Class 10 Cbse Previous Year Solved Question Papers
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Deepayan PaikClass 10 Cbse Previous Year Solved Question Papers
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Deepayan PaikCBSE-XII-2017 EXAMINATION CBSE-X-2008 EXAMINATION
MATHEMATICS
Series: RLH/2 Paper & Solution Code: 30/2/1
Time: 3 Hrs. Max. Marks: 80
General Instuctions :
(i) All questions are compulsory.
(ii) The question paper consists of 30 questions divided into four sections — A, B, C and D. Section A
comprises of ten questions of .1 mark each, Section B comprises of live questions of 2 marks each, Section C
comprises of ten questions of 3 marks each and Section D comprises of five questions of 6 marks each
(iii) All questions in Section A are to be answered in one word, one sentence or as per the exact requirement
of the question.
(iv) There is no overall choice. However, an internal choice has been provided in one question of 2 marks
each, three questions of 3 marks each and two questions of 6 marks each You have to attempt only one of
the alternatives in all such questions.
(v) In question on construction, the drawings should be neat and exactly as per the given measurement.
(vi) Use of calculators is not permitted.
SECTION – A
1. Complete the missing entries in the following factor tree :
Solution:
Lets assume the missing entries be a, b
b 3 7 21
a 2 b 2 21 42
2. If (x + a) is a factor of 2x2 + 2ax + 5x + 10, find a.
Solution:
(x + a) is factor of the polynomial p(x) = 2x2 + 2ax + 5x + 10
p(a) 0 {By factor theorem}
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CBSE-X-2008 EXAMINATION
2(a)2 2a(a) 5(a) 10 0
2a2 2a2 5a 10 0
a 2
3. Show that x = - 3 is a solution of x2 + 6x + 9 = 0.
Solution:
x2 + 6x + 9 =0
x 2 2.3x (3)2 0
(x 3)2 0
x 3 is the solution of x2 + 6x +9 =0
4. The first term of an A.P. is p and its common difference is q. Find its 10th term.
Solution:
First term of an A.P. = p
Common difference = q
T10 P (10 1)q
T10 P 9q
5
5. If tan A = , find the value of (sin A + cos A) sec A.
12
Solution:
5
tan A
12
sin A cos A
sin A cos A sec A
cos A cos A
tan A 1
5
1
12
17
12
6. The lengths of the diagonals of a rhombus are 30 cm and 40 cm. Find the side of the rhombus.
Solution:
Length of the diagonals of a rhombus are 30cm and 40cm
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CBSE-X-2008 EXAMINATION
i.e., BD = 30 cm
AC = 40 cm
OD OB 15cm
OA OC 20cm
AOD
OA2 OD 2 AD 2
(20)2 (15)2 AD2
AD 25cm
Side of rhombus = 25 cm
ar (APQ)
7. In Figure 1, PQ II BC and AP : PB = 1 : 2. Find .
ar (ABC)
Solution:
PQ || BC
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CBSE-X-2008 EXAMINATION
AP 1
PB 2
PB 2
AP 1
PB 2
1 1
AP 1
PB AP 3
AP 1
AP 1
AB 3
2
ar (APQ) AP 1
ar (ABC ) AB 9
8. The surface area of a sphere is 616 cm2. Find its radius.
Solution:
Surface area of sphere = 616 cm2
4 r 2 616
22
4 r 2 616
7
r 7 cm
9. A die is thrown once. Find the probability of getting a number less than 3.
Solution:
Total possible outcomes = 6
Outcomes which are less than 3 = 1, 2
2
Probability
6
1
=
3
10. Find the class marks of classes 10 —25 and 35 —55.
Solution:
Class Class marks
10-25 10 25
17.5
2
35-55 35 55
45
2
SECTION – B
Questions number 11 to 15 carry 2 marks each.
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CBSE-X-2008 EXAMINATION
11. Find all the zeros of the polynomial x4 + x3 - 34x2 - 4x + 120, if two of its zeros are 2 and -2.
Solution:
p(x) x 4 x 3 34 x 2 4 x 120
Lets assume other two zeroes are ,
Sum of all zeroes 2 2
1
1 .........(1)
Product of zeroes = 120
..2.(2) 120
Substituting (1) in (2)
(1 ) 30
2 30
2 30 0
6, 5
5, 6
Zeroes of the polynomial are 6, 2, 2, 5
12. A pair of dice is thrown once. Find the probability of getting the same number on each dice.
Solution:
Total outcomes 6 6 36
Outcomes with same number on each = {(1, 1)(2, 2)(3, 3)(4, 4)(5, 5)(6, 6)}
No. of favorable outcomes = 6
6 1
Probability
36 6
13. If sec 4A = cosec (A - 20°), where 4A is an acute angle, find the value of A.
OR
1
In a ABC, right-angled at C, if tan A = , find the value of sin A cos B + cos A sin B.
3
Solution:
sec4 A cosec(A 20)
sec4 A sec(90 (A 20))[sec(90 x) cosec x]
sec A sec(110 A)
4 A 110 A
5A 110
A 22
OR
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CBSE-X-2008 EXAMINATION
In ABC , c 90 tan
1
tan A
3
sin A cos B cos A sin B sin(A B)
sin(180 c)
sin c
sin90
1
14. Find the value of k if the points (k, 3), (6, -2) and (-3, 4) are collinear.
Solution:
Given points (K, 3), (6, -2), (-3, 4) are collinear
Area of the triangle formed by these points = 0
1
k(2 4) 6(4 3) 3(3 2) 0
2
6k 6 15 0
3
k
2
15. E is a point on the side AD produced of a ||gm ABCD and BE intersects CD at F. Show that ABE ~
CFB.
Solution:
In ABE and CFB,
A C (Opposite angles of a parallelogram)
AEB CBF (Alternate interior angles as AE||BC)
ABE ~ CFB (By AA similarly criterion)
SECTION C
Questions number 16 to 25 carry 3 marks each.
16. Use Euclid's Division Lemma to show that the square of any positive integer is either of the form 3m or
(3m + 1) for some integer m.
Solution:
Let’s ‘a’ be any positive integer and b = 3.
We know a = bq + r, 0 r <b.
Now, a 3q r , 0 r 3.
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CBSE-X-2008 EXAMINATION
The possible of remainder = 0, 1 or 2
Case I – a =3q
a2 9q 2
3 (3q 2 )
3m (where m 3q 2 )
Case II – a = 3q+1
a2 (3q 1)2
9q2 6q 1
3(3q2 2q) 1
= 3m + 1 (where m = 3q2 2q )
Case III – a = 3q + 2
a2 (3q 2)2
9q2 12q 4
3(3q2 4q 1) 1
= 3m + 1 (where m 3q2 4q 1 )
From all the above cases it is clear that square of any positive integer (as in this a2) is either of the form 3m
or 3m + 1.
17. Represent the following pair of equations graphically and write the coordinates of points where the
lines intersect y-axis :
x + 3y = 6
2x - 3y = 12
Solution:
x 3y 6
2x 3y 12
Graph of x + 3y = 6:
When x= 0, we have y= 2 and when y = 0, we have x= 6.
Therefore, two points on the line are (0, 2) and (6, 0).
The line x + 3y= 6 is represented in the given graph.
Graph of 2x - 3y = 12:
When x= 0, we have y = - 4 and when y = 0, we have x = 6.
Hence, the two points on the line are (0, - 4) and (6, 0).
The line 2x - 3y =12 is shown in the graph.
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CBSE-X-2008 EXAMINATION
The line x + 3y = 6 intersects y-axis at (0,2) and the line 2x - 3y = 12 intersects y-axis at (0, - 4).
18. For what value of n are the nth terms of two A.P.'s 63, 65, 67, ... and 3, 10, 17, ... equal ?
OR
If m times the m term of an A.P. is equal to n times its nth term, find the (m + n)th term of the AP.
th
Solution:
nth term of 63, 65, 67, …..
63 (n 1)(2)
63 2n 2
61 2n ...........(1)
nth term of 3, 10, 17, ……….
3 (n 1)7
3 7n 7
7n 4 .......(2)
Given that nth terms of two AP’s are equal.
(1) = (2)
61 2n 7n 4
65 5n
n 13
OR
Lets assume first term = a
Common difference = d
Tm a (m 1)d
Tn a (n 1)d
Given m.Tm n.Tn
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CBSE-X-2008 EXAMINATION
m(a (m 1)d ) n(a (n 1)d )
ma m(m 1)d na n(n 1)d
(m n)a d (m2 m n2 n) 0
a(m n) d (m n)(m n 1) 0
(m n)[a (m n 1)d ] 0
m n a (m n 1)d 0
Tmn 0
19. In an A.P., the first term is 8, nth term is 33 and sum to first n terms is 123. Find n and d, the common
difference.
Solution:
. First term (a) = 5
Tn 33
Sum of first n terms = 123
n
a Tn 123
2
n
8 33 123
2
n6
Tn a (n 1)d
33 8 (5)d
d 5
20. Prove that : (1 + cot A + tan A) (sin A— cos A) = sin A tan A— cot A cos A.
OR
Without using trigonometric tables, evaluate the following :
cos58 cos38cosec52
2 3
sin 32 tan15 tan 60 tan 75
Solution:
(1 cos A tan A)(sin A cos A)
1 sin A
1 tan A 1 cos A
tan A cos A
1 tan 2
A tan A tan A 1 cos A
tan A
tan A 1 cos A
3
tan A
tan A cos A cot A cos A
2
sin A
tan A. .cos A cot A cos A
cos A
sin A tan A cot A cos A
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CBSE-X-2008 EXAMINATION
OR
cos 58 cos38cosec72
2 3
sin32 tan15 tan60 tan75
tan75 cot(90 15) cot15
tan15 tan75 1, tan60 3
sin32 cos 58, cos38 sin72
sin32 cos38 sec38
2 3
sin32 3
2 1
1
AP 3
21. If P divides the join of A(-2, -2) and B(2, -4) such that , find the coordinates of P.
AB 7
Solution:
AP 3
AB 7
As, AB = 7, AP = 3
AB AP PB
7 3 PB
PB 7 3 4
Let the point P(x, y) divide the line segment joining the points A(2, 2) and B(2, 4) in the ratio AP : PB =
3:4
2(3) (2)(4) (4)(3) (4)(2)
x and y
3 4 34
68 12 8
x and y
7 7
2 20
x and y
7 7
2 20
The coordinate of P(x , y) ,
7 7
22. The mid-points of the sides of a triangle are (3, 4), (4, 6) and (5, 7). Find the coordinates of the vertices
of the triangle.
Solution:
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CBSE-X-2008 EXAMINATION
Consider a ABC with A(x1, y1),B(x2, y2) and C(x3, y3). If P(3, 4), Q(4,6) and R(5,7) are the midpoints of AB,
BC and CA. Then,
x x
3 1 2 x1 x2 6 ...(i)
2
y y
4 1 2 y1 y2 8 ...(ii)
2
x x
4 2 3 x2 x3 8 ...(iii)
2
y y
5 2 3 y2 y3 12 ...(iv)
2
x x
6 3 1 x3 x1 10 ...(v)
2
y y
7 3 1 y2 y1 14 ...(vi)
2
Adding (i), (ii) and (v) we get
2(x1 x2 x3 ) 6 8 10 24
x1 x2 x3 12 ...(iv)
From (i) and (vii), we get x3 - 12 - 6 = 6
From (iii) and (vii) we get v1, = 12 - 8 = 4
From (v) and (vii), we get x2 = 12 - 10 = 2
Now, adding (ii), (iv) and (vi), we get
20(y1 + y2 + y3)= 8 + 12 + 14 = 34
y1 y2 y3 17 (viii)
From (ii) and (viii), we get y3 = 17 - 8 = 9
From (iv) and (viii), we get y1 = 17 - 12 = 5
From (vi) and (viii), we get y2 = 17 – 14 = 3
Hence, the vertices of ABC are A (4, 5), B(2, 3), C(6, 9)
23. Draw a right triangle in which the sides containing the right angle are 5 cm and 4 cm. Construct a
5
similar triangle whose sides are times the sides of the above triangle.
3
Solution:
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CBSE-X-2008 EXAMINATION
Steps:
1) Draw a line segment AB = 5 cm, Draw a ray SA making 90 with it.
2) Draw an arc with radius 4 cm to cut ray SA at C. Join BC. ABC is required
3) Draw a ray AX making an acute angle with AB, opposite to vertex C.
4) Locate 5 points (as 5 is greater in 5 and 3), A1, A2, A3, A4, A5, on line segment AX such that AA = A1A2 =
A2A3 = A3A4 = A4A5
5) Join A3B. Draw a line through A5 parallel to A3B intersecting line segment AB at B’.
6) Through B’, draw a line parallel to BC intersecting extended line segment AC at C’. AB ' C ' is the
required triangle.
Justification:
The construction can be justified by provided that
5 5 5
AB ' AB, B ' C ' BC , AC ' AC
3 3 3
In ABC and AB ' C ',
ABC AB ' C ' (Corresponding angles)
BAC B ' AC ' (Common)
ABC ~ AB'C' (AA similarly criterion)
AB BC AC
............(1)
AB ' B ' C ' AC '
In AA3B and AA5B ',
A3 AB A5 AB ' (Common)
AA3B AA5B ' (Corresponding angles)
AA3B ~ AA5B ' (AA similarly criterion)
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CBSE-X-2008 EXAMINATION
AB AA3
AB ' AA5
AB 3
....(2)
AB ' 5
On comparing equations (1) and (2), we obtain
AB BC AC 3
AB ' B ' C ' AC ' 5
5 5 5
AB ' AB, B ' C ' BC , AC ' AC
3 3 3
This justifies the construction.
24. Prove that a parallelogram circumscribing a circle is a rhombus.
OR
In Figure 2, AD BC. Prove that AB2 + CD2 = BD2 + AC2.
Solution:
Given ABCD is a ||9m such that its sides touch a circle with centre O.
AB = CD and AB || CD,
AD = BC and AD II BC
Now, P Q, R and S are the touching point of both the circle and the ||9th
We know that, tangents to a circle from an exterior point are equal in length.
AP = AS [Tangents from point A] ... (1)
BP = BQ [Tangents from point B] ...(2)
CR = CQ [Tangents from point C] …..(3)
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CBSE-X-2008 EXAMINATION
DR = DS [Tangents from point D] …. (4)
On adding (1), (2), (3) and (4), we get
AP+BP+CR+DR=AS+BQ+CQ+DS
(AP + BP) + (CR +DR) = (AS + DS) + (BQ + CQ)
AB+CD = AD + BC
AB + AB = BC + BC [ ABCD is a ||9m AB = CD and AD= BC]
2AB = 2BC
AB = BC
Therefore, AB = BC implies
AB = BC = CD = AD
Hence, ABCD is a rhombus.
OR
In ABD.
by Pythagoras theorem,
AB2 BD2 AD2 ..........(i)
and in ADC ,
by Pythagoras theorem,
AC 2 CD2 AD2
CD2 AC 2 AD2 ........(ii)
On adding (i) &(ii), we get,
AB2 CD2 BD2 AD2 AC 2 AD2
AB2 CD2 BD2 AC 2
Hence, proved.
25. In Figure 3, ABC is a quadrant of a circle of radius 14 cm and a semi-circle is drawn with BC as diameter.
Find the area of the shaded region.
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CBSE-X-2008 EXAMINATION
Solution:
Given AC = AB = 14 cm
BC 142 142 14 2 cm
Area of shaded region = Area of semi-circle – (Area of sector ABDC – Area of ABC )
1
Area of ABC 14 14 98 cm2
2
1 22
Area of Quadrant ABC = . .(14)2 154 cm2
4 7
Area of segment BC = ar (Quadrant ABC) – ar( ABC )
154 98
56 cm2
2
1 BC
Area of semicircle BC =
2 1
1 22 1
14 2 14 2
2 7 4
154 cm2
Area of shaded region = Area of semicircle BC – Area of segment BC
154 56
98 cm2
SECTION D
Questions number 26 to 30 carry 6 marks each.
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CBSE-X-2008 EXAMINATION
26. A peacock is sitting on the top of a pillar, which is 9 m high. From a point 27 in away from the bottom of
the pillar, a snake is coming to its hole at the base of the pillar. Seeing the snake the peacock pounces on it.
If their speeds are equal, at what distance from the hole is the snake caught ?
OR
4
The difference of two numbers is 4. If the difference of their reciprocals is , find the two numbers.
21
Solution:
Let AB be the pillar of height 9 meter. The peacock is sitting at point A on the pillar and B is the foot of the
pillar. (AB = 9)
Let C be the position of the snake which is at 27 meters from B. (BC = 27 and ABC = 90)
As the speed of the snake and of the peacock is same they will travel the same distance in the same time
Now take a point D on BC that is equidistant from A and C (Please note that snake is moving towards the
pillar)
Hence by condition 1 AD = DC = y (say)
Take BD = x
Now consider triangle ABD which is a right angled triangle
Using Pythagorus theorem (AB + BD = AD)
9+x=y
9 = y - x = (y-x)(y + x)
81/(y + x) = (y-x)
y + x = BC = 27
Hence 81/27 = (y - x) = 3
y-x=3
y + x = 27
Adding gives 2y = 30 or y = 15
x = 27 y = 12
Thus the snake is caught at a distance of x meters or 12 meters from the hole.
OR
Lets assume the two numbers to be x, y (y > x)
Given that y x 4y 4 x ...(1)
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CBSE-X-2008 EXAMINATION
1 1 4
x y 21
yx 4
xy 21
4 4
xy 21
xy 21
x(4 x) 21
x 2 4 x 21 0
(x 7)(x 3) 0
x 7, 3
y 3, 7
Numbers are 7, 3 or 3, 7
27. The angle of elevation of an aeroplane from a point A on the ground is 60°. After a flight of 30 seconds,
the angle of elevation changes to 30°. If the plane is flying at a constant height of 3600 3 m find the
speed, in km/hour, of the plane.
Solution:
Height of aeroplane (CD) = 3600 3 mt = BE
BAD 60 and CAD 30
In ABE
BE
tan60
AE
BE
AE
tan60
AE 3600 mt
In ACD
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CBSE-X-2008 EXAMINATION
CD
tan30
AD
3600 3
AD
1
3
AD 10800 mt
BC AD AE 10800 3600
BC 7200 mt
distance
Speed of aeroplane
time
7200
240 m/s
30
Speed (in km/hr) = 864 km/s
28. If a line is drawn parallel to one side of a triangle to intersect the other two sides in distinct points,
prove that the other two sides are divided in the same ratio.
Using the above, prove the following
In Figure 4, AB II DE and BC || EF. Prove that AC || DF.
OR
Prove that the lengths of tangents drawn from an external point to a circle are equal. Using the above,
prove the following :
ABC is an isosceles triangle in which AB = AC, circumscribed about a circle, as shown in Figure 5. Prove that
the base is bisected by the point of contact.
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CBSE-X-2008 EXAMINATION
Solution:
Construction: Join BE and CD and draw perpendicular DN & EM to AC and AD respectively.
1
EM AD
ar (ADE ) 2
ar (BDE ) 1 BD EM
2
ar (ADE ) AD
........(1)
ar (BDE ) BD
Similarly,
1
AB DN
ar (ADE ) 2
ar (CDE ) 1 EC DN
2
ar (ADE ) AE
........(2)
ar (CDE ) EC
But ar(BDE) ar(CDE) (triangle on same base DE and between the same parallels DE and BC)
Thus, equation (2) becomes,
ar (ADE ) AE
.............(3)
ar (EDE ) EC
From equations (2) and (3), we have,
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CBSE-X-2008 EXAMINATION
AD AE
BD EC
In the given AB||DE and BC||EF. Prove that AC||DF.
In OPE , AB||DE (Given)
By basic proportionality Theorem,
OA OB
.......(1)
AD BE
Similarly, in OEF , BC ||EF (Given)
OB OC
.....(2)
BE CF
Comparing (1) and (2), we get
OA OC
AD CF
Hence, AC ||DF
[By the converse of BPT]
OR
Given: PT and TQ we two tangent drawn from an external point T to the circle C (0, r).
To prove: 1. PT = TQ
2. OTP = OTQ
Construction: Join OT.
Proof: We know that a tangent to circle is perpendicular to the radius through the point of contact.
OPT = OQT = 90
In OPT and OQT,
OT = OT (Common)
OP = OQ (Radius of the circle)
OPT = OQT (90 )
OPT
OQT (RHS congruence criterion)
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CBSE-X-2008 EXAMINATION
PT = TQ and OTP = OTQ (CPCT)
PT = TQ,
The lengths of the tangents drawn from an external point to a circle are equal.
We know that the tangents drawn from an exterior point to a circle are equal in length.
AP = AQ (Tangents from A) (1)
BP = RR (Tangents from B) (2)
CQ - CR (Tangents from C) (3)
Now, the given triangle is isosceles. so given AB = AC
Subtract AP from both sides, we get
AB- AP = AC-AP
= AB – AP = AC - AQ (Using (1))
BP = CQ
BR = CQ (Using (2))
BR = CR (Using (3))
So BR = CR, shows that BC is bisected at the point of contact.
29. If the radii of the circular ends of a conical bucket, which is 16 cm high, are 20 cm and 8 cm. find the
22
capacity and total surface area of the bucket. (Use ]
7
Solution:
Radius of the bigger end of the frustum (bucket) of cone = R = 20 cm
Radius of the smaller end of the frustum (bucket) of the cone = r = 8 cm
Height = 16 cm
Volume = 1/3h[R2 r 2 R * r ]
= 1/3*22/7*16[202 + 82+ 20*8]
= 352/21[400 + 64 + 160]
=(352*624)/21
= 219648/21
= 10459.43 cu cm
Now,
Slant height of the cone = I = (R r )2 h2
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CBSE-X-2008 EXAMINATION
l (20 8)2 162
l 122 162
l 144 256
l 400
l 20 cm
Slant height is 20 cm
Now,
Surface area = [R2 r 2 (R r )*]
= 22/7[202 + 82 + (20 + 8)*16]
= 22/7[400 + 64 + 448]
= 22/7*912
= 20064/7
= 2866.29 sq cm
30. Find mean, median and mode of the following data :
Classes Frequency
0-20 6
20 -40 8
40 – 60 10
60 -80 12
80 – 100 6
100 – 120 5
120 -140 3
Solution:
Class Frequency class mark (xi) xifi
0-20 6 10 60
20-40 8 30 240
40-60 10 50 500
60-80 12 70 840
80-100 6 90 540
100-120 5 110 550
120-140 3 130 390
fi 50 fi xi 3120
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CBSE-X-2008 EXAMINATION
xi fi
Mean
fi
3120
50
62.4
Class f (less than)
cumulative
frequency
0-20 6 6
20-40 8 14
40-60 10 24
60-80 12 36
80-100 6 42
100-120 5 47
120-140 3 50
n fi 50
n
25
2
Median class = 60 – 80
n
2 c. f
M l h
f
25 24
M 60 20
12
M 61.66
Mode:
Maximum class frequency = 12
Model class = 60 – 80
f1 f0
Mode = l h
2 f1 f0 f2
12 10
60 20
2 12 10 6
65
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CBSE-XII-2017 EXAMINATION CBSE-X-2009 EXAMINATION
MATHEMATICS
Series: HRL Paper & Solution Code: 30/1
Time: 3 Hrs. Max. Marks: 80
General Instuctions :
(i) All questions are compulsory.
(ii) The question paper consists of 30 questions divided into four sections — A, B, C and D. Section A
comprises of ten questions of 1 mark each, Section B comprises of five questions of 2 marks each, Section C
comprises of ten questions of 3 marks each and Section D comprises of five questions of 6 marks each
(iii) All questions in Section A are to be answered in one word, one sentence or as per the exact requirement
of the question.
(iv) There is no overall choke. However, an internal choice has been provided in one question of 2 marks
each, three questions of 3 marks each and two questions of 6 marks each. You have to attempt only one of
the alternatives in all such questions.
(v) In question on construction, the drawings should be neat and exactly as per the given measurement.
(vi) Use of calculators is not permitted.
SECTION – A
Questions number 1 to 10 carry 1 mark each.
1. Find the ( HCF LCM ] for the numbers 100 and 190.
Solution:
Given two numbers 100 and 190
Product of 100 and 190
HCF LCM 100 190
19000
2. If 1 is a zero of the polynomial p(x) = ax2 - 3 (a - 1)x - 1, then find the value of a.
Solution:
If x = 1 is the zero of the polynomial p(x) ax 2 3(a 1)x 1
Then p(1) 0
a(1)2 3(a 1) 1 0
2a 2 0
a 1
3. In LMN, L = 50° and N = 60°. If LMN ~ PQR, then find Q.
Solution:
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CBSE-X-2009 EXAMINATION
Given LMN ~ PQR
In similar triangles, corresponding angles are equal.
L P
M Q x
N R
In LMN
L M N 180
M 180 50 60
M 70
Q 70
4. If sec2 sec2 sin sin k, then find the value of k.
Solution:
sec2 (1 sin )(1 sin ) k
sec2 sin2 κ
sec2.cos2 κ
cos2
k
cos2
k 1
5. If the diameter of a semicircular protractor is 14 cm, then find its perimeter.
Solution:
Given diameter of semicircular protractor (AB) = 14cm
d
Perimeter of a semicircle d
2
14
Perimeter of protractor 14
2
22 14
14
7 2
36cm
6. Find the number of solutions of the following pair of linear equations :
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CBSE-X-2009 EXAMINATION
x + 2y — 8 = 0
2x + 4y = 16
Solution:
x 2y 8 0
2x 4y 16 0
For any pair linear equations
a1 x b1y c1 0
a2 x b2 y c2 0
a1 b1 c1
If , then
a2 b2 c2
There exists infinite solutions
a 1 b 2 c 8
Here 1 , 1 , 1
a2 2 b2 4 c2 16
a b c 1
1 1 1
a2 b2 c2 2
Lines are coincident and will have infinite solutions.
7. Find the discriminant of the quadratic equation
3 3x 2 10 x 3 0.
Solution:
3 3x 2 10 x 3 0
Discriminant for ax2 bx c 0 will be b2 4ac
For the given quadratic equation
(10)2 4(3 3)( 3)
100 36
64
4
8. If , a, 2 are three consecutive terms of an A.P., then find the value of a.
5
Solution:
4
Given , a , 2 are in A.P.
5
4
a 2 a
5
4
2a 2
5
14
2a
5
7
a
5
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CBSE-X-2009 EXAMINATION
9. In Figure 1, ABC is circumscribing a circle. Find the length of BC.
Solution:
Given BR = 3cm, AR = 4cm & AC = 11 cm
BP BR
AR AQ
CP CQ
{Lengths of tangents to circle from external point will be equal}
AQ 4 cm and BP 3cm
As AC = 11 cm
QC + AQ = 11cm
QC 7cm
PC 7cm
We know BC BP PC
BC 3 7
BC 10cm
10. Two coins are tossed simultaneously. Find the probability of getting exactly one head.
Solution:
Two coins are tossed simultaneously
Total possible outcomes {HH , HT , TH , TT }
No. of total outcomes = 4
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CBSE-X-2009 EXAMINATION
Favourable outcomes for getting exactly
One head = {Ht , TH}
2 1
Probability =
4 2
SECTION B
Questions number 11 to 15 carry 2 marks each.
11. Find all the zeroes of the polynomial x3 + 3x2 — 2x — 6, if two of its zeroes are 2 and 2.
Solution:
x3 3x2 2x 6 0
Given two zeros are 2, 2
Sum of all zeros = -3
Let the third zero be x
x 2 2 3
x 3
All zeros will be 3, 2, 2
12. Which term of the A.P. 3, 15, 27, 39, ... will be 120 more than its 21st term ?
Solution:
Given an A.P. 3, 15, 27, 39, ………
Lets say nth term is 120 more than 12st term
Tn 120 T21
a (n 1)d 120 (a 20d )
(n 1)12 120 20 12
n 1 30
n 31
31st term is 120 more than 12st term.
13. In Figure 2, ABD is a right triangle, right-angled at A and AC BD. Prove that AB2 = BC . BD.
Solution:
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CBSE-X-2009 EXAMINATION
In ABC
AB2 AD2 BD2 .......(1)
In ABC
AC 2 BC 2 AB2 ......(2)
In ACD
AC 2 CD2 AD2 ........(3)
Subtracting (3) from (2)
AB2 AD2 BC 2 CD2 ..........(4)
Adding (1) and (4)
2 AB2 BD2 BC 2 CD2
2 AB2 BC CD BC 2 CD2
2
2 AB2 BC 2 CD2 2BC .CD BC 2 CD2
AB2 BC (BC CD)
AB2 BC .BD
15 (2 2sin )(1 sin )
14. If cot , then evaluate .
8 (1 cos )(2 2cos )
OR
Find the value of tan 60°, geometrically.
Solution:
15
cot
8
(2 2sin )(1 sin ) 2(1 sin2 )
(1 cos)(2 2cos ) 2(1 cos2 )
cos2
2
sin
cot2
225
64
OR
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CBSE-X-2009 EXAMINATION
Consider a right triangle with A 60, AC 1 cm and AB = 2cm
BC
tan60
AC
By Pythagoras theorem
BC 2 4 1 BC 3
tan60 3
15. If the points A (4, 3) and B (x, 5) are on the circle with the centre O (2, 3), find the value of x.
Solution:
OA = OB (radii)
OA (2 4)2 (0)2 2
OB (2 x)2 (3 5)2 (2 x)2 4
2 (2 x)2 4
4 (2 x)2 4
x 2
SECTION C
Questions number 16 to 25 carry 3 marks each.
16. Prove that 3 2 is an irrational number.
Solution:
Lets assume 3 2 is a rational number
p
3 2 {p, q are integers and q 0}
q
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CBSE-X-2009 EXAMINATION
p
2 3
q
p 3q
2
q
P 2q
is rational number but we know 2 is an irrational.
q
Irrational rational
3 2 is not a rational number.
17. Solve for x and y
ax by
ab
b a
ax by 2ab
OR
8
The sum of two numbers is 8. Determine the numbers if the sum of their . reciprocals is .
15
Solution:
ax by
a b ....(1)
. b a
ax by 2ab .......(2)
1
Multiply (2) with and subtract (1) from (2)
b
a
x y 2a
b
a by
ab
b a
ba
y ab
a
y a
Substituting y = -a in (1)
a b
x (a) a b
b a
a
x a
b
xb
x b and y a
OR
Lets assume 2 numbers are x, y
Given x y 8 x 8 y .....(1)
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CBSE-X-2009 EXAMINATION
1 1 8
x y 15
xy 8 8 8
xy 15 xy 15
xy 15
From (1) xy y(8 y) 15
y 2 8y 15 0
y 3, 5 x 5,3
The numbers are 3 and 5
18. The sum of first six terms of an arithmetic progression is 42. The ratio of its 10th term to its 30th term is
1 : 3. Calculate the first and the thirteenth term of the A.P.
Solution:
Lets say first term of given A.P. = a
Common difference = d
Sum of first six terms = 42
6
2a 5d 42
2
2a 5d 14 .....(1)
Also given T10 : T30 1: 3
a 9d 1
a 29d 3
3a 27d a 29d
2a 2d
a d ......(2)
Substituting (2) in (1)
2a 5a 14
a 2 and d 2
T13 a 12d
2 24
T13 26
19. Evaluate :
2 2 5
cosec2 58 cot58 tan32 tan13 tan37 tan45 tan53 tan77
3 3 3
Solution:
2 2 5
cos ec 2 58 cot58 tan32 tan13 tan37 tan45 tan58
3 3 3
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CBSE-X-2009 EXAMINATION
cot58 tan(90 58) tan32
tan77 cot(90 77) cot13
tan53 cot(90 53) cot37
tan45 1
Substituting in the given expression
2 2 5
cosec2 58 cot2 58
3 3 3
2 5
cosec2 58 cot2 58
3 3
2 5
1
3 3
1
20. Draw a right triangle in which sides (other than hypotenuse) are of lengths 8 cm and 6 cm. Then
3
construct another triangle whose sides are times the corresponding sides of the first triangle.
4
Solution:
Given ABC which is a right angled triangle B 90
Steps:
1. Draw line segment BC = 8cm, draw a ray BX making 90 with BC
2. Draw an arc with radius 6cm from B so that it cuts BX at A
3. Now join AC to form ABC
4. Draw a ray by making an acute angle with BC, opposite to vertex A
5. Locate 4 points B1, B2, B3, B4, on by such that BB1 = B1B2 = B2B3 = B3B4
6. Join B4C and now draw a line from B3 parallel to B4C so that it cuts BC at C’
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CBSE-X-2009 EXAMINATION
7. From C’ draw a line parallel to AC and cuts AB at A’
8. A ' BC ' is the required triangle
Justification:
ABC and A ' BC '
ABC A ' BC ' (Common)
ACB A ' C ' B (Corresponding angles)
By AA criterion ABC ~ A ' BC '
AB BC AC
A ' B BC ' A ' C '
In BB4C and BB3C '
B4C ||B3C ' [By construction]
BB4C ~ BB3C '
BB4 BC B4C
BB3 BC ' B3C '
BB 4
We know that 4
BB3 3
A ' B BC ' A ' C ' 3
AB BC AC 4
1
21. In Figure 3, AD BC and BD = CD. Prove that
3
2 CA2 = 2 AB2 + BC2
OR
In Figure 4, M is mid-point of side CD of a parallelogram ABCD. The line BM is drawn intersecting AC at L
and AD produced at E. Prove that EL = 2 BL.
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CBSE-X-2009 EXAMINATION
Solution:
1
BD CD;
3
BD CD BC
3
CD BC
4
1
BD BC
4
In right ACD,
AC2 = AD2 + CD2 …………(1) (Pythagoras Theorem)
In right ABD,
AB2 AD2 BD2 ....(2) (Pythagoras Theorem)
From (1) and (2), we get
AC2 = AB2 – BD2 + CD2
2 2
BC 3BC
AC AB
2
4 4
BC 2 9BC 2
AC AB
2 2
16 16
9BC BC 2
2
AC 2 AB2
16
2
8BC
AC 2 AB2
16
BC 2
AC 2 AB2
2
2 AB BC 2
2
AC 2
2
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CBSE-X-2009 EXAMINATION
OR
In DME and CMD
EDM MCB [Alternate angles]
DM = CM [mis midpoint of CD]
DME BMC [VOA]
By ASA congruency DME CMB
By CPCT
BM = ME
DE = BC
Now in
ALE and BLC
ALE BLC [VOA]
LAE LCB [Alternate angles]
By AA similarly
ALE ~ BLC
AE AL LE
BC BL LC
EL AE
BL BC
EL AD DE
BL BC
EL BC BC
BL BC
EL 2BL
22. Find the ratio in which the point (2, y) divides the line segment joining the points A (-2, 2) and B (3, 7).
Also find the value of y.
Solution:
Lets say ratio = m : n
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CBSE-X-2009 EXAMINATION
3m 2n 2n 7m
(2, y) ,
mn mn
3m 2n
2
mn
2m 2n 3m 2n
m: n 4:1
2 7 4
y
5
30
y
5
y 6
p(2,6)
23. Find the area of the quadrilateral ABCD whose vertices are A (— 4, — 2), B (— 3, — 6), C (3, — 2) and D
(2, 3).
Solution:
Joining AC
Area of Quadrilateral ABCD
ar(ABC) ar(ADC)
1
Area of triangle ABC = 4(5 (2)) (3)(2 (2)) 3(2 (5))
2
1
4(5 2) (3)(2 2) 3(2 5)
2
1
[4(3) 3(0) 3(3)]
2
1
[12 0 9]
2
1
[21] square units
2
1
Area of triangle ADC = 4(3 (2)) 2(2 (2)) 3(2 3)
2
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CBSE-X-2009 EXAMINATION
1
4(3 2) 3(2 2) 3(2 3)
2
1
4(5) 3(0) 3(5)
2
1
20 0 15
2
1 35
35 sq. units
2 2
21 35
Area of quadrilateral (ABCD) =
2 2
28 sq.units
24. The area of an equilateral triangle is 49 3 cm2. Taking each angular point as centre, circles are drawn
with radius equal to half the length of the side of the triangle. Find the area of triangle not included in the
circles. [Take 3 = 1.73]
OR
Figure 5 shows a decorative block which is made of two solids — a cube and a hemisphere. The base of the
block is a cube with edge 5 cm and the hemisphere, fixed on the top, has a diameter of 4.2 cm. Find the
22
total 2 surface area of the block. [Take ]
7
Solution:
Let be the side of equilateral triangle.
3a2
49 3;
4
a2 49* 4;
a= 7 * 2 = 14 cm;
Radius of circle = 14/2 = 7 cm
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CBSE-X-2009 EXAMINATION
Area of the first circle occupied by triangle = area of sector
1 1 60 77 2
r 2 *72 * * cm
2 2 180 3
Area of all the 3 sectors = 77/3 * 3 = 77 cm2
Area of triangle not Included In the circle = area of triangle- area of all the 3 sectors
49 3 — 77 — 7. 87cm2
OR
The total surface area of the cube = 6 (edge)2 = 6 5 5 cm2 = 150 cm2
Note that the part of the cube where the hemisphere is attached is not Included in the surface area.
So, the surface area of the block = TSA of cube — base area of hemisphere + CSA of hemisphere
150 r 2 2r 2 (150 r 2 )cm2
22 4.2 4.2 2
150 cm2 cm
7 2 2
150 13.86 cm2 163.86 cm2
25. Two dice are thrown simultaneously. What is the probability that
(i) 5 will not come up on either of them ?
(ii) 5 will come up on at least one ?
(iii) 5 will come up at both dice ?
Solution:
Total outcomes =
(i). Total outcomes when 5 comes up on either dice are (5, 1) (5, 2) (5, 3) (5, 4) (5, 5) (5, 6) (6, 5) (4, 5) (3, 5)
(2, 5) (1, 5)
11
P (5 will come up on either time)
36
11
P (5 will not come up) = 1
36
25
36
11
(ii) P (5 will come at least once) =
36
1
(iii) P (5 will come up on both dice = )
36
SECTION D
Questions number 26 to 30 carry 6 marks each.
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CBSE-X-2009 EXAMINATION
26. Solve the following equation for x :
9x2 — 9 (a + b) x + (2a2 + 5ab + 2b2) = 0
OR
If (-5) is a root of the quadratic equation 2x + px — 15 = 0 and the quadratic equation p (x2 + x) + k = 0 has
2
equal roots, then find the values of p and k.
Solution:
9 x 2 9(a b)x (2a2 5ab 2b2 ) 0
Discriminant
D 81(a b)2 36 2a2 5ab 2b2
D 9 9a2 9b2 18ab 8a2 8b2 20ab
D 9 a2 b2 2ab
D 9(a b)2
9(a b) 9(a b)2
x
2 9
9(a b) 3(a b)
x
18
3a 3b a b 3a 3b a b
x ,
6 6
2a b a 2b
x ;
3 3
OR
2
-5 is root of 2x + 9x – 15 =0
2(5)2 p(5) 15 0
10 p 3 0
p 7
p(x2 + x) + k = 0 has equal roots
7x2 + 7x + k = 0 [as we know p =7]
Discriminant = 0
D 49 28k
28k 49
7
k
4
27. Prove that the lengths of the tangents drawn from an external point to a circle are equal.
Using the above theorem prove that:
If quadrilateral ABCD is circumscribing a circle, then
AB + CD = AD + BC.
Solution:
PT and TQ are two tangent drawn from an external pant T to the circle C (O, r)
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CBSE-X-2009 EXAMINATION
To prove: 1. PT = TQ
2. OTP = OTQ
Construction Join OT
Proof: We know that, a tangent to circle is perpendicular to the radius through the point of contact
OPT = OQT = 90
In OPT and OQT
OT = OT (Common)
OP = OQ (Radius of the circle)
OPT = OQT (90 )
OPT
OQT (RHS congruence criterion)
PT = TQ and OTP = OTQ (CPCT)
PT = TQ
The lengths of the tangents drawn from an external point to a circle are equal.
OTP = OTQ
Centre lies on the bisector of the angle between the two tangents.
Let AB touches the circle at P.BC touches the circle at Q.DC touches the circle at R.AD. touches the circle at
S
THEN, PB = QB ( Length of the tangents drawn from the external point are always equal)
QC =RC'
AP : AS
DS = DP
NOW, AB + CD
= AP + PB+DR+RC
= AS+QB+DS+CQ
= AS + DS + OB + CQ
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CBSE-X-2009 EXAMINATION
= AD + BC
HENCE PROVED
28. An aeroplane when flying at a height of 3125 m from the ground passes vertically below another plane
at an instant when the angles of elevation of the two planes from the same point on the ground are 30°
and 60° respectively. Find the distance between the two planes at that instant.
Solution:
Let the distance between the two planes = h m
Given that: AD = 3125 m and
ABC 60
ABD 30
In
ABD
AD
tan30
AB
1 3125
3 AB
AB 3125 3 ..........(1)
ABC
AC
tan60
AB
AD DC
3
AB
3125 h
3
AB
3125 h
AB ...........(2)
3
Equating equation (1) and (2), we have
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CBSE-X-2009 EXAMINATION
3125 h
3125 3
3
h 3125 3 3125
h 6250
Hence, distance between the two planes is 6250 m.
29. A juice seller serves his customers using a glass as shown in Figure 6. The inner diameter of the
cylindrical glass is 5 cm, but the bottom of the glass has a hemispherical portion raised which reduces the
capacity of the glass. If the height of the glass is 10 cm, find the apparent capacity of the glass and its actual
capacity. (Use = 3.14)
OR
A cylindrical vessel with internal diameter 10 cm and height 10.5 cm is full of water. A solid cone of base
diameter 7 cm and height 6 cm is completely immersed in water. Find the volume of
(i) water displaced out of the cylindrical vessel.
(ii) water left in the cylindrical vessel.
22
[Take ]
7
Solution:
Apparent capacity of the glass = Volume of cylinder
Actual capacity of the glass = Volume of cylinder – Volume of hemisphere
Volume of the cylindrical glass = r 2h
3.14 (2.5)2 10
3.14 2.5 2.5 10
3.14 6.25 10
196.25 cm3
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CBSE-X-2009 EXAMINATION
2
Volume of hemisphere r 3
3
2
(2.5)3 32.7 cm3
3
Apparent capacity of the glass = Volume of cylinder = 196.25 cm3
Actual capacity of the glass
= Total volume of cylinder — volume of hemisphere
= 196.25 — 32.7
= 163.54cm3
Hence, apparent capacity = 196.25cm3
Actual capacity of the glass = 163.54cm3
OR
29.
Given, internal diameter of the cylinder =10 cm
Internal radius of the cylinder = 5cm
and height of the cylinder = 10.5 cm
Similarly, diameter of the cone = 7 cm
radius of the cone = 3.5 cm and Height of the cone = 6cm
i) Volume of water displaced out of cyindrical vessel = volume of cone
1
r 2h
3
1 22
3.5 3.5 6 77 cm3
3 7
ii) Volume of water left In the cylindrical vessel = volume of cylinder - volume of cone
R2H Volume of cone
22
= 5 5 10.5 77
7
= 825 —77 =748cm3
30. During the medical check-up of 35 students of a class their weights were recorded as follows:
Weight (in Number of students
kg)
38 – 40 3
40 – 42 2
42 – 44 4
44 – 46 5
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CBSE-X-2009 EXAMINATION
46 – 48 14
48 – 50 4
50 – 52 3
Draw a less than type and a more than type ogive from the given data. Hence obtain the median weight
from the graph.
Solution:
Weight cumulative (more than
type)
More than 38 35
More than 40 32
More than 42 30
More than 44 26
More than 46 21
More than 48 7
More than 50 3
More than 52 0
Weight (in kg) Number of students
Upper class limits (cumulative frequency)
Less than 38 0
Less than 40 3
Less than 42 5
Less than 44 9
Less than 46 14
Less than 48 28
Less than 50 32
More than 52 35
Taking upper class limits on x-axis and their respective cumulative frequency on y-axis its give can be
drawn as follows:
Here, n = 35
So,
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CBSE-X-2009 EXAMINATION
n
= 17.5
2
Mark the point A whose ordinate is 17.5 and its x-coordinate is 46.5. Therefore, median of this data is 46.5.
It can be observed that the difference between two consecutive upper class limits is 2. The class marks
with their respective frequencies are obtained as below:
Weight (In kg) Frequency (f) Cumulative,
frequency
Less than 38 0 0
38 – 40 3-0=3 3
40 – 42 5-3=2 5
42-44 9-5=4 9
44 – 46 14 – 9 = 5 14
46- 48 28- 14 = 14 28
48-50 32 -28 = 4 32
50 – 52 35 – 32 = 3 35
Total (n) 35
The Cumulative frequency just greater than
n 35
i.e., 17.5
2 2
is 28. Belonging to class interval 46 - 48
Medan class = 46 - 48
Lower class lima (l) of median class = 46
Frequency (f) of median class = 14
Cumulative frequency (cf) of class preceding median class = 14
Class size (h) = 2
n
2 cf
Median l h
f
17.5 14
46 2
14
3.5
46
7
46.5
=46.5
Therefore, median of this data is 46.5
Hence, the value of median is verified.
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CBSE-XII-2017 EXAMINATION CBSE-X-2010 EXAMINATION
MATHEMATICS
Series: LRH/1 Paper & Solution Code: 30/1/1
Time: 3 Hrs. Max. Marks: 80
General Instuctions :
(i) All questions are compulsory.
(ii) The question paper consists of 30 questions divided into four sections - A, B, C and D. Section A
comprises often questions of 1 mark each, Section B comprises of five questions of 2 marks each, Section C
comprises often questions of 3 marks each and Section D comprises of five questions of 6 marks each.
(iii) All questions in Section A are to be answered in one word, one sentence. or as per the exact
requirement of the question.
(iv) There is no overall choice. However, an internal choice has been provided in one question of 2 marks
each. three questions of 3 marks each and two questions of 6 marks each. You have to attempt only one of
the alternative in all such questions.
(v) In question on construction, the drawings should be neat and exactly as per the given measurements.
(vi) Use of calculators is not permitted.
SECTION – A
Question Numbers 1 to 10 carry 1 mark each.
441
1. Has the rational number 2 7 2 a terminating or a non-terminating decimal representation?
2 .5 .7
Solution:
441
Given a rational number 2 7 2
2 .5 .7
Since the denominator is not in the form of 2m×5n. the rational number has non terminating repeating
decimal expansion
2. If , are the zeroes of a polynomial, such that 6 and 4, then write the polynomial.
Solution:
Given ∝ and β are the zeroes of quadratic polynomial with ∝+β = 6
∝β = 4
Quadratic polynomial =x2-6x+4
=x2-6x+4
3. If the sum of first p terms of an A.P., is ap2 + bp, find its common difference.
Solution:
Given an AP which has sum of first P terms =ap2+bp
Lets say first term=k & common difference =d
p
∴ap2+bp= 2k p 1 d
2
2ap 2b 2k p 1 d
2b 2ap 2k d pd
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CBSE-X-2010 EXAMINATION
Comparing terms (r) both sides
2a d
2k d 2b
2k 2b 2a
k ab
Common difference =2a
First term = a + b
4. In Fig. 1, S and T are points on the sides PQ and PR, respectively of PQR, such that PT = 2 cm, TR = 4 cm
and ST is parallel to QR. Find the ratio of the areas of PST and PQR.
Solution:
Given : PT 2cm,TR cm
ST 11QR
solution :AS itisgiven that ST 11 QR
PST PQR
PQ
PS PT ST
PR QR
ar PST
2 2
PS PT ST
2
Also,
ar PQR PQ TR QR
ar PST 2
PT 2
2
ar PQR TR 4
ratio 1 : 4
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CBSE-X-2010 EXAMINATION
5. In fig. 2, AHK is similar to ABC. If AK = 10 cm, BC = 3.5 cm and HK = 7 cm, find AC.
Solution:
Given ∆AHK ~ ∆ABC
AH HK AK
AB BC AC
Also we know AK=10cm, BC=3.5cm and HK=7cm
AK HK
AC BC
10 7
AC 3.5
AC 5cm
3 1
6. lf 3x = cosec 9 and cot , find the value of 3 x2 2 .
x x
Solution:
Given 3x=cosec θ
3
cot
x
We know that cosec2 θ-cot2θ=1
9
9x2 2 1
x
1
9 x2 2 1
x
1 1
3 x2 2
x 3
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CBSE-X-2010 EXAMINATION
7. If P(2, p) is the mid-point of the line segment joining the points A(6, -5) and B(-2, 11). find the value of p.
Solution:
Given P is midpoint of AB
6 2 5 11
∴(2,P)= ,
2 2
2 , p 2 ,3
p3
8. If A(1, 2), B(4, 3) and C(6, 6) are the three vertices of a parallelogram ABCD, find the coordinates of the
fourth vertex D.
Solution:
Given ABCD is a parallelogram
In a parallelogram diagonals each other.
0 is midpoint to AC and BD
1 6 2 6
0 ,
2 2
1
0 ,4
2
Lets say D=(x,y)
x 4 3 4
0 ,
2 2
7
But we know 0 , 4
2
7 x4 3 y
and 4
2 2 2
x 3, y 5
D 3, 5
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CBSE-X-2010 EXAMINATION
9. The slant height of a frustum of a cone is 4 cm and the perimeters (circumferences) of its circular ends
are 18 cm and 6 cm. Find the curved surface area of the frustum.
22
[Use ]
7
Solution:
Given slant height (ℓ)=4cm
Perimeters of circular ends:
2πr=6cm
2πR=18cm
C.S.A=πℓ(r+R)=4×12
=48cm2
10. A card is drawn at random from a well shuffled pack of 52 playing cards. Find the probability of getting
a red face card.
Solution:
A card is drawn from 52 card total no of possible outcomes =52
No of face cards =12
No of Red face cards =6
6
Probability of drawing =
52
3
A Red face card =
26
Section B
Question Numbers 11 to 15 carry 2 marks each.
11. If two zeroes of the polynomial x3 -4x2 - 3x + 12 are 3 and 3 , then find its third zero.
Solution:
Given a polynomial
X2-4x2-3x+12=0
Sum of all the zeroes of polynomial =(-4)=4
Given two zeroes of 3 , 3
Say the third zero = ∝
3 3 4
4 third zero is 4
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CBSE-X-2010 EXAMINATION
12. Find the value of k for which the following pair of linear equations have infinitely many solutions
2x + 3y = 7; (k-1)x + (k + 2)y = 3k
Solution:
2x+3y=7
(k-1)x+(k+2)y =3k
For this pair of linear equations to have infinitely many solution, they need to be concident
2 3 7
k 1 k 2 3k
Upon solving we get
k 7
13. In an A.P., the first term is 2, the last term is 29 and sum of the terms is 155. Find the common
difference of the A.P.
Solution:
Given an AP with first term (a)=2
Last term (ℓ)=29
Sum of the term =155
Common difference (d)=?
n
Sum of the n term = a
2
n
155 2 29
2
n 10
Last term which is Tn
= a +(n-1)d
= a +(9)d
∴29=2+9d
d 3
Common difference=3
14. If all the sides of a parallelogram touch a circle, show that the parallelogram is a rhombus.
Solution:
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CBSE-X-2010 EXAMINATION
Given a parallelogram PQRS in which a circle is inscribed
We know PQ=RS
QR=PS
DP=PA {tangents to the circle from external point have equal length}
QA=BQ
BR=RC
DS=CS
Adding above four equations
DP+QA+BR+DS=PA+BQ+RC+CS
(DP+DS)+(QA+BR)=(PA+QA)+(SR)
2QR=2(PQ)
∴PQ=QR
PQ=QR=RS=QS
∴PQRS is a rhombus
15. Without using trigonometric tables, find the value of the following expression
sec(90 ).cosec tan(90-)cot+ cos2 25 cos2 65
3tan27 tan63
Or
Find the value of cosec 30°, geometrically.
Solution:
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CBSE-X-2010 EXAMINATION
sec 90 cos ec tan 90 cot cos 2 25 cos 2 65
3 tan 27.tan 63
cos ec 2 cot 2 sin 90 25 cos 2 65
2
3 tan 27.tan 63
1 sin 65 cos 2 65
2
3 cot 90 27 tan 63
2
3 cot 63 tan 63
2
3
15)(or)
∠A=∠B=∠C=600
Draw AD⊥BC
In ∆ABD and ∆ACD,
AD=AD (common)
∠ADB=∠ADC (900)
AB=AC (∆ABC is equalateral∆)
∴∆ABD≥∆ACD (RHS congruence criterion)
BD=DC (C.P.C.t)
∠BAD=∠CAD (C.P.C.t)
2a 600
BD= =a and ∠BAD= =300
2 2
In right ∆ABD,
BD Perpendicular
Sin 300= sin
AB Hypotenuse
a
sin 300
2a
1 1
sin 300 2
2 sin 300
cos ec 300 2
Section C
Question Numbers 16 to 25 carry 3 marks each.
16. Prove that 2 3 5 is an irrational number.
Solution:
lets assume 2-3 5 is a rational number
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CBSE-X-2010 EXAMINATION
p
23 5 , where p,q are int egers pq 0
q
p
2 3 5
q
2q p
5
3q
2q p
is a rational number but we also know 5 is an irrational
3q
Rational ± irrational
our assumption is wrong
∴2-3 5 is an irrational number
17. The sum of numerator and denominator of a fraction is 3 less than twice the denominator. If each of
1
the numerator and denominator is decreased by 1, the fraction becomes . Find the fraction.
2
Or
Solve the following pair of equations
4 6
3y 8, 4 y 5
x x
Solution:
lets say numerator=x
Denominator=y
Given x+y=2y-3
x y 3 0 1
From the next condition
x 1 1
y 1 2
2x y 1 o 2
Solving (1) and (2)
X=4
Y=7
4
∴ fraction=
7
17)(or)
4
3 y 8 1
x
6
4 y 5 2
x
Multiplying 4 to (1) and 3 to (2)
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CBSE-X-2010 EXAMINATION
16
12 y 32
x
18
12 y 15
x
34
17
x
x2
Substitute
X in (1)
2+3y=8
3y=6
Y=2
∴x=2
Y=2
18. In an A.P., the sum of first ten terms is -150 and the sum of its next ten terms is -550. Find the A.P.
Solution:
sum of first ten terms =-150
Sum of next ten terms =550
Lets say first term of A.P=a
Common difference =d
10
Sum of first ten terms = 2a 9d
2
150 5 2a 9d
2a 9d 30 1
For sum of next ten terms the first term would be T11=a+10d
10
550 2 a 10d 9d
2
110 2a 29d 2
Solving (1) and (2)
D= - 4
A=3
∴A.P will be 3,-1,-5,-9,-13,………..
19. In Fig. 3, ABC is a right triangle, right angled at C and D is the mid-point of BC. Prove that AB2 = 4AD2 -
3AC2.
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CBSE-X-2010 EXAMINATION
Solution:
Given that BD = CD
AC ⊥ BC
In ∆ABC AB2 =BC2 +AC2
AB2=(BD+CD)2+AC2
AB2 =(2CD)2+AC2
AB2=4CD2+AC2-----(1)
In ∆ADC AD2=CD2+AC2
CD2=AD2-AC2
Substituting CD2 in-------(2)
AB2 =4AD2 – 4AC2+AC2
AB2 =4AD2 -3AC2
Hence proved
20. Prove the following:
tan A cot A
1 tan A cot A
1 cot A 1 tan A
OR
Prove the following:
1
cosec A sin A sec A cos A
tan A cot A
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CBSE-X-2010 EXAMINATION
Solution:
Proved that
tan A cot A
1 tan A cot A
1- cot A 1- tan A
tan A cot A
L.H.S
1- cot A 1- tan A
tan A cot A
Þ
1 1- tan A
1-
tan A
- tan 2 A cot A
Þ
1- tan A 1- tan A
1
1 tan
tan 2 A cot A
1 1
tan A
2
1 tan A tan A
1 tan 3 A
tan A 1 tan A
1 tan A 1 tan 2 A tan A
tan A 1 tan A
cot A tan A 1
Hence proved
OR
Proved that :
1
(cosec A- sin A) (sec A- cos A)=
tan A cot A
1 1
LHS sin A cos A
sin A cos A
1 sin A 1 cos A
2 2
sin A cos A
=sin A cos A
Multiply & divide by 2
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CBSE-X-2010 EXAMINATION
2siA cos A
2
sin 2A
2
2 tan A
2 1 tan 2 A
1
1
tan A
tan A
1
tan A cot A
Hence proved
21. Construct a triangle ABC in which BC = 8 cm, B = 45° and C = 30°.
3
Construct another triangle similar to ABC such that its sides are of the corresponding sides of ABC.
4
Solution:
steps :
1) Draw a ∆ABC with BC =8cm, ∠B=450 &∠C=300
2) Draw a ray BX making acute angle with BC on the opposite side of vertex A
3) mark four points B1,B2,B3B4 on BX such that BB1=B1B2=B2B3=B3B4
4) join B4toc and draw a line parallel to B4C from B3 such it luts BC at C1
5) form C1draw another line parallel to AC such that it cuts AC at A1.
6) ∆A1BC1 is the required triangle
Tustification :
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CBSE-X-2010 EXAMINATION
In ∆ABC and ∆A1BC1
∠ABC = ∠A1BC1
∠ACB = ∠A1C1B
∴by AA criterion ∆ABC ~ ∆A1BC1
AB BC AC
1 1 1 1
A B BC AC
In ∆BB4C and ∆BB3C1
B4C || B3C1
∴∆BB4C ~ ∆BB3C1
BC BB4 4
BC1 BB3 3
AB BC AC 4
1
1
1 1
A B BC AC 3
3
A1 B AB
4
3
BC1 BC
4
3
A1C1 BC.
4
AP 1
22. Point P divides the line segment joining the points A(2, 1) and B(5, -8) such that . If P lies on the
AB 3
line 2x -y + k = 0, find the value of k.
Solution:
Given :
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CBSE-X-2010 EXAMINATION
AP 1 AP 1
PB 2AP AP : PB 1: 2
AB 3 AP PB 3
by sec tion formula
2 2 5 2 8
P ,
3 3
P 3, 2
Also it is given that P lines on 2x-y+k=0
3 2 k 0
k 4
23. If R(x, y) is a point on the line segment joining the points P(a, b) and Q(b, a), then prove that x + y = a +
b.
Solution:
Since R(x,y) is a point on the line segment joining the point, (a,b) and Q(b,a)
∴P(a,b) ,Q(b,a) and R(x,y) are the collinear.
Area of PQR 0
Area of triangle whose vertices are x1 , y1 , x 2 , y2 and x3 , y3
1
is x1 y 2 y3 x 2 y3 y1 x 3 y1 y 2
2
1
a a y b y b x b a 0
2
a 2 ay by b 2 x b a 0
yb a x b a 0
x y b a b a b a
xyab
24. In Fig; 4, the boundary of shaded region consists of four semicircular arcs, two smallest being equal. If
diameter of the largest is 14 cm and that of the smallest is 3.5 cm, calculate the area of the shaded region.
22
Use 7
Or
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CBSE-X-2010 EXAMINATION
Find the area of the shaded region in Fig. 5, if AC = 24 cm, BC = 10 cm and O is the centre of the circle. [Use
= 3.14]
Solution:
Given AB=14cm and AC =BD = 3.5cm
DC 7cm
Area of shaded region =Area of semicircle AB +Area of semicircle CD -2(Area of semicircle AC)
14
2
7
2
3.5 2
2
2 2 22 2 2
196 49 49
Area of shaded region = 86.625cm2
4 2 2 4
24)(or)
AC=24cm, BC= 10cm
AB 242 102
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CBSE-X-2010 EXAMINATION
AB=26cm
Diameter of circle =26cm Area of shaded region
=Area of semicircle – Area of ∆ABC
1
13 24 10
2
2 2
145.33cm 2
25. Cards bearing numbers 1, 3, 5, _ _ _ , 35 are kept in a bag. A card is drawn at random from the bag.
Find the probability of getting a card bearing
(i) a prime number less than 15.
(ii) a number divisible by 3 and 5.
Solution:
Total possible outcomes when a cord is drawn = 35
6
i) Total prime numbers from 1 to 15 = 6 probability that a prime numbered card is drawn =
35
ii) Total numbers between 1 to 35 divisible by 3 and 5 = 2
2
∴ probability that when a card is drawn it has a number divisible by 3 &5 =
35
Section D
Question Numbers 26 to 30 carry 6 marks each.
26. Three consecutive positive integers are such that the sum of the square of l the first and the product of
the other two is 46. find the integers.
Or
The difference of squares of two numbers is 88. If the larger number is 5 less than twice the smaller
number. then find the two numbers.
Solution:
Let the required three integers be x 1 , x and x 1.
Now, x 1 x. x 1 46
2
x 2x 1 x 2 x 46
2
2x 2 x 45 0
2x 2 10x 9x 45 0
2x x 5 9 x 5 0
x 5 2x 9 0
x 5 or x .9 / 2
So, x 5 because it is given that x is a positive int eger
Thus, the required int egers are 5 1 , i. e. 4,5 and 6.
26)(or)
Let the smaller no. be x and larger no. be y
Y2- x2=88………..(1)
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CBSE-X-2010 EXAMINATION
Y=2x-5…………(2)
In equation 1
(2x-5)2-x2=88
4x2-20x+25-x2=88
3x2-20x-63=0
By splitting the middle term,
3x2-27x+7x-63=0
3x(x-9)+7(x-9)
(x-9)(3x+7)
=>x=9 and x =-7/3
Since no. cannot be negative therefore the nos. are smaller no. =9
And larger no. =2x-5 =18-5=13
27. Prove that the ratio of the areas of two similar triangles is equal to the square of the ratio of their
corresponding sides.
Using the above, prove the following
If the areas of two similar triangles are equal, then prove that the triangles are congruent.
Solution:
proof : Given ∆ABC ~ ∆PQR
∠A=∠P, ∠B=∠Q,∠C=∠R
AB BC AC
1
PQ QR PR
Ratio of areas of ∆ABC & ∆PQR will be
1
ar ABC 2 BC AD
2
ar PQR 1
QR PS
2
In ABD & PQS
B Q
ADB PSQ 900
by AA similarity ABD PQS
AB AD BD
3
PQ PS QS
From (1) and (3) we get
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CBSE-X-2010 EXAMINATION
AB BC CA AD
PQ QR PR PS
BC AD
4
QR PS
from 2 and 4
ar ABC BC BC
ar PQR QR.QR
ar ABC BC AB CA
2 2 2
ar PQR QR 2 PQ 2 PR
2
if ar ABC ar PQR
then BC QR
AB PQ
AC PR
All corresponding sides equal in these similar triangles
ABC PQR
Triangle are congruent
28. From the top of a 7 m high building, the angle of elevation of the top of a tower is 60° and the angle of
depression of the foot of the tower is 30°. Find the height of the tower.
Solution:
Let Ab be the building and CD be the tower such that <EAD=600 and <EAC=<ACB =450
Now, in triangle ABC, tan 45 =1 =AB/BC
So,Ab=AE=7m
Again in triangle AED,
Tan 60=root 3=DE/AE
So, DE=AE root 3=7 root 3 m
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CBSE-X-2010 EXAMINATION
h 7 3m
Height of tower h 7 7 1 3 mt
3
29. A milk container is made of metal sheet in the shape of frustum of a cone whose volume is 10459
7
3
cm . The radii of its lower and upper circular ends are 8 cm and 20 cm respectively. Find the cost of metal
sheet used in making the container at the rate of Rs. 1.40 per square centimeter.
22
[Use ]
7
Or
A toy is in the form of a hemisphere surmounted by a right circular cone of the same base radius as that of
2
the hemisphere. If the radius of base of the cone is 21 cm and its volume is of the volume of the
3
hemisphere, calculate the height of the cone and the surface area of the toy.
22
[Use ]
7
Solution:
Let the rad11 of lower end of the frustum be r=8 cm
Let the rad11 of upper end of the frustum be R=20 cm
Let the height of the frustum be h cm
Volume of the frustum =
h R 2 r 2 Rr 10459
3 73216
3 7 7
Therefore substituting the value of R and r.
h 202 82 20 8
22 1 73216
7 3 7
73216 7
h 400 64 160 3
7 22
h 624 9984
9984
h 16 cm
624
Total surface area of the container =
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CBSE-X-2010 EXAMINATION
R r R r h 2 r 2
2
22 22
20 8 20 8 162 82
2
7 7
22 22
28 122 162 64
7 7
22 22
28 144 256 64
7 7
22
7
28 400 64
22
7
28 20 64
22 22
560 64 624
7 7
Cost of 1 cm square metal sheet is 1. 40 Rs
Cost of required sheet =
22
624 1.40 2745. 60Rs
7
OR
Let the radius of base of the cone be r=21 cm
Let the height of the cone be h cm
Volume of the cone = 2/3 volume of the hemisphere
1 2 2 2
r h r 3
3 3 3
4 4
h r 21 28 cm
3 3
Surface area of cone = lateral surface area of cone + curved surface area of sphere =
r r 2 h 2 2r 2
22 22
21 212 282 2 21 21
7 7
66 441 784 2772
66 35 2772
2310 2772 5082cm 2
30. Find the mean, mode and median of the following frequency distribution:
Class: 0-10 10-20 20-30 30-40 40-50 50-60 60-70
Frequency: 4 4 7 10 12 8 5
Solution:
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CBSE-X-2010 EXAMINATION
class fi Class Fi x i
mark(xi)
0-10 4 5 20
10-20 4 15 60
20-30 7 25 175
30-40 10 35 350
40-50 12 45 540
50-60 8 55 440
60-70 5 65 325
Efi=50 Efixi=1910
1910
mean 38.2
50
Class frequency cumulative frequency
0-10 4 4
10-20 4 8
20-30 7 15
30-40 10 20
40-50 12 32
50-60 8 40
60-70 5 45
n = 45
n
22.5
2
Cumulative frequency greater than 22.5 is 32.
Medium class 40-50
n
c.f
m 2
f
her 40
n 45
c.f 20, f 32, f 10
22.5 20
m]40 10
32
mediam 40.781
mod e :
Maximum frequency = 12 so modal class 40-50
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CBSE-X-2010 EXAMINATION
fi f o
mod e
2fi f o f 2
here 40, h 10
f o 10 f i 12 f 2 8
12 10
mod e 40 10
2 12 10 8
Mode =40 + 3.33
=43.33
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CBSE-XII-2017 EXAMINATION CBSE-X-2012 EXAMINATION
MATHEMATICS
Paper & Solution
Time: 3 Hrs. Max. Marks: 90
General Instuctions :
1. All questions are compulsory.
2. The question paper consists of 34 questions divided into four sections A, B, C, and D.
3. Section A contains of 10 questions of 1 mark each, which are multiple choice type question, Section B
contains of 8 questions of 2 marks each, Section C contains of 10 questions of 3 marks each and Section D
contains of 6 questions of 4 marks each.
4. Question numbers 1 to 8 in Section A are multiple choice questions where you are to select one correct
option out of the given four.
5. There is no overall choice. However, internal choice has been provided in one question of 2 marks, three
questions of 3 marks each and two questions of 4 marks each. You have to attempt only one of the
alternatives in all such questions.
6. Use of calculator is not permitted.
SECTION – A
1. The length of shadow of a tower on the plane ground is 3 times the height of the tower. The angle of
elevation of sun is:
(A) 45
(B) 30
(C) 60
(D) 90
Solution:
Correct answer: B
Let AB be the tower and BC be its shadow. Let be the angle of elevation of the sun.
According to the given information,
BC = 3 AB … (1)
In ABC,
AB AB 1
tan [Using (1)]
BC 3 AB 3
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CBSE-X-2012 EXAMINATION
1
We know that tan 30 =
3
= 30
Hence, the angle of elevation of the sun is 30.
2. If the area of a circle is equal to sum of the areas of two circles of diameters 10 cm and 24 cm, then the
diameter of the larger circle (in cm) is:
(A) 34
(B) 26
(C) 17
(D) 14
Solution:
Correct answer: B
Diameters of two circles are given as 10 cm and 24 cm.
Radius of one circle = r1 = 5 cm
Radius of one circle = r2 = 12 cm
According to the given information,
Area of the larger circle = (r1 ) 2 (r2 ) 2
(5) 2 (12) 2
(25 144)
169
(13) 2
Radius of larger circle = 13 cm
Hence, the diameter of larger circle = 26 cm
3. If the radius of the base of a right circular cylinder is halved, keeping the height the same, then the ratio
of the volume of the cylinder thus obtained to the volume of original cylinder is:
(A) 1 : 2
(B) 2 : 1
(C) 1 : 4
(D) 4 : 1
Solution:
Correct answer: C
Let the original radius and the height of the cylinder be r and h respectively.
Volume of the original cylinder = r 2 h
r
Radius of the new cylinder =
2
Height of the new cylinder = h
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CBSE-X-2012 EXAMINATION
r 2 h
2
r
Volume of the new cylinder = h
2 4
r 2h
Volume of the new cylinder 1
Required ratio 42 1: 4
Volume of the original cylinder r h 4
4. Two dice are thrown together. The probability of getting the same number on both dice is:
1
(A)
2
1
(B)
3
1
(C)
6
1
(D)
12
Solution:
Correct answer: C
When two dice are thrown together, the total number of outcomes is 36.
Favourable outcomes = {(1, 1), (2, 2), (3, 3), (4, 4), (5, 5), (6, 6)}
Number of favourable outcomes 6 1
Required probability =
Total number of outcomes 36 6
5. The coordinates of the point P dividing the line segment joining the points
A(1,3) and B(4,6) in the ratio 2 : 1 are:
(A) (2,4)
(B) 3,5)
(C) (4,2)
(D) 5,3)
Solution:
Correct answer: B
It is given that the point P divides AB in the ratio 2: 1.
Using section formula, the coordinates of the point P are
1 1 2 4 1 3 2 6 1 8 3 12
, , (3,5)
2 1 2 1 3 3
Hence the coordinates of the point P are (3, 5).
6. If the coordinates of the one end of a diameter of a circle are (2,3) and the coordinates of its centre are
(-2,5), then the coordinates of the other end of the diameter are:
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CBSE-X-2012 EXAMINATION
(A) (-6,7)
(B) ( 6,-7)
(C) (6,7)
(D) (-6,-7)
Solution:
Correct answer: A
Let the coordinates of the other end of the diameter be (x, y).
We know that the centre is the mid-point of the diameter. So, O(-2, 5) is the mid-point of the diameter AB.
The coordinates of the point A and B are (2, 3) and (x, y) respectively.
Using mid-point formula, we have,
2 x
2 4 2 x x 6
2
3 y
5 10 3 y y 7
2
Hence, the coordinates of the other end of the diameter are (-6, 7).
7. The sum of first 20 odd natural number is :
(A) 100
(B) 210
(C) 400
(D) 420
Solution:
Correct answer: C
The first 20 odd numbers are 1, 3, 5, … … 39
This is an AP with first term 1 and the common difference 2.
Sum of 20 terms = S20
20
S20 [2(1) (20 1)(2)] 10[2 38] 400
2
Thus, the sum of first 20 odd natural numbers is 400.
8. If 1 is a root of the equations ay2 + ay + 3 = 0 and y2 + y + b = 0, then ab equals:
(A) 3
7
(B)
2
(C) 6
(D) -3
Solution:
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CBSE-X-2012 EXAMINATION
Correct answer: A
It is given that 1 is a root of the equations ay2 + ay + 3 = 0 and y2 + y + b = 0.
Therefore, y = 1 will satisfy both the equations.
a(1)2 + a(1) + 3 = 0
a + a + 3 = 0
2a + 3 = 0
3
a
2
Also, (1)2 + (1) + b = 0
1 + 1 + b = 0
b =2
3
ab 2 3
2
9. In Fig., the sides AB, BC and CA of a triangle ABC, touch a circle at P, Q and R respectively. If PA = 4 cm,
BP = 3 cm and AC = 11 cm, then the length of BC (in cm) is:
(A) 11
(B) 10
(C) 14
(D) 15
Solution:
Correct answer: B
It is known that the lengths of tangents drawn from a point outside a circle are equal in length.
Therefore, we have:
AP = AR … (1) (Tangents drawn from point A)
BP = BQ … (2) (Tangents drawn from point B)
CQ = CR … (3) (Tangents drawn from point C)
Using the above equations,
AR = 4 cm (AP = 4 cm, given)
BQ = 3 cm (BP = 3 cm, given)
AC = 11 cm RC = 11 cm – 4 cm = 7 cm
CQ = 7 cm
Hence, BC = BQ + CQ = 3 cm + 7 cm = 10 cm
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CBSE-X-2012 EXAMINATION
10. In Fig., a circle touches the side DF of EDF at H and touches ED and EF produced at K and M
respectively. If EK = 9 cm, then the perimeter of EDF (in cm) is:
(A) 18
(B) 13.5
(C) 12
(D) 9
Solution:
Correct answer: A
It is known that the tangents from an external point to the circle are equal.
EK = EM, DK = DH and FM = FH … (1)
Perimeter of EDF = ED + DF + FE
= (EK – DK) + (DH + HF) + (EM – FM)
= (EK – DH) + (DH + HF) + (EM – FH) [Using (1)]
= EK + EM
= 2 EK = 2 (9 cm) = 18 cm
Hence, the perimeter of EDF is 18 cm.
SECTION – B
11. If a point A(0,2) is equidistant from the points B(3,p) and C(p,5) then find the value of p.
Solution:
Solution:
It is given that the point A (0, 2) is equidistant from the points B(3, p) and C(p, 5).
So, AB = AC AB2 = AC2
Using distance formula, we have:
(0 3)2 (2 p)2 (0 p)2 (2 5)2
9 4 p2 4 p p 2 9
4 4p 0
4p 4
p 1
Hence, the value of p = 1.
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CBSE-X-2012 EXAMINATION
12. A number is selected at random from first 50 natural numbers. Find the probability that it is a multiple
of 3 and 4.
Solution:
Solution:
The total number of outcomes is 50.
Favourable outcomes = {12, 24, 36, 48}
Number of favourable outcomes 4 2
Required probability
Total number of outcomes 50 25
1
13.The volume of a hemisphere is 2425 cm3. Find its curved surface area.
2
22
Use
7
Solution:
Solution:
1 4851 3
Given volume of a hemisphere 2425 cm2 cm
2 2
Now, let r be the radius of the hemisphere
2
Volume of a hemisphere r 3
3
2 4851
r 3
3 2
2 22 3 4851
r
3 7 2
3
4851 3 7 21
r 3
2 2 22 2
21
r cm
2
So, Curved surface area of the hemisphere 2r 2
22 21 21
2 693 sq. cm
7 2 2
14.Tangents PA and PB are drawn from an external point P to two concentric circle with centre O and radii
8 cm and 5 cm respectively, as shown in Fig., If AP = 15 cm, then find the length of BP.
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CBSE-X-2012 EXAMINATION
Solution:
Given: Tangents PA and PB are drawn from an external point P to two
concentric circles with centre O and radii OA = 8 cm, OB = 5 cm
respectively. Also, AP = 15 cm
To find: Length of BP
Construction: We join the points O and P.
Solution: OA ⊥ AP ; OB ⊥ BP
[Using the property that radius is perpendicular to the tangent at the point
of contact of a circle]
In right angled triangle OAP,
OP2 = OA2 + AP2 [Using Pythagoras Theorem]
= (8)2 + (15)2 = 64 + 225 = 289
∴ OP = 17 cm
In right angled triangle OBP,
OP2 = OB2 + BP2
⇒ BP2 = OP2 – OB2
= (17)2 – (5)2 = 289 – 25 = 264
BP 264 2 66 cm.
15.In fig., an isosceles triangle ABC, with AB = AC, circumscribes a circle.
Prove that the point of contact P bisects the base BC.
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CBSE-X-2012 EXAMINATION
OR
In fig., the chord AB of the larger of the two concentric circles, with centre O, touches the smaller circle at
C. Prove that AC = CB.
Solution:
Given: ABC is an isosceles triangle, where AB = AC, circumscribing a circle.
To prove: The point of contact P bisects the base BC.
i.e. BP = PC
Proof: It can be observed that
BP and BR ; CP and CQ; AR and AQ are pairs of tangents drawn to the circle
from the external points B , C and A respectively.
So, applying the result that the tangents drawn from an external point to a circle, we get
BP = BR --- (i)
CP = CQ --- (ii)
AR = AQ --- (iii)
Given that AB = AC
⇒ AR + BR = AQ + CQ
⇒ BR = CQ [from (iii)]
⇒ BP = CP [from (i) and (ii)]
∴ P bisects BC.
Hence proved.
OR
Given: The chord AB of the larger of the two concentric circles, with centre O, touches the smaller circle at
C.
To prove: AC = CB
Construction: Let us join OC.
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CBSE-X-2012 EXAMINATION
Proof: In the smaller circle, AB is a tangent to the circle at the point of contact C.
∴ OC ⊥ AB ------ (i)
(Using the property that the radius of a circle is perpendicular to the tangent at the point of contact)
For the larger circle, AB is a chord and from (i) we have OC ⊥ AB
∴ OC bisects AB
(Using the property that the perpendicular drawn from the centre to a chord of a circle bisects the chord)
∴ AC = CB
16. In fig., OABC is a square of side 7 cm. If OAPC is a quadrant of a circle with centre O, then find the area
22
of the shaded region. Use
7
Solution:
Given, OABC is a square of side 7 cm
i.e. OA = AB = BC = OC = 7cm
∴ Area of square OABC = (side)2 = 72 = 49 sq.cm
Given, OAPC is a quadrant of a circle with centre O.
∴ Radius of the sector = OA = OC = 7 cm.
Sector angle = 90
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CBSE-X-2012 EXAMINATION
90
∴ Area of quadrant OAPC r 2
360
1 22 77
(7)2 sq. cm 38.5 sq. cm
4 7 2
∴ Area of shaded portion = Area of Square - OABC Area of quadrant OAPC
(49 38.5)sq. cm 10.5 sq.cm
17.Find the sum of all three digit natural numbers, which are multiples of 7.
Solution:
First three- digit number that is divisible by 7 = 105
Next number = 105 + 7 = 112
Therefore the series is 105, 112, 119,…
The maximum possible three digit number is 999.
When we divide by 7, the remainder will be 5.
Clearly, 999 – 5 = 994 is the maximum possible three – digit number divisible by 7.
The series is as follows:
105, 112, 119, …., 994
Here a = 105, d = 7
Let 994 be the nth term of this A.P.
an a (n 1)d
994 105 (n 1)7
(n 1)7 889
(n 1) 127
n 128
So, there are 128 terms in the A.P.
n
Sum {first term + last term}
2
128
{a1 a128 }
2
64{105 994} (64)(1099) 70336
18.Find the values (s) of k so that the quadratic equation 3x2 – 2kx + 12 = 0 has equal roots.
Solution:
Given quadratic equation is 3x2 – 2kx + 12 = 0
Here a = 3, b = -2k and c = 12
The quadratic equation will have equal roots if Δ = 0
b2 4ac 0
Putting the values of a,b and c we get
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CBSE-X-2012 EXAMINATION
(2k)2 4(3)(12) 0
4k 2 144 0
4k 2 144
144
k2 36
4
Considering square root on both sides,
k 36 6
Therefore, the required values of k are 6 and -6.
SECTION – C
AP K
19.A point P divides the line segment joining the points A(3,-5) and B(-4,8) such that . If P lies on
PB 1
the line x + y = 0, then find the value of K.
Solution:
Solution:
Let the co-ordinates of point P be (x, y)
Then using the section formula co-ordinates of P are.
4 K 3 8K 5
x y
K 1 K 1
Since P lies on x+y=0
4K 3 8K 5
0
K 1 K 1
4K 2 0
2
K
4
1
K
2
1
Hence the value of K .
2
20.If the vertices of a triangle are (1,-3), (4,p) and (-9,7) and its area is 15 sq. units, find the value (s) of p.
Solution:
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CBSE-X-2012 EXAMINATION
The area of a , whose vertices are (x1, y1), (x2, y2) and (x3, y3) is
1
| x1 (y2 y3 ) x2 (y3 y1 ) x3 (y1 y2 )|
2
Substituting the given coordinates
1
Area of |1(p 7) 4(7 3) (9)(3 p)|
2
1
|(p 7) 40 27 9 p| 15
2
10 p 60 30
10 p 30 or 10 p 90
p 3. or p 9
Ans hence the value of p=-3 or -9
21.Prove that the parallelogram circumscribing a circle is a rhombus.
OR
Prove that opposite sides of a quadrilateral circumscribing a circle subtend supplementary angles at the
centre of the circle.
Solution:
Let ABCD be a parallelogram such that its sides touching a circle with centre O. We know that the tangents
to a circle from an exterior point are equal in length.
AP = AS [From A] …(i)
BP = BQ [From B] …(ii)
CR = CQ [From C] …(iii)
and, DR = DS [From D] …(iv)
Adding (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv), we get
AP+BP+CR+DR=AS+BQ+CQ+DS
(AP+BP)+(CR+DR)=(AS+DS)+(BQ+CQ)
AB+CD = AD+BC
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CBSE-X-2012 EXAMINATION
2 AB = 2 BC [ ABCD is a parallelogram AB=CD and BC = AD]
AB=BC
Thus, AB=BC=CD=AD
Hence, ABCD is a rhombus.
OR
A circle with centre O touches the sides AB, BC, CD, and DA of a quadrilateral ABCD at the points P, Q, R
and S respectively.
TO PROVE : AOB + COD = 180
and, AOD + BOC = 180
CONSTRUCTION
Join OP, OQ, OR and OS.
PROOF Since the two tangents drawn from a external point to a circle subtend equal angles at the centre.
1 = 2, 3 = 4, 5 = 6 and 7 = 8
Now, 1 + 2 + 3 + 4 + 5+ 6 + 7 + 8 = 360
Sum of all the angles
subtended at a point is 360
2( 2 + 3 + 6 + 7) = 360 and 2( 1 + 8 + 4 + 5) = 360
( 2 + 3) + ( 6 + 7) = 180 and ( 1 + 8) + ( 4 + 5) = 180
2 3 AOB, 6 7 COD
1 8 AOD and 4 5 BOC
AOB COD 180
and AOD BOC 180
Hence Proved
22. From a solid cylinder of height 7 cm and base diameter 12 cm, a conical cavity of same height and same
22
base diameter is hollowed out. Find the total surface area of the remaining solid. Use
7
OR
A cylindrical bucket, 32 cm high and with radius of base 18 cm, is filled with sand. This bucket is emptied on
the ground and a conical heap of sand is formed. If the height of the conical heap is 24 cm, then find the
radius and slant height of the heap.
Solution:
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CBSE-X-2012 EXAMINATION
Given: radius of cyl=radius of cone=r=6cm
Height of the cylinder=height of the cone=h=7cm
Slant height of the cone= l
72 62
85cm
Total surface area of the remaining solid
= curved surface area of the cylinder + area of the base of the cylinder + curved surface area of the cone
(2rh r 2 rl)
22 22 22
2 6 7 62 6 85
7 7 7
792 132
264 85
7 7
132
377.1 85cm2
7
OR
Volume of the conical heap=volume of the sand emptied from the bucket.
Volume of the conical heap=
1 2 1
r h r 2 24cm2 (height of the coneis24)----------(1)
3 3
r 2h
Volume of the sand in the bucket
(18)2 32cm2 (2)
Equating 1 and 2
1 2
r 24 (18)2 32
3
(18)2 32 3
r2
24
r 36cm
23. In fig., PQ and AB are respectively the arcs of two concentric circles of radii 7 cm and 3.5 cm and centre
22
O. If POQ = 30, then the area of the shaded region. Use
7
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CBSE-X-2012 EXAMINATION
Solution:
Area of the shaded region=
Area of sector POQ-Area of sector AOB
R 2 r 2
360 360
30 22
Area of Shaded region (72 3.52 )
360 7
77
cm2
8
24. Solve for x: 4x2 – 4ax + (a2 – b2) = 0
Or
2
Solve for x: 3x - 6x + 2 = 0
Solution:
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CBSE-X-2012 EXAMINATION
4 x 2 4ax (a2 b2 ) 0
(4 x 2 4ax a2 ) b2 0
(2 x 2 ) 2.2 x.a a2 b2 0
2 x a b2 0
2
(2 x a)2 b (2 x a) b 0
(2 x a) b 0 or (2 x a) b 0
ab ab
x ;x
2 2
OR
3x 2 2 6 x 2 0
3x 2 6 x 6 x 2 0
3 3 x 2 2 3 x 2 0
3x 2 3x 2 0
2 0
2
3x
3x 2 0
3x 2
2 2 3 6
x 2
3 ( 3) 3
25. A kite is flying at a height of 45 m above the ground. The string attached to the kite is temporarily tied
to a point on the ground. The inclination of the string with the ground is 60 . Find the length of the string
assuming that there is slack in the string.
Solution:
Given: Position of kite is B.
Height of kite above ground= 45 m
Angle of inclination = 60
Required length of string = AB
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CBSE-X-2012 EXAMINATION
In right angled triangle AOB,
OB
sin A
AB
45
sin
AB
3 45
2 AB
45 2 90
AB 30 3m
3 3
Hence, the length of the string is 30 3m
26. Draw a triangle ABC with side BC = 6 cm, C = 30 and A = 105. Then construct another triangle
2
whose sides are times the corresponding sides of ABC.
3
Solution:
It is given that A = 105C = 30 .
Using angle sum property of triangle, we get, B = 45
The steps of construction are as follows:
1. Draw a line segment BC = 6 cm.
2. At B, draw a ray making an angle of 45with BC.
3. At C, draw a ray making an angle of 30with BC. Let the two rays meet at point A.
4. Below BC, make an acute angle CBX.
5. Along BX mark off three points B1, B2 , B3 such that BB1 = B1B2 = B2B3.
6. Join B3C.
7. From B2, draw B2C|| B3C.
8. From C, draw CA|| CA, meeting BA at the point A.
Then ABCis the required triangle.
27. The 16th term of an AP is 1 more than twice its 8th term. If the 12th term of the AP is 47, then find its nth
term.
Solution:
Let a and d respectively be the first term and the common difference of the AP.
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CBSE-X-2012 EXAMINATION
We know that the nth term of an AP is given by an = a + (n – 1)d
According to the given information,
A16 = 1 + 2 a8
a + (16 – 1)d = 1 + 2[a + (8 – 1)d]
a + 15d = 1 + 2a + 14d
a + 15d = 1 + 2a + 14d
–a + d = 1 … (1)
Also, it is given that, a12 = 47
a + (12 – 1)d = 47
a + 11d = 47 … (2)
Adding (1) and (2), we have:
12d = 48
d = 4
From (1),
–a + 4 = 1 a = 3
Hence, an = a + (n – 1)d = 3 + (n – 1)(4) = 3 + 4n – 4 = 4n – 1
Hence, the nth term of the AP is 4n – 1.
28.A card is drawn from a well shuffled deck of 52 cards. Find the probability of getting (i) a king of red
colour (ii) a face card (iii) the queen of diamonds.
Solution:
Total number of outcomes=52
(i) Probability of getting a red king
Here the number of favourable outcomes=2
no.of favourable outcomes
probability
total number of outcome
12
52
3
13
(iii)Probability of queen of diamonds
number of queens of diamond=1,hence
no.of favourable outcomes
probability
total number of outcome
1
52
SECTION – D
29.A bucket is in the form of a frustum of a cone and its can hold 28.49 litres of water. If the radii of its
22
circular ends are 28 cm and 21 cm, find the height of the bucket. Use
7
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CBSE-X-2012 EXAMINATION
Solution:
Here, R = 28 cm and r = 21 cm, we need to find h.
Volume of frustum = 28.49 L = 28.49×1000 cm3 = 28490 cm3
h 2
Now, Volume of frustum =
3
R Rr r 2
22h
73
282 28 21 212 28490
22
h 1813 28490
21
28490 21
h 15cm
22 1813
Hence the height of bucket is 15 cm.
30.The angle of elevation of the top of a hill at the foot of a tower is 60 and the angle of depression from
the top of the tower of the foot of the hill is 30. If the tower is 50 m high, find the height of the hill.
Solution:
Let the height of hill is h.
In right triangle ABC,
50 50 1
tan30 AB 50 3
AB AB 3
In right triangle ABD,
h h
tan60 3 h 3AB
AB AB
h 3 50 3 150m
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CBSE-X-2012 EXAMINATION
Hence the height of hill is 150 m.
31. AB + CD = AD + BC
Prove that the tangent at any point of a circle is perpendicular to the radius through the point of contact.
OR
A quadrilateral ABCD is drawn to circumscribe a circle. Prove that AB + CD = AD + BC.
Solution:
Given: AB is a tangent to a circle with centre O.
To prove: OP is perpendicular to AB.
Construction: Take a point Q on AB and join OQ.
Proof: Since Q is a point on the tangent AB, other than the point of contact P, so Q will be outside the
circle.
Let OQ intersect the circle at R.
Now OQ = OR + RQ
OQ > OR OQ > OP [as OR = OP]
OP < OQ
Thus OP is shorter than any other segment among all and the shortest length is the perpendicular from O
on AB.
OP AB. Hence proved.
OR
Let ABCD be a quadrilateral, circumscribing a circle.
Since the tangents drawn to the circle from an external point are equal,
we have
AP = AS ... (1)
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CBSE-X-2012 EXAMINATION
PB = BQ ... (2)
RC = QC ... (3)
DR = DS ... (4)
Adding, (1), (2), (3) and (4), we get
AP + PB + RC + DR = AS + BQ + QC + DS
(AP + PB) + (DR + RC) = (AS + SD) + (BQ + QC)
AB + CD = AD + BC.
Hence, Proved.
32.A shopkeeper buys some books for ₹80. If he had bought 4 more books for the same amount, each
book would have cost ₹1 less. Find the number of books he bought.
OR
1
The sum of two number is 9 and the sum of their reciprocals is . Find the numbers.
2
Solution:
Total cost of books = Rs 80
Let the number of books = x
80
So the cost of each book = Rs
x
80
Cost of each book if he buy 4 more book Rs
x4
As per given in question:
80 80
1
x x4
80 x 320 80 x
1
x(x 4)
320
2 1
x 4x
x 2 4 x 320 0
(x 20)(x 16) 0
x 20, 16
Since number of books cannot be negative,
So the number of books he brought is 16.
OR
Let the first number be x then the second number be 9 – x as the sum
of both numbers is 9.
1
Now the sum of their reciprocal is , therefore
2
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CBSE-X-2012 EXAMINATION
1 1 1
x 9x 2
9x x 1
x(9 x) 2
9 1
9x x 2
2
18 9 x x 2
x 2 9 x 18 0
(x 6)(x 3) 0
x 6,3
If x = 6 then other number is 3.
and if x = 3 then other number is 6.
Hence numbers are 3 and 6.
33.Sum of the first 20 terms of an AP is -240, and its first term is 7. Find its 24th term.
Solution:
Given: S20 240 and a 7
Consider, S20 240
20 n
(2 7 19d ) 240 Sn [2a (n 1)d ]
2 2
10(14 19d ) 240
14 19d 24
19d 38
d 2
Now, a24 a 23d 7 23 2 39
Hence, a24 39
34.A solid is in the shape of a cone standing on a hemisphere with both their radii being equal to 7 cm and
22
the height of the cone is equal to its diameter. Find the volume of the solid. Use
7
Solution:
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CBSE-X-2012 EXAMINATION
Radius of hemi-sphere = 7 cm
Radius of cone = 7 cm
Height of cone = diameter = 14 cm
Volume of solid = Volume of cone + Volume of Hemi-sphere
1 2
r 2h r 3
3 3
1
r 2 (h 2r )
3
1 22
49(14 14)
3 7
1 22
49 28
3 7
22 7 28 4312 3
cm
3 3
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CBSE-XII-2017 EXAMINATION CBSE-X-2013 EXAMINATION
MATHEMATICS
Paper & Solution
Time: 3 Hrs. Max. Marks: 90
General Instructions :
1. All questions are compulsory.
2. The question paper consists of 34 questions divided into four sections A, B, C, and D.
3. Section A contains of 8 questions of 1 mark each, which are multiple choice type question, Section B
contains of 6 questions of 2 marks each, Section C contains of 10 questions of 3 marks each and Section D
contains of 10 questions of 4 marks each.
4. Use of calculator is not permitted.
SECTION – A
1. The angle of depression of a car, standing on the ground, from the top of a 75 m high tower, is 30 The
distance of the car from the base of the tower (in m.) is:
(A) 25 3
(B) 50 3
(C) 75 3
(D) 150
Solution:
Correct answer: C
Let AB be the tower of height 75 m and C be the position of the car
In ABC,
AC
cot 30
AB
AC AB cot30
AC 75m 3
AC 75 3m
Thus, the distance of the car from the base of the tower is 75 3 m.
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CBSE-X-2013 EXAMINATION
2. The probability of getting an even number, when a die is thrown once, is:
1
(A)
2
1
(B)
3
1
(C)
6
5
(D)
6
Solution:
Correct answer: A
S = {1,2,3,4,5,6}
Let event E be defined as 'getting an even number'.
n(E) = {1,4,6}
Number of favourable outcomes 3 1
P E
Number of possible outcomes 6 2
3. A box contains 90 discs, numbered from 1 to 90. If one disc is drawn at random from the box, the
probability that it bears a prime-number less than 23, is:
7
(A)
90
10
(B)
90
4
(C)
45
9
(D)
89
Solution:
Correct answer: C
S = {1, 2, 3,..90}
n(S) = 90
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CBSE-X-2013 EXAMINATION
The prime number less than 23 are 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, and 19.
Let event E be defined as 'getting a prime number less than 23'.
n(E) = 8
Number of favourable outcomes 8 4
P E
Number of possible outcomes 90 45
4. In fig., a circle with centre O is inscribed in a quadrilateral ABCD such that, it touches the sides BC, AB,
AD and CD at points P, Q, R and S respectively, If AB = 29 cm, AD = 23 cm, B 90 and DS = 5 cm, then
the radius of the circle (in cm) is:
(A)11
(B)18
(C)6
(D)15
Solution:
Correct answer: A
Given: AB, BC, CD and AD are tangents to the circle with centre O at Q, P, S and R respectively. AB = 29 cm,
AD = 23, DS = 5 cm and B 90 Construction: Join PQ.
We know that, the lengths of the tangents drawn from an external point to a circle are equal.
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CBSE-X-2013 EXAMINATION
DS DR 5 cm
AR AD DR 23 cm 5 cm 18 cm
AQ AR 18 cm
QB AB AQ 29 cm 18 cm 11 cm
QB BP 11 cm
In PQB,
PQ2 QB2 BP2 11 cm 11 cm 2 11 cm
2 2 2
PQ 11 2 cm ... 1
In OPQ ,
PQ2 OQ2 OP 2 r 2 r 2 2r 2
(11 2 )2 2r 2
121 r 2
r 11
Thus, the radius of the circle is 11 cm.
5. In fig., PA and PB are two tangents drawn from an external point P to a circle with centre C and radius 4
cm. If PA PB, then the length of each tangent is:
(A) 3cm
(B) 4cm
(C) 5cm
(D) 6cm
Solution:
Correct answer: B
AP PB (Given)
CA AP , CB BP (Since radius is perpendicular to tangent)
AC = CB = radius of the circle
Therefore, APBC is a square having side equal to 4 cm.
Therefore, length of each tangent is 4 cm.
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CBSE-X-2013 EXAMINATION
6. In fig., the area of triangle ABC (in sq. units) is:
(A) 15
(B) 10
(C) 7.5
(D) 2.5
Solution:
Correct answer: C
From the figure, the coordinates of A, B, and C are (1, 3), (-1, 0) and (4, 0) respectively.
Area of ABC
1
1 0 0 1 0 3 4 3 0
2
1
0 3 12
2
1
15
2
7.5 sq units
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CBSE-X-2013 EXAMINATION
22
7. If the difference between the circumference and the radius of a circle is 37 cm, then using , the
7
circumference (in cm) of the circle is:
(A) 154
(B) 44
(C) 14
(D) 7
Solution:
Correct answer: B
Let r be the radius of the circle.
From the given information, we have:
2r r 37 cm
r 2 1 37cm
22
r 2 1 37cm
7
37
r 37cm
7
r 7cm
22
Circumference of the circle 2r 2 7cm 44cm
7
1 1 6q 1 12q
8. The common difference of AP , , , …is:
3q 3q 3q
(A) q
(B) –q
(C) -2
(D) 2
Solution:
Correct answer: C
Common difference =
1 6q 1 1 6q 1 6q
2
3q 3q 3q 3q
SECTION B
9. Prove that the parallelogram circumscribing a circle is a rhombus.
Solution:
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CBSE-X-2013 EXAMINATION
Given: ABCD be a parallelogram circumscribing a circle with centre O.
To prove: ABCD is a rhombus.
We know that the tangents drawn to a circle from an exterior point are equal in length. Therefore, AP = AS,
BP = BQ, CR = CQ and DR = DS. Adding the above equations,
AP + BP + CR + DR = AS + BQ + CQ + DS
(AP + BP) + (CR + DR) = (AS + DS) + (BQ + CQ)
AB + CD = AD + BC
2AB = 2BC
(Since, ABCD is a parallelogram so AB = DC and AD = BC)
AB = BC
Therefore, AB = BC = DC = AD.
Hence, ABCD is a rhombus.
10. Two circular pieces of equal radii and maximum area, touching each other are cut out from a
rectangular card board of dimensions 14 cm 7 cm. Find the area of the remaining card board.
22
Use 7
Solution:
Dimension of the rectangular card board = 14 cm 7 cm Since, two circular pieces of equal radii and
maximum area touching each other are cut from the rectangular card board, therefore, the diameter of
14
each of each circular piece is 7 cm.
2
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CBSE-X-2013 EXAMINATION
7
Radius of each circular piece = cm.
2
2
7 22 49
Sum of area of two circular pieces 2 2 77cm2
2 7 4
Area of the remaining card board
= Area of the card board - Area of two circular pieces
14 cm 7 cm 77 cm2
98 cm2 77 cm2
21 cm2
11.In fig., a circle is inscribed in triangle ABC touches its sides AB, BC and AC at points D, E and F
respectively. If AB = 12 cm, BC = 8 cm and AC = 10 cm, then find the length of AD, BE and CF.
Solution:
Given: AB = 12 cm, BC = 8 cm and AC = 10 cm.
Let, AD = AF = x cm, BD = BE = y cm and CE = CF = z cm
(Tangents drawn from an external point to the circle are equal in length)
2(x + y + z) = AB + BC + AC = AD + DB + BE + EC + AF + FC = 30 cm
x + y + z = 15 cm
AB = AD + DB = x + y = 12 cm
z = CF = 15 - 12 = 3 cm
AC = AF + FC = x + z = 10 cm
y = BE = 15 - 10 = 5 cm
x = AD = x + y + z - z - y = 15 - 3 - 5 = 7 cm
12. How many three-digit natural numbers are divisible by 7?
Solution:
Three digit numbers divisible by 7 are
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CBSE-X-2013 EXAMINATION
105, 112, 119, … 994
This is an AP with first term (a) = 105 and common difference (d) = 7
Let an be the last term.
an a (n 1)d
994 105 (n 1)(7)
7(n 1) 889
n 1 127
n 128
Thus, there are 128 three-digit natural numbers that are divisible by 7.
13.Solve the following quadratic equation for x: 4 3 2 5 2 3 0
Solution:
4 3x 2 5x 2 3 0
4 3x 2 8 x 3x 2 3 0
4 x 3x 2 3 3x 2 0
4 x 3 3x 2 0
3 2
x or x
4 3
14.A card is drawn at random from a well shuffled pack of 52 playing cards. Find the probability that the
drawn card is neither a king nor a queen.
Solution:
Let E be the event that the drawn card is neither a king nor a queen.
Total number of possible outcomes = 52
Total number of kings and queens = 4 + 4 = 8
Therefore, there are 52 - 8 = 44 cards that are neither king nor queen.
Total number of favourable outcomes = 44
Favourable outcomes 44 11
Required probability = P(E) =
Total number of outcomes 52 13
SECTION C
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CBSE-X-2013 EXAMINATION
15.A vessel is in the form of hemispherical bowl surmounted by a hollow cylinder of same diameter. The
diameter of the hemispherical bowl is 14 cm and the total height of the vessel is 13 cm. Find the total
22
surface area of the vessel. use
7
Solution:
Let the radius and height of cylinder be r cm and h cm respectively.
Diameter of the hemispherical bowl = 14 cm
Radius of the hemispherical bowl = Radius of the cylinder
14
r cm 7cm
2
Total height of the vessel = 13 cm
Height of the cylinder, h = 13 cm - 7 cm = 6 cm
Total surface area of the vessel = 2 (curved surface area of the cylinder + curved surface area of the
hemisphere) (Since, the vessel is hollow)
22
2 2rh 2r 2 4r h r 4 7 6 7 cm2
7
1144 cm 2
16. A wooden toy was made by scooping out a hemisphere of same radius from each end of a solid
cylinder. If the height of the cylinder is 10 cm, and its base is of radius 3.5 cm, find the volume of wood in
22
the toy. use
7
Solution:
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CBSE-X-2013 EXAMINATION
Height of the cylinder, h = 10 cm
Radius of the cylinder = Radius of each hemisphere = r = 3.5 cm
Volume of wood in the toy = Volume of the cylinder - 2 Volume of each
Hemisphere
2
r 2h 2 r 3
3
4
r 2 h r
3
22 2 4
3.5 10 3.5
7 3
38.5 10 4.67
38.5
cm3
Radius = 21 cm
17.In a circle of radius 21 cm, an arc subtends an angle of 60 at the centre. Find: (i) the length of the arc
22
(ii) area of the sector formed by the arc. use
7
Solution:
The arc subtends an angle of 60o at the centre.
(i) I 2r
360
60 22
2 21cm
360 7
22cm
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CBSE-X-2013 EXAMINATION
(ii) Area of the sec tor r 2
360
60 22
21cm2
360 7
231 cm2
18. In Fig., AB and CD are two diameters of a circle with centre O, which are perpendicular to each other.
22
OB is the diameter of the smaller circle. If OA = 7 cm, find the area of the shaded region. use
7
Solution:
AB and CD are the diameters of a circle with centre O.
OA = OB = OC = OD = 7 cm (Radius of the circle)
Area of the shaded region
= Area of the circle with diameter OB + (Area of the semi-circle ACDA – Area of ACD)
2
7 1 1
2 CD OA
2 2 2
22 49 1 22 1
49 14 7
7 4 2 7 2
77
77 49
2
66.5 cm2
19. Find the ratio in which the y-axis divides the line segment joining the points (-4, -6) and (10, 12). Also,
find the coordinates of the point of division.
Solution:
. Let the y-axis divide the line segment joining the points (-4,-6) and (10,12) in the ratio k: 1 and the point of
the intersection be (0,y). Using section formula, we have:
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CBSE-X-2013 EXAMINATION
10k 4 12k 6
, 0, y
k 1 k 1
10k 4
0 10k 4 0
k 1
4 2
k
10 5
Thus, the y-axis divides the line segment joining the given points in the ratio 2:5
2 24 30
12 6
12k 6
5 5 6
y
k 1 2
1 25 7
5 5
6
Thus, the coordinates of the point of division are 0, .
7
20. The horizontal distance between two poles is 15 m. The angle of depression of the top of first pole as
seen from the top of second pole is 30. If the height of the second pole is 24 m, find the height of the first
pole. Use 3 1.732
Solution:
Let AB and CD be the two poles, where CD (the second pole) = 24 m.
BD = 15 m
Let the height of pole AB be h m.
AL = BD = 15 m and AB = LD = h
So, CL = CD - LD = 24 – h
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CBSE-X-2013 EXAMINATION
In ACL,
CL
tan30
AL
24 h
tan30
15
1 24 h
3 15
15
24 h 5 3
3
h 24 5 3
h 24 5 1.732 Taking 3 1.732
h 15.34
Thus, height of the first pole is 15.34 m.
21. For what values of k, the roots of the quadratic equation (k 4) 2 (k 1) 1 0 are equal?
Solution:
k 4) 2 (k 1) 1 0
a k 4, b k 1, c 1
For equal roots, discriminant, D = 0
b2 4ac 0
(k 1)2 4(k 4) 1 0
k 2 2k 1 4k 16 0
k 2 2k 15 0
k 2 5k 3k 15 0
k(k 5) 3(k 5) 0
(k 5)(k 3) 0
k 5 or k 3
Thus, for k = 5 or k = -3, the given quadratic equation has equal roots.
22. The sum of first n terms of an AP is 3n2 + 4n. Find the 25th term of this AP.
Solution:
Sn 3n2 4n
First term (a1 ) S1 3(1)2 4(1) 7
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CBSE-X-2013 EXAMINATION
S2 a1 a2 3(2)2 4(2) 20
a2 20 a1 20 7 13
So, common difference (d) = a2 – a1 = 13 - 7 = 6
Now, an = a + (n - 1)d
a25 7 25 1 6 7 24 6 7 144 151
23. Construct a tangent of a circle of radius 4 cm from a point on the concentric circle of radius 6 cm.
Solution:
Steps of construction:
1. Draw two concentric circle with centre O and radii 4 cm and 6 cm. Take a point P on the outer circle and
then join OP.
2. Draw the perpendicular bisector of OP. Let the bisector intersects OP at M.
3. With M as the centre and OM as the radius, draw a circle. Let it intersect the inner circle at A and B.
4. Join PA and PB. Therefore, PA and PB are the required tangents.
24. Show that the points (-2, 3), (8, 3) and (6, 7) are the vertices of a right triangle.
Solution:
The given points are A(-2,3) B(8,3) and C(6,7). Using distance formula, we have:
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CBSE-X-2013 EXAMINATION
AB2 8 2 2 3 3 2
AB2 102 0
AB2 100
BC 2 6 8 2 7 3 2
BC 2 (2)2 42
BC 2 4 16
BC 2 20
CA2 2 62 3 72
CA (8)2 (4)2
CA2 64 16
CA2 80
It can be observed that:
BC 2 CA2 20 80 100 AB2
So, by the converse of Pythagoras Theorem,
ABC is a right triangle right angled at C.
SECTION D
25. Water is flowing through a cylindrical pipe, of internal diameter 2 cm, into a cylindrical tank of base
radius 40 cm, at the rate of 0.4 m/s. Determine the rise in level of water in the tank in half an hour.
Solution:
Diameter of circular end of pipe = 2 cm
2
Radius r1 of circular end of pipe m 0.01 m
200
Area of cross-section r12 0.012 0.0001m2
Speed of water 0.4 m / s 0.4 60 24 metre /min
Volume of water that flows in 1 minute from pipe = 24 0.0001m3 0.0024m3
Volume of water that flows in 30 minutes from pipe = 0.0024m3 0.072m3
Radius (r2) of base of cylindrical tank = 40 cm = 0.4 m
Let the cylindrical tank be filled up to h m in 30 minutes. Volume of water filled in tank in 30 minutes is
equal to the volume of water flowed out in 30 minutes from the pipe.
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CBSE-X-2013 EXAMINATION
r22 h 0.072
0.4 2 h 0.072
0.16 h 0.072
0.072
h
0.16
h 0.45 m 45 cm
Therefore, the rise in level of water in the tank in half an hour is 45 cm.
26. A Group consists of 12 persons, of which 3 are extremely patient, other 6 are extremely honest and
rest are extremely kind. A person from the group is selected at random. Assuming that each person is
equally likely to be selected, find the probability of selecting a person who is (i) extremely patient (ii)
extremely kind or honest. Which of the above values you prefer more?
Solution:
The group consists of 12 persons.
Total number of possible outcomes = 12
Let A denote event of selecting persons who are extremely patient
Number of outcomes favourable to A is 3.
Let B denote event of selecting persons who are extremely kind or honest. Number of persons who are
extremely honest is 6. Number of persons who are extremely kind is 12 - (6 + 3) = 3 Number of
outcomes favourable to B = 6 + 3 = 9.
(i)
Number of outcomes favrouableto A 3 1
P A
Total number of possible outcomes 12 4
(ii)
Number of outcomes favrouableto B 9 3
PB
Total number of possible outcomes 12 4
Each of the three values, patience, honesty and kindness is important in one's life.
27.A bucket open at the top, and made up of a metal sheet is in the form of a frustum of a cone. The depth
of the bucket is 24 cm and the diameters of its upper and lower circular ends are 30 cm and 10 cm
respectively. Find the cost of metal sheet used in it at the rate of Rs 10 per 100 cm2. Use 3.14
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CBSE-X-2013 EXAMINATION
Solution:
Diameter of upper end of bucket = 30 cm
Radius r1 of upper end of bucket = 15 cm
Diameter of lower end of bucket = 10 cm
Radius r1 of lower end of bucket = 5 cm
Slant height (l) of frustum
r1 r2 2 h2
15 52 24 2 10 2 24 2 100 576
676 26cm
Area of metal sheet used to make the bucket
r1 r2 I r22
2
520 25 545cm2
Cost of 100 cm2 metal sheet = Rs 10
Cost of 545 cm 2 metal sheet
545 3.14 10
Rs. Rs.171.13
100
Therefore, cost of metal sheet used to make the bucket is Rs 171.13.
28. In fig., l and m are two parallel tangents to a circle with centre O, touching the circle at A and B
respectively. Another tangent at C intersects the line l at D and m at E. Prove that DOE 90
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CBSE-X-2013 EXAMINATION
Solution:
Given: l and m are two parallel tangents to the circle with centre O touching the circle at A and B
respectively. DE is a tangent at the point C, which intersects l at D and m at E.
To prove: DOE = 90
Construction: Join OC.
Proof:
In ODA and ODC,
OA = OC (Radii of the same circle)
AD = DC (Length of tangents drawn from an external point to a circle are equal)
DO = OD (Common side)
ODA ODC (SSS congruence criterion)
DOA COD .........(1)
Similarly, OEB OEC
EOB COE .........(2)
Now, AOB is a diameter of the circle. Hence, it is a straight line.
DOA + COD + COE + EOB = 180
From (1) and (2), we have:
2 COD + 2 COE = 180
COD + COE = 90
DOE = 90
Hence, proved.
29. Sum of the areas of two squares is 400 Cm2. If the difference of their perimeters is 16 cm, find the sides
of the two squares.
Solution:
Let the sides of the two squares be x cm and y cm where x > y.
Then, their areas are x2 and y2 and their perimeters are 4x and 4y.
By the given condition:
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CBSE-X-2013 EXAMINATION
x2 + y2 = 400 … (1)
and 4x - 4y = 16
4(x - y) = 16 x - y = 4
x = y + 4 ... (2)
Substituting the value of x from (2) in (1), we get:
(y + 4)2 + y2 = 400
y2 + 16 + 8y + y2 = 400
2y2 + 16 + 8y = 400
y2 + 4y - 192 = 0
y2 + 16y - 12y - 192 = 0
y(y + 16) - 12 (y + 16) = 0
(y + 16) (y - 12) = 0
y = -16 or y = 12
Since, y cannot be negative, y = 12.
So, x = y + 4 = 12 + 4 = 16
Thus, the sides of the two squares are 16 cm and 12 cm.
1 1 1 1
30. Solve that following for x:
2a b 2 2a b 2
Solution:
1 1 1 1
2a b 2 x 2a b 2 x
1 1 1 1
2a b 2 x 2 x 2a b
2 x 2a b 2 x b 2a
2 x 2a b 2 x 2ab
2a b b 2a
2 x 2a b 2 x 2ab
1 1
x 2a b 2 x ab
2 x 2 2ax bx ab 0
2x x a b x a 0
x a 2x b 0
x a 0 or 2 x b 0
b
x a , or x
2
31. Prove that the tangent at any point of a circle is perpendicular to the radius through the point of
contact.
Solution:
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CBSE-X-2013 EXAMINATION
Given: A circle with centre O and a tangent XY to the circle at a point P
To Prove: OP is perpendicular to XY.
Construction: Take a point Q on XY other than P and join OQ.
Proof: Here the point Q must lie outside the circle as if it lies inside the tangent XY will become secant to
the circle.
Therefore, OQ is longer than the radius OP of the circle, That is, OQ > OP.
This happens for every point on the line XY except the point P.
So OP is the shortest of all the distances of the point O to the points on XY.
And hence OP is perpendicular to XY.
Hence, proved.
32. Find the number of terms of the AP -12, -9, -6,... 12. If 1 is added to each term of this AP, then find the
sum of all terms of the AP thus obtained.
Solution:
Given AP is -12, -9, -6, ..., 21
First term, a = -12
Common difference, d = 3
Let 21 be the nth term of the A.P.
21 = a + (n - 1)d
21 = -12 + (n - 1) 3
33 = (n - 1) 3
n = 12
Sum of the terms of the AP = S12
n 12
2a n 1 d 24 11 3 54
2 2
If 1 is added to each term of the AP, the sum of all the terms of the new AP will increase by n, i.e., 12.
Sum of all the terms of the new AP = 54 + 12 = 66
33. Two poles of equal heights are standing opposite each other on either side of the roads, which is 80 m
wide. From a point between them on the road, the angles of elevation of the top of the poles are 60 and
30 respectively. Find the height of the poles and the distances of the point from the poles.
Solution:
Let AC and BD be the two poles of the same height h m.
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CBSE-X-2013 EXAMINATION
Given AB = 80 m
Let AP = x m, therefore, PB = (80 - x) m
In APC,
AC
tan
AP
1 h
......(1)
3 x
In BPD,
BD
tan60
AB
h
3 ....(2)
80 x
Dividing (1) by (2),
1 h
3 x
3 h
80 x
1 80 x
3 x
x 240 3x
4 x 240
x 60
From (1),
1 h
3 x
60
h 20 3m
3
Thus, the height of both the poles is 20 3 m and the distances of the point from the poles are 60 m and 20
m.
34. If the area of triangle ABC formed by A(x,y), B(1,2) and C(2,1) is 6 square units, then prove that x + y =
15.
Solution:
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CBSE-X-2013 EXAMINATION
The given vertices are A(x,y), B(1,2) and C(2,1).
It is know that the area of a triangle whose vertices are (x1, y1), (x2,y2) and (x3, y3) is given by
1
| x1 y2 y3 x2 y3 y1 x3 y1 y2 |
2
Area of ABC
1
| x 2 1 1 1 y 2 y 2|
2
1
| x 1 y 2y 4|
2
1
| x y 3|
2
The area of ABC is given as 6 sq units.
1
x y 3 6 x y 3 12
2
x y 15
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CBSE-XII-2017 EXAMINATION CBSE-X-2014 EXAMINATION
MATHEMATICS
Paper & Solution
Time: 3 Hrs. Max. Marks: 90
General Instuctions :
1. All questions are compulsory.
2. The question paper consists of 34 questions divided into four sections A, B, C, and D.
3. Section A contains of 8 questions of 1 mark each, which are multiple choice type question, Section B
contains of 6 questions of 2 marks each, Section C contains of 10 questions of 3 marks each and Section D
contains of 10 questions of 4 marks each.
4. Use of calculator is not permitted.
SECTION – A
Q-1 The first three terms of an AP respectively are 3y – 1, 3y +5 and 5y +1. Then y equals
(A) -3
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 2
Solution:
The first three terms of an AP are 3y-1, 3y+5 and 5y+1, respectively.
We need to find the value of y.
We know that if a, b and c are in AP, then:
b − a = c − b ⇒ 2b = a + c
∴ 2 (3y+5) = 3y – 1 +5y +1
⇒6y +10 = 8y
⇒10 = 8y -6y
⇒ 2y =10
⇒y=5
Hence the correct option is C.
Q-2 In Fig. 1, QR is a common tangent to the given circles, touching externally at the point T. The tangent at
T meets QR at P. If PT = 3.8 cm, then the length of QR (in cm) is:
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CBSE-X-2014 EXAMINATION
(A) 3.8
(B) 7.6
(C) 5.7
(D) 1.9
Solution:
It is known that the length of the tangents drawn from an external point to a circle is equal.
∴ QP = PT = 3.8 cm ... (1)
PR = PT = 3.8 cm ... (2)
From equations (1) and (2), we get:
QP = PR = 3.8 cm
Now, QR = QP + PR
= 3.8 cm + 3.8 cm
= 7.6 cm
Hence, the correct option is B.
3. In Fig. 2, PQ and PR are two tangents to a circle with centre O. If ∠QPR = 46° , then ∠QOR equals:
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CBSE-X-2014 EXAMINATION
(A) 67°
(B) 134°
(C) 44°
(D) 46°
Solution:
Given: ∠QPR = 46°
PQ and PR are tangents.
Therefore, the radius drawn to these tangents will be perpendicular to the tangents.
So, we have OQ ⊥ PQ and OR ⊥ RP.
⇒ ∠OQP = ∠ORP = 90°
So, in quadrilateral PQOR, we have
∠OQP +∠QPR + ∠PRO + ∠ROQ = 360°
⇒ 90° + 46° + 90° + ∠ROQ = 360°
⇒ ∠ROQ = 360° − 226° = 134°
Hence, the correct option is B.
4. A Ladder makes an angle of 60° with the ground when placed against a wall. If the foot of the ladder is 2
m away from the wall, then the length ( in meters) is:
4
(A)
3
(B) 4 3
(C) 2 2
(D) 4
Solution:
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CBSE-X-2014 EXAMINATION
In the figure, MN is the length of the ladder, which is placed against the wall AB and makes an angle of 60°
with the ground.
The foot of the ladder is at N, which is 2 m away from the wall.
∴ BN = 2 m
In right-angled triangle MNB:
BN 2m
cos60
MN MN
1 2m
2 MN
MN 4m
Therefore, the length of the ladder is 4 m.
Hence, the correct option is D
Q5. If two different dice are rolled together, the probability of getting an even number on both dice, is:
(A) 1/36
(B) 1/2
(C) 1/6
(D) 1/4
Solution:
Possible outcomes on rolling the two dice are given below:
{(1, 1), (1, 2), (1, 3), (1, 4), (1, 5), (1, 6),
(2, 1), (2, 2), (2, 3), (2, 4), (2, 5), (2, 6),
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CBSE-X-2014 EXAMINATION
(3, 1), (3, 2), (3, 3), (3, 4), (3, 5), (3, 6),
(4, 1), (4, 2), (4, 3), (4, 4), (4, 5), (4, 6),
(5, 1), (5, 2), (5, 3), (5, 4), (5, 5), (5, 6),
(6, 1), (6, 2), (6, 3), (6, 4), (6, 5), (6, 6)}
Total number of outcomes = 36
Favourable outcomes are given below:
{(2, 2), (2, 4), (2, 6), (4, 2), (4, 4), (4, 6), (6, 2), (6, 4), (6, 6)}
Total number of favourable outcomes = 9
∴ Probability of getting an even number on both dice =
Total number of favourable outcomes 9 1
Total number of outcomes 36 4
Hence, the correct option is D.
Q6. A number is selected at random from the numbers 1 to 30. The probability that it is a prime number
(A) 2/3
(B) 1/6
(C) 1/3
(D) 11/30
Solution:
Total number of possible outcomes = 30
Prime numbers between 1 to 30 are 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, 19, 23 and 29.
Total number of favourable outcomes = 10
∴ Probability of selecting a prime number from 1 to 30
Total number of favourable outcomes 10 1
=
Total number of outcomes 30 3
Hence, the correct option is C.
Q7 If the points A(x, 2), B (-3,-4) and C (7, -5) are collinear, then the value of x is:
(A) -63
(B) 63
(C) 60
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CBSE-X-2014 EXAMINATION
(D) -60
Solution:
It is given that the three points A(x, 2), B(−3, −4) and C(7, −5) are collinear.
∴ Area of ΔABC = 0
1
⇒ [x (y - y ) + x2(y3 - y1) + x3(y1 - y2) ] = 0
2 1 2 3
Here, x1 =x, y1 =2, x2 = -3, y2 = -4, and x3 = 7, y3 =-5
⇒ x[-4 - (-5)] - 3(-5 - 2) + 7[2 -(-4) ] = 0
⇒ x(-4 + 5) - 3(-5 -2) + 7(2 + 4) = 0
⇒ x - 3 × (-7) + 7 × 6 = 0
⇒ x + 21 + 42 = 0 ⇒ x + 63 = 0
⇒ x = -63
Thus, the value of x is − 63.
Hence, the correct option is A.
Q8 The number of solid of solid spheres, each of diameter 6cm that can be made by melting a solid metal
cylinder of height 45 cm and diameter 4 cm is:
(A) 3
(B) 5
(C) 4
(D) 6
Solution:
Let r and h be the radius and the height of the cylinder, respectively.
Given: Diameter of the cylinder = 4 cm
∴ Radius of the cylinder, r = 2 cm
Height of the cylinder, h = 45 cm
2 2 3 3
Volume of the solid cylinder = πr h =π × (2) × 45 cm = 180π cm
Suppose the radius of each sphere be R cm.
Diameter of the sphere = 6 cm
∴ Radius of the sphere, R = 3 cm
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CBSE-X-2014 EXAMINATION
Let n be the number of solids formed by melting the solid metallic cylinder.
∴ n × Volume of the solid spheres = Volume of the solid cylinder
4
n R 3 180
3
4
n R 3 180 k
3
180 3
n 5
4 27
Thus, the number of solid spheres that can be formed is 5.
Hence, the correct option is B.
SECTION-B
Q9 Solve the quadratic equation 2x2 +ax – a2 = 0 for x.
Solution:
We have: 2x2 + ax –a2 = 0
Comparing the given equation with the standard quadratic equation (ax2 + bx + c = 0), we get a =2, b = a
and c =-a2
Using the quadratic formula, x b b 4ac , we get:
2
2a
a a2 4 2 (a)2
x
22
a 9a2
4
a 3a
4
a 3a a a 3a
x or x a
4 2 4
So, the solutions of the given quadratic equation are x a or x a.
2
Q10. The first and the last terms of an AP are 5 and 45 respectively. If the sum of all its terms is 400, Find
its common difference.
Solution:
Let a be the first term and d be the common difference.
Given: a = 5
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CBSE-X-2014 EXAMINATION
Tn 45
Sn 400
We know:
Tn a (n 1)d
45 5 (n 1)d
40 (n 1)d ..........(1)
n
And Sn a Tn
2
n
400 (5 45)
2
n 400
2 50
n 2 8 16
On substituting n = 16 in (1), we get:
40 =(16-1)d
⇒ 40 = (15)d
40 8
⇒d = 15 3
Thus, the common difference is 83.
Q11. Prove that the line segment joining the point of contact of two parallel tangles of a circle passes
through its centre.
Solution:
Let XBY and PCQ be two parallel tangents to a circle with centre O.
Construction: Join OB and OC.
Now, XB ||AO
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CBSE-X-2014 EXAMINATION
⇒ ∠XBO +∠AOB = 180° (sum of adjacent interior angles is 180°)
Now, ∠XBO = 90° (A tangent to a circle is perpendicular to the radius through the point of contact)
⇒90° +∠AOB =180°
⇒∠AOB = 180° - 90° =180°
Similarly , ∠AOC = 90⁰
∠AOB + ∠AOC = 90⁰ + 90⁰= 180°
Hence, BOC is a straight line passing through O.
Thus, the line segment joining the points of contact of two parallel tangents of a circle passes through its
centre.
Q12 If from an external point P of a circle with centre O, two tangents PQ and PR are drawn such that
∠QPR = 120° , prove that 2PQ = PO.
Solution:
Let us draw the circle with extent point P and two tangents PQ and PR.
We know that the radius is perpendicular to the tangent at the point of contact.
∴∠OQP = 90°
We also know that the tangents drawn to a circle from an external point are equally inclined to the joining
the centre to that point.
∴∠QPO = 60°
Now, in ΔQPO:
PQ
Cos 60°=
PO
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CBSE-X-2014 EXAMINATION
1 PQ
⇒
2 PO
⇒2PQ = PO
Q13 Rahim tosses two different coins simultaneously. Find the probability of getting at least one tail.
Solution:
Rahim tosses two coins simultaneously. The sample space of the experiment is {HH, HT, TH, and TT}.
Total number of outcomes = 4
Outcomes in favour of getting at least one tail on tossing the two coins = {HT, TH, TT}
Number of outcomes in favour of getting at least one tail = 3
∴ Probability of getting at least one tail on tossing the two coins
Number of favourable outcomes 3
Total number of outcomes 4
Q14 In fig. 3, a square OABC is inscribed in a quadrant OPBQ of a circle. If OA = 20 cm, find the area of the
shaded region (Use π= 3.14)
Let us join OB.
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CBSE-X-2014 EXAMINATION
In ΔOAB: OB2 = OA2 +AB2 = (20)2 + (20)2 = 2 × (20) 2
OB 20 2
Radius of the circle, r 20 2cm
Area of quadrant OPBQ r 2
360
90
3.14 (20 2)2 cm2
360
1
3.14 800 cm2
4
628 cm2
Area of square OABC = (Side)2 = (20)2 cm2 = 400 cm2
∴ Area of the shaded region = Area of quadrant OPBQ – Area of square OABC
= (628 - 400) cm
228 cm2
SECTION-C
4 5
Q15 Solve the equation 3 ; x 0, 3/2, for x.
x 2 x 3'
Solution:
Given equation:
4 5 3
3 ; x
x 2x 3 2
4 5
3
x 2x 3
4 3x 5
x 2x 3
(4 3x)(2 x 3) 5x
⇒-6x2 +8x-9x+12 =5x
⇒6x2 +6x -12 =0
⇒ x2 +x -2 =0
⇒ x2 +2x –x-2 =0
⇒(x+2) (x-1) =0
⇒(x+2) =0 (x–1)=0
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CBSE-X-2014 EXAMINATION
⇒ x = -2 or x = 1
Thus, the solution of the given equation is -2 or 1.
Q16. If the seventh term of an AP is 1/9 and its ninth term is 1/7, find its 63rd term.
Solution:
Let a be the first term and d be the common difference of the given A.P.
Given:
1
a7
9
1
a9
7
1
a7 a (7 1)d
9
1
a 6d ................(1)
9
1
a9 a (9 1)d
7
1
a 8d .................(2)
7
Subtracting equation (1) from (2), we get:
2
2d
63
1
d
63
1
Putting d in equation (1), we get:
63
1 1
a 6
63 9
1
a
63
1 1 63
a63 a (63 1)d 62 1
63 63 63
Thus, the 63rd term of the given A.P. is 1.
Q17. Draw a right triangle ABC is which AB = 6 cm, BC = 8 cm and ∠B = 90°. Draw BD perpendicular from B
on AC and draw a circle passing through the points B, C and D. Construct tangents from A to this circle.
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CBSE-X-2014 EXAMINATION
Solution:
Follow the given steps to construct the figure.
Step 1
Draw a line BC of 8 cm length.
Step 2
Draw BX perpendicular to BC.
Step 3
Mark an arc at the distance of 6 cm on BX. Mark it as A.
Step 4
Join A and C. Thus, ΔABC is the required triangle.
Step 5
With B as the centre, draw an arc on AC.
Step 6
Draw the bisector of this arc and join it with B. Thus, BD is perpendicular to AC.
Step 7
Now, draw the perpendicular bisector of BD and CD. Take the point of intersection as O.
Step 8
With O as the centre and OB as the radius, draw a circle passing through points B, C and D.
Step 9
Join A and O and bisect it Let P be the midpoint of AO.
Step 10
Taking P as the centre and PO as its radius, draw a circle which will intersect the circle at point B and G.
Join A and G.
Here, AB and AG are the required tangents to the circle from A.
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CBSE-X-2014 EXAMINATION
Q18. If the point A (0,2) is equidistant from the points B(3, p) and C(p, 5), find P. Also find the the length of
AB.
Solution:
The given points are A (0, 2), B (3, p) and C (p, 5).
It is given that A is equidistant from B and C.
∴ AB = AC
⇒ AB2 = AC2
⇒ (3-0)2 + (p-2)2 = (p-0)2 + (5-2)2
⇒ 9 + p2+ 4- 4p = p2 +9
⇒ 4 - 4p =0
⇒ 4p =4
⇒ p =1
Thus, the value of p is 1
Length of AB (3 0)2 (1 2)2 32 (1)2 9 1 10units.
Q19. Two ships are there in the sea on either side of a light house in such a way that the ships and the light
house are in the same straight line. The angles of depression of two ships as observed from the top of the
light house are 60° and 45°. If the height of the light house is 200 m, find the distance between the two
ships. [Use 3 1.73 ]
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CBSE-X-2014 EXAMINATION
Solution:
Let d be the distance between the two ships. Suppose the distance of one of the ships from the light house
is X meters, then the distance of the other ship from the light house is (d-x) meter.
In right –angled ΔADO, we have.
OD 200
tan45
AD X
200
1
X
X 200 ............(1)
In right-angled Δ BDO, we have
OD 200
tan60
BD d x
200
3
dx
200
dx
3
Putting x=200. We have:
200
d 200
3
200
d 200
3
31
d 200
3
d 200 1.58
d 316 (approx.)
Thus, the distance between two ships is approximately 316 m.
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CBSE-X-2014 EXAMINATION
Q20 If the points A(-2. 1), B (a, b) and C (4, -1) are collinear and a-b = 1, find the values of a and b.
Solution:
The given points are A (-2, 1), B (a, b) and C (4-1).
Since the given points are collinear, the area of the triangle ABC is 0.
1
2
x1 (y2 y3 ) x2 (y3 y1 ) x 3(y1 y2 ) 0
Here, x1=-2,y1 =1,x2=a, y2 =b and x3=4, y3=-1
1
2(b 1) a(1 1) 4(1 b) 0
2
2b 2 2a 4 4b 0
2a 6b 2
a 3b 1 .............(1)
Given :
a-b= 1 ………(2)
Subtracting equation (1) from (2) we get:
4b =0
⇒b=0
Subtracting b= 0 in (2), we get:
a= 1
Thus, the values of a and b are 1 and 0, respectively.
Q21 In Fig 4, a circle is inscribed in an equilateral triangle ABC of side 12 cm. Find the radius of inscribed
circle and the area of the shaded region. [Use π =3.14 and 3 1.73 ]
Solution:
It is given that ABC is an equilateral triangle of side 12 cm.
Construction:
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CBSE-X-2014 EXAMINATION
Join OA, OB and OC.
Draw.
OP ⊥ BC
OQ ⊥ AC
OR ⊥ AB
Let the radius of the circle be r cm.
Area of ΔAOB +Area of ΔBOC + Area of ΔAOC = Area of ΔABC
1 1 1 3
AB OR BC OP AC OQ (Side)2
2 2 2 4
1 1 1 3
12 r 12 r 12 r (12)2
2 2 2 4
1 3
3 12 r 12 12
2 4
r 2 3 2 1.73 3.46
Therefore the radius of the inscribed circle is 3.46 cm.
Now, area of the shaded region = Area of ΔABC – Area of the inscribed circle
3
(12)2 (2 3)2 cm2
4
36 3 12 cm2
= [36 ×1.73 – 12 × 3.14] cm2
= [62.28 – 37.68] cm2
= 24.6 cm2
Therefore, the area of the shaded region is 24.6 cm2.
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CBSE-X-2014 EXAMINATION
Q22. In Fig.5. PSR, RTQ and PAQ are three semicircles of diameters 10cm, 3cm and 7 cm respectively. Find
the perimeter of the shaded region. [Use π = 3.14]
Solution:
Radius of Semicircle PSR = 1 × 10 cm =5 cm
2
Radius of Semicircle RTQ = 1 × 3 = 1.5 cm
2
Radius of semicircle PAQ = 1 ×7 cm = 3.5 cm
2
Perimeter of the shaded region = Circumference of semicircle PSR + Circumference of semicircle RTQ +
Circumference of semicircle PAQ
1 1 1
2(5) 2(1.5) 2(3.5) cm
2 2 2
(5 1.5 3.5)cm
3.14 10cm
31.4 cm
Q23 A farmer connects a pipe of internal diameter 20 cm from a canal into a cylindrical tank which is 10 m
in diameter and 2 m deep? If the water flows through the pipe at the rate of 4 km per hour, in how much
time will the tank be filled completely?
Solution:
For the given tank.
Diameter = 10 m
Radius, R = 5m
Depth, H =2m
Internal radius of the pipe = r = 20 cm =10 cm = 1 m
2 10
Rate of flow of water = v = 4 km/h = 4000 m/h
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CBSE-X-2014 EXAMINATION
Let t be the time taken to fill the tank.
So, the water flown through the pipe in t hours will equal to the volume of the tank
r 2 v t R 2H
2
1
4000 t (5)2 2
10
25 2 100 1
t 1
4000 4
1
Hence, the time taken is 1 hours.
4
Q24. A solid metallic right circular cone 20 cm high and whose vertical angle is 60°, is cut into two parts at
the middle of its height by a plane parallel to its base. If the frustum so obtained be drawn into a wire of
1
diameter cm, find the length of the wire.
12
Solution:
Let ACB be the cone whose vertical angle ∠ACB = 60°. Let R and x be the radii of the lower and upper end
of the frustum.
Here, height of the cone, OC = 20 cm = H
Height CP = h = 10 cm
Let us consider P as the mid-Point of OC.
After cutting the cone into two parts through P.
20
OP = = 10 cm
2
1
Also, ∠ACO and ∠OCB = × 60° = 30°
2
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CBSE-X-2014 EXAMINATION
After cutting cone CQS from cone CBA, the remaining solid obtained is a frustum.
Now, in triangle CPQ:
x
tan30
10
1 x
3 10
10
x cm
3
In triangle COB:
R
Tan30
CO
1 R
3 20
20
R cm
3
1
Volume of the frustum, V ( R 2 H x 2 h)
3
1 20
2 2
10
V
3 3
20 10
3
1 8000 1000
3 3 3
1 7000
3 3
1
7000
9
7000
9
The volumes of the frustum and the wire formed are equal.
2
1 7000
l [Volume of wire r 2 h]
24 9
7000
l 24 24
9
l 448000cm 4480m
Hence, the length of the wire is 4480 m.
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CBSE-X-2014 EXAMINATION
SECTION –D
Q 25. The difference of two natural number is 5 and the difference of their reciprocals is 110. Find the
numbers.
Solution:
Let the two natural numbers be X and Y such that x > y.
Given:
Difference between the natural numbers = 5
∴ X - Y =5 …..(1)
1
Difference of their reciprocals (given)
10
1 1 1
y x 10
xy 1
xy 10
5 1
xy 10
xy 50 ..............(ii)
Putting the value of x from equation (i) in equation (ii), we get
(y+5) y =50
⇒ y2 +5y - 50 = 0
⇒ y2 + 10y -5y - 50 = 0
⇒ y (y+10) – 5 (y+10) = 0
⇒ (y -5) (y + 10) = 0
⇒ y = 5 or -10
As y is a natural number, therefore y = 5
Other natural number = y + 5 = 5 + 5 = 10
Thus, the two natural numbers are 5 and 10.
Q26. Prove that the length of the tangents drawn from an external point to a circle are equal.
Solution:
Let AP and BP be the two tangents to the circle with centre O.
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CBSE-X-2014 EXAMINATION
To Prove : AP = BP
Proof:
In ΔAOP and ΔBOP
OA =OB (radii of the same circle)
∠OAP = ∠OBP = 90° (since tangent at any point of a circle is perpendicular to the radius through the point
of contact)
OP = OP (common)
∴ ΔAOP ≅ Δ OBP (by R.H.S. congruence criterion)
∴ AP = BP (corresponding parts of congruent triangles)
Hence the length of the tangents drawn from an external point to a circle are equal.
Q27. The angles of elevation and depression of the top and the bottom of a tower from the top Of a
building, 60 m high, are 30° and 60° respectively. Find the difference between the heights of the building
and the tower and the distance between them.
Solution:
Let AB be the building and CD be the tower.
In right ΔABD.
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CBSE-X-2014 EXAMINATION
AB
tan60
BD
60
3
BD
60
BD
3
BD 20 3
In right ΔACE:
CE
tan30
AE
CE 1
( AE BD)
BD 3
20 3
CE 20
3
Height of the tower = CE + ED = CE + AB = 20 m + 60 m = 80 m
Difference between the heights of the tower and the building = 80 m – 60m = 20 m
Distance between the tower and the building = BD = 20 3 m.
Q28. A bag contains cards numbers from 1 to 49. A card is drawn from the bag at random, after mixing the
cards thoroughly. Find the probability that the number on the drawn card is:
(1) An odd number
(2) A multiple of 5
(3) A perfect Square
(4) An even prime number.
Solution:
Total number of cards = 49
(1)
Total number of outcomes = 49
The odd numbers form 1 to 49 are 1, 3,5,7,9,11,13,15,17, 19,21, 23, 2527,29,31,33,35, 37, 39, 41, 43, 45,
47 and 49.
Total number of favourable outcomes = 25
Total number of favourable outcomes 25
∴ Required probability
Total number of outcomes 49
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CBSE-X-2014 EXAMINATION
(ii) Total number of outcomes = 49
The number 5,10,15,20,25,30,35,40 and 45 multiples of 5.
The number of favourable outcomes = 9
Total number of favourable outcomes 9
∴ Required probability
Total number of outcomes 49
(iii) Total number of outcomes = 49
The number 1, 4, 9, 16, 25, 36 and 49 are perfect squares.
Total number of favourable outcomes = 7
Total number of favourable outcomes 7 1
∴ Required probability
Total number of outcomes 49 7
(iv)
Total number of outcomes = 49
We know that there is only one even prime number which is 2
Total number of favourable outcomes = 1
Total number of favourable outcomes 1
∴ Required probability
Total number of outcomes 49
Q29. Find the ratio in which the point P (X, 2) divides the line segment joining the points A (12, 5)and B (4, -
3). Also find the value of X
Solution:
Let the Point P (x, 2) divide the line segment joining the points A (12, 5) and B (4, -3) in the ratio k: 1
4k 12 3k 5
Then, the coordinates of P are ,
k 1 k 1
Now, the coordinates of P are (x,2)
4k 12 3k 5
x and 2
k 1 k 1
3k 5
2
k 1
3k 5 2k 2
5k 3
3
k
5
3 4k 12
Substituting k in x , we get
5 k 1
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CBSE-X-2014 EXAMINATION
3
4 12
x 5
3
1
5
12 60
x
35
72
x
8
x 9
Thus, the value of x is 9
3
Also, the point P divides the line segment joining the points A (12, 5) and (4, -3 ) in the ratio : 1, i.e. 3:5.
5
Q30. Find the values of k for which the quadratic equation (k + 4) x2 + (k + 1)x + 1 = 0 has equal roots. Also
find these roots.
Solution:
Given quadratic equation:
(k + 4)x2 + (k + 1)x + 1=0
Since the given quadratic equation has equal roots, Its discriminant should be zero.
∴D=0
⇒(k+1)2- 4 × (k+4) × 1 = 0
⇒k2+2k+1- 4k - 16=0
⇒k2- 2k -15 =0
⇒k2 - 5k+ 3k -15 = 0
⇒(k-5) (k+3) =0
⇒k-5 =0 or k+3 =0
⇒k = 5 or -3
Thus, the values of k are 5 and -3
For k = 5 (k+4)x2 +(k+1)x +1= 0
⇒9x2 +6x +1 = 0
⇒(3x)2 +2(3x) +1 =0
⇒(3x +1)2 =0
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CBSE-X-2014 EXAMINATION
1 1
x ,
3 3
For k = -3 (k +4)x2 +(k+1)x + 1 = 0
⇒x2 – 2x +1 =0
⇒(x - 1)2 = 0
⇒ x = 1, 1
1
Thus, the equal root of the given quadratic equation is either 1 or
3
Q31. In an AP of 50 terms, the sum of first 10 terms is 210 and the sum of its last 15 terms is 2565. Find the
A.P.
Solution:
Let a and d be the first term and the common difference of an A. P. respectively.
nth term of an A. P, an = a + ( n -1 )d
n
Sum of n terms of an A. P , Sn [2a n 1 d ]
2
We have:
10
Sum of the first 10 terms = [2a 9d ]
2
210 = 5[2a+9d ]
⇒ 42 = 2a+9d ………. (1)
15th term from the last = ( 50−15 + 1)th= 36th term from the beginning
Now, a36 = a + 35d
15
∴ Sum of the last 15 terms = (2a36 (15 1)d )
2
15
[2(a 35d) 14d]
2
15[a 35d 7d ]
⇒2565 = 15[a+42d]
⇒ 171= a+42d ………….(2)
From (1) and (2), we get,
d=4
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CBSE-X-2014 EXAMINATION
a=3
So, the A. P. formed is 3, 7, 11, 15 …. and 199.
Q32 . Prove that a parallelogram circumscribing a circle is a rhombus.
Solution:
Given ABCD be a parallelogram circumscribing a circle with centre O.
To Prove: ABCD is a rhombus.
We know that the tangents drawn to a circle from an exterior point are equal is length.
∴ AP = AS, BP = BQ, CR =CQ AND DR = DS.
AP +BP +CR +DR = AS +BQ +CQ +DS
(AP +BP) + (CR+DR) = (AS+DS) +BQ +CQ)
∴AB +CD =AD +BC OR 2AB = 2BC (since AB =DC and AD = BC)
∴ AB = BC = DC =AD
Therefore, ABCD is a rhombus.
Q33. Sushant has a vessel, of the form of an inverted cone, open at the top, of height 11 cm and Radius of
top as 2.5 cm and is full of water. Metallic spherical balls each of diameter 0.5 cm are put In the vessel due
2
to which th of the water in the vessel flows out. Find how many balls were put in the vessel. Sushant
5
made the arrangement so that the water that flows out irrigates the Flower beds. What value has been
shown by Sushant?
Solution:
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CBSE-X-2014 EXAMINATION
Height (h) of the conical vessel = 11 cm
Radius (r1) of the conical Vessel = 2.5 cm
0.5
Radius (r2) of the metallic spherical balls = 0.25 cm
2
Let n be the number of spherical balls = that were dropped in the the vessel.
Volume of the water spilled = Volume of the spherical balls dropped
2
Volume of cone = n × Volume of one spherical ball
5
2 1 2 4 3
r h n r
5 3 1 3 2
2 3
r h n 10r
1 2
(2.5) 11 n 10 (0.25)3
2
⇒ 68.75 = 0.15625n
⇒ n = 440
Hence, the number of spherical balls that were dropped in the vessel is 440.
Sushant made the arrangement so that the water that flows out, irrigates the flower beds.
This shows the judicious usage of water.
Q34. From a solid cylinder of height 2.8 cm and diameter 4.2 cm. a conical cavity of the same height and
same diameter is hollowed out. Find the total surface area of the remaining solid. [Take π=22/7]
Solution:
The following figure shows the required cylinder and the conical cavity.
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CBSE-X-2014 EXAMINATION
Given Height (b) of the conical Part = Height (h) of the cylindrical part = 2.8 cm
Diameter of the cylindrical part = Diameter of the conical part = 4.2 cm
∴ Radius of the cylindrical part = Radius of the conical part = 2.1 cm
Slant height (l) of the conical part r 2 h2
(2.1)2 (2.8)2 cm
4.41 7.81 cm
12.25cm
3.5 cm
Total surface area of the remaining solid = Curved surface area of the cylindrical part +Curved surface area
of the conical part + Area of the cylindrical base
2rh rl r 2
22 22 22
2 2.1 2.8 2.1 3.5 2.1 2.1 cm2
7 7 7
= (36.96 + 23.1 + 13.86) cm2
=73.92 cm2
Thus, the total surface area of the remaining solid is 73.92 cm2
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CBSE-XII-2017 EXAMINATION CBSE-X-2015 EXAMINATION
MATHEMATICS
Paper & Solution
Time: 3 Hrs. Max. Marks: 90
General Instructions:
(i) All questions are compulsory.
(ii) The question paper consists of 31 questions divided into four sections – A, B, C and D.
(iii) Section A contains 4 questions of 1 mark each. Section B contains 6 questions of 2 marks each, Section
C contains 10 questions of 3 marks each and Section D contains 11 questions of 4 marks each.
(iv) Use of calculators is not permitted.
SECTION – A
Question numbers 1 to 4 carry 1 mark each.
1. If the quadratic equation px2 - 2 5px + 15 = 0 has two equal roots then find the value of p.
Solution:
Given quadratic equation is,
px 2 2 5px 15 0
Here, a = p, b = 2 5 p, c= 15
For real equal roots, discriminant = 0
b2 4ac 0
2
2 5p 4 p(15) 0
20 p2 60 p 0
20 p(p 3) 0
p 3 or p 0
But, p = 0 is not possible.
∴ p=3
2. In the following figure, a tower AB is 20 m high and BC, its shadow on the ground, is 20 3 m long. Find
the Sun’s altitude.
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CBSE-X-2015 EXAMINATION
Solution:
Let AB be the tower and BC be its shadow.
AB = 20, BC = 20 3
In ABC,
AB
tan
BC
20
tan
20 3
1
tan
3
1
but, tan
3
30
The Sun is at an altitude of 30.
3. Two different dice are tossed together. Find the probability that the product of the two numbers on the
top of the dice is 6.
Solution:
Two dice are tossed
S = [(1,1),(1,2),(1,3),(1,4),(1,5),(1,6),
(2,1),(2,2),(2,3),(2,4),(2,5),(2,6),
(3,1),(3,2),(3,3),(3,4),(3,5),(3,6),
(4,1),(4,2),(4,3),(4,4),(4,5),(4,6),
(5,1),(5,2),(5,3),(5,4), (5,5),(5,6),
(6,1),(6,2),(6,3),(6,4),(6,5),(6,6)]
Total number of outcomes when two dice are tossed = 6 6= 36
Favourable events of getting product as 6 are:
(1 6= 6), (6 1 =6),(2 3= 6),(3 2 =6)
i.e.(1,6), (6,1), (2,3), (3,2)
Favourable events of getting product as 6 = 4
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CBSE-X-2015 EXAMINATION
4 1
P(getting product as 6)
36 9
4. In the following figure, PQ is a chord of a circle with centre O and PT is a tangent. If ∠QPT = 60˚, find
∠PRQ
Solution:
m OPT 90 ( radius is perpendicular to the tangent)
So, OPQ = OPT - QPT
= 90 - 60
= 30
m POQ = 2 QPT 2 60 =120
reflex m POQ = 360 - 120 =240
1
mPRQ reflexPOQ
2
1
240
2
PRQ = 120
SECTION B
Question numbers 5 to 10 carry 2 marks each.
5. In the following figure, two tangents RQ and RP are drawn from an external point R to the circle with
centre O, If ∠PRQ = 120˚, then prove that OR = PR + RQ.
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CBSE-X-2015 EXAMINATION
Solution:
Given that m PRQ = 120
We know that the line joining the centre and the external point is the angle bisector between the tangents.
120
Thus, mPRO mQRO 60
2
Also we know that lengths of tangents from an external point are equal.
Thus, PR = RQ.
Join OP and OQ.
Since OP and OQ are the radii from the centre O,
OP PR and OQ RQ.
Thus, OPR and OQR are right angled congruent triangles.
Hence, POR 90 PRO 90 60 30
QOR 90QRO 90 60 30
1
sin QRO sin30
2
PR 1
OR 2
Thus, OR 2PR
OR PR PR
OR PR QR
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CBSE-X-2015 EXAMINATION
6. In Figure 4, a ΔABC is drawn to circumscribe a circle of radius 3 cm, such that the segments BD and DC
are respectively of lengths 6 cm and 9 cm. If the area of Δ ABC is 54 cm2, then find the lengths of sides AB
and AC.
Solution:
Let the given circle touch the sides AB and AC of the triangle at points F and E respectively and let the
length of line segment AF be x.
Now, it can be observed that:
BF = BD = 6 cm (tangents from point B)
CE = CD = 9 cm (tangents from point C)
AE = AF = x (tangents from point A)
AB = AF + FB = x + 6
BC = BD + DC = 6 + 9 = 15
CA = CE + EA = 9 + x
2s = AB + BC + CA = x + 6 + 15 + 9 + x = 30 + 2x
s = 15 + x
s – a = 15 + x – 15 = x
s – b = 15 + x – (x + 9) = 6
s – c = 15 + x – (6 + x) = 9
Area of ABC s(s a)(s b)(s c)
54 (15 x)(x)(6)(9)
54 3 6(15x x 2 )
18 6(15x x 2 )
324 6(15x x 2 )
54 15x x 2
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CBSE-X-2015 EXAMINATION
x 2 15x 54 0
x 2 18 x 3x 54 0
x(x 18) 3(x 18)
(x 18)(x 3) 0
x 18 and x 3
As distance cannot be negative, x = 3
AC = 3 + 9 = 12
AB = AF + FB = 6 + x = 6 + 3 = 9
7. Solve the following quadratic equation for x:
4x2 + 4bx – (a2 – b2) = 0
Solution:
4 x 2 4bx (a2 b2 ) 0
a2 b2
x 2 bx 0
4
b a 2 b2
x 2 x
2
2 4
2 2
b b a b b
2 2
x 2 x
2
2 2 4 2
2
b a2
x
2 4
b a
x
2 2
b a
x
2 2
b a b a
x ,
2 2
ab ab
Hence, the roots are and .
2 2
8. In an AP, if S5 + S7 = 167 and S10 = 235, then find the A.P., where Sn denotes the sum of its first n terms
Solution:
S5 S7 167 and S10 235
n
Now, Sn 2a (n 1)d
2
S5 S7 167
5 7
2a 4d 2a 6d 167
2 2
5a 10d 7a 21d 167
12a 31d 167 .................(1)
Also, S10 = 235
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CBSE-X-2015 EXAMINATION
10
2a 9d 235
2
10a 45d 235
2a 9d 47 ...................(2)
Multiplying equation (2) by 6, we get
12a + 54d = 282 ………………....(3)
Subtracting (1) from (3), we get
12a 54d 282
()12a 31d 167
23d 115
d 5
Substituting value of d in (2), we have
2a + 9(5)= 47
2a + 45= 47
2a = 2
a = 1
Thus, the given A.P. is 1, 6, 11, 16,..........
9. The points A(4, 7), B(p, 3) and C(7, 3) are the vertices of a right triangle, right-angled at B, Find the values
of P.
Solution:
ABC is right angled at B.
AC 2 AB2 BC 2 .............(1)
Also, A p, 3 and C (7, 3)
Now, AC 2 (7 4)2 (3 7)2 (3)2 (4)2 9 16 25
AB2 (p 4)2 (3 7)2 p2 8p 16 (4)2
p2 8p 16 16
p2 8p 32
BC 2 (7 p)2 (3 3)2 49 14 p p2 0
p2 14 p 49
From (1), we have
25= (p2 - 8p + 32)+ (p2 -14p +49)
25 = 2p2- 22p +81
2p2 - 22p +56= 0
p2 - 11p + 28 = 0
p2 - 7p - 4p+ 28 = 0
p(p -7) – 4(p – 7) = 0
(p – 7) (p – 4) = 0
p = 7 and p = 4
10. Find the relation between x and y if the points A(x, y), B(-5, 7) and C(-4, 5) are collinear.
Solution:
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CBSE-X-2015 EXAMINATION
Given, the points A(x,y), B(-5,7) and C(-4,5) are collinear.
So, the area formed by these vertices is 0.
1
x(7 5) (5)(5 y) (4)(y 7) 0
2
1
2 x 25 5y 4 y 28 0
2
1
2 x y 3 0
2
2x y 3 0
y 2 x 3
SECTION C
Question numbers 11 to 20 carry 3 marks each.
11. The 14th term of an A.P. is twice its 8th term. If its 6th term is -8, then find the sum of its first 20 terms.
Solution:
Here it is given that,
T14 = 2(T8)
⇒ a + (14 – 1)d = 2[a + (8 – 1)d]
⇒ a + 13d = 2[a + 7d]
⇒ a + 13d = 2a + 14d
⇒ 13d – 14d = 2a – a
⇒ – d = a …. (1)
Now, it is given that its 6th term is –8.
T6 = –8
⇒ a + (6 – 1)d = – 8
⇒ a + 5d = –8
⇒ –d + 5d = –8 [∵ Using (1)]
⇒ 4d = –8
⇒ d = –2
Subs. this in eq. (1), we get a = 2
Now, the sum of 20 terms,
n
Sn 2a (n 1)d
2
20
S20 2a (20 1)d
2
= 10 [2(2) + 19(-2)]
= 10[4 - 38]
= -340
12. Solve for x:
3x 2 2 2 x 2 3 0
Solution:
For the given equation, 3x 2 2 2 x 2 3 0
Comparing this equation with ax2 +bx + c = 0, we obtain
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CBSE-X-2015 EXAMINATION
a 3, b 2 2, c 2 3
Now, D b2 4ac
(2 2)2 4 4 3 2 3
8 24 32 4 2
Using quadratic formula, we obtain
b b2 4ac
x
2a
(2 2) 4 2
x
2 3
2 2 4 2 2 2 4 2
x or x
2 3 2 3
2 2 2 2 2 2
x or x
3 3
3 2 2
x or x
3 3
2
x 3 2 or x
3
2
x 6 or x
3
13. The angle of elevation of an aeroplane from point A on the ground is 60°. After flight of 15 seconds, the
angle of elevation changes to 30°. If the aeroplane is flying at a constant height of 1500 3 m, find the
speed of the plane in km/hr.
Solution:
Let BC be the height at watch the aeroplane is observed from point A.
Then, BC = 1500 3
In 15 seconds, the aeroplane moves from point A to D.
A and D are the points where the angles of elevation 60 and 30 are formed respectively.
Let BA = x metres and AD = y metres
BC = x + y
In CBA,
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CBSE-X-2015 EXAMINATION
BC
tan60
BA
1500 3
3
x
x 1500 m ...............(1)
In CBD ,
BC
tan30
BD
1 1500 3
3 xy
x y 1500(3) 4500
1500 y 4500
y 3000 m ..................(2)
We know that, the aeroplane moves from point A to D in 15 seconds and the distance covered is 3000
metres. (by 2)
distance
Speed
time
3000
Speed
15
Speed 200m/s
18
Converting it to km/hr 200 720km / hr
5
14. If the coordinates of points A and B are (-2, -2) and (2, -4) respectively, find the coordinates of P such
3
that AP = AB, where P lies on the line segment AB.
7
Solution:
Here, P(x,y) divides line segment AB, such that
3
AP AB
7
AP 3
AB 7
AB 7
AP 3
AB 7
1 1
AP 3
AB AP 7 3
AP 3
BP 4
AP 3
AP 3
BP 4
P divides AB in the ratio 3: 4
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CBSE-X-2015 EXAMINATION
3 2 4(2)
x ;y
34 34
68 12 8
x ;y
7 7
2 20
x ;y
7 7
2 20
The coordinates of P are ,
7 7
15. The probability of selecting a red ball at random from a jar that contains only red, blue and orange balls
1 1
is . The probability of selecting a blue ball at random from the same jar . If the jar contains 10 orange
4 3
balls, find the total number of balls in the jar.
Solution:
Here the jar contains red, blue and orange balls.
Let the number of red balls be x.
Let the number of blue balls be y.
Number of orange balls = 10
Total number of balls = x + y + 10
Now, let P be the probability of drawing a ball from the jar
x
P(a red ball)
x y 10
1 x
4 x y 10
4 x x y 10
3x y 10 ............(i)
Next,
y
P (a blue ball)
x y 10
1 y
3 x y 10
3y x y 10
2y x 10 ..............(ii)
Multiplying eq. (i) by 2 and adding to eq. (ii), we get
6 x 2y 20
x 2y 10
5x 30
x 6
Subs. x = 6 in eq. (i), we get y = 8
Total number of balls = x + y + 10 = 6 + 8 + 10 = 24
Hence, total number of balls in the jar is 24.
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CBSE-X-2015 EXAMINATION
16. Find the area of the minor segment of a circle of radius 14 cm, when its central angle is 60˚. Also find
22
the area of the corresponding major segment. [Use ]
7
Solution:
Radius of the circle =14 cm
Central Angle, = 60 ,
Area of the minor segment
1
r 2 r 2 sin
360 2
60 1
142 142 sin60
360 2
1 22 1 3
14 14 14 14
6 7 2 2
22 14
49 3
3
22 14 147 3
3 3
308 147 3 2
cm
3
308 147 3 2
Area of the minor segment cm
3
17. Due to sudden floods, some welfare associations jointly requested the government to get 100 tents
fixed immediately and offered to contribute 50% of the cost. If the lower part of each tent is of the form of
a cylinder of diameter 4.2 m and height 4 m with the conical upper part of same diameter but height 2.8 m,
and the canvas to be used costs Rs. 100 per sq. m, find the amount, the associations will have to pay. What
22
values are shown by these associations? [Use ]
7
Solution:
Diameter of the tent = 4.2 m
Radius of the tent, r = 2.1 m
Height of the cylindrical part of tent, hcylinder = 4 m
Height of the conical part, hcone = 2.8 m
Slant height of the conical part, l
hcone2 r 2
2.82 2.12
2.82 2.12
12.25 3.5 m
Curved surface area of the cylinder = 2 r hcylinder
22
2 2.1 4
7
22 0.3 8 52.8 m2
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CBSE-X-2015 EXAMINATION
22
Curved surface area of the conical tent rl 2.1 3.5 23.1 m2
7
Total area of cloth required for building one tent
= Curved surface area of the cylinder + Curved surface area of the conical tent
= 52.8 + 23.1
= 75.9 m2
Cost of building one tent = 75.9 × 100 = Rs 7590
Total cost of 100 tents = 7590 × 100 = Rs 7,59,000
759000
Cost to be borne by the associations = Rs. 3,79,500
2
It shows the helping nature, unity and cooperativeness of the associations.
18. A hemispherical bowl of internal diameter 36 cm contains liquid. This liquid is filled into 72 cylindrical
bottles of diameter 6 cm. Find the height of each bottle, if 10% liquid is wasted in this transfer.
Solution:
Internal diameter of the bowl = 36 cm
Internal radius of the bowl, r = 18 cm
2 2
Volume of the liquid, V r 3 183
3 3
Let the height of the small bottle be ‘h’.
Diameter of a small cylindrical bottle = 6 cm
Radius of a small bottle, R = 3 cm
Volume of a single bottle = R2h = × 32 × h
No. of small bottles, n = 72
10 2
Volume wasted in the transfer 183
100 3
Volume of liquid to be transferred in the bottles
2 10 2
183 183
3 100 3
2 10
183 1
3 100
2 90
183
3 100
Volume of the liquid to be transferred
Number of small cylindrical bottles
Volume of a single bottle
2 90
183
72 3 100
32 h
2 9
183
72 3 2 10
3 h
2 9
18 18 18
h 3 10
32 72
h 5.4 cm
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CBSE-X-2015 EXAMINATION
Height of the small cylindrical bottle = 10.8 cm
19. A cubical block of side 10 cm is surmounted by a hemisphere. What is the largest diameter that the
hemisphere can have? Find the cost of painting the total surface area of the solid so formed, at the rate of
Rs. 5 per sq. cm. [Use π = 3.14]
Solution:
Side of the cubical block, a = 10 cm
Longest diagonal of the cubical block = a 3 = 10 3 cm
Since the cube is surmounted by a hemisphere, therefore the side of the cube should be equal to the
diameter of the hemisphere.
Diameter of the sphere = 10 cm
Radius of the sphere, r = 5 cm
Total surface area of the solid = Total surface area of the cube – Inner cross‐section area of the hemisphere
+ Curved surface area of the hemisphere
= 6a2 – r2 + 2 + r2
= 6a2 + r2
6 (10)2 3.14 52
600 78.5 678.5 cm2
Total surface area of the solid = 678.5 cm2
20. 504 cones, each of diameter 3.5 cm and height 3 cm, are melted and recast into a metallic sphere, Find
22
the diameter of the sphere and hence find its surface area. [Use ]
7
Solution:
No. of cones = 504
Diameter of a cone = 3.5 cm
Radius of the cone, r = 1.75 cm
Height of the cone, h = 3 cm
Volume of a cone
1
r 2h
3
2
1 3.5
3
3 2
1 3.5 3.5
3 cm3
3 2 2
Volume of 504 cones
1 3.5 3.5
504 3 cm3
4 2 2
Let the radius of the new sphere be ‘R’.
4
Volume of the sphere R 3
3
Volume of 504 cones = Volume of the sphere
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CBSE-X-2015 EXAMINATION
1 3.5 3.5 4
504 3 R 3
3 2 2 3
504 1 3.5 3.5 3 3
R3
3 2 2 4
504 3 49
R3
64
7 8 9 3 72
R3
64
8 27 73
R 3
64
2 3 7
R
4
21
R 10.5 cm
2
Radius of the new sphere = 10.5 cm
SECTION D
Question numbers 21 to 31 carry 4 marks each.
21. The diagonal of a rectangular field is 16 metres more than the shorter side. If the longer side is 14
metres more than the shorter side, then find the lengths of the sides of the field.
Solution:
Let l be the length of the longer side and b be the length of the shorter side.
Given that the length of the diagonal of the rectangular field is 16 metres more than the shorter side.
Thus, diagonal = 16 + b
Since longer side is 14 metres more than shorter side, we have,
l = 14 + b
Diagonal is the hypotenuse of the triangle.
Consider the following figure of the rectangular field.
By applying Pythagoras Theorem in ABD, we have,
Diagonal2 = Length2 = Breadth2
(16 b)2 (14 b)2 b2
256 b2 32b 196 b2 28b b2
256 32b 196 28b b2
60 32b 28b b2
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CBSE-X-2015 EXAMINATION
b2 4b 60 0
b2 10b 6b 60 0
b(b 10) 6(b 10) 0
(b 6)(b 10) 0
(b 6) 0 or (b 10) 0
b 6 or b 10
As breadth cannot be negative, breadth = 10 m
Thus, length of the rectangular field = 14 + 10 = 24 m
22. Find the 60th term of the AP 8, 10, 12, ……., if it has a total of 60 terms and hence find the sum of its last
10 terms.
Solution:
Consider the given A.P. 8, 10, 12, …
Here the initial term is 8 and the common difference is 10 ‐ 8 = 2 and 12 ‐ 10 = 2
General term of an A.P. is tn and formula to find out tn is
tn a (n 1)d
t60 8 (60 1) 2
t60 8 59 2
t60 8 118
t60 126
We need to find the sum of the last 10 terms.
Thus,
Sum of last 10 terms = Sum of first 60 terms ‐ Sum of first 50 terms
n
Sn 2a (n 1)d
2
60
S60 2 8 (60 1) 2
2
S60 30 16 59 2
S60 30 134
S60 4020
Similarly,
50
S50 2 8 (50 1) 2
2
S50 2516 49 2
S50 25114
S50 2850
Thus the sum of last 10 terms =S60 – S50 = 4020 – 2850 = 1170
Therefore,
Sum of last 10 terms = Sum of first 60 terms ‐ Sum of first 50 terms
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CBSE-X-2015 EXAMINATION
23. A train travels at a certain average speed for a distance of 54 km and then travels a distance of 63 km at
an average speed of 6 km/h more than the first speed. If it takes 3 hours to complete the total journey,
what is its first speed?
Solution:
Let x be the first speed of the train.
Distance
We know that = time
Speed
Thus, we have,
54 63
3 hours
x x 6
54(x 6) 63x
3
x(x 6)
54(x 6) 63x 3x(x 6)
54 x 324 63x 3x 2 18 x
117 x 324 3x 2 18 x
3x 2 117 x 324 18 x 0
3x 2 99 x 324 0
x 2 33x 108 0
x 2 36 x 3x 108 0
x(x 36) 3(x 36) 0
(x 3)( x 36) 0
(x 3) 0 or ( x 36) 0
x 3 or x 36
Speed cannot be negative and hence initial speed of the train is 36 km/hour.
24. Prove that the lengths of the tangents drawn from an external point to a circle are equal.
Solution:
Consider the following diagram.
Let P be an external point and PA and PB be tangents to the circle.
We need to prove that PA = PB
Now consider the triangles OAP and OBP
m A = m B = 90
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CBSE-X-2015 EXAMINATION
OP = OP [common]
OA = OB = radii of the circle
Thus, by Right Angle‐Hypotenuse‐Side criterion of congruence we have,
OAP OBP
The corresponding parts of the congruent triangles are congruent.
Thus,
PA = PB
25. Prove that the tangent drawn at the mid-point of an arc of a circle is parallel to the chord joining the
end points of the arc.
Solution:
In the figure, C is the midpoint of the minor arc PQ, O is the centre of the circle and
AB is tangent to the circle through point C.
We have to show the tangent drawn at the midpoint of the arc PQ of a circle is parallel to the chord joining
the end points of the arc PQ.
We will show PQ || AB.
It is given that C is the midpoint point of the arc PQ.
So, arc PC = arc CQ.
PC = CQ
This shows that PQC is an isosceles triangle.
Thus, the perpendicular bisector of the side PQ of PQC passes through vertex C.
The perpendicular bisector of a chord passes through the centre of the circle.
So the perpendicular bisector of PQ passes through the centre O of the circle.
Thus perpendicular bisector of PQ passes through the points O and C.
PQ OC
AB is the tangent to the circle through the point C on the circle.
AB OC
The chord PQ and the tangent PQ of the circle are perpendicular to the same line OC.
PQ || AB.
26. Construct a Δ ABC in which AB = 6 cm, ∠A = 30° and ∠B = 60°, Construct another ΔAB’C’ similar to ΔABC
with base AB’ = 8 cm.
Solution:
Construct the ABC as per given measurements.
In the half plane of AB which does not contain C, draw AX such that BAX is an acute angle.
3) With some appropriate radius and centre A, Draw an arc to intersect AX at B1. Similarly, with centre B1
and the same radius, draw an arc to intersect BX at B2 such that B1B2 = B3B4 = B4B5 = B5B6 = B6B7 = B7B8
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CBSE-X-2015 EXAMINATION
4) Draw B6B.
5) Through B8 draw a ray parallel to B6B. to intersect AY at B’.
6) Through B’ draw a ray parallel to BC to intersect AZ at C’.
Thus, AB’C’ is the required triangle.
27. At a point A, 20 metres above the level of water in a lake, the angle of elevation of a cloud is 30°. The
angle of depression of the reflection of the cloud in the lake, at a A is 60°. Find the distance of the cloud
from A.
Solution:
Let AB be the surface of the lake and P be the point of observation such that
AP = 20 metres. Let C be the position of the cloud and C’ be its reflection in the lake.
Then CB = C’B. Let PM be perpendicular from P on CB.
Then m CPM=30 and m C'PM = 60
Let CM = h. Then CB = h + 20 and C’B = h + 20.
In CMP we have,
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CBSE-X-2015 EXAMINATION
CM
tan30
PM
1 h
3 PM
PM 3h...................(i)
In PMC' we have,
C M
tan60
PM
C B BM
3
PM
h 20 20
3
PM
h 20 20
PM ...................(ii)
3
From equation (i) and (ii), we get
h 20 20
3h
3
3h h 40
2h 40
h 20 m
Now, CB = CM + MB = h + 20 + 20 + 20 = 40.
Hence, the height of the cloud from the surface of the lake is 40 metres.
28. A card is drawn at random from a well-shuffled deck of playing cards. Find the probability that the card
drawn is
i. a card of spade or an ace.
ii. a black king.
iii. neither a jack nor a king
iv. either a king or a queen.
Solution:
Let S be the sample space of drawing a card from a well‐shuffled deck.
n(S) 52C1 52
(i)There are 13 spade cards and 4 ace's in a deck As ace of spade is included in 13 spade cards, so there are
13 spade cards and 3 ace's
a card of spade or an ace can be drawn in 13 C1 3 C1 13 3 16
16 4
Probability of drawing a card of spade or an ace
52 13
(ii)There are 2 black King cards in a deck a card of black King can be drawn in 2 C1 2
2 1
Probability of drawing a black king
52 26
(iii) There are 4 Jack and 4 King cards in a deck.
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CBSE-X-2015 EXAMINATION
So there are 52 - 8 = 44 cards which are neither Jacks nor Kings. a card which is neither a Jack nor a King
can be drawn in 44C1 = 44
44 11
Probability of drawing a card which is neither a Jack nor a King =
52 13
(iv)There are 4 King and 4 Queen cards in a deck.
So there are 4 - 4 = 8 cards which are either King or Queen.
a card which is either a King or a Queen can be drawn in 8C1 = 8
8 2
Probability of drawing a card which is either a King or a Queen =
52 13
29. Find the values of k so that the area of the triangle with vertices (1, -1), (-4, 2k) and (-k, -5) is 24 sq.
units.
Solution:
Take x1 , y1 1, 1 , 4, 2k and k, 5
It is given that the area of the triangle is 24 sq. unit
Area of the triangle having vertices x1 , y1 , x2 , y2 and x3 , y3 is given by
1
x1 (y2 y3 ) x2 (y3 y1 ) x3 (y1 y2 )
2
1
24 1(2k (5)) (4)((5) (1)) (k)((1) 2k)
2
48 (2k 5) 16 (k 2k 2 )
2k 2 3k 27 0
(2k 9)(k 3) 0
9
k or k 3
2
9
The values of k are and 3.
2
30. In the following figure, PQRS is square lawn with side PQ = 42 metres. Two circular flower beds are
there on the sides PS and QR with centre at O, the intersections of its diagonals. Find the total area of the
two flower beds (shaded parts).
Solution:
PQRS is a square.
So each side is equal and angle between the adjacent sides is a right angle.
Also the diagonals perpendicularly bisect each other.
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CBSE-X-2015 EXAMINATION
In PQR using pythagoras theorem,
PR2 =PQ2 +QR2
PR2 = (42)2 + (42)2
PR 2(42)
1 42
OR PR OQ
2 2
From the figure we can see that the radius of flower bed ORQ is OR.
1
Area of sector ORQ = r 2
4
2
1 42
4 2
1
Area of the ROQ RO OQ
2
1 42 42
2 2 2
2
42
2
Area of the flower bed ORQ
= Area of sector ORQ - Area of the ROQ
2 2
1 42 42
4 2 2
2
42
1
2 2
= (441)[0.57]
= 251.37 cm2
Area of the flower bed ORQ = Area of the flower bed OPS
= 251.37 cm2
Total area of the two flower beds
= Area of the flower bed ORQ + Area of the flower bed OPS
= 251.37 + 251.37
= 502.74 cm2
31. From each end of a solid metal cylinder, metal was scooped out in hemispherical from of same
diameter. The height of the cylinder is 10 cm and its base is of radius 4.2 cm. The rest of the cylinder is
22
melted and converted into a cylindrical wire of 1.4 cm thickness. Find the length of the wire. [Use ]
7
Solution:
Height of the cylinder (h) = 10 cm
Radius of the base of the cylinder = 4.2 cm
Volume of original cylinder r 2h
22
(4.2)2 10
7
554.4 cm3
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CBSE-X-2015 EXAMINATION
2
Volume of hemisphere r 3
3
2 22
(4.2)3
3 7
155.232 cm3
Volume of the remaining cylinder after scooping out hemisphere from each end
= Volume of original cylinder - 2 Volume of hemisphere
554.4 2 155.232
243.936 cm3
The remaining cylinder is melted and converted to
a new cylindrical wire of 1.4 cm thickness.
So they have same volume and radius of new cylindrical wire is 0.7 cm.
Volume of the remaining cylinder = Volume of the new cylindrical wire
243.936 r 2h
22
243.936 (0.7)2 h
7
h 158.4 cm
The length of the new cylindrical wire of 1.4 cm thickness is 158.4 cm.
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CBSE-XII-2017 EXAMINATI CBSE – X – 2016 EXAMINATION
MATHEMATICS
SET-1 Paper & Solution
Time: 3 Hrs. Max. Marks: 90
General Instructions:
1. All questions are compulsory.
2. The question paper consists of 31 questions divided into four sections – A, B, C and D.
3. Section A contains 4 questions of 1 mark each. Section B contains 6 questions of 2 marks each, Section C
contains 10 questions of 3 marks each and Section D contains 11 questions of 4 marks each.
4. Use of calculators is not permitted.
SECTION A
Question 1. In the figure, PQ is a tangent at a point C to a circle with centre O. if AB is a diameter and
∠CAB = 30°, find ∠PCA.
Solution: In the given figure,
In ΔACO,
OA = OC …(Radii of the same circle)
ΔACO is an isosceles triangle.
∠CAB = 30° …(Given)
∠CAO = ∠ACO = 30° …. (angles opposite to equal sides of an isosceles triangle are equal)
∠PCO = 90° …(radius drawn at the point of contact is perpendicular to the tangent)
Now ∠PCA = ∠PCO – ∠CAO
∠PCA = 90° – 30° = 60°
Marks: 1
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Question 2. For what value of k will k + 9, 2k – 1 and 2k + 7 are the consecutive terms of an A.P?
Solution: If k + 9, 2k – 1 and 2k + 7 are the consecutive terms of A.P., then the common difference will be
the same.
∴ (2k – 1) – (k + 9) = (2k + 7) – (2k – 1)
∴ k – 10 = 8
∴ k = 18
Marks: 1
Question 3. A ladder leaning against a wall makes an angle of 60° with the horizontal. If the foot of the
ladder is 2.5 m away from the wall, find the length of the ladder.
Solution:
Let AB be the ladder and CA be the wall.
The ladder makes an angle of 60° with the horizontal.
∴ ΔABC is a 30°-60°-90°, right triangle.
Given: BC = 2.5 m, ∠ABC = 60°
∴ AB = 5 m
Hence, length of the ladder is AB = 5 m.
Marks: 1
Question 4. A card is drawn at random from a well shuffled pack of 52 playing cards. Find the probability
of getting neither a red card nor a queen.
Solution: There are 26 red cards including 2 red queens.
Two more queens along with 26 red cards will be 26 + 2 = 28
28
∴ P(getting a red card or a queen) =
52
28 24 6
∴ P(getting neither a red card nor a queen) = 1 – = =
52 52 13
Marks: 1
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SECTION B
Question 5. If -5 is a root of the quadratic equation 2x2 + px – 15 = 0 and the quadratic equation p(x2 + x)k
= 0 has equal roots, find the value of k.
Solution: Given –5 is a root of the quadratic equation 2x2 + px – 15 = 0.
∴ –5 satisfies the given equation.
∴ 2(–5)2 + p(–5) – 15 = 0
∴ 50 – 5p – 15 = 0
∴ 35 – 5p = 0
∴ 5p = 35 p = 7
Substituting p = 7 in p(x2 + x) + k = 0, we get
7(x2 + x) + k = 0
∴ 7x2 + 7x + k = 0
The roots of the equation are equal.
∴ Discriminant = b2 – 4ac = 0
Here, a = 7, b = 7, c = k
b2 – 4ac = 0
∴ (7)2 – 4(7)(k) = 0
∴ 49 – 28k = 0
∴ 28k = 49
49 7
∴ k
28 4
Marks: 2
Question 6. Let P and Q be the points of trisection of the line segment joining the points A(2, -2) and B(-7,
4) such that P is nearer to A. Find the coordinates of P and Q.
Solution: Since P and Q are the points of trisection of AB, AP = PQ = QB
Thus, P divides AB internally in the ratio 1 : 2
and Q divides AB internally in the ratio 2 : 1.
∴ By section formula,
1(7) 2(2) 1(4) 2( 2) 7 4 4 4 3
P , , , 0 (1, 0)
1 2 1 2 3 3 3
2(7) 1(2) 2(4) 1( 2) 14 2 8 2 12 6
Q , , , (4, 2)
2 1 2 1 3 3 3 3
Marks: 2
Question 7. In figure, a quadrilateral ABCD is drawn to circumscribe a circle, with centre O, in such a way
that the sides AB, BC, CD and DA touch the circle at the points P, Q, R and S respectively. Prove that AB +
CD = BC + DA.
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Solution: Since tangents drawn from an exterior point to a circle are equal in length,
AP = AS ….(1)
BP = BQ ….(2)
CR = CQ ….(3)
DR = DS ….(4)
Adding equations (1), (2), (3) and (4), we get
AP + BP + CR + DS = AS + BQ + CQ + DS
∴ (AP + BP) + (CR + DR) = (AS + DS) + (BQ + CQ)
∴ AB + CD = AD + BC
∴ AB + CD = BC + DA …..(proved)
Marks: 2
Question 8. Prove that the points (3, 0), (6, 4) and (-1, 3) are the vertices of a right angled isosceles triangle.
Solution: Let A(3, 0), B(6, 4) and C(–1, 3) be the given points.
Now,
AB (6 3) 2 (4 0) 2 (3) 2 (4) 2 9 16 25
BC (1 6) 2 (3 4) 2 (7) 2 (1) 2 49 1 50
AC (1 3) 2 (3 0) 2 (4) 2 (3) 2 16 9 25
∴ AB = AC
AB2 = ( 25) 2 = 25
BC2 = ( 50) 2 = 50
AC2 = ( 25) 2 = 25
∴ AB2 = AC2 = BC2
Thus, ∆ABC is a right-angled isosceles triangle.
Marks: 2
Question 9. The 4th term of an A.P. is zero. Prove that the 25th term of the A.P. is three times its 11th term.
Solution: 4th term of an A.P. = a4 = 0
∴ a + (4 – 1)d = 0
∴ a + 3d = 0
∴ a = –3d ….(1)
th
25 term of an A.P. = a25
= a + (25 – 1)d
= –3d + 24d ….[From (1)]
= 21d
3 times 11th term of an A.P. = 3a11
= 3[a + (11 – 1)d]
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= 3[a + 10d]
= 3[–3d + 10d]
= 3 × 7d
= 21d
∴ a25 = 3a11
i.e., the 25th term of the A.P. is three times its 11th term.
