Republic of the Philippines

Department of Education
Cordillera Administrative Region
Schools Division of Abra
BAAY NATIONAL HIGH SCHOOL
Tumalip, Baay-Licuan,Abra

Name: ________________________________________ Date: _____________

Grade 12 – Topaz Score: ____________
Practical Research 2
Quarter 2 Summative Test

Directions: Read and analyze the statements below. Write the letter of the correct answer before each number.
1. *What is the aim Ex post facto research design?
a. determine a cause from already existing effects.
b. establish cause and effect relationship
c. observe and describe a phenomenon
d. identify association among variables
2. “Effects of Type of Music to Aesthetic Performance of Ballet Dancers”, what is the appropriate research design for the
given title?
a. Correlational c. Survey Research
b. Descriptive d. Experimental
3. Mr. Canuc would like to know further the type of social media used between the male and female SHS students of East
Pagat National High School. What is the appropriate research design to be used in his study?
a. Quasi-Experimental c. Correlational
b. Experimental d. Descriptive
4. Based on item number 3, what appropriate statistical test should Mr. Canuc used to answer his research problem?
a. T-test for two dependent samples c. Chi-square
b. Spearman’s rho d. ANOVA
5. Which of the following statements is true about the conduct of experimental research?
a. There is no random assignment of individuals.
b. Individual subjects are randomly assigned.
c. Groups are exposed to presumed cause.
d. Intact groups are used.
6. What is the difference between quasi-experimental research and experimental research?
a. Only one dependent variable is used in quasi-experimental research, while multiple dependent variables can be used
in quasi-experimental research.
b. Intact groups are used in experimental, while quasi-experimental randomly assigned individuals into groups.
c. Participants for groups are randomly selected in experimental, but not quasi-experimental research.
d. The researcher controls the intervention in the experimental group, but not quasi-experimental research.
7. Why would a researchers choose to use Simple Random Sampling as a sampling technique?
a. To consider giving equal chance to the member of accessible population being selected as part of the study.
b. To make sure that all subcategories of the population are represented in the selection of sample.
c. To group the entire population into clusters since the location of the samples are widely spread.
d. To systematically choose samples from a given list of individuals.
8. When can we consider a research sample as "best?"
a. representative of population c. conveniently represented
b. systematically chosen d. purposely selected
9. What research design aims to determine a cause from already existing effects?
a. Descriptive Research Design c. Quasi-Experimental Research
b. Correlational Research Design d. Ex Post Facto
10. What research design is often conducted in a controlled setting with corresponding research treatment?
a. Correlational c. Survey Research
b. Ex post facto d. Experiment
11. It is a gathering information about a certain condition by using senses.
a. Observation* c. Experiment
b. Survey d. None of the above
12. It is also known as “logical validity.” It calls for an initiative judgment of the instruments as it “appear.” Just
by looking at the instrument, the researcher decides if it is valid.
a. Face validity* c. Construct validity
b. Content validity d. Predictive validity
13. The following statements are characteristics of a good research except one.
a. Concise c. Valid and unreliable*
b. Sequential d. Easily tabulated
14. The Ability Test has been proven to predict the writing skills of Senior High School students. What type of test validity is
shown in the example?
a. Construct Validity c. Content Validity
b. Criterion Validity d. Face Validity
15. What common scaling technique consists of several declarative statements that express viewpoint on a topic?
a. Semantic Differential Scale
b. Completion Type
c. Observation Checklist
d. Likert Scale
16. **Which of the following is definitely a statistic?
a. the median family income in the Philippines
b. the mean number of absences per day in one school district during one school year
c. the range of running times at the Milo Marathon
d. the percentage of defective units in a random sample of units produced at a manufacturing plan*
17. crossbreak table is used for analyzing the data obtained for
a. one categorical variable. c. two categorical variables.*
b. one quantitative variable. d. two quantitative variables.
18. When indices such as the mean or median are calculated from the entire population, they are called
a. medians. c. modes.
b. parameters.* d. analysis.
19. Of the two fundamental types of numerical data, those which differ in degree or amount and are reported in terms of
numbers and values are called
a. quantitative.* c. categorical.
b. statistical. d. parameters.
20. Normal distribution is best described when
a. researchers draw a smooth curve instead of the series of straight lines in a frequency polygon.
b. the tail of the distribution trails off to the left, in the direction of the lower, more negative, score values.
c. the tail of the distribution trails off to the right, in the direction of the higher, more positive, score values.
d. the large majority of scores are concentrated in the middle of the distribution, and the scores decrease in frequency
the father away from the middle they are.*
21. What is the mode in the following distribution? 25, 17, 23, 23, 24, 25, 23
a. 25 c. 17
b. 23* d. 24

