Aircraft Instrument System 8.

How would an airspeed indicator be marked to

show the best rate – of – climb speed (one engine
1. An aircraft instrument panel is electrically inoperative)?
bonded to the aircraft structure to a. A red radial line.
a. Act as a restraint strap. b. A blue radial line.
b. Provide current return paths. c. A green arc.
c. Aid in the panel installation.
9. An aircraft magnetic compass is swung to up-
2. Magnetic compass bowls are filled with a liquid date the compass correction card when
to a. An annual inspection is accomplished on the
a. Retard precession of the float. aircraft.
b. Reduce deviation errors. b. The compass is serviced.
c. Dampen the oscillation of the float. c. Equipment is added that could effect compass
deviation
3. A barometric altimeter indicates pressure
altitude when the barometric scale is set at 10. Which instruments are connected to an
a. 29.92” Hg. aircraft’s static pressure system only?
b. 14.7” Hg. 1. Vertical speed indicator
C. Field elevation 2. Cabin altimeter
3. Altimeter
4. The red radial lines on the face of an engine oil 4. Cabin rate – of – change indicator
pressure gauge indicates 5. Airspeed indicator
a. Minimum engine safe RPM operating range. a. 1 and 3
b. Minimum precautionary safe operating range. b. 2, 4, and 5
c. Minimum and/or maximum safe operating c. 2 and 4
limits.
11. When swinging a magnetic compass, the
5. The method of mounting aircraft instruments in compensators are adjusted to correct for
their respective panels depends on the a. Magnetic influence deviation
a. Instrument manufacturer. b. Compass card oscillations
b. Design of the instrument case. c. Magnetic variations
c. Design of the instrument panel.
12. The operation of an angle – of – attack
6. A bourdon tube instrument may be used to indicating
indicate system is based on detection of differential
1. Pressure pressure at
2. Temperature. a point where the airstream flows in a direction
3. Position. a. Not parallel to the true angle of attack of the
a. 1 and 2 aircraft.
b. 1 b. parallel to the angle of attack of the aircraft
c. 2 and 3 c. parallel to the longitudinal axis of the aircraft.

7. What will be the result if the instrument static 13. Which procedure should you useif you find a
pressure line becomes disconnected inside a vacuum – operated instrument glass loose?
pressurized cabin during cruising flight? a. Mark the case and the glass with a slippage mark.
a. The altimeter and airspeed indicator will both b. Replace the glass.
read low. c. Install another instrument.
b. The altimeter and airspeed indicator will both
read high. 14. When an aircraft altimeter is set at 29.92” Hg on
c. The altimeter will read low and the airspeed the ground, the altimeter will read
indicator will read high. a. Pressure altitude.
b. Density altitude.
c. Field elevation.
15. A radar altimeter determines altitude by 21. The function of a symbol generator (SG) in an
a. Transmitting a signal and receiving back a EFIS is to
reflected signal. a. Display alphanumeric data and representations
b. Receiving signals transmitted from ground radar of aircraft instruments.
stations. b. Allow the pilot to select the appropriate system
c. Mean of transponder interrogation. configuration for the current flight situation.
c. Receive and process input signals from aircraft
16. The requirements for testing and inspection of and engine sensors and send the data to the
instrument static systems required by Section appropriate display.
91.411 are contained in
a. Type certificate data sheets. 22. A turn coordinator instrument indicates
b. AC 43.13 – 1A a. The longitudinal attitude of the aircraft during
c Part 43, appendix E. climb and descent.
b. The need for corrections in the pitch and bank.
17. The function of a display controller in an EFIS is c. Both roll and yaw.
to
a. Display alphanumeric data and representations 23. Which instrument are connected to an aircraft’s
of aircraft instruments. pitot-static system?
b. Allow the pilot to select the appropriate system 1. Vertical speed indicator
configuration for the current flight situation. 2. Cabin Altimeter
c. Receive and process input signals from aircraft 3. Altimeter
and engine sensors and send the data to the 4. Cabin rate – of – change indicator
appropriate display. 5. Airspeed indictor.
a. 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5.
18. Which of the following instruments b. 1, 2, and 4.
discrepancies would require replacement of the c. 1, 3, and 5
instrument?
1. Red line missing. 24. Turbine engine exhaust gas temperatures are
2. Case leaking. measured by using
3. Glass cracked a. Iron/constantan thermocouples.
4. Mounting screws loose. b. Chromel/ alumel thermocouples.
5. Case paint chipped. c. Ratiometer electrical resistance thermometers.
6. Leaking at line B nut
7. Will not zero out. 25. (1) Aircraft instruments are coded to direct
8. Fogged. attention to operational ranges and limitations.
a. 2, 3, 7, 8. (2) Aircraft instruments range markings are not
b. 1, 4, 6, 7. specified by Title 14 of the Code Federal
c. 1, 3, 5, 8. Regulations but are standardized by aircraft
manufacturers. Regarding the above statements,
19. A certificated mechanic with airframe and a. Only No. 1 is true.
powerplant ratings may b. Only No. 2 is true
a. Perform minor repairs to aircraft instruments. c. Both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.
b. Perform minor repairs and minor alterations to
aircraft instruments. 26. What must be done to an instrument panel that
c. Not perform repairs to aircraft instruments. is supported by shock mounts?
20. What is the fixed line mark attached to the a. Bonding straps must be installed across the
compass bowl of a magnetic compass called? instrument mounts as a current path.
a. Reeder line. b. The instrument mounts must be grounded to the
b. Lubber line. aircraft structure as a current path.
c. Reference line. c. The instrument mounts must be tightened to the
specified torque required by the maintenance
manual.
27. Aircraft instrument value should be marked and 33. Which instrument condition is acceptable and
graduated in accordance with would not require correction?
a. The instrument manufacturer’s specifications. 1. Red line missing.
b. Both the aircraft and engine manufacturers’ 2. Case leaking.
specifications. 3. Glass cracked
c. The specific aircraft maintenance or flight 4. Mounting screws loose.
manual. 5. Case paint chipped.
6. Leaking at line B nut
28. Data transmitted between components in an 7. Will not zero out.
EFIS are converted into 8. Fogged
a. Digital signals. a. 1
b. Analog signals. b. 5
c. Carrier wave signals. c. None.