Marks: 2
Question 10. In figure, from an external point P, two tangents PT and PS are drawn to a circle with centre O
and radius r. If OP = 2r, show that ∠ OTS = ∠ OST = 30°.
Solution:
In the given figure,
OP = 2r … (Given)
∠OTP = 90° … (radius drawn at the point of contact is perpendicular to the tangent)
In ΔOTP,
OT 1
sin ∠OPT = = = sin30°
OP 2
∠OPT = 30°
∴ ∠TOP = 60°
∴ ΔOTP is a 30°-60°-90°, right triangle.
In ΔOTS,
OT = OS … (Radii of the same circle)
∴ ΔOTS is an isosceles triangle.
∴ ∠OTS = ∠OST … (Angles opposite to equal sides of an isosceles triangle are equal)
In ΔOTQ and ΔOSQ
OS = OT … (Radii of the same circle)
OQ = OQ ... (side common to both triangles)
∠OTQ = ∠OSQ … (angles opposite to equal sides of an isosceles triangle are equal)
∴ ΔOTQ ≅ ΔOSQ … (By S.A.S)
∴ ∠TOQ = ∠SOQ = 60° … (C.A.C.T)
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∴ ∠TOS = 120° … (∠TOS = ∠TOQ + ∠SOQ = 60° + 60° = 120°)
∴ ∠OTS + ∠OST = 180° – 120° = 60°
∴ ∠OTS = ∠OST = 60° ÷ 2 = 30°
Marks: 2
SECTION C
Question 11. In figure, O is the centre of a circle such that diameter AB = 13 cm and AC = 12 cm. BC is
joined. Find the area of the shaded region. (Take π = 3.14)
Solution: Diameter, AB = 13 cm
13
∴ Radius of the circle, r = = 6.5 cm
2
∠ACB is the angle in the semi-circle.
∴ ∠ACB = 90°
Now, in ∆ACB, using Pythagoras theorem, we have
AB2 = AC2 + BC2
(13)2 = (12)2 + (BC)2
(BC)2 = (13)2 – (12)2 = 169 – 144 = 25
BC = 25 = 5 cm
Now, area of shaded region = Area of semi-circle – Area of ACB
1 1
r 2 BC AC
2 2
1 1
3.14 (6.5) 2 5 12
2 2
= 66.33 – 30
= 36.33 cm2
Thus, the area of the shaded region is 36.33 cm2.
Marks: 3
Question 12. In figure, a tent is in the shape of a cylinder surmounted by a conical top of same diameter. If
the height and diameter of cylindrical part are 2.1 m and 3 m respectively and the slant height of conical part
is 2.8 m, find the cost of canvas needed to make the tent if the canvas is available at the rate of Rs. 500/sq.
22
metre. Use
7
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Solution:
For conical portion, we have
r = 1.5 m and l = 2.8 m
∴ S1 = Curved surface area of conical portion
∴ S1 = πrl
= π × 1.5 × 2.8
= 4.2π m2
For cylindrical portion, we have
r = 1.5 m and h = 2.1 m
∴ S2 = Curved surface area of cylindrical portion
∴ S2 = 2πrh
= 2 × π × 1.5 × 2.1
= 6.3π m2
Area of canvas used for making the tent = S1 + S2
= 4.2π + 6.3 π
= 10.5 π
22
= 10.5 ×
7
2
= 33 m
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Total cost of the canvas at the rate of Rs. 500 per m2 = Rs. (500 × 33) = Rs. 16500.
Marks: 3
Question 13. If the point P(x, y) is equidistant from the points A(a + b, b – a) and B(a – b, a + b). Prove that
bx = ay.
Solution: P(x, y) is equidistant from the points A(a + b, b – a) and B(a – b, a + b).
∴ AP = BP
[ x (a b)]2 [ y (b a)]2 [ x (a b)]2 [ y (a b)]2
[ x (a b)]2 [ y (b a)]2 [ x (a b)]2 [ y (a b)]2
x 2 2 x(a b) (a b) 2 y 2 2 y(b a) (b a) 2 x 2 2 x(a b) (a b) 2 y 2 2 y (a b) (a b) 2
2 x(a b) 2 y (b a) 2 x(a b) 2 y (a b)
ax + bx + by – ay = ax – bx + ay + by
2bx = 2ay
∴ bx = ay ....(proved)
Marks: 3
Question 14. In figure, find the area of the shaded region, enclosed between two concentric circles of radii 7
22
cm and 14 cm where ∠AOC = 40°. Use
7
Solution: Area of the region ABDC = Area of sector AOC – Area of sector BOD
40 22 40 22
= 14 14 77
360 7 360 7
1 1
= 22 14 2 22 7 1
9 9
22
= (28 7)
9
22
= 21
9
154
=
3
= 51.33 cm2
22 22
Area of circular ring = 14 14 7 7
7 7
= 22 × 14 × 2 – 22 × 7 × 1
= 22 × (28 – 7)
= 22 × 21
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= 462 cm2
∴ Required shaded region = Area of circular ring – Area of region ABDC
= 462 – 51.33
= 410.67 cm2
Thus, the area of shaded region is 410.67 cm2
Marks: 3
Question 15. If the ratio of the sum of first n terms of two A.P’s is (7n +1): (4n + 27), find the ratio of their
mth terms.
Solution: Let a1, a2 be the first terms and d1, d2 the common differences of the two given A.P’s.
n n
Thus, we have S n [2a1 (n 1)d1 ] and S n ' [2a2 (n 1)d 2 ]
2 2
n
[2a1 (n 1)d1 ]
Sn 2 2a (n 1)d1
1
Sn ' n [2a (n 1)d ] 2a2 (n 1)d 2
2 2
2
S 7n 1
It is given that n
Sn ' 4n 27
2a1 (n 1)d1 7n 1
....(1)
2a2 (n 1)d 2 4n 27
To find the ratio of the mth terms of the two given A.P's, replace n by (2m – 1) in equation (1).
2a (2m 1 1)d1 7(2m 1) 1
1
2a2 (2m 1 1)d 2 4(2m 1) 27
2a1 (2m 2)d1 14m 7 1
2a2 (2m 2)d 2 8m 4 27
a1 (m 1)d1 14m 6
a2 (m 1)d 2 8m 23
Hence, the ratio of the mth terms of the two A.P's is 14m – 6 : 8m 23.
Marks: 3
1 1 2
Question 16. Solve for x: , x 1, 2,3
( x 1)( x 2) ( x 2)( x 3) 3
Solution:
1 1 2
( x 1)( x 2) ( x 2)( x 3) 3
( x 3) ( x 1) 2
( x 1)( x 2)( x 3) 3
x 3 x 1 2
( x 3x 2)( x 3) 3
2
2x 4 2
x 3x 3x 9 x 2 x 6 3
3 2 2
2x 4 2
x 6 x 11x 6 3
3 2
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6 x 12 2 x 3 12 x 2 22 x 12
2 x 3 12 x 2 16 x 0
2 x( x 2 6 x 8) 0
x2 6x 8 0
x2 4x 2x 8 0
x( x 4) 2( x 4) 0
( x 4)( x 2) 0
x 4 0 or x 2 0
x 4 or x 2
Marks: 3
Question 17. A conical vessel, with base radius 5 cm and height 24 cm, is full of water. This water is
emptied into a cylindrical vessel of base radius 10 cm. Find the height to which the water will rise in the
22
cylindrical vessel. Use
7
Solution: Let the radius of the conical vessel = r1 = 5 cm
Height of the conical vessel = h1 = 24 cm
Radius of the cylindrical vessel = r2
Let the water rise upto the height of h2 cm in the cylindrical vessel.
Now, volume of water in conical vessel = volume of water in cylindrical vessel
1 2
πr1 h1 = r22h2
3
r12 h1 = 3r22h2
5 × 5 × 24 = 3 × 10 × 10 × h2
5 5 24
h2 = = 2 cm
3 10 10
Thus, the water will rise upto the height of 2 cm in the cylindrical vessel.
Marks: 3
Question 18. A sphere of diameter 12 cm, is dropped in a right circular cylindrical vessel, partly filled with
5
water. If the sphere is completely submerged in water, the water level in the cylindrical vessel rises by 3
9
cm. Find the diameter of the cylindrical vessel.
Solution: Radius of sphere = r = 6 cm
4 4
Volume of sphere = πr3 = π × (6)3 = 288π cm3
3 3
Let R be the radius of cylindrical vessel.
5 32
Rise in the water level of cylindrical vessel = h = 3 cm = cm
9 9
32 32 2
Increase in volume of cylindrical vessel = πR2h = πR2 × = πR
9 9
Now, volume of water displaced by the sphere is equal to volume of sphere.
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32 2
∴ πR = 288π
9
288 9
∴ R2 = = 81
32
∴ R = 9 cm
∴ Diameter of the cylindrical vessel = 2 × R = 2 × 9 = 18 cm
Marks: 3
Question 19. A man standing on the deck of a ship, which is 10 m above water level, observes the angle of
elevation of the top of a hill as 60° and the angle of depression of the base of a hill as 30°. Find the distance
of the hill from the ship and the height of the hill.
Solution:
Let CD be the hill and suppose the man is standing on the deck of a ship at point A.
The angle of depression of the base C of the hill CD observed from A is 30° and the angle of elevation of the
top D of the hill CD observed from A is 60°.
∴ ∠EAD = 60° and ∠BCA = 30°
In ΔAED,
DE
tan 60
EA
h
3
x
h= 3x ....(1)
In ΔABC,
AB
tan 30
BC
1 10
3 x
x = 10 3 ....(2)
Substituting x = 10 3 in equation (1), we get
h = 3 × 10 3 = 10 × 3 = 30
DE = 30 m
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CD = CE + ED = 10 + 30 = 40 m
Thus, the distance of the hill from the ship is 10 3 m and the height of the hill is 40 m.
Marks: 3
Question 20. Three different coins are tossed together. Find the probability of getting
(i) exactly two heads
(ii) at least two heads
(iii) at least two tails.
Solution: When three coins are tossed together, the possible outcomes are
HHH, HTH, HHT, THH, THT, TTH, HTT, TTT
∴ Total number of possible outcomes = 8
(i) Favourable outcomes of exactly two heads are HTH, HHT, THH
∴ Total number of favourable outcomes = 3
3
∴ P(exactly two heads) =
8
(ii) Favourable outcomes of at least two heads are HHH, HTH, HHT, THH
∴ Total number of favourable outcomes = 4
4 1
∴ P(at least two heads) = =
8 2
(iii)Favourable outcomes of at least two tails are THT, TTH, HTT, TTT
∴ Total number of favourable outcomes = 4
4 1
∴ P(at least two tails)= =
8 2
Marks: 3
SECTION D
Question 21. Due to heavy floods in a state, thousands were rendered homeless. 50 schools collectively
offered to the state government to provide place and the canvas for 1500 tents to be fixed by the
governments and decided to share the whole expenditure equally. The lower part of each tent is cylindrical
of base radius 2.8 cm and height 3.5 m, with conical upper part of same base radius but of height 2.1 m. If
the canvas used to make the tents costs Rs. 120 per sq. m, find the amount shared by each school to set up
22
the tents. What value is generated by the above problem? Use
7
Solution: Height of conical upper part = 3.5 m, and radius = 2.8 m
(Slant height of cone)2 = 2.12 + 2.82 = 4.41 + 7.84
Slant height of cone = 12.25 = 3.5 m
The canvas used for each tent
= curved surface area of cylindrical base + curved surface area of conical upper part
= 2πrh + πrl
= πr(2h + l)
22
= × 2.8(7 + 3.5)
7
22
= × 2.8 × 10.5
7
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= 92.4 m2
So, the canvas used for one tent is 92.4 m2.
Thus, the canvas used for 1500 tents = (92.4 × 1500) m2.
Canvas used to make the tents cost Rs. 120 per sq. m.
So, canvas used to make 1500 tents will cost Rs. 92.4 × 1500 × 120.
The amount shared by each school to set up the tents
92.4 1500 120
= = Rs. 332640
50
The amount shared by each school to set up the tents is Rs. 332640.
The value to help others in times of troubles is generated from the problem.
Marks: 4
Question 22. Prove that the lengths of the tangents drawn from an external point to a circle are equal.
Solution: Consider a circle centered at O.
Let PR and QR are tangents drawn from an external point R to the circle touching at points P and Q
respectively.
Join OR.
Proof:
In ∆OPR and ∆OQR,
OP = OQ ... (Radii of the same circle)
∠OPR = ∠OQR …. (Since PR and QR are tangents to the circle)
OR = OR ... (Common side)
∴ ∆OPR ≅ ∆OQ R ….(By R.H.S)
∴ PR = QR ….(c.p.c.t)
Thus, tangents drawn from an external point to a circle are equal.
Marks: 4
Question 23. Draw a circle of radius 4 cm. Draw two tangents to the circle inclined at an angle of 60° to
each other.
Solution: Steps of construction:
(i) Take a point O on the plane of the paper and draw a circle of radius OA = 4 cm.
(ii) Produce OA to B such that OA = AB = 4 cm.
(iii) Draw a circle with centre at A and radius AB.
(iv) Suppose it cuts the circle drawn in step (i) at P and Q.
(v) Join BP and BQ to get the desired tangents.
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Justification:
In ∆OAP, OA = OP = 4 cm ... (radii of the same circle)
Also, AP = 4 cm ….(Radius of the circle with centre A)
∴ ∆OAP is equilateral.
∴ ∠PAO = 60°
∴ ∠BAP = 120°
In ∆BAP, we have BA = AP and ∠ BAP = 120°
∴ ∠ABP = ∠APB = 30°
Similarly we can get ∠ABQ = 30°
∴ ∠PBQ = 60°
Marks: 4
Question 24. In figure, two equal circles, with centres O and O’, touch each other at X. OO’ produced meets
the circle with centre O’ at A. AC is tangent to the circle with centre O, at the point C. O’D is perpendicular
DO'
to AC. Find the value of .
CO
Solution: AO’ = O’X = XO = OC …..(Since the two circles are equal.)
So, OA = AO’ + O’X + XO …..(A-O’-X-O)
∴ OA = 3O’A
In ∆AO'D and ∆AOC,
∠DAO' = ∠CAO .... (Common angle)
∠ADO' = ∠ACO .... (both measure 90 )
∆ADO' ~ ∆ACO .... (By AA test of similarity)
DO ' O ' A O ' A 1
CO OA 3O'A 3
Marks: 4
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1 2 4
Question 25. Solve for x: ; X 1, 2, 4
x 1 x 2 x 4
1 2 4
Solution:
x 1 x 2 x 4
L.C.M. of all the denominators is (x + 1)(x + 2)(x + 4)
Multiply throughout by the L.C.M., we get
(x + 2)(x + 4) + 2(x + 1)(x + 4) = 4(x + 1)(x + 2)
(x + 4)(x + 2 + 2x +2) = 4(x2 + 3x + 2)
(x + 4)(3x + 4) = 4x2 + 12x + 8
3x2 + 16x + 16 = 4x2 + 12x + 8
∴ x2 – 4x – 8 = 0
Now, a = 1, b = –4, c = –8
b b 2 4ac 4 16 32 4 48 4 4 3
x
2a 2 2 2
∴ x = 2 2 3
Marks: 4
Question 26. The angle of elevation of the top Q of a vertical tower PQ from a point X on the ground is 60°.
From a point Y, 40 m vertically above X, the angle of elevation of the top Q of tower is 45°. Find the height
of the tower PQ and the distance PX. (Use 3 = 1.73)
Solution:
MP = YX = 40 m
∴ QM = h – 40
In right angled ∆QMY,
QM h 40
tan 45 1 ....(MY = PX)
MY PX
∴ PX = h – 40 ....(1)
In right angled ∆QPX,
QP QP
tan 60 3
PX PX
h
PX = ....(2)
3
h
From (1) and (2), h – 40 =
3
∴ 3 h – 40 3 = h
∴ 3 h – h = 40 3
∴ 1.73h – h = 40(1.73) h = 94.79 m
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Thus, PQ is 94.79 m.
Marks: 4
Question 27. The houses in a row numbered consecutively from 1 to 49. Show that there exists a value of X
such that sum of numbers of houses preceding the house numbered X is equal to sum of the numbers of
houses following X.
Solution: Let there be a value of x such that the sum of the numbers of the houses preceding the house
numbered x is equal to the sum of the numbers of the houses following it.
That is, 1 + 2 + 3 + . . . . + (x – 1) = (x + 1) + (x + 2) + . . . . . + 49
∴ 1 + 2 + 3 + . . . . + (x – 1)
= [1 + 2 + .... + x + (x – 1) + .... + 49] – (1 + 2 + 3 +. . . . + x)
x 1 49 x
∴ [1 x 1] [1 49] [1 x]
2 2 2
∴ x(x – 1) = 49 × 50 – x(1 + x)
∴ x(x – 1) + x(1 + x) = 49 × 50
∴ x2 – x + x + x2 = 49 × 50
∴ x2 = 49 × 50
∴ x2 = 49 × 25
∴ x = 7 × 5 = 35
Since x is not a fraction, the value of x satisfying the given condition exists and is equal to 35.
Marks: 4
Question 28. In figure, the vertices of ∆ABC are A(4, 6), B(1, 5) and C(7, 2). A line-segment DE is drawn
AD AE 1
to intersect the sides AB and AC at D and E respectively such that . Calculate the area of
AB AC 3
∆ADE and compare it with area of ∆ABC.
Solution:
AD AE 1
AB AC 3
AB AC
3
AD AE
AD DB AE EC
3
AD AE
DB EC
1 1 3
AD AE
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DB EC
2
AD AE
AD AE 1
DB EC 2
AD : DB AE : EC 1: 2
So, D and E divide AB and AC respectively in the ratio 1:2.
So the coordinates of D and E are
1 8 5 12 17 7 8 2 12 14
, 3, and , 5, respectively.
1 2 1 2 3 1 2 1 2 3
Area of ∆ADE
1 17 14 17 14
4 3 5 6 3 6 5 4
2 3 3 3 3
1 68 85 56
14 30 18
2 3 3 3
1 68 42 90 54 85 56
2 3 3
1 200 195
2 3 3
1 5
2 3
5
= sq. units
6
Area of ∆ABC
1
| (4 5 1 2 7 6) (1 6 7 5 4 2) |
2
1
| (20 2 42) (6 35 8) |
2
1
| (64) (49) |
2
15
= sq. units
2
Area of ADE 5 / 6 1
Area of ABC 15 / 2 9
Marks: 4
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Question 29. A number x is selected at random from the numbers 1, 2, 3, and 4. Another number y is
selected at random from the numbers 1, 4, 9 and 16. Find the probability that product of x and y is less than
16.
Solution: x is selected from 1, 2, 3 and 4
1, 2, 3, 4
y is selected from 1, 4, 9 and 16
Let A = {1, 4, 9, 16, 2, 8, 18, 32, 3, 12, 27, 48, 36, 64} which consists of elements that are product of x and
y
Number of outcomes less than 16
P(product of x and y is less than 16) =
Total number of outcomes
7
14
1
2
Marks: 4
Question 30. In figure, is shown a sector OAP of a circle with centre O, containing ∠θ. AB is perpendicular
to the radius OQ and meets OP produced at B. Prove that the perimeter of shaded region is
r tan sec 1 .
180
Solution: Perimeter of shaded region = AB + PB + arc length AP ...(1)
r
Arc length AP = 2 r ....(2)
360 180
In right angled ∆OAB,
AB
tan θ = AB = r tan θ ....(3)
r
OB
sec θ = OB = r sec θ
r
OB = OP + PB
∴ r sec θ = r + PB
∴ PB = r sec θ – r .....(4)
Substitute (2), (3) and (4) in (1), we get
Perimeter of shaded region = AB + PB + arc length AP
r
r tan r sec r
180
r tan sec 1
180
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Marks: 4
Question 31. A motor boat whose speed is 24 km/h in still water takes 1 hour more to go 32 km upstream
than to return downstream to the same spot. Find the speed of the stream.
Solution: Let the speed of the stream be s km/h.
Speed of the motor boat 24 km/h
Speed of the motor boat upstream 24 – s
Speed of the motor boat downstream 24 + s
According to the given condition,
32 32
1
24 s 24 s
1 1
32 1
24 s 24 s
24 s 24 s
32 1
576 s
2
∴ 32 × 2s = 576 – s 2
∴ s2 + 64s – 576 = 0
∴ (s + 72)(s – 8) = 0
∴ s = –72 or s = 8
Since, speed of the stream cannot be negative, the speed of the stream is 8 km/h.
Marks: 4
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CBSE Class 10
Mathematics
Previous Year Question Paper 2011
Series: RHB/1 Code no. 30/1/1
● Please check that this question paper contains 16 printed pages.
● Code number given on the right hand side of the question paper should be
written on the title page of the answer-book by the candidate.
● Please check that this question paper contains 34 questions.
● Please write down the serial number of the question before attempting
it.
● 15 minutes time has been allotted to read this question paper. The question
paper will be distributed at 10.15 a.m. From 10.15 a.m. to 10.30 a.m., the
students will read the question paper only and will not write any answer on the
answer script during this period.
SUMMATIVE ASSESSMENT-II
MATHEMATICS
Time Allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 80
General Instructions
1. All questions are compulsory.
2. The question paper consists of 34 questions divided into four sections A, B,
C and D.
3. Section A contains 30 questions of 1 mark each, which are multiple choice
type questions, Section B contains 8 questions of 2 marks each, Section C
contains 10 questions of 3 marks each, Section D contains 6 questions of 4
marks each.
4. There is no overall choice in the paper. However, internal choice is provided
in one question of 2 marks. 3 questions of 3 marks each and two questions
of 4 marks each.
Class X Mathematics www.vedantu.com 1
5. Use of calculators is not permitted.
SECTION-A
Question Numbers 1 to 30 carry 1 mark each. For each of the questions 1
to 30, four alternative choices have been provided, of which only one is
correct. Select the correct choice.
1. The roots of the equation x 2 +x-p ( p+1) =0 , where p is a constant, are:
(A) p,p+1
(B) -p,p+1
(C) p,-(p+1)
(D) -p,-(p+1) 1 Mark
Ans: The given equation is x 2 +x-p(p+1)=0 . Now, solving this equation using
-b± b 2 -4ac
Quadratic formula, i.e. x= Putting the values in the formula, we
2a
get :
1± 1-4 (1) ( -p ( p+1) )
⇒ x=
2
1± 1+4p 2 +p
⇒ x=
2
( 2p+1)
2
-1± 1 ( 2p+1)
⇒ x= =- ±
2 2 2
Thus, the two roots are:
1 1
α=- +p+ =p
2 2
1 1
β=- -p- =-p-1
2 2
Therefore, option is the correct answer.
2. In an AP, if, d=-2, n=5 and an=0, then the value of a is : 1 Mark
Class X Mathematics www.vedantu.com 2
a) 10
(B) 5
(C) -8
(D) 8
Ans: It is given that
d=-2
n=5
an=0
The formula for an is given as an=a+(n-1)d . Putting the values, we get
0=a+(5-1)-2
0=a+4(-2)
a=8
Hence, option (D) 8 is the correct answer.
3. In Fig. 1, O is the centre of a circle, AB is a chord and AT is the tangent
at A. If
< AOB =100o then < BAT is equal to: 1 Mark
Ans: It is given in this question that AO and BO are radius therefore, triangle
AOB is an isosceles triangle:
< AOB + < OBA + < OAB = 180
Putting values, we get
100 + < OAB + < OAB = 180
⇒ 2 < AOB=80o
Class X Mathematics www.vedantu.com 3
⇒< AOB=40o
We know that tangent and radius are perpendicular to each other,
∴< OAT=40o
Simplifying,
∴< OAB+<BAT=40o
<BAT=90o -40o =50o
Hence, option (C) 50 is the correct answer.
4. In Fig. 2, PA and PB are tangents to the circle with centre O. If <APB
=60o, then < OAB is : 1 Mark
a. 30o
b. 60o
c. 90o
d. 15o
Ans: It is given that PA and PB are two tangents. O is the centre of the circle
and OA and OB are joined. Given: < APB = 60 . We need to find < OAB PA
and PB are tangents to the circle, so, PA = PB , < PAB = < PBA. But < APB
= 60 . So, < PAB + < PBA = 180 - 60 = 120 .
⇒ 2 < PAB = 120
⇒ <PAB=60o
Now, OA is radius and PA is tangent, hence, OA ⊥ PA,
⇒ <OPA=90o
Class X Mathematics www.vedantu.com 4
⇒ <OAB+<PAB=90o
Putting the values, we get
⇒ <OAB+60o =90o
⇒ <OAB=30o
Hence, option (A) 30 is the correct answer.
5. The radii of two circles are 4 cm and 3 cm respectively. The diameter of
the circle having area equal to the sum of the areas of the two circles (in
cm) is: 1 Mark
a. 5
b. 7
c. 10
d. 14
Ans: The radius of one circle is 4 cm. Therefore, the area of the circle is :
A=π× ( 4 ) =16π . The radius of the second circle is 3 cm. Therefore, the area
2
of the circle is: A=π× ( 3) =9π . Thus, the sum of the areas of two circles is:
2
A'=9π+16π
⇒ πr'2 =25π
⇒ r'=5cm
Hence, the diameter of the circle is 10 cm. So, option (C) 10 is the correct
answer.
6. A sphere of diameter 18 cm is dropped into a cylindrical vessel of
diameter 36 cm, partly filled with water. If the sphere is completely
submerged, then the water level rises (in cm) by : 1 Mark
a) 3
(B) 4
Class X Mathematics www.vedantu.com 5
(C) 5
(D) 6
Ans: It is given that: The diameter of the sphere is 18 cm. So, the radius is 9
cm. The diameter of the cylindrical vessel is 36 cm. So, the radius is 18 cm. Let
us consider the height of water rise is H cm. Now, the sphere is completely
submerged, Volume of the vessel is equal to the volume of the sphere. Putting
the values, we get.
4 3
πR 2 H= πr
3
4 3
r 4× ( 9 )
3
3
⇒ H= 2 = =3cm
3× (18 )
2
R
Hence, option (A)3 is the correct answer.
7. The angle of elevation of the top of a tower from a point on the ground,
which is 30 m away from the foot of the tower is 45°. The height of the tower
(in metres) is:
a) 15
(B) 30
(C) 30 3
(D) 10 3 1 Mark
Ans: Let us draw a figure for the given tower and the point in the question :
Class X Mathematics www.vedantu.com 6
Let us consider the height of the tower to be h cm, now, in ΔOPQ
PQ
, tan45o =
OQ
Now the distance of the tower from the point is 30m, so,
h
tan45=
30
h
⇒ 1=
30
⇒ h=30m
Hence, option (B)30 m is the correct answer.
8. The point P which divides the line segment joining the points A(2, - 5)
and B(5, 2) in the ratio 2:3 lies in the quadrant: 1 Mark
a) I
(B) II
(C) III
(D) IV
Ans: Given the points A(2, - 5) and B(5, 2) are divided in the ratio 2:3. Thus,
the point P is given by:
2×5+3×2 2×2-3×5 11
P= , = 3,-
2+3 2+3 5
Thus, the point clearly lies in the fourth quadrant. Hence option (D) IV is the
correct answer.
9. The midpoint of segment AB is the point P( 0, 4). If the coordinates of
Bare (-2, 3) then the coordinates of A are :
(A) (2,5)
(B) (-2,-5)
(C) (2,9)
Class X Mathematics www.vedantu.com 7
(D) (-2,11) 1 Mark
Ans: It is given that P( 0, 4) is the midpoint of segment AB .The point B is (-2,
3). Let the point A be (x, y), then,
x+ ( -2 )
. Solving this we get; x=2. For the point y.
2
y+3
=4
2
⇒ y=8-3=5 . Hence, the point A is given by (2,5). Therefore, option (a) (2, 5) is
the correct answer.
10. Which of the following cannot be the probability of an event? 1 Mark
(A) 1.5
3
(B)
5
(C) 25%
(D) 0.3
Ans: Out of these four options, 1.5 cannot be a probability of an event because
it is greater than 1 and probability of any event cannot be greater than 1.
SECTION-B
Question Numbers 11 to 18 carry 2 marks each.
11. Find the value of p so that the quadratic equation px(x - 3) + 9 = 0 has
two equal roots. 2 Marks
Ans: Given the quadratic equation is px ( x-3) +9=0 .Simplifying this equation
further, we get, px 2 -3px+9=0 .
-b± b 2 -4ac
Using the quadratic formula, we get x= .
2a
Class X Mathematics www.vedantu.com 8
3p± 9p 2 -4p ( 9 )
Putting the values, we get: x= . It is given that the equation has
2p
two equal roots, this implies, 9p 2 -4p ( 9 ) =0 . Solving this to find p, we get
9p 2 -4p ( 9 ) =0
9p ( p-4 ) =0
⇒ p=0,4
Therefore, the value of p is (0,4).
12. Find whether -150 is a term of the AP 17, 12, 7, 2,..........? 2 Marks
Ans: The given AP is 17,12,7,2………… Thus, we can see here that:
a=17
d=5
If -150 is a term, then, an =-150.Expanding the term to find the value of n,
an = a+(n-1)d
⇒ -150=17+(n-1)5
⇒ -150-17=(n-1)5
-167
⇒ =n-1
5
162
⇒ n=-
5
But this can’t be an actual nth term, thus, -150 does not belong to this AP.
13. Two concentric circles are of radii 7 cm and r cm respectively, where r
>7. A chord of the larger circle, of length 48cm touches the smaller circle,
find the value of r. 2 Marks
Ans: First of all, let us draw a figure of the two concentric circles,
Class X Mathematics www.vedantu.com 9
We need to find the value of r. In the figure, we can clearly see that point P is
the midpoint of AB. So, in ΔOPB , using Pythagoras theorem, we get:
OB2 =OP 2 +PB2
⇒ r 2 = ( 7 ) + ( 24 )
2 2
⇒ r 2 =49+576
⇒ r 2 =625
⇒ r 2 =25cm
Hence, the value of r is 25cm.
14. Draw a line segment of length 6 cm. Using compasses and ruler, find a
point P on it which divides it in the ratio 3:4. 2 Marks
Ans: In order to solve this question, we are first of all going to draw a line
segment AB which is equal to length 6cm.
Next, you need to put the compass on points A and B and a perpendicular
bisector of AB is drawn. The point at which the perpendicular bisector meets
Class X Mathematics www.vedantu.com 10
AB is named O. The compass is put on points O and B and a perpendicular
bisector of OB is drawn. Then, you should note that the Perpendicular bisector
meets OB at a point which is named P which as given in the question divides
the segment into 3:4.Thus,
3
AP= of AB
4
15. Fig. 3, APB and CQD are semi-circles of diameter 7 cm each, while
ARC and BSD are semi-circles of diameter 14 cm each. Find the
22
perimeter of the shaded region. [Use π= ]. 2 Marks
7
Ans: Let us consider the semicircle ARC and BSD. They have diameters 14cm
each, thus, the perimeter of ARC and BSD is equal to:
p1 =p 2 =2πr=2π ( 7 ) =14π
The semicircles APB and CQD have diameters 7cm each.
Perimeter of the shaded region = Length of APB + Length of ARC + Length of
CQD + Length of DSB . Now,
1 7 22 7
perimeter of APB ×2π cm = × =11cm .
2 2 7 2
1 22
Perimeter of ARC = ×2π ( 7cm ) = ×7cm=22cm
2 7
1 7 22 7
Perimeter of CQD = ×2π cm = × cm=11cm
2 2 7 2
1 22
Perimeter of DSB = ×2π ( 7cm ) = ×7cm=22cm
2 7
Class X Mathematics www.vedantu.com 11
Thus, the perimeter of the shaded region = 11 cm + 22 cm + 11 cm + 22 cm =
66 cm.
Therefore, the perimeter of the shaded region is 66cm.
Or
Find the area of a quadrant of a circle, where the circumference of the
22
circle is 44 cm. [Use π= ] 2 Marks
7
Ans: It is given that the circumference of the circle is equal to 44 cm. If we let
the radius of the circle to be r cm. 2πr=44 .
Solving this to find the radius.
44 44
r= = =7 cm
2π 2× 22
7
Thus, the area of the quadrant is
1 1 22 77
A= ×πr 2 = × ×7= . Thus, the area of the quadrant of the circle is equal to
4 4 7 2
77
cm 2 .
2
16. Two cubes, each 4 cm, are joined end to end. Find the surface area of
the resulting cuboid. 2 Marks
Ans: It is given that the cubes of side 4 cm each are joined end to end. The
joining of two cubes will result in a cuboid of length, breadth and height equal
to 8cm, 4cm, 4cm respectively. Hence, the surface area of the resulting cuboid
is:
S= 2(lb+bh+hl)
S=(8×4+4×4+4×8)
S=160 cm2
17. Find that value(s) of x for which the distance between the points P(x,
4) and Q(9, 10) is 10 units. 2 Marks
Class X Mathematics www.vedantu.com 12
Ans: It is given that the distance between the points P(x, 4) and Q(9, 10) is 10
units. Finding the distance using the distance formula for two points, we get
( 9-x ) + (10-4 )
2 2
PQ=
( 9-x )
2
⇒ PQ= +36
Putting the value of the distance, we get:
( 9-x )
2
⇒ 10= +36
⇒ 100= ( 9-x ) +36
2
⇒ 64= ( 9-x )
2
⇒ 9-x=±8
Taking the two different cases, we get :
⇒ x=9-8=1
And
⇒ 9-x=-8
⇒ x=9+9=17
Thus, x=1,17.
18. A coin is tossed two times. Find the probability of getting at least one
head. 2 Marks
Ans: When a coin is tossed twice, then the total number of outcomes is 4. The
probability of getting no heads is: The possible outcome is (T,T) The probability
1
is . Thus, the probability of getting at least one head is:
4
1 3
1− =.
4 4
SECTION-C
Question numbers 19 to 28 carry 3 marks each.
19. Find the roots of the following quadratic equation: 2 3x 2 -5x+ 3=0 .
Class X Mathematics www.vedantu.com 13
3 Marks
Ans: We are given the equation, 2 3x 2 -5x+ 3=0 .
-b± b 2 -4ac
x=
2a
( -5)
2
5± -4×2 3× 3
x=
2×2 2
5± 25 − 24
x=
4 2
5±1
x=
4 3
Further simplifying, we get
6 4
x= ;
4 3 4 3
3 1
x= ;
2 3
3 1
Thus, the roots of the equation are: x= ;
2 3
20. Find the value of the middle term of the following AP: - 6, -2, 2, ......, 58.
3 Marks
Ans: We are given the AP, - 6, -2, 2, ......, 58
For finding the middle term , we need to find the position of the middle term.
Thus, we will first find the total number of terms in this AP.
That is,
a=-6
d=4
l=58
Thus, finding the value of n: l=a+ ( n-1) d
Class X Mathematics www.vedantu.com 14
Putting the values in this, we get:
58 =−6 + ( n-1) 4
⇒ 58 + 6 =( n-1) 4
64
⇒ =n − 1
4
⇒ 16 + 1 =n
⇒ n=17
Hence, the middle term will be,
n+1
nm = .
2
17+1
⇒ nm = =9 So, we need to find the 9th term,
2
a 9 =a+ ( n-1) d=-6+ ( 9-1) 4
⇒ a 9 =-6+8×4=-6+32
⇒ a 9 =26
Thus, the middle term of the AP - 6, -2, 2, ......, 58 is 26.
Or
Determine the AP whose fourth term is 18 and the difference of the ninth
term from the fifteenth term is 30. 3 Marks
Ans: In this question, we are given the fourth term and the difference between
ninth and fifteenth term, i.e. a 4 =18 . Expanding the terms in terms of the formula
to find the AP, a15 -a 9 =30
a+ ( 4-1) d=18 . Finding the other equation as well,
⇒ a+3d=18
a+14d-a-8d=30
⇒ 6d=30
⇒ d=5
So, the common difference is 5. Putting the above equation:
Class X Mathematics www.vedantu.com 15
a+ ( 4-1) d=18
⇒ a+3 ( 5 ) =18
⇒ a=18-15=3
Thus, the AP which is a,a+d,a+2d,18,…3+14d,…… becomes:
3,3 + 5,3 + 10,18,.....3 + 70,....
.
3,8,13,18,.....,73,....
21. In Fig. 4, a triangle ABC is drawn to circumscribe a circle' of
radius 2 cm such that the segments BD and DC into which BC is divided by
the point of contact D are of lengths 4 cm and 3 cm respectively. If area of
ABC= 21 cm2, then find the lengths of sides AB and AC. 3 Marks
Ans: In this question, we are given that the radius of the circle is 2cm and the
area of triangle ABC is 21 cm2, we need to find the lengths of the triangle.
Construction: we need to join OA, OB, OC, OE ⊥ AB at E and OF ⊥ AC at F.
The resulting figure will be:
Now we have, the following data:
AE = AF
Class X Mathematics www.vedantu.com 16
BD = BE =4 cm
CD = CF = 3 cm
Let the lengths of AE and Af be x. This implies, area of the triangle equals:
A=area ( ∆BOC ) +area ( ∆AOB ) +area ( ∆AOC )
1 1 1
⇒ 21= ×BC×OD+ ×AB×OE+ ×AC×OF
2 2 2
⇒ 42=7×4+ ( 4+x )×2+ ( 3+x )×2
Solving this further, we get:
⇒ 21=7+ ( 4+x ) + ( 3+x )
⇒ 21=14+2x
⇒ x=3.5
Thus, the lengths of the sides AB and AC are:
AB=4+3.5=7.5
AC=3+3.5=6.5 .
22. Draw a triangle ABC in which AB = 5 cm, BC = 6 cm and ∠ABC=60o .
Then construct a triangle whose sides are times the corresponding sides of
ABC. 3 Marks
Ans: Construction of the triangle:
Class X Mathematics www.vedantu.com 17
1. A line segment AB of length equal to 5 cm is drawn.
2. An angle ABY equal to 60° is drawn from point B.
3. Now in order to measure angle at B:
3.1 With B as centre and with any radius, another arc are drawn cutting the line
which is present at D.
3.2 Taking the point D as centre and taking the same radius, an arc cutting the
first arc is drawn at point E.
3.3 A ray BY that passes through the point E is forming the angle equal to 60°
with the line AB.
4. Taking point B as centre and radius equal to 6 cm, an arc intersecting the line
BY is drawn at C.
5. A and C are joined, the required triangle is ∆ABC.
6. A ray from point A, named AX is drawn downwards which makes an acute
angle.
7. Some points are marked named on the segment AX such that the lengths:
AA1 =A1A 2 =A 2 A 3 =A 3A 4 =A 4 A 5 =A 5A 6 =A 6 A 7
8. The points A7 and B are joined and from the point A5 , the segment A5 M is
drawn parallel to A7 B that intersects AB at M. 9. Taking the point M, a segment
MN is drawn parallel to BC intersecting AC at the point N. Then, ∆AMN is the
5
required triangle, the sides of this triangle are equal to of the corresponding
7
sides of ∆ABC.
23. Find the area of the major segment APB, in Fig 5, of a circle of radius
22
35 cm and ∠AOB=90o . [ Use π= ] 3 Marks
7
Class X Mathematics www.vedantu.com 18
Ans: For finding the area of the major segment, firstly we will write the equation
for area of minor segment. Area of minor segment = Area of sector AOBC- Area
of AOB
Putting the values in this equation, we get :
90o 2 1
A= ×π ( OA ) - ×OA×OB
360o 2
1 22 2 1
⇒ A= × × ( 35 ) - ×35×35
4 7 2
⇒ A=962.5-612.5
⇒ A=350cm 2
Thus, the area of major segment is equal to Area of major segment= Area of
circle – Area of minor segment. Therefore,
A'=π ( OA ) -350
2
22
× ( 35 ) -350
2
⇒ A'=
7
⇒ A'=3850-350=3500cm 2
Hence, the area of the major segment is 3500cm 2 .
24. The radii of the circular ends of a bucket of height 15 cm are 14 cm and
r cm (r < 14 cm). If the volume of the bucket is 5390 cm3, then find the value
22
of r. [Use π= ]. 3 Marks
7
Ans: In the question, we are given that: Height of bucket, h=15cm . Radius of
outer end,
Class X Mathematics www.vedantu.com 19
R=14cm . Radius of inner end, =r . Volume of the bucket is, V = 5390cm3 .
Putting the formula for the volume above, we get:
1
πh R 2 +r 2 +Rr =5390cm3
3
1 22
⇒ × ×15 (14 ) +r 2 +14r =5390
2
3 7
110
⇒ 196+r 2 +14r =5390
7
⇒ r 2 +14r+196=343
⇒ r 2 +14r-147=0
Now solving this equation to find the value of r.
⇒ r 2 +21r-7r-147=0
⇒ r ( r+21) -7 ( r+21) =0
⇒ r=7,-21
The value of a radius cannot be negative, so, the value of r is 7cm.
25. Two dice are rolled once. Find the probability of getting such numbers
on two dice, whose product is a perfect square. 3 Marks
Ans: When two dice are rolled, the total number of possible outcomes is equal
to 36
Now, the number pairs on the two dices whose product form perfect square have
the possibilities, (1,1) , ( 2,2 ) , ( 3,3) , ( 4,4 ) , ( 5,5 ) , ( 6,6 ) , (1,4 ) , ( 4,1) . Thus, the
number of possible outcomes for this event is 8. Hence, the probability of getting
8 2
such numbers on two dice, whose product is a perfect square is = .
36 9
Or
A game consists of tossing a coin 3 times and noting its outcome each time.
Hanif wins if he gets three heads or three tails, and loses otherwise.
Calculate the probability that Hanif will lose the game. 3 Marks
Class X Mathematics www.vedantu.com 20
Ans: It is given that the coin is tossed thrice which means that the total number
of outcomes is 23 = 8 . The probability that Hanif loses is equal to one minus the
probability that he wins. So, we will find the probability of him winning the
game first Now, the outcomes for getting three heads or three tails will be:
2 1
( H,H,H ) , ( T,T,T ) . Thus, the probability of Hanif winning is = . Thus, the
8 4
1 3
probability that Hanif will lose the game is 1 − =.
4 4
26. From the top of a tower 100 m high, a man observes two cars on the
opposite sides of the tower with angles of depression 30° and 45°
respectively. Find the distance between the cars. [Use 3=1.73 ] 3 Marks
Ans: First of all, we are going to construct a diagram for the given situation.
Now it is given that Height of tower, H=100m . Angle of depression of car 1,
∠EAC=30o . Angle of depression of car 2, ∠FAD=45o . Now, in the right angled
AB 1
triangle ABC, tan30o = . As AB=100m and tan30 =
o
. Thus, putting these
BC 3
1 100 o AB
values in above equation, = . In right angled triangle ABD, tan45 =
3 BC BD
⇒ BC=100 3
Now, AB=100m and
tan45o =1. Substituting the values in above equation.
100
1= .
BD
Class X Mathematics www.vedantu.com 21
⇒ BD=100m
Now, ⇒ CD=CB+BD=100 3+100=100 ( 3+1) .
Putting 3=1.732 . Thus, CD=100 (1.73+1) =273.2m .
Therefore, the distance between the cars is 273.2m .
27. If (3, 3), (6, y), (x, 7) and (5, 6) are the vertices of a parallelogram taken
in order, find the values of x and y. 3 Marks
Ans: It is given that the vertices of the parallelogram are (3, 3), (6, y), (x, 7) and
(5, 6).
The figure is:
Now finding the midpoints of the diagonals AC and BD Coordinates of mid-
point of diagonal BD are:
5+6 6+y
, .
2 2
11 6+y
,
2 2
Coordinates of mid-point of diagonal AC are:
3+x 7+3
, .
2 2
3+x 10
,
2 2
Now comparing the x and y coordinates of the midpoint as the mid points of
both the diagonals coincide:
Class X Mathematics www.vedantu.com 22
3+x 11
= . And the y-coordinate :
2 2
⇒ x=11-3=8
6+y 10
=
2 2
⇒ y=10-6=4
Thus, the values of x and y are 8 and 4 respectively.
28. If two vertices of an equilateral triangle are (3, 0) and (6, 0), find the
third vertex. 3 Marks
Ans: Let the third vertex of the triangle be (x ,y). Thus, the vertices of the
triangle are:
A= ( 3,0 )
B= ( 6,0 )
C= ( x,y )
Finding the lengths of the sides of the triangle:
( 6-3)
2
AB= =3
( x-6 )
2
BC= +y 2
( x-3)
2
CA= +y 2
Equating CA and BC:
( x-6 ) +y 2 = ( x-3) +y 2
2 2
( x-6 ) = ( x-3)
2 2
⇒ x-6=- ( x-3)
⇒ 2x=9
9
⇒ x=
2
Class X Mathematics www.vedantu.com 23
Using equation AB=BC and putting value of x:
( x-6 )
2
+y 2 =9
2
9
⇒ -6 +y 2 =9
2
2
3
⇒ - -9=-y 2
2
9
⇒ y 2 =- +9
4
27
⇒ y2 =
4
3 3
⇒ y=±
2
9 3 3
Thus, the values of x and y are and ± respectively.
2 2
Or
Find the value of k, if the points P(5, 4), Q(7, k) and R(9, -2) are collinear.
3 Marks
Ans: The given points are collinear, hence taking two of them in pairs each, and
finding the slope for them and equating the two slopes will give us the value of
k. Thus, slope of PQ
k-4 k-4
=
7-5 2
Slope of QR:
-2-k -k-2
=
9-7 2
Comparing both the slopes , we get:
k-4 -k-2
=
2 2
⇒ 2k=-2+4=2
Class X Mathematics www.vedantu.com 24
⇒ k=1
SECTION: D
Question Numbers 29 to 34 carry 4 marks each.
29. A motor boat whose speed is 20 km/h in still water, takes 1 hour more
to go 48 km upstream than to return downstream to the same spot. Find
the speed of the stream. 4 Marks
Ans: Before proceeding with the question, we must know the formulas that will
be required to solve this question.
We have a formula, time = distance/speed ......................(1). In the question, it
is given that the motorboat takes 1 hour more to go 48 km upstream than to
return downstream to the same spot. Also, it is given that the speed of the motor
boat in still water is equal to 20 km/hr. We are required to find the speed of the
stream.
Let us assume the speed of the stream = x km/hr. It is given that the speed of the
motor boat in still water is equal to 20 km/hr. While going upstream, the
direction of the stream will be against the direction of the motorboat. So, the
speed of the motorboat while going upstream will be equal to (20-x) km/hr. It is
given that the distance to be travelled is equal to 48 km. So, using formula (1),
the time taken by the motorboat to go upstream is equal to
48
..........(2) .
20-x
While going downstream, the direction of the stream will be along with the
direction of the motorboat. So, the speed of the motorboat while going
downstream will be equal to (20+x)km/hr . While going downstream, the
direction of the stream will be along with the direction of the motorboat. So, the
speed of the motorboat while going downstream will be equal to (20+x) km/hr.
It is given that the distance to be travelled is equal to 48 km. So, using formula
(1), the time taken by the motorboat to go downstream is equal to
48
..........(3) . In the question, it is given that the motor boat takes 1 hour more
20+x
to go 48 km upstream than to return downstream. So, we can say that,
(Time taken while going downstream) + 1 = Time taken while going upstream
Class X Mathematics www.vedantu.com 25
Substituting these times from equation (1) and equation (3), we get,
48 48
+1= .
20+x 20-x
48 48
⇒ - =1
20-x 20+x
( 20+x ) - ( 20-x )
⇒ (48) =1
( 20-x ) (20+x)
⇒ ( 48 )( 2x ) = ( 20-x )( 20+x )
⇒ 96x=400+20x-20x-x 2
⇒ x 2 +96x-400=0
⇒ x 2 -4x+100x-400=0
⇒ x ( x-4 ) +100 ( x-4 ) =0
⇒ ( x+100 )( x-4 ) =0
⇒ x=4,x= ( -100 )
Since speed cannot be negative, hence, the speed of the stream is 4 km/hr.
Or
1 1 11
Find the roots of the equation: - = ,x¹-4,7 . 4 Marks
x+4 x-7 30
1 1 11
Ans: By expressing the given equation - = ,x¹-4,7 in the form of a
x+4 x-7 30
general quadratic equation we get:
Taking a common denominator ( x+4 )( x-7 ) in the LHS,
( x-7 ) - ( x+4 ) = 11
( x+4 )( x-7 ) 30
-11 11
2
=
x -7x+4x-28 30
Cross multiplying the terms to express as a quadratic equation, cancelling out
11 and multiplying with (−1) on both sides, x 2 -3x-28=-30 .Expressing the
Class X Mathematics www.vedantu.com 26
equation in the simplest form possible, x 2 -3x+2=0 . Comparing the above
equation with the general quadratic equation we get the values of a, b, c as,
a=1,b=-3,c=2 . We know the formula to find the roots of a general quadratic
-b± D
equation is given as where D=b 2 -4ac is known as the discriminant.
2a
Applying the above formula by substituting the values of a, b, c to find the
discriminant, for the roots to be real and unequal the discriminant must be
greater than 0. ( -3) -4 (1)( 2 ) >0 . Squaring −3 and multiplying −4 with 2 we
2
get, ( 9 − 8 ) > 0 . Subtracting 8 from 9 the resultant is greater than 0. 1 > 0 .Hence
the roots are real and unequal. Applying the formula to find the roots of a
general quadratic equation by substituting the values of a, b, c and the value of
- ( -3) ± 1
the discriminant b 2 -4ac we get, .By taking square root of 1 and
2
-b+ D -b- D
simplifying the expression for: and we get, x=2 .
2a 2a
x=1
1 1 11
Hence the roots of the equation - = are 2 and 1.
x+4 x-7 30
30. If the sum of first 4 terms of an AP is 40 and that of first 14 terms is
280, find the sum of its first n terms.
Ans: Given that S4 = 40 and S14 =280’
n
Sn = 2a+ ( n-1) d
2
n
Sn = 2a+ ( 4-1) d = 40
2
⇒ 2a+3d=20.......( i )
14
S14 = 2a+ (14-1) d =280
2
⇒ 2a+13d=40.....( ii )
( ii ) - ( i )
10d
= 20 ⇒ d=2
Class X Mathematics www.vedantu.com 27
Substituting the value of d in (i) we get
2a+6=10 ⇒ a=7
n
Sn = 2a+ ( n-1) d
2
n
= 14+ ( n-1) 2
2
= n(7+n-1)
= n(n+6)
=n2+6n
Therefore, Sn = n2 +6n
Or
Find the sum of the first 30 positive integers divisible by 6
According to the question series is
6,12,18,24,….
Here,
a=6, d=6
n
Sn = 2a+ ( n-1) d
2
n = 30
30
S30 = 2×6+ ( 30-1)×6
2
S30 =15 (12+29×6 )
S30 =15×186
S30 =2790
31. A train travels 180 km at a uniform speed. If the speed had been 9
km/hour more, it would have take 1 hour less for the same journey. Find
the speed of the train.
Ans:
Let the speed of train be x km /h
Class X Mathematics www.vedantu.com 28
Distance = 180 km
So, time = 180 / x
When speed is 9 km/h more, time taken = 180 / x+9
According to the given information:
180 180
- =1
1 x+9
180 (x+9-x) / x(x+9) = 1
180×9 = x(x+9)
1620 = x2 + 9x
x2+ 9x - 1620 = 0
x2 + 45x - 36x -1620 = 0
x(x+45) - 36(x+45) = 0
(x-36)(x+45) = 0
x=36 or-45
But x being speed cannot be negative.
So, x = 36
Hence, the speed of the train is 36 km/h
Or
1 1 3
Find the roots of the equation + =1;x¹ ,5
2x-3 x-5 2
1 1 3
The given equation is + =1;x¹ ,5
2x-3 x-5 2
Taking L.C.M
x-5+ ( 2x-3)
=1
( x-5)( 2x-3)
3x-8
=1
2x 2 -13x+15
Cross-multiplying
2x2-13x + 15 = 3x-8
Class X Mathematics www.vedantu.com 29
2x2-16x + 23 = 0
Which is a quadratic equation.
Comparing with
ax2 + bx + c = 0, then a = 2, b = -16, c = 23
So, D = b2 - 4ac
= (-16)2 - 4.2. 23
= 256 - 184
= 72 > 0
Therefore, using quadratic formula
-b± D
x=
2a
6± 72
=
2.6
16+6 2 16-6 2
= ,
4 4
8+3 2 8-3 2
= ,
2 2
8+3 2 8-3 2
So the roots are = ,
2 2
32. In Figure 6, three circles each of radius 3.5 cm are drawn in such a
way that each of[ It them touches the other two. Find the area enclosed.
22
between these three circles (shaded region). use=π=
7
Class X Mathematics www.vedantu.com 30
Given that, three circles are in such a way that each of them touches the other
two.
Now, we join centre of all three circles to each other by a line segment. Since,
radius of each circle is 3.5 cm.
So; AB = 2 × Radius of circle
= 2 × 3.5 = 7 cm.
AC = BC = AB = 7cm
which shows that, ∆ ABC is an equilateral triangle with side 7 cm.
We know that, each angle between two adjacent sides of an equilateral triangle
is
60°
Area of sector with angle ∠ A = 60°.
∠A 60o
×π ( 3.5 )
2 2
= o
×πr = o
360 360
So, area of each sector = 3×Area of sector with angle A
60o
( )
2
=3× ×π× 3.5
360o
1 22
= × ×3.5×3.5
2 7
Class X Mathematics www.vedantu.com 31
5 35 11 7
=11× × = ×
10 10 2 2
77
= =19.25cm 2
4
3
×( 7 )
2
And Area of ΔABC=
4
3
[area of an equilateral triangle = (side)2]
4
3 2
=49 cm
4
Area of shaded region enclosed between these circles
=area of ∆ ABC - Area of each sector
3
= 49 -1925 -1225 × 3 -1925
4
= 21.2176 - 1925=1 9676 cm2?
Hence, the required area enclosed between these circles is 1.967 cm2? (approx).
33. From a solid cylinder whose height is 15 cm and diameter 16 cm, a
conical cavity of the same height and same diameter is hollowed out. Find
the total surface area of the remaining solid. [Taken=3.14]
4 Marks
Ans:
Class X Mathematics www.vedantu.com 32
In this question, we are given a solid cylinder with Height, h=15cm .The
diameter of the cylinder is, d=16cm . Thus, the radius, R=8cm . The slant height
of the cone can be found as: l= h 2 +R 2 . Putting the values above,
l= (15 ) + ( 8 ) = 225+64= 289 . Total surface of the solid is:
2 2
⇒l=17
T=Curved surface area of cone + Curved surface area of the cylinder
+Area of the bottom part
Putting the values, we get
T=πRl+2πRh+πR 2
⇒ T=3.14 [8×17+2×8×15+8×8]
⇒ T=3.14 [ 440]
⇒ T=1381.6cm 2
Thus, the total surface area of the remaining solid is1381.6cm 2 .
34. Two poles of equal heights are standing opposite to each other on either
side of the road, which is 100 m wide. From a point between them on the
Class X Mathematics www.vedantu.com 33
road, the angles of elevation of the top of the poles are 60° and 30°,
respectively. Find the height of the poles. 4 Marks
Ans: Let us firstly construct a figure reflecting the condition given in the
question,
Considering the right-angled triangles, ABP and BPD, let the distance
h
between the points C and P be x. Thus, in triangle ABP, tan60o = .
x
Putting here, the value of tan 60
h
3= . Now, in triangle BPD,
x
⇒ h= 3x--- (1)
BD h
tan30o = = . Using (1) in (2)
PD 100-x
1 h
⇒ = --- ( 2 )
3 100-x
1 3x
⇒ =
3 100-x
⇒ 3x=100-x
⇒ 4x=100
Class X Mathematics www.vedantu.com 34
⇒ x=25
Putting the value of x in (1); We get
h= 3x=25 3
The height of the poles is 25 3m .
Class X Mathematics www.vedantu.com 35
CBSE Class 10
Mathematics
Previous Year Question Paper 2011
Series: RHB Code no. 30/1
● Please check that this question paper contains 16 printed pages.
● Code number given on the right hand side of the question paper
should be written on the title page of the answer-book by the
candidate.
● Please check that this question paper contains 34 questions.
● Please write down the Serial Number of the question before
attempting it.
● 15 minutes of time has been allotted to read this question paper.
The question paper will be distributed at 10.15 a.m. From 10.15
a.m. to 10.30 a.m., the students will read the question paper only
and will not write any answer on the answer script during this
period.
MATHEMATICS
Time Allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 80
General Instructions:
1. All questions are compulsory.
2. The question paper consists of 34 questions divided into four sections
A, B, C and D.
3. Section A contains 30 questions of 1 mark each, which are multiple choice
type questions, Section B contains 8 questions of 2 Marks each, Section C
contains 10 questions of 3 Marks each, Section D contains 6 questions of 4
Marks each.
Class X Mathematics www.vedantu.com 1
4. There is no overall choice in the paper. However, internal choice is provided
in one question of 2 Marks. 3 questions of 3 Marks each and two questions of
4 Marks each.
5. Use of calculators is not permitted.
SECTION-A
1. The roots of the equation x 2 -3x-m(m+3)=0 , where m is a constant, are
1 Mark
A. m, m+3
B. -m, m+3
C. m, -(m+3)
D. -m, -(m+3)
Ans: Given quadratic equation is,
x 2 -3x-m(m+3)=0
⇒ x 2 -3x-m 2 -3m=0
⇒ x 2 -m 2 -3x-3m=0
⇒ (x+m)(x-m)-3(x+m)=0
⇒ (x+m)(x-m-3)=0
Thus, x+m=0 And, x-m-3=0
x=-m
x= m + 3
The roots are -m , m+3 ..
The correct option is B. -m , m+3
2. If the common difference of an A.P. is 3, then a 20 -a15 is, 1 Mark
A. 5
B. 3
Class X Mathematics www.vedantu.com 2
C. 15
D. 20
Ans: Let the first term be a1 .
We get, a 20 =a1 +(20-1)3=a1 +57----- (1)
Again, a15 =a1 +(15-1)3=a1 +42----- ( 2 )
Subtracting equation ( 2 ) from (1) we get,
a 20-a15 =a1 +57-a1 -42=15
So, the correct option is C. 15
3. In figure 1, O is the centre of a circle, PQ is a chord and PT is the tangent
at P. If ∠POQ=70o , then ∠TPQ is equal to 1 Mark
A.
B.
C.
D.
Ans:
Class X Mathematics www.vedantu.com 3
Given, ∠POQ =
70°
∠OPQ + ∠OQP + ∠POQ =180°
2∠OPQ =
110°
Therefore, ∠OPQ =
55°
A tangent subtends an angle 90° to the radius. Thus,
∠TPQ = ∠OPT − ∠OPQ = 90° − 55° = 35°
The correct option is D. 35°
4. In Figure 2, AB and AC are tangents to the circle with centre O such that
∠BAC=40o Then ∠BOC is equal to 1 Mark
A.
B.
C.
D.
Class X Mathematics www.vedantu.com 4
Ans: ∠ABO =
∠ACO =
90°
The sum of all the angles of the quadrilateral ABOC is 360°
So,
∠ABO + ∠ACO + ∠BOC + ∠BAC =360°
⇒ 90° + 90° + 40° + ∠BOC =360°
⇒ ∠BOC =140°
The correct option is C. 140° .
5. The perimeter (in cm) of a square circumscribing a circle of radius a cm,
is 1 Mark
A. 8a
B. 4a
C. 2a
D. 16a
Ans: Since, the square is circumscribing a circle then, the diameter of the circle
is the side of a square as shown in the figure.
Diameter = Side of the square = 2a
So, the perimeter of square =4 × 2a =8a
The correct option is A. 8a
Class X Mathematics www.vedantu.com 5
6. The radius (in cm) of the largest right circular cone that can be cut out
from a cube of edge 4.2 cm is 1 Mark
A. 4.2
B. 2.1
C. 8.4
D. 1.05
Ans: The base of the cone is a circle. So, the diameter of the base acts as the
side of the cube.
Diameter 4.2
Radius
= = = 2.1
2 2
The correct option is B. 2.1
7. A tower stands vertically on the ground. From a point on the ground
which is 25m away from the foot of the tower., the angle of elevation of the
top of the tower is found to be 45o. Then the height (in meters) of the tower
is 1 Mark
A. 25 2
B. 25 3
C.
D.
Ans:
Class X Mathematics www.vedantu.com 6
From the figure we get,
AB
tan45° =
BC
⇒ AB=BC
⇒ AB =
25
So, the height of the tower is 25 m.
The correct option is C. 25
a
8. If P ,4 is the mid-point of the line-segment joining the points A(-6,5)
2
and B(-2,3), then the value of a is, 1 Mark
A. -8
B.
C. -4
D.
Ans: Since, P is the midpoint of A and B then,
a -2+(-6)
=
2 2
⇒a=−8
The correct option is A. -8.
9. A and B are the points (-6,7) and (-1,-5) respectively, then the distance
2AB is equal to 1 Mark
A. 13
B. 26
C. 169
D. 238
Ans: From Distance formula we get,
Class X Mathematics www.vedantu.com 7
( -6- ( -1) ) + ( 7- ( -5) )
2 2
⇒ AB=
⇒ AB= 25+144=13
Therefore, 2AB=26
The correct option is B. 26
10. A card is drawn from a well-shuffled deck of 52 playing cards. The
probability that the card will not be an ace is 1 Mark
1
A.
13
1
B.
4
12
C.
13
3
D.
4
Ans: The total numbers of aces in 52 playing cards = 13
13 1
The probability of finding Ace = =
52 4
1 3
Hence, the probability of not finding Ace =1- =
4 4
3
The correct option is D.
4
SECTION-B
11. Find the value of m so that the quadratic equation mx(x-7)+49=0 has
two equal roots. 2 Marks
Ans: We get,
mx(x-7)+49=0
Class X Mathematics www.vedantu.com 8
⇒ mx 2 -7mx+49=0
If the quadratic equation has two equal roots then,
D=0
⇒ b 2 -4ac=0
∴ (7 m) 2 -4×m×49=0
⇒ 49m(m-4)=0
⇒ m(m-4)=0
⇒ m=0,m=4
m=0 is invalid so, m=4
So, the value of m is 4 when the quadratic equation mx(x-7)+49=0 has two
equal roots.
12. Find how many two-digit numbers are divisible by 6. 2 Marks
Ans: The two digit-numbers are from 10 to 99.
The numbers which are divisible by 6 are 12,18,24……
Hence they have a common difference of 6 and the first number divisible by 6
is 12 and last number is 96.
Let n be the total two-digit numbers divisible by 6.
From A.P. we get,
96=12+(n-1)6
⇒ 14=n-1
⇒ n=15
There are 15 numbers which are divisible by 6.
13. In Figure 3, a circle touches all the four sides of a quadrilateral ABCD
whose sides are AB=6 cm, BC=9cm and CD=8 cm Find the length of side
AD. 2 Marks
Class X Mathematics www.vedantu.com 9
Ans:
Let E,F,G,H be the point of contact of tangent and circle.
We know that, two tangents drawn from the same point to the circle are of equal
length. Hence,
= ED DF,CG
= FC,GB = BH and AE = AH .
Therefore, ED + CG + GB + AE = DF + FC + BH + AH
⇒ (ED + AE) + (CG + GB) = (DF + FC) + (AH + HB)
⇒ AD + BC = CD + AB
⇒ AD = 8 + 6 − 9 = 5 cm
Length of AD is 5 cm .
Class X Mathematics www.vedantu.com 10
14. Draw a line segment AB of length 7cm. Using ruler and compasses, find
AP 3
a point P on AB such that = 2 Marks
AB 5
Ans:
Steps of construction:
- Draw a line segment AB = 7 cm using a ruler.
- Draw a ray AX with ∠BAX as an acute angle.
- Cut the line-segment AC into 5 equal parts as, AD
= DE
= EF
= FG
= GC
- Join the point C with point B
- From point E draw a parallel line to BC with would intersect the line AB
at P .
AP 3
Hence, we find = .
AB 5
15. Find the perimeter of the shaded region in Figure 4, if A B C D is a square
22
of side 14 cm and APB and CPD are semicircles. Use π= 2 Marks
7
Class X Mathematics www.vedantu.com 11
Ans: The given two semi-circles are identical as they have equal diameter = side
of the square
The perimeter of the shaded region is the circumference of the semi-circles APB
and DPC and the sides of square AD and CB.
Radius of the semi-circle =7 cm
22
Circumference of each semi-circle =π× radius = ×7=22 cm
7
Circumference of two semi-circle =2 × 22 =44 cm Total circumference of
shaded region = 14 + 14 + 44 = 72 cm
16. Two cubes each of volume 27 cm3 are joined end to end to form a solid.
Find the surface area of the resulting cuboid. 2 Marks
Ans: Let the side of the cube be a .
Class X Mathematics www.vedantu.com 12
We get a 3 =27
⇒ a=3
As the two cubes are joined it forms a cuboid of length 1 = 6 cm , breadth
b = 3 cm and height h = 3 cm .
Surface area of resulting cuboid = 2(1 b + bh + h1) = 2(18 + 9 + 18) = 90 cm 2
The surface area of resulting cuboid is 90 cm 2 .
Or
A cone of height 20 cm and radius of base 5 cm is made up of modelling
clay. A child reshapes it in the form of a sphere. Find the diameter of the
sphere. 2 Marks
πr 2 h
Ans: Volume of the given cone = where r is the radius of the base and h
3
is the height of the cone.
π×52 ×20 500
So, the volume = = π
3 3
As, the child reshapes it in a sphere its volume remains the same.
Let the radius of the sphere be r .
4 3 500
We get, =
πr π
3 3
⇒ r 3 =125
⇒ r=5
Diameter of the sphere =2×5=10 cm
The diameter of the sphere is 10 cm .
17. Find the value of for which the distance between the points A(3, -1) and
B(11, y) is 10 units. 2 Marks
Ans: From the Distance Formula we get,
(11-3) 2 +{y-(-1)}2 =10
Class X Mathematics www.vedantu.com 13
⇒ 64+(y+1) 2 =100
⇒ y+1=±6
Considering y+1=-6
We get, y=-7
Again considering y+1=6
We get, y=5
So, the value of y is both −7 and 5 .
18. A ticket is drawn at random from a bag containing tickets numbered
from 1 to 40. Find the probability that the selected ticket has a number
which is a multiple of 5. 2 Marks
Ans: The numbers which are divisible by 5 from 1 to 40 are,
5,10,15,20,25,30,35,40
Total numbers ( n ) divisible by 5 from 1 to 40 = 8
Total number of ticket numbers (N)=40
Probability that the selected ticket has a number which is a multiple of
n 8 1
5= = =
N 40 5
The probability that the selected ticket has a number which is a multiple of 5 is
1
.
5
SECTION-C
19. Find the roots of the following equation:
x 3 -3 5x+10=0 3 Marks
Ans: From Sreedhar Acharya's Formula we get,
-b± b 2 -4ac
The roots of the equation, ax 2 +bx+c=0 is x= Here, for equation
2a
Class X Mathematics www.vedantu.com 14
x 2 -3 5x+10=0 we get
3 5± (3 5) 2 -4×1×10
x=
2
3 5± 5
⇒ x=
2
Considering the sign as (+ve) we get,
4 5
x= =2 5
2
Considering the sign as (-ve) we get,
2 5
x= = 5
2
So, the roots of the given equation are 2 5 and 5.
20. Find an A.P. whose fourth term is 9 and the sum of its sixth term and
thirteenth term is 40. 3 Marks
Ans: Let the first term be a1 and the common difference be d.
Given, a 4 =9 and a 6 +a13 =40
a 4 =a1 +3d=9----- (1)
a 6 =a1 +5d----- ( 2 )
a13 =a1 +12d----- ( 3)
a 6 +a13 =a1 +5d+a1 +12d=40
⇒ 2a1 +17d=40
40-2a1
⇒ d= ----- ( 4 )
17
9-a1
From (1) we get, d=
3
Comparing ( 4 ) and ( 5 ) we get,
Class X Mathematics www.vedantu.com 15
40-2a1 9-a1
=
17 3
⇒ 120-6a1 =153-17a1
⇒ 11a1 =33
⇒ a1 =3
Putting the value of a1 in equation ( 5 ) we get,
d=2
The A.P. is then a1 , a1 + d , a1 + 2d ,……
So, the required A.P. is 3,5,7,9…
21. In Figure 5, a triangle PQR is drawn to circumscribe a circle of radius
6 cm such that the segments QT and TR into which QR is divided by the
point of contact T, are of lengths 12 cm and 9 cm respectively. If the area
of ΔPQR=189cm 2 , then find the lengths of sides PQ and PR. 3 Marks
Ans:
Class X Mathematics www.vedantu.com 16
Given QT =12 cm and TR =9 cm and area of ∆ PQR =189 cm 2
The tangents PQ, QR and RP at A, T and B are at right angles.
We get, QT = AQ =12 cm and TR = BR =9 cm and AP = BP.
Radius OT = OB = OA =6 cm
Area of ∆ PQR = Area of ∆ AOP + Area of ∆ AOQ + Area of ∆ TOQ + Area
of ∆ TOR + Area of ∆ BOR + Area of ∆ BOP
1
Þ189= [(AP×OA)+(OA×AQ)+(OT×QT)+(OT×TR)+
2
(OB×RB)+(OB×OP)]
1
Þ189= [6AP+72+72+54+54+6BP]
2
⇒ 21=AP+BP
⇒ 2AP=21
⇒ AP=PB=10.5
Length of side PQ =(12+10.5)=22.5 cm and length of side PR
=(10.5+9)=19.5 cm .
22. Draw a pair of tangents to a circle of radius 3 cm, which are inclined to
each other at an angle of . 3 Marks
Class X Mathematics www.vedantu.com 17
Ans: Steps of Construction:
- Drawn a circle with radius = 3 cm centered at O.
- Diameter AOB is drawn.
- Drawn a radius OC in which ∠BOC =
60° .
- FromC, drawn CM ⊥ OC and from A dawn AN ⊥ OA
- Extended the perpendiculars which intersect each other at point P.
Thus, PA and PC are the required tangents.
Or
Draw a right triangle in which the sides (other than hypotenuse) are of
3
lengths 4 cm and 3 cm. Then construct another triangle whose sides are
5
times the corresponding sides of the given triangle. 3 Marks
Ans:
3
Here scale factor= <1
5
Steps of Construction:
- Drawn a line-segment BC of 4 cm .
- From B, ∠B =90° is drawn and a segment BA =3 cm is cut.
Class X Mathematics www.vedantu.com 18
- A and C are joined. Now, a right triangle ABC is formed.
- A ray BY is drawn from B making an acute angle ∠CBY on the opposite side
of vertex A.
- The ray BY is then cut at point B1 , B2 , B3 , B4 and B5 such that BB1 =
B=
1 B2 B=
2 B3 B=
3 B4 B4 B5
- B5 and C are joined.
- A parallel line B5C ‖B3C′ from B3 is drawn which cuts BC at C’.
- Now, from point C′ ,C′A′ ‖CA is drawn which intersects AB at A 2 . Hence,
3
ΔA'BC' is the required triangle whose sides are times the corresponding side
5
of a given triangle.
23. A chord of a circle of radius 14 cm subtends an angle of 120o at the centre.
22
Find the area of the corresponding minor segment of the circle. Use π=
7
and 3=1.73 3 Marks
Ans: We have to find the area of the section ACBD.
In ∆ AOC and ∆ BOC we get,
(i) AO = OB = Radius of the circle
Class X Mathematics www.vedantu.com 19
(ii) ∠OCB =
∠OCA =
90°
(iii) OC is common
Thus, we get, ∆ AOC ≅ ∆ BOC
So, ∠BOC =
∠AOC =
60°
In ∆ AOC we get,
AC
sin 60 =
OA
14 3
⇒ AC= =7 3
2
Again,
OC
cos60 =
OA
7
⇒ OC =
Hence, AC = 7 3 as ∆ AOC ≅ ∆ BOC.
= BC
1
Area of ∆OAB = × 14 3 × 7 = 49 3 cm 2 ∣
2
120° 196π
Area of the section OADB= °
×π×142 =
360 3
Now, Area of section ACBD = Area of the section OADB − Area of ∆ OAB
196π
= -49 3=205.33-84.77=120.56
3
Area of the minor segment of the circle ACBD is 120.56 cm 2 .
24. An open metal bucket is in the shape of a frustum of a cone of height
21cm with radii of its lower and upper ends as 10cm and 20cm respectively.
Find the cost of milk which can completely fill the bucket at Rs. 30 per litre.
22
Use π= 7 3 Marks
Class X Mathematics www.vedantu.com 20
Ans:
Given, Radius of the upper part R = 20 cm and bottom part of the bucket
r = 10 cm and height h = 21 cm . Volume of the frustum of a cone
1
= πh ( R 2 +r 2 +Rr )
3
The volume of the given metal bucket,
1 22
= × ×21× ( 202 +102 +200 )
3 7
=15400 cm3
Therefore, Volume of milk that can be completely filled in the bucket
15400
= = 15.4 litre. [1000 cm 2 = 1 litre]
1000
Cost of milk to completely fill the bucket = Rs. 15.4 × 30 =
Rs. 462 .
25. Point P(x,4) lies on the line segment joining the points A(-5, 8) and B (4,
-10). Find the ratio in which point P divides the line segment AB. Also find
the value of x. 3 Marks
Ans: Let the point P divides the line segment AB in the ratio k:1
Class X Mathematics www.vedantu.com 21
By using section formula we get,
4k+(-5) -10k+8
(x,4)= ,
k+1 k+1
Comparing the equation we get,
-10k+8
4=
k+1
⇒ 4k+4=-10k+8
⇒ 14k=4
2
⇒ k=
7
2
The radio in which P divides AB is, k:1= :1=2:7
7
P divides the line AB in the ratio 2 : 7
Again,
4k-5
x=
k+1
2
Substituting the value of k= we get,
7
2
4× -5
x= 7 =-3
2
+1
7
The value of x is -3.
26. Find the area of the quadrilateral ABCD, whose vertices are A(-3, -1),
B(-2, -4), C(4, -1) and D(3, 4) 3 Marks
Ans:
Class X Mathematics www.vedantu.com 22
By using geometry, we get,
F (−2, −1) and E (3, −1)
For ∆ ACD we get,
Height DE= (3 − 3) 2 + (−1 − 4)=
2
5
Base AC
= (4 + 3) 2 + (−1 − (−1))=
2
7
1 35
Area of ∆ ACD = ×5× 7 = sq unit
2 2
For ∆ ABC we get,
Base AC = 7
Height BF= (−2 + 2) 2 + (−1 + 4) 2 = 3
1 21
Area of ∆ ABC = × 3× 7 = sq unit
2 2
35 21
∴ Area of the quadrilateral ABCD = + = 28 sq units
2 2
Or
Class X Mathematics www.vedantu.com 23
Find the area of the triangle formed by joining the mid-points of the sides of
the triangle whose vertices are A (2, 1) , B (4, 3) and C (2, 5) . 3 Marks
Ans:
2+4 1+3
Let D be the mid-point of AB, D ( x1 ,y1 ) = , =(3,2)
2 2
2+4 5+3
Let E be the mid-point of BC, E ( x 2 ,y 2 ) = , =(3,4)
2 2
2+2 1+5
Let F be the mid-point of CA, F ( x 3 ,y3 ) = , =(2,3)
2 2
1
Area of triangle DEF = x1 ( y 2 -y3 ) +x 2 ( y3 -y1 ) +x 3 ( y1 -y 2 )
2
1
= [3(4-3)+3(3-2)+2(2-4)]
2
=1 unit 2
27. From the top of a vertical tower, the angles of depression of two cars, in
the same straight line with the base of the tower, at an instant are found to
be 45o and 60o. If the cars are 100 m apart and are on the same side of the
tower, find the height of the tower. USe 3=1.73 3 Marks
Ans:
Class X Mathematics www.vedantu.com 24
The angle of depression ∠XDA =
∠BAD =
45° [ Alternate angle]
The angle of depression ∠XDB =
∠BDC =
60° [ Alternate angle ]
Let the distance BC be x m and the height of the tower be h m .
Given, the distance between car A and B is 100 m .
From ∆ BCD we get,
h
tan60° =
x
w h= 3x---- (1)
From ∆ ACD we get,
h
tan45° =
100+x
w h=100+x----- ( 2 )
Comparing equation (1) and ( 2 ) we get,
3x =100+x
100 100 100
⇒ x= = = =136.98 m
3-1 1.73-1 0.73
Putting the value of x in equation (1) we get, h= 3×136.98=236.98 m
The height of the tower is 236.98 m .
Class X Mathematics www.vedantu.com 25
28. Two dice are rolled once. Find the probability of getting such numbers
on the two dice, whose product is 12. 3 Marks
Ans: The sample space of the given case is:
S = {(1,1),(1,2),(1,3),(1,4),(1,5),(1,6)
(2,1),(2,2),(2,3),(2,4),(2,5),(2,6)
(3,1),(3,2),(3,3),(3,4),(3,5),(3,6)
(4,1),(4,2),(4,3),(4,4),(4,5),(4,6) ,
(5,1),(5,2),(5,3),(5,4),(5,5),(5,6)
(6,1),(6,2),(6,3),(6,4),(6,5),(6,6)}
n(S) = 36
Let E be the event where the product of two numbers will be 12 are,
E = {(1,6),(2,3),(3,2),(6,1)}
n(E) = 4
n(E) 4 1
The probability of getting the product of 12= = =
n(S) 36 9
The probability of getting such numbers on the two dice, whose product is 12 is
1
.
9
Or
A box contains 80 discs which are numbered from 1 to 80 . If one disc is
drawn at random from the box, find the probability that it bears a perfect
square number. 3 Marks
Ans: Total numbers (n) = 80
The perfect square numbers between 1 to 80 are, 1,4,9,16,25,36,49,64.
Number of perfect square number (N) = 8 The probability of finding a perfect
8 1
square number in the box
= =
80 10
Class X Mathematics www.vedantu.com 26
The probability that it bears a perfect square number from a box that contains 80
1
discs which are numbered from 1 to 80 is
10
SECTION-D
29. Prove that the tangent at any point of a circle is perpendicular to the
radius through the point of contact. 4 Marks
Ans: Let us consider that the center of a circle be O .
Let AB be the tangent to the circle which is touching the circle at point P . So,
the radius of the circle is OP .
Let us consider a point Q other than P on the tangent A B.
Now, we join the point Q with the center Q making a line segment OQ
intersecting the circle at R.
From the diagram we get, OP = Radius of the circle
= OR
Now, OQ = OR + RQ = OP + RQ
We get to know that, OQ > OP
Hence, we conclude that any line which is drawn from the center to a point on the
tangent is greater than OP.
We know that the shortest distance of a point from a given line is the
perpendicular distance from that line. So, here OP is the shortest distance Thus,
we conclude that OP ⊥ AB .
It is proved that the tangent at any point of a circle is perpendicular to the radius
through the point of contact.
Class X Mathematics www.vedantu.com 27
30. The first and the last terms of an A.P. are 8 and 350 respectively. If its
common difference is 9, how many terms are there and what is their sum?
4 Marks
Ans: Let the first term of the A.P. be a and last term be 1 and the common
difference be d.
a 8,1
Given, = = 350 and d = 9
Let 1th term be the last term.
We get,
350 =8 + (l − 1)9
342
1
⇒ l −= = 38
9
⇒l =39
The total number of terms (n) in A.P. is 39. The Sum of the A.P.
n 39
= [2a+(n-1)d]= [2×8+38×9]=6981
2 2
So, there are 39 terms in this A.P. and the sum of them is 6981.
Or
How many multiples of 4 lie between 10 and 250? Also find their sum.
4 Marks
Ans: The first number between 10 and 250 which is a multiple of 4 is 12.
As, it is a multiple of 4 then we can say that it will form an A.P. with common
difference d = 4
The last number between 10 to 250 which is a multiple of 4 is 248.
So, here first term (a) of the A.P. = 12 and last term (1) = 248
Therefore,
12 + (l − 1)4 =
248
⇒ l −1 =59
⇒l =60
Class X Mathematics www.vedantu.com 28
There are a total of 60 multiples of 4 between 10 and 250. Sum of the multiples
60
of 4 between 10 and 250= [2×12+(60-1)4]=7800
2
There are a total of 60 multiples of 4 between 10 and 250 whose total sum is 7800.
31. A train travels 180km at a uniform speed. If the speed had been
9km/hour more, it would have taken 1 hour less for the same journey. Find
the speed of the train. 4 Marks
Ans: Let the speed of the train be xkm / hour and the time taken to cover the
distance of 180 km be t hour.
180
We get, x= ----(1)
t
When the speed becomes (x + 9)km / hour then the time required to complete
180
180 km distance is (t-1) hour. \x+9= …
t-1
Putting the value of x from equation (1) to equation ( 2 ) we get,
180 180
+9=
t t-1
180+9t 180
⇒ =
t t-1
⇒ 180t-180+9t 2 -9t=180t
⇒ t 2 -t-20=0
⇒ t 2 -5t+4t-20=0
⇒ t(t-5)+4(t-5)=0
⇒ (t-5)(t+4)=0
Either, t = 5 Or, t = −4 [Time can never be negative]
So, we get, t = 5 hour.
Substituting its value in equation (1) we get,
Class X Mathematics www.vedantu.com 29
180
x= =36
5
The speed of the train is 36 km / hour .
Or
1 1 3
Find the roots of the equation + =1,x¹ ,5 . 4 Marks
2x-3 x-5 2
Ans:
1 1
+ =1
2x-3 x-5
x-5+2x-3
⇒ =1
(2x-3)(x-5)
⇒ 3x-8=2x 2 -10x-3x+15
⇒ 2x 2 -16x+23=0
Using Sreedhar Acharya's Formula we get,
16± (-16) 2 -4×2×23
x=
2×2
16±6 2
⇒ x=
4
3 2
⇒ x=4±
2
3 2 3 2
So, the roots of the given equation are 4 + and 4 − .
2 2
32. In Figure 6, three circles each of radius 3.5 cm are drawn in such a way
that each of them touches the other two. Find the area enclosed between
22
these Mark three circles (shaded region). Use π= 4 Marks
7
Class X Mathematics www.vedantu.com 30
Ans:
The given circles are identical with radius r = 3.5 cm .
The ∆ ABC is an equilateral triangle with side = = 7 cm . The area of ∆ ABC
a 2r
3 49 3
= ×7 2 = cm 2
4 4
As, ∆ ABC is an equilateral triangle so its all angles are 60° . Area of section PBR
= Area of section PAQ = Area of section QCR
Area of the shaded portion = Area of ∆ ABC = [Area of section PBR + Area of
section PAQ + Area of section QCR]
49 3
∴ Area of the shaded portion
= − 3 × Area of the section PBR
4
49 3 60° 49 3 1 22
= -3× °
×π×3.52 = -3× × ×3.52 =21.21-19.25=1.96
4 360 4 6 7
The area of the shaded portion is 1.96 cm 2 .
Class X Mathematics www.vedantu.com 31
33. Water is flowing at the rate of 15 km/hour through a pipe of diameter 14
cm into a cuboidal pond which is 50m long and 44m wide. In what time will
the level of water in the pond rise by 21cm ? 4 Marks
Ans: Length of the cuboidal pond 1 = 50 m , breadth b = 44 m and height h is up
to 21 m .
The volume of the cuboidal pond =l×b×h=50×44×0.21=462 m3
5 25
The rate of flowing of water = 15 km / hour =15× m/sec= m/sec
18 6
Hence, the volume of water that the pipe drops into the pond in 1sec
25
= ×π×0.07 2
6
= 0.06 m3
462
Time in which the water rise to 21 =
cm = 7700sec
= 128.33 m
=in 2.13
0.06
hour
It takes 2.13 hour to rise the level of water by 21 cm .
34. The angle of elevation of the top of a vertical tower from a point on the
ground is 60o From another point 10m vertically above the first, its angle of
elevation is 30o. Find the height of the tower. 4 Marks
Ans:
Class X Mathematics www.vedantu.com 32
Let the height of the tower be hm .
From the diagram we get, BC = DE
In ∆ AED we get,
= (h − 10)m
AE
h-10
tan30° =
DE
ÞDE= 3(h-10)=BC-L(1) [As,BC=DE]
Again in ∆ ABC we get,
h
tan60° =
BC
h
⇒ BC=
3
From (1) and (2) we get,
h
3(h-10)=
3
⇒ 3h-30=h
⇒ h=15 m
The height of the tower is 15 m .
Class X Mathematics www.vedantu.com 33
CBSE-XII-2017 EXAMINATION CBSE-X-2017 EXAMINATION
MATHEMATICS
Paper & Solution
Time: 3 Hrs. Max. Marks: 90
General Instructions :
(i) All questions are compulsory.
(ii) The question paper consists of 31 questions divided into four sections - A, B, C and D.
(iii) Section A contains 4 questions of 1 mark each. Section B contains 6 questions of 2 marks each, Section C
contains 10 questions of 3 marks each and Section D contains 11 questions of 4 marks each.
(iv) Use of calculators is not permitted.
SECTION – A
Question numbers 1 to 4 carry 1 mark each.
1. What is the common difference of an A.P. in which a21 - a7 = 84 ?
Solution:
Given
a21 – a7 =84 ....................(1)
In an A.P a1, a2, a3, a4 …………
an = a1 + (n – 1)d d = common difference
a21 = a1 + 20 d ……………..(2)
a7 = a1 + 6d ……………….(3)
substituting (2) & (3) in (1)
a1 + 20d – a1 – 6d = 84
14d = 84
d=6
common difference = 6
2. If the angle between two tangents drawn from an external point P to a circle of radius a and centre O, is
60 , then find the length of OP.
Solution:
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CBSE-X-2017 EXAMINATION
Given that BPA = 60
OB = OA = a [radii]
PA = PB [length of tangents Equal]
OP = OP
PBO and PAO are congruent. [By SSS test of congruency]
60
BPO = OPA = = 30
2
a
In a PBO sin30 =
OP
OP = 2a units
3. If a tower 30 m high, casts a shadow 10 3 m long on the ground, then what is the angle of elevation of
the sun ?
Solution:
Angle of equation of sun = GST =
Height of lower TG = 30m
Length of shadow GS = 10 3 m
TGS is a right angled triangle
30
tan =
10 3
tan = 3
= 60
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CBSE-X-2017 EXAMINATION
4. The probability of selecting a rotten apple randomly from a heap of 900 apples is 0·18. What is the
number of rotten apples in the heap ?
Solution:
Number of rotten apples
Probability of selecting rotten apple =
Total number of apples
No. of rotten apples
0.18 =
900
No. of rotten apples = 900 0.18 = 162
SECTION B
Question numbers 5 to 10 carry 2 marks each.
5. Find the value of p, for which one root of the quadratic equation px 2 - 14x + 8 = 0 is 6 times the other.
Solution:
Given Quadriatic Equation Px2 – 14x + 8 = 0
Also, one root is 6 times the other
Lets say one root = x
Second root = 6x
14
From the equation : Sum of the roots = +
P
8
Product of roots =
P
14
x + 6x = .
P
2
x=
P
8
6x2 =
P
2
2 8
6 =
P P
64 8
=
P2 P
P =3
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CBSE-X-2017 EXAMINATION
1 1 3
6. Which term of the progression 20, 19 , 18 , 17 , .... is the first negative term ?
4 2 4
Solution:
1 1 3
Given progression 20, 19 , 18 , 17 , .......
4 2 4
This is an Arithmetic progression because
1 1 1
Common difference (d) = 19 − 20 = 18 − 19 = ..............
4 2 4
−3
d=
4
−3 83 − 3n
Any nth term an = 20 + (n − 1) =
4 4
Any term an < 0 when 83 < 3n
This is valid for n = 28 and 28th term will be the first negative term.
7. Prove that the tangents drawn at the end points of a chord of a circle make equal angles with the chord.
Solution:
Need to prove that
BAP = ABP
AB is the chord
We know that OA = OB (radii)
OBP = OAP = 90
Join OP and OP = OP
By RHS congruency
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CBSE-X-2017 EXAMINATION
OBP OAP
By CPCT BP = AP
In ABP BP = AP
Angles opposite to equal sides are equal
BAP = ABP
Hence proved.
8. A circle touches all the four sides of a quadrilateral ABCD. Prove that AB + CD = BC + DA
Solution:
ABCD is the Quadrilateral
Circle touches the sides at P, Q, R,S points
For the circle AS & AP are tangents
AS = AP...............(1)
In the similar way
BP = BQ……..(2)
CQ = CR…………(3)
RD = DS …………..(4)
Now AB + CD = AP + PB + CR + RD
BC + AD = BQ + QC + DS + AS
Using (1), (2), (3), (4) in above equation BC + AD = BP + CR + RD + AP
AB + CD = BC + AD
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CBSE-X-2017 EXAMINATION
Hence proved
9. A line intersects the y-axis and x-axis at the points P and Q respectively. If (2, -5) is the mid-point of PQ,
then find the coordinates of P and Q.
Solution:
x y
Equation of a line: + =1
a b
Where a =x-intercept
b = y-intercept
Given that line intersects y-axis at P
P lies on y-axis and P = (0, b)
Line intersects x-axis at Q
Q lies on x-axis and Q = (a, 0)
Midpoint of PQ = (2, -5)
a b
, = (2, −5)
2 2
a b
= 2, = −5
2 2
a = 4 & b = −10
P = (0, −10)
Q = (4,0)
10. If the distances of P(x, y) from A(5, 1) and B(-1, 5) are equal, then prove that 3x = 2y.
Solution:
Given that
PA = PB
P(x, y), A(5, 1), B(-1, 5)
PA = (x − 5)2 + (y − 1)2
PB = (x + 1)2 + (y − 5)2
(x − 5)2 + (y − 1)2 = (x + 1)2 + (y − 5)2
Squaring on both sides
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CBSE-X-2017 EXAMINATION
x 2 + 25 − 10 x + y 2 − 2y + 1 = x 2 + 2 x + 1 + y 2 − 10y + 25
−10 x − 2y = 2 x − 10y
8y = 12 x
3 x = 2y
SECTION C
Question numbers 11 to 20 carry 3 marks each.
11. If ad bc, then prove that the equation
(a2 + b2) x2 + 2 (ac + bd) x + (c2 + d2) = 0 has no real roots.
Solution:
Given ad bc for the equation (a2 + b2 )x2 + 2(ac + bd)x + (c2 + d 2 ) = 0
For this equation not to have real roots its discriminant < 0
D = 4(ac + bd)2 – 4(a2 + b2)(c2 + d2)
D = 4a2c2 + 4b2d2 + 8acbd – 4a2c2 – 4b2d2 – 4b2c2 – 4a2d2
D = −4(a2d 2 + b2c 2 − 2acbd )
D = −4(ad − bc)2
Given ad bc
D 0
Quadratic equation has no real roots
12. The first term of an A.P. is 5, the last term is 45 and the sum of all its terms is 400. Find the number of
terms and the common difference of the A.P.
Solution:
First term (a) = 5
Last term (l) = 45
Sum of all the terms = 400
n
400 = (a + l)
2
800
=n
50
n = 16
No. of terms = 16
l = 45 (16th term)
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CBSE-X-2017 EXAMINATION
a + (n − 1)d = 45
5 + 15d = 45
40
d=
15
8
d=
3
8
Common difference =
3
13. On a straight line passing through the foot of a tower, two points C and D are at distances of 4 m and
16 m from the foot respectively. If the angles of elevation from C and D of the top of the tower are
complementary, then find the height of the tower.
Solution:
Given CF = 4m
DF = 16m
TCF + TDF = 90
Lets say TCF =
TDF = −
In a right angled triangle TCF
TF TF
tan = =
CF 4
TF = 4 tan ..........(1)
In TDF
TF
tan(90 − ) =
16
TF = 16cot ..............(2)
Multiply (1) & (2)
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CBSE-X-2017 EXAMINATION
(TF )2 = 64 TF = 8mt
Height of tower = 8mt
14. A bag contains 15 white and some black balls. If the probability of drawing a black ball from the bag is
thrice that of drawing a white ball, find the number of black balls in the bag.
Solution:
Bag contains 15 white balls
Lets say there are x black balls
Probability of drawing a black ball
x
P(B) =
15 + x
Probability of drawing a white ball
15
P(W) =
15 + x
Given that P(B) = 3P(W)
x 3 15
=
15 + x 15 + x
x = 45
No. of black balls = 45
24
15. In what ratio does the point , y divide the line segment joining the points P(2, -2) and Q(3, 7) ?
11
Also find the value of y.
Solution:
Lets say ratio is m + n
Then
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CBSE-X-2017 EXAMINATION
24 3m + 2n 7m − 2n
,y = ,
11 m + n m+n
24 3m + 2n 7m − 2n
= ,y =
11 m+n m+n
24(m + n) = 11(3m + 2n)
24m + 24n = 33m + 22n
2n = 9m
m 2
= ratio = 2: 9
n 9
m = 2, n = 9
72 − 29
y=
11
−4
y=
11
16. Three semicircles each of diameter 3 cm, a circle of diameter 4·5 cm and a semicircle of radius 4·5 cm
are drawn in the given figure. Find the area of the shaded region.
Solution:
Given that AB = BC = CD = 3 cm
Circle c has diameter = 4.5 cm
Semicircle s1 has diameter = 9cm
Area of shaded region
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CBSE-X-2017 EXAMINATION
= Area of s1 – Area of (s2+s4) – Area of c + Area of s3
Area of shaded region
2 2 2 2 2
9 3 3 4.5 3
= − − − +
22 22 22 2 22
81
= −
16 8
= 12.36 cm2
17. In the given figure, two concentric circles with centre O have radii 21 cm and 42 cm. If AOB = 60 ,
find the area of the shaded region.
22
Use = 7
Solution:
Given OC = OD = 21 cm
OA = OB = 42 cm
Area of ACDB region
= Area of sector OAB – Area sector OCD
60 60
= (42)2 − (21)2
360 360
1 22
Area of ACDB region = 21 63
6 7
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CBSE-X-2017 EXAMINATION
= 11 63 = 693 cm2
Area of shaded region= area of c1 – Area of c2 – Area of ACDB region
= (42)2 − () − 693
22
= 21 63 − 693
7
= 3,465 cm2
18. Water in a canal, 5·4 m wide and 1·8 m deep, is flowing with a speed of 25 km/hour. How much area
can it irrigate in 40 minutes, if 10 cm of standing water is required for irrigation ?
Solution:
Given canal width = 5.4 mt
Depth = 1.8 mt
Water flow speed = 25 km/hr
Distance covered by water in 40 minutes
25 40
=
60
50
= km
3
50
Volume of water flows through pipe = 5.4 1.8 1000
3
= 162 103 m3
Area irrigate with 10 cm of water standing
162 103
=
10 10−2
= 162 104 m2
19. The slant height of a frustum of a cone is 4 cm and the perimeters of its circular ends are 18 cm and 6
cm. Find the curved surface area of the frustum.
Solution:
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CBSE-X-2017 EXAMINATION
Given:
2r = 6cm
2R = 18cm
l = 4cm
Curved surface area of frustum of a cone
1
= (2R + 2r ) l
2
1
= (6 + 18)4
2
= 48cm2
20. The dimensions of a solid iron cuboid are 4·4 m 2·6 m 1·0 m. It is melted and recast into a hollow
cylindrical pipe of 30 cm inner radius and thickness 5 cm. Find the length of the pipe.
Solution:
Volume of cuboid = 4.4 2.6 1
11.44m3
length = l
Inner radius = 30 cm
outer radius = 35 cm
Volume of cuboid = volume of cylindrical pipe
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CBSE-X-2017 EXAMINATION
l (352 − 302 )
11.44 =
100 100 100
l = 10.205 104 cm
l = 102.05 km
SECTION D
Question numbers 21 to 31 carry 4 marks each.
21. Solve for x :
1 3 5 1
+ = , x −1, − , − 4
x + 1 5x + 1 x + 4 5
Solution:
1 3 5 −1
+ = ; x −1, , − 4
x + 1 5x + 1 x + 4 5
Take L.C.M. on the left hand side of equation
5x + 1 + 3(x + 1) 5
=
(x + 1)(5x + 1) x + 4
(x + 4)(8 x + 4) = 5(5x + 1)(x + 1)
8 x 2 + 4 x + 32 x + 16 = 25x 2 + 5 + 5x + 25x
17 x 2 − 6 x − 11 = 0
17 x 2 − 17 x + 11x − 11 = 0
17 x(x − 1) + 11(x − 1) = 0
(x − 1)(17 x + 11) = 0
−11
x = ,1
17
1
22. Two taps running together can fill a tank in 3 hours. If one tap takes 3 hours more than the other to
13
fill the tank, then how much time will each tap take to fill the tank ?
Solution:
1
Two taps when run together fill the tank in 3 hrs
13
Say taps are A, B and
A fills the tank by itself in x hrs
B fills tank in (x+3) hrs
1
Portion of tank filled by A (in 1hr) =
x
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CBSE-X-2017 EXAMINATION
1
Portion of tank filled by B (in 1hr) =
x +3
13
Portion of tank filled by A & B (both in 1hr) =
40
1 1 13
+ =
x x + 3 40
(x + 3 + x)40 = 13(x)(x + 3)
80 x + 120 = 13x 2 + 39 x
13x 2 − 41x − 120 = 0
x=5
A fills tank in 5hrs
B fills tank in 8hrs
23. If the ratio of the sum of the first n terms of two A.Ps is (7n + 1) : (4n + 27), then find the ratio of their
9th terms.
Solution:
Given two A.P’s with n terms each
A.P I = first term = a1
A.PII = first term = a2
Common difference = d2
Sum of first n terms for A.PI = S1
n
S1 = 2a1 + (n − 1)d1
2
n
Similarly S2 = 2a2 + (n − 1)d2
2
S1 7n + 1
=
S2 4n + 27
(n − 1)
a1 + d1
2 7n + 1
=
(n − 1)
a2 + d2 4n + 27
2
a1 + 8d1
Ratio of their 9th terms =
a2 + 8d2
Comparing
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CBSE-X-2017 EXAMINATION
(n − 1)
a1 + d1
2 a + 8d1
& 1
(n − 1)
a2 + d2 a2 + 8d2
2
Upon comparing
n −1
=8
2
(n = 17) substituting n value
(n − 1)
a1 + d1
a1 + 8d1 2 7n + 1 7(17) + 1 120
= = = =
a2 + 8d2 a + (n − 1) d 4n + 27 4(17) + 27 95
2 2
2
ratio = 24 : 19
24. Prove that the lengths of two tangents drawn from an external point to a circle are equal.
Solution:
PA & PB are the length of the tangents drawn from an external point P to circle C with radius r
OA = OB = r
OA ⊥ PA
OB ⊥ PB
Join O & P
In the triangles OAP & OBP
OA = OB (radii)
OP = OP (common side)
OAP = OBP = 90 (Right angle)
By RHS congruency
OAP OBP
By CPCT
PA = PB
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CBSE-X-2017 EXAMINATION
25. In the given figure, XY and X’Y’ are two parallel tangents to a circle with centre O and another tangent
AB with point of contact C, is intersecting XY at A and X’Y’ at B. Prove that AOB = 90 .
Solution:
Prove that AOB = 90
In AOC and AOP
OA = OA (hypotenuse)
OP = OC (radii)
ACO = APO (right angle)
AOC AOP By RHS congruency
By CPCT AOC = AOP .....(1)
Similarly In BOC & BOQ
OC = OQ
OB = OB
BCO = BQO = 90
By RHS congruency BOC BOQ
By CPCT BOC = BOQ .....(2)
PQ is a straight line
AOP + AOC + BOC + BOQ = 180
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CBSE-X-2017 EXAMINATION
From equations (1) and (2)
2 ( AOC + BOC ) = 180
180
AOB =
2
AOB = 90
26. Construct a triangle ABC with side BC = 7 cm, B = 45 , A = 105 .
3
Then construct another triangle whose sides are times the corresponding sides of the ABC.
4
Solution:
In the ABC , A + B + C = 180
C = 30
To construct the similar triangle first we need to construct ABC
For ABC
1). Draw BC = 7cm with help of a ruler
2) Take a protractor measure angle 45 from point B and draw a ray BX
3) From point c, mark 30 with help of protractor & draw a ray CY
4) Now both BX and BY intersect at a point and this point is A
Now we have ABC
3
To construct similar triangle with corresponding sides of the sides of ABC
4
Step 1: Draw any raw making an acute angle with BC
Step 2: Along the ray BZ mark 4 points B1, B2, B3, B4 such that BB1 = B1B2 = B2B3 = B3B4
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CBSE-X-2017 EXAMINATION
Step 3: Now join B4 to C and draw a line parallel to B4C from B3 intersecting the line BC line BC at C’
Step 4: Draw a line through C’ parallel to CA which intersects BA at A’
A’BC’ is the required tri
Justification:
C ' A'||CA By construction
A' BC ' ~ ABC [using AA similarity]
A ' B BC ' A ' C '
= = [corresponding sides ratio will be proportional
AB BC AC
B4C ||B3C ' [By construction]
BB4C ~ BB3C ' [By AA similarity]
BC ' BB3
= [By BPT]
BC BB4
BB3 3
But we know =
BB4 4
A ' B BC ' A '.C ' 3
= = =
AB BC AC 4
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CBSE-X-2017 EXAMINATION
27. An aeroplane is flying at a height of 300 m above the ground. Flying at this height, the angles of
depression from the aeroplane of two points on both banks of a river in opposite directions are 45 and
30 respectively. Find the width of the river. [Use 3 = 1·732]
Solution:
Given aeroplane is at height of 300m
AB = 300m and XY ||PQ
Angles of depression of the two points P & Q are 30 and 45
XAP = 30 & YAQ = 45
XAP = APB = 30
[Alternative Interior angles]
YAQ = AQB = 45
In PAB
AB
tan30 =
PB
PB = 300 3 mt
In BAQ
AB
tan45 =
BQ
BQ = 300m
Width of the river = PB + BQ
= 300(1 + 3)mt
28. If the points A(k + 1, 2k), B(3k, 2k + 3) and C(5k - 1, 5k) are collinear, then find the value of k.
Solution:
Given A(k + 1,2k), B(3k ,2k + 3), C(5k − 1,5k) are collinear.
If three points are collinear then the area of the triangle will be zero. For any 3 points (x 1, y1), (x2, y2), (x3,
y3) Area will be
1
A = x1 (y2 − y3 ) + x2 (y3 − y1 ) + x3 (y1 − y2 )
2
1
O = (k + 1)(2k + 3 − 5k) + 3k(5k − 2k) + (5k − 1)(2k − 2k − 3)
2
O = (k + 1)(3 − 3k) + 3k(3k) − 15k + 3
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CBSE-X-2017 EXAMINATION
−3k 2 + 3 + 9k 2 + 3 − 15k = 0
6k 2 − 15k + 6 = 0
1
k = 2,
2
29. Two different dice are thrown together. Find the probability that the numbers obtained have
(i) even sum, and
(ii) even product.
Solution:
Two dice are through together total possible outcomes = 6 6 = 36
(i) Sum of outcomes is even
This can be possible when
Both outcomes are even
Both outcomes are odd
For both outcomes to be Even number of cases = 3 3 = 9
Similarly
Both outcomes odd = 9 cases
Total favourable cases = 9 + 9 =18
18
Probability that =
36
1
Sum of the even outcomes is
2
(ii) Product of outcomes is even
This is possible when
Both outcomes are even
first outcome even & the other odd
first outcome odd & the other even
Number of cases where both outcomes are even = 9
Number of cases for first outcome odd = 9
and the other Even
No. of cases for first outcome odd & the other even = 9
Total favourable cases = 9 + 9 + 9 = 27
27
Probability =
36
3
=
4
30. In the given figure, ABCD is a rectangle of dimensions 21 cm 14 cm. A semicircle is drawn with BC as
diameter. Find the area and the perimeter of the shaded region in the figure.
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CBSE-X-2017 EXAMINATION
Solution:
Area of shaded region = Area of rectangle – Area of semicircle
(7)2
= 21 14 −
2
= 217 cm 2
Perimeter of shaded region
= AB + AD + CD + length of arc BC
180 22
= 21 + 14 + 21 + 2 7
360 7
= 78 cm
31. In a rain-water harvesting system, the rain-water from a roof of 22 m 20 m drains into a cylindrical
tank having diameter of base 2 m and height 3·5 m. If the tank is full, find the rainfall in cm. Write your
views on water conservation.
Solution:
Water from the roof drains into cylindrical tank
Volume of water from roof flows into the tank of the rainfall is x cm and given the tank is full we can write
volume of water collected on roof = volume of the tank
2
22 20 x 2
= 3.5
100 2
x = 2.5 cm
.rainfall is of 2.5 cm
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X - CBSE BOARD - 2018
CODE ( 30/3 )
Date: 28.03.2018 Mathematics - QXHVWLRQPDSHU 6ROXWLRQV
SECTION A
1. What is the value of (cos267° – sin223°) ?
Ans. cos2 670 sin2 230
as cos 90 0 sin
Let 230
cos 90 0 - 230 = sin230
cos 67 0 sin 230
cos2 670 sin2 230
∴ cos2 670 −sin2 230 =0
2. In an AP, if the common difference (d) = –4, and the seventh term (a7) is 4, then find the first term.
Ans. a7 4
a 6d 4 as an a n 1 d
but d 4
a 64 4
a 24 4
a 4 24 28
Therefore first term a = 28
AB 1 ar ABC
3. Given ABC PQR , if , then find .
PQ 3 ar PQR
A ABC AB2
Ans.
A PQR PQ2 (Ratio of area of similar triangle is equal to square of their praportional sides)
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2
A ABC 1 1
A PQR 3 9
4. What is the HCF of smallest prime number and the smallest composite number ?
Ans. Smallest prime number is 2.
Smallest composite number is 4
Therefore HCF is 2.
5. Find the distance of a point P(x, y) from the origin.
Ans. Using distance formual
2 2
OP x 0 y 0
OP x 2 y 2
6. If x = 3 is one root of the quadratic equation x 2 2kx 6 0 , then find the value of k.
Ans. x = 3 is one of the root of x 2 2kx 6 0
3 2 2k 3 6 0
9 6k 6 0
3 6k 0
3 6k
3 1
k
6 2
SECTION B
7. Two different dice are tossed together. Find the probability :
(i) of getting a doublet
(ii) of getting a sum 10, of the numbers on the two dice.
Ans. Sample space S 1,11,2 ......., 6,6
n s 36
i) A = getting a doublet
A = {(1, 1), (2, 2) ......., (6, 6)}
n A 6
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n A 6 1
P A
n S 36 6
ii) B = getting sum of numbers as 10.
B = {(6, 4), (4, 6), (5, 5)}
n B 3
nB 3 1
P B
n S 36 12
8.Find the ratio in which P(4, m) divides the line segment joining the points A(2, 3) and B(6, –3). Hence find m.
Ans. Suppose the point P(4, m) divides the line segment joining the points A(2, 3) and B(6, -3) in the ratio
K : 1. A K P 1 B
(2, 3) (4, m) (6, -3)
6K 2 3K 3
Co-ordinates of point P ,
K 1 K 1
But the co-ordinates of point P are given as (4, m)
6K 2
4 ......(1) and
K 1
3K 3
m ......(2)
K 1
6K 2 4K 4
2K = 2
K=1
Putting K = 1 in eq. (2)
3 1 3
m
11
m0
Ratio is 1 : 1 and m = 0
i.e. P is the mid point of AB
9. An integer is chosen at random between 1 and 100. Find the probability that it is :
(i) divisible by 8
(ii) not divisible by 8
Ans. An integer is chosen at random from 1 to 100
Therefore n(S) = 100
(i) Let A be the event that number chosen is divisible by 8
A 8,16, 24,32, 40, 48,56, 64, 72,80,88,96
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n A 12
n A
Now, P (that number is divisible by 8) P A n S
12 6 3
100 50 25
3
P A
25
(ii) Let ‘A’ be the event that number is not divisible by 8.
P A ' 1 P A
3 22
1 P A '
25 25
10. In figure.1, ABCD is a rectangle. Find the values of x and y.
D x+y C
14cm x–y
A 30cm B
Figure 1
Ans. Since it is a rectangle
AB CD
x y 30 ...(i)
AD BC
x y 14 ...(ii)
Adding (1) and (2), we get
2 x 44
x = 22
Putting x = 22 in equation (i)
22 y 14 22 14 y
y 8
∴ x =22 and y =8
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11. Find the sum of first 8 multiples of 3.
Ans. First 8 multiples of 3 are
3, 6, 9, 12, 15, 18, 21, 24
The above sequence is an A.P.
a = 3, d = 3 and last term l = 24
n 8
Sn a l 3 24 4 27
2 2
Sn 108
12.
Given that 2 is irrational, prove that 5 3 2 is an irrational number..
Ans.
Let us assume that 5 3 2 is rational. Then there exist co-prime positive integers a and b such that
a
53 2
b
a
3 2 5
b
a 5b
2
3b
a 5b
2 is rational. [ a, b are integers , 3b is rational].
This contradicts the fact that 2 is irrational.
So our assumption is incorrect.
Hence, 5 3 2 is an irrational number..
SECTION C
13. If A(–2, 1), B(a, 0), C(4, b) and D(1, 2) are the vertices of a parallelogram ABCD, find the values of a and b.
Hence find the lengths of its sides.
Ans. M is midpoint of AC and BD using midpoint formula,
(–2,1) (a,0)
2 4 1 b a 1 2 0 A B
, ,
2 2 2 2 M
2 1 b a 1 2 D C
, ,
2 2 2 2 (1,2) (4,b)
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2 a 1
a 1 2 a 1
2 2
1 b 2
and 1 b 2 b 1
2 2
OR
If A(–5, 7), B(–4, –5), C(–1, –6) and D(4, 5) are the vertices of quadrilateral, find the area of the quadrilateral
ABCD.
1
Ans. A ABC
2
x1 y2 y3 x2 y3 y1 x3 y1 y2
If A x1 , y1 , B x2 , y2 , C x3 , y3 are vertices of ABC .
A(–5,7) B(–4,–5)
D(4,5) C(–1,–6)
A ABCD A ABC A ADC ....(i)
1
A ABC 5 5 6 4 6 7 1 7 5
2
1
5 52 12
2
1
35
2
35
Sq.units
2
1
A ADC 5 5 6 4 6 7 1 7 5
2
1
55 52 2
2
109
2
Area cannot be negative.
109
A ADC sq.units
2
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35 109 144
A ABCD 72 sq. units
2 2 2
14.
Find all zeroes of the polynomial 2 x 4 9 x 3 5 x 2 3 x 1 if two of its zeroes are 2 3 and 2 3 .
Ans.
It is given that 2 3 and 2 3 are two zeros of f x 2x 4 9x 3 5x 2 3x 1
x 2 3 x 2 3 x 2 3 x 2 3
2
2
x 2 3
x 2 4x 1
x 2
4x 1 is a factor of f x
2x 2 x 1
x 2 4x 1 2x 4 9x 3 5x 2 3x 1
2x 4 8x 3 2x 2
____________________
x 3 3x 2 3x 1
x 3 4x 2 x
__________________
x 2 4x 1
x 2 4x 1
_________________
0
_________________
Let us now divide f x by x 2 4x 1
We have,
f x x 2 4x 1 2x 2 x 1
Hence, other two zeros of f(x) are the zeros of the polynomial 2x 2 x 1
We have,
2x 2 x 1 2x 2 2x x 1
2x x 1 1 x 1
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2x 1 x 1
f x x 2 3 x 2 3 2 x 1 x 1
1
Hence, the other two zeros are and 1.
2
15. Find HCF and LCM of 404 and 96 and verify that HCF × LCM = Product of the two given numbers.
Ans. Using the factor tree for the prime factorization of
404 and 96, we have
404 = 22 × 101 and 96 = 25 × 3
To find the HCF, we list common prime factors and their smallest exponent in 404 and 96 as under :
Common prime factor = 2, Least exponent = 2
HCF 22 4
To find the LCM, we list all prime factors of 404 and 96 and their greatest exponent as follows :
Prime factors of 404 and 96 Greatest Exponent
2 5
3 1
101 1
LCM 25 31 1011
2 5 3 1 1 0 11
9696
Now,
HCF × LCM = 9696 × 4 = 38784
Product of two numbers = 404 × 96 = 38784
Therefore HCF × LCM = Product of two numbers.
16. Prove that the lengths of tangents drawn from an external point to a circle are equal.
Ans. Given AP and AQ are two tangents from a point A to a circle C (O, r )
To prove AP = AQ
Construction join OP, OQ and OA
Proof In order to prove that AP AQ , we shall first prove that OPA OQA
since a tangent at any point of a circle is perpendicular to the radius through the point of contact.
OP AP and OQ AQ
OPA OQA 900 ........(i)
Now, in right triangles OPA and OQA, we have
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OP OQ [Radii of a circle]
P
OPA OQA [from (i)]
and OA = OA A O
so, by RHS – criterion of congruence, we get
OPA OQA Q
⇒AP =AQ
17. Prove that the area of an equilateral traingle described on one side of the square is equal to half the area of
the equilateral triangle described on one of its diagonal.
Ans. Let a be the side of square.
C
3 3 2
A ABC side 2 a ..... 1
4 4
using pythagoras theorem
A a
2 2 2 2 2 2
B
AD AB BD a a 2a
AD 2a 2a a
2a
3 2 3
A ADE
4
2a
4
2a 2 ..... 2 D
E 2a
A ABC 3 / 4a 2
A ADE 3 / 4 2a 2
1
A ABC A ADE
2
Area of equivalent triangle describes on
1
area of equilateral described an one of its diagonal
2
OR
If the area of two similar triangles are equal, prove that they are congruent.
A P
Ans.
B C Q R
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Let ABC is PQR
A ABC AB 2 BC 2 AC 2
A PQR PQ 2 QR 2 PR 2
Given that ABC A PQR
A ABC
1
A PQR
AB 2 BC 2 AC 2
1
PQ 2 QR 2 PR 2
AB PQ
BC QR
AC PR
Hence corresponding sides are equal.
ABC PQR (SSS rule)
hence proved.
18. A plane left 30 minutes late than its scheduled time and in order to reach the destination 1500 km away in
time, it had to increase its speed by 100 km/h from the usual speed. Find its usual speed.
Ans. Let the usual speed of the plane be x km/hr
1500
Time taken to cover 1500 km with usual speed hrs
x
1500
Time taken to cover 1500 km with speed of x 100 km / hr hrs.
x 100
1500 1500 1
x x 100 2
1500 1500 1
x x 100 2
x 100 x 1
1500
x x 100 2
150000 2 x x 100
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x 2 100 x 300000 0
x 2 100 x 300000 0
x 600 or x 500
But speed can’t be negative
Hence usual speed 500 km/hr.
19. The table below shown the salaries of 280 persons:
Salary (In thousand ) No.of Person
5 10 49
10 15 133
15 20 63
20 25 15
25 30 6
30 35 7
35 40 4
40 45 2
45 50 1
Calculate the median salary of the data.
Ans.
Class Frequency Cumulative Frequency
5 - 10 49 49
10 - 15 133 182
15 - 20 63 245
20 - 25 15 260
25 - 30 6 266
30 – 35 7 273
35 - 40 4 277
40 – 45 2 279
45 – 50 1 280
Let N total frequency
we have N 280
N 280
140
2 2
N
The cumulative frequency just greater than is 182 and the corresponding class is 10 15
2
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Thus, 10 15 is the median class such that
l 10, f 133, F 49 and h 5
N
F
140 49
Median l 2 h 10 5
f 133
=13.42
20. A wooden article was made by scooping out a hemisphere from each end of a solid cylinder, as shown in
Fig. 2. If the height of the cylinder is 10 cm and its base is of radius 3.5 cm. Find the total surface area of the
article.
Ans. Let r be the radius of the base of the cylinder and h be its height. Then, total surface area of the article
= Curved surface area of the cylinder + 2 (surface area of a hemisphere)
2 rh 2 2 r 2
2 r h 2r
22
2 3.5 10 2 3.5 cm 2
7
=22×17 cm2 =374 cm2
OR
A heap of rice is in the form of a cone of base diameter 24 m and height 3.5 m. Find the volume of the rice.
How much canvas cloth is required to just cover the heap?
Ans. Given
Base diameter = 24 m
Base radius = 12 m
Height = 3.5 m
1
Volume r 2 h
3
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1 22
12 12 3.5
3 7
22 4 12 0.5
3.5m
264 2
12m
528 cubic meter
2 12 2 3.52 144 12.25
2 156.25
156.25 12.5 m
Curved surface area r
22 150 22
12 12.5 471.428sq.meter
7 7
21. Find the area of the shaded region in Fig. 3, where arcs drawn with centres A, B, C and D intersect in pairs
at mid-points P, Q, R and S of the sides AB, BC, CD and DA respectively of a square of side 12 cm, [Use
3.14 ]
A P B
S Q
C R D
Fig.–3
Ans. Given that ABCD is a square & P,Q,R & S are the mid points of AB,BC,CD & DA respectively
& AB 12 cm
AP 6cm P bisects AB
area of the shaded region = Area of square ABCD – (Area of sector APEC + Area of sector PFQB + .....
Area of sector RGQC + Area of sector RHSD) A P B
62 62 6 2 62 E F
2
12
4 4 4 4 S Q
H G
2
12 36
C R D
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=144 −113.04
=30.96 cm2
4sin cos 1
22. If 4 tan 3, evaluate
4sin cos 1
Ans. Given that,
3 9
tan tan 2
4 16
we know that,
sec 2 1 tan 2
9 25
sec 2 1
16 16
16
cos 2
25
4
cos
5
we know that,
sin 2 1 cos 2
16 9
sin 2 1
25 25
3
sin
5
Now,
3 4
4 1
4sin cos 1 5 5
4sin cos 1 4 3 4 1
5 5
12 4 5
12 4 5
13
11
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OR
If tan 2 A cot ( A 18), where 2 A is an angle, find the value of A.
Ans. Given that,
tan 2 A cot A 180
Now,
we know that,
tan cot 90 0
cot 900 2 A cot A 180
900 2 A A 180
3 A 1080
1080
A 360
3
∴A =360
SECTION D
23. As observed from the top of a 100 m high light house from the sea-level, the angles of depression of
two ships are 30° and 45°. If one ship is exactly behing the other on the same side of the light house, find the
distance between the two ships. [Use 3 1.732 ]
Ans. Let ships are at distance x from each other P
In APO
100m
100
tan 45 1 y 100 m ...(i)
y
45° 30°
y A x B
In POB O
OP 100 1
tan 30
OB x y 3
x y
3
100
x y 100 3 ...(ii)
x 100 3 y 100 3 100 100 3 1
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x 100 1.732 1
100 0.732
73.2 m
∴ Ships are 73.2 meters apart.
24. The diameters of the lower and upper ends of a bucket in the form of a frustum f a cone are 10 cm and 30
cm respectively. If its height is 24 cm, find:
(i) The area of the metal sheet used to make the bucket.
(ii) Why we should avoid the bucket made by ordinary plastic? [Use 3.14 ]
Ans. Let r1 5 cm and r2 15 cm are radii of lower and upper circular faces.
Metal sheet required = Area of curved surface + Area of Base
r1 r2 r12 ...(i)
From diagram
AB = CD = 5 cm
DE = 15 – 5 = 10 cm
and BD = 24 cm
BE 2 BD 2 DE 2 C D E
15cm
576 100
24cm 24cm
BE 2 676
BE 26 cm A 5cm B
2
Metal required 5 15 26 5
20 26 25
5 4 26 5
5 109
22
5 109
7
=1712.85cm2
There is a chance of breakdown due to stress an ordinary plastic.
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sin A 2sin 3 A
25. Prove that tan A.
2 cos3 A cos A
Ans. To prove
sin A 2sin 3 A
tan A
2 cos3 A cos A
sin A 1 2sin 2 A
L.H .S
cos A 2 cos 2 A 1
We know that, sin 2 A cos 2 A 1
sin A sin A cos A 2sin A
2 2 2
cos A 2 cos 2 A sin 2 A cos 2 A
cos2 A sin 2 A
tan A 2 2
cos A sin A
=tan A
=R.H.S. hence proved.
26. The mean of the following distribution is 18. Find the frequency f of the class 19-21.
Class 11-13 13-15 15-17 17-19 19-21 21-23 23-25
Frequency 3 6 9 13 f 5 4
Ans.
Class Mid values xi Frequence f i d i xi 18 xi 18 f iui
ui
2
11 – 13 12 3 6 3 9
13 - 15 14 6 4 2 12
15 - 17 16 9 2 1 9
17 - 19 18 13 0 0 0
19 - 21 20 f 2 1 f
21 - 23 22 5 4 2 10
23 - 25 24 4 6 3 12
f i 40 f
fui i f 8
we have
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h 2; A 18, N 40 f , f iui f 8 X 18
1
Mean A h
N
f u
i i
1
18 18 2 f 8
40 f
2 f 8
0
40 f
f −8 =0
f =8
OR
The following distribution gives the daily income of 50 workers of a factory :
Daily Income(In ) 100-120 120-140 140-160 160-180 180-200
Number of workers 12 14 8 6 10
Convert the distribution above to a less than type cumulative frequency distribution and draw its ogive.
Daily income Frequency Income less than Cumulative frequency
100-120 12 120 12
120-140 14 140 26
140-160 8 160 34
Ans.
160-180 6 180 40
180-200 10 200 50
Other than the given class intervals, we assum a class interval 80-100 with zero frequency.
Cumulative Frequency
50 (200,50)
40 (180,40)
30 (160,34)
20 (140,26)
10 (120,12)
100 120 140 160 180 200
Number of workers
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27. A motor boat whose speed is 18 km/hr in still water 1 hr more to go 24 km upstream than to return
downstream to the same spot. Find the speed of the stream.
Ans. Let the speed of stream be x km / hr
Now, for upstream: speed (18 x ) km / hr
24
time taken hr
18 x
Now, for downstream: speed (18 x ) km / hr
24
time taken hr
18 x
Given that,
24 24
1
18 x 18 x
24 24
1
18 x 18 x
24 (18 x) (18 x)
1
(18)2 x 2
24 2 x
1
324 x 2
324 x 2 48 x
x 2 48 x 324 0
x 2 54 x 6 x 324 0
( x 54) ( x 6) 0
x 54 or x 6
x 54 km / hr (not possible)
Therefore, speed of the stream = 6 km/hr.
OR
A train travels at a certain average speed for a distance of 63 km and then travels at a distance of 72 km
at an average speed of 6 km/hr more than its original speed. It it takes 3 hours to complete total journey,
what is the original average speed ?
Ans. Let x be the original average speed of the train for 63 km.
Then, (x + 6) will be the new average speed for remaining 72 km.
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Total time taken to complete the journey is 3 hrs.
63 72
3
x x 6
Distance
Time =
Speed
63x 378 72x
3
x x 6
135x 378 3x 2 18x
x 2 39x 126 0
x 42 x 3 0
x 42 OR x 3
Since speed can not be negative.
Therefore x = 42 km/hr.
28. The sum of four consecutive numbers in an AP is 32 and the ratio of the product of the first and the last term
to the product of two middle terms is 7 : 15. Find the numbers.
Ans. Let the numbers be (a, –3d), (a – d), (a + d) and (a + 3d)
a 3d a d a d a 3d 32
4a 32
a 8
a 3d a 3d 7
Also,
a d a d 15
15a 2 135d 2 7a 2 7d 2
8a 2 128d 2
2 8a 2 8 8 8
d
128 128
d2 4
d 2
If d =2 numbers are : 2, 6,10, 14
If d = −2 numbers are 14,10,16,2
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29. Draw a triangle ABC with BC = 6 cm, AB = 5 cm and ABC 60 . Then construct a triangle whose sides
3
are of the corresponding sides of the ABC .
4
Ans. STEPS OF CONSTRUCTION :
5cm
C' C
B 6cm
B1
B2
B3
B4
(i) Draw a line segment BC = 6 cm, draw a ray BX making 60° with BC.
(ii) Draw an arc with radius 5 cm from B so that it cuts BX at A.
(iii) Now join AC to form ABC .
(iv) Draw a ray by making an acute angle with NC opposite to vertex A.
(v) Locate 4 points B1 , B2 , B3 , B4 on by such that BB1 B1B2 B2 B3 B3 B4 .
(vi) Join B4C and now draw a line from B3 parallel to B4C so that it cuts BC at C ' .
(vii) From C ' draw a line parallel to AC and cuts AB at A ' .
(viii) A ' BC ' is the required triangle.
1 2 2
30. In an equilateral ABC , is a point on side BC such that BD BC . Prove that 9 AD 7 AB .
3
A
Ans. Let the each side of ABC be ‘a’ unit
a
BD
3
2 2
to prove : 9 AD 7 AB B D C
construction : Draw AM BC :
A
a a a
DM
2 3 6
In ABM
AB2 BM 2 AM 2 .......(1)
B D M C
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and in ADM
AD 2 AM 2 DM 2 .......(2)
AM
In ABM, sin 600
AB
AM ABsin 600
3
a
2
2
Now, taking 9 AD
9 AM 2 DM 2
a 3 2 2
a
9
2 6
3a 2 a 2 28a 2
9 9
4 36 36
2
7 AB 7a 2
or
∴9 (AD2 = )7 (AB2 ) Hence proved.
OR
Prove that, in a right triangle, the square on the hypotenuse is equal to the sum of the squares on the other
two sides.
Ans. Given : A right - angled triangle ABC in which B 900
To Prove : (Hypotenuse)2 = (Base)2 + (Perpendicular)2
i.e., AC2 = AB2 + BC2
Construction from B draw BD AC.
B
A D C
Proof : In triangle ADB and ABC, we have
ADB ABC [Each equal to 90o]
and, A A [Common]
So, by AA - similarity criterian, we have
ADB ABC
AD AB
[ In similar triangles corresponding sides are proportional]
AB AC
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AB2 AD AC .......(1)
In triangles BDC and ABC, we have
CDB ABC [Each equal to 90o]
and, C C [Common]
So, by AA-similarity criterian, we have
BDC ABC
DC BC
[ In similar triangles corresponding sides are proportional]
BC AC
BC 2 AC DC ......(2)
Adding equation (1) and (2), we get
AB2 BC 2 AD AC AC DC
2 2
AB BC AC AD DC
AB2 BC 2 AC AC
AB2 BC 2 AC 2
Hence, AC2 = AB2 + BC2
www.vedantu.com 23
Class X
Mathematics
(CBSE 2019)
Time: 3Hr
Marks : 80
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS :
(i) All questions are compulsory.
(ii) This question paper consists of 30 questions divided into four sections - A, B, C and D.
(iii) Section A contains 6 questions of 1 mark each.
Section B contains 6 questions of 2 marks each.
Section C contains 10 questions of 3 marks each.
Section D contains 8 questions of 4 marks each.
(iv) There is no overall choice. However, an internal choice has been provided in two questions of
1 mark, two questions of 2 marks, four questions of 3 marks each and three questions of 4
marks each. You have to attempt only one of the alternatives in all such questions.
(v) Use of calculator is not permitted.
Section A
Question numbers 1 to 6 carry 1 mark each.
1. Find the coordinates of a point A , where AB is diameter of a circle whose centre is 2, –3
and B is the point 1, 4 .
Solution: Let the centre be O and coordinates of point A be x, y
x 1
2 [By Mid-point formula]
2
Implies that
x3
y4
–3
2
Coordinates of A 3, –10
2. For what values of k, the roots of the equation x2 4 x k 0 are real?
OR
Find the value of k for which the roots of the equation 3x2 –10 x k 0 are reciprocal of each
other.
Solution:
x2 4 x k 0
Roots of given equation are real,
D0
Implies that
1
4 – 4 k 0
2
Implies that
–4k –16
Implies that
k4
k has all real values 4
OR
3x –10 x k 0
2
∵ Roots of given equation are reciprocal of each other.
1
Let the roots be and
c
Product of roots
a
Implies that
1 k
,
3
k 3.
3. Find A if tan 2 A cot A – 24
OR
Find the value of sin 2 33 sin 2 57
Solution:
Given:
tan 2 A cot A 24
Implies that tan 2 A tan 90 A 24
Implies that tan 2 A tan 90 A 24
Implies that tan 2 A tan 114 A
Implies that 2 A 114 A
Implies that 3 A 114
114
Implies that A
3
Implies that A 38
OR
Given:
sin 2 33 sin 2 57
sin 2 33 cos 90 57
2
sin 2 33 cos 2 33
1
4. How many two digits numbers are divisible by 3?
2
Solution:
Two digits numbers divisible by 3 are
12,15,18, .....,99.
a 12, d 15 –12 3
Implies that
Tn 99
Implies that
a n –1 d 99
Implies that
12 n –1 3 99
Implies that
n 30
Number of two digit numbers divisible by 3 are 30.
5.In Fig. 1, DE || BC, AD 1 cm and BD 2 cm . What is the ratio of the ar ABC to the ar
(ADE ) ?
Solution:
DE || BC
ADE ABC [By AA similarity]
ar ABC AB 2
[By area similarity theorem]
ar ADE AD 2
ar ABC 32
ar ADE 12
ar ABC 9
ar ADE 1
6. Find a rational number between 2 and 3 .
15 3
Sol. Rational number lying between 2 and 3 is 1.5
10 2
2 1.414and 3 1.732
Section B
3
7. Find the HCF of 1260 and 7344 using Euclid's algorithm.
OR
Show that every positive odd integer is of the form 4q 1 or 4q+3 , where q is some
integer.
Since 7344 > 1260
7344 1260 5 1044
Since remainder 0
1260 1044 1 216
1044 216 4 180
216 180 1 36
180 36 5 0
The remainder has now become zero.
HCF of 1260 and 7344 is 36.
OR
Let a be positive odd integer
Using division algorithm on a and b = 4
a 4q r Since 0 r < 4, the possible remainders are 0, 1, 2 and 3
a can be 4q or 4q + 1 or 4q + 2 or 4q + 3, where q is the quotient
Since a is odd, a cannot be 4q and 4q + 2
Any odd integer is of the form 4q + 1 or 4q + 3, where q is some integer.
8. Which term of the AP 3, 15, 27, 39, .... will be 120 more than its 21st term?
OR
If S n , the sum of first n terms of an AP is given by Sn 3n2 – 4n , find the nth term.
Solution:
Given AP is
3, 15, 27, 39 ....
where a = 3, d = 15 – 3 = 12
Let the nth term be 120 more than its 21st term.
tn t21 120
3 n –112 3 20 12 120
n –1 12 363 – 3
360
n 1
12
n 31
Hence, the required term is
t31 3 30 12
363
OR
Sn 3n2 – 4n
Let Sn –1 be sum of n –1 terms
4
tn Sn – Sn –1
3n 2 – 4n – 3 n –1 – 4 n –1
2
3n – 4n – 3n – 6n 3 – 4n 4
2 2
3n 2 – 4n – 3n 2 10n – 7
t n 6n – 7
Therefore, required nth term 6n – 7
9. Find the ratio in which the segment joining the points (1, –3) and (4, 5) is divided by x-axis?
Also find the coordinates of this point on x-axis.
Solution:
Let C x, 0 divides the line segment joining the points A 1,–3 and B 4,5 in k :1 ratio.
By section formula,
mx2 nx1 my2 ny1
x, y ,
mn mn
Implies that
4k 11 5k 1 3
x, 0 ,
k 1 k 1
Implies that
4k 1 5k 3
x, 0 ,
k 1 k 1
Implies that
5k 3
0
k 1
Implies that
5k 3 0
5
Implies that
5k 3
3
k
5
3
4 1
4k 1 5
and x
k 1 3
1
5
12 5
x 5
35
5
17
x
8
17
Therefore, coordinates of point P are , 0 .
8
10. A game consists of tossing a coin 3 times and noting the outcome each time. If getting the
same result in all the tosses is a success, find the probability of losing the game.
Solution:
Total possible outcomes are (HHH), (HHT), (HTH), (THH), (TTH), (THT), (HTT), (TTT) i.e., 8. [½]
The favourable outcomes to the event E 'Same result in all the tosses' are TTT, HHH. Therefore,
the number of favourable outcomes = 2
2 1
P E
8 4
Hence, probability of losing the game = 1 P E
1 3
1
4 4
11. A die is thrown once. Find the probability of getting a number which (i) is a prime number
(ii) lies between 2 and 6.
Solution:
Total outcomes = 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 Prime numbers = 2, 3, 5 Numbers lie between 2 and 6 = 3, 4, 5
3 1
(i) P (Prime Numbers)
6 2
3 1
(ii) P (Numbers lie between 2 and 6)
6 2
12. Find c if the system of equations cx 3 y 3 c 0,12 x cy c 0 has infinitely many
solutions?
Solution:
cx 3 y 3 c 0 ……………………………….(i)
12 x cy c 0 ………………………………………(ii)
6
a1 b1 c1
For infinitely many solutions
a2 b2 c2
c 3 3c
3 3c
12 c c
c c
c 3
or c c 6 0
12 c
c 0, 6
c 2 36
c 6
Hence the value of c 6 .
Section C
Question numbers 13 to 22 carry 3 marks each.
13. Prove that 2 is an irrational number.
Solution:
Let 2 be rational.
p
2 where p and q are co-prime integers and , q 0
q
Implies that 2q p
2q 2 p 2 ....... i
2 divides p 2
2 divides p....... A
Let p 2c for some integer c
p 2 4c 2
2q 2 4c 2
q 2 2c 2
2 divides q 2
2 divides q........ B
From A and B , we get
2 is common factor of both p and q. But this contradicts the fact that p and q have no
common factor other than 1
Our supposition is wrong Hence, 2 is an irrational number.
14. Find the value of k such that the polynomial x2 – k 6 x 2 2k –1 has sum of its zeros
equal to half of their product.
Solution:
For given polynomial x2 – k 6 x 2 2k –1
Here
a 1, b k 6 , c 2 2k 1
7
Given that:
1
∵ Sum of zeroes = (product of zeroes)
2
k 6 1 2 2k 1
1 2 1
k 6 2k 1
6 1 2k k
k 7
Therefore, the value of k 7
15. A father’s age is three times the sum of the ages of his two children. After 5 years his age
will be two times the sum of their ages. Find the present age of the father.
OR
1 1
A fraction becomes when 2 is subtracted from the numerator and it becomes when 1 is
3 2
subtracted from the denominator. Find the fraction.
Solution:
Let the sum of ages of two sons be x years
Age of man 3x years
After 5 years age of the man 3x 5 years
Sum of ages of two sons x 10 years
Given, 3x 5 2 x 10
3x 5 2 x 20
x 15
Hence 3x 3 15 45
Thus the age of the man(father) is 45 years.
OR
x
Let’s assume the fraction be
y
First condition:
x2 1
y 3
3x 6 y
3x y 6............. 1
Second condition:
x 1
y 1 2
2x y 1
2 x y 1............ 2
Using eliminated method:
8
Multiplying (2) by -1 and then adding (1) and (2)
3x y 6
2 x y 1
x7
Now,from (1),
3x y 6
37 y 6
21 y 6
y 15
7
Hence the required fraction is .
15
16. Find the point on y-axis which is equidistant from the points (5, – 2) and (– 3, 2).
OR
The line segment joining the points A(2, 1) and B(5, – 8) is trisected at the points P and Q such
that P is nearer to A. If P also lies on the line given by 2x – y + k = 0, find the value of k.
Solution:
Since the point is on y-axis so,X-coordinate is zero
Let the point be (0, y)
It’s distance from A(5, –2) and B(– 3, 2) are equal
0 5 y 2 0 3 y 2
2 2 2 2
25 y 2 4 y 4 9 y 2 4 y 4 squaring both sides
4 y 29 4 y 13
4 y 4 y 13 29
16
8 y 16 y 2
8
Thus, the point is 0, 2 .
OR
As line segment AB is trisected by the points P and Q. Therefore,
Case I: When AP : PB = 1 : 2.
Then, coordinates of P are
1 5 2 2 1 8 1 2
,
1 2 1 2
Implies that
P 3, 2
Since the point P 3, 2 lies on the line
2x y k 0
2 3 2 k 0
k 8
9
17. Prove that : sin cos ec cos sec 7 tan 2 cot 2
2 2
OR
Prove that: 1 cot A – cos ecA1 tan A sec A 2.
Solution:
L.H.S : sin cos ec cos sec
2 2
1 1
sin2 cosec 2 2 cos 2 sec 2 2 sin cos ec and cos sec
sin 2 cos2 1 cot 2 1 tan 2 4 cos ec2 1 cot 2 and sec2 1 tan 2
sin 2 cos 2 1 cot 2 1 tan 2 4 cos ec 2 1 cot 2 and sec2 1 tan 2
1 1 1 4 tan 2 cot 2 cos 2 sin 2 1
7 tan 2 cot 2
L.H.S=R.H.S
OR
cos A 1 sin A 1
L.H.S : 1 1
sin A sin A cos A cos A
sin A cos A 1 cos A sin A 1
sin A cos A
sin A cos A 1
2 2
sin A cos A
sin A cos 2 A 2sin A cos A 1
2
sin A cos A
1 2sin A cos A 1
sin A cos A
2
Hence, L.H.S=R.H.S.
18.In Fig. , PQ is a chord of length 8 cm of a circle of radius 5 cm and centre O. The tangents at
P and Q intersect at point T. Find the length of TP.
10
Solution:
Given radius, OP=OQ=5 cm
Length of chord, PQ=4 cm
OT PQ,
∴ PM=MQ= 4 cm [Perpendicular draw from the centre of the circle to a chord bisect the chord]
In right OPM,
OP2 =PM2 +OM2
52 =42 + OM2
OM2 25 –16 9
Hence OM=3cm
In right PTM ,
PT2 =TM2 +PM2 1
OPT 90º [Radius is perpendicular to tangent at point of contact]
In right OPT ,
OT2 =PT2 +OP2 2
From equations (1) and (2), we get
OT 2 = TM 2 +PM 2 +OP 2
TM + OM TM 2 + PM 2 OP 2
2
11
TM 2 +OM 2 +2×TM×OM=TM 2 + PM 2 + OP2
OM 2 +2×TM×OM=PM 2 +OP 2
32 2 TM 3 42 52
9 6TM 16 25
6TM 32
32 16
TM
6 3
Equation (1) becomes,
PT 2 TM 2 PM 2
2
16
42
3
256 256 144
16
9 9
2
400 20
9 3
20
Hence PT
3
20
Thus, the length of tangent PT is cm.
3
19.In Fig. 3, ACB = 90° and CD AB, prove that CD2 = BD × AD. [3] A B C D Fig. 3
OR
If P and Q are the points on side CA and CB respectively of ABC, right angled at C, prove that
(AQ2 + BP2) = (AB2 + PQ2)
Solution:
Given that : CD AB
ACB 90
To Prove : CD2 =BD×AD
Using Pythagoras Theorem in ACD
AC2 =AD2 +CD2 ...... 1
12
Using Pythagoras Theorem in CDB
CB2 =BD2 +CD2 ...... 2
Similarly in ABC ,
AB2 =AC2 +BC2 ..... 3
As AB = AD + DB
Since, AB=AD+BD…..(4)
Squaring both sides of equation (4), we get
AB = AD+BD
2 2
Since, AB2 =AD2 +BD2 +2×BD×AD
From equation (3) we get
AC2 +BC2 =AD2 +BD2 +2×BD×AD
Substituting the value of AC2 from equation (1) and the value of BC2 from equation (2), we
get
AD2 +CD2 +BD2 +CD2 =AD2 +BD2 +2×BD×AD
Since, 2 CD2 = 2×BD×AD
Hence, CD2 =BD×AD
OR
Using the Pythagoras theorem in ABC ,
ACQ, BPC, PCQ , we get
AB2 =AC2 +BC2 ..... 1
AQ 2 =AC2 +CQ 2 ..... 2
BP 2 =PC2 +BC2 ..... 3
PQ 2 = PC2 +CO 2 ..... 4
Adding the equations (2) and (3) we get
AQ2 +BP2 =AC2 +CQ2 +PC2 +BC2
= AC2 +BC2 + CQ2 +PC2
=AB2 +PQ2
As L.H.S = AQ2 +BP2
=AB2 +PQ2 = R.H.S
13
20. Find the area of the shaded region in Fig. 4, if ABCD is a rectangle with sides 8 cm and 6
cm and O is the centre of circle. (Take = 3.14)
Solution:
Here, diagonal AC also represents the diameter of the circle.
Using Pythagoras theorem:
AC AB 2 BC 2
AC 82 62
AC 64 36
AC 100
AC 10
AC
Radius of the circle, OC= =5cm
2
Area of the shaded region = Area of the circle – Area of rectangle
πr 2 AB BC
π OC AB BC
2
3.14 52 8 6
78.5 48
30.5
Therefore,the area of shaded region is 30.5cm2 .
21. Water in a canal, 6 m wide and 1.5 m deep, is flowing with a speed of 10 km/hour. How
much area will it irrigate in 30 minutes; if 8 cm standing water is needed?
Solution: Width of the canal = 6 m
Depth of the canal = 1.5 m
1
Length of the water column formed in hr
2
= 5 km or 5000 m
1
Volume of water flowing in hr
2
= Volume of cuboid of length 5000 m, width 6 m and depth 1.5 m.
= 5000 × 6 × 1.5 = 45000 m3
On comparing the volumes,
Volume of water in field = Volume of water coming out from canal in 30 minutes.
14
Irrigated area × standing water = 45000.
45000
Irrigated Area
8
1 m=100 cm
100
45000 100
5,62,500m3
8
22. Find the mode of the following frequency distribution.
Class 0-10 10-20 20-30 30-40 40-50 50-60 60-70
Frequency 8 10 10 16 12 6 7
Solution:
Class Frequency
0-10 8
10-20 10
20-30 10 f 0
30-40 16 f1
40-50 12 f 2
50-60 6
60-70 7
Here, 30 - 40 is the modal class, and I = 30, h = 10
f -f
Mode=I+ 0 1 ×h
2f1 -f 0 -f 2
16-10
=30+ ×10
2 16-10-12
16
=30+ ×10=30+6=36
10
Section D
7
23. Two water taps together can fill a tank in 1 hours. The tap with longer diameter takes 2
8
hours less than the tap with smaller one to fill the tank separately. Find the time in which
each tap can fill the tank separately.
OR
A boat goes 30 km upstream and 44 km downstream in 10 hours. In 13 hours, it can go 40 km
upstream and 55 km downstream.
Determine the speed of the stream and that of the boat in still water.
Solution:
Let the time in which tap with longer and smaller diameter can fill the tank separately be x
hours and y hours respectively.
15
1 1 8
………(i)
x y 15
And x y 2 ………(ii)
On substituting x y 2 from (ii) in (i), we get
1 1 8
y 2 y 15
y y2 8
2
y 2 y 15
15 2 y – 2 8 y 2 – 2 y
30 y – 30 8 y 2 –16 y
8 y 2 – 46 y 30 0
4 y 2 – 20 y – 3 y 15 0
4 y – 3 y – 5 0
3
y ,y5
4
Substituting values of y in (ii), we get
3
x 2
4
5
x
4
5
x
4
(time cannot be negative)
Hence, the time taken by tap with longer diameter is 3 hours and the time taken by tap with
smaller diameter is 5 hours, in order to fill the tank separately
OR
Let the speed of boat is x km/h in still water
And stream y km/h
According to question,
30 44
10
x y x y
And
40 55
13
x y x y
1 1
Let u and v
x y x y
30u 44v 10.....(i)
40u 55v 13....(ii)
On solving equation (i) and (ii) we get,
16
1
u x y 5 (iii)
5
1
v x y 11 (iv)
11
On solving equation (iii) and (iv) we get,
x 8 km/h
y 3km/h
24. If the sum of first four terms of an AP is 40 and that of first 14 terms is 280. Find the sum
of its first n terms.
Solution:
Given that: S4 40 and S14 280
n
Sn 2a n 1 d
2
4
S4 2a 4 1 d 40
2
2a 3d 20.........(i)
14
S14 2a 14 1 d 280
2
2a 13d 40.........(ii)
ii - i ,
10d 20 d 2
Substituting the value of d in (i),we get
2a 6 20 a 7
Sum of first n terms,
n
Sn 2a n 1 d
2
n
14 n 1 2
2
n 7 n 1
n n 6
n 2 6n
Therefore, Sn n2 6n
sin A cos A 1
L.H.S
sin A cos A 1
tan A 1 sec A
(Dividing numerator & denominator by cos A )
tan A 1 sec A
tan A sec A 1
tan A sec A 1
17
tan A sec A 1 tan A sec A
tan A sec A 1 tan A sec A
tan 2 A sec2 A tan A sec A
tan A sec A 1 tan A sec A
1 tan A sec A
tan A sec A 1 tan A sec A
1
tan A sec A
1
sec A tan A
LHS=RHS
Hence proved.
26. A man in a boat rowing away from a light house 100 m high takes 2 minutes to change the
angle of elevation of the top of the light house from 60° to 30°. Find the speed of the boat in
metres per minute. Use 3 1.732
OR
Two poles of equal heights are standing opposite each other on either side of the road, which
is 80 m wide. From a point between them on the road, the angles of elevation of the top of
the poles are 60° and 30° respectively. Find the height of the poles and the distances of the
point from the poles.
Solution:
AB is a lighthouse of height 100m. Let the speed of boat be x metres per minute. And CD is the
distance which man travelled to change the angle of elevation.
Therefore,
CD 2 x Distance=Speed×Time
18
AB
tan 60
BC
100
3
BC
100
BC
3
AB
tan 30
BD
1 100
3 BD
BD 100 3
CD=BD-BC
100
2 x 100 3
3
300 100
2x
3
200
x
2 3
100
x
3
Using,
3 1.73
100
x 57.80
1.73
Hence,the speed of the boat is 57.80 meters per minute.
OR
Let the poles be AB, CD each of height h meter and E is the point between the poles on the
road.
Let AEB = 60°, CED = 30° and DE be x meter.
BE 80 – x m
In AEB,
19
AB
tan 60
BE
h
3
20 x
h 3 80 x m..........(i)
In CDE ,
CD
tan 30
DE
1 h
3 x
x
h m........(ii)
3
From equation (i) and (ii), we get
x
3 80 x
3
x 240 – 3 x
4 x 240
x 60 m
Put value of x in equation (ii), we get
h 20 3m, DE=60m and BE=20m
Hence, the heights of each pole is 20 3m and distance of the point
from the poles are 60 m and 20 m.
27. Construct a ABC in which CA = 6 cm, AB = 5 cm and BAC = 45º. Then construct a
triangle whose sides are 3 5 of the corresponding sides of ABC.
Solution:
20
Steps of construction:
1. Draw AB = 5 cm. With A as centre, draw BAC 45 . Join BC. ABC is thus formed.
2. Draw AX such that BAX is an acute angle.
3. Cut 5 equal arcs AA1 , A1A2 , A2 A3 , A3A4 and A 4 A5 .
4. Join A 5 to B and draw a line through A 3 parallel to A5 B which meets AB at B'.
3
Here, AB' = AB
5
5.Now draw a line through B' parallel to BC which joins AC at C'.
3 3
Here, B'C' = BC and AC’= AC
5 5
Thus, AB'C' is the required triangle.
28. A bucket open at the top is in the form of a frustum of a cone with a capacity of 12308.8
cm3. The radii of the top and bottom of circular ends of the bucket are 20 cm and 12 cm
respectively. Find the height of the bucket and also the area of the metal sheet used in
making it. (Use = 3.14)
Solution:
21
Let the height of the bucket be h cm and slant height be l cm.
Here
r1 20 cm
r2 12 cm
And capacity of bucket = 12308.8 cm3
h 2 2
We know that capacity of bucket =
3
r1 r2 r1r2
h
=3.14 400 144 240
3
h
=3.14 784
3
h
So we have =3.14 784 12308.8
3
12308.8 3
h
3.14 784
15cm
Now, the slant height of the frustum,
l h 2 r1 r2
2
152 82
= 289
=17 cm
Area of metal sheet used in making it
r22 r1 r2
2
3.174 144 20 12 17
2160.32 cm 2
29. Prove that in a right angle triangle, the square of the hypotenuse is equal the sum of
squares of the other two sides.
Solution:
Given : A right triangle ABC in which B = 90°
22
To Prove: Hypotenuse = Base + Perpendicular
2 2 2
i.e. AC2 =AB2 +BC2
Construction : From B, draw BD AC
In ABC and ADB
BAC DAB Common
ABC ADB Each 90
ABC ~ ADB By AA similarity
AB AD
=
AC AB
AB2 =AD×AC … i
Similarly, ABC ~ BDC
BC AC
=
DC BC
BC2 =AC×DC … ii
On Adding (i) and (ii), we get
AB 2 BC 2 AD AC AC DC
AB 2 BC 2 AC AD DC
AB 2 BC 2 AC AC
AC 2 AB 2 BC 2
30. If the median of the following frequency distribution is 32.5. Find the values of f1 and f 2 .
Class 0-10 10-20 20-30 30-40 40-50 50-60 60-70 Total
Frequency f1 5 9 12 f2 3 2 40
OR
The marks obtained by 100 students of a class in an examination are given below.
Marks Number of students
0-5 2
5-10 5
10-15 6
15-20 8
20-25 10
25-30 25
23
30-35 20
35-40 18
40-45 4
45-50 2
Draw ‘a less than’ type cumulative frequency curves (ogive). Hence find median.
Solution:
Class Frequency Cumulative Frequency
0-10 f1 f1
10-20 5 5+f1
20-30 9 14+f1
30-40 12
40-50 26+f1
f2
50-60 26+f1 f 2
3
60-70
2 29+f1 f 2
31+f1 f 2
Total=40=n
f1 5 9 12 f 2 3 2 40
f1 + f 2 =40–31=9 ... i
Median=32.5 Given
Since,Median class is 30-40
l 30, h 10,cf 14 f1 ,f 12
n
2 cf
Median l h
f
40
2 14 f1
32.5 30 10
12
10
2.5
12 20 14 f1
3 6 f1
f1 3
On putting in (i),
f1 + f 2 =9
f 2 =9–3 f1 3
6
24
OR
Marks Number of students Marks less than Cumulative frequency
0-5 2 Less than 5 2
5-10 5 Less than 10 7
10-15 6 Less than 15 13
15-20 2 Less than 20 21
20-25 10 Less than 25 31
25-30 25 Less than 30 56
30-35 20 Less than 35 76
35-40 18 Less than 40 94
40-45 4 Less than 45 98
45-50 2 Less than 50 100
Let us now plot the points corresponding to the ordered pairs (5, 2), (10, 7), (15, 13), (20, 21),
(25, 31), (30, 56), (35, 76), (40, 94), (45, 98), (50, 100). Join all the points by a smooth curve.
n 100
Locate = 50 on Y-axis
2 2
From this point draw a line parallel to X-axis cutting the curve at a point. From this point, draw
a perpendicular to X-axis. The point of intersection of perpendicular with the X-axis determines
the median of the data. Therefore median = 28.8
25
26
CBSE Class 10
Mathematics
Previous Year Question Paper 2020
Series: JBB/5 Code no. 30/5/3
• Please check that this question paper contains 23 printed pages.
• Code number given on the right hand side of the question paper should be
written on the title page of the answer-book by the candidate.
• Please check that this question paper contains 40 questions.
• Please write down the Serial Number of the question in the answer-
book before attempting it.
• 15 minutes of time has been allotted to read this question paper. The
question paper will be distributed at 10.15 a.m. From 10.15 a.m. to 10.30
a.m., the students will read the question paper only and will not write any
answer on the answer script during this period.
MATHEMATICS (Standard) - Theory
Time Allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 80
General Instructions:
Read the following instructions very carefully and strictly follow them :
1. Please check that this question paper contains 23 printed pages.
2. The question paper comprises of four sections – A, B, C and D. This
question paper carries 40 questions. All questions are compulsory.
3. Section A: Question numbers 1 to 20 comprises of 20 questions of one
mark each.
4. Section B: Question numbers 21 to 26 comprises of 6 questions of two
mark each.
Class X Mathematics www.vedantu.com 1
5. Section C: Question numbers 27 to 34 comprises of 8 questions of three
mark each.
6. Section D: Question numbers 35 to 40 comprises of 6 questions of four
mark each.
7. There is no overall choice in the paper. However, internal choice is
provided in 2 questions of one mark, 2 questions of one mark, 2 questions
of two marks, 3 questions of three marks and three questions of four marks.
You have to attempt only one of the choices in such questions.
8. In addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and
question, wherever necessary.
9. Use of calculators is not permitted.
SECTION-A
1. The value(s) of k for which the quadratic equation 2x 2 +kx+2=0 has equal
roots, is 1 Mark
(A) 4
(B) ±4
(C) -4
(D) 0
Ans: Given quadratic equation is 2x 2 +kx+2=0 .
For equal roots, D =0
⇒ b 2 -4ac=0
Here, a=2, b=k, and c=2
⇒ k 2 -4×2×2=0
⇒ k 2 -16 =
0
k 2 = 16
∴ k =±4
Therefore, the values of k is ±4 .
Hence, option (B) is correct.
Class X Mathematics www.vedantu.com 2
2. Which of the following is not an A.P.? 1 Mark
(A) -1.2,0.8, 2.8,…
(B) 3. 3+ 2 . 3+2 2 . 3+3 2
4 7 9 12
(C) , , , ,......
3 3 3 3
-1 -2 -3
(D) , , ,......
5 5 5
Ans: (A) We have,
⇒ a 2 -a1 =a 3 -a 2 =2
Hence, it is an A.P.
(B) We have,
⇒ a 2 -a1 =a 3 -a 2 = 2
Hence, it is an A.P.
2
(C) We have, a 2 -a1 =1 and a 3 -a 2 = .
3
So, a 2 -a1 ≠ a 3 -a 2 .
Hence, it is not an A.P.
(D) We have,
−1
a 2 -a1 =a 3 -a 2 =
5
Hence, it is an A.P.
Therefore, option (C) is correct.
3. The radius of a sphere (in cm) whose volume is 12πcm 3 , is 1 Mark
(A) 3
(B) 3 3
2
(C) 3 3
Class X Mathematics www.vedantu.com 3
1
(D) 3 3
4
Ans: Volume of a sphere = πr 3
3
Given, Volume of the sphere =12πr cm3
On equating we get,
4
⇒ πr 3 =12πr cm3
3
12π×3 3
⇒ r3 = cm
4π
⇒ r 3 =9 cm3
⇒ r 3 = ( 3) cm3
2
2
⇒ r= ( 3) 3 cm
2
Therefore, radius of the sphere is ( 3) 3 cm .
Hence, option (C) is correct.
4. The distance between the points (m, -n) and (-m, n) is 1 Mark
(A) m 2 +n 2
(B) m+n
(C) 2 m 2 +n 2
(D) 2m 2 +2n 2
Ans: Let the points be A(m, -n) and B(-m, n).
From distance formula we get,
( -m-m ) + ( n- ( -n ) )
2 2
⇒ AB=
( −2m ) + ( 2n )
2 2
⇒ AB=
⇒ AB= 4m 2 +4n 2
Class X Mathematics www.vedantu.com 4
⇒ AB=2 m 2 +n 2
Therefore, the distance between the points (m, -n) and (-m, n) is 2 m 2 +n 2 .
Hence, option (C) is correct.
5. In Figuire-1, from an external point P, two tangents PQ and PR are
drawn to a circle of radius 4 cm with centre O. If ∠QPR=90o , then length
of PQ is 1 Mark
(A) 3 cm
(B) 4 cm
(C) 2 cm
(D) 2 2 cm
Ans: Given, ∠QPR=90o
Since, the line from the centre of the circle bisects the angle between the
tangents.
Therefore, ∠OPQ=45o .
In ΔPOQ , we have
OQ
⇒ tan45o =
PQ
Class X Mathematics www.vedantu.com 5
OQ
⇒ 1=
PQ
⇒ PQ=OQ
⇒ PQ=4cm
Therefore, PQ is 4cm.
Hence, option (B) is correct.
6. On dividing a polynomial p(x) by x 2 -4 , quotient and remainder are found
to be x and 3 respectively. The polynomial p(x) is 1 Mark
(A) 3x 2 +x-12
(B) x 3 -4x+3
(C) x 2 +3x-4
(D) x 3 -4x-3
Ans: As dividend = (divisor × quotient)+remainder
⇒ p ( x ) ( x 2 -4 )×x +3
⇒ p ( x ) =x 2 -4x+3
Therefore, polynomial p(x) is x 2 -4x+3 .
AD 3
7. In Figure-2, DE || BC. If = and AE = 2.7 cm, then EC is equal to
DB 2
1 Mark
(A) 2.0 cm
(B) 1.8 cm
(C) 4.0 cm
(D) 2.7 cm
Class X Mathematics www.vedantu.com 6
Ans: Given, DE || BC.
AD AE
Therefore, =
DB EC
3 2.7 cm
⇒ =
2 EC
2×2.7cm
⇒ EC=
3
⇒ EC = 1.8 cm
Therefore, EC is equal to .
Hence, option (B) is correct.
8. The point on the x-axis which is equidistant from (-4, 0) and (10, 0) is
1 Mark
(A) (7, 0)
(B) (5, 0)
(C) (0, 0)
(D) (3, 0)
Ans: Let the point on the x-axis is P(x, 0) which is equidistant from A(-4, 0)
and B(10, 0).
We have, AP = PB
Using distance formula, we get
Class X Mathematics www.vedantu.com 7
( x- ( -4 ) ) + ( 0-0 ) = (10-x ) + ( 0-0 )
2 2 2 2
⇒
Squaring both the sides,
⇒ ( x+4 ) = (10-x )
2 2
⇒ x 2 +8x+16=100-20x+x 2
⇒ 8x+20x=100-16
⇒ 28x=84
⇒ x=3
Therefore, (3, 0) is equidistant from (-4, 0) and (10, 0).
Hence, option (D) is correct.
Or
The centre of a circle whose end points of a diameter are (-6, 3) and (6, 4)
is 1 Mark
(A) (8, -1)
(B) (4, 7)
7
(C) 0,
2
7
(D) 4,
2
Ans: Let centre be O(x, y) and end points of the diameter be A(-6, 3) and B(6,
4).
Since, centre is the midpoint of diameter. So,
-6+6 3+4
⇒ x= and y=
2 2
Class X Mathematics www.vedantu.com 8
7
⇒ x=0 and y=
2
7
Therefore, centre of the circle is 0, .
2
Hence, option (C) is correct.
9. The pair of linear equations 1 Mark
3x 5y
+ =7 and 9x+10y=14
2 3
(A) consistent
(B) inconsistent
(C) consistent with one solution
(D) consistent with many solutions
3x 5y
Ans: Given + =7 and 9x+10y=14
2 3
3 5
Here, a1 = , b1 = , c1 =7, a1 =9, b1 =10 and c1 =14 .
2 3
3 5
a b c 7
⇒ 1 = 2 , 1 = 3 and 1 =
a 2 9 b 2 10 c 2 14
a1 1 b1 1 c 1
⇒ = , = and 1 =
a 2 9 b2 6 c2 2
a1 b1 c1
∴ = ¹
a 2 b1 c1
Therefore, these lines equation intersect each other at one point and only have
one possible solution.
Hence, the pair of linear equation is inconsistent.
Hence, option (B) is correct.
10. In Figure-3, PQ is tangent to the circle with centre at O, at the point B.
Class X Mathematics www.vedantu.com 9
If ∠AOB=100o , then ∠ABP is equal to 1 Mark
(A) 50o
(B) 40o
(C) 60o
(D) 80o
Ans: In ΔAOB, AO=OB
∴∠OAB=∠OBA=40o
Since PQ is tangent at the point B, ∠OBP=90o
⇒ ∠OBP = ∠OBA + ∠ABP
⇒ 90=
o
40o + ∠ABP
⇒ ∠ABP=90o -40o
⇒ ABP=50o
Therefore, ∠ABP is equal to 50o .
Hence, option (A) is correct.
Fill in the blanks in question numbers 11 to 15.
1+tan 2 A
11. Simplest form of is _________. 1 Mark
1+cot 2 A
1+tan 2 A
Ans: can be simplified as
1+cot 2 A
1+tan 2 A sec 2 A
=
1+cot 2 A cosec 2 A
Class X Mathematics www.vedantu.com 10
1 sin 2 A
⇒ ×
cos 2 A 1
⇒ tan 2 A
12. If the probability of an event E happening is 0.023, then P E = ( )
_________. 1 Mark
Ans: Given, P ( E ) =0.023 .
( )
As, P ( E ) +P E =1
⇒ 0.023+P ( E ) = 1
⇒ P ( E ) =1-0.023
⇒ P ( E ) =0.977
Therefore. P ( E ) =0.977
13. All concentric circles _________ to each other. 1 Mark
Ans: All concentric circles are similar to each other.
14. The probability of an event that is sure to happen, is _________.
1 Mark
Ans: The probability of an event that is sure to happen is .
15. AOBC is a rectangle whose three vertices are A(0, -3), O(0. 0) and B(4,
0). The length of its diagonal is _________. 1 Mark
Ans:
Class X Mathematics www.vedantu.com 11
( 4-0 ) + ( 0- ( -3) )
2 2
Length of diagonal AB =
( 25) + ( 3)
2 2
=
= 25
=5
Therefore, length of diagonal is 5 units.
Answer the following question numbers 16 to 20.
16. Write the value of sin 2 30o +cos 2 30o . 1 Mark
Ans: As, sin 2θ+cos 2θ=1
∴ sin 2 30o +cos 2 30o =
1
17. Form a quadratic polynomial, the sum and product of whose zeroes are
(-3) and 2 respectively. 1 Mark
Ans: Given, sum of zeroes =-3 and product of zeroes =2
The quadratic equation is given by
x2-(sum of zeroes)x+(product of zeroes) = 0
x2-(-3)x+(2)=0
x2+3x+2=0
Or
Can (x2-1) be a remainder while dividing x 4 -3x+5x-9 by ( x 3 +3 ) ?
Justify your answer with reasons. 1 Mark
Ans: On dividing x 4 -3x+5x-9 by ( x 3 +3) we get (5x+9) as a remainder.
x 2 -6
x 2 +3 x 4 -3x 2 +5x-9
x 4 +3x 2
-6x 2 +5x-9
-6x 2 -18
5x+9
Class X Mathematics www.vedantu.com 12
Therefore, ( x 2 -1) can’t be a remainder while dividing x 4 -3x 2 +5x-9 by ( x 2 +3)
.
18. Find the sum of the first 100 natural numbers. 1 Mark
Ans: Let, the sum be s100 =1+2+3+...+100
Here, a=1, d=1, n=100 and l =100
n
As, s n = ( a+l )
2
100
⇒ s100 = (1+l00 )
2
⇒ s100 =5050
Therefore, the sum of the first 100 natural numbers is 5050.
19. The LCM of two numbers is 182 and their HCF is 13. If one of the
numbers is 26, find the other. 1 Mark
Ans: Let the other number be x.
Product of number =LCM×HCF
⇒ 26×x=182×13
⇒ x=91
Therefore, other number is 91.
20. In Figure-4, the angle of elevation of the top of a tower from a point C
on the ground, which is 30 m away from the foot of the tower, is 30o. Find
the height of the tower. 1 Mark
Class X Mathematics www.vedantu.com 13
Ans: Let the tower be AB.
Since the tower is vertical, therefore ∠ABC=90o .
AB
In ΔABC, tab30o =
BC
1 AB
⇒ =
3 30
⇒ AB=10 3
Therefore, height of the tower is 10 3 .
SECTION-B
Question numbers 21 to 26 carry 2 marks each.
21. A cone and a cylinder have the same radii but the height of the cone is
3 times that of the cylinder. Find the ratio of their volumes. 2 Marks
Ans: Let radius of cone = radius of cylinder =r and height of cylinder be h,
then height of cone will become 3h.
1
Volume of a cone = πr 2 H
3
1
⇒ Volume of given cone = πr 2 ( 3h )
3
= πr 2 h
Volume of a cylinder = πr 2 H
Volume of given cylinder = πr 2 h
Volume of the cone πr 2 h
Therefore, =
Volume of the cylinder πr 2 h
Volume of the cone 1
⇒ =
Volume of the cylinder 1
Therefore, ratio of volume of cone to volume of cylinder is 1:1.
Class X Mathematics www.vedantu.com 14
22. In Figure-5, a quadrilateral ABCD is drawn to circumscribe a circle.
Prove that AB+CD=BC+AD . 2 Marks
Ans: As we know, length of tangents drawn from an external point are equal.
Therefore, we can write
⇒ AP=AS ---(1)
⇒ BP=BQ ---(2)
⇒ CR=CQ ---(3)
⇒ BR=DS ---(4)
On adding equation (1), (2), (3) and (4), we get
⇒ AP+BP+CR+DR=AS+BQ+CQ+DS
⇒ (AP+BP)+(CR+DR)=(AS+DS)+(BQ+CQ)
⇒ AB+CD=AD+BC
Hence, proved that AB+CD=AD+BC
Or
In Figure-6, find the perimeter of ΔABC , if AP=12 cm . 2 Marks
Class X Mathematics www.vedantu.com 15
Ans: As we know, tangents drawn from an external point are equal.
Therefore, BD=BP , CD=CQ and AP=Q.
Perimeter of Δ ABC = AB+BC+CA
=AB+BD+CD+AC
=AP+ AQ
=2Ap
=2×12
=24
Therefore, perimeter of Δ ABC is 24 cm.
23.Find the mode of the following distribution:
Marks: 0-12 10-20 20-30 30-40 40-50 50-60
Number of
4 6 7 12 5 6
students
2 Marks
Ans: Here, modal class is 30-40.
f1 -f 0
Mode=l+ ×h
2f1 -f 0 -f 2
12 − 7
⇒ Mode=30+ × 10
2 × (12 ) − 7 − 5
⇒ Mode=34.16
Therefore, mode is 34. 16.
QB DR
24. In Figure-7, if PQ || BC and PR || CD, prove that = . 2 Marks
AQ AR
Class X Mathematics www.vedantu.com 16
Ans: Since, PQ || BC in ΔABC
By basic proportionality theorem, we get
AQ AP
⇒ = --- (1)
AB AC
In ΔACD , PR || CD
By basic proportionality theorem, we get
AP AR
⇒ = --- ( 2 )
AC AD
From and , we get
AB AD
⇒ =
AQ AR
AQ+QB AR+RD
⇒ =
AQ AR
QB RD
⇒ 1+ =1+
AQ AR
QB RD
⇒ =
AQ AR
QB RD
Hence, proved that = .
AQ AR
25. Show that 5+2 7 is an irrational number, where 7 is given to be an
irrational number. 2 Marks
Ans: Let 5+2 7 is a rational number.
So, we can write
P
⇒ 5+2 7 =
q
P 5
⇒ 7= =
2q 2
Class X Mathematics www.vedantu.com 17
P 5
p, q, 5 and 2 are integers. So, - is a rational number.
2q 2
Therefore, 7 is also a rational number.
But 7 is given to be an irrational number.
This is a contradiction which raised due to our assumption that 5 + 2 7 is a
rational number.
Therefore, 5 + 2 7 is an irrational number.
Or
Check whether 12n can end with the digit 0 for any natural number n.
2 Marks
Ans: We can write, 12n = ( 2n ×3) .
n
If a number ends with then it is divisible by 5. But, prime factorisation of 12n
does not contains 5.
Therefore, 12n can’t end with the digit 0 for any natural number n.
26. If A, B and C are interior angles of a ΔABC , then show that
B+C A
cos =sin . 2 Marks
2 2
Ans: In ∆ABC, ∠Α + ∠B + ∠C =180o or A+B+C=180o.
B+C=180o-A
B+C
L.H.S. =cos
2
180o − A
=cos
2
A
=cos 90o −
2
A
=sin
2
Class X Mathematics www.vedantu.com 18
B+C A
Therefore, cos =sin .
2 2
SECTION-C
Question number 27 to 34 carry 3 marks each.
27. Prove that: ( sin 4θ-cos 4θ+1) cosec 2θ=2 3 Marks
Ans: On simplification we get,
( sin θ-cos θ+1) cosec θ= ( ( sin θ ) - ( cos θ ) )
2 2
4 4 2 2 2
+1 cosec 2θ
( sin θ-cos θ+1) cosec θ= ( sin θ+cos θ )( sin θ+cos θ ) +1 cosec θ
4 4 2 2 2 2 2 2
As sin 2θ+cos 2θ=1 , we get
⇒ ( sin 4θ-cos 4θ+1) cosec 2θ= ( sin 2θ-cos 2θ ) +1 cosec 2θ
⇒ ( sin 4θ-cos 4θ+1) cosec 2θ= 1-cos 2θ+sin 2θ cosec 2θ
⇒ ( sin 4θ-cos 4θ+1) cosec 2 = sin 2θ+sin 2θ cosec 2θ
⇒ ( sin 4θ-cos 4θ+1) cosec 2θ=2sin 2θcosec 2θ
1
⇒ ( sin 4θ-cos 4θ+1) cosec 2θ=2sin 2θ×
sin 2θ
⇒ ( sin 4θ-cos 4θ+1) cosec 2θ=2
Hence, proved that ( sin 4θ-cos 4θ+1) cosec 2θ=2 .
28. Find the sum: (-5)+(-8)+(-11)+…+(-230) 3 Marks
Ans: a1=-5, a2=-8, a3=-11
⇒ a 2 -a1 =a 3 -a 2 =-3
It is an A.P., in which first term is -5, common difference is -8 and last term is -
230.
∴ a1 =-5d, d=-3 and l=-230
Class X Mathematics www.vedantu.com 19
As l=a1 + ( n-1) d where n is number of terms in the A.P.
From this we get,
⇒ -230=-5+(n-1)(-3)
⇒ -230+5-3=3n+3
⇒ -230+3-3=-3n
⇒ 3n=228
⇒ n=76
n
As we know, sum of the series ( s n ) = ( a+l )
2
76
⇒ (sn ) = ( -5-230 )
2
76
⇒ (sn ) = × ( −235 )
2
⇒ ( s n ) = − 8930
Therefore, the sum of he given series is -8930.
29. Construct a ∆ ABC with sides BC=6 cm, AB=5 cm and ∠ABC=60o .
3
Then construct a triangle whose sides are of the corresponding sides of
4
∆ ABC . 3 Marks
Ans: Construction of ∆ ABC:
(1) Draw a line segment AB of length 5 cm.
(2) Draw a line segment BC by making an angle of 60o from point B.
(3) Join A and C to get the required ∆ ABC.
3
Now, construction of ΔA'BC' whose sides are of the corresponding sides of
4
∆ ABC are as follows:
(1) Draw a ∆ ABC with sides BC= 6cm , AB = 5 cm and ∠ABC=60o .
(2) On opposite side of vertex A, draw a ray BX making an acute angle with
Class X Mathematics www.vedantu.com 20
BC.
(3) On the line segment BX, locate four points B1,B2,B3 and B4.
(4) Join B4 and C. Draw a line through B3 parallel to B4C intersecting BC at
C
(5) Draw a line parallel to AC through C intersecting AB at A.
Hence, we obtained the required ΔA'BC' .
Or
Draw a circle of radius 3.5 cm . Take a point P outside the circle at a
distance of 7 cm from the centre of the circle and construct a pair of
tangents to the circle from that point. 3 Marks
Ans: Construction:
(1) Draw a line OP=6 cm.
(2) Draw a circle of radius 3.5 cm with O as centre.
(3) Draw a perpendicular bisector of OP that cuts OP at M.
(4) With M as a centre and MP (or OP) as radius, draw a circle which
intersects the first circle at A and B.
(5) Join PA and PB.
PA and PB are the required tangents.
Class X Mathematics www.vedantu.com 21
30. In Figure-8, ABCD is a parallelogram. A semicircle with a centre O
and the diameter AB has been drawn and it passes through D. If AB=12
cm and OD ⊥ AB , then find the area of the shaded region. (Use π =3.14)
3 Marks
Ans: Given, Diameter = AB = 12 cm
AO=OB=OD=6 cm
1
×π× ( 6 )
2
⇒ area of OBD =
4
=28.26cm 2
Area of parallelogram ABCD = base× height
= 12×6
=72 cm2
Area of shaded region = area of ABCD – area of OBD
=(72-28.26) cm2
= 43.74 cm2
Class X Mathematics www.vedantu.com 22
Therefore, area of shaded region is 43.74 cm2.
31. Read the following passage and answer the questions given at the end:
Diwali Fair A game in a booth at a Diwali Fair involves using a spinner
first. Then, if the spinner stops on an even number, the player is allowed
to pick a marble from a bag. The spinner and the marbles in the bag are
represented in Figure-9.Prizes are given, when a black marble is picked.
Shweta plays the game once.
(i) What is the probability that she will be allowed to pick a marble from
the bag?
(ii) Suppose she is allowed to pick a marble from the bag, what is the
probability of getting a prize, when it is given that the bag contains 20
balls out of which 6 are black? 3 Marks
Ans: The player is allowed to pick a marble from a bag if the spinner stops on
an even number.
So, the favourable outcomes are 2, 4, 6, 8 and 10.
Number of favourable outcomes =5
Total number of outcomes =6
(i) The probability that she will be allowed to pick a marble from the bag
Number of favourable outcomes
=
Total number of outcomes
5
=
6
(ii) The bag contains 20 balls out of which 6 are black and prizes are given,
when a black marble is picked.
Number of favourable outcomes =6
Class X Mathematics www.vedantu.com 23
Total number of outcomes =20
Number of favourable outcomes
The probability of getting a prize =
Total number of outcomes
6
=
20
3
=
10
1
32. A fraction becomes when 1 is subtracted from the numerator and it
3
1
becomes when 8 is added to its denominator. Find the fraction.
4
3 Marks
x
Ans: Let the numerator be x and denominator be y. So, fraction is .
y
1
Given, when is subtracted from the numerator the fraction becomes i.e.,
3
x-1 1
=
y 3
⇒ 3(x-1)y
⇒ 3x-3=y
⇒ 3x-y=3 ---(1)
1
Also given, the fraction becomes when 8 is added to its denominator i.e.,
4
x 1
=
y+8 4
⇒ 4x=y+8
⇒ y=4x-8--- (1)
Putting (2) in (1), we get
3x+4x+8=3
-x=-5
Class X Mathematics www.vedantu.com 24
x=5
Putting the value of x in (1), we get
y=4×5-8
y=4×5-8
y=12
x 5
Therefore, the fraction is i.e., .
y 12
Or
The present age of a father is three years more than three times the age of
his son. Three years hence the father’s age will be 10 years more than twice
the age of the son. Determine their present ages. 3 Marks
Ans: Let the son’s age be x.
Given, age of the father is three years more than three times the age of his son.
Therefore, father’s age is 3x+3.
After three years,
Age of the son =x+3
Age of the father =3x+3+3 ---(1)
But, according to question, after three years the father’s age will be 10 years
more than twice the age of the son.
Age of the father 10+2(x+3) ---(2)
From (1) and (2), we get
⇒ 3x+6=10+2(x+3)
⇒ 3x+6=10+2x+6
⇒ x=10
So, the present age of son is 10 years.
Present age of father =3×10+3
=33 years
Therefore, the present age of son is 10 years and father is 33 years.
Class X Mathematics www.vedantu.com 25
33. Find the ratio in which the y-axis divides the line segment joining the
points (6, -4) and (-2, 7). Also find the point of intersection. 3 Marks
Ans: Let the y-axis divides the line segment joining the points (6, -4) and (-2, -
7) in the ratio k:1 and the point be (0, y).
From section formula we know that if a point (x, y) divides the line joining the
mx 2 +nx1 my 2 +ny1
points (x1, y1) and (x2, y2) in the ratio m : n, then ( x,y ) = ,
m+n m+n
Using this, we get
k× ( -2 ) +1×6
⇒ 0=
k+1
⇒ -2k+6=0
⇒ 2k=6
⇒ k=3
Therefore, the y-axis divides the line segment joining the points (6, -4) and (-2,
-7) in 3:1.
Now,
3× ( -7 ) +1× ( -4 )
Coordinate of point of intersection = 0,
3+1
-25
= 0,
4
-25
Therefore, point of intersection is 0, .
4
Or
Show that the points (7, 10), (-2, 5) and (3, -4) are vertices of an isosceles
right triangle. 3 Marks
Ans: Let A(7, 10), B(-2, 5) and C(3, -4).
Using distance formula,
( -2-7 ) + ( 5-10 )
2 2
⇒ AB=
( -9 ) + ( -5)
2 2
=
Class X Mathematics www.vedantu.com 26
= 106
( 3+2 ) + ( -4-5)
2 2
⇒ BC=
( 5) + ( -9 )
2 2
=
= 106
( 3-7 ) + ( -4-10 )
2 2
⇒ AC=
( −4 ) + ( -14 )
2 2
=
= 212
We can see that AB = BC.
Also,
⇒ AB2 +BC2 =106+106
= 212
= AC2
Therefore, by Pythagoras theorem Δ ABC is a right-angled triangle.
Hence, the points (7, 10) (-2, 5) and (3, -4) are vertices of an isosceles right
triangle.