22. When should researchers ask potentially sensitive questions during an interview?
a. Throughout the interview
b. At the beginning of the inventory to get them out of the way
c. Toward the end of the interview
d. At the midpoint of the interview to allow time for the researcher to build rapport
23. How can ill-designed questionnaires affect survey participants?
a. Can make them question the survey's purpose
b. Can decrease their response rate
c. Can decrease their desire to answer personal questions
d. Can make them take their time to complete the survey
24. Which is the advantage in using personal interviews to collect marketing data?
a. Biased interviewer c. Limited interaction
b. Slow collection rate d. High flexibility
25. Which is an example of a marketing-research method that is used to collect primary data?
a. Customer survey c. Trade-journal article
b. Census data d. External reports
26. The SBU Company developed a survey in which respondents are provided the same number of favorable and
unfavorable rating options. Which type of scale is included with this survey?
a. Sequential b. Spliced
 c. Balanced d. Continuous
27. ***Which of the following is an unethical practice in research?
a. Informing participants that they are free to backout at any time
b. Requiring the participants to continue until the study is done
c. Assuring participants of confidentiality of gathered data
d. Securing informed consent
28. Which of the following is not considered part of descriptive statistic values?
a. Standard deviation c. Pearson’s r
b. Variance d. Mean
29. What kind of correlation exists when two variables have no relationship with each other?
a. Strong Negative Correlation c. Negative Correlation
b. Strong Positive Correlation d. No Correlation
30. Which one of the following is an advantage of using questionnaire?
a. It can encourage the participants to be open to the researchers since their identity can be made anonymous.
b. Some participants will not be able to complete the required responses
c. Questionnaires may lack depth of answers from participants.
d. Some will not be able to return the questionnaire on time.
31. A study is conducted to determine the relationship between the time spent in studying and scores in a quarterly exam
among 100 students of GRSHS-X. The result shows a correlational value of 0.98. What is the interpretation of this
obtained result?
a. The amount of time spent on studying is strongly associated with the score in a quarterly exam.
b. The amount of time spent on studying is not associated with the score in a quarterly exam.
c. The score in a quarterly exam is moderately associated with the amount of time spent on studying.
d. The score in a quarterly exam is negatively associated with the amount of time spent on studying.
32. Which of these is not a method of data collection?
a. Questionnaires c. Experiments
b. Observations d. Interviews
33. A correlation coefficient enables you to:
a. quantify the strength of the relationship between variables.
b. evaluate whether two variables measure the same values.
c. measure the difference between two quantities
d. establish whether the data is exact.
34. What is the outcome when you reject the null hypothesis when it is false?
a. Incorrect decision c. Type I Error
b. Correct decision d. Type II Error
35. Which of the following is a graph that uses a line to represent data?
a. A vertical graph c. A line graph
b. A pie chart d. A bar chart
36. Which of the following is not necessary when preparing your data analysis?
a. Create a conclusion after gathering your data.
b. Encode and organize your data for analysis.
c. Prepare your research instruments.
d. Begin gathering your data.
37. **** “It refers to the reality of what would happen if certain situations are satisfied.” The definition refers to what type of
research implications?
a. Theoretical Implication c. Practical Implication
b. Conceptual Implication d. Realistic Implication
38. Which of the following parts of a research paper is NOT included in the concluding part of the research paper?
a. Conceptual and Theoretical Framework c. Conclusions of the Study
b. Recommendations of the Study d. Summary of the Findings
39. “It makes logical connections between the various parts of the arguments starting from the hypotheses.” This statement,
describes what part of the research study?
a. Recommendations of the Study c. Conclusions of the Study
b. Summary of the Findings d. Implications of the Study
40. In presenting the conclusion of the study, what should be the guide of the researcher?
a. Scope and Delimitation of the Study c. Operational Definition of Terms
b. Research Questions of the Study d. Statistical Tests Used
41. What part of the study answers the stated research inquiry?
a. Recommendations of the Study c. Conclusions of the Study
b. Summary of the Findings d. Implications of the Study
42. Which of the following contents of the summary of findings is considered as the most important?
a. Research findings from which the conclusion will be derived.
b. Brief restatement of the research methodology.
c. List of research questions and hypothesis.
d. Overall purpose or objective of the study.
43. What is the purpose of the theoretical implications in your conclusion part of the research study?
a. reflect how literature presented supports or contrasts the findings
b. reflect the results and findings based on reality
c. be indicated in your recommendations
d. be an important theory
44. Which part of the research conclusion refers to the logical relation of the current findings and its link to the theory used in
the study?
a. Recommendations of the Study c. Summary of Findings
b. Research Implications d. Research Limitations
45. Which of the following statements is the main purpose of recommendations of your research study?
a. provide a beneficial guide to resolve certain issues that can possibly result in a
beneficial outcome.
b. explain the methodology of your study.
c. discuss the benefits of the participants.
d. long and narrated like a story.
46. Which of the following suggestions should you use in writing your conclusion?
a. a clear and simple language. c. high jargon sentences
b. mathematical symbols. d. highfalutin words.
47. What is the researchers’ basis for crafting suggestions for future research on related field?
a. Conceptual Framework of the Study c. Summary of Findings of the Study
b. Scope and Delimitation of the Study d. Conclusions of the Study
48. Which of the following types of research implications is also called convenient implications?
a. Theoretical Implication c. Practical Implication
b. Conceptual Implication d. Realistic Implication
49. Which of the following parts of the research paper answers the research questions of the study?
a. Recommendations of the Study c. Summary of Findings
b. Conclusion of the Study d. Abstract of the Study
50. Which of the following parts of the research paper refers to the brief restatement of the overall components of the study?
a. Recommendations of the Study c. Summary of Findings
b. Conclusion of the Study d. Abstract of the Study