29. Resistance-type temperature indicators using 34. A synchro transmitter is connected to a synchro
Wheatstone bridge or ratiometer circuits may be receiver.
used to indicate the temperatures of which of the a. Mechanically through linkage.
following? b. Electromagnetically without wires.
1. Free air. c. Electrically with wires.
2. Exhaust gas temperature
3. Carburetor air. 35. Which condition would be most likely to cause
4. Coolant (engine). excessive vacuum in a vacuum system
5. Oil Temperature. a. Vacuum pump overspeed.
6. Cylinder head temperature. b. Vacuum relied valve improperly adjusted.
a. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6 c. Vacuum relief valve spring weak.
b. 1, 3, 4, and 5
c. 1, 2, 3, and 6 36. What does a reciprocating engine manifold
pressure gauge indicate when the engine is not
30. Which of the following instruments will operating?
normally have range markings? a. Zero Pressure.
a. Altimeter. b. The differential between the manifold pressure
b. Cylinder head temperature gauge, airspeed and the atmospheric pressure.
indicator. c. The existing atmospheric pressure.
c. Altimeter, airspeed indicator.
37. What marking color is used to indicate if a cover
31. How many of the following are controlled by glass has slipped?
gyroscopes? a. Red.
1. Attitude Indicator. b. White.
2. Head indicator. c. Yellow.
3. Turn needle of the turn-and-slip
indicator. 38. If a static pressure system check reveals
a. Three. excessive leakage, the leak(s) may be located by
b. Two. a. Pressurizing the system and adding leak
c. One. detection dye.
b. Isolating portions of the line and testing each
32. Aircraft instrument panels are generally shock- portion systematically starting at the instrument
mounted to absorb connections.
a. All vibration. c. Removing and visually inspecting the line
b. Low-frequency, high-amplitude shocks. segment.
c. High-frequency, high-amplitude shocks.
39. Who is authorized to repair an aircraft 46. How is a flangeless instrument case mounted in
instrument? an instrument panel?
1. A certified mechanic with an airframe a. By four machine screws which extend through
rating. the instrument panel.
2. A certified repairman with an airframe b. By an expanding-type clamp secured to the back
rating. of the panel and tightened by a screw from the
3. A certified repair station approved for front of the instrument panel.
that class instrument. c. By a metal shelf separate from and located
4. A certified airframe repair station. behind the instrument panel.
a. 1, 2, 3 and 4
b. 3 and 4 47. When installing an instrument in an aircraft,
c. 3 who is responsible for making sure it is properly
marked?
40. Instrument panel shock mounts absorb a. The aircraft owner.
a. High energy impact shocks caused by hard b. The instrument installer
landings. c. The instrument manufacturer.
b. Low frequency, high-amplitude shocks.
c. High G shock loads imposed by turbulent air. 48. Cases for electrically operated instruments are
made of
41. Aircraft temperature thermocouple leads may a. Aluminum or composite cases.
a. Not be altered and are designed for a specific b. Iron or steel cases
installation. c. Bakelite or plastic cases.
b. Be installed with either lead to either post of the
indicator. 49. When flags such as NAV, HDG, or GS are
c. Be repaired using solderless connectors. displayed on an HIS, the indication is
a. The function is inoperative
42. The maximum deviation (during level flight) b. That function is operating
permitted in a compensated magnetic direction c. To call attention to deviation from the desired