34. Use Euclid Division Lemma to show that the square of any positive
integer is either of the form 3q or 3q+1 for some integer q. 3 Marks
Ans: We know from Euclid Division Lemma that if a and b are two positive
integers then a=bm+r where 0 ≤ 0r<b.
Now, let the positive integer be a and b=3.
r is an integer greater than or equal to zero and less than 3. Therefore, r can be
either 0,1 or 2.
For r=0, the equation becomes
⇒ a=3m+0
⇒ a=3m
Squaring both the sides,
Class X Mathematics www.vedantu.com 27
⇒ a 2 = ( 3m )
2
⇒ a 2 =3 ( 3m )
2
Let 3m 2 =q .
⇒ a 2 =3q
For r=1, the equation becomes
⇒ a=3m+1
Squaring both the sides,
⇒ a 2 = ( 3m+1)
2
⇒ a 2 =9m 2 +6m+1
⇒ a 2 =3 ( 3m 2 +2m ) +1
Let q=3m 2 +2m .
⇒ a 2 =3q+1
For r=2, the equation becomes
⇒ a=3m+2
Squaring both the sides,
⇒ a 2 = ( 3m+2 )
2
⇒ a 2 =9m 2 +12m+4
⇒ a 2 =9m 2 +12m+3+1
⇒ a 2 =3 ( 3m 2 +4m+1) +1
Let q=3m 2 +4m+1 .
⇒ a 2 =3q+1
Hence proved that square of any positive integer is either of the form 3q or 3q+1
for some integer q.
SECTION-D
Question numbers 35 to 40 carry 4 marks each.
Class X Mathematics www.vedantu.com 28
35. Sum of the areas of two squares is 544m2. If the difference of their
perimeter is 32m, find the sides of the two squares. 4 Marks
Ans: Let the sides of two squares be x and y where x>y.
Perimeter of first square =4x
Perimeter of second square =4y
Given, the difference of their perimeter is 32m.
⇒ 4x-4y=32
⇒ x-y=8
⇒ x=5+y
Area of first square =x2
Area of second square =y2
Given, sum of the areas of two squares is 544 m2.
⇒ x 2 +y 2 =544
Putting x=8+y, we get
⇒ ( y+8 ) +y 2 =544
2
⇒ y 2 +16y+64+y 2 =544
⇒ 2y 2 +16y-480=0
⇒ y 2 +8y-240=0
⇒ y 2 +20y-12y-240-0
⇒ y ( y+20 ) -12 ( y+20 ) =0
⇒ ( y+20 )( y-12 ) =0
⇒ ( y=-20 ) or ( y=12 )
Length cannot be negative. So, y ≠ −20 .
∴ y=12m
As, x=8+y
x=8+12
x=20
Class X Mathematics www.vedantu.com 29
∴x=20
Hence, the sides of two squares are 20m and 12m.
Or
A motorboat whose speed is 18 km/h in still water takes 1 hour more to go
24 km upstream than to return downstream to the same spot. Find the
speed of the stream. 4 Marks
Ans: Let the speed of the stream be x km/h.
Given, speed of boat in still water is 18 km/h .
Speed of boat in downstream = speed of boat in still water + speed of the stream
=(18+x) km/h
Speed of boat in upstream = speed of boat in still water - speed of the stream
=(18-x) km/h
As given that motorboat takes 1 hour more to go upstream than to return
downstream to the same spot.
So, we can write
Time taken for upstream = time taken for downstream +1
Distance
As Time= , we can write
Speed
Distance covered in upstream Distance covered in downstream
⇒ = +1
Speed of upstream Speed of downstream
24 24
⇒ = +1
18-x 18+x
⇒ 24 (18+x ) =24 (18-x ) +18 (18-x )(18+x )
On simplifying we get,
⇒ ( 24×18 ) +24x= ( 24×18 ) -24x+ ( (18×18 ) -s 2 )
⇒ x 2 +48x-324=0
⇒ x 2 +54x-6x-324=0
⇒ x ( x+54 ) -6 ( x+54 ) =0
⇒ ( x+54 )( x-6 ) =0
Class X Mathematics www.vedantu.com 30
⇒ ( x=-54 ) or ( x=6 )
Speed of stream cannot be negative. So, x ≠ −54 .
Therefore, speed of stream is 6 km/h.
36. For the following data, draw a ‘less than’ ogive and hence find the
median of the distribution.
Age
(in 0-10 10-20 20-30 30-40 40-50 50-60 60-70
years)
Number
of 5 15 20 25 15 11 9
persons:
4 Marks
Ans: Plotting age (in years) on the x-axis and cumulative frequency on y-axis.
Age Numbers of persons
Less than 10 5
Less than 20 20
Less than 30 40
Less than 40 65
Less than 50 80
Less than 60 91
Less than 70 100
Here, we have N=100
N
⇒ =50
2
Class X Mathematics www.vedantu.com 31
From the curve we get x-ordinate as 33.5 when ordinate is 50.
Therefore, the median of the given distribution is 33.5.
Or
The distribution given below shows the number of wickets taken by
bowlers in one-day cricket matches. Find the mean and the median of the
number of wickets taken.
Number
of 20-60 60-100 100-140 140-180 180-220 220-260
wickets:
Number
of 7 5 16 12 2 3
bowlers:
4 Marks
Ans: Assuming a=120 and h=40.
Number
Number
of
of
xi ui =
( x -a )
i
fiu i cf
bowlers h
wickets:
(f)
20-60 7 40 -2 -14 7
60-100 5 80 -1 -5 12
100-140 16 120 0 0 28
140-180 12 160 1 12 40
180-220 2 200 2 4 42
220-260 3 240 3 9 45
We get, ∑ f =40
i
and ∑ f u =6 .
i i
Mean = a+ ∑
fi u i
×h
∑ fi
6 × 40
= 120 +
45
=125.33
We have, N=45
N
⇒ =22.5
2
Class X Mathematics www.vedantu.com 32
Therefore, Median class = 100-140, Cumulative frequency = 28, i = 100, cf=12,
f=16 and h=40.
N
2 -cf
Median=l+ ×h
f
22.5 − 12
⇒ Median=l00+ ×40
16
= 126.25
Therefore, the mean is 125.33 and the median is 126.25 of the number of wickets
taken.
37. A statue 1.6 m tall, stand on the top of a pedestal. From a point on the
ground, the angle of elevation of the top of the statue is 60o and from the
same point the angle of elevation of the top of the pedestal is 45o. Find the
height of the pedestal. (Use 3=1.73 ) 4 Marks
Ans: Let the height of pedestal be h metres.
In ∆ ABD, we have
BD
⇒ tan45o =
AB
h
⇒1=
AB
⇒ AB=h--- (1)
Class X Mathematics www.vedantu.com 33
In ∆ ABC, we have
BC
⇒ tan60o =
AB
BD+DC
⇒ 3=
AB
h+1.6
⇒ 3=
AB
h+1.6
⇒ AB= --- ( 2 )
3
From (1) and (2), we get
h+1.6
⇒ h=
3
⇒ 3h=h+1.6
⇒ ( )
3-1 h=1.6
1.6
⇒ h=
( 3-1 )
1.6
⇒ h=
(1.73-1)
⇒ h=2.19
Therefore, the height of the pedestal is 2.19 m.
38. Obtain other zeroes of the polynomial
p ( x ) =2x 4 -x 3 -11x 2 +5x+5 if two zeroes are 5 and - 5 . 4 Marks
Ans: Two zeroes are 5 and - 5 .
So, we can write, x= 5 and x=- 5 .
We get, x- 5 and x+ 5 =0.
Multiplying both the factors we get,
Class X Mathematics www.vedantu.com 34
( )(
⇒ x- 5 x+ 5 =0 )
⇒ x 2 -5=0
x 2 -5 is a factor of p ( x ) =2x 4 -x 3 -11x 2 +5x+5 .
Dividing 2x 4 -x 3 -11x 2 +5x+5 by x 2 -5 , we get the quotient as 2x 2 -x-1 .
On factorising 2x 2 -x-1 , we get
⇒ 2x 2 -2x+x-1=0
⇒ 2x ( x-1) +1( x-1) =0
⇒ ( x-1)( 2x+1) =0
1
⇒ x=1, x=-
2
1
Therefore, other two zeroes of the polynomial are 1 and - .
2
Or
What minimum must be added to 2x 3 -3x 2 +6x+7 so that the resulting
polynomial will be divisible by x 2 -4x+8 ? 4 Marks
Ans:
2x+5
x -4x+8 2x -3x +6x+7
2 3 3
2x 3 -8x+16x
5x 2 -10x+7
5x 2 -20x+40
10x-33
For 2x 3 -3x 3 +6x+7 to be divisible by x 2 -4x+8 , remainder should be zero when
we divide 2x 3 -3x 3 +6x+7 by x 2 -4x+8 .
Dividing 2x 3 -3x 3 +6x+7 by x 2 -4x+8 , we get the remainder as 10x-33.
Therefore, we have to add –(10x-33) i.e., 33-10x so that the resulting polynomial
will be divisible by x2-4x+8.
39. In a cylindrical vessel of radius 10 cm, containing some water, 9000
Class X Mathematics www.vedantu.com 35
small spherical balls are dropped which are completely immersed in water
which raises the water level. If each spherical ball is of radius 0.5 cm, then
find the rise in the level of water in the vessel. 4 Marks
Ans: Given, Radius of spherical balls =0.5 cm
Radius of cylindrical vessel =10 cm
4
As we know, Volume of a sphere = ×π× ( radius )
3
3
4
⇒ Volume of 9000 spherical balls =9000 × ×π× ( radius of spherical ball )
3
3
4
⇒ Volume of 9000 spherical balls =9000 × ×π× ( 0.5 )
3
3
⇒ Volume of cylinder =π× ( radius of cylinder ) × ( rise in the level )
2
Now, Volume of cylinder Volume of 9000 spherical balls
4
⇒ π× (10 ) × ( rise in the level ) =9000× ×π× ( 0.5 )
2 3
3
⇒ Rise in the level = 15 cm
Therefore, the rise in the level of water in the vessel is 15 cm.
40. If a line is drawn parallel to one side of a triangle to intersect the other
two sides at distinct points, prove that the other two sides are divided in the
same ratio. 4 Marks
Ans: Consider a Δ ABC in which DE is drawn parallel to BC which intersects
the side AB and AC at D and E respectively.
Class X Mathematics www.vedantu.com 36
AD AE
We have to prove = .
DB EC
Construction: Join BE and CD and draw DQ ⊥ AC and EP ⊥ AC .
1
Area of ∆ADE= × base × height
2
1
⇒ Area of ΔADE= ×AD×EP
2
Also,
1
⇒ Area of ΔADE= ×AE×DQ
2
Similarly,
1
⇒ Area of ΔBDE= ×BD×EP
2
1
⇒ Area of ΔDEC= ×EC×DQ
2
On taking ratio we get,
1
Area of ΔADE 2 ×AD×EP
⇒ =
Area of ΔBDE 1 ×BD×EP
2
Area of ΔADE AD
⇒ = ---- (1)
Area of ΔBDE BD
Similarly,
Class X Mathematics www.vedantu.com 37
1
Area of ΔADE 2 ×AE×DQ
⇒ =
Area of ΔDEC 1 ×EC×DQ
2
Area of ΔADE AE
⇒ = − − − ( 2)
Area of ΔDEC EC
Also, in ∆ BDE and ∆ DEC has the same base DE and between the same
parallel lines BC and DE.
So, Area of ∆ BDE = Area of ∆ DEC ----(3)
Therefore, from equation (1), (2), and (3) we get
AD AE
⇒ =
DB EC
Hence proved that if a line is drawn parallel to one side of a triangle to
intersect the other two sides at distinct points, then the other two sides are
divided in the same ratio.
Class X Mathematics www.vedantu.com 38
CBSE-XII-2017 EXAMINATI CBSE – X – 2007 EXAMINATION
SCIENCE
SET-3 Paper & Solution
Time: 2½ Hrs. Max. Marks: 60
General Instructions:
1. The question paper comprises of two Sections, A and B. You are to attempt both the sections.
2. All questions are compulsory.
3. The candidates are advised to attempt all the questions of Section A and Section B separately.
4. There is no overall choice. However, internal choice has been provided in some questions. You are to attempt only
one option in such questions.
5. Question numbers 1–4 in Section A and 17, 18 in Section B are very short answer questions. These questions carry
one mark each.
6. Question numbers 5–8 in Section A and 19, 20 in Section B are short answer questions and carry two marks each.
7. Question numbers 9–14 in Section A and 21–23 in Section B are also short answer questions and carry three marks
each.
8. Question numbers 15, 16 in Section A and 24 in Section B are long answer questions and carry five marks each.
SECTION A
Question 1. Write the type of reactions in the following:
i) Reaction between an acid and a base
ii) Rusting of iron
Solution: i) Neutralization reaction
ii) Oxidation reaction
Marks: 1
Question 2. Give the names of the functional groups.
i. –CHO
ii. C = O
Solution: i) Aldehyde group
ii) Ketone group
Marks: 1
Question 3. Write the function of iris in the human eye?
Solution: Iris is a coloured muscular diaphragm that controls the amount of light entering the eye by
adjusting the size of the pupil.
Marks: 1
Question 4. What is the S.I. unit of electrical potential?
Solution: S.I. unit of electrical potential is Volt.
Marks: 1
Question 5. a) Give Arrhenius definition of an acid and a base.
b) Choose strong acid and strong base from the following:
CH3COOH, NH4OH, KOH, HCl
Solution: a) According to Arrhenius, a scientist, an acid is a substance which gives H+ ions in its aqueous
solution. Base is a substance which gives OH- ions in its aqueous solution.
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b) HCl – Strong Acid
KOH – Strong Base
Marks: 2
Question 6. What are esters? Write an equation to show the formation of an ester.
Solution: Esters are sweet smelling organic compounds. Their functional group is
R1COOR2, where R1 and R2 are alkyl radicals.
CH3COOH C2H5OH
H2SO4
CH3COOC2H5 H2O
Ethanoic acid (Ethanol) Warm Ethyl ethanoate (An ester)
Marks: 2
Question 7. What is geothermal energy? What are its advantages?
Solution: The heat energy available from the hot rocks present inside the earth is known as geothermal
energy.
Advantages of geothermal energy:
i) It is available throughout the year.
ii) Cost of production of electricity from the source of energy is very less.
iii) It does not cause any pollution.
Marks: 2
Question 8. An electric iron has a rating of 750 W, 220 V. Calculate
i) Current passing through it, and
ii) Its resistance, when in use.
Solution: Power, P = 750 W
Potential difference, V = 220 V
Current, I = ?
Resistance, R = ?
We Know P =VI
P 750
I 3.41 A
V 220
V 220
and R 64.51
I 3.41
Marks: 2
Question 9. Name the raw materials that are required for the manufacture of washing soda by Solvay
process. Describe the chemical reactions involved in the process.
Solution: The raw materials needed for the manufacture of washing soda are: NaCl (sodium chloride),
water, ammonia gas and limestone to give CO2 gas.
Chemical reactions involved:
NaCl + H2O + CO2 + NH3
NH4Cl + NaHCO3
2NaHCO3
Heat
Na2CO3 + CO2 + H2O
Na 2CO3 10H2O
Na 2CO3.10H2O
Sodium carbonate Crystals of Washing Soda
Marks: 3
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Question 10. Write about different chemical processes used for obtaining a metal from its oxides, for metals
low in the activity series, metals in the middle of activity series and metals towards the top of the activity
series.
Solution: Metals low in the activity series: Oxides of such metals can be reduced to metal by heating alone
in the air.
Example: HgS is cinnabar ore of mercury metal. This on heating in air changes to metal oxide and metal
oxide then on heating gets reduced to mercury metal.
2HgS 3O2
Heat
2HgO 2SO2
(air)
2HgO
Heat
2Hg O2
Mercury metal
Metals in the middle of activity series: Metals in the middle of the reactivity series are usually present as
sulphides or carbonates. These sulphides and carbonates are converted into metal oxides and then these
metal oxides are reduced to corresponding metals by reduction. Coke (carbon) acts as reducing agent.
Example:
2ZnS 3O2
2ZnO 2SO2
ZnO C
Heat
2Zn CO
(coke)
Metals on the top of the activity series: As these metals are quite reactive metals, their oxides are reduced by
electrolysis method. On passing the current through their molten state, we get the metals at the cathode.
Example:
2Al2O3
Current
4Al3+ 6O2
Enriched
Bauxite ore
At cathode 4Al3+ + 12e–
4Al
At anode: 6O2–
3O2 + 12e–
Marks: 3
Question 11. Explain the mechanism of the cleaning action of soaps.
Solution: Most of the dirt is oily in nature. The oil does not dissolve in water. Moreover, soap molecules are
sodium or potassium salts of long chair carboxylic acids. Each soap molecule has two parts which are (i)
ionic part and (ii) hydrocarbon chain. Ionic part is water-loving or hydrophilic and soluble in water. The
hydrocarbon chain is hydrophobic and is not soluble in water. Inside water, the soap molecules have a
unique orientation in which its clusters of molecules form a structure called micelle. In the micelle, the ionic
parts of soap molecules are oriented towards water and hydrocarbon chain tails away from water (as shown
in the diagram).
The oily dirt is collected in centre of the micelle and gets entrapped into it. These micelles stay in water as
colloids. Thus, dirt suspended in the micelles is easily rinsed away.
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Marks: 3
Question 12. A concave lens has focal length of 20 cm. At what distance from the lens a 5 cm tall object be
placed so that it forms an image at 15 cm from the lens? Also calculate the size of the image formed.
Solution: Focal length, f = –20cm,
Image distance, v = –15cm
Object height, h = 5 cm
Object distance, u = ?
Image height, h' = ?
1 1 1
v u f
1 1 1
u v f
1 1 1
u 15 20
1 4 3
u 60
1 1
u 60
u = –60 cm
h' v
h u
v
h' h
u
15 5 75
h 1.25 cm
60 60
Marks: 3
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Question 13. a) Why is the Solar Cooker box covered with a plane glass plate?
b) Why is energy of water flowing in a river considered to be an indirect form of solar energy?
c) Write one advantage of nuclear fission reaction.
Solution: a) The Solar Cooker box is covered with a plane glass plate to help in trapping the solar heat
inside the box through the greenhouse effect.
b) The water cycle in nature occurs due to energy of the sun. Solar energy causes the water to evaporate to
form clouds. These water vapours have potential energy. When clouds fall as rain, potential energy of water
vapours changes into kinetic energy of water. Some of this rain water flows into the rivers, thus kinetic
energy of river water can be considered as indirect form of solar energy.
c) Enormous amount of electrical energy can be produced from fission of 1 atomic mass unit.
Marks: 3
Question 14. a) What is meant by ‘Electric Resistance’ of a conductor?
b) A wire of length L and resistance R is stretched so that its length is doubled and the area of cross-section
is halved. How will its:
i) Resistance change? ii) Resistivity change?
Solution: a) 'Electric resistance' of a conductor is the amount of opposition it offers to the flow of electric
current through it. It is numerically equal to the ratio of potential difference across its ends to the current
flowing through it.
p.d. (V )
Resistance (R) =
Current ( I )
l
b) We know R
A
where, R is the resistance,
is the resistivity,
l is the length,
A is the area of cross-section.
When the length is doubled and the area of cross-section is halved, the resistance of the wire becomes
2l l
R' 4 4R
A/ 2 A
i) New Resistance will be four times of the original resistance.
ii) Resistivity will remain the same because it is a characteristic property of the material of the wire.
Marks: 3
Question 15. a) Name one main ore of zinc metal. Write its formula. How is this metal ore changed into its
oxide compound?
b) Explain in brief about electrolytic refining method.
OR
a) Why is sulphuric acid called ‘King of Chemicals’?
b) State two ways to prevent the rusting of iron.
c) Why should water be never added dropwise to concentrated sulphuric acid?
Solution: a) Ore of zinc. Zinc blend ore
Formula - ZnS
This ore is changed into metal oxide by roasting it in the presence of air.
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2ZnS 3O2
Roasting
2ZnO 2SO2
(air) (Heat)
b) Many metals like copper, zinc, tin, nickel, silver etc. are purified by electrolytic refining method. In this
method, the impure metal is made the anode and a thin strip of same pure metal is made the cathode. An
aqueous solution of that metal salt is used as an electrolyte. The apparatus is set up as shown in the diagram.
On passing current through the electrolyte, pure metal from the anode dissolves into the electrolyte. An
equivalent amount of the metal from the electrolyte gets deposited on the cathode. The impurities settle
down at the bottom of the anode.
OR
a) Sulphuric acid is used for the manufacture of many types of industrial compounds, so, it is called the
‘King of Chemicals’.
b) Two ways to prevent rusting of iron:
i) By changing the iron metal to its alloys like stainless-steel, cobalt steel etc.
ii) By painting the iron articles with paint etc.
c) Water should never be added to concentrated sulphuric acid, as this reaction is highly exothermic and the
heat generated may splash out solution from the container and cause some accident in the laboratory.
Marks: 5
Question 16. Define the term, ‘Critical Angle’. What is meant by ‘total internal reflection’?
State two essential conditions for total internal reflection to take place. With the help of a ray diagram,
illustrate an application of total internal reflection.
OR
a) What is meant by a ‘magnetic field’?
b) How is the direction of magnetic field at a point determined?
c) Describe an activity to demonstrate the direction of the magnetic field generated around a current carrying
conductor.
d) What is the direction of magnetic field at the centre of a current carrying circular loop?
Solution: 'Critical angle' is that angle of incidence in the denser medium for which the angle of refraction is
90o in the rarer medium. Total internal reflection: When a ray of light travels from a denser medium to a
rarer medium and its angle of incidence is greater than the critical angle, it does not come out in the rarer
medium but is totally reflected within the denser medium. This phenomenon is known as 'total internal
reflection'.
Two essential conditions for total internal reflection:
i) Ray of light must travel from denser to rarer medium.
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ii) The angle of incidence must be greater than the critical angle for the given pair of media.
An application of total internal reflection: Formation of rainbow in the sky after a rain shower is based on
the formation of natural spectrum and total internal reflection of light. Rainbow is caused by the dispersion
of sunlight by tiny water droplets present in the atmosphere. The water droplets act like small prisms. They
refract the incident sunlight and then reflect it internally and finally refract it again when it comes out of the
rain-drop. A rainbow is always formed in a direction opposite to that of the Sun.
OR
a) Magnetic field: The space surrounding a magnet in which magnetic force is exerted is called magnetic
field.
b) The direction of magnetic field at a point is determined by placing a small magnetic compass at that point.
The direction of north-pole of the compass needle gives the direction of magnetic field at a point.
c) Connect a thick copper wire in an electric circuit having a rectangular cardboard inserted in the wire as
shown in the diagram. Then sprinkle some iron filings uniformly on the card-board. Close the key so that the
current flows through the copper wire. Gently tap the card-board a few times. You will observe that the iron
filings align themselves showing a pattern of concentric circle around the copper wire.
The concentric circles represent the magnetic field lines around the current carrying conductor (copper
wire).
d) The direction of magnetic field at the centre of a current carrying circular loop is perpendicular to the
plane of the loop.
Marks: 5
SECTION-B
Question 17. Name the term for transport of food from leaves to other parts of the plant.
Solution: Translocation of food.
Marks: 1
Question 18. What is a neuron?
Solution: A neuron is the structural and functional unit of nervous system of animals.
Marks: 1
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Question 19. What is lymph? Write its important functions.
OR
State the two vital functions of the human kidney. Name the procedure used in the working of artificial
kidney.
Solution: Lymph is an extra cellular fluid of the body which is also involved in transportation. Lymph
transports digested and absorbed food fats from the intestine to the blood.
OR
Two vital functions of human kidney:
i) Excretion (Removal) of nitrogenous wastes from the body in the form of urine.
ii) Osmoregulation of ions and water content inside the body organs. The procedure used in the working of
artificial kidney is called dialysis.
Marks: 2
Question 20. Name the two hormones secreted by pancreas. Write one function of each hormone named.
Solution: Two hormones secreted by pancreas:
i) Insulin
ii) Glucagon
Insulin hormone controls the sugar level (glucose) in the blood to normal level.
Glucagon hormone increases the sugar level in the blood.
Marks: 2
Question 21. a) What is fertilization? Distinguish between external fertilization and internal fertilization.
b) What is the site of fertilization in human beings?
Solution: a) Fertilization is the process of fusion of male gamete with the female gamete (ovum) to produce
zygote cell.
External fertilization takes place outside the body of the female while internal fertilization takes place inside
the sexual tract of the female.
b) Fallopian tube (oviduct) is the site of fertilization in the human beings.
Marks: 3
Question 22. Define the terms:
i) Analogous
ii) Vestigial
iii) Sex chromosome
Solution: i) Analogous organs are those organs which have same function but different basic structures in
different animals.
Example: Wings of insects and wings of birds.
ii) Vestigial organs are the organs which are functionless and reduced in size in an organism but are
functional and of normal size in organisms of its race.
Example: Third eye membrane and tail bones in the human beings.
iii) Sex chromosomes are the chromosomes which determine the sex of the offspring (next generation).
Example: XX chromosomes in human female. XY chromosomes in human
male.
Marks: 3
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Question 23. Give any two ways in which biodegradable substances would affect the environment.
OR
Suggest three ways to maintain a balance between environment and development to survive.
Solution: Biodegradable substances affect the environment in the following ways:
i) These substances are decomposed by the action of micro-organisms. This causes foul smell.
ii) During the process of decaying of biodegradable substances, various types of gases are released which
cause air pollution.
OR
Three ways to maintain balance between environment and development:
i) Judicious use of natural resources and replenishing of such resources which can be replenished like
growing of trees in the forests.
ii) Protecting the wild animals from hunting and preserving their natural habitats.
iii) Managing the waste and pollutant materials by decomposing and recycling of such materials.
Marks: 3
Question 24. a) Draw the diagram of cross-section of a leaf and label the following in it:
i) Chloroplast
ii) Guard cell
iii) Lower epidermis
iv) Upper epidermis
b) Name the two stages in photosynthesis.
Solution: (a)
b) Two stages in photosynthesis:
i) Light reactions
ii) Dark reactions
Marks: 5
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CBSE-XII-2017 EXAMINATI CBSE – X – 2008 EXAMINATION
SCIENCE
SET-3 Paper & Solution
Time: 2½ Hrs. Max. Marks: 60
General Instructions:
1. The question paper comprises of two Sections, A and B. You are to attempt both the sections.
2. All questions are compulsory.
3. All questions of Section A and all questions of Section B are to be attempted separately.
4. There is no overall choice. However, internal choice has been provided in some questions. Only one option in such
questions is to be attempted.
5. Question numbers 1–6 in Section A and 17 to 19 in Section B are short answer questions. These questions carry one
mark each.
6. Question numbers 7–10 in Section A and 20 to 24 in Section B are short answer questions and carry two marks
each.
7. Question numbers 11–14 in Section A and 25 and 26 in Section B are also short answer questions and carry three
marks each.
8. Question numbers 15 and 16 in Section A and 27 in Section B are long answer questions and carry five marks each.
SECTION A
Question 1. Balance the following chemical equation:
Fe(s) + H2O(g) Fe3O4(s) + H2(g)
Solution: 3Fe(s) + 4H2O(l) Fe3O4(s) + 4H2(g)
Marks: 1
Question 2. Why is respiration considered an exothermic process?
Solution: Respiration is called an exothermic reaction because during respiration, breaking down of
glucose/food in the presence of oxygen occurs with release of energy.
Marks: 1
Question 3. How does the flow of acid rain water into a river make the survival of aquatic life in the river
difficult?
Solution: When acid rain water flows into the rivers, it lowers the pH of river water making the survival of
aquatic life difficult.
Marks: 1
Question 4. Draw the following diagram in your answer-book and show the formation of image of the
object, AB with the help of suitable rays.
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Solution:
Marks: 1
Question 5. Why is a series arrangement not used for connecting domestic electrical appliances in a circuit?
Solution: A series arrangement is not used for connecting domestic electrical appliances in a circuit
because:
i) Same current flows through each device, but different devices need current of different values to operate.
ii) If one device in a series circuit is defective, current is cut off.
iii) Total resistance of the circuit increases, so current flowing is reduced.
iv) Selective operation of devices is not possible.
Marks: 1
Question 6. Out of 60 W and 40 W lamps, which one has a higher electrical resistance when in use?
Solution: 40 W lamp
Marks: 1
Question 7. Write the chemical formula for washing soda. How may it be obtained from baking soda?
Name an industrial use of washing soda other than washing clothes.
Solution: Washing soda: Na2CO3.10H2O
It is obtained by heating baking soda.
2NaHCO3 Na2CO3 + H2O + CO2
Na2CO3 + 10H2O Na2CO3.10H2O
Uses: It is used in the manufacture of glass, soap and paper.
Marks: 2
Question 8. Give an example of a decomposition reaction. Describe an activity to illustrate such a reaction
by heating.
Solution: CaCO3 CaO + CO2
(or any other example)
Activity:
Take 2 g of ferrous sulphate crystals in a dry test tube. Heat this test tube over the flame for some time. On
heating, green color of the crystals changes into dark brown and a gas with characteristic smell of burning
sulphur is obtained.
Marks: 2
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Question 9. Draw ray diagrams to represent the nature, position and relative size of the image formed by a
convex lens for the object placed:
a) at 2F1.
b) between F1 and the optical centre O of lens.
Solution: (a)
(b)
Marks: 2
Question 10. What is meant by the term, 'magnetic field'? Why does a compass needle show deflection
when brought near a bar magnet?
Solution: Magnetic field - The region around a magnet in which force of the magnet can be experienced. A
compass needle is a small bar magnet so it experiences the force of the other bar magnet when brought near
it and deflects.
Marks: 2
Question 11. a) Why are covalent compounds generally poor conductors of electricity?
b) Name the following compound:
c) Name the gas evolved when ethanoic acid is added to sodium carbonate. How would you prove the
presence of this gas?
Solution: a) Covalent compounds do not provide ions in aqueous solutions hence they do not conduct
electricity.
b) Propanone/acetone
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c) CO2 gas is obtained when ethanoic acid is reacted with sodium carbonate. Presence of the gas can be
tested by passing the gas through lime water. Carbon dioxide gas turns lime water milky.
Marks: 3
Question 12. a) What are amphoteric oxides? Choose the amphoteric oxides from amongst the following
oxides:
Na2O, ZnO, Al2O3, CO2, H2O
b) Why is it that non-metals do not displace hydrogen from dilute acids?
Solution: a) Amphoteric oxides are metal oxides which show both basic as well as acidic behavior.
ZnO, Al2O3
b) Non-metals cannot lose electrons to H+ to form H2 gas because nonmetals are electron-acceptors hence
they do not react with dilute acids.
Marks: 3
Question 13. Two lamps, one rated 60 W at 220 V and the other 40 W at 220 V, are connected in parallel to
the electric supply at 220 V.
(a) Draw a circuit diagram to show the connections.
(b) Calculate the current drawn from the electric supply.
(c) Calculate the total energy consumed by the two lamps together when they operate for one hour.
Solution: (a)
P
(b) I
V
60 W 3
I1 A
220 W 11
40 W 2
I2 A
220 W 11
3 2 5
I I1 I 2 + A 0.45 A
11 11 11
(c) E = P × t = (40 W + 60 W) × 1 h = 100 Wh or 0.1 kWh.
Marks: 3
Question 14. a) Distinguish between the terms 'overloading' and 'short-circuiting' as used in domestic
circuits.
b) Why are the coils of electric toasters made of an alloy rather than a pure metal?
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Solution: a) Short circuiting - When neutral and live wire come in direct contact.
Overloading - When too many appliances are connected to a single socket drawing much more current or
power than permissible.
b) Resistivity of an alloy is higher than its constituent metal and alloys do not oxidize as easily as constituent
metal at high temperature. That is why the coils of electric toasters are made of an alloy rather than a pure
metal.
Marks: 3
Question 15. On the basis of Mendeleev's Periodic Table given below, answer the questions that follow the
table:
(a) Name the element which is in
i) 1st group and 3rd period.
ii) 7th group and 2nd period.
(b) Suggest the formula for the following:
i) Oxide of nitrogen
ii) Hydride of oxygen
(c) In group VIII of the Periodic Table, why does cobalt with atomic mass 58.93 appear before nickel having
atomic mass 58.71?
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(d) Beside gallium, which two other elements have since been discovered for which Mendeleev had left gaps
in his Periodic Table?
(e) Using atomic masses of Li, Na and K, find the average atomic mass of Li and K and compare it with the
atomic mass of Na. State the conclusion drawn from this activity.
OR
a) Why do we classify elements?
b) What were the two criteria used by Mendeleev in creating his Periodic Table?
c) Why did Mendeleev leave some gaps in his Periodic Table?
d) In Mendeleev's Periodic Table, why was there no mention of Noble gases like Helium, Neon and Argon?
e) Would you place the two isotopes of chlorine, Cl-35 and Cl-37 in different slots because of their different
atomic masses or in the same slot because their chemical properties are the same? Justify your answer.
Solution: (a) (i) Sodium
(ii) Fluorine
(b) (i) N2O5
(ii) H2O/OH2
(c) In group VIII of the Periodic Table, cobalt appears before nickel so that elements with similar chemical
properties may fall in the same group.
(d) Scandium (Sc) and Germanium (Ge)
(e) Atomic mass of lithium = 7
Atomic mass of potassium = 39
So, average of atomic mass = (7 + 39)/2 = 23
Atomic mass of sodium = 23 i.e., both are same hence we can conclude that atomic mass of the middle
element is the average of the other two elements.
OR
(a) We classify elements to systematize the study of elements and make the understanding of properties of
elements and compounds simpler.
(b) Criteria used by Mendeleev:
i) Atomic mass
ii) Properties of hydrides and oxides of elements.
(c) Mendeleev left some gaps in his Periodic Table to leave scope of search for the yet undiscovered
elements.
(d) In Mendeleev's Periodic Table, there was no mention of noble gases since they had not been discovered
by that time.
(e) The two isotopes of chlorine, Cl-35 and Cl-37 will be placed in the same slot because their chemical
properties are same.
Marks: 5
Question 16. a) What is meant by dispersion of white light? Describe the formation of rainbow in the sky
with the help of a diagram.
b) What is hypermetropia? Draw ray diagrams to show the image formation of an object by:
i) Hypermetropic eye
ii) Correction made with a suitable lens for hypermetropic eye.
OR
(a) Give reasons for the following:
i) Colour of the clear sky is blue.
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ii) The sun can be seen about two minutes before actual sunrise.
iii) We cannot see an object clearly if it is placed very close to the eyes.
(b) What is Presbyopia? Write two causes of this defect.
Solution: (a) Dispersion - The splitting of white light into its constituent colours.
Rainbow formation (figure)
Water droplets in air refract and disperse the incident sunlight. Then, reflect it internally and finally refract it
again when it comes out of the droplet. Due to the dispersion of light and internal reflection, different
colours of sunlight reach the observer's eye and are visible in the form of a rainbow.
(b) Hypermetropia - The defect of vision due to which a person clearly sees distant objects but cannot
clearly see nearby objects.
(i)
(ii)
OR
(a) (i) Due to scattering of light
(ii) Due to atmospheric refraction
(iii) At the near point of eye, curvature of eye lens is maximum and focal length is minimum. If object is
placed nearer than it, eye lens cannot adjust its curvature.
(b) Presbyopia - The defect of vision in which the eye is unable to see nearby as well as far off objects
clearly.
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Causes:
--- weakening of ciliary muscles
--- diminishing flexibility of the eye lens.
Marks: 5
SECTION-B
Question 17. Which one of the following is a renewable resource?
Natural gas, Petroleum, Ground water, Coal
Solution: Ground water.
Marks: 1
Question 18. What is the effect of DNA copying which is not perfectly accurate on the reproduction
process?
Solution: Imperfect DNA copying in the reproduction process leads to variations or evolution.
Marks: 1
Question 19. How do autotrophs obtain CO2 and N2 to make their food?
Solution: CO2 is obtained from the environment and N2 is obtained from the soil and environment.
Marks: 1
Question 20. List any four characteristics of biogas on account of which it is considered an ideal fuel.
Solution: Biogas is considered as an ideal fuel because of the following:
(i) High Calorific Value
(ii) Produces no smoke on burning
(iii) Burns smoothly (without explosion)
(iv) No residue on combustion.
Marks: 2
Question 21. Discus one limitation each for the extracting of energy from:
a) Winds
b) Tides
Solution: (a) From wind:
(i) Wind energy cannot be harnessed at places where wind does not blow at a minimum speed of 15 km/h.
(ii) Wind is not a dependable source as sometimes air is still and at other times there are storms.
(b) From tides:
(i) There are only few sites suitable for building tidal dams.
(ii) The rise and fall of sea water during high and low tides are not enough to generate electricity on a large
scale.
Marks: 2
Question 22. Write one function each of the following components of the transport system in human beings:
a) Blood vessels
b) Blood platelets
c) Lymph
d) Heart
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Solution: (a) Blood Vessels: Transport of blood.
(b) Blood Platelets: Clotting of blood.
(c) Lymph: Carries digested fats.
(d) Heart: Helps to circulate blood in the whole body by acting as a pump.
Marks: 2
Question 23. Name one sexually transmitted disease each caused due to bacterial infection and viral
infection. How can these be prevented?
Solution: (i) Bacterial: Gonorrhea or syphilis.
Viral: Warts or AIDS.
(ii) These can be prevented by the use of condoms.
Marks: 2
Question 24. What are fossils? What do they tell about the process of evolution?
Solution: Fossils are the remains or traces of animals and plants of the past on rocks.
Fossils give information about evolutionary relationships between different species.
Marks: 2
Question 25. How is ozone formed in the upper atmosphere? Why is damage to ozone layer a cause of
concern to us? What causes this damage?
Solution: (i) UV rays in the atmosphere split some molecular oxygen (O 2) into free oxygen (O) atoms.
(ii) These atoms combine with molecular oxygen to form O3.
OR
O2
UV rays
O+O
O + O2 O3
Damage to ozone layer will allow UV rays to reach on the surface of earth causing skin cancer, cataract and
damage to crops.
Release of chlorofluoro carbons in the atmosphere which are used as refrigerants or in fire extinguishers
damages the ozone layer.
Marks: 3
Question 26. How are oxygen and carbon dioxide transported in human beings? How are lungs designed to
maximize the area for exchange of gases?
Solution: (i) Respiratory pigment haemoglobin takes up O2 from the air in the lungs and carries it to tissues.
(ii) CO2 is being transported from various tissues into the alveoli by blood and is released during exhalation.
Within the lungs, the trachea divides into smaller and smaller tubes which finally terminate in balloon like
structures called alveoli. These alveoli increase the surface area for the exchange of gases.
Marks: 3
Question 27. (a) Draw the structure of a neuron and label the following on it:
Nucleus, Dendrite, Cell body and Axon
(b) Name the part of neuron:
i) Where information is acquired.
ii) Through which information travels as an electrical impulse.
OR
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(a) What is (i) photoropism and (ii) geotropism? With labelled diagrams describe an activity to show that
light and gravity change the direction that plant parts grow in.
(b) Mention the role of each of the following plant hormones:
i) Auxin
ii) Abscisic acid
Solution: (a)
(i) Information is acquired through dendrite.
(ii) From the dendrite to the cell body and then along the axon to it’s end.
OR
(a) (i) Phototropism: The movement of a plant or it's part in response to light is called phototropism.
(ii) Geotropism: The movement of a plant or it’s part in response to gravity is called geotropism.
Activity to show that light and gravity change the direction that plant part grows in:
i. Fill a conical flask with water.
ii. Cover the neck of the flask with a wire mesh.
iii. Keep two or three freshly germinated bean seeds on the wire mesh.
iv. Take a cardboard box which is open from one side.
v. Keep the flask in the box in such a manner that the open side of the box faces light coming from a
window.
vi. After two or three days, you will notice that the shoots bend towards light and roots away from light.
(b) (i) Auxin: - It promotes growth and cell elongation.
(ii) Abscisic acid: It inhibits growth and causes wilting of leaves.
Marks: 5
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CBSE-XII-2017 EXAMINATI CBSE – X – 2009 EXAMINATION
SCIENCE
SET-3 Paper & Solution
Time: 2½ Hrs. Max. Marks: 60
General Instructions:
1. The question paper comprises of two Sections, A and B. You are to attempt both the sections.
2. All questions are compulsory.
3. All questions of Section A and all questions of Section B are to be attempted separately.
4. There is no overall choice. However, internal choice has been provided in some questions. Only one option in such
questions is to be attempted.
5. Question numbers 1–6 in Section A and 17 to 19 in Section B are short answer questions. These questions carry one
mark each.
6. Question numbers 7–10 in Section A and 20 to 24 in Section B are short answer questions and carry two marks
each.
7. Question numbers 11–14 in Section A and 25 and 26 in Section B are also short answer questions and carry three
marks each.
8. Question numbers 15 and 16 in Section A and 27 in Section B are long answer questions and carry five marks each.
SECTION A
Question 1. Balance the following chemical equation:
Pb(NO3)2(s)
heat
PbO(s) + NO2(g) + O2(g)
Solution: 2Pb(NO3)2(s)
heat
2PbO(s) + 4NO2(g) + O2(g)
Marks: 1
Question 2. Fresh milk has a pH of 6. When it changes into curd (yogurt) will its pH value increase or
decrease? Why?
Solution: pH value decreases when fresh milk changes to curd.
Marks: 1
Question 3. Name a reducing agent that may be used to obtain manganese from manganese dioxide.
Solution: Hydrochloric acid may be used as the reducing agent to obtain manganese from manganese
dioxide.
Marks: 1
Question 4. Why does a ray of light bend when it travels from one medium into another?
Solution: Light has different speeds in different media and it takes such a path of propagation for which
time taken is minimum.
Marks: 1
Question 5. Draw the given diagram in your answer book and complete it for the path of ray of light beyond
the lens.
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Solution:
Marks: 1
Question 6. Why does sky look blue on a clear day?
Solution: Sky looks blue on a clear day because blue colour of light is scattered most by the particles
present in the atmosphere.
Marks: 1
Question 7. A compound which is prepared from gypsum has the property of hardening when mixed with a
proper quantity of water. Identify the compound. Write the chemical equation for its preparation. For what
purpose is it used in hospitals?
Solution: Plaster of Paris (Calcium sulphate hemihydrate) CaSO 4.1/2H2O
1 1
CaSO4 .2H2O Heat 373 K
CaSO4 . H2O 1 H2O
Gypsum 2 2
Plaster of Paris
It is used in hospitals as a plaster to support fractured bones in the right position.
Marks: 2
Question 8. (a) What is the colour of ferrous sulphate crystals? How does this colour change after heating?
(b) Name: the products formed on strongly healing ferrous sulphate crystals. What type of chemical reaction
occurs in this change?
Solution: (a) Ferrous sulphate crystals are light green in color. On heating, the green color of the crystals
changes to white since its water of crystallisation is removed on heating.
(b) On strongly heating ferrous sulphate crystals, ferric oxide, sulphur dioxide and sulphur trioxide is
formed.
2FeSO4 (s)
Heat
Fe2O3 (s) SO2 (g) SO3 (g)
This is a decomposition reaction.
Marks: 2
Question 9. What is the minimum number of rays required for locating the image formed by a concave
mirror for an object? Draw a ray diagram to show the formation of a virtual image by a concave mirror.
Solution: At least two rays are required for locating the image formed by a concave mirror for an object.
Formation of virtual image by concave mirror:
Marks: 2
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Question 10. A piece of wire of resistance 20 is drawn out so that its length is increased to twice its
original length. Calculate the resistance of the wire in the new situation.
Solution: R
A
If the length is increased to twice the original length, keeping the area of cross section same, then resistance
will become double of its original value.
So new resistance = 2 × 20 = 40 ohm.
Marks: 2
Question 11. What is meant by 'rusting'? With labeled diagrams, describe an activity to find out the
conditions under which iron rusts.
Solution: Rusting is corrosion of iron to a brown flaky substance in the presence of moist air.
Activity to find out the conditions under which iron rusts:
1. Take three test tubes and place clean iron nails in each of them.
2. Label these test tubes as A, B and C.
3. Pour some water in test tube A and cork it.
4. Pour boiled distilled water in test tube B, add about 1 mL of oil and cork it. The oil will float on water and
prevent air from dissolving in water.
5. Put some anhydrous calcium chloride in test tube C and cork it.
Anhydrous calcium chloride will absorb the moisture, if any, from the air.
6. Leave the three test tubes for a few days and then observe.
Observation: The iron nails in test tube A rusts. In test tubes B and C, no rusting occurs.
Conclusion: Both air and moisture are necessary for rusting of iron.
Marks: 3
Question 12. Give reasons for the following observations:
(a) The element carbon forms a very large number of compounds.
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(b) Air holes of a gas burner have to be adjusted when the heated vessels get blackened by the flame.
(c) Use of synthetic detergents causes pollution of water.
Solution: (a) The element Carbon forms a large number of compounds due to its unique properties:
catenation and tetravalency.
(b) If fuel in the gas burner does not burn completely, then incomplete combustion occurs resulting in
production of a sooty flame and hence the vessels get blackened from the bottom. So, for sufficient supply
of air for complete combustion, the air holes of a gas burner have to be adjusted.
(c) Synthetic detergents cause pollution because they are non biodegradable in nature.
Marks: 3
Question 13. What is hypermetropia? State the two causes of hypermetropia. With the help of ray diagrams,
show:
i. the eye-defect hypermetropia
ii. correction of hypermetropia by using a lens
Solution: Hypermetropia is an eye defect in which distant vision is clear while near vision is blurred.
Causes of Hypermetropia:
--- Shortening of the eyeball, that is, the eyeball becomes smaller
--- Increase in focal length of the eye lens
(i)
(ii)
Marks: 3
Question 14. Two resistors, with resistances 5 and 10 respectively are to be connected to a battery of
emf 6 V so as to obtain:
(a) How will you connect the resistances in each case?
(i) minimum current flowing (ii) maximum current flowing
(b) Calculate the strength of the total current in the circuit in the two cases.
Solution: (a) (i) To obtain the minimum current, the resistances should be connected in series.
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(ii) To obtain the maximum current, the resistances should be connected in parallel.
(b) (i) Resistances in series:
Total resistance in the circuit R = 5 + 10 = 15 ohm
Current in the circuit I = 6/15 = 0.4 A
(ii) Resistances in parallel:
Total resistance in the circuit R = (5 x 10)/(5 + 10) = 50/15 = 10/3 ohm
Current in the circuit I = 6 x 3/10 = 1.8 A
Marks: 3
Question 15. (a) Which two criteria did Mendeleev use to classify the elements in his periodic table?
(b) State Mendeleev's periodic law.
(c) Why could no fixed position be given to hydrogen in Mendeleev's periodic table?
(d) I tow and why does the atomic size vary as you go:
i) From left to right along a period?
ii) Down a group?
OR
(a) Why did Mendeleev have gaps in his periodic table?
(b) Stale any three limitations of Mendeleev's classification.
(c) How do electronic configurations of atoms change in a period with increase in atomic number?
Solution: (a) Increasing atomic mass and similarity in chemical properties of elements were the two criteria
used by Mendeleev to classify the elements. He took the formulae of the oxides and hydrides formed by the
elements as the basis for classification of elements.
(b) Mendeleev’s periodic law states that the properties of elements are periodic function of their atomic
masses.
(c) Hydrogen resembles alkali metals in its electronic configuration and halogens as it also exists as a
diatomic molecule and combines with metals and non- metals to form covalent compounds hence it could
not be assigned a fixed position in Mendeleev's periodic table.
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(d) (i) Atomic size decreases from left to right in the periodic table due to increase in nuclear charge.
(ii) Atomic size increases down the group because new shells are being added as we go down the group.
Marks: 5
Question 16. (a) What is a magnetic field? How can the direction of magnetic field lines at a placed be
determined?
(b) State the rule for the direction of the magnetic field produced around a current carrying conductor. Draw
sketch of the pattern of field lines due to a current flowing through a straight conductor.
OR
(a) What is a solenoid? Draw a sketch of the pattern of field lines of the magnetic field through and around a
current carrying solenoid.
(b) Consider a circular loop of wire lying in the plane of the table. Let the current pass through the loop
clockwise. Apply the right hand rule to find out the direction of the magnetic field inside and outside the
loop.
Solution: (a) Magnetic field is a region near a magnetised body where magnetic forces can be detected. The
direction of the magnetic field line at a place is determined by the direction in which a north pole of the
compass needle moves inside it.
(b) Direction of the magnetic field produced around a current carrying conductor is determined by the right
hand thumb rule.
According to this rule, if we hold a current-carrying straight conductor in right hand such that the thumb
points towards the direction of current, then fingers will wrap around the conductor in the direction of the
field lines of the magnetic field. This is also shown in the figure given below:
Pattern of field lines due to a current flowing through a straight conductor:
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OR
(a) A solenoid is a long coil (shaped like a cylinder) containing a large number of close turns of insulated
copper wire.
(b) Direction of magnetic field inside and outside the loop is given as follows:
Marks: 5
SECTION-B
Question 17. What are the two main components of our environment?
Solution: The two main components of our environment are:
i. Biotic components
ii. Abiotic components.
Marks: 1
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Question 18. What will happen to a plant if its xylem is removed?
Solution: Xylem tissue conducts water and minerals from the soil to different parts of the plant. If the xylem
tissue is removed, then the transport of water and mineral will not take place and the plant will die.
Marks: 1
Question 19. Name two tissues that provide control and coordination in multi cellular animals.
Solution: Nervous and muscular tissues provide control and coordination in multi cellular animals.
Marks: 1
Question 20. What natural resources? State two factors that work against an equitable distribution of these
resources.
Solution: Natural resources are naturally occurring substances that are considered valuable in their
relatively unmodified or natural form. The examples of such resources are coal, wildlife, oil etc.
Two factors that work against the equitable distribution of these resources are:
(i) Corruption
(ii) Lack of proper management
Marks: 2
Question 21. What is water harvesting? Mention any water harvesting structures.
Solution: Water harvesting is the activity of collecting rainwater for future use. Harvesting of rainwater is
essential for ensuring the availability of usable water. The rainwater collected can be stored in surface
containers for direct use or can be recharged into the groundwater.
Khadins and Nadis are two traditional water harvesting structures that are found in Rajasthan.
Marks: 2
Question 22. What are 'nastic' and 'curvature' movements? Give one example of each.
Solution: Nastic movements are non-directional and growth independent movements that occur in response
to stimuli such as light, temperature, humidity, etc.
For example: Touch-me-not plant leaves bend and droop on touching.
Curvature movements are the bending or curving movements of a plant in response to any stimuli.
For example: The bending of the shoot tip towards light.
Marks: 2
Question 23. What is biogas? Why is biogas considered an ideal fuel for domestic use?
Solution: Biogas is the gas made from the anaerobic decomposition of organic matter such as agricultural
wastes and animal wastes like animal dung. It is prepared in bio-gas plants. It consists of a methane, carbon
dioxide, hydrogen and hydrogen sulphide.
Biogas is considered as an ideal fuel because it:
(i) It has a high calorific value.
(ii) It burns without producing smoke.
(iii)It is a safe and efficient method of waste-disposal.
(iv) It leaves no residue after burning.
Marks: 2
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Question 24. (a) Distinguish between renewable and non-renewable sources of energy.
(b) Choose the renewable sources of energy from the following list: Coal, biogas, sun, natural gas.
Solution: (a)
Renewable sources of energy Non-renewable sources of
i. These are inexhaustible that energy is can be i. They are exhaustible and therefore cannot be
used over a long time. used over a long time.
ii. They are replenished at a rate faster than the ii. The rate at which they are replenished is
rate at which they are consumed. much slower than the rate of consumption.
(b) Biogas and sun
Marks: 2
Question 25. Explain analogous organs and homologous organs. Identify the analogous and homologous
organs amongst the following:
Wings of an Insect, wings of a bat, forelimbs of frog, forelimbs of a human
Solution: Analogous organs: These are organs that have different structural design and origin, but perform
similar functions.
Homologous organs: These organs have the similar basic structural design and origin, but are evolved to
perform different functions.
Analogous organs: Wings of an insect and wings of a bat. Homologous organs: Forelimbs of frog and
forelimbs of a human.
Marks: 3
Question 26. (a) Explain the terms:
i) Implantation
ii) Placenta
(b) What is the average duration of human pregnancy?
Solution: (a)
(i) Implantation is the event during pregnancy in which a fertilized egg or zygote adheres to the walls of the
uterus, inside the female body.
(ii) Placenta is a disc like vascular structure embedded in the uterine wall. The placenta supplies nutrients
like glucose and oxygen to the developing embryo. It also removes waste substances generated by the
embryo.
(b) The average duration of human pregnancy is nine months.
Marks: 3
Question 27. (a) Draw a diagram of human alimentary canal and label on it:
Oesophagus, Gall bladder, Liver and Pancreas
(b) Explain the statement, 'Bile does not contain any enzyme but it is essential for digestion'.
OR
(a) Draw a diagram of excretory system in human beings and label on it:
Aorta, vena cava, urinary, bladder, urethra
(b) List two vital functions of the kidney.
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Solution: (a)
(b) Bile does not contain any enzyme, but it plays an important role in digestion because:
(i) The bile salts emulsify fat by acting on large fat globules to break them into smaller globules. This
increases the efficiency of pancreatic enzymes.
(ii) The food entering the small intestine is acidic. It is made alkaline by the action of bile juice so as to
facilitate the action of pancreatic enzymes.
OR
(a)
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(b) The two vital functions of kidney are:
(i) It filters out the nitrogenous wastes from the blood and forms urine.
(ii) It also regulates the water balance and levels of mineral ions in the body.
Marks: 5
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CBSE-XII-2017 EXAMINATI CBSE – X – 2010 EXAMINATION
SCIENCE
SET-3 Paper & Solution
Time: 2½ Hrs. Max. Marks: 60
General Instructions:
1. The question paper comprises of two Sections, A and B. You are to attempt both the sections.
2. All questions are compulsory.
3. The candidates are advised to attempt all the questions of Section A and Section B separately.
4. There is no overall choice. However, internal choice has been provided in some questions. You are to
attempt only one option in such questions.
5. Question numbers 1–6 in Section A and 19 to 21 in Section B are very short answer questions. These
questions carry one mark each.
6. Question numbers 7–12 in Section A and 22 to 24 in Section B are short answer questions and carry two
marks each.
7. Question numbers 13–16 in Section A and 25 and 26 in Section B are also short answer questions and
carry three marks each.
8. Question numbers 17 and 18 in Section A and 27 in Section B are long answer questions and carry five
marks each.
SECTION A
Question 1. What change in the colour of iron nails and copper sulphate solution you observe after keeping
the iron nails dipped in copper sulphate solution for about 30 minutes.
Solution: When iron nails are dipped in copper sulphate solution for about 30 minutes, iron nails become
brownish in colour and the blue colour of copper sulphate solution fades and changes to light green.
Fe(s) CuSO4 (aq) FeSO4 (aq) Cu(s)
Iron Copper sulphate Iron sulphate Copper
(Grey) ( Blue) (Light green ) (Brown)
Marks: 1
Question 2. State two characteristic features of carbon which when put together give rise to large number of
carbon compound.
Solution: Two characteristic features of carbon which give rise to a large number of carbon compounds are:
(a) Catenation: Carbon has the unique ability to form bonds with other atoms of carbon giving rise to large
molecules i.e. carbon has a tendency to catenate.
(b) Tetravalency: Since carbon has a valency of four, it is capable of bonding with four other atoms of
carbon or atoms of some other mono-valent element.
Marks: 1
Question 3. Explain why a ray of light passing through the centre of curvature of a concave mirror gets
reflected along the same path.
Solution: A ray of light passing through the centre of curvature of a concave mirror falls on the mirror along
the normal to the reflecting surface. Hence, it gets reflected along the same path following the laws of
reflection.
Marks: 1
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Question 4. What is the nature of the image formed by a concave mirror if the magnification produced by
the mirror is +3?
Solution: The nature of the image formed by a concave mirror if the magnification produced by the mirror
is +3 is virtual, erect and magnified.
Marks: 1
Question 5. A charged particle enters at right angles into a uniform magnetic field as shown. What should
be the nature of charge on the particle if it begins to move in a direction pointing vertically out of the page
due to its interaction with the magnetic field?
Solution: Using Fleming's left hand rule we can easily find out that the nature of the charge on the particle
is positive.
Marks: 1
Question 6. Name the part of our eyes that helps us to focus near and distant objects in quick succession.
Solution: Eye lens help us to focus near and distant objects in quick succession.
Marks: 1
Question 7. What happen when an aqueous solution of sodium sulphate reacts with an aqueous solution of
barium chloride? State the physical conditions of reactants in which the reaction between them will not take
place. Write the balanced chemical equation for the reaction and name the type of reaction.
Solution: When an aqueous solution of sodium sulphate reacts with an aqueous solution of barium chloride,
insoluble barium sulphate along with solution of sodium chloride is formed.
If the reactants are in solid state, then reaction will not take place between sodium sulphate and barium
chloride.
Na 2SO4 (aq) BaCl2 (aq) BaSO4 (s) 2NaCl(aq)
Sodium Sulphate Barium chloride Barium sulphate Sodium chloride
Reaction between aqueous solution of sodium sulphate and aqueous solution of barium chloride is a double
displacement reaction.
Marks: 2
Question 8.What is the main constituent of biogas? How is biogas obtained from biomass? Write any two
advantages of using this gas.
Solution: The main constituent of biogas is methane.
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Biogas is obtained by the anaerobic degradation of biomass in the presence of water.
Two advantages of using biogas are:
1. It burns without smoke and hence does not cause air pollution.
2. It has a high calorific value.
Marks: 2
Question 9. In the figure given below a narrow beam of white light is shown to pass through a triangular
glass prism. After passing through the prism it produces a spectrum XY on a screen.
(a) State the colour seen at X and Y.
(b) Why do different colours of white light bend through different angles with respect to the incident beam
of light?
Solution: (a) Red color will be seen at Y and violet colour will be seen at X.
(b) Different colors of white light travel at different speeds through the glass prism.
Hence, they bend through different angles with respect to the incident beam of light.
Marks: 2
Question 10. What is a solenoid? Draw the pattern of magnetic field lines of a solenoid through which a
steady current flows. What does the pattern of field lines inside the solenoid indicate?
Solution: A coil of many circular turns of insulated copper wire wrapped closely in the shape of a cylinder
is called a solenoid.
Magnetic field lines of a solenoid through which a steady current is flowing:
The field lines inside the solenoid are in the form of parallel straight lines. This indicates that the magnetic
field is the same at all points inside the solenoid. That is, the field is uniform inside the solenoid.
Marks: 2
Question 11. A coil of insulated wire is connected to a galvanometer. What would be seen if a bar magnet
with its north pole towards one face of the coil is
(i) moved quickly towards it,
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(ii) moved quickly away from the coil and
(iii) placed near its one face?
Name the phenomena involved.
Solution: (i) A momentary deflection in the galvanometer will be seen, indicating a flow of current in the
circuit.
(ii) A momentary deflection in the galvanometer (but in opposite direction) will be seen, indicating a flow of
current in the opposite direction in the circuit.
(iii) No deflection in the galvanometer will seen, indicating that not current flows in the circuit.
The phenomenon involved is electromagnetic induction.
Marks: 2
Question 12. Mention any four limitations in harnessing wind energy on a large scale.
Solution: Four limitations in harnessing wind energy on a large scale are:
(a) Wind energy farms can be established only at those places where wind blows at least with a speed of 15
km/h for the most part of the year.
(b) There should be some back-up facilities (like storage cells) to take care of the energy needs during a
period when there is no wind.
(c) Establishment of wind energy farms requires large area of land.
(d) Since the tower and blades are exposed to the vagaries of nature like rain, sun, storm and cyclone, they
need a high level of maintenance.
Marks: 2
Question 13. At what distance should an object be placed from a convex lens of focal length 18 cm to
obtain an image at 24 cm from it on the other side. What Will be magnification produced in this case?
Solution: Focal length, f = +18 cm
Image distance, v = +24 cm
Object distance, u = ?
Magnification, m = ?
According to lens formula:
1 1 1
v u f
1 1 1
u v f
1 1 1
u 24 18
1 3 4
u 72
u 72cm
v 24
m 0.33
u 72
Marks: 3
Question 14. No chemical reaction takes place when granules of a solid, A, are mixed with the powder of
another solid, B. However when the mixture is heated, a reaction takes place between its components. One
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of the products, C, is a metal and settles down in the molten state while the other product, D floats over it. It
was observed that the reaction is highly exothermic.
(i) Based on the given information make an assumption about A and B and write a chemical equation for the
chemical reaction indicating the conditions of reaction, physical state of reactants and products and thermal
status of reaction.
(ii) Mention any two types of reaction under which above chemical reaction can be classified.
Solution: (i) Based on the given information, solid A can be assumed to be manganese dioxide (MnO2) and
solid B can be assumed to be aluminium powder (Al). When manganese dioxide is heated with aluminium
powder, the following reaction takes place:
3MnO2 (S) 4Al(S)
Heat
2Al2O3 (s) 3Mn l Heat
A B D C
The reaction is highly exothermic reaction and a lot of heat is evolved.
(ii) (a) Displacement reaction
(b) Exothermic reaction
(c) Redox reaction
Marks: 3
Question 15. Name the functional group of organic compounds that can be hydrogenated. With the help of
suitable example, explain the process of hydrogenation mentioning the conditions of the reaction and any
one change in physical property with the formation of the product. Name any one natural source of organic
compounds that are hydrogenated.
Solution: The functional groups of organic compounds that can be hydrogenated are alkenes and alkynes.
H2C CH2
H2
CH3 CH3
Ethene Nickel Catalyst Ethane
Unsaturated hydrocarbons undergo addition reactions with hydrogen in the presence of catalysts such as
palladium or nickel to give saturated hydrocarbons. During this reaction, unsaturated compounds like
vegetable oils which are in liquid state are converted to animal fats in solid state. Vegetable oil is an
example of natural source of organic compound that are hydrogenated.
Marks: 3
Question 16. Atoms of eight elements A, B, D, E, F, G and H have the same number of electronic shells but
different number of electrons in their outermost shell. It was found that elements A and G combine to form
an ionic compound. This compound is added in a small amount to almost all vegetable dishes during
cooking. Oxides of elements A and B are basic in nature while those of E and F are acidic. The oxide of D is
almost neutral.
Based on the above information answer the following questions:
(i) To which group or period of the periodic table, do the listed elements belong?
(ii) What would be the nature of compound formed by a combination of elements B and F?
(iii) Which two of these elements could definitely be metals?
(iv) Which one of the eight elements is most likely to be found in gaseous state at room temperature?
(v) If the number of electrons in the outermost shell of element C and G be 3 and 7 respectively, write the
formula of the compound formed by the combination of C and G.
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Solution: (i)
(ii) Nature of the compound formed by combination of element B and F is ionic.
(iii) Elements A and B are definitely metals.
(iv) Element H belonging to group 18 is most likely to be found in gaseous state at room temperature.
(v) Formula of the compound formed by combination of C and G is CG 3.
Marks: 3
Question 17. Write the name and symbols of two most reactive metals belonging to group I of the periodic
table. Explain by drawing electronic structure how either one of the two metals reacts with a halogen. With
which name is the bond formed between these elements known and what is the class of the compound so
formed known? State any four physical properties of such compounds.
OR
What is meant by refining of metals? Name the most widely used method of refining impure metals
produced by various reduction processes. Describe with the help of a labeled diagram how this method may
be used for refining of copper.
Solution: Names and symbols of the two most reactive metals belonging to group I of the periodic table:
Formation of sodium chloride:
Na Na e
2,8,1 2,8
(Sodium cation)
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Cl e Cl
2,8,7 2,8,8
(Chloride anion)
Sodium and chloride ions, being oppositely charged are held by strong electrostatic forces of attraction.
Bond formed between sodium and chloride ion is ionic bond.
The class of compounds formed by the transfer of electrons from a metal to a non-metal is known as ionic
compounds or electrovalent compounds.
Physical properties of ionic or electrovalent compounds:
1. Ionic compounds are solids and are somewhat hard.
2. Ionic compounds have high melting and boiling points.
3. Ionic compounds are generally soluble in water and insoluble in solvents such as kerosene, petrol, etc.
4. Ionic compounds conduct electricity in aqueous solution and in molten state. They do not conduct
electricity in solid state.
OR
Process of obtaining pure metal from its impure form is called refining of metals. The most widely used
method for refining impure metals is electrolytic refining.
Electrolytic refining of copper:
In electrolytic refining of copper, electrolyte is a solution of acidified copper sulphate. Anode is made up of
impure copper. Cathode is made up of a strip of pure copper metal.
On passing current through the electrolyte, pure copper metal from the anode dissolves into the electrolyte
i.e., acidified copper sulphate.
Cu Cu 2 2e
(Impure
copper)
At cathode: An equivalent amount of pure metal from the electrolyte is deposited on the cathode.
Cu 2 2e Cu
(Pure
copper)
The soluble impurities go into the solution, whereas, the insoluble impurities settle down at the bottom of
the anode and are known as anode mud.
Marks: 5
Question 18. Derive the expression for the heat produced due to a current ‘I’ flowing for a time interval ‘t’
through a resistor ‘R’ having a potential difference ‘V’ across its ends. With which name is the relation
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known? How much heat will an instrument of 12 W produce in one minute if it is connected to a battery of
12 V?
OR
Explain with the help of a labeled circuit diagram how you will find the resistance of a combination of three
resistors, of resistance R1, R2 and R3 joined in parallel. Also mention how you will connect the ammeter and
the voltmeter in the circuit when measuring the current in the circuit and the potential difference across one
of the three resistors of the combination.
Solution: Let us take a resistor of resistance R. Let the current flowing through this resistor is equal to I and
the potential difference across it is equal to V. Suppose in time t, Q amount of charge flows through the
resistor
Work done in moving this charge, W = VQ … (1)
According to the definition of electric current,
Q
I
t
Q I t
Putting this in equation (1),
W=V×I×t
This work done is dissipated as heat.
Hence, heat produced, H = W = VIt
H = VIt … (2)
According to Ohm’s law, V = IR.
Putting this in equation (2),
H = IR × It
H = I2Rt
This relation is known as Joule’s law of heating
Numerical:
Power, P = 12 W
Potential difference, V = 12 volt
Time duration, t = 1 min = 60 s
H
P
t
H Pt
= 12 W × 60 s
= 720 J
The heat generated by the instrument is 720 J.
OR
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The given figure shows a circuit consisting of three resistors R 1, R2 and R3 connected in parallel. The total
current in the circuit (I) gets divided among the three resistors as I 1, I2 and I3.
Thus, I = I1 + I2 + I3 ----- (1)
Applying Ohm’s law for each resistor,
V
I1
R1
V
I2 ----- (2)
R2
V
I3
R3
Let the equivalent resistance of the circuit be Req.
Applying Ohm’s law for the equivalent circuit,
V
I ----- (3)
Req
Using eqns. (1), (2) and (3),
V V V V
Req R1 R2 R3
1 1 1 1
Req R1 R2 R3
This is the expression for the equivalent resistance of a parallel combination of three resistances. An
ammeter has to be connected in series with the combination of all these resistors so that the current passing
through the ammeter is equal to the total current through the circuit.
The voltmeter has to be connected in parallel to that resistor across which the potential difference has to be
measured.
Marks: 5
SECTION-B
Question 19. Name the green dot like structures in some cells observed by a student when a leaf peel was
viewed under a microscope. What is this green colour due to?
Solution: The green dot-like structures are chloroplasts. This green colour is due to the presence of
chlorophyll.
Marks: 1
Question 20. How is the spinal cord protected in the human body?
Solution: The spinal cord is protected by the vertebral column or backbone.
Marks: 1
Question 21. How is the increasing demand for energy adversely affecting our environment?
Solution: Our increasing demand for energy is depleting our natural resources and polluting the
environment in one or the other way.
Marks: 1
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Question 22. What are hormones? Name the hormone secreted by thyroid and state its function?
Solution: A hormone is a chemical compound synthesized by a group of cells or endocrine glands that
affect cells in other parts of the body and is also used for control and coordination in the organisms.
Thyroid gland secretes the hormone thyroxin.
Thyroxin regulates carbohydrate, protein and fat metabolism in the body so as to provide the correct balance
for growth.
Marks: 2
Question 23. With the help of diagrams show the different stages of binary fission in Amoeba.
Solution:
Marks: 2
Question 24. Given one example each of characters that are inherited and the ones that are acquired in
humans. Mention the difference between the inherited and the acquired characters.
Solution: Example of inherited trait - Shape of the eye or hair colour.
Example of acquired trait – Building of muscles while exercising.
Inherited characters affect the DNA of germ cells and hence can be passed on to the future generations.
Acquired characters do not cause changes in DNA of the germ cells and hence cannot be passed on to future
generations.
Marks: 2
Question 25. Write the full form of DNA. Name the part of the cell where it is located. Explain its role in
the process of reproduction of the cell.
Solution: DNA – Deoxyribonucleic acid.
DNA is present in the nucleus of the cell.
DNA in the cell nucleus is the information source for making proteins and is thereby, responsible for
inheritance of features. A basic event in reproduction process is DNA copying, accompanied by the creation
of an additional cellular apparatus after which the DNA copies separate, each with its own cellular
apparatus.
The consistency of DNA copying during reproduction is important for the maintenance of body design
features. Variations occur in the DNA copying reactions during reproduction, due to which the surviving
cells are similar to, but subtly different from each other. This inbuilt tendency for variation during
reproduction is the basis for evolution.
Marks: 3
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Question 26. Explain the phenomenon of “biological magnification.” How does it affect organisms
belonging to different tropic levels particularly the tertiary consumers?
Solution: When non-biodegradable substances such as pesticides, enter the food chain, they get
accumulated progressively at each trophic level. This results in a cumulative increase in the concentration of
the substance in successively higher trophic levels of the food chain. This phenomenon is known as
biological magnification.
For example - Pesticides entering our food chain through soil or water are not degradable and hence gets
progressively accumulated at each trophic level, with maximum accumulation in human bodies.
Biomagnification of a toxic substance has the potential to cause harm to organisms, particularly to the
tertiary consumers. This is because tertiary consumers occupy the top level in a food chain and hence
maximum concentration of such chemicals gets accumulated in their bodies.
Marks: 3
Question 27. Explain the process of digestion of food in mouth, stomach and small intestine in human body.
OR
(a) List the three events that occur during the process of photosynthesis. Explain the role of stomata in this
process.
(b) Describe an experiment to show that “sunlight is essential for photosynthesis.”
Solution: i. Mouth - In mouth, large food pieces are crushed with the help of our teeth and mixed with saliva
secreted by the salivary glands, using the tongue. Salivary amylase, the enzyme present in saliva, breaks
down starch to give sugar.
ii. Stomach - The muscular walls of the stomach help in mixing the food thoroughly with the digestive juices
secreted by the gastric glands present in the wall of the stomach. These glands release hydrochloric acid, a
protein digesting enzyme called pepsin, and mucus, which protects the inner lining of the stomach. The
hydrochloric acid creates an acidic medium which facilitates the action of the enzyme pepsin.
iii. Small intestine - The small intestine is the site of the complete digestion of carbohydrates, proteins and
fats. It receives the secretions of the liver and pancreas for this purpose.
Bile juice from liver makes the acidic food coming from stomach alkaline for facilitating the action of
pancreatic enzymes. Bile also emulsifies fats so as to increase the efficiency of enzyme action.
The pancreas secretes pancreatic juice which contains enzymes like trypsin for digesting proteins and lipase
for breaking down emulsified fats.
The walls of the small intestine contain glands which secrete intestinal juice. The enzymes present in it
finally convert the proteins into amino acids, complex carbohydrates into glucose and fats into fatty acids
and glycerol.
OR
(a) The three events that occur during the process of photosynthesis are:
(i) Absorption of light energy by chlorophyll.
(ii) Conversion of light energy to chemical energy and splitting of water molecules into hydrogen and
oxygen.
(iii) Reduction of carbon dioxide to carbohydrates.
Stomata help in exchange of gases (carbon dioxide and oxygen) for the purpose of photosynthesis.
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(b)
Experimental set-up to show that light is essential for photosynthesis:
i. Keep a potted plant in a dark room for three days so that all the starch gets used up.
ii. Now cover one half of a leaf of this plant with black paper or metal foil on both sides.
iii. Then keep the plant in sunlight for about six hours.
iv. Pluck the leaf which was half covered and remove the paper or foil.
v. Mark the covered area.
vi. Dip this leaf in boiling water for a few minutes.
vii. Then immerse it in a beaker containing alcohol.
viii. Carefully place this beaker in a water-bath and heat till the alcohol begins to boil.
ix. The leaf gets decolourised.
x. Now, dip the leaf in a dilute solution of iodine for a few minutes.
xi. Take out the leaf and rinse off the iodine solution. Observe the colour of the leaf.
The part containing starch will be turned blue-black by iodine.
You will find that the portion of the leaf exposed to sunlight will turn blue-black whereas the covered half of
the leaf remains colourless. This is because the covered part did not receive sunlight and hence could not
form carbohydrates.
This proves that light is essential for photosynthesis.
Marks: 5
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CBSE-XII-2017 EXAMINATI CBSE – X – 2011 EXAMINATION
SCIENCE
SET-1 Paper & Solution
Time: 3 Hrs. Max. Marks: 80
General Instructions:
1. The question paper comprises of two Sections, A and B. You are to attempt both the sections.
2. All questions are compulsory.
There is no overall choice. However, internal choice has been provided in all the three questions of five marks category. Only
one option in such question is to be attempted.
3. All questions of Section A and all questions of Section B are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 4 in Section A are one-mark questions. These are to be answered in one word or in one sentence.
5. Question numbers 5 to 13 in Section A are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about 30 words each.
6. Question numbers 14 to 22 in Section A are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in about 50 words each.
7. Question numbers 23 to 25 in Section A are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in about 70 words each.
8. Question numbers 26 to 41 in Section B are multiple choice questions based on practical skills. Each question is a one-mark
question. You are to select one most appropriate response out of the four provided to you.
SECTION A
Question 1. Why is it necessary to conserve our environment?
Solution: Conservation of environment is required for preventing damage to the environment and depletion
of natural resources.
Marks: 1
Question 2. Distinguish between biodegradable and non-biodegradable wastes.
Solution:
Biodegradable wastes Non-biodegradable wastes
Substances which are easily decomposed by Substances which are not decomposed by
microorganisms are called biodegradable wastes. microorganisms are called non-biodegradable wastes.
Marks: 1
Question 3. What will be the colour of scattered sunlight when the size of the scattering particles is
relatively large?
Solution: If the size of the scattering particles is relatively large, then the scattered light will appear white.
Marks: 1
Question 4. Draw the structure of Butanone molecule, CH3COC2H5.
Solution: Structure of butanone, CH3COC2H5
Marks: 1
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Question 5. Explain with the help of a diagram, how we are able to observe the sunrise about two minutes
before the Sun gets above the horizon.
Solution: Sunrise takes place when the sun is just above the horizon. But due to refraction of sunlight
caused by the atmosphere, we can see the rising sun about 2 minutes before it is actually above the horizon.
This happens because when the sun is slightly below the horizon, the sun’s light coming from less dense air
to more dense air is refracted downwards as it passes through the atmosphere. Because of this atmospheric
refraction, the sun appears to be raised above the horizon when actually it is slightly below the horizon.
Marks: 2
Question 6. List any four reasons for vegetative propagation being practised in the growth of some type of
plants.
Solution: Reasons for vegetative propagation:
i. It is done for plants which have lost the capacity to produce seeds.
ii. To produce plants which are genetically similar to the parent plant.
iii. It helps in producing those plants which either produce very few seeds or produce such seeds which are
not viable.
iv. It can be used to produce plants which reach maturity and produce fruits and seeds faster.
Marks: 2
Question 7. State the role of
i. Seminal vesicle
ii. Prostate gland in the human body.
Solution: i. Seminal vesicles - secrete alkaline secretions which lower the pH of semen and provide
nourishment.
ii. Prostate Gland - secretions of these glands keep the sperm active and mobile.
Marks: 2
Question 8. List any four disadvantages of using fossil fuels for the production of energy.
Solution: Disadvantages of using fossil fuels for the production of energy:
i. Burning of fossil fuels (e.g. coal and petroleum products) causes air pollution.
ii. The oxides of carbon, nitrogen and sulphur which are released on burning fossil fuels are acidic oxides.
These cause acid rain which adversely affects our water and soil resources.
iii. Green house gases like carbon dioxide released during the combustion of fossil fuels enhances the
process of global warming.
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iv. Fossil fuels were formed over millions of years ago and have limited reserves. If we were to continue
consuming these sources at such alarming rates, we would soon run out of energy.
Marks: 2
Question 9. Give two examples for each of the following:
i. Renewable sources or energy
ii. Non-renewable sources of energy
Solution: i. Solar energy and wind energy are the renewable sources of energy.
ii. Fossil fuels and uranium are the non-renewable sources of energy.
Marks: 2
Question 10. How does the metallic character of elements change along a period of the periodic table from
the left to the right and why?
Solution: Metallic character decreases from left to right along a period of the periodic table because on
moving from left to right, size of the atoms decreases and nuclear charge increases. Hence, the tendency to
release electrons decreases. Thus, the electropositive character decreases.
Marks: 2
Question 11. In the modern periodic table, the element calcium (atomic number = 20) is surrounded by
elements with atomic numbers 12, 19, 21 and 38. Which of these elements has physical and chemical
properties resembling those of calcium and why?
Solution: Ca: Electronic configuration is: 2,8,8,2
The physical and chemical properties of elements with atomic number 12 and 38 will resemble those of
calcium.
This is because they all belong to the second group and all of them have two electrons in the valence shell.
Marks: 2
Question 12. State any four characteristics of the image of the objects formed by a plane mirror.
Solution: Four characteristics of images formed by a plane mirror are:
i. The image formed by a plane mirror is always virtual.
ii. The image formed by a plane mirror is always erect.
iii. Size of the image is same as the size of the object and the image is laterally inverted.
iv. The image formed by a plane mirror is at the same distance behind the mirror as object is in front of it.
Marks: 2
Question 13. Draw a diagram to show dispersion of white light by a glass prism. What is the cause of this
dispersion?
Solution:
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Different colours of white light bend through different angles with respect to the incident ray, as they pass
through a prism. Thus the rays of each colour emerge along different paths and become distinct. It is the
band of distinct colours that we see in a spectrum.
Marks: 2
Question 14. (a) What is meant by the power of accommodation of an eye?
(b) A person with a myopic eye cannot see objects beyond 1.2 m directly. What should be the type of the
corrective lens used? What would be its power?
Solution: (a) The process by which the ciliary muscles change the focal length of an eye lens to focus
distant or near objects clearly on the retina is called the accommodation of the eye. The ability of the eye to
do this is called the power of accommodation of the eye.
(b) The person is able to see nearby objects clearly, but he is unable to see objects beyond 1.2 m. This
happens because the image of an object beyond 1.2 m is formed in front of the retina and not at the retina, as
shown in the given figure.
To correct this defect of vision, the person must use a concave lens. The concave lens will bring the image
back to the retina as shown in the given figure.
Focal length of the corrective lens used = − (Distance of far point of the myopic eye) = −1.2 m
1 1
Power of the lens 0.83D
focal length 12
Marks: 3
Question 15. What does HIV stand for? Is AIDS an infectious disease? List any four modes of spreading
AIDS.
Solution: HIV stands for Human Immuno Deficiency Virus.
Yes, HIV is an infectious agent which spreads through sexual contact.
Modes by which can HIV spread:
i. Through sexual contact.
ii. From pregnant mothers to the growing foetus.
iii. Through transfusion of infected blood.
iv. By sharing of needles or syringes.
Marks: 3
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Question 16. Describe any three ways in which individuals with a particular trait may increase in
population.
Solution: Different ways in which individuals with a particular trait may increase in population are
variation, natural selection and genetic drift.
Variation: Variation is defined as the occurrence of differences among the individuals. No two individuals
are exactly alike. Variations arising during the process of reproduction can be inherited and lead to increased
survival of the individuals.
Natural selection: It results in adaptations in population to fit their environment better. Thus, natural
selection directs evolution in the population of a particular species.
Genetic drift: The change in the frequency of certain genes in a population over generations is called genetic
drift.
Marks: 3
Question 17. State the evidence we have for the origin of life from inanimate matter.
Solution: J.B.S. Haldane suggested that life must have developed from the simple inorganic molecules
which were present on Earth soon after it was formed. He speculated that the conditions on Earth at that time
could have given rise to more complex organic molecules which were necessary for life. The first primitive
organisms would arise from further chemical synthesis. Later on, Stanely L. Miller and Harold C. Urey
conducted experiments to understand the origin of organic molecules. They created an atmosphere similar to
that thought to exist on early Earth (this had molecules like ammonia, methane and hydrogen sulphide, but
no oxygen) over water. This was maintained at a temperature just below 100 °C and sparks were passed
through the mixture of gases to simulate lightning. At the end of a week, 15% of the carbon (from methane)
had been converted to simple compounds of carbon including amino acids which make up protein
molecules. This is considered as evidence for origin of life on the Earth from inanimate matter.
Marks: 3
Question 18. Give an example of body characteristics used to determine how close two species are in terms
of evolution and explain it.
Solution: Homologous organs, analogous organs and vestigial organs help to identify evolutionary
relationships.
Homologous organs are those organs which have similar basic structure but have been modified to perform
different functions. Example - forelimbs of reptiles, frog, lizard, bird and humans are homologous organs.
Such homologous characteristics help to identify an evolutionary relationship between apparently different
species.
Analogous organs are those organs which are different in basic structure but perform the same function.
Example - wings of bird and wings of bat.
Vestigial organs are certain reduced and non-functional organs present in some organisms. Example -
vermiform appendix in human body.
Marks: 3
Question 19. Write chemical equations to show what happens when:
i. Ethanol is heated with concentrated sulphuric acid at 443 K.
ii. Ethanol reacts with ethanoic acid in the presence of an acid acting as a catalyst.
iii. An ester reacts with a base.
Solution: i. CH3CH2OH
conc.sulphuric acid at 443 K
CH2 = CH2 + H2O
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ii. CH3CH2OH + CH3COOH
acid
CH3COOCH2CH3 + H2O
iii. CH3COOCH2CH3 + NaOH
CH3COONa + CH3CH2OH
Marks: 3
Question 20. The atomic number of an element is 16. Predict
i. the number of valence electrons in its atom
ii. its valency
iii. its group number
iv. whether it is a metal or a non-metal
v. the nature of oxide formed by it
vi. the formula of its chloride
Solution: Atomic number = 16
Electronic configuration = 2, 8, 6
i. Number of valence electrons in its atom = 6
ii. Valency = 2
iii. Group number =16
iv. It is a non-metal
v. Acidic oxide
vi. XCl2
Marks: 3
Question 21. An object is placed between infinity and the pole of a convex mirror. Draw a ray diagram and
also state the position, the relative size and the nature of the image formed.
Solution:
An object is placed between infinity and the pole of a convex mirror, the image formed is:
i. Behind the mirror at focus (F),
ii. Virtual and erect,
iii. Highly diminished
Marks: 3
Question 22. What is the principle of reversibility of light? Show that the incident ray of light is parallel to
the emergent ray of light when light falls obliquely on a side of a rectangular glass slab.
Solution: The principle of reversibility of light states that light will follow exactly the same path if its
direction of travel is reversed.
When light falls obliquely on a rectangular glass slab, the incident ray is parallel to the emergent ray; as
shown in the figure. Angle of incidence is equal to the angle of emergence.
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Marks: 3
Question 23. With the help of suitable diagrams, explain the various steps of budding in Hydra.
OR
What is binary fission in organisms? With the help of suitable diagrams, describe the mode of reproduction
in Amoeba.
Solution: In Hydra, a bud develops as an outgrowth due to repeated cell divisions at one specific site. These
buds develop into tiny individuals and when fully mature, detach from the parent body and become new
independent individuals.
OR
Binary fission is an asexual method of reproduction. Amoeba reproduces by this method. During this
process, nuclear division takes place first, followed by the appearance of a constriction in the cell
membrane, which gradually increases inwards and divides the cytoplasm into two parts. Finally, two
daughter organisms are formed.
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Marks: 5
Question 24. (a) State two properties of carbon which lead to a very large number of carbon compounds.
(b) Why does micelle formation take place when soap is added to water? Why are micelles not formed when
soap is added to ethanol?
OR
Explain isomerism. State any four characteristics of isomers. Draw the structures of possible isomers of
butane, C4H10.
Solution: (a) Two properties of carbon which lead to a very large number of carbon compounds are:
i. Tetravalency: Carbon has valency 4 i.e., it is tetravalent. Hence, it is capable of bonding with four other
atoms of other monovalent elements.
ii. Catenation: Carbon has the unique ability to form bonds with other atoms of carbon to form long chains.
(b) A soap molecule has two parts –one hydrophobic part and the other hydrophilic part. When added to
water, the hydrophobic part arranges itself towards the dirt and the hydrophilic end arranges itself towards
the water.
Micelle formation does not take place when soap is added to ethanol because the hydrophobic part of soap
molecules is soluble in ethanol.
OR
Isomers are compounds with same molecular formula but different structures.
Four characteristics of isomers:
i. Isomers have different physical properties.
ii. Isomers may have same or different chemical properties.
iii. All isomers have the same number of atoms.
iv. Isomers have different structural arrangements.
Isomers of butane, C4H10.
Marks: 5
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Question 25. (a) What is meant by ‘power of a lens’?
(b) State and define the S.I. unit of power of a lens.
(c) A convex lens of focal length 25 cm and a concave lens of focal length 10 cm are placed in close contact
with each other. Calculate the lens power of this combination.
OR
(a) Draw a ray diagram to show the formation of image of an object placed between infinity and the optical
centre of a concave lens.
(b) A concave lens of focal length 15 cm forms an image 10 cm from the lens. Calculate
i. The distance of the object from the lens.
ii. The magnification for the image formed
iii. The nature of the image formed.
Solution: (a) The degree of convergence or divergence of light rays achieved by a lens is expressed in terms
of its power. The power of a lens is defined as the reciprocal of its focal length. The power P of a lens of
focal length f is given by:
1
P
f (in meters)
(b) The S.I. unit of power of a lens is ‘dioptre’.
1 dioptre is the power of a lens whose focal length is 1 metre.
(c) Focal length of convex lens = +25 cm
100
Power of convex lens, P1 = =4D
25
Focal length of concave lens = −10 cm
100
Power of concave lens, P₂ = = –10 D
10
Hence, power of this combination, P = P1 +P2 = (4 D) + (−10 D) = −6 D
OR
(a) Ray diagram showing the formation of image of an object placed between infinity and optical centre of a
concave lens:
(b) A concave lens always forms a virtual, erect image on the same side of the object.
Focal length of concave lens, f = −15 cm
Image distance, v = −10 cm
i. Let 'u' be the object distance; then using lens formula:
1 1 1
f v u
1 1 1
or,
u v f
Substituting the values,
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1 1 1 1
u 10 15 30
Or, u = −30 cm = −0.3 m
Thus, object distance is 30 cm
v 10 1
ii. Magnification, m 0.33
u 30 3
iii. The positive sign shows that the image is erect and virtual. The image is one-third the size of the object.
Marks: 5
SECTION B
Question 26. The shape of yeast cells is
(a) Only spherical
(b) Only oval.
(c) Irregular
(d) Both oval and spherical.
Solution: (b) Only oval.
Yeast cells are usually oval.
Marks: 1
Question 27. A student added acetic acid to test tubes I, II, III and IV containing the labeled substances and
then brought a burning splinter near the mouth of each test tube.
The splinter would be extinguished when brought near the mouth of test tube.
(a) I
(b) II
(c) III
(d) IV
Solution: (c) III
Sodium bicarbonate reacts with acetic acid to release carbon dioxide gas which is a nonsupporter of
combustion.
Marks: 1
Question 28. Acetic add reacts with solid sodium hydrogen carbonate,
(a) Slowly forming no gas
(b) Vigorously with effervescence
(c) Slowly without effervescence
(d) Vigorously without gas formation
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Solution: (b) Vigorously with effervescence
Acetic acid reacts with solid sodium hydrogen carbonate vigorously and effervescence is produced due to
evolution of CO2 gas.
Marks: 1
Question 29. Vapours of acetic acid smell:
(a) Pungent like vinegar
(b) Sweet like rose
(c) Suffocating like sulphur dioxide
(d) Odorless like water
Solution: (a) Pungent like vinegar
Vapours of acetic acid smell pungent like vinegar.
Marks: 1
Question 30. A clean aluminium foil was placed in an aqueous solution of zinc sulphate. When the
aluminium foil was taken out of the zinc sulphate solution after 15 minutes, its surface was found to be
coated with a silvery grey deposit. From the above observation it can be concluded that:
(a) Aluminium is more reactive than zinc
(b) Zinc is more reactive than aluminium
(c) Zinc and aluminium both are equally reactive
(d) Zinc and aluminium both are non-reactive
Solution: (a) Aluminium is more reactive than zinc
Aluminium is more reactive than zinc and is hence able to displace zinc from its solution.
Marks: 1
Question 31. The colour of raisins as used in the experiment, ‘To determine the percentage of water
absorbed by raisins’, was
(a) White
(b) Yellow
(c) Dark brown
(d) Pink
Solution: (c) Dark brown
The raisins are dark brown in colour.
Marks: 1
Question 32. Following are the steps involved in the experiment- 'To determine the percentage of water
absorbed by raisins'. They are not in proper sequence.
I. Soak the raisins in fresh water.
II. Weight dry raisins.
III. Weigh soaked raisins.
IV. Wipe out soaked raisins.
The correct sequence of steps is
(a) I, II, III, IV
(b) II, I, IV, III
(c) II, I, III, IV
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(d) I, II, IV, III
Solution: (b) II, I, IV, III
The correct sequence is- II, I, IV, III
Marks: 1
Question 33. During the course of an experiment, to determine the percentage of water absorbed by raisins,
the raisins are weighed
(a) Every half an hour.
(b) Every hour.
(c) Once- only after completing the experiment.
(d) Two times- Before soaking and after soaking for three hours.
Solution: (d) Two times− Before soaking and after soaking for three hours.
Raisins are weighed two times– before soaking and after soaking for three hours.
Marks: 1
Question 34. The given figures illustrate binger fission in Amoeba in improper order.
The correct order is
(a) III, IV, II, I
(b) IV, III, II, I
(c) II, III, IV, I
(d) I, III, IV, II
Solution: (c) II, III, IV, I
The correct order of binary fission is- II, III, IV, I
Marks: 1
Question 35. The steps involved in observing a slide under a microscope are given below. They are not in
proper sequence.
I. Focus the object under high power of the microscope.
II. Place the slide on the stage of the microscope.
III. Arrange the mirror to reflect maximum light to the slide.
IV. Focus the object under low power of the microscope.
The proper sequence of steps is
(a) II, III, IV, I
(b) I, II, III, IV
(c) IV, III, II, I
(d) III, I, II, IV
Solution: (a) II, III, IV, I
The steps to observe a slide under the microscope are- II, III, IV, I
Marks: 1
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Question 36. In which diagram the angle of refraction r has been correctly depicted?
(a) I
(b) II
(c) III
(d) IV
Solution: (d) IV
Angle of refraction is measured with respect to the normal at the first point of incidence.
Marks: 1
Question 37. For a ray of light passing through a glass slab, the lateral displacement was correctly measured
as:
(a) AB
(b) PQ
(c) CD
(d) PR
Solution: (c) CD
Lateral displacement is the sideways shift of the emergent ray from the direction of the incident ray.
Marks: 1
Question 38. Iron nails were dipped in an aqueous solution of copper sulphate. After about 30 minutes, it
was observed that the colour of the solution changed from
(a) Colorless to light green.
(b) Blue to light green.
(c) Blue to colourless.
(d) Green to blue.
Solution: (b) Blue to light green
The blue coloured copper sulphate solution changes to light green iron sulphate solution after displacement
of copper by iron from copper sulphate solution.
Marks: 1
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Question 39. To find the focal length of a concave mirror, Sita should choose which one of the following
(a) A mirror holder and screen holder
(b) A screen holder and a scale
(c) A mirror holder, a screen holder and a scale
(d) A screen, a mirror, holders for them and a scale
Solution: (d) A screen, a mirror, holders for them and a scale
A screen, a mirror, holders for them and scale are needed to find the focal length of a concave mirror.
Marks: 1
Question 40. By using a convex lens, a student obtained a sharp image of his classroom window grill on a
screen. In which direction should he move the lens to focus a distant tree instead of the grill?
(a) Towards the screen
(b) Away from the screen
(c) Very far away from the screen
(d) Behind the screen
Solution: (a) Towards the screen
The lens should be moved towards the screen because the distant tree can be considered an object at infinity
whose image will be formed at the focus, while earlier the image of nearer grill was formed at a distance
farther than the focal length.
Marks: 1
Question 41. To determine the focal length of a convex lens by obtaining a sharp image of a distant object,
the following steps were suggested which are not in proper sequence.
I. Hold the lens between the object and the screen.
II. Adjust the position of the lens to form a sharp image.
III. Select a suitable distant object.
IV. Measure the distance between the lens and the screen.
The correct sequence of steps to determine the focal length of the lens is
(a) III, I, II, IV
(b) III, I, IV, II
(c) III, IV, II, I
(d) I, II, III, IV
Solution: (a) III, I, II, IV
The proper sequence to determine the focal length of a convex lens is:
III - Select a suitable distant object.
I - Hold the lens between the object and the screen.
II - Adjust the position of the lens to form a sharp image.
IV - Measure the distance between the lens and the screen.
Marks: 1
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CBSE-XII-2017 EXAMINATI CBSE – X – 2012 EXAMINATION
SCIENCE
SET-3 Paper & Solution
Time: 3 Hrs. Max. Marks: 80
General Instructions:
1. The question paper comprises two Sections, A and B. You are to attempt both the sections.
2. All questions are compulsory.
3. There is no overall choice. However, internal choice has been provided in all the three questions of five marks category. Only
one option in such question is to be attempted.
4. All questions of Section A and all questions of Section B are to be attempted separately.
5. Question numbers 1 to 4 in Section A are one-mark questions. These are to be answered in one word or in one sentence.
6. Question numbers 5 to 13 in Section A are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about 30 words each.
7. Question numbers 14 to 22 in Section A are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in about 50 words each.
8. Question numbers 23 to 25 in Section A are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in about 70 words each.
9. Question numbers 26 to 41 in Section B are multiple choice questions based on practical skills. Each question is a one-mark
question. You are to select one most appropriate response out of the four provided to you.
SECTION A
Question 1. Name the functional group present in each of the following organic compounds:
i. CH3COCH3
ii. C2H5COOH
Solution: i. Ketone
ii. Carboxylic acid
Marks: 1
Question 2. Which phenomenon is responsible for making the path of light visible?
Solution: Tyndall effect is the phenomenon responsible for making the path of light visible.
Marks: 1
Question 3. Which class of carbon compounds are responsible for the depletion of ozone layer at the higher
level of the atmosphere?
Solution: Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) are responsible for the depletion of the ozone layer.
Marks: 1
Question 4. Select two non-biodegradable substances from the following waste generated in a kitchen:
Spoilt food, paper bags, milk bags, vegetable peels, tin cans, used tea leaves.
Solution: Milk bags and tin cans.
Marks: 1
Question 5. Define the term puberty. List two changes observed in girls at the time of puberty.
Solution: It is the age at which the reproductive system becomes functional in human beings. The changes
observed in girls at the time of puberty are:
i. Breast enlargement.
ii. Fat tissue starts depositing in areas like the breasts, hips, buttocks and thighs.
Marks: 2
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Question 6. What is meant by asexual reproduction? List any two of its different forms.
Solution: It is a mode of reproduction in which new individuals are produced from a single parent without
the involvement of fusion of gametes. The two forms of asexual reproduction are - budding and binary
fission.
Marks: 2
Question 7. What are the advantages of water stored in the ground?
Solution: Advantages of water stored in the ground:
i. Stored ground water does not evaporate.
ii. It does not provide breeding grounds for mosquitoes like stagnant water collected in ponds or artificial
lakes.
iii. It provides moisture for vegetation over a wide area.
iv. Ground water stored does not get contaminated by human and animal wastes.
Marks: 2
Question 8. “Burning fossil fuels is a cause of global warming.” Justify this statement.
Solution: Fossil fuels like coal and petroleum are huge reservoirs of carbon and its compounds. On burning
fossil fuels, huge reservoirs of carbon present in fossil fuels get converted to carbon dioxide and go into air.
The amount of carbon dioxide thus increases in the atmosphere which leads to an increased green house
effect leading to excessive heating of the Earth i.e., global warming.
Marks: 2
Question 9. When we place a glass prism in the path of a narrow beam of white light, a spectrum is
obtained. What happens when a second identical prism is placed in an inverted position with respect to the
first prism? Draw a labelled ray diagram to illustrate it.
Solution: When a second identical prism is placed in an inverted position with respect to the first prism,
recombination of the spectrum occurs and it forms white light again.
Marks: 2
Question 10. List four properties of the image formed by a concave mirror when an object is placed
between the focus and pole of the mirror.
Solution: When an object is placed between the focus and the pole of a concave mirror, the image formed
is:
i. Virtual
ii. Enlarged
iii. Behind the mirror
iv. Erect
Marks: 2
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Question 11. An element 'M' has atomic number 12.
(a) Write its electronic configuration.
(b) State the group to which 'M' belongs.
(c) Is 'M' a metal or a non-metal?
(d) Write the formula of its oxide.
Solution: (a) The electronic configuration of M is 2, 8, 2
(b) M belongs to the 2nd group
(c) M is a metal
(d) MO
Marks: 2
Question 12. How can the valency of an element be determined if its electronic configuration is known?
What will be the valency of an element of atomic number 9?
Solution: An element's valency is determined by the number of electrons in its outer shell. Hence the
number of valence electrons obtained from the electronic configuration of the element gives the valency i.e.,
the number of electrons lost, gained or shared by the element to attain a noble gas configuration.
The valency of an element of atomic number 9 would be 1 since the number of valence electrons in its outer
shell is 7 so it needs only one electron to attain the noble gas configuration.
Marks: 2
Question 13. A star at times appears bright and at times fainter. What is this effect called? State the reason
for this effect.
Solution: This effect is called twinkling effect. Atmospheric refraction is the reason behind this effect.
Since the stars are very far, they can be taken as point sized objects. As the path of rays coming from the
stars keep varying due to atmospheric refraction, the apparent position of the stars fluctuates and the amount
of light entering our eyes also varies resulting in a twinkling effect.
Marks: 2
Question 14. F, Cl and Br are elements each having seven valence electrons. Which of these:
i. has the largest atomic radius
ii. is most reactive?
Justify your answer stating reason for each.
Solution: i. F, Cl and Br all are in the same group and thus have the same effective nuclear charge. Br has
the largest atomic radius among all because it uses the largest number of electron energy levels since the
valence electrons are placed in larger orbitals i.e. the principal quantum number increases on going down the
group.
ii. Fluorine is the most reactive since it has the greatest tendency to gain electrons because it has a higher
effective nuclear charge and uses fewer energy levels than Br and Cl.
Marks: 3
Question 15. Explain the meaning of sexually transmitted diseases (STD’s). Give two examples of STD’s
each, caused due to
i. bacterial infection
ii. viral infection.
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State in brief how the spread of such diseases may be prevented.
Solution: Sexually transmitted diseases (STD’s) are diseases which are usually passed through sexual
contact with an infected partner.
i. Sexually transmitted diseases caused due to bacterial infection: Gonorrhea and Syphilis.
ii. Sexually transmitted diseases caused due to viral infection: AIDS and Herpes.
A key strategy in the prevention of STD’s involves screening, diagnosis and treatment of patients as well as
their sexual partners to interrupt transmission.
Prevention of transmission of STD's:
(a) Having sex with an infected or any unknown person should be avoided.
(b) Sharing of needles, syringes etc. must be prohibited.
(c) Surgical and dental instruments should be sterilised properly before use.
(d) Avoid blood transfusion from an infected person. Blood should be tested before transfusion.
(e) Adequate medical treatment should be provided to the pregnant woman to protect the child from getting
infected.
Marks: 3
Question 16. Distinguish between homologous organs and analogous organs. In which category would you
place wings of a bird and wings of bat? Justify your answer giving a suitable reason.
Solution:
Homologous Organs Analogous Organs
Homologous organs are organs which are dissimilar Analogous organs are organs which are similar in
in shape, size and function but their origin, basic shape and function but their origin, basic plan and
plan and development are similar. development are dissimilar.
Wings of a bird and bat should be placed in the category of analogous organs as they are similar in function
but are different in their structure and development.
Marks: 3
Question 17. Define the term 'evolution'. ‘Evolution cannot be equated with progress’. Justify this
statement.
Solution: Evolution is a gradual change in the characteristics of a population of animals or plants over
successive generations.
Evolution cannot be equated with progress. There is no real 'progress' in the idea of evolution. Evolution is
simply the generation of diversity and the shaping of the diversity by environmental selection. The only
progressive trend in evolution seems to be that more and more complex body designs have emerged over
time. However again, it is not as if the older designs are inefficient! One of the simplest life forms, bacteria
inhabits the most inhospitable habitats like hot springs, deep-sea thermal vents and the ice in Antarctica.
Marks: 3
Question 18. A blue colour flower plant denoted by BB is crossbred with a white colour flower plant
denoted by bb.
(a) State the colour of flower you expect in their F1 generation plants.
(b) What must be the percentage of white flower plants in F2 generation if flowers of F1 plants are self-
pollinated?
(c) State the expected ratio of the genotypes BB and Bb in the F2 progeny.
Solution: (a) Blue
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(b) 25%
(c) 1 : 2
Marks: 3
Question 19. Complete the following equations:
(a) CH4 + O2
(b) C2H5OH
Hot conc. H2SO4
(c) CH3COOH + NaOH
Solution: (a) CH4 + O2 CO2 + H2O + Heat and light
(b) C2H5OH
Hot conc. H2SO4
CH2 = CH2 + H2O
(c) NaOH + CH3COOH CH3COONa + H2O
Marks: 3
Question 20. A student cannot see a chart hanging on a wall placed at a distance of 3 m from him. Name the
defect of vision he is suffering from. How can it be corrected? Draw ray diagrams for the:
i. defect of vision
ii. for its correction
Solution: The student is suffering from myopia or short sightedness. It is a defect of vision due to which a
person cannot see the distant objects clearly though he can see nearby objects clearly.
It can be corrected by using a concave lens of suitable focal length.
i. Ray diagram for defect myopia:
ii. Ray diagram for the correction of this defect:
Marks: 3
Question 21. State the type of mirror preferred as
i. Rear view mirrors in vehicles
ii. Shaving mirrors. Justify your answer giving two reasons in each case
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Solution: i. Convex mirror is used as rear view mirror because: (1) It has a large field of view. (2) It
produces erect image of the objects behind the vehicle.
ii. Concave mirror is used as shaving mirror, because: (1) It produces enlarged image when object is placed
close to it. (2) It produces an erect image.
Marks: 3
Question 22. The image of a candle flame placed at a distance of 36 cm from a spherical lens is formed on a
screen placed at a distance of 72 cm from the lens. Identify the type of lens and calculate its focal length. If
the height of the flame is 2.5 cm, find the height of the image.
Solution: Given that:
Object distance, u = −36 cm
Image distance, v = 72 cm
As the image is obtained on a screen it is a real image and hence the spherical lens will be a convex lens.
Focal length f = ?
According to lens formula,
1 1 1
v u f
Substituting the values, we get:
1 1 1
72 36 f
1 1 1
f 72 36
72
f
36
f = 24 cm
Therefore the focal length of the lens = 24 cm
It is given that:
Object height, h1 = 2.5 cm
Image height, h2 =?
v h
We know that magnification, m = 2
u h1
v
h2 h1
u
72
h 2 2.5
36
h2 = -5 cm
The image of the flame formed will be inverted and have a height of 5 cm.
Marks: 3
Question 23. List the sign conventions for reflection of light by spherical mirrors. Draw a diagram and
apply these conventions in the determination of focal length of a spherical mirror which forms a three times
magnified real image of an object placed 16 cm in front of it.
OR
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State the law of refraction of light which defines the refractive index of a medium with respect to the other.
Express it mathematically. How is refractive index of any medium 'A' with respect to a medium 'B' related to
the speed of propagation of light in two media A and B? State the name of this constant when one medium is
vacuum or air. The refractive indices of glass and water with respect to vacuum are 3/2 and 4/3 respectively.
If the speed of light in glass is 2 × 108 m/s, find the speed of light in
i. vacuum
ii. water
Solution: Sign conventions of spherical mirror:
1. Object is always placed to the left of mirror.
2. All distances are measured from the pole of the mirror.
3. Distances measured in the direction of the incident ray are positive and the distances measured in the
direction opposite to that of the incident ray are negative.
4. Distances measured along the y-axis (upwards) above the principal axis are positive and that measured
along the y-axis (downwards) below the principal axis are negative.
Given that:
Object distance, u = −16 cm
Magnification, m = 3
v h2
We know that magnification for a spherical mirror, m =
u h1
v
i.e., 3
u
v 3u
Using mirror formula:
1 1 1
f u v
1 1 1
f 16 3 16
1 48
f 4
u = −12 cm
Negative sign of focal length implies that the focal length is being measured against the direction of incident
light and it is a concave mirror.
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OR
Snell's law of refraction states that the ratio of sine of angle of incidence in the first medium to the sine of
angle of refraction in the second medium is a constant and is termed as the refractive index of the second
medium with respect to the first medium,
sin i 1
n2
sin r
where i and r are the angle which the incident and refracted rays respectively make with the normal.
The constant 1n2 is called the refractive index of the second medium (2) relative to the first medium (1).
Relation between refractive index of any medium 'A' with respect to a medium 'B' and the speed of
propagation of light in two media A and B:
B Speed of light in medium B
nA =
Speed of light in medium A
When one medium is vacuum or air, this constant is called absolute refractive index.
Given:
3
Refractive index of glass, ng
2
4
Refractive index of water, nw
3
Speed of light in glass, vg = 2 × 108 m/s
Let speed of light in vacuum be c,
c
We know that, ng
vg
3
c ng vg 2 108 3108 m/s
2
Let vw be the speed of light in water.
c
nw
vw
c 3 108
vw = 2.25 108 m/s
nw 4
3
Speed of light in vacuum = 3 × 108 m/s
Speed of light in water = 2.25 × 10s8 m/s
Marks: 5
Question 24. What is the difference between the chemical composition of soaps and detergents?
State in brief the soaps in removing an oily spot from a shirt. Why soaps are not considered suitable for
washing when water is hard?
OR
List in tabular form three physical and two chemical properties on the basis of which ethanol and ethanoic
acid can be differentiated.
Solution: Detergents are generally ammonium or sulphonate salts of long chain carboxylic acids whereas
molecules of soap are sodium or potassium salts of long-chain carboxylic acids.
Action of soap:
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1. Soaps are cleansing agents capable of reacting with water and dislodge the unwanted particles from cloth
or skin.
2. The molecules of soap are sodium or potassium salts of long chain carboxylic acids.
3. A soap molecule has a tadpole shaped structure.
4. One end (long non polar end) of a soap molecule is a hydrocarbon chain which is insoluble in water but
soluble in oil.
5. The other end (short polar end) of a soap molecule is a carboxylate ion which is hydrophilic i.e., water
soluble but insoluble in oil.
6. Soap on mixing with water forms a concentrated solution and causes foaming.
7. The long non-polar end of soap gravitates towards and surrounds the dirt and absorbs the dust in it.
8. The short polar end with the carboxylate ion turns the water away from the dirt.
9. A spherical aggregate of soap molecules is formed in the soap solution in water and is called a micelle.
10. The soap molecule thus helps in dissolving the dirt in water and help to wash our clothes clean.
Hard water contains calcium and magnesium salts. When soap is used in hard water it forms an insoluble
substance scum which remains even after washing hence soaps are not considered suitable for washing in
hard water.
OR
Difference in physical properties:
S. No. Ethanol Ethanoic acid
1. It exists only in liquid form. It can exist both in liquid as well as solid form.
2. It belongs to the functional group alcohols. It belongs to the functional group carboxylic
acids.
3. It has a specific smell but not like vinegar. It smells like vinegar.
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Difference in chemical properties:
S. No. Ethanol Ethanoic acid
1. Reaction with sodium bicarbonate: Reaction with sodium bicarbonate:
No salt formation occurs and carbon dioxide It will react with sodium bicarbonate to form a
gas is also not evolved. salt and carbon dioxide gas will be released.
2. It does not give litmus test i.e., no change in It turns blue litmus red.
the colour of litmus solution..
Marks: 5
Question 25. Define the terms pollination and fertilisation. Draw a diagram of a pistil showing pollen tube
growth into the ovule and label the following: pollen grain, male gamete, female gamete and ovary.
OR
Describe in brief the role of
i. testis
ii. seminal vesicle
iii. vas deferens
iv. ureter
v. prostate gland in human male reproductive system.
Solution: Pollination- Transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma is called pollination.
Fertilisation - The process of fusion of male and female gametes to form a zygote which eventually develops
into an embryo is called fertilisation.
OR
i. Testis: It is the organ which produces sperms and the male sex hormone, testosterone.
ii. Seminal vesicle: It produces fluid which makes up a significant percentage of semen.
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iii. Vas deferens: Vas deferens is a tube transporting spermatozoa from the epididymis to the prostate part of
the urethra.
iv. Ureter: It carries urine from the kidneys to the urinary bladder.
v. Prostate gland in human male reproductive system: It contributes additional fluid to the ejaculate. Prostate
fluids also help to nourish the sperms.
Marks: 5
SECTION B
Question 26. After observing the prepared slides of binary fission in Amoeba and budding in yeast, the
following observations were reported:
a. Single cells of Amoeba and Yeast were undergoing binary fission and budding respectively.
b. Cytokinesis was observed in the Yeast cell.
c. Elongated nucleus was dividing to form two daughter nuclei in Amoeba.
d. A chain of buds were observed due to reproduction in Amoeba.
The correct observation(s) is/are:
(a) d, a and c
(b) c and d
(c) b only
(d) a and c
Solution: (d) a and c
The correct observations are:
i. Single cells of Amoeba and Yeast were undergoing binary fission and budding respectively.
ii. Elongated nucleus was dividing to form two daughter nuclei in Amoeba.
Marks: 1
Question 27. A student after viewing a prepared slide illustrates budding in yeast in the following order
which is not correct:
The correct order should be:
(a) b, d, e, c, a
(b) b, e, d, c, a
(c) b, c, d, e, a
(d) b, d, c, e, a
Solution: (d) b, d, c, e, a
The correct sequence is b, d, c, e, a
Marks: 1
Question 28. A student has to observe a permanent slide of binary fission in Amoeba. Find the correct
sequence of steps given below for focusing the object under a microscope.
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a. Place the slide on the stage, look through the eye-piece and adjust the mirror to get proper illumination.
b. Focus the slide sharp using fine adjustment screw.
c. Look through the eye-piece and raise the objective lens using coarse adjustment screw till the object is
focused.
d. Look through the eye-piece and move the slide till the object is visible.
(a) a, c, d, b
(b) d, c, b, a
(c) a, b, d, c
(d) a, d, c, b
Solution: (d) a, d, c, b
The correct sequence is a, d, c, b
Marks: 1
Question 29. After viewing different slides, a student draws the following diagrams. Select the one which
depicts binary fission in Amoeba:
(a) d
(b) b
(c) a
(d) c
Solution: (c) a
Figure (a) shows binary fission in Amoeba.
Marks: 1
Question 30. Dry raisins were soaked in water for 2 hours to determine the percentage of water absorbed by
raisins. Before final weighing of swollen raisins, the extra water left on the surface of soaked raisins was
removed by:
(a) Dry cotton wool
(b) Hot air blower
(c) Gently rubbing with cotton cloth
(d) Filter paper
Solution: (d) Filter paper
Filter paper is used to soak raisins.
Marks: 1
Question 31. While performing the experiment with raisins to determine the percentage of water absorbed
by them, a student made the following measurements:
Mass of water in the beaker = 40 g
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Mass of raisins before soaking = 5 g
Mass of raisins after soaking for 2 hours = 8 g
Mass of water left in the beaker after three experiments = 35 g
The percentage of water absorbed by raisins is:
8g 5g
(a) 100
8g
40g 35g
(b) 100
40g
40g 35g
(c) 100
35g
8g 5g
(d) 100
5g
8g 5g
Solution: (d) 100
5g
Marks: 1
Question 32. Which of the following observations is true about dilute solution of acetic acid?
(a) It smells like vinegar and turns red litmus blue
(b) It smells like onion and turns blue litmus blue
(c) It smells like orange and turns red litmus blue
(d) It smells like vinegar and turns blue litmus red
Solution: (d) It smells like vinegar and turns blue litmus red
Acetic acid smells like vinegar and turns blue litmus red due to its acidic nature.
Marks: 1
Question 33. A student takes Na2CO3 powder in a test tube and pours some drops of acetic acid in it.
He observes:
(a) No reaction in the test tube
(b) Colourless gas with pungent smell
(c) Bubbles of a colourless and odourless gas
(d) White fumes with smell of vinegar
Solution: (c) Bubbles of a colourless and odourless gas
Na2CO3 reacts with acetic acid to evolve carbon dioxide gas.
Marks: 1
Question 34. A student adds 4 ml of acetic to a test tube containing 4 ml of distilled water. He then shakes
the test tube and leaves it to settle. After about 10 minutes he observes:
(a) A layer of water over the layer of acetic acid
(b) A layer of acetic acid over the layer of water
(c) A precipitate settling at the bottom of the test tube
(d) A clear colourless solution
Solution: (d) A clear colorless solution
Acetic acid is completely miscible with water in all proportions.
Marks: 1
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Question 35. The colours of aqueous solutions of CuSO4 and FeSO4 as observed in the laboratory are:
(a) Pale green and light blue respectively
(b) Light blue and dark green respectively
(c) Dark blue and dark green respectively
(d) Dark blue and pale green respectively
Solution: (D) Dark blue and pale green respectively
Copper sulphate solution is blue coloured and iron sulphate solution is pale green.
Marks: 1
Question 36. A student prepared an aqueous solution of CuSO4 in beaker X and an aqueous solution of
FeSO4 in beaker Y. He then dropped some iron pieces in beaker X and some zinc pieces in beaker Y. After
about 10 hours, he observed that the solution in X and Y respectively appears:
(a) Blue and green
(b) Colourless and pale green
(c) Colourless and light blue
(d) Greenish and colourless
Solution: (d) Greenish and colourless
Fe CuSO4(aq) FeSO4(aq) Cu
(X) Greenish
Zn FeSO4(aq) ZnSO4(aq) Fe
(Y) Colorless
Marks: 1
Question 37. While tracing the path of a ray of light passing through a rectangular glass slab a student
tabulated his observations as given below:
The correct observation is:
(a) I
(b) II
(c) III
(d) IV
Solution: (d) IV
The IV observation is the correct one. The ratio of sin i and sin r given by the fourth choice gives 1.5.
We know that
sin i n2 1.5
1.5
sin r n1 1
Marks: 1
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Question 38. A student traces the path of a ray of white light through a rectangular glass slab and marks the
angles of incidence ( i ), refraction ( r ) and emergence ( e ) as shown.
Which angle or angles have not been marked correctly?
(a) i only
(b) i and r
(c) r and e
(d) i and e
Solution: (d) i and e
i and e are not marked correctly. Each angle is supposed to be marked from the normal.
Marks: 1
Question 39. To determine the focal length of a convex lens by obtaining a sharp image of a distant object
we generally follow the following steps which are not in proper sequence.
a. Hold the lens between the object and the screen
b. Measure the distance between the lens and the screen
c. Select a well lit distant object
d. Place a screen opposite to the object on the lab table
e. Adjust the position of the lens to form a sharp image
The correct sequence of these steps is:
(a) c, a, d, e, b
(b) c, d, a, e, b
(c) c, d, e, a, b
(d) c, a, e, d, b
Solution: (b) c, d, a, e, b
The correct sequence will be c, d, a, e, b
Marks: 1
Question 40. A student obtained a sharp image of the grills of a window on a screen using a concave mirror.
His teacher remarked that for getting better results a well lit distance object (preferably the Sun) should be
focused on the screen. What should be done for this purpose?
(a) Move the screen and the mirror towards the object
(b) Move the screen and the mirror away from the object
(c) Move the screen slightly away from the mirror
(d) Move the mirror slightly towards the screen
Solution: (c) Move the screen slightly away from the mirror
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The screen is moved away from the mirror so as to focus the object for a fixed position of the mirror and the
object.
Marks: 1
Question 41. To determine focal length of a concave mirror a student obtains the image of a well lit distant
object on a screen. To determine the focal length of the given concave mirror he needs to measure the
distance between the:
(a) Cannot be determined
(b) Screen and the object
(c) Mirror and the object
(d) Mirror and the screen
Solution: (d) Mirror and the screen
The distance between mirror and the screen will give the focal length of the mirror as the mirror focuses the
light on the screen.
Marks: 1
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CBSE-XII-2017 EXAMINATI CBSE – X – 2013 EXAMINATION
SCIENCE
SET-1 Paper & Solution
Time: 3 Hrs. Max. Marks: 90
General Instructions:
1. The question paper comprises two Sections, A and B. You are to attempt both the sections.
2. There is no overall choice. However, internal choice has been provided in all the five questions of five marks category. Only
one option in such question is to be attempted.
3. All questions of Section-A and Section-B are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 3 in Section A are one-mark questions. These are to be answered in one word or in one sentence.
5. Question numbers 4 to 7 in Section A are two marks questions, to be answered in about 30 words each.
6. Question numbers 8 to 19 in Section A are three marks questions, to be answered in about 50 words each.
7. Question numbers 20 to 24 in Section A are five marks questions, to be answered in about 70 words each.
8. Question numbers 25 to 42 in Section B are multiple choice questions based on practical skills. Each question is a one-mark
question. You are to select one most appropriate response out of the four provided to you.
SECTION A
Question 1. How many horizontal rows are there in the modern periodic table and what are they called?
Solution: There are 7 horizontal rows in the modern periodic table. They are called periods.
Marks: 1
Question 2. List any two factors that could lead to speciation.
Solution: Geographical isolation and genetic drift could lead to speciation.
Marks: 1
Question 3. Mention one negative effect of our affluent life style on the environment.
Solution: Exploitation and overconsumption of natural resources will ultimately result in their scarcity.
Marks: 1
Question 4. Mention two functions of the human testis.
Solution: (a) They produce male germ cells i.e., sperms.
(b) They act as endocrine glands and secrete the hormone testosterone which controls secondary sexual
characters in males.
Marks: 2
Question 5. Every one of us can do something to reduce our consumption of various natural resources. List
four such activities based on the 3-R approach.
Solution: (a) Use of materials such as paper should be preferred as they can be reused and recycled.
(b) Materials like glass and some plastics can be recycled on heating and get easily converted into different
products like toys, containers which can be reused again.
(c) e-wastes such as unused computers, mobiles etc. can be repaired and used again.
(d) Household wastes such as vegetable wastes etc. can be used as manure for plants.
Marks: 2
Question 6. ‘A ray of light incident on a rectangular glass slab immersed in any medium emerges parallel to
itself.’ Draw a labelled ray diagram to justify the statement.
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Solution: When a ray of light is incident on a rectangular glass slab immersed in a medium, the emergent
ray comes out parallel to the incident ray. The path of the light ray is as shown:
EF is the incident ray and GH is the emergent ray which is parallel to the incident ray.
Marks: 2
Question 7. We often observe domestic waste decomposing in the bylanes of residential colonies. Suggest
ways to make people realise that the improper disposal of waste is harmful to the environment.
Solution: Some of ways to make people realise that the improper disposal of waste is harmful to the
environment are:
(a) Improper disposal of waste will serve as a breeding ground for mosquitoes and will create favourable
conditions for the spread of various diseases.
(b) Improper disposal of waste will release harmful gases in the environment which makes the environment
unclean and unhygienic for normal living of organisms.
(c) The waste will flow to water bodies along with the rain water and become a threat to aquatic organisms.
Marks: 2
Question 8. Name the oxidising agent used for the conversion of ethanol to ethanoic acid. Distinguish
between ethanol and ethanoic acid on the basis of (i) litmus test, (ii) reaction with sodium carbonate.
Solution: Alkaline potassium permanganate (KMnO4) or acidified potassium dichromate (K2Cr2O7) can be
used as an oxidising agent for conversion of ethanol to ethanoic acid.
i. Litmus test: Ethanoic acid turns blue litmus solution red whereas ethanol being neutral in nature has no
effect on litmus solution.
ii. Reaction with sodium carbonate: Ethanoic acid reacts with sodium carbonate to form sodium ethanoate
and carbon dioxide gas is evolved.
2CH3COOH + Na2CO3 2CH3COONa + H2O + CO2
Ethanol does not react with sodium carbonate.
CH3CH2OH + Na2CO3 No reaction
Marks: 3
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Question 9. (a) Differentiate between alkanes and alkenes. Name and draw the structure of one member of
each.
(b) Alkanes generally burn with clean flame. Why?
Solution: (a) Alkanes: Hydrocarbons in which the carbon atoms are joined by single covalent bonds are
called Alkanes. They have general formula CnH2n+2, where n is the number of carbon atoms. Suffix, -ane is
used while naming alkanes.
Alkenes: Hydrocarbons in which the carbon atoms are joined by a double bond are called Alkenes. They
have general formula CnH2n, where n is the number of carbon atoms. Suffix, -ene is used while naming
alkenes.
(b) Alkanes generally burn with clean flame because in them, the percentage of carbon is comparatively low
as compared to other unsaturated hydrocarbons. Hence they get oxidised completely by the oxygen present
in air.
Marks: 3
Question 10. Given below are some elements of the modern periodic table:
4Be, 9Fe, 14Si, 19K, 20Ca
i. Select the element that has one electron in the outermost shell and write its electronic configuration.
ii. Select two elements that belong to the same group. Give reasons for your answer.
iii. Select two elements that belong to the same period. Which one of the two has bigger atomic size?
Solution: i. 19K has one electron in the outermost shell and its electronic configuration is
2, 8, 8, 1.
ii. 4Be and 20Ca belongs to same group i.e., Group 2.
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Electronic configuration:
4Be – 2, 2
20Ca – 2, 8, 8, 2
4Be and 20Ca have same number of valence electrons in outermost shell i.e., 2 so they belong to same group.
iii. 9F and 4Be belongs to the same period i.e., period 2.
Electronic configuration:
9F - 2, 7
4Be - 2, 2
4Be has a bigger atomic size than 9F because the atomic radius decreases as we move from left to right in a
period due to increase in nuclear charge which tends to pull the electrons closer to the nucleus and hence
size of atom reduces.
Marks: 3
Question 11. An element X (atomic number 17) reacts with an element Y (atomic number 20) to form a
compound.
(a) Write the position of these elements in the modern periodic table.
(b) Write the formula of the compound formed.
Justify your answer in each case.
Solution: (a) Element X (atomic number 17)
Electronic configuration of X: 2, 8, 7
No. of electrons in outermost shell = 7
So, Group number = 17
No. of shells = 3
So, Period to which the element belongs = 3
Element Y (atomic number 20)
Electronic configuration of Y: 2, 8, 8, 2
No. of electrons in outermost shell = 2
So, Group number = 2
No. of shells = 4
So, Period to which the element belongs = 4
(b) X has 7 valence electrons so, it needs 1 electron to complete its octet and Y has 2 valence electrons so, it
can donate its 2 electrons to acquire the octet configuration. Hence, X will gain 1 electron and Y will lose 2
electrons, so the chemical reaction is:
X2 + Y YX2
X = Cl (At. No. = 17) and Y = Ca (At. No. = 20)
So, Cl2 + Ca CaCl2
Marks: 3
Question 12. ‘The sex of a newborn child is a matter of chance and none of the parents may be considered
responsible for it.’ Justify this statement with the help of flow chart showing determination of sex of a
newborn.
Solution: In human beings, females have two X chromosomes and males have one X and one Y
chromosome. Therefore, the females are represented as XX and males as XY. At the time of mating, large
number of sperms are ejaculated from the male reproductive organ (penis), into the female reproductive
organ i.e., vagina. They travel towards the fallopian tubes, where only one sperm meets with the egg.
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The process of fusion of the sperm and ovum is called fertilisation. The sperm has either X or Y
chromosome and egg has only X chromosome. So, if a sperm carrying Y chromosome fuses with the egg,
the newly born child will be male and if a sperm carrying X chromosome fuses with the egg, the newly born
child will be female. There is an equal chance of fusion of either X or Y chromosome with the egg so we
can say that the sex of a new born child is a matter of chance and none of the parent is responsible for it.
Sex determination in humans is shown below:
Marks: 3
Question 13. Tabulate two distinguishing features between acquired traits and inherited traits with one
example of each.
Solution:
Acquired traits Inherited traits
i. The acquired traits are the traits which are i. Inherited traits are the characteristics which one
experienced by an individual during his life time. acquires from his/ her ancestors.
ii. These involve changes in non-reproductive ii. These involve changes in the DNA. Hence, they
tissues (or somatic cells), which cannot be passed are transmitted to the progeny.
on to the germ cells or progeny.
iii. Example- cut-tail of mice, learning to dance etc. iii. Example- height, eye colour, skin color etc.
Marks: 3
Question 14. Write two examples each of sexually transmitted diseases caused by (i) virus, (ii) bacteria.
Explain how the transmission of such diseases can be prevented?
Solution: Sexually transmitted diseases by virus:
Genital Herpes is caused by the Herpes Simplex virus and AIDS is caused by HIV.
Sexually transmitted diseases by bacteria:
Gonorrhea is caused by Nisseria gonorrhoeae and Syphilis is caused by Treponema pallidum.
Prevention of transmission of STD's:
i. Having sex with infected or any unknown person should be avoided.
ii. Sharing of needles, syringes etc. must be prohibited.
iii. The surgical and dental instruments should be sterilised properly before use.
iv. Avoid blood transfusions from infected person. Blood should be tested before transfusion.
v. Adequate medical treatment should be provided to the pregnant woman to protect the child from getting
infected.
Marks: 3
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Question 15. (a) Explain the process of regeneration in Planaria.
(b) How is regeneration different from reproduction?
Solution: (a) Regeneration in Planaria:
In Planaria, any part of the body which gets cut is capable of regeneration or developing into a complete
organism. Regeneration is carried out by specialized cells which proliferate and make large numbers of
cells. From these mass of cells, different cells undergo changes to become various cell types and tissues.
These changes take place in an organised sequence referred to as development.
(b)
Regeneration Reproduction
1. It is a type of asexual mode of reproduction in 1. It includes both sexual and asexual mode of
which only single parent is involved. reproduction in which either single parent or both
the parents are involved respectively.
2. This mode of reproduction is dependent on a cut 2. This mode of reproduction is independent of cut
in an organism. in an organism.
Example - Planaria. Example - Sexual reproduction in humans.
Marks: 3
Question 16. An object of height 5 cm is placed perpendicular to the principal axis of a concave lens of
focal length 10 cm. Use lens formula to determine the position, size and nature of the image, if the distance
of the object from the lens is 20 cm.
Solution: Given that:
The height of the object ho = 5 cm
Focal length of the lens = −10 cm
Object distance, u = −20 cm
Using lens formula,
1 1 1
v u f
1 1 1
v 20 10
1 1 1
v 10 20
20
v 6.66 cm
3
Negative sign implies that the image is formed on the same side as the object.
v 20 / 3 1
We know that magnification, m =
u 20 3
Since magnification is positive, so image is virtual and erect.
Let hi be the height of the image.
v h
We also know that: m = i
u ho
1 hi
3 5
5
hi 1.66 cm
3
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As hi < ho
The image formed is smaller than the object.
Marks: 3
Question 17. Mention the types of mirrors used as (i) rear view mirrors, (ii) shaving mirrors. List two
reasons to justify your answers in each case.
Solution: i. Rear view mirrors: Convex mirrors
Reason: (a) They produce virtual and erect images of the objects. (b) They have a wider field of view as they
are curved outwards.
ii. Shaving mirrors: Concave mirrors
Reason: (a) Image formed is magnified so that the details of the object can be seen clearly. (b) Image formed
is virtual and erect when the object is placed close to the mirror.
Marks: 3
Question 18. State the difference in colours of the Sun observed during sunrise/ sunset and noon. Give
explanation for each.
Solution: During sunrise and sunset, Sun is red in colour while at noon, the Sun appears white.
At the time of sunrise and sunset, the Sun is near the horizon. The rays from the Sun have to travel a much
larger part of the atmosphere to reach an observer on earth. So, most of the blue light gets scattered away.
The red colour which has the largest wavelength is scattered the least and enters into our eyes. Hence, the
Sun appears red at the time of sunrise and sunset.
At noon, the sun is nearly overhead. The sunlight has to pass through much smaller portion of the Earth's
atmosphere. The scattering is much less and the Sun looks white.
Marks: 3
Question 19. (a) What is an ecosystem? List its two main components.
(b) We do not clean ponds or lakes, but an aquarium needs to be cleaned regularly. Explain.
Solution: Ecosystem is a self-sustaining system where the biotic and abiotic organisms of various
Communities live with each other.
(a) The two components of the ecosystem are- Biotic and Abiotic. Biotic system consists of all the living
organisms of particular area like humans, animals etc. and the nonliving component consists of air, minerals,
soil, water and sunlight.
(b) Ponds are an example of a natural ecosystem whereas an aquarium is an example of an artificial
ecosystem. Ponds do not need to be cleaned but aquarium needs to be cleaned because an aquarium does not
contain soil and decomposing bacteria which helps in degrading complex organic substances into simple
inorganic substances. But ponds or lakes have this ability of self-purification, and therefore these do not
need to be cleaned.
Marks: 3
Question 20. (a) Write the function of placenta in females.
(b) List four ways of preventing pregnancy. State two advantages of using such preventive methods.
Solution: (a) Placenta is a disc like tissue which develops between the uterus wall and embryo.
Role of placenta:
i. Exchange of water between mother and the foetus.
ii. Exchange of nutrients.
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iii. Exchange of respiratory gases.
iv. Excretion of nitrogenous wastes from foetus. Nitrogenous waste crosses the placenta and is removed by
mother's kidney.
v. Antibodies also cross the placenta and provide immunity to the baby.
(b) Ways of preventing pregnancy:
i. Natural methods: In this method, sexual act is avoided from the 10 th day to the 17th day of the menstrual
cycle, since during this period ovulation is expected.
Therefore, the chances of fertilisation are very high.
ii. Barrier methods: In this method, the fertilisation of ovum and sperm is prevented with the help of
physical devices such as condoms and diaphragm.
iii. Oral contraceptives: In this method, tablets or drugs are taken orally. These contain small doses of
hormones which prevent the release of eggs and prevent fertilisation.
Marks: 5
Question 21. (a) Identify A, B and C in the given diagram and write their functions.
(b) Mention the role of gamete and zygote in sexually reproducing organisms.
Solution: (a) A - Stigma.
Function - The stigma is a sticky surface where the pollen grains land and germinate.
B - Pollen tube.
Function - It carries the pollen grains to the egg cell for fertilisation.
C - Egg cell.
Function - It fuses with the male gamete and leads to the formation of the zygote.
(b) Role of gametes - Gametes play an important role in sexually reproducing organisms as they carry the
entire genetic information of the organism. These gametes upon fusion result in the formation of the zygote,
which develops into a new individual. Any deformation in the gametes will lead to deformity in the newly
formed offspring.
Role of zygote - Zygote is the diploid cell formed by the fusion of male and female gametes during
fertilisation in sexual reproduction. Zygote is the first stage in the development process of an organism and it
contains all the genetic information of both the parents essential for the growth of the new organism.
Marks: 5
Question 22. (a) A person cannot read newspaper placed nearer than 50 cm from his eyes. Name the defect
of vision he is suffering from. Draw a ray diagram to illustrate this defect. List its two possible causes. Draw
a ray diagram to show how this defect may be corrected using a lens of appropriate focal length.
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(b) We see advertisements for eye donation on television or in newspaper. Write the importance of such
advertisements.
Solution: (a) The person is suffering from Hypermetropia i.e., far-sightedness. It is a defect of vision due to
which a person cannot see nearby objects clearly though he can see distant objects clearly. In this defect the
image of the nearby object is formed behind the retina of eye.
Hypermetropia is caused due to:
i. decrease in length of the eyeball
ii. increase in focal length of the eye lens
This defect can be corrected using a convex lens of appropriate focal length so that the image gets formed on
the retina.
(b) Eye donations:
Our eyes can live even after our death, so by donating our eyes, we can give vision to a blind person and
give them an opportunity to see the world. By giving such advertisements in newspapers, we can make more
people aware for this noble cause and raise the number of eye donations for blind people.
Marks: 5
Question 23. State Snell's law of refraction of light. Write an expression to relate refractive index of a
medium with speed to light in vacuum.
The refractive index of a medium 'a' with respect to medium 'b' is 2/3 and the refractive index of medium 'b'
with respect to medium 'c' is 4/3. Find the refractive index of medium 'c' with respect to medium 'a'.
Solution: Snells' law of refraction: The ratio of the sine of angle of incidence to the sine of angle of
refraction is constant for a pair of media.
Mathematically, it can be given as follows:
When light travels from medium a to medium b, such that ‘i’ is the angle of incidence and ‘r’ is the angle of
refraction, then
sin i a
nb
sin r
where, anb is the relative refractive index of medium 'b' with respect to medium 'a'.
Relation between refractive index (n) of a medium and the speed of light in vacuum is:
Speed of light in vacuum (c)
n=
Speed of light in medium (c)
Given that:
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na 2
Refractive index of a with respect to b, bna …………. (i)
nb 3
nb 4
Refractive index of b with respect to c, cnb …………. (ii)
nc 3
nc nc nb
Refractive index of c with respect to a, anc
na nb na
3 3
nc
a
-------- Using eq. (i) and (ii)
4 2
9
a
nc
8
Marks: 5
Question 24. (a) Define the term 'isomers'
(b) Draw two possible isomers of the compound with molecular formula C3H6O and write their names.
(c) Give the electron dot structures of the above two compounds.
Solution: (a) Compounds having same molecular formula but different structural formula are known as
isomers.
(b) Two possible isomers of the compound with molecular formula C 3H6O:
(c) Electron dot structure:
Marks: 5
SECTION B
Question 25. A student obtained a sharp image of a burning candle, placed at the farther end of a laboratory
table, on a screen using a concave mirror. For getting a better value of focal length of the mirror, what
should the student do?
(a) He should move the mirror away from the screen.
(b) He should move the mirror slightly towards the screen.
(c) He should move the mirror as well as the screen towards the newly selected object.
(d) He should move only the screen towards the newly selected object.
Solution: (b) He should move the mirror slightly towards the screen.
When an object is at infinity, image is formed at the focus and when an object is beyond C then image is
formed between C and F. As the object is farther, image will be closer to F. So, the student should move the
mirror slightly towards the screen.
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Marks: 1
Question 26. A student focused the image of a distant object using a device 'X' on a white screen 'S' as
shown in the figure. If the distance of the screen from the device is 40 cm, select the correct statement about
the device.
(a) The device X is a convex lens of focal length 20 cm.
(b) The device X is a concave mirror of focal length 40 cm.
(c) The device X is a convex mirror of radius of curvature 40 cm.
(d) The device X is a convex lens of focal length 40 cm.
Solution: (d) The device X is a convex lens of focal length 40 cm.
The parallel rays from the distant object fall on the convex lens and converge at its second principal focus
(i.e., where the screen is placed). Then the distance between the screen and the convex lens gives the
approximate focal length of the lens i.e., 40 cm.
Marks: 1
Question 27. Study the following ray diagrams:
I.
II.
III.
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IV.
The diagrams showing the correct path of the ray after passing through the lens are:
(a) II and III only
(b) I and II only
(c) I, II and III
(d) I, II and IV
Solution: (c) Ray diagrams I, II and III are correct.
The light ray passing through the optical centre of the lens does not deviate. The light ray parallel to the
principal axis passes through the second focus of the lens. The light ray passing through the first focus
becomes parallel to the principal axis after passing through the lens.
Marks: 1
Question 28. Out of the five incident rays shown in the figure find the three rays which are obeying the laws
of refraction and may be used for locating the position of the image formed by a convex lens:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 3, 4 and 5
(d) 1, 2 and 4
Solution: (b) Rays 2, 3 and 4 obey the laws of refraction.
Ray (2) is parallel to the principal axis and passes through the second focus of the lens.
Ray (3) passes through the optical centre and does not deviate.
Ray (4) passes through the first focus of the lens and goes parallel to the principal axis.
Marks: 1
Question 29. Select from the following the best set-up for tracing the path of a ray of light through a
rectangular glass slab:
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I.
II.
III.
IV.
(a) I
(b) II
(c) III
(d) IV
Solution: (a) I
The best set up is given in figure I. The incoming light should not fall perpendicularly as the light will
emerge straight and refraction cannot be traced. The light rays should not be very close or far from the
normal as the emergent rays are difficult to trace.
Marks: 1
Question 30. After tracing the path of rays of light through a glass slab for three different angles of
incidence, a student measured the corresponding values of angle of refraction ‘r’ and angle of emergence ‘e’
and recorded them in the table given below:
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The correct observations are:
(a) I and II
(b) II and III
(c) I and III
(d) I, II and III
Solution: (d) I, II and III
For light rays passing through a glass slab, the following conditions should hold true:
1. i e and r i
2. Also, with the increase in incident angle, the refracted angle also increases.
Both of these conditions are satisfied in all the three observations.
Marks: 1
Question 31. In an experiment to trace the path of a ray of light through a glass prism for different values of
angle of incidence a student would find that the emergent ray:
(a) is parallel to the incident ray
(b) perpendicular to the incident ray
(c) is parallel to the refracted ray
(d) bends at an angle to the direction of the incident ray
Solution: (d) bends at an angle to the direction of incident ray
As the light gets refracted twice at different angles the emergent ray bends at an angle to the direction of
incident ray.
Marks: 1
Question 32. While performing an experiment to trace the path of a ray of light passing through a glass
prism, four students marked the incident ray and the emergent ray in their diagrams in the manner shown
below. Which one is correct?
I.
II.
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III.
IV.
(a) I
(b) II
(c) III
(d) IV
Solution: (c) III
When light goes form a rarer medium to a denser medium; it bends towards the normal and vice-versa. This
condition is fulfilled in figure (III).
Marks: 1
Question 33. Study the different conclusions draw by students of a class on the basis of observations of
preserved/available specimens of plants and animals.
I. Potato and sweet potato are analogous organs in plants and animals.
II. Wings of insects and wings of birds are homologous organs in animals.
III. Wings of insects and wings of bats are analogous organs in animals.
IV. Thorns of citrus and tendrils of cucurbita are analogous organs in plants
The correct conclusions are:
(a) I and II
(b) II and IV
(c) III and IV
(d) I and III
Solution: (a) I and II
Analogous organs are those which do not share a common ancestry but perform common functions. Hence,
wings of insects and wings of bats are analogous organs in animals and potato and sweet potato are
analogous organs in plants.
Marks: 1
Question 34. You have potato, carrot, radish, sweet potato, tomato and ginger bought from the market in
your jute bag. Identify two vegetables to represent the correct homologous structures.
(a) Potato and sweet potato
(b) Carrot and tomato
(c) Potato and tomato
(d) Carrot and radish
Solution: (d) Carrot and Radish
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Homologous structures are similar in origin but perform different functions. Carrot and radish are
underground roots. So, they are considered homologous structures.
Marks: 1
Question 35. In the figure, the parts marked A, B and C are sequentially:
(a) Plumule, Cotyledon and Radicle
(b) Radicle, Cotyledon and Plumule
(c) Radicle, Plumule and Cotyledon
(d) Plumule, Radicle and Cotyledon
Solution: (d) Plumule, Radicle and Cotyledon
In the figure, the part marked A is Plumule, B is Radicle and C is Cotyledon.
Marks: 1
Question 36. Select the correct statements for the process of budding in yeast:
I. A bud arises from a particular region on a parent body.
II. A parent cell divides into two daughter cells; here the parental identity is lost.
III. Before detaching from the parent body a bud may form another bud.
IV. A bud when detached from the parent body grows into a new individual.
(a) II, III and IV
(b) I, II and III
(c) III, IV and I
(d) None of the above
Solution: (d) None of the above
Yeast reproduces asexually by the process of budding.
Budding is a type of asexual reproduction in which a new organism is formed from a bud of an existing
organism. A small bud is formed at a specific position on the parent cell. The nucleus of parent cell splits
and a part of it enters inside the newly formed bud. The bud develops into a new cell or daughter organism.
The new organism remains attached to the parent organism till it matures. After attaining maturity it
separates from the parent body.
Marks: 1
Question 37. A student after observing a slide showing different stages of binary fission in Amoeba draws
the following diagrams. However these diagrams are not in proper sequence.
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The correct sequence is:
(a) I, V, IV, III, II
(b) I, V, III, IV, II
(c) I, III, IV, V, II
(d) None of these
Solution: (d) None of these
The correct procedure in reproduction in Amoeba is,
(a) Chromosome is replicated.
(b) Chromosome splits into daughter strands.
(c) Cytokinesis splits the Amoeba into two daughter cells.
(d) Two Amoebae with identical DNA.
Marks: 1
Question 38. Read the following statements:
I. When a red litmus paper is dipped into the reaction mixture of a saponification reaction, it turns blue and
the reaction is exothermic.
II. When a blue litmus paper is dipped into the reaction mixture of a saponification reaction, its colour does
not change and the reaction is exothermic.
III. When a red litmus paper is dipped into the reaction mixture of a saponification reaction, its colour does
not change and the reaction is endothermic.
IV. When a blue litmus paper is dipped into the reaction mixture of a saponification reaction, its colour does
not change and the reaction is endothermic.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) I and II
(b) II and III
(c) III and IV
(d) I and IV
Solution: (a) I and II
Soap solution is basic in nature because it is formed from a strong base NaOH. Hence it turns red litmus
paper blue and does not change the color of blue litmus paper. The saponification reaction is exothermic in
nature. The correct statements are I and II.
Marks: 1
Question 39. A student prepared 20% sodium hydroxide solution in a beaker containing water. The
observations noted by him are given below.
I. Sodium hydroxide is in the form of pellets.
II. It dissolves in water readily.
III. The beaker appears cold when touched from outside.
IV. Red litmus paper turns blue when dipped into the solution.
The correct observations are:
(a) I, II, and III
(b) II, III and IV
(c) III, IV and I
(d) I, II and IV
Solution: (d) I, II and IV
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Sodium hydroxide is in the form of small white pellets and is soluble in water. Being basic in nature, it turns
red litmus paper blue. The correct observation is I, II and IV.
Marks: 1
Question 40. Hard water required for an experiment is not available in a school laboratory. However,
following salts are available in the laboratory. Select the salts which may be dissolved in water to make it
hard for the experiment.
1. Calcium Sulphate
2. Sodium Sulphate
3. Calcium Chloride
4. Potassium Sulphate
5. Sodium Hydrogen Carbonate
6. Magnesium Chloride
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 1, 3 and 6
(c) 3, 5 and 6
(d) 2, 4 and 5
Solution: (b) 1, 3 and 6
Hard water contains Ca2+ and Mg2+ ions. Thus the salts which can be added to water to make it hard are
calcium sulphate, calcium chloride and magnesium chloride i.e., the salts 1, 3 and 6.
Marks: 1
Question 41. In an experiment to study the properties of acetic acid, a student takes about 2 ml of acetic acid
in a dry test tube. He adds about 2 ml of water to it and shakes the test tube well. He is likely to observe that:
(a) The acetic acid dissolves readily in water.
(b) The solution becomes light orange.
(c) Water floats over the surface of acetic acid.
(d) Acetic acid floats over the surface of water.
Solution: (a) The acetic acid dissolves readily in water.
The acetic acid dissolves readily in water to form a clear solution.
Marks: 1
Question 42. A student takes 2 ml acetic acid in a dry test tube and adds a pinch of sodium hydrogen
carbonate to it. He makes the following observations:
I. A colourless and odourless gas evolves with a brisk effervescence.
II. The gas turns lime water milky when passed through it.
III. The gas burns with an explosion when a burning splinter is brought near it.
IV. The gas extinguishes the burning splinter which is brought near it.
The correct observations are:
(a) I, II and III
(b) II, III and IV
(c) III, IV and I
(d) IV, I and II
Solution: (d) IV, I and II
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When acetic acid is taken in a dry test tube and sodium hydrogen carbonate is added to it, a colourless and
odourless gas evolves with a brisk effervescence i.e., CO2.
CH3COOH NaHCO3 CH3COONa H2O CO2
acetic acid Sodium hydrogen Sodium acetate carbon dioxide
carbonate
When CO2 is passed through lime water, it turns lime water milky because of formation of calcium
carbonate ppt.
Ca(OH)2(aq) CO2(g) CaCO3(s) H2O
lime water (white ppt)
CO2 being a non-supporter of combustion extinguishes the burning splinter when it is brought near it. So,
the correct observations are IV, I and II.
Marks: 1
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CBSE-XII-2017 EXAMINATI CBSE – X – 2014 EXAMINATION
SCIENCE
SET-3 Paper & Solution
Time: 3 Hrs. Max. Marks: 90
General Instructions:
1. The question paper comprises two Sections, A and B. You are to attempt both the sections.
2. All questions are compulsory.
3. All questions of Section A and all questions of Section B are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 3 in Section A are one-mark questions. These are to be answered in one word or in one sentence.
5. Question numbers 4 to 7 in Section A are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about 30 words each.
6. Question numbers 8 to 19 in Section A are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in about 50 words each.
7. Question numbers 20 to 24 in Section A are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in about 70 words each.
8. Question numbers 25 to 42 in Section B are multiple choice questions based on practical skills. Each question is a one-mark
question. You are to select one most appropriate response out of the four provided to you.
SECTION A
Question 1. The atomic numbers of three elements A, B and C are 12, 18 and 20 respectively. State, giving
reason, which two elements will show similar properties.
Solution: The elements are,
A-(Atomic number 12) = Magnesium
B-(Atomic number 18) = Argon
C-(Atomic number 20) = Calcium
Element Calcium and magnesium will show similar properties as they belong to same group (Group II) of
the periodic table. They have same number of valence electrons and they both are metals. While argon is a
noble gas.
Marks: 1
Question 2. No two individuals are absolutely alike in a population. Why?
Solution: No two individuals are absolutely alike in a population due to variations taking place during the
process of DNA copying.
Marks: 1
Question 3. Write one negative effect of affluent lifestyle of few persons on the environment.
Solution: Affluent lifestyle of few persons leads to exploitation and overconsumption of natural resources
which ultimately results in their scarcity.
Marks: 1
Question 4. Draw labelled diagrams to illustrate budding in Hydra.
Solution: Budding in Hydra:
Marks: 2
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Question 5. “A concave mirror of focal length 15 cm can form a magnified, erect as well as inverted image
of an object placed in front of it.” Justify this statement stating the position of the object with respect to the
pole of the mirror in both the cases for obtaining the images.
Solution: For magnified and erect image the object is placed between pole P and focus F.
For magnified and inverted image the object is placed either at focus or anywhere between F and C.
Marks: 2
Question 6. State with reason any two possible consequences of elimination of decomposers from the Earth.
Solution: Consequences of elimination of decomposers:
i. If all the decomposers of earth are eliminated then the dead bodies of plants and animals would not be
decomposed into simpler non-polluting substances so whole of the earth in no time would have heaps of
dead bodies of plants and animals. They would start giving foul smell and life would become impossible on
earth.
ii. Elimination of decomposers would cause imbalance of nutrients as they break complex organic material
into simpler substances in different nutrient cycles.
Marks: 2
Question 7. What is water harvesting? How can this technique help in the conservation of water?
Solution: Water harvesting refers to all the processes and steps that are taken for scientific conservation of
fresh water.
Water harvesting helps in the conservation of water as:
(i). It increases the ground water resources.
(ii). It reduces storm water discharge, urban floods and overloading of sewage treatment plants.
Marks: 2
Question 8. Study the following table in which positions of six elements A, B, C, D, E and F are shown as
they are in the modern periodic table:
On the basis of the above table, answer the following questions:
(i) Name the element which forms only covalent compounds.
(ii) Name the element which is a metal with valency three.
(iii) Name the element which is a non-metal with valency three.
(iv) Out of D and E, which is bigger in size and why?
(v) Write the common name for the family to which the elements C and F belong.
Solution:
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(i) Element E - Silicon forms only covalent compounds.
(ii) Aluminium is a metal with the valency 3.
(iii) Nitrogen is a non-metal with the valency 3.
(iv) Out of D (Aluminium) and E (Silicon), aluminium has a larger size than silicon. This is because atomic
size decreases across the period.
(v) Common name for the family to which the elements C (Neon) and F (Argon) belong is 'Noble gas' or
'Inert gas'.
Marks: 3
Question 9. The elements Be, Mg and Ca each having two electrons in their outermost shells are in periods
2, 3, and 4 respectively of the modern periodic table. Answer the following questions, giving justification in
each case:
(i) Write the group to which these elements belong.
(ii) Name the least reactive element.
(iii) Name the element having largest atomic radius.
Solution: (i) Elements Be, Mg and Ca belong to Group II.
(ii) Beryllium (Be) is the least reactive element. This is because, as we move down the group, number of
shells increases and the effective nuclear charge decreases. Thus, the tendency to lose electrons increases.
(iii) Calcium has the largest atomic radius. Since, number of shells increases down the group atomic radius
also increases.
Marks: 3
Question 10. A carboxylic acid (molecular formula C2H402) reacts with an alcohol in the presence of an acid
catalyst to form a compound 'X'. The alcohol on oxidation with alkaline KMnO4 followed by acidification
gives the same carboxylic acid C2H402.
Write the name and structure of
(i) carboxylic acid, (ii) alcohol and (iii) the compound 'X'.
Solution: Ethanoic acid reacts with ethanol in the presence of concentrated sulphuric acid as a catalyst to
produce the ester, ethyl ethanoate. The reaction is slow and reversible.
(i) CH3-COOH:- Ethanoic acid
(ii) CH3 - CH2 - OH:- Ethyl alcohol or Ethanol
(iii) Compound :- Ethyl ethanoate.
Marks: 3
Question 11. Define the term ‘structural’ isomerism'. Explain why propane cannot exhibit this property.
Draw the structures of possible isomers of butane, C4H10.
Solution: Structural isomerism: Molecules having same molecular formula but different structure are said to
be structural isomers.
Propane has the chemical formula C3H8 and it is represented as CH3-CH2-CH3. In alkanes, isomerism arises
when a particular compound can be represented in the form of both straight chain and branched chain. Also,
the branching cannot be done from the first or the last carbon atom of the structure.
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The structural formulae of propane show that they do not have sufficient number of carbon atoms to exist in
the form of branched isomer. Hence, they do not exhibit structural isomerism.
Isomers of Butane: There are two isomers. N-butane and iso-butane
Marks: 3
Question 12. A student wants to project the image of a candle flame on a screen 90 cm in front of a mirror
by keeping the flame at a distance of 15 cm from its pole.
(a) Suggest the type of mirror he should use.
(b) Determine the linear magnification in this case.
(c) Find the distance between the object and its image.
(d) Draw ray diagram to show the image formation in this case.
Solution: (a) Concave mirror
(b) Linear magnification of a concave mirror is given by:
v
m
u
(90)
( 15)
= –6
(c) The distance between the object and image = 90 – 15 = 75 cm.
(d) Ray diagram:
Marks: 3
Question 13. Draw a ray diagram to show the path of the refracted ray in each of the following cases:
A ray of light incident on a concave lens is
(i) passing through its optical centre.
(ii) parallel to its principal axis.
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(iii) directed towards its principal focus.
Solution: (i) A ray of light passing through the optical centre of the concave lens will emerge without any
deviation.
(ii) A ray of light parallel to the principal axis, after refraction from a concave lens, appears to diverge from
the principal focus on the same side of the lens.
(iii) A ray of light directed towards the principal focus of a concave lens, becomes parallel to its principal
axis after refraction through the lens.
Marks: 3
Question 14. A narrow beam PQ of white light is passing through a glass prism ABC as shown in the
diagram.
Trace it on your answer sheet and show the path of the emergent beam as observed on the screen DE.
(i) Write the name and cause of the phenomenon observed.
(ii) Where else in nature is this phenomenon observed?
(iii) Based on this observation, state the conclusion which can be drawn about the constituents of white light.
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Solution:
(i) Dispersion of light
Cause: The dispersion of white light occurs because colors of white light travel at different speeds through
glass prism. Different colours undergo different deviations on passing through prism.
(ii) Rainbow is the example of dispersion of light observed in nature.
It is caused due to dispersion of sunlight by water droplets in the atmosphere. It always forms in the
direction opposite to the sun.
(iii) White light is a mixture of seven colours. The sequence of colours given by the prism is Violet, Indigo,
Blue, Green, Yellow, Orange and Red. VIBGYOR is the acronym for this sequence. The red light bends the
least and violet light bends the most.
Marks: 3
Question 15. "Energy flow in a food chain is unidirectional" Justify this statement. Explain how the
pesticides enter a food chain and subsequently get into our body.
Solution: The flow of energy in the ecosystem is said to be unidirectional because the energy lost as heat
from the living organisms of a food chain cannot be reused by plants in photosynthesis.
Pesticides are non-biodegradable wastes which pass along the food chain from crops to man or other animals
and birds and harm them.
Marks: 3
Question 16. Write one difference between asexual and sexual mode of reproduction. Which species is
likely to have better chances of survival - the one reproducing asexually or the one reproducing sexually?
Justify your answer.
Solution: The difference between asexual and sexual reproduction is that only one parent is needed in
asexual reproduction whereas two parents are needed in sexual reproduction.
The organisms reproducing sexually have better chances of survival because it promotes diversity of
characters in an offspring due to combinations of genes which can lead to variation whereas in asexual
reproduction evolutionary change is not possible as only one parent is involved therefore no variation takes
place.
Marks: 3
Question 17. What is the effect of DNA copying, which is not perfectly accurate, on the reproduction
process? How does the amount of DNA remain constant though each new generation is a combination of
DNA copies of two individuals?
Solution: The DNA copying which is not perfectly accurate in the reproduction process results in variations
in populations for the survival of species.
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The amount of DNA remains constant because the gametes are special type of cells called reproductive cells
which contain only half the amount of DNA as compared to the normal body cells of an organism.
Marks: 3
Question 18. List three main factors responsible for the speciation and briefly describe each one of them.
Solution: The process by which new species develop from the existing species is known as speciation. The
important factors which could lead to speciation are:
i. Geographical isolation of a population caused by various type of barriers such as mountain ranges, rivers
and seas.
ii. Genetic drift caused by drastic changes in the frequencies of particular genes by chance alone.
iii. Variations caused in individuals due to natural selection.
Marks: 3
Question 19. “A trait may be inherited, but may not be expressed.” Justify this statement with the help of a
suitable example.
Solution: Some traits are determined by the combined effect of more than one pair of genes. These are
referred to as polygenic or continuous, traits.
An example of this is human stature. The combined size of all of the body parts from head to foot
determines the height of an individual. There is an additive effect. The sizes of all of these body parts are, in
turn, determined by numerous genes. Human skin, hair, and eye color are also polygenic traits because they
are influenced by more than one allele at different loci. The result is the perception of continuous gradation
in the expression of these traits.
Marks: 3
Question 20. List two reasons for carbon forming a large number of compounds. Name the type of bonding
found in most of its compounds. Why does carbon form compounds mainly by this kind of bonding?
Give reason why the carbon compounds
(i) generally have low melting and boiling points.
(ii) do not conduct electricity in molten state.
Solution: The two characteristic properties of the carbon element which leads to the formation of a very
large number of organic compounds are: Catenation and Tetravalency.
Catenation: Carbon has the unique ability to form bonds with other atoms of carbon, giving rise to large
molecules. This property is called catenation.
Tetravalency: Carbon has a valency of four. So, it is capable of bonding with four other atoms of carbon or
atoms of some other mono-valent element.
1. Covalent bonding is found in most of the carbon compounds.
2. Carbon form compounds mainly by covalent bonding because-
The bonds that carbon forms with most other elements are very strong making these compounds
exceptionally stable. One reason for the formation of strong bonds by carbon is its small size. This enables
the nucleus to hold on to the shared pairs of electrons strongly. The bonds formed by elements having larger
atoms are much weaker.
(i) Carbon compounds generally have low melting points and boiling points because-
The force of attraction between the molecules of carbon compounds is not very strong. These weak
intermolecular forces make them very easy to pull apart from each other. Since they are easy to separate,
carbon compounds have low melting and boiling points.
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(ii) Carbon compounds do not conduct electricity in molten state because bonding in carbon compounds
does not involve any formation of ions.
Marks: 5
Question 21. (a) List the parts of the human eye that control the amount of light entering into it. Explain
how they perform this function.
(b) Write the function of retina in human eye.
(c) Do you know that the corneal-impairment can be cured by replacing the defective cornea with the cornea
of the donated eye? How and why should we organise groups to motivate the community members to donate
their eyes after death?
Solution: (a) The iris and pupil are the two parts of human eye that controls the amount of light entering the
eyes. The iris automatically adjusts the size of the pupil according to the intensity of light received by the
eye.
If the amount of light received by the eye is large (as during the daytime), then the iris contracts the pupil
(makes the pupil small) and reduces the amount of light entering the eye. On the other hand, if the amount of
light received by the eye is small (as in a dark room or during night), the iris expands the pupil (makes the
pupil large) so that more light may enter the eyes. Thus, the iris regulates (or controls) the amount of light
entering the eye by changing the size of the pupil.
(b) The retina acts as a screen on which the image is formed in the eye. The retina has a large number of
light-sensitive cells. When the image falls on the retina then these light-sensitive cells get activated and
generate electrical signals.
(c) Yes.
There is a need for awareness among various communities about eye donation after death as it will help a
person suffering from an eye ailment to get the treatment.
The following steps can be taken to organize groups to motivate them:
(i) The person who is taking the initiative can communicate with people and after realizing people who are
like minded should gather them and form an awareness group.
(ii) The group should then approach various communities and organizations in their area and promote their
campaign.
(iii) They can also approach various hospitals and clinics to promote the campaign.
Marks: 5
Question 22. (a) Explain the following terms related to spherical lenses:
(i) optical centre
(ii) centres of curvature
(iii) principal axis
(iv) aperture
(v) principal focus
(vi) focal length
(b) A converging lens has focal length of 12 cm. Calculate at what distance the object should be placed from
the lens so that it forms an image at 48 cm on the other side of the lens.
Solution: (a)
(i) Optical centre:
The central point of the lens is known as optical centre. It is represented as O. The optical centre of a lens
has a property that a ray of light passing through it does not suffer any deviation and goes straight.
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(ii) Centre of Curvature:
The centre of sphere of part of which a lens is formed is called the centre of curvature of the lens. Since
concave and convex lenses are formed by the combination of two parts of spheres, therefore they have two
centres of curvature. One centre of curvature is usually denoted by C1 and second is denoted by C2.
(iii) Principal Axis:
The principal axis of a lens is a line passing through the optical centre of the lens and perpendicular to both
the faces of the lens.
(iv) Aperture:
The diameter of sphere of part of which a lens is formed is called the aperture.
(v) Principal Focus:
The convex lens converge the rays incident on it after refraction, to a point on the principal axis. This point
is known as principal focus of the convex lens.
The rays incident on concave lens appear to diverge from a point on the principal axis. This point is known
as the principal focus of concave lens.
(vi) Focal Length:
The focal length of a lens is the distance between optical centre and principal focus of the lens.
(b) Given,
Image distance: v = +48 cm (It is on the other side of the lens)
Focal length: f = +12 cm (It is a converging lens or convex lens)
Object distance: u =? (To be calculated)
Now, putting these values in the lens formula:
1 1 1
f v u
1 1 1
12 48 u
1 1 1
u 48 12
1 1 3
u 48
1 1
u 24
u = –24 cm
Therefore, the object should be placed at a distance of 24 cm from the convex lens. The minus sign with the
object distance shows that the object is on its left side.
Marks: 5
Question 23. (a) Draw a sectional view of human female reproductive system and label the part where
(i) eggs develop.
(ii) fertilisation takes place.
(iii) fertilised egg gets implanted.
(b) Describe, in brief, the changes the uterus undergoes
(i) to receive the zygote.
(ii) if zygote is not formed.
Solution: (a) (i) Ovary
(ii) Fallopian tubes
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(iii) Uterus
(b) (i) If the uterus receives the zygote, the female becomes pregnant. The embryonic development of the
zygote starts immediately. The embryo moves down into the uterus forming a thick and soft lining of blood
vessels around itself. This process is called implantation. After implantation, a special tissue develops
between the uterine wall and the embryo called placenta, where the exchange of nutrients, oxygen and waste
products takes place.
(ii) If the egg released by the ovary is not fertilized and the zygote is not formed, then the thick lining of the
uterus breaks down and comes out through the vagina in the form of blood and mucous. This is called
menstruation.
Marks: 5
Question 24. (a) Name the parts labelled as A, B, C and D in the diagram given below:
(b) What is pollination? State its significance.
(c) How does fertilisation occur in flowers? Name the parts of the flower that develop into (i) seed, and (ii)
fruit after fertilisation.
Solution: (a) A - Pollen grain
B - Pollen tube
C - Ovary
D - Female germ cell
(b) Pollination is the process of transfer of pollen grains from anther to stigma of the flower.
Significance of pollination: Pollination is a significant event because it precedes fertilization. It brings the
two types of gametes closer for the process of fertilization.
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Also, cross pollination introduces variations in the plants due to mixing of different genes which increases
adaptability towards environment or surroundings.
(c) Fertilization in plants: In plants, pollination is followed by fertilization. Once the pollen grains are
deposited on the stigma, they form tubes called pollen tubes. The pollen tubes grow through the ovules and
reach the ovary where ovules are located. The pollen tube normally enters the ovule through a small opening
called micropyle. Inside the ovule, the pollen tube releases two male gametes into the embryo sac.
The embryo sac of the ovule contains the egg. One male gamete fuses with the egg. This fusion of male and
female gamete is called syngamy and its product is called zygote. The other male gamete fuse with two
polar bodies and this process is called triple fusion, where three nuclei are involved in the fusion process,
one male gamete and two polar nuclei. Thus, inside each embryo sac, two fusions, syngamy and triple
fusion, takes place. This mechanism of two fusions occurring in an embryo sac is called double-fertilization.
After fertilization, ovules develop into the seeds and ovary develops into the fruit.
Marks: 5
SECTION B
Question 25. In the following diagram showing the structure of embryo of a dicot seed, what are the parts
marked I, II and III sequentially?
(A) Plumule, Cotyledon, Radicle
(B) Plumule, Radicle, Cotyledon
(C) Cotyledon, Plumule, Radicle
(D) Radicle, Plumule, Cotyledon
Solution: (A)
In the figure, the part marked I is Plumule, II is Cotyledon and III is Radicle.
Marks: 1
Question 26. Study the following statements:
I. Wings of birds and wings of bats are homologous organs.
II. Wings of birds and wings of insects are modified forelimbs.
III. Wings of birds and wings of insects are analogous organs.
IV. Wings of birds and forelimbs of horse are homologous organs.
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The correct statements are
(A) I and II
(B) II and Ill
(C) III and IV
(D) I and IV
Solution: (C)
III and IV are the correct statements.
Marks: 1
Question 27. Which of the following pairs of two vegetables represent the correct homologous structures?
(A) Sweet potato and potato
(B) Sweet potato and tomato
(C) Carrot and potato
(D) Radish and carrot
Solution: (D)
Radish and carrot are the modifications of roots. Hence, they are the homologous structures.
Marks: 1
Question 28. When you study a slide showing different stages of budding in yeast, you observe the
following stages:
I. The bud may get separated from the parent body and develop into a new individual.
II. The body of the bud develops and gives rise to another baby bud.
III. A bud comes out in any direction from the body of the parent cell.
IV. Thus they may form a colony.
The proper sequence of the above stages is
(A) II, I, III, IV
(B) II, III, I, IV
(C) III, II, l, IV
(D) III, I, II, IV
Solution: (C)
This is the correct sequence of budding in yeast.
Marks: 1
Question 29. A student has to focus his compound microscope to observe a prepared slide showing different
stages of binary fission in Amoeba. The steps he is likely to follow are listed below in a haphazard manner:
I. Adjust the diaphragm and the mirror of the microscope so that sufficient light may enter to illuminate the
slide.
II. Fix the slide on the stage carefully.
III. Adjust the microscope to high power and focus.
IV. Adjust the microscope to low power and focus.
The correct sequence of the above steps to observe the slide under the microscope is
(A) I, II, IV, III
(B) II, I, IV, III
(C) II, IV, I, III
(D) I, IV, II, III
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Solution: (B)
This is the correct sequence.
Marks: 1
Question 30. A student takes about 2 mL ethanoic acid in a dry test tube and adds a pinch of sodium
hydrogen carbonate to it. He reports the following observations:
I. Immediately a colourless and odourless gas evolves with a brisk effervescence.
II. The gas turns lime water milky when passed through it.
III. The gas burns with an explosion when a burning splinter is brought near it.
IV. The gas extinguishes the burning splinter that is brought near it.
The correct observations are
(A) I, II and III
(B) II, III and IV
(C) III, IV and I
(D) I, II and IV
Solution: (D)
Statements I, II and IV are true. The carbon dioxide gas gets liberated. It is colourless, odourless and turns
lime water milky. The gas extinguishes the burning splinter when brought near it. This is because; carbon
dioxide does not burn or support combustion.
Marks: 1
Question 31. In an experiment to study the properties of ethanoic acid, a student takes about 3 mL of
ethanoic acid in a dry test tube. He adds an equal amount of distilled water to it and shakes the test tube well.
After some time he is likely to observe that
(A) a colloid is formed in the test tube.
(B) the ethanoic acid dissolves readily in water.
(C) the solution becomes light orange.
(D) water floats over the surface of ethanoic acid.
Solution: (B)
Ethanoic acid is readily soluble in water.
Marks: 1
Question 32. We need 20% aqueous solution of sodium hydroxide for the study of saponification reaction.
When we open the lid of the bottle containing solid sodium hydroxide we observe it in which form?
(A) Colourless transparent beads
(B) Small white beads
(C) White pellets/flakes
(D) Fine white powder
Solution: (C)
Sodium hydroxide is present in the form of white flakes or pellets.
Marks: 1
Question 33. While studying saponification reaction, a student measures the temperature of the reaction
mixture and also finds its nature using blue/red litmus paper. On the basis of his observations the correct
conclusion would be
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(A) the reaction is exothermic and the reaction mixture is acidic.
(B) the reaction is endothermic and the reaction mixture is acidic.
(C) the reaction is endothermic and the reaction mixture is basic.
(D) the reaction is exothermic and the reaction mixture is basic.
Solution: (C)
The reaction is endothermic and the reaction mixture is basic in nature.
Saponification is defined as the hydrolysis of an ester under basic conditions leading to the formation of
sodium salt of fatty acids. It is an endothermic reaction meaning it absorbs surrounding heat.
Marks: 1
Question 34. In a locality, hard water, required for an experiment, is not available. However, the following
salts are available in the school laboratory:
1. Sodium sulphate
2. Calcium sulphate
3. Magnesium chloride
4. Sodium chloride
5. Calcium chloride
6. Potassium sulphate
Which of the above salts may be dissolved in water to obtain hard water for the experiment?
(A) 2, 3 and 5
(B) 1, 2 and 5
(C) 1, 2, 4 and 6
(D) 3 and 5 only
Solution: (A)
Hard water is an impure form of water having high mineral contents like, Calcium, Magnesium, sulphides,
chlorides, bicarbonates etc.
Marks: 1
Question 35. A student focused the Sun rays using an optical device 'X' on a screen S as shown.
From this it may be concluded that the device 'X' is a (select the correct option)
(A) Convex lens off focal length 10 cm.
(B) Convex lens of radius of curvature 20 cm.
(C) Convex lens of focal length 20 cm.
(D) Concave mirror of focal length 20 cm.
Solution: (C)
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Optical device ‘X’ is a convex lens as sun rays are focused on the screen.
Marks: 1
Question 36. A student has obtained an image of a well-illuminated distant object on a screen to determine
the focal length, F1of the given spherical mirror. The teacher then gave him another mirror of focal length,
F2 and asked him to obtain a focused image of the same object on the same screen. The student found that in
order to focus the same object using the second mirror, he has to move the mirror away from the screen.
From this observation, it may be concluded that both the spherical mirrors given to the student were (select
the correct option)
(A) Concave and F1 < F2
(B) Concave and F1 > F2
(C) Convex and F1 < F2
(D) Convex and F1 > F2
Solution: (A)
Since the image is focused, the spherical mirror is a concave mirror.
For second mirror the distance is increased to focus the image on the screen. Hence, focal length is more
than that of first mirror.
Marks: 1
Question 37. In the following diagram, the path of a ray of light passing through a glass prism is shown:
In this diagram the angle of incidence, the angle of emergence and the angle of deviation respectively are
(select the correct option):
(A) X, R and T
(B) Y, Q and T
(C) X, Q and P
(D) Y, Q and P
Solution: (D)
Marks: 1
Question 38. Study the following diagrams in which the path of a ray of light passing through a glass prism
as traced by four students P, Q, R and S is shown:
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The student who has traced the path correctly is
(A) P
(B) Q
(C) R
(D) S
Solution: (B)
Marks: 1
Question 39. A student is using a convex lens of focal length 18 cm to study the image formation by it for
the various positions of the object. He observes that when he places the object at 27 cm, the location of the
image is at 54 cm on the other side of the lens. Identify from the following diagram the three rays that are
obeying the laws of refraction and may be used to draw the corresponding ray diagram.
(A) 1, 2 and 4
(B) 1, 3 and 5
(C) 2, 4 and 5
(D) 2, 3 and 4
Solution: (D)
Ray 2, 3 and 4 are obeying the laws of refraction.
Ray 2 is parallel to the principal axis and passes through the principal focus after refraction.
Ray 3 passes from the optical centre of the lens and emerges without any deviation.
Ray 4 is passing through the principal focus and after refraction from a convex lens emerges parallel to the
principal axis.
Ray 1 and 5 cannot pass through the focus after refraction as they are not parallel to the principal axis.
Marks: 1
Question 40. A student is using a convex lens of focal length 10 cm to study the image formation by a
convex lens for the various positions of the object. In one of his observations, he may observe that when the
object is placed at a distance of 20 cm from the lens, its image is formed at (select the correct option)
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(A) 20 cm on the other side of the lens and is of the same size, real and erect.
(B) 40 cm on the other side of the lens and is magnified, real and inverted.
(C) 20 cm on the other side of the lens and is of the same size, real and inverted.
(D) 20 cm on the other side of the lens and is of the same size, virtual and erect.
Solution: (C)
Focal length f = 10 cm
The object is placed at 2F (2 × 10 = 20 cm). Hence the image is also formed at 2F.
Marks: 1
Question 41. A student traces the path of a ray of light passing through a rectangular glass slab and marks
the angle of incidence i, angle of refraction r and angle of emergence e, as shown.
The correctly marked angle(s) is/are
(A) i only
(B) e only
(C) r only
(D) i and e
Solution: (C)
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Other angles are not taken with respect to normal.
Marks: 1
Question 42. After tracing the path of a ray of light passing through a rectangular glass slab for four
different values of the angle of incidence, a student reported his observations in tabular form as given below:
The best observation is
(A) I
(B) II
(C) III
(D) IV
Solution: (A)
For glass slab, i = e
Refractive index of glass = 1.5
sin 30
1.5
sin19
30 29
Marks: 1
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CBSE-XII-2017 EXAMINATION CBSE-X-2015 EXAMINATION
SCIENCE
SET-3 Paper & Solution
Time: 3 Hrs. Max. Marks: 90
General Instructions:
1. The question paper comprises two Sections, A and B. You are to attempt both the sections.
2. All questions are compulsory.
3. All questions of Section A and all questions of Section B are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 3 in Section A are one-mark questions. These are to be answered in one word or in one
sentence.
5. Question numbers 4 to 7 in Section A are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about 30 words
each.
6. Question numbers 8 to 19 in Section A are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in about 50 words
each.
7. Question numbers 20 to 24 in Section A are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in about 70 words
each.
8. Question numbers 25 to 42 in Section B are multiple choice questions based on practical skills. Each question
is a one-mark question. You are to select one most appropriate response out of the four provided to you.
SECTION A
1. Write the number of covalent bonds in the molecule of butane, C4H10.
Answer:
There are thirteen covalent bonds—ten C-H and three C-C bonds—present in a molecule of butane.
2. Name two simple organisms having the ability of regeneration.
Answer:
Hydra and Planaria have the ability of regeneration.
3. Which of the following are always at the second tropic level of food chains?
Answer:
Primary consumers (green plants) are always at the second trophic level.
4. Draw a ray diagram to show the path of the reflected ray corresponding to an incident ray of light parallel
to the principal axis of a convex mirror and show the angle of incidence and angle of reflection on it.
Answer:
A light ray is incident on a convex mirror parallel to the principal axis. The ray diagram is shown below.
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CBSE-X-2015 EXAMINATION
In the above diagram, ‘i’ is the angle of incidence and ‘r’ is the angle of reflection.
5. Why is sustainable management of natural resources necessary? Out of the two—reuse and recycle—
which, in your opinion, is better to practice? Give reason.
Answer:
Sustainable management of natural resources is necessary to preserve the natural resources for the future
generations and also to control environmental pollution.
Reusing is better than recycling because recycling requires a large amount of energy and money, but reusing
creates lesser air and water pollution.
6. What is meant by biodiversity? List two advantages of conserving forests and wild life.
Answer:
The existence of many different kinds of plants and animals in an environment is called biodiversity.
Two advantages of conserving forests and wild life:
i. They add to the natural beauty of the environment.
ii. They provide valuable things which are required for our survival.
7. Write the name and general formula of a chain of hydrocarbons in which an addition reaction with
hydrogen is possible. State the essential condition for an addition reaction. Stating this condition, write a
chemical equation giving the name of the reactant and the product of the reaction.
Answer:
The addition of hydrogen is possible in alkenes and alkynes. This is because of the presence of double and
triple bonds, respectively.
The general formula of alkenes is C n H2n and that of alkynes is Cn H2n-2 Conditions for addition reactions
are
• Presence of an unsaturated compound, i.e. an unsaturated hydrocarbon.
• Presence of a species to be added to an unsaturated compound.
• Presence of a catalyst such as finely divided palladium or nickel.
CH 2 CH 2 H 2
Ni
CH 3 CH 3
ETHENE ETHANE
CH 3 C CH 2 H 2
Ni
CH 2 CH CH 3
PROPYNE PROPENE
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CBSE-X-2015 EXAMINATION
8. List two tests for experimentally distinguishing between an alcohol and a carboxylic acid and describe
how these tests are performed.
Answer:
Carboxylic acid can be distinguished from an alcohol by performing the following tests:
i. Test with 3 NaHCO3 solution in water.
On adding carboxylic acid to baking soda, carbon dioxide is liberated with brisk effervescence.
On adding a solution of baking soda to alcohol, no brisk effervescence occurs.
ii. Test with blue litmus solution.
Carboxylic acid turns blue litmus red. There is no change in colour when a blue litmus solution is added to
alcohol.
Answer:
Given below are some elements of the modern periodic table. Atomic number of the element is given in
parentheses.
A (4), B (9), C (14), D(19), E(20)
(a) Select the element that has one electron in the outermost shell. Also, write the electronic configuration of
this element.
(b) Which two elements amongst these belong to the same group? Give reasons for your answer.
(c) Which two elements amongst these belong to the same period? Which one of the two has bigger atomic
radius?
Answer:
(a) Element D (19) has one electron in its outermost shell.
Its electronic configuration is 2, 8, 8, 1.
(b) Elements A (4) and E (20) have two electrons in their outermost shells.
Electronic configuration of A: 2, 2
Electronic configuration of E: 2, 8, 8, 2
Since they both have a valency of two, they belong to group 2 of the periodic table.
(c) Elements A (4) and B (9) belong to the second period, and elements D (19) and E (20) belong to the
fourth period of the periodic table.
Since the effective nuclear charge which pulls the outermost electron closer to the nucleus increases from
left to right in a period, the atomic radii of the elements decreases.
A (4) has a bigger atomic radius than B (9) and D (19) has a bigger atomic radius than E (20).
10. Taking the example of an element of atomic number 16, explain how the electronic configuration of the
atom of an element relates to its position in the modern periodic table and how valency of an element is
calculated on the basis of its atomic number.
Answer:
Atomic number of the element = 16
Electronic configuration = 2, 8, 6
The period number is equal to the number of shells which starts filling up in it.
The atom of an element has three shells. So, the period number is 3.
The atom of an element has six valence electrons in the outermost shell.
So, the group number of the element will be 16 (6 + 10).
The valency of an element is determined by the number of valence electrons present in the outermost shell.
The atom of an element has six valence electrons in the outermost shell, so the valency of the element is 2.