Prepared by: Checked by:

REGOR B. VELASCO HECTOR S. LOPEZ
Teacher III/SHS Principal I
 Republic of the Philippines
Department of Education
Cordillera Administrative Region
Schools Division of Abra
BAAY NATIONAL HIGH SCHOOL
Tumalip, Baay-Licuan,Abra

Name: ________________________________________ Date: _____________

Grade 12 – Topaz Score: ____________

HOPE 3
Quarter 2 Summative Test

Matching Type:
Directions: Match Column A with Column B. Write the letter of the correct answer before each number.

1. *An illness that can be caused by exposure to extreme heat.

a. heat stroke c. heat stress
b. fatigue d. hypothermia
2. Exertional heat stroke may be caused by which of the following?
a. Confinement in a hot care c. Strenuous physical exercise
b. Exposure to high temperatures and humidity d. Being kept in a conservatory in the summer
3. It occurs when your blood pressure drops and blood flow to the brain is temporarily reduced.
a. hyperthermia c. heat syncope
b. fatigue d. body overheating
4. It tends to occur in people who have a diminished ability to regulate body temperature, such as older people, very young
children or people with chronic illnesses.
a. Nonexertional heat stroke c. heat stress
b. Exertional heat d. hypothermia
5. What part of the exercise workout can also reduce the strain on the heart imposed by rapidly engaging in heavy exercise, and
may reduce the risk of muscle and tendon injuries?
a. cool-down c. strength activities
b. warm - up d. aerobic activity
6. A medical emergency that occurs when your body loses heat faster than it can produce heat, causing a dangerously low body
temperature.
a. heat stroke c. heat stress
b. fatigue d. hypothermia
7. What is the largest component of the human body?
a. skin c. water
b. carbon d. calcium
8. When dehydration occurs, the blood becomes:
a. thicker c. thinner
b. colder d. none of the above
9. A heat- related condition characterized by an abnormally high body temperature.
a. heat stroke c. hypothermia
b. overexertion d. hyperthermia
10. During early stages of hypothermia, heart rate will _________.
a. increase c. decrease
b. stay the same d. stop
11. A condition whose symptoms may include heavy sweeting, rapid pulse and heat cramps.
a. body overheating c. osteoarthritis
b. hypothermia d. fatigue
12. Which of the following clinical signs is not associated with heatstroke?
a. Disseminated intravascular coagulopathy c. Tachycardia
b. Hypothermia d. Collapse
13. A term used to describe an overall feeling of tiredness or lack of energy
a. heat stroke c. heat stress
b. fatigue d. hypothermia
14. This occurs when people push themselves too hard during physical activities like dancing.
a. heat stroke c. hypothermia
b. overexertion d. hyperthermia
15. occurs when someone is vigorously active in a hot environment, such as playing sports on a hot summer day or participating
in military training activities.
a. Nonexertional heat stroke c. heat stress
b. Exertional heat d. hypothermia
16. **Why do we have to assess physical fitness activities?
a. The tests are considered the starting point for designing an appropriate program.
b. The activities provides a clear and effective program in attaining the goal.
c. The evaluation program ensures one will not be at risk of harm.
d. The physical fitness target is reliable and fitness-oriented to work on.
17. Why is there a need to evaluate the outcomes of physical activity?
a. To determine which method is essential to the fitness enthusiast.
b. To test the effectiveness of the program until the end.
c. To assess whether the condition of the participant improves or not.
d. To know if one’s body is improving after consistent physical activity.
18. The target heart rate determines whether a person’s heart rate is __________.
a. above the moderate intensity level. c. within the target zone during the activity.
b. below the perceived exertion. d. towards maximal exertion.
19. Metabolic Equivalent (MET) is the unit used to measure the amount of oxygen used by the body during ____________.
a. physical exertion c. physical assessment
b. physical activity d. physical rest
20. Examples of moderate activities are the following, EXCEPT for one. Which one is it?
a. jogging c. social tennis
b. brisk walking d. recreational swimming
21. Examples of vigorous activities are the following, EXCEPT for one. Which one is it?
a. Cleaning the windows at home. c. Aerobics
b. Lifting, Carrying and Digging d. Wrestling
22. Examples of light activities are the following, EXCEPT for one. Which one is it?
a. sweeping the floor c. vacuuming
b. walking slowly d. washing windows
23. A method that involves an easy way to estimate intensity of activities is called a _____.
a. Compendium test c. Speed test
b. Talk test d. Consumption test
24. It is a behaviour that involves bodily movements resulting in energy expenditure.
a. Stress rejuvenator c. Physical activity
b. Thermal assessmen d. Exercise expenditure
