics

Course Name :(1)…………………………………………………
Date:20th March – 20 th June
Subject advisor :(2) …………………………………………………

Disadvantages and
Advantages Suggestions

Handouts and clear and on time perfect too many (3) ………………… poor printer
equipment’s (4)……………………

(5) balanced design good too much research work in the (6)
……………….. organization ……………………
Practical training good for (7) need more different training places
…………………… learn
more knowledge
 quick feedback from (9) time of open – book exam is too short
(8) …………………… too any essays
…………………
…
Other comments mobility teaching method need to strengthen our (10) ……………………

2. You will hear a radio interview with the gardening experts Jed and Helena Stone.
Listen and answer the questions.

1. How does Helena feel about the use of Jed's name for their joint business?

……………………………………………………………………………………….

2. What is Jed's attitude to his public profile?

…………………………………………………………………………………….

3. How did Helena feel about her work on The Travel Show?

……………………………………………………………………………………….

4. What explanation does Helena give for the name of the garden?

…………………………………………………………………………………….

5. What does the name 'jewel garden' mean to Jed?

…………………………………………………………………………………….
3. You will hear part of a radio programme in which a new book is being reviewed.
For questions 1-5, choose the correct answer A, B, C or D.
1. The main reason that Isabella was unlikely to become a travel writer was that she
A believed travel at that time was very dangerous.
B was under an illusion about her health.
C had never displayed much imagination.
D had regarded travel as a man’s occupation.
2. Sarah thinks Isabella’s trips to Australia were surprising because she had previously
A preferred an inactive lifestyle.
B been frightened of animals.
C never experienced extreme climates.
D spent most of her time socializing.
3. According to Sarah, Isabella’s letters
A should have been published earlier.
B were based on newspaper articles.
C may have exaggerated what she saw.
D failed to provide enough details at times.
4. In Sarah’s opinion, Isabella’s personality was unusual because she
A had rebelled against her father.
B was at her best in challenging situations.
C only pretended to be courageous.
D traveled despite her illnesses.
5. According to Sarah, the book in its current form
A does not make it clear how the letters have been edited.
B ought to contain all of the letters Isabella wrote to Henrietta.
C fails to include examples of Isabella’s bad experiences.
D should be adapted so the style is familiar to readers today.
II. LEXICO – GRAMMAR (50 pts)
I. Choose the word or phrase that best completes each sentence
1. When it comes to the _______, Alice always supports her friends.
A. point B. crunch C. crisis D. finale
2. Richard started the race well but ran out of _______ in the later stages.
A. power B. steam C. force D. effort
3. The winter is usually mild, although we sometimes get a cold________ at the beginning of
the year.
A. spell B. term C. interval D. wave
4. Several passengers received minor injuries when the train unexpectedly came to a
_______
 A. delay B. stand C. brake D. halt
5. It was _______ of a surprise to Andrew that he got the job.
A. rather B. something C. quite D. much
6. Please don’t_______ it a miss if I make a few suggestions for improvements.
A. think B. assume C. take D. judge
7. He left the meeting early on the unlikely _______ that he had a sick friend to visit.
A. claim B. excuse C. pretext D. motive
8. The girl felt _______ with hunger.
A. faintly B. fainting C. fainted D. faint
9. My sunburnt nose made me feel rather _______for the first few days of the holiday.
A. self-confident B. self-centred C. self-conscious D. self-evident
10. Although the patient received intensive treatment, there was no_______ improvement in
her condition.
A. decipherable B. legible C. discernible D. intelligible
11. The down and outs under the railway bridge ________ stones at the rats to keep them
away.
A. struck B. beat C. hurled D. drove
12. Karen was terribly nervous before the interview but she managed to pull herself
________ and act confidently.
A. through B. over C. together D. off
13. We ________ up a friendship the very first time we met.
A. struck B. launched C. cropped D. settled
14. I was kept awake for most of the night by the ________ of a mosquito in my ear.
A. moan B. groan C. whine D. screech
15. The real test of your relationship will come when you start to see your boyfriend
________ and all.
A. faults B. spots C. moles D. warts
16. The actor was so nervous that he could only remember small ________ of dialogue.
A. shreds B. pieces C. patches D. snatches
17. He ________ a yawn as the actor began yet another long speech.
A. squashed B. suffocated C. submerged D. stifled
18. The only way to clean this box is to ________ it in soap and warm water.
A. polish B. wash C. brush D. wipe
19. Rachel has a highly developed ________ of fine art.
A. taste B. reaction C. liking D. appreciation
20. The air in the house felt cold and ________ after weeks of bad weather.
A. wet B. damp C. moist D. watery

2. Write the correct FORM of each bracketed word in the numbered space provided in
the column on the right.
Food miles
In Britain, what is described as 'food miles', the distance which food is transported
from the place where it is grown to its point of sale, continues to rise. This has major
economic, social and environmental consequences, given the traffic congestion and pollution
which (1. variable) ____________ follow.
According to (2. press) ____________ groups, the same amount of food is travelling
50 per cent further than twenty years ago. What's more, the rise in the demand for road
haulage over this period has mostly been due to the transport of food and drink. The groups
assert that the increase in the number of lorry journeys is (3. exceed) ____________ and that
many of these are far from (4. essence) ____________.
In the distribution systems employed by British food (5. retail) ____________, fleets of
lorries bring all goods into more (6. centre) ____________ located warehouses for
redistribution across the country. (7. logic) ____________ as this might appear, the situation
whereby some goods get sent back to the same areas from which they came is (8. avoid)
____________.
In response to scathing (9. critic) ____________ from environmentalists, some food
distributors now aim to minimize the impact of food miles by routing vehicles, wherever
possible, on motorways after dark. This encourages greater energy (10. efficient)
____________ whilst also reducing the impact on the residential areas through which they
would otherwise pass.
3. The passage below contains 10 mistakes. Underline the mistakes and correct them.
Oxford is a city with such a mind-blowing reputation that many who come here find
them intimidated by the place and can’t wait to leave, while others, taking with it like a duck
to water, find themselves returning again and again. The college lawns provide a gorgeous
backdrop to seriously study, and in the right light, on a sunny winter’s morning saying, one
feels as if one is floated on air, such is the sense of unreality. Oxford may like to pretend that
it is at the intellectual hub of things, but in many ways it is no less than a sleepy backwater
where, to mix metaphors, transitory students, the cream of their generation, wait for the
wings, allowing their talents to flourish before moving off into the industrial or political fast-
lane. Much of this is the myth, of course. Hardship and hard work are very much part and
parcel of student life. The level-headed get through the three years’ hard grind by simple
putting their shoulders to the wheel before going on to fairly average jobs. Only for the tiny
minor is Oxford the first step on the ladder to fame and fortune.
III. READING(50PTS)
1. Choose the most suitable option to complete the passage
China (1) _______ the world's most populous country for centuries and today(2)
_______ up one-fifth of the world's population. It is no surprise that China'shuge population,
tumultuous demographic history, and possible future have attracted the world's (3) _______ .
The country's growing economic strength, combined with its demographic might, ensures it
will stay in the limelight for a long time to come.
The country has (4) _______ enormous social, economic, and political (5) _______
over the past 50 years, but many of the issues that Chinese society (6) _______ today are
also closely connected to past demographic change. Because of the rapid and extensive
fertility declines in China in the past 30 years, the country's (7) _______ of population
growth has slowed considerably. The country's population of 1.3 billion in the early 2000s is
projected to grow by (8) _______ 100 million by 2050. India - with its higher fertility
levels - (9) _______ forecast to move ahead of China in total population (10)___by 2035.