11. Name the parts A, B and C shown in the diagram and write their functions
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CBSE-X-2015 EXAMINATION
Answer:
A - Stigma
Function: Pollen lands and germination starts
B - Pollen tube
Function: It carries the pollen to the egg cell for fertilisation.
C - Egg cell
Function: It fuses with the male gamete to form a zygote.
12. List any four methods of contraception used by humans. State in brief two advantages of adopting such
preventive methods.
Answer:
Four methods of contraception used by humans—
Intrauterine devices, oral contraceptive methods, surgical methods and natural methods (coitus interrupts).
Two advantages of adopting such preventive methods:
i. Helps in preventing unwanted pregnancies
ii. Reduces the chance of getting STDs such as AIDS
13. What are chromosomes? Explain how in sexually reproducing organisms the number of chromosomes in
the progeny is maintained.
Answer:
Chromosomes are thread-like structures found in the nucleus at the time of cell division. They are made of
proteins and DNA.
In sexually reproducing organisms, the gametes undergo meiosis, and hence, each gamete contains only half
a set of chromosomes. When two gametes fuse, the zygote formed contains the full set of chromosomes.
Hence, the formation of gametes by meiosis helps to maintain the number of chromosomes in the progeny.
14. Explain the following:
(a) Speciation
(b) Natural Selection
Answer:
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CBSE-X-2015 EXAMINATION
(a) Speciation: The process by which new species develop from the existing species is known as speciation.
The factors which could lead to speciation are:
i. Geographical isolation of population caused by various types of barriers such as mountain ranges, rivers
and seas. This leads to reproductive isolation because of which there is no flow of genes between separated
groups of population.
ii. Genetic drift caused by drastic changes in the frequencies of particular genes by chance alone.
iii. Variations caused in individuals because of natural selection.
(b) Natural Selection: Natural selection is the process of evolution of a species whereby characteristics
which help individual organisms to survive and reproduce are passed on to their offspring, and those
characteristics which do not help are not passed on. Charles Darwin proposed the theory of natural selection.
According to him, nature selects the fittest.
There are always changes in the progeny when an animal reproduces by sexual reproduction.
Example: If one of the progeny of deer is tall and the other is short, then the tall one with long legs will
survive. Because the progeny with short height cannot reach the leaves of tall trees and cannot get food, they
will starve and hence die. Thus, it proves the theory of natural selection.
15. Explain with an example for each, how the following provides evidences in favour of evolution in
organisms:
(a) Homologous organs
(b) Analogous organs
(c) Fossils
Ans.
(a) Homologous organs: Organs which have the same basic structure but different functions are called
homologous organs.
Example: The forelimbs of a man, lizard, frog, bird and bat have the same basic design of bones, but they
perform different functions. The forelimbs of a man are used for grasping, the forelimbs of a lizard are used
for running, the forelimbs of a frog are used to prop up the front ends of the body when at rest and the
forelimbs of a bird and bat are modified for flying. Hence, all these organisms use their forelimbs for
performing different functions, but the forelimbs have originated from the same structural pattern.
(b) Analogous organs: Organs which have different basic structure but similar appearance and perform
similar functions are called analogous organs. Example: The wings of an insect and a bird have different
structures, but they perform the same function of flying. Because the wings of insects and birds have
different structures but perform similar functions, they are analogous organs.
(c) Fossils: The remains of dead animals or plants which lived in the remote past are known as fossils. The
fossils provide evidence for evolution. For example, a fossil bird called Archaeopteryx looks like a bird, but
it has many other features which are found in reptiles. It has feathered wings like those of birds but teeth and
tail like those of reptiles. Therefore, Archaeopteryx is a connecting link between the reptiles and birds and
hence suggests that birds have evolved from reptiles.
16. With the help of scattering of light, explain the reason for the difference in colours of the Sun as it
appears during sunset/sunrise and noon.
Answer:
At the time of sunrise and sunset, when the Sun is near the horizon, sunlight travels a greater distance
through the atmosphere to reach us. During this time, most of the shorter wavelengths present in it are
scattered away from our line of sight by the molecules of air and other fine particles in the atmosphere. So,
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CBSE-X-2015 EXAMINATION
light reaching us directly from the rising or setting Sun consists mainly of the longer wavelength red colour
because of which the Sun appears red.
Thus, at sunrise and sunset, the Sun and the surrounding sky appear red. At noon, the Sun is overhead. So,
the sunlight has to travel a relatively shorter distance. Hence, there is only slight scattering of shorter
wavelengths of blue and violet colour. Therefore, the Sun appears mostly white.
17.An object of height 5 cm is placed perpendicular to the principal axis of a concave lens of focal length 10
cm. If the distance of the object from the optical centre of the lens is 20 cm, determine the position, nature
and size of the image formed using the lens formula.
Answer:
Given: Height of the object = h = 5 cm
Focal length of the concave lens = f = −10 cm
Object distance = u = −20 cm
Using the lens formula, we get
1 1 1
f v u
1 1 1
10 v 20
1 1 1
10 v 20
1 1 1
10 20 v
2 1 1
20 v
3 1
20 v
v 6.67cm
Hence, the image is formed 6.67 cm in front of the lens on the same side as the object.
Because v is negative, we can say that the image is virtual.
From the magnification formula for the lens, we get
h' v
m
h u
vh
h'
u
6.67(5)
h'
20
h ' 1.67
Hence, the size of the image is h′ = 1.67 cm.
Because the height of the image is positive and smaller than the height of the object, the image is erect and
diminished. So, we can conclude that the image is virtual, erect and diminished.
18. Differentiate between biodegradable and non-biodegradable substances with the help of one example
each. List two changes in habit that people must adopt to dispose non-biodegradable waste, for saving the
environment.
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CBSE-X-2015 EXAMINATION
Answer:
Biodegradable wastes Non-biodegradable wastes
(a) Waste materials which can be broken (a) Waste materials which cannot be
down to non-poisonous substances in broken down into non-poisonous or
nature in due course of time by the action harmless substances in nature are called
non-biodegradable wastes non-biodegradable wastes
(b) Examples: Cattle dung, wool, paper, (b) Examples: Plastics, polythene bags,
compost metal articles, glass objects
The changes which people must adopt to dispose non-biodegradable wastes for saving the environment are
environment are
(a) Household waste, chemical waste and hospital waste should be disposed of by dumping them in the low-
lying areas of the ground called a landfill.
(b) Broken plastic articles such as buckets, bowls, cups, plates etc. should be sent to plastic processing
factories.
19.Write the importance of ciliary muscles in the human eye. Name the defect of vision that arises due to
gradual weakening of the ciliary muscles. What types of lenses are required by the person suffering from
this defect to see the objects clearly?
Akshay, sitting in the last row in his class, could not see clearly the words write on the blackboard. When
the teacher noticed it, he announced if any student sitting in the front row could volunteer to exchange his
seat with Akshay. Salman immediately agreed to exchange his seat with Akshay. He could now see the
words written on the blackboard clearly. The teacher thought it fit to send the message to Akshay’s parents
advising them to get his eyesight checked. In the context of the above event, answer the following questions:
(a) Which defect of vision is Akshay suffering from? Which type of lens is used to correct this defect?
(b) State the values displayed by the teacher and Salman.
(c) In your opinion, in what way can Akshay express his gratitude towards the teacher and Salman?
Answer:
The curvature of the eye lens can be adjusted by the ciliary muscles. This changes the focal length of the
lens. The defect which arises because of the gradual weakening of the ciliary muscles is known as
presbyopia. A bifocal lens can be used to correct presbyopia. Answers to the context questions:
(a) Akshay is not able to see from a far distance, so he is suffering from myopia or nearsightedness. A
concave lens should be used to correct this defect.
(b) The teacher displayed presence of mind and pro-activeness, and she is of a considerate nature. Salman
displayed the virtue of friendship and is caring in nature.
(c) Akshay should thank the teacher and Salman in front of the entire class.
20. What is meant by power of a lens? Define its SI unit. [5] You have two lenses A and B of focal lengths
+10 cm and –10 cm, respectively. State the nature and power of each lens. Which of the two lenses will
form a virtual and magnified image of an object placed 8 cm from the lens? Draw a ray diagram to justify
your answer. [5]
Answer:
The power of a lens is defined as the reciprocal of its focal length. It is represented by the letter P. The
power P of a lens of focal length f is given as
1
p
f
The SI unit of power is dioptre (D).
Given: Focal length of lens A, FA = +10 cm = +0.1 m
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CBSE-X-2015 EXAMINATION
Focal length of lens B, FB = −10 cm = −0.1 m
To calculate the power of lens A:
The power of lens A,
1
p
fA
1
p
0.1
p 10 D
The positive sign indicates that it is a converging or convex lens.
To calculate the power of lens B:
The power of lens B,
1
p
fB
1
p
0.1
p 10 D
The negative sign indicates that it is a diverging or concave lens.
In a convex lens, when the object is placed between the pole and focus, the image formed is always virtual
and magnified.
On the other hand, a concave lens produces virtual, erect but diminished image. Here the object is placed 8
cm from the lens which is at a distance less than the focal length, i.e. less than 10 cm. Thus, the 8 cm
position of the object placed in front of the convex lens will produce a virtual and magnified image. The
diagram for the same is as shown below:
21. One half of a convex lens of focal length 10 cm is covered with a black paper.
Can such a lens produce an image of a complete object placed at a distance of 30 cm from the lens?
Draw a ray diagram to justify your answer. A 4 cm tall object is placed perpendicular to its principal axis of
a convex lens of focal length 20 cm. The distance of the object from the lens is 15 cm. Find the nature,
position and the size of the image.
Answer:
A convex lens can produce the complete image of the object even though half of the lens is covered. This is
because light coming from the object can be refracted from the other half of the lens. However, the intensity
of light will be reduced.
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CBSE-X-2015 EXAMINATION
Given: Height of the object = h = 4 cm
Focal length of the convex lens = f = 20 cm
Object distance = u = −15 cm
Using the lens formula, we get
1 1 1
f v u
1 1 1
20 v 15
1 1 1
20 v 15
1 1 1
20 15 v
1 1
60 v
v 60
Hence, the image is formed 60 cm in front of the lens on the same side as the object.
Because v is negative, we can say that the image is virtual. From the magnification formula for the lens, we
get
h' v
m
h u
vh
h'
u
60(4)
h'
15
h ' 16cm
Hence, the size of the image is h′ = 16 cm.
Because the height of the image is positive and greater than the height of the object, the image is erect and
magnified. So, we can conclude that the image is virtual, erect and magnified.
22.How do Mendel’s experiments show that the
(a) traits may be dominant or recessive
(b) traits are inherited independently
Answer:
(a) Mendel crossed pure bred tall pea plants with pure bred dwarf pea plants and found that only tall pea
plants were produced in the first generation and there were no dwarf pea plants. He concluded that the first
generation showed the traits of only one of the parent plants—tallness. The trait of the other parent plant—
dwarfness— did not show up in the progeny of the first generation.
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CBSE-X-2015 EXAMINATION
He then crossed the tall pea plants obtained in the first generation (F1 generation) and found that both tall
plants and dwarf plants were obtained in the second generation (F2 generation) in the ratio of 3:1.
Mendel noted that the dwarf trait of the parent pea plant which disappeared in the first generation progeny
reappeared in the second generation. In this way, Mendel’s experiments with tall and dwarf pea plants
showed that the traits may be dominant and recessive.
(b) When Mendel crossed pure-bred tall pea plants with pure-bred dwarf pea plants, he found that only tall
pea plants were produced in the F1 generation. When he further crossed the tall pea plants of the F1
generation, he found that the tall plants and dwarf plants were obtained in the ratio 3:1 in the F2 generation.
Mendel noted that all the pea plants produced in the F2 generation were either tall or dwarf. There were no
plants with intermediate height (or medium height) in between the tall and dwarf plants.
In this way, Mendel’s experiment showed that the traits (like tallness and dwarfness) are inherited
independently. This is because if the traits of tallness and dwarfness had blended (or mixed up), then
medium-sized pea plants would have been produced.
23.
(a) Name the human male reproductive organ that produces sperms and also secretes a hormone. Write the
functions of the secreted hormone.
(b) Name the parts of the human female reproductive system where
i. fertilisation takes place
ii. Implantation of the fertilised egg occurs Explain how the embryo gets nourishment inside the mother’s
body.
Answer:
(a) Testes produce sperms and secrete a hormone called testosterone. The function of testosterone is to
control the development of male sex organs and male features such as a deeper voice, moustache, beard and
more body hair as compared to females.
(b) i. Fertilisation takes place in the oviduct or fallopian tubes.
ii. Implantation of the fertilised egg occurs in the uterus. After implantation, a disc-like special tissue called
placenta develops between the uterus wall and the embryo. The placenta helps in the exchange of nutrients,
oxygen and waste products between the embryo and the mother. Thus, it provides nourishment to the
growing embryo
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CBSE-X-2015 EXAMINATION
24. Both soap and detergent are some type of salts. What is the difference between them? Describe in brief
the cleansing action of soap. Why do soaps not form lather in hard water? List two problems that arise due
to the use of detergents instead of soaps.
Answer:
Difference between soap and detergent: The molecules of soap are sodium or potassium salts of long-chain
carboxylic acids. Detergents are generally ammonium or sulphonate salts of long chain carboxylic acids.
Cleansing action of soap can be described as follows:
• A soap molecule has a tadpole-shaped structure.
• At one end (long non-polar end) of the soap molecule is a hydrocarbon chain which is insoluble in water
but soluble in oil.
• At the other end (short polar end) of the soap molecule, there is a carboxylate ion which is hydrophilic, i.e.
water soluble but insoluble in oil.
• Soap on mixing with water forms a concentrated solution and causes foaming.
• The long non-polar end of soap gravitates towards and surrounds the dirt and absorbs the dust in it.
• The short polar end with the carboxylate ion repels the water away from the dirt.
• A spherical aggregate of soap molecules is formed in the soap solution in water and is called a micelle.
•Thus, the soap molecule dissolves the dirt and our clothes get clean. Soaps do not form lather in hard water
because Hard water contains calcium and magnesium salts. Soap molecules react with calcium and
magnesium salts to form an insoluble precipitate called scum. Two problems arise because of the use of
detergents instead of soap:
i. Soaps are biodegradable, while detergents are non-biodegradable; hence, detergents accumulate in the
environment and cause problems.
ii. Certain phosphate additives are added to detergents. These phosphate additives act as nutrients for algae
which form a thick green scum over the river water and upset the animal life in the river.
SECTION B
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CBSE-X-2015 EXAMINATION
25. A student traces the path of a ray of light through a rectangular glass slab for the different values of
angle of incidence. He observes all possible precautions at each step of the experiment. At the end of the
experiment, on analyzing the measurements, which of the following conclusions is he likely to draw?
(A) i e r
(B) i e r
(C) i e r
(D) i e r
Answer:
(A)i e r
In refraction through a rectangular slab, the angle of incidence is equal to the angle of emergence. Also, the
angle of refraction should be smaller than the angle of incidence.
26.A student traces the path of a ray of light through a triangular glass prism for different values of angle of
incidence. On analyzing the ray diagrams, which one of the following conclusions is he likely to draw?
(A) The emergent ray is parallel to the incident ray.
(B) The emergent ray bends at an angle to the direction of the incident ray.
(C) The emergent ray and the refracted ray are at right angles to each other.
(D) The emergent ray is perpendicular to the incident ray.
Answer:
(B) The emergent ray bends at an angle to the direction of the incident ray. In refraction of light through a
glass prism, there is deviation or change in the path of light passing through the prism.
27.A student obtains a sharp image of the distant window (W) of the school laboratory on the screen (S)
using the given concave mirror (M) to determine its focal length. Which of the following distances should he
measure to get the focal length of the mirror?
(A) MW
(B) MS
(C) SW
(D) MW MS
Answer:
(B) MS The focal length of a concave mirror is the distance between its pole and principal focus. That is, the
distance of the image formed (screen) from the concave mirror will be equal to the focal length of the
concave mirror.
28.A student used a device (X) to obtain/focus the image of a well illuminated distant building on a screen
(S) as shown below in the diagram. Select the correct statement about the device (X).
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CBSE-X-2015 EXAMINATION
(A) This device is a concave lens of focal length 8 cm.
(B) This device is a convex mirror of focal length 8 cm.
(C) This device is a convex lens of focal length 4 cm.
(D) This device is a convex lens of focal length 8 cm.
Answer:
(D) This device is a convex lens of focal length 8 cm. The incident rays after passing through the lens
converge at the focus. So, the device 'X' is a converging or a convex lens. The distance between the lens and
the screen gives the focal length of the lens.
29. Given below is the list of vegetables available in the market. Select from these the two vegetables having
homologous structures: Potato, sweet potato, ginger, radish, tomato, carrot, okra (Lady’s finger)
(A) Potato and sweet potato
(B) Radish and carrot
(C) Okra and sweet potato
(D) Potato and tomato
Answer:
(B) Radish and carrot Radish and carrot are homologous structures as these are modifications of the root.
Tomato and okra are fruits. Potato is a modification of the stem.
30. A student was asked to observe and identify the various parts of an embryo of a red kidney bean seed.
He identified the parts and listed them as under: [1]
I. Tegmen
II. Testa
III. Cotyledon
IV. Radicle
V. Plumule
The correctly identified parts among these are
(A)I, II and III
(B)II, III and IV
(C)III, IV and V
(D)I, III, IV and V
Answer:
(C) III, IV and V An embryo has two large cotyledons and one embryo axis or tigellum. The upper end of
the embryo axis is the plumule, and the lower end of the embryo axis which projects beyond the cotyledons
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CBSE-X-2015 EXAMINATION
is the radical. The testa is the thick outer seed coat, and the tegmen is the inner transparent seed coat of
seeds.
31. While preparing soap a small quantity of common salt is generally added to the reaction mixture of
vegetable oil and sodium hydroxide. Which one of the following may be the purpose of adding common
salt?
(A)To reduce the basic nature of the soap
(B)To make the soap neutral
(C) To enhance the cleansing power of the soap
(D)To favour the precipitation of the soap
Answer:
(D) To favour the precipitation of the soap During saponification, the soap formed remains in a suspended
form in the mixture. It is precipitated as a solid from the suspension by adding common salt to the
suspension. This process is called salting out of soap.
32.A student takes about 4 ml of distilled water in four test tubes marked P, Q, R and S. He then dissolves in
each test tube an equal amount of one salt in one test tube, namely sodium sulphate in P, potassium sulphate
in Q, calcium sulphate in R and magnesium sulphate in S. After that he adds an equal amount of soap
solution in each test tube. On shaking each of these test tubes well, he observes a good amount of lather
(foam) in the test tube marked.
(A)P and Q
(B)Q and R
(C) P, Q and S
(D)P, R and S
Answer:
(A) P and Q Lather (foam) is formed by the reaction of soap solution with sodium sulphate and potassium
sulphate in the test tubes P and Q, respectively. They are dissolved in water to give a neutral solution.
Sulphates, chlorides and bicarbonates of calcium and magnesium make the water hard. Thus, the lather is
not formed in the test tubes R and S.
33. What do we observe on pouring acetic acid on red and blue litmus papers? [1]
(A)Red litmus remains red and blue litmus turns red.
(B)Red litmus turns blue and blue litmus remains blue.
(C) Red litmus turns blue and blue litmus turns red.
(D)Red litmus becomes colourless and blue litmus remains blue.
Answer:
(A) Red litmus remains red and blue litmus turns red. Acids turn blue litmus paper red.
They have no effect on red litmus paper.
34. Students were asked to observe the permanent slides showing different stages of budding in yeast under
high power of a microscope.
(a) Which adjustment screw (coarse/fine) were you asked to move to focus the slides?
(b) Draw three diagrams in correct sequence showing budding in yeast.
Answer:
(A) A fine screw is used to focus the slides of budding in yeast under high power of a microscope.
(B) Sequence showing budding in yeast:
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CBSE-X-2015 EXAMINATION
35. When you add sodium hydrogen carbonate to acetic acid in a test tube, a gas liberates immediately with
brisk effervescence. Name this gas. Describe the method of testing this gas.
Answer:
Carbon dioxide gas gets liberated. When a pinch of sodium hydrogen carbonate is added to acetic acid in a
test tube, a brisk effervescence is produced because of the liberation of carbon dioxide gas. When this gas is
passed through the lime water, it turns lime water milky.
This shows that the gas liberated is carbon dioxide gas. The chemical reaction can be represented as
CH3COOH (aq) + NaHCO3(s) → CH3COONa (aq) + H2O(l) + CO2(g) ↑
36. A 4 cm tall object is placed on the principal axis of a convex lens. The distance of he object from the
optical centre of the lens is 12 cm and its sharp image is formed at a distance of 24 cm from it on a screen on
the other side of the lens. If the object is now moved a little away from the lens, in which way (towards the
lens or away from the lens) will he have to move the screen to get a sharp image of the object on it again?
How will the magnification of the image be affected?
Answer:
Given that Object distance, u = −12 cm
Image distance, v = 24 cm
1 1 1
f v u
1 1 1
f 24 12
1 1 1
f 24 12
1 1 2
f 24
1 3
f 24
f 8cm
The focal length of the lens is 8 cm.
Now if the object is moved away from the lens, the screen has to be moved towards the lens. This is because
when we move the object away from the lens, the object distance is increased. Hence, by the lens formula,
the image distance decreases.
Magnification is given as
v
m
u
Because the image distance (v) decreases, the value of magnification also decreases.
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CBSE-XII-2017 EXAMINATI CBSE – X – 2016 EXAMINATION
SCIENCE
SET-3 Paper & Solution
Time: 3 Hrs. Max. Marks: 90
General Instructions:
1. The question paper comprises two Sections, A and B. You are to attempt both the sections.
2. All questions are compulsory.
3. There is no choice in any of the questions.
4. All questions of Section A and all questions of Section B are to be attempted separately.
5. Question numbers 1 to 3 in Section A are one-mark questions. These are to be answered in one word or in one sentence.
6. Question numbers 4 to 6 in Section A are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about 30 words each.
7. Question numbers 7 to 18 in Section A are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in about 50 words each.
8. Question numbers 19 to 24 in Section A are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in about 70 words each.
9. Question numbers 25 to 33 in Section B are multiple choice questions based on practical skills. Each question is a one-mark
question. You are to select one most appropriate response out of the four provided to you.
10. Question numbers 34 to 36 in Section B are two-marks questions based on practical skills. These are to be answered in brief.
SECTION A
Question 1. Write the name and structure of an aldehyde with four carbon atoms in its molecule.
Solution: 1-butanal
Marks: 1
Question 2. List two functions ovary of human female reproductive system.
Solution: Two functions of the ovaries of the human female reproductive system are
1. To produce ova, which are female gametes
2. To secrete the female hormones oestrogen and progesterone.
Marks: 1
Question 3. In a food chain of frog, grass, insect and snake, assign trophic level to frog.
Solution: Grass Insect Frog Snake
Frog is a secondary consumer.
Marks: 1
Question 4. The refractive indices of glass and water with respect to air are 3/2 and 4/3 respectively. If
speed of light in glass is 2 × 108 m/s, find the speed of light in water.
Solution: Given: ng = 3/2 and nw = 4/3
Speed of light in air
Refractive index of glass, ng =
Speed of light in glass
3 Speed of light in air
2 2 108
3
Speed of light in air = 2 108 3108 m/s
2
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Thus, the speed of light in air is 3 × 108 m/s.
Marks: 2
Question 5. List four stakeholders which may be helpful in the conservation of forests.
Solution: Four stakeholders which may help in the conservation of forests are
1. The Forest Department of the Government which owns the forest land and controls the resources from
forests
2. People who live in and around the forest and are dependent on forest produce to lead their lives
3. Industrialists who use various forest products for their factories
4. Forest and wildlife activists who want to see forests in their original form.
Marks: 2
Question 6. The construction of large dams leads to social and environmental problems. List two problems
of each category.
Solution: Social problems arise because the construction of dams causes the displacement of a large number
of tribals and peasants who are then rendered homeless. They are neither given sufficient compensation or
rehabilitation nor do they get any benefits from these projects.
Construction of dams leads to several environmental problems such as deforestation and loss of biodiversity
because large areas of forest land get submerged in water leading to an ecological imbalance.
Marks: 2
Question 7. The position of eight elements in the Modern Periodic Table is given below where atomic
numbers of elements are given in the parenthesis.
Period No.
2 Li(3) Be(4)
3 Na(11) Mg(12)
4 K(19) Ca(20)
5 Rb(37) Sr(38)
(i) Write the electronic configuration of Ca.
(ii) Predict the number of valence electrons in Rb.
(iii) What is the number of shells in Sr?
(iv) Predict whether K is a metal or a non-metal.
(v) Which one of these elements has the largest atom in size?
(vi) Arrange Be, Ca, Mg and Rb in the increasing order of the size of their respective atoms.
Solution: (i) Electronic configuration of Ca (20): 2, 8, 8, 2
(ii) Rb belongs to Group 1, and all Group 1 elements have one valence electron.
(iii) Sr belongs to Period 5, and thus, it has five shells.
(iv) K is a metal with electronic configuration 2, 8, 8, 1. Thus, it will donate its one electron to acquire the
noble gas configuration.
(v) The atomic size increases down the group and decreases across a period. Rb is the element which has the
largest atomic size.
(vi) Be < Mg < Ca < Rb
Marks: 3
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Question 8. Write three different chemical reactions showing the conversion of ethanoic acid to sodium
ethanoate. Write balanced chemical equation in each case. Write the name of the reactants and the products
other ethanoic acid and sodium ethanoate in each case.
Solution: Three different chemical reactions showing the conversion of ethanoic acid to sodium ethanoate:
2CH3COOH + Na2CO3 2CH3COONa + H2O + CO2
CH3COOH + NaHCO3
CH3COONa + H2O + CO2
CH3COOH + NaOH
CH3COONa + H2O + CO2
Marks: 3
Question 9. An element `X’ belong to 3rd period and group 13 of the Modern Periodic Table.
(a) Determine the valence electrons and the valency of `X’.
(b) Molecular formula of the compound formed when `X’ reacts with an element `Y’ (atomic number = 8).
(c) Write the name and formula of the compound formed when `X’ combines with chlorine.
Solution: Period of X = 3
Group of X = 13
Atomic number of X = 13
Electronic configuration: 2, 8, 3
(a) Number of valence electrons = 3 and valency = 3
(b) Atomic number of Y = 8
Electronic configuration = 2, 6
Valency of Y = 2
Molecular formula of the compound formed when ‘X’ reacts with an element ‘Y’ is X2Y3.
(c) Atomic number of Cl = 17
Electronic configuration = 2, 8, 7
Valency of Y = 1
Molecular formula of the compound formed when ‘X’ reacts with an element ‘Y’ is XCl3.
Marks: 3
Question 10. An element `X’ has mass number 35 and number of neutrons 18. Write atomic number and
electronic configuration of `X’. Also write group number, period number and valency of `X’.
Solution: Mass number of X = 35
Number of neutrons = 18
Atomic number = Mass number – Number of neutrons
= 35 – 18 = 17
Electronic configuration of X = 2, 8, 7
Group of X = 17
Period of X = 3
Valency of X = 1.
Marks: 3
Question 11. (a) List two reasons for the appearance of variations among the progeny formed by sexual
reproduction.
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(b)
(i) Name the part marked `A’ in the diagram.
(ii) How dose `A’ reachese part `B’?
(iii) State the importance of the part `C’.
(iv) What happens to the part marked `D’ after fertilisation is over?
Solution: (a) Two reasons for the appearance of variations among the progeny formed by sexual
reproduction are
1. Sexual reproduction results in new combinations of genes which are brought together during the
formation of gametes.
2. Gene combinations are different in gametes.
(b)
(i) Part ‘A’ labelled is pollen grain.
(ii) Part ‘B’ is stigma. The pollen grain reaches the stigma during pollination.
(iii) Part ‘C’ is the pollen tube. The pollen tube carries the gametes to the embryo sac for fertilisation.
(iv) Part ‘D’ is the egg cell. After fertilisation with the male gametes, the egg cell forms the zygote.
Marks: 3
Question 12. Define reproduction. How does it help in providing stability to the population of species?
Solution: Reproduction is the ability of living organisms to produce living beings similar to them.
Reproduction maintains the number of chromosomes specific to a species in each generation. Multicellular
organisms have specialised cells in their gonads, which have only half the number of chromosomes and half
the amount of DNA as compared to non-reproductive body cells. So, when these germ cells from 2 different
individuals combine during sexual reproduction to form a new individual, it results in the re-establishment
of the number of chromosomes and the DNA content in the new generation. Thus, it provides stability to the
population of a species.
Marks: 3
Question 13. Explain the term “Regeneration” as used in relation to reproduction of organisms. Describe
briefly how regeneration is carried out in multicellular organisms like Hydra.
Solution: Regeneration is the ability of organisms to generate lost or damaged parts of the body.
When a hydra is bisected anywhere in the upper 7th or 8th part of the body column, the upper half will
regenerate a foot at its basal end and the lower half will regenerate a head at its apical end; each half
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generates the organ which it is missing. The regeneration is precise, and the head and foot are always formed
specifically at the apical and basal ends, respectively.
Marks: 3
Question 14. “Two areas of study namely `evolution’ and `classification' are interlinked”. Justify this
statement.
Solution: All living things are identified and categorised on the basis of their body design in form and
function. After a certain body design comes into existence, it will shape the effects of all other subsequent
design changes simply because it already exists. So, characteristics which came into existence earlier are
likely to be more basic than characteristics which have come into existence later. This means that the
classification of life forms will be closely related to their evolution. On connecting this idea of evolution to
classification, it is seen that some groups of organisms with ancient body designs have not changed very
much. However, other groups of organisms have acquired their particular body designs relatively recently.
Because there is a possibility that complexity in design will increase over evolutionary time, it may not be
wrong to say that older organisms are simpler, while younger organisms are more complex.
Marks: 3
Question 15. How do Mendel’s experiment show that traits are inherited independently?
Solution: Mendel carried out dihybrid crosses by crossing two pea plants differing in contrasting traits of
two characters. For example, he crossed a pea plant having yellow colour and round seed characters with
another pea plant bearing green colour and wrinkled seed characters. In the F2 generation, he obtained pea
plants with two parental and two recombinant phenotypes as yellow round and green wrinkled (parental) and
yellow wrinkled and green round (recombinant). This indicated that traits separated from their original
parental combinations and got inherited independently.
Marks: 3
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Question 16. The activities of man had adverse effects on all forms of living organisms in the biosphere.
Unlimited exploitation of nature by man disturbed the delicate ecological balance between the living and
non-living components of the biosphere. The unfavourable conditions created by man himself threatened the
survival not only of himself but also of the entire living organisms on the mother earth. One of your
classmates is an active member of `Eco club’ of your school which is creating environmental awareness
amongst the school students, spreading the same in the society and also working hard for preventing
environmental degradation of the surroundings.
(a) Why is it necessary to conserve our environment?
(b) State the importance of green and blue dust-bins in the safe disposal of the household waste.
(c) List two values exhibited by your classmate who is an active member of Eco-club of your school.
Solution: (a) It is necessary to conserve our environment because
(i) It helps in protecting the ozone layer.
(ii) It helps in maintaining animal and human food chains.
(iii) It provides us with many useful products such as medicines and wood.
(b) Disposal of household waste is carried out in green and blue bins, respectively. It will be very useful in
the separate disposal of biodegradable and non-biodegradable wastes. This will also ensure the application
of 3Rs—reduce, reuse and recycle.
(c) Two values exhibited are
(i) Creating environmental awareness among students and society.
(ii) Working hard on prevention of environmental degradation of surroundings.
Marks: 3
Question 17. The image formed by a spherical mirror is real, inverted and is of magnification –2. If the
image is at a distance of 30 cm from the mirror, where is the object placed? Find the focal length of the
mirror. List two characteristics of the image formed if the object is moved 10 cm towards the mirror.
Solution: Given: Magnification, m = –2
Distance of the image, v = –30 cm
v
Magnification, m =
u
v (30)
u
m (2)
u = –15 cm
Substituting these values in the mirror formula
1 1 1
f v u
1 1
(30) (15)
1 1
f 10
f = –10 cm
When the object is moved 10 cm towards the mirror the new position of the object is
u' = – (15 – 10) = –5 cm
Substituting the new value in the mirror formula
1 1 1
f v u'
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1 1 1 1 1
v' f u' 10 (5)
1 1
v' 10
v' = 10 cm
Thus, the image is located 10 cm behind the mirror.
v' 10
And magnification, m' = –
u' ( 5)
m' = 2
Since magnification is positive the image is erect and virtual.
Thus, the image is erect, virtual and magnified in nature.
Marks: 3
Question 18. Describe an activity to show that colours of white light splitted by a glass prism can be
recombined to get white light by another identical glass prism. Also draw ray diagram to show the
recombination of the spectrum of white light.
Solution: The seven colours of a spectrum can be recombined to give back white light as
1. Two identical glass prisms are placed such that their refracting surfaces are in opposite direction (placed
inverted). When a beam of light is allowed to fall on the surface of one prism, a patch of ordinary white light
is obtained on a screen placed behind the second prism.
2. The first prism disperses the white light into seven coloured rays. The second prism receives all the seven
coloured rays from the first prism and recombines them into original white light. This is because the
refraction produced by the second prism is equal and opposite to that produced by the first prism. Hence, the
light coming out of the second prism will be white.
Marks: 3
Question 19. It is desired to obtain an erect image of an object, using concave mirror of focal length of 12
cm.
(i) What should be the range of distance of an object placed in front of the mirror?
(ii) Will the image be smaller or larger than the object? Draw ray diagram to show the formation of image in
this case.
(iii) Where will the image of this object be, if it is placed 24 cm in front of the mirror? Draw ray diagram for
this situation also justify your answer.
Show the positions of pole, principal focus and the centre of curvature in the above ray diagrams.
Solution: (i) To obtain an erect image, the object should be placed within the focus, i.e., between the pole
and the focus. Here, the focal length of the mirror is 12 cm.
Hence, the object should be placed at a distance less than 12 cm.
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(ii) The image will be larger than the object (enlarged).
(iii) Since f = 12 cm Centre of curvature = 2f = 24 cm
For an object placed at a distance 24 cm, i.e., at the centre of curvature of a concave mirror, the image
formed will be real, inverted and of the same size as that of the object.
Marks: 5
Question 20. Define evolution. How does it occur? Describe how fossils provide us evidences in support of
evolution.
Solution: Evolution is the formation of more complex organisms from pre-existing simpler organisms over
a certain period. Accumulation of variation in genetic material forms the basis of evolutionary processes.
Fossils provide a unique view into the history of life by showing the forms and features of life in the past.
Fossils tell us how species have changed across long periods of the Earth’s history.
Importance of fossils in the evolutionary process:
1. Some invertebrates living on the sea bed died and were buried in the sand.
2. More sand was accumulated and formed sandstone under pressure.
3. After millions of years, dinosaurs living in the area died and their bodies were buried in the mud.
4. The mud got compressed into the rock, just above the rock containing earlier invertebrate fossils.
5. Again millions of years later, the bodies of horse-like creatures dying in the area were fossilised in the
rocks above the earlier rocks.
6. Much later, because of erosion and water flow, some rocks wore out and exposed the horse-like fossils.
Marks: 5
Question 21. What is placenta? Describe its structure. State its functions in case of a pregnant human
female.
Solution: The placenta is an organ attached to the lining of the womb during pregnancy. The placenta is
composed of both maternal tissue and tissue derived from the embryo. It contains blood spaces on the
mother’s side and villi on the embryo’s side.
Functions of the placenta:
1. It provides food and oxygen to the foetus.
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2. The foetus gives away waste products and carbon dioxide to the mother’s blood for excretion.
Marks: 5
Question 22. A carbon compound `P’ on heating with excess conc. H2SO4 forms another carbon compound
`Q’ which on addition of hydrogen in the presence of nickel catalyst forms a saturated carbon compound
`R’. One molecule of `R’ on combustion forms two molecules of carbon dioxide and three molecules of
water. Identify P, Q and R and write chemical equations for the reactions involved.
Solution: P
Excess H2SO4
Q
H2 /Nickel catalyst
R
O2
2CO2 + 3H2O
P
Excess H2SO4
Q
CH3CH2OH
Excess H2SO4
CH2 = CH2
Q
H2 /Nickel catalyst
R
CH2 = CH2
H2 /Nickel catalyst
CH3 – CH3
R
O2
2CO2 + 3H2O
CH3 – CH3
O2
2CO2 + 3H2O
CH3CH2OH
Excess H2SO4
CH2 = CH2
H2 /Nickel catalyst
CH3 – CH3
O2
2CO2 + 3H2O
P Q R
Ethanol Ethene Ethane
Marks: 5
Question 23. What is atmospheric refraction? Use this phenomenon to explain the following natural events:
(a) Twinkling of stars
(b) Advanced sun-rise and delayed sun-set.
Draw diagrams to illustrate your answers.
Solution: (a) Stars emit light on their own; when this light travels through the Earth's atmosphere which has
variable optical density, the continuously changing atmosphere refracts the light from the stars in different
amounts from one moment to the next. The light seems to be bright and dim as it keeps changing because of
continuous refraction through the different layers of the atmosphere of the Earth. Hence, we say light
twinkles at night.
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(b) The sunrise is advanced because of the atmospheric refraction of sunlight. An observer on the Earth sees
the Sun two minutes before the Sun reaches the horizon. A ray of sunlight entering the Earth's atmosphere
follows a curved path because of atmospheric refraction before reaching the Earth. This happens because of
a gradual variation in the refractive index of the atmosphere. For an observer on the Earth, the apparent
position of the Sun is slightly higher than the actual position. Hence, the Sun is seen before it reaches the
horizon.
The increased atmospheric refraction of sunlight occurs also at sunset. In this case, the observer on the Earth
continues to see the setting Sun for two minutes after the Sun has dipped below the horizon, thus delaying
the sunset. The advanced sunrise and delayed sunset increase the duration of the day by four minutes.
Marks: 5
Question 24. (a) Define focal length of a divergent lens.
(b) A divergent lens of focal length 30 cm forms the image of an object of size 6 cm on the same side as the
object at a distance of 15 cm from its optical center. Use lens formula to determine the distance of the object
from the lens and the size of the image formed.
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(c) Draw a ray diagram to show the formation of image in the above situation.
Solution: (a) The focal length of a diverging lens is half the value of its radius of curvature. Conventionally,
the sign of the focal length of the diverging lens is taken as negative.
(b) Given:
f = −20 cm (It is a diverging lens.)
v = −15 cm (Image is formed on the same side of the lens.)
Using the lens formula,
1 1 1
f v u
1 1 1
u v f
1 1 1
( 15) ( 30) 30
u 30 cm
Given: Height of the object, h = 6 cm
Height of the image, h' = ?
v h'
Magnification, m =
u h
v (15)
h' h 6
u (30)
h' 3 cm
(c)
Marks: 5
SECTION B
Question 25. A student while observing an embryo of a pea seed in the laboratory listed various parts of the
embryo as given below:
Testa, Tegmen, Radicle, Plumule, Micropyle, Cotyledon.
On examining the list the teacher remarked that only three parts are correct.
Select three correct parts from the above list:
(a) Testa, Radicle, Cotyleddon
(b) Tegmen, Radicle, Micropyle
(c) Cotyledon, Plumule, Testa
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(d) Radicle, Cotyledon, Plumule
Solution: (d) Radicle, Cotyledon, Plumule
A dicot embryo consists of radicle, plumule and a pair of cotyledons. Testa, tegmen and micropyle are the
parts of the seed coat.
Marks: 1
Question 26. If you are asked to select a group of two vegetables, out of the following, having homologous
structures which one would you select?
(a) Carrot and radish
(b) Potato and sweet potato
(c) Potato and tomato
(d) Lady finger and potato
Solution: (a) Carrot and radish
Homologous structures are fundamentally same in structure and origin but are modified to perform different
functions in different organisms. They indicate common ancestry. From the given plants, carrot and radish
are homologous structures because they both are underground roots. While potato is a stem, sweet potato is
a root, tomato is a fruit and lady finger is a vegetable.
Marks: 1
Question 27. In the following ray diagram the correctly marked angle are:
(a) i and e
(b) A and D
(c) i , e and D
(d) r , A and D
Solution: (d) r , A and D
The angle between the normal and the incident ray is the angle of incidence.
The angle between the normal and the emergent ray is the angle of emergence.
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The correctly marked angles are shown in the diagram below:
Marks: 1
Question 28. In your laboratory you trace the path of light rays through a glass slab for different values of
angle of incidence ( i ) and in each case measure the values of the corresponding angle of refraction ( r )
and angle of emergence ( e ). On the basis of your observations your correct conclusion is:
(a) i is more than r , but nearly equal to e
(b) i is less then r , but nearly equal to e
(c) i is more than e , but nearly equal to r
(d) i is less than e , but nearly equal to r
Solution: (a) i is more than r , but nearly equal to e
On entering a glass slab, the incident light gets refracted. According to Snell’s law, we get
sin i
sin r
For glass > 1
sin r < sin i
or r < i
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In refraction of light through a glass slab, the emergent ray is parallel to the incident ray. Thus, i = e .
Marks: 1
Question 29. To determine the approximate value of the focal length of a given concave mirror, you focus
the image of a distant object formed by the mirror on a screen. The image obtained on the serene, as
compared to the object is always:
(a) Laterally inverted and diminished
(b) Inverted and diminished
(c) Erect and diminished
(d) Erect and highly diminished
Solution: (b) inverted and diminished
Images obtained on the screen are always diminished and inverted in nature.
Marks: 1
Question 30. Suppose you have focused on a screen the image of candle flame placed at the farthest end of
the laboratory table using a convex lens. If your teacher suggests you to focus the parallel rays of the sun,
reaching your laboratory table, on the same screen, what you are expected to do is to move the:
(a) lens slightly towards the screen
(b) lens slightly away from the screen
(c) lens slightly towards the sun
(d) lens and screen both towards the sun
Solution: (a) lens slightly towards the screen
To focus the parallel rays of the Sun, the lens should be slightly moved towards the screen.
Marks: 1
Question 31. For preparing soap in the laboratory we require an oil and a base. Which of the following
combinations of an oil and a base would be best suited for the preparation of soap?
(a) Castor oil and calcium hydroxide
(b) Turpentine oil and sodium hydroxide
(c) Castor oil and sodium hydroxide
(d) Mustard oil and calcium hydroxide
Solution: (a) P and Q
Dissolving chloride salts of calcium or magnesium in distilled water will make the water hard and lather
formation will take place with difficulty.
Marks: 1
Question 32. A student puts a drop of reaction mixture of a saponification reaction first a blue litmus paper
and then on a red litmus paper. He may observe that:
(a) There is no change in the blue litmus paper and the red litmus paper turns white.
(b) There is no change in the red litmus paper and the blue litmus paper turns red.
(c) There is no change in the blue litmus paper and the red litmus paper turns blue.
(d) No change in colour is observed in both the litmus papers.
Solution: (c)
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The molecules of soap are sodium or potassium salts of long chain carboxylic acids. So, when a student puts
a drop of reaction mixture of a saponification reaction first on a blue litmus paper and then on a red litmus
paper, he will observe that there is no change in the blue litmus paper and the red litmus paper turns blue.
Marks: 1
Question 33. In the neighbourhood of your school, hard water required for an experiment is not available.
Select from the following group of salts available in your school, a group each member of which, if
dissolved in distilled water, will make it hard:
(a) Sodium chloride, calcium chloride
(b) Potassium chloride, sodium chloride
(c) Sodium chloride, magnesium chloride
(d) Calcium chloride, magnesium chloride
Solution: (d) Calcium chloride, magnesium chloride
Dissolving chloride salts of calcium or magnesium in distilled water will make the water hard, and lather
formation will take place with difficulty.
Marks: 1
Question 34. A student is observing a permanent slide showing sequentially the different stages of asexual
reproduction taking place in yeast. Name this process and draw diagrams, of what he observes, in a proper
sequence.
Solution: Yeast reproduces asexually by the process of budding. Different stages of budding as observed by
the student are depicted below:
Marks: 2
Question 35. An object of height 2.5 cm is placed at a distance of 15 cm from the optical centre `O’ of a
convex lens of focal length 10 cm. Draw a ray diagram to find the position and size of the image formed.
Mark optical `O’, principal focus F and height of the image on the diagram.
Solution: Ray diagram:
Marks: 2
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Question 36. A student adds a spoon full of powdered sodium hydrogen carbonate to a flask containing
ethanoic acid. List two main observations, he must note in his note book, about the reaction that takes place.
Also write chemical equation foe the reaction.
Solution: Two main observations about the reaction:
(i) Brisk effervescence of carbon dioxide which turns lime water milky.
(ii) It is a neutralisation reaction and heat is released.
CH3COOH + NaHCO3 CH3COONa + H2O + CO2
Marks: 2
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CBSE-XII-2017 EXAMINATI CBSE - X - 2017 EXAMINATION
SCIENCE
SET-3 Paper & Solution
Time: 3 Hrs. Max. Marks: 90
General Instructions:
1. The question paper comprises two Sections, A and B. You are to attempt both the sections.
2. All questions are compulsory.
3. There is no choice in any of the questions.
4. All questions of Section A and all questions of Section B are to be attempted separately.
5. Question numbers 1 to 3 in Section A are one-mark questions. These are to be answered in one word or in one sentence.
6. Question numbers 4 to 6 in Section A are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about 30 words each.
7. Question numbers 7 to 18 in Section A are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in about 50 words each.
8. Question numbers 19 to 24 in Section A are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in about 70 words each.
9. Question numbers 25 to 33 in Section B are multiple choice questions based on practical skills. Each question is a one-mark
question. You are to select one most appropriate response out of the four provided to you.
10. Question numbers 34 to 36 in Section B are two-marks questions based on practical skills. These are to be answered in brief.
SECTION A
Question 1. Write the molecular formula of the 2nd and 3rd member of the homologous series where the first
member is ethyne.
Solution: The molecular formula of the 2nd and 3rd members of a homologous series where the first member
is ethyne (C2H2) is formed by adding -CH2-:
2nd member of alkyne series = propyne (C3H4) CH3 - CH2 - C CH
3rd member of alkyne series = butyne (C4H6) CH3 - CH2 - C CH
Marks: 1
Question 2. Why is variation important for a species?
Solution: Variation increases the chances of survival of a species in a constantly changing environment.
Marks: 1
Question 3. In the following food chain, 20,000 J of energy was available to the plants. How much energy
would be available to man in this chain?
Plants Sheep Man
Solution: According to the 10% law, 2 J of energy will be available for the man in this chain.
Marks: 1
Question 4. An object is placed at a distance of 15 cm from a concave lens of focal length 30 cm. List four
characteristic (nature, position, etc.) of the image formed by the lens.
Solution: Given,
u = -15 cm (It is to the left of the lens)
f = -30 cm (It is a concave lens)
1 1 1
Using the lens formula
f v u
1 1 1 1 1
v f u (30) (15)
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1 3 1
v 30 10
v = -10 cm
The negative sign of the image distance shows that the image is formed on the left side of the concave
mirror. Thus, the image formed by a mirror is virtual, erect and on the same side as the object.
Marks: 2
Question 5. You being an environmentalist are interested in contributing towards the conservation of nature
resources. List four activities that you can do on your own.
Solution: Four activities which can be done as an environmentalist to conserve natural resources are
1) Using public transport for commuting instead of using a personal vehicle.
2) Avoid using clothes, accessories or articles made of animal skin.
3) Using energy-efficient electrical appliances to save electricity.
4) Ensuring no leakage of water taps and pipes at home.
Marks: 2
Question 6. Why are coal and petroleum categorized as natural resources? Given a reason as to why they
should be used judiciously.
Solution: Coal and petroleum have been formed by natural processes. They have been formed by the
degeneration of dead plant and animal biomass buried deep in the earth several million years ago.
It has taken millions of years for the formation of these fossil fuels, and the present rate of consumption of
these fossil fuels far exceeds the rate at which they are formed.
If exhausted, these resources will not be available for use in the near future, and hence, they should be used
judiciously.
Marks: 2
Question 7. Distinguish between esterification and saponification reactions with the help of the chemical
equations for each. State one use of each (i) esters, and (ii) saponification process.
Solution:
Esterification Saponification
1. Carboxylic acid reacts with alcohols in the 1. On treating an ester with a base such as NaOH, it
presence of a little conc. sulphuric acid to form is converted back to alcohol and sodium salt of
esters. carboxylic acid.
2. Example: Ethanoic acid reacts with ethanol in the 2. Example: Ethyl ethanoate on reaction with
presence of a little conc. sulphuric acid to form sodium hydroxide gives ethanol and sodium
esters. ethanoate.
Use of esters:
Esters are used in synthetic flavours, perfumes, cosmetics, lacquers, paints and varnishes.
Use of saponification reaction:
It is used in the preparation of soaps on a commercial basis.
Marks: 3
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Question 8. Write the structural formula of ethanol. What happens when it is heated with excess of conc.
H2SO4 at 443 K? Write the chemical equation for the reaction stating the role of conc. H 2SO4 in this
reaction.
Solution: Structural formula of ethanol:
On adding conc. sulphuric acid to ethanol and heating the mixture up to 443 K (443 K - 273 = 170 °C) gives
ethene.
The role of conc. H2SO4 in the above reaction is that it is used as a dehydrating agent and causes
dehydration of ethanol.
Marks: 3
Question 9. What is periodicity in properties of elements with reference to the Modern Periodic Table? Why
do all the elements of the same group have similar properties? How does the tendency of elements to gain
electrons change as we move from left to right in a period? State the reason of this change?
Solution: Properties which reappear at regular intervals or in which there is gradual variation at regular
intervals are called periodic properties, and the phenomenon is known as the periodicity of elements.
Elements in the same group or column have the same number of electrons in their outermost shell. Hence,
elements of the same group have similar properties.
On moving across a period from left to right, the tendency to gain electrons increases. This is due to an
increase in the nuclear pull and a decrease in atomic size.
Marks: 3
Question 10. Write the electronic configuration two elements X and Y whose atomic numbers are 20 and 17
respectively. Write the Molecular formula of the compound formed when element. X reacts with element Y.
Draw electron-dot structure of the product and also state the nature of the bond formed between both the
elements.
Solution: Atomic number of X = 20, electronic configuration = 2, 8, 8, 2
Atomic number of Y = 17, electronic configuration = 2, 8, 7
Molecular formula of the compound = XY2
Electron-dot structure of the compound:
An ionic bond is formed between the two elements.
Marks: 3
Question 11. How did Mendel explain that it is possible that a trait is inherited but not expressed in an
organism?
Solution: Mendel explained that it is possible that a trait is inherited but not expressed
in an organism with the help of a monohybrid cross.
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1. He crossed pure-bred tall plants (TT) with pure-bred dwarf plants (tt).
2. The progeny he received in the first filial generation was tall. The dwarfness did not show up in the F1
generation.
3. He then crossed the tall pea plants of the F1 generation and found that the dwarf plants were obtained in
the second generation. He obtained three tall plants and one dwarf plant.
Marks: 3
Question 12. What is an organic evolution? It cannot be equated with progress. Explain with the help of a
suitable example.
Solution: Organic evolution can be defined as the slow, progressive, natural and sequential development in
primitive organisms to form more complex organisms or a new species.
Marks: 3
Question 13. List the two types of reproduction. Which one of the two is responsible for bringing in more
variations in its progeny and how?
Solution: Two types of reproduction:
1. Sexual reproduction
2. Asexual reproduction
Sexual reproduction is responsible for bringing in more variations in its progeny.
It takes place by the combination of male and female gametes.
Gametes are formed from one cell which involves copying of DNA and the cellular apparatus. DNA
copying is not absolutely accurate, and errors result in new variations. With every DNA copied, a new
variation is introduced, and this DNA copy may already have several variations accumulated from the
previous generations.
Marks: 3
Question 14. What is vegetative propagation? State two advantages and two disadvantages of this method.
Solution: Vegetative propagation is a type of reproduction in which several plants are capable of producing
naturally through their roots, stems and leaves.
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Advantages of vegetative propagation:
Plants not capable of producing sexually are produced by this method.
It is a fast and certain method to obtain plants with desired features.
Disadvantages of vegetative propagation:
There is no possibility for variation.
The new plant grows in the same area as the parent plant which leads to competition for resources.
Marks: 3
Question 15. List three techniques that have been developed to prevent pregnancy. Which one of these
techniques is not meant for males? How does the use of these techniques have a direct impact on the health
and prosperity of a family?
Solution: Techniques to prevent pregnancy:
Use of intra-uterine devices such as Lippes loop and Copper T
Use of condoms
Surgical methods (e.g., tubectomy)
Use of intra-uterine devices is not meant for males.
The use of these techniques will keep the mother in good health. With a small family size, parents will be
able to provide quality resources to the child such as food, clothes and education. This will improve the
overall mental and physical well-being of the family.
Marks: 3
Question 16. “A lens can form a magnified erect image as well as magnified inverted image of an object
placed in front of it”. State the nature of this lens and draw ray diagrams to justify the above statement. Mark
the positions of O, F and 2F in the diagram.
Solution: Convex lens can form a magnified erect image as well as a magnified inverted image of an object
placed in front of it.
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Marks: 3
Question 17. What is “dispersion of white light”? Draw a labelled diagram to illustrate the recombination of
the spectrum of white light. Why it is essential that the two prisms used for the purpose should be identical
and placed in an inverted position with respect to each other?
Solution: The phenomenon of splitting of white light into its constituent seven colours on passing through a
glass prism is called dispersion of light.
It is essential to place the two identical prisms in an inverted position with respect to each other because the
refraction produced by the second prism is equal and opposite to that produced by the first prism.
Marks: 3
Question 18. (a) Water is an elixir of life a very important natural resource. Your science teacher wants you
to prepare a plan for a formative assessment activity, “How to save water, the vital natural resource”. Write
any two ways that you will suggest to bring awareness in your neighborhood, on how to save water’.
(b) Name and explain any one way by which the underground water table does not go down further.
Solution: Two ways by which awareness on how to save water can be created in the neighborhood:
1. By bringing to notice the current situation of drought in rural areas and its dreadful effects on humans and
animals
2. Making people realise the importance of water in life and the shortage of water and its consequences in
the near future
Khadin is one way of recharging groundwater.
A khadin consists of a 100-300-m long embankment called bund made of earth. The bund is built across the
lower edge of the sloping farmland.
Rainwater from the catchment area flows down the slope and collects in front of the bund forming a
reservoir.
Pathways through the bund allow excess water to flow through and collect in shallow wells dug behind the
bund.
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The water which collects in the reservoir and wells seeps into the land and recharges the groundwater.
Marks: 3
Question 19. With the help of one example for each, distinguish between the acquired traits and the
inherited traits. Why are the traits/experiences acquired during the entire lifetime of an individual not
inherited in the next generation? Explain the reason of this fact with an example.
Solution:
Acquired Trait Inherited Trait
A trait or characteristic which develops in response A characteristic feature inherited from the previous
to the environment and cannot be inherited. generation.
Example: A person learns to swim. Example: A girl has brown eyes just like her
mother.
Only those traits are inherited which are developed because of changes in genes.
An acquired trait or experience is developed as a response to the environment; it is not inherited. These are
not developed due to the changes in genes.
Example: Human beings experiencing weight loss due to starvation. There will be reduction in weight as a
response to starvation. This will result in the reduction in the number of body cells or overall body-mass
ratio of the individual. It will not have any effect on the genetic constitution of the individual. Because there
is no change in the gene of the individual, it is not an acquired trait.
Marks: 5
Question 20. (a) Write the functions of each of the following parts in a human female reproductive system:
(i) Ovary
(ii) Uterus
(iii) Fallopian tube
(b) Write the structure and functions of placenta in a human female.
Solution: (i) Ovary: It produces female gametes. One ovum is released by one ovary every month. It also
secretes hormones oestrogen and progesterone.
(ii) Uterus: It protects and nourishes the developing embryo.
(iii) Fallopian tube: It passes down the ovum towards the uterus released by the ovary.
Structure of the placenta in human female:
1. The placenta is a disc which is embedded in the uterine wall.
2. It contains villi on the embryo side. The mother’s end of the placenta has blood spaces which surround the
villi.
Functions of the placenta in human female:
1. Nutrients and oxygen are received by the foetus from the mother’s blood.
2. The foetus gives away waste products and carbon dioxide to the mother’s blood for excretion.
Marks: 5
Question 21. Why certain compounds are called hydrocarbons? Write the general formula for homologous
series of alkanes, alkenes and alkynes and also draw the structure of the first member of each series. Write
the name of the reaction that converts alkenes into alkanes and also write a chemical equation to show the
necessary conditions for the reaction to occur.
Solution: Certain compounds contain only carbon and hydrogen. So, these organic compounds are called
hydrocarbons.
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General formula for the homologous series of alkanes = CnH2n+2
First member of the alkane family is methane.
General formula for the homologous series of alkenes = CnH2n
First member of the alkene family is ethene.
General formula for the homologous series of alkynes = CnH2n-2
First member of the alkyne family is ethyne.
Catalytic hydrogenation is the reaction used to convert alkenes to alkanes.
Marks: 5
Question 22. (a) A student suffering from myopia is not able to see distinctly the object placed beyond 5 m.
List two possible reasons due to which this defect of vision may have arisen. With the help of ray diagrams
explain.
(i) Why the student is unable to see distinctly the objects placed beyond 5 cm from his eyes.
(ii) The type of the corrective lens used to restore proper vision and how this defect is corrected by the use
of this lens.
(b) If, in this case, the numerical value of the focal length of the corrective lens is 5 m, find the power of the
lens as per the new Cartesian sign convention.
Solution: (a) This defect may arise due to excessive curvature of the eye lens or elongation of the eyeball.
(i) A person with this defect has the far point nearer than infinity. Such a person may see clearly up to a
distance of a few meters.
In a myopic eye, the image of a distant object is formed in front of the retina and not at the retina itself.
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(ii) This defect can be corrected by using a concave lens of suitable power. A concave lens of suitable power
will bring the image back onto the retina and thus the defect is corrected.
(b) Given: Focal length f = -5 m ( it is a concave lens)
1 1
Power, P 0.2D
f (in m) 5
The negative sign indicates that it is a diverging lens or concave lens.
Marks: 5
Question 23. Analyse the following observation table showing variation of image distance (v) with object
distance (u) in case of a convex lens and answer the questions that follow without doing any calculations:
(a) What is the focal length of the convex lens? Give reason to justify your answer.
(b) Write the serial number of the observation which is not correct. On what basis have you arrived at this
conclusion?
(c) Select an appropriate scale and draw a ray diagram for the observation at S. No. 2. Also find the
approximate value of magnification.
Solution: (a) When the object distance and the image distance are the same, it means that the object is
placed at 2f or the image is formed at 2f. From the table, it is clear that 2f = 40 cm. Therefore, the focal
length of the convex lens is 20 cm.
(b) Serial number 6 is incorrect. Given that the object is placed at 15 cm which is between the focal length
and the lens. Thus, the image should be formed on the same side as the object. The data given in the
observation serial number 6 does not satisfy the condition.
(c)
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v
Magnification, m
u
Let us consider the third observation where
u = -40 cm and v = 40 cm
v 40
m
u 40
m = -1
Marks: 5
Question 24. (a) If the image formed by a mirror for all position of the object placed in front of it is always
diminished, erect and virtual, state the type of the mirror and also draw a ray diagram to justify your answer.
Write one use such mirrors are put to and why.
(b) Define the radius of curvature of spherical mirrors. Find the nature and focal length of a spherical mirror
whose radius of curvature is +24 cm.
Solution: (a) A convex mirror always forms a diminished, erect and virtual image of the object placed in
front of it.
Use of a convex mirror:
i. Convex mirrors are commonly used as rear view mirrors in vehicles.
ii. They are preferred because they always give an erect image, although diminished. Also, they have a
wider field of view as they are curved outwards. Thus, convex mirrors enable the driver to view a much
larger area than would be possible with a plane mirror.
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(b) The radius of curvature of a spherical mirror is the radius of the sphere of which the reflecting surface of
the spherical mirror is a part and represented by R.
Radius of curvature R = 24 cm
Radius of curvature = 2 × focal length
i.e., R = 2 f
24 = 2 × f
24
f 12
2
f = 12 cm
Marks: 5
SECTION B
Question 25. Study the following ray diagram:
In this diagram, the angle of incidence, the angle of emergence and the angle of deviation respectively have
been represented by
(A) y, p, z
(B) x, q, z
(C) p, y, z
(D) P, z, y
Solution: (A) y, p, z
The angle between the incident ray and the normal is known as the angle of incidence, and the angle
between the emergent ray and the normal is known as the angle of emergence. The emergent ray is bent at
an angle with the direction of the incident ray. This angle is called the angle of deviation.
Marks: 1
Question 26. A student very cautiously traces the path of a ray through a glass slab for different values of
the angle of incidence ( i). He then measures the corresponding values of the angle of refraction ( r) and
the angle of emergence ( e) for every value of the angle of incidence. On analysing these measurements of
angles, his conclusion would be
(A) i > r > e
(B) i = e > r
(C) i < r < e
(D) i = e < r
Solution: (B) i = e > r
Because the emergent ray is parallel to the incident ray, the angle of incidence is equal to the angle of
emergence. The refracted ray travels from a rarer medium to a denser medium (considering the first
refraction); it bends towards the normal. Thus, the angle of incidence is greater than the angle of refraction.
If we consider the second refraction, then light travels from a denser medium to a rarer medium, due to
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which it bends away from the normal after refraction. So, in this case, the angle of refraction is again less
than the angle of emergence.
Marks: 1
Question 27. Study the given ray diagrams and select the correct statement from the following:
(A) Device X is a concave mirror and device Y is a convex lens, whose focal lengths are 20 cm and 25 cm
respectively.
(B) Device X is a convex lens and device Y is a concave mirror, whose focal lengths are 10 cm and 25 cm
respectively
(C) Device X is a concave lens and device Y is a convex mirror, whose focal lengths are 20 cm and 25 cm
respectively.
(D) Device X is a convex lens and device Y is a concave mirror, whose focal lengths are 20 cm and 25 cm
respectively.
Solution: (D) Device X is a convex lens and device Y is a concave mirror, whose focal lengths are 20 cm
and 25 cm respectively.
Device X is a convex lens and device Y is a concave mirror whose focal lengths are 20 cm and 25 cm,
respectively. A parallel ray of light incident on a concave mirror gets reflected, and the image is seen on a
screen placed before it. A parallel ray of light incident on a convex lens converges to a point.
Marks: 1
Question 28. A student obtains a blurred image of a distant object on a screen using a convex lens. To
obtain a distinct image on the screen he should move the lens.
(A) away from the screen
(B) towards the screen
(C) to a position very far away from the screen
(D) either towards or away from the screen depending upon the position of the object.
Solution: (B) Inverted and diminished
When the object is at infinity, the distance of the image from the lens will be equal to the focal length of the
lens.
Marks: 1
Question 29. While studying the saponification reaction, what do you observe when you mix an equal
amount of colorless vegetable oil and 20% aqueous solution of NaOH in a beaker?
(A) The color of the mixture has become dark brown
(B) A brisk effervescence is taking place in the beaker
(C) The outer surface of the beaker has become hot
(D) The outer surface of the beaker has become cold
Solution: (C) The outer surface of the beaker has become hot.
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When 20% NaOH solution was added to the beaker containing vegetable oil, it was observed that the
beaker’s surface was warm when touched.
A whitish suspension was formed by heating the mixture of vegetable oil and 20% NaOH solution.
Marks: 1
Question 30. When you add a few drops of acetic acid to a test-tube containing sodium bicarbonate powder,
which one of the following is your observation?
(A) No reaction takes place
(B) A colorless gas with pungent smell is released with brisk effervescence
(C) A brown colored gas is released with brisk effervescence
(D) Formation of bubbles of a colorless and odorless gas
Solution: (D) Formation of bubbles of a colorless and odorless gas.
NaHCO3 + HC2H3O2 NaC2H3O2 + H2O + CO2
There is double displacement in which acetic acid reacts with sodium bicarbonate to form sodium acetate
and carbonic acid.
NaHCO3 + HC2H3O2 NaC2H3O2 + H2CO3
Carbonic acid is unstable and undergoes a decomposition reaction to produce carbon dioxide gas.
H2CO3 H2O + CO2
Carbon dioxide escapes from the solution as bubbles.
Marks: 1
Question 31. A student requires hard water for an experiment in his laboratory which is not available in the
neighbouring area. In the laboratory there are some salts, which when dissolved in distilled water can
convert it into hard water. Select from the following groups of salts, a group, each salt of which when
dissolved in distilled water will make it hard.
(A) Sodium chloride, Potassium chloride
(B) Sodium sulphate, Potassium sulphate
(C) Sodium sulphate, Calcium sulphate
(D) Calcium sulphate, Calcium chloride
Solution: (D) Calcium sulphate, calcium chloride
Hard water can be prepared by dissolving sulphates, chlorides or bicarbonate salts of Ca2+ or Mg2+ ions.
Marks: 1
Question 32. To perform an experiment to identify the different parts of an embryo of a dicot seed, first of
all you require a dicot seed. Select dicot seeds from the following group:
Wheat, Gram, Maize, Pea, Barley, Ground-nut
(A) Wheat, Gram and Pea
(B) Gram, Pea and Ground-nut
(C) Maize, Pea and Barley
(D) Gram, Maize and Ground-nut
Solution: (B) Gram, Groundnut, Pea
Dicot seeds have two cotyledons.
Marks: 1
Question 33. The following vegetables are kept in a basket:
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Potato, Tomato, Radish, Brinjal, Carrot, Bottle-gourd
Which two of these vegetables correctly represent the homologous structures?
(A) Carrot and Tomato
(B) Potato and Brinjal
(C) Radish and Carrot
(D) Radish and Bottle-gourd
Solution: (C) Radish and Carrot
The structures which are same in structure and origin but are modified to perform different functions are
called homologous structures.
Although radish and carrot store food and are used as food, the nutrients which each provide are different.
Marks: 1
Question 34. Draw in sequence (showing the four stages), the process of binary fission in Amoeba.
Solution: Binary fission in amoeba:
Marks: 2
Question 35. A student focuses the image of a candle flame, placed at about 2 m from a convex lens of focal
length 10 cm, on a screen. After that he moves gradually the flame towards the lens and each time focuses
its image on the screen.
(A) In which direction does he move the lens to focus the flame on the screen?
(B) What happens to the size of the image of the flame formed on the screen?
(C) What difference is seen in the intensity (brightness) of the image of the flame on the screen?
(D) What is seen on the screen when the flame is very close (at about 5 cm) to the lens?
Solution: (a) As the candle is moved towards the lens, the image distance increases. Thus, the student
moves the lens away from the screen to focus the image.
(b) The size of the image increases when the object is moved towards the lens.
(c) Intensity decreases.
(d) When the candle is moved very close to the lens, no image is formed on the screen. A virtual image is
formed behind the candle on the same side of the screen.
Marks: 2
Question 36. Mention the essential material (chemicals) to prepare soap in the laboratory. Describe in brief
the test of determining the nature (acidic/alkaline) of the reaction mixture of saponification reaction.
Solution: Chemicals required: Vegetable oil, common salt and 20% sodium hydroxide solution.
When a red litmus paper is dipped in the reaction mixture, the paper changes its colour to blue. Hence, the
reaction mixture of the saponification reaction is basic in nature.
Marks: 2
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X - CBSE BOARD - 2018
Date: 16.03.2018 Science - Question Paper Solutions
SECTION - A
1. Write the energy conversion that takes place in a hydropower plant.
Ans. Potential energy of water stored in a dam is converted into kinetic energy of the falling water. The
water falls on the turbine, so kinetic energy of the flowing water is converted into the kinetic energy of
the armature of the generator connected to the turbine. Then kinetic energy is converted into the
electrical energy known as hydro-electricity.
2. A Mendelian experiment consisted of breeding pea plants bearing violet .flowers with pea plants
bearing white flowers. What will be the result in F1 pregeny ?
Ans. In mendelian experiment, breeding of pea plants bearing violet flowers with pea plant bearing white
flower leds to production of all violet coloured flowers (F1 progeny plants). The plants bearing violet
coloured of the flower is dominant over write coloured flower in pea plant.
3. (a) Name one gustatory receptor and one alfactory receptor present in human beings.
(b) Write a and b in the given flow chart of neuron through which information travels as an electrical
impulse.
Dendrite
a
b
End point of Newron
Ans. (a) Gustatory receptors – Tongue
Olfactory receptors – Nose
(b) Dendrite →Cyton →Axon →End point of Newron
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4. If the image formed by a spherical mirror for all positions of the object placed in front of it is always
erect and diminished, what type of mirror is it ? Draw a labelled ray diagram to support your answer.
Ans. To get erect and diminished image mirror used is convex mirror.
5. A compound ‘X’ on heating with excess conc. sulphuric acid at 443 K gives an unsaturated compound
‘Y’. ‘X’ also reacts with sodium metal to evolve a colourless gas ‘Z’. Identify ‘X’, ‘Y’ and ‘Z’. Write
the equation of the chemical reaction of formation of ‘Y’ and also Write the role of sulphuric acid in
the reaction.
Ans. Compound ‘X’ on heating with excess conc. sulphuric acid at 443 gives unsaturated compound.
443 K
CH 3 – CH 2 – OH H 2 SO4 conc. CH 2 CH 2 H 2O
Alcohol
CH 3 – CH 2 – OH Na
CH 3 – CH 2 – ONa H 2
Concentrated H 2 SO4 act as a dehydrating agent
X C2 H 5OH
Y C2 H 4
Z H2
6. State the laws of refraction of light. Explain the term ‘absolute refractive index of a medium’ and write
an expression to relate it with the speed of light in vacuum.
Ans. Laws of Refraction of light :
Refraction of light follows the following two laws :
First Law : The incident ray, the normal to the transparent surface at the point of incidence and the
refracted ray, all lie in one and the same plane.
Second Law : The ratio of sine of the incidence angle i to the sine of the refracted angle of the
medium is called refractive index. It is denoted by n.
sin i
i.e., n
sin r
Refractive index of second medium with respect to the first medium is denoted by 2 n1 .
2 2
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sin i
Thus, eq.(i) can be written as 2 n1
sin r
This law is called Snell’s law as it was stated by Prof. Willenbrord Snell (Dutch mathematicial and
astronomer).
Absolute Refractive index :
Absolute refractive index of a medium is defined as the ratio of the speed of light in vacuum or air to
the speed of light in the medium. It is denoted by n.
speed of light in air c
Then, n
speed of light in medium v
It has no unit.
OR
What is meant by power of a lens ? Write its SI unit. A student uses a lens of focal length 40 cm and
another of –20 cm. Write the nature and power of each lens.
1
Ans. P
f
Unit of Power is Dioptre (D)
Focal length = 40 cm
Focal length = –20 cm
1 100
Convex lens P 2.5 D
f 40
1 100
Concave lens P 5 D
f 20
7. Write one main difference between asexual and sexual mode of reproduction. Which species is likely
to have comparatively better chances of survival - the one reproducing asexually or the one reproducing
sexually ? Give reason to justify your answer.
Ans. Asexual reproduction involves single individual which produces new generation whereas sexual
reproduction involves two individuals one is male parent & other is female parent to produce new
individuals. Sexually reproducing species is likely to have comparitively better chance of survival as it
involves two different individuals.
Sexual mode of reproduction incorporates such a process of combining DNA from two different
gametes of two different parents i.e., male and female gametes of male and female parents respectively.
Thus sexual reproduction involves variation in the new individuals which helps in survival of the species.
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8. Show how would you join three resistors, each of resistance 9 so that the equivalent resistance of
the combination is (i) 13 (ii) 6 ?
9
9
9 9 9 9
Ans. (i) 9 9 2 9 4.5 9 13.5
9
two 9 resistors are connected in parallel and one in series.
(ii) 2 resistors connected in series 9 9 18
18 and 9 are connected in series. 9 9
18 9
6 9
18 9
OR
(a) Write Joule’s law of heating.
(b) Two lamps, one rated 100 W; 220 V, and the other 60 W; 220 V, are connected in parallel to
electric mains supply. Find the current drawn by two bulbs from the line, if the supply voltage is
220 V.
Ans. (a) Joule’s law of heating H = I2Rt
When electric current flows through resistance element, the flowing charges suffer resistance, the
work done to overcome resistance is converted to heat energy.
(b) P1 100W ,V1 220V
P2 60W ,V2 220V
P VI
P1 100 10
I1 0.45 Amp
V1 220 22
P2 60 3
I2 0.27 Amp
V2 220 11
9. Name the hormones secreted by the following endocrine glands and specify one function of each :
(a) Thyroid (b) Pituitary (c) Pancreas
Ans. Following are the hormones & functions secreted by given glands.
(a) Thyroid : Thyroid gland secretes thyroxin hormone.
Function : Thyroxin regulates carbohydrate, protein & fat metabolism in the body to provide
best balance for the growth.
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(b) Pituitary gland : Pitutary gland secretes growth hormone.
Function : Growth hormone regulates growth & development of the body.
(c) Pancreas : Pancreas secretes insulin hormone.
Function : Insulin helps in regulating blood sugar level.
10. 2 mL of sodium hydroxide solution is added to a few pieces of granulated zinc metal taken in a test
tube. When the contents are warmed, a gas evolves which is bubbled through a soap solution before
testing. Write the equation of the chemical reaction involved and the test to detect the gas. Name the
gas which will be evolved when the same metal reacts with dilute solution of a strong acid.
Ans. (i) Zn 2 NaOH
Na2 ZnO2 H 2
(ii) The liberated H2 gas can be detected by putting a burning matchstick at the opening of test tube,
it will burn with a pop sound with blue flume.
(iii) Zn 2 HCl
ZnCl2 H 2
OR
The pH of a salt used to make tasty and crispy pakoras is 14. Identify the salt and write a chemical
equation for its formation. List its two uses.
Ans. (i) The salt is NaHCO3.
(ii) Na2 CO3 H 2O CO2
2 NaHCO3
(iii) (a) In medicine as antacid.
(b) Used in cakes to make it more fluffy.
11. (a) Why are most carbon compounds poor conductors of electricity ?
(b) Write the name and structure of a saturated compound in which the carbon atoms are arranged in
a ring. Give the number of single bonds present in this compound.
Ans. (a) An carbon is a non-metal so most of its compound are poor conductors of electricity.
H H
H H
H H Name - Cyclohexane
H Single bond - 18
(b) H
H H
H H
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12. Decomposition reactions require energy either in the form of heat or light or electricity for breaking
down the reactants. Write one equation each for decomposition reactions where energy is supplied in
the form of heat, light and electricity.
Ans. (a) 2 Pb NO3 2 s 2 PbO 4 NO2 O2
(b) 2 AgCl s Sunlight
2 Ag s Cl2 g
electricity
(c) 2 NaCl l 2 Na l Cl2 g
13. What is a dam ? Why do we seek to build large dams ? While building large dams, which three main
problems should particularly be addressed to maintain peace among local people ? Mention them.
Ans. A dam is a barrier constructed to hold back water and raise its level forming a reservoir used to
generator electricity or as a water supply.
Large dams are built in order to generate electricity from water supply.
The dams can be constructed only in a limited number of place preferably in hilly terrains. large areas
of agricultural land and human habitation are to be sacrificed as they get submerged. large eco-
systems are destroyed when submerged under the water in dams. The vegetation large amounts of
methane which is also a green-house gas. It created the problem of satisfactory rehabilitation of
displaced people.
14. Students in a school listened to the news read in the morning assembly that the mountain of garbage
in Delhi, suddenly exploded and various vehicles got buried under it. Several people were also injured
and there was traffic jam all around. In the brain storming session the teacher also discussed this issue
and asked the students to find out a solution to the problem of garbage. Finally they arrived at two
main points - one is self management of the garbage we produce and the second is to generate lee
garbage at individual level.
(a) Suggest two measures to manage the garbage we produce.
(b) As an individual, what can we do to generate the least garbage ? Give two points.
(c) List two values the teacher instilled in his students in this episode.
Ans. (a) (i) Garbage should be kept in proper place indicated by municipality.
(ii) We can put wet garbage and dry garbage in separate container so that they can be used for
recycling.
(b) (i) We should be careful in kitchen not to cook more food than necessary.
(ii) We can also give green vegetable and food waste to nearby pet animals like cow etc.
(c) (i) Teacher is environment corrsious.
(ii) Teacher wants to make his students responsible citizens.
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15. (a) List the factors on which the resistance of a conductor in the shape of a wire depends.
(b) Why are metals good conductors of electricity whereas glass is a bad conductor of electricity?
Give reason.
(c) Why are alloys commonly used in electrical heating devices ? Give reason.
Ans. (a) Resistance of conductor depends on following factor:
(i) Resistance of conductor is directly proportional to length (l) of the conductor.
R
(ii) Resistance of conductor is inversely proportional to area of cross section of conductor.
1
R
A
(iii) Resistance also depends on a material of conductor ( )
R
A
(iv) Resistance and resistivity also depends on temperature.
(b) Metals have more free electrons than glass to carry currents. That’s why glass is bad conductor
and metals are good conductors.
(c) Alloys are used rather than pure metals in electrical heating devices, since they have low electrical
conductivity and also low melting point.
16. (a) State Fleming’s left hand rule.
(b) Write the principle of working of an electric motor.
(c) Explain the function of the following parts of an electric motor.
(i) Armature (ii) Brushes (iii) Split ring
Ans. (a) Hold the forefinger the centre finger and the thumb of your left hand at right angles to one another
If the forefinger points in the direction of magnetic field, and centrefinger points in the direction of
current, the thumb gives direction of motion conductor.
(b) Electric motor is based on the principal that a current carrying conductor placed perpendicular to
the magnetic field experience a force.
(c) (i) Armature : It contains of a single loop of inculated copper wire in the form o a rectangle.
rectangle.
(ii) Brushes : Two carbon brushes B1 and B2 press against the commutator. These brushes act
as the contacts between the commutator and the terminals of the battery.
(iii) Split-ring : It consists of two halves (R1 and R2) of a metallic ring. The two ends of the
armature coil are connected to these two halved of the ring. Commutator reverses the direction
of current in the armature coil.
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17. (a) Write the function of following parts in human female reproductive system :
(i) Ovary (ii) Oviduct (iii) Uterus
(b) Describe in brief the structure and function of placenta.
Ans. (a) Functions of following parts of human reproductive system.
(i) Ovary – production of egg every month.
(ii) Oviduct or fallopian tube.
Function – carries egg from the ovary to the womb.
(iii) Uterus function :
* Implantation of zygote in the lining of the uterus.
* Nourishes the growing embryo as its lining is thickened due to rich supply of blood.
(b) Structure & function of placenta :
The placenta is a disc – like structure which is embedded in the uterine wall.
Placenta contain villi on the embryo side of the tissue.
Function of placenta :
1. It helps in nourishment of the embryo.
2. It also helps in exchange of gases by providing O2 & removal of CO2 from the foetus.
3. A placenta is also involved in removal of metabolic wastes generated by embryo through the
placenta.
18. (a) Write the steps involved in the extraction of pure metals in the middle of the activity series from
their carbonate ores.
(b) How is copper extracted from its sulphide ore ? Explain the various steps supported by chemical
equations. Draw labelled diagram for the electrolytic refining of copper.
Ans. (a) Let us consider the case of Zn metal extraction from its carbonate ore.
Steps involved are
(i) The ore ZnCO3 is first concentrated by gravity separation method.
(ii) The ore is calcinated absence of it gets converted to oxide
ZnCO3 ZnO CO2
(iii) The oxide is reduced by coke
ZnO c
Zn CO
(iv) The impure Zn thus obtained can be purified by electrolysis.
(b) (i) Copper from its sulphide ore can be extracted simply by heating in air.
The steps involved are
1. 2Cu2 S 3O2 g 2Cu2O 2SO 2
2. 2Cu2O Cu2 S 6Cu s SO2 g
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(ii)
19. (a) Mention any two components of blood.
(b) Trace the movement of oxygenated blood in the body.
(c) Write the function of valves present in between atria and ventricles.
(d) Write one structural difference between the composition of artery and veins.
Ans. (a) Two components of blood are (i) Blood plasma (ii) Blood cells
(b) Movement of oxygenated blood in the body as follows
(i) Pulmonary veins Left atrium Left ventricle Systemicaorta All part of the blood
(c) The valves in the heart are to prevent the backflow of blood when the atria or ventricles contract.
(d) Ateries are thick walled whereas veins are thin walled.
OR
(a) Define excretion.
(b) Name the basic filtration unit present in the kidney.
(c) Draw excretory system in human beings and label the following organs of excretory system which
perform following functions :
(i) form urine
(ii) is a long tube which collects urine from kidney
(iii) store urine until it is passed out.
Ans. (a) The biological process involved in the removal of these harmful metabolic wastes from the body
is called excretion.
(b) The nephron is the filtration units present in the kidney.
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(c)
20. (a) The modern periodic table has been evolved through the early attempts of Dobereiner, Newland
and Mendeleev. List one advantage and one limitation of all the three attempts.
(b) Name the scientist who first of all showed that atomic number of an element is a more fundamental
property than its atomic mass.
(c) State Modern periodic law.
Ans. (a) Dobereiner triad :
Advantage : The three elements of a triad were found to process similar properties.
Limitation : Some elements which are dissimilar were being grouped into a triad.
Newland’s octave :
Advantage : If the elements known at that time were arranged in the increasing order of their
atomic weights, the properties of every eighth element were similar to those of the first one.
Limitation : This classification did not include elements beyond atomic weight 40 (calcium)
Mendeleev :
Advantage : The physical and chemical properties of elements are periodic function of their
atomic weights.
Limitation : Position of rare earths was not clear. They were placed in group III A.
(b) Mendeleev
(c) The modern periodic law can be stated as physical and chemical properties of the elements
are periodic functions of their atomic numbers.
21. (a) A student is unable to see clearly the words written on the black board placed at a distance of
approximately 3 m from him. Name the defect of vision the boy is suffering from. State the
possible causes of this defect and explain the method of correcting it.
(b) Why do stars twinkle ? Explain.
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Ans. (a) Myopia is that defect of human eye by virtue of which it can see clearly the objects lying at short
distance from it. But the far off objects cannot be seen clearly by the myopic eye.
Causes of Myopia : The two possible causes of this defect are :
Increase in the length of the eye ball, as if distance of retina from the eye lens has increased.
Decrease in focal length of the eye lens when the eye is fully relaxed. This is as if the ciliary
muscles holding the eye lens do not relax fully and have some tension.
Correction : The image of a distant object (i.e., at infinity) is formed in front of the retina of eye
suffering from myopia as shown in figure. (a)
As the image of the object lying at infinity is not formed on the retina of the eye, so such object
can not be seen clearly by the myopic eye. The far point of such an eye is near to the eye as
shown in figure (b).
This defect can be corrected by using a concave lens of suitable focal length. So, a man suffering
from this defect wears spectacles having concave lens of suitable focal length. The concave lens
diverges the rays of light entering the eye from inf inity. Hence this lens makes the rays of light
appear come from the far point O ' of the defective eye as shown in figure (c).
Let x = distance of far point of myopic eye, f = focal length of concave lens to be used.
As the object to be seen is at infinity and its image is to be formed at the far point, therefore,
u and v = –x. Distance of far point O ' from eye lens is taken same as the distance of far
point O ' from concave lens.
1 1 1
From,
f v u
or f x
Hence, focal length of concave lens used for correcting the myopic eye is equal to distance of far
point of the myopic eye.
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(b) Twinkling of Stars
Light emitted by stars passes through the atmosphere of the earth reaching our eyes. The
atmosphere of the easth is not uniform but consists of many layers of different densities. The
layers close to the surface of the earth are optically denser. As we go higher and higher, the
density of layers and refractive index decreases progressively. As the light from a star enters the
upper most layer of the atmosphere, it bends towards the normal as it enters the next layer.
This process continues till the light enters our eyes. So due to refraction of light, the apparent
position of the star is different from the actual position of the star. Moreover, the different layers
of the atmosphere are mobile and the temperature and the density of layers of atmosphere changes
continuously. Hence, the apparent position of the star changes continuously. The change int he
apparent position of the star continuously leads to the twinkling of a star.
OR
(a) Write the function of each of the following parts of human eye :
(i) Cornea (ii) Iris (iii) Crystalline lens (iv) Ciliary muscles
(b) Why does the sun appear reddish early in the morning ? Will this phenomenon be observed by an
astronaut on the Moon ? Give reason to justify your answer.
Ans. (a) (i) Cornea : Its function is to act as a windoe to the world, i.e., to allow the light to enter the eye
ball.
(ii) Iris : Its function is to control the amount of light entering in the eye.
(iii) Crystalline lens : Its function is to focus the images of the objects at different distances,
clearly on the retina.
(iv) Ciliary muscles : Its function is to alter the focal length of the crystalline lens, so that the
image of the objects at various distances if clearly focussed on the retina.
(b) Colour of the sun at sunrise and sunset
At the time of sunrise and sunset, the position of the sun is very far away from us. The sunlight
travels longer distance through the atmosphere of the earth before reaching our eyes. Scattering
of blue light is more than the scattering of red light. As a result of this, more red light reaches our
eyes than any other colour. Therefore at sunset and sunrise sun appears red.
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Earth
This phenomenon will not be observed by an stronour on moon, since there is no atmosphere so
no scattering of light takes place, thus the sun appears dark
SECTION - B
22. Name the process by which an amoeba reproduces. Draw the various stages of its reproduction in
a proper sequence.
Ans. Amoeba reproduces by binary fission. Amoeba splits into two daughter cells in any plane.
OR
A student is viewing under a microscope a permanent slide showing various stages of asexual
reproduction by budding in yeast. Draw diagrams of what he observes. (in proper sequence)
Ans.
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23. An object of height 4.0 em is placed at a distance of 30 cm from the optical centre ‘O’ of a convex
lens of focal length 20 cm. Draw a ray diagram to find the position and size of the image formed.
Mark optical centre ‘O’ and principal focus ‘F’ on the diagram. Also find the approximate ratio of
size of the image to the size of the object.
Ans. Given data :
u 30 cm ; f 20 cm ; ho 4 cm ; v ? ; hi ?
1 1 1
v u f
1 1 1
v 30 20
1 1 1
v 20 30
v 60 cm
v hi
magnification ratio m
u ho
60 cm h
i
30 cm 4cm
hi 8 cm
hi 8
ratio of size of image to size of object 2
h0 4
24. A student added few pieces of aluminium metal to two test tubes A and B containing aqueous solutions
of iron sulphate and copper sulphate. In the second part of her experiment, she added iron metal to
another test tubes C and D containing aqueous solutions of aluminium sulphate and copper sulphate.
In which test tube or test tubes will she observe colour change ? On the basis of this experiment, state
which one is the most reactive metal and why.
Ans. Test tube A : 2Al 3FeSO4 Al2 SO4 3 3Fe
Test tube B : 2 Al 3CuSO4 Al2 SO4 3 3Cu
Test tube C : 2 Fe Al2 SO4 3 FeSO4 2 Al
Test tube D : Fe CuSO4 FeSO4 Cu
The colour charge in test tube (green) that is from blue to light green.
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Aluminium is more reactive than iron because aluminium reacts with oxygen in air to form a larger
of oxide which protects the aluminium from further oxidation. Therefore, Aluminium does not
carrode as much as iron.
25. What is observed when a solution of sodium sulphate is added to a solution of barium chloride taken
in a test tube ? Write equation for the chemical reaction involved and name the type of reaction in this
case.
Ans. When sodium sulphate is added to Barium chloride it gives white ppt of barium sulphate which is
insoluble in water. The reaction also creates sodium chloride, which remains dissolved in water and
so cannot be seen.
It is double displacement type of reaction.
Na2 SO4 BaCl2
2 NaCl BaSO4
26. The values of current (I) flowing through a given resistor of resistance (R), for the corresponding
values of potential difference (V) across the resistor are as given below:
V (volts) 0.5 1.0 1.5 2.0 2.5 3.0 4.0 5.0
I (amperes) 0.1 0.2 0.3 0.4 0.5 0.6 0.8 1.0
Plot a graph between current (I) and potential difference (V) and determine the resistance (R) of the
resistor.
1 0.5 0.5
Ans. Resistance R =Slope of line 5
0.2 0.1 0.1
V
5
4
3
2
1
I
0.1 0.2 0.3 0.4 0.5 0.6 0.7 0.8 0.9 0.10
27. List the steps of preparation of temporary mount of a leaf peel to observe stomata.
Ans. The following are the steps of preparation of temperory amount of a leaf peel to observe stomata.
(i) Remove a healthy leaf from the plotted plant.
(ii) Remove a part of the peel from the lower surface of the leaf by folding the leaf over and gently
pulling the peel a part using forceps.
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(iii) Put a few drops of saffranin stain in a watch glass.
(iv) After 2-3 minutes take out the peel and place it on a clean glass slide.
(v) Put a drop of glycerin over the peel and place a clean coverslip gently over it.
(vi) Remove the excess stain and glycerin with the help of blotting paper.
(vii) Observe the slide under the low-power and high-power magnifications of the compound micro-
scope.
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CBSE Class 10
Science
Previous Year Question Paper 2020
Series: JBB/1 Set– 1
Code no. 31/1/1
• Please check that this paper contains 15 printed pages.
• Code number given on the right-hand side of the question paper should be
written on the title page of the answer-book by the candidate.
• Please check that this question paper contains 30 questions.
• Please write down the Serial Number of the question in the answer-
book before attempting it.
• 15 minutes of time has been allotted to read this question paper. The
question paper will be distributed at 10.15 a.m. From 10.15 a.m. to 10.30
a.m., the students will read the question paper only and will not write any
answer on the answer-book during this period.
SCIENCE
Time Allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 80
General Instructions:
Read the following instructions very carefully and strictly follow them:
(i) Question paper comprises three sections - A, B and C.
There are 30 questions in the question paper. All questions are compulsory.
(ii) Section A - question no. 1 to 14 - all questions or part thereof are of one mark
each. These questions comprise multiple choice questions (MCQ), very short
answer (VSA), and Assertion-Reason type questions. Answers to these questions
should be given in one word or one sentence.
Class X Science www.vedantu.com 1
(iii) Section B - question no. 15 to 24 are short answer type questions, carrying 3
marks each, Answers to these questions should not exceed 50 to 60 words.
(iv) Section C - question no. 25 to 30 are long answer type questions, carrying 5
marks each. Answer to these questions should not exceed
80 to 90 words.
(v) Answer should be brief and to the point. Also, the abovementioned word limit
be adhered to as far as possible.
(vi) There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice
has been provided in some questions in each Section.
Only one of the choices in such questions have to be attempted.
(vii) In addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and
question, wherever necessary.
SECTION - A
1. Name acyclic unsaturated carbon compound. 1 Mark
Ans: Acyclic unsaturated carbon compounds are those which contain double or
triple bonds between carbon atoms and are acyclic in nature. For example:
Butene.
2. The change in magnetic field lines in a coil is the cause of induced electric
current in it. Name the underlying phenomenon. 1 Mark
Ans: According to the phenomenon of electromagnetic induction, the change in
magnetic field lines in a coil is the cause of induced electric current in it.
Answer question numbers 3(a) to 3(d) and 4(a) to 4(d) on the basis of your
understanding of the following paragraphs and the related studied concepts.
3. The growing size of the human population is a cause of concern for all
people. The rate of birth and death in a given population will determine its
size. Reproduction is the process by which organisms increase their
population. The process of sexual maturation for reproduction is gradual
Class X Science www.vedantu.com 2
and takes place while general body growth is still going on. Some degree of
sexual maturation does not necessarily mean that the mind or body is ready
for sexual acts or for having and bringing up children. Various contraceptive
devices are being used by human beings to control the size of the population.
(a) List two common signs of sexual maturation in boys and girls. 1 Mark
Ans: Two common signs of sexual maturation in boys and girls are:
1. Pubic, underarm and facial hair development.
2. Common signs of acne development.
(b) What is the result of reckless female foeticide? 1 Mark
Ans: The reckless female foeticide will ultimately result in men: women ratio.
Since due to foeticide the number of females decreases with respect to the number
of males.
(c) Which contraceptive method changes the hormonal balance of the body?
1 Mark
Ans: The oral contraceptive method changes the hormonal balance of the body
so this woman does not ovulate by taking such pills.
(d) Write two factors that determine the size of a population. 1 Mark
Ans: Two factors which determine the size of population are:
1. Birth rate
2. Death rate
4. Human body is made up of five important components, of which water is
the main component. Food as well as potable water are essential for every
human being. The food is obtained from plants through agriculture.
Pesticides are being used extensively for a high yield in the fields. These
pesticides are absorbed by the plants from the soil along with water and
minerals and from the water bodies these pesticides are taken up by the
aquatic animals and plants. As these chemicals are not biodegradable, they
get accumulated progressively at each trophic level. The maximum
concentration of these chemicals gets accumulated in our bodies and greatly
affects the health of our mind and body.
Class X Science www.vedantu.com 3
(a) Why is the maximum concentration of pesticides found in human beings?
1 Mark
Ans: Pesticides are extensively used for good production of crops and these crops
will be consumed by us. Hence these pesticides transfer to the human body.
Therefore the maximum concentration of pesticides found in human beings.
(b) Give one method which could be applied to reduce our intake of
pesticides through food to some extent. 1 Mark
Ans: Before eating food we must ensure to wash it properly so that if there is a
layer of pesticides on the fruit then it gets washed.
(c) Various steps in a food chain represent: 1 Mark
(a) Food web (b) Trophic level
(c) Ecosystem (d) Biomagnification
Ans: The various steps which are represented in the food chain are known as
trophic level Each trophic level represents a class of organism.
Hence the correct option is (b).
(d) With regard to various food chains operating in an ecosystem, man is a:
(a) Consumer (b) Producer
(c) Producer and consumer (d) Producer and decomposer 1 Mark
Ans: According to various food chains operating in the ecosystem, a man is a
consumer which does not produce anything of its own. It only consumes.
Hence the correct option is (a).
5. Calcium oxide reacts vigorously with water to produce slaked lime.
CaO(s ) + H 2O(l) → Ca ( OH )2(aq.)
This reaction can be classified as:
(A) Combination reaction (B) Exothermic reaction
(C) Endothermic reaction (D) Oxidation reaction
Which of the following is a correct option?
Class X Science www.vedantu.com 4
(a) (A) and (C) (b) (C) and (D)
(c) (A), (C) and (D) (d) (A) and (B) 1 Mark
Ans: The above reaction is an exothermic in nature which releases large amounts
of heat and it is an example of a combination reaction.
Hence the correct option is (d).
Or
When hydrogen sulphide gas is passed through a blue solution of copper
sulphate, a black precipitate of copper sulphide is obtained and the sulphuric
acid so formed remains in the solution. The reaction is an example of a:
1 Mark
(a) Combination reaction (b) Displacement reaction
(c) Decomposition reaction (d) Double displacement reaction
Ans: The reaction can be represented as:
H 2S( g ) +CuSO 4(aq.) → CuS(s) +H 2SO 4(aq.)
Thus it is a double displacement reaction.
Hence the correct option is (d).
6. In a double displacement reaction such as the reaction between sodium
sulphate solution and barium chloride solution: 1 Mark
(A) exchange of atoms takes place
(B) exchange of ions takes place
(C) a precipitate is produced
(D) an insoluble salt is produced
The correct option is:
(a) (B) and (D) (b) (A) and (C)
(c) only (B) (d) (B), (C) and (D)
Ans: The reaction can be represented as:
Class X Science www.vedantu.com 5
BaCl2 +NaSO 4 → NaCl+BaSO 4 ( ↓ )
Sodium chloride is not an insoluble salt therefore the correct options are A and
C.
Hence the correct option is (b).
7. Baking soda is a mixture of: 1 Mark
(a) Sodium carbonate and acetic acid
(b) Sodium carbonate and tartaric acid
(c) Sodium hydrogen carbonate and tartaric acid
(d) Sodium hydrogen carbonate and acetic acid
Ans: Baking soda is sodium bicarbonate which is NaHCO3 which is a mixture
of sodium hydrogen carbonate and tartaric acid.
Hence the correct option is (c).
8. The chemical formula for plaster of Paris is: 1 Mark
(a) CaSO 4 .2H 2O (b) CaSO 4 .H 2O
1
(c) CaSO 4 . H 2O (d) 2CaSO 4 .H 2O
2
Ans: The correct formula for plaster of Paris is CaSO 4 .2H 2O .
Hence the correct option is (a).
9. The laws of reflection hold true for: 1 Mark
(a) plane mirrors only (b) concave mirrors only
(c) convex mirrors only (d) all reflecting surfaces
Ans: The laws of reflection hold true for all reflecting surfaces.
Hence the correct option is (d).
Class X Science www.vedantu.com 6
Or
When an object is kept within the focus of a concave mirror, an enlarged
image is formed behind the mirror. This image is: 1 Mark
(a) real (b) inverted
(c) virtual and inverted (d) virtual and erect
Ans: The nature of the image will be virtual and erect.
Hence the correct option is (d).
10. At the time of short circuit, the electric current in the circuit: 1 Mark
(a) vary continuously (b) does not change
(c) reduces substantially (d) increases heavily
Ans: At time of short circuit the current increases heavily which will burn our
devices too.
Hence the correct option is (d).
Or
Two bulbs of 100 W and 40 W are connected in series. The current through
the 100 W bulb is 1A. The current through the 40W bulb will be: 1 Mark
(a) 0.4A (b) 0.6A
(c) 0.8A (d) 1A
Ans: The current will always be equal in series connection. Therefore current will
be 1A.
Hence the correct option is (d).
12. Incomplete combustion of coal and petroleum: 1 Mark
(A) increases air pollution.
(B) increases the efficiency of machines.
(C) reduces global warming.
Class X Science www.vedantu.com 7
(D) produce poisonous gases.
The correct option is:
(a) (A) and (B) (b) (A) and (D)
(c) (B) and (C) (d) (C)and (D)
Ans: Incomplete combustion of petrol will increase the air pollution and produce
the poisonous gases consequently.
Hence the correct option is (b).
For question numbers 13 and 14, two statements are given – one labelled
Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to
these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below:
(a)Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
13. Assertion (A): Esterification is a process in which a sweet-smelling
substance is produced.
Reason (R): When esters react with sodium hydroxide an alcohol and sodium
salt of carboxylic acid are obtained. 1 Mark
Ans: Esterification is the process by which ester is formed and ester is a sweet
smelling substance. When this ester reacts with sodium hydroxide an alcohol and
sodium salt of carboxylic acid are obtained. Thus Assertion is true but reason is
not correct explanation because ester smell because of volatile in nature.
Hence the correct option is (b).
14. Assertion (A): In the process of nuclear fission, the amount of nuclear
energy generated by the fission of an atom of uranium is so tremendous that
Class X Science www.vedantu.com 8
it produces 10 million times the energy produced by the combustion of an
atom of carbon from coal.
Reason (R): The nucleus of a heavy atom such as uranium, when bombarded
with low energy neutrons, splits apart into lighter nuclei. The mass
difference between the original nucleus and the product nuclei gets
converted to tremendous energy. 1 Mark
Ans: Nuclear fission produces a large amount of energy and this energy is
produced as the result of bombardment of uranium with low energy neutrons.
Thus both are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
Hence the correct option is (a).
SECTION-B
15. 1g of copper powder was taken in a China dish and heated. What change
takes place on heating? When hydrogen gas is passed over this heated
substance, a visible change is seen in it. Give the chemical equations
reactions, the name and the color of the products formed in each case.
3 Marks
Ans: When 1g Copper powder is taken in a china dish and then it is heated, a
black colored substance is formed which is known as copper oxide. The above
reaction can be represented by using the equation as:
Heat
2Cu+O 2 → 2CuO(black)
This is because the copper is being oxidized to copper oxide which is black in
color. Now when hydrogen gas is passed over this heated substance which is
copper oxide then the copper metal is obtained. The reaction can be represented
as:
Heat
CuO(black) +H 2 → Cu (s) + H 2O(l)
Thus we get copper back on heating the copper oxide with hydrogen gas and also
water is formed as a by-product of reaction.
16. List the important products of the Chlor-alkali process. Write one
important use of each. 3 Marks
Class X Science www.vedantu.com 9
Ans: The chlor-alkali process is used in the electrolysis of sodium chloride
( NaCl ) . The important products which are formed during the electrolysis of
sodium chloride are:
2NaCl+2H 2O → 2NaOH + Cl2 + H 2
The important products are sodium hydroxide, chlorine and hydrogen gas. When
the electric current is passed through the aqueous solution of sodium chloride
then hydrogen gas is formed at cathode and chlorine gas is formed at anode. Their
uses are listed below:
(a) Sodium Hydroxide: It is used in manufacturing of soaps and detergents.
(b) Chlorine gas: It is used in pesticides and manufacturing of PVC pipes.
(c) Hydrogen gas: It is used in fuels and reduction reactions also.
How is washing soda prepared from sodium carbonate? Give its chemical
equation. State the type of this salt. Name the type of hardness of water which
can be removed by it? 3 Marks
Ans: Washing soda can be prepared from sodium carbonate by adding ten
molecules of water of crystallization. It is then known as sodium carbonate
decahydrate or we can simply call it a washing soda in common name. The
reaction of adding water of crystallization can be shown as:
Na 2CO3 +10H 2O → Na 2CO3 .10H 2O
Washing soda is a sodium salt and we know that sodium salt is basic in nature.
Therefore sodium carbonate is basic in nature and it is basic salt.
Basically there are two types of hardness in water which are temporary hardness
and permanent hardness. Washing soda is used to remove both types of hardness.
When we add washing soda in water it adds a large amount of carbonate ions in
water which will react with calcium and magnesium ions to form insoluble
precipitates and thus cleansing action is completed.
17. A 3 ml ethanol is taken in a test tube and warmed gently in a water bath.
A 5% a solution of alkaline potassium permanganate is added first drop by
drop to this solution, then in excess.
Class X Science www.vedantu.com 10
(i) How is 5% solution of KMnO 4 prepared?
(ii) State the role of alkaline potassium permanganate in this reaction. What
happens when you add it in excess?
(iii) Write the chemical equation of this reaction. 3 Marks
Ans:
(i) 5% solution of KMnO 4 is the solution in which there is 5 g of KMnO 4 is
dissolved in 100 ml solution. Therefore it is ratio of weight of KMnO 4 and the
volume of solution. It can be prepared in the following steps as:
(a)Take 100 ml of distilled water in a beaker.
(b) Now add 5 g of KMnO 4 into beaker gently and thus it from the 5% solution
of KMnO 4 .
(ii) When the alkaline potassium permanganate is added to ethanol then the
ethanol gets oxidized. This is because alkaline potassium permanganate is an
oxidizing agent which will oxidize the alcohol into carboxylic acid. The reaction
between them can be shown as:
C2 H5OH
KMnO 4 → CH 3COOH
Here in the above reaction alkaline potassium permanganate acts as an oxidizing
agent. When we add excess alkaline potassium permanganate then the purple
color will persist.
(iii) The equation for the chemical reaction will be:
KMnO 4 + C2 H 5OH → CH 3COOH
18. A squirrel is in a scary situation. Its body has to prepare for either
fighting or running away. State the immediate changes that take place in its
body so that the squirrel is able to either fight or run? 3 Marks
Ans: There will be some immediate changes that take place in its body for the
squirrel to be ready to fight or run away. These changes are listed below as:
(a) There will be release of adrenaline hormone which will cause an increase in
the pumping rate of the heart and also the breathing rate of squirrels increases.
Class X Science www.vedantu.com 11
(b) There will be a change in blood pressure and the dilation of the pupil which
helps while running.
(c) The hypothalamus of the squirrel activates the sympathetic nervous system
and thus releases the adrenaline from adrenal gland.
(d) At that time the digestive activities and reproductive activities stop for a
moment.
All these changes made squirrels to be active while running or fighting like
situations.
Or
Why is chemical communication better than electrical impulses as a means
of communication between cells in a multicellular organism? 3 Marks
Ans: Chemical communications is better than electrical impulses as means of
communication between cells in a multicellular organism because of the
following reasons:
(a) Chemical communication involves the communication which takes place
through hormones. Thus it does not require any specialized tissue like nervous
tissue which is used for electrical impulses.
(b) Since electric communication is limited to only certain regions. These regions
are connected by nerves while the chemical connection is not specific to some
regions, it is all over the body.
(c) In chemical communication signals are sent persistently and steadily while in
nervous communication it can be done only at certain intervals of time.
19. Define the term pollination. Differentiate between self pollination and
cross pollination. What is the significance of pollination? 3 Marks
Ans: Pollination can be defined as the act of transferring of pollen grains from
the anther of male flower to stigma of female flower. After the pollination the
seeds can be produced which will create offspring.
Self-Pollination Cross Pollination
When the pollen grains transfer from When the pollen grains transfer from
anther of the same flower to the anther of flower to the stigma of
stigma of the same flower then this different flowers then this kind of
Class X Science www.vedantu.com 12
kind of pollination is called self- pollination is called cross
pollination. pollination.
Here pollinating agents are not Here pollinating agents are necessary
necessary. for the transfer of pollen grains.
Significance of pollination:
The transfer of pollen grains is significant as it helps in fertilization by bringing
male gamete to female egg and thus it helps in the production of seed and which
will ultimately produce new offspring.
20. What are homologous structures? Give an example. Is it necessary that
homologous structures always have a common ancestor? Justify your
answer. 3 Marks
Ans: Homologous structures are those structures which have common basic
structure but they perform different operations or functions. Thus we can say that
homologous structures are similar to each other but they are modified to perform
different functions.
For example: forelimbs of reptiles, amphibians and mammals have the same
structure but they can perform different functions.
The Arms of human beings, wings of birds and the front legs of horses are
homologous structures.
Yes, homologous structures have common ancestors but they are modified to
carry out different operations or activities. The basic structure of the arms of the
humans and wings of the bird are similar in structure but they are modified and
hence perform different operations in different individuals. Arms of human
beings cannot be used for flying while that of birds does. Thus we can say that
they have common ancestors but perform different functions.
21. Why is the Tyndall effect shown by colloidal particles? State four
instances of observing the Tyndall effect. 3 Marks
Ans: The scattering of light in a colloidal dispersion medium by colloidal particle
is known as the Tyndall effect. When the same light is passed through pure
medium then no such scattering of light takes place. Thus it is a property of
colloidal particles to scatter the light when it passes through it. Hence we can say
Class X Science www.vedantu.com 13
that the Tyndall effect is used to determine whether a mixture is a true solution
or a colloidal solution. The instances where we can see this Tyndall effect are
listed below:
(a) The Tyndall effect can be shown when headlights of a car turns on on a foggy
day. The light from the headlight gets scattered by the colloidal particles of the
fog and thus we can see colloidal particles too.
(b) When sunlight passes through the canopy of the forest then we can see the
scattering of light at the top of the tree which is the canopy region.
(c) The Tyndall effect can be visible when light enters a dark room through a hole
and thus we can easily see the light scattered by the particles in the way of the
light.
(d)When we direct the beam of light into the glass full of milk then we can also
see this effect too.
Or
Differentiate between a glass slab and a glass prism. What happens when a
narrow beam of (i) a monochromatic light, and (ii) white light passes through
(a) glass slab and (b) glass prism? 3 Marks
Ans: The difference between glass slab and glass prism is listed as:
Glass Slab Glass Prism
It is a transparent substance in which It is also a transparent substance in
reflecting surfaces are parallel to each which reflecting surfaces are at an
other. angle.
It is rectangular in shape. It has two triangular sides inclined to
each other and a rectangular base.
The direction of incident ray and The direction of incident ray and
emergent ray are parallel to each other. emergent ray are not parallel to each
other.
(i) When the narrow beam of monochromatic light get passed through:
(a) Glass slab: It will deviate from the actual path but we know that the direction
of the incident ray and the emergent ray are parallel to each other.
(b) Glass prism: There is splitting of white into seven colors and the direction of
incident ray and emergent ray are not parallel to each other.
Class X Science www.vedantu.com 14
(ii) When the narrow beam of white light get passed through:
(a) Glass slab: When it strikes the first surface then splitting of white light takes
place and when it strikes on the second surface then it comes out as single white
light.
(b) When it falls on a prism, white light gets dispersed into seven different colors
on the screen placed in front of the prism.
22. Draw a labelled diagram to show (i) reddish appearance of the sun at the
sunrise or the sunset and (ii) white appearance of the sun at noon when it is
overhead. 3 Marks
Ans: When the sun is near the horizon then it appears to be reddish in color
because as the light passes through the atmosphere enters at slant angle and due
to which a large amount of scattering of light takes place. The blue light of the
sky gets scarier than the red light of the sun thus we can see the reddish color of
the sun more precisely. The same phenomena does not happen at noon.
Class X Science www.vedantu.com 15
23. A V-I graph for a nichrome wire is given below. What do you infer from
this graph? Draw a labelled circuit diagram to obtain such a graph.
3 Marks
Ans: From the above we can see that there is a linear relation between the
potential difference(V) and current (A), therefore it gives a straight line between
them. We can depict that when we increase the potential difference across the
nichrome wire then the current also increases in a constant ratio respectively.
Thus we can say that the resistance of nichrome wire is constant. Since there is a
linear relation between the current and potential difference we can say that the
nichrome wire follows the ohm’ law.
According to ohm’s law there is a linear relation between the applied potential
difference and the current passing through wire. It can be represented as:
V∝I
⇒ V=IR
Hence we can draw the circuit diagram of the above graph as:
Class X Science www.vedantu.com 16
Thus the resistance of nichrome wire is R and current passing through it is I. It is
an ohmic device which follows ohm’s law.
24. 3 Marks
(a) Write the mathematical expression for Joule’s law of heating:
Ans: (a) According to Joule’s of heating when a current, I passes through
conductor of resistance r, for time t, then the amount of heat produced in the
conductor will be equal to product of square of current , the resistance and time.
This can be represented as:
H=i 2 rt
The S.I unit of energy is Joules.
(b) Compute the heat generated while transferring 96000 coulomb of charge
in two hours through a potential difference 40 V.
Ans: Here the amount of charge, Q is 9600 C and time for this flow of charge is
2 hr which is equal to 7200 s . Hence we can find the electric current as:
Q
i=
t
9600 40
i= = A
7200 3
Since we know that V=ir the above equation can be reduced as:
H=Vit
It is given that V=40 V , therefore the amount of heat can be calculated as:
40
H=40× ×7200
3
H=3840000 J
H=3.84×106 J
SECTION-C
Class X Science www.vedantu.com 17
25. Carbon cannot reduce the oxides of sodium, magnesium and aluminium
to their respective metals. Why? Where are these metals placed in the
reactivity series? How are these metals obtained from their ores? Take an
example to explain the process of extraction along with chemical equations.
5 Marks
Ans: Carbon cannot reduce the oxides of sodium, magnesium and aluminium to
their respective metals because sodium, magnesium and aluminium have higher
affinity towards oxygen then that of carbon. This is because all these are highly
reactive metals and thus it requires a lot of energy to reduce their oxides.
According to the reactivity series of metals which helps in finding the more
reactive elements, it is found that sodium, magnesium and aluminium are more
reactive than carbon and thus placed at higher levels than carbon in the reactivity
series of elements. Therefore being less reactive, carbon is not used for extraction
of sodium, magnesium and aluminium from their ores.
Such metals which are highly reactive than carbon elements are extracted by the
help of electrolytic reduction process. It is also known as electrolysis of the
molten solution of the ore. Thus we can say that sodium can be obtained with the
help of electrolysis of its salt. In electrolysis a sufficient amount of current is
passed through the aqueous solution and thus it breaks into its respective ions and
thus metals get collected at cathode. The reaction can be represented as:
At cathode: Na + + e- → Na
1
At anode: Cl- → Cl2 +e-
2
Therefore we get the pure metal at cathode. This method is basically used for
elements which cannot be reduced by carbon.
26. The position of certain elements in the Modern Periodic Table are shown
below.
1 2 3 to 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
Group
Period
1 G H
2 A I B C
3 D E F
Class X Science www.vedantu.com 18
Using the above table answer the following questions giving reasons in each
case:
(i) Which element will form only covalent compounds?
(ii) Which element is a non-metal with valency 2?
(iii) Which element is a metal with valency 2?
(iv) Out of H, C and F which has the largest atomic size?
(v) To which family docs H, C and F belong? 5 Marks
Ans: (i) The element which forms covalent compounds must have valence
electrons greater than three and less than eight. Thus we can say that elements E
and B will have a tendency to form covalent compounds.
(ii) Non-metals are present at the right hand side of the periodic table. They have
a tendency to accept electrons. Thus we can say that element E will be non-metal
and it can accept two electrons to form inert in nature.
(iii) Metals are present on the left hand side of the periodic table and they have a
tendency to lose electrons. Thus we can say that G, A and D are metals. But D
element will have a valency of 2.
(iv) As we go down the group the size of the element increases in the same group.
Hence we can say that out of H, C and F , F has the largest atomic size. The size
of atoms increases as the number of shells increases.
OR
Define atomic size. Give its unit of measurement. In the modern periodic
table what trend is observed in the atomic radius in a group and a period
and why is it so? 5 Marks
Ans: Atomic size: The distance between the centre of the nucleus of an atom and
its outermost shell is known as the atomic size of an atom. The atomic size varies
as the number of shells inside the atom increases. A atom having more number
of shells will have more atomic size than an atom having less number of shells.
The atomic size is the distance between the nucleus of atom to outermost shell,
hence it is measure in Angstrom A .
o
o
1A = 10−10 m
Class X Science www.vedantu.com 19
Trend observed in atomic radius in a group and period in modern periodic table:
Along the periods: When we move along the periods from left to right in a period
the atomic radius of elements gradually decreases. The decrease in atomic radius
is due to an increase in effective nuclear energy and more attraction between the
electron and the nucleus of the atom. Since the shell does not increase and number
of electrons increases which increases the attraction between the electrons and
nucleus of the atom. This attraction will ultimately shrink the size of atoms.
Therefore we can say that along the periods while moving from left to right the
atomic radius decreases generally.
Down the groups: When we move down the group from top to bottom the atomic
radius increases gradually. This is because the number of shells increases at each
down element. Thus the number of shells increases at every element while
moving down the group which ultimately increases the size of the element.
Therefore we can say that the atomic radius increases while moving down the
group.
27. 5 Marks
(a) Why is there a difference in the rate of breathing between aquatic
organisms and terrestrial organisms? Explain.
Ans: One complete breath includes single inhalation and exhalation of air. Thus
rate of breathing is the number of times a complete breath takes place in a minute.
Rate of breathing is different in aquatic organisms and terrestrial organisms. This
is because aquatic organisms like fishes obtain their oxygen from water which is
present in dissolved state through their gills. Since we know that the amount of
dissolved oxygen in water is less as compared to oxygen present in undissolved
form in air. Thus they have high breathing rates to meet the breathing
requirements. They breathe faster than humans to meet the oxygen demand of the
body. Thus it is also seen that swimmers breathe at a faster rate when they swim
across the river. Therefore there is a difference of breathing rates in both aquatic
organisms and terrestrial organisms.
(b) Draw a diagram of the human respiratory system and label - pharynx,
trachea, lungs, diaphragm and alveolar sac on it.
Ans: The human respiratory system can be shown as:
Class X Science www.vedantu.com 20
Or
5 Marks
(a) Name the organs that form the excretory system in human beings.
Ans: Human excretory system consists of following organs:
1.Two kidneys : Kidneys are located at one on each side of the spine at the level
of the liver. Kidneys are the important organ of the human body and it is present
in pairs. Kidney helps in purification of blood.
2.A urinary bladder: It is a sac-like structure and it stores urine until the process
of expelling the urine. It receives urine from the ureters which are connected to
each kidney separately.
3. Urethra: It is a tube -like structure which arises from the urinary bladder. It is
shorter in females and longer in males. In males, it is a common path for sperms
and urine both.
(b) Describe in brief how urine is produced in the human body.
Ans: The human body produces the waste chemical compounds like urea and uric
acid with the help of urine. These waste are filtered with the help of the kidney.
Class X Science www.vedantu.com 21
Thus we can say that the main role of the kidney is to filter our blood and produce
the waste excreted out in the form of urine.
Basically the kidney contains a basic structure called nephrons which helps in the
filtration process. It has two parts:
1. Bowman’s Capsule: It is a cup shaped structure which consists of a coiled tube
of blood capillary. This helps in the filtration process.
2. Renal Tubule: Now the filtrate obtained from Bowman’s capsule goes into
renal tubule. But some of the substances like amino acids and salts get absorbed
in their initial state. The rest of water which contains only uric acid and urea gets
passed through the tubule.
Now it moves through a duct and moves towards the urinary bladder where it gets
stored and excreted out from the body in the form of urine.
28. 5 Marks
(a) What is the law of dominance of traits? Explain with an example.
Ans: The law of dominance of traits states that in a heterozygous or we can say
in a hybrid condition the allele having the characters expressed over the other
allele is the dominant allele.
Class X Science www.vedantu.com 22
Here in the parent generation one of them is homozygous dominant and the other
one is homozygous recessive allele. The first one gamete has the dominant pea
shape structure while the other one gamete has the recessive structure. After he
fertilization takes place, the first generation F1 would have heterozygous
conditions among the both alleles the ‘R’ character expresses over the ‘r’ allele.
Thus we can say that here ‘R’ is the dominant allele.
(b) Why are the traits acquired during the lifetime of an individual not
inherited? Explain.
Ans: The traits which are inherited during the lifetime cannot be inherited to
successive generations as the changes do not reflect in the DNA of the germ cells.
The traits acquired during the lifetime brings the change in non-reproductive
tissues which cannot be passed to germ cells. Thus we can say these acquired
traits cannot be passed to successive generations.
For example: a swimmer good at swimming cannot pass this acquired trait to
successive generations as it brings changes only in non-reproductive cells which
do not take part in reproduction.
29. Draw a ray diagram in each of the following cases to show the formation
of image, when the object is placed:
(i) between the optical centre and principal focus of a convex lens.
State the signs and values of magnifications in the above-mentioned cases (i)
and (ii). 5 Marks
Ans: (i) Let us suppose O be the object and I be the image then the image can be
formed as:
Class X Science www.vedantu.com 23
The image formed is enlarged and erect. Therefore its magnification will be
positive and since it is enlarged therefore magnification will be greater than one.
(ii) anywhere in front of a concave lens.
Ans: Let us suppose O be the object and I be the image then the image can be
formed as:
The image formed is diminished and erect. Therefore its magnification will be
positive and since it is diminished therefore magnification will be less than one.
(iii) at 2F of a convex lens.
Ans: Let us suppose O be the object and I be the image then the image can be
formed as:
The image will be formed at 2F on the other side of the lens and its magnification
will be the same as that of the object.
Class X Science www.vedantu.com 24
Or
An object 4.0 cm in size, is placed 25.0 cm in front of a concave mirror of
focal length 15.0 cm. 5 Marks
(i) At what distance from the mirror should a screen be placed in order to
obtain a sharp image?
Ans: Here, height of object, h i =4 cm
Object distance u=25 cm
Focal length f=15 cm
We know that:
1 1 1
⇒ = +
f v u
V is the image distance , object distance is taken as negative and focal length of
concave mirror is always negative. Therefore,
1 1 1
⇒ = +
-15 v -25
1 1 1
⇒ = +
v -15 25
1 -5+3
⇒ =
v 75
1 -2
⇒ =
v 75
Class X Science www.vedantu.com 25
v=-37.5 cm
(ii) Find the size of the image.
-v h i
Ans: Magnification, m= =
u ho
- ( -37.5 ) h i
⇒ m= =
-25 4
4×37.5
⇒ hi =
-25
⇒ h i =-6 cm
Therefore height of image will be −6 cm . The image will be real and inverted.
(iii) Draw a ray diagram to show the formation of the image in this case.
Ans:
30. 5 Marks
(a) What is an electromagnet? List any two uses.
Ans: An electromagnet is a type of magnet in which the magnetic field is
produced by passing the electric current. Thus whenever the electric current
passes through the electromagnet then it will behave like a magnet. It is also
known as a temporary magnet. Its magnetism is not permanent in nature.
Uses of electromagnet:
1.It is used in lifting heavy weight objects.
Class X Science www.vedantu.com 26
2.It is used in transformers.
(b) Draw a labelled diagram to show how an electromagnet is made.
Ans:
(c) State the purpose of the soft iron core used in making an electromagnet.
Ans: The soft iron core is used in electromagnets because the soft iron core has
high magnetic properties. Because of its magnetic capability it is used in
electromagnetism. It can provide a strong magnet when it is used as a core
material in the electromagnets.
(d) List two ways of increasing the strength of an electromagnet if the
material of the electromagnet is fixed.
Ans: Ways of increasing the strength of an electromagnet if the material of the
electromagnet is fixed are listed below as:
1. By increasing the number of turns in the coil of electromagnet we can increase
its magnetic strength.
2. By increasing the amount of current we can also increase its strength. But the
amount of current should be increased in the limit of the coil as more current will
burn out the coil. Thus the heating effect of the coil must be remembered while
increasing current.
Class X Science www.vedantu.com 27
Class X Science
CBSE-2019
Time: 3Hr
Maximum Marks: 80
General Instructions:
I. The question paper comprises five sections. A. B. C. D and E. You have to attempt all the
sections.
II. All questions are compulsory.
III. Internal choice is given in sections B, C, D and E.
IV. Question numbers 1 and 2 in Section A are one mark questions. They are to be
answered in one word or in one sentence.
V. Question numbers 3 to 5 in Section B are two-marks questions. These are to be
answered in about 30 words each.
VI. Question numbers 6 to 15 in Section C are three-marks questions. These are to be
answered in about 50 words each.
VII. Question numbers 16 to 21 in Section D are five-marks questions. These are to be
answered in about 70 words each.
VIII. Question numbers 22 to 27 in Section E are based on practical skills. Each question is a
two marks question. These are to be answered in brief.
Section A
1. If you could use any source of energy for heating your food which one would you prefer?
State one reason for your choice.
ANSWER: If I could use any source of energy for heating food then I would
prefer solar energy because:
1)It is available in abundance
2)Energy from Sun is available to every individual
3)Solar energy also preserves the natural nutrients of food by cooking it slowly at low
temperature.
4)It is economical.
2. Write the function of voltmeter in an electric circuit.
ANSWER: The function of the voltmeter in a circuit is to measure the voltage drop across any
appliance. The voltmeter is always connected parallel in the circuit.
3. What happens to the image distance in the normal human eye when we decrease the
distance of an object, say 10 m to 1 m ? Justify your answer.
ANSWER: If the object distance is greater than 25 cm the image is always formed on the retina
as the focal length of the human eye lens gets adjusted depending on the object distance. This
special property of human eye is called as power of accommodation. Hence, image distance will
remain same if object distance changes from 10 m to 1 m.
4. List two different functions performed by pancreas in our body.
ANSWER: The pancreas contains both the endocrine and exocrine portions. The exocrine region
secretes sodium bicarbonate and many digestive enzymes. The pancreatic amylase causes
breakdown of starch, pancreatic lipase causes breakdown of lipids, and trypsin causes digestion
of proteins The endocrine regions secrete hormones i.e. insulin and glucagon. These hormones
regulate the level of glucose in the blood. Insulin decreases while glucagon increases the blood
glucose level.
5. How it can be proved that the basic structure of the Modern Periodic Table is based on the
electronic configuration of atoms of different elements?
OR
The electronic configuration of an element is 2, 8, 4. State its:
(a) group and period in the Modern Periodic Table.
(b) name and write its one physical property.
ANSWER: Modern periodic law states that the physical and chemical properties of an element
in the periodic table are the periodic function of the atomic number of that element. Electronic
configuration of the elements plays an important role in the placement of elements in the
modern periodic table. The valence shell electron of an element decides its position in a
particular group or period. For example, if the electronic configuration of an element is 2, 1, it
means that the element belongs to group I and 2nd period (valence electron is present in the
2nd shell). Similarly, if the electronic configuration of an element is 2, 8, 1, it means that the
element belongs to group I and 3rd period (valence electron is present in the 3rd shell).
Thus, the modern periodic table is based on the electronic configuration of the different
elements.
OR
(a) The electronic configuration of the given element is 2,8,4. Since, the number of valence
electrons for the given element is 4. Hence, the element belongs to group 14 (10+4) and the 3rd
period.
(b) The atomic number of the given element is 14. Hence, the given element is Silicon. Silicon is
a metalloid.
6. How can we help in reducing the problem of waste disposal? Suggest any three methods.
OR
Define an ecosystem. Draw a block diagram to show the flow of energy in an ecosystem.
ANSWER: The three methods we can utilise for reducing the problem of waste disposal are:
Segregation of waste into biodegradable and non-biodegradable
Following the principle of 3R- reduce, reuse and recycle Converting biodegradable waste into
useful commodities like energy from biogas, using the compost as fertiliser OR
Ecosystem refers to the living and non-living components in an area and the interactions
between them. Energy flows across the trophic levels as shown in the diagram below, following
the ten percent law. Only ten percent of the energy available to a trophic level is passed on to
the next trophic level. The remaining is dissipated away.
Assuming 10000 J is the energy available to the producers, then 1000 J will be available to the
primary consumers, 100 J will be available to secondary consumers and 10 J will be available to
tertiary consumers.
7. List three advantages each of:
(i) exploiting resources with short term aims, and
(ii) using a long term perspective in managing our natural resources.
ANSWER: (i)Advantages of exploiting resources with short term aims:
(i) The current basic needs of the population can easily be fulfilled.
(ii) Fast industrialisation.
(iii) Variety of useful products can be made to make life easy.
(ii)Advantages of long term perspective in managing our natural resources:
(i) Sustainable management of resources
(ii) The resources can be used efficiently by the present as well as future generations.
(iii) The pollution and the degradation of the environment can be reduced.
8. What is a rainbow? Draw a labelled diagram to show the formation of a rainbow.
ANSWER: The rainbow is a natural phenomenon in which white sunlight splits into beautiful
colours by water droplets, which remain suspended in air after the rain. Formation of a
rainbow:
9. Nervous and hormonal systems together perform the function of control and coordination
in human beings. Justify this statement with the help of an example.
ANSWER: In human beings, control and coordination is brought about by both nervous system
and endocrine system. Nervous system works by generation and transmission of electrical
impulse while the endocrine system works by secreting chemical messengers called hormones.
These systems complement the action of each other to control and coordinate different
functions in our body. For example, when an emergency stimulus is detected by the nervous
system, the stimulus is received and analysed by CNS that send message to effectors to provide
proper response. At the same time, the sympathetic nervous system activates adrenal gland to
release adrenaline that prepares body by increasing heart rate, blood pressure, respiration and
dilates pupil etc. Thus, both these systems interact and work together to produce an effective
response.
10. Trace the sequence of events which occur when a bright light is focused on your eyes.
ANSWER: When bright light is focussed on our eyes, then it goes to the brain, the brain reverts
back the message by motor neuron which contracts the pupil. The sequence of events which
occur is:
Receptor
→ Sensory neuron → Brain → Motor Neuron → Eye → Eye muscle contracts
11. What is photosynthesis? Explain its mechanism.
ANSWER: Photosynthesis is a process in which the energy of light is utilised to produce simple
organic compounds in autotrophs. In the process of photosynthesis the energy of sunlight is
captured by photosensitive pigment like chlorophyll in green plants. The energy harnessed by
light is utilised for photolysis of water molecules within the chloroplasts of green plants. As a
result nascent oxygen is released as molecular oxygen gas. Hydrogen released by the reduction
of water is further utilised by the plants in light independent reaction where carbon dioxide is
reduced to simple carbohydrates or sugars in a series of metabolic reactions within the plant
chloroplasts.
The detailed equation of photosynthesis can be represented as:human
6CO2 + 12 H 2 0 → C6 H12 06 + 602 + 6 H 2 0
12. Name the plant Mendel used for his experiment. What type of progeny was obtained by
Mendel in F1 and F2 generations when he crossed the tall and short plants? Write the ratio
he obtained in F2 generation plants.
OR
List two differences between acquired traits and inherited traits by giving an example of
each.
ANSWER: Mendel used pea plant (Pisum sativum) for his experiments. When Mendel crossed
tall and short plants, the progeny obtained in Fl generation were tall. When the Fl plants were
selfed, the F2 generation showed three tall and one dwarf plant. The genotypic ratio of F2
generation is 1:2:1 (TT : Tt: Tt: tt) and the phenotypic ratio is 3:1 (Tall: Dwarf).
OR
Differences between Acquired Traits and Inherited Traits
Acquired Traits Inherited Traits
i. These are somatic variations. i. These are genetic variations.
ii. Acquired traits develop due to the ii. Inherited traits develop due to a reshuffling of
effects of environmental factors, use and genetic material and mutations.
disguise of organs and special
(conscious) efforts.
iii. These traits develop throughout the iii. These traits are transferred (inherited) by the
lifetime of an individual. parents to their offspring.
iv. Example-Learning of dance, music, etc. iv. Example-Attached or free earlobe and curly hair.
and muscular body of a wrestler.
13. 2 g of silver chloride is taken in a china dish and the china dish is placed in sunlight for
sometime. What will be your observation in this case? Write the chemical reaction involved
in the form of a balanced chemical equation. Identify the type of chemical reaction.
OR
Identify the type of reactions taking place in each of the following cases and write the
balanced chemical equation for the reactions.
(a) Zinc reacts with silver nitrate to produce zinc nitrate and silver.
(b) Potassium iodide reacts with lead nitrate to produce potassium nitrate and lead iodide.
ANSWER: When 2 g of silver chloride, AgCI, is kept in sunlight then AgCI breaks down into Ag
and C12. The color of the silver chloride turns to grey. The following change can be represented
by the chemical reactions as:
sunlight 2AgCl(s) 2Ag(s) + Cl2(g) . This type of reaction is an example of a photochemical
decomposition reaction.
(a) The given reaction is a displacement reaction in which more reactive zinc will displace less
reactive silver from silver nitra Answer. Zn(s) + 2AgNO3(aq) -+Zn(NO3)2(aq) + 2Ag(s)
(b) The given reaction is a double displacement reaction. 2KI(aq) + Pb(NO3)2(aq) 2KNO3(aq) +
Pb12(s)
14. Based on the group valency of elements write the molecular formula of the following
compounds giving justification for each:
Oxide of first group elements.
Halide of the elements of group thirteen, and Compound formed when an element A of group
2 combines with an element B of group seventeen.
ANSWER: Oxides of the first group elements have the common formula of M20.
Example- Na20, K20. This is because, the first group elements have a common valency of 1, and
the valency of Oxygen is 2 so, to satisfy the combining capacity of Oxygen two 1st group metals
are required.
Halides of group 13 elements have a common formula of MX3 , where M-metal and X- halogen
element. Example- AICI3, BF3 . This is because the valency of group 13 elements is 3 and that of
halogens is 1 so, to satisfy the combining capacity of aluminum or other group 13th elements
three of halogens are required in the molecular formula.
The general formula for those kinds of compounds would be AB2
Example- MgCl2, CaCl2. This is because the valency of group 2 elements is 2 and that of group
17th elements if 1 so to satisfy the combining capacity of group 2 elements two of group 17
elements are required in the molecular formula.
15. Explain the following:
(a) Sodium chloride is an ionic compound which does not conduct electricity in solid state
where as it does conduct electricity in molten state as well as in aqueous solution.
(b) Reactivity of aluminium decrease if it is dipped in nitric acid.
(c) Metals like calcium and magnesium are never found in their free state in nature.
ANSWER: (a) NaCI conducts electricity in the molten state and in aqueous Answers because
ions are free to move whereas in solid state ions are not free to move.
(b) When aluminium is dipped in nitric acid a layer of aluminium oxide is formed on the metal.
This happens because nitric acid is a strong oxidizing agent. The layer of aluminium oxide
prevents further reaction of aluminium. Due to this, the reactivity of aluminium decreases.
(c) Because Calcium and Magnesium are highly reactive.
16. (a) With the help of a suitable circuit diagram prove that the reciprocal of the equivalent
resistance of a group of resistances joined in parallel is equal to the sum of the reciprocals of
the individual resistances.
(b) In an electric circuit, two resistors of 12 0 each are joined in parallel to a 6 V battery. Find
the current drawn from the battery.
OR
An electric lamp of resistance 20 0 and a conductor of resistance 4 0 are connected to a 6 V
battery as shown in the circuit. Calculate:
(a) the total resistance of the circuit,
(b) the current through the circuit,
(c) the potential difference across the
(i) electric lamp and (ii) conductor, and
(d) power of the lamp.
ANSWER: (a)
Let there are n resistances, each of value RI, R2 Rn, respectively, are connected in parallel to a
battery of voltage V. if the equivalent resistance of the circuit is Req, then current drawn from
V
i=
Req
the battery is
The total current /then divides into Ii, iz, i3 in, respectively in the given resistors. As all the
resistances are connected in parallel, hence the voltage across each resistor is Vvolt. Now we
can write,
i = i1 + i2 + i3 + ..... + ieq
V V V V V
= + + .... + ..... (1)
Req R1 R2 R3 Rn
From eq. 1,
1 1 1 1 1
= + + .... +
Req R1 R2 R3 Rn
Hence, reciprocal of the equivalent resistance is equal to the sum of reciprocal of each resistor
joined in parallel (b) Let net resistance of the given parallel combination be Root, Then
1 1 1
= +
Rnet 12 12
1 2 1
= =
Rnet 12 6
⇒ Rnet = 6 Ω
V 6 V
= i = = 1 A
Hence, current, Rnet 6 Ω
OR
Resistance of electric lamp = 20 Ω
Resistance of conductor= 4 Ω
Voltage battery= 6V
Apply Ohms law
V
= IR
6 V= I × 24 Ω
6 V
=I = 0.25 A
24 Ω
Hence, current in the circuit is 0.25A
(c)
Potential difference across the loop
Vlamp = IR
Vlamp 0.25 A × 20 Ω = 5 V
=
5 V
∴Vlamp =
Potential difference across the conductor
VConductor = IR
= 0.25 A × 4 Ω = 1 V
VConductor
1 V
∴VConductor =
( 0.25)
2 2
I= R 20 1.25 W
×=
Power of lamp
17. (a) Draw magnetic field lines produced around a current carrying straight conductor
passing through cardboard. Name, state and apply the rule to mark the direction of these
field lines.
(b) How will the strength of the magnetic field change when the point where magnetic field is
to be determined is moved away from the straight wire carrying constant current? Justify
your answer.
ANSWER:
(a) To mark the direction of magnetic field lines, we will use The Right hand thumb rule. The
right-hand thumb rule is used to find the direction of the magnetic field lines, according to this
rule if we place our right-hand thumb along the direction of the current flowing in a current
carrying wire, the direction in which the fingers wrap the wire represents the direction of the
magnetic field. As we can see in the given figure, where the current is going downward, the
direction of magnetic field lines is clockwise, according to the rule.
(b) Using a compass needle we can determine the magnetic field. When we move away from
the compass needle from the straight wire, the deflection of the needle decreases which
implies the strength of the magnetic field decreases, as the strength of magnetic field produced
by a straight wire at any point is inversely proportional to the distance of the point from the
wire.
18. An object is placed at a distance of 60 cm from a concave lens of focal length 30 cm.
(i) Use lens formula to find the distance of the image from the lens.
(ii) List four characteristics of the image (nature, position, size, erect/inverted) formed by the
lens in this case.
(iii) Draw ray diagram to justify your answer of part (ii).
ANSWER: We have, (i) Object distance, u= —60 cm Focal length of the concave lens, f= —30 cm
Using lens formula,
1 1 1
− =
v u f
1 1 1
− =
v ( −60 ) ( −30 )
1 −1 1
= −
v 30 60
1 −3
=
v 60
v = −20 cm
The image will be formed at a distance of 20 cm in front of the lens.
(ii) Nature of the image is virtual. The position of the image is between F1 and optical center 0.
Size of the image is diminished. The image is Erect.
(iii)
19. Define pollination. Explain the different types of pollination. List two agents of
pollination? How does suitable pollination lead to fertilization?
OR
Identify the given diagram. Name the parts 1 to 5.
What is contraception? List three advantage of adopting contraceptive measures.
ANSWER: Transfer of pollen grain from the anther of a flower to stigma is termed as
pollination.
Based on the transfer of pollen grains between plants, pollination can be of two types:
1) Self Pollination: When pollen of a plant is transferred to the stigma of a flower on the same
parent plant then it is termed as self-pollination.
2) Cross Pollination: When pollen of a plant is transferred to the stigma of a flower of a plant
different from the one from which pollen is obtained then it is termed as cross-pollination.
Some of the most common agents of pollination that helps in carrying the pollen from the
anther to the stigma of a flower are insects and wind.
As the pollen of the right type is deposited on to the stigma of the flower of the same species,
quite often it leads to germination of pollen grain as a result of a chemical cross-talk between
the pollen and the carpel. Germination leads to the growth and extension of the pollen tube
through the style of the flower to its ovary. The pollen tube carries the male gametes all the
way to the ovule inside the ovary, leading to fertilisation of male gamete with the female
gamete inside the ovule.
OR
(a) The labelled parts of the female reproductive system are as follows:
1 - Oviduct or Fallopian Tube 2 - Ovary 3 - Uterus 4 - Cervix 5 - Vagina
(b) Contraception includes methods or ways to prevent fertilisation and pregnancy in a fertile
female as a result of successful copulation between a fertile male and female.
Some of the major advantages of adopting various contraceptive methods include:
(i) Prevention of unwanted pregnancies
(ii) Help in family planning and population control
(iii) Some contraceptive devices like condoms and female diaphragm prevent spread of
STDs like AIDS and Hepatitis B.
20. Write the chemical formula and name of the compound which is the active ingredient of
all alcoholic drinks. List its two uses.
Write chemical equation and name of the product formed when this compound reacts with-
(i) Sodium metal
(ii) hot concentrated sulphuric acid
OR
What is methane? Draw its electron dot structure. Name the type of bonds formed in this
compound. Why are such compounds:
(i) poor conductors of electricity? and
(ii) have low melting and boiling points? What happens when this compound burns in
oxygen?
ANSWER: Name of the compound which is the active ingredient of all alcoholic drinks is
Ethanol, and its chemical formula is CH3CH2OH. Uses- (i) Ethanol is used in medical
wipes/swabs and antibacterial hand sanitizers. (ii) Ethanol is also used in body lotions as
preservatives and stabilizer of its ingredients.
Chemical reactions of ethanol-
CH 3CH 2OH + Na → CH 3CH 2O − Na + + H 2
CH 3CH 2OH + H 2 SO4 → C2 H 4 + H 2 0
OR
Methane is a colourless, odourless and highly flammable gas which is the main component of
natural gas. It is also called as marsh gas as it is produced when vegetation decomposes
naturally in any swampy or marshlands.
The type of bonds present in methane are all covalent bonds between four hydrogen atoms
and the single carbon atom at the center of the molecule.
(i) Methane is a poor conductor of electricity because in methane all bonds are covalent bonds
and therefore no free electrons are present in the molecule that can help in the conduction of
electricity.
(ii) Covalent compounds have low intermolecular forces of attraction between the molecules
and thus show low melting and boiling points. Since, methane is also a covalent compound thus
methane has very low melting and low boiling point. When methane is burned in the presence
of Oxygen it forms Carbon dioxide gas and water as a product of the reaction.
CH 4 + O2 → CO2 + H 2O
Methane Water Carbon dioxide Water
21. Write the main difference between an acid and a base. With the help of suitable examples
explain the term neutralization and the formation of –
(i) acidic,
(ii) basic and
(iii) neutral salts
ANSWER:
Acid Base
1. Turns blue litmus red 1. Turns red litmus blue
2. Sour in taste 2. Bitter in taste
3. Release H+ ion in water3. Release OH- ion in water
4. pH is less than 7 4. pH is more than 7
5. Example: HCI 5. Example: NaOH
Neutralization is a type of chemical reaction in which an acid and base react to form salt and
water with evolution of heat. i) When neutralisation of a strong acid with a weak base takes
place, it leads to the formation of acidic salt. Example
HCl
+ NH 4OH → NH 4Cl + H 2 O
NaOH
+ CH 3COOH → CH 3COO − Na + + H 2 O
NaOH
+ HCl → NaCl + H 2 O
22. In the experimental set up to show that "CO2 is given out during respiration", name the
substance taken in the small test tube kept in the conical flask. State its function and the
consequence of its use.
ANSWER: In the above mentioned experimental setup, lime water is taken in a small test tube
which is kept in the conical flask. Lime water is used to detect the presence of carbon dioxide.
When carbon dioxide passes through lime water, it turns milky due to the formation of calcium
carbonate. Hence, it is used in the above experiment to check whether CO2 is released during
respiration.
23. A student is observing the temporary mount of a leaf peel under a microscope. Draw
labelled diagram of the structure of stomata as seen under the microscope
OR
Draw a labelled diagram in proper sequence to show budding in hydra.
ANSWER: Structure of stomata
OR
Budding of hydra
24. List four precautions which a student should observe while determining the focal length
of a given convex lens by obtaining image of a distant object on a screen.
ANSWER: Following are the precautions while making the image by the help of convex lens: 1.)
Fix the convex lens vertically in the lens holder.
2.) The base of the lens and white screen should be in a line with the measuring scale.
3.) Record the position of the lens and screen only when a well-defined sharp image is formed.
4.) There should not be any obstacle in the path of the convex lens.
25. While studying the dependence of potential difference ( V) across a resistor on the
current (I) passing through it, in order to determine the resistance of the resistor, a student
took 5 readings for different values of current and plotted a graph between V and t. He got a
straight line graph passing through the origin. What does the straight line signify? Write the
method of determining the resistance of the resister using this graph.
OR
What would you suggest to a student if while performing an experiment he finds that the
pointer/needle of the ammeter and voltmeter do not coincide with the zero marks on the
scales when the circuit is open? No extra ammeter/voltmeter is available in the laboratory.
ANSWER:
Straight line graph between potential difference ( V) and current(I) shows that resistor is a
linear element and follows Ohm's Law.
Calculation of Resistance: At any point on the graph, resistance is given as,
V (value of potential difference at that point)
R= o
I o (value of current at that point)
1
In other words, the Slope of the graph at any point gives the value R
Hence,
Io 1
slope
= =
Vo R
1 V (Value of Potential difference at that point)
⇒
= R = o
slope I o (Value of Current at that point)
OR
This is called the zero error of the scale of ammeter or voltmeter. If there is a zero error, then
this error is subtracted from the value that depicts when the circuit is closed, otherwise, the
accurate current or potential difference will not be recorded.
26. In three test tubes A, B, and C, three different liquids namely, distilled water,
underground water and distilled water in which a pinch of calcium sulphate is dissolved,
respectively are taken. Equal amount of soap Answer is added to each test tube and the
contents are shaken. In which test tube will the length of the foam (lather) be longest? Justify
your answer.
ANSWER:
Test tube A contains distilled water which is considered as soft water, free from ions like Mg2÷,
Ca2+, etc. So, in this case, the length of foam will be the longest(maximum). Test tube B
contains underground water which contains ions like Mg2+, Ca2÷, etc. which react with soaps
to form salts of fatty acids called scum, which are insoluble in water. So, in this case, the length
of foam will be the less in comparison to test tube A. Test tube C contains distilled water with
CaSO4, which contains Ca2÷ ions which react with soaps to form salts of fatty acids called scum,
which are insoluble in water. So, in this case also, the length of foam will be the less in
comparison to test tube A.
27. Blue litmus is added to two test tubes A and B containing dilute HCl and NaOH. Answer
respectively. In which test tube a colour change will be observed? State the colour change
and give its reason.
OR
What is observed when 2 mL of dilute hydrochloric acid is added to 1 g of sodium carbonate
taken in a clean and dry test tube? Write chemical equation for the reaction involved.
ANSWER: Test tube A contains dil. HCl and test tube B contains dil. NaOH. On adding blue
litmus Answer to both the test tubes, the colour of the test tube A will change from blue to red.
This is because HCl is an acid and acids turn blue litmus to red.
OR
On adding dilute hydrochloric acid to sodium carbonate taken in a clean and dry test tube, a
brisk effervescence will be observed due to the evolution of carbon dioxide gas.
2 HCl
+ Na2CO3 → 2 NaCl
+ H 2O + CO2
CBSE Class 10
Social Science
Previous Year Question Paper 2007
Series: RKM/1 Code no. 32/1/1
● Please check that this question paper contains 6 printed pages + 3
Maps.
● Code number given on the right-hand side of the question paper
should be written on the title page of the answer-book by the
candidate.
● Please check that this question paper contains 24 questions.
● Please write down the serial number of the question before
attempting it
SOCIAL SCIENCE
Time Allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 80
General Instructions :
1. Answers to questions carrying 2 marks should not exceed 30 words each.
2. Answers to questions carrying 4 marks should not exceed 60 — 80 words
each.
3. Answers to questions carrying 6 marks should not exceed 100 — 125 words
each.
4. Maps should be securely tied in the middle of the Answer-Book.
5. Attempt all parts of a question together.
6. Stencils or templates for drawing outline maps may be used wherever
necessary
Class X social science www.vedantu.com 1
1. Define the term ‘economic development’. State the two bases of measuring
economic development of a country. 2 Marks
Ans: Economic development is the process through which a country improves its
people's economic, political, and social well-being.
The two metrics used to assess a country's economic progress are:-
i. per capita income
ii. national income
2. Who is a disabled person ? Give one example each of two types of
disabilities. 2 Marks
Ans: The term "disabled" refers to persons who have physical or mental
limitations.
The following are some instances of common disabilities:
1. Impaired eyesight
2. deaf or hearing loss
3. problems with mental health
4. intellectual handicap
3. Write any four facts about the tsunami . 2 Marks
Ans: The four facts of tsunami are:
1. Approximately 80% of tsunamis occur inside the Pacific Ocean's "Ring of
Fire."
2. A tsunami's initial wave is typically not the biggest; subsequent waves
become bigger and stronger.
3. Tsunamis may move at rates of up to 500 miles per hour (805 kilometres per
hour), which is comparable to that of a jet airliner.
4. The states of Hawaii, Alaska, Washington, Oregon, and California are the
most vulnerable to tsunamis in the United States.
Class X social science www.vedantu.com 2
4. Explain how Indian industries and trade had been ruined under the
British rule in the eighteenth century. 2 Marks
Ans: Under colonial control, India was unable to develop its industrial sector.
Because the colonial administration pursued a programme of deliberate
deindustrialization . As a result of this strategy, India became a net exporter of
raw materials to the United Kingdom and a net importer of completed goods
manufactured in the United Kingdom. In addition, the colonial administration put
high taxes on Indian handmade exports, thus destroying the Indian handicraft
sector.
5. Explain any two main features of Harappan culture. 2 Marks
Ans: The Indus Valley Civilization was an ancient India civilization that existed
in the northwestern sections of the Indo-Pakistan subcontinent more than 4000
years ago. It got its name from the Indus Waterway, which is the region's primary
river. The following are some of the characteristics of Indus Valley Civilization:
a. This civilisation spanned far more than the Indus Valley. Harappa,
Mohenjo-Daro, Kalibangan, and Lothal were the major cities of the Indus
valley civilisation.
b. Personal hygiene, town planning, the construction of burnt-brick homes,
pottery, casting, forging of metals, and the manufacture of cotton and
woollen textiles are all important aspects of Indus Valley civilisation.
6. Name the northern, eastern, southern and western most stations of Golden
Quadrilateral express national highway. 2 Marks
Ans: Mumbai (in the west), Chennai (in the south), Delhi (in the north), and
Kolkata (in the east).
7. How do the means of mass communication play a vital role in creating
awareness among the people ? Explain. 2 Marks
Ans: Communication is crucial in providing amusement and raising public
knowledge of different initiatives, legislation, and news that are relevant to the
general public.
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Radio: Radio transmits national programmes in national and religious values
for a variety of people in cities, villages, rural locations, and border areas.
Television: Television transmits live and visual information in a variety of
educational, sporting, and entertainment formats.
Newspapers: For those who do not have access to radio or television,
newspapers give comprehensive information in a written format at a lower
cost.
All forms of mass media communication play an important role in delivering
entertainment, education, and public awareness.
8. Identify and name the social reformer shown in the picture given below.
State any two contributions made by him. 2 Marks
Ans: The picture is of Sir Syed Ahmad Khan born on 17 October 1817. He
established the Translation Society, subsequently known as the Scientific
Society, in 1864 with the goal of translating English literature on science and
other disciplines into Urdu. He also founded an English-Urdu newspaper to
disseminate social reform ideas. He visited England in 1869 and built the
Mohammedan Anglo-Oriental College at Aligarh in 1875 following his return.
9. ‘India is a multilingual country’. Justify the statement with two
arguments. 2 Marks
Ans: India is a multilingual country due to the large number of languages spoken.
The country's official language is Hindi. Due to the country's regional diversity,
India has a large number of languages spoken.
Because India is a cosmopolitan country, it is a land of many languages. At the
moment, there isn't a single monolingual state or union territory in the United
States.
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Because India is so large and is divided into so many states, languages, and
religions, it has a diverse culture. Each area has its own set of holidays and
cultural distinctions.
A number of Indian states have been restructured along linguistic lines, and
language has always played a role in establishing a state's political identity.
10. “Wells and tube wells are the most popular means of irrigation in
northern plains of India.” Justify the statement with two arguments.
2 Marks
Ans: Wells and tube wells are abundant in India's northern plains, owing to:-
1. The existence of several perennial rivers.
2. levelled plain and soft alluvial soil facilitates the building of wells and
tubewells in a simple and cost-effective manner.
11. “Health sector interplays the most significant role in human
development.” Justify this statement with two arguments. 2 Marks
Ans: The health sector is critical to human development:
1. Human resources are a nation's most valuable resource since they are a
storehouse of varied talents and useful knowledge that increase the worth
of any other resource.
2. Health-care facilities are one of the most important sources of human
capital creation, since they help individuals stay healthy and productive.
3. It makes contemporary and scientific ideas more accessible to individuals.
4. It allows individuals to deliver continuous labour supply for a longer length
of time, and it is also a key component in economic progress.
5. As a result, the health sector is critical to human progress. (write any two)
12. Suggest two facts which should be borne in mind while selecting a site for
a building in coastal areas. 2 Marks
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Ans: Two facts which should be borne in mind while selecting a site for a
building in coastal areas are:-
a. Raw Material Availability.
b. Closeness to Markets
c. Transportation Facilities:Power, Fuel, or Gas Availability.
d. Water Supply Waste Product Disposal Facility
e. Atmospheric and climatic conditions
f. Labour Availability (Write any two)
13. Describe Any four characteristics of subsistence farming. 4 Marks
Ans: In India, there are two forms of subsistence farming. The two types of
subsistence farming are basic subsistence farming and intense subsistence
farming. India's subsistence farming has four distinct features.
1. Primitive subsistence farming is done on a small plot of land using simple
equipment like a hoe and digging sticks.
2. In intense subsistence farming, agriculture takes place in a densely
populated region.
3. Farmers clear an area of land by burning trees and cultivate it for one or
two years in primitive subsistence farming. Then they clear yet another plot
of land for agriculture.
4. Fertilisers are used in large quantities in intensive subsistence farming.
Or
Describe any four steps taken by the Government to improve Indian
agriculture after Independence.
Ans: Following independence, the Indian government took four initiatives to
enhance agriculture in India:
1. The government's major priority in the First Five-Year Plan was land
reform. It intended to consolidate land ownership, abolish the zamindari
system, and so forth.
2. Many agricultural changes were implemented in the 1960s and 1970s in
order to increase productivity. The Green Revolution was an example of this.
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3. The government launched a number of programmes to safeguard crops from
droughts, fires, floods, and other natural disasters.
4. A number of cooperative banks and organisations were formed to give low-
interest loans to farmers.
14. Describe any four major problems faced by cotton textile industry in
India. 4 Marks
Ans: Cotton textile factories in India confront four primary issues.
1. Yarn is made in India by small businesses and units that mostly serve local
markets. As a result, while many cotton spinners export yarn, many garment
makers must import fabric. As a result, there is a misalignment between the
two.
2. The majority of the machinery in cotton mills is obsolete and has to be
updated.
3. Production has been hindered by erratic power supplies.
4. Cotton is up against stiff competition from the fibre sector.
15. Describe two different approaches by which the number of the poor are
estimated in the country. 4 Marks
Ans: The income or consumption levels are a typical way for measuring poverty.
If a person's income or consumption falls below a certain "minimum level"
required to meet basic requirements, he or she is called poor. In India, a minimal
amount of food, clothes, footwear, fuel and light, educational and medical
requirements, and so on are established for defining the poverty line. The prices
in rupees are multiplied by these physical amounts. The current food requirement
calculation used to calculate the poverty line is based on the ideal calorie need.
According to statistics from the year 2000, a household of five earning less than
Rs. 1,640 a month is deemed poor. For the urban region, this amount is Rs. 2,270
per month. In rural regions, the anticipated calorie consumption is 2400 calories
per person, whereas in urban areas, it is 2100 calories per person. A person living
in poverty is defined as someone who consumes less than this amount.
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16. “The revolt of 1857 marked a turning point in the history of India.”
Support this statement by giving four facts. 4 Marks
Ans: The rebellion of 1857 was a watershed moment in Indian history:
1. The rebellion of 1857 was a watershed moment in Indian history. It marked
the beginning of India's liberation from the shackles of foreign domination.
2. It was, in fact, the first essay written during India's transition to freedom.
It established the groundwork for Indian nationalism.
3. It served as a huge motivation to our people, who were motivated by the
example set by the rebels who died battling the British despite the
overwhelming odds stacked against them.
4. The uprising resulted in several changes to the British system of
administration in the nation. The uprising resulted in the immediate
abolition of Mughal authority and the demise of the East India Company
as the governing force.
5. The British Crown took the role of the East India Company, with Queen
Victoria as Empress of India.
6. The Indian army was organised along community lines, and the artillery
was taken over by the British.
7. The Bengal army that had participated in the rebellion was disbanded, and
the army was united under a single Commander-in-Chief.
Or
When was the Muslim League formed? Explain its three main objectives.
4 Marks
Ans: The Muslim League was established on December 30, 1906.
Its goals are as follows:
1. The primary motivation for the formation of the Muslim League is to instill
emotions of allegiance to the British government among Muslims and to
dispel misconceptions and suspicions.
2. To protect and raise to the attention of the government the political rights
of Muslims.
3. To avoid prejudice towards other groups in India among Muslims.
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17. “Coal is the main source of energy as well as a raw material for industries
in India.” Support this statement with two facts for each. 4 Marks
Ans: Coal is one of the most significant sources of energy, and it is used for a
variety of purposes including home heating, boiler and steam engine fuel, and
power production by thermal plants.
1. Energy is a necessary component of economic growth. Coal and other
traditional energy sources have long been used. Whether in the agricultural
or industrial sectors, energy is required to keep operations running and to
assure production.
2. Coal meets the majority of the country's energy requirements.
3. It is used to generate electricity.
4. It both provides energy to industry and is utilised for residential purposes.
5. Coal is a raw resource used in the iron & steel, cement, and fertiliser
industries.
6. When considering the relevance of coal, it is critical to implement resource
planning to guarantee that the resource is used to its full potential.
7. Despite the fact that coal is the most plentiful fossil fuel, several places,
such as MP, Chhatisgarh, and Jharkhand, are rich in coal but lack the
infrastructure to best harness and utilise it.
18. How does communalism pose a threat to our national unity ? Explain.
4 Marks
Ans: Communalism is a superiority complex in which a person believes that his
or her language, community, religion, or caste is superior to others.
1. Communalism threatens our national cohesiveness in a variety of ways:
2. The communal individual works for his language, community, religion, or
caste, not for the country.
3. He values his language, community, religion, or caste above everything
else.
4. He has the ability to discriminate against people of other languages,
communities, religions, and castes.
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5. He might easily be influenced in the name of community and participate in
criminal actions.
6. Such individuals pose a threat to other members of the community.
19. Explain the term ‘Veto’. Name any four countries which have veto power.
4 Marks
Ans: Veto is a power provided to five permanent members of the United States
Security Council, allowing them to say "No" to any decision made by the Security
Council's member nations.
The term 'veto' originates from a Latin phrase that means 'I refuse.'
The current permanent members are:
1. United States of America
2. The Russian Federation
3. The United Kingdom
4. China
5. France
20. How is disaster managed at different levels ? Explain with one example
each, from any four levels. 4 Marks
Ans: The Association of National Governors has developed a catastrophe phase
model that supports emergency managers in disaster preparation and response,
sometimes referred to as the "life cycle."
1. Mitigation; To avoid future disasters and to mitigate their consequences
A property examination to find methods to strengthen the building against
harm is an example of "mitigation." To further avoid or mitigate the effects
of a disaster, the organisation may alter zoning and land-use management.
2. Preparedness; to plan ahead of time in order to be prepared for an
emergency.
Hosting disaster preparation training, education, drills, tabletop exercises,
and full-scale exercises are all examples of "preparedness." This
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guarantees that in the case of an emergency, all stakeholders are aware of
what to do. Organizations can also form a business continuity team to
develop a strategic strategy that will allow them to recover from a disaster.
The team will produce a business continuity plan overview as well as a
resource list for catastrophe recovery.
3. Response; In the aftermath of an emergency, tragedy, or crisis, to protect
persons and property
The most well-known example of the "reaction" phase is ensuring that
people are safe. Following that, the organisation will assess damage, create
disaster response plans, prioritise cleanup operations, and begin resource
distribution as needed. Due to shutdowns, businesses will also have to deal
with building closures, preliminary damage assessments, and hindered
contact with stakeholders (such as employees, vendors, and suppliers).
4. Recovery are the four phases of a catastrophe. After a calamity, to rebuild
in order to get operations back to normal.
Creating strategic protocols and action plans to handle the disaster's most
significant consequences is an example of "recovery." An organisation will
seek to get fresh resources, re-establish or form new relationships, and put
in place effective recovery plans. In addition, the organisation will want to
take actions to minimise financial burdens, restore damaged infrastructure,
and prevent future catastrophe susceptibility.
Or
Explain any four objectives of a search and rescue team.
Ans: A Search and Rescue team's major goals are to
1. Rescue survivors trapped beneath the wreckage of destroyed structures.
2. Provide First Aid to the trapped survivors and transport them to a medical
facility for treatment.
3. Take urgent required steps, such as providing temporary support and
protection to buildings and structures that are at risk of collapsing.
4. Turn over, retrieve, and dispose of the deceased's corpses.
5. Provide training, demonstrations, and public awareness on how to use local
resources to save community members.
Composition of the Team
Class X social science www.vedantu.com 11
1. Volunteers, both male and female, who are honest, emotionally stable, and
professionally decisive, and who are in excellent physical shape and have
proven capacity and desire to work in an emergency, should be part of a
rescue squad.
2. They must be at least 18 years old and have a high school diploma (reading
and writing the local language).
3. Ex-military or army people should be given preference.
21. When was Indian National Congress founded ? Who played the most
important part in its formation ? Describe the main objectives of the
Congress. 6 Marks
Ans: Seventy-two political activists established the Indian National Congress in
December 1885. It was the first time that Indian nationalism was organised on a
national basis.
A.O. Hume, a former English ICS officer, was a key figure in the organization's
establishment.
The main objective of the congress was:-
1. To strengthen and foster a sense of national solidarity.
2. Formulating and presenting public requests to the administration.
3. The goal is to bring together leaders from all around the country.
4. To organise and train the country's public opinion.
Or
Describe any six factors that were responsible for the rise of ‘extremism’ in
Indian.
Ans: The following are some of the factors that have contributed to the rise of
extremism:
1. Famine and disease struck the nation in 1896-97, causing widespread
misery among the people.
2. The famine and pestilence of 1896-97, which afflicted the whole country
and caused widespread misery.
Class X social science www.vedantu.com 12
3. The people's economic situation deteriorated.
4. The mistreatment of Indians in South Africa because of their skin colour.
5. The 1904–05 Russo-Japanese war, in which Japan destroyed Russia as a
European power. This inspired Indians to fight against the European
country, Britain.
6. Lord Curzon's regressive reign was the immediate cause of the emergence
of radicalism.
22. Why is the conservation of resources essential? Explain any three
measures of conservation of resources. 6 Marks
Ans: Minerals and the compounds made from them are essential to industry and
agriculture. We are quickly depleting mineral resources that must be replenished
over millions of years. Compared to current consumption rates, the natural pace
of replenishment is relatively slow. Minerals are limited and non-renewable
resources. Mineral extraction prices are rising due to a decline in excellent quality
and the extraction method.
a. Mineral conservation may be accomplished by using mineral resources in
a planned and long-term way.
b. Improve technologies to enable the low-cost usage of low-grade ores.
c. Metals should be recycled.
d. Make do with scrap metal and other alternatives.
Or
“Water is a very important and critical resource in India”. Support this
statement by explaining any three points of each.
Ans: Several major rivers run across India. In terms of water resources and a vast
coastline, the country is extremely endowed. India, like every other country, relies
heavily on water.
1. Every area of the economy benefits from the country's water resources.
Only the availability of India's water resources allows for large-scale
agricultural activity.
Class X social science www.vedantu.com 13
2. Because of the abundant supply of water, numerous water-intensive
businesses have been able to establish themselves.
3. India can create a large quantity of hydroelectricity due to its favourable
geography and abundant water supply.
4. The country's extensive coastline allows it to engage in a variety of
maritime, port, and fishing-related economic activities.
5. Apart from being utilised for household consumption, water resources
support a variety of livelihoods for people in the nation.
6. Despite rising population and pollution, India's water resources have been
able to meet the needs of people all throughout the country.
7. As a result, it is critical that we recognise the importance of water resources
in the country and work to ensure that they are preserved in pristine shape
for future generations.
23. Explain with suitable examples the impact of the expansion of business
activities in an economy. 6 Marks
Ans: A business cycle is the rise and fall of business activity within an industry,
which includes profitable and losing times. Business cycles do not occur on a
regular basis. These cycles occur seldom yet repeatedly. Expansion, a peak,
recession, and recovery are all typical business cycles. When severe economic
cycles occur in many industries, the entire economy as a whole is typically
affected, not simply the industry experiencing the change.
1. It escales the level of competition
2. Consumer demand increases.
3. The technical world is rapidly evolving.
4. The standard of living rises
5. Human resource development is required.
6. Unemployment decreases i.e. employment level increases.
7. A focus on market orientation increases.
Or
Class X social science www.vedantu.com 14
Why is the rise of consumer awareness essential ? Explain any four measures
to protect consumers’ interest
Ans: Consumer consciousness refers to being aware of your rights as a consumer
when purchasing or exchanging something in the market so that you are not
deceived or abused. Consumer awareness is critical for improving market
circumstances, which offer customers with more options at cheaper prices and
minimise the likelihood of sellers exploiting them.
For purchasers, consumer knowledge is critical; Few aspects are mentioned
below.
a. As a result of increased consumer knowledge, superior goods will be
developed and marketed.
b. Companies will also provide excellent service to people wherever they are
necessary.
c. The government periodically verifies that product quality marks such as
ISI, Hallmark, and others are present on items. These marks are only
approved for items that fulfil the mark's rigorous requirements.
The government of India has made the following steps to empower
consumers:
1. In 1986, the government established the Consumer Protection Act
(COPRA) to protect consumers' interests and give them the right to seek
remedy for unfair trade practises and exploitation.
2. In October 2005, the Right to Information Act was passed to inform the
public about how government agencies operate.
3. A consumer court was established for people to file complaints about any
difference with the consumer.
4. Right to Consumer Awareness: This refers to every individual 's right to
gain information and skills necessary to become an aware consumer,
allowing him or her to make sound judgments while consuming products
and employing services. This right means that the customer should be
educated enough to address the issue on his or her own.
Class X social science www.vedantu.com 15
24. (a) (i) On the given political outline map of India, the place is shown by
No. 1, where Congress was split in 1907. Identify the place and name it on
the line drawn.
(ii) On the same map shade and name the state where Jallianwala Bagh
incident occurred. 2 Marks
Class X social science www.vedantu.com 16
Ans:
(b) On the given political outline map of India, four geographical features A,
B, C and D are marked. Identify these features with the help of the map key
and write their correct names on the line marked against each in the map.
4 Marks
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Ans:
Or
On the given political outline map of India locate and label the following
features : 4 Marks
(i) Kanpur - Cotton Textile Centre
(ii) Kaiga - Nuclear Power Station
(iii) Haldia - Oil Refinery
(iv) Kandla - Seaport
Class X social science www.vedantu.com 19
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Ans:
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CBSE Class 10
Social Science
Previous Year Question Paper 2008
Series: RLH Code no. 32/1
● Please check that this question paper contains 9 printed pages + 3 Maps.
● Code number given on the right hand side of the question paper should be written
on the title page of the answer-book by the candidate.
● Please check that this question paper contains 30 questions.
● Please write down the Serial Number of the question before attempting it.
● 15 minute time has been allotted to read this question paper. The question paper
will be distributed at 10.15 a.m. From 10.15 a.m. to 10.30 a.m, the students will
read the question paper only and will not write any answer on the answer-book
during this period
SOCIAL SCIENCE
Time Allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 80
General Instructions:
1. The question paper has 30 questions in all. All questions are compulsory.
2. Marks are indicated against each question.
3. Questions from serial number 1 to 10 are 1-mark questions. Answers of these
questions may be from one word to one sentence.
4. Questions from serial number 11 to 18 are 3-marks questions. Answers of these
Class X Social science www.vedantu.com 1
questions should not exceed 80 words each.
5. Questions from serial number 19 to 28 are 4-marks questions. Answers of these
questions should not exceed 100 words each.
6. Question number 29 and 30 are map work questions. Attach the map inside your
answer book.
1. What was the notion of Swaraj for plantation workers in Assam? 1 Mark
Ans: As well as being able to move freely in and out of the confined space, Swaraj
also meant being able to maintain a connection with their village of origin.
2. Mention growing and harvesting periods of Rabi crops. ½+½= 1 Mark
Ans: The growing period of rabi crops are October to December and the harvesting
period of rabi crops are April to June.
3. Define the term ‘dam’. 1 Mark
Ans: Dams are a flowing water barrier which blocks, distracts or retards the flow
often leading to reservoir lakes or floods.
4. Classify manufacturing industries into two groups on the basis of source of
raw materials used. ½+½= 1 Mark
Ans: The manufacturing industries are agro-based and mineral industries based on
the source of the raw materials used.
5. What is the meaning of ‘patriarchal’ society? 1 Mark
Ans: A patriarchal society means a male dominated society.
Class X Social science www.vedantu.com 2
6. Define the term ‘Feminist’. 1 Mark
Ans: A person who believes that all human beings have equal rights and
opportunities irrespective of their gender.
7. What is the challenge of expansion? 1 Mark
Ans: The challenge of expansion includes the implementation in all regions, social
groups and institutions of the fundamental principles of democratic governance.
8. According to the World Bank, classify the countries of the world into two
groups on, the basis of per capita annual income. ½+½= 1 Mark
Ans: Rich income countries have a per capita income of Rs.45300 or more per year
while low income countries have annual per capita incomes of Rs.37000 or less.
9. Which agency works for our safety at the State level during disasters?
1 Mark
Ans: State relief and rehabilitation department.
10. What is the main aim of Nehru Yuva Kendra ? 1 Mark
Ans: The primary goal of Nehru Yuva Kendra is to provide opportunities for
students (who have completed their first degree) to participate in national
development programmes, as well as to enable non-student youth from rural areas
to contribute to rural development.
11. Satyagraha is not a physical force. A satyagrahi does not inflict pain on the
adversary; he does not seek his destruction ... In the use of satyagraha, there is
no ill-will whatever.
Class X Social science www.vedantu.com 3
Satyagraha is pure soul-force. Truth is the very substance of the soul. That is
why this force is called satyagraha. The soul is informed with -knowledge. In it
burns the flame of love... Non-violence is the supreme dharma …
1+2 = 3 Marks
(11.1) Who spoke these words?
Ans: Mahatma Gandhi spoke these words.
(11.2) Explain two differences between physical force and soul-force, with
examples.
Ans: Physical force is based on aggression and violence, and it inflicts pain on the
adversary while seeking to destroy it.
Truth and nonviolence are the foundations of soul force. 'Burns the flame of love'
in it. It causes no pain to the opponent.
As an example, the British used physical force whereas Gandhiji used soul force.
Note: Below are given three Groups A, B and C for questions number 13 and 14.
Select any one group for answering these two questions.
GROUP - A
12. Explain the three types of flows within the international economic exchanges
during 1815 - 1914. 3×1=3 Marks
Ans: The three types of flows are:
● The flow of trade: The flow of trade primarily refers to goods trade. Wheat, for
example, travelled from Russia, America, and Australia to the United Kingdom.
● The flow of labour: This includes people migrating in search of work. For
example, over 50 million people migrated from Europe to the United States and
Australia in search of work.
● Capital movement: This refers to the movement of capital over long distances
for short-term or long-term investments. Capital, for example, flowed from
financial centers like London to other parts of the world.
Class X Social science www.vedantu.com 4
13. How had a series of inventions in the eighteenth century increased the
efficiency of each step of the production process in cotton textile industry?
Explain. 3×1=3 Marks
Ans: Here are the following reasons:
● In the eighteenth century, a series of inventions improved the efficiency of each
step of the manufacturing process (carding, twisting and spinning, and rolling).
● They increased worker output, allowing each worker to produce more, and they
enabled the production of stronger threads and yarn.
● The cotton mill was then invented by Richard Arkwright.
● Cloth production was spread across the countryside and carried out within village
households until this time, as you have seen. However, the mill could now
purchase, set up, and maintain the expensive new machines.
● All of the mill's processes and management were consolidated under one roof.
● This allowed for more careful oversight of the manufacturing process, quality
control, and labour regulation, all of which were difficult to achieve when
manufacturing took place in rural areas.
GROUP - B
12.Who were the jobbers? Explain their functions. 3×1=3 Marks
Ans: The Jobber was a person of some authority who assisted industrialists in
finding workers. His job was to ensure that workers had jobs and that industrialists
had workers. He used to be a long-serving and well-liked employee.
Their functions are:
● He gathered people from his village.
● He promised them work.
● He assisted the workers in relocating to the cities.
● He helped out in a time of need.
Class X Social science www.vedantu.com 5
13. Why is Mumbai (Bombay) known as the city of dreams ? Give three reasons.
3×1=3 Marks
Ans: Despite being overcrowded and difficult living conditions, Bombay appear to
many as Mayanagari or a city of dreams. Here are the following reasons:
● Every year, thousands of people come here in search of a promising career in the
film industry. Bombay films have played a significant role in shaping the city's
image as a mix of fantasy and reality, with slums and celebrity bungalows.
● The first motion picture was released in 1896. Soon after, Raja Harishchandra
was created by Dadasaheb Phalke (1913). After that, there was no turning back.
● By 1925, Bombay had established itself as India's film capital, producing films
for the domestic market. Millions of rupees were invested, and by 1987, 520,000
people worked in the film industry.
GROUP - C
12. Define the term ‘trade surplus’. How was the income received from trade
surplus with India used by Britain? 3×1=3 Marks
Ans: The total value of a nation's exports during the year exceeds the total value of
its imports, resulting in a trade surplus.
● British manufacturers flooded the Indian market in the nineteenth century.
India's food grain and raw material exports to the United Kingdom and the rest
of the world have also increased.
● British exports to India were worth more than Indian imports.
● As a result, Britain had a "Trade surplus" with India. This surplus was used to
offset the UK's trade deficit with other countries.
● This is how a multilateral settlement system works, in which a country's deficit
with another country is offset by a third country's surplus.
● India was instrumental in assisting the United Kingdom in balancing its budget
deficits. The United Kingdom's trade surplus in India aided in the payment of
Class X Social science www.vedantu.com 6
domestic charges, which included private remittances home by British officials
and traders.
13. How is urban development directly related to the cost of ecology and
environment? Explain, giving examples of industrial cities of England in the
nineteenth century. 3×1=3 Marks
Ans: Everywhere, urbanisation has come at the expense of ecology and the
environment. In response to the growing demand for space for factories, housing,
and other institutions, natural features were flattened or transformed. Large amounts
of garbage and waste products polluted the air and water, and excessive noise
became a way of life in cities. In 19th century England, the widespread use of coal
in homes and industries created a serious problem. Hundreds of factory chimneys
spewed black smoke into the skies in industrial cities like Leeds, Bradford, and
Manchester.
14. Study the Map given below showing major seaports and international
airports of India carefully and answer the questions that follow:
1½+1½=3 Marks
Class X Social science www.vedantu.com 7
(14.1) Name three States which have Major seaports but do not have
international airports as shown in the Map given above.
Ans: Gujarat, Karnataka,Goa etc. are the three states which have Major seaports
but do not have international airports.
(14.2)Write the names of the major seaports of these states.
Ans: The names of the major seaports are:
● Gujarat-Kandla
Class X Social science www.vedantu.com 8
● Goa-Mormugao
● Karnataka- New Mangalore.
Note: The following question is for the Blind Candidates only, in lieu of Q. No.14
(14.1) Name the northernmost and southernmost international airports of
India. 1+2 = 3 Marks
Ans: The northernmost international airport is Raja Sansi airport in Amritsar. The
southernmost international airport is Nedimbacherry in Thiruvananthapuram.
(14.2) Name the easternmost and westernmost major seaports of India along
with their states.
Ans: The easternmost major seaport is in Kolkata, West Bengal while the
westernmost major seaport is in Kandla, Gujarat.
15. How does democracy stand much superior to any other form of government
in promoting dignity and freedom of the individual ? Explain with suitable
examples. 1½+1½=3 Marks
Ans: Citizens' dignity and freedom are supported by democracy. Every man wishes
to be respected by his peers in society. Many conflicts arise among humans because
some people believe they are not treated with respect. Democracy is built on a
passion for respect and liberty. Democracies all over the world have acknowledged
this, at least in theory. In various democracies, this has been accomplished to varying
degrees. Consider the issue of women's dignity. Historically, males dominated most
societies around the world. Women's long struggles have heightened awareness that
respect for and equal treatment of women are essential components of a democratic
society. Inequalities based on caste are the same. In India, democracy has bolstered
the claims of disadvantaged and discriminated castes for equality of status and
opportunity. Legitimate government is democratic government. It may be slow,
inefficient, and not always clean or responsive. A democratic government, on the
other hand, is the government of the people. That is why the concept of democracy
enjoys widespread acceptance around the world.
16. Analyse the functions of consumer protection councils. 3 Marks
Class X Social science www.vedantu.com 9
Ans: Consumer Protection Councils assist consumers in avoiding harassment or
deception from businesses or economic entities. Any businessman who engages in
unethical practises will be prosecuted by councils established at the district, state,
and national levels. Consumer complaints are heard by them, and with their help, the
councils work to ensure that the wrongdoers are held accountable and that the
consumers' grievances are addressed. Consumer councils teach consumers about
their rights and how to protect them. (These include, for example, the right to
information, the right to choose, the right to be heard, and the right to be protected
from goods that endanger life and property.) The councils ensure that customers are
compensated for the losses they suffered as a result of purchasing defective goods
or receiving poor service. For example, a bank was fined for poor service, and a
hospital was forced to compensate a patient for medical malpractice.
17. Explain any three protection measures for the buildings in flood-prone
areas. 3×1=3 Marks
Ans: Here are the following protection measures for the buildings in flood prone
areas:
● House damage during floods must be minimised. The first and most important
thing to do is to prevent flood waters from inundating the area.
● Houses should not be built along river banks or near the sea coast. Buildings
should be set back at least 250 metres from the river's edge. A proper drainage
system should be ensured by the government.
● Buildings should be constructed on a raised platform. In flood-prone areas,
buildings can be built on stilts or columns.
18. Write any six qualities of search and rescue volunteers. 6×½=3 Marks
Ans: The six qualities of search and rescue volunteers are as follows:
● Professionalism
● Honesty
● Ability to deal with emergencies
Class X Social science www.vedantu.com 10
● Demonstrate capacity
● Having good physical condition
19. When did the first clear-cut expression of nationalism come in France? How
did the French Revolution lead to the transfer of sovereignty from the
monarchy to a body of French citizens ? Explain any three measures taken by
the French revolutionaries in this regard. 4×1=4 Marks
Ans: The French Revolution gave birth to the first clear expression of nationalism.
It was critical to instil a sense of unity in every citizen in order for the Revolution to
succeed. Various measures and practises were used to achieve it:
● The former royal standard was replaced by a new French flag, the tricolour.
● The Estates General were renamed the National Assembly after being elected by
a body of active citizens.
● The concepts of la patrie (fatherland) and le citoyen (citizen) emphasised the
nation as a unified community with equal rights under the law.
● All in the name of the nation, new hymns were written, oaths were taken, and
martyrs were remembered.
● A centralised administrative system with uniform laws for all citizens within the
country's borders was established.
● Internal customs duties and fees were abolished, and a uniform weights and
measures system was implemented.
● Regional languages were discouraged, and French became the nation's official
language.