25. ***They work with the athletes and guide them. They help them in preventing, diagnosing and treating the injuries.
a. Athletic trainer c. Independent personal trainer
b. Fitness trainer d. Physical therapist
26. They are commonly work in gyms, fitness centers, and health clubs. They need to be in excellent shape as he is the one who
has to guide others regarding body and shape.
a. Athletic trainer c. Independent personal trainer
b. Fitness trainer d. Physical therapist
27. They are the one who make use of exercise to treat the patients and cure them who are sick, disabled or injured.
a. Athletic trainer c. Independent personal trainer
b. Fitness trainer d. Physical therapist
28. They teach and guide people on how to use food to keep themselves fit and achieve their desired athletic and health goals.
a. Athletic trainer c. Diietitian
b. Fitness trainer d. Physical therapist
29. They help people recover from the injuries and the illness which has impacted them from working again in a better manner.
They uses different exercises and various other techniques to assist patients to regain their fitness and strength.
a. Athletic trainer c. Massage therapist
b. Fitness trainer d. Physical therapist
30. They help the injured people to recover by treating their muscle tissues which causes them pain while they play the sports or
do any other activity.
a. Athletic trainer c. Sports trainer
b. Fitness trainer d. Physical therapist
31. ***A Health-and Dance Related Career that works on a team and like the technological aspects of putting together a show and
being on a production crew can give an inside look at what really happens backstage.
a. Stage Management/Production Crew c. Choreographer/Director
b. Company Managing/Administration d. Lighting Designer/Set Designer
32. A Health-and Dance Related Career that seeks out venues in organizing international tours, company managers are at the
heart of it all. They make many of the important decisions that help keep dance companies working and performing.
a. Stage Management/Production Crew c. Choreographer/Director
b. Company Managing/Administration d. Lighting Designer/Set Designer
33. This Health-and Dance Related Career makes all the magic happen on stage that works on lighting design, creating sets can
give artistic, creative souls a rewarding career path in the theater without actually being on stage.
a. Stage Management/Production Crew c. Choreographer/Director
b. Company Managing/Administration d. Lighting Designer/Set Designer
34. This Health-and Dance Related Career can run and own a dance company or choreographing for Broadway, this may take
your dance knowledge and embark on a creative own career. It’s a difficult path with many of the same pitfalls as a
performance career, but many people find they are more suited to creating dances than performing them.
a. Stage Management/Production Crew c. Choreographer/Director
b. Company Managing/Administration d. Lighting Designer/Set Designer
35. This Health-and Dance Related Career makes advice articles to performance reviews, which can be an integral part of the
dance community by using language to support the field of dance
a. Physical Therapist c. General Arts Administration
b. Dance Writer d. Yoga/Pilates/Somatic Teacher
36. A Health-and Dance Related Career that supports the arts where administrative-minded accounting to development, from
programming to facilities management, and can carve out a place for themselves among the people who make it possible for
dancers to rehearse, create, and eventually perform on stage.
a. Physical Therapist c. General Arts Administration
b. Dance Writer d. Yoga/Pilates/Somatic Teacher
37. A Health-and Dance Related Career teaches dance in a related-field, in which these movement practices are both good
alternatives and complements to dance training, to make it feel naturally drawn to these fields
a. Physical Therapist c. General Arts Administration
b. Dance Writer d. Yoga/Pilates/Somatic Teacher
38. A Health-and Dance Related Career that loves to sew and stay connected to the world of dance and performance. In
collaboration with directors/choreographers and often lighting/set designers, can be an integral part of an entire production’s
visual design.
a. Costume Designer c. Photographer/ Videographer
b. Public School Teacher d. Group Fitness Instructor
39. This Health-and Dance Related Career makes photos for marketing materials for personal headshots and for websites video
record of their work for both archival and promotional purposes
a. Costume Designer c. Photographer/ Videographer
b. Public School Teacher d. Group Fitness Instructor
40. This Health-and Dance Related Career can apply in many colleges dance programs that offers a K-12 certification that will
allow to teach dance in public schools, as well as other subjects. This can be a rewarding way to use the creativity of dance in
an educational format.
a. Costume Designer c. Photographer/ Videographer
b. Public School Teacher d. Group Fitness Instructor