1 A has been B had been C became D. becomes

 2 A builds B takes C has D. makes
3 A focus B concentration C attention D. notice
4 A undergone B underdone C underdeveloped D. undercut
5 A changes B differences C progresses D. exchanges
6 A solves B faces C discusses about D. handles
7 A speed B level C rate D. amount
8 A other B the other C others D. another
9 A has B is C had D. was
10 A number B size C total D. amount

2. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only ONE
WORD for each space.
One of the main problems facing the environmental movement is that it may become
a victim of its own success. It is now generally accepted that issues such as global warning
need to be( 1)…………………. with seriously, and that the Scandinavian forests are being
destroyed ( 2)…………… to the effects of
( 3)……………… rain. Views ( 4)…………… these have now become an accepted part
of the political scene, and consumers are constantly bombarded with green or ( 5)
…………….friendly products. However, this does not mean that environmental groups can
now afford to relax. On the (6)…………………, the green movement must consider how the
momentum will( 7) ……………sustained when the current enthusiasm has (8)
………………. The environment must not be ( 9)………………….. to fade from people’s
minds, because the progress of ecological collapse has already been ( 10)……………. in
train , and so far very little has been done to reverse it.
3. Read the following passage and choose the best answers to the questions.
By the mid-nineteenth century, the term "icebox" had entered the American language,
but ice was still only beginning to affect the diet of ordinary citizens in the United States.
The ice trade grew with the growth of cities. Ice was used in hotels, taverns, and hospitals,
and by some forward-looking city dealers in fresh meat, fresh fish, and butter. After the
Civil War (1861-1865), as ice was used to refrigerate freight cars, it also came into
household use. Even before 1880, half the ice sold in New York, Philadelphia, and
Baltimore, and one-third of that sold in Boston and Chicago, went to families for their own
use. This had become possible because a new household convenience, the icebox, a
precursor of the modern refrigerator, had been invented.
Making an efficient icebox was not as easy as we might now suppose. In the early
nineteenth century, the knowledge of the physics of heat, which was essential to a science of
refrigeration, was rudimentary. The commonsense notion that the best icebox was one that
prevented the ice from melting was of course mistaken, for it was the melting of the ice that
performed the cooling. Nevertheless, early efforts to economize ice included wrapping the
ice in blankets, which kept the ice from doing its job. Not until near the end of the nineteenth
century did inventors achieve the delicate balance of insulation and circulation needed for an
efficient icebox.
But as early as 1803, an ingenious Maryland farmer, Thomas Moore, had been on the
right track. He owned a farm about twenty miles outside the city of Washington, for which
the village of Georgetown was the market center. When he used an icebox of his own design
to transport his butter to market, he found that customers would pass up the rapidly melting
stuff in the tubs of his competitors to pay a premium price for his butter, still fresh and hard
in neat, one-pound bricks. One advantage of his icebox, Moore explained, was that farmers
would no longer have to travel to market at night in order to keep their produce cool.

1. What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. The influence of ice on the diet.
B. The development of refrigeration.
C. The transportation of goods to market.
D. Sources of ice in the nineteenth century.
2. According to the passage, when did the word "icebox" become part of the language of the
United States?
A. In 1803.
B. Sometime before 1850.
C. During the Civil War.
 D. Near the end of the nineteenth century.
3. The phrase "forward-looking" is closest in meaning to _______ .
A. progressive
B. popular
C. thrifty
D. well-established
4. The author mentions“ fish” because _______ .
A. many fish dealers also sold ice
B. fish was shipped in refrigerated freight cats
C. fish dealers were among the early commercial users of ice
D. fish was not part of the ordinary person's diet before the invention of the icebox
5. The word "it" refers to _______ .
A. fresh meat
B. the Civil War
C. ice
D. a refrigerator
6. According to the passage, which of the following was an obstacle to the development of
the icebox?
A. Competition among the owners of refrigerated freight cars.
B. The lack of a network for the distribution of ice.
C. The use of insufficient insulation.
D. Inadequate understanding of physics.
7. The word "rudimentary" is closest in meaning to _______ .

A. growing
B. undeveloped
C. necessary
D. uninteresting
8. According to the information in the second paragraph, an ideal icebox would
_______
 A. completely prevent ice from melting
B. stop air from circulating
C. allow ice to melt slowly
D. use blankets to conserve ice
9. The author describes Thomas Moore as having been "on the right track" to indicate
that_______ .
A. the road to the market passed close to Moore's farm
B. Moore was an honest merchant
C. Moore was a prosperous farmer
D. Moore's design was fairly successful
10. According to the passage, Moore's icebox allowed him to__________ .
A. charge more for his butter
B. travel to market at night
C. manufacture butter more quickly
D. produce ice all year round
4. Read the following passage and do the tasks that follow.
Read the following passage
LONDON’S CYCLE HIRE SCHEME
A.
London is a ‘world city’: one of the most important economic and financial hubs in the
world. It has a population of around eight million people and contains hundreds of iconic
buildings which are recognized over the world. London receives around 20 million visitors
each year, a large proportion from overseas, who mingle with further millions of people who
travel into the city from a wide area to work in the central area. It is frequently rated as
providing the most satisfying ‘cultural experience’ for visitors to any city.
B.
One of the challenges involved in managing (and living in) such a huge city is the ability to
move people efficiently around it, for the purposes of work and leisure, and at reasonable
cost. The London black cab is one response to this problem, but it also contributes to the
number of vehicles that are on the roads. The much quoted result of millions of daily vehicle
movements is a very low average speed for traffic on London’s roads and frequent
congestion problems.
C.
Many cities have taken steps to reduce the amount of traffic on the roads by adopting a range
of measures which can broadly be described as either ‘carrots’ or ‘sticks’: those which either
promote, or discourage certain activity. London has already been forced into trying a number
of measures to reduce traffic congestion. These have included:
  Traffic management systems which included the world’s first traffic light. It was
installed outside the Houses of Parliament in 1868 to reduce congestion in this area.
 An underground system which was the first in the world. The first section opened in
1863, and the network is still developing. Since 2003, it has been managed by
Transport for London. The classic London Tube map forms part of city’s cultural
heritage, and has been much copied and adapted elsewhere.
 The Cross Rail development: due to provide high frequency rail services through two
new tunnels under Central London from 2017.
 The congestion charging system – introduced in 2003, and extended in 2007 –
charges many motorists (there are some exemptions) £10 to enter the central charging
zone between 7 am – 6 pm. Monday to Friday.
 The Oyster card – an automated charging system which speeds up the use of public
transport using a specially chipped card, which can be pre-charged with ‘credit’.

D.
The latest solution is the Barclays London Cycle Hire Scheme. In 2010, London joined a
growing list of cities that had turned to the bicycle for a possible solution to traffic
congestion. Cities like Amsterdam have long since been associated with bicycles. Other
cities that already have cycle hire schemes include Copenhagen and Barcelona. In Paris, the
system is known as the Velib scheme, a word which merges the word for bicycle with
freedom. It is funded by advertising. The London scheme was launched on the 30 th July 2010
with an initial total of 5,000 bikes spread around 315 locations, with plans for further
extensions. The bikes are fairly robust so that they can withstand the knocks of daily use.
They are fitted with dynamo-powered LED lights, have three gears, a chain guard and a bell.
Each bike is also fitted with a Radio Frequency Identification (RFID) chip, so that its
location can be tracked. The bikes have puncture-proof tyres and are regularly checked over
for mechanical faults.
E.
It is hoped that people will experience London in a more direct way. Instead of descending
into the earth, they will cycle the streets and thus gain ‘a different view’ of London and
improve their own mental maps of the city. They will also be getting exercise, which in an
age of soaring obesity rates can only be a good thing, can’t it?
Enough reading, time for you to get out there and start pedaling!

Choose the most suitable heading for each paragraph from the list of headings below.