Or
Explain any four major challenges faced by the Democratic Republic of
Vietnam. 4×1=4 Marks
Ans: The following are the major challenges that the Democratic Republic of
Vietnam is facing:
Class X Social science www.vedantu.com 11
● The French attempted to gain power by enlisting the help of their puppet, the
Emperor of Boa Dhai. Faced with numerous challenges from the French, they
defeated them after eight years of struggle.
● They were pressured to split Vietnam in two – the North and the South – during
the Geneva Conference.
● As a result of the division, the people and the environment were subjected to a
war-like situation, which resulted in death and distraction.
● The Vietnamese suffered significant losses when the US decided to intervene by
sending in troops and weapons, causing even more destruction and havoc.
20. How were ideas and information written before the age of print in India?
How did the printing technique begin in India ? Explain. 2+2=4 Marks
Ans: India had a long and glorious tradition of handwritten manuscripts in Sanskrit,
Arabic, Persian, as well as other vernacular languages. Manuscripts were
handwritten or copied on palm leaves. Pages were occasionally lavishly illustrated.
To ensure preservation, they would be pressed between wooden covers or sewn
together.
In the mid-sixteenth century, Portuguese missionaries brought the first printing press
to Goa. Around 50 books in Konkani and Kannada languages had been printed by
1674. Even though the English East India Company began importing press in the
late 17th century, the English language press did not take off in India until much
later.
Or
How did the colonial administrators find vernacular novels to be a valuable
source of information on native life and customs ? Explain with examples.
4×1=4 Marks
Ans: The British government desired to maintain control over the colonised.
However, they discovered that this is only possible if they are familiar with all of the
country's customs and traditions. They looked to novels as valuable sources of
information in order to comprehend the same.
● Novels written in vernacular languages focused on the region's customs,
Class X Social science www.vedantu.com 12
traditions, and everyday practises. These novels depicted various forms of
religious worship, clothing styles, languages, and social structures.
● Indirabhai, for example, was a novel about the flaws in Indian society.
● Various novels were translated into English by the British administration and
missionaries. Phulmoni and Karuna, for example, were two Bengali novels that
were translated into English.
● These novels provided a deeper look into Indian society, which would aid the
British in administering such a diverse country as India.
21. Classify resources on the basis of the status of development into four groups.
Explain the main features of each group 2+2=4 Marks
Ans: Development resources can be classified in four different types based on the
status:
● Potential resources: Potential resources are resources found but not utilised in
the region. For example: Gujarat and Rajasthan have enormous potential for
solar energy development, but have not been fully exploited to date.
● The resources developed: they comprise surveyed resources and are
determined for use as regards quality and quantity. For example: coal, iron,
manganese and so on.
● Stock Resources: Environmental materials which have the potential to address
human needs, but which are not accessible to human beings are called stock.
Geothermic energy, for example.
● Reserves resources: resources that may be used by existing technical 'know-
how' but have not been used. For example:these can be used to fulfil future
needs. Water on dams, woods, etc.
22. Which is the most abundantly available fossil fuel in India ? What are its
three major forms? Write main features of each form. 1+1½+1½=4 Marks
Ans: Coal in India is a major fossil fuel and an abundance of that. It is formed over
Class X Social science www.vedantu.com 13
millions of years because of the compression of plant material. The material is bulky
and loses its use because it is reduced to ash.
Here are the three major forms:
● Peat: Decaying plants produce peat in swamps. It has low carbon content and
high humidity, low heating capacity.
● Lignite: It is a low-grade brown coal that is soft and has a high moisture content.
The main lignite reserves are located in Neyveli, Tamil Nadu, and are used to
generate electricity.
● Bituminous: Bituminous coal is a deep buried coal that is exposed to higher
temperatures. It is commercially the most popular coal. Metallurgical coal is high
quality bituminous coal, which has a particular value in the blast furnaces for
smelting iron.
23. Why is there a lack of internal democracy within the political parties in
India? Explain with examples. 4×1=4 Marks
Ans: India is a thriving democracy with a multi-party federal structure and regular
elections. Internal democracy is lacking in India's political parties. There are five
major reasons why this is the case:
● Power is concentrated in the hands of top leadership in many large Indian parties.
They are the party's public face and make all major decisions for the organisation.
The BJP and the INC (Indian National Congress) are prime examples of this.
Almost all of the major parties have a tendency to concentrate power in a few
hands.
● Parties do not hold regular internal elections in which all party members
participate; as a result, the party leadership never changes. Elections are the
foundation for democracy. They will lack democracy if there are no regular
elections within the party. Shiv-Sena never held elections for party leadership.
● Dynasty politics are those in which certain families tend to concentrate power in
their hands. The Indian National Congress is a prime example of this, but such
politics can be found in many political parties, including the SP and the BJP.
● Parties do not hold regular organisational meetings to discuss any necessary
Class X Social science www.vedantu.com 14
changes within the party.
● Only a few leaders have unanimous authority to make party decisions.
24. “Some people conclude that politics and social divisions should not be
allowed to mix.” Support this idea with two arguments. 2+2=4 Marks
Ans: Politics and social divisions should not be mixed, it is true. It has a negative
impact. We can see this when caste begins to influence politics:
● Each caste group tries to expand by incorporating new types of neighbouring
castes or sub-castes that it previously excluded. New caste groups emerge, such
as backward and forward. This is harmful to democracy and can result in
tensions, conflicts, and even violence. It draws attention away from more
pressing issues such as poverty, development, and corruption.
● In elections, political parties and candidates make appeals to caste sentiment in
order to gain ministerial support. Some political parties are known to favour
certain castes and are seen as representing them. This is problematic because it
gives the impression that elections are solely about castes. This is far from the
case.
25. Describe any four features of federal government. 4 Marks
Ans: The features of federal government are as follows:
● There are two or more levels of government (or tiers). Different levels of
government govern the same people, but each has its own jurisdiction in areas
such as legislation, taxation, and administration.
● The competence of the respective levels of government or levels of government
is specified in the Constitution.
● Unilaterally, a single level of government cannot change the fundamental
provisions of the constitution. The consent of both levels of government is needed
for such changes.
● Courts have the authority to interpret the constitution as well as the powers of
Class X Social science www.vedantu.com 15
various levels of government.
26. Study the diagram given below and answer the questions that follow:
1+1+2=4 Marks
(26.1) Which are the two major sources of credit for rural households in India?
Ans: The two principal sources of credit for rural households in India are money
lenders and cooperative companies.
(26.2) Which one of them is the most dominant source of credit for rural
households?
Ans: The most dominant credit sources for rural households are moneylenders.
(26.3) Why is it the most dominant source of credit? Give two reasons.
Ans: Money prices are the main credit sources for rural households because
● Rural households do not have to produce earnings certificates or job documents
while borrowing money from lenders.
● Neither must they show as collateral any property or assets (security or
guarantee).
Class X Social science www.vedantu.com 16
27. Distinguish between primary sector and secondary sector by stating four
points of distinction. 4×1=4 Marks
Ans: The difference between primary sector and secondary sector are as follows:
Primary Sector Secondary Sector
It covers all economic activities related It covers all processing material
to natural resource extraction and activities that have already been
production. extracted at the primary stage.
The secondary sector is not responsible The primary supply of raw materials
for such activities. depends on the activity.
Agriculture and the related sectors are This sector is also known as the industry.
also named here.
A sign of an underdeveloped economy is The transformation from primary to
increased dependence on the sector. secondary is a sign of a growing
economy.
28. Why is ‘tax’ on imports known as a trade barrier? Why did the Indian
Government impose barriers to foreign trade and foreign investments after
Independence? Give three reasons. 1+3=4 Marks
Ans: Governments use a trade barrier to limit the flow of goods and services into
and out of the economy. Imported tax is called a barrier to trade because it dissuades
external trade. The import tax on watches, for example, increases its economic
prices. This will result in fewer products being imported
The Indian administration imposed barriers after independence in 1947 for a number
of reasons:
● The industry sector in India was not developed immediately after independence.
These protection measures were necessary because the establishment of Indian
companies by foreign companies was discouraged. Barriers to the protection of
the domestic sector were therefore necessary.
● Commercial barriers were needed to ensure fair competition between foreign
goods and Indian commodities. Domestic products would not have survived on
Class X Social science www.vedantu.com 17
the market with them.
● India had to produce goods inside the borders to become self-confident, which
was also the aim of the five-year plans. The country nevertheless imported
important products from developed countries, such as petroleum and machinery.
For a strong economy in India, self-reliance was important.
For these reasons, it was important to impose barriers to trade and foreign
investment on the post-independent Indian government.
29. (i) On the given political outline map of India (on page 15), a place is shown
by number 1, which was a famous large-scale industrial region on the eastern
coast of the country in 1931. Identify and write the correct name of this place
on the line drawn on the map.
1 Mark
(ii) On the same map of India (on page 15), shade and name the State where the
Champaran movement of Indigo planters started. 1 Mark
Ans:
Class X Social science www.vedantu.com 18
30. On the given political outline map of India (on page 16), are shown four
geographical features A, B, C and D. Identify these features with the help of the
map key and write their correct names on the line marked against each in the
map. 4×1=4 Marks
Ans:
Or
Class X Social science www.vedantu.com 19
On the given political outline map of India (on page 17), locate and label the
following features : 4×1=4 Marks
(i) Tehri Dam
(ii) Korba Thermal Power Plant
(iii) Coimbatore - Cotton Textile Industry
(iv) Pune - Software Technological Park
Ans:
Class X Social science www.vedantu.com 20
Note: The following question is for the Blind Candidates only, in lieu of Q. No.29
and 30
(i) Name the important industrial centre of south India in 1931.
Ans: Madras.
(ii) Name the state where Indigo planters movement was started.
Ans: Champaran (Bihar).
Class X Social science www.vedantu.com 21
(iii) In which state is Tehri Dam located?
Ans: Uttarakhand
(iv) Name the state where Korba thermal power plant is located.
Ans: Chattisgarh
(v) Name the state where Coimbatore is located.
Ans: Tamil Nadu
(vi) In which state is Pune located ?
Ans: Maharashtra
Class X Social science www.vedantu.com 22
CBSE Class 10
Social Science
Previous Year Question Paper 2009
Series: HRL Code no. 32/1
● Please check that this question paper contains 10 printed pages + 2 Maps.
● Code number given on the right hand side of the question paper should be
written on the title page of the answer-book by the candidate.
● Please check that this question paper contains 29 questions.
● Please write down the Serial Number of the question before attempting it.
● 15 minute time has been allotted to read this question paper. The question paper
will be distributed at 10.15 a.m. From 10.15 a.m. to 10.30 a.m, the students will
read the question paper only and will not write any answer on the answer-book
during this period
SOCIAL SCIENCE
Time Allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 80
General Instructions:
1. The question paper has 29 questions in all. All questions are compulsory.
2. Marks are indicated against each question.
3. Questions from serial number 1 to 10 are 1-mark questions. Answers of these
questions may be from one word to one sentence.
4. Questions from serial number 11 to 18 are 3-marks questions. Answers of
these questions should not exceed 80 words each.
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 1
5. Questions from serial number 19 to 28 are 4-marks questions. Answers of
these questions should not exceed 100 words each.
6. Question number 29 is a map work question. Attach the map inside your
answer book.
1. Name the oldest Japanese book printed in 868 A.D. 1 Mark
Ans: Diamond sutra
Or
Name the two countries of Western Europe where the novel first took firm root
? ½+½= 1 Mark
Ans: England and France.
2. What was the main purpose of launching multipurpose projects in India
after Independence? 1 Mark
Ans: The main aim was to integrate agricultural and village economic development
with rapid industrialisation and urban economy growth.
3. Which is the main source of energy in India ? 1 Mark
Ans: Coal
4. Mention the two types of good quality iron ore found in India. ½+½= 1 Mark
Ans: Magnetite and haematite.
5. What is the basis of gender division in the society? 1 Mark
Ans: Social expectations and stereotypes serve as the foundation for gender
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 2
division in society.
6. Name any two well-known social reformers who worked for casteless society.
½+½= 1 Mark
Ans: Mahrishi Dayanand Saraswati and JyotiBa Phule are the two well known
social reformers who worked for casteless society.
7. Mention the source of inspiration of Bharatiya Janata Party. 1 Mark
Ans: The BJP is inspired by India's ancient culture and values.
8. Who is a producer ? 1 Mark
Ans: A producer is someone who creates and/or sells goods and services in order
to make money.
9. What is the main function of Consumer Protection Councils? 1 Mark
Ans: Consumer protection councils' main function is to advise consumers on how
to file cases in consumer courts.
10. Mention any two ways in which consumers are exploited in the market.
½+½= 1 Mark
Ans: The two ways in which consumers are exploited in the market are:
● Use of false weights and measures.
● Not giving proper information about the product.
11. Describe briefly any three economic effects of Non-Cooperation Movement.
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 3
3×1=3 Marks
Ans: The three economic effects of non-cooperation movement are:
● Foreign goods were boycotted, alcohol stores were picketed, and foreign
clothing was set ablaze in massive bonfires.
● Between 1921 and 1922, the value of imported cloth was cut in half, falling
from 102k to 57k.
● Merchants and traders in many places refused to trade in foreign goods or
finance foreign trade.
● When people started wearing Indian clothes instead of foreign ones, the
production of Indian hand mills increased.
As a result, production at Indian textile mills and handlooms increased significantly.
12. Study the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow:
Satyagraha is not physical force. A satyagrahi does not inflict pain on the
adversary; he does not seek his destruction ... In the use of satyagraha, there is
no ill-will whatever.
Satyagraha is pure soul-force. Truth is the very substance of the soul. That is
why this force is called satyagraha. The soul is informed with -knowledge. In it
burns the flame of love... Non-violence is the supreme dharma …
It is certain that India cannot rival Britain or Europe in force of arms. The
British worship the war-god and they can all of them become, as they are
becoming. bearers of arms. The hundreds of millions in India can never carry
arms. They have made the religion of non-violence their own …
1+2 = 3 Marks
(12.1) What is the main difference between physical force and soul force?
Ans: Physical force is based on aggression and violence, and it inflicts pain on the
adversary while seeking to destroy it.
Truth and nonviolence are the foundations of soul force. 'Burns the flame of love'
in it. It causes no pain to the opponent.
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 4
(12.2) Why can’t Indians carry arms? Explain.
Ans: Indians would never use weapons because they practised nonviolence as a
religion. To them, nonviolence was a powerful moral force that outweighed the
European power's armed might.
Note: Below are given three Groups A, B and C for questions number 13 and 14.
Select any one group for answering these two questions.
GROUP - A
13. Describe briefly the effects of Rinderpest in Africa in the 1890s.
3×1=3 Marks
Ans: The cattle plague in Africa in the 1890s was known as rinderpest. This disease
demonstrates how even a farm animal disease transformed the lives and fortunes of
thousands of people during the conquest era. The diseased cattle were brought into
Africa from British Asia to feed Italian troops. The effects of rinderpest are as
follows:
● Rinderpest wiped out 90% of cattle in Africa.
● The abolition of cattle ruined African livelihoods.
● Planters, mine owners, and the colonial government successfully monopolised
scarce cattle resources in order to consolidate their power and force Africans
into the labour market.
● Control over scarce cattle resources enabled European colonists to conquer
and subjugate Africa.
14. Explain the impact of the First World War on Indian industries.
3×1=3 Marks
Ans: The Indian industries grew as a result of the First World War. It was due to the
following factors:
● During the First World War, British industries were focused on meeting the
army's war needs. This resulted in a decrease in Manchester imports. This
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 5
created a void in Indian markets, which Indian industries filled.
● During the war, Indian industries were also required to supply the army with
goods. They primarily supplied jute bags, fabric for army uniforms, leather
boots, and saddles.
● To meet the demands of the war, many new industries were established in
India. A large number of people were employed. Manchester was never able
to reclaim its market position after the war.
GROUP - B
13. Explain any three problems faced by the Indian cotton weavers by the turn
of the nineteenth century. 3×1=3 Marks
Ans: The three problems faced by Indian cotton Weavers in the 19th century are:
● The prices of raw cotton have risen: The rising cost of raw materials has an
impact on manufacturing costs, resulting in high final product prices.
● Competition from imported machines and lower-cost foreign cotton
products: Machines posed the most difficulties for cotton weavers, as they
replaced expensive handmade products with less expensive products.
● Reduced export rate: Due to the increased cost of handmade cotton products,
people replaced them with cheaper machine-made products, resulting in a
decrease in exports.
14. Explain the social changes which led to the need for the underground
railways in London. 3×1=3 Marks
Ans: The development of suburbs as part of the effort to decongest London resulted
in the city being extended beyond the range where people could walk to work.
Despite the fact that these suburbs had been built, people could not be persuaded to
leave the city and live far from their places of employment in the absence of some
form of public transportation. The Underground Railway was built to address this
housing issue.
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 6
GROUP - C
13. How was the food problem solved in Britain after the scrapping of the ‘Corn
Laws’ ? Explain. 3×1=3 Marks
Ans: The food problem solved in Britain after scrapping of the ‘Corn Laws’ due to
following reasons:
● Food imports: Various restrictions on food imports were imposed by corn
laws, but after the Corn Laws were repealed, food could be imported into
Britain at a lower cost than it could be produced in the country. Traders began
importing low-cost food from Eastern Europe, Russia, the United States, and
Australia.
● Global agricultural economy: Foodgrain imports on a large scale shaped
the global agricultural economy. Food came from thousands of miles away,
not from a nearby village or town. Large farms were established. Railways
and roads connected these farms.
● Import from canal colonies: The British colonial government in India and
other colonies constructed a network of irrigation canals to convert semi-
desert wastelands into fertile agricultural lands capable of producing wheat
and cotton for export to Britain.
14. What was the tradition of ‘London Season’ ? Explain different forms of
entertainment that came up in nineteenth century England to provide leisure
activities for the people. 3×1=3 Marks
Ans: Every year, wealthy Britishers would go to London for the 'London Season'.
Several cultural events, including opera, theatre, and classical musical performances,
were planned for an elite group of 300-400 families. Many new forms of large-scale
entertainment for the general public emerged. Libraries, art galleries, and museums
were built to entertain the crowds that flocked to them. Music halls were popular
among the lower classes, and by the twentieth century, cinema had evolved into the
great mass entertainer for a diverse audience. British factory workers were
encouraged to spend their vacations by the sea. In 1883, over a million British people
visited the seaside; by 1939, the figure had risen to 7 million.
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 7
15. “The print culture created the conditions within which the French
Revolution occurred.” Support the statement giving three arguments.
3×1=3 Marks
Ans: The following are the conditions that the print culture created for the French
revolution of the earth:
● The ideas of the enlightened thinkers were popularised through print. They
went after the church's sacred authority as well as the state's despotic power.
● New concepts for social revolution arose. The general public had become
aware of reason's power and had begun to question ideas and beliefs.
● By the 1780s, there was a flood of literature mocking the monarchy and
questioning their morality. Cartoons and caricatures frequently depicted the
monarchy as completely content while the common people suffered enormous
hardships.
Or
“Colonial administrators found vernacular novels a valuable source of
information on native life and customs.” Support the statement with suitable
examples. 3×1=3 Marks
Ans: The British government desired to maintain control over the colonised.
However, they discovered that this is only possible if they are familiar with all of the
country's customs and traditions. They looked to novels as valuable sources of
information in order to comprehend the same.
● Novels written in vernacular languages focused on the region's customs,
traditions, and everyday practises. These novels depicted various forms of
religious worship, clothing styles, languages, and social structures.
● Indirabhai, for example, was a novel about the flaws in Indian society.
● Various novels were translated into English by the British administration
and missionaries. Phulmoni and Karuna, for example, were two Bengali
novels that were translated into English.
These novels provided a deeper look into Indian society, which would aid the British
in administering such a diverse country as India.
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 8
16. How do industries pollute air and water ? Explain with examples.
1½+1½=3 Marks
Ans: Without a doubt, rapid industrial growth has resulted in significant economic
growth, but it has also resulted in an increase in pollution of land, water, air, and
noise, eventually leading to environmental degradation. The most prominent of these
is pollution of the air and water:
● Air pollution: It is very dangerous when there is a high concentration of
undesirable gases in the air, such as sulphur dioxide and carbon monoxide.
Chemical and paper factories, brick kilns, refineries, and smelting plants, as
well as the burning of fossil fuels in large and small factories that disregard
pollution standards, all emit smoke. Toxic gas leaks can be extremely
dangerous and have long-term consequences. Air pollution has a negative
impact on human health, animals, plants, structures, and the environment as a
whole.
● Water pollution: Organic and inorganic industrial wastes and effluents are
discharged into rivers, causing pollution. They pollute the river's water. Paper,
pulp, chemical, textile, and dyeing industries, petroleum refineries, tanneries,
and electroplating industries all release dyes, detergents, acids, salts, and
heavy metals like lead and mercury into water bodies, as well as pesticides,
fertilisers, synthetic chemicals with carbon, plastics, and rubber. Rainwater
transports pollutants deep underground, contaminating groundwater as well.
17. What are public interest groups ? How do they look after the public interests
? Explain. 1+2 = 3 Marks
Ans: Public Interest groups work for the welfare of the entire society with the view
to promote the collective rather than selective good.
Functioning of public interest group:
● These organisations fight for groups other than their members. For example:
a group fighting against bonded labour fights not for itself, but for those who
are subjected to it.
● The members of this organisation usually undertake activities that benefit
them as well as other citizens. For example: BAMCEF (Backward and
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 9
Minority Communities Employees Federation) fights against caste
discrimination on behalf of its members and society as a whole.
18. Compare India and Sri Lanka on the basis of any three indicators of Human
Development Index for 2004. 3×1=3 Marks
Ans: The Human Development Index (HDI) is a measure of how far people have
progressed in their lives. It represents the growth of a country's or state's human
population. The countries of India and Sri Lanka are neighbours.
● Sri Lanka's per capita income is higher than India's
● Life expectancy at birth, or the expected lifespan of a person at birth, is higher
in Sri Lanka than in India.
● Sri Lanka's literacy rate, or the number of students enrolled in all levels of
schools, is higher than India's.
As a result, Sri Lanka outperforms India in terms of HDI.
19. Explain any four measures introduced by French Revolutionaries to create
a sense of collective identity among the people of France. 4×1=4 Marks
Ans: The following were the steps taken by French Revolutionaries to instil a sense
of collective identity among the French people:
● The concepts of La-Patrie and Le-Citoyen emphasised the idea of a unified
community with equal legal rights.
● To replace the former royal standard, France adopted the tricolour as its new
national flag in.
● The Estate General was renamed the National Assembly after being elected
by an active citizen's body.
● There were new hymns sung in the name of the nation, oaths were taken, and
martyrs were commemorate.
● A centralised administrative system was established, with uniform laws
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 10
enacted for all citizens within its jurisdiction.
● It was abolished all internal duties and fees as well as the weights and
measures system.
● Regional dialects were discouraged, and French was adopted as the national
language.
Or
Explain any four challenges faced by the ‘New Republic of Vietnam ’after 1945.
4×1=4 Marks
Ans: Following 1945, the new Vietnamese Republic faced numerous challenges.
● The French attempted to retake control by using Emperor Bao Dai as a pawn.
The Vietminh were forced to retreat to the hills in the face of a French
offensive. The French were defeated at Dien Bien Phu in 1954, after eight
years of fighting.
● Following the French defeat, the Vietnamese were forced to accept the
country's division. North and South were divided. Ho Chi Minh and the
communists took control of the North, while Bao Dai's regime ruled over the
South.
● This division turned Vietnam into a battlefield, causing death and destruction
to both its people and the environment. The Bao Dai government was deposed
by a coup led by Ngo Dinh Dien. Buddhism had been outlawed by Bao Dai.
The opposition banded together under the banner of the National Liberation
Front (NLF).
● With the assistance of the Ho Chi Minh government in the north, the NLF
fought for the country's unification and a long battle with the United States.
20. Explain any four human activities which are mainly responsible for land
degradation in India 4×1=4 Marks
Ans: The following are the four human activities that are responsible for land
degradation in India.
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 11
● Mining: Several states, including Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh
and Odisha, have abandoned mining sites after excavation work is completed.
● Over irrigation: In the states of Punjab, Haryana, and western Uttar Pradesh,
over irrigation has resulted in water logging and an increase in soil salinity.
● Overgrazing: Overgrazing is a major cause of land degradation in states
such as Gujarat, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, and Maharashtra.
● Industries: Mineral processing industries, such as the grinding of limestone
for the cement industry and calcite and soapstone for the ceramic industry,
produce a large amount of dust, which slows the process by which water
permeates the soil.
● Industrial Waste: Industrial effluents are also a significant source of land
degradation.
21. Look at the given picture carefully and answer the questions that follow :
4×1=4 Marks
(21.1) Name the crop shown in the picture.
Ans: The crop depicted in the image is paddy or rice, which is the main staple food
grain for the majority of Indians.
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 12
(21.2) State the climatic conditions required for cultivation of this crop.
Ans: Rice is a Kharif crop that requires a hot, humid climate to grow. Rice
cultivation thrives in climates with temperatures above 25°C and high humidity, as
well as annual rainfall of more than 100 cm. During the first half of the growing
season, from June to July, rice requires plenty of rain and flooded fields. It requires
a lot of sunlight.
(21.3) Name the two major regions of growing this crop.
Ans: Rice is produced in two major regions:
● The Ganga-Brahmaputra Plains, which run through West Bengal, Assam,
Bihar, and eastern Uttar Pradesh in north and northeastern India.
● Coastal and deltaic areas with alluvial soil, such as Orissa and parts of Andhra
Pradesh and Tamil Nadu
Note: The following question is for the Blind Candidates only, in lieu of Q. No.21
Explain briefly any four features of intensive subsistence farming in India.
4×1=4 Marks
Ans: The following are the four characteristics of intensive subsistence farming in
India:
● This type of farming is used in areas where there is a lot of population pressure
on the land.
● Irrigation and biochemical fertilisers are used to increase yield in this type of
labor-intensive farming..
● Uttar Pradesh, Haryana, and Bihar are among the states that practise this type
of farming.
● Despite the fact that the ‘right of inheritance' has made landholding size
uneconomical due to the division of land among successive generations,
farmers continue to extract maximum output from the limited land when there
are no alternatives to earning a living.
22. How do physical and economic factors influence the distribution pattern of
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 13
the Indian Railway network ? Explain with examples. 2+2=4 Marks
Ans: Physical and economic factors have had a significant impact on the
distribution pattern of India's railway network.
The railways development in the Northern Plains has been aided by the region's
level lands, which have a high population density, abundant agricultural resources,
and increased industrial activity. As a result, the region has India's densest railway
network.
The rugged terrain of the mountain regions or Himalayan in the north as well as
north-eastern states, combined with sparse population and a lack of economic
opportunities, makes railway construction difficult, and these regions lack a railway
network.
In Rajasthan, there are sparsely populated sandy deserts; in Gujarat's Sahyadri
swamps, there are hilly contiguous tracts; in Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Orissa
and Jharkhand, there are forested tracks; and in Bihar and Assam, there are
floodplains. Because of the region's economic importance, the Konkan Railways
were built along the west coast in recent years, despite problems such as track
sinking, landslides, and the need for tunnel construction.
23. Describe any three demands of the Sri Lankan Tamils. How did they
struggle for their demands? 3+1=4 Marks
Ans: 'Sri Lankan Tamils' began their struggle by forming political parties in order
to gain
● recognition of Tamil as an official language.
● to promote regional autonomy.
● equality of opportunity for obtaining an education and a job.
To protest their demand, they began a political struggle in the form of a conflict with
the government.
● By the 1980s, several political organisations had emerged calling for an
independent Tamil Eelam (State) in northern and eastern Sri Lanka.
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 14
● Mistrust between the two communities erupted into widespread conflict,
which quickly escalated into a civil war.
● As a result, thousands of people from affluent communities have been killed,
causing a terrible setback to the country's social, cultural, and economic life.
24. Describe any four aspects of life in which women are discriminated in Indian
society. 4×1=4 Marks
Ans: The following are some of the various aspects of our lives in which women in
India are discriminated against or disadvantaged:
● Education: In our country, education is one of the most important factors in
women's discrimination. In India, women continue to outnumber men in terms
of literacy. If we check the facts , only 54% of the women are literate against
76% literacy among men.
● Proportion of women in paid jobs: Women still make up a small percentage
of those in high-paying jobs. Even though an Indian woman works one hour
more per day than an average man, women's work is still undervalued, and
they are forced to work for low-wage jobs as a result.
● Preference for a male child: In India, many people's attitudes have not
changed. They continue to prefer sons over daughters and seek out ways to
abort female children. Abortion has resulted in a decrease in the child sex
ratio.
● Crime against women: Women are not safe in our country because of crime
against them. The rate of crime against women is extremely high. Women are
exploited and harassed both at work and in their homes.
25. Explain how democracies lead to peaceful and harmonious life among
citizens. 4×1=4 Marks
Ans: Yes, democracies do result in a more peaceful and harmonious life for citizens.
It can be explained as follows:
● Only the Democratic government is a type of government that accommodates
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 15
social differences and conflicts by teaching everyone how to respect every
individual's opinion because differences can never be completely suppressed.
● Democracy ensures that every group, including minorities, and their interests,
are represented in decision-making.
● It reduces the likelihood of violence as a result of social differences and
conflicts between different types of people.
● It guarantees every citizen or individual the right to equality, equality before
the law, equal employment opportunities, and the prohibition of
discrimination based on religion, race, caste, gender, or place of birth.
● It also protects the citizen's other fundamental rights.
26. What is unorganised sector? Describe the working procedure of this sector.
1+3=4 Marks
Ans: An unorganised sector is one that has not been registered with the government.
It is distinguished by small and dispersed units. Because they are not subject to
government control, there are no rules and regulations governing employment and
working conditions. This sector includes a large number of people who work on their
own doing small jobs such as selling items on the street or performing repairs.
The following is the procedure for working in unorganised sectors:
● The unorganised sector is distinguished by small and dispersed units that
operate largely outside of government control.
● There are rules and regulations in place, but they are not being followed.
● Jobs in this area are often low-paying and irregular.
● Workers in the unorganised sector do not have a good or stable working
environment. There is no provision for overtime, paid leave, holidays, or sick
leave, among other things.
● Employment is not guaranteed. People can be asked to leave for no apparent
reason. Some employees may be asked to leave when there is less work, such
as during certain seasons.
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 16
● A lot is also dependent on the employer's whims.
● Large numbers of individuals work on their own, doing small jobs such as
selling items on the street or performing repairs.
27. What are Self-Help Groups? Describe, in brief, their functioning.
1+3=4 Marks
Ans: Certain Self-Help Groups include members who pool their savings and form a
fund that is used to finance others and to make advances. There are between 15 and
20 members in a typical self-help team. The members pool their savings and after a
while, they are used to giving loans to the needy at a very nominal interest rate. This
contributes to reducing the workings of the informal credit sectors.
When a group is regular in its savings after one year, it is eligible to use the bank's
loan. The loan shall be sanctioned on behalf of the group and shall create
opportunities for the members to work themselves. Loans for the release of
mortgaging lands and working capital needs such as seed purchasing, fertiliser, raw
materials, sewing machinery, handlooms, bovine goods and so on are provided. The
Group members take important decisions on savings and loan activities. The group
decides the aim, amount, interest charged, schedule for reimbursement etc. Failure
to repay is taken to heart. Because of this, the banking organisation in SHG is
particularly willing to lend loans to the poor women.
For the following reasons, SHGs become popular:
● They help borrowers to overcome the problem of the absence of collateral.
● They can obtain loans at a reasonable rate for a variety of purposes in time.
● They are the structural blocks of rural poor organisations.
● Helps women become autonomous.
● A platform for discussing and acting on various social issues such as health,
nutrition, domestic violence and other issues is provided through regular
group meetings.
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 17
28. What are multinational companies? How do they control production in
other countries ? Explain with examples. 1+3=4 Marks
Ans: A MNC is an enterprise in more than one country that owns or controls
production. The following are different ways for MNCs in other countries to set up
or control production:
● MNCs establish manufacturing offices and factories in regions where low-
cost labour and other resources are available.
● MNC sells its finished products worldwide in various countries and products
and services are also made worldwide in different countries. The
manufacturing process is split into small parts and spread around the world.
● MNCs establish production in conjunction with local companies.
● The most common path for MNC investments is the purchase and expansion
of these local companies. For example, Cargill Foods has bought smaller
Indian firms, such as Parakh Foods, from a major American MNC.
● Large MNCs place orders for small-scale producers in developed countries.
29. Six features with serial numbers (1) to (6) are marked in the given political
outline map of India (on page 11). Identify these features with the help of the
following information and write their correct names on the lines marked in the
map: 6×1=6 Marks
1) A region of large scale industries in 1931
2) A centre of overseas trade during seventeenth century
3) A Bauxite Mine
4) A Mica Mine
5) A Woollen Textile Centre
6) Terminal station of East-West Corridor
Ans:
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 18
Or
Locate and label the following items with appropriate symbols on the given
political outline map of India (on page 12) : 6×1=6 Marks
1) Chauri-Chaura
2) Bardoli
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 19
3) Koyna — Dam
4) Rawat Bhata — Nuclear Power Plant
5) Salem — Iron and Steel Plant |
6) Bhubaneswar — Software Technology Park
Ans:
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 20
Note: The following question is for the Blind Candidates only, in lieu of Q. No.29
(29.1) Name any one large scale industrial region developed in 1931 on the
western coast of India.
Ans: Bombay
(29.2) Name any one important overseas trade centre of seventeenth century
located on the eastern coast of India.
Ans: Madras
(29.3) Name the state where Rawat Bhata Nuclear Plant is located.
Ans: Rajasthan
(29.4) In which state is Koyna Dam located ?
Ans: Maharashtra
(29.5) Name the Software Technology Park of Orissa.
Ans: Bhubaneshwar
(29.6) Which is the easternmost city of East-West Corridor ? 6×1=6 Marks
Ans: Silcher
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 21
CBSE Class 10
Social Science
Previous Year Question Paper 2010
Series- LRH/1 Code no. 32/1/1
● Please check that this question paper contains 12 printed pages + 2 Maps.
● Code number given on the right hand side of the question paper should be
written on the title page of the answer-book by the candidate.
● Please check that this question paper contains 29 questions.
● Please write down the serial number of the question before attempting
it.
● 15 minutes of time has been allotted to read this question paper. The
question paper will be distributed at 10.15 a.m. From 10.15 a.m. to 10.30
a.m. the student will read the question paper only and will not write any
answer on the answer script during this period.
SOCIAL SCIENCE
Time Allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 80
General Instructions:
1. There are 29 questions in all. All questions are compulsory.
2. Marks for each question are indicated against the question.
3. Questions from serial number 1 to 10 are 1 mark questions. Answers of these
questions may be from one word to one sentence each.
4. Questions from serial number 11 to 18 are 3 marks questions. Answer of
these questions may be given in 60-80 words each.
5. Questions from serial numbers 19 to 28 are 4 marks questions. Answer of
these questions may be given in 80-100 words each.
6. Question No. 29 is on map work. Attach the map inside your answer book.
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 1
1. Mention the proclamation of the French Revolution. 1 Mark
Ans: The Proclamation of the French Revolution: The French nation to liberate
the peoples of Europe from tyranny, and to aid other European peoples in
becoming nations. The revolution stated that the people would be the nation's
foundation and define its future.
Or
When did Vietnam gain formal independence?
Ans: Vietnam gained formal independence in 1945.
2. Who invented the first printing press? 1 Mark
Ans: The first printing press was invented by Johann Gutenberg in Strasbourg
in 1439.
Or
What was the notable event of 1836, regarding novels?
Ans: A noteworthy event occurred in 1836 when Charles Dickens' Pickwick
Papers were serialised in a magazine.
3. Classify resources into two groups on the basis of their origin. 1 Mark
Ans: On the basis of origin, resources are classified into-
1. Biotic Resources
2. Abiotic Resources
4. Mention the sowing period of Kharif crops. 1 Mark
Ans: Sowing Period of Kharif crops: Onset of Monsoon i.e. June and July.
5. What is the traditional system of rainwater harvesting used in Rajasthan
? 1 Mark
Ans: Traditional system of rainwater harvesting are:-
1. Underground tanks or Tankas
2. Rooftop rainwater harvesting
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 2
6. Name the industry which uses limestone as its main raw material. 1 Mark
Ans: The industry that employs limestone as its primary raw material is the
cement industry.
7. Name any two subjects which are included in the Union List. 1 Mark
Ans: Subjects which are included in the Union List-
1. Defence of the country
2. Foreign affairs
3. Banking
4. Communication
5. Currency
8. Define the term ‘Federalism.’ 1 Mark
Ans: Federalism is a governance system in which power is shared between a
central authority and numerous component entities of the country. Federalism
refers to two or more tiers of government.
9. What is the criteria used by World Development Report 2006 for
classifying countries? 1 Mark
Ans: The World Development Report 2006 uses per capita income per year to
classify nations.
10. In which two different forms do we participate in the market? 1 Mark
Ans: We participate in the market as :
1. Consumers
2. Producers
11. Explain any three features of Napoleonic Code. 3 Marks
Ans: Napoleon Bonaparte imposed the civil code, often known as the
Napoleonic code, across various regions of Europe in 1804 in order to maintain
authority. The feudal system was eliminated under this legislation.
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 3
1. Prior to the establishment of the law, equality existed.
2. The right to property was granted.
3. The system of serfdom and manorial dues was abolished.
4. All birth-based advantages were abolished.
Or
Why was conflict started in Vietnam against French colonizers in all areas
of life? Explain. 3 Marks
Ans: Conflict broke out in Vietnam against French invaders in all aspects of life
because: the French, in trying to civilise Vietnamese, introduced modern
education and attempted to destroy the old school system in Vietnam. They
pursued a policy of discrimination against Vietnamese students, failing them on
purpose. The educational system extolled French rule.
The religious beliefs of Vietnam were a combination of Buddhism and
Confucianism. The French brought Christianity and attempted to convert the
locals.
The French textbooks extolled French authority while mocking Vietnamese
culture. The French attempted to establish a modern metropolis in Hanoi using
contemporary architectural and engineering abilities, but the native
neighbourhood was not equipped with modern utilities.
The French made no efforts to modernise Vietnam's economy. They want
Vietnam to remain an agrarian economy in perpetuity.
12. Analyse the role of merchants and the industrialists in the Civil
Disobedience Movement. 3 Marks
Ans: Role of merchants and the industrialists in the Civil Disobedience
Movement
1. Merchants responded angrily to colonial laws that limited their ability to
do business.
2. They want safeguards against foreign-goods imports.
3. They desired a rupee-to-sterling foreign exchange ratio that discouraged
imports.
4. In 1920, industrialists established the Indian Industrial and Commercial
Congress.
5. In 1927, they established the Federation of the Indian Chambers of
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 4
Commerce and Industries (FICCI).
6. They would not sell or purchase foreign items.
7. They provided financial support and backed the Civil Disobedience
Movement.
13. Study the given passage and answer the questions that follows: 3 Marks
‘In earlier times, foreign travellers in India marvelled at the courage,
truthfulness and modesty of the people of the Arya Vamsa, now they
remark mainly on the absence of those qualities. In those days Hindus
would set out on conquest and hoist their flags in Tatar, China and other
countries; now a few soldiers from a tiny island far away are lording it over
the land of India.’
Tarni Charan Chattopadhyay, Bharathasher Itihas. (The History of
Bharatvarsh) Vol. 1.1858
(13.1) Mention the qualities of ‘Arya Vamsa’ that were admired by the
foreign travellers in earlier times.
Ans: The qualities of ‘Arya Vamsa’-
1. Courage
2. Truthfulness
3. Modesty of the people.
(13.2) How did folklore help in the spread of nationalism amongst the
Indians ? Explain.
Ans: Folklore contributed to the growth of nationalism among Indians.
1. Indian folklore provided an accurate depiction of indigenous culture that
had been distorted and harmed by external factors.
2. It was critical to preserve this folk culture in order to reclaim one's
national identity and reestablish pride in one's history.
14. How did print culture develop in Europe? Explain. 3 Marks
Ans: Europe was the birthplace of print culture.
1. When Chinese paper arrived in Europe, it enabled the manufacture of
manuscripts, which were painstakingly penned by scribes.
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 5
2. Marco Polo introduced the method of woodblock printing to the Italians,
who began manufacturing books using woodblocks, and the technology
quickly spread to the rest of Europe.
3. Book fairs were conducted in various locations.
4. To accommodate the increased demand, production of handwritten
manuscripts was reorganised in novel methods.
5. Woodblock printing gained popularity throughout time and was
frequently employed in Europe to print fabrics, playing cards, and
religious images, among other things.
6. Johann Gutenberg invented the first known printing press.
Or
Explain any three features of the early Bengali novels. 3 Marks
Ans: Characteristics of early Bengali novels
1. The early Bengali literature was split into two realms.
2. These novels were set in the past, with historical characters, events, and
love tales.
3. Another sub genre of books showed the inner workings of household life
in modern settings.
4. Domestic novels typically addressed societal issues.
5. Some novels were about men and women's love relationships.
15. How do the social divisions affect politics? Explain giving example of
Northern Ireland. 3 Marks
Ans: Politics is influenced by socioeconomic divides.
1. Democracy necessitates rivalry between diverse political parties.
2. Their rivalry tends to split every community.
3. It can result in conflict, bloodshed, or even the dissolution of a country.
As an example, if we consider Northern Ireland, its population is divided into
two major Christian sects: 53% are protestants and 44% are Roman Catholics.
Nationalist parties representing Catholics urged that Northern Ireland be
reunited with the Republic of Ireland.
Unionists who wished to stay in the UK represented the Protestants.
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 6
16. Explain any three factors which are responsible for breaking down the
old notions of caste hierarchy. 3 Marks
Ans: Factors important for shattering the traditional concept of caste hierarchy
1. Economic advancement.
2. Urbanization on a large scale
3. Literacy and education growth
4. Mobility in the workplace
5. The landlords' status in the villages is deteriorating.
6. The Constitution forbids any kind of caste discrimination or
untouchability.
17. Study the data given below in the table and answer the questions that
follow: 3 Marks
Some Comparative Data on Punjab, Kerala and Bihar
Net Attendance
Infant Mortality
Literacy Rate Ratio for Class
State Rate per 1,000
(%) (2001) I-V
(2003)
(1995-96)
Punjab 49 70 81
Kerala 11 91 91
Bihar 60 47 41
(17.1) Which state has the highest infant mortality rate?
Ans: Bihar
(17.2) Why has this state the highest infant mortality rate? Give two
reasons.
Ans: Inadequate provision for :
1. Basic health
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 7
2. Educational facilities
3. PDS
Note: The following question is for blind candidate only in lieu of Q. No. 17
Define the following terms.
1.Infant morality rate
Ans: The infant mortality rate is calculated as the number of newborn deaths
per 1,000 live births. In addition to providing essential information on mother
and newborn health, the infant mortality rate is a significant indicator of a
society's overall health.
2.Literacy rate
Ans: The population literacy rate is defined as the proportion of literates to the
total population aged 7 and up. Or. Literacy rate is the number of people aged 7
and above who can read, write, and understand any language.
3.Net attendance ratio
Ans: The total number of children 6-10 years of age, which attend school is a
proportion of the total of children 6-10 years of age.
18. Why are rules and regulations required for the protection of
consumers' interest in the marketplace? Explain two reasons. 3 Marks
Ans: Individual customers are frequently in a vulnerable situation, thus rules
and laws are necessary.
1. The seller attempts to transfer all responsibility on the customer.
2. Unfair business practises
3. Goods that are tainted or faulty are sold.
4. False information is disseminated and spread through the media.
19. Explain the role of technology in flourishing the trade during the late
nineteenth century. 4 Marks
Ans: The role of technology in the late nineteenth century
1. The railways, steamships, and telegraph, among other technologies, were
critical to the transformation of the nineteenth-century globe.
2. Technological progress was frequently the consequence of major social,
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 8
political, and economic considerations.
3. Transport advancements such as quicker trains, lighter waggons, and
larger ships aided in the movement of food at a lower cost.
4. New technology, such as refrigerated ships, made it possible to transport
perishable items across vast distances.
Or
Why had Indian cotton export market collapsed and the local market
shrank in the beginning of the nineteenth century? Explain. 4 Marks
Ans: The cotton export market in India has collapsed.
1. Arrival of low-cost, long-lasting products from Manchester.
2. The East India Company was encouraged by industrialists to offer British
goods in Indian marketplaces.
3. Import taxes on Indian cotton textiles have been levied in the United
Kingdom.
4. The local market declined because machine-made cotton cloth was so
inexpensive that Indian weavers couldn't compete.
5. By 1860, Britishers were unable to get a significant quantity of high-
quality raw cotton due to the outbreak of the American Civil War, which
cut off cotton supplies from the United States. The British then looked to
India.
6. Raw cotton shipments from India soared as a result of this, and raw cotton
prices skyrocketed.
7. Weavers in India were compelled to pay excessive rates for raw cotton.
Or
Explain with examples how has industrialization changed the form of
urbanization in England, in the modem period. 4 Marks
Ans: The form of urbanisation in England altered as a result of industrialisation:
1. A huge number of migrants from rural regions were drawn to textile
mills.
2. A huge number of individuals moved to Leeds, Manchester, and London
from other areas.
3. London evolved into a city of clerks, shopkeepers, and so on.
4. A huge number of people were working in five primary sorts of industry.
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 9
5. During World War I, London began producing automobiles and electrical
items.
20. Analyse any four reasons for the depletion of forest resources in India.
4 Marks
Ans: Reasons for forest resource depletion
1. The greatest devastation occurred during the colonial period as a result of
the growth of railways, agriculture, commercial and scientific forestry.
2. As a result of agricultural growth, about 26,200 square kilometres of
forest land have been turned into agricultural land.
3. Deforested or degraded as a result of shifting agriculture
4. Large-scale development initiatives, such as the Narmada Sagar Project;
5 Mining activities; and 6 Grazing and fuel wood collecting.
5. Expansion of the industrial-urban economy
6. Deforestation, hunting, poaching, forest fires, and other forms of habitat
degradation
21. Explain any four reasons responsible for water scarcity in India.
4 Marks
Ans: Water shortage is caused by a variety of factors.
1. Precipitation varies seasonally and annually.
2. Over-exploitation.
3. Excessive usage of water and uneven access to water among various
social classes.
4. Industrialisation is advancing at a rapid pace.
5. Urbanisation.
6. Increased usage of water in agriculture.
7. Water of poor quality.
8. The population is increasing.
22. Write any four characteristics of Kandla sea port. 4 Marks
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 10
Ans: Kandla Sea Port Characteristics
1. Kandla was the first port to be built immediately after the country's
independence.
2. To reduce the volume of commerce at Mumbai's port.
3. Kandla Port is located in Gujarat's Kachchh district.
4. It is a tidal harbour.
5. It handles exports and imports for the Northern and Western states of
India in a simple manner.
23. Examine any four reasons for strained relationship between the Sinhala
and Tamil communities. 4 Marks
Ans: The following are the reasons for the tense relationship between the
Sinhala and Tamil communities:
1. By virtue of their majority, Sinhala politicians tried to take control of the
government.
2. To establish Sinhala supremacy, the democratically elected government
enacted a series of majoritarian policies.
3. A legislation was enacted to make Sinhala the sole official language.
4. Preference policies for Sinhala applicants to government employment.
5. A new constitution required the state to safeguard and promote
Buddhism.
6. The policies of the government denied them equal political rights.
24. Describe in brief, any four features of movement for democracy in
Nepal. 4 Marks
Ans: Characteristics of Nepal's democratic movement
1. In April 2006, Nepal saw an incredible popular movement aiming at
restoring public authority over the government from the monarch.
2. A Seven Party Alliance was created by all of the main political parties in
parliament.
3. In Kathmandu, a four-day strike developed into an indefinite strike.
4. Maoist militants and other organisations banded together.
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 11
5. On April 21, they issued an ultimatum to the king, insisting on the return
of legislative authority to an all-party administration and the formation of
a new constituent assembly.
6. On the final day of the ultimatum, April 24, the king was compelled to
grant all three demands.
7. The new constituent assembly was to be recognised as Nepal's second
democratic revolution.
25. “Democracy is better form of government than other forms of
governments.” Justify the statement. 4 Marks
Ans: Democracy is a superior form of governance because it promotes citizen
equality.
1. It raises the individual's dignity.
2. It raises the standard of decision-making.
3. It offers a technique for resolving disagreements.
4. It provides space for error correction.
26. Give four reasons for the rising importance of tertiary sector in India.
4 Marks
Ans: The significance of the tertiary sector
1. The government provides fundamental services such as medical,
educational, postal, and telegraph services.
2. Agriculture and industrial development leads to the development of
services such as commerce, transportation, and storage.
3. As income levels rise, so does demand for services such as dining out,
travel, and private education.
4. New services, such as those based on information and communication
technology, are emerging.
27. How does the use of money make exchange of things easier? Explain
with examples. 4 Marks
Ans: The inefficiencies of the barter system are solved by money. Assume a
farmer who grows wheat want to purchase potatoes from another farmer who
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 12
grows potatoes. There will be no problem as long as the wheat farmer wants
potatoes and the potato grower wants wheat. The barter system can be used to
swap both things. The issue arises if the wheat farmer needs potatoes but the
potato farmer requires tomatoes from a different farmer. In this situation, the
barter system would be useless. To solve this issue, money is utilised where
money may be paid directly to acquire what is required rather than waiting for
the 'double coincidence of wants' to occur.
28. Explain the role of technology in stimulating the globalization process.
4 Marks
Ans: Technology's Role
1. Advances in transportation technology have enabled considerably
quicker and lower-cost delivery of products over large distances.
2. Advances in information and communication technology have made it
possible for people all over the world to communicate with one another.
3. Satellite communication technologies have aided in the rapid availability
to information, even in remote places.
4. The Internet enables us to send quick electronic mail and communicate
with people all over the world at a reasonable cost.
29. Six features with serial numbers (i) to (vi) are marked in the given
political outline map of India. Identify these features with the help of the
following information and write their correct names on the lines marked in
the map. 6 Marks
I. The place of peasants Satyagraha in Gujarat.
II. The place where Indian National Congress Session was held in 1927.
III. Tea producing state
IV. The iron-ore mine
V. The coal mine
VI. The terminal station of National Highway No.7.
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 13
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 14
Ans:
Or
Locate and label the following on the given political outline map of India:
6 Marks
I. Chauri Chaura
II. Amritsar
III. Tungabhadra - Dam
IV. Talcher - Thermal Power Station
V. Indore - Software Technology Park
VI. Kandla - Sea Port
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 15
Ans:
Note: The following question is for blind candidate only in lieu of Q. No.29
6 Marks
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 16
(29.1) Name the place, where the peasant's movement was started in
Gujarat.
Ans: Kheda
(29.2) Name the place, where Indian National Congress Session was held in
1927.
Ans: Madras
(29.3) Which is the leading tea producing state in India
Ans: Assam
(29.4) On which river Tungabhadra dam is built ?
Ans: Tungabhadra river
(29.5) Where is the Software Technology Park located in Rajasthan.
Ans: Jaipur
(29.6) Name the nuclear power station located in Tamil Nadu.
Ans: Kalpakkam
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 17
CBSE Class 10
Social Science
Previous Year Question Paper 2011
Series: RHB Code no. 32/1
● Please check that this question paper contains 15 printed pages + 2
Maps.
● Code number given on the right hand side of the question paper should
be written on the title page of the answer-book by the candidate.
● Please check that this question paper contains 30 questions.
● Please write down the Serial Number of the question before
attempting it.
● 15 minutes of time has been allotted to read this question paper. The
question paper will be distributed at 10.15 a.m. From 10.15 a.m. to
10.30 a.m., the students will read the question paper only and will not
write any answer on the answer script during this period.
SUMMATIVE ASSESSMENT - Ⅱ
SOCIAL SCIENCE
Time Allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 80
General Instructions:
I. The question paper has 36 questions in all. All questions are compulsory.
II. Marks for each question are indicated against the question.
Class Ⅹ Social Science www.vedantu.com 1
III. Questions from serial number 1 to 16 are Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)
of 1 mark each. Every MCQ is provided with four alternatives. Write the
correct alternatives in your Answer-book.
IV. Questions from serial number 17 to 29 are 3 marks questions. Answers of
these questions should not exceed 80 words each.
V. Questions from serial number 30 to 34 are 4 marks questions. Answers of
these questions should not exceed 100 words each.
VI. Question number 35 is a map question of 2 marks from History and Question
number 36 is a map question of 3 marks from Geography.
VII. Attach the filled up maps inside the answer book.
1. Which one of the following is not true about the female allegory of France?
1 Mark
(A) She was named Marianne.
(B) She took part in the French Revolution.
(C) She was a symbol of national unity.
(D) Her characteristics were drawn from those of Liberty and the
Republic.
Ans: (B) She took part in the French Revolution.
Or
Which one of the following was an impact of the Great Depression of 1930s on
Vietnam. 1 Mark
(A) Japan defeated and occupied Vietnam.
(B) Price of rice and rubber increased.
(C) There was decrease in unemployment.
Class Ⅹ Social Science www.vedantu.com 2
(D) There were uprisings in rural areas.
Ans: (D) There were uprisings in rural areas.
2. Which one of the following states was ruled by an Italian princely house
before unification of Italy? 1 Mark
(A) Kingdom of Two Sicilies
(B) Lombardy
(C) Venetia
(D) Sardinia-Piedmont
Ans: (D) Sardinia-Piedmont
Or
Which one of the following statements is not true about the Trung sisters of
Vietnam? 1 Mark
(A) The Trung sisters fought against French domination.
(B) They fought against Chinese domination.
(C) Pan Boi Chau wrote a play on the lives of the Trung sisters.
(D) They chose death over surrender to enemies.
Ans: (A) The Trung sisters fought against French domination.
3. Which one of the following statements is not related to the Gandhi-Irwin
Pact. 1 Mark
(A) Gandhiji agreed not to launch any further mass agitations against the
British.
(B) Gandhiji agreed to participate in the Round Table Conference.
Class Ⅹ Social Science www.vedantu.com 3
(C) Gandhiji decided to call off the Civil Disobedience Movement.
(D) The British agreed to release the political prisoners.
Ans: (A) Gandhiji agreed not to launch any further mass agitations against the
British.
4. Why did Nationalists in India tour villages to gather folk songs and legends?
Choose the most appropriate reason from the following: 1 Mark
(A) Nationalists wanted to study their own culture.
(B) Nationalists wanted to publish it and earn money.
(C) Nationalists did it because it gave a true picture of traditional culture.
(D) Nationalists wanted to keep folk culture intact.
Ans: (C) Nationalists did it because it gave a true picture of traditional culture.
5. Which one of the following minerals is a fossil fuel? 1 Mark
(A) Barium
(B) Coal
(C) Zircon
(D) Uranium
Ans: (C) Zircon
6. Orissa is the leading producer of which one of the following minerals?
1 Mark
(A) Copper
Class Ⅹ Social Science www.vedantu.com 4
(B) Iron ore
(C) Manganese ore
(D) Mica
Ans: (C) Manganese ore
7. Which one of the following has been the major source of foreign exchange
for IT industry? 1 Mark
(A) BHEL
(B) SAIL
(C) BPO
(D) OIL
Ans: (B) SAIL
8. Which one of the following major ports has been developed to decongest
Kolkata port? 1 Mark
(A) Kandla
(B) Haldia
(C) Paradip
(D) Marmagao
Ans: (C) Paradip
9. National Alliance for Peoples' Movements (NAPM) is 1 Mark
(A) an organisation of organisations.
Class Ⅹ Social Science www.vedantu.com 5
(B) an environmental movement.
(C) a political party.
(D) a public interest group.
Ans: (A) an organisation of organisations.
10. The struggle in Bolivia in 2000 was 1 Mark
(A) to establish democracy.
(B) due to increase in price of water.
(C) to have a re-election.
(D) due to racial discrimination.
Ans: (B) due to increase in price of water.
11. The political party which believes in Marxism — Leninism is 1 Mark
(A) Nationalist Congress Party.
(B) Communist Party of India.
(C) Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam(DMK).
(D) Bahujan Samaj Party.
Ans: (A) Nationalist Congress Party.
12. The Seven Party Alliance(SPA) in Nepal has succeeded in removing
monarchy, holding elections and forming a government. This comes under
which one of the following challenges? 1 Mark
(A) Foundational challenge
Class Ⅹ Social Science www.vedantu.com 6
(B) Challenge of expansion of democracy
(C) Challenge of deepening of democracy
(D) All the above
Ans: (B) Challenge of expansion of democracy
13. Which one of the following is not a feature of money? 1 Mark
(A) Medium of exchange
(B) Lack of divisibility
(C) A store of value
(D) A unit of account
Ans: (D) A unit of account
14. Professor Muhammad Yunus is the founder of which one of the following
banks? 1 Mark
(A) Co-operative Bank
(B) Commercial Bank
(C) Grameen Bank
(D) Land Development Bank
Ans: (B) Commercial Bank
15. Which of the following is not a feature of a Multi - National Company?
1 Mark
(A) It owns/controls production in more than one nation.
Class Ⅹ Social Science www.vedantu.com 7
(B) It sets up factories where it is close to the markets.
(C) It organizes production in complex ways.
(D) It employs labour only from its own country.
Ans: (C) It organizes production in complex ways.
16. When did the United adopt the guidelines from consumer protection?
1 Mark
(A) 1983
(B) 1984
(C) 1985
(D) 1986
Ans: (B) 1984
17. Explain any three ways in which nationalist feelings were kept alive in
Poland in the 18th and 19th centuries. 3 Marks
Ans: Music and language were used to keep nationalist feelings alive in Poland:
I. Karol Kempinski was a guy who honoured the national struggle via opera and
music.
II. To instil nationalist sentiment, he used folk dances such as the polonaise and
mazurka.
III. Despite the fact that Russian was imposed throughout the country following
the takeover, members of the clergy utilised Polish for religious education as
a form of resistance.
Explanation: Poland celebrated its own culture of music and language to keep its
nationalist feelings alive.
Class Ⅹ Social Science www.vedantu.com 8
Or
Explain any three characteristics of the 'Tonkin Free School' in Vietnam.
3 Marks
Ans: Tonkin Free School in Vietnam:
I. It was founded in 1907 to provide Vietnamese students with a Western-style
education.
II. There were nighttime French sessions that had to be paid for separately.
III. The school encouraged students to dress in Western styles and to appear
trendy, such as by wearing their hair short.
Explanation: The French wished to impose their culture on the Vietnamese, forcing
them to renounce their own. Tonkin School served as an example of how education
could be used for the same purpose.
18. Explain any three effects of the Non Co-operation Movement on the
economy of India. 3 Marks
Ans: On the economic front, the Non-Cooperation Movement had a huge impact.
I. Foreign goods were boycotted, liquor stores were picketed, and foreign
clothing was massively burned.
II. Between 1921 and 1922, the value of foreign clothing imports fell by half,
from 102 crore to 57 crore rupees.
III. Traders and merchants in several locations refused to trade in foreign goods,
and in other cases, they even refused to finance international trade.
IV. As the boycott movement gained traction, individuals began to wear solely
Indian clothing and to discard foreign clothing.
As a result, Indian textile mills and handloom manufacturing increased significantly.
Class Ⅹ Social Science www.vedantu.com 9
19. Make a distinction between hydroelectricity and thermal electricity stating
three points of distinction. 3 Marks
Ans: Difference between hydroelectricity and thermal electricity:
Hydroelectricity Thermal Electricity
Running water is used to create energy Thermal electricity is generated by the
in hydroelectricity. combustion of fossil fuels such as coal
and petroleum.
Hydroelectricity is a renewable energy The energy source for thermal
source. electricity is non-renewable.
Bhakra Nangal is an example of a Neyveli Thermal Power Plant is an
hydroelectric project in India. example of a thermal power plant in
India.
Hydroelectricity is much less Thermal electricity is much more
expensive to produce. expensive to produce.
Explanation: Although India has long had both hydroelectric and thermal power
plants, hydroelectricity is more suited to long-term growth.
20. Explain any three problems faced by Iron and Steel Industry in India.
3 Marks
Ans: Despite the fact that India is a major producer of iron and steel, we are unable
to reach our full potential due to the following factors:
I. Coking coal is expensive and in short supply.
II. The productivity of production labour is low.
III. Irregular electricity supply exacerbates the company's production issues.
IV. In the iron and steel industries, technological advancement is slower.
Class Ⅹ Social Science www.vedantu.com 10
V. In the steel industry, resource allocation for research and development is
comparatively low.
21. Describe any three factors that control industrial location. 3 Marks
Ans: The following are three elements that influence the placement of industries in
India:
I. Raw material: Raw material availability is critical for the site because it is
one of the most basic inputs required.
II. Labor: Because industries rely heavily on low-cost labour, they want a
densely populated area.
III. Capital: As one of the largest investments in an industry, the cost and quality
of capital are critical.
IV. Power: The equipment and machinery are entirely reliant on a steady supply
of electricity.
V. Market: Having a nearby market makes it much easier to sell the things
you've made and cuts down on shipping costs.
22. Explain how the relationship between political parties and pressure groups
can take different forms. 3 Marks
Ans: Relationships between political parties and pressure organisations can take a
variety of shapes:
● In general, pressure organisations do not engage in politics directly; instead,
they aim to influence political parties.
● Political ideology and positions on significant issues are held by some
pressure groups.
● Pressure groups are sometimes founded or led by political party leaders.
Class Ⅹ Social Science www.vedantu.com 11
● They serve as the political parties' extended arms.
● The majority of trade unions and student organisations are founded by one of
the major political parties.
● Political parties can emerge from movements.
● When the Assam student uprising against "foreigners" came to a conclusion,
the Asom Gana Parishad was formed.
● The DMK and AIADMK can be traced back to a long-running social reform
movement in Tamil Nadu that began in the 1930s and 1940s.
23. Explain the role of democratic governments in reducing economic
disparities. 3 Marks
Ans: By enacting the following policies, democratic governments play a significant
role in eliminating economic inequality.
I. The government ensures that wealth is distributed equally so that there is no
disparity between the rich and the poor.
II. The government implements a wide range of social welfare programmes and
strives to achieve universal literacy.
III. The government makes every effort to ensure that everyone has the same
opportunity.
24. How do democracies accommodate social diversity? Explain. 3 Marks
Ans: Democracies accommodate social diversity:
I. It allows for a harmonious social life to flourish. Differences between ethnic
communities, for example, were handled in Belgium.
II. No society can resolve disputes permanently, but democracy allows people to
negotiate their differences and decide what is best for everyone.
Class Ⅹ Social Science www.vedantu.com 12
III. Internal concerns are generally ignored or suppressed by non-democratic
administrations.
IV. Democracy ensures that all groups, including minorities and their interests,
are represented in decision-making.
V. As a result, democracy reduces the likelihood of differences or conflicts
turning violent.
25. Explain the challenge of expansion of democracy by stating three points.
3 Marks
Ans: The majority of established democracies are confronted with the prospect of
expansion.
I. The challenge of expansion entails implementing democratic principles in all
regions, across all social groups, and across all institutions.
II. Local governments should have more power, and the federal principle should
be extended to all of the federation's parts. This kind of challenge includes
women, minorities, and others.
III. As a result, fewer and fewer decisions should be made outside of democratic
supervision.
IV. This is a problem that most countries encounter, including India and the
United States.
26. Explain any three advantages of globalisation. 3 Marks
Ans: Consumers have benefited from globalisation and increased competition
among domestic and international producers.
I. Consumers now have a wider range of options. They now have better quality
and reduced costs on a variety of things.
Class Ⅹ Social Science www.vedantu.com 13
II. Consumers now have access to higher living standards than they did
previously.
III. It brings countries together through overseas trade and multinational company
investments.
IV. Cultural, political, social, and economic interconnections are all important.
V. Globalisation has resulted in a market expansion.
VI. New production techniques and modem technologies are being implemented.
VII. Some huge corporations have become multinationals as a result of
globalisation.
VIII. Globalisation has opened up new prospects for service providers, particularly
those in the IT industry.
27. What is a trade barrier? Why did the Indian Government put up trade
barriers after Independence? Explain. 3 Marks
Ans: A Trade barrier is a limitation placed on the importation of foreign goods.
Import taxes are an example of a trade barrier. Because some limits have been
imposed, it is referred to be a barrier.
I. Foreign trade and foreign investment have been hampered by the Indian
government. Because it was thought that this was required to protect domestic
producers from international competition.
II. The new-bom industries of India would have been decimated by competition
from well-established overseas competitors.
III. During the early stages of development, all developed countries used trade
barriers to safeguard native industries.
28. Explain any three factors which gave birth to the Consumer Movement of
India. 3 Marks
Class Ⅹ Social Science www.vedantu.com 14
Ans: The three elements that gave rise to the "Indian Consumer Movement" are as
follows:
I. The customer movement originated out of consumer unhappiness with several
unfair actions by purchasers.
II. Consumers lacked access to a legal structure that would protect them against
commercial exploitation. It was assumed that consumers were responsible for
exercising caution when purchasing goods or services.
III. In India, widespread food shortages, unfair and unethical trading practises
such as hoarding and black marketing, and food and edible oil adulteration
gave rise to the Consumer Movement.
29. “A consumer has the right to get compensation depending on the degree of
the damage.” Support this statement with an example. 3 Marks
Ans: Consumers have the right to seek remedy when they are subjected to unfair
business practises or exploitation. If a customer is harmed, he or she has the right to
compensation, which varies depending on the severity of the harm. There is a need
for a simple and effective public system to accomplish this.
For Example: For her sister's wedding, Pihu had sent a money order to her village.
The money did not arrive when her sister needed it, nor did it arrive months later.
As a result, Pihu filed a complaint at a district consumer court and exercised her right
to seek remedy.
30. Explain any four ideas of Liberal Nationalists in the economic sphere.
4 Marks
Ans: Liberalism, often known as Liberal Nationalism, advocated for individual
liberty and equality before the law.
In terms of economics, Liberal Nationalists have four ideas:
Class Ⅹ Social Science www.vedantu.com 15
I. Liberalism stood for market freedom and the removal of government-imposed
restrictions. Napoleon's administration, for example, was a confederation of
29 states, each with its own currency, weights, and measures. Such
circumstances were regarded as impediments to commercial exchange.
II. Liberal Nationalists advocated for the establishment of a unified economic
region that would allow free movement of products, people, and capital.
III. A customs union, or "zollverein," was established in 1834. Tariff barriers were
removed, and the number of currencies was decreased from 30 to two.
IV. The construction of a railway network boosted movement even more, bringing
economic motivation to national unification.
Or
Explain any four ways in which teachers and students organised resistance
against the French in Vietnam. 4 Marks
Ans: The following are five methods that teachers and students in Vietnam
coordinated resistance to the French:
I. The French curriculum was not uncritically followed by teachers and pupils.
The Vietnamese teachers quietly changed and questioned the text while
teaching.
II. Following the event at the Saigon Native Girls School, Vietnamese students
staged a massive anti-French protest. Due to the strain of open student protests
in Vietnam, students who had been expelled by the school officials for
protesting were returned.
III. Students protested against the colonial government's attempts to keep
Vietnamese people out of white collar employment. Students began creating
political organisations and publishing nationalist publications in the 1920s.
IV. Vietnamese intellectuals, including students and instructors, began resisting
the French educational system because it attempted to transform people's
beliefs, conventions, and perceptions by convincing them of the superiority of
French civilization over the Vietnamese.
Class Ⅹ Social Science www.vedantu.com 16
V. By the 1920s, students had founded political parties like the ‘Young Annan'
party and were publishing nationalist newspapers like the ‘Annanese Student.'
31. Explain four points about Gandhiji’s idea of ‘satyagraha’. 4 Marks
Ans: The following are five points about Gandhiji's concept of 'satyagraha':
I. Satyagraha, according to Gandhiji, is not a physical force. There should be no
room for malice in the application of satyagraha.
II. Satyagraha is about the soul-force, and truth is the soul's very substance, and
knowledge informs the soul.
III. Satyagraha, according to Gandhiji, is not a weapon for the weak; rather, it can
only be wielded by the strongest of the strong because it is entirely based on
mental strength rather than physical strength.
IV. “Satyagraha is passive resistance,” Gandhiji observed, “whereas which is
about active activity but nonviolently.” India cannot compete with Britain in
terms of military might since the British revere the war-god and are all armed.
Indians cannot match with them in armaments, but they may overcome them
solely by the weapon of "ahimsa," that is, by relying on mental strength to
defeat the British. For the Indians, tolerance and non-violence can only be a
source of strength.”
V. Non-violence is the greatest dharma that may bring all Indians together. A
satyagrahi can win a conflict without seeking vengeance or being hostile.
32. Mention any two inland waterways of India. Write three characteristics of
each. 4 Marks
Ans: There are two inland waterways:
I. The Ganga river between Allahabad and Haldia:
Characteristics:
Class Ⅹ Social Science www.vedantu.com 17
● This waterway has been designated as National Waterway No. 1 by the Inland
Waterways Authority.
● It has a total length of 1620 kilometres.
● It is one among India's most important waterways, navigable by motorised
boats all the way to Patna.
II. The Brahmaputra river between Sadiya and Dhubri:
Characteristics:
● The overall distance is 891 kilometres.
● It has been designated as the No. 2 National Waterway.
● Steamers may navigate it up to Dibrugarh.
33. Explain how dynastic succession is a major challenge for political parties in
India. 4 Marks
Ans: The issue of dynastic succession is unquestionably a big obstacle for Indian
political parties. This is explained in the following points :
I. Ordinary workers rarely ascend to the top of a political party's hierarchy since
most political parties' operations are opaque.
II. The majority of top leaders choose and select members of their own families.
This is inequitable to the other members.
III. Members of one family have always held the top positions. This is harmful to
democracy.
IV. People at the top frequently lack the necessary expertise, education, and public
support.
V. The problem of dynastic succession is intertwined with the problem of internal
democracy. Non-deserving leaders have supreme power and make crucial
Class Ⅹ Social Science www.vedantu.com 18
decisions. It is difficult for those who disagree with the leadership to remain
in the party.
34. Explain any four terms of credits with examples. 4 Marks
Ans: The four credit terms are as follows:
I. Interest rate: When borrowing or lending money, both parties agree on a rate
of interest and a document is created. The annual percentage rate (APR) is the
term used to describe the interest rate on a loan (APR).
II. Collateral: An asset that the borrower owns, such as a house or a business. A
loan is offered to a borrower against such assets as a guarantee. For the lender,
the collateral serves as a type of insurance. If the borrower defaults on their
loan payments, the lender can seize and sell the collateral to recoup some or
all of their losses.
III. Documentation required: Before lending money, the borrower must check
all documentation linked to his or her employment history and income.
IV. Payment mode: It refers to the many modes and durations in which the
borrower can repay the loan.
35. Two features - (1) and (2) are marked in the given political outline map of
India Identify these features with the help of the following information and
write their correct names on the lines marked in the map: 2 Marks
(1) The place, where the Indian National Congress Session of September 1920
was held.
(2) The place, where the movement of Indigo Planters took place.
Class Ⅹ Social Science www.vedantu.com 19
Or
Locate and label the following features with appropriate symbols on the same
political outline map of India: 2 Marks
(A) Amritsar: The place where Jalianwala Bagh incident.
(B) Bardoli: The place where no tax campaign was held.
Class Ⅹ Social Science www.vedantu.com 20
Class Ⅹ Social Science www.vedantu.com 21
Ans:
Note: The following questions are for the Blind Candidates only, in lieu of
Question No. 35.
(35.1) Name the place where the Indian National Congress session of September
1920 was held.
Ans: Calcutta
(35.2) Name the place where movement of Indigo planters took place.
Ans: Champaran
Class Ⅹ Social Science www.vedantu.com 22
36. Three features —(a), (b) and(c) are marked in the given political outline
map of India Identify these features with the help of the following information
and write their correct names on the lines marked in the map:
(a) Coal Mine
(b) Silk industry
(c) International Airport
Or
Locate and label the following items on the same political outline map of India
with appropriate symbols:
Class Ⅹ Social Science www.vedantu.com 23
(i) Kanpur —Cotton Textile Industry
(ii) Bhadravati —kon and Steel Plant
(iii) Kandla — Sea Port
Class Ⅹ Social Science www.vedantu.com 24
Ans:
Note: The following questions are for the Blind Candidates only, in lieu of Q.
No. 36.
(36.1) Name the state where Bhadravati Iron and Steel Plant is located.
Ans: Korba
(36.2) In which state is the Kandla Sea Port located?
Ans: Bankura
(36.3) Name the international airport in TamilNadu.
Ans: Meenam Bakkam
Class Ⅹ Social Science www.vedantu.com 25
CBSE Class 10
Social Science
Previous Year Question Paper 2012
Series: BRH Code no. 32/1
● Please check that this paper contains 16 printed pages + 2 Maps.
● Code number given on the right hand side of the question paper should be
written on the title page of the answer-book by the candidate.
● Please check that this question paper contains 36 questions.
● Please write down the Serial Number of the question in the answer-
book before attempting it.
● 15 minute time has been allotted to read this question paper. The question
paper will be distributed at 10.15 a.m. From 10.15 a.m. to 10.30 a.m., the
students will read the question paper only and will not write any answer on
the answer-book during this period.
SUMMATIVE ASSESSMENT-II
SOCIAL SCIENCE
Time Allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 80
General Instructions:
1. There are 36 questions in all. All questions are compulsory.
2. Marks for each question are indicated against the question.
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 1
3. Questions from serial number 1 to 16 are Multiple Choice Questions
(MCQs) of 1 mark each. Every MCQ is provided with four alternatives.
Write the correct alternative in your Answer-book
4. Questions from serial number 17 to 29 are 3 marks questions. Answers of
these questions should not exceed 80 words each.
5. Questions from serial number 30 to 34 are 4 marks questions. Answers of
these questions should not exceed 100 words each.
6. Question number 35 is a map question of 2 marks from History and
Question number 36 is a map question of 3 marks from Geography.
7. Attach the filled up maps inside your answer book.
1. Who, among the following, hosted the Congress at Vienna in 1815 ?
A. King of Netherlands.
B. Giuseppe Mazzini
C. Duke Metternich
D. Otto Von Bismarck 1 Mark
Ans: (C) Duke Metternich hosted the Congress at Vienna in 1815.
Or
Why was the Tonkin Free School started in 1907 in Vietnam?
A. To provide modern education
B. To provide western-style education
C. To provide education to Vietnamese only
D. To provide education to French children. 1 Mark
Ans: (B) Tonkin Free School started in 1907 in Vietnam to provide western-style
education.
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2. Which one of the following is true about the treaty of Constantinople' of 1832
?
A. It recognised Turkey as an independent nation.
B. It recognised Greece as an independent nation.
C. It recognised Germany as an independent nation.
D. It recognised France as an independent nation. 1 Mark
Ans: (B) It recognised Greece as an independent nation.
Or
Who, among the following, was the founder of 'Hoa Hao Movement' in
Vietnam?
A. Phan Chu Trinh
B. Liang Qichao
C. Phan Boi Chau
D. Huynh Phu So 1 Mark
Ans: (D) Huynh Phu So was the founder of 'Hoa Hao Movement' in Vietnam.
3. Which one of the following agreements gave reserved seats to the 'Depressed
Classes' in Provincial and Central Legislative Councils ?
A. Lucknow Pact
B. Gandhi Irwin Pact
C. Poona Pact
D. None of these 1 Mark
Ans: (C)Poona Pact gave reserved seats to the 'Depressed Classes' in Provincial and
Central Legislative Councils.
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4. Which one of the following Viceroys announced a vague offer of 'dominion
status' for India in October 1929 ?
A. Lord Mountbatten
B. Lord Dalhousie
C. Lord Irwin
D. None of these 1 Mark
Ans: (C)Lord Irwin announced a vague offer of 'dominion status' for India in
October 1929.
5. Which one of the following is a non-metallic mineral?
A. Lead
B. Copper
C. Tin
D. Limestone 1 Mark
Ans: (D)Limestone is a non-metallic mineral.
6. Which one of the following cities has emerged as the electronic capital of
India ?
A. Delhi
B. Kolkata
C. Bangalore
D. Hyderabad 1 Mark
Ans: (C)Bangalore has emerged as the electronic capital of India.
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7. On what basis is the industrial sector classified into public and private sectors
?
A. Employment conditions
B. The nature of economic activity
C. Ownership of enterprises
D. Number of workers employed in the enterprise 1 Mark
Ans: (C)The industrial sector classified into public and private sectors on the basis
of ownership of enterprises.
8. Which one of the following states has the highest road density?
A. Goa
B. Kerala
C. Karnataka
D. Gujarat 1 Mark
Ans: (B)Kerala has the highest road density.
9. In which one of the following states does 'Shiv Sena' exist as a regional
political party?
A. Gujarat
B. Karnataka
C. Maharashtra
D. Madhya Pradesh 1 Mark
Ans: (C)'Shiv Sena' exists as a regional political party in Maharashtra.
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10. Which one of the following facilities is offered by the Election Commission
to a recognized political party?
A. Party Name
B. Manifesto
C. Election Symbol
D. Election Funds 1 Mark
Ans: (C)Election Symbol is offered by the Election Commission to a recognized
political party.
11. In which one of the following countries is democracy not preferred over
dictatorship?
A. Bangladesh
B. Pakistan
C. Sri Lanka
D. India 1 Mark
Ans: (B)Pakistan is democracy not preferred over dictatorship.
12. Which one of the following countries has a federal system of government ?
A. Congo
B. Sudan
C. South Africa
D. Tanzania 1 Mark
Ans: (A)Congo has a federal system of government.
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13. Banks provide a higher rate of interest on which one of the following
accounts ?
A. Saving account
B. Current account
C. Fixed deposits for long period
D. Fixed deposits for very short period 1 Mark
Ans: (C)Banks provide a higher rate of interest on Fixed deposits for a long period.
14. Which one of the following is the main source of credit for rich urban
households in India?
A. Formal sector
B. Informal sector
C. Moneylenders
D. Traders 1 Mark
Ans: (A)Formal Sector is the main source of credit for rich urban households in
India.
15. Which one of the following is not a characteristic of 'Special Economic Zone'
?
A. They do not have to pay taxes for a long period.
B. Government has allowed flexibility in labour laws.
C. They have world class facilities.
D. They do not have to pay taxes for an initial period of five years. 1 Mark
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 7
Ans: (B)Government has allowed flexibility in labour laws is not a characteristic of
'Special Economic Zone'.
16. 'Hallmark' is used as a logo for which one of the following ?
A. Agricultural products
B. Jewellery
C. Electrical goods
D. Electronic goods 1 Mark
Ans: (B)'Hallmark' is used as a logo on Jewellery.
17. Describe the process of 'Unification of Italy. 3 Marks
Ans: Process of Unification of Italy are as follows:
i. The commitment, participation, and effort of three great leaders, Mazzini,
Cavour, and Garibaldi, resulted in the unification of Italy.
ii. Giuseppe Mazzini attempted to unify Italy in the 1830s. He founded the
Young Italy secret organisation. However, both the 1831 and 1848 uprisings
failed.
iii. Even the ruling elites desired a united Italy that would provide economic
prosperity as well as political control.
iv. Many conflicts contributed to Italy's unification. Chief Minister Cavour
formed a deft diplomatic alliance with France, and Sardinia-Piedmont
defeated Austrian forces in 1859.
v. They marched into South Italy in 1860, and the Kingdom of the Two Sicilies
succeeded in driving away the Spanish rulers with the aid of locals.
vi. Victor Emmanuel II was proclaimed King of United Italy in 1861.
Or
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Describe any three steps taken by the French to develop agriculture in Vietnam.
3 Marks
Ans: Steps taken by the French to develop agriculture in Vietnam are as follows:
i. To enhance rice production, the French constructed canals and drained areas
in the Mekong delta.
ii. To promote rice farming, forced labour was used to build irrigation facilities.
iii. Infrastructure and transportation facilities for agricultural export have been
built.
18. Explain the circumstances under which Gandhiji decided to call off the Civil
Disobedience Movement in 1931. 3 Marks
Ans: In 1931, Gandhiji decided to halt the Civil Disobedience Movement due to the
following circumstances:
i. Violent confrontations erupted as a result of the government's detention of
Congress leaders.
ii. Following Gandhi's imprisonment, industrial workers in Solapur assaulted
police stations and government buildings. The conflict was on the verge of
escalating.
iii. The authorities suppressed peaceful satyagrahis by assaulting and detaining
them, as well as beating women and children.
19. Why is the iron and steel industry called the basic industry? Explain any
three reasons. 3 Marks
Ans: The basic industry is the iron and steel industry because of the following:
i. All other industries, heavy, medium, and light, depend on it for machinery.
ii. Steel is required for the production of a wide range of engineering goods,
building materials, defence, medicinal, telecommunications, scientific, and
consumer goods.
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iii. When all of the raw materials and final items are large and bulky, iron and
steel are heavy industries. It has high transportation expenses.
20. Explain the improvements made by the Indian Railways in its functioning.
3 Marks
Ans: The Indian Railways has made the following improvements to its operations:
i. Steam engines have been replaced with diesel and electric engines.
ii. E-ticketing and I-ticketing are available.
iii. Converting metre and narrow gauges to wide gauges.
iv. Rail route expansion.
v. Improved amenities on railway stations.
vi. The introduction of monorail and metro rail systems.
21. Mention any four merits and any two demerits of air transport. 3 Marks
Ans: Advantages of air travel:
i. It is the most convenient and pleasant form of transportation.
ii. It connects the country's most remote and isolated locations.
iii. The speed and simplicity with which planes can cross mountain ranges, sandy
deserts, vast stretches of water, or woods make air travel vital.
iv. During natural disasters, air transport is very important. It is used to airlift
individuals from disaster regions as well as to airdrop food, medicine, and
other necessities to disaster victims.
Disadvantages of air travel:
i. Air travel is expensive.
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 10
ii. The expense of building planes, as well as the upkeep of airports and control
systems, necessitates a capital outlay.
22. Describe the 'second popular movement for democracy' of Nepal. 3 Marks
Ans: Nepal's popular democratic movement:
i. The 2006 movement sought to reclaim popular control of the government
from the king. All of Nepal's major political parties (Seven Party Alliance)
called for a four-day strike, which quickly developed into an indefinite strike
in which many additional organisations joined forces. The Seven Party
Alliance (SPA) was created by all of the major political parties in Parliament
and four-day strike was called in Kathmandu.
ii. Curfews were ignored, and people took to the streets. Even the security forces
were overwhelmed by the over 1 lakh people who assembled practically every
day to demand the restoration of democracy. They remained firm in their
demands for the restoration of the parliament, the power of an all-party
government, and the formation of a new constituent assembly.
iii. On the final day of this protest movement, the monarch was forced to meet all
of the people's demands. As a result, the SPA chose Girija Prasad Koirala as
Prime Minister, and the restored parliament passed multiple measures
stripping the king of most of his powers.
23. How do pressure groups and movements exert pressure on politics? Explain
with an example. 3 Marks
Ans: Pressure groups and movements apply pressure on politics in a variety of
methods, including the following:
i. They go on hunger strike to put pressure on political parties.
ii. They also set up advertisements and posters all throughout the city to gather
public support for a certain cause.
iii. They rely on the media to reach a huge number of individuals.
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24. How do state or regional political parties contribute in strengthening
federalism and democracy in India? Explain with examples. 3 Marks
Ans: Political parties play the following responsibilities in democracy:
i. They give a forum and representation to diverse parts of society.
ii. They serve as a forum for public discussion and the presentation of various
possibilities.
iii. They shape laws and policy based on their electoral manifestos.
25. How are some countries in the world facing foundational challenge of
democracy? Explain with examples. 3 Marks
Ans: Different countries confront a variety of difficulties. At least one-fourth of the
world's nations do not have democratic governments. The democratic challenge in
these nations is severe. These countries confront the fundamental problem of
transitioning to democracy and subsequently establishing democratic
administration. This entails overthrowing the current non-democratic
administration, keeping the military from dominating the government, and building
a sovereign and viable state.
Nepal, for example, was a monarchy until recently. Nepal has now become a
democratic country. Certain attitudes and systems will take years to alter since they
took years to establish in the first place. Nepal is an excellent illustration of a
fundamental democratic issue.This was an issue in India after independence, and it
is currently a problem in Pakistan owing to military influence in the administration.
26. How has foreign trade been integrating markets of different countries in the
world? Explain with examples. 3 Marks
Ans: Foreign commerce integrates various nations' marketplaces in the following
ways:
i. Foreign trade is done by traders from different countries among themselves.
ii. As a result, financial transactions are monitored from one nation to another.
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 12
iii. As a result of this worldwide money-transaction network, we can simply
conclude that different nations' marketplaces are becoming more connected
with one another.
iv. For example, Chinese electronics are now taking a sizable piece of the Indian
market, while Indian textiles are filling markets in a variety of other nations.
27. "Information and communication technology has played a major role in
spreading out products and services across countries." Support the statement.
3 Marks
Ans: Information and communication technology, such as the internet, mobile
phones, and online shopping, has played a significant influence in the diffusion of
products and services across borders. We may buy a variety of items from the
comfort of our own homes by shopping online. With the aid of the internet, any firm
can sell its products all over the world, and e-banking has made rapid payment
possible.The use of communication technology allows the producer to communicate
with the customer in a very simple manner. These are used to make purchases of
products and services. Anyone in Mumbai, for example, may make an order for a
designer outfit that is being sold in London.
28. How do 'Consumer Protection Councils' help consumers ? Explain three
ways. 3 Marks
Ans: Consumer Protection Councils or Consumer Forums assist customers in the
following ways:
i. They advise consumers on how to submit complaints with the Consumer
Court. They also represent individual customers in the Consumer Courts on a
regular basis.
ii. If any businessman is reported to the Council at the District Level for using
unfair means, the concerned council will call him to task.
iii. They raise public awareness through holding consumer melas, seminars, and
meetings, all of which are financed by the government.
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29. Explain the circumstances under which markets do not work in a fair
manner. 3 Marks
Ans: Markets do not function fairly when producers are few and powerful, while
consumers purchase in little quantities and are dispersed due to following
circumstances:
i. Due to their enormous money and power, major corporations may readily
manipulate the market.
ii. They have the ability to market subpar goods.
iii. They might also spread misleading information about their items in order to
entice customers.
30. Describe any four measures which were introduced by the French
Revolutionaries to create a sense of collective identity amongst the French
people. 4 Marks
Ans: The French Revolutionaries implemented a variety of tactics and practises in
order to foster a feeling of communal identity among the French people. They were
as follows:
i. The concepts of La-Patrie (fatherland) and Le-Citoyen (citizen) stressed the
concept of a unified society with equal rights under a constitution.
ii. The tricolour was chosen to replace the previous royal standard as the new
French flag. The Estate General was renamed the National Assembly after
being chosen by a group of engaged citizens.
iii. New hymns were written, vows were sworn, and victims were remembered,
all in the name of the nation.
iv. A unified administrative structure was established, and uniform laws were
enacted for all citizens living inside its borders. Internal customs taxes and
dues were eliminated, and a standardised system of weights and
measurements was implemented. Regional languages were suppressed, and
French became the nation's common language.
Or
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Which were the two major problems before the French in the field of colonial
education in Vietnam ? How did they try to solve these problems? Explain.
4 Marks
Ans: The two primary issues confronting the French in the realm of colonial
education in Vietnam were as follows:
i. The French needed an educated local labour force, but they were concerned
that education would cause issues. Once educated, Vietnamese citizens may
begin to reject colonial dominance.
ii. French nationals in Vietnam began to worry that they would lose their
positions - as teachers, businessmen, and police officers - to educated
Vietnamese. As a result, they were opposed to initiatives that would provide
Vietnamese students with complete access to French education.
They attempted to fix these issues via following:
i. Textbooks extolled French culture and language. The French believed that
through studying the language, the Vietnamese would be exposed to French
culture and civilisation. This would contribute to the formation of a 'Asian
France securely linked to European France.'Vietnamese educated individuals
will appreciate French feelings and values, recognise the superiority of French
culture, and work for France.
ii. Only a handful of those admitted to schools eventually passed the school-
leaving exams. This was primarily due to an intentional programme of failing
students, particularly in their last year, so that they would not be eligible for
better-paying employment.
31. Who was Alluri Sitaram Raju ? Explain his role in inspiring the rebels with
Gandhi's ideas. 4 Marks
Ans: He was an Indian nationalist who was involved in the fight for Indian
independence. Alluri was eventually captured by the British in the Chintapalli
forests, tied to a tree, and killed by gunshot at Koyyuru village. He and his comrades
seized guns and ammunition and murdered numerous British police officers,
including two near Dammanapall.Alluri toured places in the Visakhapatnam district
and got aware of the indigenous people's problems.
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 15
He was an Indian nationalist who was involved in the fight for Indian independence.
Raju led the Rampa Revolt of 1922-24, in which a coalition of tribal chiefs and other
allies attacked the British Raj. He claimed to have a variety of unique abilities. He
could make accurate astrological forecasts, heal patients, and even save bullet shorts.
His involvement in instilling Gandhi's principles in rebels is as follows:
i. He also said that India could only be emancipated via the use of force, not
nonviolence.
ii. In order to get swaraj, the rebels assaulted police stations, attempted to
assassinate British officials, and engaged in guerilla warfare.
iii. Raju was apprehended and hanged in 1924, and he became a folk hero over
time.
32. Why is conservation of mineral resources essential? Explain any three
methods of conserving mineral resources. 4 Marks
Ans: We know that minerals are adequate goods, and their availability is finite; thus,
mineral resource protection is critical for future generations. If we continue to
consume these resources at the current rate, we will run out of them in no time,
culminating in an energy catastrophe.
Minerals should be protected in the following ways:
i. Minerals should be used in a planned and sustainable way.
ii. Improved technology must be continually improved to enable the usage of
low-grade materials at a cheap cost.
iii. Metal recycling utilising scrap metals should be carried out.
33. Explain any four ways in which democracies have been able to reduce
inequality and poverty. 4 Marks
Ans: Democracy has reduced inequality and poverty in the following ways:
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 16
i. Democracy provides equal rights to all citizens; it does not discriminate on
the basis of gender, religion, race, or caste.
ii. Democracy encourages the redistributive method for imparting financial
advantages based on the needs of any segment of the society; this leads to a
more equitable allocation of privileges to underprivileged people, which
overcomes poverty.
iii. Democracy creates an appropriate environment for organised activity, which
begins with the same opportunity to advance the interests of underprivileged
people.
iv. Democracies make attempts to promote a more transparent form of
governance in order to decrease poverty and inequality and therefore provide
people with rights such as the Right to Information, among other things, in
order to alleviate poverty and inequality.
34. Which government body supervises the functioning of formal sources of
loans in India? Explain its functioning. 4 Marks
Ans: The Reserve Bank of India oversees the operation of official lending sources
in India. Banks, for example, keep a minimum cash balance from the deposits they
receive.
Functions of RBI are as follows:
i. It requires banks to maintain a minimum cash balance from the deposits they
receive.
ii. It requires banks to make loans not only to profitable corporations, but also to
low-income individuals and small business owners.
iii. Banks are required to make a report to the RBI on how much they are lending,
to whom, and at what interest rate on a regular basis.
35. Two features - A and B, are marked in the given political outline map of
India. Identify these features with the help of the following information and
write their correct names on the lines marked in the map : 2 Marks
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 17
A. The place where the Indian National Congress Session was held in 1927.
B. The place where the Civil Disobedience Movement was started.
Or
Locate and label the following features with appropriate symbols on the same
political outline map of India : 2 Marks
i. Champaran - The place where the movement of Indigo Planters took
place.
ii. Kheda - The place where the Peasant Satyagraha was held.
Ans:
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36. Three features A, B and C are marked in the given political outline map of
India (on page 19). Identify these features with the help of the following
information and write their correct names on the lines marked in the map :
3 Marks
A. Mica mines
B. Software Technology Park
C. Terminal Station of N.H. 7
Or
Locate and label the following features with appropriate symbols on the same
political outline map of India (on page 19) with appropriate symbols: 3 Marks
i. Bhilai Iron and Steel Plant
ii. Narora Nuclear Power Plant
iii. Kandla Sea Port
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 19
Ans:
Note: The following questions are for the Blind Candidates only, in lieu of Q. No.
35 and 36.
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 20
35.1. Name the place where the Indian National Congress session was held in
September 1920. 1 Mark
Ans: The Indian National Congress session was held in September 1920 in Calcutta.
35.2. At which place was the Civil Disobedience Movement started ? 1 Mark
Ans: Civil Disobedience Movement started in Champaran district.
36.1. In which state is Bhilai Iron and Steel plant located ? 1 Mark
Ans: Bhilai Iron and Steel plant located in Chhattisgarh.
36.2. Name any one Technology Park located in Karnataka state. 1 Mark
Ans: Manyata Tech Park is located in Karnataka.
36.3. Name the southern-most major sea port of India. 1 Mark
Ans: Tuticorin Port is the southernmost major sea port of India.
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 21
CBSE Class 10
Social Science
Previous Year Question Paper 2013
Series: RSH/1 Code no. 32/1/1
● Please check that this question paper contains 14 printed pages+1 Map.
● Code number given on the right hand side of the question paper should be
written on the title page of the answer-book by the candidate.
● Please check that this question paper contains 30 questions.
● Please write down the serial number of the question before attempting
it.
● 15 minutes of time has been allotted to read this question paper. The
question paper will be distributed at 10.15 a.m. From 10.15 a.m. to 10.30
am, the students will read the question paper only and will not write any
answer on the answer-script during this period.
SUMMATIVE ASSESSMENT-II
SOCIAL SCIENCE
Time Allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 90
General Instructions :
1. The question paper has 30 questions in all. All questions are compulsory.
2. Questions from serial number 1 to 9 are Multiple Choice Questions. Each
question carries 1 mark.
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 1
3. Questions from serial number 10 to 21 are 3 marks questions Answer of
these questions should not exceed 80 words each.
4. Questions from serial number 22 to 29 are 3 maria questions Answer of
these questions should not exceed 120 words each.
5. Question number 30 is a map question of 5 marks (2 marks from History and
3 marks from Geography). After filling up, attach the map inside your
answer book.
1. Identify the French artist who prepared a series of four prints visualising his
dream of a world from the following:
A. Kitagawa Utamaro
B. Richard M. Hoe
C. Voltaire
D. Frederic Sorrieu 1 Mark
Ans: (D) Frederic Sorrieu prepared a series of four prints visualising his dream of a
world.
Or
Who, among the following was a member of the French team, who explored
Mekong river?
A. Paul Burnard
B. Liang Qichao
C. Huynh Phu So
D. Garnier 1 Mark
Ans: (D) Francis Garnier was a member of the French team, who explored the
Mekong river.
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 2
2. The Non-Co-operation Movement began on which one of the following dates?
A. January 1921
B. November 1921
C. December 1921
D. May 1921 1 Mark
Ans: (A) Non-Co-operation Movement began in January 1921.
3. Which one of the following ports is the biggest with a spacious nated and well
sheltered harbour ?
A. Kolkata
B. Chennai
C. Mumbai
D. Visakhapatnam 1 Mark
Ans: (D) Visakhapatnam is the biggest port with a spacious and well sheltered
harbour.
4. Which one of the following was the main aim to start movement on April
2006 in Nepal?
A. To control over government
B. To match power front the king
C. To restore democracy
D. To dethrone the king 1 Mark
Ans: (C) The main aim to start movement in April 2006 in Nepal was to restore
democracy.
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5. Which one of the following countries has one party system ?
A. China
B. Indo-China
C. Japan
D. Germany 1 Mark
Ans: (A) China has one party system.
6. Which one of the following features is common to most of the democracies ?
A. They have formal constitution
B. They hold regular elections.
C. They have political parties
D. All of the above 1 Mark
Ans: (D) All of the above.
7. Which of the following is the main informal source of credit for rural
households in India?
A. Friends
B. Relatives
C. Landlords
D. Money lenders 1 Mark
Ans: (D) Money lenders are the main informal source of credit for rural households
in India.
8. Which of the following is a 'barrier' on foreign trade?
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 4
A. Tax on import
B. Quality control
C. Sales tax
D. Tax on local trade 1 Mark
Ans: (A) Tax on import is a ‘barrier' on foreign trade.
9. ISI mark can be seen on which of the following items?
A. Jewellery
B. Edible oil
C. Electrical appliances
D. Cereals 1 Mark
Ans: (C) ISI mark can be seen on Electrical appliances.
10. Explain the process of unification of Italy. 3 Marks
Ans: The 'Unification of Italy' procedure was as follows:
i. In the mid-nineteenth century, Italy was divided into seven states, only one of
which, Sardinia-Piedmont, was ruled by an Italian princely house.
ii. The northern regions were administered by the Austrian Habsburgs, the centre
by the Pope, and the southern regions by the Spanish Bourbon kings.
iii. The secret organisations founded by Giuseppe Mazzini, such as the Young
Italy and the Young Europe, were instrumental in the unification of Italy.
Spain.
iv. Through a deft diplomatic alliance with France, Chief Minister Cavour led the
drive to combine the territories, and Sardinia-Piedmont defeated Austrian
forces in 1859.
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 5
v. Garibaldi conquered the Bourbon kings of Spain with his armed volunteers
known as red shirts, freeing the kingdom of 2 Sicilia's.Victor Emmanuel II
was declared king of united Italy in 1861.
Or
Explain any three steps taken by the French to develop cultivation in the
Mekong Delta. 3 Marks
Ans: The French took three measures to promote agriculture in the Mekong Delta:
i. Constructing canals and draining areas to enhance agricultural productivity.
ii. Use of forced labour to construct canals and enhance agriculture.
iii. Constructed infrastructure and transportation facilities for agricultural output
export.
11. How had the First World War created a new economic situation in India ?
Explain with three examples. 3 Marks
Ans: The First world war created a new economic situation in India because of the
following examples:
i. The First World War ushered in a new economic and political environment in
India. It resulted in a significant rise in defence spending, which was financed
by war loans and higher taxes; customs charges were hiked, and an income
tax was imposed.
ii. Prices rose, more than tripling between 1913 and 1918. This was felt by the
whole public.
iii. Villagers were asked to furnish soldiers, and forced recruiting in rural regions
occurred.
12. How was the Rowlatt Act opposed by the people in India ? Explain with
examples. 3 Marks
Ans: The Rowlatt Act was fought in the following ways:
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 6
i. Rallies were held in several cities.
ii. Strikes broke out at railway workshops.
iii. Stores were closed.
The horrific Jallianwala Bagh massacre occurred in protest of the Rowlatt Act.
General Dyer directed his forces to open fire on innocent citizens gathering from
Amritsar and beyond to attend a peaceful assembly.
13. Differentiate between metallic and non-metallic minerals with examples.
3 Marks
Ans: Difference between metallic and non-metallic minerals are as follows:
Metallic Minerals Non-Metallic Minerals
Metallic minerals are made up of one or Non-metals are minerals (non-metallic
more metallic elements, whereas non- minerals) that are not often used as raw
metallic minerals are made up of materials for metal extraction. The
chemical components that do not nonmetal group, which dominates the
generally exhibit metal properties or mineral spectrum, is extremely
features. important economically.
Metallic minerals are frequently Non-metallic minerals can be found
discovered in igneous and metamorphic embedded in young folded mountains
rock formations. and sedimentary rocks.
Metallic crystals are usually lustrous. Non-metallic minerals have no glimmer
or lustre.
Examples:Aluminium,Gold,Silver,Ores Examples:Diamond,Salt,Potash,etc.
Of Iron,etc.
14. Which state is the largest producer of manganese in India ? Mention any
four uses of manganese. 3 Marks
Ans: Odisha is the largest producer of manganese in India.
Uses of Manganese are:
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 7
i. Manganese is utilised in very small amounts in the manufacture of steel and
ferro manganese alloys.
ii. It is used in the manufacture of heavy iron machinery.
iii. It is used as a catalyst in the manufacturing of bleaching powder to obtain the
end product with minimal time consumption.
iv. It is used in the manufacture of insecticides and pesticides.
15. "Agriculture and industry move hand in hand." Analyse the statement with
three examples. 3 Marks
Ans: "Agriculture and industry move hand in hand."because of the following:
i. India's agro-based enterprises have significantly increased agricultural
production.
ii. They rely on the latter for raw materials and offer goods like irrigation pumps,
fertilisers, pesticides, and so on.
iii. The expansion and competitiveness of manufacturing sectors has not only
aided agriculturists in raising productivity but has also made the
manufacturing process more challenging.
16. Name the national political party which gets inspiration from India's
ancient culture and values. Mention four features of that party. 3 Marks
Ans: The Bharatiya Janata Party aspires to establish a strong and contemporary India
by building on India's historic culture and traditions.
Four features of the party are:
i. Cultural nationalism, or hindutva, is an important component of the Bharatiya
Janata Party's view of Indian nationhood and politics.
ii. It seeks Jammu and Kashmir's full territorial and political unification with
India.
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 8
iii. It asserts the existence of a consistent civil law for all living individuals in the
country, regardless of faith.
iv. It wishes to prohibit religious conversions. The party wishes to pass an anti-
conversion law in order to prevent religious conversion in the country.
17. How do Multinational Companies manage to keep the cost of production of
their goods low ? Explain with examples. 3 Marks
Ans: Multinational corporations keep their production costs low by:
i. They put their factories and offices in areas where resources are scarce but
reasonably priced.
ii. Goods and services are created internationally rather than in a single location.
China, for example, is renowned as a low-cost manufacturing site, whereas
India is famed for its highly qualified engineers.
iii. Production is structured in a sophisticated manner in order to maximise
profitability. Mexico, for example, is advantageous due to its proximity to the
US market. This method saves MNCs 50-60% of the cost.
18. "Legal-constitutional changes by themselves cannot overcome challenges to
democracy". Justify the itstatement with an example. 3 Marks
Ans: Legal and constitutional reforms alone will not suffice to address democratic
challenges:
i. Legal or constitutional reforms can serve as a deterrent to political and power
abuses, but they are insufficient.
ii. In cricket, for example, the LBW rule was created to prevent batters from
batting incorrectly and preserving the wicket. However, the effectiveness of
the legislation would be determined by the batters, players, and referee.
iii. Only the rule of law cannot provide fairness and justice in politics. Politicians,
as well as the general public, must work to improve politics.
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 9
19. How is money used as a medium of exchange ? Explain with examples.
3 Marks
Ans: Money is defined as any good that is generally recognised in the trade of
products and services, as well as in the payment of debts. Most individuals will mix
up the notion of money with other concepts such as income, wealth, and credit.
Money serves three purposes:
i. Medium of Exchange: Money may be used as a medium of exchange to buy
and sell products and services. If there was no money, commodities would
have to be exchanged through barter (goods would be traded for other goods
in transactions arranged on the basis of mutual need). For example, if I grow
chickens and want to acquire cows, I would need to locate someone willing to
trade his cows in exchange for my chickens. Such arrangements are frequently
difficult to make. Money, on the other hand, reduces the necessity for the dual
coincidence of desires.
ii. Unit of Account: Money is the most often used unit of account for
determining the relative worth of commodities and services.
iii. Value store: Money is the most liquid asset (Liquidity measures how easily
assets can be spent to buy goods and services). Money's worth may be
preserved throughout time. It is a practical method of storing riches.
20. "An ideal government would not only keep itself away from corruption but
also make fighting corruption and black money a top priority". Justify the
statement by highlighting the values attached to it. 3 Marks
Ans: The statement can be understood by the following:
i. Since the government is the backbone of every country, it should avoid
corruption.
ii. The government should fight corruption and promote a country's growth.
iii. The growth of a country is dependent on how the government works in the
country, thus the government should do their job effectively.
iv. Corruption also has an impact on the country's democracy. As a result, it is
preferable if a country is free of corruption.
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 10
21. How do we participate in the market as producers and consumers ? Explain
with three examples. 3 Marks
Ans: As both producers and consumers, we engage in the market. This may be
demonstrated in the following way:
i. As a producer of products and services, we may operate in a variety of
economic sectors such as agriculture, industry, or services.
ii. As consumers, we engage in the market by purchasing products and services
that we require.
iii. For example, if we grow crops, make automobiles, or operate a school, we are
producers; but, if we buy food grain from a market, buy a car, or see a doctor
as a patient, we are consumers.
22. How did culture play an important role in creating the idea of the nation in
Europe? Explain with examples. 5 Marks
Ans: Culture played a significant impact in shaping the concept of 'nation' in Europe:
i. Romanticism was a cultural movement that prioritised emotions, intuitions,
and mystical experiences over logic and science. They attempted to generate
sentiments of shared history and heritage.
ii. Johann Gottfried Herder, a Romantic, felt that German culture was alive and
well among the ordinary people, or das Volk. The folk culture of music,
poetry, and dance popularised the concept of nation.
iii. Local culture was also sought in order to address the huge number of
illiterates. Karol Kurpinski transformed traditional dances and music into
nationalist symbols in Poland.
iv. The language was also important for establishing a nationalist identity. When
Polish was forcibly removed from schools and Russian was enforced
everywhere during Russian annexation, many regarded the usage of Polish as
a symbol of national resistance.
Or
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 11
How were Vietnamese nationalists inspired by Japan and China to set up a
democratic republic ? Explain with examples. 5 Marks
Ans: Vietnamese nationalists are influenced by Japan and China in their desire to
establish a democratic republic.
Vietnam established friendly relations with Japan and China. They served as role
models for people seeking change, a safe haven for those fleeing the French police,
and a site where a larger Asian network of revolutionaries could be created.In 1907-
08, around 300 Vietnamese students travelled to Japan to obtain a contemporary
education. They made an appeal to the Japanese as fellow Asians and eventually
founded a branch of the Restoration Society in Tokyo.
China's developments also influenced Vietnamese nationalists. The long-established
monarchy in China was toppled in 1911 by a populist uprising led by Sun Yat Sen,
and a republic was established. As a result of these developments, Vietnamese
students established the Vietnam Restoration Association (viet-nam quan phuc hoi).
23. "Dalit participation was limited in the Civil Disobedience Movement".
Examine the statement. 5 Marks
Ans: Dalit involvement in the Civil Disobedience Movement was limited:
i. For a long time, the Congress had disregarded Dalits because they did not
want to disturb the traditional high-caste Hindus.
ii. However, Gandhi wished to abolish untouchability. He referred to them as
God's children, or Harijan, and organised satyagraha to get access to public
wells, schools, and temples.
iii. He cleaned toilets to honour the bhangi's labour and attempted to encourage
the higher caste to abandon untouchability.
iv. However, many Dalit leaders thought that only political empowerment could
alleviate the community's issues in society.
v. They requested that the Dalit group be given separate electorates in legislative
councils as well as reserved seats in educational institutions.As a result, Dalit
participation was restricted, particularly in Maharashtra and the Nagpur area.
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 12
Explanation: Mahatma Gandhi wished to reintegrate Dalits into society and abolish
prejudice. However, the Dalits did not feel it would work, so they sought political
power to secure their independence.
24. Explain any five measures to control industrial pollution in India. 5 Marks
Ans: Controlling industrial pollution is possible in the following ways:
i. Industrial plants should be established in remote regions apart from human
settlements.
ii. Industry must take preventative efforts to reduce pollution.
iii. Industry should promote product sustainability and recycling.
iv. More efforts should be made to develop local industries that use acceptable
and low-cost methods to decrease pollution generation at their facilities.
v. Industry must be encouraged to develop "green" techniques of manufacturing
and goods. It involves methods that are friendly to the environment.
25. Describe any five major problems faced by road transport in India.
5 Marks
Ans: Major problems faced by road transport in India are as follows:
i. The majority of Indian roads are unsurfaced and unfit for automobile usage.
ii. Roads are not well-maintained. Poor road surfaces result in significant vehicle
wear and tear.
iii. On the highways, there are numerous checkpoints, toll booths, and octroi duty
collection sites, which slow traffic, waste time, and irritate commuters.
iv. Many roads have insufficient capacity, deteriorating pavement, unbridged
level crossings, and a lack of facilities and safety features.
v. Cities' highways are extremely crowded, and the majority of bridges and
culverts are ancient and small.
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 13
26. How did the struggle of the Nepali people become a source of inspiration to
democrats all over the world? Explain. 5 Marks
Ans: The Nepali people's struggle has become a source of inspiration for democrats
all over the world for the following reasons:
i. Nepal was an absolute monarchy until 1990. In 1990, King Birendra
consented to transform Nepal from a constitutional monarchy to a
constitutional monarchy with the help of a people's movement. However, in
2005, King Gyanendra restored absolute monarchy to the kingdom.
ii. As a result of the people's revolt, the king was compelled to reverse his
decision, and Nepal became a constitutional monarchy.
iii. This people's movement and dedicated battle for democracy in Nepal inspired
democratic activists all over the world.
iv. The values associated with this conflict include:
a. People's finest tools are mass mobilisation and nonviolence.
b. People's unity and opposition to illegal measures.
c. Mass movement can attain a collective aim.
27. "Democracy is seen to be good in principle but felt to be not so good in
practice." Justify the statement. 5 Marks
Ans: The above statement can be justified by following explanations:
i. Democracies have a poor track record of communicating all information with
the people.
ii. They frequently irritate people's wants and ignore the majority's requests.
iii. The common stories of corruption are enough to convince us that democracy
is not immune to this plague.
iv. Most democracies fall short of holding elections that give everyone a fair
opportunity and exposing every decision to public discussion.
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 14
28. How have our markets been transformed in recent years ? Explain with
examples. 5 Marks
Ans: Our marketplaces have been changed in the previous several years. As
customers in today's society, some of us have a diverse range of goods and services
available to us. The most recent versions of digital cameras, mobile phones, and
televisions from the world's major manufacturers are now available to us. Every
season, new vehicle models may be spotted on Indian roadways. The days of
Ambassador and Fiat being the only vehicles on Indian roads are long gone. Today,
Indians buy vehicles from almost every major automaker in the globe. Many other
products, from shirts to televisions to processed fruit juices, have experienced a
similar brand boom. The availability of such a diverse range of items in our markets
is a relatively new occurrence.You wouldn’t have found such a wide variety of goods
in Indian markets even two decades back.
29. Why are rules and regulations required for the protection of the consumers,
in the marketplace ? Explain with examples. 5 Marks
Ans: Rules and regulations required for the protection of the consumers in the
marketplace can be explained by the following:
i. To check adulteration: To prevent adulteration, consumer knowledge is also
required. At times, greedy traders begin to toy with people's health by
engaging in adulteration of edible oils, milk, butter, ghee, and so on.
ii. To check powerful producers: When producers are few and powerful, but
consumers purchase in little numbers and are dispersed, the market does not
function fairly. As a result, laws are needed to keep these strong producers in
control.
iii. False Information: Most of the time, false information is handed on to
customers through the media and other sources in order to attract them.
iv. Compensation: Rules and regulations must be followed in order to
compensate the abused customer. Consumer Courts have been formed in India
to assist consumers with justice.
v. Privatisation: Since 1991, the Government of India has withdrawn from the
majority of productivities, allowing the private sector to take over. As a result,
it was considered that there is a stronger need to impose market discipline and
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 15
rules, as well as making customers aware of not just the business elements of
the sale and purchase of goods, but also the health and security aspects.
30.1. Two features A and B, are marked in the political outline map of India.
Identify these features with the help of the following information and write their
correct names on the lines marked in the map:
A. The place where the Indian National Congress Session was held in
December 1920.
B. The place where the 'Movement of Indigo Planters' was started. 2 Marks
30.2. On the same given political outline map of India, locate and label the
following features with appropriate symbols:
i. Kalpakkam - Nuclear power plant
ii. Bhadravati - Iron and steel plant
iii. Kochchi - Major sea port 3 Marks
Ans:
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 16
Note: The following questions are for the BLIND CANDIDATES only, in lieu of
question number 30.
30.1 Name the place where Indian National Congress Session was held in
December 1920. 1 Mark
Ans: Indian National Congress Session was held at Nagpur In December 1920.
30.2 Which is the place where the 'Indigo Planters Movement' started?1 Mark
Ans: 'Indigo Planters Movement' started in Champaran district.
30.3 Name the nuclear plant located in Uttar Pradesh. 1 Mark
Ans: The Nuclear plant located in Uttar Pradesh is Narora Atomic Power Station.
30.4 Name the iron and steel plant located in Chhattisgarh. 1 Mark
Ans: The iron and steel plant located in Chattisgarh is Bhilai Steel Plant.
30.5 Which is the major sea port of the southernmost part of India ? 1 Mark
Ans: The major sea port of the southernmost part of India is Tuticorin Port.
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 17
CBSE Class 10
Social Science
Previous Year Question Paper 2014
Series: HRS Set- 1
Code no. 32/1
● Please check that this question paper contains 13 printed pages + 1 Map.
● Code number given on the right-hand side of the question paper should be
written on the title page of the answer-book by the candidate.
● Please check that this question paper contains 30 questions.
● Please write down the Serial Number of the question before attempting
it.
● 15 minutes’ time has been allotted to read this question paper. The question
paper will be distributed at 10.15 a.m. From 10.15 a.m. to 10.30 a.m., the
students will read the question paper only and will not write any answer on
the answer script during this period.
SUMMATIVE ASSESSMENT- II
SOCIAL SCIENCE
Time Allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 90
General Instructions:
1. The question paper has 30 questions in all. All questions are compulsory.
2. Marks for each question are indicated against the question.
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 1
3. Questions from serial number 1 to 9 are Multiple Choice Questions. Each
question carries 1 mark.
4. Questions from serial number 10 to 21 are 3 marks questions. Answers of
these questions should not exceed 80 words each.
5. Questions from serial number 22 to 29 are 5 marks questions. Answers of
these questions should not exceed 120 words each.
6. Question number 30 is a map question of 5 marks (2 marks from History and
3 marks from Geography).
7. Attach the filled-up map inside your answer-book.
1. What of conservative regimes were set up in 1815 in Europe? Choose the
appropriate answer from the following: 1 Mark
a) Autocratic
b) Democratic
c) Aristocratic
d) Dictatorial
Ans: Autocratic
Or
Who among the following, was the head of the Revolutionary Society formed
by Phan Boi Chau? 1 Mark
a) Prince Cuong De
b) Phan Boi Chau
c) Phan Chu Trinh
d) Liang Qichao
Ans: Prince Cuong De
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 2
2. In which one of the following Indian National Congress Sessions was the
demand of ‘Purna Swaraj’ formalised in December 1929? 1 Mark
a) Madras Session
b) Lahore Session
c) Calcutta Session
d) Nagpur Session
Ans: Lahore Session
3. National Waterway No. 1 is navigable between which of the following places?
1 Mark
a) Sadiya and Dhubri
b) Allahabad and Haldia
c) Udyogamandal and Champakkara
d) Kottapuram and Komman
Ans: Allahabad and Haldia
4. Which one of the following political parties came to power in Bolivia in 2006?
1 Mark
a) The Communist Party
b) The Republican Party
c) The Socialist Party
d) The Conservative Party
Ans: The Socialist Party
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 3
5. Which one of the following is the most popular form of government in the
contemporary world? 1 Mark
a) Dictatorship
b) Monarchy
c) Military rule
d) Democracy
Ans: Democracy
6. Which one of the following is a ‘National Political Party’? 1 Mark
a) Samajwadi Party
b) Rashtriya Janata Dal
c) Rashtriya Lok Dal
d) Bahujan Samaj Party
Ans: Bahujan Samaj Party
7. Which one of the following days is being observed as ‘National Consumers’
Day’ in India? 1 Mark
a) 24 December
b) 25 December
c) 10 December
d) 31 December
Ans: 24 December
8. Which one of the following laws was enacted by the Government of India in
October 2005? 1 Mark
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 4
a) The Right to Property Act
b) The Right to Education Act
c) The Consumer Protection Act
d) The Right to Information Act
Ans: The Right to Information Act
9. Which one of the following refers to investment? 1 Mark
a) The money spent in religious ceremonies.
b) The money spent on social customs.
c) The money spent to buy assets such as land.
d) The money spent on household goods.
Ans: The money spent to buy assets such as land
10. Explain the conditions that were viewed as obstacles to the economic
exchange and growth by the new commercial classes during the nineteenth
century in Europe. 3 Marks
Ans: The conditions are as follows:
1.Restrictions were imposed by the state on the movement of goods and capitals.
2.There was an absence of freedom of markets.
3.Duties on goods were often levied on the basis of its weight or measurement and
because each region had its own system of weights and measures, the calculations
were time consuming.
Or
How did students in Vietnam fight against the colonial government’s efforts to
prevent Vietnamese from qualifying for ‘white collar jobs’? Explain. 3 Marks
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 5
Ans: The students in Vietnam protested against the colonial government that was
trying to prevent Vietnamese from qualifying for ‘white collar jobs’ in the following
ways:
1. The students formed several political parties such as the ‘Party of the Young
Annan’.
2. They published nationalist journals like the ‘Annanese Student’.
3. During the ‘Go East Movement’, the majority of the students went to Japan to
gain modern education.
11. Why did Gandhiji decide to launch a nationwide Satyagraha against the
proposed Rowlatt Act, 1919? Explain. 3 Marks
Ans: Gandhiji decided to launch a nationwide Satyagraha against the proposed
Rowlatt Act because of the following reasons:
1. The Imperial Legislative Council passed the Rowlatt Act in spite of the united
opposition of the Indian members.
2. The Act provided the Government with enormous power to repress political
activities.
3. The Act also permitted the imprisonment of political leaders without trial for
a period of two years.
12. Describe the main features of ‘Salt March’. 3 Marks
Ans: The main features of Salt March are as follows:
i. Gandhiji began his famous salt march on March 12, 1930, and he was
accompanied by 78 of his trusted volunteers.
ii. The march covered 240 miles, from Gandhi ashram in Sabarmati to the
Gujarat coastal town of Dandi. The volunteers walked about 10 miles a day
and completed the march in 24 days.
iii. Gandhiji broke the salt law by making salt from sea water. This also marked
the beginning of the Civil Disobedience Movement.
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 6
13. What are the two main ways of generating electricity? How are they
different from each other? Explain. 3 Marks
Ans: The two main ways of generating electricity are Hydropower and Thermal
power. Hydropower and Thermal power differ in the following ways:
Hydropower Thermal Power
Hydropower refers to the electricity that Thermal Power refers to the electricity
is generated with the help of water that is generated with the help of heat
stored in dams. and steam.
In this method, potential energy in the In this method, fossil fuels like coal,
large volumes of water is converted into petroleum are combusted to generate
electrical energy. This happens when heat. This heat converts water into
water is released from dams and this steam which rotates the turbines with its
water reaches the bottom at high speeds high pressure. Thus, generating
and rotates the turbines, thus generating electricity.
electricity.
14. Name the non-metallic mineral which can split easily into thin sheets.
Mention its uses. 3 Marks
Ans: Non-metallic minerals are those minerals which are bad conductors of heat and
electricity, are brittle and lack lustre. The non-metallic mineral that can easily split
into thin sheets is known as Mica. Its uses are as follows:
1. Due to its excellent dielectric strength, low power loss factor, insulating
properties and resistance to high voltage, it is used in electrical and electronic
industries.
2. It is used as a pigment extender in paints and also helps to brighten the tone of
coloured pigments.
15. Why are efficient means of transport pre-requisites for the fast development
of the country? Explain. 3 Marks
Ans: Efficient means of transport are a prerequisite because:
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 7
● The production of consumer goods in itself is not enough. These goods also
have to be brought from their supply locations to demand locations, which
necessitates the need for transport.
● The people who are engaged in facilitating these movements are referred to
as traders. They make the products reach the consumers by transportation.
● Transport of goods is essential for economic activity to take place within the
national economy.
Thus, the pace of a country’s development relies upon the production of goods and
services and their movement over space.
16. Name the six ‘National Political Parties’ in India in a chronological order.
3 Marks
Ans: The six ‘National Political Parties' in a chronological order are as follows:
National party Year of Establishment
1. Indian National Congress 1885
2. Communist Party of India 1925
3. Communist Party of India (Marxist) 1964
4. Bharatiya Janata Party 1980
5. Bahujan Samaj Party 1984
6. Nationalist Congress Party 1999
17. What inspiration do we get from Bolivia’s popular struggle? Explain any
three values that we can learn from it. 3 Marks
Ans: The success of Bolivia's popular struggle reminded us about the power of the
people. The inspiration that we get from Bolivia's popular struggle is that unity of
common men can overcome the big problems that we face in our lives.
Three values that we learn from Bolivia’s popular struggle are:
1. Democracy evolves by means of popular struggles. Popular struggles lead to
an enlargement of democracy because the people struggle for what they need
or protest what they think is wrong.
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 8
2. The resolution of democratic conflicts can be done through mass mobilization.
When government institutions are themselves involved, people have to
resolve the conflict.
3. Conflicts and mobilizations become stronger when they are supported by
political agencies like parties, pressure groups or movement groups.
18. How is democratic government known as a responsive government? Explain
with examples. 3 Marks
Ans: Democracy is a form of government in which is elected by the whole
population of a country through elected representatives. This is a type of government
which is accountable to the citizens and the legislature, and is also responsive to the
needs and expectations of the people.
1. A democratic government is accountable to the citizens of the country as
well as responsive to their needs and expectations.
2. Democracy provides a responsive government because it is formed by
elected representatives of the people. These representatives discuss the
problems faced by the society and formulate policies and programmes
accordingly. They also make sure that the programmes are implemented.
3. A democratic form of government tries to maintain a mechanism in which
the citizen that elect the government, can also hold them accountable.
19. How have markets been transformed in recent years? Explain with
examples . 3 Marks
Ans: After the advent of globalisation (Globalisation is the process of rapid
integration and interconnection between countries across the globe) many changes
have occurred in the markets. These changes are as follows:
1. The goods and services are produced globally. Therefore, production is
organised in increasingly complex ways.
2. The choice among various goods and services has increased drastically.
Products these days are of better quality and are even available at very low
costs.
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 9
3. A technology of buying products and services over the electronic network or
the internet has also emerged in recent years. This mode of buying and selling
items is called e-commerce.
20. Explain any three factors which gave birth to the ‘Consumer Movement’ in
India. 3 Marks
Ans: “Consumer Movement” is a social force which originated to protect and
promote the consumer interests against unfair and unethical practices in trade. The
three factors which gave birth to the ‘Consumer Movement’ in India are as follows:
1. The Consumer Movement arose out of dissatisfaction of the consumers
because the sellers were indulged in many unfair practices.
2. Unavailability of a legal system to protect the consumers from exploitation in
the marketplace. It was presumed that it was the consumer's responsibility to
be careful while buying a commodity or service.
3. Rampant food shortages, unfair and unethical trade practices like hoarding
and black marketing, adulteration of food and edible oil gave birth to the
consumer movement in an organised form in the 1960s.
21. Explain with an example, how credit plays a vital and positive role for
development. 3 Marks
Ans: A credit is a loan or an agreement in which the lender may supply the borrower
with money, goods, or services with the promise to receive a future payment. Credit
plays a vital and positive role in the following ways:
1. It helps people from all spheres of life in establishing their business, increase
their income and provide support to their family needs.
2. People often avail themselves of credit to purchase luxury items like vehicles,
A.C.s, etc., which further raises their standard of living.
3. It enables us to invest in human resources. People take credit for education,
training, etc. which allows enrichment of human resources.
For example, Salim availed credit facility to fulfil the working capital needs
of production. The credit helped him to meet the ongoing expenses of
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 10
production, complete production on time, thereby, increasing his income.
Therefore, in this situation credit plays a vital and positive.
22. How had revolutionaries spread their ideas in many European States after
1815? Explain with examples? 5 Marks
Ans: During the years following 1815, many liberal-nationalists went underground
due to the fear of repression.
1. Secret societies were formed in majority of the European states to spread their
ideas and train revolutionaries.
2. At that time, being a revolutionary meant a commitment to oppose
monarchical forms that had been established by the Vienna Congress, and to
fight for freedom and liberty.
3. They also saw the creation of a nation-state as a necessary part of their struggle
for freedom.
4. For example- Giuseppe Mazzini, an Italian revolutionary, was one of the
members of a secret society who was exiled for attempting a revolution in
Liguria. He subsequently founded two other secret societies, first, Young Italy
in Marseilles, and then, Young Europe in Berne, whose members were like-
minded young men from Poland, France, Italy and the German states.
5. He founded the secret societies for the unification of the fragmented Italy. His
relentless opposition to monarchy and his vision of democratic republics
frightened the conservatives.
6. Following the model of Mazzini, secret societies were set up in Germany,
France, Switzerland and Poland.
Or
Explain, with examples, how religious groups played an important role in the
development of anti-colonial feelings in Vietnam. 5 Marks
Ans: The religious beliefs of Vietnam were a mixture of Buddhism, Confucianism
and local practices. Religion was an integral part of the social and cultural life of the
people of Vietnam. Religious groups had a significant impact in developing anti-
colonial feelings in Vietnam.
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 11
1. In Vietnam, Christianity was introduced by the French. They encouraged
conversions in order to extend their cultural and social domination in the
country.
2. Scholars Revolt broke out in 1868 to protest against the autocratic spread of
Christianity. The French managed to suppress the revolt, but this uprising had
inspired other patriots to rise up and fight against them.
3. Popular uprisings occurred in Ngu An and Hai Tien provinces, in which over
a thousand Catholics were murdered.
4. Many other religious movements actively campaigned against the religious
policies of the French government.
5. Huynh Phu So led a movement in 1939, referred to as the Hoa Hao movement,
in the Mekong delta region. He was against the sale of child brides, gambling
and the consumption of alcohol and opium. The French tried to suppress the
movement and eventually he was exiled to Laos.
All these movements were of great significance in arousing anti-colonial feelings in
Vietnam.
23. How did different social groups conceive the idea of ‘Non-Cooperation’?
Explain with examples. 5 Marks
Ans: The non-cooperation movement was launched on 5th September 1920 by the
Indian National Congress, under the leadership of Mahatma Gandhi. He persuaded
the citizens of India to withdraw from all activities that sustained the British
government and economy in India. Different social groups conceived different ideas
of the ‘Non-Cooperation’:
1. The movement commenced with the participation of the middle-class society
in the cities. Thousands of students moved out of government-controlled
schools and colleges, headmasters and teachers gave their resignation and
lawyers gave up their practices.
2. The council elections were boycotted in the majority of the provinces except
Madras, where the Justice Party felt that entering the council was one way of
securing some power.
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 12
3. In the Gudem Hills of Andhra Pradesh, Alluri Sitaram Raju was the leader of
the hill people. He was persuaded by the Non-Cooperation Movement and
motivated other people to wear clothes made of khadi and give up drinking.
Under his leadership, the hill people attacked police stations and attempted to
kill British officials.
4. In Awadh, peasants participated in the movement as they were against
talukdars and landlords who demanded exorbitantly high rents and a variety
of other cesses from them. The peasants demanded a decrease in revenue,
abolition of beggars, and social boycott of oppressive landlords.
5. Assam’s plantation workers too had their own understanding of the
movement. When they learned about the Non-Cooperation Movement,
thousands of workers defied the authorities, left the plantations and went to
their home.
24. Why is there a pressing need for using renewable energy sources in India?
Explain any five reasons. 5 Marks
Ans: Renewable resources are natural resources that have the ability to replenish
themselves to replace the portion that has been consumed by us, hum Ans: They are
also known as ‘flow resources’.
1. The basic requirement for economic development is energy. Every sector of
the national economy such as agriculture or primary, industry or secondary,
transport or tertiary, commercial and domestic needs energy inputs.
The rate at which the energy consumption is accelerating has compelled India
to be largely dependent on fossil fuels like coal and petroleum that are non-
renewable. Thus, the use of sustainable sources of energy needs to be
enhanced.
2. Rising prices of oil and gas and their limited availability have raised
uncertainties about the security of energy supply in future. This in turn leads
to unpredictability regarding the future of the national economy.
3. Increasing consumption of fossil fuels leads to environmental pollution and
degradation of soil, air, and water.
4. Hence, there is an urgent need to use renewable energy sources like solar,
wind, tide, biomass and energy from waste material. These are called non-
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 13
conventional energy sources. India has an abundance of renewable sources of
energy such as wind, water, sunlight and biomass, and the largest programmes
for their development too.
25. ‘‘Advancement of international trade of a country is an index to its
prosperity.’’ Support the statement with suitable examples. 5 Marks
Ans: International trade is the exchange of goods and services that is conducted
between two or more different countries. The aim here is to provide certain resources
to other countries that do not have it. The following points are in support to the
statement given in the question:
● In the entire world, there is no country which is self-sufficient in all resources.
Resources are space-bound so countries trade with each other in order to
acquire various resources.
● When the value of exports exceeds the value of imports, it is known as a
favourable balance of trade. This represents the positive condition of the
country’s economy. But when the value of imports exceeds the value of
exports, it is referred to as an unfavourable balance of trade representing the
negative condition of the economy.
● Increased international trade shows increased relations between countries
which is mutually beneficial.
● International trade also induces development of secondary and tertiary sectors
of a country. Thus, a country can fetch more foreign exchange and strengthen
its financial position in the market.
● International trade is considered as an ‘economic barometer' of a country. It
is a huge source of income as well as a sign of development of the country.
Thus, the economic prosperity of a country can be gauged by the health of its
international trade.
26. ‘‘About a hundred years ago there were few countries that had hardly any
political party. Now there are few countries that do not have political parties.’’
Examine this statement. 5 Marks
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 14
Ans: The statement consists of two parts, the first part shows that about 100 years
ago, there were few countries that were democratic and if they were not democratic
countries, there was no need for political parties.
The second part shows that now there are very few countries that do not have
political parties. In the last 100 years, many countries became independent from
colonial rule. After independence, they adopted democratic governments. Therefore,
there was an increasing necessity for political parties.
The political parties are important due to the following reasons:
1. Contesting elections: In the majority of the elections that occur around
the world, parties nominate candidates who then compete in the elections.
If we don't have political parties, then in such a situation every candidate
in elections will be independent.
2. Making policies and programmes: Political parties formulate and
support policies and programmes according to the various public opinions
and interests. The government generally follows the programmes of the
ruling party.
3. Making Laws: Political parties play a crucial part in making laws for a
country. Laws are discussed and passed in the legislature. Majority of the
members in the legislature belong to a political party so they stick to the
decisions of the party and not personal ones usually.
4. Forming governments: The political executives are responsible for taking
the big decisions. These executives are chosen by the winning party and
are a part of that party. Thus, the government is formed and run by them.
5. Role of opposition: Those who fail to win the elections become the
opposition. They question and criticise the government policies. They
represent different views and keep a check on the ruling party. In a
democracy, the role of the opposition party necessitates the existence of
political parties.
27. Compare the popular struggles of Nepal and Bolivia. 5 Marks
Ans: In 2006, Nepal witnessed a very popular movement, which aimed at regaining
popular control over the government from the king of the monarchy in Nepal.
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 15
Similarly, there was a popular movement in Bolivia which fought against the
privatisation of water, in 2000.
1. The movement in Nepal was aimed at restoring democracy, whereas
Bolivia’s water war involved claims on an elected, democratic
government.
2. The struggle in Bolivia was regarding a specific policy, while the struggle
in Nepal was about the foundations of the country’s politics.
3. Both struggles are examples of political conflict that led to popular
struggles and involved mass mobilisation.
4. The dispute was settled by means of public demonstration and involved
the crucial role of political organisations.
5. The following conclusions can be drawn:
● Democracy evolves by means of popular struggles. The defining
moments of democracy take place when the country is going through
transition to democracy, expansion of democracy or deepening of
democracy.
● Such moments generally involve disagreement between those groups
who have exercised power and those who intend for a share in power.
● Some significant decisions may take place by means of consensus and
may not involve any dispute at all in rare cases.
● Democratic conflict can be resolved by means of mass mobilisation. At
times, it is possible that the conflict is resolved by using the existing
institutions like the parliament or the judiciary.
● But in cases involving a deep dispute, frequently these institutions
themselves get involved in the dispute.
● In such cases, the solution has to come from outside, from the citizens.
28. ‘‘Globalisation has been advantageous to consumers as well as to
producers.’’ Support the statement with suitable examples. 5 Marks
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 16
Ans: Globalisation is the process of rapid integration and interconnection between
countries across the globe. Multinational Corporations (MNCs) play a crucial role
in the process of globalisation. Globalisation has proved to be advantageous to both
the consumers and producers in the following ways:
1. Both globalisation and increasing competition among producers has been
advantageous to consumers, especially the well-off sections in the urban
area. There is greater choice before these consumers, and they now enjoy
improved quality and lower prices for various products. Thus, consumers
enjoy much higher living standards than was possible earlier.
2. In India, MNCs have increased their investment and they are interested
more in industries such as cell phones, automobiles, etc., or services like
banking in urban areas. Due to this new jobs have been created in these
industries and services. Also, the local companies that supply raw
materials to these companies have prospered.
3. The increased competition resulted in the benefit of several of the top
Indian companies. These companies invest in newer technology and
production methods and even raise their production standards
significantly. Some have gained by collaborating successfully with foreign
companies.
4. Globalisation has enabled some large Indian companies to emerge as
multinational companies themselves. For example- Indian companies like
Tata Motors, an automobile company, and Infosys, an IT company, are
expanding their operations worldwide.
5. Globalisation has also led to the creation of new opportunities for service
providing companies, especially those involving IT. Some examples are
The Indian Company which produces a magazine for the London based
company and call centres.
29. Why are rules and regulations required in the marketplace? Explain.
5 Marks
Ans: Rules and regulations are required for consumer’s protection in the
marketplace. This is due to the following reasons:
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 17
1. Whenever the buyer has a complaint regarding a good or service that he
had bought, the seller tries to shift the responsibility on to the buyer. As if
he has no responsibility once a sale is done. Thus, the rules and regulations
are required to change this situation.
2. Sometimes traders are involved in unfair trade practices such as when
shopkeepers weigh less than what they should or when traders include
charges that were not mentioned before, or when adulterated/ detective
products are sold.
3. Markets do not operate in a fair manner when producers are limited and
powerful whereas consumers purchase in small quantities and are
dispersed. This happens particularly when large companies are
manufacturing these goods. These companies can easily manipulate the
market in several ways through their huge wealth, power and reach.
4. Media and other sources, at times, pass false information in order to attract
customers. For example- a company sold powder milk for babies all over
the world claiming that the powder was better than mother’s milk. It took
years of struggle before the company was forced to accept that it had been
making false claims.
5. Hence, there is a need for rules and regulations to ensure the protection of
consumers in the marketplace. In India, the consumer movement
originated as a ‘social force’ with the objective of safeguarding and
promoting interests against unethical and unfair trade practices.
30. (30.1) Two features A and B are marked in the political outline map of India
(on page 15). Identify these features with the help of the following information
and write their correct names on the lines marked in the map:
A. The place where the Indian National Congress Session was held in 1927.
B. The place which is associated with the movement of Indigo planters.
2 Marks
Ans: A. Madras
B. Champaran
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 18
(30.2) On the same political outline map of India, locate and label the following
with appropriate symbols: 3 Marks
A. Naora — a nuclear power plant
B. Rourkela — an iron and steel plant
C. Kandla — a major seaport
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 19
Ans:
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 20
CBSE Class 10
Social Science
Previous Year Question Paper 2014
Series: HRS/1 Set- 1
Code no. 32/1/1
● Please check that this question paper contains 14 printed pages + map.
● Code number given on the right hand side of the question paper should be
written on the title page of the answer-book by the candidate.
● Please check that this question paper contains 30 questions.
● Please write down the Serial Number of the question in the answer-book
before attempting it.
● 15 minute time has been allotted to read this question paper. The question
paper will be distributed at 10.15 a.m. From 10.15 a.m. to 10.30 a.m., the
students will read the question paper only and will not write any answer on
the answer-book during this period.
SUMMATIVE ASSESSMENT- II
SOCIAL SCIENCE
Time Allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 90
General Instructions:
1. The question paper has 30 questions in all. All questions are compulsory.
2. Marks for each question are indicated against the question.
3. Questions from serial number 1 to 9 are Multiple Choice Questions. Each
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 1
question carries 1 mark.
4. Questions from serial number 10 to 21 are 3 marks questions. Answers of these
questions should not exceed 80 words each.
5. Questions from serial number 22 to 29 are 5 marks questions. Answers of these
questions should not exceed 120 words each.
6. Question number 30 is a map question of 5 marks (2 marks from History and 3
marks from Geography).
7. Attach the filled up map inside your answer-book.
1. Which among the following was the main reason for the weavers to revolt
against contractors in Silesia, in 1845? 1 Mark
(A) Contractors reduced their payments drastically
(B) They stopped the supply of raw materials to them
(C) They refused to place orders for finished textiles
(D) Condition of weavers was very pitiable
Ans: (A) Contractors reduced their payments drastically
Or
Which among the following was the main reason to start the 'Tonkin Free
School' in Vietnam? 1 Mark
(A) To provide 'Western Style Education'
(B) To provide 'Modem Education'
(C) To provide 'Science Education'
(D) To popularise the 'French Language'
Ans: (A) To provide 'Western Style Education'
2. In which one of the following places Mahatma Gandhi organised Satyagraha
for the first time in India? 1 Mark
(A) Dandi
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 2
(B) Ahmedabad
(C) Kheda
(D) Champaran
Ans: (D) Champaran
3. Which one of the following has been the major source of foreign exchange
for I.T. industry? 1 Mark
(A) Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited
(B) Oil India Limited
(C) Steel Authority of India Limited
(D) Business Process Outsourcing
Ans: (D) Business Process Outsourcing
4. Which one of the following statements is correct regarding 'sectional interest
groups'? 1 Mark
(A) They promote collective rather than selective good.
(B) Their principal concern is betterment and well being of their members, not
society in general.
(C) They aim to help groups other than their own members.
(D) They do not seek to promote the interest of a particular section or group of
society.
Ans: (B) Their principal concern is betterment and well being of their members, not
society in general.
5. Which one of the following facilities is offered by the 'Election Commission'
to a recognised political party? 1 Mark
(A) Party name
(B) Election funds
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 3
(C) Election symbol
(D) Manifesto
Ans: (C) Election symbol
6. Which one of the following is an example of outcomes of a democracy that
produces an accountable Government? 1 Mark
(A) Open to public debates on major policies and legislation
(B) Open in promoting economic development
(C) Open in reducing economic inequalities
(D) Open to rulers elected by the people
Ans: (A) Open to public debates on major policies and legislation
7. Which one of the following is a formal source of credit? 1 Mark
(A) Traders
(B) Cooperative societies
(C) Money-lenders
(D) Friends and relatives
Ans: (B) Cooperative societies
8. Which one of the following is the appropriate meaning of collateral? 1 Mark
(A) It is the sum total of money borrowed from banks
(B) The amount borrowed from friends
(C) It is an asset of the borrower used as guarantee to a lender
(D) The amount invested in a business
Ans: (C) It is an asset of the borrower used as guarantee to a lender
9. Which one of the following organisations lays stress on liberalisation of
foreign trade and foreign investment? 1 Mark
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 4
(A) International Monetary Fund
(B) International Labour Organisation
(C) World Health Organisation
(D) World Trade Organisation
Ans: (D) World Trade Organisation
10. How did the local people in the areas conquered by Napoleon react to
French rule? Explain. 3 Marks
Ans: The local people in the areas conquered by Napoleon react to French rule in
the following ways:
● The French soldiers were first hailed as ambassadors of the notion of liberty
and freedom in countries like Holland and Switzerland, as well as towns like
Brussels, Mainz, Milan, and Warsaw.
● However, once people discovered that the new administrative structures did
not guarantee their political freedoms and freedom, the initial warmth quickly
turned to hate.
● The government's policies, which included higher taxes, censorship, and
compulsory conscription, negated the benefits of administrative
improvements.
Or
Why did a major protest erupt in 1926 in the Saigon Native Girls School in
Vietnam? Explain. 3 Marks
Ans: On the subject of racial discrimination, a protest was held at Saigon Girls
School. A Vietnamese girl sitting in one of the front seats was asked to move to the
back of the class and allow a local French student to occupy the front bench. The
girl refused and, along with other protesting pupils, was ejected. To avoid additional
opportunism, the administration was compelled to let the expelled kids return to
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 5
school. When angry students protested, they too were expelled, leading to a further
spread of open protests.
11. Explain the idea of Satyagraha according to Gandhiji. 3 Marks
Ans: Gandhi's Satyagraha is a form of nonviolent resistance as:
● Gandhiji was a person who used to believe in the power of truth as well as the
idea of Satyagraha strongly. He believed that if the cause of the battle was
legitimate and against injustice, then fighting the oppressor with physical
force was unnecessary.
● Instead of compelling the oppressor to embrace the truth via violence, a
satyagrahi might appeal to the oppressor's conscience and encourage him to
see the truth without resorting to violence. As a result, the truth was destined
to triumph in the end.
● After seeing the gap in the nationalist movement amongst diverse
communities and groups in India, he made endeavours to unify the people of
India via the dharma of ahimsa i.e., nonviolence.
12. Describe any three suppressive measures taken by the British
administration to clampdown on nationalists. 3×1=3 Marks
Ans: Suppressive measures taken by the British administration to clampdown on
nationalists are:
● Rowlatt Act: This Act was an oppressive act introduced by the British
Government in 1919 as it gave the government enormous powers to repress
political activities and allowed the detention of political prisoners without trial
for two years.
● Imposing martial law: Whenever the nationalists used to launch a mass
movement the government responded with martial law and during the Rowlett
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 6
Satyagraha, the government reacted with violent repression, attempting to
humiliate and terrorize individuals.
● Putting the nationalist behind the bars: During every mass movement, the
nationalist leaders were picked up and put behind the bars.
13. Why is energy required for all activities? How can energy be generated?
Explain. 1+2=3 Marks
Ans: Energy is the fundamental unit for all types of work and activities, as we
require energy to do things like cook, provide heat and light, and operate cars and
machines in industries, etc., and also energy is a basic requirement for economic
development, hence by this we can say that energy is required for all activities.
Energy can be generated in the following ways:
● Energy can be divided into - conventional and non-conventional sources of
energy. These resources play an important role in providing energy to various
sectors of the economy.
● Energy can be generated from conventional sources such as coal, petroleum,
natural gas, firewood, and cattle dung as well as non-conventional sources
such as solar energy, wind energy. atomic energy, tidal energy, and so on.
14. How do means of transport and communication play an important role in
the economic development of the country? Explain. 3 Marks
Ans: Transport and communication play an important role in the economic
development of the country in the following ways:
● With the help of efficient and fast-moving transportation, the world has been
transformed into a huge village.
● With the support of a similarly constructed communication infrastructure,
transportation has been able to achieve this, and also, help in the development
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 7
of all the economic sectors - primary, secondary, tertiary, and quaternary.
● Railways, airways, waterways, newspapers, radio, television, cinema, and the
internet have been contributing to its economic progress in many ways.
Therefore, transport communication and trade are complementary to each other.
15. 'Environmental degradation has been seen everywhere.' Explain any three
values that can help to prevent environment degradation. 3×1=3 Marks
Ans: Environmental degradation is the disintegration of the earth or deterioration of
the environment through consumption of assets, like, air, water, and soil. Three
values that can help to prevent environmental degradation are as follows:
● Optimum utilization of equipment, adopting the latest techniques. Existing
equipment is being upgraded.
● Creating green belts to help maintain ecological balance.
● Reducing pollution in the environment via managing ash ponds, water
recycling systems, and liquid waste management.
16. Why do we need political parties? Explain. 3 Marks
Ans: A political party is a group that organizes candidates to run for office in a given
country's elections. A political party's members are likely to share similar political
views, and parties may advocate certain ideological or policy goals.
● In a democratic country, political parties are the most visible vehicles for
bringing about change. The vast majority of regular folks connect with well-
known political parties.
● Political parties are important democratic entities that serve a range of tasks
in the smooth operation of a society. Leaders, active members, and their
followers make up this group.
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 8
● Political parties are also a component in the decision-making process. Because
the majority of legislators belong to different parties, they tend to influence
decision-making by following the party leadership's lead.
17. How are popular struggles integral to the working democracy? Explain with
an example of Bolivia's struggle against privatisation of water. 3 Marks
Ans: Democracies are built on popular battles. These are extremely beneficial to the
spread of democracy. The importance of popular struggle in a democracy can be
understood from the example of Bolivia's water war. People were dissatisfied with
the decision of the government to give up control over the municipal water supply
and the subsequent hike in water tax imposed by the multinational corporation. This
led to spontaneous popular protests as the water cost began to make a dent in the
household budget of the citizens. It was due to such protest by the people that the
MNC contract was canceled and the municipal water supply was restored to old rates
representing courts.
18. How is democratic government known as a responsive government? Explain
with an example. 3 Marks
Ans: Democracy is frequently described as a type of governance that is responsible,
responsive, and legitimate. Professor Jason Barabas defines democratic
responsiveness as the degree to which government policies are aligned with citizen
desires. A democratic government has to be responsive to the needs of its citizens.
As it is constituted by elected representatives of the people, democracy ensures a
responsive government. These officials meet to debate societal issues and develop
policies and programs in response. The representatives also make certain that the
programs are carried out.
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 9
For example, during the rule of UPA, the Ministry of Environment, under pressure
from the United Nations, some NGOs, and several environmental protection groups,
passed several legislations to regulate the process of industrialization while at the
same time protecting the environment.
19. How does money solve the problem of double coincidence of wants? Explain
with an example. 3 Marks
Ans: Money solves the problem of double coincidence of wants as money acts as a
medium of exchange. A circumstance in which two parties agree to sell and buy each
other's commodities is known as a double coincidence of wants. This means that
what one party wants to sell is exactly what the other wants to buy. Money eliminates
this time-consuming and complicated scenario by serving as a universal medium of
exchange for all commodities. If an ice-cream vendor wants a bicycle but the bicycle
maker wants clothes instead of ice-creams, the ice-cream vendor can buy a bicycle
with money. Because money is the general medium of transaction, he must adapt to
the requirements of the bicycle man. Similarly, the bicycle manufacturer can then
use the money to buy clothes.
20. How has information and communication technology stimulated
globalisation process? Explain with examples. 3×1=3 Marks
Ans: Rapid technological advancements have been playing a key role in
encouraging the globalization process in the following ways:
● Improvements in transportation technology, such as container manufacture,
have resulted in speedier and more cost-effective delivery of products across
vast distances.
● Information and communication technology, such as computers and the
internet, has advanced at a rapid pace. They have made it simple to contact
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 10
anyone or any location on the planet.
● Designing and printing magazines and other journals are easily done.
Thus, it can be said that technology has stimulated the globalization process.
21. How has a three tier quasi-judicial machinery been set up for redressal of
consumer disputes? Explain. 1+1+1=3 Marks
Ans: Consumers have the right to seek justice for exploitation and unfair trade
practices. If a purchaser is offended, he or she is entitled to compensation based on
the extent of the impact. Under COPRA (Consumer Protect Act), three-tier quasi-
judicial machinery at the district level, state level, and national level was set up for
redressal of consumer disputes.
● The District Level Courts deal with cases involving claims up to 20 Lakhs.
● The State Level Courts deal with cases involving claims between Lakhs and
1 crore.
● The National Level Court considers cases involving more than one crore
rupees in penalties.
If the case is dismissed at the district level, the consumer can appeal to state and
eventually federal courts. We now have the right to be represented in consumer
courts as a result of the legislation.
22. Explain any five social and administrative reforms introduced by Napoleon
in the regions under his control. 5×1=5 Marks
Ans: In order to make the system more reasonable and effective, Napoleon
implemented a number of social and administrative changes in the territories under
his authority.
● The Napoleonic code, also known as the Civil code of 1804, established all
rights based on birth, established equality before the law, and guaranteed the
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 11
right to property. All countries, including Switzerland, Italy, and Germany,
adopted this code.
● Napoleon greatly simplified administrative divisions and instituted
important reforms in this area.
● The feudal system was likewise abolished, and serfdom and manorial dues
were abolished for peasants.
● Trade restrictions were eliminated in the towns. Furthermore, basic
communication and transportation facilities were enhanced to ensure that
administration at all levels functioned smoothly.
● The introduction of uniform regulations, standardized weights and
measurements, and a common national currency enabled peasants, artisans,
and new merchants to carry out the movement and exchange of products and
capital from one region to another with ease.
Or
"The measures taken by the French to control the spread of bubonic plague in
Hanoi created a serious problem." Explain the statement. 5 Marks
Ans: The measures taken by the French to control the spread of the bubonic plague
in Hanoi created a serious problem are as follows:
● To solve the problem, the French organized a rat hunt, in which they employed
Vietnamese laborers and paid them for each rat they found. Thousands of
more rats began to be caught, and it appeared that there was no end in sight.
● The Vietnamese took advantage of this chance and realized the value of
collective bargaining. They developed novel techniques to profit from the
circumstance.
● When a tail was displayed as proof that a rat had been killed, a bounty was
awarded. Those who did the dirty work of accessing the sewers took
advantage of the circumstance and were able to bargain for a larger reward.
● Rat catchers frequently resorted to just clipping the rat’s tails and releasing
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 12
them, allowing the process to be repeated over and over. To earn a bounty,
some people started rearing rats.
● The rat’s threat revealed the limits of French power, and the rat-catchers'
answer demonstrates the little ways in which colonialism was challenged in
everyday life.
23. How could non-cooperation become a movement? Explain with examples.
5×1=5 Marks
Ans: Non-cooperation movement united Muslims and Hindus against the British,
which facilitated the expansion of the base of this movement. Gandhi's concept of
non-cooperation, or "not cooperating with the British government in any way," was
meant to bring people from all walks of life together in the nationalist struggle to
free themselves from British rule.
The non-cooperation movement became a nationwide struggle because of the
following reasons:
● Gandhiji advocated for a program leading to the campaign. Beginning with
the surrender of titles bestowed by the government, a boycott of the civil
service, army, police, courts and legislative councils, schools, and foreign
commodities should be pursued.
● The participation of various social groups in this movement widened the
movement's base. Many students left government-run universities and
schools, and teachers and headmasters resigned or stopped practicing law.
● Traders and merchants in many locations refused to engage in foreign goods
or fund foreign commerce.
24. Why is conservation of minerals essential? Explain any four measures to
conserve minerals. 1+4=5 Marks
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 13
Ans: Conservation of mineral resources is necessary as the overall volume of
exploitable mineral deposits is a small fraction i.e., one percent of the earth's crust.
We are swiftly depleting mineral resources that needed millions of years to be
formed and concentrated. Mineral production is so delayed due to geological
processes that replenishment rates are infinitely small in contrast to current
consumption rates.
Four methods of conserving mineral resources are:
1) Minerals should be used in a planned and sustainable manner.
2) Improved technologies need to allow the use of low-grade ores at low costs.
3) Wastage in the mining and processing should be minimized.
4) Technology should be advanced to use low-grade ores efficiently.
25. " 'Agriculture' and 'industry' are complementary to each other." Explain
with five examples. 5×1=5 Marks
Ans: 'Agriculture' and 'industry' are complementary to each other by the following
proclamations:
● The agriculture sector provides a market for the industrial sector's goods. The
products produced by the industries such as clothes, television, etc.
● Agriculture has benefited greatly from India's agro-industries, which have
increased productivity.
● Agriculture provides the raw resources for industries. Farmers buy products
from industries such as irrigation pumps and fertilizers.
● Agriculture's production processes have become extremely efficient owing to
industry.
● For example, Sugarcane for the sugar industry, animal skin for the leather
industry, etc. requires raw materials that come from agriculture.
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 14
26. How has the struggle of the Nepali people become a source of inspiration to
democrats all over the world? Explain. 5 Marks
Ans: In April 2006, Nepal had an incredible protest movement. The goal of this
movement was to bring democracy back to Nepal. The new King Gyanendra was
not willing to accept democratic governance after the death of King Birendra in
2001. As a result, the king fired the Prime Minister and dissolved the popularly
elected Parliament in February 2005.
The movement of 2006 was aimed at regaining popular control over the government
from the king. All the major political parties in Parliament (Seven Party Alliance of
Nepal) called for a 4-day strike and this protest soon turned into an indefinite strike
in which many other organizations joined hands. They stayed true in their demands
for the reinstatement of parliament, the election of an all-party administration, and
the formation of a new constituent assembly. Nepal's second democratic struggle
was known as this movement. This struggle of the Nepalese people serves as an
example to Democrats all around the world.
27. Why cannot modern democracies exist without political parties? Explain.
5 Marks
Ans: Modern democracies persist without political parties due to the following
proclamations:
● Without political parties, democracies cannot exist and if we do not have
political parties; in such situations, every candidate in elections will be
independent.
● No one will be able to make any promises to the people about any major policy
changes and the government may be formed but its utility will remain
uncertain.
● Elected leaders will be held responsible for their activities in their
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 15
communities by their people. No one, however, will be in control of the
country's management.
● As every candidate in the elections will be independent, no one will make
promises to the people about any major policy change.
● The government may be formed, and elected members will be held solely
responsible to their constituency or neighbourhood.
28. Explain the role of multinational corporations in the globalisation process.
5 Marks
Ans: A multinational corporation is someone who has operations in two or more
countries and generates at least 25% of its revenue from overseas operations.
Multinational firms establish branches or foreign subsidiaries in another country to
make a foreign direct investment.
The role of multinational corporations (MNCs) set up production in various
countries based on the following factors:
● MNCs establish production offices and factories in countries where they can
obtain low-cost labor and other resources, such as China, Bangladesh, and
India. These countries also provide the benefit of low-cost manufacturing
areas.
● MNCs collaborate with local firms in nations all over the world to produce
goods. The local firm benefits from such cooperative manufacturing in two
ways.
● MNCs might give funds for extra expenditures in order to increase production
speed and also MNCs bring the most up-to-date technology to enhance and
improve productivity.
● Several multinational corporations are so large that their wealth exceeds the
budgets of some developing countries. This is why they acquire local
businesses in order to boost output.
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 16
● MNCs also compete directly with local firms, impacting output in distant
locations.
29. How does exploitation of consumers take place in the market? Explain with
any five facts. 5×1=5 Marks
Ans: Exploitation of consumers take place in the markets in the following ways:
● Underweight and unmeasured: Equal trade techniques are sometimes used
by traders. They are lighter than they should be and they don't always measure
appropriately.
● High Prices: Shopkeepers occasionally charge a greater price than the retail
price.
● Defective goods: As in the name of good product defective goods are also
available for purchase on the market.
● Duplicate articles: In the name of genuine commodities, duplicate items are
freely and frequently offered in the market.
● Incorrect information: In order to attract customers, false information is
sometimes spread through the media and other means. Consumers are also
misled by sellers who provide inaccurate information regarding a product's
price, quality, reliability, life-cycle, expiration date, durability, and other
factors.
30. (30.1) Two features A and B are marked in the political outline map of India.
Identify these features with the help of the following information and write their
correct names on the lines marked in the map: 2×1=2 Marks
(A) The place where the Indian National Congress Session was held in
September 1920.
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 17
Ans: Calcutta is the place where the Indian National Congress Session was held in
September 1920.
(B) The place where the cotton mill workers Satyagraha was organised in 1918.
Ans: Kheda (Gujarat) is the place where the cotton mill workers organised
satyagraha in 1918.
(30.2) On the same political outline map of India, locate and label the following
with appropriate symbols: 3×1=3 Marks
(i) Bhilai - iron and steel plant
(ii) Coimbatore - cotton textile centre
(iii) Raja Sansi - international airport
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 18
Raja Sansi Airport
30.1(B)-Gujarat
30.1(A)-Calcutta
Bhilai
Coimbatore
Note: The following questions are for the BLIND CANDIDATES only in lieu of
5×1=5 Marks
Q. No. 30:
(30.1) Name the place where the Indian National Congress Session was held in
December 1920.
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 19
Ans: Nagpur
(30.2) At which place did the cotton mill workers start the Satyagraha in
1918?
Ans: Kheda (Gujarat)
(30.3) In which state is Bhilai iron and steel plant located?
Ans: Chhattisgarh
(30.4)Name the state where Coimbatore textile centre is located.
Ans: Tamil Nadu
(30.5)In which city Raja Sansi international airport is located?
Ans: Amritsar
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 20
CBSE Class 10
Social Science
Previous Year Question Paper 2015
Series: RLH Set- 1
Code no. 32/1
● Please check that this question paper contains 8 printed pages +2
Maps.
● Code number given on the right hand side of the question paper should
be written on the title page of the answer-book by the candidate.
● Please check that this question paper contains 30 questions.
● Please write down the Serial Number of the question in the answer-
book before attempting it.
● 15 minute time has been allotted to read this question paper. The
question paper will be distributed at 10.15 a.m. From 10.15 a.m. to
10.30 a.m., the students will read the question paper only and will not
write any answer on the answer-book during this period.
SUMMATIVE ASSESSMENT- II
SOCIAL SCIENCE
Time Allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 90
General Instructions:
1. The question paper has 30 questions in all. All questions are compulsory.
2. Marks are indicated against each question.
3. Questions from serial number 1 to 8 are Very Short Answer Questions. Each
question carries 1 mark.
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 1
4. Questions from serial number 9 to 20 are 3 marks questions. Answers of these
questions should not exceed 80 words each.
5. Questions from serial number 21 to 28 are 5 marks questions. Answers of these
questions should not exceed 100 words each.
6. Question number 29 and 30 are map questions of 3 marks each from History and
Geography both. After completion, attach the maps inside your answer-book.
1. What was the main aim of the French revolutionaries? 1 Mark
Ans: The main aim of the French revolutionaries was to create a sense of collective
identity amongst the French people by banning the estate system.
Or
What is the meaning of concentration camps? 1 Mark
Ans: Concentration camps are places in which large numbers of people, especially
political prisoners or members of persecuted minorities, are deliberately imprisoned
in a relatively small area with inadequate facilities.
2. How do minerals occur in sedimentary rocks? 1 Mark
Ans: Minerals occur in beds or layers in sedimentary rocks.
3. What was the main aim of the popular movement of April 2006, in Nepal?
1 Mark
Ans: The main aim of the popular movement of April 2006, in Nepal, was to restore
the democracy of Nepal.
4. How can you say that democracies are based on political equality? 1 Mark
Ans: Democracy's literal meaning is people's rule, in which in democracies, every
citizen vote has the same value irrespective of gender, caste, religion, or race. Hence
by this, we can say that democracies are based on political equality.
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 2
5. Why do political parties involve partisanship? 1 Mark
Ans: Political parties involve partisanship because they represent and support
particular views or policies that would be supported by a part of the society and its
interests.
6. What is meant by double coincidence of wants? 1 Mark
Ans: The double coincidence of wants means that both the parties have to agree to
sell and buy each other's commodities.
7. Suppose your parents want to purchase Gold jewellery along with you; then
which logo will you look for on the jewellery? 1 Mark
Ans: They should look for the BIS Hallmark logo which defines the purity of the
gold purchased. The BIS is the Bureau of Indian Standards Hallmark.
8. How does money act as a medium of exchange? 1 Mark
Ans: Money acts as a medium of exchange because money is an intermediate
exchange process in transactions of buying and selling commodities.
9. How did nationalism develop through culture in Europe? Explain. 3 Marks
Ans: Nationalism developed through culture in Europe for the following reasons:
● Culture played an important role in creating the idea of the nation, art, and
poetry, stories and music helped to express and shape nationalist feelings.
● Romanticism was a cultural movement that sought to develop a particular
form of nationalist sentiment. Johann Gottfried Herder, a German
philosopher, claimed that true German culture might be found among the
common people or das volk.
● The emphasis on vernacular language and the collection of local folklore
was used to carry the modern nationalist message to large audiences who
were mostly illiterates.
Or
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 3
How did Paul Bernard argue in favour of economic development of Vietnam?
Explain.
Ans: Paul Bernard arguments in favor of the economic development of Vietnam
are:
● Paul Bernard proposed that the French government should make specific
efforts to improve the Vietnamese economy.
● He also argued about the necessity of industrialization to create adequate
employment in Vietnam.
● According to him, there were several obstacles in the economic growth of
Vietnam and the French government should carry out land reforms in order
to counter these hindrances. He believed to earn more profits the economy
of the colonies should be developed.
10. Describe the main features of 'Poona Pact'. 3 Marks
Ans: The main features of the ‘Poona Pact’ are:
● Depressed Classes (later known as Scheduled Caste) were given reserved
seats in federal and state legislative councils under the Poona Pact
(September 1932).
● They were to be voted by the general electorate and this act came into force
due to Gandhi's fast unto death.
● Ambedkar ultimately accepted Gandhiji's stand.
11. How did 'Salt March' become an effective tool of resistance against
colonialism? Explain. 3 Marks
Ans: 'Salt March' become an effective tool of resistance against colonialism, for the
following reasons:
● Mahatma Gandhi found in salt a powerful symbol that could unite the nation.
Salt was the most essential item of foods and was consumed by rich and poor
alike.
● Gandhiji sent a letter to Viceroy Irwin starting eleven demands, and this was
the most stirring of all was the demand to abolish the salt tax.
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 4
● Irwin was unwilling to negotiate, so Gandhiji started the Salt march with 78
volunteers. This March developed the feeling of nationalism, people in
different parts of the country broke the salt law and manufactured salt and
demonstrated in front of government salt factories.
12. Explain the importance of railways as the principal mode of transportation
for freight and passengers in India. 3 Marks
Ans: The importance of railways as the principal mode of transportation for freight
and passengers in India are as follows:
● They are capable of transporting large loads and heavy items over long and
short distances.
● Railways make it possible to conduct multiple activities like business,
tourism, pilgrimage along with goods transportation over longer distances.
● Railways extend their hands in performing activities such as commerce,
sightseeing, pilgrimage, and freight transportation, as well as making long-
distance travel simpler.
Hence, Railways plays a vital role in national integration as it strengthens the
development of the industry and agriculture.
13. Why has the 'Chhotanagpur Plateau Region' the maximum concentration
of iron and steel industries? Analyse the reasons. 3×1=3 Marks
Ans: Chota Nagpur Plateau region has the highest concentration of iron and steel
industries due to the following reasons:
● Iron ore is economical and there are plenty of high-quality raw materials
available. Also, this region has vast reserves of coal and iron ore.
● Iron ore is cheaply available in the region, thus providing the raw material
for the iron and steel industries.
● Vast potential growth in the home market, also Chota Nagpur Plateau region
has the maximum concentration of steel plants.
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 5
14. How can solar energy solve the energy problem to some extent in India?
Give your opinion. 3 Marks
Ans: Solar energy can solve the energy problem to some extent in India in the
following ways:
● The use of solar energy will be able to minimize the dependence of rural
households on firewood and dung cakes which causes a lot of pollution.
● It will reduce rural households' reliance on fuel and dung cakes, preservation
of environmental protection, and an appropriate supply of manure.
● Solar power plants are simple to install in residing in remote regions. As solar
energy is the natural and most effective way to solve the energy problem to
some extent in India.
15. "Dynastic succession is one of the most serious challenges before the
political parties." Analyse the statement. 3 Marks
Ans: Dynastic succession is one of the most serious challenges before the political
parties because:
● Most political parties do not practice open and transparent procedures for
their functioning. This approach is not only unjust to other members of that
party, but it is also undemocratic.
● Dynastic succession and nepotism is a major challenge for political parties
in India as it compromises their internal democracy.
● Because of dynastic tendencies within parties, new political leadership is
smothered and thus stunts the ideological development of the party.
16. How is democracy accountable and responsive to the needs and
expectations of the citizens? Analyse. 3 Marks
Ans: In a democracy, Citizens in a democracy have the right to know about their
government and how it works. Due to this "Equal rights to all" agenda of the
democratic political ecosystem, the expectations and the needs of the citizens are
always fulfilled. Democracy is accountable and responsive to the needs and
expectations of the citizens because:
● In a democracy, people have the right to choose their representatives and the
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 6
people will have control over them.
● Citizens have an opportunity to participate in decisions that impact them all.
17. "A challenge is an opportunity for progress." Support the statement with
your arguments. 3 Marks
Ans: A challenge is an opportunity for progress, as this statement implies that the
challenges are in reality, in which the difficulties need to be overcome.
● A challenge is a difficulty that presents a chance for advancement, such as
the basic issue that evolving democracies face.
● They give us an opportunity to progress further after we overcome a
challenge that we go up to the next level.
● And also, the statement reveals the idea that a challenge should not be taken
as a difficulty or hardship always.
18. Why is modern currency accepted as a medium of exchange without any
use of its own? Find out the reason. 3 Marks
Ans: Modern currency is accepted as a medium of exchange because:
● It is approved by a country's central government. In India, the Reserve Bank
of India (RBI) issues currency notes, and any other institution or individual
is prohibited from doing so.
● The modern forms of money include currency - paper notes and coins, as
modern forms of currency are not made of precious metal like silver, copper,
or gold, except the materials that were previously utilized as money.
● As per Indian law, no other individual or organization is allowed to issue
currency.
19. "Foreign trade integrates the markets in different countries." Support the
statement with arguments. 3 Marks
Ans: Foreign trade integrates the market in different countries because:
● Foreign trade creates an opportunity for the producers to reach beyond the
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 7
domestic markets, the markets of their own countries.
● Producers might compete not just in domestic markets, but also in
international markets. Similarly, importing items from another nation is one
method for a buyer to broaden his or her options beyond what is produced
domestically.
● Choice of goods in the markets rises, prices of similar goods in the two
markets tend to become equal and producers in the two countries now closely
compete against each other.
20. Explain with an example how you can use the right to seek redressal.
3 Marks
Ans: Consumers have the right to seek redressal against unfair trade practices and
exploitation. If a purchaser is injured, he or she has the right to claim compensation
depending on the severity of the impairment.
For example, if a person's money order hasn't reached its destination and the post
office refuses to respond well to his query. The person can go to the consumer court
of the district level to seek redressal.
21. Describe any five steps taken by the French Revolutionaries to create a
sense of collective identity among the French people. 5 Marks
Ans: Five steps taken by the French Revolutionaries to create a sense of collective
identity among the French people are as follows:
● The revolutionaries preached the notion of a unified community with equal
rights guaranteed by a Constitution. This was accomplished by popularising
the concepts of la Patrie (fatherland) and le citoyen (citizen) (the citizen).
● The ancient royal standard was replaced with a new tricolor flag to let people
identify potential with the notion of a French country.
● The Estates-General was renamed the 'National Assembly,' and a body of
social beings was elected to it.
● The French Revolutionaries Abolished all the internal customs duties and
applied and the French language has been promoted.
● They adopted a weights and measures system and also Goods and capital are
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 8
transported from one location to another.
Or
Describe any five steps taken by the French for the development of the
'Mekong Delta Region'. 5 Marks
Ans: Five steps taken by the French for the development of the 'Mekong Delta
Region' are as follows:
● To enhance agriculture, the French colonial administration began building
canals to drain areas in the Mekong Delta.
● Rice output was improved because of a massive irrigation system of canals
and earthworks built mostly using slave labor.
● Infrastructure initiatives were undertaken to ensure that products could travel
easily and smoothly from one section of the country to another.
● The Trans Indo-China train link, which will connect the northern and
southern sections of Vietnam and China, has begun construction.
● It authorized rice to be exported to other territories.
22. Explain the attitude of the Indian merchants and the industrialists towards
the 'Civil Disobedience Movement'. 5 Marks
Ans: The attitude of the Indian merchants and industrialists towards the Civil
Disobedience Movement are:
● Indian industrialists and merchants prospered during the First World War but
they believed that the colonial policies were restricting their business.
● They want cheaper imports and a foreign exchange rate that inhibited
imports, while industrialists desired to expand their enterprises.
● They wanted tariff protection and a respectable rupee sterling exchange rate
and also, they wanted to be safeguarded against the import of foreign
products and a rupee sterling foreign exchange ratio, which would deter
imports.
● Following the 1st World War, Indian businessmen and businessmen got
substantial profits and gained prominence.
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 9
● They were concerned about the expansion of militant actions and the
possibility for long production impact.
23. What is the manufacturing sector? Why is it considered the backbone of
development? Interpret the reason. 1+4=5 Marks
Ans: Manufacturing is the production of goods through the use of labor, machines,
tools, and chemical or biological processing or formulation. It is considered the
backbone of development because of the following statements:
● Industrial development is a requirement for the eradication of unemployment
and poverty from our country.
● It not only serves in the structural transformation, but it also serves as a
foundation of our economy.
● Export of produced products increases trade and commerce.
● Countries that convert their basic materials into a diverse range of higher-
value finished commodities are successful.
24. Which is the most abundantly available fossil fuel in India? Assess the
importance of its different forms. 1+4=5 Marks
Ans: Coal is the most abundantly found fossil fuel in India. Its three major forms
are Anthracite, Bituminous, and Lignite and with respect to its importance:
● Lignite is low-grade brown coal that is soft with high moisture content. It is
used for generating electricity.
● Bituminous coal is perhaps the most prominent kind of commercial coal. It
has a special value for smelting iron in blast furnaces.
● Anthracite is the highest quality hard coal.
● Peat is poor in carbon, rich in moisture, and has a moderate heating
efficiency.
25. What is meant by a political party? Describe the three components of a
political party. 2+3=5 Marks
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 10
Ans: A political party is an organized collection of people with at least broadly
similar political goals and beliefs who strive to influence public policy by electing
their candidates to public office.
Three components of political parties are the Leaders, Active members, and the
Followers i.e.,
1) The leaders: The leaders account for the type of work done by the political
party.
2) The active members: The administrative activity of the political party is
influenced by the active members of the political party.
3) The followers: The supporters of the political party are among the followers;
they also tell local residents about what is going on within the political party.
26. Suggest any five effective measures to reform political parties.
5×1=5 Marks
Ans: Five effective measures to reform political parties are as follows:
● Legislation should be enacted to govern political parties' internal affairs.
● It should be made compulsory for political parties to maintain a register of
their members.
● Political parties should be required to provide a minimum number of tickets
to female candidates.
● A quota for women in the party's judgment structures should be
implemented.
● There should be state funding of elections and the government should give
parties money to support their election expenses in kind, for example, petrol,
paper, telephone, etc., or in cash.
27. How do banks play an important role in the economy of India? Explain.
5 Marks
Ans: Banks play an important role in developing the economy of India:
● Banks keep the money of the people in their safe custody and people gain
interest in their utilization of the resources in banks.
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 11
● Banks act as a middleman between individuals who have money and those
who do not. This is accomplished through providing loans.
● People make use of these funding sources in order to enhance their output
and revenue.
● Banks make alternative provisions for the improvement of agriculture and
industry, such as waiving farmer debts.
● Banks keep money safe and allow it to be used by the depositors in the future
and banks also increase the savings.
28. "Globalisation and greater competition among producers has been
advantageous to consumers." Support the statement with examples.
5×1=5 Marks
Ans: "Globalisation and greater competition among producers have been
advantageous to consumers", according to this statement:
● Consumers have a greater variety of products on the market. In the form of
food products, for example, a person can choose from local, national, and
international companies.
● There is a greater choice before consumers, particularly the well-off sections
of urban areas.
● Then enjoy the improved quality and lower prices for several products and
also, they enjoy much higher standards of living that were possible earlier.
● A diverse range of items in our marketplaces is a recent phenomenon that has
influenced people's lifestyles.
● However, the effects of globalization have not been evenly distributed. They
have increased their manufacturing standards by investing in modern
technologies and production processes.
29. Three features A, B and C are marked on the given political outline map
of India (on page 9). Identify these features with the help of the following
information and write their correct names on the lines marked in the map:
3×1=3 Marks
A. The place where the Indian National Congress Session was held.
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 12
Ans: Calcutta
B. The place associated with the Peasant's Satyagraha.
Ans: Kheda
C. The place related to calling off the Non-Cooperation Movement.
Ans: Chauri Chaura in Uttar Pradesh
Kheda
Note: The following questions are for the Visually Impaired Candidates only,
in lieu of Q. No. 29: 3×1=3 Marks
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 13
(29.1) Name the place where the Indian National Congress Session was held in
December 1920.
Ans: The place where the Indian National Congress Session was held in December
1920 is Nagpur.
(29.2) Name the place associated with the movement of Indigo Planters.
Ans: The place associated with the movement of Indigo Planters is Champaran.
(29.3) Name the place related to the Satyagraha of peasants in Gujarat.
Ans: The place related to the Satyagraha of peasants in Gujarat is Kheda.
(30.1) Two features A and B are marked on the given political outline map of
India (on page 11). Identify these features with the help of the following
information and write their correct names on the lines marked in the map:
2×1=2 Marks
A. Iron-ore mines
B. Terminal Station of East-West Corridor
Ans: A. Chattisgarh
B. Silchar and Porbandar
(30.2) On the same political outline map of India, locate and label the
following:
Vishakhapatnam - Software Technology Park 1 Mark
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 14
Note: The following questions are for the Visually Impaired Candidates only,
in lieu of Q. No. 30: 3×1=3 Marks
(30.1) In which state are Bailadila Iron-ore mines located?
Ans: Chhattisgarh
(30.2) Name the Western Terminal Station of East-West Corridor.
Ans: Silchar and Porbandar
(30.3) Name the well-known Software Technology Park located in Karnataka
State.
Ans: Manyata Embassy Business Park
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 15
CBSE Class 10
Social Science
Previous Year Question Paper 2015
Series: RLH/1 Set- 1
Code no. 32/1/1
● Please check that this question paper contains 11 printed pages +2 Maps.
● Code number given on the right hand side of the question paper should
be written on the title page of the answer-book by the candidate.
● Please check that this question paper contains 30 questions.
● Please write down the Serial Number of the question in the answer-
book before attempting it.
● 15 minute time has been allotted to read this question paper. The question
paper will be distributed at 10.15 a.m. From 10.15 a.m. to 10.30 a.m., the
students will read the question paper only and will not write any answer
on the answer-book during this period.
SUMMATIVE ASSESSMENT- II
SOCIAL SCIENCE
Time Allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 90
General Instructions:
1. The question paper has 30 questions in all. All questions are compulsory.
2. Marks are indicated against each question.
3. Questions from serial number 1 to 8 are Very Short Answer Questions.
Each question carries 1 mark.
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 1
4. Questions from serial number 9 to 20 are 3 marks questions. Answers of
these questions should not exceed 80 words each.
5. Questions from serial number 21 to 28 are 5 marks questions. Answers of
these questions should not exceed 100 words each.
6. Question number 29 and 30 are map questions of 3 marks each from
History and Geography both. After completion, attach the maps inside
your answer-book.
1. What was the major change that occurred in the political and
constitutional scenario due to French Revolution in Europe? 1 Mark
Ans: The major change that occurred in the political and constitutional scenario
due to French Revolution in Europe resulted in the monarchy's authority being
transferred to a group of French people and the revolution declared that the
people would henceforth be the ones to form the nation and choose its fate.
Or
How was the maritime silk route useful for Vietnam? 1 Mark
Ans: Vietnam was connected to the maritime silk route, which brought
commodities, people, and ideas into the country.
2. Which rock consists of single mineral only? 1 Mark
Ans: Limestone is a rock that consists of a single mineral only.
3. Who dissolved the popularly elected parliament in February 2005, in
Nepal? 1 Mark
Ans: The new king, King Gyanendra, fired the Prime Minister and disbanded
the popularly elected Parliament.
4. What was the main role of 'FEDICOR' organisation in Bolivia? 1 Mark
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 2
Ans: The main role of ‘FEDICOR’ involved claims over an elected government
to protest against its policy of water privatization.
5. If all the decisions of a political party are made by a single family and all
other members are neglected, than what challenge is being faced by that
party? 1 Mark
Ans: If all the decisions of a political party are made by a single family and all
other members are neglected, then Deepening democracy is a difficult task being
faced by a political party.
6. What is the meaning of 'barter system'? 1 Mark
Ans: The barter system is a method of exchanging commodities and services
i.e.; it is a method of exchanging one commodity for another without the need
for money. People used the barter system before money was invented.
7. Why had the Indian Government put barrier to foreign trade and foreign
investment after independence? State any one reason. 1 Mark
Ans: The Indian government after independence had put barriers to foreign trade
and investment as this was done in order to safeguard domestic producers from
international competition.
8. Which logo would you like to see for purchasing electrical goods? 1 Mark
Ans: ISI (Indian Standards Institute) is the logo for purchasing electrical goods.
9. Describe the events of French Revolution which had influenced the people
belonging to other parts of Europe. 3 Marks
Ans: The events of the French Revolution which had influenced the people
belonging to other parts of Europe are:
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 3
● The Estate General was renamed the National Assembly after being
chosen by a group of engaged individuals. In the name of the nation, new
hymns were written, vows were sworn, and victims were remembered.
● When the revolutionaries took power in France, they were keen to
establish a new feeling of nationhood and togetherness. They did so by
emphasizing the idea of France as the fatherland (La Patrie) for all French
people, whom they would now address as citizens.
● They were given the tri-color flag, the three colors representing liberty,
equality, and fraternity. A centralized administrative structure was
established, with uniform laws enacted for all inhabitants inside the
nation's territory.
Or
Describe the major protest erupted in Saigon Native Girls School in 1926,
in Vietnam. 3 Marks
Ans: On the subject of racial discrimination, a protest was held at Saigon Girls
School. A Vietnamese girl sitting in one of the front seats was asked to move to
the back of the class and allow a local French student to occupy the front bench.
The girl refused and, along with other protesting pupils, was ejected. To avoid
additional opportunism, the administration was compelled to let the expelled
kids return to school. When angry students protested, they too were expelled,
leading to a further spread of open protests.