indicator installed on an aircraft certificated under setting, or flight path, or heading, ect.
Federal Aviation Regulation Part 23 is
a. 6° 50. A radar altimeter indicates
b. 8° a. Flight level (pressure) altitude.
c. 10° b. Altitude above sea level.
c. Altitude above ground level.
43. The green arc on an aircraft temperature gauge
indicates 51. Instrument static system leakage can be
a. The instrument is not calibrated. detected by observing the rate of change in
b. The desirable temperature range. indication of the
c. A low, unsafe temperature range. a. Airspeed indicator after suction has been applied
to the static system to cause a prescribed
44. Fuel flow transmitters are designed to transmit equivalent airspeed to be indicated.
data b. Altimeter after pressure has been applied to the
a. Mechanically static system to cause a prescribed equivalent
b. Electrically altitude to be indicated.
c. Utilizing fluid power. c. Altimeter after suction has been applied to the
static system to cause a prescribed equivalent
45. The maximum altitude loss permitted during an altitude to be indicated.
unpressurized aircraft instrument static pressure
system integrity check is
a. 50 feet in 1 minute.
b. 200 feet in 1 minute.
c. 100 feet in 1 minute.
52. Which statement regarding an aircraft 57. Where may a person look for the information
instrument vacuum system is true? necessary to determine the required markings on
a. Dry-type vacuum pumps with carbon vanes are an engine instruments?
very susceptible to damage from solid airborne 1. Engine manufacturer’s specifications.
particles and must take in only filtered air. 2. Aircraft flight manual.
b. Vacuum systems are generally more effective at 3. Instrument manufacturer’s specifications.
high altitudes that positive pressure systems. 4. Aircraft maintenance manual.
c. If the air inlet to each vacuum instrument is a. 2 or 4
connected to a common atmospheric pressure b. 1 or 4
manifold, the system generally will be equipped c. 2 or 3
with individual instrument filters only.
58. The lubber line on a directional gyro is used to
53. When an unpressurized aircraft’s static pressure a. Represent the nose of the aircraft.
system is leak checked to comply with the b. Align the instrument glass in the case.
requirements of Section 91.411, what aircraft c. Represent the wings of the aircraft.
instrument may be used in lieu of a pitot-static
system teste? 59. When performing the static system leakage
1. Vertical speed indicator. check required by Section 91.411, the technician
2. Cabin altimeter. utilizes
3. Altimeter. a. Static pressure.
4. Cabin rate-of-change indicator. b. Positive pressure.
5. Airspeed indicator. c. Negative pressure.
a. 1 or 5.
b. 2 or 4. 60. A certificated mechanic may perform
c. 3 a. Minor repairs to instruments.
b. 100-hour inspection if instruments.
54. Which of the following causes of aircraft c. Instrument overhaul.
magnetic compass inaccuracies may be
compensated for by mechanics? 61. Which of the following instrument discrepancies
a. Deviation. could be corrected by an aviation mechanic?
b. Magnetic compass current. 1. Red line missing.
c. Variation. 2. Case leaking.
3. Glass cracked
4. Mounting screws loose.
5. Case paint chipped.
6. Leaking at line B nut
7. Will not zero out.
8. Fogged
55. The function of a CRT in an EFIS is to a. 1, 4, 6.
a. Allow the pilot to select the appropriate system b. 3, 4, 5, 6.
configuration for the current flight situation. c. 1, 4, 5, 6.
b. Display alphanumeric data and representations
of aircraft instruments.
c. Receive and process input signal from aircraft and
engine sensors and send the data to the
appropriate display.