List of headings

i. Current and past actions

ii. Congestion and pollution
iii. Problems on the roads
iv. The best city in the world
v. A centre of activity
vi. The many benefits of cycling
 vii. Cycling in European cities
viii. A new initiative
ix. Rail systems

1. Section A: ……..

1. Section B: ……..
2. Section C: ……..
3. Section D: ……..
4. Section E: ……..

Complete the summary below with ONE WORD from the passage
London, with a (6)…………… of around eight million people and 20 visitors each year, has
been facing the problem of reducing traffic (7)………… It has already been forced into
finding a few (8)…………… The Barclays London Cycle Hire System was (9)………… in
2010 in the hope of providing a (10)………………. for the existing transport (11)………….
The money that was necessary to have a scheme like this was sourced from (12)
………………… and allowed London to have 5,000 bikes initially, but there are likely to be
(13)…………….. to the scheme. The bikes have a tracking (14)……………….., are
properly equipped and regularly (15)……………..

IV. WRITING(60PTS)
Part 1: Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence.
1. The two sides never looked likely to reach an agreement.
=> At no time........................................................................................
2. The inhabitants were far worse-off twenty years ago than they are now.
=> The inhabitants are nowhere.........................................................................
3. This lead should not be disconnected except in cases of emergency.
=> Only ……................................................................................................
4. We shouldn’t overstate the importance of finishing the project on time.
=> We shouln’t put ......................................................................................
5. He made unsuccessful attempt to buy the company
=> He attempted..........................................................................................
Part 2: Use the word(s) given in brackets and make any necessary additions to complete a
new sentence in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the original
sentence. Do not change the form of the given word(s).
1. Karl felt uncomfortable in front of all those people (ILL)
=> Karl seemed really…………………………………………………………..
2. Katty was about to blurt out my secret when I attracted his attention.( EYE)
=> Had.....................................................................................................................
3. He kicked me in the teeth when when breaking the promise to help me out (WENT)
=> He really disapointed……………………………………………………...
4. Thunder and lightning terrify me. (DEATH)
=> I am………………………………………………………………..

5. The film was so controversial that it was banned in several parts of the world. (CAUSED)

=> Such was .............................................................................................

Part 3. Essay witing

Many people think that families now are not as closely-knit as they were in the past.
Write an essay to express your opinion about it.

TEST 9
PART I: LISTENING (40 points)
Question 1: You are going to listen to a talk. As you listen, fill the missing words in the
blanks. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS and/or NUMBERS taken from the
recording for each answer in the spaces provided. (20 points)
Scientists in the USA say they are getting closer to developing a vaccine that will
provide (1) ____________________ against any type of (2) ______________. This could be
welcome news for millions of people around the world who go to the doctor every year to get
a (3) ______________. Two different research teams have been testing new drugs on
animals and both have had promising results. (4) ______________ will soon begin on
humans to determine if the test vaccine has similar successes. Flu expert professor John
Oxford told the BBC that: "This is (5) ___________________ forward compared to anything
done recently. They have good animal data, not just in mice but in (6)
______________________ too." He added that: "It's a very good (7) _______________."
The flu virus kills up to half a million people every year. The problem with finding a vaccine
is the (8) ______________ of the flu virus. It is in a constant state of mutation. Doctors have
to predict which strains of the virus are likely to cause the most infections and then create an
updated version of the vaccine accordingly. For this reason, the success rate of most flu
vaccines is very low because much of the process involves a lot of (9) ______________ .
Scientists say that vaccines in the U.S. reduced the risk of catching flu by just 23 per cent last
year. The website Inverse.com said the research could, "(10) ______________ we can go
about making vaccines for other viruses that mutate rapidly, like HIV or the common cold".

Your answers
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Question 2: Listen to a talk about the Tiger Shark, answer the questions. Your answer
would be short in the form of notes, using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS. (10
points)
1. What is the origin of the tiger shark's name?
_________________________________________________
2. What is the maximum size of a tiger shark?
_________________________________________________
3. Where is the tiger sharks' preferred habitat?
_________________________________________________
4. What is typical food produced by human that tiger sharks eat?
_________________________________________________
5. According to studies, when are tiger sharks mainly found in Raine Island area?
_________________________________________________
Your answers
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Question 3: Choose the best answer which fits best according to what you hear. (10 points)
1. How does Tom feel now about being a writer?
A. It is no longer as exciting as it was.
B. He used to get more pleasure from it.
C. He is still surprised when it goes well.
D. It is less difficult to do these days.
2. How does Tom feel about the idea for a novel before he begins writing it?
A. He lacks confidence in himself.
B. He is very secretive about it.
C. He likes to get reactions to it.
D. He is uncertain how it will develop
3. Tom's behaviour when beginning a new novel can best be described as
A. determined.
B. enthusiastic.
C. impulsive.
D. unpredictable.
4. What does Tom admit about his novels?
A. They are not completely imaginary.
B. They are open to various interpretations.
C. They do not reflect his personal views.
D. They do not make very good films.
5. What did Tom feel about the first film he was involved in making?
A. He enjoyed being part of a team.
B. He found it much too stressful.
C. He earned too little money from it.
D. He was reassured by how easy it was.
Your answers
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

PART II: LEXICO-GRAMMAR (50 points)

Question 1: Choose the most suitable word or phrase (A, B, C, or D) to fill in each blank (20
points)
1. Little did I imagine The Amazing race would entail long-winded journeys and ups and
downs _____ .
A. aplenty B. inexhaustibly C. profusely D. superabundant
2. It stands to reason that a touch of humour and optimism can work ______ .
A. on all cylinders B. spectacles C. wonders D. your fingers to the bone
3. The comforting news from my sister was a real_____ off my mind.
A. stone B. deal C. load D. mass
4. He was claimed to be unskilled writer, but his latest works have definitely ______ witness
to his great talent.
A. constituted B. borne C. dealt D. displayed
5. Jenny has been on a diet, but she can't resist her _______ for sweets now and then.
A. inclination B. craving C. attraction D. tendency
6. The flights are full at the moment, so you'll have to _____ .
A. run a stroke of luck B. get a better luck
C. be down on your luck D. take pot luck
7. Jane really _____ it on thick when she told the boss that she was not feeling very well.
Unfortunately for her, he realized immediately that she just wanted the afternoon off.
A. put B. spread C. laid D. painted
8. With _____ , it's easy to see that a mistake has been made.
A. rear view B. overlook C. retrospect D. hindsight
9. You are not supposed to park on the hard _____ except in an emergency.
A. lane B. shoulder C. leg D. area
10. The little children watched the performance in __________ amazement.
A. wide-eyed B. open-eyed C. eagle-eyed D. hawk-eyed
11. We are on the __________ of a new era in medicine so a number of diseases will be
eliminated soon.
A. frontier B. gateway C. threshold D. forefront
12. We could feel the _____ effect of the oil spill on the fauna and flora of the island years
after that.
A. backwash B. backlash C. backlog D. backsliding
13. We should never have quarreled like that. Let's burry the _____ and forget all about it.
A. axe B. argument C. hatchet D. subject
14. It's as if that silly argument we had has driven a _______ between us and we've lost all
our old closeness.
A. ledge B. wedge C. plank D. beam
15. Tamara has set her _______ on becoming a ballet-dancer.
A. feet B. brain C. head D. heart
16. That Mary is an ______ liar: you must take what she says with a small grain of salt.
A. incorrigible B. incurable C. irredeemable D.
irremediable
17. Unanswered, the demands for nuclear deterrents have ______ fears of civil war.
A. flashed up B. prognosticated C. sidetracked D. stoked up
18. Unfortunately, his report doesn't _______ with what we've learnt from other sources.
A. ally B. pally C. rally D. tally
19. It's always nice to see Bella — she's such a _______ of sunshine.
A. light B. ray C. glow D. beam
20. Before their restoration, parts of the medieval building were in a state of ______.
A. debris B. dilapidation C. devastation D.
destruction
Your answers
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
Question 2: Give the correct form of the words in brackets. (10 points)
1. The survey showed many young offenders had had difficult ____________________
(BRING).
2. The stray dog spent his days following tourists hoping to ______________________ one
of them. (FRIEND)
3. It was a ______________________ minor accident but tragically, one of the two drivers
died. (SEEM)
4. Anthony is a quiet, ______________________ type. You will always find him reading or
studying something. (BOOK)
5. These solar batteries will work not only when the sun is shining but as long as there is any
______________________ (DAY).
6. The rocks appear to be stationary but in the high winds that whip across this desert
landscape, they are in reality moving ______________________. (PERCEIVE).
7. You may laugh Inspector, but it is not ______________________ apparent to us why you
should suspect anyone in this room of having carried out this murder. (WHOLE)
8. The final vote was 128 for, 173 against with 21 ______________________. The
government has been humiliated by this defeat. (ABSTAIN)
9. Matilda found it hard to overcome the powerful sense of ______________________ she
felt on waking for the first time in the new house. (ORIENTATE)
10. His performance in the match today ______________________ his reputation as a great
player. (LIE)