10. Why did Mahatma Gandhiji decide to launch a nationwide satyagraha
against the proposed Rowlatt Act? Explain any three reasons. 3×1=3 Marks
Ans: Gandhiji decided to launch a nationwide Satyagraha against the proposed
Rowlatt Act, 1919, because:
● It gave enormous power to the government and no power to the leaders.
● This law was hurriedly passed even after the united opposition by the
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 4
Indians and other Indian leaders.
● Rowlatt Act allowed the detention of political leaders without any trial for
three years.
11. "The congress was reluctant to include the demands of industrial
workers in its programme of struggle." Analyse the reasons. 3 Marks
Ans: The Congress was reluctant to include the demands of workers as part of
its program of struggle because:
● The industrialists grew closer to the Congress, while the workers
remained far. This was considered as alienating industrialists and dividing
anti-imperial forces. Congress was concerned that this might annoy
businessmen and its anti-imperial forces would be divided.
● Some workers did engage in the civil disobedience campaign, choosing
to adopt some of Gandhi's ideals, such as boycotting foreign goods, as
part of their own anti-low-wage and anti-working-conditions activities.
12. How is the mining activity injurious to the health of the miners and
environment? Explain. 3 Marks
Ans: Mining is injurious to miners and the environment because:
● Erosion, landslide development, environmental degradation, and soil
pollution are all aspects of mining's ecological impact.
● Direct and indirect mining activities can have environmental impacts on a
local, regional, and global scale.
● There's always the possibility of mine roofs collapsing, inundations, and
fires in the area. Dumping of waste leads to degradation of land, soil, and
an increase in stream and river pollution.
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 5
13. Explain with examples, how do industries give boost to the agriculture
sector? 3×1=3 Mark
Ans: Industries give a boost to the agriculture sector by the following examples:
● Irrigation pumps, PVC pipes, and other agricultural tools and machines
are provided by industry.
● The competition between agro-based and industrial businesses has
boosted both the volume of production and efficiency.
● Agriculture's production has grown as a result of inputs such as fertilizers
and pesticides.
14. In the present day energy crisis what steps will you like to take for saving
energy? 3×1=3 Marks
Ans: As a responsible citizen we can help conserve energy in the following
ways:
● Using more of public transport system instead of individual vehicles.
● Switching off electrical devices when not in use.
● Using power-saving devices and also using non-conventional sources of
energy such as solar energy, wind energy, etc.
15. "The struggle of the Nepali people is a source of inspiration to democrats
all over the world." Support the statement. 3 Marks
Ans: The struggle of the Nepali people is a source of inspiration to democrats
all over the world, we can support by the following statements:
● Nepal witnessed an extraordinary popular movement in April 2006, as this
movement aimed at restoring democracy.
● The Seven Party Alliance (SPA) was created by all of the main political
parties in the parliament, and it called for a five-day strike in Kathmandu
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 6
and the King was obliged to agree to all of the SPA's requests on the
ultimatum's last day.
● As a consequence, an interim government was created, which became a
source of inspiration for democratic movements across the world.
16. What is a multi-party system? Why has India adopted a multi-party
system? Explain. 1+2=3 Marks
Ans: The government is established in this system by several parties forming a
coalition. An alliance or a front is formed when multiple parties in a multi-party
system join together for the goal of contesting elections and gaining power.
India adopted a multi-party system because:
● Two or even three parties cannot readily absorb the social and
geographical variety of such a big country.
● This system allows for a variety of interests and opinions to enjoy political
representation and such representation strengthens democracy.
17. “Lack of internal democracy within parties is the major challenge to
political parties all over the world." Analyse the statement. 3 Marks
Ans: Lack of internal democracy within parties is the major challenge to political
parties all over the world, we can analyze by the following statements:
● Most political parties do not keep membership records, have
organizational meetings, or organize internal elections on a regular basis,
all of which are open and transparent procedures. As a result, regular
members of the party are kept in the dark about what is going on in the
party and have no way of influencing decisions.
● In addition, there are limited opportunities for an average worker to ascend
to the head of a political party. Because the party is dominated by one or,
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 7
at most, a few leaders, individuals who disagree with the leadership find
it difficult to stay in the party.
● Leaders have the ability to take advantage of their position and favor
individuals close to them, including family members. Furthermore, many
parties' top posts are usually held by members of one family, which is
detrimental to democracy.
18. Describe the conditions in which markets do not work in a fair manner.
3 Marks
Ans: Markets do not function fairly when the following circumstances exist:
● The producers are few and powerful.
● Customers are many, make modest purchases, and are dispersed.
● Large companies producing these goods have huge wealth, power, and
reach manipulate the market in various ways and consumers are
misinformed through the media and are unaware of their rights.
19. In recent years how our markets have been transformed? Explain with
examples. 3×1=3 Marks
Ans: In recent years markets have been transformed as our markets have
changed dramatically in the previous five years. Some of us have a large
selection of goods and services available to us as consumers in today's society.
● The most recent versions of digital cameras, cell phones, and televisions
from the world's major brands are within our grasp. New vehicle models
may be observed on Indian roads every season.
● There is the availability of a wide range of choices of goods and services.
Gone are the days when the only vehicles on Indian roads were
Ambassador and Fiat and Indians are now purchasing automobiles from
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 8
virtually all of the world's leading manufacturers.
● The availability of such a diverse range of items in our markets is a
relatively new occurrence. We can easily avail of the latest products with
advanced technology, e.g., Digital cameras, mobile phones, etc. These
products are affordable as well as easily accessible.
20. Why is it necessary for the banks and cooperative societies to increase
their lending facilities in rural areas? Explain. 3 Marks
Ans: It necessary for the banks and cooperative societies to increase their
lending facilities in rural areas because:
● To reduce the dependence on informal sources of credit. In rural regions,
the informal sector lends at a high-interest rate, making the borrower's cost
significantly higher.
● When the cost of borrowing is more, a large portion of income goes into
repaying loans rather than investing it.
● Often it leads to a debt trap where the amount to be repaid is more than
the borrower's income and he has to borrow more.
21. Describe the process of unification of Germany. 5 Marks
Ans: The process of unification of Germany is as follows:
● In 1848, Germany's rapidly emerging middle class attempted to combine
numerous German kingdoms that had been crushed by monarchs and big
landowners into a single nation state administered by an elected
parliament.
● The campaign for German unity was led by Otto von Bismarck, the
Prussian chief minister. He had the support of the Prussian bureaucracy
and army.
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 9
● Prussia won and united Germany after three wars with Austria, Denmark,
and France.
● In January 1871, William I, the Prussian monarch, was named Emperor
of Germany.
● The supremacy of the Prussian state was demonstrated throughout
Germany's unification process. In Germany, several new changes in
banking, currency, administration, and the court have been implemented.
Or
Describe the major problems in the field of education for the French in
Vietnam. 5 Marks
Ans: The major problems in the field of education for the French in Vietnam are
as follows:
● The French required an educated local workforce, but they were worried
that if the Vietnamese gained education, they would question colonial
power.
● Vietnamese aristocracy was still strongly impacted by Chinese culture.
● The French destroyed the old Vietnamese educational system and created
French schools for Vietnamese students. The French needed to counteract
Chinese influence in order to consolidate their authority.
● On the subject of racial discrimination, a protest was held at Saigon Girls
School. When a Vietnamese girl in the first row was ordered to shift back
to enable a local French student to take the front seat, the girl refused and
was expelled, along with other protesting students.
● The government Was forced to take the expelled students back to the
school to avoid further open protests.
22. “Nationalism spreads when people begin to believe that they are all part
of the same nation”. Support the statement. 5 Marks
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 10
Ans: The spreading of nationalism took place due to the following factors:
● United Efforts Various religious organizations and communities banded
together to fight British authority.
● Cultural Processes, the growth of nationalism was aided by many cultural
processes such as history, folklore, music, and symbols.
● Common Identity, the painting of Bharat Mata was commonly identified
as a motherland and affected the people equally.
● Revival of Indian Folklore through folk songs and stories, the revival of
Indian folklore aided in the promotion of traditional culture and the
restoration of a sense of pride in the country's previous history and culture.
● The Leaders' Role Through motivating speeches and political actions,
leaders like Mahatma Gandhi and Jawaharlal Nehru sparked emotions of
nationalism.
23. Why is conservation of mineral resources essential? Explain any three
methods to conserve them. 2+3 = 5 Marks
Ans: Conservation of mineral resources is necessary as the overall volume of
exploitable mineral deposits is a small fraction i.e., one percent of the earth's
crust. We are swiftly depleting mineral resources that needed millions of years
to be formed and concentrated. Mineral production is so delayed due to
geological processes that replenishment rates are infinitely small in contrast to
current consumption rates.
Three methods of conserving mineral resources are:
1) Minerals should be utilised in a strategic manner.
2) Improved technologies need to allow the use of low-grade ores at low
costs.
3) Mining and processing waste should be kept to a minimum.
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 11
24. Analyse the physiographic and economic factors that have influenced
the distribution pattern of the railway network in our country.
5×1=5 Marks
Ans: Factors that affect the distribution pattern of the railway network in India
are:
● Physiographic factors explain that the Northern plains with vast level land,
high population density, and rich agricultural resources provide the most
favorable conditions for the railway network.
● The nature of the terrain and the number of rivers running through the
region determine the density of the railway network in that region.
Mountains, marshy, sandy and forested areas have a sparse network
whereas plain areas have a dense network of railways.
● It was difficult to lay railway lines on the sandy plains of Western
Rajasthan, swamps of Gujarat, and forested tracks of Madhya Pradesh.
● Economic factors are the regions that have rich resources and are
economically more developed have denser networks of railways in
comparison to the regions with low economic development.
● Administrative factors are the administrative and political decisions that
also affect the distribution of the railway network in a region.
25. Describe any five major functions of political parties. 5×1=5 Marks
Ans: Five major functions of political parties are:
● Political parties contest elections and help to develop policies favorable to
the party.
● Political parties encourage citizens to vote for their party members to win
the government seat and it assists the current government for its daily
affairs.
● Parties play a decisive role in making laws as they form and run a
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 12
government.
● Defeated parties in the election play the role of opposition to the parties in
power.
● Parties provide people access to government machinery and welfare
schemes.
26. How do pressure groups and movements exert influence on politics?
Explain with examples. 5×1=5 Marks
Ans: Interest groups and movements do not participate in party politics directly,
but they do strive to influence political parties. They have a political opinion on
important topics and take political positions without being affiliated with a
political party.
Pressure groups and movements exert influence on politics in the following
ways:
● They aim to obtain public sympathy and support for their goals through
holding campaigns, holding meetings, submitting petitions, and
influencing the media.
● They organize protests such as strikes in an attempt to get the government
to pay attention to their demands.
● Professionals or lobbyists are hired by business organizations, and
expensive advertising is sponsored.
● Some members of pressure organizations serve on formal committees that
advise the government.
● In some cases, the pressure groups are either formed or led by the leaders
of political parties or act as extended arms of political parties. For
example, most trade unions and student organizations such as ABVP
(Akhil Bharatiya Vidyarthi Parishad) in India are either established or
affiliated with one or the other major political party.
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 13
27. How are multinational corporations (MNCs) controlling and spreading
their productions across the world? Explain. 5 Marks
Ans: Multinational corporations (MNCs) set up production in various countries
based on the following factors:
● MNCs establish production offices and factories in countries where they
can obtain low-cost labor and other resources, such as China, Bangladesh,
and India. These countries also provide the benefit of low-cost
manufacturing areas.
● MNCs collaborate with local firms in nations all over the world to produce
goods. The local firm benefits from such cooperative manufacturing in
two ways.
● MNCs might give funds for extra expenditures in order to increase
production speed and also MNCs bring the most up-to-date technology to
enhance and improve productivity.
● Several multinational corporations are so large that their wealth exceeds
the budgets of some developing countries. This is why they acquire local
businesses in order to boost output.
● MNCs also enter into close competition with local companies thereby
influencing production in distant locations.
28. How do the large companies manipulate the market? Explain with
examples. 5×1=5 Marks
Ans: The market is manipulated in a variety of ways by major corporations:
● At times the large companies buy the smaller companies who make
similar products in order to have no or less competition.
● When there is competition, they make the products available at lower costs
in order to attract more consumers.
● Large businesses can influence the marketplaces by means of excessive
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 14
means of advertisements.
● They even acquire out small corporations or make the latter work with
them so they do not have any competition who manufactures the same
goods.
● They also buy the smaller companies who make similar products in order
to have no or less competition.
29. Three features A, B and C are marked in the political map of India.
Identify these features with the help of the following information and write
their correct names on the lines marked on the map:
A. The place where the Indian National Congress session was held in 1920.
B. The city where the Jallianwala Bagh incident occurred.
C. The place where the peasants struggled against the indigo plantation
system. 1+1+1=3 Marks
Ans:
A. The place where the Indian National Congress session was held in 1920
is Nagpur.
B. The city where the Jallianwala Bagh incident occurred is Amritsar.
C. The place where the peasants struggled against the indigo plantation
system is the Champaran district of Bihar.
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 15
Map for Q.No.29
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 16
Ans:
Note: The following questions are for the Visually Impaired Candidates only;
in lieu of Q. No. 29:
(29.1) Name the place where the Indian National Congress Session was held
in September 1920.
(29.2) In which city Jallianwala Bagh incident occurred?
(29.3) Where the peasants struggled against the indigo plantation system?
Ans: (29.1) Nagpur
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 17
(29.2) Amritsar
(29.3) Champaran
30. (30.1) On the given political outline map of India, two features A and B
are marked. Identify these features with the help of the following
information: 2+1=3 Marks
A. Iron-ore mines
Ans: Kudremukh.
B. Terminal station of North-South Corridor
Ans: Srinagar
(30.2) On the same map locate and label the following:
(i) Gandhinagar Software Technology Park
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 18
Map for Q.No.30
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 19
Ans:
Note: The following questions are for the Visually Impaired Candidates only;
in lieu of Question Number 30:
(30.1) In which state are Kudremukh iron-ore mines located?
Ans: Kudremukh iron-ore mines located at Karnataka.
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 20
(30.2) Name the eastern terminal station of East-west corridor.
Ans: The eastern terminal station of the East-west corridor is Silchar.
(30.3) In which state is Gandhinagar Software Technology park located?
Ans: Gandhinagar Software Technology Park is located in Gujarat.
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 21
CBSE Class 10
Social Science
Previous Year Question Paper 2016
Series: JSR Set -1
Code no. 32/1
● Please check that this question paper contains 8 printed pages + 2
Maps.
● Code number given on the right hand side of the question paper should
be written on the title page of the answer-book by the candidate.
● Please check that this question paper contains 30 questions.
● Please write down the Serial Number of the question before
attempting it.
● 15 minute time has been allotted to read this question paper. The
question paper will be distributed at 10.15 a.m. From 10.15 a.m. to
10.30 a.m, the students will read the question paper only and will not
write any answer on the answer-book during this period
Summative Assessment-II
Social Science
Time Allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 70
General Instructions:
1. The question paper has 30 questions in all. All questions are compulsory.
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 1
2. Marks are indicated against each question.
3. Questions from serial number 1 to 8 are very short-answer questions. Each
question carries 1 mark.
4. Questions from serial number 9 to 20 are 3 marks questions. Answers to these
questions should not exceed 80 words each.
5. Questions from serial number 21 to 28 are 5 marks questions. Answers to these
questions should not exceed 100 words each.
6. Question numbers 29 and 30 are map questions of 3 marks each from History
and Geography both. After completion, attach the maps inside your answer-
book.
1. Who remarked “ when France sneezes the rest of Europe catches cold”.
Ans: Duke Metternich
Or
Who were called colons in Vietnam ? 1 Mark
Ans: The French citizens living in Vietnam.
2. Why should the use of cattle cake as fuel be discouraged? 1 Mark
Ans: Use of cattle cake as fuel should be discouraged as it reduces supply of
adequate manure which is used in agriculture.
3. Distinguish between pressure groups and political parties by stating any one
point of distinction. 1 Mark
Ans: It is a group of people who come together for the purpose of contesting
elections and gaining control of the government whereas if we talk about pressure
groups, they do not seek to directly control or share political power with political
parties.
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 2
4. Why did India adopt a multi-party system ? 1 Mark
Ans: India adopted a multi party system because the social and geographical
diversity in such a large country cannot be absorbed easily by two or even three
parties.
5. Name any two sectional interest groups. ½+½=1 Mark
Ans: Trade unions and business associations.
6. Why do MNCs set up their offices and factories in those regions where they
get cheap labour and other resources ? 1 Mark
Ans: MNCs do this in order to reduce their cost of production and hence, maximize
their profits.
7. If any damage is done to a consumer by a trader, under which consumer
rights one can move to consumer court to get compensation. 1 Mark
Ans: Right to seek redressal.
8. Why is the supervision of the functioning of formal sources of loans necessary
? 1 Mark
Ans: The supervision of the functioning of formal sources of loans is necessary so
as to ensure that banks and cooperatives lend loans at low interest rates, which
benefits one and all. Banks need to make sure they're lending to small businesses
and farmers, not just big businessmen and traders who are looking to make a profit.
9. “The decade of 1830 had brought great economic hardship in Europe”.
Support the statement with arguments. 3×1=3 Marks
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 3
Ans: “The decade of 1830 had brought great economic hardships in Europe”
● During the first half of the 19th Century there was an enormous increase in
the population of Europe.
● In many countries there were more seekers of jobs than employment.
● Small producers were up against stiff competition from the import of low-cost
machine-made goods from England.
● In regions of Europe where the aristocracy still ruled, peasants were burdened
with feudal dues and obligations, causing them to suffer.
● Food price increases or a poor harvest year resulted in widespread pauperism
in town and country.
Or
“The Ho Chi Minh Trail became advantageous to Vietnamese in the war
against U.S.'' Support the statement with arguments.
Ans:“ The Ho-Chi-Minh Trail became advantageous to Vietnamese in the war
against U.S”-
● The trail shows how the Vietnamese have taken great advantage of their
limited resources.
● The trail has been used for the transportation of men and material from North
to South by the huge network of footpaths and roads.
● In the late 1950s, it was improved and around 20,000 North Vietnamese
armies came every month from 1967. On this trail there were bases of support
and hospitals.
● Women porters mostly carried supplies on their backs or bikes.
● The U.S. has regularly bombed this path to disrupt supplies, yet efforts have
failed by intensive bombing to destroy the important supply line because of
their rapid reconstruction.
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 4
10. What type of flag was designed during the ‘Swadeshi Movement’ in
Bengal ? Explain its main features. 1+2 = 3 Marks
Ans: A tricolour flag was designed during the Swadeshi Movement in Bengal
● It had red, green and yellow colours.
● It had eight lotuses representing 8 provinces of British India.
● It featured a crescent moon, which represented Hindus and Muslims.
11. “The plantation workers in Assam had their own understanding of
Mahatma Gandhi and the notion of Swaraj”. Support the statement with
arguments. 3 Marks
Ans: The understanding of plantation workers in Assam are as follows:
● The idea of free movement in and out of the confined space where they were
confined meant to plant workers in Assam. That meant maintaining a
connection with the village they came from.
● Thousands of workers defied the authorities, left the tea gardens, and headed
home when they heard of swaraj and the movement for non-cooperating.
● They thought Gandhi Raj would come and everybody in their own village
would be given land. However, they were stopped midway by the police and
brutally beaten up.
12. Classify industries on the basis of source of raw material. How are they
different from each other ? 1+2 = 3 Marks
Ans: On the basis of raw material industries can be agro based industries and mineral
based industries.
● Agro-based industries rely on agricultural products as raw materials, while
mineral-based industries rely on minerals as raw materials for their production
processes.
● Examples of agro based industries are cotton, jute, silk, textile, edible oil etc.
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 5
Examples of mineral based industries are iron and steel industry, aluminium
smelting, cement industry etc.
● Usually agro based industry requires unskilled labour whereas mineral based
industry requires both unskilled and skilled labour.
13. ‘Consumption of energy in all forms has been rising all over the country.
There is an urgent need to develop a sustainable path of energy development
and energy saving’. Suggest and explain any three measures to solve this
burning problem. 3×1=3 Marks
Ans: "Energy consumption has risen throughout the country in all forms. A
sustainable path for energy development and energy saving needs to be developed
urgently." Every industry, agriculture, industry, transportation, the domestic and
commercial sector in the national economy needs energy inputs. With the population
growing and lifestyles changing, energy consumption is growing very quickly. In
energy according to demand, we are not self-sufficient. Careful use of limited
resources is therefore important.
The three measure to solve this burning problem are:
● Instead of individual vehicles, we can do our bit using public transport systems.
● If not in use, switch electricity off.
● Use or use non-conventional power saving devices.
14. Suggest any three steps to minimise the environmental degradation caused
by the industrial development in India. 3×1=3 Marks
Ans: Following are the three steps to minimise the environmental degradation caused
by industrial development:
● Minimize use of water in two or more consecutive phases for processing by
reuse and recycling.
● Rainwater harvesting to meet water needs.
● The fitting of smoke stacks in factories with electrostatic precipitators, filter
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 6
fabrics, scrubbers and inertial separators can reduce particulate matter in the
air.
15. What is meant by regional political party ? State the conditions required to
be recognised as a ‘regional political party’. 1+2 = 3 Marks
Ans: Regional political parties are those parties which are present in one or a unit of
the federation in a country which follows the federal system.
The following conditions must be met in order to be recognised as a regional political
party: :
● In the election of a state legislature, a regional party should secure 6% of votes.
● A regional party should also win at least two seats in the same election.
16. What are public interest pressure groups? Describe their functioning.
1+2 = 3 Marks
Ans: Public Interest groups work for the welfare of the entire society with the view
to promote the collective rather than selective good.
Functioning of public interest group:
● These organisations fight for groups other than their members. For example: a
group fighting against bonded labour fights not for itself, but for those who are
subjected to it.
● The members of this organisation usually undertake activities that benefit them
as well as other citizens. For example: BAMCEF (Backward and Minority
Communities Employees Federation) fights against caste discrimination on
behalf of its members and society as a whole.
17. Which three challenges do you feel are being faced by political parties in
India ? Give your opinion. 3×1=3 Marks
Ans: Following are the three challenges:
● Lack of internal democracy: There is concentration of power in one or few
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 7
leaders at the top in a party. Parties do not keep membership rolls, do not hold
organisational meetings, and do not hold internal elections on a regular basis.
Ordinary members do not get sufficient information and therefore, the decision
of a party cannot be influenced.
● Dynastic succession: There are no open elections to the highest post. As a
result the top leaders favour people close to them or even their family members
to continue the position of power. In some parties, members of the same family
hold the top positions. This is unfair to other members of the party.
● Growing role of muscle and money power: People who have and can raise
lots of money. Rich people and corporations who donate money to the party
tend to have sway over the party's decisions and policies. Parties also support
criminals who have the potential to win elections.
The challenges pose problems which are harmful for the functioning of democracy.
Even though, Supreme Court and Election Commission have made several efforts to
face their challenges, there is still a lot that needs to be done. Political parties are
crucial in the working of democracy and it needs to gain trust from ordinary people.
Therefore it is necessary for political parties to overcome the challenges.
18. “Deposits with the banks are beneficial to the depositors as well as to the
nation”. Examine the statement. 3×1=3 Marks
Ans: “Deposits with the banks are beneficial to the depositors as well as to the
nation”:
● People do not keep all the money they have earned with themselves all the
time. Banks provide and serve as a safeguard where people can deposit money
in their account and remain certain about the safety of the money.
● Banks also extend loans to borrowers for a variety of economic activities and
other purposes. Credit or loan is crucial for the economic and overall
development of the country.
● Banks charge a lower interest rate on loans than informal services such as
moneylenders. This leads to higher income of people and they can then borrow
cheaply for a variety of needs such as for doing business, setting up small scale
industries, growing crops for trade in goods. All of these activities lead to
economic development of the nation.
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 8
19. Why had the Indian government put barriers to foreign trade and foreign
investments after independence ? Analyse the reasons. 3 Marks
Ans: Here are the following reasons:
● This was done to protect producers within the country from competition with
imports of several products.
● In the 1950s and 1960s, industries were just getting started, and competition
from imports at that time would have prevented them from developing..
● Only essential items like machinery, fertilizers and petroleum were imported.
20. “Rules and regulations are required for the protection of the consumers in
the marketplace.” Justify the statement with arguments. 3×1=3 Marks
Ans: “Rules and regulations are required for the protection of the consumers in the
marketplace.”
● Rules and regulations are required for the protection of consumers in the
marketplace To protect them from unethical, unfair trade practices and
exploitation.
● For example many unfair practices were being indulged in by traders such as
adulteration of food and other products, traders weighing less than what they
should and adding prices to products which were not mentioned before.
● Proper implementation of rules and regulations for consumers by the
government is thus necessary for protecting and promoting the interests of
consumers.
21. “Napoleon had destroyed democracy in France but in the administrative
field he had incorporated revolutionary principles in order to make the whole
system more rational and efficient.” Analyse the statement with arguments.
5×1=5 Marks
Ans: Napoleon simplified administrative divisions in France by enacting the
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 9
following measures.:
● With the Napoleonic Code of 1804, all privileges based on birth were
abolished, as was equality before the law, and property rights were guaranteed.
● Abolished feudalism and memorial or serfdom dues for peasants.
● Also, guild restrictions were lifted in the towns, while transportation and
communication systems were upgraded.
● Peasants, artisans, workers and small producers enjoyed a new found freedom.
The producers began to realise that a common national currency,
standardization of goods and a uniform system of weights and measures would
facilitate the movement of goods and capital from one region to another.
● It became clear with time that the new administrative arrangements did not go
hand in hand with political freedom in the countries in which they worked in
food.
Or
“The peace negotiations in Geneva followed the division of Vietnam that set in
motion a series of events that turned Vietnam into a battlefield.” Analyse the
statement with arguments.
Ans: The peace talks in Geneva came after Vietnam was divided, which set in
motion a chain of events that turned Vietnam into a battleground. The following
arguments can be used to analyze this statement.
● Following France's defeat in 1954, the Vietnamese were convinced to accept
the split of Vietnam into North and South Vietnam at the Geneva Convention.
This separation sparked a chain of events that turned Vietnam into a death and
destruction battleground.
● Ho Chi Minh and the communists ruled North Vietnam, while Bao Dai ruled
South Vietnam until he was deposed by a coup led by Ngo Dinh Diem.
● Diem established a brutal and authoritarian regime. Anyone who opposed the
dictatorship was labelled a communist and imprisoned or killed.
● Diem kept Ordinance 10, a French statute that allowed Christianity but
prohibited Buddhism. People joined under the banner of the National
Liberation Front to protest his authoritarian reign (NLP).
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 10
● The NLF battled for the country's unification with the help of Ho Chi Minh's
administration. As a result, the administration was wary about the alliance. It
was concerned about communists obtaining power
22. Why did Mahatma Gandhi decide to call off the Civil Disobedience
Movement ? Explain. 5×1=5 Marks
Ans: Mahatma Gandhi decided to call off Civil Disobedience Movement because :
● In Peshawar, angry crowds took to the streets to protest the arrest of Indian
leaders, facing armoured cars and police firing. Many people were killed in the
attack.
● When Gandhiji was detained a month later, industrial workers attacked police
stations, government buildings, law courts, along with all other types of
buildings that represented British rule.
● Fearful, with harsh repression, the government retaliated. Brutally attacked
peaceful satyagrahis, beaten women and children, and detained more than one
million satyagrahis.
● Break the impasse between Congress and the government, Lord Irwin invited
Gandhiji to sign a peace treaty, known as the Gandhi-Irwin pact.
● In such a case, Gandhiji decided to call a halt to the movement.
23. Explain the importance of conservation of minerals. Highlight any three
measures to conserve them. 2+3=5 Marks
Ans: Importance of conservation-
● The fast consumption of mineral resources takes millions of years to build and
concentrate.
● The resources of minerals are endless and non-renewable.
● Continued mining of gold leads to higher costs since mining is derived from
higher depths and declining quality.
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 11
Three measures to conserve them are:
● The technological advances must continue to be developed in order to permit
the utilisation at low cost of low grade ores.
● Recycling of metal is an important step towards conservation of minerals.
This leads to less fresh extraction of minerals and hence, also saves a lot of
money.
● Use of scrap metal and other substitutes can also be taken into account as a
step towards conserving mineral resources.
24. “Roadways still have an edge over railways in India.” Support the statement
with arguments. 5×1=5 Marks
Ans: Because of the simplicity with which roads can be built and maintained, they
continue to have an edge over trains. The following factors contribute to an increased
prominence of road transportation over rail transportation:
● The cost of road construction is significantly lower than for the railways.
● Roads can traverse territory that is more dissected and undulating.
● Higher slope gradients can be negotiated and mountains like the Himalayas as
such can be passed on by roads.
● Road transport is cost-effective for transporting a small number of people and
a modest amount of cargo over short distances.
● It also offers door-to-door service, and loading and unloading costs are
therefore considerably lower.
● The transport of roads is also used as a transportation feeder for other modes.
They offer a link between railway stations, air and maritime ports, for example.
25. Describe the popular struggle of Bolivia. 5 Marks
Ans: Under pressure from the World Bank, Bolivia's government agreed to privatise
the supply of water in Cochabamba, the country's third largest city. In January 2000,
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 12
protests and a national strike occurred in response to the fee hike and the perceived
privatisation of water supplies. Oscar Olivera, the demonstrators' leader, was
arrested by the authorities. The protests were rapidly spread across the nation and
led the government to declare a state of emergency in April. People are dissatisfied
with the government's choice. Protests continued, and numerous individuals were
killed as a result. Oscar Olivera was finally released by the government, who also
signed an agreement with him terminating the concession. As a result of similar
public outcry, the MNC contract was cancelled and municipal water supply prices
were restored.
26. “Political parties are a necessary condition for a democracy”. Analyse the
statement with examples. 5×1=5 Marks
Ans: “Political parties are a necessary condition for a democracy” due to following
reasons:
● They offer voters a variety of options for governance and economic
management, allowing them to exercise their right to choose.
● They provide candidates in elections who, if victorious, go to the legislature to
make laws.
● They provide the leaders who form the government to run the administration.
● In the parliamentary term, they form the opposition, operate the government
as a check.
● Parties provide the public a means for the legislature and the government to
make everyone's voices heard. They represent people in the legislature and
ensure that legislation reflects the will of the people in general.
27. How can the formal sector loans be made beneficial for poor farmers and
workers ? Suggest any five measures. 1+2+2=5 Marks
Ans: Loans from various sources were obtained by people in the formal and informal
sector. Banks and cooperatives are issuing formal sector loans. Money lenders,
merchants, employers, family members, and friends are examples of informal
lenders. Poor people and workers receive a large proportion of their informal loans,
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 13
which are not only operational but also have very high interest rates. The poor and
employees suffer as a result of this.
Following are the 5 measures to make formal sector loans beneficial for poor farmers
and workers:
● The formal sector such as banks and cooperatives, particularly in rural areas,
should lend more to the poor and workers.
● Cheap and affordable loans should be provided by the formal sector.
● Everyone should be able to obtain loans from the formal sector.
● Provision of bank connections for the Self Help Group (SHG).
● More cooperatives and banks should be available in rural areas
28. Describe the impact of globalisation on Indian economy with examples.
5×1=5 Marks
Ans: Following are the impact of globalisation:
● Foreign investment growth: Foreign investment has increased over the past
20 years.
● New opportunities: globalisation has given Indian companies new
opportunities and services like them in particular.
● New jobs: Globalization created new employment and helped to a large extent
to reduce unemployment.
● A multitude of services; such as data entry, accounting and engineering are
now available in India cheaply.
● The emergence of Indian enterprises as multinationals, such as Tata Motors
and Infosys, has allowed them to benefit from increasing competition brought
about by globalisation.
29. Three features A, B and C are marked on the given political outline map of
India. Identify these features with the help of the following information and
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 14
write their correct names on the lines marked in the map :
A. The place where cotton mill workers organised Satyagraha.
B. The place related to the calling off the Non-Cooperation Movement.
C. The place where the Indian National Congress Session was held.
3×1=3 Marks
Ans:
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 15
Note: The following questions are for the Visually Impaired Candidates only
in lieu of Q.No. 29 :
(29.1) Name the city where cotton mill workers organised Satyagraha.
Ans: Ahmedabad
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 16
(29.2) Name the place related to the calling off the Non-Cooperation
Movement.
Ans: Chauri Chaura
(29.3) Where was the Indian National Congress Session held in December 1920
?
Ans: Nagpur
30. On the given political outline map of India, locate and label the following
with appropriate symbols :
A. Oil Field - Digboi
B. Iron and Steel Plant - Bhilai
C. Major Sea Port – Kochi 3×1=3 Marks
Ans:
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 17
Note: The following questions are for the Visually Impaired Candidates only
in lieu of Q.No. 30 :
(29.1) In which state is Digboi oil field located ?
Ans: Assam
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 18
(29.2) Name the state where Bhilai Iron and Steel Plant is located.
Ans: Chattisgarh
(29.3) Name the Southernmost major sea port located on the eastern coast of
India.
Ans: Tuticorin
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 19
CBSE Class 10
Social Science
Previous Year Question Paper 2017
Series: HRK Set- 1
Code no. 32/1
● Please check that this question paper contains 8 printed pages + 2 Maps.
● Code number given on the right hand side of the question paper should be
written on the title page of the answer-book by the candidate.
● Please check that this question paper contains 30 questions.
● Please write down the Serial Number of the question before attempting
it.
● 15 minutes of time has been allotted to read this question paper. The
question paper will be distributed at 10.15 a.m. From 10.15 a.m. to 10.30
a.m., the students will read the question paper only and will not write any
answer on the answer script during this period.
SUMMATIVE ASSESSMENT - Ⅱ
SOCIAL SCIENCE
Time Allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 90
General Instructions:
I. The question paper has 30 questions in all. All questions are compulsory.
II. Marks are indicated against each question.
Class Ⅹ Social Science www.vedantu.com 1
III. Questions from serial number 1 to 8 are Very Short Answer Type Questions.
Each question carries 1 mark. Answers to these questions should not exceed
30 words each.
IV. Questions from serial number 9 to 20 are 3 marks questions. Answers to these
questions should not exceed 80 words each.
V. Questions from serial number 21 to 28 are 5 marks questions. Answers to
these questions should not exceed 120 words each.
VI. Question numbers 29 and 30 are map questions of 3 marks each from History
and Geography both. After completion, attach the maps inside your answer-
book.
1. Name the writer of the book ‘Hind Swaraj’. 1 Mark
Ans: Mahatma Gandhi wrote the book "Hind Swaraj" in 1909. In it, he expresses his
ideas on Swaraj, modern civilisation, and automation.
2. Name the river related to National Waterways No. 2. 1 Mark
Ans: The Brahmaputra River is regarded as the No. 2 National Waterway. It is an
891-kilometer stretch of the Brahmaputra River between the Bangladesh border near
Dhubri and Sadiya in Assam.
3. Explain any one difference between a pressure group and a political party.
1 Mark
Ans:
Pressure Group Political Party
They have a selected interest and work They have a broad programme that
for the collective interest of their covers a wide range of national
members Eg. Railway employee concerns.
association, Teacher’s association.
Class Ⅹ Social Science www.vedantu.com 2
Their membership is limited. The membership of political party is
broad.
4. Explain the meaning of democracy. 1 Mark
Ans: Democracy is a type of governance in which the people hold supreme authority
and the people's representatives are elected by the voters using the adult franchise.
5. Name any one political party of India which grew out of a movement.
1 Mark
Ans: The political party of India that grew out of a movement is ‘Asom Gana
Parishad.’
6. How does the use of money make it easier to exchange things ? Give an
example. 1 Mark
Ans: Money serves as a standard means of payment for transactions, making it
simple to exchange goods.
Consider the following scenario: Let's say a shoemaker wants to sell his shoes and
buy wheat. He would sell his shoes for money in the market and then use the
proceeds to purchase wheat.
7. Give an example of violation of consumer’s right to choose. 1 Mark
Ans: A telecom operator could require people to buy even their phones from them
if they wish to use their internet services, as an example of a breach of the right to
choose.
8. How is the maximum retail price printed on packets beneficial for you ?
1 Mark
Class Ⅹ Social Science www.vedantu.com 3
Ans: When consumers see the Maximum Retail Amount (MRP) displayed on
packages or products, they realise that they do not have to pay more than the
indicated price. Customers will no longer be able to swindle the merchant by
overcharging them.
9. Describe any three economic hardships faced by Europe in the 1830s.
3 Marks
Ans: Europe had the following economic difficulties in the 1830s:
I. The cost of food has increased, and the country has become impoverished due
to a poor harvest.
II. The rate of population increase surpassed the rate of job creation by a ratio of
two.
III. Slums become overcrowded as a result of the large-scale migration of rural
people to cities.
IV. Unemployment, migration, and price increases are all on the rise.
V. Market competition is fierce.
VI. Peasants are in terrible conditions.
Or
Describe any three problems faced by the French in the sphere of education in
Vietnam. 3 Marks
Ans: In the field of education, the French encountered the following issues in
Vietnam:
I. Following western education, the Vietnamese may begin to question colonial
dominance in the same way that Indians in India did during British rule. They
would become aware of western democracies and make a variety of requests
to the French government.
II. Educated Vietnamese may seek white-collar or higher-paying employment,
such as teachers, police officers, and other positions once held by French
Class Ⅹ Social Science www.vedantu.com 4
colonists in Vietnam. As a result, the French residents were opposed to the
Vietnamese receiving an education.
III. The Vietnamese aristocracy were heavily influenced by Chinese culture. The
French had to oppose this impact as well.
10. Why did Gandhiji decide to withdraw the ‘Non-Cooperation Movement’ in
February, 1922 ? Explain any three reasons. 3 Marks
Ans: The following are the reasons for the Non-Cooperation Movement's
withdrawal:
I. Non-Cooperation Movement activists set fire to a police station in Uttar
Pradesh's Chauri-Chaura (Gorakhpur), killing 21 officials.
II. Gandhiji believed that the Indian people were not ready for a national
movement of mass struggle and that the campaign should be abandoned.
III. Furthermore, because they wanted to run for government, many members of
the Indian National Congress thought the Non-Cooperation Movement was
tiresome and pointless.
11. Evaluate the role of business classes in the ‘Civil Disobedience Movement’.
3 Marks
Ans: The following is the role of the business classes in the Civil Disobedience
Movement:
I. The corporate elite backed the Civil Disobedience Movement and protested
against colonial restrictions that limited their freedom to do so. They wanted
restrictions against the import of foreign goods as well as a foreign exchange
rate in the rupee sterling that discouraged imports.
II. To organise business classes against colonial policies, they created the Indian
Industrial and Commercial Congress in 1920 and the Federation of the Indian
Chamber of Commerce and Industries (FICCI) in 1927.
Class Ⅹ Social Science www.vedantu.com 5
III. The business community understood Swaraj in a variety of ways. They came
to witness Swaraj at a time when colonial commercial constraints would be
eliminated, allowing the trading economy to flourish unhindered.
12. Describe any three characteristics of the Durg-Bastar-Chandrapur Iron-ore
belt in India. 3 Marks
Ans: The following are the characteristics of India's Durg-Bastar-Chandrapur iron-
ore belt:
I. Durg-Bastar-high-grade Chandrapur is a hematite iron ore belt. Steel can be
made from this high-quality iron ore.
II. Automobiles, railway equipment, and defence equipment are all made from
steel manufactured from this ore.
III. Because building a new steel plant is prohibitively expensive, half of the iron
ore produced in Visakhapatnam is shipped to Japan and South Korea.
13. Analyse the role of the manufacturing sector in the economic development
of India. 3 Marks
Ans: Manufacturing's contribution to the national economy is as follows:
● Creation of alternative employment: Manufacturing diversifies the
economy and reduces reliance on agriculture by providing new job
opportunities.
● Better level of living: Industrial labourers and other employees get higher
wages and have a better standard of living than landless rural labourers.
● Support to agricultural production: Increased usage of fertilisers,
pesticides, plastics, energy, and diesel in agriculture has resulted from the rise
and competitiveness of the industrial industries.
● In today's world of territorial specialisation, our industry must become more
efficient and competitive. On the global market, our exports must be
Class Ⅹ Social Science www.vedantu.com 6
competitive with those of other countries. This will increase national
prosperity by bringing in foreign funds.
14. Examine with example the role of means of transport and communication
in making our life prosperous and comfortable. 3 Marks
Ans: Transportation and communication have improved our quality of life in the
following ways:
I. Transportation allows raw materials to reach the plant and finished products
to reach consumers. The rate of growth of a country is determined by the
creation of products and services, as well as their mobility over time. As a
result, fast development necessitates the use of efficient forms of
transportation.
II. Apart from mobility, the ease and mode of communication, such as cell
phones, the internet, and Wi-Fi, provides for a constant flow of data.
III. India is closely connected to the rest of the world today, despite its vast size,
variety, and linguistic and cultural plurality. The country's socioeconomic
development has been aided by railways, airways, rivers, newspapers, radio,
television, cinema, and the internet, among other things. The economy's
vitality has been bolstered by trade from a local to an international level. It
has substantially improved our quality of life by significantly expanding the
amount of amenities and facilities available to us.
15. Analyse the role of popular struggles in the development of democracy.
3 Marks
Ans: Mass upheavals lead to the development of democracy. Some key decisions
are likely to be resolved through consensus rather than conflict. That, on the other
hand, would be an outlier. In defining moments of democracy, conflict between
those who have exercised authority and those who aspire to a share of power is
typical. When a country is transitioning to democracy, growing democracy, or
deepening democracy, these periods occur.
Class Ⅹ Social Science www.vedantu.com 7
I. Mass mobilisation is the answer to a democratic struggle. Using existing
institutions such as parliament or the judiciary to tackle a problem is
sometimes possible. However, when there is a genuine disagreement, these
institutions are typically drawn into the fight. It is up to the people, not the
government, to find a solution.
II. The emergence of new political organisations has resulted in these links and
mobilizations. True, there is an element of surprise in every major event.
However, institutionalised politics aids the effectiveness of spontaneous
public participation. There could be a spate of politically organised groups.
These include political parties, pressure groups, and movement groups, to
name a few.
16. How do pressure groups and movements strengthen democracy ? Explain.
3 Marks
Ans: Pressure groups and movements have the following effects on politics:
I. Information campaigns, meeting organisation, and petition filing are all
methods used by pressure groups to gain public attention and support for their
operations. They make use of the media to spread the word about their
concerns.
II. Protest activities: Protest activities organised by pressure groups include
strikes, protests, and interrupting government programmes. Such tactics are
used by labour unions, employee associations, and other movement groups to
persuade the government to pay attention to their demands.
III. Lobbying: Business organisations engage professional lobbyists, and pricey
advertisements are financed. They are members of formal government
committees and organisations that advise the government.
IV. Take a stand on important issues: While pressure groups and movements do
not directly participate in party politics, they do seek to influence political
parties by taking positions on a variety of subjects. They all have their own
political ideologies and positions on important issues. (Any three)
Class Ⅹ Social Science www.vedantu.com 8
Thus, in a democracy, pressure groups and movements have varying degrees of
effect on politics.
17. On the basis of which values will it be a fair expectation that democracy
should produce a harmonious social life ? Explain 3 Marks
Ans: The following are the basic democratic values that create a reasonable
expectation that democracy would produce a happy social life:
I. Social Equality
II. Liberty
III. Justice
IV. Justification from a financial standpoint
V. Political liberty
VI. Fundamental and civil rights
Furthermore, the following can be comprehended.
● Democracy is a form of government in which the people have ultimate
authority and the people's representatives are elected by adult voters.
● It promotes equality among citizens.
● It protects the interests of the general people.
● It allows for a wide range of social situations to be accommodated.
18. Explain any three loan activities of banks in India. 3 Marks
Ans: By lending money to people in need, banks act as a conduit between those with
extra funds (depositors) and those in need of funds (borrowers). Others can open
bank accounts, and banks can utilise that money to help people who need money.
The borrower pays a higher interest rate, and the profit is returned to the depositor
in the form of interest. This is the procedure for applying for a loan.
Class Ⅹ Social Science www.vedantu.com 9
Loan activities of Bank :
I. Banks only store a small part of their deposits as cash in their vaults.
II. In India, banks currently maintain around 15% of their deposits in cash.
III. This sum is kept as a reserve to compensate depositors who may come to the
bank on any given day to withdraw money.
IV. The majority of deposits are used to extend loans by banks.
V. Loans for various economic activities, such as vehicle loans, education loans,
home loans, personal loans, and so on, are in high demand.
VI. Banks charge a higher rate of interest on loans than they do on deposits.
VII. The difference between the amount charged to borrowers and the amount paid
to depositors is the bank's primary source of revenue.
19. How do Multi-National Corporations (MNCs) interlink production across
countries ? Explain with examples. 3 Marks
Ans: Multi-National Corporations (MNCs) interlink their production across
countries in various ways:
I. A multinational corporation (MNC) is a huge organisation that owns and
manages manufacturing in multiple countries. MNCs locate their production
offices and factories in areas where they can easily obtain low-cost labour and
other resources. This is done to reduce production costs while increasing
profit.
II. MNCs not only sell their finished products around the world, but they also
produce goods and services around the world.
III. The manufacturing process is broken down into little chunks and dispersed
across the globe.
IV. Buying local enterprises and subsequently expanding output is the most usual
method for MNC investments.
Class Ⅹ Social Science www.vedantu.com 10
For example, Cargill Foods, a huge American MNC, recently acquired Parakh
Foods, an Indian company with a large marketing network in several parts of
India and an excellent reputation. Cargill is now India's largest producer of
edible oil, thanks to this advantage.
V. MNCs also have influence over production by placing orders with a huge
number of small producers of commodities such as clothing, footwear, and
sports equipment all over the world. MNC then offers these items under its
own brand name.
VI. As a result, MNC production in widely scattered locations is becoming
increasingly interconnected.
20. Analyse the importance of the three-tier judicial machinery under
Consumer Protection Act (COPRA), 1986 for redressal of consumer disputes.
3 Marks
Ans: In 1986, COPRA established a three-tier court system for resolving consumer
issues at the district, state, and national levels.
I. District courts hear matters with a value of up to Rs 20 lacs.
II. Courts at the state level deal with matters ranging from Rs. 20 Lakhs to Rs. 1
Crore.
III. Cases involving claims in excess of Rs. 1 crore have been sent to the national
level court. If a case is dismissed at the district level, the consumer may appeal
to the state level, and ultimately to the national level.
In India, the consumer movement as a social force arose from a recognition of the
importance of safeguarding consumers' interests against unethical and unfair trade
practises. The COPRA has aided in making legal action against these practises more
accessible. It installs confidence in the legal system of the country among
consumers. It has also served as a disincentive to unscrupulous business practises.
As a result, consumers have benefited from higher quality at lower rates.
Class Ⅹ Social Science www.vedantu.com 11
21. ‘‘The first clear expression of nationalism came with the ‘French
Revolution’ in 1789.’’ Examine the statement. 5 Marks
Ans: It is true that “the first clear expression of nationalism came with the ‘French
revolution’ in 1789″.
I. Until 1789, France was a fully functional territorial state ruled by an absolute
monarch.
During the French Revolution, political and constitutional changes resulted in
the transfer of sovereignty from the king to the body of French citizens.
II. The revolution declared that the people would now be the ones to form the
nation and determine its fate.
The French revolutionaries employed different methods and practises
from the start in order to foster a sense of collective identity and nationality
among the French people. Under the constitution, the community had equal
rights.
III. The ancient royal standard was replaced by a new French flag, the tricolour.
The Estates General were abolished and renamed the National Assembly by a
group of active citizens. All in the name of the nation, new songs were written,
oaths were given, and sacrifices were remembered.
IV. Regional languages were discouraged, and French became the national
language as it was spoken and written in Paris.
The revolutionaries also stated that they would assist other European peoples in
becoming free states. As word of the events in France spread throughout Europe,
students and other members of the educated middle class began to form Jacobin
Clubs.In the 1790s, their actions and wars paved the way for the French troops to
invade Holland, Belgium, Switzerland, and much of Italy.
As a result of the commencement of revolutionary wars, nationalism swept over
Europe.
Or
Examine the reasons that forced America to withdraw from the Vietnam war.
5 Marks
Class Ⅹ Social Science www.vedantu.com 12
Ans: The following are the reasons for the withdrawal of armed forces from the
Vietnam War (The United States War in Vietnam: 1967-January 1974):
I. The conflict with the United States was particularly harsh, as it frequently
employed chemical weapons such as napalm, Agent Orange, and phosphorus
bombs. A considerable number of civilians were killed in this war, in addition
to combatants.
II. Both US and Vietnam supporting and criticising the war, the US media and
films played a significant influence.
III. Hollywood produced films to promote the war effort. For example, John
Wayne's Green Berets (1968). Writers like Mary Me Carthy and performers
like Jane Fonda visited North Vietnam and hailed the country's valiant
defence.
IV. Even within the United States, the prolonging of the war elicited passionate
reactions. The US had clearly failed to achieve its principal goal, namely, the
Vietnamese resistance had not been defeated and the Vietnamese people's
support for the US operation had not been won.
V. The Vietnam Conflict was the most unpopular war in history. People all across
the world, including the United States, criticised it.
Vietnam became a united country quite quickly. The defeat of the world's strongest
military power by the people of a very small Asian country was a watershed moment
in modern world history.
22. How did the Colonial Government repress the ‘Civil Disobedience
Movement’ ? Explain. 5 Marks
Ans: The 'Civil Disobedience Movement' picketed liquor stores and boycotted
imported clothing. Village administrators resigned because peasants refused to pay
revenue and taxes. Members of the movement were persecuted by the Colonial
Government.
I. Forest dwellers broke forest rules in numerous locations by coming into
designated forests to obtain wood and pasture animals. The colonial
Class Ⅹ Social Science www.vedantu.com 13
authorities, alarmed by the events, began arresting Congress leaders one by
one. In several locations, this resulted in violent fights.
II. In April 1930, Abdul Gaffar Khan, a devout disciple, was arrested. Those who
protested were slain in large numbers.
III. Sholapur's industrial workers stormed police stations, municipal buildings,
law courts, and railway stations after Mahatma Gandhi was arrested.
IV. The British government was concerned and alarmed by the growth of the
movement, and it pursued a campaign of ruthless suppression.
V. Peaceful Satyagrahis were assaulted, women and children were beaten, and
over a million people were detained.
23. Why is it necessary to conserve mineral resources ? Explain any four ways
to conserve mineral resources. 5 Marks
Ans: Minerals: Minerals are pure inorganic substances that naturally occur in the
earth's crust. More than 2,000 minerals have been identified, the majority of which
are inorganic and generated by diverse combinations of elements. Nonetheless,
biological elements make up a small percentage of the earth's crust, which are made
up of single elements like gold, silver, diamond, and sulphur.
Minerals are formed over millions of years. These are non-renewable materials with
a finite supply. Continuous mineral extraction boosts the cost of extraction since it
necessitates digging to higher depths. Minerals may be of poor quality.
Necessary to conserve mineral resources: Consumable mineral resources make up
only 1% of all minerals discovered in the earth's crust. Even still, the pace of
consumption is so great that certain nonrenewable mineral resources will be depleted
very soon.
Ways to conserve minerals:
● To exploit our mineral resources in a planned and sustainable manner, we
must make a determined effort.
● Substitutes should be encouraged in order to preserve minerals.
Class Ⅹ Social Science www.vedantu.com 14
● Improved technologies must be continually developed to allow for the low-
cost utilisation of low-grade ores.
● Material recycling utilising scrap metals and other alternatives is one step
toward preserving our mineral resources for the future.
24. Analyse the role of chemical industries in the Indian economy. 5 Marks
Ans: India's chemical sector is diversifying and expanding rapidly. It accounts for
between 3% and 3% of GDP. It is Asia's third-largest and the world's twelfth - largest
plate in terms of area. It includes both large and small manufacturing facilities. Both
the inorganic and organic industries have experienced rapid growth. Sulphuric
acid, nitric acid, alkalies, soda ash, and caustic soda are examples of inorganic
compounds. These businesses can be found all across the country.
Petrochemicals, which are used to make synthetic fibres, synthetic rubber, plastics,
dyestuffs, medicines, and pharmaceuticals, are examples of organic chemicals. Near
oil refineries and petrochemical facilities are organic chemical plants. The chemical
sector is one of the largest users in the world. Basic chemicals are processed to create
various chemicals that are employed in industrial applications, agriculture, or
directly for consumer markets.
25. Describe any five characteristics of democracy. 5 Marks
Ans: The main elements of democracy can be described in a variety of ways.
I. A democratic government is one in which the rulers are chosen by the people.
II. In a democracy, the final choice to exercise power must be made by
representatives who have been chosen by the people or citizens.
III. Democracy requires a free and fair election in which those in power have a
reasonable possibility of losing.
IV. Each adult citizen must have one vote in a democracy, and each vote must
have the same value.
V. A democratic government operates within the bounds of constitutional law
and the rights of citizens.
Class Ⅹ Social Science www.vedantu.com 15
26. ‘‘It is very difficult to reform politics through legal ways.’’ Evaluate the
statement. 5 Marks
Ans:
I. The will of the people in politics plays a vital part in reforming politics.
Politicians frequently desire to retain the status quo, therefore legislation to
reform politics is rarely proposed, or if it is, it does not receive enough support
in Parliament to become a law.
II. When such reforms are passed by parliament, they are frequently not
completely implemented in principle and spirit, defeating the aim of the law.
III. People's awareness of their rights plays a vital part in the political reformation
process. People will be more likely to push for reforms if they are aware of
them. This will drive the government to implement legal reforms.
IV. If political improvements are enacted through legislation, they must contend
with the inefficiencies of the legislative process. This may cause the
reformation process to be slowed.
V. As a result, reforming politics by legal means is difficult. This can be
accomplished, however, by informing the public about their rights and voting
the appropriate officials to implement political changes for the greater good.
27. Analyse any five positive effects of globalisation on the Indian economy.
5 Marks
Ans: The following are some of the visible effects of globalisation on the Indian
economy:
I. The market offers a diverse range of goods and services.
For example, The latest models of digital cameras, mobile phones and
television made by the leading manufacturers of the world are available in the
markets. These products are both economical and accessible to the general
public.
Class Ⅹ Social Science www.vedantu.com 16
II. Several advancements in transportation technology have enabled considerably
speedier and more cost-effective delivery of commodities over great
distances.
III. Even more astonishing is the advancement in information and
telecommunications technologies. The invention and widespread usage of
computers, the internet, mobile phones, fax machines, and other such devices
have made global communication relatively simple.
IV. Electronics, fast food, cell phones, and other industries where MNCs have
invested have produced new jobs.
V. As a result of globalisation, certain Indian companies have become
multinational in their own right, such as Tata Motors (automobiles), Ranbaxy
(medicines), Infosys (computer and information technology), and L & T
(telecom) (construction).
28. What is liberalisation? Describe any four effects of liberalisation on the
Indian economy. 5 Marks
Ans: The term "liberalisation of the economy" refers to the removal of government-
imposed direct or physical constraints on trade. Liberalization refers to the loosening
of government regulations and constraints to allow for increased engagement by
private enterprises in economic policy.
The four effects of liberalisation on the Indian economy are:
I. Producers' performance would improve if there was more competition within
the country.
II. To a significant extent, barriers to international trade and investment have
been abolished. This allowed commodities to be easily imported and exported.
III. To increase production, foreign corporations could open factories and offices.
IV. It gives you the freedom to make your own decisions.
V. Because producers must enhance their quality, competition would boost their
performance within the country.
Class Ⅹ Social Science www.vedantu.com 17
29. Three features A, B and C are marked on the given political outline map of
India (on page 9). Identify these features with the help of the following
information and write their correct names on the lines marked on the map :
3 Marks
(i) The city associated with the Jallianwala Bagh incident.
(ii) The place where the Indian National Congress session was held.
(iii) The place where Gandhiji violated the Salt Law.
Class Ⅹ Social Science www.vedantu.com 18
Ans:
Note : The following questions are for the Visually Impaired Candidates only,
in lieu of Q. No. 29 : 3 Marks
(29.1) Name the city related to Jallianwala Bagh incident.
Ans: Amritsar
(29.2) Name the State where the Indigo planters organised Satyagraha.
Ans: Dandi (Navsari)
(29.3) Name the place where Gandhiji violated the Salt Law.
Class Ⅹ Social Science www.vedantu.com 19
Ans: Madras(1927)
30. On the given political outline map of India locate and label the following
features with appropriate symbols : 3 Marks
A. Naraura – Nuclear Power Plant
B. Tuticorin – Major Sea Port
C. Bhilai – Iron and Steel Plant
Class Ⅹ Social Science www.vedantu.com 20
Ans:
Note : The following questions are for the Visually Impaired Candidates only,
in lieu of Q. No. 30 : 3 Marks
(30.1) Name the State where Narora Nuclear Power Plant is located.
Ans: Bulandshaher (U.P.)
(30.2) Name the State where Tuticorin Sea Port is located.
Ans: Tamil Nadu
(30.3) In which State is the Bhilai Iron and Steel Plant located ?
Ans: Chhattisgarh
Class Ⅹ Social Science www.vedantu.com 21
CBSE Board
Class X Social Science
Board Paper – 2018 (Set 3)
Time: 3 hrs. Max. Marks: 80
General Instructions:
(i) The question paper has 26 questions in all. All questions are compulsory.
(ii) Marks are indicated against each question.
(iii) Questions from serial number 1 to 7 are Very Short Answer Questions. Each question
carries 1 mark.
(iv) Questions from serial numbers 8 to 18 are 3 marks questions. Answers of these
questions should not exceed 80 words each.
(v) Questions from serial numbers 19 to 25 are 5 marks questions. Answers of these
questions should not exceed 100 words each.
(vi) Question number 26 is a map question. It has two parts 26(A) and 26(B). 26(A) of 2
marks from History and 26(B) of 3 marks from Geography. After completion attach
the map inside your anther book.
(vii) There is no overall choice. However internal choice has been provided in some
questions. You have to attempt only one of the alternatives in all such-questions.
1. State any two goals of development other than income. [½+½=1]
2. 'A challenge is not just any problem but an opportunity for progress ‘Analyse the
statement. [1]
3. Give any two examples of informal sector of credit. [½+½=1]
4. When we produce goods by exploiting natural resources, in which category of
economic sector such activities come? [1]
5. Why did the Roman Catholic Church impose control over publishers and booksellers?
OR
Why do novels use vernacular? [1]
6. Classify resources on the basis of origin. [1]
7. Why were big European powers met in Berlin in 1885? [1]
OR
Why were merchants from towns in Europe began to move countryside in
seventeenth and eighteenth centuries?
OR
Why did Charles Booth, a Liverpool ship owner conduct the first social survey of low
skilled workers in the East End of London in 1887?
www.vedantu.com 1
8. Describe any three provisions of amendment made in 'Indian Constitution' in 1992
for making 'Three-Tier' government more effective and powerful. [3 x 1 = 3]
9. How is the issue of sustainability important for development? Explain with examples.
[3 x 1 = 3]
10. Describe the impact of ‘Rinderpest’ on people's livelihoods and local economy in
Africa in the 1890s. [3 x 1 = 3]
OR
Describe any three major problems faced by Indian cotton weavers in nineteenth
century.
OR
Describe any three steps taken to clean up London during nineteenth century.
11. Distinguish the service conditions of organized sector with that of unorganized sector.
[3 x 1 = 3]
12. 'The 'Print Revolution' had transformed the lives of people changing their
relationship to information and knowledge.” Analyse the statement. [3 x 1 = 3]
OR
Distinguish between the themes of 'Pride and Prejudice and 'Jane Eyre' novels written
by Jane Austen and Charlotte Bronte respectively.
13. How has ever increasing number of industries in India made worse position by
exerting pressure on existing fresh water resources? Explain. [3 x 1 = 3]
14. “Dense and efficient network of transport is a pre-requisite for local and national
development” Analyse the statement. [3 x 1 = 3]
15. Explain the three factors that are crucial in deciding the outcome of politics of social
divisions. [3 x 1 = 3]
16. Why is cheap and affordable credit important for the country’s development? Explain
any three reasons. [3 x 1 = 3]
17. How can consumer awareness be spread among consumer to avoid exploitation in
the market place? Explain any three ways. [3 x 1 = 3]
18. "Secularism it not an ideology of some political parties or persons, but It is one of the
foundations of our country." Examine the statement. [3 x 1 = 3]
19. How has foreign trade been integrating markets of different countries? Explain with
examples. [5 x 1 = 5]
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OR
How do we feel the impact of globalization on our daily life? Explain with examples.
20. "The Government of India has introduced various institutional and technological
reforms to reforms to improve agriculture in the 1980s and 1990s” Support this
statement with examples. [5 x 1 = 5]
OR
Compare ‘intensive subsistence farming’ with that of ‘commercial farming’ practiced
in India.
21. Describe any five major functions of political panics performed in a democracy.
[5 x 1 = 5]
22. “Democracy stands much superior to any other form of government in promoting
dignity and freedom of the individual.” Justify this statement. [5 x 1 = 5]
OR
"Democracies lead to peaceful and harmonious life among citizens.' Justify this
statement.
23. How did Non-Cooperation movement start with participation of middle class people
in the cities? Explain its impact on the economic front. [2 + 3 = 5]
OR
Why was Congress reluctant to allow women to hold any position of authority within
the organization? How did women participate in Civil Disobedience Movement?
Explain.
24. Why is the economic strength of a country measured by the development of
manufacturing industries? Explain with examples. [5 x 1 = 5]
25. Describe the explosive conditions that prevailed in Balkans after 1871 in Europe.
[5 x 1 = 5]
OR
Describe the role of different religious groups in the development of anti-colonial
feelings in Vietnam.
26. (A) Two features A and B are marked on the given political outline map of India.
Identify these features with the help of the following information and write their
correct names on the lines marked near them: [2 x 1 = 2]
A. The place where the Indian National Congress Session was held.
B. The place where Gandhiji organized ‘Satyagraha’ in favour of cotton mill workers.
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(B) Locate and label the following with appropriate symbols on the same given outline
political map of India. [3 x 1 = 3]
(i) Raja Sansi - International Airport
(ii) Bhadravati - Iron and Steel Plant
(iii) Software Technology Park of West Bengal
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CBSE
Class X
Social Science
Board Paper 2018 - Solution
Answer 1
Two goals of development other than income are equal treatment and freedom in society.
Answer 2
A country has to face three levels of challenges of democracy—foundational challenge,
challenge of expansion and challenge of deepening of democracy. Once a country
overcomes one challenge, it has to face another challenge. This gives an opportunity for
democratic countries to progress from one level of democracy to the next. Thus, a challenge
is not just a problem but an opportunity for progress.
Answer 3
Money lenders and cooperative societies are two examples of the informal sector of credit.
Answer 4
The primary sector is an economic sector which produces goods by exploiting natural
resources.
Answer 5
The Roman Catholic Church imposed control over publishers and booksellers to prevent
and control the spread of heretical ideas.
OR
Vernacular languages are languages spoken by common people of a country. Novels used
vernacular languages so that common people could easily understand them. By doing so,
novels tried to produce a sense of a shared world between diverse people.
Answer 6
On the basis of origin, resources can be classified into biotic and abiotic resources.
Biotic resources are living resources which we obtain from nature (plants and fish).
Abiotic resources are non-living resources which we obtain from nature (soil and
minerals).
Answer 7
The big European powers met at Berlin in 1885 to divide Africa among them. Countries
such as Britain, France, Germany and Italy demarcated their respective territories in Africa.
OR
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Merchants from towns in Europe began to move to the countryside in the seventeenth and
eighteenth centuries to supply money to peasants and artisans to persuade them to
produce for international markets.
OR
Charles Booth, a Liverpool ship owner, conduct the first survey of low-skilled workers in
the East End of London to find the number of poor people living there at that time.
Answer 8
Three provisions taken by the government in 1992 towards decentralisation:
It was constitutionally made mandatory to hold regular elections to local
government bodies.
One-third of seats were reserved for women in local bodies.
An independent institution called the State Election Commission was created in each
state to conduct panchayat and municipal elections.
Answer 9
Sustainable development is the prudent and judicious use of resources in such a way that
even future generations are able to use resources. It is essential for economic development
as we have limited quantity of resources.
Development and growth of the country will be hampered if the present limited
resources are totally exhausted.
Exhaustion of natural resources will endanger the lives of humans and many species
if we do not follow the principle of sustainable development. For example, if water is
over utilised and wasted, then it will not be replaced by rains. We also need to keep a
stock of natural resources for future use.
Answer 10
Effects of ‘Rinderpest’ on people’s livelihoods and local economy in Africa in the 1890s:
About 90% of African cattle died due to the cattle disease ‘Rinderpest’. This severely
affected African livelihood.
The colonial government began to control the remaining cattle resources to
strengthen their position and to force the Africans into the labour market.
After the loss of their cattle, Africans lost the source of their livelihood and were
employed in plantations and mines in Europe and America.
OR
Problems faced by cotton weavers in India during the 19th century:
After the British established control over India, the export of Indian textiles was
considerably reduced.
The British did not impose any import duties on English cloth coming to India.
Indian weavers were not able to compete with cheap machine-made English cloth.
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By 1860s, after the outbreak of the American Civil War, the British exported raw
cotton to Britain. Indian weavers were not able to find good quality, raw cotton in
the country.
OR
Three steps taken to clean London during the nineteenth century:
Efforts were made to reduce pollution, decongest localities and plant trees in open
spaces.
Large blocs of apartments were built similar to those built in New York and Berlin,
cities which were facing similar housing problems.
Realising the necessity of good housing for city dwellers, the government built
mostly single family cottages compact and convenient for residing.
Answer 11
Differences between the service conditions of organised and unorganised sectors:
Organised sector Unorganised sector
Terms and conditions of employment Terms and conditions of employment
are regular and as per rules and are not followed.
regulations passed by the
government.
Employees enjoy the security of No job security during the lean
employment. period.
Paid leaves, overtime, provident fund No paid leaves, overtime, gratuity,
and medical benefit are given to provident fund and medical benefits
employees. are given to employees.
Answer 12
Transformation from hand printing to mechanical printing is known as the print
revolution. Books written by various thinkers and intellectuals forced people to think about
the rationality behind the existence of established religious and social norms. Inspired by
printed materials and books, people began to question religious dogmas and interpreted
religion in their own way. The printed books popularised the ideas of thinkers which led to
an era of Enlightenment. People now believed in rationalism and humanism. They criticised
the illogical and corrupt practices of the Church. Because books inspired new ideas, various
debates and discussions took place in society and new ideas of social revolution came into
existence.
OR
The novel Pride and Prejudice written by Jane Austin described the world of women
existing in rural society in early-nineteenth century Britain. Women in this novel are
encouraged to look for ‘good marriages’ and find wealthy grooms. The first sentence of Jane
Austen’s Pride and Prejudice states, ‘It is a truth universally acknowledged, that a single
man in possession of a good fortune, must be in want of a wife.’ This observation allows us
to see the behaviour of the main characters, who are preoccupied with marriage and
money, as typifying Austen’s society.
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On the other hand, ‘Jane Eyre’ written by Charlotte Bronte showed the main character ‘Jane’
as an independent and assertive girl. While girls of her time were expected to be quiet and
well behaved, Jane at the age of ten protests against the hypocrisy of her elders with
startling bluntness.
Answer 13
Water, though available in plenty, is scarce. An increasing number of industries have been
exerting pressure on water resources in the following ways:
Industries are using water in large quantities, especially in the process of
manufacturing.
Industries are also great consumers of electricity. Today, about 22% of total
electricity is generated by hydro-electric power, putting a tremendous burden on
dams.
Industries discharge solid and liquid effluents and wastes in freshwater resources,
thus polluting them.
Answer 14
A dense and efficient network of transportation is a pre-requisite for local and national
development. This is because
It is necessary to carry raw materials to industrial centres. Perishable goods need to
be transported to factories quickly.
Transportation helps in quick movement of goods and people across distances. It
has also helped in providing goods and labour to industries.
Transport also helps in transporting finished products from industrial centres to
market locations.
Answer 15
Three factors crucial in deciding the outcome of politics of social divisions:
People's perception: If people see their identity in singular and exclusive terms, then
there may be conflicts, but if they see their identity as a reflection of the national identity,
then people will live harmoniously.
Role of community and culture: It depends on how leaders will raise the demands and
needs of a particular community. If demands are within the constitutional limits, then
peace will prevail.
Role of a political party and government: The outcome will depend on how the
government addresses the needs of a particular community. If this is not done in a fair
manner, it results in riots and disharmony.
Answer 16
Cheap and affordable credit is important for the country’s development because
When money is borrowed at high rate of interest, a large part of income is spent on
repaying the debt and a small part of earning is left for the fulfillment of one’s needs. This
may result in a low standard of living.
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In case of high interest rates, the amount of money to be repaid keeps on
accumulating faster than the income of the borrower. This can lead to an increase in
debts.
Many a times, people who want to start a small business of their own may not do so
due to the high rate of interests charged on loans.
Answer 17
Consumer awareness can be spread among consumers in the following ways to avoid
exploitation of consumers in the market place:
Consumer association: Consumers should form voluntary associations to protect
their interests. These associations can educate and awaken consumers about their
rights and responsibilities.
Awareness at school level: Children can be taught to shop wisely and a few simple
precautions can ensure that they will select the right product at the right price.
Government regulations: The state can spread awareness through media about
consumers’ responsibility to check or judge the quality of the product. They can also
hold exhibitions to rise consciousness among consumers.
Answer 18
Secularism means the separation of religion from politics. In India, it means the freedom of an
individual to practise and propagate his/her own religion. Secularism is not an ideology of a
political party or a person, but it is one of the foundations of our country. This is because
Secularism guarantees the right to freedom of religion to all and allows people to profess
and practise their religion.
A secular state does not favour any community on the basis of religion.
But it does not mean that the principle of secularism is absolute. For example, the
government has abolished sati and untouchability to reform Hindu society.
Answer 19
Foreign trade integrating markets of different countries:
Foreign trade has been integrating markets of different countries, as it allows
producers to cross international boundaries in search of cheap raw materials.
Manufactured goods and services can now be sold in various markets of different
countries.
With many MNCs in the market, the consumer now has a wide range of products
from different nations to choose from.
Foreign trade therefore interlinks various markets across countries.
For example, Volkswagen, a German automobile company, is the biggest German
automaker and second largest automaker in the world. It came to India in 2007 and
had recorded sales of 32,627 vehicles in 2010. Volkswagen, by launching various
models of cars in India, has broadened choices of people in the automobile sector.
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OR
Impact of globalisation:
Globalisation has resulted in foreign investments and has created jobs in the
country.
In the wake of the competition from the MNCs, Indian companies have upgraded the
quality of their products and services.
Many Indian companies have themselves established business units in other
countries. This has helped in the development of the Indian economy.
Globalisation has benefited the rich and developed nations of the world. The poor
and developing nations of the world have still not received their fair share of the
benefits of globalisation.
Large companies have profited from globalisation, while many small manufacturers
with low capital have not been able to withstand the competition from large MNCs.
Workers have not benefited by globalisation. Their jobs have become insecure and
they have to work for low wages, as MNCs employ them on meagre salaries in order
to earn profits. Because of globalisation, while workers have become poorer, the
rich have become richer.
Answer 20
The government of India has introduced various institutional and technological reforms to
improve agriculture in 1980s and 1990s. These were
Crop insurance was provided to farmers against drought, floods and cyclones.
To provide cheap loans to farmers, many ‘Grameen banks’ or cooperative credit
societies have been established in various villages.
Farmers are provided insurance for crop protection, droughts, floods, fire and
diseases. Apart from this, the government has initiated credit cards for farmers and
the Personal Accident Insurance Scheme (PAIS).
Special weather bulletins and agricultural programmes for farmers were introduced on
radio and television.
The government also announced the minimum support price, remunerative and
procurement prices for important crops to check the exploitation of farmers by
speculators and middlemen.
OR
Comparison of intensive subsistence farming and commercial farming
Intensive subsistence farming: It is labour-intensive farming and is generally carried out
in areas of high population. Because the land holdings are not large, farmers use fertilisers
and irrigate the fields to increase the productivity of land. The farms may not be
necessarily connected to market places by well laid roads and railways.
Commercial farming: Land holding is comparatively large. High-yielding variety seeds,
pesticides and insecticides are used in order to increase production. In commercial
farming, fields are well connected with industries, transport and well-laid roads as crops
are mainly produced for market consumption.
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Answer 21
Five major functions performed by political parties in a democracy:
Contest elections: Elections are fought among various party candidates. Candidates are
chosen by party leader for contesting elections.
Form government: The party whose candidates win and occupy two-thirds of seats in the
Parliament form the government at the centre. It runs the administration of the entire
country or state.
Make laws: The party which forms the government makes laws for the country. When a
bill is discussed, debated and passed in the Parliament, it becomes a law.
Formulate programmes and policies: Leaders of the country who are also members of a
political party formulate various policies for the country. For example, they decide on the
foreign policies and economic policies which are to be followed by the country.
Role of the opposition: The party which does not get the required majority in the
elections form the opposition. The opposition parties scrutinise and criticise the policies
and programmes of the government and keep a check on them.
Answer 22
Democracy stands superior to any other form of government. This is because a democratic
government is the people’s government. It is elected by the people. A democratic
government ensures equality among citizens. Every individual is considered equal before
the law. A democratic government guarantees fundamental rights and principles of
equality, liberty and justice to its people. Thus, it enhances the dignity of citizens. There is
an improvement in the quality of decision making of the government. This is because the
government may take time to arrive at certain laws and agreements because it has to look
after the needs of every section of society. Laws are implemented after deliberations and
negotiations which are accepted by people at large, unlike a dictatorial government which
enacts laws without bothering about its people. In a democratic government, the working
of the government machinery is transparent. It means a citizen can enquire if any decision
was taken based on prescribed norms and procedures. Thus, a democratic government
follows procedures and is accountable to the people.
OR
Democracies lead to a peaceful and harmonious life among citizens. This is because a
democratic country looks into the needs and aspirations of every section of society. It is
also able to handle social conflicts, divisions and differences. A democratic government
fulfils the following conditions:
The majority work in close cooperation with the minority.
The rule of the majority community is not taken in the religious or linguistic sense
alone. The rule of a majority apply in every decision taken and in the formulation of
economic policies. Thus, every citizen gets an opportunity to become a part of the
majority at some point of time.
Answer 23
The Non-Cooperation Movement started with the participation of middle class people in
cities. Thousands of students left government schools and colleges in many cities. Teachers
from these schools resigned, and lawyers gave up their practice.
The council elections were boycotted in most provinces, except in Madras where the Justice
Party participated in the elections.
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The impact of the Non-Cooperation Movement on the economic front was dramatic. As a
part of the movement, foreign goods were boycotted and stress was laid on the use of
swadeshi products. Foreign goods were boycotted, liquor shops were picketed and foreign
cloth was burnt in huge bonfires. As a result, the import of foreign cloth was halved
between 1921 and 1922, dropping in value from Rs 102 crore to Rs 57 crore. At many
places, merchants and traders refused to finance and trade in foreign goods. People began
to wear ‘khadi’. This gave impetus to the handloom and local industries in India.
OR
Gandhiji was convinced that it was the duty of women to look after the home and hearth, be
good mothers and good wives. For a long time, the Congress was reluctant to allow women
to hold any position of authority within the organisation. It was keen only on their symbolic
presence.
However, women participated in large numbers during the Civil Disobedience Movement.
During Gandhiji’s salt march, thousands of women came out of their homes to listen to him.
They participated in protest marches, manufactured salt and picketed foreign cloth and
liquor shops. Many went to jail. In urban areas, these women were from high-caste families;
in rural areas, they came from rich peasant households. Moved by Gandhiji’s call, they
began to see service to the nation as a sacred duty of women.
Answer 24
The economic strength of a country is measured by the development of manufacturing
industries. This is because
Manufacturing industries help in modernising agriculture. For example, manufacturing
industries sell their products such as irrigation pumps, fertilisers, insecticides,
pesticides, plastic and PVC pipes, machines and tools, etc. to farmers.
Industries reduce the heavy dependence of people on agricultural income by providing
them jobs in secondary and tertiary sectors.
It helps in eradicating unemployment and poverty by providing jobs to millions of
people.
Export of manufactured goods expands trade and commerce, and brings in much
needed foreign exchange.
Countries which transform their raw materials into a wide variety of furnished goods of
higher value are prosperous. India’s prosperity lies in increasing and diversifying its
manufacturing industries.
Answer 25
The feeling of nationalism became intense in the Balkan region after 1871. The Balkan region
formerly comprised the present-day territories of Romania, Bulgaria, Macedonia, Croatia,
Greece, Bosnia-Herzegovina, Slovenia, Serbia and Montenegro. The people in these countries
were called Slavs. The disintegration of the Ottoman Empire in the region made the situation in
the region very explosive as each state was jealous of the other and hoped to gain
independence at the cost of the other. One by one, its European subject nationalities broke
away from the control of the Ottoman Empire and declared independence. As the different
Slavic nationalities struggled to define their identity and independence, the Balkan area
became an area of intense conflict.
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During this time, many powerful European nations such as England, France, Russia and
Germany competed to gain control in the Balkan region.
This competition for gaining prominence in the region finally led to the First World War in
1914.
OR
Role of different religious groups in the development of anti-colonial feelings in
Vietnam:
The French tried to reshape the social and cultural lives of the natives. The Vietnamese
followed Buddhism and Confucianism. The French tried to spread Christianity which
was intolerant of these two religions.
One of the early movements of the Vietnamese against the spread of Christianity was
the Scholar Revolt in 1868. The revolt was led by the officers of the imperial court. In
the uprising, thousands of Catholics were killed in the Ngu and Ha Tien provinces.
Although the movement was crushed, it gave a much-needed spark to the nationalists
in Vietnam.
The elites in Vietnam were educated in Chinese and Confucianism. But religious beliefs
among the peasantry were shaped by a variety of syncretic traditions that combined
Buddhism and local beliefs. Many elites in Vietnam also opposed the spread of
Christianity.
The Hoa Hao Movement was a spiritual movement which also opposed French
colonisation. Huynh Phu So was the founder of this movement. He criticised
extravagant spending and opposed the sale of child brides, gambling and the
consumption of alcohol and wine.
www.vedantu.com 13
Answer 26 (A) and (B)
www.vedantu.com 14
Class X-SOCIAL SCIENCE
(CBSE 2019)
Time: 3 Hrs
Max. Marks: 80
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:
I. The question paper is divided into four section; Section A, Section B, Section C and
Section D.
II. The question paper has 26 question in all.
III. All questions are compulsory.
IV. Marks are indicated against each question.
V. Question from serial number 1 to 7 are very short answer type question . Each
question carries 1 mark. Answers to these should not exceed 30 words.
VI. Question from serial number 8 to 18 are 3 marks question. Answers of these
questions should not excess 80 words each.
VII. Question from serial number 19 to 25 are 5 marks question. Answers of these
questions should not exceed 100 words each.
VIII. Question number 26 is a map question of 5 marks with two parts- 26 A from History
(2 marks) and 26 B from Geography (3 marks). After completion. Attach the maps
inside your answer-book.
QUESTION 1
Interpret the concept of Liberalisation in the field of economic sphere during the
nineteenth century in Europe
OR
Interpret the contribution of French in the economic development of Mekong delta
region.
ANSWER:- The ideology of liberalism is very broad and comprehensive and it became
popular in the early 19th century. The term 'liberalism' is derived from
the Latin word liber, meaning free. Economically, The ideology propagated natural right to
Property and stood for the freedom of markets and the
abolition of state-imposed restrictions on the movement of goods and capital.
Or
The French built canals and drained lands in the Mekong delta to increase rice cultivation.
Used forced labour for construction of irrigation
facilities to improve rice cultivation, built infrastructure and transportation facilities for the
export of agricultural produce.
Infrastructure projects were undertaken for the transportation of goods for trade,
1
movement of military garrison and to establish control over the
entire region.
QUESTION 2
How had hand printing technology introduced in Japan?
OR
How had translation process of novels into regional languages helped to spread their
popularity?
ANSWER:- The Chinese Buddhist missionariesin around 768-770AD are known to have
started the print technology. The oldest Japanese book printed was the Buddhist diamond
sutra in the year 868AD that contained six sheets of text and woodcut illustrations.
Playing cards, textiles and paper money had pictures printed on them which popularised
printing and that lead to more and more publishing of books. Libraries were flooded by
books which were handprinted on cooking, women, musical instruments, flower
arrangements, daily habits etc.
Or
English novels could not popularise in India when translated to regional Indian language as
Indian people could not relate to stories or the characters.
People demanded novels that narrated stories which were either close to their own lifestyle
or were set in their own geographical location.
When a lot of novels started publishing, a new readership community developed. This made
novels an important piece of literary art work that helped connecting cultures and people.
With increased literacy rate, more and more people got interested in reading and buying
books which created a sense of shared community that brought together people of different
values and communities helping in the widespread and popularity of novels.
QUESTION 3
How is over irrigation responsible for land degradation in Punjab?
OR
How is cement industry responsible for land degradation?
ANSWER:- Excessive irrigation of soil in the fields and farms gets the water logged which
becomes very harmful for crop production. Water more than needed inhibits germination of
sown seeds. The reason behind that is seeds do not get enough air to respire as excess
water affects soil aeration and hence the plant roots cannot develop properly. This can be
observed when potted plants are over watered.
2
Or
Grinding of limestone for cement, calcite for ceramics and other mineral processing
activities generates huge amount of dust which is released in the atmosphere. This dust
when settles in the surrounding areas does not let water to infilterate in the ground
affecting crop cultivation to a very large extent. Besides also affects many insects and
microorganisms living in the soil.
Question 4
How can democratic reforms be carried out by political conscious citizens?
ANSWER:- The best laws are those which make people to carry out democratic reforms. The
Right to Information Act is a good example of a law that gives the
powers to the people to find out what is happening in government and act as watchdogs of
democracy
Question 5
What may be a goal of landless rural labourers regarding their income?
OR
What may be a goal of prosperous farmer of Punjab?
ANSWER:- Development goal for a landless rural labourer would be:
a. To be able to manage his basic necessities of life.
b. To get more days of work, better wages
c. To be able to live a life with dignity.
d. To aspire to own a small piece of land.
Or
Development goals of the prosperous farmers from Punjab are
Low price food grains
Hardworking and Cheap Labour
High prices for their produce
Cheap inputs used in agriculture
Question 6
Distinguish between 'primary and 'secondary' sectors.
3
ANSWER:- The primary sector or the agricultural sector constitutes the backbone of our
economy, and the major sources of employment. Primary activity
which is involved with the production or extraction of natural resources. It involves
cultivation of crops, fruits, vegetables, raring of livestock all
which are required for a living
Secondary sector involves use of natural goods and transform them into something more
valuable by the process of manufacturing
Question 7
Why do banks or lenders demand collateral against loans?
ANSWER:-
Bank ask for collateral while giving loan because of following reasons:
If the borrower fails to repay the loan, the lender has the right to sell the asset or collateral
to obtain payment. Reduction of exposure in order to do
more business with each other when credit limits are under pressure.
The loan is secured against the collateral. In the event that the borrower defaults, the
creditor takes possession of the asset used as collateral and
may sell it to regain some or the entire amount originally loaned to the borrower.
Question 8
How had Napoleonic code exported to the regions under French control? Explain with
examples.
OR
Explain with examples the three barriers that are responsible to economic growth in
Vietnam.
ANSWER:- The Civil Code of 1804 known as the Napoleonic Code were the revolutionary
principles of administration.
It did away with all privileges based on birth, established equality before the law and
secured the right to property
This Code was exported to the regions under French control
In the Dutch Republic, in Switzerland, in Italy and Germany, Napoleon simplified
administrative divisions, abolished the feudal system and freed
peasants from serfdom and manorial dues.
In the towns too, guild restrictions were removed.
Transport and communication systems were improved
Peasants, artisans, workers and new businessmen enjoyed a new-found freedom.
Businessmen and small-scale producers of goods, in particular,
began to realise that uniform laws, standardised weights and measures, and a common
national currency would facilitate the movement and
exchange of goods and capital from one region to another.
4
Or
There were several barriers to economic growth in Vietnam which are given hereunder
1. High population level in Vietnam
2. Low agricultural productivity
3. Extensive indebtedness among the peasants
4. To reduce rural poverty and increase agricultural productivity it was necessary to carry
out land reforms as the Japanese had done in 1890s.
But this could not ensure sufficient employment
Question 9
How had the Imperial State in China been the major producer of printed material for a
long time? Explain with examples.
OR
How had novels been easily available to the masses in Europe during nineteenth century?
Explain with examples.
ANSWER:-
The following can be the cause why China is still regarded to be the pioneer in printing
materials:
The earliest print technique developed in China
n this technology, books were printed by rubbing paper against inked wooden blocks
It was in vogue for a long time till print technology improved with the use of printed
material
The imperial state in China was a large bureaucratic system, that sponsored the printing
technique by way of conducting examination for
recruitment of its personnel
This print volume increased every year which made the Imperial state in China a major
producer of printed material for a long time
Or
Novels created a sense of belonging on the basis of ones language. They dealt with the life
of common people and they were cheap. Various ideas
became widespread. Novel was such a medium which began to link the whole nation.
Publishing markets helped in more sell and produce of
novels which was available to the masses.
Question 10
Describe any three main features of 'Rabi crop season.
OR
5
Describe any three main features of 'Kharif crop season.
ANSWER:-
Rabi crops are sown in October to December, and harvested in April to June. Some Rabi
crops cultivated are wheat in Punjab, barley in Uttar
Pradesh, etc.
Or
Karif crops are sown in June to August, and harvested in September to October. Some Kharif
crops cultivated are paddy in Assam, Maize in
Andhra Pradesh, etc.
Question 11
Water scarcity may be an outcome of large and growing population in India." Analyse the
statement.
ANSWER:-
Water scarcity is indeed the outcome of large and growing population. Increase in
population puts strain on resources including water. People
living in an area require water for their various activities, and more the number of people
more the consumption.Furthermore, wastage and
indiscriminate use of water has worsened the condition
There is no substitute of potable water. Increasing population depletes ground water and
other water sources. Increase in population also
augments speedier economic development, straining the water resources further. Areas
with high density of population therefore witnesses
intense waters scarcity. At time, such scarcity drives people to marginal areas, in turn
draining water resources in such areas as well
Question 12
The assertion of social diversities in a democratic country is very normal and can be
healthy." Justify the statement with arguments.
OR
Social divisions affect politics." Examine the statement
ANSWER:-
The assertion of social diversities in a democratic country is very normal and can be healthy.
This statement can be justified with the following observations:
6
1. The African-Americans, Carlos and Smith were racially very different from Norman, who
was a White Australian but shared a similarity, they all were athletes who stood against
discrimination. They overlooked the boundaries of their ethnicity.
2. It happens that two people may belong to different religions but may have the same
caste, and that can make them feel they are in close proximity.
All social differences and diversities do not lead to social divisions.
Social diversities may divide akin people from one another, but they also unite very diverse
people belonging to different social groups.
This allows the less privileged and minority groups to express their grievances and concerns
with the government. This leads to the strengthening of democracy
Or
A combination of politics and social differences can be really toxic for a country’s
democracy. A democracy allows competition between various political parties. If they start
competing with some existing social differences, this can lead to political divisions and
ultimately conflicts and violence. This can lead to even disintegration of the country. An
example of such a disintegration of Yugoslavia , where a single nation was divided into six
independent countries.
However, this combination of politics and social differences is not always negative. This also
helps the minoritie to group together and share their concerns with the government.
Question 13
Women still lag much behind men in India despite some improvements since
independence." Analyse the statement.
ANSWER:-
Women are still lagging behind men under certains scenarios in India
In political aspects, role of women is still the lowest in Houses of Parliament and in State
legislatures. While in America, England etc, women are
given seats in Parliament even though there are male members
In India, though there are many organisations fighting for equal participation of women in
politics, it has been fulfilled to some extent
Only in local governing bodies are women given priority as ward members, councillors, etc.
In rural areas, female foeticide and female infanticide persists as girl child are considered as
burden to family here.
Child marriage and dowry system is prevalent in some parts of Rajasthan where people are
illiterate and marry girls at a young age
Question 14
How are political parties recognized as regional and national parties in India? Explain with
examples.
7
ANSWER:-
Conditions for Recognition as a National Party
secures at least 6% of the valid vote in an Assembly or a Lok Sabha General Election in any
four or more states
Has won at least 4 seats in a Lok Sabha general election from any state or states.
Win at least 2% of the total Lok Sabha seats in a Lok Sabha General Election and these seats
have to be won from at least 3 states
The party is recognized as a State Party in at least four states
Conditions for Recognition as a Regional Party
Secure at least 6% of the valid vote & win at least 2 seats in an Assembly General Election
secure at least 6% of the valid vote & win at least 1 seats in a Lok Sabha General Election
Win at least 3% of the seats or at least 3 seats , whichever is more, in an Assembly General
Election
Win at least 1 out of every 25 seats from a state in a Lok Sabha General Election
secure at least 8% of the total valid vote in an Assembly or a Lok Sabha General Election
Question 15
Consequences of environmental degradation do not respect national or state boundaries."
Justify the statement.
ANSWER:-
It is true that environmental degradation do not respect national or state boundaries.In
other words, we can say that environmental degradation is
not confined within a state or a nation. It has international and global affects.lts
consequences are felt globally and internationally
For example, If India is creating air pollution by massive thermal power plant or other
sources, the neighbouring countries like Pakistan,
Bangladesh, Srilanka are affected. It is so because acid rain, climate change do occur due to
air pollution which becomes a transcontinental issue.
Similarly, deforestation in Brazil has caused disturbance in rainfall pattern throughout South
America. Land degradation and dam burst in India
affects Bangladesh a lot as flood increases and there is more siltation
Environmental degradation is not a nationwide or state-wide issue. It is continental and
global which needs precaution and protection of the natural
environment.
Question 16
Why is the 'tertiary sector becoming important in India ? Explain any three reasons.
OR
How do we count various goods and services for calculating Gross Domestic Product
(G.D.P) of a country ? Explain with example.
ANSWER:-
Importance of tertiary sector.
8
i. the tertiary sector provides the basic services like public transportation, medical car,
electricity,banking, post office etc under the control of the
i. the tertiary sector creates an huge area for employment even for uneducated and
unskilled workers.
lii. the tertiary sector distributes the consumer goods to different suppliers
iv. the tertiary sector accounts for most of the national income and per capita income
OR
The various goods and services are counted on the basis of the value of each good or
services not on the basis of actual numbers.
The value here is referred to the value of final goods and services not the value of
intermediate goods.
It is understood that the value of final goods already includes the value of all intermediate
goods that are used in making the final goods.
The total production of each sector is calculated by adding the value of all final goods and
services of the sector in a year.
The total production of all the three sectors with in a country is known as Gross domestic
product of the country.
Question 17
Describe the importance of formal sources of credit in the economic development
OR
Describe the bad effects of informal sources of credit on borrowers.
ANSWER:-
Formal sources of credit are beneficial in the sense that they provide credit at reasonable
rates without any undue exploitative practices as faced
under informal sources of credit. For instance, taking credit from informal sources can have
serious repercussions in the form of exorbitant rate of
interest, high mortgage obligations, etc. Formal sources of credit are organised and from
such exploitative practices.
Or
The informal sources of credit are the moneylenders, traders, employers, relatives and
friends. No external organisations control the credit
activities of lenders. The rate of interest can be really high as it depends on the wishes of
the lender. They can also use unfair means to get their
money back
Question 18
How can consumers use their 'Right to Seek Redressal? Explain with example
9
ANSWER:- It is defined a the right to seek compensation due to damage caused by unfair
trade practices and exploitation. The compensation awarded
depends on the degree of damage. Consumers have the right to get their claims settled in
their favour in case of being cheated and exploited by
the producers. Under the Consumer Protection Act 1986, a three tier judicial system has
been formed This act provides establishment of consumer
disputes redressal agencies at district, state and national level. Consumers can invoke their
right to redressal and right to represent. We may give
the example of a person who is dissatisfied with services provided by say MTNL, BSNL, or
Airtel and thereafter files a case at the consumer court
Question 19
Who had organized the dalits into the 'Depressed Classes Association' in 1930? Describe
his achievements
OR
Define the term 'Civil Disobedience Movement. Describe the participation of rich and poor
peasant communities in the 'Civil Disobedience
Movement
ANSWER:- B.R Ambedkar sought reservation for Dalits in educational institutions. For him,
political empowerment was the only way of
achieving upliftment for dalits B.R. Ambedkar and other dalit leaders demanded separate
electorates for the depressed classes in order to protect
their interest and extending political power to them. B.R. Ambedkar formed the Depressed
Classes Association in 1930 and demanded
the following:
i. To bring about political empowerment of the depressed classes.
ii. To have reserved seats in the educational institutions.
ii Demanded separate electorates and bring about social justice.
iv. He also mooted the idea of reservation for Dalits which brought him in clash with Gandhi.
V. It was with Ambedkar's constant persuasion which was eventually resolved with the
Poona Pact of 1932, which provided for
reserved seats in Provincial and
Central Legislatures for them.
vi. Ambedkar also launched protest and movement against untouchability
vii. He also launched Kalaram temple movement that sought entry of dalit in the Brahmin
dominated temple.
vii. He also sought the support of Constituent assembly members for providing reservation
to SC's and ST's
Or
10
The Civil Disobedience Movement led by M K Gandhi, in the year 1930 was an important
milestone in the history of Indian Nationalism. it began with gandhiji 's famous
salt march of about 240 miles from sabarmati ashram in ahmedabad to the coastal town of
dandi in gujarat
Rich peasants the Patidars of Gujarat and the Jats of Uttar Pradesh - were active in the
movement. These rich peasants became enthusiastic supporters of the Civil
Disobedience Movement, organizing their communities, and at times forcing reluctant
members, to participate in the boycott programmes. For them the fight for swaraj
was a struggle against high revenues.
Many of them were small tenants cultivating land they had rented from landlords. As the
Depression continued and cash incomes dwindled, the small tenants found it
difficult to pay their rent. They wanted the unpaid rent to the landlord to be remitted. They
joined a variety of radical movements, often led by Socialists and Communists.
The rich peasants were greatly affected by the economic depression and fall in prices of
goods.he wanted reduction in land revenue. Swaraj for them meant reduction of
taxes. So they participated in the Civil Disobedience Movement.
The poor peasants, on the other hand, wanted reduction in rent or revenue. For them
Swaraj meant reduction of taxes. This was their aim in participation of the
movement.
Question 20
"Indian trade had played a crucial role in the late nineteenth century world economy."
Analyze the statement.
OR
"Series of changes affected the pattern of industrialization in India by the early twentieth
century." Analyze the statement.
OR
"Industrialization had changed the form of urbanization in the modern period." Analyze
the statement with special reference of London
ANSWER:-
Indian trade had played a crucial role in the nineteenth century world economy. Being a
major exporter of raw materials to the Britain, India had a major share in the world
economy. Indian markets were also flooded with British manufactured goods. Also India
traded with China, mainly in opium and other parts of the world too with spices and other
things. So while trading with India, there was a trade surplus for other countries too.
Or
The pattern of industrialization changed in the 20th century due to various reasons. They
are:
1. Indians shifted to Swadeshi goods and boycotted foreign goods, mainly cloth. This was
11
done with the growth of nationalism. Industrialists as an outcome of this resorted to
government to provide them concessions and tariff protection to safeguard their interests.
2. With a decreased yarn export to China from India, the Chinese shifted to Japanese and
Chinese yarn. This made Indian industries shift from yarn production to piece-cloth
production
3. The World Wars amplified the number of Indian industries. During the wars, the mills and
factories in Britain were busy producing supplies for the war and imports from
India decreased. So, Indian industries were now left to cater to the Indian markets.
4. Industrial production in India ,for instance uniforms, bags and leather goods , boomed in
India during the wars. During the second world war and beyond that, Indian industries also
started supplying for the war
5. Post the World Wars, Britain could not stand against competing with the emerging
economies like the USA and Japan. As the British economy collapsed, Indian exports to
Britain also decreased drastically. The newly established Indian industries had now to seek
newer domestic and international markets and reconsolidate their position in the markets.
Or
Industrialisation in Britain has widely changed the form of urbanisation in the modern
period. Rural migrants were attracted to the cities of Leeds and Manchester as these were
Industrial cities and had many mills and factories. As a result, these industrial cities had
increased population which were mostly rural migrants. Thus, urbanisation lead to
migration of citizens, overpopulation of industrial cities and varied the atmosphere of the
newly developed industrialised cities.
Question 21
How are industries responsible for invironmental degradation in India ? Explain with
examples.
ANSWER:-
Industrialisation has led to environment degradation in the following ways-
1. It led to clearing of huge patches of land for establishing factories.
2. Industries release many poisonous gases like carbon-di-oxide which cause air pollution
3. Industrial waste is released in the rivers and made unfit for any purpose
4. Lands are cleared out for residential as well as commercial purposes
Question 22
Roadways still have an edge over railways in India." Support the statement with examples
ANSWER:-
Roadways have an edge over the railways in view of the ease with which they can be built
and maintained. The growing importance of road
transport vis-à-vis rail transport is rooted in the following reasons
12
Construction cost of roads is much lower than that of railway lines
Roads can traverse comparatively more dissected and undulating topography.
Roads can negotiate higher gradients of slopes and as such can traverse mountains such as
the Himalayas.
Road transport is economical in transportation of few persons and relatively smaller amount
of goods over short distances.
It also provides door-to-door service, thus the cost of loading and unloading is much lower.
Road transport is also used as a feeder to other modes of transport such as they provide a
link between railway stations, air and sea ports.
Question 23
Compare the situation of Belgium and Sri Lanka considering their location, size and
cultural aspects.
OR
How is the idea of power sharing emerged? Explain different forms that have common
arrangements of power sharing.
ANSWER:-
In Sri Lanka and Belgium, there were ethnic conflicts for power on basis of the language. The
group being numerically larger were in conflict with the groups lesser in
number. Both Belgium and Sri Lanka were bothered by the issue of power sharing. However,
Belgium worked out an accommodation principle as compared to Sri Lanka which switched
to majoritarianism. Power sharing took place in different ways in Belgium and Sri Lanka.
Belgium opted for a conciliatory mode of power sharing through respect and representation
for different communities and regions. On the other hand, Sri Lanka adopted a
confrontational approach where the
majority community exerted its dominance over others and refused to share power. The
first approach led to stronger unity while the later approach undermined the unity of the
country and brought untold catastrophe
Or
It is true that the idea of power sharing emerged in opposition to the notions of undivided
political power.Traditionall, it was believed that power should be concentrated
in one hands because if power is divided then it would be difficult to take rapid decisions
and apply them.But the development of the concept of democracy has
changed this notion of power concentration in one hands.This is so because democracy
believes in distribution of power among people as people are the source of
authority.Power can be divided among the various organs of the government, two sets of
the government, hat is central and the state, community government etc.
Moreover, concentration of power in one hands leads to revolution and war in the long run
and breaks the unity of the nation
13
Horizontal distribution of power allows different organs of government placed at the same
level to exercise different powers. Such a separation ensures that none of the organs can
exercise unlimited power. Each organ checks the others. This results in a balance of power
among various institutions. For example, ministers and government officials exercise power,
they are responsible to the Parliament or State Assemblies. Similarly, judges can check the
functioning of executive or laws made by the legislatures. This arrangement is called a
system of checks and balances Power shared among governments at provincial or regional
level is called as vertical form of power sharing. Such a general government for the entire
country is usuallycalled federal government. In India, we refer to it as the Central or Union
Government. The governments at the provincial or regional level are called by different
names in different countries. In India, we call them State Governments. State Governments
and Central Government have their distinct areas to exercise power
Question 24
Describe the importance of democratic government as an accountable and legitimate
government.
ANSWER:-
It allows for participation of the people in the political process, it is people's own
government thus it is legitimate.
It provides for smooth and legitimate transformation from one government to another by
means of electoral competition.
This way it ensures that no government is elected for life and hence becomes tyrannical.
It allows for peaceful change in the society, by means of elections
Representatives so elected make laws and policies on behalf of the people.
Democracy produces a government that is responsive through the mechanism of elections.
Elections make the representatives accountable to people and ensure that they have to
explain their decisions. This ensures accountability of the law makers towards their
constituencies and they have to take into account the interests of all sections of society.
People have the right to choose their rulers and
people will have control over the rulers. This makes the rulers accountable to the people.
Question 25
Why do multinational corporations (MNc) set up their offices and factories in certain areas
only? Explain any five reasons.
ANSWER:-
MNCs are interested to set up their manufacturing units in different areas because:
1. The labour in developing countries are cheap and easily available
2. There is flexibility in labour laws which made MNC's easier to set up industries here.
3. The markets in developing countries are very good for selling products and making huge
profits.
4. There is available support from the government to make way for Special Economic Zones
14
5. Local companies and manufacturers also cooperate with the MNC's in the process of
manufacturing by supplying the required products
Question 26
A) Two features A and B are marked on the given political outline map of India. Identify
these features with the help of the following information
and write their correct names on the lines marked near them.
a. The place where the Indian National Congress Session was held.
b. The city where Jallianwalla Bagh incident took place.
(B) Locate and label any three of the following with appropriate symbols on the same
given outline political map of India.
(i) Kalpakkam Nuclear Power Plant
ii) Vijayanagar- Iron and Steel Plant
(ii) Noida - Software Technology Park
(iv) Paradeep - Sea Port
ANSWER:-(A)
15
ANSWER:-(B)
16
17
CBSE Class 10
Social Science
Previous Year Question paper 2020
Series: JBB/1 Set- 3
Code no.32/1/3
● Please check that this paper contains 13 printed pages.
● Code number given on the right hand side of the question paper should be
written on the title page of the answer-book by the candidate.
● Please check that this question paper contains 35 questions.
● Please write down the Serial Number of the question in the answer-
book before attempting it.
● 15 minute time has been allotted to read this question paper. The question
paper will be distributed at 10.15 a.m. From 10.15 a.m. to 10.30 a.m., the
students will read the question paper only and will not write any answer on
the answer-book during this period.
SOCIAL SCIENCE
Time Allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 80
General Instructions :
i. This question paper comprises four sections A, B C and D. This question
paper carries 35 question paper. All questions are compulsory.
ii. Section A – Questions no. 1 to 20 are short answer type questions of 1 mark
each.
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 1
iii. Section B – Questions no. 21 to 28 are short answer type questions, carrying
3 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 80 words.
iv. Section C – Questions no. 29 to 34 are long answer type questions, carrying
5 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 120 words.
v. Section D – Questions no. 35 is map based carrying 6 marks with two parts
35(a) from History (2 marks) and 35(b) from Geography (4 marks).
vi. Answer should be brief and to the point also the above word limit be
adhered to as far as possible.
vii. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice
has been provided in few questions. Only one of the choices in such
questions have to be attempted.
viii. Attach MAP along with your answer-book.
ix. In addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and
question, wherever necessary.
SECTION-A
1.Study the table and answer the question given below. 1 Mark
Some comparative data on Haryana, Kerala and Bihar
Net Attendance
Ratio (per 100
Infant Mortality
Literacy Rate % persons)
State Rate per 1000
2011 secondary stage
live births (2016)
(age 14 and 15
years) 2013-14
Haryana 33 82 61
Kerala 10 94 83
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 2
Bihar 38 62 43
Sources: Economic Survey, 2017-18 Vol. 2, Government of India; National
Sample Survey Organisation (Report No. 575)
1. In comparison to Kerala, which state has the highest infant mortality rate?
1 Mark
Ans: Highest infant mortality rate: Bihar
2. Why did Indians oppose the ‘Simon Commission’? 1 Mark
Ans: Indians opposed the Commission because it did not have a single Indian
member.
3. Why was the Vernacular Press Act passed in 1878? 1 Mark
Ans: The Vernacular Press Act gave the government broad powers to regulate
news and opinions in the Vernacular press.
Or
Why was ‘Gulamgiri’ Book written by Jyotiba Phule in 1871? 1 Mark
Ans: Jyotiba Phule's Gulamgiri.
It was composed in response to the injustices of the caste system.
4. Which of the following revolutions is called as the first expression of
‘Nationalism’?
A. French Revolution
B. Russian Revolution
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 3
C. Glorious Revolution
D. The Revolution of the liberals 1 Mark
Ans: (A)French Revolution is called as the first expression of ‘Nationalism’.
5. How is GDP calculated? 1 Mark
Ans: GDP: The value of final products and services produced in each sector during
a given year equals the sector's total output for that year. GDP can be determined
by adding up all of the money spent in a given period by consumers, corporations,
and the government.
Or
How is Public sector different from Private sector? 1 Mark
Ans: In the public sector, the government owns the majority of the assets and
provides all services, whereas in the private sector, private individuals or
corporations own the assets and offer all services.
6. Which one of the following was published by Raja Ram Mohan Roy?
A. Sombed Kavemode
B. Shamsul Alber
C. Punjab Kesri
D. Chandrika 1 Mark
Ans: (A) Sambad Kaumudi was published by Raja Ram Mohan Roy.
7. Who were called "Chapmen ''?
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 4
A. Book seller
B. Paper seller
C. Workers of printing press
D. Seller of ‘penny chapbooks’ 1 Mark
Ans: (D) Seller of ‘Penny Chapbooks’ were called “Chapmen”
8. Choose the incorrect option from column A and column B. 1 Mark
Column B Development
Column A Category of peron
goals/Aspirations
a. Landless rural labourers i. More days of work and better
wages
b. Prosperous farmers from ii. Availability of other sources of
Punjab irrigation
c. Farmers who depend only on iii. Assured a higher support
rain for growing crops prices for their crops
d. A rural women from a land iv. Regular job and high wages to
owning family increase her income
Ans: (D)A rural woman from a land owing family -Regular Job and high wage to
increase her income.
9.Suggest any one way to protect women from domestic oppression. 1 Mark
Ans: Way to protect women from domestic oppression is by enhancing their
political representation.
Or
Suggest any one way to create communal harmony among various
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 5
communities of India. 1 Mark
Ans: Way to create communal harmony is by increasing people's sense of national
integration.
10. In which one of the following states is Kaiga Nuclear Energy Plant located?
A. Gujarat
B. Karnataka
C. Punjab
D. Kerala 1 Mark
Ans: (B) Kaiga Nuclear Energy Plant is located in Karnataka.
11. Modern democracies maintain a check and balance system. Identify the
correct option based on the horizontal power sharing arrangement
A. Central government, state government, local bodies.
B. Legislature, executive, judiciary.
C. Among different social groups.
D. Among different pressure groups. 1 Mark
Ans: (B) Legislative, executive, judiciary is based on the horizontal power sharing
arrangement.
12. Fill in the blank: 1 Mark
_________ Industry is the basic industry since all the other industries heavy,
medium and light, depend on it for machinery.
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 6
Ans: Iron and steel
13. Define the term ‘Veto’ 1 Mark
Ans: It has the power to reject any bill.
Or
Define the term ‘Carding.’ 1 Mark
Ans: It is the preparation of fibres such as cotton or wool prior to spinning.
14. Fill in the blank:
Buddhist missionaries from China introduced hand-printing technology into
_____ around A.D. 768-770 1 Mark
Ans: Japan
OR
By 1448, Gutenberg perfected the system of printing. The first book he printed
was the _____. 1 Mark
Ans: Bible
15. State any one step taken in Belgium to rule out the problem of regional
differences and cultural diversities. 1 Mark
Ans: The constitution requires that the number of Dutch and French-speaking
ministers in the Central Government be equal.
16. Which one of the following is a major caste group of Sri Lanka.
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 7
A. Christian and Tamil
B. Buddhist and Hindu
C. Sinhali and Tamil
D. Sinhali and Christian 1 Mark
Ans: (C ) Sinhali and Tamil are a major caste group of Sri Lanka.
17. Fill in the blank:
______ industry is used for manufacturing aircraft, utensils and wires.
1 Mark
Ans: Aluminum Smelting
18. Choose the correct option from column A and B. 1 Mark
A B
a. Chandrapur thermal power i. Odisha
plant
b. Mayurbhanj iron ore mines ii. Amarkantak
c. Kalol oil fields iii. Gujarat
d. Bauxite mines iv. Jharkhand
Ans: (C)Kalol Oil Fields – Gujarat
19. Suggest any one way to create employment in urban areas. 1 Mark
Ans: Developing Infrastructure facilities is a way to create employment in urban
areas.
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 8
20. Which is the oldest artificial sea port of India? 1 Mark
Ans: Chennai is the oldest artificial sea port of India.
Or
Which is the deepest, landlocked and well protected sea port of India? 1 Mark
Ans: Visakhapatnam is the deepest, landlocked and well protected sea port of India.
SECTION - B
21. Describe any three features of ‘federal government.’ 3 Marks
Ans: Features of federal government are as follows:
i. Different levels of government control the same people, yet each has its own
jurisdiction in areas of law, taxes, and administration.
ii. The constitution specifies the jurisdictions of the various levels or divisions
of government.
iii. Courts have the authority to interpret the constitution as well as the authorities
of various levels of government.
Or
Describe any three features of ‘unitary government’. 3 Marks
Ans: Features of ‘unitary government’:
i. Concentration of governance authority in the hands of the central
government: In a unitary government, the constitution assigns all governance
powers to the central government. As a result, authority in this form of
administration is concentrated in the hands of the central government.
ii. Multiple constitutions: In a unitary administration, the country's constitution
can take any form - written, unwritten, flexible, or strict.
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 9
iii. The basis of powers of units (constituents) is central will: Because state
units serve as representations of the central government in unitary
administration, the constitution does not serve as the foundation for the
powers or autonomy granted to them; rather, it is at the discretion of the
central government.
22. “Tertiary sector activities help in the development of the primary and
secondary sectors.” Evaluate the statement. 3 Marks
Ans: Tertiary sector activities contribute in the development of the primary and
secondary sectors for the following reasons:
i. Tertiary sector activities do not create any goods in and of themselves, but
they are an aid or support to the primary and secondary sectors' production
processes. Transport, commerce, storage, and other services, for example,
benefit primary sector sectors such as agriculture.
ii. Hospitals or educational institutions, post as well as telegraph services or
police stations, and courts are all examples of public institutions are all
examples of public institutions,defence, transportation, banking, and other
vital services are included in the tertiary sector. All of this is necessary as a
fundamental service that benefits both the main and secondary industries.
iii. Certain new services are being developed such as those based on information
as well as on communication technology, are growing in popularity, and have
become increasingly important and indispensable over the last decade or so.
Or
‘Primary sector’ was the most important sector of economic activity at initial
stages of development.” Evaluate the statement. 3 Marks
Ans: The primary sector was the most significant sector of economic activity in the
early stages of development because:
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 10
i. The history of developed nations shows that the primary sector was the most
important sector of economic activity in the early stages of development. As
agricultural technologies evolved and the agriculture industry began to thrive,
it began to produce far more food than it had previously.
ii. The primary sector remains the largest economic sector and plays an
important part in the country's overall socioeconomic growth.
iii. The success of the secondary sector is dependent on the success of the primary
sector. This sector usually uses the primary sector's production as raw material
to create final items. A thriving primary sector aids in the establishment of a
robust secondary and tertiary sector.
23. Mention any three features of ‘secularism’ described in the Indian
Constitution. 3 Marks
Ans: Secularism is a conviction that individuals of all religions will be treated
equally and their dignity will never be violated, regardless of their religious
background.
The following are some of the three elements of secularism listed in the Indian
constitution:
i. To be considered secular, a country should not have any official religion. In
India, there is no official religion.
ii. In India, all residents are free to follow their faith. Everyone in India has the
right to practise whichever religion they want.
iii. No Indian citizen shall be ridiculed or discriminated against for practising
their own religious traditions, beliefs, customs, and so on.
Or
Mention the problem of ‘Casteism’ in Indian politics. 3 Marks
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 11
Ans: Casteism is one of the rural social problems that are unique to Indian society.
Indian culture is a religiously diverse society. Each religion is further subdivided
into castes, and these castes are further subdivided into sub-castes. Each caste's
culture differs, despite the fact that they all follow the same religion. Certain castes
are granted a high rank, while others are assigned a low status, based on their caste
occupation.
Caste disputes are almost certain to emerge in such a society. These disputes stem
from casteism, which refers to hate of one caste by another, or attempts by members
of one caste to obtain personal benefits at the expense of the interests of other caste
members.In a word, casteism is one-sided allegiance to a specific caste.
24. “Efficient means of transport are prerequisites for fast development of the
country.” Support the statement with examples. 3 Marks
Ans: The statement can be explained with following examples:
i. The movement of products and services from their supply locations to their
demand locations demands the use of transportation.
ii. The rate of development of a country is determined by the production of goods
and services as well as their movement across space
iii. Transportation contributes to the growth of all three sectors- primary,
secondary, and tertiary. As a result, effective modes of transportation and
communication are required for rapid development.
25. Describe the importance of judicious use of resources. 3 Marks
Ans: Importance of judicious use of resources are as follows:
i. Since resources are not distributed in a country, resource planning becomes
more important.
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 12
ii. The wise utilisation of natural resources ensures the resources' long-term
viability.
iii. The careful and organised use of natural resources is important because
injudicious use of natural resources may deplete them.
Or
Describe the different steps of ‘resource planning.’ 3 Marks
Ans: Resource Planning refers to the ability or practise of using resources in a
traditional or reasonable manner.
Resource planning is a complex procedure that includes the following steps:
i. Classification and recording of resources across the country. This includes the
process of conducting surveys, mapping resources, qualitative evaluation, and
resource calculation.
ii. Creating a plan structure that is equipped with necessary technology,
experience, and institutional infrastructure for carrying out resource
advancement initiatives.
iii. Aligning resource development plans with administrative advancement
designs.
26. Explain any three effects of population growth in England in the late
eighteenth century. 3 Marks
Ans: Effects of population growth in England in the late eighteenth century are as
follows:
i. Corn restrictions were repealed as a result of pressure from businessmen.
Food is currently imported into the United Kingdom.
ii. As cities grew in size, so did the need for food grains.
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 13
iii. In response to demand from landed organisations, the government banned
corn imports by passing Corn restrictions.
Or
Why did the export of Indian textile decline at the beginning of the nineteenth
century? Explain any three reasons. 3 Marks
Ans: The export of Indian textile decline at the beginning of the nineteenth century
because of the following reasons:
i. When Britain placed import taxes on cotton textiles, the export market shrank.
ii. British exports to India grew. Manchester products swamped Indian
marketplaces.
iii. Machine-made items were less expensive, and weavers couldn't compete with
them.
27. Suggest any three ways to improve public facilities in India. 3 Marks
Ans: Three ways to improve public facilities in India are as follows:
i. The government should provide basic facilities to all people, such as
transportation.
ii. The government should provide assistance to other sectors of public facilities
so that they can improve their technology; and the government should provide
assistance to other sectors of public facilities so that they can improve their
technology.
iii. People can also help to improve public services by raising awareness about
the difficulties in these sectors and pressuring the government to improve
them.
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 14
28. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follows:
Source: The Movement in the Towers
The movement started with middle-class participation in the cities. Thousands
of students left government-controlled schools and colleges, headmasters and
teachers resigned, and lawyers gave up their legal practices. The council
elections were boycotted in most provinces except Madras, where the Justice
Party, the party of the non-Brahmins, felt that entering the council was one way
of gaining some power-something that usually only Brahmans had access to.
The effects of non-cooperation on the economic front were more dramatic.
Foreign goods were boycotted, liquor shops picketed, and foreign cloth burnt
in huge bonfires. The import of foreign cloth halved between 1921 and 1922, its
value dropping from Rs. 102 crore to Rs. 57 crore. In many places merchants
and traders refused to trade in foreign goods or finance foreign trade. As the
boycott movement spread, and people began discarding imported clothes and
wearing only Indian ones, production of Indian textile mills and handlooms
went up.
28.1 Explain the role of ‘Justice Party’ in boycotting of council elections.
1 Mark
Ans: The Justice Group, a non-Brahman party, believed that entering the council
was one way to obtain power — power that was previously solely available to
Brahmans.
28.2 How was the effects of ‘non-cooperation on the economic front’ dramatic?
1 Mark
Ans: Foreign goods were boycotted, liquor stores were picketed, and foreign
clothing was burned in massive bonfires.
28.3 Explain the effect of the ‘Boycott’ movement on ‘foreign textile trade’.
1 Mark
Ans: The effect of the ‘Boycott’ movement on ‘foreign textile trade’ was merchants
and dealers refused to buy or sell foreign products or fund international commerce.
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 15
SECTION-C
29. “Bank plays an important role in the economic development of the country.”
Support the statement with examples. 5 Marks
Ans: In various ways, the bank plays a significant role in the country's economic
growth:
i. The bank offers loans in rural areas for agricultural production, resulting in
the development of numerous regions.
ii. The bank makes a loan to fund the creation of fixed assets that will result in
job creation.
iii. It serves as a conduit for savings and investors.
iv. Banks take deposits and pay interest on them, allowing funds to be mobilised.
v. The majority of these deposits are used by the bank to provide loans for
different profitable events.
Or
“Credit sometimes pushes the borrower into a situation from which recovery is
very painful.” Support the statement with examples. 5 Marks
Ans: A bank is typically referred to as a formal provider of credit, and in some cases,
the borrower may be unable to repay the loan. This puts them in a debt trap position.
i. In rural regions, if crops fail due to natural reasons, farmers would find it
difficult to repay loans.
ii. In the event of a company collapse, the businessman will have a difficult time
repaying the credit.
iii. The rate of interest in the informal sector is quite high. If a prior loan is not
returned owing to crop failure, the interest rate increases.
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 16
iv. In the event of high-risk activities, failure without assistance might put the
borrower in a difficult situation.
v. In many situations, people are forced to sell their property and fixed assets in
order to repay a loan.
30. Describe any five features of primitive subsistence farming. 5 Marks
Ans: The following are the characteristics of primitive subsistence farming:
i. It is performed on tiny patches of land using basic equipment such as hoes,
daos, and digging rods with the assistance of family members.
ii. It is dependent on monsoons, natural soil fertility, and environmental
appropriateness.
iii. It's also known as slash and burn agriculture.
iv. Farmers clean a plot of ground and plant crops to feed their families.
v. As soil fertility declines, farmers relocate to other areas, remove forest by
burning, and resow crops.
31. Describe the role of the opposition party in democracy. 5 Marks
Ans: The role of opposition party in democracy are as follows:
i. The opposition parties are keeping a close eye on the ruling party in order to
keep it from becoming dictatorial and to limit its powers.
ii. The opposition party's primary responsibility is to call the government's
policies into question.
iii. Opposition parties outside the legislature seek the attention of the press and
publish criticism of government policies in newspapers.
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 17
iv. The opposition parties can also audit the government's spending.
v. During the question period, the opposition parties attack the administration in
general.
32. “Democracies lead to peaceful and harmonious life among citizens.”
Support the statement with examples. 5 Marks
Ans: In most nations, democracy creates a government that is responsible to citizens
and responsive to citizens' demands and expectations. As a result, it fosters citizen
equality.
People want to be controlled by representatives they elect, as in a democratic
government, i.e. their own government. It persuades them that it is appropriate for
their nation since it is the legitimate government.
No civilization can ever totally and permanently overcome the antagonism between
various factions. However, we may learn to appreciate these differences and develop
strategies to deal with them. Democracy is ideally suited since it provides a method
for conducting competitions. Belgium is a successful example of resolving ethnic
conflicts.
33. Read the sources given below and answer the questions that follow:
Source A - Production across countries
Until the middle of the twentieth century, production was largely organised
within countries. What crossed the boundaries of these countries were raw
material, food stuff and finished products. Colonies such as India exported raw
materials and food stuff and imported finished goods. Trade was the main
channel connecting distant countries. This was before large companies called
multinational corporations (MNCs) emerged on the scene.
Source B - Foreign trade and integration of markets
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 18
Foreign trade creates an opportunity for the producers to reach beyond the
domestic markets, i.e., markets of their own countries. Producers can sell their
produce not only in markets located within the country but can also compete in
markets located in other countries of the world. Similarly, for the buyers,
import of goods produced in another country is one way of expanding the choice
of goods beyond what is domestically produced.
Source C - Impact of globalisation in India
Globalisation and greater competition among producers - both local and
foreign producers - has been of advantage t0 consumers, particularly the well-
off sections in the urban areas. There is greater choice before these consumers
who now enjoy improved quality and lower prices for several products, As a
result, these people today, enjoy much higher standards of living than was
possible earlier.
Source A - Production across countries
33.1 How are MNCs a major force in connecting the countries of the world ?
1 Mark
Ans: MNCs may create and use links between national economies.
Source B - Foreign trade and integration of markets
33.2 How does foreign trade become a main channel in connecting countries ?
2 Marks
Ans: Foreign trade become a main channel in connecting countries are as follows:
i. Foreign trade allows producers to expand their reach beyond domestic
markets.
ii. Producers can sell their products not only in domestic markets, but also in
marketplaces in other nations across the world.
Source C - Impact of globalisation in India
33.3 How is globalisation beneficial for consumers? 2 Marks
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 19
Ans: Globalisation is beneficial for consumers for the following reasons:
i. Price reductions on a variety of goods.
ii. People are living at a better level of life than was previously feasible.
34. How did ideas of national unity in early nineteenth century Europe allied to
the ideology of liberalism? Explain. 5 Marks
Ans: Ideas of national unity in Europe were linked to liberalism's ideology:
i. Liberals stressed the notion of consent-based government.
ii. The formation of a single economic region was advocated by liberals.
iii. Liberals backed the middle-class desire for market freedom and the removal
of state-imposed limitations on the flow of commodities and money.
iv. The establishment of a railway network boosted mobility while also tying
commercial interests to national unification.
v. A surge of economic nationalism bolstered the broader nationalist sentiments
that were brewing at the time.
Or
How did Greek war of independence mobilise nationalist feelings among the
educated elite across Europe? Explain. 5 Marks
Ans: The Greek War of Independence instilled nationalist sentiments among
Europe's educated elite in the following ways:
i. Greece had been a member of the Ottoman Empire since the fourteenth
century.
ii. The rise of revolutionary nationalism in Europe inspired the Greeks to launch
an independence campaign in 1821.
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 20
iii. The reaction to the fight energised Europe's educated elite class, filling them
with nationalistic feelings.
iv. Greece received assistance from other Greeks living in other countries. Poets
and painters hailed Greece as the source of European culture and rallied public
opinion in support of its fight against a Muslim dominion.
v. Lord Byron, an English poet, raised funds and fought in the war.
vi. Finally, in 1832, Greece was recognised as an independent nation by the
Treaty of Constantinople.
SECTION-D
35.
a. Two features ‘A’ and ‘B’ are marked on the given political outline map
of India. Identify these features with the help of the following information
and write their correct names on the lines marked near them. 2 Marks
A. The place where the Indian National Congress Session was held.
B. The place where the movement of Indigo planters started.
b. Locate and label any four of the following with appropriate symbols on
the same given political outline map of India. 4 Marks
i. Sardar Sarovar Dam
ii. Bhilai Iron and Steel Plant
iii. Pune Software Technology Park
iv. Kochi Major Sea Port
v. Indore Cotton Textile Industry
vi. Narora Nuclear Power Plant
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 21
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 22
Ans:
Note: The following questions are for Visually Impaired Candidates only in lieu of
Q. No. 35. Attempt any six questions.
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 23
35.1 Name the State where the session of Indian National Congress was held in
1920. 1 Mark
Ans: The session of Indian National Congress was held in September 1920 in West
Bengal.
35.2 Name the State where the movement of Indigo planters was started.
1 Mark
Ans: The movement of Indigo planters was started in Bihar.
35.3 Name the State where the Jallianwala Bagh massacre occurred. 1 Mark
Ans: Jallianwala Bagh massacre occurred in Punjab.
35.4 Name the State where Sardar Dam is located. 1 Mark
Ans: Sardar Dam is located in Gujarat.
35.5 Name the State where Bhilai Iron and Steel plant is located. 1 Mark
Ans: Bhilai Iron and Steel plant is located in Chattisgarh.
35.6 Name the State where Pune Software Technology Park is located. 1 Mark
Ans: Pune Software Technology Park is located in Maharashtra.
35.7 Name the State where Kochi ‘Sea Port’ is located. 1 Mark
Ans: Kochi ‘Sea Port’ is located in Kerala.
35.8 Name the State where Indore cotton textile industry is located. 1 Mark
Ans: Indore cotton textile industry is located in Madhya Pradesh,
Class X Social Science www.vedantu.com 24
CBSE Class 10
English Language and Literature
Previous Year Question Paper 2010
Series: LRH/1 Code no. 2/1/1
● Please check that this question paper contains 8 printed pages.
● Code number given on the right-hand side of the question paper should be
written on the title page of the answer-book by the candidate.
● Please check that this question paper contains 20 questions.
● Please write down the Serial Number of the question before
attempting it.
● 15 minutes of time has been allotted to read this question paper. The
question paper will be distributed at 10.15 a.m. From 10.15 a.m. to 10.30
a.m., the students will read the question paper only and will not write any
answer on the answer script during this period.
ENGLISH
LANGUAGE AND LITERATURE
Time Allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 80
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:
(i) This paper consists of four Sections.
Section A – Reading 20 Marks
Section B – Writing 20 Marks
Section C – Grammar 15 Marks
Section D – Textbooks 45 Marks
(ii) All questions are compulsory.
(iii) Marks are indicated against each question.
Class X English Language www.vedantu.com 1
SECTION - A
(Reading) 20 Marks
1. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow:
12 Marks
1. The exchange of greetings among people is very common. The most
popular medium for this is the greetings card. It is usually sent by post. It is
an illustrated message that expresses friendship, love, affection, goodwill,
gratitude or some similar sentiment. Greeting cards are also sent to convey
congratulations, thanks or get-well messages.
2. The practice of exchanging these cards between friends is an ancient one.
The ancient Egyptians celebrated New Year by giving each other symbolic
presents like scent bottles and mud tablets with the inscription “Good luck
to you.” In ancient Rome, the medium of expression was a branch of an olive
tree. Their leaves were coated with gold.
3. The practice of sending greetings for the New Year continued in Europe
through the early days of the millennium. Then came the printing press.
With its commercial use by the 18th and 19th centuries, the exchange of New
Year cards by merchants and tradesmen became very ordinary and
uninteresting. Postal stamps and envelopes were introduced in 1840. They
made the process of sending or passing the greetings from one person or
place to another very convenient. The modern-day greetings card became
definite and clear in 1843 when the first Christmas card with season’s
greetings was designed in Britain. The commercial production of greeting
cards became fully established by 1860.
4. There are several means of conveying greetings but the public post
remains the most popular. In modern times technology has greatly
developed. There is almost a revolution in the field of communication. With
the availability of this technology, electronic mail is also being increasingly
used for sending greetings.
5. In India, the practice of sending greeting cards was begun by the British.
This practice still continues. We send greeting cards on occasions like New
Year, Christmas, Diwali, Pongal, Durga Puja, Baisakhi, Bihu, and other
regional festivals.
Answer the following questions briefly:
(a) Why do people send greeting cards?
Class X English Language www.vedantu.com 2
Ans: Greeting cards are sent to express congratulations, gratitude, or get-well
wishes. They are also graphical messages that communicate friendship, love,
affection, benevolence, thanks, or some other comparable emotion.
(b) What symbolic presents did the Egyptians send on the eve of the New
Year?
Ans: The ancient Egyptians celebrated the New Year by exchanging symbolic
gifts such as fragrance bottles and mud tablets inscribed with the words "Good
luck to you."
(c) How did the ancient Romans convey their greetings?
Ans: A branch of the olive tree served as the medium of expression in ancient
Rome. Their leaves were gold-plated.
(d) What effect did the printing press bring on the exchange of New Year
cards?
Ans: With the commercial usage of the printing press in the 18th and 19th
centuries, the exchange of New Year cards by merchants and businessmen
became fairly routine and dull.
(e) What changes were brought about with the introduction of postal stamps
and envelopes?
Ans: In 1840, postal stamps and envelopes were established. They simplified the
procedure of communicating or distributing greetings from one person or location
to another.
(f) Who introduced this practice in India?
Ans: The British began the habit of sending greeting cards to India.
(g) Find out from the passage the adverb form of the words given below:
(i) usual (Para 1)
Ans: usually
(ii) great (Para 4)
Ans: greatly
(h) Find out from the passage the word which means the same as the
following:
‘sense of being thankful for forever’ (Para 1)
Ans: Gratitude
Class X English Language www.vedantu.com 3
2. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow:
8 Marks
A little girl was fond of asking new questions day after day. One day she
asked her mother, “Mummy, which one is good – an apple or a pear, a rose
or a jasmine, a ball or a doll?”
The mother answered her questions easily but this time she was confused.
How could she definitely say that one thing was good and the other was not?
However, she evaded the answer somehow.
But after a few days, the little girl posed another question, “Mummy, is a
story good or a song?”
This time the mother was well prepared and told the little girl that she would
ask her a question first to which she should give a thoughtful reply. The
mother then asked, “Tell me, is the sun god or the sky?”
The little girl thought and thought but could not find the right answer. She
looked at the sky and then at the sun. It was indeed very difficult for her to
decide in favor of either of the two since both were stunningly beautiful.
Besides, both were so close and inseparable.
The little girl now understood the point. Thereafter she never asked which
one was good – this or that. Now she began to ask, “What is good in stories?
What is good in songs?” And the mother answered her questions happily.
(a) What was the little girl fond of?
Ans: Every day, the small child would ask new questions.
(b) Why did the little girl’s question confuse the mother?
Ans: Mother was perplexed by the little girl's questions because she couldn't
decide which were good and which were bad.
(c) How did the mother solve the problem?
Ans: The mother addressed the same question to the small child.
(d) Why could the girl not decide in favour of either the sun or the sky?
Ans: It was difficult for the small girl to choose between the two because they
were both incredibly gorgeous. Apart from that, they were inseparable.
(e) What did she understand now? How did she change herself?
Ans: She realised it was difficult to identify which one of the objects was nice,
so she altered the rhythm of her inquiries.
Class X English Language www.vedantu.com 4
SECTION - B
(Writing) 20 Marks
3. You are Pulkit / Prachi, a resident of 221, Pocket V, Mayur Vihar, New
Delhi. Your elder sister has suddenly fallen ill just before a competitive
examination. Write a letter to your father who is away on a business tour to
Mumbai, informing him about her condition. Also, ask him to return as early
as possible. 8 Marks
Ans: Letter
221, Pocket V
Mayur Vihar
New Delhi
16th September, 2021
Dear dad,
I hope everything is going well for you. I had something I wanted to tell you.
Neha and I went swimming, and she accidentally drank some water. When she
got home, she ignored my caution and drank cold water straight from the freezer.
She immediately began sneezing. She has a fever now and is still not taking care
of herself. I contacted our family doctor, who prescribed certain drugs. However,
you are well aware that her competitive exam is right around the corner.
So, please return as soon as possible because I am incapable of handling things
on my own.
Yours lovingly
Pulkit
Or
You recently visited a government hospital. You were shocked to see the poor
state of sanitation. Write a letter to the Director of Health Services
requesting him to pay urgent attention to this situation and take remedial
measures. You are Lokesh/Lalita, D-76, Anandpur, Delhi.
Ans: Letter
D-76, Anandpur
Delhi
16th September, 2021
The Director of Health Services
Class X English Language www.vedantu.com 5
Directorate General of Health Service
Delhi
Sir
Subject: In government hospitals, there is a lack of sanitation.
I'd like to draw your attention to the appalling state of sanitation at government
hospitals.
I was taken aback by my recent visit to a government hospital in East Delhi. The
hospital's restrooms were filthy and smelled. The walls and floor were splattered
with betel stains. The situation of the government hospital can be summarised as
a filthy compound, corridors, and smelly air. Mosquitoes were buzzing about the
dustbin, which was loaded with medical waste and leftover food.
The government must take steps to improve the situation, including the
establishment of more hospitals and personnel. In hospitals, strict sanitary norms
and regulations must be implemented.
Yours faithfully
Lalita
4. Physical punishment is given to students in various ways all over the
country. This practice is very undesirable. Punishment is sometimes so harsh
that it almost amounts to cruelty. Write an article, in about 80 words, on this
bad practice and how it should be totally banned. You are Yash/Yashika.
8 Marks
Ans: Article
Physical punishment
Over the last two decades, there has been a global movement in attitudes on
physical punishment of children. In 1990, research indicating a link between
physical punishment and negative developmental outcomes was beginning to
accumulate, and the United Nations General Assembly had just adopted the
Convention on the Rights of the Child; however, only four countries had
prohibited physical punishment in all settings.
By the year 2000, research had proliferated, and the agreement had been ratified
by 191 of the world's 196 countries, with 11 of them outlawing all physical
punishment. Today, research on the harms of physical punishment is robust, the
convention has been incorporated into many nations' legal and policy
frameworks, and 31 countries have implemented laws prohibiting physical
Class X English Language www.vedantu.com 6
punishment of minors. 1 These three factors - science, convention, and legal
reform - have changed the face of corporal punishment.
The accumulation of data and the acceptance of children's rights have brought us
to a historical crossroads. Physicians who are knowledgeable with the findings
may now safely counsel parents to utilise constructive techniques to discipline
and use their unique influence to promote other parts of their children's healthy
development. By doing so, physicians improve child well-being and parent–child
connections on a population-wide scale. To aid physicians in this critical role, we
give a review of physical punishment research from the last two decades.
Numerous studies have demonstrated that physical punishment raises the chance
of widespread and long-term poor developmental effects. Physical punishment is
not proven to boost developmental health. The majority of child physical abuse
occurs as a form of punishment.
Professionals are coming to the conclusion that parents should be assisted in
learning peaceful, effective techniques of discipline.
Or
Smoking is the greatest cause of death in the world. Still, the people do not
give it up. Taking ideas from the hints given below, write a paragraph in
about 80 words on the topic, ‘Smoking is injurious to health and how to
control it.’
greatest killer: – causes deadly diseases such as cancer, bronchitis. heart
attack etc. – shortens 1ife – starts just for fun or for exploring new things –
ends up in addiction – requires strong willpower – exposure to spiritual
practices – effective laws.
Ans: Cigarettes are extremely hazardous to the health of chain smokers and
passive smokers. They are linked to a variety of health issues, including lung
cancer and heart attacks.
In fact, cigarette advertisements have a direct impact on children and adolescents
who see them on television and on posters. These advertisements are presented
in such a way that they convey a pro-smoking message. They feature prosperous,
handsome, and popular people smoking, for example.
Furthermore, they make no mention of the consequences of smoking. As a result,
smoking is highly common among young people, who are easily swayed by
cigarette advertisements. Young people have a lower perception of the dangers
of smoking. These people are likewise uninformed about the dangers of smoking
cigarettes.
Class X English Language www.vedantu.com 7
Every year, the government boosts the price of tobacco. Typically, this is done to
deter people from smoking. Nonetheless, smokers remain enslaved to their habit,
often spending a significant portion of their wages on cigarettes. Cigarette
commercials entice individuals to smoke, and most active smokers do significant
harm to passive smokers. Smokers force their family members to face the
negative consequences of the smoke they exhale. Smoking can be stopped with a
strong will power, and everyone has the ability to stop smoking once he makes
the decision to do so.
"Decision" is the first step toward gaining control over smoking. To manage his
smoking tendencies, a smoker must be determined and strong-willed. He can
experiment with nicotine chewing gums to assist reduce his desire to smoke. He
can continue on this route, and he will gradually lose the desire to smoke.
5. You are Ambika/ Ajay, a reporter. On your visit to the countryside, you
saw the students celebrating Teacher’s Day in a very simple but noble
manner by garlanding their teachers, applying sandalwood paste to their
foreheads, presenting simple sweets purchased with their petty collection
and displaying cultural items. Write a report in about 60 words for your
paper. 4 Marks
Ans: Teachers are the generation-torchbearers.” next's
Teachers play a critical role in preparing their students to be responsible citizens
and excellent human beings of the future. It's hard to envision our lives without
teachers. They are the foundation for our future. We will never be able to
appreciate teachers enough for their enormous impact on a student's life.
Teacher's Day is observed to demonstrate our appreciation and admiration of our
teachers' contributions to our development.
Teachers Day was observed at GGIS on not one, but two consecutive days. On
the 5th of September, the entire staff went on a picnic to Pavna Huts. The teachers
left around 8:30 a.m. and arrived at 10:30 a.m. The picturesque splendour all
around was enjoyed by all of the professors. They enjoyed water sports such as
kayaking and antakshari. After lunch, they were led to the conservatory, where
they were shown a PPT highlighting all of the positive characteristics of the entire
school personnel. Everyone adored and applauded this segment. All of the
teachers had a good time.
Everyone was delighted the next day at school when all of the teachers were
invited to a magnificent program organised by students in classes XI and XII. The
students did a dance, a skit, and a song as part of the event. The school band
performed songs from previous years, and all of the teachers sang along with the
band. Teachers were honoured with certificates in a variety of categories, such as
Class X English Language www.vedantu.com 8
Most Energetic Teacher, which was awarded to Ms Pranita Mendsure, and Best
Dressed Female, which was awarded to Ms Abira Chaudhuri. Teachers were
ecstatic about the program that had been put out for them.
Students always look forward to Teacher's Day with bated breath because of the
spirit of the occasion. They gain a good understanding of the duty, which is so
skillfully handled by their teachers, by acting as teachers. Being a successful
teacher and earning the respect of kids both need a lot of hard work and
dedication. On this day, teachers are reminded of their school days and feel
melancholy. Overall, everyone was in a celebratory mood!
Or
You are a reporter. On Diwali, you visited the city and saw certain incidents
of minor fire. You took the notes which are given below. Using the
information, write a report in about 60 words.
minor fire – incidents in the capital- Diwali – seven incidents due to
firecrackers – putting out the fire – a dozen fire tenders – deployed -fire
extinguished – police alertness seen
Ans: Report writing
Bengaluru: by xyz,
During Diwali celebrations, there were at least 28 incidents of firecracker-related
injuries, ranging from minor burns to potentially severe eye impairments. On
Friday night, a 10-year-old child was taken to Sankara Eye Hospital with cracker
crumbs caught in his eye, in one of the more serious cases. When a small red
cracker flew into his eyes, he was standing near the car park, watching his
neighbours explode crackers. On Saturday, one operation and numerous scans
were performed. The outcomes will determine whether additional procedures are
required. Doctors have yet to reveal any long-term effects on the boy's vision.
The boy's mother, who did not want to be recognised, stated, "Diwali is a festival
of lights, not of crackers." “I don't want this to happen to any other child.
“Crackers are extremely dangerous, especially to spectators, and should be
prohibited,” she warned.
Four people were treated at Minto Eye Hospital for cracker-related injuries, three
of whom were youngsters, one of whom was just three years old. All of the
incidents were minor, with the patients obtaining out-of-hospital care.
SECTION - C
(Grammar) 15 Marks
Class X English Language www.vedantu.com 9
The following passage has not been edited. There is one error in each line.
Write the incorrect word and the correction in your answer sheet as given
below against the correct blank number. Remember to underline the word
that you have supplied. 3 Marks
Sentence Incorrect Correct
Summers in Delhi are extreme hot. e.g. extremely
extreme
Hot dry winds, know as ‘loo’
blow over a capital. Monsoon
showers of the month of July
and August makes the city look
green or beautiful. Delhi is
full of historically important buildings.
Ans:
Sentences Incorrect Correct
Summers in Delhi are extreme hot. e.g. extremely
extreme
Hot dry winds, know as ‘loo’ know known
blow over a capital. Monsoon a the
showers of the month of July of in
and August makes the city look makes make
green or beautiful. Delhi is or and
full of historically important buildings. historically historic
7. Fil1 in the following blanks with suitable non-finite: 2 Marks
A bank employee was sent to jail for (a) _________________ (deceive) the
bank customers. He used (b) _________ (transfer) money from their
accounts into his wife’s account. Soon after (c) _________ (discover) his
Class X English Language www.vedantu.com 10
fraud, the bank dismissed him immediately. (d) _____________ (hold) him
guilty the judge also sentenced him to three years’ jail.
Ans: (a) deceiving
(b) to transfer
(c) they discovered
(d) Holding
8. Read the dialogue and complete the passage given below. Write the correct
answers in your answer sheet against the correct blank numbers. Do not
copy the whole sentence. 3 Marks
Umang: Parnika, will you go to the school fete tomorrow?
Parnika: Yes, if you and Aanya go there.
Umang: What will you wear?
Parnika: Blue jeans and orange top.
Umang asked Parnika (a) __________________ the day after. Parnika
replied that she would go in case (b)______________________. Umang then
enquired (c) _____________. Parnika told her that she would wear blue jeans
and an orange top.
Ans: (a) will she go to school
(b) Ananya and Umang go too.
(c) What will Parnika wear?.
9. Look at the words and phrases given below. Rearrange them to form
meaningful sentences. The first one has been done as an example. Write the
correct sentences in your answer sheet. Remember to number the answers
correctly. 2 Marks
Example:
is / Tamil / Rajni Kanth / actor / famous / a
Rajni Kanth is a famous Tamil actor.
(a) on / was / December 12, / he / 1950 / born
Ans: He was born on december 12 1950.
Class X English Language www.vedantu.com 11
(b) ‘Padma Bhushan’ / for his / he / cinema / the Indian / received / to /
contribution
Ans: He received padma bhushan for his contribution to the Indian cinema.
10. Look at the sentences given below and complete the paragraph that
follows. Write the correct answers in your answer sheet against the correct
blank numbers. Do not copy the whole sentences. 3 Marks
(a) Avoid all kinds of sweets.
(b) The body absorbs sugar very quickly.
(c) It increases energy only for the time being.
Taking sugar is not the best way to increase energy. According to experts all
kinds of sweets (a) __________________. Sugar (b) ____________ very
quickly and energy (c) ___________ only for the time being.
Ans: (a) should be avoided.
(b) is absorbed by the body
(c) is increased only for the time being.
11. The underlined words in the following passage have been used
inappropriately. Replace them with their appropriate forms. Write the
answers in your answer sheet against the correct numbers. Do not copy the
whole passage. ½×4=2 Marks
Hardev Singh got an award for his (a) contribute to the welfare of the aged.
He had gone into (b) depress 10 years ago after the death of his wife. He
started visiting senior citizens in his (c) neighbor. He visited them to inquire
if they were in any (d) difficult. It helped him come out of his own depression.
Ans: (a) contribution
(b) depression
(c) Neighborhood.
(d) difficulty.
SECTION – D
(Textbooks) 45 Marks
Class X English Language www.vedantu.com 12
12. Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow. Write
the answers in your answer sheet in one or two lines only. Remember to
number the answers correctly. 5 Marks
The class roared. I had to laugh too, though I’d nearly exhausted my
ingenuity on the topic of chatterboxes. It was time to come up with something
else, something original. My friend, Sanne, who’s good at poetry, offered to
help me write the essay from beginning to end in verse and I jumped for joy.
Mr Keesing was trying to play a joke on me with this ridiculous subject, but
I’d make sure the joke was on him.
(a) Why did the class laugh heartily?
Ans: The class erupted because the topic of Anne's punishment essay was
ludicrous and amusing.
(b) What did Anne decide to do this time?
Ans: Anne Lederman's buddy volunteered to assist her.
(c) What was the help offered by her friend?
Ans: Anne leapt with excitement because she could write her essay in verse,
which sounded a little bit unique. Sanne volunteered to assist her.
(d) How did Keesing try to play a joke on Anne?
Ans: Keesing was making a joke about his terrible subject.
(e) Pick out a word from the passage which is the adjective form of ‘ridicule.’
Ans: The adjective form of the word joke is ridicule.
13. Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow. Write
the answers in your answer sheet in one or two lines only. Remember to
number the answers correctly. 5 Marks
The baker made his musical entry on the scene with the ‘jhang, jhang’ sound
of his specially made bamboo staff. One hand supported the basket on his
head and the other banged the bamboo on the ground. He would greet the
lady of the house with “Good morning” and then place his basket on the
vertical bamboo. We kids would be pushed aside with a mild rebuke and the
loaves would be delivered to the servant.
(a) How did the baker announce his arrival?
Ans: The baker used to make a melodious entrance with his bamboo, producing
the sound "jhang-jhang."
Class X English Language www.vedantu.com 13
(b) What did he carry with him?
Ans: He had bamboo and a basket with him.
(c) What would be his first act after his arrival on the scene?
Ans: His first act was to greet the lady of the home with "Good Morning."
(d) Why were the children pushed aside?
Ans: The kids were pushed aside to make way for the loaves to be handed to the
servants.
(e) Which word in the passage means the same as ‘an expression of
disapproval/scolding’?
Ans: The phrase "We children would be pushed aside" refers to a gesture or
statement of displeasure/scolding in the final verse.
14. Answer the following question in about 80 words. 6 Marks
What did the pilot of the Dakota encounter 150 kilometres away from Paris?
Recount his experience inside the black clouds.
Ans: Everything turned black as he soared into the storm. There was no way to
view anything outside the plane. It leapt and twirled in the air. When he looked
at his compass, he noticed that it was spinning in circles. It was no longer alive.
The other instruments, including the radio, were likewise out of commission. He
was taken aback when he noticed another plane. Its pilot waved at him and
motioned for him to follow. He was relieved to have found a helper. He was on
his final gasoline tank, with barely enough fuel to fly for five or ten minutes. The
other pilot then began to descend, and he followed. He emerged from the clouds
and spotted the runway, where he successfully landed his jet.
Or
Why do you think Kisa Gotami understood reality the second time? In what
way did the Buddha change her understanding?
Ans: Kisa Gotami realised the reality about death the first time she was overcome
by the sense of grief caused by her son's death. She couldn't see the broader
picture underlying the current issue. Buddha aided her comprehension by sending
her from house to house in search of the abode where no one has ever died. This
broadened her perspective, allowing her to look beyond her sadness.
15. Answer the following question in 30-40 words. 4 Marks
Class X English Language www.vedantu.com 14
Who is Lomov? Why does he visit Chubukov?
Ans: Lvon Lomov was the owner of a piece of property. He wished to marry
Natalya, the daughter of his next-door neighbour Chubuknov. So he suited up and
went to Chubukov to propose to Natalya.
Or
Is Natalya really a love-sick cat as called by her father? If it is so, why does
she quarrel with Lomov?
Ans: Natalya was a twenty-five-year-old single girl. She resided in the Lomov
neighbourhood with a young single man. She was a good housekeeper and not
awful looking. She was desperate for love. Her father referred to her as a lovesick
cat. Lomov said she was well educated, but she did not appear to be. She was a
squabbling and nasty person by nature. She got into a squabble with Lomov about
a piece of land that wasn't worth anything. She said that those meadows were
unimportant to her, but she couldn't tolerate injustice. But when she discovered
that Lomov had come to propose to her, she forgot about all justice and
unfairness. She began to weep at the missed opportunity. She compelled her
father to return her call. But she quickly began quarrelling with him again. It had
gotten to their dogs. Both claimed that their canines were of a higher breed.
16. Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow. Write
the answers in your answer sheet. Remember to number the answers
correctly. 4 Marks
Belinda lived in a little white house,
With a little black kitten and a little grey mouse,
And a little yellow dog and a little red wagon,
And a realio, trulio, little pet dragon.
(a) Who is the mistress of the house?
Ans: Belinda is the mistress of the house.
(b) How many pets does she have?
Ans: She has four pets.
(c) ‘Kitten,’ ‘mouse’ and ‘dog’ are enemies to each other. What effect do you
think they create here?
Ans: Kitten’, ‘mouse’ and ‘dog’ are enemies to each other but in the poem they
create a farcical effect.
Class X English Language www.vedantu.com 15
(d) What is the rhyme scheme in the stanza?
Ans: The rhyme scheme in the stanza is a, a, b, b.
Or
What is the boy now,who has lost his ball.
What, what is he to do? I saw it go
Merrily bouncing ,down the street,and then
Merrily over there in the water.
(a) What is the boy doing?
Ans: The boy is searching the ball.
(b) What has happened to the ball?
Ans: The ball was lost.
(c) What is the state of the boy’s mind?
Ans: The boy is happy as he found the ball.
17. Answer any two of the following questions in 30-40 words each on the
basis of the lines given below: 6 Marks
(a) ‘I think I know enough of hate …..’
What does the poet mean by knowing enough of hate?
Ans: The speaker seemed to be more hesitant about his relationship with hatred.
He was convinced he had felt desire, but he just "thinks" he knows "enough"
about hatred. With this emotion, we're in murkier waters. For example, we don't
know how he knows hatred. Has he just observed hatred from afar, been a victim
of hatred, or been a hater himself?
(b) ‘The silence is golden, the freedom is sweet’
Why does Amanda say so?
Ans: Amanda is questioned whether she has completed her schoolwork and tidied
her room. Amanda, on the other hand, feels like an orphan wandering aimlessly
on a street. She is creating designs on soft dust with her bare feet, like a carefree
child. She's turned off her ears to what's being spoken to her and is instead
enjoying the golden stillness of her inner world.
(c) ‘Not one is respectable or unhappy
Class X English Language www.vedantu.com 16
Over the whole earth.’
Who is the poet talking about? What is their state of mind?
Ans: As you probably know, the context of that line was talking about how he
envied animals, so I believe "not one is respectable or unhappy over the entire
earth" is talking about how animals do not take a particular other animal and
revere or revile it over others, as humans do with various figures in history or in
the present. So the author is discussing animals. Their mental state is depressing
(feeling low at times).
18. Answer the following question in 80-100 words: 8 Marks
God created this world but teachers create human beings. How does Bholi’s
teacher succeed in changing the course of her life?
Ans: Bholi was disregarded by her folks because of her looks and absence of
knowledge. She was shipped off school as her mom believed her to be a weight
and let the instructors at school stress over her. Unexpectedly, the instructors
changed her life totally. God made this world yet instructors make human beings.
Bholi didn't have the foggiest idea what precisely a school was and what occurred
there, in the class when her educator asked her name, she stammered and started
to cry. She held her head down all through the class. The instructor was
exceptionally uplifting and cordial to her and this made her benefit certain to
speak. She began seeing a beam of expectation for another life. Following quite
a while of acquiring training and with the assistance of her instructor, Bholi
transformed into a sure young lady. She as of now not stammered and could talk
appropriately. She even dared to decline the wedding of the faltering elderly
person since he was avaricious and asked cash from her dad to wed her.
Or
Ausable has the ability to think quickly, act calmly and wisely in a situation
of danger and surprise. Do you agree? Support your answer from the story
that you have read.
Ans: Ausable was distinct from previous covert agents in several respects. He
was staying in a tiny room in the musty corridor of a dingy French hotel. It was
on the sixth and top-level, and it was hardly conducive to a romantic experience.
He was quite obese. Despite having lived in Paris for almost two decades, he
could only communicate in French and German and spoke with an American
accent. Instead of notes slipping into his hands by dark-eyed beauties, he received
a phone call setting up an appointment. In these respects, he deviated from the
traditional image of a spy.
Class X English Language www.vedantu.com 17
19. Answer the following question in 30-40 words: 4 Marks
How did Hari Singh realize that Anil knew that his money had been stolen?
Ans: Hari Singh's feelings about the idea of getting an education later. He first
believes one thing. It is that he could attain success if he wrote like an educated
guy. His subsequent thoughts demonstrate this shift. Later, he realises that if he
produced entire phrases, he might earn much more than a few hundred rupees.
This is how Hari Singh discovered Anil was aware that his money had been taken.
Or
Why did Richard Ebright give up tagging butterflies?
Ans: Richard Ebright was fascinated with butterflies. He had gathered all twenty-
five species of butterflies found in his hometown by the time he was in second
grade. This would have signalled the end of his butterfly-collecting career.
However, at this moment, his mother had given him a book titled "The Travels
of Monarch X." This book taught him about monarch butterfly migrations to
Central America. This book piqued his interest in Monarch butterflies and
introduced him to the realm of science. This proved to be a watershed moment in
Richard Ebright's life. He began raising Monarch butterflies in his basement and
studying them at various stages of life.
20. Answer the following question in 20-30 words: 3 Marks
Why did Matilda not like to visit her friend Mme? Forestier?
Ans: Matilda was married to a man from the middle class. She didn't have the
luxury she expected herself to be born with. She thought she deserved better. Her
friend was wealthy, and she disliked visiting her since it reminded her of all the
things she lacked in life. As a result, she felt envious of them and ashamed in their
presence.
Or
How does Think-Tank compare the Martians with the people of the Earth?
Ans: Think Tank feels that Martians are more beautiful than the people on the
Earth. The Earthlings have a smaller head compared to the Martians who have a
great and mighty balloon brain which has made them cleverer and intelligent
than the Earthlings. So, he decided to capture the Earth.
Class X English Language www.vedantu.com 18
CBSE Class 10
English (Language and Literature)
Previous Year Question Paper 2011
Series: RHB Code no. 2/1
● Please check that this question paper contains 16 printed pages.
● Code number given on the right hand side of the question paper should
be written on the title page of the answer-book by the candidate.
● Please check that this question paper contains 17 questions.
● Please write down the Serial Number of the question before
attempting it.
● 15 minutes of time has been allotted to read this question paper. The
question paper will be distributed at 10.15 a.m. From 10.15 a.m. to 10.30
a.m., the students will read the question paper only and will not write any
answer on the answer script during this period.
SUMMATIVE ASSESSMENT - II
ENGLISH (language and literature)
Time Allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 80
General Instructions:
1. The Question paper is divided into four sections:
Section A Reading 15 Marks
Section B Writing 15 Marks
Section C Grammar 15 Marks
Class X English www.vedantu.com 1
Section D Literature/Textbooks 35 Marks
2. All questions are compulsory.
3. Marks are indicated against each question.
SECTION - A
(Reading) 15 Marks
1. Read the passage given below and choose the most appropriate answer to
each question out of the options that follow: 1 × 5=5 Marks
In ancient times, the Olympics were associated with Greek religious festivals.
Life in ancient Greece revolved around their gods. The Greeks believed that
their gods were immortal, and more powerful than human beings. They
honoured their gods with festivals devoted to sports.
The most important of these festivals were the four national festivals. They
were open to sportsmen from all Greek regions and colonies. Each of the
festivals was held at a different place and was celebrated in honour of a
particular god. The Olympic Games were held in Olympia which was an
important religious centre in ancient Greece. A magnificent temple was built
there in honour of the god, Zeus. He was regarded as the ruler of both gods
and men. People tried to please Zeus by excelling in sports, and many
contests of skill and strength were held.
It was believed that the Olympic Games were founded by the Greek hero,
Hercules who was known as the son of the god, Zeus. He performed twelve
seemingly impossible tasks to become the greatest of all Greek heroes. He
cleaned King Augeas' stables in a single day which was an impossible task.
The king was fabulously rich and had thousands and thousands of animals.
So his stables were extremely dirty and full of stink. Hercules redirected the
course of the river, Alpheus, through the stables of the king. All the muck
and dirt were washed out in a single day. To celebrate this achievement he
started the Olympic Games in honour of his father, Zeus.
(a) The Greeks celebrated festivals devoted to sport to ____
Class X English www.vedantu.com 2
(i) gain physical strength
(ii) honour their gods
(iii) get power
(iv) become immortal
Ans: (ii) honour their gods
(b) In ancient Greece the Olympic Games were held ____
(i) in Greek regions
(ii) in colonies
(iii) at religious centres
(iv) at Olympia
Ans: (iv) at Olympia
(c) They honoured Zeus by _____
(i) building magnificent temples
(ii) excelling in sports
(iii) excelling in contests of skill and strength
(iv) doing all the above things
Ans: (iv) doing all the above things
(d) The impossible task performed by Hercules was _____
(i) the cleaning of Augeas' stables in a day
(ii) removing the muck and dirt from the king's stables
(iii) redirecting the course of the river through the stables
(iv) All of the above
Ans: (iv) All of the above
Class X English www.vedantu.com 3
(e) The word/phrase In the passage which means 'deathless' IS
(i) gods
(ii) Immortal
(iii) human beings
(iv) religious centre
Ans: (ii) immortal
2. Read the poem given below and choose the most appropriate answer to
each question out of the options that follow: 1 × 5 = 5 Marks
Oh, books, what books they used to know,
Those children living long ago!
So please, oh please, we beg, we pray,
Go throw your TV set away,
And in its place you can install
A lovely bookshelf on the wall.
Then fill the shelves with lots of books,
Ignoring all the dirty looks, ....
Fear not, because we promise you
That, in about a week or two
Of having nothing else to do,
They'll now begin to feel the need
Of having something to read.
And once they start - oh boy, oh boy!
Class X English www.vedantu.com 4
You watch the slowly growing joy That fills their hearts.
They'll grow so keen
They'll wonder what they'd ever seen
In that ridiculous machine .....
Roald Dahl
(a) The word 'they' in the first line refers to ~
(i) writers
(ii) children living in the present times
(iii) children living in the olden days
(iv) parents of children
Ans: (iii) children living in the olden days
(b) The poet wants the TV set to be replaced with _
(i) gadgets
(ii) bookshelves filled with lots of books
(iii) bookshelves
(iv) showcases
Ans: (ii) bookshelves filled with lots of books
(c) The poet is sure that the children would begin to read the books within a
week or two because they
(i) will have no other work
(ii) will have no television
(iii) will have books in the shelves
(iv) with no work, will feel the need for something to read
Class X English www.vedantu.com 5
Ans: (i) will have no other work
(d) Once the children start reading they will get _
(i) joy
(ii) surprise
(iii) excitement
(iv) thrill
Ans: (i) joy
(e) The tone of the poem is
(i) sad
(ii) humorous
(iii) happy
(iv) satirical
Ans: (iii) happy
3. Read the passage given below : 1 × 5 = 5 Marks
Once a carpenter went looking for a job. He approached a building
contractor, and got a job at a decent salary and good working conditions.
The carpenter was thrilled and determined to do his best. His boss provided
him with tools and showed him the place where he was supposed to work.
At the end of the first day, the carpenter prepared fifteen doors. His boss was
happy with his performance and congratulated him. The carpenter tried
harder the next day but he was able to prepare only 10 doors. On the third
day he tried even harder, but he could prepare only seven. Day after day he
was preparing fewer and fewer doors.
"I must be losing my strength," the carpenter thought. He went to the boss
and apologized, saying that he could not understand what was going on.
Class X English www.vedantu.com 6
"When was the last time you sharpened your tools ?" the boss asked.·
"Sharpen ! I had no time to sharpen my tools. I have been busy trying to
prepare doors," said the carpenter. Most of us never update our skills. We
think that whatever we have learned is enough.
Complete the following sentences based on your reading of the passage in
your own words.
(a) The carpenter approached the building contractor because
Ans: He was seeking employment.
(b) The carpenter became extremely happy because he
Ans: he found one with an excellent wage and working conditions.
(c) The boss congratulated him because
Ans: at the conclusion of the first day, he had prepared 15 doors.
(d) His boss advised him
Ans: to sharpen his tools.
(e) The word in the passage which means the same as 'asked someone for
something' is
Ans: approached
SECTION B
(Writing) 15 Marks
1. You are Madhur / Madhurika living at 53, Niti Apartments, Hyderabad.
Write a letter in not more than 100 words to your friend telling him/her
about a very interesting storybook that you have recently finished reading.
6 Marks
Ans:
53 Nitin Apartment
Class X English www.vedantu.com 7
Hyderabad.
September 8, 2021
Dear (Name),
How are you doing? I'm in good shape. I hope Uncle and Aunt are doing well as
well. You inquired about the books I purchased at the recent Book Fair in your
previous letter. So I bought a few novels that all had one thing in common: they
were all adventure classics. Daniel Defoe's Robinson Crusoe, 20,000 Leagues
Under the Sea, and a few more are among them. I recently began reading
Robinson Crusoe, a novel that my father recommended to me.
When Robinson was twenty years old, he got a chance to go onboard. With a
close friend of his in his father's ship, Robinson one day set off for London from
Hull. After two years he got the chance of going on board again. This was indeed
the second-worst voyage he had ever had. He got into slavery after getting
defeated by the Turkish pirates and got jailed on the Island of Sabbe.
My buddy, I believe I have written enough. I hope you would share your opinions
on this and respond to me as soon as possible.
Yours lovingly,
Madhurika.
Or
A number of accidents take place due to low hanging high tension electric
wires in the city. Write a letter in not more than 100 words to the editor of a
national daily advocating the need for the removal of these wires from near
the residential areas. You are Ankur / Akriti, living at 15, Main Road,
Khajoori Khas, Delhi.
Ans:
15, Main Road,
Khajoori Khas,
Delhi
Class X English www.vedantu.com 8
September 8, 2021
The Editor
The Hindu
Delhi
Subject: Accidents caused by low hanging high tension wires
Respected Sir,
I'm writing to convey my serious worry about the city's problem with low-
hanging high-tension cables. Several accidents were recorded in the previous
year. A guy died on the spot last week after his metal ladder collided with a low-
hanging high-tension wire running overhead.
In the city, there are a lot of low-hanging high-tension cables like these. They are
a significant hazard to human life. I urge the responsible authorities to look into
the problem and take the necessary steps to raise the height of these wires or
relocate them away from residential areas through the channel of your respected
newspaper. Please give my opinions ample room in your prestigious publication.
I shall be thankful.
Yours sincerely,
Akriti
2. The prices of the items of daily consumption such as milk, vegetables,
pulses etc. have been skyrocketing for the last several months making it
difficult for the common man to survive. Write an article in not more than
120 words expressing your views and suggesting solutions. You are Meghraj
/ Meghna. 6 Marks
Ans: Price Hike
By Meghna
The term "price hike" or "price increasing" refers to an increase in the price of
products and services. In India, the cost of products and services is steadily rising.
Class X English www.vedantu.com 9
According to economic theory, an increase in price is a sign of a country's growth.
However, the lives of ordinary employees become increasingly tough. The most
pressing issue facing the common people is the daily price increase. The cost is
determined by a variety of factors. The primary reasons for price hikes are
population expansion, rising affluence, insufficient agricultural output, and
insufficient industrial production. High governmental GST taxes are partly to
blame. Government personnel are unaffected by price increases, while the lives
of ordinary people are becoming increasingly complex.
A common man's ability to gather the necessities of daily existence becomes
increasingly challenging. The problem of rising prices can be alleviated in a
variety of ways for ordinary people. The government should focus more on
consumer goods manufacturing, take rigorous measures to slow population
growth, lower consumer goods taxation, and create more and more jobs so that
price increases have less impact on the people. The general people should also
chip in as much as feasible.
Or
Malaria and dengue fever which greatly affect children are most common
during the rainy season. Write a speech in not more than 120 words to be
delivered in the morning assembly to create awareness among the students
about these diseases. You may take help from the notes given below. You are
Prerna / Pranav.
● water-borne diseases, caused by mosquito bite
● dengue mosquitoes breed in clean water and bite during the daytime
● don't let water accumulate in coolers, plants, anywhere at home or in
the neighbourhood
● cover all containers
● cover the whole body - wear full-sleeved clothing
● use mosquito repellents and mosquito nets
Ans: Water Diseases
By Prerna
Class X English www.vedantu.com 10
The bulk of people's favourite season is the rainy season. Rain, the scent of sand,
lush trees, and cheerful smiles are all things that people like. But what if the entire
issue is approached in a completely different way? According to the World Health
Organization's most recent surveys, the number of malaria and dengue cases has
grown. Unfortunately, the statistics are highest during rainy seasons, which is
unsurprising given that the gathered water provides an ideal breeding ground for
mosquitoes.
Malaria and dengue fever have a significant impact on children's health. When
children come in contact with disease-carrying organisms, they get the disease,
which causes fever, weakness, and other unpleasant symptoms. As a result, the
pupils' studies are hampered, resulting in a significant loss.
It is necessary to raise public awareness about this issue. Societies must use
caution and should not allow any water to be gathered anywhere. It doesn't matter
if you're in the coolers or the pits. It is not permissible to gather water. It is
necessary to apply mosquito repellents. Let's say no to Malaria and Dengue this
rainy season.
3. Your area was greatly affected due to flooding in the Kosi rIver. There
was a great loss of life and property. The students of your school rendered
service and support to the victims. Write a report in about 80 words for your
school magazine. You are Poonam / Prerit, Secretary of the Cultural Society
of D.A.V. Sr. Sec. School, Patna. 3 Marks
Ans:
With respect, I'd like to call your attention to the problems and sufferings of many
places and individuals. Our district's flood victims are in terrible shape, and the
government's assistance efforts are falling short.
Many places around our school have been designated as among the most severely
impacted and hazardous. Our school's Social Service Club would want to
concentrate its efforts on assisting in this area. Our goal is to mobilise individuals
to help flood victims as soon as possible.
We can effectively generate donations with the help of local NGOs by physically
visiting numerous educational institutions in the city, using social media, and
Class X English www.vedantu.com 11
word of mouth. Our committed volunteer team would like to ask the general
public to give whatever they can. They would also aid in the more effective
conduct of the relief mission.
A chamber of traders and manufacturers has joined us to help fund and monitor
the relief programmes. NSA and Scout teams are also ready to work together on
this project. A team of veterinary experts is also with us to prevent animal, bird,
and cow disasters.
I hope you will give our Social Service Club the opportunity to put what we have
dreamed of into action and complete the relief work via our combined efforts.
Thanking You,
Yours Sincerely,
Poonam
(Secretary of the Cultural Society)
Or
3 Marks
Tomorrow is your grandmother's birthday. The children of your family
want to celebrate it with great enthusiasm but without letting her know
about the preparation you want to make. Write a dialogue, in about 80
words, which you might have with your family members about the plans that
you have in your mind. You are Ankit / Anjali.
Ans: Rahul: I want to give grandma a surprise.
Karan: Yes! Me too!
Anjali: Okay. But we have to do this discreetly without her getting to know about
our plans.
Rahul and Karan: Okay.
Class X English www.vedantu.com 12
Anjali: I will get all the necessary decorations and the cake. You both can take
care of blowing the balloons.
Rahul: But I want to choose the cake.
Anjali: Okay, you both can come with me and decide which cake you want. But
after that, you both have to help me with the decorations.
Rahul and Karan: Yeye!
4. Read the passage given below. Fill in the blanks by choosing the most
appropriate word/words from the given options. 3 Marks
large number of scientists gathered at Lakpat in Gujarat (a) _______ the
view of the last eclipse of the twentieth century. This place (b) _______ to be
the best as the totality there would be the (c) ________ They (d) ________
there to study the phenomenon. But they (e) _______ because the clouds (f)
______ the clear view of the eclipse.
(a) (i) see (ii) has seen (iii) to see (iv) seeing
Ans: (iii) to see
(b) (i) was considered (ii) had considered (iii) consider (iv) considered
Ans: (i) was considered
(c) (i) longer (ii) longest (iii) more longer (iv) lengthier
Ans: (ii) longest
(d) (i) are going (ii) were going (iii) were gone (iv) had gone
Ans: (iv) had gone
(e) (i) were disappointed (ii) disappointed (iii) had disappointed (iv) have
disappointed
Ans: (i) were disappointed
(f) (i) have blocked (ii) blocked (iii) were blocked (iv) block
Class X English www.vedantu.com 13
Ans: (ii) blocked
8. Given below are the notes taken by a reporter regarding the speedy
disposal of the court cases by a judge in Andhra Pradesh. Study the given
notes and complete the following paragraph by filling in the spaces from the
given options.
● a junior judge cleared 111 cases creating a world record
● cases include thefts, street brawls and road accidents
● imposed fines in 78 cases
● acquitted the accused in 32 cases 1 × 3 = 3 Marks
Speedy disposal of court cases
111 cases related to thefts, street brawls and road accidents (a) ________
by a junior judge in Mangalagiri town in Andhra Pradesh on Thursday
creating a world record. In 78 cases fines (b) ______ and in the remaining 33
cases the accused (c) ________ He was lenient with those who admitted the
crime. If we had a few more of these judges, there would be no backlog left.
(a) (i) cleared
(ii) were being cleared
(iii) were cleared
(iv) had been cleared
Ans: (ii) were being cleared
(b) (i) were imposed
(ii) have been imposed
(iii) were being imposed
(iv) had been imposed
Class X English www.vedantu.com 14
Ans: (ii) have been imposed
(c) (i) are acquitted
(ii) were being acquitted
(iii) had been acquitted
(iv) were acquitted
Ans: (iii) had been acquitted
9. The following passage has not been edited. There is an error in each line
against which a blank is given. Write the incorrect word and the correction
in your answer sheet against the correct blank number as given in the
example. Remember to underline the word that you have supplied.
3 Marks
When Saina Nehwal land in e.g. land - landed
Hyderabad, his face was radiant (a) ----------- -----------
Ans: his - her
Of joy and happiness. The warm (b) ---------- -----------
Ans: of - with
welcome who she received made (c) _______ _______
Ans: who - which
her emotional. She said if she (d) ________ ________
Ans: if - that
hadn't expected to seeing so (e) _______ ______
Ans: seeing - see
many people which had travelled (f) _______ ________
Class X English www.vedantu.com 15
Ans: which - who
all the way to congratulate her
10. Look at the words and phrases given below. Rearrange them to form
meaningful sentences as shown. 1 × 3 = 3 Marks
For example:
person / physically / a / was / she / handicapped
She was a physically handicapped person.
(a) sat up / chair / wheel/in a / she / so
Ans: so she sat up in a wheelchair.
(b) an / took her / brother / her / ,apple / orchard / to
Ans: Her brother took her to an apple orchard.
(c) a tree / with / laden / saw / red apples / she
Ans: she saw a tree laden with red apples.
11. Read the following dialogue between Garima and Karan. Complete the
dialogue by filling in the gaps appropriately. 1 × 3 = 3 Marks
Garima: So, after a decade in the industry, are you truly 'satisfied'?
Karan: I love the film industry. It has its flaws though.
Garima: What do you mean by this statement?
Karan: We are a bunch of competitive, ambitious, sometimes petty people.
But the passion cements us together.
Garima asked Karan if after a decade in the industry (a) _____________ .
Karan told her (b) ______ although it had its flaws. Garima then enquired
Class X English www.vedantu.com 16
(c)______ . Karan explained that they were a bunch of competitive,
ambitious, sometimes petty people but the passion cemented them together.
Ans:
(a) Whether he was satisfied
(b) That he loved the industry
(c) what he meant from the statement he said
SECTION - D
(Literature/Text Books) 35 Marks
12. (a) Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow.
1 × 4 = 4 Marks
We kids would be pushed aside with a mild rebuke and the loaves would be
delivered to the servant. But we would not give up. We would climb a bench
or the parapet and peep into the basket, somehow. I can still recall the typical
fragrance of those loaves. Loaves for the elders and the bangles for the
children.
(i) Who are 'we' in the passage?
Ans: The narrator and his companions are referred to as "we" throughout the
passage.
(ii) Why were the children pushed aside?
Ans: So that the servants could grab their bread, the youngsters were shoved
aside.
(iii) Why did they still follow the baker?
Ans: The baker was regarded as a friend, comrade, and leader by the youngsters.
They were drawn to the bread loaves because of their delicious aroma. They only
cared about the bread-bangles or the special sweet loaves made just for them. As
a result, they would dash to meet him.
Class X English www.vedantu.com 17
(iv) Which word/phrase in the passage means the same as 'an expression of
disapproval/a scolding'?
Ans: In the extract, the term "rebuke" implies "a statement of disapproval/a
scolding."
(b) Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow.
1 × 4 = 4 Marks
LOMOV : [greatly moved] Honoured Stepan Stepanovitch, do you think I
may count on her consent?
CHUBUKOV: Why, of course, my darling, and ... as if she won't consent!
She's in love; egad, she's like a lovesick cat, and so on. Shan't be long!
(i) What does Lomov want to be assured of?
Ans: Lomov wants to be certain that Natalya will agree to his marriage proposal.
(ii) Why does he want this assurance?
Ans: Lomov wants to know for sure if Natalya would agree to his marriage
proposal. He is worried about his marriage because he is thirty-five years old. As
a result, he believes he should live a calm and routine existence. He is looking for
a place to call home.
(iii) Why is Chubukov sure of Natalya's consent?
Ans: Natalya was in love with Lomov, therefore Chubukov was confident that
she would agree to the proposal. As a result, she would say yes to the marriage
proposal. In addition, she desired to marry.
(iv) Which word in the passage means the same as 'agree'?
Ans: The word in the passage that means the same as ‘agree’ is ‘consent’.
13. Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow by
choosing the most appropriate options. Attempt any two 3 × 2 = 6 Marks
(A) Custard the dragon had big sharp teeth,
Class X English www.vedantu.com 18
And spikes on top of him and scales underneath,
Mouth like a fireplace, chimney for a nose,
And realio, trulio daggers on his toes.
(a) The above lines tell us about
(i) kitten
(ii) mouse
(iii) dog
(iv) Custard
Ans: (iv) Custard
(b) It is a description of the
(i) appearance of the dragon
(ii) courage of the dragon
(iii) heroism of the dragon
(iv) cowardice of the dragon
Ans: (i) appearance of the dragon
(c) The rhyme scheme of the stanza is
(i) a a ; a b
(ii) a b ; a b
(iii) a a ; b b
(iv) a b ; b b
Ans: (iii) a a; b b
(B) The fog comes
on little cat feet.
Class X English www.vedantu.com 19
It sits looking
over harbour and city
(a) "It" in the above lines refers to
(i) the cat
(ii) the harbour
(iii) the fog
(iv) the city
Ans: (iii) the fog
(b) Like a cat it moves
(i) silently
(ii) upward
(iii) very fast
(iv) over harbour and city
Ans: (i) silently
(c) "It sits looking .... " The poetic device used here is
(i) simile
(ii) personification
(iii) metaphor
(iv) alliteration
Ans: The poetic device used in this sentence is a metaphor.
(C) So they show their relations to me and I accept them. They bring me
tokens of myself, they evince them plainly in their possession.
(a) In the above lines 'they' stand for
Class X English www.vedantu.com 20
(i) listeners
(ii) audience
(iii) animals
(iv) Viewers
Ans: (iii) Animals
(b) The author feels related to them as they remind him o
(i) his ego
(ii) the basic qualities of his nature
(iii) inhuman characteristics
(iv) his greed
Ans: (ii) the basic qualities of his nature
(c) They seem to possess those qualities that man has chosen to
(i) Ignore
(ii) deny
(iii) drop
(iv) All of the above
Ans: (iv) All of the above
14. Answer any three of the following questions III about 40 - 50 words each:
2 × 3 = 6 Marks
(a) Describe Coorg's weather. When is it the most pleasant for the tourists to
visit Coorg?
Class X English www.vedantu.com 21
Ans: During the months of September to March, the weather in Coorg is nice.
The weather is ideal at that time, with a few drops of rain tossed in for good
measure. It gets a lot of rain during the monsoon.
(b) What is the Chinese legend associated with the discovery of tea?
Ans: Approximately 3,000 years before Christ, emperor Shen-Nung discovered
tea by accident, according to Chinese legend: The emperor and his entourage set
up camp under the shade of a big tree. A fire was built, and a kettle of boiling
water was ready. Twigs of tea leaves from the tree fell into the boiling water one
day while heating water. The king loved it after drinking it and found it was
because of the tea leaves that it tasted so good. Thus, tea was discovered.
(c) Why did Prince Siddhartha Gautama leave the palace and become a
beggar?
Ans: While hunting, Prince Siddhartha came upon a sick man, an elderly man, a
funeral procession, and lastly a monk begging for alms. As a result, he fled the
palace and became a beggar in order to seek enlightenment.
(d) The author says: 'The baker and his family never starved.' Why does he
say so? Give reasons.
Ans: Baking was a lucrative business that was carried on by the bakers' offspring.
Any special event necessitated a particular style of a bakery. The bakers' family
members were also fat, indicating that the bakers and their family had never gone
hungry.
15. Answer the following question in about 80 words: 5 Marks
How did the otter behave in the beginning? How did he become familiar with
the author?
Ans: At first, the Otter acted strangely; he was neither aggressive nor friendly; he
was merely distant and uninterested. He slept on the floor, a little distance from
the author's bed. On the second night, though, Mijbil climbed into the author's
bed and slept between his knees. During the day, he became more energetic and
lively, taking a great interest in his surroundings.
Class X English www.vedantu.com 22
Or
What kind of person is Valli? Illustrate your answer from the text that you
have read.
Ans: Valli was a determined, self-assured, and fearless young lady. She was a
good planner and executor as well. She made several sacrifices in order to realise
her ambition. She, for example, resisted the urge to purchase candy and ride the
merry-go-round at the fair in order to save money for the bus journey. It is quite
tough for a youngster to give up all of these things at such a young age. She also
acted boldly on the bus, without flinching or becoming agitated in the company
of seniors. Valli did not yield (surrender) to the temptation of going out to tour
the town or have a drink when the bus arrived in town. She did this since she only
had a certain amount of money and wanted to preserve it for her return trip. Valli
used her money carefully as a result. She declined the conductor's offer of a drink,
demonstrating exemplary manners. This demonstrates that she was also a
courteous and cautious young lady, as it is quite difficult to trust individuals in
today's world. All of these characteristics set her apart from other youngsters her
age.