56. The operating mechanism of most hydraulic

pressure gauges is
a. A bourdon tube.
b. An airtight diaphragm.
c. An evacuated bellows filled with an inert gas to
which suitable arms, levers and gears are attached.
Communication and Navigation System 7. (Refer to Figure 15) what is the approximate drag
load on an antenna with a frontal area of .137
1. What component is the sensing device in an square feet installed on an aircraft with a speed of
electromechanical autopilot system? 275 MPH?
a. Servo.
b. Gyro.
c. Controller.
a. 3.387 pounds.
2. After an automatic direction finding antenna has b. 3.741 pounds.
been installed, the c. 3.592 pounds.
a. Antenna must be grounded.
b. Loop must be calibrated. 8. An aircraft antenna installation must be
c. Transceiver must be compensated grounded
a. To the airframe.
3. (Refer to Figure 29) what kind of antenna is this? b. To the engine.
c. To the radio rack.

9. On modern large aircraft, what electronic device

typically monitors flight parameters and performs
autopilot functions.
a. Flight management computer.
b. Transponder.
c. Control/display unit.
a. A glide slope antenna.
b. A VOR and localizer antenna. 10. In the landing configuration GPWS typically
c. A radar beacon transponder antenna. monitors the radio (radar) altimeter; air data
computer; instrument landing system; and
4. Doublers are used when antennas are installed to a. Aileron, rudder, and elevator positions.
a. Eliminate antenna vibration. b. Landing gear and flap positions.
b. Preventing oil canning of the skin. c. Spoiler, slat, and stabilizer position.
c. Reinstate the structural strength of the aircraft
skin. 11. How may the battery replacement date be
verified for an emergency locator transmitter (ELT)?
5. When an antenna is installed, it should be a. By removing the batteries and testing them
fastened under a measured load to determine if 50 percent
a. To the primary structure at the approximate of the useful life remains.
intersection of the three aircraft axes. b. By observing the battery replacement date
b. With a reinforcing doubler on each side of the marked on the outside of the transmitter.
aircraft skin. c. By activating the transmitter and measuring the
c. So that loads imposed are transmitted to the signal strength.
aircraft structure.
12. (Refer to Figure 16) which of the antennas
6. (Refer to Figure 25) what kind of antenna is this? shown is a typical DME antenna?
a. A dipole antenna. a. 1
b. A canted antenna. b. 2
c. A Marconi antenna. c. 4
13. (Refer to Figure 24) what kind of antenna is
this? 19. A gasket or sealant is used between the antenna
mast and fuselage skin
a. To prevent the entry of moisture.
b. For aircraft pressurization only.
c. To prevent abrasion between the antenna mast
and fuselage skin.

20. The addition of avionics and associated antenna

systems forward of the CG limit will affect
a. A dipole antenna. a. Empty weight and useful load.
b. A Marconi antenna. b. CG limits and useful load.
c. A loop antenna. c. Useful load and maximum gross weight.

14. (Refer to Figure 26) where is the strongest 21. How much clearance from the seat bottom is
signal for this antenna? required when installing radio equipment under a
a. Below the antenna. seat?
b. Above the antenna. a. 3 inches with the seat unoccupied.
c. Ahead of the antenna. b. No set minimum as long as the equipment
receives adequate cooling and damage protection.
c. 1 inch with the seat occupied and subjected to
maximum downward seat spring deflection.

22. (Refer to Figure 32) what kind of antenna is

15. When installing coaxial cable, it should be

secured firmly along its entire length
a. At 1-foot interval. this?
b. Wherever the cable sags. a. A lightning detector system antenna.
c. At 2-foot intervals. b. A marker beacon receiver antenna.
c. A radar beacon transponder antenna.
16. The purpose of a glideslope system is to
a. Provide for automatic altitude reporting to air 23. (Refer to Figure 23) what is this antenna is this?
traffic control.
b. Indicate the distance the airplane is from the end
of the runway.
c. Assist the pilot in making a correct angle of
descent to the runway.