Your answers
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
Question 3: Identify 10 errors in the following passage and correct them.(10pts)
If there is one characteristic of British work in the arts that seems to stand out is its
shortage of identification with wider intellectual trends. Playwrights and directors can be
left-wing in their political look-out, but the plays they produce rarely convey a
straightforward message. The same is largely true of British novelists and poets. Their
writing is naturalistic and is not connected to particular intellectual movements. The theatre
had always been very strong in Britain, especially in London. The country’s most successful
playwrights are those who explore the darker side of the personality and of personal
relationships. In contrast, the cinema in Britain is often regarded as not quite part of the arts
in all, it is simply entertainment. Britain is unique between the large European countries in
giving mostly no financial help to their film industry. Classical music is also a minority
interest. British seem disinterested in high education, they watch lots of television, but are
enthusiastic readers. The vast majority of books reading in Britain are not classified as
serious literature.
Your answers:
 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. _____________
____________ ____________ ____________ ____________
_ _ _ _

6. 7. 8. 9. 10.____________
____________ ____________ ____________ ____________ _
_ _ _ _

PART III: READING (50 points)

Part 1: For questions 1–10, read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C,
or D) best fits each gap. Write your answers in corresponding numbered boxes. (10 pts)
Those who _______________ (1) for a vegetarian diet must usually _______________ (2)
up a variety of aspect concerning the nutritional value of vegetables and the adequacy of
vegetarian meals in terms of the number of _______________ (3) provided to the body.
Vegetarianism is not a new concept, rather an ancient custom which evolved in the Far East
cultures on ethical or religious grounds.
In today’s world, it has been undertaken by many followers who for a variety of reasons
believe the vegetarian diet more preferable to that containing meat. For example, there’s the
theory that animal meat wasn’t originally a component of the staple human diet as mankind
evolved from foragers who later _______________ (4) a taste for flesh. Hence, our primeval
ancestors are alleged to have had a substantial _______________ (5) of proteins and
vitamins from natural vegetation rather than from the meat of hunted game. What’s more,
human teeth don’t _______________ (6) much resemblance to those of animal carnivores,
and neither is our digestive system equivalent to the meat eaters’ one.
Apart from the enforced vegetarianism of underdeveloped communities where populations
deprived of animal protein _______________ (7) the natural vegetation, there’s a rising
acceptance of the vegetarian diet which _______________ (8) to be regarded as an
eccentricity. Abstention from animal food, be it for religious, economic or humanitarian
reasons, has been a quickly spreading custom as, surprisingly, the vegetarian diet needn’t be
dull or deficient. Yet, it does involve taking good _______________ (9) to supply the body
with a sufficient quantity of nutrients _______________ (10) from corn, seeds and cereals.
1. A. prefer B. opt C. select D. favour

2. A. judge B. weigh C. confer D. survey

3. A. nutrients B. foods C. cuisines D. condiments

4. A. generated B. acquired C. instituted D. accustomed

5. A. output B. offset C. upturn D. intake

6. A. infer B. assume C. bear D. pertain

 7. A. play down on B. come in for C. fall back on D. get on for

8. A. terminates B. ceases C. concludes D. finished

9. A. precautions B. resolutions C. proceeds D. measurements

10. A. comprising B. deriving C. procuring D. providing

Your answer
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Part 2: Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each gap. Write your
answer in corresponding numbered spaces. (10 pts)