16. Answer the following question in about 80 words : 4 Marks
What does Bill say about Lutkin's character to the narrator?
Ans: Bill informed the narrator that Lutkins was a big poker player. He said that
he had never paid anyone a penny and that Lutkins owed him fifty cents from a
poker game. Bill said that Lutkins was not a terrible guy; it was simply difficult
to persuade him to hand over his cash. He also told him that Lutkins was a master
of deception. He brought him to every possible location where Lutkins may be.
Or
On the basis of your understanding of the story, sketch the character of
Bholi.
Ans: Bholi was a neglected kid and the fourth daughter of Ramlal, a rural revenue
officer. Bholi had had pox as a kid, which left scars on her face, as well as a head
injury that caused her to think slower than other children her age. She stuttered
Class X English www.vedantu.com 23
because she learnt to speak late. She was uneducated and despised by her family
and the rest of the townspeople. Her physical condition, as well as how others
treated her, left her feeling insecure and introverted. She was just like any other
youngster who adored Lakshmi, her pet cow. Her reluctance to attend school
demonstrates that she was also unaware of long-standing conventions and
traditions, but nevertheless saw them as evil and dreaded them. She became a
confident, easy-speaking, and compassionate girl after receiving knowledge and
support from her instructor.
17. Answer any two of the following questions in about 40 - 50 words each:
3 × 2 = 6 Marks
(a)According to the author, what are the qualities that go into the making of
a scientist?
Ans: The author lists three traits that go into being a scientist: a sharp intellect,
curiosity, and the will to succeed for the right reasons. Richard Ebright was an
exceptionally bright student.
(b) Why did Jeanne not recognize her friend, Matilda?
Ans: After a busy work schedule and a lot of pressure to settle the debt, Mme
Loisel seemed aged and haggard. Her hair and clothing had become unkempt.
Her palms turned crimson, and her voice grew loud and obnoxious. As a result,
Jeanne was unable to recognise her.
(c) How does Think-Tank interpret the library found by his crew on Earth?
Why does he ask Omega to eat a book?
Ans: Captain Omega is asked to eat a sandwich by Think-Tank after he declares
books to be sandwiches. Think-Tank wanted to confirm his doubt of the books
being edible. Captain Omega instructs his hapless subordinate to consume the
sandwich. Sergeant Oop is given the sandwich by Iota, who tells him to consume
it right now. He consumes it for the sake of Mars' honour. After consuming it, he
makes horrifying expressions. It irritates him.
Class X English www.vedantu.com 24
CBSE Class 10
English (language and literature)
Previous Year Question Paper 2012
Series: BRH Code no. 2/1
● Please check that this question paper contains 15 printed pages.
● Code number given on the right hand side of the question paper
should be written on the title page of the answer-book by the
candidate.
● Please check that this question paper contains 17 questions.
● Please write down the Serial Number of the question before
attempting it.
● 15 minutes time has been allotted to read this question paper. The'
question paper will be distributed at 10.15 a.m. From 10.15 a.m. to
10.30 a.m., the students will read the question paper only and will
not write any answer on the answer script during this period.
SUMMATIVE ASSESSMENT - II
ENGLISH
(Language and Literature)
Time Allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 80
General Instructions:
(i) The Question paper is divided into four sections :
Section A Reading 15 Marks
Section B Writing 15 Marks
Section C Grammar 15 Marks
Class X English www.vedantu.com 1
Section D Literature / Text Books 35 Marks
(ii) All questions are compulsory.
(iii) Marks are indicated against each question
SECTION - A
(Reading) 15 Marks
1. Read the passage given below and complete the sentences that follow by
choosing the most appropriate options 5 Marks
My peers always thought of me as a dull boy when I was in school and my
teachers never thought differently. That was because I was indeed a dull boy.
I was a backbencher, after all.
I "could never have been a frontbencher for obvious reasons. I had a
persistent paranoia of being under the watchful eye of the teacher. It used to
make me self-conscious and I hated being under supervision right from
childhood. I wanted to be my own boss. I have no regrets about having been
a backbencher. It is true that I used to occupy one of the seats in the last row
of the class but that does not mean that I did not listen to the teacher or that
I cheated on homework.
In England, there used to be a dunce's corner for students who were slow.
learners. A student in the dunce's corner.was supposed to be the rough
equivalent of a backbencher in our country. Some eminent personalities
from whom teachers didn't have very high expectations early on in life
included ~ the inventor, Thomas Alva Edison, as well as entrepreneurs, Steve
Jobs and Bill Gates. I feel honored to be in their company! There are others,
of course, who prefer to make funny sounds, complete pending homework
and throw chalks at other students - all sitting on those 'privileged seats'.
Believe me, it feels great! Because you not only learn whatever is taught but
also get a back-eye-view of everything that happens in the class.
(a) The paragraph describes
(i) the simple joys of the frontbenchers
(ii) the simple joys of the backbenchers
(iii) the regrets of the author
Class X English www.vedantu.com 2
(iv) the achievements of the author
Ans: the simple joys of the backbenchers
(b) The backbencher is considered a
(i) popular studer:t
(ii) bright student
(iii) dull student
(iv) teacher's favourite
Ans: dull student
(c) The backbencher feels great because he/she
(i) can complete pending homework
(ii) can make funny sounds
(iii) can have a back-eye-view of everything that happens in the class
(iv) gets an opportunity to eat snacks in between
Ans: can have a back-eye-view of everything that happens in the class
(d) The expression, 'privileged seats' refers to
(i) seats reserved for teachers' favourite students
(ii) the last seats meant for the dull students
(iii) seats for eminent persons like Bill Gates and Edison
(iv) frontbenchers ,
Ans: the last seats meant for the dull students
(e) The' author preferred to sit in the last row because
(i) he was afraid of his teachers
(ii) he always cheated on his homework
(iii) he wanted to listen carefully what was being taught in the class
(iv) he hated to be under the watchful eye of the teacher
Class X English www.vedantu.com 3
Ans: he hated to be under the watchful eye of the teacher
2. Read the poem given below and choose the most appropriate answer to
each question out of the options that follow: 5 Marks
Where the mind is without fear and the head is held high;
Where knowledge is free;
Where the world has not been broken up into fragments by narrow domestic
walls;
Where words come out from the depth of truth;
Where tireless striving stretches its arms towards perfection;
Where the clear stream of reason has not lost its way into the dreary desert
sand of dead habit;
Where the mind is led forward by thee into ever-widening thought and
action-
Into that heaven of freedom, my Father, let my country awake.
(Rabindranath Tagore)
(a) The poem talks about a place where
(i) there is peace and harmony
(ii) people live in fear
(iii) 'people fight with one another
(iv) there is no freedom
Ans: there is peace and harmony
(b) 'Knowledge is free' means
(i) education for all
(ii) education free of cost
(iii) education for the rich
(iv) education for the poor
Class X English www.vedantu.com 4
Ans: education free of cost
(c) The phrase, 'narrow domestic walls' refers to
(i) houses with narrow walls
(ii) divisions of the world
(iii) country divided on the lines of caste and religion
(iv) thin walls of a house .
Ans: country divided on the lines of caste and religion
(d) The people of this country should be guided by
(i) logic
(ii) traditions
(iii) habits
(iv) customs
Ans; customs
(e) Who is being addressed in this poem?
(i) People
(ii) Poet
(iii) God
(iv) Country
Ans: God
3. Read the passage given below: 5 Marks
One day a rich father took his young son on a trip to the country with the
firm purpose to show him how poor people can be. They spent a day and a
night in the farm of a poor family. When they got back from their trip the
father asked his son, "How was the trip ?" ''Very good, Dad!". "Did you see
how poor people can be ? The father asked. "Yeahl" "And what did you
learn ?"
Class X English www.vedantu.com 5
The son answered, "I saw that we have a dog at home, and they have four.
We have a pool that reaches to the middle of the garden, they have a creek
that has no end. We have imported lamps "- in the garden, they have the
stars. Our patio reaches to the front yard, they have a whole horizon."
When the little boy was finishing, his father was speechless.
His son added, "Thanks, Dad, for showing me how poor we are!" Isn't it true
that it all depends on the way you look at things? If you have love, friends,
family, health, good humour and a positive attitude towards life, you've got
everything!
You can't buy any of these things. You can have all the material possessions
you can imagine, but if you are poor of spirit, you have nothing!
Complete the following sentences based on your reading of the passage above
in your own words.
(a) In the eyes of the boy _________________________________ were poor
Ans: they were not rich, but
(b) The author's purpose in the passage is to show that ___________
Ans: People with a low spirit will never comprehend the worth of what they
already have.
(c) The father took his son on a trip to the country because ____________
Ans: He wanted to demonstrate to his son how impoverished people may be.
(d) The boy's father was speechless because _________________
Ans: His son taught him that changing our viewpoint can help us recognise how
fortunate we are.
(e) The word In the passage which means the same as 'a short journey'
is________________
Ans: trip
SECTION - B
(Writing) 15 Marks
Class X English www.vedantu.com 6
4. You are Pranav / Priya, a resident of B-3/232, Sector 13, Dwarka, N. Delhi,
living in a rented house. The rainy season has set in. The house needs urgent
repairs. Write a l~tter, in about 100 words, to your landlord living at 450,
Sector 20, Chandigarh, asking him to undertake the repair work
immediately. (Hints:leaking roof, loose electrical fittings, paint and polish)
6 Marks
Ans:
B-3/232
Sector 13
Dwarka
N. Delhi
March 24, 2021
450
Sector 20
Chandigarh
Subject: House in need of immediate repairs
Dear Sir,
I hope this finds you in good health and spirits. I'm writing to let you know that
the house need quick repair. As you may be aware, leakage and moisture are
common throughout the rainy season. I've discovered a couple leaks in the
drawing room. The paint has begun to flake. The drain lines are clogged with
water. Electric wiring and switches must also be changed.
I hope you are in excellent health and spirits as I write this. I'm writing to inform
you that the house need immediate repair. Leakage and wetness are prevalent
during the rainy season, as you may be aware. In the drawing room, I noticed a
few of leaks. The paint has started to peel. Water has blocked the drain pipes.
Changes must also be made to the electrical wiring and switches.
Class X English www.vedantu.com 7
Thank you.
Yours sincerely,
Pranav
Or
You are Diwaker / Devika living at A-10, Green Park, N. Delhi. Write a letter
to a friend in about 100 'words, telling himlher about the interesting things
which you noticed at the wedding reception of the sister of one of your
common friends at Chandigarh.
Ans:
Devika Pathak
A-10, Green Park
New Delhi
12th March, 2021
Dear Shruti,
As I write this letter, I hope you are in good health. How are uncle and aunty
doing? It's been a long time since we've seen each other.
I was recently invited to my friend's sister's wedding celebration in Chandigarh.
It was really intriguing. The invitees had to adhere to a colour scheme of black or
white, as well as a dress code of formals or tradition. The bride and groom's
relatives and friends arranged dance routines. It was my first time witnessing such
setups.
I wish you could have been there to see it as well. In any case, look for yourself.
I'll see you shortly.
Lovingly,
Devika
Class X English www.vedantu.com 8
5. There is a massive influx of people into the metropolitan cities from the
villages and the small towns of the country. It is giving rise to slums and also
causing pressure on civic amenities. Write an article in about 120 words
expressing your opinion on why this influx is taking place and how this
problem can be solved. You are Shreyas / Shruti. You can use the hints given
below.
(Hints: coming for jobs- ·live in slums, pressure on transport,
accommodation, schools, etc. - needs planning - job opportunities in villages
and towns to be created) 6 Marks
Ans: Influx In Metropolitan Cities
By, Shruti
People migrate to cities in search of better livelihood prospects. Lets face it
farming in India has never been lucrative for the poor, read about the debt ridden
farmers in Punjab killing themselves by consuming pesticides. Farming has
stayed the predominant activity in villages. Income from farming is on a decline
when you look at small village households. The availability of work has resulted
in a large inflow of individuals to urban centres. They dwell in slums, putting a
strain on transportation, housing, and other public facilities. As a result, it
necessitates preparation.
This may be accomplished through establishing work possibilities in rural and
small-town areas.
Alternative sources of income are mostly non existent. If people can sustain a
living where they are, they would probably not move. So, if you solve their
problem of livelihood, it would probably deter them from moving to cities. Some
amount of influx will always be there and should be there, cause people are
allowed to choose where they want to be.
Or
You are Rohan / Ritu, a student of Class Xth of Sarvodya Senior Secondary
School, Janakpuri, N. Delhi. Your school is holding an inter-house
declamation contest on the topic, 'Books Are Our Best Friends'. Write your
speech in about 120 words. You can use the hints given below.
(Hints : books enlighten, I cheer, encourage, break loneliness, never leave in
need, a welcome escape from boredom)
Ans: Speech
Class X English www.vedantu.com 9
Books Are Our Best Friends
By, Ritu
Good morning everyone, respected Principal, teaches and my dear friends,
welcome to the inter house declamation content, I am here to speak on the topic
of Books Are Our Best Friends. When it comes to affection, good friends are
trustworthy and unconditional. If that's the case, aren't books our best friends?
They provide us a rich trove of knowledge without expecting anything in return.
Books, unlike fair-weathered pals who only come around during the good times,
keep us company at all times. Books allow us to encounter things we would not
have otherwise if we were locked in our everyday routines. They change us by
the information they impart on us. We study culture, science, literature, and the
universe. Books teach us values, introduce us to various sensibilities, and help us
become more accepting. Books not only provide us with entertainment, but they
also provide us with knowledge.They are the most convenient ways to avoid
boredom. They entertain and keep us busy at the same time, just like a genuine
buddy.
6. You are Pawan / Preeti, a young reporter of The Daily Times, N. Delhi:
Recently you witnessed an explosion in a bus killing 2 and injuring 25. Being
an eye witness, write a report, in about 80 words, for your newspaper giving
heading, date, bus number, persons killed, injured and saved. 3 Marks
Ans: Report Writing
Explosion in Bus to Uttam Nagar
Preeti
25th August 2012
On New Delhi, two people were killed and 25 others were injured when an
explosion occurred in a bus on its route to Uttam Nagar. The event occurred on
August 21, 2014, during peak hours.
The explosion happened only half an hour after bus number 5 left the depot. The
explosion harmed both men and women, as well as children. The injured were
promptly sent to Raj Narayan Hospital. The hunt for the perpetrators of the blast
has begun.
Class X English www.vedantu.com 10
Or
Develop the following outline into a story in about 80 words A young boy
traveling by train. has a briefcase containing a lot of money befriends a
fellow traveler to buy snacks train stops boy goes out returns briefcase gone.
Ans: Story
One day, a small boy boarded a train. He was carrying a large brown suitcase
with a large quantity of money. He casually struck up a conversation with a fellow
train passenger. After a time, the train came to a halt at a specific station. The
youngster with the brown bag, who had befriended a fellow traveller at this point,
desired some food. He walked away for a bit, leaving his money bag with the
other man. When he returned, he was astounded to discover that his money bag,
as well as the man in whose possession he had left it, had vanished.
SECTION - C
(Grammar) 15 Marks
7. Complete the following passage by choosing the appropriate words from
the given options. 3 Marks
The tiny sand fly (a)________ the deadly Kala Azar, . a parasitic disease.
This disease (b)_______ hundreds every year and can also (c)__________
______ death. It (d)_______ now. to be made part of school textbooks in
Bihar (e)___________ awareness about the fly. The Bihar
Government.(f)______________________to introduce a new chapter on
from next year.
A. 1. Causes 2. Caused 3. Will cause 4. Causing
B. 1. Affect 2. Affected 3 affects 4 is affected
C. 1. Will cause 2. Cause 3. Has caused 4. To cause
D. 1. Was 2. Had 3. Has 4. Is
E. 1. Can create 2. To create 3. Has created 4. Created
F. 1. Has decided 2. Will decide 3. Decided 4. Had
decided
Class X English www.vedantu.com 11
Ans:
A. Causes
B. Affects
C. Cause
D. Is
E. To create
F. Has decided
8. Given below are the notes taken by a reporter regarding the Health
Check-up, Camp organized at DAV School premises recently. Study the
given notes and complete the following paragraph by filling III the spaces
from the given options. 3 Marks
• general .physicians and specialists from Escorts Hospital carried out health
check-up for general health, E.N.T., blood pressure, blood sugar
• organized an interactive session on heart problems for the senior citizens
• lecture on 'Yoga tips for good health' - a huge success.
Health check-up for general health, KN.T., blood sugar and blood pressure
(a)________ by general physicians and specialists from Escorts Hospital. An
interactive s~ssion on heart problems (b)___________ for senior citizens.
Lecture on Yoga tips for good health (c)________________ a huge success.
(a)
(i) is carried out
(ii) has carried out
(iii) was carried out
(iv) has been carried out
Ans: (iii) was carried out
Class X English www.vedantu.com 12
(b)
(i) has organised
(ii) organised
(iii) was being organised
(iv) was organised
Ans: (iv) was organized
(c)
(i) Was
(ii) has been
(iii) can
(iv) has
Ans: (i) Was
9. The following passage has not, been edited. There is an error in each line
against which a blank is given. Write the incorrect word and the correction
in your answer sheet against the correct blank number as given in the
example. Remember to underline the word that you have supplied. 3 Marks
Sentence Incorrect Correct
Master Chandgi Ram's daughter, Deepika e.g. have has
Kaliraman have
set up the wrestling centre
of girls in village Pochanpur, Dwarka
Deepika is an eldest daughter of
Class X English www.vedantu.com 13
a wrestling guru, Chandgi Ram.,
After the guru passed on a year ago,
Deepika took it upon himself to carry on
the legacy of her father. ------------- ---------------
Ans:
Incorrect Correct
e.g. have has
The A
Of For
An The
A The
On Away
Himself Herself
10. Look at the words and phrases given below. Rearrange them to form
meaningful sentences as shown in the example. 3 Marks
For example : are / Indian temples / store-house / a / Indian art / of
Indian temples are a store~house of Indian art.
(a) the temple architecture / form an / sculpture and painting / of /
essential part
Ans: Sculpture and painting form an essential part of temple architecture.
(b) is / situated in / Konark Temple / north-eastern part of Puri / the
Ans: Konark Temple is situated in the north- eastern part of Puri.
(c) of a chariot / the temple / in the form / is
Class X English www.vedantu.com 14
Ans: The temple is in the form of a chariot.
11. Read the following dialogue between a mother and her son. Complete'
the paragraph- that follows by filling in the gaps appropriately. 3 Marks
Marie: Did you see my new umbrella ? Isn't it fine. '?
Tony: Yes, it is! Did you buy it from the Mall ?
Marie : No, your father has brought it for me.
Marie asked her son Tony (a)___________ and she His mother replied in the
negative wanted to know whether it was a fine one. Tony agreed and asked
his mother (b)_________ and added that (c) ________
Ans: a) whether he saw her umbrella
b) if she bought it from the mall
c) Tony’s father had bought it for her.
SECTION - D
(Literature/Text Books) 35 Marks
12. (a) Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow.
4 Marks
So the world is afflicted with death and decay, therefore the wise do not
grieve, knowing the terms of the world.
"Not from weeping nor from grieving will anyone obtain peace of mind; on
the contrary, his pain will be the greater and his body will suffer. He will
make himself sick and pale,' yet the dead are not saved by his lamentation.
He who seeks peace should draw out the arrow of lamentation, and
complaint, and grief."
(i) Why did Buddha give this sermon to Kisa Gotami?
Ans: As she lamented the death of her son, Buddha delivered this lecture to Kisa
Gotami in order to let her comprehend the inevitability of death.
Class X English www.vedantu.com 15
(ii) What fact of life did Buddha convey to Gotami in this' sermon?
Ans: Buddha told Gotami that humans' lives in this world are short. It must come
to an end, and no one can halt it, nor can anybody impact a deceased person by
his or her lamenting.
(iii) How can one obtain peace?
Ans: We can only find peace when we totally abandon all lamentations,
complaints, and sadness in our life.
(iv) Which word in the passage means the same as 'affected by suffering or
pain'?
Ans: The word ‘grief’ means the same as 'affected by suffering or pain’.
(b) Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow.
4 Marks
I whipped off the lock and tore open the lid, and Mij, exhausted and blood-
spattered, whimpered and caught at my leg. He had torn the lining of the
box to shreds; when I removed the last of it so that there were no cutting
edges left, it was just ten minutes until the time of the flight, and the airport
was five miles distant. I put the miserable Mij back into the box, holding
down the lid with my hand.
(i) What did Mij do to the box?
Ans: Mij ripped the box's interior lining to bits.
(ii) What was Mij's condition when he emerged from the box?
Ans: Mij was tired and crying when he emerged from the box, blood splattered.
(iii) Why was the author in a hurry to reach the airport?
Ans: The airport was five miles distant, and his flight was scheduled to take off
in ten minutes. As a result, the author was in a rush to go to the airport.
(iv) Find the word in the passage which means the same as 'worn out'.
Ans: Exhausted is a term that meaning the same as worn out.
13. Read the extracts given below and answer the questions that follow by
choosing the most appropriate options. Do any two extracts 6 Marks
Class X English www.vedantu.com 16
(A) So they show their relations to me and I accept them, They bring me
tokens of myself, they evince them plainly in their possession.
(a) The speaker accepts that
(i) animals are better than men
(ii) animals are his best friends
(iii) there is a close relation between man and animal
(iv) all of the above
Ans: (i) animals are better than men
(b) By 'tokens of myself the speaker means
(i) animals are like men
(ii) coins dropped by the speaker
(iii) they remind him of the basic values of the human beings
(iv) the marks of animal's goodness
Ans: (iii) they remind him of the basic values of the human beings
(c) Animals have the 'tokens' dropped by man.
(i) retained and preserved
(ii) searched
(iii) robbed
(iv) lost
Ans: (i) retained and preserved
(B) "I heard an old religious man
But yesternight declare
That he found a text to prove
That only God, my dear,
Could love you for yourself alone
And not your yellow hair."
Class X English www.vedantu.com 17
(a) The speaker proves his stand by quoting _
(i) religious preaching
(ii) an old religious man
(iii) an old religious text
(iv) both (ii) and (iii)
Ans: (iv) both (ii) and (iii)
(b) The speaker wants to, convince the listener that the young lover loves her
for her
(i) intelligence
(ii) youth
(iii) physical beauty
(iv) qualities
Ans: (iii) physical beauty
(c) According to the text themselves.
(i) a true lover
(ii) only God
(iii) an old man
(iv) an old religious man
Ans: (ii) only God
(C) The fog comes on little cat feet.
It sits looking .
over harbour and city
on silent haunches
(a) The poet compares the fog with
(i) little cat
Class X English www.vedantu.com 18
(ii) haunches
(iii) feet of the little cat
(iv) city
Ans: (i) little cat
(b) 'It sits looking': 'It' here refers to
(i) harbour
(ii) fog
(iii) cat
(iv) wind
Ans: (ii) fog
(c) The figure of speech used by the poet is
(i) simile
(ii) alliteration
(iii) metaphor
(iv) personification
Ans: (iv) personification
14. Answer any three of the following questions in 40 - 50 words each:
6 Marks
(a) After her son's death, why does Kisa Gotami go from house to house?
Ans: Kisa Gotami was distraught when her only son died. All she wanted was for
him to come back to life. She brought him to every house in her neighborhood,
hoping that someone would offer her some medication that might resurrect her
dead son.
(b) How· is the Goan baker still an important part of the life of a Goan village
?
Class X English www.vedantu.com 19
Ans: Bakers are an important part of Goan culture. They are a vital element of all
festivals and special events. Marriage presents are useless unless they include ‘bol,'
a type of sweet bread. Aside from bread, the baker also provides pastries and
bolinhas, which are essential during holidays like Christmas.
(c) Why does Lomov wish to propose to Natalya ?
Ans: Lomov thinks it's a waste of time to wait for real love. He has reached the
critical age of thirty-five and is suffering from a variety of medical issues. He is
pleased that Natalia is well educated, attractive, and an outstanding housekeeper.
He feels she is ideal for being his wife because they had been neighbours for a
long time.
(d) What happened when· Maxwell took Mijbil to the bathroom? What
happened two days after ?
Ans: Mijbil was an otter that adored water, as do all otters. When Maxwell took
Mijbil to the bathroom, he immediately leapt into the tub and splashed water
everywhere for over 30 minutes. Mijbil walked into the bathroom by himself two
days later and hopped into the bath tub. After a time of attempting, he was able
to turn on the tap at full speed.
15. Answer the following question in about 80 words 5 Marks
What type of person is Natalya ? Give two examples to -show her
quarrelsome nature.
Ans: Natalya was the lovely young daughter of a farmer named Stepan
Tschubukov. She was a great housekeeper, but she was also a bit of a jerk. She
might be cheerful and inviting one moment and haughty and obstinate the next.
Like her father, she was possessive and egoistic. In terms of social status, she
considered her family to be superior to the rest. She didn't allow Lomov say
anything further after he mentioned the meadow. The debate on this subject
resulted in a heated dispute.
Or
What are the various legends about the origin of tea?
Ans: The discovery and genesis of tea are the subject of several tales and myths.
The tea was discovered in China, according to legend. Boiling water was a
favourite beverage of the Chinese Emperor. A few leaves from a twig burning
Class X English www.vedantu.com 20
beneath the pot fell into it once while it was boiling. The Emperor thought the
flavour was delectable. Tea leaves were later given to them. Another tale claims
that when an ancient Buddhist monk named Bodhidharma became drowsy during
meditation, he chopped off his eyelids. His eyelids sprouted ten tea plants. As a
result, the tea was found.
16. Answer the following question in about 80 words 4 Marks
How did a book become a turning point in Richard Ebright's life?
Ans: Richard Ebright used to be a butterfly collector. He thought he had gathered
all the species of butterflies at the age of two, having collected twenty-five in
total. However, after reading the book "The Travels of Monarch X," he realised
that butterflies could migrate and could be found all over the world. As a result,
his zeal was reignited. He also helped with the research that was done on the
issue. As a result, he realised that in the realm of science, the possibilities are
endless.
OR
How was Bholi 'like a dumb cow' ? How did she become a confident person?
Ans: Bholi the simpleton was sent to school by her father Ramlal, just as he had
sent away the useless cow Lakshmi. Ramlal was under the impression that
sending Bholi to school would free him of her responsibilities. Bholi learned to
gain confidence and knowledge under the caring guidance of her schoolteacher.
Bholi stunned everyone when she refused to marry the man who demanded a
higher dowry. She expressed her independence by stating that rather than
marrying someone who did not love her, she would spend her life educating
others and serving her parents.
17. Answer any two· of the following questions in 40 - 50 words each:
6 Marks
(a) Mention any two of Ebright's contributions to the world of SCIence.
Ans: Richard Ebright and a classmate presented their idea on how cells operate
in the Proceedings of the National Academy of Science when they were 22. It
was the first time the magazine had included college students' work.
Class X English www.vedantu.com 21
(b) What was the lawyer's first impression of Lutkins ? Why did he change
his opinion about him later on ?
Ans: Oliver Lutkins' honesty and helpfulness first pleased the lawyer. By acting
as Bill and volunteering to assist him in finding Lutkins, he had gained the
lawyer's trust. He invoiced the lawyer for each service he provided. He soon
learned about Lutkins' deception, but it was too late. He realised Bill was not the
honest man he had thought he was; in reality, he was a fraud.
(c) For what unusual reasons did Ramlal send Bholi to school ?
Ans: Ramlal was to set an example for the community by sending his daughters
to school as the Numberdar. He was afraid to send his other daughters because he
feared that educating them would jeopardise their prospects of marrying. Bholi
was stupid and ugly, so he knew no guy would want to marry her. He also
understood that with Bholi at school, the family would not have to worry about
her because the school officials would be in charge of her.
Class X English www.vedantu.com 22
CBSE Class 10
English (Language and Literature)
Previous Year Question Paper 2013
Series: RSH/1 Code no. 2/1/1
● Please check that this question paper contains 16 printed pages.
● Code number given on the right hand side of the question paper should be
written on the title page of the answer-book by the candidate.
● Please check that this question paper contains 18 questions.
● Please write down the Serial Number of the question before attempting
it.
● 15 minute time has been allotted to read this question paper. The question
paper will be distributed at 10.15 a.m. From 10.15 a.m. to 10.30 a.m., the
students will read the question paper only and will not write any answer on
the answer-script during this period.
SUMMATIVE ASSESSMENT - II
ENGLISH (Language and Literature)
Time Allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 90
General Instructions :
(i) The Question paper is divided into four sections :
Section A — Reading 20 Marks
Class X English www.vedantu.com 1
Section B — Writing 20 Marks
Section C — Grammar 25 Marks
Section D — Literature + value bases question 30 + 05 = 35 Marks
(ii) All questions are compulsory.
(iii) Marks are indicated against each question.
SECTION - A
Reading 20 Marks
1. Read the passage given below and complete the sentences that follow by
choosing the most appropriate options: 5 Marks
The tree is worshipped as the earth mother in tribal India. It provides food, air,
occupation, materials for housing, fodder for animals and fuel. Without the
trees there is neither soil nor water. There is nothing to prevent the soil from
being washed away; there is nothing to prevent the water from evaporating. In
the great tribal regions of India which are home to the Bhils, the Santhals, the
Nagas, the Bishnois, whenever a child is born a tree is planted in the child’s
name. It forges a relationship between child and tree closer than the one
between child and family. Naturally so because that tree is specially the child’s
own. The trees are all slow growing. By the time the child reaches adolescence,
his tree has just come into fruit. It starts its life as provider to the tribal and the
tribal’s life as guardian of the tree.
Nearly three hundred years ago, men and women of the Bishnoi tribe died in
an attempt to stop the felling of trees. The Bishnoi faith prohibits the cutting of
green trees. It demands absolute protection of the ‘Khejri,’ the shade and
fodder tree of the area. As a result, their lands are still fertile, while all around
them fields have been reclaimed by the Thar Desert of Rajasthan.
(a) The tribals worship trees because trees provide them with....
(i) food and occupation
(ii) materials for housing
Class X English www.vedantu.com 2
(iii) fodder and fuel
(iv) all of the above
Ans: (iv) all of the above.
(b) The common practice adopted by the tribals at the time of a child’s birth is
…...
(i) To plant a tree in the child’s name
(ii) to name the child after a tree
(iii) to perform the rites under a tree
(iv) to arrange a feast in a forest
Ans: (i) To plant a tree in the child’s name.
(c) The advantage of the custom is that a mutual bond develops between …..
when the child becomes an adult.
(i) The land and the tree
(ii) The adolescent and the tree
(iii) The soil and the water
(iv) All of the above
Ans: (ii) The adolescent and the tree.
(d) The land of the Bishnois hasn’t become a desert because ….. .
(i) Trees cannot grow in a desert
(ii) The Bishnois have planted trees on their land
(iii) They died in an attempt to stop the cutting down of trees
(iv) All of the above
Ans: (ii) The Bishnois have planted trees on their land.
(e) The word in the passage which means the same as ‘areas/regions’ is ….. .
Class X English www.vedantu.com 3
(i) Desert
(ii) fodder
(iii) soil
(iv) tracts
Ans: (iv) tracts.
2. Read the passage given below and complete the sentences that follow by
choosing the most appropriate options: 5 Marks
In the year 1507 AD, the Portuguese sailors landing on the shores of the island
of Mauritius discovered a strange looking bird. It was large and stubby, and
could not fly. It had a hooked black beak, short yellow legs, grey-blue plumage,
and a tuft of pale coloured feathers for its tail. Since this bird had never seen
humans before, it was very friendly and trusting. In fact, the sailors mistook its
gentle nature for stupidity, and called it ‘Dodo,’ which meant simpleton in
Portuguese.
The dodo was an easy source of fresh meat for the Portuguese – and later, the
Dutch who came to the island in 1598 – because it could be easily captured due
to its friendliness. Dodos were killed in large numbers by the new inhabitants
of the island. Those that survived men had to face new enemies like dogs and
pigs that were introduced by these inhabitants. The dodo had no natural
enemies on the island, but these new animals, together with man, hastened its
extinction. By the year 1681, the last dodo had died, and today, the term ‘as
dead as dodo,’ means something that has disappeared entirely from the face of
the Earth.
(a) In 1507 AD the Portuguese sailors discovered a bird which was
………………….
(i) Strange looking
(ii) Large and stubby
(iii) Could not fly
(iv) All of the above
Class X English www.vedantu.com 4
Ans: (iv) All of the above.
(b) They mistook the bird for being foolish because it was……………….
(i) Unable to fly
(ii) Friendly and trusting
(iii) Had never seen humans before
(iv) Was an easy source of fresh meat
Ans: (ii) Friendly and trusting.
(c) The new enemies referred to in the passage are ……………… .
(i) Dogs and pigs
(ii) The Dutch
(iii) The Portuguese
(iv) All of the above
Ans: (i) Dogs and pigs.
(d) Dodos were wiped out from the face of the earth by ……………… .
(i) Their natural enemies
(ii) The sailors
(iii) Both men and the new animals
(iv) All of the above
Ans: (iii) Both men and new animals.
(e) The word in the passage which means the same as ‘destruction’ is
……………………. .
(i) Strange
(ii) Tuft
Class X English www.vedantu.com 5
(iii) Extinction
(iv) Plumage
Ans: (iii) Extinction.
3. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow: 5 Marks
A 92-year-old lady who is fully dressed each morning by eight o'clock with
perfect make-up, even though she is blind, moved to an old age home. Her
husband recently passed away making the move necessary. After many hours
of waiting patiently in the lobby she smiled sweetly when she was told her room
was ready. She was provided a visual description of her tiny room.
"I love it," she stated with the enthusiasm of an eight-year-old having just been
presented with a new puppy.
"But .... but Mrs. Jones, you haven't seen the room," said the attendant. "That
doesn't have anything to do with it," she replied. "Happiness is something you
decide. I have already decided to love it. It's a decision I make every morning
when I wake up. I can spend the day in bed, recounting the difficulty I have
with the parts of my body that don't work, or get out of bed and be thankful for
the ones that do. Each day is a gift, and as long as I am alive I'll focus on the
new day and all the happy memories I've stored away, just for this time in my
life." The attendant was greatly touched by the elderly woman's sense of cheer
and boundless enthusiasm.
(a)Why did the old woman move to an old age home?
Ans: The old woman was a 92 year - old lady whose husband had recently passed
away, making her move to an old age home necessary.
(b) How did she react when the attendant gave a description of the room she
had to live in?
Ans: The old woman exclaimed with enthusiasm “I love it” . She said it with the
zeal of an eight-year-old who had just been given a new dog.
(c) What resolution was she used to making when she woke up every morning?
Class X English www.vedantu.com 6
Ans: Mrs. Jones made the determination that happiness is a choice. She claims that
she makes this decision every morning when she gets out of bed. She goes on to
remark that she can either stay in bed and complain about the portions of her body
that don't work, or she may get out of bed and be grateful for the ones that do. She
also considers each day to be a gift.
(d) What does the story tell about the old woman?
Ans: According to the story, she is a highly cheerful and upbeat woman who
understands how to make the most of what she has rather than fretting about what
she lacks.
(e) Which word in the passage means the same as ‘without limit’?
Ans: The word in the passage which has the same meaning as ‘without limit’ is
‘Boundless.’
4. Read the poem given below and answer the questions that follow: 5 Marks
I Had a Dove
I had a dove, and the sweet dove died,
And I have thought it died of grieving;
O, what could it grieve for? Its feet were tied
With a silken thread of my own hand's weaving.
Sweet little red feet! Why should you die?
Why should you leave me, sweet bird, why?
You liv'd alone on the forest-tree,
Why, pretty thing, could you not live with me?
I kiss'd you oft, and gave you white peas;
Why not live sweetly as in the green trees?
John Keats
Class X English www.vedantu.com 7
(a)How did the dove die?
Ans: The dove died because it was grief - stricken. It is possible that the dove was
grieving because of the author. He appears to be selfish as he wants to cage the bird
with him forever.
(b) What were the dove's feet tied with?
Ans: The dove lived with the poet and its feet were tied with a silken thread which
the poet had woven with his hands. It shows how much he cared about the dove
which is a metaphor for a person in the poem for whom he carries deep love and
care.
(c) What does the expression, "Sweet little red feet" refer to?
Ans: It refers to the ‘fragile sweet feet of the bird’ which were delicate and tied to a
thread of silk. He used silk thread, which shows his good intentions; he didn't want
to hurt this individual, and he always had good intentions, but he couldn't. This loved
one appeared to the author as a dove, white, pure, but free, and like the dove, this
person flew away.
(d) How did the poet take care of the dove?
Ans: The poet looked after the dove by kissing it frequently. He also provided white
peas for it to eat. The poet believes that everything he did was polite. As the dove
personifies a person, Here this individual could be someone close to him or someone
he used to love. He talks about something that he can't keep close to him, despite his
own wishes.
(e) Which word in the poem means the same as 'intense sorrow"?
Ans: Grieving is the word in the poem which means intense sorrow. The author
mentions a dove he once owned that perished. He inquires as to why the bird died.
He believes the dove perished as a result of the grief, but he has no idea why the
dove was grieving. The poet is upset because the dove has abandoned him, but he is
trying to figure out why.
SECTION - B
Writing 20 Marks
Class X English www.vedantu.com 8
5. When you think about your city you feel proud of its historical monuments,
museums, Parliament House, Rashtrapati Bhawan, Metro, Delhi Haat,
shopping malls, and beautiful parks. Write a letter in 120-150 words to the
editor of a national daily expressing your views on 'Delhi - the City of My
Dreams. You are Akshay/Akshita living at 121, Lake View Colony, Delhi.
5 Marks
Ans:
121, Lake View Colony
Delhi
XX,xx, xxxx
The Editor
The Hindustan Times
New Delhi
Subject: Delhi – The City of My Dreams
Sir,
Allow me to draw attention to Delhi, which is the city of my dreams; rather, I should
write "Delhi - City of Our Dreams." Delhi is a legendary city. It has a number of
monuments honouring different stages of the country's history. It is the capital of the
country.
Because of its historical landmarks, we are proud of our city, museums, the
Parliament House, Rashtrapati Bhawan, Metro, Delhi Haat, retail malls, and lovely
parks. It even boasts embassies from nearly every country on the planet. People of
all religions, castes, and colours are welcome here.
Emperor Shahjahan adored Delhi and wrote on the Diwan-e-Khas at Red Fort, "If
there be Paradise on Earth." It has arrived. It has arrived." Living in Delhi may or
may not be like living in Paradise, but it is a luxury to live in the capital of the world's
greatest democracy.
Thank you.
Yours Sincerely
Class X English www.vedantu.com 9
Akshita.
Or
Your hostel room-mate has recently gone to his hometown being urgently called
by his parents. Write a letter in 120-150 words informing him about the
postponement of periodical tests. Don't forget to mention that the course will
remain the same. You are Atul, Room No 10, Kaveri Hostel, Delhi Senior
Secondary School, Delhi.
Ans:
Room Number - 10
Kaveri Hostel
Delhi Senior Secondary School
Delhi
XX,xx,xxx
Dear Rohan,
You haven't contacted me in a long time. So, what have you been up to lately? When
you read this letter, I hope you are in a good mood.
I am anticipating that everything is good at home, despite the fact that you left in a
hurry when your folks called. I had been working hard day and night on the
upcoming periodicals, but they've been postponed, much to the relief of the majority
of the students. The teachers believed it might be feasible to hold them later this
month. The curriculum for all courses remains the same. I hope you've been studying
while you've been away, and if you haven't, don't worry, we'll study together once
you return to the hostel.
Take proper care of yourself and your family, and please convey my best wishes to
Uncle and Aunty. I look forward to hear from you my dear friend.
Yours lovingly,
Atul
Class X English www.vedantu.com 10
6. A nation is what its teachers are. It is they who prepare the future leaders of
a country. Write an article in 120-150 words on ‘The role an ideal teacher is
expected to play.’ You are Abha/Abhinav. You may take the help from the
following notes:
• knowledgeable and hardworking
• sets examples by his/her punctuality, honesty and integrity
• instills values among students
• teaches them about civic and democratic values
• plays role model 5 Marks
Ans: The Role an Ideal Teacher is Expected to Play
By Abha
The teacher is the benchmark by which the nation's successes and goals are
measured. A nation is defined by its teachers. They are the ones who train a country's
future leaders.
Only success is guaranteed if teachers are well-educated, knowledgeable, diligent,
and intellectual, hardworking and take a strong interest in their job.
Teachers should provide a good example by being on time, honest, sincere, and
upright. Role models are those who set a good example through their actions and
words. A teacher is a soul engineer. To become a role model, an effective teacher
must have patience and dedication.
In today's democratic world, democratic values are held in high regard. The ideal
instructors teach democratic ideals such as freedom, integrity, justice, equality,
sacrifice, and so on, and strive to preserve democratic values for the development of
the country. This is vital because these ideals are accountable for the educational
system's success.
Teachers play a vital role in determining the country's destiny by educating the
nation's youth to be the architects of the next generation. Furthermore, when it comes
to ideals, an ideal teacher should be fair to all students and stimulate them. They act
as a role model for students and have an influence on them.
Class X English www.vedantu.com 11
Or
Yoga is a complete science. It not only helps the body but also the mind and the
spirit. Many serious diseases can be cured by right breathing techniques. Its
benefits are now acknowledged all over the world. Write a speech in 120-150
words on ‘The importance of yoga for the students’ to be delivered in the
morning assembly of your school. You are Kanta/Kamal.
Ans: Respected Principal, teachers and my dear friends, a very good morning to you
all. I am here today to make you aware of the importance of Yoga in our student’s
life.
Yoga is a spiritual and ascetic discipline founded by ancient Indian saints. They used
yoga as an efficient means of managing their minds and bodies. Many lifestyle
disorders are on the rise these days. The majority of them are either physical, mental,
emotional, or psychological in nature. Children are usually worried and busy in their
daily lives, so they don't take the time to rest and care for themselves and their
bodies. As a result, individuals are afflicted with one or more lifestyle diseases at the
same time, such as diabetes, depression, and even cancer.
Yoga is a practise technique that includes eight levels of development in the areas
of physical, mental, social, and spiritual well-being in everyday life. The mind is
clear and concentrated, and tension is under control, when the body is in good
physical shape. This allows you to maintain socially healthy interactions with your
friends and family.
I'd want to conclude by mentioning that, while yoga is a slow and steady process,
the benefits last a long time. Yoga, in addition to working on the body, mind, and
spirit, treats various disorders with no side effects.
Yoga has been utilised to aid in the healing of victims of torture and other forms of
trauma. Yoga, as a sort of meditation, produces an inner sense of serenity and
purpose, which has far-reaching health benefits.
Thank you.
7. The youth of today can be seen talking on cell phones for hours together in
buses, on roads, in schools and colleges, thus wasting their precious time,
neglecting studies and sometimes even risking their lives due to accidents. Write
Class X English www.vedantu.com 12
a debate in 120-150 words either for or against the topic, ‘The use of mobile
phone is more a disadvantage than an advantage.’ 5 Marks
Ans: The Use of Mobile Phone
There are very few people today who do not own a cell phone. Every person owns a
mobile phone for personal and professional communication.
However, when using mobile phones, we must keep in mind the benefits and
drawbacks of mobile phones. In today's society, mobile phones have radically
revolutionised people's daily communication lives.
Today's worker cannot perform even a single task if he does not have access to a
mobile phone. We can make both audio and video calls, send messages, read emails,
edit images, edit various types of documents, and save with today's smartphone, and
we can't even imagine what we're doing with a mobile phone?
There are numerous drawbacks to utilising a cell phone. Some of the negative
impacts of excessive mobile phone use include blood barrier disruption, dizziness,
ear difficulties, and brain damage. Many car accidents occur as a result of the driver's
use of his cell phone while driving.
As a result, even though mobile phones are bad for your health, having one in your
hand solves a lot of problems because it contains a lot of information from all over
the world.
8. Independence Day was celebrated in your school in which the Director of
Education was invited as the Chief Guest. Being the Head Boy/Head Girl of the
school write a report in 120-150 words highlighting the inauguration ceremony,
flag hoisting, cultural programmes, the message given by the Chief Guest etc.
You are a student of class X of Gandhi Sr. Sec. School, Delhi. 5 Marks
Ans: Gandhi Sr. Sec. School celebrated Independence Day with great zeal and
patriotism. On the morning of August 14, 2019, our students handed hand-made
greeting cards and tri-color flag badges to the school's top management.
The school's cultural programme began with everyone chanting "Vande Mataram,"
which was followed by flag hoisting by the chief guest, Mr. Sharma, the Director of
Education. The spirit of freedom and nationalism was well demonstrated by both
students and teachers through a variety of patriotic poetry, speeches, quizzes on
Class X English www.vedantu.com 13
liberation fighters, songs, and dance. Both staff and student instructors promised to
serve their homeland by spreading education and supporting the community, as they
are dedicated to the work of nation development. A presentation was provided on
the historical evolution of India's national flag.The audience was informed by a
documentary about the unsung heroes of India's freedom movement, such as Tirupur
Kumaran, Kamla Devi Chattopadhayay, and Khudiram Bose. A handful of them
spoke about the history and significance of Independence Day, as well as the specific
highlight of this year's events.
It concluded with the Director of Education's address on the topic "What does
freedom mean to me?" The ceremony culminated with the main madam's motivating
words, followed by the National Anthem and the delivery of refreshments.
Or
Develop the following outlines into a story in 120-150 words.
goose lays a golden egg every day greedy master - not satisfied - intends to
become rich overnight decides to get all the gold kills the goose - finds no gold -
repents his folly - weeps and curses - greed ruins him
Ans: Once upon a time, there was a farmer. He was the proud owner of a goose. The
goose laid a golden egg every day. The farmer was ecstatic. He was becoming a very
wealthy man as a result of this holy goose.
He, on the other hand, felt annoyed. He was fed up with being kept waiting any
longer. He desired to amass fortune as rapidly as possible. He aspired to be the
richest guy on the planet. His only hope was this extraordinary goose. It was the only
resource available to help the farmer realise his dream.
As a result, he devised a scheme for 'instantly becoming wealthy.' He grabbed his
goose right then and there. He requested a sharp knife. He slaughtered the fowl with
a single blow. The unfortunate thing perished after a protracted scream. Now the
farmer tore its belly in an attempt to obtain scores of golden eggs in a moment, but
to his dismay, he received nothing. In his greed for gold and riches, he slaughtered
his goose. What did he get, goose meat, bones, and blood?
He sobbed uncontrollably. He was heartbroken about the death of his golden goose.
But what else could he do now but tear his hair? The farmer clenched his teeth. He
was sorry for his blunder. It was now too late to do anything. The goose was already
out of reach. The ambitious notion of becoming wealthy overnight was shattered.
Class X English www.vedantu.com 14
He had constructed castles in the sky. Riches' superstructure had collapsed like a
house of cards.
SECTION - C
Grammar 15 Marks
9. Read the passage given below. Fill in the blanks by choosing the most
appropriate words from the given options. 3 Marks
No matter how old you are, drink at least a glass of milk everyday (a) ….. you
want to sharpen (b) ..... mental skills. A new study has claimed that drinking
(c)..... glass of milk daily not only boosts one's intake of much needed nutrients,
but it also positively impacts one's brain power.
(a) (i) that (ii) if (iii) then (iv) how
Ans: (ii) if
(b) (i) her (ii) his (iii) my (iv) your
Ans: your
(c) (i) a (ii) and (iii) an (iv) the
Ans: (i) a
10. Read the following conversation and complete the dialogue by choosing the
correct alternatives from those below: 3 Marks
Seema: (a) …..?
Nandish: My lucky charm is my 'Karha' (an iron ring).
Seema: (b) …..?
Nandish I have been wearing it since childhood. It's grandfather's 'Karha. I
believe when I am wearing it his blessing are with me.
Seema: (c) …..?
Class X English www.vedantu.com 15
Nandish: No, I am not superstitious. I don't believe in fasting and going to a
particular place of worship. I just believe in Karma.
(a) (i) What your lucky charm is
(ii) What was your luck charm
(iii) What is your lucky charm
(iv) What lucky charm is yours
Ans: (iii) What is your lucky charm?
(b) (i) Since when have you been wearing it
(ii) Since when you are wearing it
(iii) Since when you have been wearing it
(iv) Since when you are wearing it
Ans: (i) Since when have you been wearing it?
(c) (i) You are not superstitious
(ii) You are superstitious
(iii) You have been superstitious
(iv) Are you not superstitious
Ans: (iv) Are you not superstitious
11. Look at the words/ phrases given below. Rearrange them to form
meaningful sentences as shown in the example. 3 Marks
For example:
the anniversary/death/is/of Mahatma Gandhi's/ Jan 30
Jan 30 is the anniversary of Mahatma Gandhi's death.
(a) assassinated/Nathuram Godse/he/ on this day, / was/by
Class X English www.vedantu.com 16
Ans: On this day, he was assassinated by Nathuram Godse
(b) Ambala jail /Godse/at/was/later hanged
Ans: Godse was later hanged at Ambala jail
(c) the anniversary / observed as / Gandhi's death / of /is/ Martyr's Day
Ans: Martyr’s Day is observed as the anniversary of Gandhi’s death
12. The following passage has not been edited. There is an error in each line
against which a blank is given. Write the incorrect word and the correction in
your answer sheet against the correct blank number as given in the example.
Remember to underline the word that you have supplied. 6 Marks
Have you being criticized by e.g. being been
teachers for shouted in the (a) …. ….
class room? Here is something
to cheered you up. Now experts (b) …. ….
have found as impulsive children (c) …. ….
that cannot resist shouting (d) …. ….
in the class score higher in
tests to those who appear to be (e) …. ….
better behave and quiet. (f) …. ….
Ans: Error Correction
(a) Shouted shouting
(b) Cheered cheer
(c) As that
(d) That who
Class X English www.vedantu.com 17
(e) To than
(f) Behave behaved
SECTION D
Literature (Text Books) 35 Marks
13 (A) Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow:
Coorgi homes have a tradition of hospitality, and they are more than willing to
recount numerous tales of valour related to their sons and fathers. The Coorg
Regiment is one of the most decorated in the Indian Army, and the first Chief
of the Indian Army, General Cariappa, was a Coorgi. Even now, Kodavus are
the only people in India permitted to carry fire arms without a licence.
4 Marks
(i) What kind of stories are the Coorg people always ready to tell?
Ans: Coorg residents are eager to share various tales of bravery involving their sons
and fathers.
(ii) Who was the first chief of the Indian army?
Ans: The Coorg Regiment is one of the most distinguished in the Indian Army, and
General Cariappa, was the first Chief of the Indian Army, and a Coorgi.
(iii) What is the special favour granted only to them even now?
Ans: Kodavus are the only residents of India who have been permitted to carry
firearms without a licence.
(iv) Find a word from the passage which means the same as 'courage and
bravery, usually in war.’
Ans: ‘Valour’.
(B) Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow: 4 Marks
CHUBUKOV: [aside] He's come to borrow money. Shan't give him any !
[aloud] What is it, my beauty?
Class X English www.vedantu.com 18
LOMOV: You see, Honoured Stepanitch.... I beg pardon Stepan Honouritch….
I mean, I'm awfully excited, as you will please notice …. In short, you alone can
help me, though I don't deserve it, of course......... and haven't any right to count
on your assistance.....
(i) Why does Chubukov suspect Lomov of coming to borrow money?
Ans:Chubukov is shocked to see Lomov in his residence, especially since he is
dressed nicely in an evening gown and gloves. He suspects Lomov has come to
borrow money from him.
(ii) Why is Lomov not able to answer properly?
Ans: Lomov is unable to respond correctly since he has come to ask for Natalaya's
hand, which has caused him to become very enthusiastic.
(iii) What purpose has he come for ?
Ans: Lomov has arrived to propose to Natalya.
(iv) Which word in the passage means the same as 'very much' ?
Ans: Word in the passage which means the same as 'very much' is ‘awfully’.
14. Read the extracts given below and complete the sentences/answer the
questions that follow by choosing the most appropriate options. 6 Marks
(A) I think I could turn and live with animals, they are so placid and self-
contain'd,
I stand and look at them long and long.
(a)The poet wants to live with the animals because they are.......
(i) calm
(ii) self-contained
(iii) satisfied
(iv) all of the above
Class X English www.vedantu.com 19
Ans: (iv) All of the above.
(b) The poet feels more at home with animals than…..
(i) birds and insects
(ii) human beings
(iii) natural things
(iv) all of the above
Ans: (ii) Human beings.
(c) The word which means 'calm and quiet' is…..
(i) placid
(ii) complex
(iii) groan
(iv) contented
Ans: (i) placid.
(B) Belinda embraced him, Mustard licked him,
No one mourned for his pirate victim.
Ink and Blink in glee did gyrate
Around the dragon that ate the pirate.
(a) Why did Belinda embrace him?
(i) out of helplessness
(ii) out of gratitude
(iii) out of fear
(iv) out of shock
Ans: (iv) out of shock.
Class X English www.vedantu.com 20
(b) Why were Ink and Blink happy?
(i) joy of their victory
(ii) because of the fear of the pirate
(iii) because the pirate was killed
(iv) they were in a good mood
Ans: (i) joy of their victory.
(c) Find a word which means the same as 'move around in circles.’
(i) mourn
(ii) gyrate
(iii) lick
(iv) embrace
Ans: (iv) embrace.
15. Answer any three of the following questions in 30-40 words each. 6 Marks
(a) Baking was considered essential in a traditional Goan village. What reasons
does the writer give to support his point?
Ans: Baking was regarded as a necessary vocation because wedding presents were
pointless without the bol. On the occasion of her daughter's engagement, the lady of
the house was required to prepare sandwiches. Cakes and bolinhas were must-haves
for Christmas and other holidays. Baking was another job in the old Goan village.
The baker's family was never hungry. He, his family, and his servants all appeared
to be content and successful. Their fat physique was open proof of this.
(b) What happened when Maxwell took Mijbil to the bathroom? What did
Mijbil do two days after that?
Class X English www.vedantu.com 21
Ans: Mijbil was plunging and rolling in the bathtub, shooting up and down the length
of the tub underwater and causing a hippo's worth of slosh and splash.
It fled from the bedroom to the bathroom after two days. By the time he arrived,
Mijbil was fumbling with its paws at the chrome taps, and in less than a minute, it
had twisted the tap enough to create some water, and after some time, it had achieved
full flow.
(c) Why does Valli stand upon the seat? What does she see now?
Ans: Valli stood up in her seat since a canvas blind covering the lower portion of
her window impeded her vision. Furthermore, due to her little stature, she did not
have a clear view of the outside. As a result, she had to stand on her seat to peer
through the blind. Then she noticed the road was very small, with a canal on one
side and a view of palm palms, grassland, distant mountains, and blue sky beyond.
There was a deep ditch on the opposite side, followed by several acres of verdant
fields.
(d) How are the tea pluckers different from the other farm labourers?
Ans: Tea pluckers are distinct from other farm labourers in that they are hired
labourers, whereas agricultural labourers can be employed or are landowners. Tea
pluckers only pluck leaves, but farm labourers oversee the entire process, from
sowing to harvesting.
16. Answer the question in 120-150 words. 5 Marks
Life is full of trials and tribulations. Kisa Gotami also passes through a period
of grief in her life. How does she behave in those circumstances ? What lesson
does a reader learn from the story of her life? Give any two points how you
would like to act in the midst of adverse circumstances.
Ans: Kisa Gotami looked around for someone who could bring her dead kid back to
life. But no one can perform such a feat. Finally, someone sends her to Buddha
because he believes Buddha will assist the poor woman in coming to grips with her
loss and sadness.
Kisa Gotami was instructed by Buddha to bring a handful of mustard seeds from a
residence where no one had ever died. Kisa Gotami went looking for mustard seeds
in a house where no one had ever died. However, such a house could not be found.
Class X English www.vedantu.com 22
Poor Lady realised the essential lesson Buddha was trying to teach her. Every family
will suffer the bereavement of a loved one. No matter how important someone is to
us, death will come to separate us sooner or later.
Life is full of difficulties and trials. Suffering and death are unavoidable. Human
beings, being mortal, must face agony and death sooner or later. This is a truth of
life that no one can avoid. We must accept the unavoidable, conquer our pain, and
go on. We must not let grief defeat or overwhelm us. Accepting the unavoidable and
continuing on with life is true wisdom.
17. Answer the following question in 80-100 words. 4 Marks
What social attitudes are presented in the story, 'Bholi' ? How does Bholi's
teacher help her overcome these barriers ?
Ans: Without a doubt, Bholi's teacher assisted her in overcoming social hurdles by
supporting and motivating her. When the groom insulted her father, it was her
teacher's inspiration that gave her the strength to call off her wedding.
Such social problems can be found at all levels of society. They can only be removed
by raising public awareness and educating people on the importance of valuing one's
inner self rather than one's outward appearance. Rather than treating her differently,
Bholi's family should have pushed her to move on in life and overcome her linguistic
impediment. Illiteracy and ignorance are the primary causes of these social ills.
We should attempt to change people's attitudes regarding such things. A person's
disability should not be made fun of. Such a person deserves to be treated fairly. A
disabled child should not be taken for granted by his or her parents. If a youngster is
motivated at home, he or she will be more confident in facing the world.
Or
What was the cause of Matilda's ruin? How could she have avoided it?
Ans: Matilda's ruin was caused by her excessive ambition. She aspired to be a
member of society's upper crust. She desired to be adored and admired by the
wealthy and famous. She had forgotten that she was born poor and had married a
common clerk. Matilda may have saved herself. She should have been pleased with
Class X English www.vedantu.com 23
what she had. She should not have tried to imitate the wealthy. She should have
spoken the truth when the jewellery was stolen.
18. Answer any two of the following questions in 50-60 words each. 6 Marks
(a) What lesson did Ebright learn when he did not win anything at a science
fair?
Ans: When Richard Ebright didn't receive an award at the scientific fair, he noticed
that the winners had tried to conduct real experiments. He, on the other hand, had
just put up a good show. He had used a microscope to demonstrate slides of frog
tissues. It was the first time he had a glimpse of what actual science was. This
competition helped him to develop his competitive attitude. Finally, it was his
excitement and competitiveness that propelled him to new heights in science.
(b) Who befriended the narrator when he went to New Mullion ? Where did he
take him?
Ans: When the narrator proceeded to New Mullion to find Lutkins, whom he had a
summons for, the hack driver, who was also Oliver Lutkins, befriended him. Bill led
him to all of the locations that Lutkins was known to go. He took the lawyer to Fritz's
business, where Lutkins spent a lot of time playing poker; They visited Bieneke,
Gustaffson's, Gray's barbershop, and finally Lutkin's house. As a result, the hack
driver drove the lawyer all around the hamlet looking for Lutkins.
(c) What guesses are made by Think-Tank about the books found on earth?
Ans: Think-first Tank's guess regarding the books discovered on Earth was that they
were sandwiches. He informed Captain Omega that they were in a refreshment stand.
He also stated that sandwiches were a mainstay of the Earth's diet. He then instructed
them to consume one of the books. Sergeant Oop ate it and said that it was not tasty
and was as dry as Martian dust. Think-Tank then suggested that the books were
actually communication sandwiches and commanded them to listen to them. When
they couldn't hear anything, he argued that the books were designed for sight
communication rather than ear communication.
Class X English www.vedantu.com 24
CBSE Class 10
English
Previous Year Question Paper 2014
Series: HRS Code no. 2/1
● Please check that this question paper contains 15 printed pages.
● Code number given on the right hand side of the question paper should be
written on the title page of the answer-book by the candidate.
● Please check that this question paper contains 18 questions.
● Please write down the Serial Number of the question before attempting
it.
● 15 minutes of time has been allotted to read this question paper. The
question paper will be distributed at 10.15 a.m. From 10.15 a.m. to 10.30
a.m., the students will read the question paper only and will not write any
answer on the answer script during this period.
SUMMATIVE ASSESSMENT - Ⅱ
ENGLISH (Language and Literature)
Time Allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 80
General Instructions:
I. The Question paper is divided into four sections :
Section A — Reading 15 marks
Section B — Writing 15 marks
Section C — Grammar 15 marks
Section D —Text Books and Long Reading Text (25+10) = 35 marks
Class X English www.vedantu.com 1
II. All questions are compulsory.
III. Marks are indicated against each question.
SECTION – A
(Reading) 15 Marks
1. Read the passage given below and complete the statements that follow by
choosing the most appropriate options. 1×5 = 5 Marks
Cheraw is the most colourful Mizo dance. Bamboos are used in this dance.
Hence the dancer moves by stepping alternately in and out from between and
across a pair of horizontal bamboos, held against the ground by people sitting
face to face at either side. They tap the bamboos open and close in rhythmic
beats. Two bases support the bamboos, placed horizontally, one at each end.
The bamboos, when clapped, produce a sharp sound, which forms the rhythm
of the dance. It indicates the timing of the dance as well. The dancers step in
and out to the beats of the bamboos with ease and grace. The patterns and
stepping of the dance have many variations. Sometimes the steppings are made
in imitation of the movements of birds, sometimes the swaying of trees and so
on. Little is known about the origin of Cheraw. It may be possible that the
forefathers of the Mizos brought it with them when they left home in Far-East
Asia. Cheraw is performed on any occasion these days. But, so goes the legend.
It used to be performed in earlier times only to ensure a safe passage for a dead
child to paradise. Cheraw is, therefore, a dance of sanctification and
redemption performed with great care, precision and elegance.
(a) According to the passage, Cheraw is __________________ .
(i) a form of art
(ii) a festival of lights
(iii) a form of dance
(iv) a Mizo animal
Ans: (iii) a form of dance
(b) Cheraw is performed ____________ .
(i) to show respect to the state
(ii) for sanctification and redemption
Class X English www.vedantu.com 2
(iii) to please the goddess of dance
(iv) to earn money
Ans: (ii) for sanctification and redemption
(c) The dancers in Cheraw dance to ________________ .
(i) the beats of bamboos
(ii) the beats of drums
(iii) the clappings of the singers
(iv) the sound of a whistle
Ans: (i) the beats of bamboos
(d) The statement — ____________ is correct.
(i) Four bases support the bamboos
(ii) Cheraw is a solo dance
(iii) Cheraw is a dull stepping pattern
(iv) The sound of bamboos forms the rhythm of the dance
Ans: (iv) The sound of bamboos forms the rhythm of the dance
(e) The word ‘redemption’ in the passage means ____________ .
(i) performed with great care
(ii) solution
(iii) deliverance from evil ways
(iv) compensation
Ans: (iii) deliverance from evil ways
2. Read the passage given below and complete the statements that follow by
choosing the most appropriate options. 1 × 5 = 5 Marks
Himalayan valley is the geographical guard of the Indian territory against any
foreign invasion keeping the enemy at bay from the western to the eastern
subcontinent of the Asian sphere. The valley abounds with a classified variety
Class X English www.vedantu.com 3
of different glaciers, wildlife, peaks and thick vegetation liable to support the
homo sapiens.
Pindari glacier is a range of four glaciers, namely Sunderdunga, Namik,
Pindari and Kafni. To go to Pindari glacier it is a 54 km trek and the walking
part is normally covered in four days. In this trek, we cross many mountains
and forests and see a lot of wildlife. We were eight members in the team. The
whole trip took us ten days in the mountains. Throughout the way, our guide
and my father explained to us the various features of the Himalayas we were
passing through. We had to face bad weather for two days. There was a steep
climb at some places and as we climbed up we were affected by high altitude
sickness and lack of oxygen and we felt very tired.
Pindari glacier is surrounded on all sides by snow-covered peaks such as Nanda
Devi, Nanda Kot, Nanda Khat, Bailiuri and many more. This glacier is a frozen
river of ice and settled in such a way that it looks like a huge staircase. There I
saw all physical features such as gorges, moraines, hanging valleys, etc.
(a) Pindari glacier is _______________ .
(i) a glacier range of four mountains namely Sunderdunga, Namik,
Pindari and Kafni
(ii) a mountain peak surrounded by Sunderdunga, Namik and Kafni
(iii) a forest in the Himalayan region
(iv) a range of four glaciers, namely Sunderdunga, Namik, Pindari and
Kafni
Ans: (i) a glacier range of four mountains namely Sunderdunga, Namik, Pindari
and Kafni
(b) A trip to Pindari glacier ____________ .
(i) is very informative
(ii) helps in understanding the natural geography
(iii) is an adventurous experience as one has to face bad weather and
difficult treks
(iv) is all of the above
Ans: (iii) is an adventurous experience as one has to face bad weather and difficult
treks
Class X English www.vedantu.com 4
(c) ___________ made the members suffer while trekking to their destination.
(i) Steep climb and lack of oxygen
(ii) High altitude sickness, lack of oxygen and steep climb
(iii) Lack of oxygen and tiredness
(iv) Lack of oxygen and snow-covered peaks
Ans: (ii) High altitude sickness, lack of oxygen and steep climb
(d) The temperature in the area is ___________ .
(i) normal
(ii) below zero degree
(iii) very high
(iv) warm
Ans: (ii) below zero degree
(e) The word in the passage which means the same as ‘characteristics’ is
____________ .
(i) features
(ii) altitude
(iii) treks
(iv) gorges
Ans: (i) features
3. Read the poem given below and answer the questions that follow :
1 × 5 = 5 Marks
A nightingale, that all day long
Had cheered the village with his song,
Nor yet at eve his note suspended,
Nor yet when eventide was ended,
Began to feel, as well he might,
Class X English www.vedantu.com 5
The keen demands of appetite;
When, looking eagerly around,
He spied far off, upon the ground,
A something shining in the dark,
And knew the glow-worm by his spark;
So, stooping down from hawthorn top,
He thought to put him in his crop.
The worm, aware of his intent,
Harangued him thus, right eloquent –
‘Did you admire my lamp,’ quoth he,
‘As much as I your minstrelsy,
You would abhor to do me wrong,
As much as I to spoil your song;
For ’twas the self-same power divine,
Taught you to sing, and me to shine.’
(William Cowper)
(a) How was the nightingale busy for the whole day ?
Ans: All day long, the nightingale was busy singing and uplifting the villagers
with her wonderful voice and song.
(b) How did the nightingale recognize the glow-worm ?
Ans: The nightingale recognises the glow-worm by the glow-glittering worm's
lamp's light.
(c) Why was the glow-worm feeling scared ?
Ans: The glow-worm was spotted by the nightingale when it was seeking for food.
The glow-worm was scared of becoming prey to the nightingale because it was
aware of the nightingale's objectives.
(d) With what words of wisdom did the glow-worm persuade the nightingale
not to do him any wrong ?
Class X English www.vedantu.com 6
Ans: The nightingale is persuaded to do no damage by the glow-swift worm's and
astute reasoning. It begins to praise and congratulate the nightingale. The glow-
worm goes on to say that, just as the nightingale brightens up the day, the glow-
worm brightens up the night with its light. It claims that because they are both God's
created with distinct purposes, they should live in peace with one another.
(e) Find the word from the poem which means the same as ‘loudly appealed to
persuade’.
Ans: The term "harangued" means "loudly appealed to persuade."
SECTION – B
(Writing) 15 Marks
4. You are Rahul / Rohini, a resident of K-Block, Rajouri Garden, New Delhi.
Your friend Rajat / Rajni, who lives in another city, has met with an accident
in which he / she has fractured his / her leg. Fortunately the injury is not very
serious but he / she will have to miss his / her SA-II Examination (or final
examination). Write a letter, in about 120 words, to enquire about his / her well-
being, cheering him / her up, playing down the seriousness of missing the
examination. Wish him / her a speedy recovery. 5 Marks
Ans:
Examination Hall
23/03/2018
Dear Rajat,
Your letter was received by me. I'm sorry to hear about your accident and the fact
that you won't be able to complete your final exams. I understand the anxiety and
stress you're experiencing. But, my friend, you must understand that your health is
your most valuable asset. Exams occur on a regular basis. Every step of our lives
serves as a test. We can speak with your teachers, and I am confident that they will
administer your term end exams later.
Class X English www.vedantu.com 7
I hope your wishes come true soon. I wish you the best of luck. Please convey my
greetings to aunty and uncle. Greetings, Diksha.
Thank you.
Yours lovingly,
Rahul
Or
You are Rahul / Rohini, a resident of J-Block, Rajouri Garden, New Delhi.
The water pipe that supplies drinking water to your area is damaged and there
has not been any water supply for two days now. Write a letter, in about 120
words, to the editor of a local daily drawing the attention of the authorities
towards the difficulties of the residents and asking for immediate repair of the
pipe. Demand the supply of drinking water through tankers. 5 Marks
Ans:
The Editor
Times of India
23/03/2018
J-Block
Rajouri Garden
New Delhi
Subject: Water shortage in our neighbourhood has been a source of contention.
Respected Sir,
I live in your neighbourhood. I'd like to raise your attention to a two-day water
supply outage caused by a damaged water pipe that feeds water to our region. I filed
a formal complaint with the authorities, but no action has yet been taken. Water is
Class X English www.vedantu.com 8
in short supply, and there isn't enough in our location to meet our basic needs. People
are forced to rely on costly water tankers.
This isn't the first time we've encountered this problem. In our neighbourhood, this
is a common occurrence. I humbly request that you publish my piece in your
newspaper and make the right authorities aware of it.
Thank you.
Yours Sincerely,
Rohini
5. Midday meal programme of the government started with the noble objective
of encouraging children to come to school and improve their nutritional status.
But reports of the recent death of 23 children in Bihar and other incidents of
negligence in cooking the midday meal has produced an alarming effect on the
minds of the parents. You are Akshit / Akshita, Head Boy / Head Girl of your
school. Write an article, in 120 – 150 words, on the topic — ‘Midday Meal
Scheme — How to improve it ?’. 5 Marks
Ans:
Midday Meal Scheme — How to improve it
The Tamil Nadu government has launched a programme aimed at improving the
nutritional status of children across the state. It was a commendable move toward
improving health, reducing absenteeism, and increasing school enrollment. It
began with the goal of improving students' nutritional status and enhancing their
lives, but due to widespread corruption in the country, it has now become a hazard
to children. The recent death of 23 children at a Bihar school demonstrates the
absence of school management. It has had a significant impact on parents' attitudes.
To avoid such circumstances, careful attention must be paid to food distribution.
Parents should help prepare meals for their children, and government officials
should visit kitchens where children's food is prepared on a regular basis. Only in
this manner will we be able to make our idea a success.
Class X English www.vedantu.com 9
Head Girl,
Akshita
Or
You are Akshit / Akshita, Head Boy / Head Girl of your school. You are worried
about the outbreak of dengue fever after the rainy season. Write a speech, in
120 – 150 words, for the morning assembly of your school, expressing your
shock over hundreds of cases admitted to various hospitals. Talk about dengue
as a life-threatening viral disease, causes of its spread, symptoms and
preventive measures. 5 Marks
Ans:
Report on the outbreak of dengue fever after the rainy season
By, Akshita
Teachers, good morning, and hello, my dear friends. I'm Akshita, a student in our
school's XI grade, and as the head girl, I'd like to raise your attention to a dengue
fever outbreak in the city caused by increased mosquito breeding during this rainy
season. A large number of individuals are being admitted to hospitals, and a high
number of people are dying. I respectfully suggest that you all wear full-sleeved
shirts and long socks. Please also use mosquito repellent on any exposed regions
of your body.
Please do not allow stagnant water to accumulate in your house or on school
grounds. If you notice anything like this happening at school, either contact a
teacher or report it to me. As we all know, "prevention is better than cure," so
please join us in our school's cleanliness campaign, which begins today. Stay safe
and happy.
6. Your city celebrated ‘Vijay Dashmi’ / Dussehra. As a reporter of your school
magazine, write a report in 120 – 150 words, mentioning the crowds,
arrangements, dignitaries present, the celebrations, fire-works and crackers.
5 Marks
Ans:
Report on Dussehra Celebration in school
Class X English www.vedantu.com 10
ABC school celebrated Dussehra celebration on October 29, 2017 in the school
auditorium, keeping the festive atmosphere alive. At around 9:30 a.m., the
principal guests received diya enlightenment, which was followed by cultural
performances, sketches, and a play based on the Ramayana epic. Following that, a
fancy dress competition was held, in which small children dressed up as Ramayana
characters amused the audience with their comic-dramatic presence.
They wore bright clothes that attracted everyone's attention on the day. Following
the performances, our school principal, Mr. Chandilal, addressed the audience,
emphasising the significance of the day as the triumph of good over evil, before
bidding farewell to the visitors. After that, the audience dispersed while
refreshments were distributed.
Or
Write a story, in 120 – 150 words, from the outline given below. Give a suitable
title to the story.
A bee falls into a stream — a dove flies past — drops a leaf into the river — the
bee climbs on it — escapes — a hunter aims at the dove — the bee stings the
hunter — misses the aim — the dove is saved — moral. 5 Marks
Ans:
A bee fell into a stream once upon a time. To keep herself from drowning, she
screamed for aid. A dove flying by the river noticed her and dropped a leaf into the
water. Because the leaf was a light thing floating in the river, the bee climbed over
it and was saved and escaped.
On another occasion, a hunter was about to shoot the dove. When the bee noticed
him, he decided to assist the dove. She stung the hunter, causing him to miss his
target due to discomfort. The dove is eventually rescued. They became lifelong
friends when he thanked her for saving his life.
Moral of the story: Do good, and good will come to you.
SECTION – C
(Grammar) 15 Marks
Class X English www.vedantu.com 11
7. Read the passage given below and fill in the blanks by choosing the most
appropriate words from the given options. 1×3 = 3 Marks
A rich man from Punjab who (a) ______________ to Rohtak to purchase land,
(b) ______________ of < 30 lakhs from his car on Monday. His son (c)
______________ inside the car when the robbery took place.
(a) (i) come
(ii) came
(iii) was coming
(iv) coming
Ans: (ii) came
(b) (i) was robbed
(ii) is robbed
(iii) robbed
(iv) has robbed
Ans: (i) was robbed
(c) (i) is sitting
(ii) sat
(iii) was sitting
(iv) sits
Ans: (iii) was sitting
8. Complete the dialogue given below by filling in the blanks with the help of
the options that follow : 1×3 = 3 Marks
Stranger : (a) __________________________________________ here ?
Policeman : They (b) _______________________the shooting of a film.
Stranger : Which film (c) ____________________________________ ?
(a) (i) Why are the people gather
(ii) Why have the people gathered
Class X English www.vedantu.com 12
(iii) Why did the people gather
(iv) Why have the people gather
Ans: (iv) Why have the people gather
(b) (i) has come there to watch
(ii) had gone here to watching
(iii) have come here to watch
(iv) had come here to watch
Ans: (iii) have come here to watch
(c) (i) is being shot here
(ii) was being shot there
(iii) has been shooting here
(iv) has been shot there
Ans: (i) is being shot here
9. Look at the words and phrases given below. Rearrange them to form
meaningful sentences as given in the example. 1×3 = 3 Marks
Example :
potter / in / once / a / a / lived / there / village /
Once there lived a potter in a village.
(a) innocent / was / a very / and / fellow / simple / he /
Ans: He was a very simple and innocent fellow.
(b) for him / a problem / old donkey, / his / had become /
Ans: His old donkey had become a problem for him.
(c) sold / it, / the donkey / the potter / fed up with / being /
Ans: The potter being fed up with the donkey sold it.
Class X English www.vedantu.com 13
10. The following passage has not been edited. There is an error in each line
against which a blank has been given. Write the incorrect word and the
correction in your answer sheet against the correct blank number as given
in the example. Remember to underline the word that you have supplied.
1×3 = 3 Marks
Error Correction
If your children is overweight, e.g. children child
avoids fruit but vegetables, (a) _________ ____________
and prefers computer games than real (b) _________ ____________
ones, you should being concerned. (c) _________ ____________
Ans: Error Correction
(a) but and
(b) than over
(c) being be
11. Do as directed : 1×3 = 3 Marks
(a) He is too fat to run fast.
(Remove ‘too’ without changing the meaning)
Ans: He is very fast, so he has to run fast.
(b) We shall see her.
(Change the voice)
Ans: She shall be seen by us.
(c) He heard the happy news. He was overjoyed.
(Combine the sentences into a single sentence beginning with ‘On hearing...’)
Ans: On hearing the happy news, he was overjoyed.
SECTION - D
(Text Books and Long Reading Text) 25+10=35 Marks
Class X English www.vedantu.com 14
12. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow :
1×3 = 3 Marks
Evergreen rainforests cover thirty percent of this district. During the
monsoons, it pours enough to keep many visitors away. The season of joy
commences from September and continues till March. The weather is perfect,
with some showers thrown in for good measure. The air breathes of
invigorating coffee. Coffee estates and colonial bungalows stand tucked under
tree canopies in prime corners.
(a) Why is the monsoon season not the best period to visit Coorg?
Ans: It rains a lot during the monsoon season, making it difficult for people to travel
and stay there. As a result, it is not the greatest time to visit Coorg.
(b) What is the best period for the visitors?
Ans: From September through March, the greatest time to visit Coorg is when there
is a little rain, beautiful weather, and ripe coffee plants.
(c) Which word in the passage means the same as ‘starts’ ?
Ans: The term "commences" has the same meaning as "starts."
13. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow :
1×3 = 3 Marks
I’m off my balance with joy, absolutely off my balance ! Oh, with all my
soul ... I’ll go and call Natasha, and all that.
(a) Who is the speaker?
Ans: “Stepan Stepanovitch Chubukov” is the speaker of these lines.
(b) Why is he so very happy?
Ans: He was overjoyed because Ivan Vassilevitch Lomov, a wealthy man, had
promised to marry his daughter.
(c) Why is he going to call Natasha?
Ans: He is going to give a call to Natalya to set up a meeting with Lomov and ask
for her approval to marry him.
Class X English www.vedantu.com 15
14. Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow :
1×3 = 3 Marks
Belinda tickled him, she tickled him unmerciful,
Ink, Blink and Mustard, they rudely called him Percival,
They all sat laughing in the little red wagon
At the realio, trulio, cowardly dragon.
(a) Who is Belinda ?
Ans: Belinda was a young lady who lived in a white house and had four pets: a cat,
a mouse, a dog, and a dragon.
(b) How did Belinda and the other pets laugh at the dragon ?
Ans: Belinda and the other pets mock the dragon's cowardice.
(c) Which word in this extract means the same as ‘unkind’ ?
Ans: The term "unmerciful" refers to someone who is cruel.
15. Answer the following questions in 30 40 words each : 2×6 = 12 Marks
(a) How can you say, ‘bread-baking is still popular in Goa’?
Ans: We may say that ‘bread-baking is still popular in Goa' because we still see
moulds, mixers, appliances, and heralds selling bread.
(b) How did the Buddha teach Kisa Gotami the truth of life?
Ans: After Kisa Gautami's son died, Buddha requested that she bring a handful of
mustard seeds from a residence where no one had perished. She couldn't find a
residence where no one had died, so she was taught the truth of life: that all living
things must die at some point.
(c) Give an example from the text to show that Mijbil is an intelligent animal.
Ans: Mijbil was a clever and sociable creature. He created the ping-pong game and
was capable of splashing in the water. He also enjoyed playing with marbles and
other types of games, demonstrating his intelligence.
(d) Why did Richard Ebright raise a flock of butterflies?
Class X English www.vedantu.com 16
Ans: Richard Ebright created a horde of butterflies because she was fascinated by
collections, and her mother encouraged her to read a book called "The Traves of
Monarch X," which prompted her to do so.
(e) Why was Matilda sad after the ball?
Ans: After the ball, Matilda was disappointed because she had misplaced the
diamond necklace she had borrowed from a friend. She was apprehensive about
returning it because she couldn't afford such a pricey piece of jewellery.
(f) How did the book change Think-Tank’s opinion about the Earthlings?
Ans: When Martian commander Think- Tank saw the book filled with nursery
rhymes, he assumed it was a book written by Earthlings about how to invade Mars.
As a result, he abandoned his intention to invade Earth and ordered his army to return
to their home planet.
16. Answer the following question in 80-100 words : 4 Marks
Do you think Lutkins was right in befooling the lawyer and earning money
by using unfair means ? What precautions should one take to avoid a
situation like the one in which the lawyer was placed?
Ans: Lutkins erred by duping the lawyer and getting funds in an unethical manner.
He should not have acted in such a shady manner, but the attorney also made a
mistake. He should have taken a snapshot of Bill and double-checked with others
because he was inexperienced.
Or
Behaviour of the conductor in ‘Madam Rides the Bus’ is an example of
good manners. Mentioning the instances of good manners shown by the
conductor in the story, write how you can make your life happy by
observing good manners.
Ans: The bus conductor, indeed, is a model of courtesy and excellent manners. The
bus conductor was a cheerful and light-hearted individual. Valli was a child when
he lent her hand to climb on the bus. He was pleased by the kid's behaviour and
treated Valli with respect, addressing her as "madam." He also assumed she was
hungry and handed her the cold beverage. Throughout the ride, he was continually
anxious about her.
Class X English www.vedantu.com 17
Attempt either Part (a) or Part (b)
PART (a)
17. Answer the following question in about 100 words : 5 Marks
On the basis of diary entries of May 1944, explain her father’s reaction to
Anne’s rebellious letter to him. What was it that brought about a change in her
feelings towards her father ?
Ans: Her father responded to her defiant letters in a calming and consoling manner.
He constantly mentored her and was a supportive parent, despite her complaints
about her being so traditional and disapproving of her relationships. Anne's thoughts
shifted from resentment and complaint to a better understanding of her father's
nature, and she became closer to him.
18. Answer the following question in about 100 words : 5 Marks
Write a character sketch of Anne.
Ans: Anne Frank was a sensitive and empathic thinker and writer who lived during
the Second World War. She was a keen political watcher. She also spoke about her
thoughts on human nature. She was a delicate young lady who had suitors even at
the tender age of thirteen. She was a war correspondent, and her diary has an
explanation of the political events of the time. She clarified various points
concerning the battle that was going on at the time. Despite a lot of criticism, she
was a fiery and determined young lady.
Or
After reading the diary entries of Anne, what impression do you form about
Mrs. Van Daan?
Ans: Mrs. Van Daan fit the stereotype of a stereotypical wife. She acted cordial and
teasing to Anne Frank at first, but afterwards referred to her as an agitator. She is a
pessimist and fatalist. She was conceited and prone to criticising, as well as flirty
and obnoxious. She was always grumbling about her family, which Anne despised
the most. She was unable to survive the war and was a target of Anne's wrath.
PART (b)
Class X English www.vedantu.com 18
17. Answer the following question in about 100 words : 5 Marks
The allegation of plagiarism many a time suffocates a budding writer. How did
Helen survive this allegation and start writing again ?
Ans: Helen was not guilty of plagiarising anything, but she was accused of
plagiarising from Miss Canby's account. She was disillusioned and saddened as a
fledgling writer after being accused of misrepresenting someone else's content as her
own. She cried all night since she had been cross-examined in court, and she didn't
write anything for a long time. Then, with the love and support of her followers, she
regained the situation over time and wrote "the storey of my life."
18. Answer the following question in about 100 words : 5 Marks
Write a character sketch of Alexander Graham Bell as portrayed by Helen.
Ans: Alexander Graham Bell, the creator of the telephone, was a sensitive and
empathetic individual. He had always been supportive of Helen's parents. When they
were unsure about Helen's hearing problem, he advised them to admit her to the
school of speech. As a result, Alexander played a crucial part in Helen's schooling.
He was also aware of her feelings and preferences. He was a funny person, a brilliant
poet, and an exceptionally patient and enthusiastic instructor, according to her.
Or
Helen had a special attachment to trees. Give two examples to illustrate her love
for the trees.
Ans: Helen had a special bond with trees since she was a youngster. She appreciated
the presence of a large, old oak tree. Because of its height, she dubbed it the "King
of All Trees." In the storey, there was another linden tree to which she was devoted,
and she was upset when it came off due to a thunderstorm. This demonstrates her
love for nature and trees, which she used to associate with, despite her impairments,
utilising her sixth sense.
Class X English www.vedantu.com 19
CBSE Class 10
English (Language and Literature)
Previous Year Question Paper 2014
Series: HRS/1 Set - 1
Code no. 2/1/1
● Please check that this paper contains 16 printed pages.
● Code number given on the right-hand side of the question paper should
be written on the title page of the answer-book by the candidate.
● Please check that this question paper contains 18 questions.
● Please write down the Serial Number of the question in the answer
book before attempting it.
● 15 minutes of time has been allotted to read this question paper. The
question paper will be distributed at 10.15 a.m. From 10.15 a.m. to 10.30
a.m, The students will read the question paper only and will not write any
answer on the answer-book during this period.
SUMMATIVE ASSESSMENT – II
ENGLISH (Language and Literature)
Time Allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 80
General Instructions:
I. The question paper comprises three sections
Section A - Reading 15 Marks
Class X English www.vedantu.com 1
Section B - Writing 15 Marks
Section C- Grammar 15 Marks
Section D – Literature + Value Based Question (31+4 = 35 Marks)
II. There are 18 questions in the question paper.
III. All questions are compulsory.
IV. Marks are indicated against each question.
SECTION - A 15 Marks
(Reading)
1. Read the passage given below and complete the statements that follow
choosing the most appropriate options from those given below. 5 Marks
Cheraw is the most colourful Mizo dance. Bamboos are used in this dance.
Hence the dancer moves by stepping alternatively in and out from between and
across a pair of horizontal bamboos, held against the ground by people sitting
face to face at either side. They tap the bamboos open and close in rhythmic
beats. Two bases support the bamboos, placed horizontally one at each end. The
bamboos, when clapped, produce a sharp sound, which forms the rhythm of the
dance. It indicates the timing of the dance as well. The dancers step in and out
to the beats of the bamboos with ease and grace. The patterns and stepping off
the dance have many variations. Sometimes the steppings are made in imitation
of the movements of birds, sometimes the swaying of trees and so on.
Little is known about the origin of Cheraw. It may be possible that the
forefathers of the Mizos brought it with them when they left home in far east
Asia. Cheraw is performed on any occasion these days. But so the legend. It
used to be performed in earlier times only to ensure a safe passage for a dead
child to paradise. Cheraw is, therefore, a dance of sanctification and
redemption performed with great care, precision and elegance.
(a) According to the passage, Cheraw is 1 Mark
(i) a form of art
Class X English www.vedantu.com 2
(ii) a festival of lights
(iii) a form of dance
(iv) a Mizo animal
Ans: (iii) Cheraw is a form of dance
(b) Cheraw is performed: 1 Mark
(i) to show respect to the state
(ii) for sanctification and redemption
(iii) to please the goddess of dance
(iv) to earn money
Ans: (ii) Cheraw is performed for sanctification and redemption
(c) The dancers in the Cheraw dance to: 1 Mark
(i) beats of drums
(ii) beats of bamboo
(iii) the clapping of the singers
(iv) the sound of a whistle
Ans: (i) The dancers in the Cheraw dance to the beats of drums
(d)The statement - …………… is correct 1 Mark
(i) four bases support the bamboo
(ii) Cheraw is the solo dance
(iii) Cheraw is a dull stepping pattern
(iv) the sound of bamboo forms the rhythm of dance
Ans: (iv) the sound of bamboo forms the rhythm of dance
(e) The word redemption in the passage means: 1 Mark
Class X English www.vedantu.com 3
(i) performed with great care
(ii) solution
(iii) deliverance from evil ways
(iv) compensation
Ans: (iii) deliverance from evil ways
2. Read the passage given below and complete the statements that follow by
choosing the most appropriate options. 5 Marks
The Himalayan valley is the geographical guard of Indian territory against any
foreign invasion keeping enemies at bay from the western to eastern
subcontinent of the Asian sphere. The valley abounds with the classified variety
of different glaciers, wildlife, peaks and thick vegetation liable to support the
homo sapiens.
Pindari glacier is a range of four glaciers, namely Sunderdunga, Namik.
Pindari and Kafni. To go to the Pindari glacier is a 54 km trek and the walking
part is normally covered in four days. In this trek cross many mountains and
forests and see a lot of wildlife. We have eight members in the team. The whole
trip took us ten days in the mountains. Throughout the way, our guide and my
father explained to us the various features of the Himalayas we were passing
through. We had to face bad weather for two days. There was a steep climb at
some places and we climbed up we were affected by high altitude sickness and
lack of oxygen and we felt very tired.
Pindari glacier is rounded on all sides by snow-covered peaks such as Nanda
Devi, Nanda Kim, Nanda Khar, Bailiuri and many more. This glacier is frozen
ice and settled in such a way that it looks like a huge staircase. There I saw all
physical features such as gorges, moraines, hanging valleys etc.
(a) Pindari glacier is: 1 Mark
(i) a glacier range of four mountains namely Sunderdanga, Naimik, Pindari
and Kafni
(ii) a mountain peak surrounded by Sundendunga,Namik and Kafni
Class X English www.vedantu.com 4
(iii) a forest in the Himalayan region
(iv) a range of four glaciers namely Sunderdunga, Namik, Pindari and Kafni
Ans: (iv) Pindari glacier is a range of four glaciers namely Sunderdunga, Namik,
Pindari and Kafni.
(b)A trip to Pindari glacier 1 Mark
(i) is very informative
(ii) helps in understanding the natural geography
(iii) is an adventurous experience as one has to face had weather and difficult
treks
(iv) is all of the above
Ans: (iv) is all of the above
(c)………… made the members to suffer while trekking to their destination.
1 Mark
(i) Steep climb and lack of oxygen
(ii) High altitude sickness, lack of oxygen and steep climb
(iii) Lack of Oxygen and tiredness
(iv) Lack of oxygen and snow-covered peaks
Ans: (ii) High altitude sickness, lack of oxygen and steep climb
(d) The temperature in the area is: 1 Mark
(i) normal
(ii) Below zero degree
(iii) very high
(iv) warm
Ans: (ii) Below zero degree
Class X English www.vedantu.com 5
(e)The word in the passage which means the same as "characteristics" is:
1 Mark
(i) features
(ii) altitude
(iii) treks
(iv) gorges
Ans: (i) features
3. Read the poem given below and answer the questions that follow: 5 Marks
A nightingale, that all day long
Had cheered the village with his song.
Nor yet at eve, his note suspended,
Nor yet when eventide was ended,
Began to feel as well be might,
The keen demands of appetite.
When looking eagerly around.
He spied far off, upon the ground,
A something shining in the dark
And knew the glow-worm by his spark;
So, stooping down from hawthorn top,
He thought to put him in his crop,
The worm, aware of his intent,
Harangued him thus, right eloquent
Class X English www.vedantu.com 6
'Did you admire my lamp, ‘quoth he,
‘As much as I your minstrelsy,
You would abhor to do me wrong,
As much as I to spoil your song;
For 'twas the self-same power divine,
Taught you to sing, and me to shine.
(a) How was the nightingale busy for the whole day? 1 Mark
Ans: The nightingale sang all day and brightened up the entire village with her sweet
song. It didn't stop singing even later in the evening. When it got dark, though, the
singing came to an end because the nightingale had grown hungry.
(b) How did the nightingale recognize the glow-worm? 1 Mark
Ans: After singing all day, the nightingale began to get hungry in the late evening
hours. It began seeking for a meal to feed itself, and by his spark, it spotted the glow-
worm.
(c) Why did the glow-worm feel scared? 1 Mark
Ans: The glow-worm was spotted by the nightingale when it was seeking for food.
The glow-worm was scared of becoming prey to the nightingale because it was
aware of the nightingale's objectives.
(d) With what words of wisdom did the glow-worm persuade the nightingale
not to do him any wrong? 1 Mark
Ans: With its quick and smart thinking, the glow-worm, convinces the nightingale
to cause no harm. It begins to praise and congratulate the nightingale. The glow-
worm goes on to say that, just as the nightingale brightens up the day, the glow-
worm brightens up the night with its light. It claims that because they are both God's
created with distinct purposes, they should live in peace with one another.
(e) Find a word from the poem which means the same as ‘loudly appealed to
persuade’. 1 Mark
Ans: Harangue.
Class X English www.vedantu.com 7
SECTION - B
(Writing ) 15 Marks
4. You are Anmol/Anamika living away from home, for the first time in your
life, in a boarding school in Gwalior (M.P.). Write a letter to your mother
explaining how you are feeling, the food you eat and the way it is served in the
hostel. Describe your experience in about 120 words, and request your mother
to admit you to a day school back at home. 5 Marks
Ans:
34/57, Aval vihar
Gwalior
29 January 2018
Greetings, Mom
What's new with you? I hope everything is fine with you. I've been feeling unhappy
and lonely here lately. The thought of being away from home makes me nauseous,
and I've felt homesick since I arrived. Although I was advised that it was typical
during our first few days together, it has now been three months and it does not
appear to be getting any better.
Furthermore, the cuisine is another letdown. For my tastes, it's either undercooked
or excessively hot. Not only that, but our dining room is filthy. This only adds to my
need for home.
Instead, I'd like to return and enrol in a day school there. I'm hoping to hear from
you shortly. Stay safe!
With love,
Anamika
Or
Floods in Uttarakhand in June 2012, wiped out hundreds of villages: people
have been left homeless; sources of liveliness gone, no roads. In this hour of
their need, all the countrymen must come forward to help. As a responsible
citizen, write a letter in about 120 words to the Editor, The Times, N. Delhi,
Class X English www.vedantu.com 8
expressing your concern about the miserable condition of those who have been
uprooted. Make an appeal to the people to donate generously to the
Uttarakhand Relief Fund. 5 Marks
Ans:
C-1/56, Maurya Vihar
Dehradun
12 June 2012
To
The Editor
The Times
New Delhi – 110026
Subject: Miserable condition due to floods in Uttarakhand
Respected Sir,
I'd want to bring the hardship of the citizens of Uttarakhand to the attention of all
countrymen through the columns of your prestigious newspaper.
The recent floods have wreaked havoc on many people's life, wiping out hundreds
of villages. Many people were forced to flee their homes as a result of the floods,
leaving them without a source of income. This sad state of circumstances is a cry for
assistance.
It is our responsibility as citizens to help all individuals who are frantically seeking
assistance. A donation, no matter how small or large, could save a life. As a result,
everyone is asked to come forward and aid people in need by making a significant
donation to the Uttarakhand Relief Fund.
Thank You.
Yours Sincerely,
Ashish
Class X English www.vedantu.com 9
5. Prices of food articles are increasing day by day and there is a wide gap
between the wholesale prices and retail prices. A common man is suffering. The
government is trying to control the prices. Write an article in 120-150 words on
"Rising Prices" and give suggestions on how to control them. You may use the
hints given below:
Hints (40 per cent below the poverty line, incomes of lower middle class very
low, prices of food articles risen high, difficult to make both ends meet; steps
taken by the government; causes of rising prices; your suggestions). 5 Marks
Ans: Rising Prices
Food is a basic requirement for both the rich and the impoverished. However, the
rising cost of food makes it impossible for the impoverished to eat a satisfying
dinner. The impoverished are not the only ones who are affected by rising prices;
the typical person is also affected. With 40% of our population living in poverty,
excessive prices will inevitably lead to a national food catastrophe. With their
meagre earnings, the lower middle class of our society is finding it increasingly
difficult to make ends meet.
The rise in costs is most likely due to a lack of output this year. The lack of rain in
the country, as well as the government's poor implementation of policy, are the most
likely causes.
As a result, the government faces a sensitive issue that it must address immediately
and take the required actions to lift the ordinary man out of his predicament.
Irrigation facilities, as well as adequate farmer subsidies, must be supplied quickly.
To provide the required motivation for farmers to sell their produce, the minimum
support price for agricultural products must be increased.
Or
India needs energetic and healthy youth to serve her but the school going
turning lazy, obese and disease-prone these days. You are Shobhit/Shobhna.
Write a speech on the topic School Going Children – why lazy in 120-150 words.
You may use the hints given below:
Hints -(no physical activities, - instead of sports prefer video games, - chatting
on the internet, -TV watching, wrong food habits- used to junk food, -soft
drinks: effects - obesity, high blood pressure, overweight;- need to live a
disciplined life). 5 Marks
Class X English www.vedantu.com 10
Ans: School Going Children – Why Lazy?
By Shobhit
Today, I, Shobhna, am here in front of you all to bring to your attention a crucial yet
frequently overlooked topic. Our country has always been a vibrant, bustling place.
We have always worked for what we desired, starting with Gandhi's Dandi March.
Can we say the same about our country's kids today? Not at all.
School-aged children are becoming increasingly sedentary, fat, and disease-prone.
The main culprit is a lack of physical activity. Video games are now preferred by
children over outdoor sports. Chatting on the internet, watching TV, and other such
activities have become addictions. Obesity, high blood pressure, and overweight are
all caused by unhealthy eating habits such as consuming junk food and soft drinks.
It is critical for today's young to live a disciplined and healthy lifestyle in order for
our country to have a bright future.
Thank you very much!
6. "That day my father came home with a kitten Complete this story in 120-150
words. You may use the following hints:
(cute animal-named Dumpy - became very friendly gave him milk- my mother
angry -food disappeared - scratches on furniture - socks torn into shreds-
mother gave away Dumpy to a neighbour) 5 Marks
Ans: That day my father came home with a kitten, and it was the cutest critter I had
ever seen! We all agreed on the name Dumpy after much deliberation. It quickly
grew acquainted with the household, and I occasionally offered him milk. However,
things began to deteriorate when my mother noticed that some food had vanished.
We began to see scratches on furniture and our socks getting shredded over the next
few days. As a consequence, we realised that they were all the outcome of Dumpy's
wrongdoing. My mother handed Dumpy to one of our neighbours because she was
tired of it all. Although I was first disappointed, I have come to realise that it is for
the best.
Or
Class X English www.vedantu.com 11
You are Pranav/Parnita of Sarvodya Co-ed. Senior Secondary School, N. Delhi.
You visited a Science Exhibition organized by the Directorate of Education, N.
Delhi. Write a brief report, in 120-150 words, for your school magazine on what
you saw, the exhibits you liked most and other features of the exhibition. You
may use the hints given below.
(organized by- date and venue-inauguration by- number of schools
participated- stall for each school working models, charts, interesting projects
put up by students - Science in the Service of Man - the theme-THE best model
got the price). 5 Marks
Ans: Science Exhibition
-Parnita
(Sarvodya Co-ed School, 12 Jan 2018)
On January 12, 2018, the Directorate of Education, New Delhi, hosted a Science
Exhibition at Sarvodya Co-ed Senior Secondary School. The Chairman of the
Central Board of Secondary Education opened the expo, which drew a large number
of schools. Each school was given a stall where they could display their work. The
exhibition's theme was 'Science in the Service of Man,' and students displayed a
variety of interesting projects. Working models and charts from several branches of
science were on display at the exhibition. Each participating school received a
certificate of appreciation, and the best model received a reward and a certificate
from the chief guest.
SECTION - C
(Grammar) 15 Marks
7. Read the passage given below and fill in the blanks by choosing the most
appropriate words from the given options. 1 ✕ 3 =3 Marks
I have been (a)……….. to learn English for the last three years. But, I haven't
(b)........yet. My teacher is very patient with me and he (c)..........me every time I
fail.
(a)
(i) tired
Class X English www.vedantu.com 12
(ii) try
(iii) tries
(iv) trying
Ans: (iv) trying
(b)
(i) succeeded
(ii) succeed
(iii) succeeds
(iv) succeeding
Ans: (i) succeeded
(c)
(i) encouraging
(ii) encourage
(iii) encourages
(iv) encouraged
Ans: (iii) encourages
8. Complete the dialogue 1 ✕ 3 = 3 Marks
Shivani: When did you arrive in Delhi, Mr Shiv?
Shiv: I (a)……… yesterday.
Shivani: Did you (b)……… on the way?
Shiv: Nothing much, but someone (c)………. my bag while I was sleeping in
the train.
Class X English www.vedantu.com 13
Shivani: It is very sad news.
(a)
(i) arrived
(ii) have arrived
(iii) was arrived
(iv) had arrived
Ans: (i) arrived
(b)
(i) had any difficulty
(ii) have a difficulty
(iii) have any difficulty
(iv) had a difficulty
Ans: (iii) have any difficulty
(c)
(i) ran away with
(ii) runs away with
(iii) has run away
(iv) had run away
Ans: (i) ran away with
9. Look at the words and phrases given below. Rearrange them to form
meaningful sentences as given in the example. 1✕ 3 =3 Marks
Example: dying from cancer / can help / of/ eating/ cut the risk / flax seeds/
Class X English www.vedantu.com 14
Eating flaxseeds can help cut the risk of dying from cancer.
(a) or salads / sprinkled on cereals/can be/they/
Ans: They can be sprinkled on cereals or salads.
(b) kills/ contain/flax seeds / cancer cells/ a special compound / which/
Ans: Flax seeds contain a special compound which kills cancer cells.
(c) local general stores/all/ obtained/flax seeds/may be / from/
Ans: Flax seeds may be obtained from all local general stores.
10. The following passage has not been edited. There is an error in each line
against which a blank has been given. Write the incorrect word and the
correction in your answer sheet against the correct blank number as given in
the example. Remember to underline the word that you have supplied. 1x3=3
Marks
Error Correction
Boys who have never fight e.g fight fought
each other in the class is today (a) ------ -------
bitterly annoyed or fearful. (b) ------ -------
Even during a Holi festival (c) ------ -------
the school has been peaceful.
Ans:
Error Correction
(a) is are
(b) or and
(c) a the
11. Do as directed: 1✕ 3 =3 Marks
Class X English www.vedantu.com 15
(a) He is so honest that he will not accept a bribe. (Rewrite the sentence using
too without changing the meaning)
Ans: He is too honest to accept a bribe.
(b) She did not sing a song. (Change the voice)
Ans: The song wasn’t sung by her.
(c) I finished the work. I went home. (Combine the sentences into one sentence
beginning with 'Having.")
Ans: Having finished the work, I went home.
SECTION- D 35 Marks
(Literature /Value-based question)
12. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow.
1✕ 3=3 Marks
Marriage gifts are meaningless without the sweet bread known as the bol, just
as a party or a feast loses its charm without bread. Not enough can be said to
show how important a baker can be for a village. The lady of the house must
prepare sandwiches on the occasion of the daughter's engagement. Cakes and
bolinhas are a must for Christmas as well as other festivals. Thus, the presence
of the baker's furnace in the village is absolutely essential.
(a) Why is the baker's furnace essential for the Goan people?
Ans: A baker's furnace is necessary for a variety of occasions, including banquets,
weddings, and festivals.
(b) On which occasions are the cakes and bolinhas necessary?
Ans: Cakes and bolinhas are necessary during Christmas and other festivals.
(c) Which word in the passage is the opposite in meaning of 'absence"?
Ans: Presence.
Class X English www.vedantu.com 16
13. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow.
1✕ 3=3 Marks
Don’t excite yourself, my precious one. Allow me. Your Guess certainly has is
good points. He's purebred, firm on his feet, has well-sprung ribs, and all that.
But, my dear man, if you want to know the truth, that dog has two defects; he's
old and he's short in the muzzle.
(a) Who is the speaker here? Who is he speaking to?
Ans: Chubukov is speaking to Lonov.
(b) According to the speaker what is the truth about Guess?
Ans: The truth about Guess is that he is old and is short in the muzzle
(c) What is the adjectival form "truth?
Ans: True is the adjectival form of truth.
14. Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow:
1✕ 3 = 3 Marks
"I heard an old religious man
But yesternight declare
That he had found a text to prove
That only God, my dear,
Could love you for yourself alone
And not your yellow hair."
(a) What does 'T' refer to here?
Ans: "I" refers to the poet.
(b) How is God's love different from the love of the young lovers?
Class X English www.vedantu.com 17
Ans: God's love is unique because only God can love you for who you are, not what
you look like.
(c)Which word in the extract means ‘a religious book’?
Ans: A religious book is referred to as a "text."
15. Answer the following questions in 30-40 words each. 2✕ 6=12 Marks
(a) Why was Rajbir excited to see the tea garden?
Ans: Rajbir was ecstatic to see the tea garden because he had never seen one before.
Unlike Pranjol, his friend, who has spent his entire life in tea plantations, his trip to
his buddy's residence in Assam was his first time seeing a tea garden, which piqued
his interest.
(b) Give examples from the text to show that Valli was a meticulous planner?
Ans: Valli listened intently to talks between her neighbours and individuals who
took the bus on a regular basis for months, and she even asked a few subtle inquiries
here and there to learn all the facts of the bus ride. She even estimated that it would
cost her thirty paise to travel and thirty pence to return. She had to make sure she
returned before her mother discovered. As a result, she scheduled her time
accordingly. The journey to the town took 45 minutes. This meant she'd be back
home in about two forty-five minutes.
(c) What happened when Maxwell took Mijbil to the bathroom?
Ans: When Maxwell took Mijbil to the restroom, he was overjoyed and spent half
an hour splashing around in the water. Like a hippo, it was shooting up and down
the bathtub, plunging and rolling in it and making a lot of splashes.
(d) How did Richard's mother help him to become a scientist?
Ans: Richard's mother was always supportive of his pursuits. She frequently
purchased him telescopes, cameras, and microscopes, as well as taking him on trips.
She discovered things for him to learn and experiment with when he didn't have
anything to do. His mother once gave him a book that turned out to be a watershed
moment in his life.
(e) Why did Matilda change her lifestyle after the ball?
Class X English www.vedantu.com 18
Ans: Matilda had misplaced a necklace she had borrowed from a wealthy
acquaintance and therefore finds herself in a financial trap in order to replace it,
forcing her to live as a common lower-middle-class housewife. She makes the
decision to begin doing all of the household chores that a lady of her status is
expected to do. She learned to live within her means as a result of this.
(f) Give examples from the text to show that Bholi was a neglected child?
Ans: Bholi was the youngest daughter of Ramlal, a wealthy farmer with seven
children. Despite the fact that there was enough food for everyone, all of the children
were healthy and strong, with the exception of Bholi. When the Tehsildar urged
Ramlal to send his daughters to school, his wife requested that only Bholi be sent
because she was trying to get rid of her. Bholi also never wore new clothes. Her
sisters' old outfits were passed down to her. Nobody bothered to fix or wash her
garments.
16. Answer the following question in 80-100 words. 4 Marks
The Buddha said, "The world is afflicted with death and decay, therefore the
wise do not grieve, knowing the terms of the world." Do you think the statement
is appropriate even for today's life? Write your views in the context of the above
statement.
Ans: Yes, the statement is still relevant in today's world. Death, according to
Buddha, is unavoidable. According to Buddha, everything in this created universe is
vulnerable to apparent death. He goes on to suggest that the environment has a big
influence on misery, sickness, and agony and that death and decay are inevitable.
Those who do not comprehend this are unable to accept death in the case of their
loved ones. A mother in the storey "The Sermon at Benares" is unable to accept her
son's death and seeks a way to bring him back to life. With his knowledge, Buddha
finds a method to teach her this crucial life lesson.
Or
Answer the following question in 80-100 words. 4 Marks
The ‘Necklace’reveals that vanity is evil. It may bring joy for a short period but
ultimately it leads to ruin. If you were placed in a situation similar to that of
Matilda, what would you have done? Write your views.
Class X English www.vedantu.com 19
Ans: True, vanity is evil. It may bring pleasure for a brief while, but it eventually
leads to disaster. Matilda borrowed a diamond necklace to wear at the minister's
reception for a little pleasure and to display her vanity. She had a nervous
breakdown. To replace it, Mr Lisle, her husband, took out a large debt. Both of them
worked hard for ten years to return the loan. Matilda had to give up her ease, youth,
softness, and beauty. She grew into a harsh, destitute lady with coarse hair and hands.
Mrs Forester later informed her that it was a fake diamond necklace that she could
buy for 500 francs.I would have told my friend the truth if I had been in that scenario.
I would have apologised profusely for losing it and assured her that I would replace
it, but she would have to tell me where to obtain it and how much it would cost.
Attempt either Part (a) or Part (b)
Part - A
17. Answer the following question in about 100 words. 5 Marks
When did Anne tell her father about Peter and herself, what was his reaction?
Did she take his words kindly? Support your answer with examples from her
diary entries of May 1944.
Ans: Her father disapproved of Anne and Peter's relationship when Anne told him
about it. Her sister Margot then advised that she write her father a letter expressing
her love toward Peter. Anne did the same by drafting a letter, stating that she
recognises the responsibility and does not want to be reliant on others for her needs
after all of her trials. Her father was unhappy when he received the letter because he
had not expected such remarks from her daughter. Anne felt bad about herself for
being so nasty. She believes she has betrayed her parents' trust and good confidence
in her. She felt ashamed and recognised that she still had a lot to learn.
18. Answer the following question in about 100 words. 5 Marks
What light do the diary entries of Anne throw on the character of Mr Dussel?
Ans: The character of Mr Dussel's according to Anne's diary notes, was not very
pleasant and good. Mr Dussel is a dentist who was Anne's roommate in the Secret
Annex throughout her time there. Mr Dussel is painted in an unfavourable light by
Anne in her diary entries. Mr Dussel's demeanour irritates Anne greatly. He is
Class X English www.vedantu.com 20
egotistical and unconcerned with Anne's feelings. He expresses no gratitude to the
families who have allowed him to use their hiding places. He can't seem to get along
with anyone in the annexe. By breaching the rules, he frequently puts their lives in
jeopardy. He had a surplus of food in his possession, but he never shared it with
anyone.
Or
Answer the following question in about 100 words. 5 Marks
Anne stands out as a who never loses her optimism and courage in spite of
adverse circumstances. Describe by giving examples.
Ans: Anne is forced to live in a secret annexe with her family and a few others when
she is 13 years old to avoid the Nazis' wrath. She experiences various harsh and life-
threatening scenarios during her time in the annexe, yet she remains strong
throughout. Anne sees her world crumble to dust multiple times, but she resolves to
hold on to what she believes, that the turmoil and uncertainty will end and the world
will change for the better. Her bravery and optimism help her evolve into a mature
woman who is aware of her surroundings and interpersonal interactions. Even in her
personal connections, she manages to make mature decisions.
Part - B
17. "And even now I sometimes feel the same uneasiness and disquietitude."
Why does Helen speak these words? How did she come out of her uneasiness?
5 Marks
Ans: Helen experiences the same unease and disquiet when she is writing because
she is afraid of plagiarizing someone else's words. This is due to the plagiarism
claims that have been levelled against her. Michael's attempt to separate himself
from her had crushed her. She goes the Niagara Falls and the World Fair to alleviate
her discomfort. Both of these locations assist her in feeling better and overcoming
her anxiety.
18. Answer the following question in about 100 words. 5 Marks
Write a character sketch of Bishop Brooks.
Class X English www.vedantu.com 21
Ans: Helen's spiritual hero is Bishop Brooks. He is one of the greatest men Helen
has ever known, and she considers it a privilege to have met him. Helen had known
him since she was a child when he would talk about God and spirituality. The bishop
was a knowledgeable man who never attempted to stifle her ideas. He taught Helen
many things, but primarily two concepts: god's fatherhood and man's fraternity. He
also taught her that love is the only true international religion. Her ideas and horizons
were widened as a result of these lessons. He truly had a profound impact on her
way of life.
Or
Answer the following question in about 100 words. 5 Marks
Helen had a special love for outdoor life. Explain by giving two examples from
the story of her life.
Ans: Helen Keller wrote in "The Story of My Life" that she found nature both
intriguing and disturbing. She found refuge and strength in nature as a child. Helen
found that concealing her face in cold leaves and grass in the garden provided her
with solace from her tensions. By smelling the roses, violets, and lilies and touching
the hedges to guide her around, she grew familiar with various parts of the garden.
It quickly became a haven for her, allowing her to forget about her impairments (of
sight and sound). Annie Sullivan, Helen's teacher, came to promote Helen's love of
the outdoors by making her feel that nature was her buddy. Her earliest lessons, she
recalls, were given in the presence of nature. Helen would focus on the beauty and
calm of nature in minute detail, as well as its link to her world, rather than intellectual
issues. Miss Sullivan taught her the word "water" by touching it, and she
remembered it well. She even learned about nature's unpredictability by recalling
her terror when climbing a tree. In this approach, she seeks out opportunities to learn
from nature and progressively overcomes her concerns.
Class X English www.vedantu.com 22
CBSE Class 10
English (Language and Literature)
Previous Year Question Paper 2015
Series: RLH Set - 1
Code no. 2/1
● Please check that this paper contains 8 printed pages.
● Code number given on the right-hand side of the question paper should be
written on the title page of the answer-book by the candidate.
● Please check that this question paper contains 11 questions.
● Please write down the Serial Number of the question in the answer
book before attempting it.
● 15 minutes of time has been allotted to read this question paper. The
question paper will be distributed at 10.15 a.m. From 10.15 a.m. to 10.30
a.m, The students will read the question paper only and will not write any
answer on the answer-book during this period.
SUMMATIVE ASSESSMENT – II
ENGLISH (Language and Literature)
Time Allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 70
General Instructions:
(i) The question paper comprises three sections
Section A - Reading 20 Marks
Class X English www.vedantu.com 1
Section B - Writing and Grammar 25 Marks
Section C - Literature/Textbook and
Long Reading Question 25 Marks
(ii) There are 11 questions in the question paper.
(iii) All questions are compulsory.
(iv) Marks are indicated against each question.
SECTION - A
(Reading) 20 Marks
1. Read the passage given below: 8 Marks
Kausani is situated at a height of 6,075 feet in the Central Himalayas. It is an
unusually attractive little town. It covers just about 5.2 sq. km. It lies to the
north of Almora in Uttarakhand's picturesque Kumaon region.
Kausani provides a 300-km wide breathtaking view of the Himalayas. It is the
most striking aspect of the place. Snow-capped peaks are spread in a stately
row. They stare at you in silvery-white majesty. The most famous peak on view
is Nanda Devi, the second-highest mountain in India. It is situated at a height
of 25, 645 feet and 36 miles away as the crow flies. The other famous peaks on
view are choukhamba (23,420 feet) and Trishul (23,360 feet). Then there are
also Nilkanth, Nandaghunti, Nandaghat, and Nandakot. On a clear day, the
blue of the sky makes a splendid background to these peaks. At sunrise and at
sunset, when the color changes to a golden orange, the scene gets etched in your
memory.
When Gandhiji visited this place in 1929, its scenic beauty held him spellbound.
He named it the 'Switzerland of India'. He prolonged his two-day stay to
fourteen days, making time to write a book, 'Anashakti Yoga'. The place where
he was staying was originally a guest-house of the tea estate. It was renamed
'Anashakti Ashram' after the book.
Class X English www.vedantu.com 2
Kausani is the birthplace of Sumitranandan Pant, India's poet laureate. Its
natural surroundings inspired many of his poems. Its tea gardens mingle with
dense pine forests and fruit orchards. The area is also host to many fairs and
religious ceremonies. If Uttaranchal is the abode of gods, Kausani is God's own
backyard. There is no traffic, no one is in a hurry. If serenity could be put on a
canvas, the picture would resemble Kausani.
On the basis of your reading of the above passage, answer the following
questions :
(a) Where is Kausani situated? 1 Mark
Ans: Kausani is located in the Central Himalayas at a height of 6075 feet and spans
an area of 5.2 square kilometers. It is located in Uttarakhand's scenic Kumaon area,
to the north of Almora.
(b) What is the most striking aspect of Kausani? 1 Mark
Ans: Kausani offers a 300-kilometer-wide panoramic vista of the Himalayas, with
snow-capped peaks standing in a majestic row, staring at one another in silvery-
white majesty. This is Kausani's most noticeable feature.
(c) Which is the most famous peak on view from Kausani? 1 Mark
Ans: The most notable peak visible from Kausani is Nanda Devi, India's second-
highest peak. As the crow flies, it is located at a height of 25,645 feet and 36 miles
away.
(d) How did Kausani influence Sumitranandan Pant ? 1 Mark
Ans: Sumitranandan Pant, India's poet laureate, was born in Kausani. Its tea gardens,
which were interspersed with lush pine forests and fruit orchards, impacted the poet
and provided inspiration for many of his writings.
(e) When does the view of peaks become so memorable? 1 Mark
Ans: On a clear day, the view of the peaks is particularly striking, with the sky
providing a stunning backdrop. The scene is ingrained in one's memory during
sunrise and sunset when the color changes to a golden orange.
Class X English www.vedantu.com 3
(f) How can we say that Gandhiji was greatly charmed by the natural beauty of
Kausani? 1 Mark
Ans: When Gandhiji visited Kausani in 1929, he was so taken aback by the natural
splendor that he dubbed it the "Switzerland of India." He even extended his two-day
visit to fourteen days, inspiring him to compose "Anasakti Yoga."
(g) What makes Kausani a calm and quiet place? 1 Mark
Ans: Kausani is said to be God's personal retreat. There is no traffic or hurry, and
the atmosphere is serene. As a result, Kausani has developed into a serene and
peaceful location.
(h) Why, do you think, is Kausani known as ‘God’s own backyard’? 1 Mark
Ans: Kausani is a place where tranquility, peace, and peacefulness coexist. The
location offers a panoramic view of the Himalayan peaks. As a result, if Uttaranchal
is the home of the gods, Kausani is God's backyard.
2. Read the passage given below: 12 Marks
1. I rested for a moment at the door of Anand Bhawan, on Market Road,
where coffee-drinkers and tiffin-eaters sat still at their tables, uttering
low moans on seeing me. I wanted to assure them, ‘‘Don’t mind me, you
are hugging the cash box — you are a coward, afraid even to breathe. Go
on, count the cash, if that is your pleasure. I just want to watch, that’s all.
If my tail trails down to the street, if I am blocking your threshold, it is
because I’m told, I’m eleven feet tip to tail. I can’t help it. I’m not out to
kill — I’m too full. I found a green pasture full of food on my way. I won’t
attack until I feel hungry again. Tigers attack only when they feel hungry,
unlike human
beings who slaughter one another without purpose or hunger.’’
2. To the great delight of children, schools were being hurriedly closed.
Children of all ages and sizes were running helter-skelter, screaming
joyously, ‘‘No school, no school. Tiger, tiger!’’ They were shouting and
laughing and even enjoying being scared. They seemed to welcome me. I
felt like joining them. So I bounded away from the restaurant door. I
Class X English www.vedantu.com 4
walked along with them, at which they cried, ‘The tiger is coming to eat
us; let us get back to school!’’
3. I followed them through their school gate while they ran up and shut
themselves in the school hall securely. I climbed up the steps of the school,
saw an open door at the far end of a veranda, and walked in. It happened
to be the headmaster’s room. I noticed a very dignified man jumping on
the table and heaving himself up into an attic. I walked in and flung
myself on the cool floor, having a special liking for cool stone floors.
4. As I drowsed, I was aware of cautious steps and hushed voices all around.
I was in no mood to bother about anything. All I wanted was a little
moment of sleep; the daylight was very bright.
On the basis of your reading of the above passage, answer the following
questions:
(a) How did the diners at Anand Bhawan react to seeing the tiger? 2 Marks
Ans: When the diners at Ananda Bhavan saw the tiger, they let out faint moans.
Furthermore, schools were hurriedly closed, and children of all ages ran helter-
skelter, yelling joyfully, “No school, no school, tiger, tiger!”
(b) When do tigers attack? In this context, how are human beings different
from tigers? 2 Marks
Ans: “I won't attack until I feel hungry again,” it claimed of tigers that don't attack
until they're hungry.
People destroy anyone and everyone whenever they want, as the tiger put it:
“Tigers attack only when they are hungry, unlike humans who slaughter one
another without purpose or hunger.”
(c) Why were children happy and even enjoying being scared? 2 Marks
Ans: The students were overjoyed to see that their schools had been closed.
However, they were afraid of the tiger's presence and fled around the helter-skelter,
yelling joyfully, "No school, no school." “Tiger, tiger,” they said, laughing and
apparently enjoying their terror.
(d) What did the headmaster do on seeing the tiger? What did the tiger-like to
do in the headmaster’s office? 2 Marks
Class X English www.vedantu.com 5
Ans: When the headmaster saw the tiger, he leaped on the table and heaved
himself up into the attic. The tiger dropped himself onto the cool stone floor (he
had a special liking for cool stone floors) and all he wanted was a brief respite
from the blazing sunlight.
(e) Identify the word which means the same as ‘hugging’. (Para 1) 1 Mark
(i) counting
(ii) hiding
(iii) rubbing
(iv) holding tightly in the arms
Ans: (iv) holding tightly in the arms
(f) Identify the word which means the same as ‘delight’. (Para 2) 1 Mark
(i) pleasure
(ii) fear
(iii) sorrow
(iv) nervousness
Ans: (i) pleasure
(g) Identify the word which means the same as ‘dignified’. (Para 3) 1 Mark
(i) tall
(ii) honorable
(iii) terrified
(iv) tired
Ans: (ii) honorable
(h) Identify the meaning of the word, ‘bounded’. (Para 2) 1 Mark
(i) walked
Class X English www.vedantu.com 6
(ii) jumped forward
(iii) walked with heavy steps
(iv) ran lazily
Ans: (iii) walked with heavy steps
SECTION - B
(Writing and Grammar ) 25 Marks
3. Recently a serious quarrel took place in a colony in Delhi due to the use of
loudspeakers at a public place and caused disharmony among the people. Write
a letter in 100 – 120 words to the Editor of The Hindustan Times expressing
your concern over the unpleasant incident, highlighting the fact that the
loudspeakers cause noise pollution and discord, suggesting that the
unauthorized use of loudspeakers at public places should be banned. You are
Anjana/Arjun, F-112 Kailash Colony, Delhi. 5 Marks
Ans:
F-112, Kailash Colony,
Delhi-110048
3rd March,’2015
To,
The Editor,
The Hindustan Times
Ravindrapuri,
Karolbagh,
Delhi-722045
Subject: Complaint against the unauthorized use of loudspeakers at public places
Respected Sir,
Class X English www.vedantu.com 7
I, Anjana Mathur, a resident of F-112, Kailash Colony, am writing to you to
emphasize the need of ending the unlicensed use of loudspeakers in public spaces.
After hearing about my infant nephew's recent ear surgery due to loud noise, I'd like
you to spread the word about the importance of maintaining quiet in the
neighborhood. The high decibel sounds influence and disrupts a person's mental
phenomena, making him nauseous, irritable, and unable to concentrate on his
activity. Enjoyment or refreshment can take place without such deafeningly loud
noises that leave one feeling unbalanced and exhausted. As a result, I feel that loud
music should be prohibited, at least in public spaces.
I would be grateful if you could check into this matter and publish it in your daily
column so that my appeal would reach as many people as possible. Let us all work
together to raise awareness.
Thanking you
Yours sincerely,
Anjana Mathur
Or
Heavy rains in Jammu and Kashmir caused floods, landslides, house collapses,
and heavy loss of life and property. Write an article in 100 – 120 words on
‘Floods – Causes and Prevention’. You are Anita/Aman. 5 Marks
Ans: Floods- Causes and Prevention
By-Anita
Mankind is progressively coming closer to a dark den once again. Man's insatiable
desire to expand his property and estates has led him to deforest the planet. Trees,
the primary source of oxygen, are gradually disappearing from the earth's surface.
Trees are the creatures that grip soil particles to keep them from degrading. Massive
deforestation causes soil to be shifted from its original location during rainstorms,
resulting in landslides. In Jammu and Kashmir, this is the situation. Global warming
and the effects of greenhouse gases are hotly disputed topics all over the world.
Carbon dioxide levels have risen above the normal average due to continued
deforestation, resulting in a rise in global temperatures. As a result, glaciers have
begun to melt and flood the surrounding areas. Man's greed has claimed another
victim in Kashmir, causing incessant.
Class X English www.vedantu.com 8
Progress is only welcomed in the positive sense if it does not cause harm to others.
Technological progress is a benefit, but we are now witnessing the evil of science
combined with man's aspirations. To combat deforestation, the government should
implement an afforestation program and install rainwater collecting devices in
homes to collect, store, and recycle rainwater. We will soon discover a better way to
survive and live for generations on this planet.
4. ‘‘.......... Ultimately I won it as I was determined to achieve my goal.’’ The
closing of the story is given above. You can start your own story but you cannot
change the end. Write the story in 150 – 200 words. 10 Marks
Hints: humble family background — no guidance or support — ambition —
difficulties — didn’t give up — long struggle paved the way for success
Ans: “Wake up, boy!” Mrs. Murthy screamed. “Wake up, Ramesh!” Ramesh
rubbed his eyes and awoke from the mat on the porch, startled. He went to the
cowshed, limping on his foot, gathered the dried grass, and limped inside, still
exhausted from the previous day's battle. Meanwhile, inside, Mr. Murthy screamed,
“When will I have my tea?” Ramesh rushed towards the kitchen with a leap and
returned with his father's tea. He sat on the porch with his books after massaging his
father's rough, tired shoulders. His mother yelled, "Ramesh! Ramesh!" His mother
said, "Wash these clothes." Ramesh stood up, exhausted, to carry out his mother's
command. Ramesh is burning his hands while making roti for his family while his
pal Anjum is in class. “Phew!” Ramesh exhaled deeply. His objective was to be the
best in his class at matriculation. His ambition was to see his name in the morning
paper. His dream is to see his father jump for excitement. His desire was to see his
mother proudly crying out to their neighbor with pride. Months passed, Ramesh sat
for the exam, and one bright morning, Mr. Murthy said, “Ramesh, you topped the
exam.” “I knew,” Ramesh whispered with watery eyes, pale-faced and surprised. I
eventually triumphed because I was adamant about achieving my goal.”
Or
Complete a story in 150 – 200 words from the outline given below: 10 Marks
Birds lived — a forest — one year hot and dry — the kingbird suggested to
migrate — a greedy sparrow noticed carts with baskets of grain — the sparrow
dashed to eat — but warned her friends not to go — the owner might kill them
Class X English www.vedantu.com 9
— birds scared — the greedy sparrow enjoyed her meal — owner spread a net
— was caught
Ans: There was once a big tree in the gloomy forest that was the home to lovely
birds. They all chirped, crowed, and cawed at the same time. The weather was hot,
dry, and depressing as summer neared. The monarch, dissatisfied and dismayed by
the state of his subjects, decided to seek refuge in a cooler location. They were,
however, in need of food and were unable to locate any. A greedy sparrow came
across a shuttered and decaying business where it observed trolleys loaded with grain
baskets. It ran to eat on the grain, unable to contain itself. When word got out to the
other birds, they were all over it, ready to pounce on the food. Fearing that he might
lose his part of the food, the sparrow told his other birds that the owner may murder
them. This frightened the birds. The sparrow flew to the carts, hoping to delve into
the grain for all eternity, triumphant in his goal. He was savoring and appreciating
his dinner, completely oblivious to the fact that the proprietor had already laid the
net to catch it. The net closed down as soon as the sparrow poked at it, catching the
eager bird.
5. Read the passage given below and fill in the blanks by choosing the most
appropriate options from the ones that follow: 1✕ 3 = 3 Marks
There are ways and ways (a) _______ tackling a problem. But governments all
over the world (b) _________ only one system (c) ______________ is : the
carrot-and-stick one.
(a) (i) in
(ii) of
(iii) from
(iv) on
Ans: (ii) of
(b) (i) prefer
(ii) prefers
(iii) preferred
Class X English www.vedantu.com 10
(iv) preferring
Ans: (i) prefer
(c) (i) who
(ii) which
(iii) what
(iv) whose
Ans: (ii) which
6. The following passage has not been edited. There is one error in each line
against which a blank has been given. Write the incorrect word and the
correction in your answer sheet against the correct blank number as given in
the example. Remember to underline the word that you have supplied.
1✕ 4 = 4 Marks
Error Correction
Summer camps develop a child confidence. e.g. child child’s
They also encourages children (a) _________ _________
to do things by their own. (b) _________ _________
The camps is beneficial to (c) _________ _________
aggressive children as we promote (d) _________ _________
mutual understanding.
Ans:
a. Encourages Encourage
b. By on
c. Is are
Class X English www.vedantu.com 11
d. we they
7. Rearrange the following words and phrases into meaningful sentences. One
has been done for you as an example. 1✕3=3 Marks
Example :
person / physically / a / was / Kitty / handicapped /
Kitty was a physically handicapped person.
(a) sat up / wheelchair / in a / battery driven / every evening, / she
Ans: Every evening, she sat up in a battery-driven wheelchair.
(b) drove / an / she / her wheelchair / to / apple orchard /
Ans: She drove her wheelchair to an apple orchard.
(c) very happy / with apples / the trees / she was / to see / laden /
Ans: She was very happy to see the trees laden with apples.
SECTION - C
(Literature / Textbooks and Long Reading Text) 25 Marks
8. Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow :
1✕3=3 Marks
When I got to New Mullion, my eager expectations of a sweet and simple
country village were severely disappointed. Its streets were rivers of mud, with
rows of wooden shops, either painted a sour brown, or bare of any paint at all.
(a) Who is ‘I’?
Ans: In this context, “I” refers to a young lawyer who has been dispatched forty
miles into the countryside, to the town of New Mullion, to serve the summons on a
guy named Oliver Lutkins, who will be a witness in a legal case.
Class X English www.vedantu.com 12
(b) Why was ‘I’ disappointed?
Ans: The young lawyer was dissatisfied since his hopes for a beautiful and modest
country village were dashed. The streets of New Mullion were rivers of mud, along
with rows of wooden stores that were either painted a sour brown or naked of any
paint.
(c) What do the word ‘expectations’ mean?
Ans: The word "expectations" refers to something that is anxiously desired. In this
case, muddy streets and unadorned wooden shops badly disappointed the young
lawyer's hopes of country life.
Or
Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow :
1✕3=3 Marks
‘‘Never shall a young man,
Thrown into despair
By those great honey-colored
Ramparts at your ear,’’
(a) Who is the speaker of these lines? Who is he speaking to?
Ans: These lines were taken from W.B. Yeats’s poem "For Anne Gregory," and the
poet personally spoke the words.
These words were written for Anne Gregory, who assisted Yeats in building the
Abbey Theatre.
(b) What does the young man mean by ‘honey-colored ramparts’?
Ans: In these lines, Yeats describes how the golden tresses fall over Anne Gregory's
ears and around them in the same way that the defenses enclosing a castle or fort
against invaders encircle them.
(c) What does the word ‘despair’ mean?
Class X English www.vedantu.com 13
Ans: An unpleasant state is referred to as "despair." In this context, the poet writes
that the sight of the lady's "honey-colored ramparts" "throws the young men into
despair," because the presence of these strands of hair enveloping her ears enhances
her beauty, and the young men despair because their love for them is heightened by
the lady's very charming appearance.
9. Answer the following questions in 30 – 40 words each: 2✕ 4=8 Marks
(a) Why did the Buddha choose Benares to preach his first sermon?
Ans: As the most sacred of the Ganges dipping spots, Buddha presented his first
sermon in the holy city of Benares. His first sermon has been saved and is on display
here. It expresses Buddha's understanding of an inexplicable form of sorrow. “The
life of mortals in this world is turbulent, fleeting, and full of pain,” Buddha stated.
Because there is no way for those who have been born to avoid dying; death comes
with old age; living beings are of such a nature.”
(b) Why didn’t Valli want to go to the stall and have a drink? What does it tell
you about her?
Ans: Valli had been saving whatever spare coins that came her way, resisting every
urge to buy peppermints, toys, balloons, and the like, and had finally saved sixty
pence. She had even resisted a strong desire to ride the merry-go-round despite
having the funds, all in order to save money for a bus ticket. She'd already spent
sixty pence on the ride, and she didn't have enough money to buy a drink. Valli didn't
go to the stall to get a drink because of this.
We learn about her passion and desire to pursue her dream despite her financial
constraints. Valli is forthright and humble in refusing the conductor's drink. She
doesn't want to take other people's gifts in order to live her pleasures. She will spend
as much money as she can.
(c) Why was Matilda in a hurry to go to her house after the ball?
Ans: Matilda's husband threw the modest wraps that had carried poverty clashed
with the grandeur of the ball outfit around her shoulders after the party. Matilda, on
the other hand, was unconcerned about this and wanted to go away quickly so she
wouldn't be recognized by the other women who were dressed in luxurious furs. She
didn't even wait for the cab, rushing down the stairs.
Class X English www.vedantu.com 14
(d) What filled Bholi, a dumb cow, with new hope?
Ans: At school, Bholi's teacher told her that she would be able to finish an entire
book in one sitting. When she accomplishes so, she will be offered a larger book and
other benefits. The teacher assured her that she would grow more knowledgeable
than the rest of the villagers over time and that no one would be able to insult or
laugh at her. People would begin to appreciate her, and Bholi would be able to talk
clearly without stammering. All of this gave Bholi a new sense of hope.
10. Answer the following question in 80 – 100 words: 4 Marks
Through ‘The Sermon at Benares’, the Buddha preached that death is
inevitable and we need to overcome the suffering and pain that follows. Based
on your reading of the lesson, write how one should cope with the death of a
loved one.
Ans: According to Buddha, mortals' lives in this world are turbulent, fleeting, and
filled with misery. There is no way to live without dying. “...While the family
watches and weeps, one by one, mortals are dragged away, like an ox being led to
slaughter,” he taught. As a result of the world's affliction with death and decay, the
wise do not lament, knowing the world's terms.” Weeping or grief, according to the
Buddha, will not bring you peace of mind. His agony, on the other hand, will be
greater, and his body will suffer. He will become sick and pallid, but this sorrow will
not save the dead. “Whoever desires peace should draw out the arrow of lamentation,
discontent, and grief,” he added. He who has drawn the arrow and become composed
will find peace of mind; he who has overcome all anguish will be blessed and free
of grief.”
Or
Answer the following question in 80 – 100 words: 4 Marks
Chekov has used humor and exaggeration in the play to comment on courtship
in his times. Illustrate with examples from the lesson, ‘The Proposal.’ Also,
mention the values, you think, any healthy relationship requires.
Ans: The Proposal by Anton Chekov is a farce centered on clichéd characters such
as the dishonest Tschubukov, the hypochondriac Lomov, and the astute Natalia.
Lomov, who drinks water, places his palm on her heart, then flees to the door and
Class X English www.vedantu.com 15
"staggers out," sets the tone of ridiculousness with simple and foolish elements that
get a shade of exaggeration. Matilda's subsequent hysteria, which causes her to
collapse on the armchair and groan for a long time, is yet another example of farce.
The sudden and abrupt shift from mutuality to humiliation, such as Lomov referring
to Tschubukov as a "Swindler" and Tschubukov's retaliation, is a comedy.
Tschubukov mocks marriage by informing his daughter that “a merchant who has
come to buy goods” has arrived instead of notifying her directly about the visit of
the suitor for delivering his marriage proposal. Chekov has also captured the narrow-
minded image of Russian landowners who place a premium on property estates and
personal pride over love and marriage.
Mutual respect, understanding, and willingness to comprehend and compromise on
the side of both partners are all necessary for a relationship to remain healthy and
pleasant. Every connection is a responsibility, and one should be willing to repair
oneself and the other whenever necessary. Also, ego should be replaced with self-
respect and unreserved confession of one's shortcomings.
11. Answer the following in 150 – 200 words: 10 Marks
What was Mr. Otto Frank’s major contribution to the world?
Ans: In a diary handed to her by her father, Anneliese Marie or Anne Frank, the
Jewish daughter of Mr. Otto Frank, wrote about her experiences hiding with her
family and four friends in Amsterdam during the German occupation of the
Netherlands during World War II. Her family had moved to Amsterdam after the
Nazis took power in Germany, but they were stuck when the occupation of the
Netherlands was extended. In July 1942, as persecutions against Jews became more
severe, the family fled into hiding of concealed rooms in her father's Mr. Otto Frank's
business building.
The gang was deceived and sent to the concentration camp system after two years
of hiding when Anne died of typhus. Her father, the group's sole survivor, arrived in
Amsterdam to discover that her diary had been salvaged. He convinced himself that
it was a one-of-a-kind record and had it published in English as "The Diary of a
Young Girl." It details Anne's life from June 12, 1942, to August 1, 1944, when it
was last updated. The diary, which has been described as the work of a mature and
analytical intellect, provides an intimate look at daily life under the Nazis.
Or
Class X English www.vedantu.com 16
Answer the following in 150 – 200 words: 10 Marks
Anne describes herself as a ‘little bundle of contradictions’. Why? Explain in
your own words.
Ans: Anne Frank had been hiding from the Nazis in a secret room above her father's
office since she was a toddler. She had kept fading feelings and a lot on her mind
inside herself. Mr. Otto Frank, her father, gave her a diary to write down her
emotional difficulties in order to assist her cope with the circumstance. Anne Frank
defines herself as a "bundle of contradictions" in this diary. “My lighter, more
superficial side will always steal a march on the deeper and so always win,” she
added, referring to herself as having two Annes, one frivolous and the other serious.
Anne had been singled out for criticism on numerous occasions. She felt as if no one
was trying to understand her, and she found it difficult to be herself or grow up
according to her values in such a confining environment. “I'm used to not being taken
seriously, but only ‘lighthearted,'” she explained. If I put Anne in the spotlight for
even fifteen minutes, she'll shut up like a clam when she's called upon to speak.”
Or
Answer the following in 150 – 200 words: 10 Marks
How did Helen benefit when Dr. Graham Bell accompanied her to the World
Fair?
Ans: Helen was brought by Dr. Graham Bell to the World's Fair in Chicago in the
summer of 1893. Helen was enthralled by the “miracles of creation, treasures of
industry and talent, and all the activities of human life that literally went beneath her
fingertips.” She could see sights from Cairo, India, and Venice, as well as a model
of Columbus' Santa Maria ship. Mr. Graham Bell informed her of the events at the
fair and what was going on around her. They looked at the phones. Helen was
enthralled by the gramophones, phonographs, and other innovations in the electric
building. She even encountered anthropological artifacts that helped her understand
how the human race progressed. She was ecstatic to connect with the bigger world
outside of herself, which brought her closer to the world of technology and numeric.
Or
Answer the following in 150 – 200 words: 10 Marks
How did Helen display her passion for Radcliffe College?
Class X English www.vedantu.com 17
Ans: Helen's dream of attending Radcliffe College came true in 1896. She was
ecstatic at the prospect of receiving an education alongside kids who were blind or
deaf. As it was her desire to attend this college, she began her studies with zeal,
hoping to find a practical fit for her creative world at the institution. Initially, she
thought the lecture halls were brimming with the life of the noble and
knowledgeable, and that the professors were the embodiment of wisdom. However,
she was about to experience serious disillusionment. She quickly realized that school
was not the enthralling place she had imagined. Helen expresses her dissatisfaction
in the following words: "Many of the illusions that had enchanted my early
innocence became exquisitely constrained and "disappeared into the flash of a
typical day." I deliberately began to learn that attending college had drawbacks.``
Class X English www.vedantu.com 18
CBSE Class 10
English (Language and Literature)
Previous Year Question Paper 2015
Series: RLH/1 Set- 1
Code no. 2/1/1
● Please check that this question paper contains 11 printed pages.
● Code number given on the right hand side of the question paper should be
written on the title page of the answer-book by the candidate.
● Please check that this question paper contains 11 questions.
● Please write down the Serial Number of the question before attempting
it.
● 15 minute time has been allotted to read this question paper. The question
paper will be distributed at 10.15 a.m. From 10.15 a.m. to 10.30 a.m., the
students will read the question paper only and will not write any answer on
the answer-book during this period.
SUMMATIVE ASSESSMENT - II
ENGLISH (Language and Literature)
Time Allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 70
General Instructions:
(i) The Question paper is divided into three sections :
Section A — Reading 20 Marks
Class X English www.vedantu.com 1
Section B — Writing and Grammar 25 Marks
Section C — Literature/ Textbooks and Long Reading Texts 25 Marks
(ii) All questions are compulsory.
(iii) Marks are indicated against each question.
SECTION-A
(Reading) 20 Marks
1. Read the passage given below: 8 Marks
Kausani is situated at a height of 6,075 feet in the Central Himalayas. It is an
unusually attractive little town. It covers just about 5.2 sq. kms. It lies to the
north of Almora in Uttarakhand's picturesque Kumaon region.
Kausani provides the 300-km wide breathtaking view of the Himalayas. It is the
most striking aspect of the place. Snow-capped peaks are spread in a stately
row. They stare at you in silvery white majesty. The most famous peak on view
is Nanda Devi, the second highest mountain in India. It is situated at a height
of 25, 645 feet and 36 miles away as the crow flies. The other famous peaks on
view are choukhamba (23,420 feet) and Trishul (23,360 feet). Then there are
also Nilkanth, Nandaghunti, Nandaghat and Nandakot. On a clear day, the blue
of the sky makes a splendid background to these peaks. At sunrise and at sunset,
when the colour changes to a golden orange, the scene gets etched in your
memory.
When Gandhiji visited this place in 1929, its scenic beauty held him spellbound.
He named it the 'Switzerland of India'. He prolonged his two-day stay to
fourteen days, making time to write a book, 'Anashakti Yoga'. The place where
he was staying was originally a guest-house of the tea estate. It was renamed
'Anashakti Ashram' after the book.
Kausani is the birthplace of Sumitranandan Pant, India's poet laureate. Its
natural surroundings inspired many of his poems. Its tea gardens mingle with
dense pine forests and fruit orchards. The area is also host to many fairs and
religious ceremonies. If Uttaranchal is the abode of gods, Kausani is God's own
Class X English www.vedantu.com 2
backyard. There is no traffic, no one is in a hurry. If serenity could be put on a
canvas, the picture would resemble Kausani.
On the basis of your reading of the above passage, answer the following
questions :
(a) Where is Kausani situated ? 1 Mark
Ans: Kausani is situated at a height of 6,075 feet in the Central Himalayas. It lies
to the north of Almora in Uttarakhand's picturesque Kumaon region.
(b) What is the most striking aspect of Kausani ? 1 Mark
Ans: The most striking aspect of Kausani is it provides the 300-km wide
breathtaking view of the Himalayas.
(c) Which is the most famous peak on view from Kausani ? 1 Mark
Ans: The most famous peak on view is Nanda Devi, the second highest mountain in
India.
(d) How did Kausani influence Sumitranandan Pant ? 1 Mark
Ans: Kausani is the birthplace of Sumitranandan Pant, India's poet laureate. Its
natural surroundings inspired many of his poems.
(e) When does the view of peaks become so memorable ? 1 Mark
Ans: On a clear day, the blue of the sky makes a splendid background to these peaks.
At sunrise and at sunset, when the colour changes to a golden orange, this makes the
view memorable.
(f) How can we say that Gandhiji was greatly charmed by the natural beauty of
Kausani ? 1 Mark
Ans: When Gandhiji visited this place in 1929, its scenic beauty held him
spellbound. He named it the 'Switzerland of India'. He prolonged his two-day stay
to fourteen days.
(g) What makes Kausani a calm and quiet place ? 1 Mark
Class X English www.vedantu.com 3
Ans: There is no traffic in Kausani, no one is in a hurry. If serenity could be put on
a canvas, the picture would resemble Kausani.
(h) Why, do you think, is Kausani known as 'God's own backyard'? 1 Mark
Ans: The area of Kausani is also host to many fairs and religious ceremonies. If
Uttaranchal is the abode of gods, Kausani is God's own backyard.
2. Read the passage given below: 12 Marks
1. I rested for a moment at the door of Anand Bhawan, on Market Road, where
coffee-drinkers and tiffin-eaters sat still at their tables, uttering low moans on
seeing me. I wanted to assure them, "Don't mind me, you hugging the cash box
− you are a coward, afraid even to breathe. Go on, count the cash, if that is your
pleasure. I just want to watch, that's all. If my tail trails down to the street, if I
am blocking your threshold, it is because, I'm told, I'm eleven feet tip to tail. I
can't help it. I'm not out to kill − I'm too full. I found a green pasture full of
food on my way. I won't attack until I feel hungry again. Tigers attack only
when they feel hungry, unlike human beings who slaughter one another without
purpose or hunger."
2. To the great delight of children, schools were being hurriedly closed.
Children of all ages and sizes were running helter-skelter, screaming joyously.
"No school, no school. Tiger, tiger!" They were shouting and laughing and even
enjoying being scared. They seemed to welcome me. I felt like joining them. So
I bounded away from the restaurant door. I walked along with them, at which
they cried, 'The tiger is coming to eat us; let us get back to school!"
3. I followed them through their school gate while they ran up and shut
themselves in the school hall securely. I climbed up the steps of the school, saw
an open door at the far end of a veranda, and walked in. It happened to be the
headmaster's room. I noticed a very dignified man jumping on the table and
heaving himself up into an attic. I walked in and ung myself on the cool oor,
having a special liking for cool stone oors.
4. As I drowsed, I was aware of cautious steps and hushed voices all around. I
was in no mood to bother about anything. All I wanted was a little moment of
sleep; the daylight was very bright.
Class X English www.vedantu.com 4
On the basis of your reading of the above passage, answer the following
questions:
(a) How did the diners at Anand Bhawan react on seeing the tiger? 2 Marks
Ans: On seeing the tiger, the diners were scared and they muttered low moans.
(b) When do tigers attack? In this context, how are human beings different from
tigers? 2 Marks
Ans: Tigers attack only when they are hungry, unlike human beings who slaughter
each other without any purpose or hunger.
(c) Why were children happy and even enjoying being scared? 2 Marks
Ans: Children were happy and enjoying being scared because schools were being
hurriedly closed.
(d) What was the tiger's opinion about the man at the cash counter ? What did
the tiger assure him ? 2 Marks
Ans: The tiger thought of the man at the cash counter to be a coward, afraid even to
breathe. He was holding onto his cash box. The tiger assured him that he was not out
to kill, as he was full.
(e) Identify the word which means the same as 'hugging'. (para 1) 1 Mark
(i) counting
(ii) hiding
(iii) rubbing
(iv) holding tightly in the arms
Ans: (iv) holding tightly in the arms.
(f) Identify the word which means the same as 'delight'. (para 2) 1 Mark
(i) pleasure
(ii) fear
Class X English www.vedantu.com 5
(iii) sorrow
(iv) nervousness
Ans: (i) pleasure.
(g) Identify the word which means the same as 'dignified'. (para 3) 1 Mark
(i) tall
(ii) honourable
(iii) terrified
(iv) tired
Ans: (ii) honourable.
(h) Identify the meaning of the word, 'heaving up'. (para 2) 1 Mark
(i) hiding
(ii) running away
(iii) climbing
(iv) raising
Ans: (i) hiding.
SECTION-B
(Writing and Grammar) 15 + 10= 25 Marks
3. The recent increase in crimes against people of the Northeast, especially in
the cities, has highlighted the growing problem faced by the community. Fear
of violence continues to worry them. Write a letter in 100-120 words to the
Editor of The Times of India expressing your concern over the recent death of
a young student resulting from a racial comment against people from
Northeast. Suggest what steps the government should take to solve this
problem. You are Aanchal/Aryan, resident of A-12, East of Kailash, N. Delhi.
Class X English www.vedantu.com 6
Hints : racial comments, attacks – rude behaviour, hurt feelings of our own
fellow citizens – disharmony – dents the image of our country - steps to solve
this problem. 5 Marks
Ans:
A-12
East of Kailash
New Delhi
Xx/xx/xxxx
To,
The Editor
Times of India
New Delhi
Subject - Rising racial discrimination against people of north-east.
Sir,
India, as it is known throughout the world, is famous for its culture and tradition.
However, the current scenario, particularly the recent spike in crimes against persons
from the North-East in modern cities, has demonstrated that humanity and moral
values—qualities that Indians are proud of—appear to be an outmoded concept.
Today's situation is that only acquainted persons are preferred. Violence is a problem
for people who migrate from other communities. It is deeply concerning that a young
student had to die as a result of a discriminatory remark directed at individuals from
the North-East.
Such an attitude not only causes discord among fellow humans, but it also tarnishes
our country's image around the world. The requirement of the hour is for us to
recognise that this is a shortsighted perspective. It's vital to take a step back and
consider that human relationships should not be sacrificed on the altar of racial
prejudice.
Class X English www.vedantu.com 7
Humans who lack humanity are not truly human. I hope that this letter will be
published in your prestigious newspaper for a good purpose.
Thank you,
Yours Sincerely
Aanchal/Aryan
Or
One of the key messages of the Prime Minister’s Independence Day speech was
‘Clean India’. The Government has taken an initiative for cleaning the rivers
especially ‘The Ganges’. The Government has also urged the people of India to
realise the dream of ‘Clean India’. Write an article in 100-120 words
mentioning the measures people can take for a cleaner and greener India.
Ans: Clean India, Green India
By XYZ
Our Prime Minister Narendra Modi has prioritized ‘Clean India' in order to realise
Gandhiji's and many other reformers' dreams of a clean and green India. His essential
message to fellow beings on the occasion of Independence Day was to accept it as
the mandatory agenda.
We can notice dust and grime everywhere in today's environment. Our environment
is unclean and impure. Our environment is engulfed in dirt, squalor, and rubbish at
all times. Garbage heaps are strewn throughout the place. To add insult to injury, our
precious waterways have not been spared. We're only concerned about our own
homes. We toss domestic and industrial waste, as well as dead people, into the same
holy rivers, such as the Yamuna and Ganga, which we worship alongside God.
This threat not only pollutes our environment, but also makes it impossible to breathe
pure air. The reason for this is because the rapid expansion of industries, as well as
increased deforestation to support these industries and new colonies, has caused the
oxygen density to plummet.
We are all aware of these realities, but the idea of a cleaner and greener India can
never be realised unless and until each of us recognises the problem and takes action.
Class X English www.vedantu.com 8
We should also plant more trees, as recommended by the government, and keep our
city, particularly our rivers, clean and pollution-free.
4. Complete the story in 150-200 words which starts like this:
“It was a quiet, cold and dark night like it usually is in winter when all retire to
bed early. Suddenly at the dead of night, a shriek jerked the people in the
building out of their beds. It was distinctly the voice of ......" 10 Marks
Ans: It was a quiet, cold and dark night like it usually is in winter when all retire to
bed early. Suddenly at the dead of night, a shriek jerked the people in the building
out of their beds. It was distinctly the voice of the guard. The guard was out on patrol
as usual. He spotted some peculiar activity in one of the corners, where trash was
being thrown out. There was no light in this corner, so it was pitch black.
He grabbed his torch and walked around the corner. Only two bright eyes caught his
attention.He returned, thinking it was a cat. However, there was some strange
movement once more. He returned with his torch aimed in that direction. He had a
life-changing shock. It was a large leopard, not a little cat.
It had infiltrated the grounds from a nearby forest to escape the freezing weather. It
didn't want to attack the guard. The guard, on the other hand, was so terrified that he
gave a shriek. We all dashed towards the location. The leopard was startled by the
disturbance and took cover in a corner. Everything was described in detail by the
guard.
The wildlife department was immediately notified. A rescue team reached the spot
and rescued the leopard which was taken away to be released in its natural habitat.
It was really a hair-raising experience for all of us.
Or
You have been preparing for the National Talent Search Examination for the
last one year and have got a very good rank. Write your story in 150-200 words
using the following cues.
Humble family background - ambition to be something - scholarship, a means
to that - preparation - help from teachers - use of library - examination - result.
Class X English www.vedantu.com 9
Ans: My lifelong dream is to become a doctor. My parents have always been
emotionally and financially supportive of me. For them, it is simple because I attend
a government school where education is nearly free.
Higher and professional education, on the other hand, is prohibitively expensive for
most families.There was just one way out for me. It was simply about the
scholarship. I began studying for the National Talent Search Examination. It was
clear to me that it was the only way into the field of my choice. My teachers were
informed of my plans. They all encouraged me and offered whatever assistance they
could offer.
My science teacher assigned books for me to read. My school library was put to
excellent use by me. In his spare time, my English teacher assisted me. I set a
schedule for myself and focused on my academics.
Finally, the exam day arrived, and I went into it with confidence.In my studies, I had
given it my all. The examination went off without a hitch. Finally, the outcome was
in my favour. I received an excellent grade. Now I am the recipient of a generous
scholarship, which I have been using to further my study.
5. Read the passage given below and fill in the blanks by choosing the most
appropriate words from the given options.
Today a good (a) ............ varieties of tea and tea brands are available in the
market. Green tea is popular (b) ............ China and the Far East. In Japan, the
tea ceremony is a traditional way of greeting guests, (c) ............ is a social
occasion. 3 Marks
(a) (i) very
(ii) many
(iii) much
(iv) more
Ans: many
(b) (i) on
Class X English www.vedantu.com 10
(ii) at
(iii) in
(iv) for
Ans: in
(c) (i) and
(ii) it
(iii) both
(iv) this
Ans: and
6. The following passage has not been edited. There is an error in each line
against which a blank has been given. Write the incorrect word and the
correction in your answer-sheet against the correct blank number as given in
the example. Remember to underline the word that you have supplied. 4 Marks
Error Correction
Most trees has a single woody stem called e.g. has have
a trunk who supports a mass of branches (a) …... …...
carrying leaves. Trees clean an air (b) …... ..…
to removing tiny airborne particles. The (c) …... ..…
leaves of trees give in oxygen. (d) …... ...…
Ans: Error Correction
(a) Who which
Class X English www.vedantu.com 11
(b) An the
(c) Removing remove
(d) In out
7. Rearrange the following words and phrases into meaningful sentences. One
has been done for you as an example. 3 Marks
Beach vacations / was / an attraction / coconut water / long ago / during
Example-Long ago coconut water was an attraction during beach vacations.
(a) these days / of trade / Delhi / for / has become / but / a centre / tender
coconuts /
Ans: But these days Delhi has become a center of trade for coconut tender.
(b) its demand / value / due to / has increased / of the fruit / the food
Ans: Its demand has increased due to the food value of the fruit.
(c) has been fueled / by growing awareness / the demand/ health
benefits/coconut water’s / of /
Ans: The demand has been fueled by growing awareness of coconut water’s health
benefits.
SECTION-C
(Literature/ Text Books and Long Reading Texts) 25 Marks
8. Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow.
1 x 3 = 3 Marks
“Don't you want to have a look at the sights, now that you're here?
“All by myself ? Oh, I'd be much too afraid."
Class X English www.vedantu.com 12
Greatly amused by the girl's way of speaking, the conductor said, “But you
weren't afraid to come in the bus."
“Nothing to be afraid of about that,” she answered.
(a) Who is the ‘girl’ mentioned in the passage ?
Ans: Valli is the girl mentioned above in the passage. Valli was a determined and
strong-willed young lady. She was self-assured and sophisticated for her age,
allowing her to do things on her own.
(b) Why didn't she get off the bus when she reached her destination ?
Ans: Valli did not get off the bus when she arrived at her destination because she
was terrified of going down alone, despite her bravado. She was also afraid of
getting down in the unknown environment of the city because she lacked sufficient
understanding of the area.
(c) Write the meaning of the word, “amused.”
Ans: Meaning of “amused” is finding something humorous or funny.
Or
So I rejoiced one day when they sent me out forty miles in the country, to a town
called New Mullion, to serve summons on a man called Oliver Lutkins.
(a) Who is I?
Ans: “I” refers to the young lawyer.
(b) Why was 'l' sent to New Mullion?
Ans: He was sent to New Mullion to serve a summons on Oliver Lutkins, who was
a vital witness in a case.
(c) What does the word, ‘rejoiced’ mean?
Ans: Rejoice means extreme happiness or joy.
Class X English www.vedantu.com 13
9. Answer the following questions in 30 - 40 words each. 2 x 4 = 8 Marks
(a) Why was Kisa Gotami sad ? What did she do in her hour of grief?
Ans: Kisa Gotami was sad since she had recently lost her only child. In an attempt
to bring her deceased son back to life, the bereaved mother carried the dead body
around the homes of her neighbours, pleading for remedies.
(b) What special characteristic of Mijbil did Maxwell learn after he took him to
the bathroom ?
Ans: Maxwell learned that Mijbil enjoyed playing with water when he first took the
otter into the toilet. He'd roll around in the water like a hippopotamus. This was due
to the fact that otters are irritated by still water.
(c) For what unusual reasons was Bholi sent to school ?
Ans: Because of her awful appearance, Bholi was sent to school. She lacked
common sense, her chances of marrying were slim. Bholi was sent to school for
these strange reasons.
(d) Do you think M. Loisel had an enjoyable evening at the ball ? Give reasons
for your answer.
Ans: M. Loisel, on the other hand, did not enjoy himself at the ball. He'd been half
asleep in one of the little salons with three other gentlemen whose wives were having
a fine time since midnight, bored with the event.
10. Answer the following in 80-100 words. 4 Marks
“Never mind,” she said, “I can get on by myself.” “You don't have to help me,”
said Valli to the conductor. She shows extraordinary courage in making the bus
journey all alone. Taking inspiration from Valli's character, write how ability
and courage to take risk are essential to fulfill one's dream.
Ans: Valli lived in a small village on the outskirts of town. A bus that came to her
village every hour piqued her interest. She had a strong desire to take the bus. She
began methodically preparing and saving money for the bus trip. She eventually
travelled alone, confidently and independently, and arrived safely at her destination.
Class X English www.vedantu.com 14
She had a good time on the train, did not yield to any temptations, did not accept any
favours from the conductor, and drove with exceptional caution. Valli's
determination to achieve her life's objective is a lesson that we should all learn.
Or
“Put the fear out of your heart and you will be able to speak like anyone else.”
These words of encouragement from the teacher highlight that change of social
attitude and encouragement can help a child like Bholi to become confident and
face the world bravely. Taking help from the lesson, 'Bholi' write how the social
attitude towards Bholi made her an introvert. What should be done to help such
children to face the world bravely?
Ans: Ramlal had four daughters, the youngest of them was Bholi. Bholi, unlike her
sisters, was afflicted with illness, which caused her to fall short of society
expectations in terms of intellect and appearance. People who are "differently gifted"
can face discrimination in society. Bholi's life was changed, however, by a teacher
at the community primary school. "Put the fear out of your heart," she advised Bholi,
"and you'll be able to speak like everyone else." She discovered a compassionate and
helpful humareing in her teaching. She instilled in Bholi all of the confidence and
encouragement she so desperately needed.
11. Answer the following in 120-150 words.
What happened when the Nazis found Anne and her family hiding in the Secret
Annexe ? Give a brief description of Anne and her family after the arrest.
10 Marks
Ans: The eight people hiding in the Annexe, as well as two of their accomplices,
Kugler and Kleiman, were apprehended by the Nazis. The family was held in a cell
for four days in Amsterdam before being transferred to the WesterBork Camp for
the Jews' transit camp without a trial on September 1, 1944. They were considered
punishable prisoners. On September 3, 1944, the eight inmates joined a group of
1000 other detainees.
Kleiman was freed from prison on Sept. 18, 1944, due to his bad health, and he
resided in Amsterdam until his death in 1959. On March 28, 1945, Kugler managed
to elude his captors. In Amsterdam, Elizabeth died. In November 1944, Van Daan
Class X English www.vedantu.com 15
was gassed to death in Auschwitz. In December 1944, Dussel died in the
Concentration Camp. Edith Frank died on January 6th, 1945, in Auschwitz Camp.
In 1944-45, an epidemic struck the Concentration Camp, killing Margot and Anne
Frank. In May 1945, Otto Frank was the only survivor.
Or
Anne wrote, ‘One day we're laughing at the comical side of hiding, and the next
day we're frightened and the fear, tension and despair can be read on our faces’.
Give two examples of each – laughter and fear from the diary entries of May
1944.
Ans: Anne wrote ‘One day we're laughing at the comical side of hiding, and the next
day we're frightened and the fear, tension and despair can be read on our faces’. The
suggestion was about the type of existence one would have while imprisoned. She
describes the two hues as follows: On the one hand, there was horrible news of Mr.
Van's arrest for hiding two Jews in his home.They will no longer be able to eat
potatoes as a result of his arrest.
Then there was the horrible cuisine, the Jewish question, the tension, and the
depressing environment. The heat was terrible, butter was melting, and there was no
cool place to be found. The bread is drying out, and the milk is becoming sour. The
news of Bep's engagement, Mr. Kugler's birthday, and reports about cabarets,
movies, and concerts, on the other hand. As a result, if they chuckled at the amusing
aspect of hiding one day, they were terrified the next. They experienced their fair
share of good and unpleasant experiences.
Or
How did Mr. Keith contribute to the intellectual enrichment of Helen ?
Ans: Merton S. Keith was Helen Keller's math and classics tutor as she studied and
prepared to enter Radcliffe. Mr. Keith tutored Keller in Latin, Greek, algebra, and
geometry twice a week. Mr. Keith afterwards began teaching Helen Keller five days
a week. Mr. Keith was incredibly patient with Keller, who was having difficulty
answering math problems since she couldn't see them. She had to remember the
letters of the figure and other features of a geometric proof in her head when she had
to make geometrical figures on a cushion using curved wires.
Class X English www.vedantu.com 16
Mr. Keith also taught Keller how to reason her way through problems and made the
mathematics work fun for her. Before she started college, she stayed with Mr. Keith
for another year. He was a gentle and encouraging teacher who greatly helped her
intellectual development.
Or
Why did Helen not like examinations?
Ans: Helen felt, ‘the examinations are the chief bugbears of my college life.
Although I have faced them many times and cast them down and made them bite the
dust, yet they rise again and menace me with pale looks, until like Bob Acres I feel
my courage oozing out at my finger ends.'
Helen believes that exams do not adequately develop a child's knowledge. The
student merely reads and studies the literature in order to get good grades. Few
people read them with a desire to learn. Such knowledge is only temporary for the
student because his mind is constantly inundated with information, the majority of
which cannot be stored for lengthy periods of time.
Helen recognised that her own thinking was so jumbled up with numerous subjects
that she became frustrated trying to sort it all out. Helen refers to her exams as the
'bugbears' of her college years because they were both terrifying for her. She would
try to cram difficult formulas and dates into her head in the days leading up to the
tests. Exams made Helen wish that books, science, and the student herself might all
be buried in the ocean's depths.
Class X English www.vedantu.com 17
CSBE Class 10 ENGLISH
Board Paper 2016, Set-1
(Language and Literature)
General Instructions:
(i) The question paper is divided into three sections:
Section A: Reading 20 marks
Section B: Writing & Grammar 25 marks
Section C: Literature 25 marks
(ii) All questions are compulsory.
(iii) You may attempt any section at a time.
(iv) All questions of that particular section must be attempted in the correct order:
Section A
Q1 Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow:
If you are addicted to coffee, and doctors warn you to quit the habit, don’t worry and
just keep relishing the beverage, because it’s not that bad after all! In fact, according to
a new study, the steaming cup of Java can beat fruits and vegetables as the primary
source of antioxidants. Some studies state that coffee is the number one source of
antioxidants in American diet, and both caffeinated and decaf versions appear to
provide similar antioxidant levels.
Antioxidants in general have been linked to a number of potential health benefits,
including protection against heart diseases and cancer, but Vinson, a dietitian said that
their benefits ultimately depend on how they are absorbed and utilized in the body.
The research says that coffee outranks popular antioxidant sources like tea, milk,
chocolate and cranberries. Of all the foods and beverages studied, dates actually have
the most antioxidants based solely on serving size, but since dates are not consumed
anywhere near the level of coffee, the drink comes as the top source of antioxidants,
Vinson said.
Besides keeping you alert and awake, coffee has been linked to an increasing number of
potential health benefits, including protection against liver and colon cancer, type 2
diabetes, and Parkinson’s disease, according to some recently published studies.
The researchers, however, advise that one should consume coffee in moderation,
1
because it can make you jittery and cause stomach pains.
(a) What do doctors advise us about the habit of drinking coffee?
Ans:- The doctors advise us to quit the habit of drinking coffee.
(b) What are the two versions of coffee that are drunk in America?
Ans:- The two versions of coffee that are drunk in America are caffeinated and decaf.
(c) State any two benefits of antioxidants.
Ans:- The two benefits of antioxidants are protection against heart diseases and cancer.
(d) What does Vinson say about the consumption of antioxidants?
Ans:- Vinson says that the consumption of antioxidants depends on how they are absorbed
and utilised in the body.
(e) Name any two popular sources of antioxidants.
Ans:- Two popular sources of antioxidants are milk and chocolate.
(f) How does coffee outrank dates in the level of antioxidants?
Ans:- Coffee outranks dates in the level of antioxidants, as dates are not consumed
everywhere.
(g) Mention any two benefits of coffee.
Ans:- The two benefits of coffee are protection against liver and colon cancer and
Parkinson's disease.
(h) What do researchers warn us about the excessive use of coffee?
Ans:- The researchers warn us about the excessive use of coffee because it can make us feel
jittery and cause stomach pains.
Q2 Read the following passage carefully:
Gandhiji As a Fund Raiser
Gandhiji was an incurable and irrestible fund raiser. He found special relish in getting
jewellery from women. Ranibala of Burdwan was ten years old. One day she was
playing with Gandhiji. He explained to her that her bangles were too heavy for her
delicate little wrists. She removed the bangles and gave them away to Gandhiji.
He used to talk jokingly to small girls and created distaste for ornaments and created a
2
desire in them to part with the jewellery for the sake of the poor. He motivated them to
donate their jewellery for social usage.
Kasturbai didn’t appreciate this habit of Gandhiji. Once she stated calmly, ‘You don’t
wear jewels, it is easy for you to get around the boys. But what about our daughters-in-
law? They would surely want them.
“Well!” Gandhiji put in mildly, "our children are young and when they grow up they
will not surely choose wives who are found of wearing jewellery.” Kasturbai was very
upset with the answer.
Gandhiji was determined to keep the jewels to raise community fund. He was of the
opinion that a public worker should accept no costly gifts. He believed that he should
not own anything costly, whether given or earned. Kasturbai was a female with a desire
to adorn. But Gandhiji moved towards renunciation and donated every penny earned in
South Africa to the trustees for the service of South African Indians.
2.1 Answer the questions given below:
(a) How did Gandhiji create a distaste for jewellery in Ranibala?
Ans:- Gandhiji created a distaste for jewellery in Ranibala by explaining to her that her
bangles were too heavy for her delicate little wrists.
(b) What was Kasturbai’s apprehension about their daughters-in-law?
Ans:- Katurbai's apprehension about their daughters-in-law was that they would surely want
to wear jewellery.
(c) What solution did Gandhiji suggest for the problem posed by Kasturbai?
Ans:- Gandhiji's solution for the problem posed by Kasturbai was that their sons will not
surely choose women who are fond of wearing jewellery.
(d) How did Gandhiji serve the community?
Ans:- Gandhiji served the community by getting the jewellery from women to raise funds.
2.2 Find meanings of the words given below from the options that follow:
(e) incurable (para 1)
(i) unreliable
(ii) untreatable
(iii) disagreeable
(iv) unbeatable
3
Ans:- (ii) untreatable
(f) motivated (para 2)
(i) encouraged
(ii) emboldened
(iii) incited
(iv) softened
Ans:- (i) encouraged
(g) upset (para 4)
(i) puzzled
(ii) furious
(iii) confused
(iv) distressed
Ans:- (iv) distressed
(h) renunciation (para 5)
(i) giving up
(ii) disagreement
(iii) opposition
(iv) termination
Ans:- (i) giving up
SECTION B
Q3 Nowadays, we see the rise in prices of edible things like pulses, onions, oils and
some other products. The layman is facing hardship on account of it. Write a letter in
120-150 words to the editor of a reputed daily requesting him to highlight the
difficulties faced by common man due to rise in prices. Sign yourself as
Pranjal/Praneeta living at 124, Vivek Vihar, Delhi.
Ans:- 124, Vivek Vihar, Delhi
15 March 2016
The Editor
The Hindustan Times
4
Kasturba Gandhi Marg
New Delhi
Subject: Rise in prices of edible things.
Sir
Through the esteemed columns of your daily newspaper, I would like to draw the attention
of the concerned authorities towards a steep increase in the prices of the essential
commodities like pulses, onions, oils and some other products over the past few days.
The first and foremost reason for this price rise is black marketing and hoarding by the
traders at various levels. They stock the goods, curb the supply and create an artificial
scarcity of goods, due to which the supply decreases as compared to its demand and the price
rises. The people in the lower and middle-income group are affected the most as they have
limited income and are not able to spend so much on these commodities. At the same time,
they cannot do without such essential commodities.
I would be grateful to you if you help us in bringing this problem in front of the concerned
authorities so that such a situation can be controlled soon. Kindly do the needful at the
earliest.
Yours truly
Praneeta
OR
“A man's manners are a mirror in which he shows his portrait.” This quote highlights
the importance of good manners in life. Write an article for your school magazine on
“Good Manners.' You may use the following hints with your own ideas.
Hints: First step to success − need for good manners − make life easy with politeness −
create goodwill − use words like thank you, please, sorry − important words − well
mannered people liked by all.
Ans:- A possible way to approach to this article can be using the below-mentioned value
points:
o Good manners are very important in one's life.
o They make you a complete person.
o A person who has good manners leads a perfect life.
o Your manners reflect your upbringing and your attitude towards life.
o A well-mannered person is liked by one and all.
5
Q4 Write a story in 150-200 words from the outline given below:
Cold winter night − all sound asleep − a thudding sound − switched on lights − hurried
footsteps − followed − …....
Ans:- It was a cold winter night, and I went to sleep in my room after talking to my parents.
In the middle of the night, I started to hear some weird noises. I got out of my bed to look
around, but could not see anything. When I was going to my bed again, I heard a thudding
sound. I got scared and ran to my parents room, but they were asleep. Now, the noise was
coming from the kitchen and I hurried my footsteps towards the kitchen. I could feel
somebody following me. I quickly switched on the lights and all of them shouted 'Happy
Birthday'. My cousins were standing there with the cake on the table and gifts in their hands
to wish me birthday. My parents came from their room to wish me as well, and it was their
idea to scare me. I cut the cake and we all enjoyed the snacks, and also played some games.
Though it was the best birthday surprise, it was also very scary.
OR
“The date of examination was declared ________ I was horrified _________ My parents
helped me _________ reached the examination centre _________ examination commenced
_________ took a sigh of relief _________ stood first in the class.
The hints of the story are given above. You can start the story by using hints with your
own ideas but you cannot change the end. Write the story in 150-200 words.
Ans:- The date of final examinations was declared, and it was our last exam. I was awake the
night before the exam and slept at 5 in the morning for some rest. I had put an alarm for 8
a.m, as the exam was scheduled to start at 10. All of a sudden I opened my eyes, and it was
9.30. I panicked and started crying, as there was no chance that I could have reached the
centre on time. My parents thought that I was getting ready, so they didn't come to wake me
up. So my parents decided to drop me at the examination centre before they left for their
office. On the way, we got stuck in the traffic, and there seemed no way out to get out of the
traffic. Only 10 minutes left for the exam to start. Finally, I decided to run towards the
centre. When I reached the examination centre, I was already ten minutes late. Initially, the
teacher did not allow me to enter. I pleaded her, but she did not listen. Finally, my father
came and requested the teacher, and she eventually agreed. The examination commenced
and I took a sigh of relief. And when the results came, I had scored the highest in this subject
6
and also stood first in my class.
Q5 Read the sentence given below and fill in the blanks in it by choosing the most
appropriate options from the ones that follow :
He was (a) ________ at the news (b) _________ the success of a poor candidate (c) _________
got the highest number of votes in Bihar election.
(a) (i) surprising
(ii) surprise
(iii) surprised
(iv) having surprised
(b) (i) of
(ii) for
(iii) to
(iv) by
(c) (i) which
(ii) whose
(iii) whom
(iv) who
Ans:- He was surprised at the news of the success of a poor candidate who got the highest
number of votes in Bihar election.
Q6 The following paragraph has not been edited. There is one error in each line against
which a blank has been given. Write the error and the correction in your answer sheet
against the correct blank number as given in the example. Remember to underline the
word that you have supplied.
Error Correction
Research is an detailed study of a e.g. an a
subject undertaking on a systematic (a) _________ _________
basis in order to increase a stock of (b) _________ _________
knowledge, including knowledge for man, (c) _________ _________
7
culture and society, that the use of this stock (d) _________ _________
of knowledge to devise new applications.
Ans:-
Error Correction
a) undertaking undertaken
b) a the
c) for of
d) that and
Q7 Rearrange the jumbled words and phrases into meaningful sentences. The first one
has been done as an example.
Example: in/the cactus/very hot,/grows/dry places
The cactus grows in very hot, dry places.
(a) do not/leaves/have/they/but/spiny/needles
(b) flowers/and/bloom/some of them/cacti/at night/are big
(c) absorb/from fog/water/in the air/cacti can
Ans:- a) They do not have leaves but spiny needles.
b) Cacti flowers are big and some of them bloom at night.
c) Cacti can absorb water from fog in the air.
SECTION C
Q8 Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow:
These meadows aren't worth much to me. They only come to five dessiatins, and are
worth perhaps 300 roubles, but I can't stand unfairness. Say what you will, I can't stand
unfairness.
(a) Who speaks the above lines and to whom?
(b) How much are the meadows worth?
(c) Find a word in the extract the means 'not based on what is just.'
Ans:- (a) The above lines are spoken by Natalya to Lomov.
(b) The meadows are worth 300 roubles.
(c) The word 'unfairness' refers to something 'not based on what is just'.
8
OR
I even considered fleeing to my hometown, where I could have been a real lawyer right
away, without going through this unpleasant training period.
(a) Who is 'I'?
(b) How did 'I' suffer during the training period?
(c) What does the word, 'fleeing' mean?
Ans:- (a) 'I' is the narrator of the story.
(b) The narrator worked as a junior assistant clerk in a big law firm where he was usually
sent to serve sermons to the shady parts of the city.
(c) Here, 'fleeing' means to run away from an unpleasant situation.
Q9 Answer the following questions in 30-40 words each:
(a) How did Valli react when she saw the dead cow by the roadside?
(b) What legends are associated with the origin of tea?
(c) Why does Noodle tell Think-Tank about the books?
(d) Why did Matilda not want to see her rich friends?
Ans: (a) When Valli saw the dead cow by the roadside, she refused to look out of the window.
It was the same cow that was running in front of their bus, during their trip to the town. She
was overcome with sadness. The memory of the dead cow haunted her and she was subdued
for the rest of the journey.
(b) There are two legends that are associated with the origin of tea. The first one is about a
Chinese emperor who used to drink boiled water. One day a few leaves of the twigs fell into
the boiling water and they gave it a delicious flavour. It is said that they were tea leaves. The
other is an Indian legend. Once a Buddhist monk had cut off his eyelids to avoid sleep during
meditations. Ten tea plants grew out of his eyelids. The leaves, when added in boiling water
and then consumed, banishes sleep.
(c) The apprentice Noodle informed his master, Think-Tank that the books, which he was
considering as sandwiches used to be eaten by the human being, were used as some sort of
communication device. The human beings did not listen to the 'sandwiches', but they opened
and watched them.
(d) Matilda was not satisfied with what her life had to offer and was ashamed of her status.
As she was humiliated by her lower-middle-class existence, she, generally, avoided meeting
9
her rich friends like Mme Forestier, a wealthy lady, whom she knew from her days at the
convent school.
Q10 Answer the following question in 80-100 words:
“The life of mortals in this world is troubled and brief and combined with pain ….”
With this statement of the Buddha, find out the moral value that Kisa Gotami learnt
after the death of her child.
Ans:- Kisa Gotami was the mother of her only son and was grief stricken when he died.
Initially, she was only thinking about her grief and was, therefore, asking for a medicine that
would bring her son back to life. When she met the Buddha, he asked her to get a handful of
mustard seeds from a house where no one had died. He did this purposely to make her
realize that there was not a single house where no beloved had died and that death is
natural. When she went to all the houses the second time, she felt dejected that she could not
gather the mustard seeds. Then, when she sat and thought about it, she realized that the fate
of men is such that they live and die. Death is common to all. This was what the Buddha had
intended her to understand.
OR
“Don’t you worry, Pitaji! In your old age I will serve you and mother”. Through this
statement the narrator wants to highlight the moral values Bholi was imbued with.
Based on the reading of the lesson, what made Bholi aware of her rights and how did
she use them?
Ans:- Unlike Ramlal's other children, Bholi was not healthy and strong. She was treated
differently from her siblings, not only by the village people but by her parents as well. But
her teacher brought a new ray of hope in Bholi's life. She was very encouraging which made
her gain confidence to speak. After years of gaining education and with the help of her
teacher, Bholi turned into a confident girl. She no longer stammered and could speak
properly. She even had the courage to refuse to marry the lame old man because of his
greediness. On seeing her father worried about her marriage, she said that he need not
worry, as she would teach in the same school where she learnt so much and would take care
of him and her mother in their old age. Thus, education and love from her teacher
transformed Bholi.
10
Q11 Answer the following in 150-200 words :
Anne Frank's statement, "What one Christian does is his own responsibility, what one
Jew does reflects on all Jews" presents not only hatred for the Jews but also their
pitiable condition in the world. Comment.
Ans:- Anne Frank in her novel shows strong hostility for the antisemitism. Antisemitism is
the discrimination and prejudice towards Jews. There are numerous instances of Anne Frank
addressing the discrimination done with the Jewish people.
Anne talks about how Jewish people were dehumanized not only by being identified as
“lesser beings,” but also by being held to higher standards of conduct than other people.
What for a non-Jewish person would be considered a mistake, for a Jewish person could be
considered proof of a collective inferiority.
Anne felt bad about the situation where she was safe but her Jewish brothers and sisters
were suffering. People who survived the holocaust were also sad and guilty to lose their
family members.