17. Part of the ADF system used on aircraft includes

a. RMI indicator antenna. a. This is an altitude encoder used with
b. Marker beacon antenna. transponders.
c. Sense and loop antennas. b. This is a TCAS receiver used with monitoring and
alerting systems.
18. In which control element of an autopilot system c. This is an aircraft radar beacon transponder used
is an attitude indicator? for location identification.
a. Command.
b. Sensing.
c. Input.
24. When must the emergency locator transmitter 30. In an autopilot, which signal nullifies the input
(ELT) battery be replaced (other than reading the signal to the ailerons?
replacement date) a. Displacement signal.
a. When the transmitter has been in use for more b. Course signal.
than one cumulative hour. c. Followup signal.
b. Must be replaced annually or if the five G switch
has been activated. 31. What characteristics of the installation of a rigid
c. When the transmitter has been tested more than antenna on a vertical stabilizer should be
ten times. evaluated?
a. Polarization and impedance.
25. What is the main purpose of a servo in an b. Impedance and interference.
autopilot system? c. Flutter and vibration.
a. Correct for displacement of the aircraft about its
axis. 32. When would a U.S. resident NOT be required to
b. Change mechanical energy to electrical energy. hold a Federal Communications Commission (FCC)
c. Move the control surface as commanded. Restricted Radio Telephone Operator Permit to
operate two – way aircraft VHF radio equipment?
26. When bending coaxial cable, the bend radius a. When flying to or communicating with
should be at least destinations outside the United States.
a. 10 times the diameter of the cable. b. When flying or communicating within the
b. 15 times the diameter of the cable. United States.
c. 20 times the diameter of the cable. c. When the radio equipment is operated in aircraft
certified for VFR flight only.
27. A fully integrated autopilot controls the aircraft
around how many axes? 33. An emergency locator transmitter (ELT) is
a. Two. normally activated by an inertial switch or
b. Three. equivalent mechanism if subjected to a force of a
c. Four. prescribed intensity and duration. It must activate
when the force is applied.
28. (Refer to Figure 30) what kind of antenna is a. Parallel to the longitudinal axis of the aircraft.
this? b. Parallel to the vertical axis of the aircraft.
c. In any directional relative to the aircraft axes.

34. A DME antenna should be located in a position

on the aircraft that will
a. Not be blanked by the wing when the aircraft is
banked.
b. Permit interruptions in DME operation.
a. A lightning detector system antenna. c. Eliminate the possibility of the DME locking on a
b. A VOR and localizer antenna. station.
c. A satellite weather antenna.
35. VHF radio signals are commonly used in
29. (Refer to Figure 27) what kind of antenna is a. ATC communications.
this? b. VOR navigation
a. A glide slope antenna. c. Both VOR navigation and ATC communications.
b. A VOR and localizer antenna.
c. A radar beacon transponder antenna. 36. When installing a DME antenna, it should be
aligned with the
a. Null position
b. Angle of incidence.
c. Centerline on the airplane.
37. An emergency locator transmitter (ELT) battery 44. How may the operation of an installed
must be capable of furnishing power for signal emergency locator transmitter (ELT) be verified
transmission for at least during aircraft inspection?
a. 36 hours. a. By moving the deactivating switch from the
b. 48 hours. DISARM position to the ARM position while
c. 72 hours. monitoring the civil emergency frequency with a
communications receiver at five minutes after the
38. Which channel of an autopilot detects changes hour.
in pitch attitude of an aircraft? b. By activating the 5 g switch and turning the unit
a. Elevator. on at five minutes after the hour.
b. Aileron c. By tuning a communications receiver to the civil
c. Rudder. emergency frequency and activating the ELT
momentarily within five minutes after the hour.
39. What is the operating principle of the sensing
device used in an autopilot system? 45. (Refer to figure 34) what kind of antenna is this?
a. The reaction of the force 90° away from the
applied force in the direction of gyro rotation.
b. The relative motion between a gyro and its
supporting system.
c. The rate of change of motion between the gyro
gimbal rings and the aircraft. a. A VOR/glide slope antenna
b. A marker beacon receiver antenna.
40. What is the primary purpose of an autopilot? c. A radar beacon transponder antenna.
a. To relieve the pilot of control of the aircraft
during long periods of flight. 46. (Refer to figure 28) what kind of antenna is this?
b. To fly a more precise course for the pilot.
c. To obtain the navigational aid necessary for
extended overwater flights.