A new study from Australia suggests that couch potatoes live shorter lives. The study
followed 8,800 adults (1) ___________________ 25 and older for six and a half years and
found that each daily hour of television viewing was (2) ___________________ with an 18
percent increase in deaths from heart disease and an 11 percent increase in overall mortality.
Those who watched television four hours or more per day were 80 percent more likely to die
of cardiovascular disease than those who watched two hours or less, and 46 percent more
likely to die of any cause. And it did not (3) ___________________ whether they were
overweight, according to the study, which appeared Jan 11 th in the online (4)
___________________of Circulation: Journal of the American Heart Association.
Although it is possible that people who were already ill watched more television than those
who were healthy, the researchers tried to rule that (5) ___________________ by excluding
subjects who already had heart disease and by adjusting for differences in risk (6)
___________________ like diet and smoking. While the benefits of physical activity have
been well studied, there is growing interest (7) ___________________ researchers in
assessing the effects of being sedentary. “For many people, on a daily (8) ___, they simply
shift from one chair to another-from the chair in the car to the chair in the office to the chair
in front of the television.” said the study’s lead author, David Dunstan of the baker IDI Heart
and Diabetes Institute in Victoria, Australia. “(9) ___________________ if someone has a
healthy body weight, sitting for long periods still has an unhealthy (10)
___________________ on blood sugar and blood fats”.
Your answer
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
Part 3: Read the following passage and choose the best answer A, B, C, or D to each
question.
There is one kind of pain for which nobody has yet found a cure – the pain that comes
from the ending of a relationship. The relationship could be a marriage, a love affair or a
deep friendship, in fact, any strong emotional tie between people. Such a relationship may
come to an abrupt but premeditated end or it may simply fade away slowly as people and
circumstances change. You may be the one to “break it off”, with a short note or a brief
phone call. Or you may be on the receiving end, like the soldier who dreads getting a “Dear
John” letter from a girlfriend who has got tired of waiting. But however it ended and
whoever decided to end it, the pain is equally hard to bear. It is a sort of death, and it requires
the same period of mourning, the same time for grief.
Although there is no cure for grief, we cannot help looking for one, to ease the pain
and to make us forget our tears. We seek refuge in other relationships, we keep ourselves
busy with work, we try to immerse ourselves in our hobbies. Perhaps we start to drink more
than we should to drown our sorrows or we follow the conventional advice and join a club or
society. But these things only relieve the symptoms of the illness, they cannot cure for it.
Moreover, we are always in a hurry to get rid of our grief. It is as if we were ashamed of it.
We feel that we should be able to “pull ourselves together”. We try to convince ourselves, as
we bite on the pillow, that we are much too old to be crying. Some people bury their grief
deep inside themselves, so that nobody will guess what they are going through. Others seek
relief by pouring their hearts out to their friends, or to anyone else who can offer a
sympathetic shoulder to cry on. But after a while, even our friends start to show their
impatience, and suggest with their reproachful glances that it is about time we stopped
crying. They, too, are in a hurry for the thing to be over.
It is not easy to explain why we adopt this attitude to emotional pain, when we would
never expect anyone to overcome physical pain simply by an effort of will power. Part of the
answer must lie in the nature of grief itself. When the love affair dies, you cannot believe that
you will ever find another person to replace the one who has gone so completely out of your
life. Even after many, many months, when you think that you have begun to learn to live
without your lost love, something-a familiar place, a snatch of music, a whiff of perfume-
will suddenly bring the bitter – sweet memories flooding back. You choke back the tears and
the desperate, almost angry, feeling that you are no better now than the day the affair ended.
And yet, grief is like an illness that must run its course. Memories do fade eventually,
a healing skin does start to grow over the wound, the intervals between sudden glimpses of
the love you have lost do get longer. Bit by bit, life resumes the normal flow. Such is the
complexity of human nature that we can even start to feel guilty as these things start to
happen, as if it were an insult to our lost love that we can begin to forget at all.
The important thing to admit about grief, then, is that it will take its time. By trying to
convince ourselves that it ought to be over sooner, we create an additional tension which can
only make things worse. People who have gone through the agony of a broken relationship –
and there are few who have not- agree that time is the “greater healer”. How much time is
needed will vary from person to person, but psychiatrists have “a rule of thumb”: grief will
last as long as the original relationship lasted. The sad thing is that, when the breakdown
occurs, we can only stumble over the stories beneath our feet. It is dark ahead, and you will
feel painfully many times before we begin to see the light at the end of the tunnel.
(source: CAE)
1. Psychiatrists tell you that grief will last as long as the original relationship. This
calculation is ………
A. based on a deep understanding of human nature
B. generally true but with many exceptions
C. the result of scientific research
D. no more than a hopeful guesses
2. Relationships often come to an end because ………
A. people do not realize the pain they can B. very few people really know how to love
cause
C. the feeling of the people were not very D. people do not always stay the same
deep
3. You tell your friends about your unhappiness because ………
A. you want them to feel sorry for you
B. you hope it will make you feel better
C. you want them to hear the story from you
D. you feel sure that they have had similar experiences
4. If you seek advice on what to do about a broken relationship, you will probably be told to
………
A. keep busy at work B. find someone else
C. pull yourself together (use your will D. join a club
power)
5. When your friends get tired of listening to you they will ………
A. tell you to pull yourself together
B. try to avoid your company
C. show by their expressions that they have had enough
D. help you to get over your grief
6. Often we are ashamed when we cry because ………
A. only children and babies cry
B. we are worried about what others will think of us
C. we do not expect our unhappiness to last so long
D. we think it is a childish thing to do
7. Memories continue to upset you, and this makes you feel that you ………
A. will never get over your grief B. have no will power
C. are utterly alone D. have made no progress at all
8. If we try to recover too quickly from grief, we shall make ourselves ………
A. nervous B. tense C. ill D. unpopular
9. We are upset by reminders of our lost love because they come so ………
A. unexpectedly B. rapidly C. frequently D. rarely
10. One way to get over a broken relationship is to ………
A. try to forget the other person B. write a “Dear John” letter
C. make a brief phone call D. form new relationships
Your answer:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Part 4. Read the following passage and do the tasks that follow. (20 pts)
What’s in Blood?
A Blood is the most specialized fluid within living animals, playing an absolutely
critical role. It symbolizes (‘new blood’), health (‘get your blood running’), personality
(‘good or bad blood’), and family (‘your bloodline’). This red fluid itself is something which
most people would rather not see, yet it contains such a complex soup of proteins, sugars,
ions, hormones, gases, and basic cellular components that it is certainly worth considering in
some detail.
B By volume, half of blood is the liquid part, called plasma. The rest comprises
specialized components, the main one being red blood cells (technically known as
erythrocytes). These transport oxygen molecules throughout the body, and also give blood its
colour (from the hemoglobin protein within, which turns red when combined with oxygen).
Red blood cells, as with all cells in the human body, have a limited operating life. They are
produced within the marrow of bones, principally the larger ones, and live for about four
months before they fall inactive, to be then reabsorbed by the spleen and liver, with waste
products absorbed into the urine.
C This contrasts with the other main cells of human blood: the white blood cells,
technically known as leukocytes. Similarly produced in the bone marrow, they are active
only for three or four days, yet they are essential in defending the body against infections.
White blood cells come in many different types, each designed to deal with a different sort of
invader bacteria, virus, fungus, or parasite. When one of these enters the body, the white
blood cells quickly determine its nature, then, after mustering sufficient numbers of a
specific type (the period in which you are sick), they launch themselves into the fight,
enveloping each individual invasive cell, and breaking it down (leading to recovery)
D That leaves the last main component of blood: platelets. Their technical name is
thrombocytes, and they are much smaller than red and white blood cells. Also circulating
freely, they are responsible for clotting the blood, and this is necessary to heal both external
and internal injuries. Again, they are produced in the bone marrow, and have the interesting
ability to change shape. There are several diseases related to the breakdown in the regulation
of their numbers. If too low, excessive bleeding can occur, yet if too high, internal clotting
may result, causing potentially catastrophic blockages in parts of the body and medical
ailments we know as strokes, heart attacks, and embolisms.
E Blood’s complexity presents particular difficulties in the advent of emergency
transfusions. These are avoided whenever possible in order to lower the risk of reactions due
to blood incompatibility. Unexpected antigens can trigger antibodies to attack blood
components, with potentially lethal results. Thus, if transfusions are to take place, a thorough
knowledge and classification of blood is essential, yet with 30 recognized blood-group
systems, containing hundreds of antigens, this presents quite a challenge. The ABO system is
the most important. On top of this is the Rhesus factor, which is not as simple as positive or
negative (as most people think), but comprises scores of antigens. These can, however, be
clustered together into groups which cause similar responses, creating some order.
F Of course, the simplest system to avoid adverse transfusion reactions is for patients to
receive their own blood – for example, in a series of blood donations in anticipation of an
operation scheduled some months in advance. The second best system is to undertake cross-
matching, which involves simply mixing samples of the patients’ blood with the donors’,
then checking microscopically for clumping – a key sign of incompatibility. Both of these
systems are obviously impractical in an emergency situation, which is why meticulous
testing, documentation, and labeling of blood are necessary.
G In a true emergency, a blood bank is needed, with an array of various types of blood
on hand. Hence, blood donations must be a regular occurrence among a significant segment
of the population. In the developed world, unpaid volunteers provide most of the blood for
the community, whereas in less developed nations, families or friends are mostly involved.
In the era of HIV and other insidious blood – borne diseases, potential donors are carefully
screened and tested, and a period of about two months is recommended before successive
whole blood donations.
H Given the vital role which blood plays, it is strange to think that for almost 2000 years
bloodletting was a widespread medical practice. It was based on the belief that blood carried
‘humours’, whose imbalances resulted in medical illnesses. Bleeding a patient was supposed
to remove an undesirable excess of one of these. Furthermore, the fact that blood circulated
around the body was unknown. It was instead assumed to be quickly created, and equally
quickly exhausted of its value, after which it could stagnant unhealthily in the bodily
extremities. Although the logic was there, it goes without saying that very few patients
responded positively to such treatment.
(SOURCE: IELTS TEST PRACTICE BOOK)
Questions 1-8
The Reading has eights paragraphs, A-H. Choose the correct heading for each paragraph
from the list of headings below.
LIST OF HEADINGS
i Not as big, but needing just enough
ii Some attitudes to blood
iii Good, but not so quick
iv Two ideas see a wrong conclusion
v Complicated identification
vi An interesting treatment
vii A shorter life, but just as important
viii The principal part that adds some colour
ix Bone marrow and blood
x Maintaining supplies

1. Paragraph A ……………
2. Paragraph B ……………
3. Paragraph C ……………
4. Paragraph D ……………
5. Paragraph E ……………
6. Paragraph F ……………
7. Paragraph G ……………
8. Paragraph H ……………
Your answer:
1. Paragraph 2. Paragraph 3. Paragraph 4. Paragraph
A _____ B _____ C _____ D _____

5. Paragraph 6. Paragraph 7. Paragraph 8. Paragraph

E _____ F _____ G _____ H _____

Questions 9-12: Complete the table

Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage for each answer
Blood Component Associated Fact

Red cells Upon dying, dealt with by

(9)_____________

White cells Require (10)______________before

attacking invaders

Platelets Their numbers need careful

(11)______________

(12)__________________ Many varieties exist

Your answer:
9. 10. 11. 12.