Prepared by: Checked by:

REGOR B. VELASCO HECTOR S. LOPEZ
Teacher III/SHS Principal I

Republic of the Philippines

 Department of Education
Cordillera Administrative Region
Schools Division of Abra
BAAY NATIONAL HIGH SCHOOL
Tumalip, Baay-Licuan,Abra

Name: ________________________________________ Date: _____________

Grade 11 – Ruby Score: ____________
HOPE 1
Quarter 2 Summative Test

Directions: Read and analyze the statements below. Write the letter of the correct answer before each number.

1. *If you want to be of help in improving public nutrition standards, helping peoplerecover their fitness after an injury, or just
improving a person's overall wellness, a career in health and fitness may be right for you. This statement is ____.
a. True c. cannot be determined
b. False d. none of the above
2. In No. 1, degree and certification programs such as the following is an option,except.
a. nutrition c. physical therapy
b. athletic training d. aqtuarian
3. In No. 2, these trainings can lead to careers as, except?
a. nutritionists c. personal trainers
b. fitness trainers d. CEOs
4. In the fields in number 2, one must be outgoing, in good health, organized, havegood communication skills and able to
motivate others.
a. True c. cannot be determined
b. False d. none of the above
5. Career opportunities await students inclined in health and fitness. They canpursue a career in the following fields, except.
a. Professional athlete c. Sports trainer
b. Athletic coach d. Lawyering
6. The increasing problems of overweight and obesity among many teenagers iscorrelated with the rise of modern
technology. This statement is ____.
a. True c. cannot be determined
b. False d. none of the above
7. It is an organized mass of people, often with political or organizational goals,marching and gathering usually on the streets
with slogans/ protest/ theatrical acts.
a. Fiesta c. Festival dance
b. Cheer dance d. Rally
8. It is an event, joined by different competing individuals/ teams which has the maingoal of sports competition to see who
is/are the strongest/ fit/ fastest/etc.
a. sport fiesta c. mass demonstration
b. sports fest d. cheer dance
9. Which of the following usually takes place outdoors and lasts overnight in a tent ortemporary shelter for leisure and
enjoyment?
a. camping c. mass demonstration
b. sports fest d. All of the above
10. Which of the following is the process of designing and developing an activity/activities and considered to be the most
important part of the success of every activity?
a. Organizing c. Performing
b. Participating d. Planning
11. Which of the following is an event where activities are designed for the purposeof becoming fit because it is more
intensive than what you normally do every day?
a. Physical Activity c. Fitness event
b. Exercise d. All of the above
12. Which of the following is associated with number 10 and happens before anyevent in a very systematic orderly manner?
a. Organizing c. Performing
b. Participating d. Planning
13. Which of the following is the ability to voluntary act on something without beingtold that produces a good result which
meet the need of others.
a. Organized b. Participative
 c. Initiative d. Flexible
14. Which of the following is the ability to join and take part in an activity?
a. Organized c. Initiative
b. Participative d. Flexible
15. Which of the following is/are the benefit/s of fitness activity
a. Body-fat weight loss
b. Build more muscle
c. Improve flexibility
d. all of the above
16. **It is a feeling of being under abnormal pressure.
a. abnormalities c. sadness
b. behavioral problems d. stress
17. Based on the lesson, stress affects us in a number of ways, both ___________and ___________
a. physically and biologically c. physically and holistically
b. physically and emotionally d. physically and spiritually
18. Excessive or prolonged stress can contribute to illness such as heart diseaseand mental health problems such as
________ and _______.
a. anxiety and depression c. emotion and anxiety
b. depression and emotion d. psychosis and dementia
19. Scientists have found that regular participation in aerobic exercise has beenshown to decrease overall levels of tension
elevate and stabilize mood,improve sleep, and improve self _______.
a. analysis c. esteem
b. destruction d. focus
20. It is defined as any bodily movement produced by skeletal muscles thatrequire energy expenditure.
a. Aerobics activity c. Physical activity
b. Dance lesson d. None of the above