41. Dutch roll, a combination yawing and rolling a. An ELT antenna.

oscillation that affects many sweptwing aircraft, is b. A DME antenna.
counteracted with. c. A VHF communications antenna.
a. A. flight director system.
b. An aileron damper system. 47. (Refer to figure 31) what kind of antenna is this?
c. A yaw damper system.

42. Installed radio equipment is protected from

damage due to jolts and vibration by
a. Shock mounts.
b. Spring and/or viscous damper mounted racks.
c. Rubber or foam cushioning material between a. A lightning detector system antenna.
circuit chassis and case. b. A marker beacon receiver antenna.
c. A satellite weather antenna.
43. What component of an autopilot system applies
torque to the control surfaces of an aircraft? 48. When must the radio station license be
a. Servo. displayed in an aircraft equipped with a two – way
b. Controller. radio?
c. Gyro a. When the aircraft is operated outside the U.S.
b. When the aircraft is returned to service.
c. When the aircraft is certified for IFR flight.
49. (Refer to figure 33) what kind of antenna is this? 54. Which of the following provides manual
maneuverability of the aircraft while the autopilot
is engaged?
a. Servo-amplifier.
b. Directional gyro indicator.
c. Flight controller.

55. The preferred location of a VOR antenna on

a. A VOR/glide slope antenna. light aircraft is on
b. A marker beacon receiver antenna. a. The bottom of the fuselage and as far forward as
c. A radar beacon transponder antenna. possible.
b. Top of the cabin with the apex of the V pointing
50. (1) Use solder to attach bonding jumpers on forward.
radio equipment. (2) Radio equipment is bonded to c. Top of the vertical stabilizer.
the aircraft in order to provide a low-impedance
ground and to minimize radio interference from 56. What will occur if an aircraft attitude is changed
static electrical charges. Regarding the above by its autopilot system in order to correct for an
statements, error and the involved control surface are returned
a. Only No. 1 is true. to streamline by the time the aircraft has reached
b. Both No. 1 and No. 2 are true. its correct position?
c. Only No. 2 is true. a. Overshoot and oscillation.
b. Undershoot and oscillation.
51. (Refer to figure 22) what kind of antenna is this? c. Normal operation.

57. When operationally checking an autopilot

system on the ground, after the aircraft’s main
power has been switched on, the autopilot should
be engaged
a. Only after the gyros come up to speed and the
amplifier warms up.
b. Whenever the operator desires.
c. For only a few minutes at a time.

58. The preferred location of an ELT is

a. This is a glide slope antenna. a. Where it is readily accessible to the pilot or a
b. This is a DME or a radar beacon transponder. member of the flight crew while the aircraft is in
c. This is a loop and sense antenna. flight.
b. As far aft as possible.
52. The purpose of a localizer is to c. As far aft as possible, but forward of the vertical
a. Set the airplane on the proper approach angle to fin.
the runway.
b. Indicate the distance the airplane is from the end
of the runway. 59. In general, the purpose of an aircraft
c. Align the airplane with the center of the runway. transponder is to
a. Continually transmit heading, speed, and rate of
53. The elevator channel of an autopilot controls climb/decent ect. Information to ATC
the aircraft about which axis of rotation? b. Monitor aircraft speed, heading altitude and
a. Roll. attitude whenever the autopilot system is engaged.
b. Longitudinal c. Receive an interrogation single from a ground
c. Lateral. station and automatically send a reply back.
60. One antenna can be used for the radio range
and standard broadcast bands in light aircraft
because the
a. Two ranges are close together.
b. Antenna is omnidirectional.
c. Antenna length may be electronically adjusted.

61. (Refer to Figure 16) which of the antennas

shown is a typical glideslope antenna?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4

62. Static discharges help eliminate radio

interference by dissipating static electricity into the
atmosphere at
a. Low current levels.
b. High voltage level.
c. High current levels.

63. (Refer to Figure 15) what is the approximate

drag load on an antenna with a frontal area of .125
square feet installed on an aircraft with a speed of
225 MPH?
a. 2.069 pounds.
b. 2.073 pounds.
c. 3.592 pounds.