PART IV: WRITING (60 POINTS)

Question 1. Rewrite the following sentences, keeping their meaning unchanged,
beginning with the words given.
1. It's all a matter of money, in the end.
It all comes ....................................................................................................................
2. The total came to just under £4,000.
The total worked ............................................................................................................
3. In the end we had to walk to the railway station.
We ended .......................................................................................................................
4. All that stood between John and the gold medal was Jim's greater speed.
But for ............................................................................................................................
5. In this deserted village not a single man they have found.
Not a single man ............................................................................................................
Question 2. Use the word(s) given in brackets and make any necessary additions to
write a new sentence in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the
original sentence. Do NOT change the form of the given word(s).
1. There is nothing strange about this. (OUT)
.................................................................................................................................................
.
2. I haven't realized yet what winning this race means. (SUNK)
.................................................................................................................................................
.
3. When he was a child, he loved dismantling things - to see how they worked. (PIECES)
.................................................................................................................................................
.
4. You made an embarrassing mistake when you asked him where his wife was. Didn't you
realize that she was dead? (FOOT)
.................................................................................................................................................
.
5. I happen to know the manager of the firm you've applied to for a job. I can recommend
you if you like.
(WORD)
.................................................................................................................................................
.

Part 3: Composition (30 pts)

It has now been observed that many high school students are unprepared to respond in
acceptable ways to situations in school, and less so in a wider social environment. Some
educators argue that the school curriculum should emphasize the development of
students’ life skills rather than knowledge. Others are against this proposal because they
think knowledge is the most important to career success in a knowledge-based economy.
In what extent do you agree? You can write about 250 words, using reasons and examples
to support your position.

TEST 10
PART I. LISTENING

I. Listen to the recording twice. Write NO MORE THAN 3 WORDS for each answer.
Former Facebook workers said this week that the …………. …..……….. (1) company often
avoided letting news …..……..……..(2) among conservative Americans appear in its
“Trending” section. The former workers told the website Gizmodo that they were told to
select stories to include in the Trending list, even if those stories were not actually trending.
The former workers also said they were told not to include …..……..…….. (3) about
Facebook itself into the trending list.
One of the former workers told Gizmodo that the …..……..…….. (4) “had a chilling effect on
conservative news.” Another accused Facebook of being biased in its …..……..…….. (5) of
trending topics. The controversy did become the No. 1 trending topic on Facebook for part of
the day Monday. Many Facebook users were surprised that the company …..……..…….. (6)
the discussion to even appear in its Trending section.
The Associated Press reported Tuesday that a Facebook …..……..…….. (7) said the company
has found no …..……..……..(8) to support the former workers’ claims. Tom Stocky, a
company vice president, wrote in a Facebook post that the company does not permit political
views to be …..……..……..(9). Meanwhile, the U.S. Senate Commerce Committee
chairperson has sent a letter to Facebook CEO Mark Zuckerberg. The chair, John Thune, is a
Republican. In the letter, he asked Zuckerberg to …..……..…….. (10) to several questions
about the company’s alleged practice of suppressing conservative news.
II. Listen to the recording TWICE, then write the answers for the following questions.
1. Why are plants disappearing?

2. According to the scientists, who should do more to create protected areas?

3. How many new plants do scientists identify each year?

4. What are benefits of sundews?

5. What is botany?

III. Listen to the recording twice then select the best response to each question by
circling the letter A, B, C or D.
1. Which countries are increasing clothing manufacturing jobs fast?
A. Bangladesh and Pakistan
B. India and Sri Lanka
C. Vietnam and Cambodia.
D. Vietnam and India
2. In Sri Lanka how many percentages of clothing factory workers are women?
A. about two-fourths
B. about two-thirds
C. about one-third
D. about two-fifths
3. How much are workers in Indian paid an hour?
A. more than one dollar.
B. about 50 cents.
 C. about $2.50.
D. less than one dollar.
4. How many clothing workers died in the collapse of an eight-story building in Bangladesh?
A. less than 1,100
B. more than 11,000
C. more than 100
D. more than 1,100
5. According to the World Bank study, how many people work in the clothing industry?
A. About five billion people
B. About five million people.
C. About five hundred million people.
D. About fifty million people.

II.LEXICO- GRAMMAR (50/200 pts)

Part 1: Choose the best answer A, B, C or D to each of the following sentences and
write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (20pts)

1. He’s a tough politician- he knows how to _________the storm.

A. run down B. keep up C. push back D. ride out

2. You must _________ work. Otherwise you’ll end up with an unimaginable backlog of
tasks.

A. portion B. assign C. delegate D. entrust

3. I’m so _________ under with work at the moment – it’s awful!

A. snowed B. iced C. rained D. fogged

4. His public announcement of the secret plans was dealt a sheer_________ of confidence
and was heavily criticized by other members of the council.

A. damage B. breach C. crash D. fracture

5. Don’t call Pam just now. Something has gone wrong with the computer; she’s _________
because she can’t get the data she needs.

A. in a stew B. out of a rut C. in the swim D. under the

sink

6. The needs of gifted children in schools have long been _________neglected.

A. dolefully B. woefully C. idly D. Pathetically

7. A sharp frost _________ the beginning of winter.
A. advertised B. predicted C. heralded D. showed
8. The old man led a _________ existence after she left and refused even to see his children.

A. reclusive B. deserted C. remote D. vacant

9. Having planned our weekends to watch football, we found the news of the home team’s
players’ strike most _________.

A. disconcerting B. refreshing C. activating D. debilitating

10. Dominant individuals may use _________ gestures to underline their power.
A. submissive B. expansive C. flirtatious D. nervous
11. The elderly are particularly _________ to this form of illness.
A. wimpy B. weak C. vulnerable D. trivial
12. It was Alice’s year: a new home, a better job – everything just clicked into _________.
A. spot B. position C. space D. place

13. Serena is still _______ ignorant of the fact that she is about to be made redundant.

A. blissfully B. delightedly C. jubilantly D. ecstatically

14. The UN has called for an immediate _______ of hostilities.

A. cessation B. deletion C. cancellation D. ceasefire

15. Although the twins look identical, they have widely _______ opinions on almost every
topic under the sun.

A. dissimilar B. divergent C. distinct D. distinguished

16. We'd all been at school together for 12 years and at our leaving celebrations we _______
eternal friendship.

A. pledged B. undertook C. confided D. assured

17. It was a close _______ but we just made it to the airport on time for our flight.

A. run B. drive C. call D. go

18. Not many people are good at assessing their own abilities and Mark must be _______ for
recognising that he would never become a great musician.

A.merited B. advocated C. commended D. talented

19. The recently discovered documents _______ credence to Professor Vaughan's

interpretation of events.

A. lend B. provide C. afford D. supply

20. The princess's nanny's autobiography really gives the _______ on life among the royals.

A. know-how B. low-down C. look-out D. show-down

Your answers:
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

Part 2: Write the correct form of each bracketed word in the corresponding numbered
boxes. (10pts)
 Non-Verbal Communication

Sociological research points to the theory that certain ways of positioning or moving the
body have a direct (1-CORRELATE) ___________ with how one is perceived. People emit
an aura of strength or power dependent on posture, gestures and eye movement. Quick,
enthusiastic, (2- MEAN) ___________ movements and gestures suggest a dynamic, alert
person. People who look at, and maintain eye contact with their audience while conversing
with them exude confidence and (3- FEAR) ___________

Somebody who is relaxed enough to stand before his audience without any(4- VISION)
___________ signs of stress exudes self- assuredness and honesty. Even though these people
are comfortable in their stance, they hold themselves erect and avoid looking round-
shouldered or hunched over. Being lazy with one’s posture could be (5- INDICATE)
___________of defeat, while standing tall and proud paints a picture of one who is in charge.