21. It is an exercise that usually includes moderate to vigorous activity thatmakes you feel a bit warm, causes your breathing
to increase and your heart rate to increase.
a. aerobic exercise c. fitness
b. aerobic fitness d. zumba
22. It pertains to sports played alone without teammates.
a. Dual c. Team
b. Individual d. Trio
23. This type of sports can be played by two people opposing each other, Moreso, it also develops teamwork and
coordination since it needs both to win thegame.
a. Dual c. Team
b. Individual d. Trio
24. Knowing how to manage time properly and identifying the prioritiesassociated with proper __________ is considered one
of the best remedy tofight and reduce stress.
a. Analysis c. Performance
b. Composition d. Physical activitie
25. Good body composition includes _____.
a. increase range of motion c. weightlifting for muscles
b. increase range of movement d. All of the Above
26. Push-ups are the best exercise when improving _____.
a. cardiovascular endurance c. body composition
b. muscular strength and endurance d. flexibility
27. Sprint is a type of event where in the athlete runs over _____.
a. an obstacle c. short distance
b. long distance d. None of the Above
28. Jumping events in athletics includes _____.
a. hop, hog, walk d. hurdles, long distance, middle distance, relay,
b. discus throw, hammer throw, javelin throw sprint
c. high jump, long jump, pole vault, triple jump
29. The following are exercises to improve cardiovascular endurance. Which does not belong to the group?
a. Power Walking c. Swimming
b. Running d. Weightlifting
30. Mel wants to improve her cardiovascular endurance. What program should she include in her training routine?
a. Aerobic Training c. Flexibility Training
b. Agility Training d. Strength Training
31. Which is the standard distance of hurdler race for men?
a. 80 and 100m c. 110 and 400m
b. 100 and 400m d. 150 and 250m
32. The following are the different events in athletics. Which of these is a field event?
a. High Jump c. Shotput
b. Relay d. Triple Jump
33. Lee wants to improve power. Which health-related component should he focus on?
a. Cardiovascular Endurance c. Muscular Endurance
b. Flexibility d. Muscular Strength
34. Health-related fitness refers to the _____.
a. ability to do well in activities and sports.
b. skills that enables one to become and stay physically healthy.
c. ability of the muscles to perform against a force over an extended period of time.
d. maximum amount of force of the muscles that can produce in a single effort.
35. Chloe monitors her target heart rate. What part of fitness does she measure?
a. Intensity for flexibility
b. Time for cardiovascular endurance
c. Frequency for muscular endurance
d. Intensity for cardiovascular endurance
36. ****Muscle weighs more than fat.
a. True b. False
37. Maintaining physical fitness requires major lifestyle changes.
a. True b. False
38. "No pain, no gain" is a workout myth.
a. True b. False
39. Weight loss should be the most important goal of fitness and exercise.
a. True b. False
40. You should warm up before exercising.
a. True b. False
41. The more you sweat during a workout, the more fat the body is burning.
a. True b. False
42. A desirable level of fitness can be achieved through at least _______ workouts per week.
a. 3 c. 5
b. 4 d. 6
43. Older adults are least likely to benefit from physical activity.
a. True b. False
44. Active people need extra protein or protein supplements to build muscles.
a. True b. False
45. Even moderate exercise reduces the risk of heart disease, diabetes, hypertension, and obesity.
a. True b. False
46. Crunches and sit-ups are the best way to lose belly fat.
a. True b. False
47. Does muscle burn calories even when the body is at rest?
a. No b. Yes
48. Working out at a gym will provide the best results.
a. True b. False
49. The workout term aerobic exercise is interchangeable with which term?
a. Ballistic c. Cardio
b. Anabolic d. Metabolism
50. Strength training, such as lifting weights, will result in a bulky appearance.
a. True b. False

Prepared by: Checked by:

REGOR B. VELASCO HECTOR S. LOPEZ
Teacher III/SHS Principal I

Republic of the Philippines

Department of Education
 Cordillera Administrative Region
Schools Division of Abra
BAAY NATIONAL HIGH SCHOOL
Tumalip, Baay-Licuan,Abra

Name: ________________________________________ Date: _____________

Grade 11 – Ruby Score: ____________
ENTREPRENEURSHIP
Quarter 2 Summative Test

Directions: Write True if the statement is correct & write False if you think the answer is not correct.