Being conscious of one’s posture and gestures when sitting is also (6- CONDUCT)
___________ to creating the right impression on the (7- HOLD) ___________. When one
wishes to appear self-assured and knowledgeable in an important (8- PERSON)
___________ situation where sitting is required, a high, straight-backed chair should be
chosen when possible. Placing and clasping the hands behind the head, with elbows stretched
to the sides, adds to the impression of comfortable (9- ASSERT) ___________. It also keeps
the hands under control and out of danger of (10- WANT) ___________ fidgeting

Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Part 3: The passage below contains 10 errors. Underline the errors and write the
corrections in the corresponding numbered boxes. (10pts)
The shift from silent to sound film in the end of the 1920 marks, so far, the most important
transformation in motion picture history. Despite all the highly visible technological
developments in theatrical and home delivery of the moved image that have occurred over
the decades since then, no single innovation has come closely to being regarded as a similar
kind of watershed. In nearly every language, however the words are phrased, the most basic
division in cinema history lies in films that are mute and films that speak.
Yet this most fundamental standard of historic periodization conceals a host of paradoxes.
Nearly every movie theater, although modest, had a piano or organ to provide musical
accompaniment to silent pictures. In many instances, spectators in the era before recording
sound experienced elaborate aural presentations alongside movies' visual images, from the
Japanese benshi (narrators) crafting multivoiced dialogue narrative to originally musical
compositions performed by symphony-size orchestras in Europe and the United States.
Beyond that, the triumph of recorded sound has overshadowed the rich diversity of
technological and aesthetic experiments with the visual image that were going forward
simultaneously in the 1920s. New color processes, larger or differently shaped screen sizes,
multiple-screen projections, even television, were among the developments invented or tried
out during the period, sometimes with startle success.
Your answers:
Example: 0. in->at (line 1)
1. 6.
2. 7.
3. 8.
4. 9.
5. 10.

III.READING (50/200 points)

Part 1: Read the following passages and decide which answer A, B, C or D best fits each
gap. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (10pts)

Peoples' personalities vary considerably from one another as there are no two alike. Our
ingrained characteristics which determine the patterns of our behaviour, our reactions and
temperaments are unparalleled on (1) ________of the diversified processes that mould our
personality in the earliest (2) ________of human development.

Some (3) ________ of character may to some extent be hereditary simulating the attributes
that (4) ________ our parents. Others may(5) ________ from the conditions experienced
during pregnancy and infancy in this way reflecting the parents' approach towards (6)
________ their offspring.

Consequently, the environmental factor (7) ________a crucial role in strengthening or

eliminating certain behavioural systems making an individual more prone to (8) ________ to
the patterns that deserve a prize.

Undoubtedly, human personality(9) ________ the most profound and irreversible formation
during the first period of its development, yet, certain characteristics may still be (10)
________ to considerable changes conditioned by different circumstances and situations.

1. A. account B. means C. token D. event

2. A. states B. instants C. terms D. stages

3. A .factors B. traits C. items D. breeds

4. A. identify B. recognize C. associate D. pertain

5. A. rise B. relate C. stem D. formulate

6. A. breeding B. rearing C. growing D. yielding

7. A. makes B. does C. finds D. plays

8. A. comfort B. pledge C. aquiesce D. obey

9. A .undergoes B. undertakes C. underacts D. underlies

10. A. practicable B. feasible C. subject D. potential

Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Part 2: Fill each of the following numbered blanks with ONE suitable word and write
your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes (10pts)
Aggression has long been a natural feature of human behavior, perhaps ever since the
emergence of the earliest hominids. However, there is no (1) ________for organized group
conflict before about 12,000 years ago. The development of (2) ________conflict was
closely linked to changes in economy and society, (3) ________ probably became more
serious after the adoption of agriculture. Larger population put greater pressure on land and
resources, and thus increased tension between neighbors. Settled farmers also had food
stores, herd animals and standing crops to steal. The stresses associated with the emergence
of more hierarchical societies (4) ________ over by chiefs and kings may (5) ________ have
played an important part in the growth of inter-group conflict.
As human communities became organized into larger units (6) ________ warfare they waged
became even more lethal. States had greater resources (7) ________ for aggression, defence
and the development of new weapons. The (8) ________ records of ancient societies tell of
full time specialists employed by the state to produce armor and weaponry, and expensively-
equipped elite forces (9)________ into being. Sometimes the (10) ________social and
economic order was molded around the Demands of warfare. The feudal system of medieval
Europe, for example, had as one of its principal objectives, the maintenance of a force of
armored knights.
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
Part 3:: Read the following passage and choose the best answer (A, B, C or D). Write
your answers (A, B, C or D) in the corresponding numbered boxes.
Archaeological records-paintings, drawings, and carvings of humans engaged in activities
involving the use of hands - indicate that humans have been predominantly right-handed for
more than 5,000 years. In ancient Egyptian artwork, for example, the right hand is depicted
as the dominant one in about 90 percent of the examples. Fracture or wear patterns on tools
also indicate that a majority of ancient people were right-handed.
Cro-Magnon cave paintings some 27,000 years old commonly show outlines of human hands
made by placing one hand against the cave wall and applying paint with the other. Children
today make similar outlines of their hands with crayons on paper. With few exceptions, left
hands of Cro-Magnons are displayed on cave walls, indicating that the paintings were
usually done by right-handers. Anthropological evidence pushes the record of handedness in
early human ancestors back to at least 1.4 million years ago. One important line of evidence
comes from flaking patterns of stone cores used in toolmaking: implements flaked with a
clockwise motion (indicating a right-handed toolmaker) can be distinguished from those
flaked with a counter-clockwise rotation (indicating a left-handed toolmaker).
Even scratches found on fossil human teeth offer clues. Ancient humans are thought to have
cut meat into strips by holding it between their teeth and slicing it with stone knives, as do
the present-day Inuit. Occasionally the knives slip and leave scratches on the users' teeth.
Scratches made with a left-to-right stroke direction (by right-handers) are more common than
scratches in the opposite direction (made by left-handers).
Still other evidence comes from cranial morphology: scientists think that physical differences
between the right and left sides of the interior of the skull indicate subtle physical differences
between the two sides of the brain. The variation between the hemispheres corresponds to
which side of the body is used to perform specific activities. Such studies, as well as studies
of tool use, indicate that right- or left-sided dominance is not exclusive to modern Homo
sapiens. Populations of Neanderthals, such as Homo erectus and Homo habilis, seem to have
been predominantly right-handed, as we are.

1. What is the main idea of the passage?

A. Human ancestors became predominantly right-handed when they began to use
tools.
B. It is difficult to interpret the significance of anthropological evidence
concerning tool use.
C. Humans and their ancestors have been predominantly right-handed for over a
million years.
D. Human ancestors were more skilled at using both hands than modern
humans.
2. What does the author say about Cro-Magnon paintings of hands?
 A. Some are not very old.
B. It is unusual to see such paintings.
C. Many were made by children.
D. The artists were mostly right-handed.
3. The word "depicted" in the first paragraph refers to ________.
A. written B. portrayed C. referred D. mentioned
4. When compared with implements "flaked with a counter-clockwise rotation”, it can be
inferred that "implements flaked with a clockwise motion" are ______.
A. more common B. larger
C. more sophisticated D. older
5. The word "cranial morphology" in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to ______.
A. the form of crane B. the form of study
C. the study of physical bodies D. the study of skulls
6. The fact that the Inuit cut meat by holding it between their teeth is significant because
______.
A. the relationship between handedness and scratches on fossil human teeth can be
verified
B. it emphasizes the differences between contemporary humans and their
ancestors
C. the scratch patterns produced by stone knives vary significantly from
patterns produced by modern knives
D. it demonstrates that ancient humans were not skilled at using tools
7. The word "hemispheres" in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to _______.
A. differences B. sides C. activities D. studies
8. Why does the author mention Homo erectus and Habilis in the last paragraph?
A. To contrast them with modern humans
B. To explain when human ancestors began to make tools
C. To show that early humans were also predominantly right-handed
D. To prove that the population of Neanderthals was very large
9. All of the following are mentioned as types of evidence concerning handedness EXCEPT
_______.
A. ancient artwork B. asymmetrical skulls
C. studies of tool use D. fossilized hand bones
10. Which of the following conclusions is suggested by the evidence from cranial
morphology?
A. Differences in the hemispheres of the brain probably came about relatively
recently
B. There may be a link between handedness and differences in the brain's
hemispheres.
C. Left-handedness was somewhat more common among Neanderthals.
 D. Variation between the brain's hemispheres was not evident in the skulls of Homo
erectus and Homo habilis.

Part 4: Read the passage and do the task that follow (20pts)

Moles happy as homes go underground

A. The first anybody knew about Dutchman Frank Siegmund and his family was when
workmen tramping through a field found a narrow steel chimney protruding through the
grass. Closer inspection revealed a chink of sky-light window among the thistles, and when
amazed investigators moved down the side of the hill they came across a pine door complete
with leaded diamond glass and a brass knocker set into an underground building. The
Siegmunds had managed to live undetected for six years outside the border town of Breda, in
Holland. They are the latest in a clutch of individualistic homemakers who have burrowed
underground in search of tranquillity.
B. Most, falling foul of strict building regulations, have been forced to dismantle their
individualistic homes and return to more conventional lifestyles. But subterranean suburbia,
Dutch-style, is about to become respectable and chic. Seven luxury homes cosseted away
inside a high earth-covered noise embankment next to the main Tilburg city road recently
went on the market for $296,500 each. The foundations had yet to be dug, but customers
queued up to buy the unusual part-submerged houses, whose back wall consists of a grassy
mound and whose front is a long glass gallery.
C. The Dutch are not the only would-be moles. Growing numbers of Europeans are
burrowing below ground to create houses, offices, discos and shopping malls. It is already
proving a way of life in extreme climates; in winter months in Montreal, Canada, for
instance, citizens can escape the cold in an underground complex complete with shops and
even health clinics. In Tokyo builders are planning a massive underground city to be begun
in the next decade, and underground shopping malls are already common in Japan, where 90
percent of the population is squeezed into 20 percent of the landspace.
D. Building big commercial buildings underground can be a way to avoid disfiguring or
threatening a beautiful or 'environmentally sensitive' landscape. Indeed many of the buildings
which consume most land -such as cinemas, supermarkets, theatres, warehouses or libraries -
have no need to be on the surface since they do not need windows.
E. There are big advantages, too, when it comes to private homes. A development of 194
houses which would take up 14 hectares of land above ground would occupy 2.7 hectares
below it, while the number of roads would be halved. Under several metres of earth, noise is
minimal and insulation is excellent. "We get 40 to 50 enquiries a week," says Peter
Carpenter, secretary of the British Earth Sheltering Association, which builds similar homes
in Britain. "People see this as a way of building for the future." An underground dweller
himself, Carpenter has never paid a heating bill, thanks to solar panels and natural insulation.
F. In Europe the obstacle has been conservative local authorities and developers who prefer
to ensure quick sales with conventional mass produced housing. But the Dutch development
was greeted with undisguised relief by South Limburg planners because of Holland's chronic
shortage of land. It was the Tilburg architect Jo Hurkmans who hit on the idea of making use
of noise embankments on main roads. His twofloored, four-bedroomed, twobathroomed
detached homes are now taking shape. "They are not so much below the earth as in it," he
says. "All the light will come through the glass front, which runs from the second floor
ceiling to the ground. Areas which do not need much natural lighting are at the back. The
living accommodation is to the front so nobody notices that the back is dark."
G. In the US, where energy-efficient homes became popular after the oil crisis of 1973,
10,000 underground houses have been built. A terrace of five homes, Britain's first
subterranean development, is under way in Nottinghamshire. Italy's outstanding example of
subterranean architecture is the Olivetti residential centre in Ivrea. Commissioned by
Roberto Olivetti in 1969, it comprises 82 one-bedroomed apartments and 12 maisonettes and
forms a house/ hotel for Olivetti employees. It is built into a hill and little can be seen from
outside except a glass facade. Patnzia Vallecchi, a resident since 1992, says it is little
different from living in a conventional apartment.
H. Not everyone adapts so well, and in Japan scientists at the Shimizu Corporation have
developed "space creation" systems which mix light, sounds, breezes and scents to stimulate
people who spend long periods below ground. Underground offices in Japan are being
equipped with "virtual" windows and mirrors, while underground departments in the
University of Minnesota have periscopes to reflect views and light.
I. But Frank Siegmund and his family love their hobbit lifestyle. Their home evolved when
he dug a cool room for his bakery business in a hill he had created. During a heatwave they
took to sleeping there. "We felt at peace and so close to nature," he says. "Gradually I began
adding to the rooms. It sounds strange but we are so close to the earth we draw strength from
its vibrations. Our children love it; not every child can boast of being watched through their
playroom windows by rabbits.
Questions 1-15
Reading Passage has nine paragraphs (A-I). Choose the most suitable heading for each
paragraph from the list of headings below.
NB There are more headings than paragraphs so you will not use all of them.
                       List of Headings

  i    A designer describes his houses

 ii    Most people prefer conventional housing

iii    Simulating a natural environment

iv    How an underground family home developed

v     Demands on space and energy are reduced

vi    The plans for future homes

vii   Worldwide examples of underground living accommodation

viii  Some buildings do not require natural light

ix    Developing underground services around the world

 x     Underground living improves health

xi    Homes sold before completion

xii   An underground home is discovered

1 Paragraph A
2. Paragraph B
3. Paragraph C
4. Paragraph D
5. Paragraph E
6. Paragraph F
7. Paragraph G
8. Paragraph H
9. Paragraph I
Questions 10-15
complete the sentences below with words taken from the reading passage. Use NO MORE
THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. Write your answers in boxes 10-15 10. Many
developers prefer mass-produced houses because they ..............
11. The Dutch development was welcomed by ............
12. Hurkmans’ houses are built into ............
13. The Ivrea centre was developed for .............
14. Japanese scientists are helping people ............. underground life.
15. Frank Siegmund’s first underground room was used for ...........

IV. WRITING (5.0 points)

I. Write a new sentence so that it has the same meaning as the original sentence: (10
points)
1. I am having a lot of trouble now because I lost my passport last week.
-> If I_______________________________________________________
2. She had hardly begun to speak before people started interrupting her.
 -> Hardly___________________________________________________
3. “Nothing will persuade me to sleep in that haunted house”, she said
-> She flatly____________________________________________
4. I was too scared to tell him what I really thought.
-> I lacked______________________________________________
5. The house shouldn’t be left unlocked for any reason
-> On no____________________________________________________
II. Write a new sentence so that it has the same meaning as the original sentence, using
the word in capital letters. This word must not be altered in any way. (10 points)
6. We don’t expect that the missing climbers have survived. (HOLD)
______________________________________________________________________
7. Pauline isn’t one of the people who know the secret. (ON)
______________________________________________________________________
8. You must make allowances for his inexperience. (ACCOUNT)
______________________________________________________________________
9. I really don't know what you're talking about. (FAINTEST)
______________________________________________________________________
10. You must accept the fact that she has left you. (TERMS)
______________________________________________________________________

Part 3: Essay writing

Some people say that online learning is the most effective and convenient way to learn.
Others say that online learning will never be as effective as learning at a real school, in
person.

Discuss both these views and give your own opinion.

Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your own
knowledge or experience.

You should write about 250 words.