1. Which of the following is the process or activities by which a company adds value to an article, including
production, marketing, and the provision of after-sales service?
a. 4Ms of production c. Value Chain
b. Supply Chain d. Business Model
2. Benjie is engage in buying and selling shoes in his neighborhood. He gets his stocks from a local shoes dealer.
Suppose each pair costs 1, 200.00 and Benjie add 50% mark-up. How much is the mark-up price?
a. 500.00 c. 700.00
b. 600.00 d. 800.00
3. Assuming no returns outwards or carriage inwards, the cost of goods sold will be equal to:
a. Sales less gross profit
b. Opening stock plus purchases plus closing stock
c. Closing stock less purchases plus opening stock
d. Purchases plus closing stock less opening stock
4. Which section of a business plan is generally first but written last?
a. Business description and vision c. Executive summary
b. Appendices d. Description of market
5. Is the process of evaluating risks, performance, financial health, and future prospects of a business by subjecting
financial statement data to computational and analytical techniques with the objective of making economic
decisionsHorizontal analysis.
a. Horizontal analysis c. Ratio analysis
b. Vertical analysis d. Financial statement analysis
6. Statement I- Manpower in production operation refers to the workers involved in the production of goods.
Statement II- Machine refers to the raw materials needed in the production of a product.
a. Statement I is true. c. Both statements are true.
b. Statement II is true. d. Both statements are false
7. Costs incurred through payment of utilities such as electricity and water –
a. Revenue c. Free
b. Mark-up d. Operating Expenses
8. Gross profit less expenses is known as:
a. Total drawings c. C.Net turnover
b. Cost of goods sold d. Net profit
9. What is typical timeframe that a business plan addresses?
a. One year c. At least three to five years
b. the anticipated life of the business d. At least five years
10. Is a technique for evaluating a series of financial statement data over a period of time with the purpose of
determining the increase or decrease that has taken place. Also called trend analysis.
a. Horizontal analysis c. Ratio analysis
b. Vertical analysis d. Financial statement analysis
11. Which of the following is a replica of a product as it will be manufactured, which may include such details as
color, graphics, packaging and instructions?
a. Prototype c. Supplies
b. Materials d. Outputs
12. Which of the following is a system of organizations, people, activities, information, and resources involved in
 moving a product or service from supplier to customer.
a. Business Model c. Supply chain
b. Suppliers d. Value Chain
13. The selling price of an item or merchandise is computed by adding cost per unit and __________?
a. Revenue c. Discount
b. Mark Up d. Number of Items
14. It is a tool that allows managers to make educated estimates on revenue and costs of the business in order to
cope up with uncertainties of the future –
a. Estimating c. Forecasting
b. Guessing d. Benchmarking
15. Net turnover can be calculated as:
a. Sales plus returns inwards
b. Gross profit plus cost of goods sold
c. Sales less returns outwards
d. Purchases plus opening stock less returns outwards
16. Which of the following would not appear in the profit and loss account?
a. Drawings c. Cash expenses.
b. Carriage outwards. d. Rent received
17. What is the biggest mistake you can make when preparing a business plan?
a. Not telling a compelling story
b. Forgetting the executive summary
c. Failing to include at least one appendix
d. Misrepresenting facts
e. Failing to have a clear vision of the business
18. This section will discuss information about your business, your goals and the customers you plan to serve.
a. Executive summary c. Marketing plan
b. Company description d. Financial projection
19. Is a technique that expresses each financial statement item as a percentage of a base amount. Also called
common-size analysis.
a. Horizontal analysis c. Ratio analysis
b. Vertical analysis d. Financial statement analysis
20. Which of the following best describes recruitment?
a. A.tools to produce goods or to generate services
b. B.process by which a business seeks to hire the right person for a vacancy
c. C.marketing copy that explains what a product is and why it's worth purchasing
d. D.rationale of how an organization creates, delivers, and captures value in economic, social, cultural or
other contexts
21. Which of the following is a set of procedures and instructions?
a. Value chain c. Manpower
b. Supply chain d. Methods
22. Claire is a fish vendor selling at the local public market. He gets his fish from a supplier at 100.00 pesos per kilo
and sells it at160.00 45 per kilo to his customers. How much mark-up did Claire add to his selling price?
a. 40.00 c. 60.00
b. 50.00 d. 70.00
23. Refers to the amount added to the cost of a product to determine the selling price –
a. Revenue c. Mark Up
b. Cost d. Mark Down
24. The correct double-entry to transfer commission received for the year to the profit and loss account is: The
correct double-entry to transfer commission received for the year to the profit and loss account is:
Debit Credit
a. A Trading Commission received
b. B Commission received Profit and loss
c. C Profit and loss Commission received
d. D Commission received Trading

25. What is an entrepreneur?

a. Someone who invests time and money to start a business.
 b. Someone who makes a lot of money.
c. Someone who takes a risk to make a profit.
d. Both A & C.
26. This section of your business plan will show that you know the ins and outs of the industry and the specific
market you are planning to enter.
a. Executive summary c. Competitive analysis
b. Marketing plan d. Market analysis
27. Your rival in the industry is called?
a. Competitor c. Lending firms
b. Suppliers d. Board of directors
28. Expresses the relationship among selected items of financial statement data. The relationship is expressed in
terms of a percentage, a rate, or a simple proportion.
a. Horizontal analysis c. Ratio analysis
b. Vertical analysis d. Financial statement analysis
29. Statement I- A product description is the marketing copy that explains what a product is and why it's worth
purchasing. Statement II- Educational qualifications and experience is one of the criteria in considering
manpower.
a. Statement I is false. c. Both statements are true.
b. Statement II is false. d. Both statements are false.
30. Statement I- Value chain is the process or activities by which a company adds value to an article, including
production, marketing, and the provision of after-sales service. Statement II- A supply chain is a system of
organizations, people, activities, information, and resources involved in moving a product or service from
supplier to customer.
a. Both statements are true. c. Statement I is false.
b. Both statements are false. d. none of the above.
31. Merchandise or goods purchased are referred to as –
a. Costs c. Expenses
b. Purchases d. Loss
32. Refers to goods and merchandise at the end of operation of business or accounting period.
a. Merchandise Inventory, end c. Expenses
b. Freight-in d. Merchandise Inventory, beg.
33. Gross profit is the
a. Amount of money you get for profit lab.
b. Amount of money collected from selling products
c. Amount of money your product costs to produce
d. Has nothing to do with money.
34. Net profit is the:
a. Amount of money you get for profit lab.
b. Amount of money collected from selling products.
c. Amount of money your product costs to produce.
d. Has nothing to do with money.
35. The diagram showing your workers in the organization with their job responsibilities is called?
a. Organizational perspective c. Organizational chart
b. Organizational layout d. Organizational diagram
36. Promotional activity is found in which section of your business plan?
a. Management section c. Marketing section
b. Financial section d. Company description section
37. Measure the ability of the company to generate income from the use of its assets and invested capital as well as
control its cost.
a. Solvency ratio c. Profitability ratio
b. Liquidity ratio d. Acid-test ratio
38. Statement I- . Output represents the final products from the production process and distributed to the
customers. Statement II- The 4Ms in the production operation are the materials, manpower, machine and
money.
a. Both statements are true. c. Statement I is false.
b. Both statements are false. d. Statement II is false.
39. Which of the following is the marketing copy that explains what a product is and why it's worth purchasing?
 a. Production method c. Business model
b. Product description d. Prototyping
40. Mang Antolin sells bottled water in nearby public bus terminal, every day he can sell 30 pieces of bottled water
at 20 pesos each. How much is his daily revenue?
a. 900.00 c. 800.00
b. 700.00 d. 600.00
41. Measure the ability of the company to generate income from the use of its assets and invested capital as well as
control its cost.
a. Solvency ratio c. Liquidity ratio
b. Profitability ratio d. Acid-test ratio
42. The following are financial records of ABC C • Revenues – 20,000 • Rent expense – 3,000 • Salaries expense –
4,000 • Utilities expense – 2,000 How much is the total expenses?
a. P9,000 c. P 18,000
b. P10,000 d. P1,000
43. How much is the net income?
a. P9,000 c. P 18,000
b. P10,000 d. P1,000
44. All of the following is an income statement accounts, except.
a. Rent expense c. Accounts receivable
b. Service fees d. Insurance expense
45. All of the following is an balance sheet accounts, except.
a. Cash c. Depreciation expense
b. Equipment d. Accumulated depreciation
46. One of the account title below is used in making an adjusting entry.
a. Liability c. Asset
b. Prepayments d. Capital
47. A financial statement that reports the Asset, Liability and Owner’s equity of the business.
a. Income statement c. General journal
b. Balance sheet d. General ledger
48. A financial statement that reports the Sales or Income received, Expenses and the Net income of the business.
a. Income statement c. General journal
b. Balance sheet d. General ledger
49. Is a book used to record journal entries called the book of original entry.
a. Income statement c. General journal
b. Balance sheet d. General ledger
50. Is a book used to record account balances called the book of final entry.
a. Income statement c. General journal
b. Balance sheet d. General ledger

Prepared by: Checked by:

REGOR B. VELASCO HECTOR S. LOPEZ
Teacher III/SHS Principal I