In her diary, Anne writes a list of things that are no longer permitted.
She mentions how their freedom was severely restricted by a series of anti-Jewish decrees.
Jews were required to wear a yellow star. Jews were forbidden to use trams or ride in cars.
They were required to do their shopping at a particular time. They were forbidden to attend
theaters, movies or any other forms of entertainment.
Anne shows utmost resentment at the treatment of Jews and in this regard she compares
Jews with Christians, who enjoy the liberty of doing what they want. On the contrary, every
act of a Jew is strictly guided and checked.
Or
Anne's mother never showed her interest in Anne Frank and remained indifferent to
her. Describe the character of Anne's mother, Edith Frank in the light of this remark.
Ans:- Edith Frank, the mother of Anne Frank, was a calm, composed and serious woman. In
her nature and behaviour, she was an exact opposite of her daughter. Because of this
contract, they did not understand each other. Their discussion often ended in tears and Anne
ran for comfort to her father. Edith always wanted to treat both her daughters equally but
the behaviour of Anne was impolite and this distanced Edith from her daughter.
Anne accuses her mother, Edith Frank, of being cold and tactless. Although it is evident to the
readers that Anne’s mother is hurt by her daughter’s rebuffs, Anne blames her mother of
11
instigating that dynamic in their relationship.
nne finds her mother cold. She distances herself from her mother, clinging to the belief that
the relation with the mother should be of a role model and not that of a friend. Since she
does not feel close to her mother and resents that she must practice religion just to make her
happy. Anne is very frustrated by the way her family criticizes her. She wants to be taken
seriously and not treated like a child. The fact that frustrates her the most is that her mother
too criticises her.
The contrast in the character of Edith Frank and Anne Frank is the reason for the differences
between the two. And this is why Anne's mother never showed her interest in Anne Frank
and remained indifferent to her.
Or
How did a story book, 'Little Lord Fauntleroy' open a window of knowledge to Helen
and help to shape her career?
Ans:- The book "Little Lord Fauntleroy" dates the very beginning of Helen Keller's true
interest in books.
She read parts of many books before reading this book but this was the first book of any
consequence that she read with in-depth understanding.
The book was introduced to Helen by her teacher when she was reading 'The Scarlet Letter'.
The teacher said to her that the book is about a small boy, whom she will like more that the
character of Pearl in 'The Scarlet Letter'. And indeed, the book proved to be very impactful
for Helen.
The book was her sweet and gentle companion all through her childhood. The book came out
to be the stepping stone for Helen Keller's success and her career as the book instigated the
desire to read in her. Mr. Anagnos embossed the story for Helen. She was so fascinated by
the book that she read it again and again until she knew it by heart.
It was only after reading "Little Lord Fauntleroy" written by Frances Hodgson Burnett that
she read other masterpieces such as Lamb's "Tales from Shakespeare," "A Child's History of
England" by Dickens, "The Arabian Nights," "The Swiss Family Robinson," "The Pilgrim's
Progress," "Robinson Crusoe," "Little Women," and "Heidi.
Or
Helen's statement, "We worked hard and faithfully, yet we did not quite reach our
12
goal" tells us about her failure to achieve the goal at the Wright-Humason School in
New York City. What was the goal that she failed to achieve there?
Ans:- In the summer of 1984, Helen Keller went to Wright-Humason School for the Deaf in
New York City to receive the training for vocal culture and lip reading. It was with the help of
Miss Reamy, the German teacher, who used the manual alphabet, that helped Helen acquire
a small vocabulary. They also talked together in German and, in a few months Helen could
understand almost everything she said.
At the school, Helen acquired the knowledge of German easily. It was French that troubled
her. Madam Olivier, the French lady did not know the manual alphabet and was obliged to
give her instruction orally. She couldn't learn what Madam Olivier said as she couldn't read
her lips easily.
Helen's progress in lip-reading and speech was not what her teachers hoped. The ambition to
speak like other people was not accomplished. Helen Keller made the mistake of 'guessing'
what was being said. She also jumped into conclusions that aggravated her difficulty. She
then believed that the exceptions of her teachers and also herself was set too high. And this
she regarded as the reason for the pitfall. Thus, the progress of Helen Keller was not what
she and her teachers expected. This is when she worked hard and effectively but couldn't
reach the goal.
13
CBSE Class 10
English Language
Previous Year Question Paper 2017
Series: HRK Set-1
Code no. 2/1
● Please check that this question paper contains 8 printed pages.
● Code number given on the right-hand side of the question paper should be
written on the title page of the answer-book by the candidate.
● Please check that this question paper contains 11 questions.
● Please write down the Serial Number of the question before attempting
it.
● 15 minute time has been allotted to read this question paper. The question
paper will be distributed at 10.15 a.m. From 10.15 a.m. to 10.30 a.m., the
students will read the question paper only and will not write any answer on
the answer script during this period.
SUMMATIVE ASSESSMENT-II
ENGLISH (Language and literature)
Time Allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 70
General Instructions:
Class X English Language www.vedantu.com 1
1. This paper is divided into three sections: A, B and C. All the sections are
compulsory.
2. Separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever
necessary.
3. Do not exceed the prescribed word limit while answering the questions
SECTION - A
(Reading) 20 Marks
1. Read the passage given below: 8 Marks
Then all the windows of the grey wooden house (Miss Hilton used to live here.
She expired last week), were thrown open, a thing I had never seen before.
At the end of the day a sign was nailed on the mango tree: FOR SALE.
Nobody in the street knew Miss Hilton. While she lived, her front gate was
always locked and no one ever saw her leave or saw anybody go in. So, even if
you wanted to, you couldn’t feel sorry and say that you missed Miss Hilton.
When I think of her house I see just two colours. Grey and green. The green of
the mango tree, the grey of the house and the grey of the high iron fence that
prevented you from getting at the mangoes.
If your cricket ball fell in Miss Hilton’s courtyard you never got it back. It
wasn’t the mango season when Miss Hilton died. But we got back about ten or
twelve of our cricket balls.
The house was sold and we were prepared to dislike the new owners even
before they came. I think we were a little worried. Already we had one resident
of the street who kept on complaining about us to our parents. He complained
that we played cricket on the pavement; and if we were not playing cricket, he
complained that we were making too much noise anyway.
Class X English Language www.vedantu.com 2
One afternoon when I came back from school Pal said, ‘‘Is a man and a woman.
She pretty pretty, but he ugly like hell.’’ I didn’t see much. The front gate was
open, but the windows were shut again. I heard a dog barking in an angry way.
One thing was settled pretty quickly. Whoever these people were, they
would never be the sort of people to complain that we were making noise
and disturbing their sleep.
A lot of noise came from the house that night. The radio was going at full
volume until midnight when the radio station closed down. The dog was
barking and the man was shouting. I didn’t hear the woman.
On the basis of your understanding of the above passage, complete the
statements that follow: 1×8=8 Marks
(a) Nobody went into Miss Hilton’s house because her front _________ .
(b) Her house had only two colours, (i) ______, and (ii) _______ .
(c) The high iron fence did not let the boys get __________ .
(d) They never got it back if their __________ fell into her courtyard.
(e) The boys were ready to dislike the ____________ .
(f) One resident of the street always ___________ .
(g) The new owners of Miss Hilton’s house were (i) _______, and (ii)
_______
(h) The man was shouting, the dog was barking, only __________ .
Ans: (a) front gate was always locked
(b) (i) Grey and (ii) Green
(c) the mangoes
(d) Cricket ball
(e) Owners of the house
Class X English Language www.vedantu.com 3
(f) complaining about the boys to their parents
(g) (i) man and (ii) woman
(h) woman was silent
2. Read the passage given below: 12 Marks
1. During our growing up years we as children were taught ⎯ both at home and
school ⎯ to worship the photos and idols of the Gods of our respective religions.
When we grew a little older, we were to read holy books like the Bhagavad
Gita, Bible and Quran; we were told that there are a lot of life lessons to be
learnt from these holy books. We were then introduced to stories from our
mythologies which taught us about ethics and morality ⎯ what is good and what
is bad. I also learnt to be respectful towards my parents who made my life
comfortable with their hard work and love and care, and my teachers who
guided me to become a good student and a responsible citizen.
2. Much later in life, I realised that though we learn much from our respective
holy books, there is a lot to learn from our surroundings. This realisation
dawned upon me when I learnt to enquire and explore. Everything around us
⎯ the sun, the moon, the stars, rain, rivers, stones, rocks, birds, plants and
animals ⎯ teach us many valuable life lessons.
3. No wonder that besides the scriptures, in many cultures nature is also
worshipped. The message that we get is to save our environment and maintain
ecological balance. People are taught to live in harmony with nature and
recognise that there is God in all aspects of nature.
4. Nature is a great teacher. A river never stops flowing. If it finds an obstacle
in its way in the form of a heavy rock, the river water fights to remove it from
its path or finds an alternative path to move ahead. This teaches us to be
progressive in life, and keep the fighting spirit alive.
5. Snakes are worshipped as they eat insects in the field that can hurt our crops,
Class X English Language www.vedantu.com 4
thus protecting the grains for us. In fact, whatever we worship is our helper
and makes our lives easy for us. There are many such examples in nature, but
we are not ready to learn a lesson. Overcome with greed, we are destroying
nature. As a result, we face natural disasters like droughts, floods and
landslides. We don’t know that nature is angry with us.
6. However, it is never too late to learn. If we learn to respect nature, the quality
of our life will improve.
2.1 Answer briefly the following questions: 2×4=8 Marks
(a) What are we taught in our childhood and growing up years ?
Ans: Throughout our youth and adolescence, we were taught to pray to and worship
images and idols of the Gods of our respective religions. A few years later, we were
taught to read books like the Bhagavad Gita, the Bible, and the Quran since they
included many good lessons.
(b) Why should we respect our parents and teachers ?
Ans: We should respect our parents because they made our lives easier by their
tireless efforts, and we should also respect our professors since they helped us grow
as better students and citizens via their continual guidance.
(c) What message do we get when we worship nature ?
Ans: Nature's message to us is to safeguard the ecosystem and maintain ecological
balance. We are taught to live in harmony with nature and to recognise God's
presence in the natural world.
(d) How does a river face an obstacle that comes in its way ?
Ans: When an obstruction, such as a large boulder or fallen trees, obstructs the flow
of a river, it never stops. It will simply battle to eliminate the impediment or flow in
a different direction to continue. As a result, it teaches us to remain aggressive and
bold when confronted with challenges in our lives by keeping our fighting spirit
alive.
Class X English Language www.vedantu.com 5
2.2 Give the meanings of the words given below, as used in the passage, with the
help of the options that follow: 1×4=4 Marks
(e) guided (Para 1)
(i) answered
(ii) advised
(iii) fought
(iv) polished
Ans: (ii) advised
(f) explore (Para 2)
(i) search
(ii) frequent
(iii) describe
(iv) request
Ans: (i) search
(g) valuable (Para 2)
(i) proper
(ii) desirable
(iii) available
(iv) useful
Ans: (iv)useful
(h) harmony (Para 3)
(i) beauty
Class X English Language www.vedantu.com 6
(ii) friendship
(iii) discomfort
(iv) honesty
Ans: (ii) friendship
SECTION – B
(Writing Skills with Grammar) 25 Marks
3. The road that leads to your market is broken and full of potholes. Mosquitoes
and flies breed there. Write a letter in 100 – 120 words to the editor of a local
newspaper drawing the attention of the concerned authorities to get the road
repaired. You are P.V. Prabhu/Prabha, 112, Aram Nagar, Delhi. 5 Marks
Ans: 112, Aram Nagar
Delhi
25th September 2017
The Editor
The Times of India
Delhi
Subject: Raising awareness of the need for road maintenance.
Respected Sir,
I'm writing today to call attention to the importance of mending the crumbling roads
in my neighbourhood.
Residents travel to the market on a regular basis to meet their daily necessities.
However, people encounter several difficulties while walking on foot or in a vehicle
on the road leading to the market because it is broken and full of potholes as a result
Class X English Language www.vedantu.com 7
of repeated wear and tear. The holes also fill up with rainwater and have created a
breeding ground for mosquitoes and flies, endangering public health. The concerned
authorities chose to ignore the citizens' hardships and take no action to restore the
road, hence there is no upkeep.
I hope you would consider this subject and publish an article in your newspaper to
keep the relevant authorities informed.
Thanking you,
Yours sincerely,
P.V. Prabha
Or
Write an article in 100 – 120 words on ‘A library is good for all — the old and
young’. You are P.V. Prabhu/Prabha. Use the following clues:
∙ best place in the school
∙ reference books, help books, newspapers, etc.
∙ don’t have to buy expensive ones
∙ books to relax ⎯ novels, plays, etc.
∙ books ⎯ treasure of knowledge
∙ spend leisure hours 5 Marks
Ans: A library is good for all- the old and the young
By: P.V. Prabha/Prabha
Everyone knows what a library is: a room full of books. It can be found in any
educational institution and is the ideal location in a school. It is a location where one
can seek and receive knowledge on a variety of areas such as math, science, arts,
languages, and so on. It includes reference books, guide books, newspapers,
periodicals, encyclopaedias, and other materials to assist us study and finish tasks
Class X English Language www.vedantu.com 8
and assignments. It also broadens our understanding of the world beyond our
immediate surroundings. With the help of libraries, one can read the books they
desire by borrowing them for a set amount of time and not having to buy them, even
if they are expensive.
Books that help you relax are also available in the shape of novels, plays, and other
forms that allow you to momentarily escape into another world. Books are also a
treasure trove of knowledge because they allow us to learn a lot and expand our
vocabulary in a variety of languages. Libraries are beneficial to people of all ages
because there is no age limit to studying and spending leisure time immersed in
books. It's a fun way to spend our time and learn new things.
4. Write a story in 150 – 200 words based on the following outline: 10 Marks
A stag, thirsty — a pool of clear water — reflection — saw his horns — proud
of them — his thin legs — ashamed — hunter’s dogs — ran — horns caught in
a tree — dogs very near — pulled his horns free — ran for his life — legs saved
him.
Ans: Once upon a time, in a big and dark forest, there lived a gorgeous stag. He was
lost in the woods and had become quite thirsty. He came to a clear pool of water and
knelt to drink. He caught sight of himself in the mirror and adored his horns. He was
proud of them, but he was embarrassed by his skinny legs, which were dull and
unsightly. Suddenly, he heard the barking of a hunter's dogs as they approached him.
He ran for his life as fast as his frail legs could carry him. He'd come a long way, but
his horns became entangled in the branches of a tree. He fought hard to get away
from the trees and heard the dogs barking as they got closer. Fortunately, he was
able to free his horns and flee quickly. He suddenly recognized that the legs he had
chastised had saved his life, whilst the horns he had revered had almost killed him.
Or
Complete the story in 150 – 200 words which begins as the following:
It was my fifteenth birthday. My parents were very happy. Some of my class-
Class X English Language www.vedantu.com 9
fellows had agreed to come. .......... 10 Marks
Ans: My fifteenth birthday had arrived. My folks were overjoyed. Some of my
classmates had promised to come to my house for the evening celebration. On a
bright sunny Tuesday, I awoke to find my parents encircling my bed, singing "Happy
Birthday to you" and showering me with hugs and greetings. I put on my new dress
and skipped down the lane to the school bus stop. My classmates met me at school,
and I distributed invites and candies for the celebration later that evening. They
began to come to my place at six o'clock and began to shower me with gifts. Until
my dad brought in the cake, we laughed, danced, played games, sang, and ate junk
food. While my family and friends sang the birthday song, I blew out the candles
and cut a slice. We enjoyed a special meal prepared by my mother, followed by
slices of cake, seconds, and ice cream. Then we settled in for the final act: gift-
wrapping. I received clothes, an iPod, a bundle of fantasy novels, a watch, and other
wonderful gifts, as well as a new laptop from my parents. It was the nicest birthday
I'd ever had.
5. Complete the paragraph given below by filling in the blanks with the help of
the options that follow: 1×3=3 Marks
Very few people (a) _______ loneliness. It seems to me that most people (b)
_______ scared of (c) _______ left on their own.
(a) (i) enjoy (ii) enjoys (iii) enjoyed (iv) enjoying
Ans: (i) enjoy
(b) (i) is (ii) am (iii) are (iv) was
Ans: (ii) are
(c) (i) be (ii) being (iii) been (iv) having
Ans: (ii) being
Class X English Language www.vedantu.com 10
6. The following paragraph has not been edited. There is an error in each line.
Write the error and its correction as shown in the example. 1×4=4 Marks
Error Correction
I met her by chance then I e.g. then when
went to getting some medicine (a) __________ ___________
which Sister Amy use to give. (b) __________ ___________
It was amazing for meet Mother. (c) __________ ___________
I start loving just her presence. (d) __________ ___________
Ans:
ERROR CORRECTION
getting get
use used
for to
start started
7. Rearrange the following words and phrases to form meaningful sentences:
1×3=3 Marks
(a) accept / his pupil / Swami / Sethu as / did not /
Ans: Swami did not accept Sethu as his pupil
(b) only 14 / very / years old / he was / young /
Ans: he was very young, only 14 years’ old
(c) heart / not / but / did / lose / Sethu /
Ans: but Sethu did not lose heart3
Class X English Language www.vedantu.com 11
SECTION - C
(Literature: Textbooks and Long Reading Text) 25 Marks
8. Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow:
1×3=3 Marks
‘‘Never shall a young man,
Thrown into despair
By those great honey-coloured
Ramparts at your ear,
Love you for yourself alone
And not your yellow hair.’’
(a) Whom are these lines addressed to ?
Ans: These lyrics are intended for Lady Augusta Gregory, a poet, and her
granddaughter, little Anne Gregory.
(b) What would throw a young man into despair ?
Ans: The young men are smitten with Anne's honey-gold hair, which falls over her
ear and covers it with strands. As a result, the men are just interested in her outside
appearance and do not appreciate her for who she is. They are depressed since she
has rejected their proposals.
(c) What does the word, ‘ramparts’ here mean ?
Ans: Ramparts are the walls that surround a castle to defend it from the elements. It
alludes to the golden strands of Anne's hair that form a wall around her ear.
Or
‘‘Why, you’re in evening dress ! Well, I never have ! Are you going to a ball or
what ? Though I must say you look better ....’’ 1x3=3 Marks
Class X English Language www.vedantu.com 12
(a) Who is speaking and to whom ?
Ans: In the play The Proposal, Tschubukov is chatting to Lomov.
(b) Why is the person spoken to in an evening dress ?
Ans: The person spoken to is in an evening dress because he wanted to ask the
speaker for the hand of his daughter Natalia in marriage.
(c) What does the word, ‘ball’ mean here ?
Ans: The term 'ball' in this context refers to an opulent social gathering for New
Year's Eve celebration.
9. Answer the following questions in 30 – 40 words each: 2×4=8 Marks
(a) What do we learn about the financial condition of the bakers of Goa ?
Ans: Goa's bakers (padars) are well-known for their loaves of bread. The bakers'
financial situation was affluent and well-off, as baking was a profitable vocation and
bread was adored by everyone.Another example is the appearance of bakers, which
is similar to that of jackfruit due to their plump physical appearance.
(b) In the poem ‘Trees’, where are the trees ? What are their roots, twigs, etc
trying to do ?
Ans: The trees are outside the poet's window in the poem Trees. Their roots are
seeking nutrition from the earth, while their twigs and branches are lifted into the
air, as if praying to God. The branches also give protection for birds to make nests
and shade for a variety of other critters from harsh weather. The sturdy trunk can
withstand hard conditions and grow during rains. This vast creation of God cannot
be likened to a human production, such as a poem. This work of God fascinates the
poet.
(c) Which book did Ebright’s mother get for him ? How did it change his life ?
Ans: Richard Ebright was particularly interested in collecting butterflies in the
Class X English Language www.vedantu.com 13
Making of a Scientist. His mother encouraged his interest in learning by purchasing
a book for him. The title of the book she gave him was The Travels of Monarch X.
It altered his life by introducing him to the world of science and its possibilities.
(d) How did M. Loisel try to make his wife happy ?
Ans: Mr. Loisel attempted to please his wife by receiving an invitation to the
ministerial ball. His wife yearned for elegance, wealth, and a circle of exclusive
friends. He believed that his wife would be overjoyed at the chance to mingle with
upper-class people and make an impression on them with her beauty.
10. Answer the following question in 80 – 100 words: 4 Marks
Once we decide to achieve something, so many difficulties come in our way.
With focused attention we can make that achievement. How did Valli succeed
in fulfilling her desire of riding a bus ?
Ans: Valli was determined to ride a bus in the storey Madam Rides the Bus. In order
to do so, she inquired of her neighbours about the bus ride and the distance between
her village and the town. She was working hard to accumulate money for a two-way
ticket. She attempted to be independent and behave like a mature adult while riding
the bus. She enjoyed her travel but knew not to get off at the town bus stop since she
is terrified of strangers and avoids talking to them. On her way back, she is involved
in an accident, which rattles her, but she completes her journey and achieves her
goal. We can see from this storey that, despite the challenges, an eight-year-old girl
is able to realise her dream because she makes sacrifices by saving money for the
bus fare rather than spending it on her childish desires, and she also goes alone
despite her age.
Or
School education turned Bholi from a dumb cow into a bold girl. How did she
save her father from a huge expense and become his support in his old age ?
4 Marks
Class X English Language www.vedantu.com 14
Ans: Bholi was a little girl who had contracted smallpox at a young age and had
begun to appear unattractive. She also stammered when she spoke and was naturally
shy. Her teacher was very kind to her when she was enrolled in school and
encouraged her to succeed, which helped her acquire confidence. Because of her
disfigured features, her parents wanted to marry her off to a guy twice her age as she
grew older. She agreed like a good daughter would. When the greedy groom sought
a large dowry, she rebelled due to her education, which had given her free will,
wisdom, and maturity. She saved her father a lot of money by teaching so she could
earn a living and support her family for the rest of her life.
11. Answer the following question in 150 – 200 words: 10 Marks
How did Helen Keller get out of the traumatic experience of ‘Frost King’ ?
Ans: Helen Keller had written a novella called The Frost King for Mr. Anagnos of
the Perkins Institution for the Blind's birthday and sent it to him. He is happy and
impressed by her work, which he has published in a study by The Perkins Institute.
Helen's narrative was revealed to be similar to "The Frost Fairies," which was
included in Miss Margaret T. Canbey's book "Birdie and His Friends." Helen swears
she has no recollection of hearing the storey, and Annie Sullivan likewise claims she
has never heard of "Birdie and His Friends." However, the Committee determined
that Helen had copied from "The Frost Fairies," which shocked her and caused her
to refuse to resume writing. Her friendship with Mr. Anagnos had likewise ended.
Miss Sullivan and Miss Canbey consoled her when she began to double-check her
letters to her mother to ensure that all of the words were her own. Anne was able to
recover from this traumatic experience by knowing that it was a life lesson to be
learned.
Or
What do you know about Mr. Keith as Helen Keller’s teacher ?
Ans: Mr. Keith was Helen's Cambridge school tutor who continued her preparation
for the final exam to join Radcliffe College. Anne Sullivan translated his lessons.
Class X English Language www.vedantu.com 15
She characterised him as gentle and patient because it took her a long time to
understand a certain subject. Unlike languages and literature, she found mathematics
and geometry difficult to learn, but Mr. Keith was able to make the tough subjects
fascinating and concise. He taught her to think calmly and logically, and to practise
reasoning skills before jumping to conclusions. He remained patient with her, no
matter how long it took her to fully grasp a subject. She appreciated his teaching
methods and was appreciative for his patience and recognition of her difficulties.
Mr. Keith was well-educated, compassionate, sympathetic, patient, and explained
things more clearly than any teacher, according to Helen's description.
Or
How is Anne more mature than Peter? Describe her feelings for him.
Ans: As she comes across gregarious, mature, and energetic, Anne is more mature
than Peter. She accepts responsibilities in the Secret Annexe in order to assist her
family and to help them survive the hard conditions they were forced to endure. She
recognises that life is full of obstacles that may be overcome by working hard and
focusing less on her personal discomfort.
Annie thought Peter was obnoxious, lethargic, and sensitive at first, but they became
good friends later on. Because she lacked a close buddy, she began to like him and
created an emotional attachment with him. She began to develop feelings for him
and desired to be close to him at all times. They understood one other since they
were so similar in so many ways. They were both lonely and lacking love and
compassion from their families. She admired his sense of comedy. Without being
shy, Peter found it easy to converse with Anne. They could freely confide in one
another and discuss a wide range of topics. Anne was convinced she was in love
with him, but Peter merely regarded her as a close friend with no romantic feelings
for her.
Or
Anne’s diary is as important for Anne as any other character in the annexe.
What is your opinion ?
Class X English Language www.vedantu.com 16
Ans: Anne's diary was as important to her as it was to any other character because
she didn't have anyone with whom she could discuss her sentiments and emotions.
When she turned thirteen, she received it as a birthday present and named it Kitty.
Because it was her constant companion in her loneliness, the diary came to her
rescue. She viewed it as a close friend, confiding and venting her emotions in her
entries. She never kept anything from her diary and wrote down everything that
happened in her life, including squabbles with her family and neighbours. She
documented her wartime experiences, including the anguish, irritation, worry, wrath,
and despair. One of her dreams was to have her journal published under the title The
Secret Annex. She has a lot of thoughts in her limited universe. Her ambition was to
become a world-renowned journalist or writer.
Class X English Language www.vedantu.com 17
CBSE Question Paper 2018
Class 10 English Language and Literature
Time allowed : 3
hours Maximum Marks : 80
General Instructions :
i. The Question paper is divided into three sections :
Section A - Reading 20 Marks
Section B – Writing and Grammar 30 Marks
Section C – Literature 30 Marks
ii. All questions are compulsory.
iii. You may attempt any section at a time.
iv. All questions of that particular section must be attempted in the correct order.
Section A
(Reading) 20
1. Read the passage given below : (8)
1. Tourists to Jammu and Kashmir have another attraction – a floating post office on the
Dal Lake in Srinagar, the first in the country. ‘Floating Post Office, Dal Lake’ – claimed
to be the only one such post office in the world – is built on an intricately carved
maroon houseboat, fastened on the western edge of the Dal Lake.
2. This post office lets you avail of all the regular postal services available in the country
while being afloat. The seal used on everything posted from Floating Post Office is
unique – along with the date and address, it bears the design of a boatman rowing a
shikara on the Dal Lake. The special feature of this post office is that letters posted
from here carry a special design which has the picturesque scenery of Dal Lake and
Srinagar city. These pictures reach wherever these letters are posted to and hence
promote Kashmir as a tourist destination across the world.
3. This is actually a heritage post office that has existed since British times. It was called
Nehru Park Post Office before 2011. But then the chief postmaster John Samuel
renamed it as ‘Floating Post Office’.
1
4. The post office’s houseboat has two small rooms – one serves as the office and the
other a small museum that traces the philatelic history of the state postal department.
It has a shop that sells postage stamps and other products.
5. But for the locals, Floating Post office is more than an object of fascination.` 1-2 crore
is deposited per month in Floating Post Office by communities living in and around
the Dal Lake. The lake has several islets that are home to more than 50,000 people.
6. The greatest fear is the recurrence of 2014 like floods in which the houseboat had
gone for a toss uncontrollably pushed by the flood. Rescue teams had to anchor it
using special mechanism in a nearby highland. Then it was brought back on the Dal
after the water receded. The biggest boon is that at no time of the year do you need a
fan in this post-office !
1. Attempt any eight of the following questions on the basis of the passage you
have read : (1 8 = 8)
i. What is the location of the Floating Post Office in Srinagar ?
ii. What is special about the seal used in the post office ?
iii. How is the post office helpful in promoting tourism ?
iv. Who renamed the post office as ‘Floating Post Office’ ?
v. What are the two rooms of the post office used for ?
vi. How is the post office beneficial to the locals ?
vii. What is the greatest fear that the post office has ?
viii. How is the post office a big boon to the people ?
ix. Find the word from the passage which means the same as ‘attraction’.
(para 5)
Ans. Objective: To comprehend the passage (1 8 = 8)
To identify the main points from the text
Marking: 8 marks - 1 mark for each correct answer. (Any eight)
No penalty for spelling, punctuation or grammatical mistakes
If a student answers all nine questions, the best eight should be marked
Answers
1. i. Dal Lake / Dal Lake in Srinagar / Houseboat on the western edge of Dal
Lake;
ii. It bears the design of a boatman rowing a shikara on the Dal Lake it carries
date and address
2
iii. Pictures on stamps attract tourists/ Pictures on stamps promote Kashmir/
tourism.
iv. John Samuel
v. One as office, the other a museum that traces the philatelic history of the
state postal department / shop that sells postage stamps and other products
vi. Helps them deposit / save money/ helps them as a bank.
vii. Floods / recurrence of floods
viii. No fan at any time of the year needed / tourist attraction / source of income
(Any one)
ix. Fascination
2. Read the passage given below. (12)
1. It is an indisputable fact that the world has gone too far with the innovation of new
technologies such as mobile phones, the internet and so on, due to which people are
able to tour the cosmos virtually sitting at one place using their smart devices or other
technological gadgets. Though mobile internet access is oftentimes hurried and short,
it can still provide common internet features like alerts, eather data, emails, search
engines, instant messages, and game and music downloading.
2. Due to the easy access of smart phones, communication has been very effective and
instant. People are able to convey their message all around the globe to their loved
ones without spending hefty sums of money. Adults are always fond of such gadgets
and they always welcome and adopt such new technology readily. Further, young
people have been able to broaden their minds and improve their skills by doing
research on the Internet. For instance, they use smart phones to look up any new
word they come across. As we know that most of the universities have online teaching
provision and smart phones assist the students to complete their assignments on time.
3. The mobile phone has been a lifesaver for a lot of people in case of an emergency.
Likewise, use of smart phones can be of vital importance in preventing crimes in the
society by providing information to the security forces in time.
4. Nonetheless, for the young the use of mobile phone can be like an addiction and they
can misuse it. Young people are also prone to getting involved in undesirable
activities on the Internet. This might have adverse effect on their academic
performance. Therefore, young people should always be monitored and made aware
of its bad outcomes.
3
5. Also a major contributor to its popularity is the availability of prepaid or pay as you
go services from a phone shop or an online store. This allows subscribers to load text
or airtime credits to their handsets by the use of their credit cards, debit cards or by
buying a prepaid card from the network they subscribe to. This plan also doesn’t
commit a particular customer to a contract. If prepaid card is not that appealing to
you, then you can opt to subscribe using the pay by month plan.
1. On the basis of your reading of the passage, answer any four of the following
questions in 30-40 words each : (2 4 = 8)
i. How are smart phones helpful in communication ?
ii. What are the benefits of mobile phones for the young generation ?
iii. How can mobile phones be considered ‘lifesavers’ ?
iv. Mention any two demerits of mobile phones.
v. How is a prepaid card useful to mobile phone users ?
2. On the basis of your reading of the passage, answer any four of the following :
(1 4 = 4)
i. In para 1, synonym of ‘innovation’ is ________.
i. production
ii. sincerity
iii. invention
iv. prevention
ii. Mobile internet can provide access to :
i. telegram
ii. emails
iii. schools
iv. university
iii. Grown-ups should _________ the use of new technology by the young people.
1. (i) reject
2. (ii) criticize
3. (iii) monitor
4. (iv) accept
iv. Meaning of the word ‘adverse’ in para 4 is :
1. (i) positive
2. (ii) negative
4
3. (iii) admirable
4. (iv) unguided
v. According to the passage, one can opt for __________ plan if prepaid plan
doesn’t suit.
i. yearly
ii. weekly
iii. monthly
iv. daily
Ans. Objective: To comprehend the passage
To identify the main points from the text
Marking:- 2 marks each (Any four) (No penalty for word limit) (2 4 = 8)
No penalty for spelling, punctuation or grammatical mistakes
1. i. communication has become effective / instant message all around the globe
without spending hefty sums
ii. able to broaden their minds and improve their skills by doing
research on the internet
help in online learning,
help look up new word they come across
help complete assignments on time
provide online teaching (any four each half mark)
iii. Can help in any emergency prevent crimes by providing information to
security
iv. Adverse impacts / affects academic performance can lead to addiction /
waste of time/ misuse.
get involved in undesirable activities (any two)
v. Allows subscribers to load text / airtime credits to their handsets it doesn't
commit a particular customer to a contract one can opt to subscribe using
the pay by monthly plan (any two)
2. One mark each (any four) (1 4 = 4)
i. - (iii) invention
ii. - (ii) emails
iii. - (iii) monitor
5
iv. - (ii) negative
v. - (iii) monthly
Section B
(Writing Skills and Grammar) 30
3. You are Prabhu Kumar/Parvati of I7E, Ravi Dass Road, Kochi. Write a letter in 100-
120 words to the editor of a newspaper about the nuisance caused by loudspeakers
in the city during examination days drawing attention of the concerned authorities
to the problem. (8)
OR
You are Pratibha/Rahul of Class X. Write an article in 100-120 words on ‘Ill effects on
students of too much of television’. You can use the following clues :
Increasing addiction
A great variety of programmes
Easy availability
Neglect of studies
Drop in academic performance
Result – poor physical and mental health
Ans. Letter/Article Writing 8 Marks
Letter
Objective: - To use an appropriate style and format to write a formal/an informal letter
Note: - No marks are to be awarded if only the format is given. Credit should be given for
the candidate's creativity in presenting his/her own ideas.
Format - 1 mark
i. Sender's address
ii. Date
iii. Receiver's address
iv. Subject/Heading
v. Salutation
vi. Closing
6
Content - 4 Marks
Expression: 3 Marks (coherence, relevance of ideas (1½ mark)
(Accuracy, appropriate words and correct spellings (1½ mark)
Nuisance caused by loud speakers (suggested value points given)
exam round the corner, preparing for examinations
disturbance to students preparing for examination these days
distraction , use of loud speakers at religious places/rallies/public gatherings on
any special occasion
nuisance even for common man/patients
a noise pollution
enforcement of law / laws prohibiting loud speakers not followed
OR
Article
Format 1 Mark (Title 1/2 Marks & Name of the writer 1/2 Mark)
Content - 4 Marks (any other relevant point besides the hints given)
Expression: 3 Marks (coherence, relevance of ideas) (1½ mark)
(Accuracy, appropriate words and spellings) (1½ mark)
4. Write a story in 150-200 words with the help of the following outline : (10)
Tortoise and hare – good friends – tortoise – known for his slow speed – hare has fast
speed – makes fun of tortoise – challenges him – referee selected – race starts – hare
overconfident – takes a nap – tortoise wins.
OR
Complete the story in 150-200 words which begins as the following :
There was a joint family of six members including grandparents. It was the 75th
birthday of the grandmother and the family planned to celebrate … … …
Ans. Story Writing 10 Marks
Title & Moral - 1 mark
Content - 4 marks
Expression 5 marks (coherence, relevance of ideas) (2½ marks)
7
(Accuracy, appropriate words and correct spellings (2½ marks)
Suggested value points: (Hints given in the question )
OR
Title & Moral - 1 mark
Content - 4 marks
Expression 5 marks (coherence relevance of ideas) (2½ marks)
(Accuracy, appropriate words and correct spelling) (2½ marks)
Suggested value points: (The beginning of the story is given in the question )
5. Fill in any four of the blanks in the paragraph given below with the help of options
that follow : (1 4 = 4)
The modern student (a) the importance (b) physical exercise. He spends one to two
hours in open air (c) he takes part in different sports. However, care should (d) not
to overstrain (e) body.
a. i. understood
ii. understand
iii. have understand
iv. understands
b. i. of
ii. by
iii. from
iv. with
c. i. how
ii. which
iii. where
iv. why
d. i. be taken
ii. took
iii. takes
iv. has taken
e. i. a
ii. an
iii. the
8
iv. some
Ans. Objective: To use grammatical items accurately. (1 4 = 4)
Marking: 1 mark for each correct answer (any four)
a. -- (iv) understands
b. -- (i) of
c. -- (iii) where
d. -- (i) be taken
e. -- (iii) the
6. The following paragraph has not been edited. There is an error in each line. Write
the error as well as the correction as shown in the example. Do any four. (1 4 = 4)
Error Correction
In the prisoner’s room a candle is e.g. Is was
Burning dimly. A prisoner himself (a) ______ ______
Sat by the table. Only him back, (b) ______ ______
The hair by his head, and his (c) ______ ______
Hands are visible from outside (d) ______ ______
Through any window (e) ______ ______
Ans. Objective: To use grammatical items accurately. (1 4 = 4)
Marking: 1 Mark for each correct answer (any four)
Error Correction
(a) A The
(b) Him His
(c) By On
(d) Are Where
(e) any The/a
7. Rearrange the following words/phrases to form meaningful sentences. Do any four.
(1 4 = 4)
i. work and play / things / different / parents see / as two
9
ii. is a / of time / they / waste / think / that playing
iii. important / games / studies / are as / as
iv. a student / to both / proper / should / attention / pay
v. can / life / only / succeed / he / in / then
Ans. Objective: To reorder sense groups into syntactically coherent and complete
sentences. (1 4 = 4)
Marking: 1 mark for each correct answer (any four)
a. Parents see work and play as two different things.
b. They think that playing is a waste of time.
c. Games are as important as studies / Studies are as important as games.
d. A student should pay proper attention to both.
e. Only then he can succeed in life / He can succeed in life only then.
Section C
(Literature : Textbooks and Long Reading Text) 30
8. Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow : (1 4 = 4)
“But, please, Stephen Stepanovitch, how can they be yours ? Do be a reasonable man
!
My aunt’s grandmother gave the Meadows for the temporary and free use of your
grandfather’s peasants. The peasants used the land for forty years and got
accustomed to it as if it was their own, when it happened that ……..
a. Who is the speaker of the above lines ?
b. Why did his aunt’s grandmother give the meadows ?
c. Why did the peasants treat the land as their own ?
d. What light do these lines throw on the speaker’s character ?
OR
Belinda tickled him, she ticked him unmerciful,
Ink, Blink and Mustard, they rudely called him Percival,
They all sat laughing in the little red wagon
At the realio, trulio, cowardly dragon.
10
a. Who was tickled by Belinda ?
b. Why did she tickle ‘him’ ?
c. Who are Ink, Blink and Mustard ?
d. Why did they all laugh at ‘him’ ?
Ans. Objective: To test local and global understanding of the literary text. 1x4=4
Marking: 1 mark for each correct answer
a. Lomov
b. in return for making bricks for her / for temporary and free use
c. used it for forty years and got accustomed to it as their own
d. logical / rational / polite / any other relevant adjective (any one)
OR
a. Custard, the dragon
b. To tease/ make fun of him
c. Ink- black kitten, Blink- the little grey mouse, Mustard- a little yellow dog / they are
Belinda’s pets
d. because he was a coward
9. Answer any four of the following questions in 30-40 words each : (2 4 = 8)
a. What excited Rajvir ? Why did Pranjol not share his excitement ?
b. ‘He senses first responsibility’ – What responsibility is referred to here ? (The
Ball Poem)
c. What was Horace Danby’s hobby ? How did he manage to fulfill it ?
d. Why did Matilda (Mme Loisel) leave the ball in a hurry ? What does it show
about her character ?
e. In which queer way did Anil make a living ? (The Thief’s Story)
Ans. Objective: To test local and global comprehension, themes and ideas in the text.
Marking: Content 1 mark Expression: 1 mark (any four) 2 x 4=8
a. Rajvir was excited to look at the beautiful scenery and wide range of green tea
gardens. Pranjol was born and brought up in Assam, not excited / nothing new for
him
b. The responsibility of taking care of his things in this world of possessions and cope up
11
with the loss.
c. He is fond of collecting rare and expensive books, managed it by breaking open a safe
every year
d. no one notices her shabby shaw l It shows her false pride / vanity
e. wrote for magazines, made money by fits and starts
10. Answer the following question in 100-120 words : (8)
In life, people who easily trust others are sometimes made to look foolish. One
should not be too trusting. Describe how Oliver Lutkins made a fool of the young
lawyer.
OR
What lesson on death and suffering did the Buddha teach Gotami in the chapter,
‘The Sermon at Benaras’ ?
Ans. Value based Question 8
Objective: To test local and global comprehension, themes and ideas in the text.
Marking: Content: 4 marks
Fluency: 2 marks
Grammatical Accuracy 2 marks
(Minimum four points)
Lutkins impressed the lawyer with his friendly manner; led the lawyer to think
that the people of the town were trustworthy.
claimed to know most of the places where Lutkins could be found
befooled the lawyer
charged high price for the hack and food
alerted Fritz, friends and mother not to reveal his identity to the lawyer
even went to the railway station to see him off
on his second visit the lawyer learnt that the hack driver himself was Lutkins
no one should be too trusting
OR
that life of mortals is troubled, brief, combined with pain
death is common to all
12
like ripe fruits, earthen vessels human lives will break/ decay (death) one day
neither father nor kinsmen can save anyone
weeping and grieving will never bring back the dead alive
one should accept death
11. Answer the following question in 200-250 words : (10)
Describe the importance of diary in Anne Frank’s life.
OR
What problems do Margot and Anne face with regard to the way their parents treat
them ?
OR
Helen Keller’s determination to study and compete with the normal children helps
her to enter Radcliffe College. What does this show about her personality ?
OR
Describe how Miss Sullivan succeeds in helping Helen Keller achieve her aim in life.
Ans. Objective: To test knowledge and appreciation of the text. 10 Marks
Marking: Content 5 marks
Coherence and relevance of ideas and style -(2½ marks)
Grammatical accuracy and correct spelling - (2½ marks)
Importance of diary in Anne Frank's life (Any 5 points)
it is a gift given by her father / diary was friend, guide and philosopher
great source of comfort and support
important in her confinement and isolation
astounding record of her sufferings, anxieties, courage, depiction of adolescence,
a friend in whom she can confide and share her agony
source of solace
diary has more patience than people do
a proof of her strength against the atrocities inflicted on Jews
to record holocaust and brutal persecution of women and children
13
she wanted to live even after her death through her writing
OR
Problems Margot and Anne face
restricted atmosphere of the annexe- over protective parents
Anne became tired of her parents' critical approach
she wanted to be independent
rebuked by mother and sister, had 'bust ups' with her mother
Anne was a daddy’s girl – father tried to check her rebellious spirit but in vain
could not confide in her mother, accused parents of deserting - no emotional
support.
mother's sarcasm and quick temper had been the source of Anne's anger and
depression
whereas Margot obliged to parents and received care, support and privilege from
both
they did not talk about their personal feelings with their parents because they
thought that they would not understand
wanted their parents to acknowledge their maturity and independence of spirit
liked to be treated as adults
expected a cordial approach and understanding from them
OR
Helen Keller’s determination
Helen was determined to study in Radcliffe college
did not get into Harvard, girls not allowed
joined Mr. Gilman’s school, tried her best to be on a par with other normal
children
advised to work hard, take extra time to finish course
Miss Sullivan and Helen disapproved; withdrew from school
completed preparation with Miss Sullivan’s help – tutored by Mr. Keith – qualified
to join Radcliffe college
dedication, perseverance and endurance made her achieve the impossible
14
wanted to be treated as normal, did not want compassion or sympathy
overcame all with strong determination
OR
Sullivan's help in making Helen Keller achieve her aim in life
Sullivan worked far beyond expectations
Extremely patient and tolerant with Helen
Handled her with sensitivity but firmly
Encouraged her to explore
helped Helen to study and learn like normal children
Patiently taught her words and then concepts- Helen narrates how Sullivan took
pains and used all techniques to teach the first abstract idea 'love'
Sullivan spelled words on her hands during lectures
accompanied Helen everywhere
Constant inspiration and tireless advocate for Helen.
for Anne everything best in her life belonged to Sullivan
15
CBSE Class 10
English (Language and Literature)
Previous Year Question Paper 2019
Series: JMS/2 Set-1
Code no. 2/2/1
● Please check that this question paper contains 7 printed pages.
● Code number given on the right hand side of the question paper should
be written on the title page of the answer-book by the candidate.
● Please check that this question paper contains 11 questions.
● Please write down the Serial Number of the question before
attempting it.
● 15 minute time has been allotted to read this question paper. The question
paper will be distributed at 10.15 a.m. From 10.15 a.m. to 10.30 a.m., the
students will read the question paper only and will not write any answer
on the answer-book during this period.
ENGLISH (Language and Literature)
Time Allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 80
General Instructions :
(i) The Question paper is divided into three sections :
Section A — Reading 20 marks
Section B — Writing and Grammar 30 marks
Section C — Literature 30 marks
(ii) All questions are compulsory.
(iii) You may attempt any section at a time.
(iv) All questions of that particular section must be attempted in the correct
Class X English Language www.vedantu.com 1
order.
SECTION – A
(Reading) 20 Marks
1. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow :
8 Marks
1. Keep your watch accurate. For some people, moving up the time on
their watch will help them get up earlier. For others, they will remember
that the time on the watch is wrong and will disregard it altogether. It
may be helpful to set your watch just two minutes ahead instead of five
or ten.
2. Keep a clock, phone, computer or anything that displays time in each
room of your house. One of the easiest ways to run late is simply by not
realising that the time is passing as quickly as it is.
3. Set all your clocks and watches to the same time. Don’t be an optimist.
Things usually take longer than what you’d expect, even without major
delays. If you have a dinner appointment at 7·30 p.m., don’t think you
can work till 7 p.m., then take a bath, dress and reach on time.
Realistically, calculate the time you will take at each step and then add
10 minutes more to allow for unexpected delays, or you cannot get to
your job in time.
4. Wake up when you are supposed to wake up. Don’t hit the snooze
button, keep on lying in bed, and watch TV at the very start of your day.
Maybe try even setting your clock 10 minutes earlier than you need. If
you have difficulty with this, move your alarm clock to somewhere away
from your bed; that way, you have to get up to turn it off. Commit
yourself to being 15 minutes early for everything. If you have to reach
your place of work at 8·00, don’t even tell yourself this. Just tell yourself
(and everyone else who listens — but don’t annoy them or make them
think that they are late or early!) ‘‘I have to be at work at 7·45.’’ If you
do this, you will be on time even with little unforeseen delays. You will
be on time even with a traffic jam.
1.1 Complete the following statements using words/phrases from the
passage. Attempt any eight. 1×8=8 Marks
(a) Some people believe that if ______ it will help them be earlier.
Class X English Language www.vedantu.com 2
(b) Many others know ___________ they disregard it altogether.
(c) Keep ___________ in each room.
(d) One of the things that can be done is ________ of five or ten
minutes.
(e) Many a time we do not realise that ___________ .
(f) Instead of pressing the snooze button ___________ .
(g) If you have difficulty in getting up ___________.
(h) It is a good habit to ________ somewhere away from your bed.
(i) It is good to commit yourself __________ for everything.
Ans:
(a) they move up the time in their watch
(b) that the time on their watch is wrong
(c) a clock, phone, computer or anything that displays time
(d) set your watch just two minutes ahead instead
(e) the time is passing as quickly as it is.
(f) keep on lying in bed, and watch TV at the very start of your day.
(g) try even setting your clock 10 minutes earlier than you need.
(h) move your alarm clock to
(i) to being 15 minutes early
2. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow:
12 Marks
1. Music is perhaps the most popular and widely practised form of Fine
Arts, transcending all kinds of cultural and linguistic barriers. Any
form of fine art is difficult to master and almost impossible to perfect
and music is no exception.
2. Nature, it is learnt, has blessed almost two-thirds of the human race
with musical ability of some sort. Music has the power to bring out the
deepest emotions. It can make one cry or bring a smile on one’s face.
In fact it is a magic medicine and many seek refuge in it when they are
depressed or stressed. It is this intimacy that makes us listen to music
Class X English Language www.vedantu.com 3
or even hum or sing sometimes. This singing, or realistically speaking,
expressing one’s emotion musically sometimes takes a serious turn.
This desire to show musical expression in public then becomes a
serious business profession. And from here the musical journey begins.
3. This desire to sing before an audience is innocent and beautiful and
indeed it is perfectly alright to have such a genuine desire. But it is also
important to understand that singing is an intricate art — a highly
refined one at that, which requires systematic, prolonged and strict
training, to be acceptable. This is an aspect we forget in our keen desire
to reach the stage and perform. It is almost like preparing a formal
meal for some specially invited guests, without even having learnt and
trained in the basics of cooking. This is why we have more noise and
less music nowadays.
4. These days almost everyone sings and it does not stop here. Most of
us want to become professional singers. Result : a complete disregard
for and ignorance of the training part, as the need is never felt to go
through one and the urge to get to the stage and perform overcomes
even a little desire to learn, if any. If at all, somewhere along the way
one feels the need to gain some knowledge and training, it leads to
hurried shortcuts and half-hearted attempts, best described as ‘Crash
Courses’.
5. It is observed that those who have attained the so called partial
success, suddenly feel that they lack the required knowledge and are
not learned enough. But it is too late by then. It should be understood
here that the stage or a performance brings in a different mindset
within the artist. It is always recommended and rightly said, that while
on stage, cover the mistakes and weaknesses if any, and get along. But
the contrary is true when it comes to acquiring knowledge and during
the learning process. While under training, the student is expected to
make mistakes but then rectify those mistakes under the supervision
and guidance of the teacher. Therefore, it is good to make mistakes
and then be corrected during the process of learning as this
subsequently makes one flawless and educated. This is a different
mindset. And these two mindsets discussed above, (those of a
performer and that of a student) cannot co-exist.
2.1 On the basis of your understanding of the above passage, answer
any four of the following questions in 30 – 40 words each : 2×4=8 Marks
(a) The desire to sing in public overcomes the need to train.
Elaborate.
Class X English Language www.vedantu.com 4
Ans: This urge to perform in front of an audience is pure and
lovely, and it is completely OK to have such a real desire. But
it's also important to remember that singing is a complex art
form — a highly refined one at that — that necessitates
systematic, long-term, and rigorous training in order to be
acceptable. This is one aspect we overlook in our rush to go on
stage and act.
(b) How can we say that music is a magic medicine ?
Ans: Music has the ability to elicit the most intense emotions. It has
the ability to make one cry or grin. It is, in reality, a magical
medication that many people turn to when they are depressed or
anxious. It is because of this proximity that we occasionally listen to
music or even hum or sing.
(c) What is best described as ‘Crash Courses’ ?
Ans: If one feels the need to obtain information and training at any
point along the route, it leads to rushed shortcuts and half-hearted
endeavours that are best defined as "Crash Courses."
(d) What should be the mindset of a student of music ?
Ans: It is important to note that the artist's attitude changes while he
or she is on stage or performing. While on stage, it is usually
suggested and properly said that you hide any faults or weaknesses
you may have and get along. When it comes to learning and
accumulating information, however, the opposite is true. The student
is expected to make mistakes while in training, but to correct them
under the observation and guidance of the teacher.
(e) Why is singing a refined and intricate art?
Ans: It's also crucial to remember that singing is a complex art form
— a highly polished one at that — that needs systematic, long-term,
and rigorous training in order to be acceptable. It's almost as if you're
making a fancy supper for some distinguished visitors without having
learned or been educated in the fundamentals of cooking. This is why
currently there is more noise and less music.
2.2 On the basis of your understanding of the above passage, answer
any four of the following : 1×4=4 Marks
(a) Almost _________ of human population is blessed with
musical ability of some sort.
Class X English Language www.vedantu.com 5
(i) two-thirds
(ii) one-third
(iii) half
(iv) one-fifth
Ans: two-thirds
(b) Any form of ________ ________ is difficult to master.
(i) visual art
(ii) audio-visual art
(iii) fine arts
(iv) design art
Ans: Fine arts
(c) ‘Transcending’ in para 1 means
(i) drown under
(ii) rise above
(iii) surrender
(iv) fail
Ans: rise above
(d) ‘Refuge’ in para 2 means
(i) shelter from rain
(ii) shelter from storm
(iii) shelter from unhappiness
(iv) shelter from sun
Ans: shelter from unhappiness
(e) ‘Partial’ in para 5 means
(i) unfair
(ii) incomplete
(iii) whole
(iv) total
Class X English Language www.vedantu.com 6
Ans: incomplete
SECTION - B
(Writing and Grammar) 30 Marks
3. As a health conscious person, you have noticed an advertisement in a
newspaper on yoga classes in your neighbourhood. Write a letter in 100-
120 words to the Organiser, Yoga for Public, R.K. Puram, New Delhi
requesting him/her to send you information about the duration of the
course and other relevant details. You are Shweta/Srikar of 15, R.K.
Puram, New Delhi . 8 Marks
Ans:
15 R.K. Puram,
New Delhi
To,
Srishti yoga centre,
New Delhi.
Respected sir/Madam,
Subject: Information regarding the yoga classes.
My name is Sweta, and I live at 60 RK Puram. My health is something that I am
really worried about. In the mornings, I used to go for a stroll. On one of these
days, I came across your yoga class advertisement in the newspaper. I'd like to
attend one of your yoga courses. That is why I am writing to inquire about the
class details, such as the duration, session times, and costs that must be paid.
Please notify me.
Thanking you
Yours faithfully
Sweta
Or
You have noticed that the number of vehicles is steadily increasing in your
city. There are long traffic jams causing a lot of inconvenience to the road
users. Write an article in 100 – 120 words on the topic, ‘Problem of Traffic
Jams in Metropolitan Cities’. You are Renu/Rajan.
Class X English Language www.vedantu.com 7
Ans: Problems of traffic jams during rush hours.
By Renu
I wrote to voice my worry about the difficulties of excessive traffic that
commuters experience every day during peak hours. The city's roadways have
become so congested with vehicles that lengthy traffic jams are now
commonplace. These protracted traffic bottlenecks cost the nation a lot of
money. Every day, millions of working hours are lost due to traffic congestion.
Vehicles trapped in traffic lose millions of rupees worth of fuel. Pollution
generated by these vehicles also poses a threat to people's health. The irritation
produced by these traffic jams also leads to a lot of aggressive confrontations
among commuters. Students often lose a lot of time since these traffic jams
prevent them from getting to their schools and universities on time.
I appeal to the state and federal governments to investigate the problem via the
medium of your respected dally. The city is in desperate need of a modern metro
system. More intra-city electricity buses might be introduced by the municipal
transportation department. The Metro and electric buses will unquestionably
assist in decreasing traffic congestion on the highways. Aside from the
aforementioned methods, widening of roads and keeping the roadways clear for
commuters can also assist to alleviate commuting difficulties. Please give my
views ample room in your prestigious dally.
4. Complete the story in 200 – 250 words, which begins as the following,
providing an appropriate title also.
Mukesh, the grocer, was very greedy. He would mix stones in pulses and
coloured sand in spices and sell them to the poor villagers. The villagers
complained to him but he turned a deaf ear to them, as his was the only
grocery store in the village. The villagers, then decided .... .... .... 10 Marks
Ans: Mukesh the grocer, was very greedy. He would mix stones in pulses and
colored sand in spices and sell them to poor villagers. The villagers complained
to him, but he ignored them because he was the village's only grocery shop. The
villagers then decided file a complaint with the consumer forum. They learned
about the consumer forum through a villager's son. On his holiday, he had
returned to his village. He reminded the crowd that they had the right to protest
about the situation because it was unlawful. The villager followed suit. After two
days, the officers returned to Mukesh's business and rechecked his inventory.
They discovered a lot of outdated items in the stock for sale, as well as
contaminated spices and pulses. A fine of 50,000 rupees was imposed on him,
as well as a warning. This deed pleased the locals greatly. He never tried to
Class X English Language www.vedantu.com 8
tamper with food again after that.
Or
It was 10 p.m. I was alone at home. Suddenly I heard a knock on the
door ... .... ....
Ans: It was 10 p.m. I was alone at home. Suddenly I heard a knock on the door.
I was afraid that I wouldn't know what to do. My parents had gone to a party and
had ordered me not to let anybody in the house. I tried peering through the
keyhole, but there was no one there. The bell sounded once more. When I
realised I was trembling, I had an epiphany and decided to contact my neighbors.
I looked up their phone number in my phone book and dialed it. No response
was received. They'd most likely fallen asleep. I dialed a different neighbor's
number.
He took up the phone and stated he was out of town but would do his best to help
me. I reasoned that waiting for someone to come and assist me would be futile.
I had a brilliant idea. I screamed from the inside. "Will you, Papa, kindly open
the door? Someone is pounding on the door." I sat and waited for an answer.
Because there was no sound outside, the person outside had most likely heard
my speech and departed. I made the decision to check from the balcony. I was
really taken aback when I noticed three people departing on a motorcycle. I
couldn't see their faces since they were all wearing helmets. I had been rescued
by God. Around 11 p.m., my parents arrived. Everything was shown to them.
They congratulated me on my calm demeanor. The next morning, we filed a
report with the police, requesting that they enhance their patrolling at night so
that no innocent people fall prey.
5. Fill in the blanks in the paragraph given below by choosing the most
appropriate options from the ones that follow. Attempt any four. Write the
answers in your answer sheet against the correct blank numbers.
1×4=4 Marks
The caves of Ajanta and Ellora (a) ______ the magnificent works of
sculpture. Whoever (b) ________ there (c) ______spellbound.
Thousands (d) ______tourists visit these places every year. One can stay
(e) ________the guest houses.
(a) (i) is (ii) are (iii) was (iv) were
Ans: (a) (ii) are
(b) (i) go (ii) going (iii) goes (iv) went
Class X English Language www.vedantu.com 9
Ans: (b) (iii) goes
(c) (i) becomes (ii) became (iii) becoming (iv) has become
Ans: (c) (i) becomes
(d) (i) for (ii) of (iii) from (iv) at
Ans: (d) (ii) of
(e) (i) on (ii) over (iii) upon (iv) in
Ans: (e) (iv) in
6. In the following paragraph, one word has been omitted in each line. Write
the missing word along with the word that comes before and the word that
comes after it against the correct blank number. The first one has been done
for you. Attempt any four. 1×4=4 Marks
Word Missing Word
before word after
The tiny island of Rameswaram South India e.g. Rameswaram in South
is one of the four Dhams. According to legend (a) _____ ___ __ _____
it was from here that Lord Rama the help of (b) _____ ___ __ _____
Hanuman and Sugreev and his monkey force
built a stone bridge Lanka just 24 kilometres (c) _____ ___ __ _____
away. The main attraction of island (d) _____ ___ __ _____
is the Ramanathaswamy Temple is a (e) _____ ___ __ _____
magnificent example of Dravidian architecture.
Ans: Word before Missing word Word after
(a) to a legend
(b) Rama with the
(c) his entire monkey
(d) bridge to lanka
(e) Temple which is
Class X English Language www.vedantu.com 10
7. Rearrange any four of the following groups of words/phrases to make
meaningful sentences : 1×4=4 Marks
(a) of mankind / reading is / one of / pleasures / the greatest
Ans: Reading is one of the greatest pleasures of mankind.
(b) we / enjoy / the / much more / borrowed ones / our own books /
reading / than
Ans: We enjoy reading our own books much more than the borrowed
ones.
(c) book / carefully / must be / with / a borrowed / treated
Ans: A borrowed book must be treated with care.
(d) book / afraid of / you should / writing notes on / not be /
your own
Ans: You should not be afraid of writing notes in your own book.
(e) should begin / one / a private library / one’s youth / building
/ in
Ans: One should begin building a private library in one's youth.
SECTION - C
(Literature) 30 Marks
8. Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow :
1×4=4 Marks
The baker usually collected his bills at the end of the month. Monthly
accounts used to be recorded on some wall in pencil. Baking was indeed a
profitable profession in the old days. The baker and his family never
starved. He, his family and his servants always looked happy and
prosperous. Their plump physique was an open testimony to this. Even
today any person with a jackfruit-like physical appearance is easily
compared to a baker.
(a) Where did the baker record his accounts?
Ans: The baker's bills were generally collected at the end of the month. The
baker's monthly records were written in pencil on a wall.
(b) Why did the baker and his family never starve?
Class X English Language www.vedantu.com 11
Ans: Back in the day, baking was a lucrative career. The baker's family never
went hungry. He, his family, and his servants usually appeared to be in good
spirits.
(c) Which word in the extract is a synonym of ‘rich’?
Ans: The word in the extract that is a synonym of ‘rich’ is “Prosperous” as both
of them indicate wealth and success.
(d) How can a baker be identified in Goa?
Ans: A baker may readily identify someone with a Jackfruit-like physical
appearance since their pump physique is an open testament to their pleasure and
success.
Or
Now the name of the little black kitten was Ink,
And the little gray mouse, she called him Blink,
And the little yellow dog was sharp as Mustard,
But the dragon was a coward, and she called him Custard.
(a) Name the poem and its poet.
Ans: The name of the poem is “The Tale of Custard the Dragon” and the poet is
“Frederic Ogden Nash”
(b) What is the colour of Belinda’s dog?
Ans: Belinda owns four animals. Ink is a small black cat, Mustard is a little
yellow dog, Blink is a grey mouse, and Custard is a dragon. Belinda's dog is
mustard yellow.
(c) What were the kitten and the mouse called?
Ans: The small black kitten was now known as Ink, and the little grey mouse was
known as Blink.
(d) Which word in the stanza is the antonym of ‘dull’?
Ans: The word in the stanza is the antonym of ‘dull’ is Sharp where “dull” refers
to something that lacks interest, sharp is something thatimmediately catches
attention.
9. Answer any four of the following questions in 30 – 40 words each:
2×4=8 Marks
Class X English Language www.vedantu.com 12
(a) Why did Lencho write a letter to God?
Ans: Lencho was a firm believer in God and could read and write a little.
He awaited the rain with bated breath in order to reap a bountiful harvest.
However, the pleasant rain turned into a hailstorm within an hour,
completely destroying his crop. He felt depressed and concerned for his
family. However, no one was willing to assist him in his precarious
condition. God's assistance was his final hope. He decided to write a letter
to God, begging him to provide him a hundred pesos so he could seed his
field again and sustain his family till the next crop.
(b) How did Chubukov react when Lomov asked for the hand of
his daughter in marriage?
Ans: Chubukov becomes unbalanced with excitement when Lomov claims
he has come to seek for his daughter's hand in marriage. He hugs and kisses
Lomov, cries a joyful tear, and prays for Lomov and Natalya's blessing.
(c) Where in the classroom does Wanda sit and why?
Ans: Wanda sat in Room Thirteen on the seat adjacent to the final seat in
the last row. Her feet were always caked in dried mud and filthy, so she used
to sit there. As a result, she constantly sits there to hide her dirty feet in order
to avoid being teased by her classmates.
(d) How did Ebright’s mother help him in becoming a
scientist?
Ans: Richard Ebright benefited from his mother's support in his pursuit of
knowledge. She accompanied him on his excursions, purchased telescopes,
microscopes, cameras, mounting materials, and other items for him, and
assisted him in a variety of ways. She was always there to support him in
his scholarly endeavours.
(e) Why does Anil not hand Hari Singh over to the police?
Ans: Anil refuses to hand the thief over to the authorities because he
recognises that Hari has improved and learnt his lesson. He would not have
returned if the money had not been placed in the same location where he
had taken it. Anil was also aware of how Hari cheated him of a rupee every
day when purchasing supplies. In contrast, he never said anything to him.
10. Answer the following question in 100 – 120 words : 8 Marks
Mme Forestier proved to be a true friend of the Loisels. Elaborate.
Class X English Language www.vedantu.com 13
Ans: Madame Forestier showed to be a real friend to Matilda by assisting her at
a difficult period. When Matilda needed to borrow diamonds for a special
occasion, she went to Madame Forestier for assistance. Without hesitation, she
handed Matilda her whole jewelry collection to select from. When Matilda was
late returning her jewelry, she didn't bother her. When she discovered the truth
about Matilda's misunderstanding and effort to return her jewelry at the end of
the narrative, she became quite empathetic. She immediately informed Matilda
that the original jewelry was a forgery.
Or
Why did Gotami go to the Buddha? What lesson did he teach her?
Ans: Kisa Gotami had lost her only son, and in her grief, she took her dead kid
around to all of her neighbours, begging them to heal him and bring him back to
life. Finally, she approached the Buddha and requested medication to treat her
son. Kisa Gotami's anguish was known to the Buddha. He urged her to see the
reality of life and death and accept humanity's fate. To demonstrate that death is
universal, he requested her to bring a handful of mustard seeds from a house
where no one had ever died. As a result, she was unable to locate any residences
in which no one had perished. She understood that by being selfish in her sadness,
she had brought out all of their greatest sorrows. She seemed to have accepted the
fact that everyone dies.
11. Answer the following question in 200 – 250 words : 10 Marks
Justify the title, ‘The Diary of A Young Girl’.
Ans: Anne Frank, a thirteen-year-old Jewish girl, wrote ‘The Diary Of A Young
Girl.' She began writing her journal since she lacked a companion with whom
she could discuss her thoughts and feelings. The red and white checkered journal
came to her rescue, and she confided in it throughout her life, giving it the name
"Kitty." She handled it as though it were a close friend. While writing in her
journal, she was able to express herself. Some of the entries are quite personal,
while others are critical of her parents and friends. Mrs. van Daan's daily quarrels
with her mother and Mrs. van Daan's quarrels with Mrs. van Daan and even Mrs.
and Mr. van Daan's quarrels with Mrs. van Daan were all noted in her journal.
She documented her emotions during the war, including her dread,
disappointments, and fury at the Germans' treatment of Jews. The entire book is
written in the form of a journal and focuses on the life of a young girl named
Anne Frank. As a result, the title is appropriate.
Or
Class X English Language www.vedantu.com 14
Write a character sketch of Anne Frank.
Ans: Anne was born in Frankfurt, Germany, on June 12, 1929. When she was
four years old, her father relocated the family to Holland in search of a better
living situation. She was bright and sensitive, and she aspired to be a writer. She
adored Peter and felt strongly about him. She had to overcome objections from
her parents in order to meet him, but she persisted. Anne was an excellent reader.
Even though she was in hiding, she continued her education by reading something
every day. Even though she disliked math, she translated chapters, jotted down
vocabulary terms, and worked diligently on math problems. She liked shorthand
but eventually gave it up as her eyesight deteriorated and she couldn't see an
ophthalmologist while hiding in the hidden annexe. She read Galileo's, Galili's,
and Franz Liszt's biographies. She enjoyed reading the Bible as well as Greek and
Roman mythology. She aspired to work as a journalist. She adored her parents
like any other kid would, but she grew to detest her mother after comparing her
to Margot, her older sister, whom she resented. She had the distinct impression
that her father adored her more than her mother. Anne was a happy kid who
learned a lot from her hardships. She had always hoped that after the war, all of
their issues would be solved and they would be able to live a joyful, tension-free
existence. Anne had a lot of friends, but none of them she could confide in. As a
result, she made Kitty, her journal, her buddy and confided in it all of her feelings.
Anne died of typhus in Bergen-Belsen detention camp in late February or early
March 1945.
Or
What type of relationship did Miss Anne Sullivan and Helen share?
Ans: Helen's parents went to see Dr. Chisholm, an eye, ear, nose, and throat
specialist in Baltimore, after Helen's sickness left her deaf and blind. He got them
in touch with Alexander Graham Bell, a deaf child's advocate. They should call
the Perkins Institute for the Blind, according to Bell. Helen's tutor was Miss
Anne Sullivan, who was assigned by this school. Helen had a feeling something
strange was about to happen on the day Miss Sullivan was due to arrive. She had
no clue the future had anything in store for her. Helen's life was brightened when
Miss Sullivan came. They had a fantastic connection together. Miss Sullivan
treated her as if she were her mother. She taught her how to spell words by
writing them on her hand in the form of d-o-l-l. She later taught her abstract
terms such as love, water, and thought. Miss Sullivan steadily increased Helen's
understanding by teaching her how to use the words in phrases as her vocabulary
expanded. She accompanied Helen everywhere, and Helen turned to her
whenever she needed to know something. Their connection lasted 49 years, and
Miss Sullivan progressed from governess to companion to Helen.
Class X English Language www.vedantu.com 15
Or
Write a character sketch of Alexander Graham Bell.
Ans: Dr. AG Bell was an important figure in Helen Keller's life. Helen dedicated
her book, "The Story of My Life," to him because of his significant effect on her.
He was gentle and generous. Dr. Alexander Graham Bell was a gentle and
empathetic guy who won the hearts of many people. He loved working with the
deaf and was happiest when surrounded by youngsters. Dr. Bell was devoted to
the education of the hearing challenged, demonstrating that he was a caring
individual. He remained Helen's genuine companion and supporter, and it was
thanks to his efforts that Helen was introduced to a new world of possibilities.
Helen's father was encouraged to write to Mr. Anagnos, Director of the Perkins
Institute for the Blind in Boston, to inquire about a teacher for Helen by Dr. Bell,
who was a helpful and compassionate man. Miss Sullivan, Helen's guide
companion and instructor, was introduced to Helen by Mr. Anagnos, who was
introduced to Helen's father by Mr. Graham Bell. Helen had spent many
delightful days in Washington and at Mr. Bell's house, listening to his
experiments. He has the ability to convey even the most complex theories in a
straightforward and engaging manner. Dr. Bell, according to Helen, was an expert
in many disciplines of science and could make any dull, complicated topic
fascinating. He recognised the best in people and thought that given enough time,
anyone could become an innovator. Despite his image as a scientist, Dr. Bell was
also an artist and a witty individual. Dr. Bell's greatest characteristic, though, is
his compassion for children, which drives him to be a humanitarian. He was
passionate about deaf children's rights and wanted to make the world a better
place for them.
Class X English Language www.vedantu.com 16
CBSE Class 10
English (Language and Literature)
Previous Year Question Paper 2020
Series: JBB/5 Set- 1
Code no. 2/5/1
• Please check that this paper contains 8 printed pages.
• Code number given on the right-hand side of the question paper
should be written on the title page of the answer-book by the
candidate.
• Please check that this question paper contains 11 questions.
• Please write down the Serial Number of the question in
the answer-book before attempting it.
• 15 minutes of time has been allotted to read this question
paper. The question paper will be distributed at 10.15 a.m. From
10.15 a.m. to 10.30 a.m., the students will read the question paper
only and will not write any answer on the answer-book during this
period.
ENGLISH (Language and Literature)
Time Allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 80
General Instructions:
Read the following instructions very carefully and strictly follow them.
1. The question paper comprises three sections - A. B and C.
Section A - 20 marks
Section B - 30 marks
Class XII English Elective www.veddantu.com 1
Section C - 30 marks
2. There are 11 questions in the question paper. All questions are compulsory.
3. Answers should be brief and to the point.
4. There is no overall choice in the question proper. However, an internal
choice has been provided in Section B and Section C. Make your choices
correctly.
5. In addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and
question, wherever necessary.
6. Do not exceed the prescribed word limit while answering the questions.
SECTION – A
(Reading) 20 Marks
1. Read the following passage carefully. 8 Marks
1 Caged behind thick glass, the most famous dancer in the world can easily
be missed in the National Museum, Delhi. The Dancing Girl of Mohenjo -
daro is that rare artefact that even school children are familiar with. Our
school textbooks also communicate the wealth of our 5000-year heritage of
art. You have to be alert to her existence there, amid terracotta animals to
rediscover this bronze image.
2 Most of us have seen her only in photographs or sketches. Therefore, the
impact of actually holding her is magnified a million times over. One
discovers that the dancing girl has no feet. She is small, a little over 10 cm
tall — the length of a human palm — but she surprises us with the power
of great art — the ability to communicate across centuries.
3 A series of bangles — of shell or ivory or thin metal — clothe her left
upper arm all the way down to her fingers. A necklace with three pendants
bunched together and a few bangles above the elbow and wrist on the right
hand display an almost modern art.
4 She speaks of the undaunted, ever hopeful human spirit. She reminds us
that it is important to visit museums in our country to experience the
impact that a work of art leaves on our senses, to find among all the riches
Class XII English Elective www.veddantu.com 2
one particular vision of beauty that speaks to us alone.
1.1 On the basis of your reading of the above passage, answer the following
questions. 1x8=8 Marks
(a) The Dancing Girl belongs to
(i) Mohenjo - daro.
(ii) Greek culture.
(iii) Homo sapiens.
(iv) Tibet.
Ans: (i) Mohenjo - daro
(b) In the museum she’s, kept among
(i) dancing figures.
(ii) bronze statues.
(iii) terracotta animals.
(iv) books.
Ans: (iii) terracotta animals.
(c) Which information is not given in the passage?
(i) The girl is caged behind glass.
(ii) She is a rare artefact.
(iii) School books communicate the wealth of our heritage.
(iv) She cannot be rediscovered as she’s bronze.
Ans: (iv) She cannot be rediscovered as she’s bronze.
(d) ‘Great Art’ has power because
(i) it appeals to us despite a passage of time.
(ii) it is small and can be understood.
Class XII English Elective www.veddantu.com 3
(iii) it is seen in pictures and sketches.
(iv) it is magnified a million times.
Ans: (i) it appeals to us despite a passage of time.
(e) The jewellery she wears
(i) consists of bangles of shell or ivory or thin metal only.
(ii) is a necklace with two pendants.
(iii) Both (i) and (ii) are correct.
(iv) Neither (i) nor (ii) is correct.
Ans: (i) consists of bangles of shell or ivory or thin metal only.
(f) She reminds us
(i) of the never-say-die attitude of humans.
(ii) why museums in our country are exciting.
(iii) why she will make us come into money.
(iv) of dancing figures.
Ans: (ii) why museums in our country are exciting.
(g) The synonym of the word “among” in paragraph 1 is ____.
Ans: among-amid
(h) The size of the dancing girl is equal to the length of the human plan.
(True/False)
Ans: True
2. Read the following passage carefully: 12 Marks
1 As the family finally sets off from home after many arguments, there is a
moment of lull as the car takes off. “Alright, so where are we going for
dinner now?" asks the one at the driving wheel. What follows is chaos as
Class XII English Elective www.veddantu.com 4
multiple voices make as many suggestions.
2 By the time order is restored and a decision is arrived at, tempers have
risen, feelings injured and there is at least one person grumbling.
3 Twenty years ago, you would step out of home, the decision of meal and
venue already made with no arguments or opposition and everybody
looked forward to the meal with equal enthusiasm. The decision was made
by the head of the family and the others fell in line. Today every member
of the family has a say in every decision which also promotes a sense of
togetherness and bonding.
4 We empower our kids to make their own decisions from a very early age.
We ask them the cuisine they prefer, the movie they want to see, the holiday
they wish to go on and the subjects they wish to study.
5 It’s a closely connected world out there where children consult and guide
each other. A parent's well-meaning advice can sound like nothing more
than unnecessary preaching. How then do we reach our children through
all the conflicting views and make the voice of reason be heard? Child day
questions choices and prefer to go with the flow.
6 What then is the best path to take? I would say the most important thing
one can do is to listen. Listen to your children and their silences. Ensure
that you keep some time aside for them, insist that they share their stories
with you. Step into their world. It is not as complicated as it sounds; just a
daily half an hour of quality time would do the trick.
2.1 On the basis of your reading of the above passage, answer the following
questions in 30 - 40 words each: 2x4=8 Marks
(a) Write one advantage and one disadvantage of allowing every family
member to be a part of the decision-making process.
Ans: One advantage is that the decision-making process fosters a sense of
belonging and camaraderie.
Disadvantage - It might lead to squabbling and strife.
(b) In today’s world, what are parents asking their kids?
Ans: In today's environment, we let our children make their own judgments from
a young age. Today, every member of the family has a say in every decision,
which fosters a sense of belonging and bonding. From a young age, we provide
Class XII English Elective www.veddantu.com 5
our children the ability to make their own judgments.We ask them the cuisine
they prefer, the movie they want to see, the holiday they wish to go on and the
subjects they wish to study.
(c) Which two pieces of advice does the writer give to the parents?
Ans: Both pieces of advice, the writer give to the parents are:-
● Pay attention to your children's silences, listen to your children and their
silences. Ensure that you keep some time aside for them.
● Spend time with your children and tell them your stories.Just a daily half
an hour of quality time would do the trick.
(d) The passage supports the parents. How far do you agree with the
author's views? Support your view with a reason.
Ans: Yes, I agree that this passage supports the parents because the decision
was taken by the family's head twenty years ago, and it encourages a sense of
togetherness and bonding. I agree with this viewpoint because youngsters do not
have the ability to make their own decisions. Make sound decisions on your own.
It is possible that it is incorrect at times.
2.2 On the basis of your reading of the above passage, answer the following:
1x4=4 Marks
(a) The synonym of ‘hurt’ as given in paragraph 2 is _____.
Ans: injured
(b) The word which means the same as ‘a style or method of cooking’ in
paragraph 4 is
(i) cuisine
(ii) gourmet
(iii) gastric
(iv) science
Ans: cuisine
(c) The antonym of ‘agreeable’ as given in paragraph 5 is ____.
Class XII English Elective www.veddantu.com 6
Ans: conflicting
(d) The antonym of ‘simple’ as given in paragraph 6 is
(i) difficult
(ii) complicated
(iii) easy
(iv) tricky
Ans: complicated
SECTION - B
(Writing and Grammar) 30 marks
3. You are Mukesh/Manju living at 7/31, Karla Nagar, Kanpur. There are
many stray dogs in your colony. They chase vehicles, trouble strangers and
sometimes bite the children. They are a nuisance. Write a letter of
complaint to the Municipal Commissioner, Kanpur requesting him to
instruct the concerned staff to take appropriate action. (100 - 150 wards)
8 Marks
Ans: 7/31,
Kamla Nagar,
Kanpur
5th April 2020
The Municipal Commissioner,
Kanpur
Uttar Pradesh
Dear sir,
With great respect and humble submission, I, Mukesh / Manju, would like to
inform you of the troubles that the residents of my colony at 7/31, Kanpur, are
experiencing as a result of stray dogs that are always roaming in and around our
Class XII English Elective www.veddantu.com 7
street.
These stray dogs arrived approximately two weeks ago and are causing a slew
of issues for the locals. These dogs chase the vehicles that come and go from our
street, making it difficult for many people, particularly those with children, to
leave their homes to buy vital goods.Not only have these stray dogs begun
assaulting residents, but one of them recently bit a child who was playing with
his buddies in the park. Many residents have written letters of complaint to the
municipality, but no action has been taken. As a result, we would like to ask you
to be so kind as to look into and address our problem, for which we would be
eternally grateful.
Thank you
Yours sincerely
Manju
Or
You are Sarita/Saurabh. Your school organised an adult literacy camp.
Many people benefited from it. You realised the importance of educating
the adults. Write an article on ‘Importance of Adult Education’ for your
school magazine in 100 - 150 words. 8 Marks
Ans: "Importance of adult education"
By-Sarita/Sourav
You've probably heard about the adult literacy camp that we conducted earlier
this month. It drew the active participation of a large number of our school's
pupils and benefited over a hundred illiterate persons in our community. As you
are all aware, being able to read and write is a talent that we all require.
Unfortunately, many of us are still robbed of the opportunity to learn and cannot
even write our own names. We can help kids learn and make a difference in their
life by organising camps like these.
Everyone who attended the programme was ecstatic about the opportunity to
learn. The school's literacy club has already provided them with certain study
materials, and it has also been arranged to hold these learning sessions on our
school grounds every Sunday from 1.30 to 5.30. While several students have
already expressed an interest in teaching at the future sessions, there may be
many more who wish to volunteer. If you want to be a part of this goal to educate
adults, please contact the Literary Club secretary and register your name. It is
Class XII English Elective www.veddantu.com 8
not difficult to eradicate illiteracy if each individual teaches another.
It is not difficult to eradicate illiteracy if each individual teaches another. It is
unfortunate that even in the twenty-first century, millions of individuals are
unable to read or write. So, let us all take use of this opportunity to teach and
contribute.
4. Complete the following story in 150 - 200 words: 10 Marks
It was my cousin’s wedding. Preparations were being made for the
departure of the baraat. But suddenly ... ... ...
Ans: My cousin's wedding was taking place. Preparations were being made for
the baraat's departure. But then we noticed that our great grandfather, the
patriarch of our family, Bade Dadaji, with his wheelchair had vanished! We
couldn't go further without him, but he was nowhere to be seen! The path from
the house's front door to the bus parked outside was rather clear. We asked
everyone - helpers, guests, neighbours - and no one had any idea. The kids were
too busy chasing each other to help. The bus driver approached us twenty
minutes later, apparently upset by the delay.
Before we could say anything about the holdup, the man, practically in tears,
begged, 'Please, please, can we leave as quickly as possible?' I'm having a
difficult time. I've been forced to listen to an elderly man's driving instructions
for the past half hour. I don't believe I can take it anymore.'
While the man's eyes were filled with tears of agony, ours were filled with
excitement! The driver was nearly insane, but Bade Dadaji had been discovered!
Bade Dadaji had requested that the bus conductor carry him over to the driver's
side of the bus, where he had been all along.
Or
Taking help from the cues given below, develop a story in 150- 200 words:
10 Marks
A boy fails in bad company — father brings apples — puts them in a basket
— places a rotten apple among them — the next day all apples rotten —
teaches a lesson to the boy.
Ans: Awful Company
Class XII English Elective www.veddantu.com 9
Once upon a time, a young man became involved with some terrible company.
He wasted his time by hanging out with bad boys. It irritated his father. He tried
everything he could to rectify him, but he was unsuccessful.
One day, the father had an idea. He visited the market and purchased some fresh
apples. He also brought a rotten apple with him. "Place the decaying apples in
the basket, then all these apples in the almirah," he instructed his kid. This was
done by the youngsters.
The father asked him to deliver the fruit the next day. The fruit was taken from
the almirah by the youngster. When the boy saw the apples, he was disappointed.
They were all bad. "Once a bad apple has destroyed all the good ones," the father
observed. Bad pals are analogous to bad apples. They'll shower you with gifts."
These words had a mystical effect on me. The child realised his mistake and
stopped hanging out with nasty people, returning to his previous level of
decency.
The conclusion of the story is that one bad friend can ruin all of your good ones.
5. Read the paragraph given below and fill in the blanks by choosing the
most appropriate words from the given options. 1x4=4 Marks
After (a) ________a week in the cottage, he decided that he didn't really
enjoy (b) _________in the countryside and began (c) ________as an excuse
for (d) ________the cottage.
(a) (i) spending (ii) have spent (iii) spent (iv) spends
Ans: spending
(b) (i) to living (ii) lived (iii) living (iv) lives
Ans : living
(c) (i) to thinking (ii) to thought (iii) thought (iv) to think
Ans: to think
(d) (i) sold (ii) selling (iii) sells (iv) sale
Ans: selling
Class XII English Elective www.veddantu.com 10
6. The following paragraph has not been edited. There is one error in each
line. Write the error and the correction in your answer book against the
correct blank number. 1x4=4 Marks
Error Correction
Today the girls have broke the (a) _____ _____
five-foot barrier and on some (b) _____ _____
cases is a half foot taller (c) _____ _____
then their grandmothers (d) _____ _____
Ans:
ERROR CORRECTION
broke Broken
On in
Is are
then than
7. Rearrange the following words and phrases to form meaningful
sentences. 1x4=4 Marks
(a) Ramesh / the park / a boy / met / one day / in
Ans: One day, Ramesh met a boy in the park.
(b) was / old / young boy / seven years / the / only
Ans: The young boy was only seven years old.
(c) asked / the nearest / he / bookstore / about / him
Ans: He asked him about the nearest bookstore.
(d) wanted / buy / he / to / books / a few
Ans: He wanted to buy a few books.
Class XII English Elective www.veddantu.com 11
SECTION - C
(Literature) 30 Marks
7. Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow:
1x4=4 Marks
“Never shall a young man,
Thrown into despair
By those great honey-coloured
Ramparts at your ear,
Love you for yourself alone
And not your yellow hair.”
(a) The lady's hair is compared to _____.
(i) ramparts
(ii) ears
(iii) honey
(iv) despair
Ans: honey
(b) The young man has fallen in love with the lady for her ____.
(i) wealth
(ii) social position
(iii) looks
(iv) mind
Ans: looks
Or
Ausable moved to an armchair and sat down heavily. “I’m going to raise
Class XII English Elective www.veddantu.com 12
the devil with the management this time, and you can bet on it,” he said
grimly. “This is the second time in a month that somebody has gotten into
my room through that nuisance of a balcony!” 1x4=4 Marks
(a) Who is Ausable?
(i) A secret agent
(ii) A tourist in a hotel
(iii) A reporter
(iv) A businessman
Ans: A secret agent
(b) Why was Ausable angry with the management?
(i) His room was unsafe.
(ii) The food was not good.
(iii) The balcony was a nuisance.
(iv) The armchair was not soft.
Ans: His room was unsafe.
(c) Was there a balcony with the room? Yes/No.
Ans: No
(d) Ausable was playing a _____ on his visitor.
Ans: trick/joke
9. Answer any five of the following questions in 30 - 40 words each:
2x5=10 Marks
(a) Did the letter reach God? Why did the postmaster send a reply to
Lencho?
Ans: The letter was not delivered to the god.Because he didn't want to jeopardise
his great faith in God, the mailman responded to Lencho.As a result, the postal
Class XII English Elective www.veddantu.com 13
delivered the 70 pesos to the lencho. The postmaster and post office staff
gathered 70 from his own earnings and sent it to Lencho.
(b) What does Mandela refer to as ‘an extraordinary human disaster’?
Ans: Nelson Mandela referred to it as "an extraordinary human disaster" because
it was the practise of South African apartheid. During the apartheid government,
people were separated based on their skin colour. Black people lacked adequate
constitutional rights.
(c) What is the central idea of the poem, ‘Animals’?
Ans: In his poem "Animals," Walt Whitman praises animals for being superior
to humans and possessing all of the characteristics that humans lack or have
forgotten. These qualities include serenity, a lack of avarice, and the ability to
remain satisfied and restrained. The poet wants to live among animals and live a
life free of complaints, flaws, and sadness.
(d) Why does Anil not hand Hari Singh over to the police?
Ans: Anil refuses to turn over the thief to the authorities because he believes
Hari has learned his lesson and changed for the better. When he discovered that
Hari had stolen the money but kept it, he realised that it was Hari's conscience
that had compelled him to do so.
(e) Why did Ebright lose interest in tagging butterflies?
Ans: Ebright used to brand butterflies' wings and then release them. In reality,
thousands of monarch butterflies lived in the basement of his house. He began
to lose interest in it because it was a monotonous job with little feedback.
(f) Why did Bholi not marry Bishamber?
Ans: Bholi was devoted to her parents and for their sake respect and pleasure
she agreed to marry Bishamber. When Bishamber wanted 5,000 rupees as dowry
and insulted her father, she refused to marry him in order to safeguard Ramlal's
dignity.
10. How did the Buddha make Kisa Gotami realise the reality of death?
(100 - 160 words) 8 Marks
Ans: Kisa Gotami was bereaved at her son's death and sought Buddha, pleading
Class XII English Elective www.veddantu.com 14
with him to provide her medicine so that her son may live again. Buddha
requested that she bring him a handful of mustard seeds from a residence where
no one had perished. However, Kisa Gotami was unable to locate such a
residence. She suddenly realised that death is unavoidable and that no one can
avoid it.
Later, in his talk, The Buddha told her that life is short and terrible. He compares
life to an earthen pot, claiming that just as the pot would break, so will life. A
knowledgeable person does not weep because he is aware of the truth. Weeping
does not provide mental tranquilly. Only those who have learned to control their
grief will be at peace.
Or
“Valli was a mature girl and ahead of her age.” Justify the statement with
instances from the text. (100 - 150 words) 8 Marks
Ans: Valli was a country girl of eight years old. Her favourite pastime was
standing on her front porch and watching objects and people go by. Not only did
she satisfy her curiosity, but she also obtained new experiences. She was wise,
astute, and sensible for her age. Her main wish was to ride the bus. She
painstakingly planned for it, obtaining data on distance, ticket price, and fare.
She was determined to avoid any temptation, such as buying peppermint, toys,
or a ride on the merry-go-round, in order to save sixty paise for the bus ride. She
boarded the bus without anyone's assistance. She disliked being addressed as
'Madam' or 'Child.' She refused the conductor's free treat and avoided strangers.
This demonstrates her dominating, assertive, and self-sufficient personality. This
also demonstrates her maturity and dedication for her age.
11. Mme Forestier proved to be a true friend of the Loisels. Elaborate. (100
— 150 words) 8 Marks
Ans: Mme Forestier proved to be a loyal Loisels' friend. Mme Forestier was an
important character in the plot. She sincerely assisted Matilda when she needed
her. Matilda had a gorgeous figure and always felt she was born for a family of
luxuries rather than a family of clerks. She lacked the opulent lifestyle she
desired. As a result, she was dissatisfied with her existence. While she was
constantly envious of Mme. Forestier's lavish lifestyle, Mme. Forestier was a
devoted companion. When Matilda requested for a necklace, she showed her a
plethora of jewels and did not hesitate. Even after Matilda had lost the necklace
and replaced it, she did not even inspect it; she simply trusted her with the
Class XII English Elective www.veddantu.com 15
necklace and felt awful for the pain she had to endure in order to replace it. This
demonstrates her sincerity. As a result, she proved to be a genuine friend.
Or
Discoveries of science can be used for the welfare of mankind as well as for
its destruction. How is this applicable to Griffin's scientific discovery?
Explain giving examples from the text. (100 - 150 words) 8 Marks
Ans: Griffin was a researcher. One day, while doing a scientific experiment, he
found a liquid that has the capacity to render objects invisible. During his
scientific experiment, he discovered this.Griffin, on the other hand, mishandled
this liquid and used it to destroy humans, i.e., he used it to set fire to his
landowner's mansion. Yes, I agree with the statement. We may relate this
statement to Griffin, a great scientist who found a liquid that can make things
invisible. However, Griffin was a lawless person who used his discovery for
devastation, such as setting fire to his landowner's house, carrying theft, etc.,
and we can conclude that whether the found thing is useful or damaging is
entirely dependent on the users.
Class XII English Elective www.veddantu.com 16
CBSE Class 10
English (Communicative)
Previous Year Question Paper 2010
Set - 1
Time Allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 100
General Instructions:
(i) This paper consists of four sections.
Section A - Reading 20 marks
Section B - Writing 30 marks
Section C - Grammar 20 marks
Section D - Literature 30 marks
(ii) Attempt all questions.
(iii) Do not write anything in the question paper.
(iv) All the answers must be correctly numbered as in the question paper and
written in the answer sheet provided to you.
(v) Attempt all questions in each section before going on to the
next section.
(vi) Read each question carefully and follow the instructions.
(vii) Strictly adhere to the word limit given with each question.
SECTION - A
(Reading) 20 Marks
1. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow.
12 Marks
1. I felt stupid, being made to stand on the desk while the other kids were
bent over their notebooks. I couldn’t understand my new school or my new
classmates, or their alien language – English – and the fact that they could
do sums in their head, while I struggled with paper and pencil. For me, at
age six, the good times had ended. Life seemed a far cry from those days in
Nellore, Andhra Pradesh, all thanks to my grandfather’s reflected glory. He
was a military doctor, a great man, and I lived with him. And so even
policemen gave me affectionate salaams, which I learned to acknowledge
Class X English Communicative www.vedantu.com 1
with a nod. I’d simply lay my head down on the desk and sleep in class, if
bored. I was a pampered little prince.
2. In early 1971, my parents decided it was time I moved to Bombay where
father worked. My first few days were a disaster. No one spoke Tamil or
Telugu, the only languages I knew. I couldn’t keep pace with their writing
or reading. Then one day, a slight plump lady with large spectacles, wearing
trousers walked into the classroom. “Hello,” she said. “My name is Miss
Jean. I am your new class teacher.” She’d done her homework. Spotting me
in a back corner, she beckoned me to the front. My almost empty notebooks
must have given Miss Jean a clue that I needed the extra attention. If the
class had to write a page, I’d be made to write two. Even during PT, I had to
stay back and write. When I was caught sneaking to the window to watch
the others playing, Miss Jean put me in the middle row, far from the
windows.
3. I made some progress and Miss Jean made it a point to praise every little
achievement. If I did my work wrong, she’d call me to her desk, hug me and
show me how to correct my errors. Mistakes were only human in her eyes,
but neglecting home-work was a crime – there’d be a terse comment in my
diary for Mother to see. And I’d be grounded that evening. Meanwhile I
was getting possessive and minded if another child got more hugs. By
Christmas, I stood fifth in class. “I am very proud of Srikant,” she told the
class after reading out the marks. I related that moment to Mother again
and again. When I returned after summer vacations, I heard that Miss Jean
had got married and was going to Australia.
4. Many years went by. I graduated in engineering, then in management, got
a job, got married and had kids. One day I found myself thinking of Miss
Jean. Soon afterwards I found myself in Sydney, Australia on an official trip.
I tried looking up my teacher in the phone book. But it was of no help as I
did not even know her surname. Thank you, Miss Jean, wherever you are
for the tact and patience with which you taught me.
1.1 Complete the following sentences. 1×8 = 8 Marks
(a) When the author got bored in his class while he studied in Nellore,
he___________________________.
Ans: slept in class while resting his head on the desk
(b) He was given a preferential treatment when he was a child
because___________________________.
Ans: His grandpa was a military doctor
(c) The author felt very bad and could not mix with his new classmates
Class X English Communicative www.vedantu.com 2
because ___________________________.
Ans: They spoke in a language that I could not comprehend.
(d) When Miss Jean discovered that the author needed her extra attention
she assigned him ___________________________.
Ans: work during the PT time
(e) Miss Jean put the author in the middle row far from the window when
she found ___________________________.
Ans: He was creeping up to the window.
(f) When the author committed mistakes, Miss Jean made it a point to
___________________________.
Ans: summon him to her desk
(g) The author became so possessive of Miss Jean that ______________.
Ans: felt terrible if any other youngster received more hugs
(h) Although the author’s efforts failed to trace her later in Australia, he
thanked her in his heart because __________________________.
Ans: because of her sensitivity and tolerance
1.2 Find words from the passage that mean the same as- 1×4 = 4 Marks
(a) spoiled with too much attention (para 1)
Ans: a) pampered
(b) called / signalled (para 2)
Ans: b) beckoned
(c) having excessive desire to own (para 3)
Ans: c) possessive
(d) fail to do something (para 3)
Ans: d) neglecting
2. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow.
8 Marks
1. Ilkal, a small town famous for its ethnic saris is in the northern district
of Bijapur in Karnataka. But soon the sound of the loom may belong to the
past as more and more weavers leave this art to join more profitable
Class X English Communicative www.vedantu.com 3
occupations. These saris are unique for their four to six inch broad reddish
maroon borders with traditional, distinct designs. It is the families of dyers
and weavers who together produce the Ilkal sari - a deep blue-black indigo
body with red borders. It is woven in cotton or silk or a combination of
both. The cotton, before the advent of chemical colours, was indigo dyed,
and the red border dyed with colours derived from flowers.
2. A weaver’s living room includes a handloom pit, where the weaver
works on the loom at the same time entertaining guests and customers.
The bedroom is the store room for yarn and also doubles as the domain of
womenfolk of the house. It takes around a week to complete a sari. It is
tiresome work. “The wholesaler gives us the required raw materials,
mainly yarn, and we weave the sari on a piecemeal basis,” he elaborates.
“We are then sure the sari is sold and we are not stuck with dead stock.
This is how the system mostly works now.”
3. Traditionally, Ilkal saris were made using natural indigo dyes. Then, in
the 1970s, the synthetic German indigo replaced this vat dyeing process.
Today, this has given way to naphtha based dyes. The famed and centuries
old indigo dyeing is now on the verge of extinction. As the new generation
steps into more profitable avenues the skyline of Ilkal is fast changing too.
“The most profitable business in the area now is granite,” states a weaver.
With this stone being available in plenty here, a number of granite selling
agencies and chimneys of granite processing units are proliferating all over.
As more and more of town’s Younger citizens step into newer ventures like
that of selling stones, the loom may become a mere memory.
2.1 Complete the paragraph using one word only in each blank. 3 Marks
Ilkal, once a small town (a) ____________for its saris is fast changing into
one known for granites. (b) _____________a sari takes almost a week and is
tiresome work. The younger generation (c) _____________ granite business
to sari weaving.
Ans:
a) popular
b) making
c) prefers
2.2 Complete the sentences given below: 5 Marks
(a) A weaver’s bedroom functions as _______________.
(b) German Indigo has replaced _______________.
(c) Weaving saris on a piecemeal basis ensures that _______________.
Class X English Communicative www.vedantu.com 4
(d) Availability of granite stone in plenty in the area has led to
(i) _______________________ (ii) _______________________
Ans:
1) a store room for yarn
2) natural indigo dyes
3) The sari is sold
4) (i) increase in the number of granite agencies
(ii) younger citizens joining the business
SECTION - B
(Writing) 30 Marks
3. Read the following telephone conversation and write a message for Danny
in not more than 50 words. 5 Marks
Ravi: Hello, can I speak to Danny?
Mrs. S: Danny has gone out. I’m his mother speaking.
Ravi: This is Ravi, his friend.
Mrs. S: Can I take a message?
Ravi: Yes. He wanted a book from me. As I am going for a movie, he
should collect it from my sister.
Mrs. S: O.K. I will tell him that.
Ans: Message Format
From: Mrs. S / Mother
To Danny
Content:
Danny ,Ravi called to inform you that he is going for a movie so the book you
wanted he has left that with her sister you can collect from her.
Thankyou.
Mother
4. You are Menaka. You happened to go to an orphanage as a member of the
Class X English Communicative www.vedantu.com 5
Social Service Society of your school. Write a postcard in not more than 50
words to your father living at 8, Mansarover Park, Dehradun, on how you
felt during your visit. Copy the format of the postcard from the question
paper. 5 Marks
Ans. Format: 2 Marks
sender’s place & date 1 Mark
salutation and complimentary clause 1⁄2 Mark
receiver’s name & address 1⁄2 Mark
Content: 3 Marks
details of visit to orphanage 1 1⁄2 Marks
feelings
Ans: Format
1. sender’s place & date - H/No. 20, Chandni Chowk ,Delhi,
2. salutation - Dear Papa
3. receiver’s name & address - ABC , 8, Mansarover Park, Dehradun
Body
Dear Papa ,hope you are fine, i ' m writing this letter to you sharing my new
experience in the orphanage home i visited as a member of Social Service
Society o my school ,it was really a different experience kis over there are so
motivating, living alone but still happy there i met this one boy nearly of 3 but
was so excited to see as if we were his family we spent the whole day with them
played with them, had lunch and it was awesome to be a part of their life.
Give my love to maa.
Your lovingly
Class X English Communicative www.vedantu.com 6
Menaka
5. You overheard the following conversation between two friends.
Ram: Did you read the latest book of Chetan Bhagat?
Shyam: No, I rarely get time to read.
Ram: I heard that it is going to be made into a movie.
Shyam: Then we will go and watch it together.
This dialogue made you realise that the present day generation is not into
the habit of reading. Write a letter to the editor of a newspaper in about
150 - 175 words on the joys and importance of reading, suggesting how this
habit could be inculcated among the youth. Use the following notes.
10 Marks
● Interesting pastime
● Gives a lot of knowledge
● Get the children interested in books at an early age
Ans: Letter
5 – A, Green Park
Civil Lines
Jodhpur
Date- January 13, 2019
The Editor
The Hindu
Jodhpur
Subject: Importance and joys of reading
Hello Sir/Ma’am,
I'm writing to encourage others to embrace and foster the habit of reading.
Reading is the sole way to increase one's self-esteem, personal development, and
skill-building. “Reading makes a whole man; writing a precise man; and
conference a ready man,” Bacon remarked. Reading is an important practise for
developing fundamental skills. The quality of one's reading determines one's
linguistic fluency. Reading also contributes to vocabulary expansion, idea
collecting, familiarisation with various writing forms, speaking fluency, and other
Class X English Communicative www.vedantu.com 7
benefits. Reading is highly valued in all cultures and civilizations. Reading is a
key technique used by schools, universities, and other academic institutions to
educate pupils. This practise, however, is mostly neglected in current times.
It is true that a person who reads never feels lonely or bored. The novels transport
him or her to a fantastic realm where he or she lives among angels. Books never
lead readers astray. They teach kids to be sensible and pragmatic. We must work
hard to cultivate this wonderful habit of reading.
I am writing to urge people to read and to encourage the younger generation to
make the most of this beautiful activity through the means of your prestigious
daily.
Thank you.
Yours truly,
Amrita
6. You are Mr. Solomon who loves travelling. You saw the following picture
in a leading daily. It made you wonder about the present state of tourism in
India. Write an article in 150 - 175 words on the state of tourism in India
and how to promote it further. Take ideas from the unit on ‘Travel and
Tourism’. 10 Marks
Ans: Article
How Can Tourism Be Promoted in India?
By Solomon
India has been described as a tourist's paradise. However, there are a few issues
that travellers encounter when in India. For example, consider the enormous
communication problem. For visitors from different states and countries,
expressing oneself in a language they hardly understand is a difficult job.
Furthermore, learning English is not always advantageous. Apart from linguistic
challenges, cleanliness and hygiene, transportation, safety, and so on are a few
additional issues that are dragging the good image of Indian tourism to dust.
Many international visitors are leaving India. To restore India as a tourist
destination, the government must promote the country's variety and rich past.
India is a country that has embraced modernization while maintaining strong
roots in history and culture. These customs are highly valued by foreign tourists.
One of the main reasons why international visitors dread visiting India is a lack
of security. There have been cases where foreign nationals have suffered
harassment but were unable to obtain assistance from locals owing to
communication issues. As a result, the government must protect the safety of
Class X English Communicative www.vedantu.com 8
international visitors so that they are not harassed in any manner. The government
must also implement strict laws in order to punish the criminals.
Tourists will profit from the government's appointment of qualified tour guides
since they will be less likely to be deceived by con artists. Taking these and other
safeguards in the interests of international visitors would undoubtedly draw them
to India.
(For Blind Candidates Only)
You are Mr. Solomon. You have heard that the number of tourists visiting
India is increasing year by year. Write an article in 150 - 175 words about
the prospects of tourism in India suggesting measures to further improve
this situation. Take ideas from the unit on ‘Travel and Tourism’ along with
the notes given below.
● good prospects – country of ancient historical sites and
abundant variety – mountains, rivers, beaches, deserts
etc.
● inexpensive destinations compared to advanced countries.
● facilities of good hotels, transport to be improved.
Ans: Article
How Can Tourism Be Promoted in India?
By Solomon
India has been referred to as a tourist's dream. However, there are a few problems
that visitors to India face. Take, for example, the massive communication issue.
It's challenging for tourists from other states and nations to express themselves in
a language they don't understand. Additionally, learning English is not always
beneficial.
Apart from linguistic difficulties, other factors like as cleanliness and hygiene,
transportation, safety, and so on are tarnishing India's positive image in tourism.
Class X English Communicative www.vedantu.com 9
India is losing a large number of overseas visitors. The government must promote
India's diversity and rich history in order to re-establish the country as a tourism
destination. India is a country that has embraced modernization while still
retaining significant historical and cultural roots. Foreign visitors place a high
emphasis on these traditions. The absence of security is one of the key reasons
why overseas travellers fear visiting India. There have been instances where
foreign nationals have been harassed but have been unable to seek help from
locals due to a lack of communication.
As a result, the government must ensure that overseas visitors' safety is protected
and that they are not harassed in any way. In order to punish criminals, the
government must also enact stringent laws. The government's selection of skilled
tour guides will benefit tourists because they will be less likely to be duped by
con artists. Taking these and other precautions to protect international visitors
would surely attract them to India.
SECTION - C
(Grammar) 20 Marks
7. Look at the notes given below and complete the paragraph that follows.
Do not add any new information. Write the answers in your answer sheet
against the correct blank numbers. 4 Marks
Karnam Maheswari – iron woman – Indian sport - first woman Olympic
medal - wants - coach Indians - win gold medal – Olympics - disappointed
- weightlifting - authorities’ indifference
Karnam Malleswari (a) _______________________________. She was (b)
_______________________. Her dream is (c) _________________. The (d)
_______________________ towards weightlifting disappoints her.
Ans: a) is known as the iron woman of Indian sport
b) the first (Indian) woman to win an Olympic medal
c) to coach Indians to win gold medals in the Olympics
d) indifference of the authorities
8. In the passage given below one word has been omitted in each line. Write
the missing word along with the word that comes before and the word that
comes after it in your answer sheet against the correct blank number. The
first one has been done as an example. 4 Marks
Class X English Communicative www.vedantu.com 10
Celebrities don’t have privacy that an e.g.
have the privacy ordinary person. The most personal
(a)
details of their lives are splashed the (b)
front pages leading dailies. Media (c)
follows them wherever they. When (d)
they try to things that normal people do, (e)
like eating out or watching football game, they (f)
run the risk of being interrupted thoughtless (g)
autograph hounds aggressive fans. (h)
Ans: a) has.
b) on
c) of
d) go.
e) do
f) a
g) by
h) and / or
9. Rearrange the following words and phrases to form meaningful sentences.
The first one has been done as an example. Write the answers against the
correct blank numbers in your answer sheet. 4 Marks
brought up / and / born / Ustad Bismillah Khan / at
Dumaraon / was Ustad Bismillah Khan was born and
brought up at Dumaraon.
(a) a taste / he / early stage/developed / for music / a very / of his life
/ at
Ans: He developed a taste for music at a very early stage of his life.
(b) the honour/got / of playing Shehnai / he / at Red Fort /
Independence Day/ on
Ans: On Independence Day he got the honour of playing Shehnai at
Red Fort.
Class X English Communicative www.vedantu.com 11
(c) was / and / his soul/life / led / music / a simple / he
Ans: He led a simple life and music was his soul.
(d) played / in the hospital/on his death-bed / he / even / his last
thumri
Ans: Even on his death-bed in the hospital he played his last thumri.
10. Given below are instructions to make a kite. Use them to complete the
paragraph that follows. Write the answers in your answer sheet against
the correct blank numbers. Do not copy the whole sentences. 4 Marks
● Buy coloured paper
● Cut it into squares
● Shape thin bamboo splinters into a triangle
● Make an arc at the base
● Paste the paper on the thin frame
● To the thin end add a tail
First of all coloured paper is bought. It (a) ___________________________.
Thin bamboo splinters (b) _____________________________. An arc is
made at the base. The paper (c) _______________________________
frame. A tail (d) _____________________. The kite is now ready for flying.
Ans. a) is split into squares
b) are triangular in shape
c) is glued on the thin
d) is attached to the thin end
11. Read the following conversation and complete it in any suitable way.
Write the answers in your answer sheet against the correct blank numbers.
4 Marks
Sandhya: (a) _______________________________________________.
Manju: I don’t think my parents will allow me to go alone to Meenu’s
birthday party. Sandhya: I will ask my father (b)
________________________________. Manju: But my sister is arriving
from Delhi for just two days and I (c) _____________. Sandhya: Oh! Is
that so? Then (d) ______________________________.
Class X English Communicative www.vedantu.com 12
Ans. a) Are you planning on attending Meenu's birthday party?
b) to ask your parents for permission
c) may not obtain authorization
d) I will miss you
SECTION - D
(Literature) 30 Marks
12. Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow. Write
the answers in your answer sheet in one or two lines only. Number the
answers correctly. 3 Marks
Cleave themselves into chasms, while far below
The sea-blooms and the oozy woods which wear
The sapless foliage of the ocean, know
Thy voice, and suddenly grow gray with fear,
And tremble and despoil themselves: oh, hear!
(a) What cleave themselves into chasms?
Ans: The Atlantic Ocean''s waves cleave themselves into chasms., or so they
essentially thought.
(b) What impact does the west wind create on the sea?
Ans: It creates a chasm in the Atlantic Oceans
(c) What does “sapless foliage of the ocean” mean?
Ans: “Sapless foliage of the ocean” menas sea plants with leathery, dry
stalks.
13. Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow. Write
the answers in your answer sheet in one or two lines only. Number the
answers correctly. 3 Marks
I watched the flame feeding on my mother.
I watched the holy man perform his rites
to tame the poison with an incantation.
(a) Why was the flame ‘feeding’ on the mother?
Class X English Communicative www.vedantu.com 13
Ans: The flame was ‘feeding’ on the mother to lessen (neutralize) the impact of
poison.
(b) Why were the rites performed?
Ans: The rites were performed to stop the poison from spreading and to save the
mother's life.
(c) What is an incantation?
Ans: Incantation means chanting or prayerful words
The fair breeze blew, the white foam flew,
The furrow followed free;
We were the first that ever burst
Into that silent sea.
(a) Why is the sea called ‘silent?
Ans: The sea was called silent as it seemed to be still but was flowing without
making any noise .
(b) What according to the mariners was the reason for
their fate?
Ans: According to the mariners the reason for their fate was killing of Albatross.
(c) Which poetic device is used in these lines?
Ans. Alliteration is used in these lines.
14. Answer the following in 50 - 75 words. 4 Marks
What does the mirror tell us about itself?
Ans: The reflect says that it is silver in shading and is definite. It is exact and
reflects all that shows up before it, for what it's worth. It is impartial, doesn't have
any sentiments of either disdain or love for anybody. On the off chance that an
individual aversion his appearance in the mirror, it ought not to imagine that the
mirror is pitiless. The mirror explains this reality that it simply mirrors the
individual's picture all things considered. It shows us our actual appearance. It
analyzes itself to God's eyes which see similarly in every one of the four headings
and treat all things alike.
Value Points: truthful/exact /precise/ has no misconceptions silver
/unbiased/unmisted by love or dislike/not cruel/reflects
faithfully/no preconceptions
Class X English Communicative www.vedantu.com 14
(Any four points)
Or
How does the frog again become the unrivalled king of ‘Bingle Bog’?
Value Points: causing her death by cunningly and cruelly exploiting the
nightingale/by making her practice in the rain/by pressurizing her /by
demoralizing her/by making her practice too hard (any four points)
Ans: The frog was jealous of the nightingale and decided to get her out of his
way. Nightingale found his trap easily, and the frog made her sing for many hours
without rest. He forced her to sing because making her sing gave the frog money.
The nightingale's sound was rough due to continuous singing. She was scolded by
the frog. She sang with all her energy, bursted a vein, and died. The frog became
the unrivalled king of bingle bog as a result.
15. Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow in one
or two lines only. 4 Marks
‘Now let it work. Mischief, thou art a foot,
Take thou what course thou wilt!’
(a) Who set mischief a foot? How?
Value points: instigating people / oratory skills / provokes them to revenge/
appeals to their emotions and greed (a reference to the will) (any two)
Ans: Mark Antony set mischief a foot by making use of their emotions and greed.
He feels that now the conspirators will be brought to justice, and Caesar's soul
will be able to rest in peace, knowing that his vengeance will be exacted. He
claims that his ruse against the conspirators has begun, and that it may now pursue
whatever road to ruin that it wishes. This sentence demonstrates Antony's wit,
cleverness, and meticulousness.
(b) Did it take the desired course? How?
Value points: public convinced / turned into mob/ provoked to mutiny/
turned against conspirators / wanted to bum their houses (any two)
Ans: Yes, as it turned against the conspirators. The people will set fire to the
homes of traitors and the chaos takes a violent turn.
16. Answer the following in 50 - 75 words. 4 Marks
Which image was shown by the second ghost to Scrooge? What lesson
did the sight teach him?
Class X English Communicative www.vedantu.com 15
Value Points
● image of the Present / church scene / crew with the Captain/
Cratchit’s house (any two)
● realized his shortcomings / learnt to be kind / contented / learnt
the importance of
● family ties / started believing in the spirit of Christmas (any two)
Ans: The image was shown by the second ghost to Scrooge was of A
CHRISTMAS CAROL. The second ghost is the Ghost of Christmas
Present, who takes Scrooge to the Cratchit household and observes the
family's humility in the face of poverty. He is saddened by the sight of Tiny
Tim, who is unwell and frail. The ghost then shows Scrooge his nephew
and friends as they celebrate and make jokes about Scrooge being a
"ridiculous fellow." Finally, the ghost appears to Scrooge with two destitute
children, Ignorance and Want. The ghost vanishes, and a dark hooded
phantom approaches Scrooge. The lesson he taught him was that
herealizedd his shortcomings,learnt to be kind-hearted, even realized the
importance of family ties and he even started believing in the spirit of
Christmas.
Or
What convinces Caesar to go to the Senate House?
Value Points:
● Decius’ s favourable interpretation of the dream / ego pampered
● lure of crown / the senate might change their mind
● fear of being called a coward / ego hurt
● (any two)
Ans: Caesar attends the Senate because his ambition outweighs his desire to
console his wife. Following Calpurnia's frightening nightmare foreshadowing
Caesar's death, Caesar first decides to stay at home, despite his belief that nothing
can change his fate. Decius, one of the conspirators, arrives midway through the
play to accompany Caesar to the Senate. Caesar informs Decius of Calpurnia's
dream in order to avoid lying about his refusal to attend. Decius tells two lies in
order to persuade Caesar to come. First, he reinterprets Calpurnia's vision,
suggesting that the blood in her dream indicates life and renewal rather than death.
17. Answer the following in 50 - 75 words. 4 Marks
Give instances from ‘The Ultimate Safari’ to prove that the grandmother
was a hard-working lady and worked in a systematic manner.
Class X English Communicative www.vedantu.com 16
Value points:
Hard working
carried load / baby through the Kruger park / picked up a job / worked as a
labourer / took
care of her grandchildren (any two)
Systematic
covered the books / bought black school shoes and polish / ensured whether
shoes were
polished/ made grandchildren complete school work during the day time
(any two)
Ans: Instances from ‘The Ultimate Safari’ to prove that the grandmother was
a hard-working lady and worked in a systematic manner, as she is shown as
a strong-willed woman with a strong feeling of belonging. She goes through
a lot more than a typical woman her age. She, on the other hand, does not flee
her difficulties. She meets challenges with all the strength she can muster
without being selfish, and she directs her actions with the goal of making
things better for those around her. She works tirelessly for the development
of her grandchildren's lives. The scene in the novel where she is forced to
leave her spouse in the Kruger Park Reserve for the sake and safety of her
grandkids exemplifies this concept. The grandmother exemplifies bravery,
the strength of will, and selfless obligation to others.
Or
How did the postmaster become a changed man?
Value points:
experienced similar situation as Ali when his own daughter fell sick/waiting
for his
daughter’s letter/ had empathy with Ali’ s plight (any two points with
suitable instances)
Ans: In the story, the postmaster is depicted as an expressionless man. He was
angered by Ali and even referred to him as a bug. But, after hearing the news
about his ailing daughter and waiting for a night for more information about her,
he sympathizes with Ali, who had been waiting for 5 years. What hurts him the
most was the letter he received following Ali's death. He altered his life by being
humble and understanding the non-material significance of a letter.
Class X English Communicative www.vedantu.com 17
18. Answer the following in 150 - 175 words. 8 Marks
As Cutie Pie, make a diary entry on your miserable life in the
glass prison.
Suggested Value Points:
Writer - Cutie Pie
● kept in a glass prison
● hostile environment
● loss of whiskers and feathers
● no communication with his planet
● lonely and desperate
● unsuitable food
● under public glare
● experimented upon
(any four points)
Any other relevant point
And: Diary Entry
Dear Diary,
By- Cutie Pie
You know what happened when I was in prison, thus the storey begins, and I was
walking about Quta-pi. Suddenly, a flying body arrived on the planet's surface,
and a mechanical hand grabbed me out. I barely noticed several silver creatures
with bubble faces before collapsing. I awoke in a glass jail. The air was
suffocating, and the food was disgusting. I couldn't interact with anyone, and I
quickly became lonely and depressed. Then the worst happened. I had a dream
about Mom one night. I awoke in a really pleasant state of mind, only to realise
that my feathers had fallen out during the night. My whiskers, too, were falling
out. The days flew by. I cried, pleaded, and hoped against hope, but to no avail.
I cried, pleaded, and hoped against hope, but to no avail. I managed to escape
from my captivity one day. The Earth astounded me. I could take a deep breath
of fresh air. The droplets felt ecstatic. I took cover here and there. I was moved
by your love and desired to reach out to you. I looked about for a companion with
whom I could discuss my feelings and concerns. But all I found were two
insignificant creatures. It rained again, and I noticed that my whiskers and
feathers were growing back. Then, one night, I made a new buddy, an
Class X English Communicative www.vedantu.com 18
undeveloped specimen of the human kind, and we joyously discussed our
civilizations. I went around looking for plant food and therefore took care of
myself. I saw my pal on a regular basis. Days passed, and I disguised myself
well, until one night when I sent a message to the sky and received your loving,
caring message.
Thank you
Or
You are Babuli’s wife. The news of the partition has thrilled you. Make a
diary entry on your hopes and plans for the future.
Writer - Babuli’ s wife
● getting money by selling of share of land
● improving economic and social status
● planning to buy scooter, fridge, jewellery
● saving for future
(any four points)
Ans: Diary Entry
Dear Diary,
By- Babuli’ s wife
I had many dreams in my heart when Babuli left for the village. I bombarded him
with questions when he returned. He didn't respond for a long. Then he revealed
that he had bequeathed his entire portion to his elder brother! I couldn't say
anything because I was too surprised. Slowly, he began to speak to me, telling me
things he had never told me before, such as how his elder brother had been like a
parent to him, and how he had mortgaged his watch to send Babuli to Delhi for
an interview! And how, on chilly winter evenings, he would throw his own
blanket on Babuli to keep him warm, and how, when Babuli came from his
tuitions, he would carry his bag for him. His elder brother's love is unrequited,
and he has never asked for anything in return. Never make a request. There was
never a complaint. Simply a pillar of strength!
Babuli, struck with sentiments of humiliation and regret, bequeathed his part of
property to his elder brother as a token of his affection. My eyes welled up with
tears as Babuli finished speaking. There was no need for words as he hugged me.
I forgot about the fridge, the scooter, and the 20,000 rupees. All I can think of is
the circle of love that Babuli drew me into after he confessed his feelings.
Thank you.
Class X English Communicative www.vedantu.com 19
CBSE Class 10
English Communicative
Previous Year Question Paper 2011
Series: RHB/2 Code no. 1/2/1
● Please check that this question paper contains 15 printed pages.
● Code number given on the right hand side of the question paper should
be written on the title page of the answer-book by the candidate.
● Please check that this question paper contains 15 questions.
● Please write down the Serial Number of the question before
attempting it.
● 15 minutes of time has been allotted to read this question paper. The
question paper will be distributed at 10:15 a.m. From 10:15 a.m. to 10:30
a.m., the students will read the question paper only and will not write any
answer on the answer-book during this period.
SUMMATIVE ASSESSMENT-II
ENGLISH (Communicative)
Time Allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 80
General Instructions:
The question papers is divided into four sections:
Section A: Reading 20 Marks
Section B: Writing 20 Marks
Section C: Grammar 20 Marks
Section D: Literature 20 Marks
1. All questions are compulsory.
2. You may attempt any section at a time.
Class X English Communicative www.vedantu.com 1
3. All questions of that particular section must be attempted in a correct order.
SECTION-A
(Reading) 20 Marks
1. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow by
choosing the correct options. 5 Marks
School used to be all about writing, whether it was the exercise books we
wrote in, the notes we passed round, or the lines we stayed in to do. But not
anymore. Now it’s all about typing. My six-year-old daughter is part of the
first generation that is truly computer literate and I really didn’t want her
learning copperplate writing. I could see that spelling, grammar, syntax and
punctuation were important, but handwriting? By the time she’s at
university, handwriting may not be as relevant as needlepoint. So when my
daughter came home last year with cursive handwriting homework, I was
nonplussed. Cursive was originally developed to make it easier for children
to write with a quill. By joining up the letters, it kept the quill on the
parchment and minimized ink blots. But my daughter writes with a laptop.
I explained as much to her teacher at the next parents’ day. But her teacher
explained something to me. Research suggests that the process of writing
information down on paper, by hand, has a more direct effect on the
formation of memories in the learning process than typing. Taking notes in
class is still the most effective way to learn. It’s better way to store the skills
for written language in a child’s brain than pressing keys. There’s nothing
old-fashioned about handwriting. Handwriting is where it’s at.
(a) According to the narrator his daughter is…………….
(i) computer literate
(ii) illiterate
(iii) copperplate writer
(iv) handwriting expert
Ans: (i) computer literate
(b) ……………..was developed to make writing with a quill easier.
(i) Typing
(ii) Grammar
Class X English Communicative www.vedantu.com 2
(iii) Cursive writing
(iv) Note making
Ans: (iii) Cursive writing
(c) The word ‘nonplussed’ means…………….
(i) sad
(ii) puzzled
(iii) crying
(iv) see
Ans: (ii) puzzled
(d) Writing information down on paper is ……………………….. typing in
the learning process.
(i) inferior to
(ii) same as
(iii) superior to
(iv) not as effective as
Ans: (iii) superior to
(e) Writing by hand is………………..
(i) old- fashioned
(ii) not old-fashioned
(iii) of the future
(iv) not used today
Ans: (ii) not old-fashioned
2. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow by
choosing the correct options. 5 Marks
Before chocolate became an elixir fit only for the kings, Mayans drank a cold,
frothy mix made from kakawa beans harvested from the Mexican
rainforests. Found in rows inside football-size fruit filled with white pulp,
the beans need two weeks for fermenting, drying and roasting. Then Mayans
Class X English Communicative www.vedantu.com 3
began bartering beans with the Aztecs. The Spanish court kept the source of
the beans secret for nearly 100 years. Inevitably, word spread and chocolate
travelled swiftly throughout Europe. The first chocolate shop in London
opened in 1657, serving the drink in gold and silver cups.
Still, the brew tasted rather fatty due to the cocoa butter and gritty from
imperfect crushing of the seeds. A Dutch inventor separated the cocoa butter
in the early 1800s, and before the century was out, a conching machine
smoothed the chocolate. A Swiss chocolatier added evaporated milk to create
the first chocolate bar. Soldiers who ate the bars for energy during World
War I brought their taste home, creating a huge market for chocolate bars
and snacks invented in the early 1900s.
(a) The word, ‘bartering’ means ……………..
(i) selling
(ii) buying
(iii) exchanging
(iv) changing
Ans: (iii) exchanging
(b) …………………kept the source of the chocolate beans a secret for nearly
100 years.
(i) Mayans
(ii) The Spanish
(iii) The soldiers
(iv) Mexico
Ans: (ii) The Spanish
(c) The first ……………………………. was made by a Swiss chocolatier.
(i) cocoa seed
(ii) cocoa butter
(iii) evaporated milk
(iv) chocolate bar
Ans: (iv) chocolate bar
(d) Mayans got kakawa seeds from…………………….
Class X English Communicative www.vedantu.com 4
(i) the kings
(ii) the Aztecs
(iii) Mexican rain forests
(iv) London
Ans: (iii) Mexican rain forests
(e) Cocoa brew tasted fatty because of…………………….
(i) bad crushing of the seeds
(ii) cocoa butter
(iii) imperfect crushing of the seeds
(iv) vanilla flavour
Ans: (ii) cocoa butter
3. Read the poem given below: 5 Marks
To a Fish
You strange, astonished-looking, angle- faced,
Dreary-mouthed, gaping wretches of the sea,
Gulping salt-water everlastingly.
Cold blooded, though with red your blood be graced,
And mute, though dwellers in the roaring waste;
And you, all shapes beside, that fishy be ……………
Some round, some flat, some long, all devilry,
Legless, unloving, infamously chaste …………….
O scaly, slippery wet, swift, staring wights,
What is’t ye do? What life lead? Eh, dull goggles?
How do ye vary your vile days and nights?
How pass your Sundays? Are yet still but joggles
In ceaseless wash? Still nought but gapes and bites,
Class X English Communicative www.vedantu.com 5
And drinks, and stares, diversified with boggles?
Given below is the summary of the poem. Fill in the blanks with suitable
words to complete the summary. Use only one word for each blank.
To a man a fish is a strange creature. It’s (a) ……………………. face has
always a look of (b) ………………………..…. on it. Its mouth is mostly open
and keeps on (c) …………………………. salt-water. It is called cold blooded
even if red blood runs (d) ………………..…… its body. It lives among (e)
………………..waters but is mute itself. The fish may have many (f)
……………… but it has no shapely legs. It is loveless and chaste.
The fish are swift and slippery and all the time (g) ……………….……. at
others. Man wonders at the (h) ……………………………….…..they lead.
Are their days (i) ……………………….… from their nights? And what do
they do on Sundays? Do they ever stop or keep on gaping, biting, drinking
and (j) ………………………, punctuated by sudden movements?
Ans: (a) angle
(b) surprise
(c) gulping
(d) through
(e) roaring
(f) shapes
(g) staring
(h) life
(i) different
(j) staring
4. Read the passage given below and complete the sentences that follow:
5 Marks
Ganesh Chaturthi is celebrated around India but most grandly in
Maharashtra. But the ten day extravaganza the festival has become is a
relatively recent creation. In Pen, in Maharashtra, there are nearly 250
families which work on Ganapathi statues for a living. Both clay and plaster
of Paris are used for the making of the murtis. Clay is more difficult than
POP to work with and there are few expert clay sculptors left. Many devout
Class X English Communicative www.vedantu.com 6
customers insist on clay murtis, for after they are immersed in water, clay
dissolves readily while POP can take months with fragments floating to shore
days after the immersion, upsetting both devotees and environmentalists.
Once a murti is made, it is ready for decoration. It is first buffed with a soft
cloth. Then a small red tilak is placed reverently on its forehead. Next it is
sprayed with clay resin primer. After it dries, it is again buffed with ‘jheel’,
a subtle sheen that highlights skin tones. Finally, the most important
finishing touch, ‘aakhni’ the painting of the eyes, is done. It is when the eyes
are painted on that an idol comes alive.
(a) Ganesh Chaturthi has recently become …………………………………….
(b) The material used for the making of murtis is ……………………..…….
(c) Fewer clay murtis are made these days because
…………………………………..
(d) The devout customers, however, demand clay murtis because
………………..
(e) The word in the passage which means the same as ‘respectfully’ is
……………
Ans: (a) a ten-day celebration.
(b) plaster of Paris and clay.
(c) it's more tough to deal with.
(d) they dissolve easily in water.
(e) reverently.
SECTION-B
(Writing) 20 Marks
5. You are Reema / Rohit. You had gone for a movie with your friends.
Unfortunately, Rakesh couldn’t reach there as he had to attend a wedding.
Write a dialogue in about 80 words discussing the movie with Rakesh. You
may take help from the following notes: 4 Marks
● the theme of the movie
● parts played by the protagonist and other characters
● quality of music, songs, their relevance and effectiveness
Class X English Communicative www.vedantu.com 7
● overall impression
Ans: A dialogue between two friends about the experience of film enjoyed:
Reema: Hello, Why didn't you come to the movie yesterday?
Rakesh: Hello, Actually yesterday I was busy attending a wedding.
Reema: Okay I understand.
Rakesh: By the way how’s your movie; tell me something.
Reema: Sure. This movie was awesome.
Rakesh: What is the name of the movie?
Reema: ‘The Final destination’, is the name of the movie, it is a complete action
movie.
Rakesh: Yes I have heard this.
Reema: Yes! You know what they all went to see a car racing and suddenly an
accident happens and all the public will die there, but the hero and his friends
save themselves. Rakesh: Next?
Reema: You don’t believe that the quality of the movie is fully HD and sound is
awesome. I have learnt with this movie that what were is fixed that will be
happened in your life definitely.
Rakesh: Okay! Thanks for this.
6. You are Amit/Amita, a resident of 15, Preet Enclave, Delhi. Your school
hosted this year’s Inter-School Basketball Tournament in which you gave an
impressive performance. Describing the details of the tournament, your own
performance, the rank of your school etc., write a letter to your uncle in
about 120 words. 8 Marks
Ans: 15
Preet Enclave
Delhi
Date- 1st August 2021
Dear Uncle,
Class X English Communicative www.vedantu.com 8
How are you? I have been doing well and hoping for the same with you. In this
letter I wanted to tell you about the Inter School Basketball Tournament which
was hosted by my school.
My school has organized the event very well. All arrangements were made and
handled in a nice way. The event was organized on 30 th July. I would love to tell
you that I gave an impressive performance. My coach, teammates and everyone
present there appreciated me for my performance. There were many schools
which participated in the event and out of all my school won the 1st prize. It was
all our team effort which helped us to win this game. Overall it was a great
learning and a memorable experience for me.
Give regards to Aunty and love to my little brother. I will visit you next month.
Yours loveable
Amita
7. Inspite of all the progress that we have made, we still discriminate against
woman in India. This is a sad phenomenon. The condition of women in
villages is all the worse. Write a speech on about 150 words on the
discrimination faced by women even in the 21st century. You may take help
from the unit on ‘Environment’ and the notes given below. You are Mudit /
Maya. 8 Marks
● not treated at par with boys since birth
● greatly discriminated against in villages- travel long distances for
bringing water, fuel etc. – paid less
● killed before birth
● equal opportunity denied
Ans: "Discrimination faced by women even in the 21st century"
-Maya
India is a place where women are revered as goddesses. However, the difficulties
they experience demonstrate the polar opposite of this principle. On the one hand,
they worship them as goddesses, while on the other, they mistreat and dismiss
them. In India, women have always had to deal with some sort of social issue.
Despite all of our progress, we continue to discriminate against women in India.
In many cases, girls are not allowed to be born. The girl child is regarded as a
liability. She is frequently denied fundamental rights and equitable opportunity
Class X English Communicative www.vedantu.com 9
to have a healthy childhood and adult life. In India, adolescence is experienced
differently by girls and boys.While boys have more independence, girls have
more restrictions on their capacity to move around freely and make decisions that
affect their career, education, marriage, and social ties. Women are not believed
to be on an equal footing with males. They are subjected to discrimination in
practically every setting, including the job and the household. This bigotry affects
even the tiniest of girls. Furthermore, there is a shortage of female education as
well as a salary difference between men and women. Women in rural
communities are still denied access to school due to their gender. Similarly, for
doing the same work, women are not paid equally to men. They are also subjected
to workplace harassment and exploitation.
Women's conditions in communities are significantly worse. Women in rural
areas are less likely to work, and when they do, they earn less than men. Rural
women are disproportionately concentrated in low-skilled, low-productivity,
low- or no-pay jobs with long hours, bad working conditions, and no social
protection. Furthermore, they bear a disproportionate amount of unpaid care and
home chores, such as food preparation, child care, and caring for the sick and
elderly.
Even before she is born, the girl child is murdered. Females are not treated equally
to guys.They are denied the same opportunities as everyone else. We should all
pay close attention to this issue and figure out how to address it.
SECTION-C
(Grammar) 20 Marks
8. Complete the passage given below choosing the correct alternatives.
4 Marks
Every time we touch (a) ___________ object we leave a unique trail (b)
_________ hand germs, (c) ___________ with our fingerprints. A research
team (d) _________ the University of Colorado took samples from office
keyboards and was (e) ____________ to match them to the bacteria (f)
____________ the fingertips of individual computers. Lead researcher
Professor Noah Fierer (g) _________ that the technique could eventually
become a (h) ___________ item in the tool-box of forensic scientists.
(a) (i) any (ii) the (iii) on (iv) every
(b) (i) by (ii) to (iii) of (iv) for
(c) (i) away (ii) along (iii) aside (iv) alone
Class X English Communicative www.vedantu.com 10
(d) (i) in (ii) by (iii) with (iv) from
(e) (i) ability (ii) succeded (iii) able (iv) successful
(f) (i) with (ii) on (iii) for (iv) to
(g) (i) is feeling (ii) feel (iii) will feel (iv) feels
(h) (i) valuable (ii) value (iii) no value (iv) best
Ans: (a) on
(b) of
(c) along
(d) from
(e) able
(f) with
(g) feels
(h) valuable
9. Complete the following news reports by choosing the correct options:
4 Marks
(a) Bacteria to the rescue
Some firms ____________ innovative methods of using bacteria for treating
waste.
(i) has come up with
(ii) will come up with
(iii) have come up with
(iv) is coming up with
Ans: (iii) have come up with
(b) 87 kids hospitalised in China.
87 kids ______________ after eating yoghurt at a kindergarten in northwest
China.
(i) was hospitalised
Class X English Communicative www.vedantu.com 11
(ii) has been hospitalised
(iii) was being hospitalised
(iv) were hospitalised
Ans: (iv) were hospitalised
(c) British guns stolen
Dozens of British machine guns _________ in Afghanistan and used against
the NATO forces.
(i) have been stolen
(ii) was stolen
(iii) has been stolen
(iv) was being stolen
Ans: (i) have been stolen
(d) Air India cancels flights
Air India Express ___________ certain flights owing to operational reasons.
(i) cancel
(ii) was cancelled
(iii) has cancelled
(iv) have cancelled
Ans: (i) cancel
10. Rearrange the following to form meaningful sentences. The first one has
been done for you. 4 Marks
today / about things/ one of/ creativity/ is/ talked/ the most/
Creativity is one of the most talked about things today.
(a) can/ a/ calm/ only/ be creative/ mind/ balanced/ and/
Ans: Only a calm and balanced mind can be creative.
(b) stressed/ is stifled/ are/ when you/ your creativity/
Ans: Your creativity is stifled when you are stressed.
Class X English Communicative www.vedantu.com 12
(c) is one / a good/ a creative/ person/ imagination/ with/
Ans: A creative person is one with good imagination.
(d) makes/ appear real/ imagination/ the unreal/ even/
Ans: Imagination even makes the unreal appear real.
11. Read the conversation given below and complete the passage that follows.
4 Marks
Interviewer: Are you working somewhere?
Candidate: Yes, I am working in a reputed advertising firm in Mumbai.
Interviewer: Why do you want to join our firm?
Candidate: My wife is working in this city. So, if I get this job we can settle
here.
The interviewer wanted to know (a) ______________. The candidate replied
in the affirmative and said that (b) ______________ advertising firm in
Mumbai. The interviewer then asked (c) _____________ firm. To this the
candidate said that his wife was working in that city and so (d)
______________ settle there.
Ans: (a) if the candidate was working somewhere.
(b) he was working in a reputed
(c) him why he wanted to join their
(d) they
12. You can see below a set of instructions for making custard. Complete the
paragraph that follows. 4 Marks
Take two spoons of custard powder in a pan.
Add a cup of milk and mix without forming lumps.
Place the mixture on fire and stir continuously.
Once cooked, remove from the fire.
Allow the custard to cool and serve chilled.
Class X English Communicative www.vedantu.com 13
Two spoons of custard powder are taken in a pan. A cup of milk (a)
_________and mixed without forming lumps. The mixture (b)
______________ on fire and stirred continuously. Once it is cooked, the
custard (c) _____________. It is then allowed to cool and (d) ____________
chilled.
Ans: (a) is added
(b) is then placed
(c) is removed
(d) serve
SECTION-D
(Literature) 20 Marks
13. (A) Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow by
choosing the correct options. 3 Marks
The newly- wakened father’s heart in him was reproaching him for failed to
understand Ali’s anxiety, for now he himself had to spend another night of
restless anxiety.
(a) Whose heart is referred to here?
(i) The postmaster’s
(ii) Lakshmi Das’s
(iii) Ali’s
(iv) The clerk’s
Ans: (i) The postmaster’s
(b) Why was he restless?
(i) Ali did not receive a letter.
(ii) He lost his daughter
(iii) There was no news of his sick daughter.
(iv) He could not meet Ali before death.
Ans: (iii) There was no news of his sick daughter
Class X English Communicative www.vedantu.com 14
(c) What was the cause of Ali’s anxiety?
(i) He was old and weak.
(ii) He could not hunt anymore.
(iii) The people at the post office made fun of him.
(iv) There was no letter from his daughter.
Ans: (iv) There was no letter from his daughter
Or
Now the nightingale, inspired,
Flushed with confidence, and fired
With both art and adoration,
Sang – and was a huge sensation.
(a) What inspired the nightingale?
(i) The other creatures appreciated her song
(ii) The frog promised to train her
(iii) She became a huge sensation
(iv) She could sing loud and clear
Ans: (ii) The frog promised to train her
(b) “Flushed” in the above lines means
(i) in a flash
(ii) excited and pleased
(iii) confident
(iv) talented
Ans: (ii) excited and pleased
(c) What is the rhyme scheme of the above lines?
(i) abab
(ii) abcd
(iii) aabb
Class X English Communicative www.vedantu.com 15
(iv) abba
Ans: (iii) aabb
(B) Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow:
3 Marks
‘God save thee, ancient Mariner!
From the fiends, that plague thee thus!-
Why look’st thou so?
(a) Who is the speaker?
Ans: Wedding guest is the speaker.The wedding guests were curious as to why
the Mariner appeared to be in such distress.
(b) Why do fiends plague him?
Ans: When the wedding guests see the mariner's sad expression, they assume
something horrible has happened to him. Mariner had killed an innocent bird.
(c) Which word in the above lines means the same as ‘to trouble’?
Ans: The passage's term "plague" has the same meaning as "to trouble".
14. Answer any four of the following questions in 30-40 words each. 8 Marks
(a) Why did the grandmother take the children to her house?
Ans: The grandmother had a warm and affectionate relationship with little
girl. Her grandmother was the only person who treated her with kindness and
affection. She was no longer alive, but when the little girl saw her grandma in her
last vision, she begged her to take her with her.
(b) In ‘The Rime of the Ancient Mariner’ who is called “a Christian soul”?
Why?
Ans: The albatross is referred to be the Christian soul in The Rime of the Ancient
Mariner. Because it appeared out of nowhere, it was praised in God's name. The
seafarers thought it was a lifesaver. The icebergs began to break after the albatross
arrived, allowing the ship to go forward.
(c) Why did Ali call at the post office every day?
Class X English Communicative www.vedantu.com 16
Ans: Ali used to go to the post office on a daily basis. He had been visiting the
location for many years, hoping to receive a letter from his only daughter, Miriam,
one day.
(d) Who are the liars in the poem, ‘Mirror’? Why are they called so?
Ans: Liars are the moon and candles, since they never disclose the truth about
anyone. They create a misleading reflection by making things appear brighter and
more dazzling than they are.
(e) Why does Brutus allow Antony to deliver the funeral speech?
Ans: Antony was allowed by Brutus to deliver the funeral speech because Antony
and Caesar were excellent friends, Brutus authorised Antony to speak at the
funeral because it would be simple to persuade the plebeians through Antony.
Furthermore, Antony agreed to and accepted all of Brutus' terms.
15. Answer the following question in about 120 words. 6 Marks
What difficulties did the refugees have to undergo in their journey through
the Kruger Park?
Ans: The narrator's excursion through Kruger Park with his family can be
interpreted as an allegory for the young narrator's rite of passage. During the
journey, the girl must deal with the death of yet another family member—her
grandfather—and assume responsibility for her younger brother, whom she must
physically support. The narrator opens her description of entering Kruger Park by
informing the reader of a guy in her town who lost his legs to crocodiles,
reminding the reader of the dangers that lie ahead and contributing to the story's
ominous tone. She portrays the creatures in the park as constantly on the lookout
for food, despite the fact that she and her family are hungry. "We had passed [the
vultures] often where they were feeding on the bones of dead animals, nothing
was ever left there for us to eat," she writes.
(b) Write a character sketch of Julius Caesar.
Ans: Julius Caesar was a prominent general in the Roman army. Caesar was
courageous, overconfident, arrogant, firm, superstitious, and liked flattery,
according to the story. He was brave since he had won numerous conflicts on his
own. He didn't even have a fear of dying. He was overconfident, ignoring all the
warning signs and his wife's requests to stay at home. His arrogance might be
shown in the fact that he referred to his fellow senators as "greybeards." He also
compares himself to a "northern star," and his colleagues to "ordinary stars." His
Class X English Communicative www.vedantu.com 17
firmness is demonstrated by his refusal to listen to any of the senators, including
Brutus. He did not overturn Publius Climber's exile. When he sent his servant to
the priest to offer sacrifice and inquire about his luck on that particular day, his
superstitious character was revealed. His fondness for flattery was evident when
he changed his mind about not travelling to the Capitol after being flattered by
his wife. We witnessed him change his mind about going to Capitol once more
when Decius Brutus used flattery to persuade him to go Capitol.
Class X English Communicative www.vedantu.com 18
CBSE Class 10
English Communicative
Previous Year Question Paper 2012
Series: HRS/1 Code no. 1/1/3
● Please check that this question paper contains 11 printed pages.
● Code number gives on the right hand side of the question paper should
be written on the title page of the answer-book by the candidate.
● Please check that this question paper contains 11 questions.
● Please write down the Serial Number of the question before
attempting it.
● 15 minutes time has been allotted to read this question paper. The
question paper will be distributed at 10:15 a.m. From 10:15 a.m. to 10:30
a.m., the students will read the question paper only and will not write any
answer on the answer-book during this period.
SUMMATIVE ASSESSMENT-II
ENGLISH (Communicative)
Time Allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 70
General Instructions:
1. The question papers is divided into four sections:
Section A- Reading 15 Marks
Section B- Writing 20 Marks
Section C- Grammar 15 Marks
Section D- Literature + value based questions 25+5= 30 Marks
Class X English Communicative www.vedantu.com 1
2. All questions are compulsory.
3. You may attempt any section at a time.
4. All questions of that particular section must be attempted in a correct order.
SECTION - A
(Reading) 15 Marks
1. Read the passage given below: 8 Marks
1) In the summer of 1967, when I was 10 years old, my father caved into
my persistent pleas and took me to get my own dog. Together we drove
in the family station wagon far into the Michigan countryside to a farm
run by a rough hewn women and her ancient mother. The farm
produced just one commodity-dogs. Dogs of every imaginable size and
shape and age and temperament. They had only two things in
common: each was a mongrel of unknown and distinct ancestry, and
each was free to a good home.
2) I quickly decided the older dogs were somebody else's charity case. I
immediately raced to the puppy cage. "You want to pick one that's not
timid," my father coached. "Try rattling the cage and see which ones
aren't afraid."
3) I grabbed the chain-link gate and yanked on it with a loud clang. The
dozen or so puppies reeled backward, collapsing on top of one another
in a squiggling heap of fur. Just one remained. He was gold with a
white blaze on his chest, and he charged at the gate, yapping fearlessly.
He jumped up and excitedly licked my fingers through the fencing. It
was love at first sight.
4) I brought him home in a cardboard box and named him Shaun. He
was one of those dogs that gives dogs a good name. He effortlessly
mastered every command I taught him and was naturally well
behaved. I could drop a crust on the door and he would not touch it
until I gave the okay.
Class X English Communicative www.vedantu.com 2
5) Relatives would visit for the weekend and returned home determined
to buy a dog of their own, so impressed were they with Shaun-or "Saint
Shaun," as I came to call him. Born with the curse of an uncertain
lineage, he was one of the tens of thousands of unwanted dogs in
America. Yet by some stroke of almost providential good fortune, he
became wanted. He came into my life and I into his-and in the process,
he gave me the childhood every kid deserves.
6) The love affair lasted fourteen years, and by the time he died I was no
longer the little boy who had brought him along on that summer day.
I was a man, out of college and working across the state in my first real
job. Saint Shaun had stayed behind when I moved on. It was where he
belonged. My parents, by then retired, called to break the news to me.
My mother would later tell me, "In fifty years of marriage, I've only
seen your father cry twice”. "The first time was when we lost Mary
Ann"-my sister, who was stillborn. "The second time was the day
Shaun died."
7) Saint Shaun of my childhood. He was perfect dog. At least that's how
I will always remember him. It was Shaun who set the standard by
which I would judge all other dogs to come.
(Marley and Me by John Groan)
1.1 Complete the following statements :
(a) The dog farm was run by.................... .
Ans: a rough-hewn woman and her long-deceased mother.
(b) The author did not want an old dog because.................... .
Ans: someone else's charity case had older pets.
(c) He fell in love with the dog the moment the latter.................... .
Ans: jumped up and licked the author's fingers through the fencing with
delight.
(d) Shaun became so obedient that he.................... until the author
allowed him.
Ans: would not eat the crust that had fallen to the floor
Class X English Communicative www.vedantu.com 3
(e) After visiting them their relatives wanted.................... .
Ans: to purchase their own dog.
(f) When Shaun died even.................... .
Ans: the author's father was overcome with emotion.
1.2 Find words from the passage which mean the same as the following:
(a) urgent request (para 1)
Ans: please
(b) falling (para 3)
Ans: collapsing
2. Read the following passage: 7 Marks
It’s Beginning to Bite
In these trying times, when buying ordinary food stuff can burn a hole in
your pockets, comes the news that can actually help us save some hard
cash when we go out to shop the next time. According to a Stanford
University study, the first of its kind in the world, there is no evidence to
suggest that there are more nutritional benefits from expensive organic
food than those grown by conventional methods. The researchers add
that there is no difference in protein and fat content between organic and
conventional milk and the vitamin count is similar in both types. The only
benefit is that organic foods are not contaminated with pesticides but
then before you chew on the plate of organic okra with roti made from
organic wheat, they are not 100% pesticide free either. In India, organic
food has been growing at 20-22% and the export market is valued at Rs.
1,000 crore. Obviously, the study is not good news for that sector and for
people who are big on organic food.
In India, eating organic food is more of a style statement than due to
health worries because the stuff is expensive. But people who can, do
indulge in not only organic vegetables but even organic eggs laid by
'happy hens', who are allowed to roam around freely whereas 'unhappy
Class X English Communicative www.vedantu.com 4
hens' are kept in coops. Then there are companies that have installed
music channels in their cowsheds and the milk from those sheds are sold
at a marked up price since it has more nutritional value because the
animals are happy thanks to lilting 24×7 music. We don't know yet any
farmer using music to improve his crop quality, but then you never
know: plants are known to respond to music.
Why such pickiness about food? These days, the huge number of TV
shows and articles that we see and read on food provide bread and butter
for the specialist. But instead of decoding food, its sources and what has
gone into growing it, isn't it much better to enjoy what's on the plate?
(Adapted from The Hindustan Times)
2.1 Complete the statements given below by choosing the correct options
from those that follow:
(a) According to a Stanford University study, organic food in relation to
conventional food is________.
(i) less nutritious
(ii) more nutritious
(iii) very conventional
(iv) as nutritious
Ans: (iv) as nutrients
(b) The study will not be welcomed by _________.
(i) farmers of conventional food
(ii) makers of pesticides
(iii) all sectors
(iv) exporters of organic food
Ans: (iv) exporters of organic food
(c) We can save some hard cash by _________.
(i) buying organic food
Class X English Communicative www.vedantu.com 5
(ii) not buying organic food
(iii) going to the shop
(iv) not buying food with pesticides
Ans: (ii) not buying organic food
(d) Music channels are installed in the cowshed because the _________.
(i) cows then give more milk
(ii) milk is sold at a higher price
(iii) milk becomes more pure
(iv) workers becomes happy
Ans: (ii) milk is sold at a higher price
(e) In the second paragraph, the author's attitude to the people who eat
food sourced from 'happy' animals is that he _________.
(i) is happy with them
(ii) is unhappy with them
(iii) is laughing at them
(iv) wants crops to be grown similarly
Ans: (iii) is laughing at them
(f) One benefit of organic food is that __________.
(i) it is fashionable to eat
(ii) only rich people can afford it
(iii) it is less contaminated with pesticides
(iv) even poor people can afford it
Ans: (iii) it is less contaminated with pesticides
(g) The word 'contaminated' means ________.
(i) adulterated
Class X English Communicative www.vedantu.com 6
(ii) for adults
(iii) containing
(iv) not healthy
Ans: (i) adulterated
SECTION - B
(Writing) 20 Marks
3. You are Preeti / Preet, head girl / head boy, model school, Patna. Your
school is going to organise a trip to Andaman-Nicobar islands during the
summer vacation. Write a notice in 50‒60 words for the school notice board
giving the students details of the trip. Imagine the necessary details. 3 Marks
Ans: MODEL SCHOOL, Patna
NOTICE
TRIP TO ANDAMAN AND NICOBAR
23 March 2021
Our school has planned an educational excursion to the Andaman & Nicobar
Islands for students in grades IX to XI during the summer holiday of 2021. It is a
study of aboriginal tribe culture. The pupils will be accompanied by four teachers.
The trip costs 4,000 dollars per kid. Students interested in participating should
contact the signatories by April 30.
Preeti
Head girl
4. You are Nikhil, a student of class X. You have made a new friend in your
school. Write a diary entry in 50‒60 words describing him and why you like
him. 3 Marks
Ans:
Friday, 23 July 2021
Class X English Communicative www.vedantu.com 7
7 a.m.
Dear Diary,
I made a new buddy at school today who is quite charming.
Abhishek is his name, and he has come to our school because his father has been
transferred to Delhi. He speaks in a unique combination of Hindi and English. He
is gregarious. On the first day, he spoke to all of his classmates. I liked him right
away since his jokes and impersonations of Bollywood actors split the audience.
The nicest part is that throughout class, he gets really serious and focused.
I believe he and I will become good friends in the near future. Bye!
Nikhil
5. Given below are notes on the life of Ustad Rahi Khan. Write a biographical
sketch of his in about 100 words: 4 Marks
Born – March 21, 1926 in Sitapur, U.P.
His ancestors – famous musicians
At the age six – moved to Varanasi
Received training – under Ustad Amir Ali Khan – a Sitar player
Started performing at the age of 14
Performed in India and abroad
Awarded Padam Shri in 1967
Established a music school at Varanasi
Died – August 21 , 2004
One of the best examples of Hindu–Muslim Unity
Ans: Ustad Rahi Khan was born in the little hamlet of Sitapur in Uttar Pradesh
on March 21, 1926. His forefathers were well-known musicians. His family
relocated to Varanasi when he was six years old. Ustad Amir Ali Khan, a master
of the sitar, was his teacher. He began performing when he was fourteen years
old.He has given numerous performances in India and overseas. In 1967, the
Indian government bestowed the Padam Shri on him. In Varanasi, he founded a
Class X English Communicative www.vedantu.com 8
music school. On August 21, 2004, he passed away. His life is a shining example
of Hindu–Muslim harmony.
6. You are Ankita. You recently attended a seminar on ‘Effective Listening
Skills’ and found it to be of great value. Write an email to your friend, Anita,
in 120–150 words, giving details of the seminar and sharing what you learnt
in the seminar. You can use the points given below: 5 Marks
• Venue and participants
• Listening is as important as speaking
• Listening – a tool in good communication
• Builds concentration * Important for a student
Ans: Email Writing
From: [email protected]
To: [email protected]
Date: 23 Jul 2021
Subject: Seminar on ‘Effective Learning Skills’
Dear Anita,
I hope you are well today when you receive this email. I recently attended a
session on 'Effective Learning Skills,' and I'd like to tell you about it. Our school
organised the seminar last Thursday. It was a once-in-a-lifetime opportunity. The
lecture was attended by all students in classes IX and X. The lecture emphasised
the significance of listening in the lives of a student. Nowadays, we are all so
busy that we hardly have time to listen to others.This workshop taught me that
listening is just as essential as speaking. Communication necessitates the ability
to listen. We can only reply if we pay attention. It boosts our ability to concentrate
and remember things. It is a universally beneficial skill. When we meet, I'll tell
you more about the seminar. Knowing you, I'm confident you would have
thoroughly loved the seminar as much as I did. Take care, and please convey my
best wishes to your parents.
Love,
Class X English Communicative www.vedantu.com 9
Ankita
7. You are Kiran. You have been asked to give a speech in the morning
assembly on 'The Importance of Value Education in School.' Write the
speech in about 120 words from the notes given below: 5 Marks
• Academics not enough
• Values stay lifelong
• Values bind family, society
• Schools inculcate values
• Personality development
Ans: The Importance of Value Education in School
Value education is an educational concept that emphasises teaching and learning
based on positive human values. In today's world, simply teaching students what
is in the books isn't enough. It is critical to teach students value-based education
in addition to their usual curriculum in order for them to develop holistically. It
is a school that plays a significant part in shaping a student's life when they leave
home because they spend the majority of their time there. When we instil these
values in children at an early age, they not only learn and remember them for the
rest of their lives, but they also assist to connect families and society together.
These values contribute to their entire growth, allowing children to build a
confident and positive attitude as well as the ability to follow the right route in
promoting a better society to live in as they get older.
SECTION - C
(Grammar) 15 Marks
8. Complete the paragraph given below by filling in each of the blanks with
one word only with the help of options that follow: 3 Marks
While peeling the sweet lime and oranges (a) ....................careful so that the
segments are not mashed. The lettuce leaves are (b) ....................into pieces.
They are kept in ice-cold water (c) ....................ten minutes.
(a) (i) was (ii) is (iii) be (iv) will
Class X English Communicative www.vedantu.com 10
Ans: be
(b) (i) broken(ii) break(iii) breaks(iv) broke
Ans: broken
(c) (i) with (ii) for (iii) on (iv) during
Ans: for
9. Complete the paragraph given below by filling in the blanks with the help
of options that follow: 3 Marks
The rapid changes that India (a) ............ over the last few decades have been
welcomed by (b) ............ It is an enthusiasm which (c).............
(a) (i) is enduring (ii) was endured (iii) has been enduring (iv) will endure
Ans: (iii) has been enduring
(b) (i) most of us (ii) many of them (iii) few of people (iv) the lot of people
Ans: (i) most of us
(c) (i) should be kept alive (ii) have been kept alive (iii) will be keeping alive
(iv) will be enlivened
Ans: (i) should be kept alive
10. Rearrange the following words/phrases to form meaningful sentences:
3 Marks
(a) standing / a woman / the doorway / was / in /
Ans: A woman was standing in the doorway.
(b) young / dressed / in red / and was / was / she /
Ans: She was young and was dressed in red
(c) was / hands / my dog / her / licking /
Ans: My dog was licking her hands.
Class X English Communicative www.vedantu.com 11
11. In the passage given below there is an error in each line. Write the
error and the correction in your answer sheet. 3 Marks
Error Correction
You recently ask me to submit a e.g ask asked
short report .
in the progress made so far in the (a)
Literacy Project. Initially, adults (b)
were reluctance
to learn. Gradually, they (c)
overcome their
inhibitions.
Ans:
Error Correction
(a) in on
(b) reluctance reluctant
(c) overcome overcame
12. Read the conversation given below and complete the paragraph that
follows: 3 Marks
Ram: Can I help you?
Sita: I want a book on organic chemistry.
Ram: We have so many written by different authors.
Ram asked Sita (a)……………………… She replied (b)
…………………………..
Ram said that (c)……………………………
Ans: (a) if he could help her.
(b) that she wanted a book on organic chemistry.
(c) they had so many books written by different authors.
Class X English Communicative www.vedantu.com 12
SECTION - D
(Literature + Value Based Questions) 25+5=30 Marks
13. (A) Read extract given below and answer briefly the questions that
follow: 3 Marks
“….. its sculptor well those passions read
Which yet survive, stamped on these lifeless things,
The hand that mocked them, and the heart that fed.
(a) What do “lifeless things” refer to?
Ans: The shattered statue of Ozymandias that lay broken and buried in
the sand is referred to as "lifeless things."
(b) How do we know that he was a good sculptor?
Ans: The sculptor was good because he had captured the King's passions
on the sculpture with great finesse.
(c) How do we know that he was a good sculptor?
Ans: All the passions are fed by the heart. So, the Ozymandias's passions
were also fed by his heart.
(B) Read extract given below and answer briefly the questions that
follow: 3 Marks
“ I hadn’t the shade of an idea, but at the time that didn’t worry me
in the least. You see, I had often been like that before…… “
(i) Who is ‘I’? What did he not have an idea about?
Ans: The narrator, John Hallock, is referred to as ‘I' in the excerpt. His
boss had ordered him to write a ghost storey, and he had no idea what it
was about.
(ii) Why was he not worried?
Ans: He was unconcerned because he has been in such situations before.
Class X English Communicative www.vedantu.com 13
(iii) What had actually happened earlier to make things right for
him?
Ans: Previously, spirits had assisted John in writing a good ghost, and
everything had worked out well for him.
(C) Read extract given below and answer briefly the questions that
follow: 3 Marks
"The noble Brutus
Hath told you Caesar was ambitious:
If it were so, it was a grievous fault,
And grievously hath Caesar answered it."
(a) Who is the speaker? Who are 'you'?
Ans: Antony is the speaker. The citizens of Rome are referred to as ‘you.'
(b) How did Caesar pay for being ambitious?
Ans: The conspirators assassinated Caesar because he was ambitious.
(c) What argument did the speaker give to show that Brutus was
wrong in his judgement of Caesar?
Ans: To show that Brutus was mistaken in his assessment of Caesar,
Antony reminds the Roman population of how Caesar brought numerous
captives to Rome in order to collect ransom in order to control the people's
financial situation. He tells them about how Caesar sobbed when the
impoverished wailed.
14. Answer any two of the following in 30-40 words each: 6 Marks
(a) Why did the news of Shultz’s miracle recovery shock Michael?
Ans: Michael was taken aback by the storey of Shultz's miraculous recovery
because it included a youngster who had been in a coma. Micheal saved Sebastian
Shultz from a coma in the psycho-driven game after several attempts. Later,
Micheal was astonished to learn that the real Sebastian and the one in the game
were the same person.
Class X English Communicative www.vedantu.com 14
(b) What were the poet’s thoughts after the snake had gone?
Ans: Poet was remorseful for his acts towards the serpent. He believed it was
improper for him to kill the snake by throwing a wood at it. He was remorseful
when the snake went and wished for the snake to return so that he might make
amends for his wrongdoing.
(c) What did Caesar leave for the Romans in his will?
Ans: Caesar left the Romans seventy-five drachmas and his own private garden
in his bequest. He also left the orchards on the banks of the Tiber for restoring
and relaxation.
15. ‘Not that I loved Caesar less, but I loved Rome more.’ 5 Marks
Brutus says this as he justifies to the Romans why Caesar was assassinated
by them. Do you agree with Brutus? Justify your answer in 120-150 words
by giving examples from the play.
What values does Brutus displays as he says this line to the Romans?
Ans: Yes, I agree with Brutus when he makes the statement in order to justify his
assassination of Caesar. Brutus was a true patriot. The Romans' safety was more
essential to him than anything else. His primary motivation for joining the plot
was his belief that if Caesar was crowned, Rome would be destroyed. He had no
personal animosity toward Caesar; rather, he adored him. But, in order to save his
nation, he sacrificed his love for Caesar. “As Caesar loved me, I weep for him; as
he was fortunate, I rejoice at it; as he was valiant, I honour him: but, as he was
ambitious, I slew him,” Brutus says.
"As I slew my best lover for the good of Rome, I have the same dagger for myself,
when it shall please my country to need my death," Brutus adds at the end of his
speech.
"Not that I love Caesar less, but I loved Rome more" Brutus remarks, displaying
idealism and nobility.
Attempt either Part (A) or Part (B)
Class X English Communicative www.vedantu.com 15
Part - A
16. Describe in 120-150 words Margot and Anne’s relationship with their
parents. 5 Marks
Ans: Despite the fact that they still adored their parents, Margot and Anne had
grown tired of them. They desired to make their own choices without the
supervision of their parents. Their parents were less rigorous and let them to read
anything, but Margot and Anne were bored of hearing their opinions every day.
The custom of giving them small kisses at all hours of the day was also getting
on their nerves for young girls who were approaching maturity. The adorable
nicknames appeared to be influenced. They had wished for nothing more than an
escape from their parents. Margot and Anne were hesitant to tell their parents
about their experiences because they believed they would be misunderstood.
These young women were developing their own set of values, ideals, and
principles as they grew older. As a result, they desired for their parents to
recognise their maturity and spiritual independence by treating them as young
adults rather than children.
17. Write a character sketch of Mrs. Van Dann in 120-150 words. 5 Marks
Ans: Mrs Van Dann was a conceited and self-centered woman who was often
grumbling about Anne and quick to point out her flaws. Mrs. van Dann is Otto
Frank's business partner's wife. They produce a son named Peter, who falls in
love with Anne later in life. Mrs van Dann is not just combative with her husband,
but also with Mrs Frank. Anne's background and parenting are also questioned
by her. Mrs van Dann had a soft spot for Mr Frank, something Anne didn't share.
Mrs van Dann would start fights over trivial matters and never shared her
belongings with the other residents of the annexe. She was never afraid to sink to
a child's level and stage a spectacle to demonstrate her obnoxious character. She
always chose the best items at the dinner table, oblivious to the needs of others.
Mrs Van Dann's character was complex in general.
Or
Attempt a character sketch of Peter in 120-150 words.
Class X English Communicative www.vedantu.com 16
Ans: Peter Van Dann, a bashful sixteen-year-old boy, was not like the other boys.
He was unlike his loud and outspoken parents in that he was a serious and sensible
observer. He appeared morose and unpleasant since he had no friends and was
unable to communicate with his parents. Anne initially dismissed him as a
hypochondriac and a slacker. He, on the other hand, turned out to be a peace-
loving, tolerant, and laid-back individual. In the annex, he spent his meditative
years. He was considerably more closed than Anne, and it took him a long time
to open up, which Anne attributes to uncommunicative personalities. He began
to confide in Anne and made a concerted attempt to reveal his true feelings. Theirs
was not a romantic relationship, but rather a necessity to discover a kindred spirit
in such tough times. Peter found the kindness and comfort he had been looking
for in Anne, and it inspired him to extend his friendship to someone for the first
time. He was a steady and reassuring presence in Anne's life. Anne's stories were
made more poignant by their friendship.
Part - B
16. How did Helen Keller enjoy her visit to the World fair? (120-150 words)
5 Marks
Ans: Helen and Miss Sullivan went to the World Fair with Dr. Alexander Graham
Bell in the summer of 1893. Helen believes that during her days at the Fair, her
childhood fantasies became a reality. She imagined herself taking daily journeys
throughout the world, seeing the numerous wonders that exist in far-flung corners
of the globe, such as technological marvels, industrial riches, and human skill-
based activities. Mr. Higinbotham, the President of the World Fair, gave her
permission to touch the exhibits. She became enamoured with the aesthetic
wonders developed and displayed at the fair. Dr. Bell led Helen through all of the
stalls and exhibits, explaining how the telephones, autophones, phonographs, and
other inventions worked in detail. She also went to see ancient Mexican
antiquities and Egyptian mummies. Helen believed that her knowledge and
vocabulary had grown as a result of her visit to the World Fair.
17. Attempt in 120-150 words a character sketch of Miss Sullivan. 5 Marks
Class X English Communicative www.vedantu.com 17
Ans: Helen's teacher, Anne Sullivan, is partially blind and received her education
at The Perkins Institute for the Blind. In terms of her personality, she is a kind
and caring mother to Helen, and she enjoys teaching her about the world, whether
through academics or the more abstract life lessons that come from spending time
in nature.Ms. Anne Sullivan is Helen Keller's longtime teacher and friend, and
she believes that her presence in her life has brought about significant
transformation in her world. Anne Sullivan was empathetic and aware of Helen's
needs and ambitions, and she made certain to guide Helen in the most unusual of
ways. Ms. Sullivan was in charge of Helen Keller's early years of education,
ensuring that they were a happy and enjoyable experience. Helen Keller's courage
was Ms. Anne Sullivan, and it was thanks to her patience that she was able to take
Helen out of her dark and uncertain environment.
Or
What role did Mr. Gilman play in Helen Keller’s life? (120-150 words)
Ans: Helen received her diploma from Radcliffe College, where Mr. Gilman
served as Principal. Mr. Gilman was an expert in hand and finger language, and
he was Helen's only college teacher who could lead and instruct her. During the
year, he had been her English Literature lecturer. Helen had little trouble getting
through her work because to his background in history and literature, as well as
his skill to instruct. He used the manual alphabet to read all of the papers to her.
He also took the time to read her the exam papers sentence by sentence. He
explained what she had written so she could make the necessary revisions. He
also wrote to examiners to certify that Helen had done the work herself. Given
her state, he believed she had been overworked. Helen's mother pulled her from
school due to a disagreement between him and Miss Sullivan. Mr. Gilman was
helpful, but he misjudged Helen's ability to work hard.
Class X English Communicative www.vedantu.com 18
CBSE Class X
English (Communicative)
Previous Year Question Paper 2013
Series: RSH Code no. 1/1/1
• Please check that this question paper contains 16 printed pages.
• Code number given on the right-hand side of the question paper
should be written on the title page of the answer-book by the
candidate.
• Please check that this question paper contains 18 questions.
• Please write the Serial Number of the question before attempting
it.
• 15 minutes time has been allotted to read this question paper. The
question paper will be distributed at 10.15 a.m. From 10.15 a.m. to
10.30 a.m., the students will read the question paper only and will
not write any answer on the answer-book during this period.
SUMMATIVE ASSESSMENT- II
ENGLISH (Communicative)
Time Allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 90
General Instructions:
The question paper is divided into four sections:
Section A – Reading 20 Marks
Section B – Writing 20 Marks
Section C – Grammar 20 Marks
Section D – Literature + Value Based Question 20 + 5 = 25 Marks
1. All questions are compulsory.
Class X English www.vedantu.com 1
2. You may attempt any section at a time.
3. All questions of that particular section must be attempted in the correct order.
SECTION-A
Reading 20 Marks
1. Read the following passage carefully. 10 Marks
“Mum!” I shouted. “Are you okay?” I saw her little tent shuddering in the
gale and listened closely for her response. Her voice was almost casual, “Oh,
yes, I’m fine” That‘s my mother. It was the first night of our cycling trip
through the interior of Iceland – a region so remote and inhospitable that for
centuries, according to legend, it was abandoned. The weather was decidedly
hurricane-like, but Mum wasn’t concerned. Months ago, I told her about my
plan to pedal across Iceland. “It will be really difficult,” I said. “The roads
are unpaved and often washed out, and the wind is blowing constantly –
sometimes so hard that it pushes you off the road.” There was silence for a
moment. Then she asked, “Can I come?” “Sure,” I replied. “But like the rest
of us, you have to train to do two 160 kilometres a day back-to back,”
“Wow,” she said, “I could never do that,” I had more faith in my mother’s
physical abilities than she did.
I’d seen her raise six children and put in long hours doing physical labour
on our small farm.
“Sure you can,” I told her, “Start tomorrow.” What really concerned me was
what I perceived to be her frustrating humility: I thought her too self-
deprecating about her attractiveness just because she had not completed
college. I felt she underestimated her attractiveness just because she was not
the type to wear make-up or fancy clothes. As I had grown into adulthood,
the life I’d chosen seemed light-years away from Mum’s quiet existence, still
caring for her children and her children’s children. Sometimes, on a visit
home, I’d describe some recent trip I’d taken, and her blue eyes would shine
with interest. So, I couldn’t help thinking this trek might revitalise Mum,
who had started to slow down in her 50s. It might spice up what I saw as her
humdrum life. And it might be a boost to her tentative and retiring persona.
Mum trained furiously, months in advance. As the trip roster was pared
down to Mum, my good friend Allen and me, she stood as the most dedicated.
Soon she was riding 80–100 kilometres per day, and was as strong a rider as
Allen or I.
1.1 Based on your reading of the passage, complete the following sentences.
Class X English www.vedantu.com 2
(a) The narrator describes the roads across Iceland as …………..
(b) The narrator had faith in his mother’s physical abilities as ……………
(c) The training to take the adventure trip on cycle included …………..
(d) In his adulthood, the narrator realised that his life was ………..
(e) Descriptions of his trips always …………
(f) The narrator was sure that the trip would ………….
(g) The narrator and his friend were sure about Mum’s preparation when
………..
Ans:
a. The roads in Iceland were unpaved and washed out according to the author.
b. The narrator had seen her bring up six children and carry out physical labour
in the farm he grew up in.
c. The training included back-to-back cycling for 160 kilometres every day.
d. The narrator’s life was different from his mother’s quiet existence.
e. Around the interest of the narrator's mother.
f. Revitalise the narrator's mother's life which according to him was quiet and
different from his. It would spice up her life and deliver her from her humdrum
existence.
g. When she started riding 80–100 kilometres a day and proved to be as good as
the narrator and his friend
1.2 Find words from the passage that mean the same as the following.
3 Marks
(a) noticed/become aware of
Ans: Perceived
(b) to give new life
Ans: Revitalise
(c) hesitant/not certain
Ans: Retiring
2. Read the following passage carefully.
Class X English www.vedantu.com 3
From the danger of losing one leg due to a knee injury to winning an Olympic
bronze medal, Yogeshwar Dutt has come a long way. The freestyle wrestler’s
story is one of passion for the sport and his perseverance and solid
determination in realising his dream. Thanks to him, Bhainswal Kalan, a
village some 20 kilometres away from Sonepat in Haryana, has become very
popular now. Yogeshwar has qualities of a champion, and virtues like
humility, respect for others and extending a helping hand to the needy, which
make him even more endearing. His dream of winning an Olympic medal
was not fulfilled in Beijing in 2008. Going through the injuries was a difficult
period for him. The Mittal Champions Trust helped him when he had the
knee injury. His intense desire to win a medal worked as a healing agent to
all has injuries, he trained hard and God listened to his prayers. After 2008,
his sole target was the 2012 Olympics. He wanted to participate in more and
more competitions, but he was pulled down by injuries in 2009 and that
robbed him of nearly one year. After that, he could not reduce his weight
too often to take part in various events. All the time the Olympics was there
in his mind. Even when he was injured he thought of winning an Olympic
medal. His back injury was a problem, but he got over it. His friends and
family backed him a lot. His brother and friends shared his responsibilities
and allowed him to focus on wrestling with a free mind.
Based on your reading of the passage, choose the right answers from the
given options to complete the following sentences. 5 Marks
(a) A quality necessary for a champion is …...............
i. perseverance
ii. determination
iii. passion
iv. each of the above
Ans: iv) each of the above
(b) Yogeshwar Dutt lost almost a year in 2009 because of ….................
i. injuries
ii. worship
iii. loss of weight
iv. the villagers
Ans: i) injuries
(c) The problem that did not trouble Yogeshwar was ….............. injury.
Class X English www.vedantu.com 4
i. eye
ii. knee
iii. back
iv. head
Ans: iii) back
(d) Even during his long and lonely stays abroad,………… kept him
motivated.
i. his parents
ii. the thought of the Olympic medal
iii. his injuries
iv. the thought of his responsibilities
Ans: iv) the thought of the Olympic medal
(e) Yogeshwar Dutt was able to give his best as ……………….
i. he did not have to think of his responsibilities
ii. he participated in the Olympic games
iii. he was sure to get a medal
iv. he had an intense desire to win a medal
Ans: iv) he had an intense desire to win a medal
3. Read the following passage carefully.
We sat in silence in the dark of the night as the large head appeared from
the large foliage. The female was young, healthy and alert. Seconds later,
she walked confidently to the edge of a waterhole followed by not one, not
two but three beautiful young cubs. Like works of art on display, all four
tigers bent low at the waterhole that had been created for them and for the
myriad creatures that shared their troubled kingdom. The Goshri tigers had
come visiting and we watch them with rapt attention on our closed-circuit
TV screens, in the conservation retreat of Harsh and Poonam Dhanwatey,
a husband and wife team whose life had been dedicated to the protection of
tigers in and around Maharashtra’s Tadoba Andhari Tiger Reserve. Their
son Nikhil carefully positioned the cameras and cabled them 40 metres from
their conservation retreat, near the waterhole which had turned into a
magnet for every conceivable animal found in the Tiger Reserve itself. We
Class X English www.vedantu.com 5
were making preparations to set up one of the first Community
Conservation Reserves in Central India. Originally into business, the
Dhanwateys changed tracks midstream by shutting down a thriving interior
design business in response to just one meeting they had with Dr Ullas
Karanth and Valmik Thapar, two of India’s finest tiger people, in Nagpur.
In their own words, “From admirers of wildlife, we become passionate
defenders and we launched our non- governmental organisation called Tiger
Research and Conservation Trust (TRACT).” The Dhanwateys lived for
years in a small hut which was their field camp near the famous Tadoba
Lake, and they discovered the secrets of the forest in the best way possible,
by walking its trails, and generally learning all they could about the magical
mix of life that comprised this tropical, dry deciduous forest.
Based on your reading of the passage, choose the right answers from the
given options to complete the following sentences. 5 Marks
(a) Before taking up the cause of tigers, the Dhanwateys were …………
i. working in a non-governmental organisation
ii. in the textile business
iii. working with Dr Karanth
iv. managing an interior design business
Ans: iv) managing an interior design business
(b) The waterhole is referred to as a magnet because ………………
i. a magnet was placed there
ii. all the animals were attracted to it
iii. cameras had magnets
iv. water was not available
Ans: ii) all the animals were attracted to it
(c) The narrator had gone to the Tiger Reserve to ………….. .
i. kill tigers
ii. set up a Tiger Reserve
iii. set up the first Community Conservation Reserve
iv. employ Nikhil in the Tiger Reserve
Ans: iv) employ Nikhil in the Tiger Reserve
Class X English www.vedantu.com 6
(d) The meeting with Dr Ullas Karanth and Valmik Thapar changed the lives
of …………
i. Nikhil
ii. the Dhanwateys
iii. the narrator
iv. TRACT
Ans: ii) the Dhanwateys
(e) The activities in which the champions of TRACT are not involved are
……….
i. killing of tigers in that area
ii. discovering the secrets of the forests
iii. walking the trails of tigers
iv. living in the deciduous forests
Ans: i) killing of tigers in that area
SECTION-B
Writing 25 Marks
4. Your school is celebrating grandparents’ day next week. Write a notice in
50–60 words to put up on the school notice board informing students of the
celebration and requesting them to be present with their grandparents. You
are Samir/Suman, Head Boy/Head Girl ABC Sen. Sec. School, Delhi.
3 Marks
Ans: Notice
ABC senior secondary school
Notice
Grandparent's Day
4th September 2013
This is to inform you that ABC Senior Secondary School will be commemorating
‘Grandparents Day' next week on September 10th, 2013. The school has chosen
to organise a modest event in which children and their grandparents are welcome
to attend. Students are required to attend the celebration with their grandparents.
Class X English www.vedantu.com 7
Time: 5 pm
Venue: ABC Hall
Chief Guest: Dr Roy
For further information, please contact me on the following number.
+919222222
Samir
Headboy
5. You are Mahesh. You have been asked to meet the passport officer
urgently to clarify certain details regarding the renewal of your passport.
Write a message in 50–60 words for your mother who was not at home
informing her of the matter and also telling her that you would be late in
reaching home. 3 Marks
Ans: Message
4th September 2013
Dear Mom,
I got an urgent call from the passport agency. For my passport renewals the agent
requires a few things from me. I have a meeting with him at 6 p.m., and the
discussion may last an hour. Don't worry if I arrive back late..
Mahesh
6. Given below are details of an eminent environmentalist. Use the
information to form a biographical sketch of Aruna Saxena in 80–100
words. 4 Marks
Aruna Saxena – born in 1978 – education – M.A. in Environmental Science
– achievements – actively involved in Green Revolution Movement – won her
worldwide recognition – published a collection of poems, ‘Singing Birds’ –
awards – won the national award for creating environmental awareness –
other interests – painting, writing poetry – position held – President of
Rotary Club of Marwar in 2007, President of the Poetry Club in 2009
Ans: Aruna Saxena's Biographical Sketch
The famous environmentalist Aruna Saxena was born in 1978. She earned her
master's degree in environmental science and was active in the Green Revolution
Class X English www.vedantu.com 8
Movement. This earned her international acclaim and respect. She received the
National Award in recognition of her efforts to raise environmental awareness.
'Singing Birds,' a collection of her poetry, was favourably appreciated by the
audience. She expresses herself via her drawings as well. She was elected
President of the Rotary Club of Marwar in 2007. Aside from that, she served as
President of the Poetry Club in 2009.
7. You are Sanchita/Sachin, 15, Mall Road, Delhi. Write a letter in 120–150
words to a friend telling him about the award ceremony for felicitating the
toppers of your school. 5 Marks
Ans: Letter
Sanchita
Mall Road
Delhi
Dear Ankita,
I'm writing to tell you about something fantastic that's transpired in my life In my
school, I was praised for excelling in three subjects: English, History, and
Mathematics.
On September 2nd, students from all classes witnessed the felicitation event. The
students were rewarded for their achievements not just academically but also in
extracurricular endeavors I felt a surge of pleasure as the principal called my
name, and I hoped you were there to clap for me as I received my awards.
The event is still vividly remembered in my mind. Your presence would have
made it much more memorable because you have always inspired me to work
hard in these topics.
I hope to hear from you shortly. I truly miss reading your thoughtful letters.
Yours truly,
Sanchita
8. Develop the following into a readable story in 120–150 words. 5 Marks
It was dark when we got down from the train. The place was totally strange
to us. Gopi who had promised to be at the station was nowhere in sight.
Ans: Tony and I went outdoors, our heavy luggage trailing behind us. Gopi had
characterised the area as friendly and cheerful, yet it appeared to be creepy. An
Class X English www.vedantu.com 9
elderly guy with leathery skin emerged out of the darkness. “I can assist you with
your bags; you can pay me anything you want,” he offered. We let the man carry
our bags out of the station. We continued to follow in his footsteps, taking careful
steps. The owl's hooting caused us to come to a halt. The man abruptly vanished
into thin air. We looked around, and suddenly a low voice whispered in my ear.
“Switch around.” When I did, I was strangled by a pair of large hands. I screamed
in terror and awoke in a vehicle. Gopi, who was taken aback, said, "You look as
if you saw a ghost!"
9. Students these days are not careful with their pocket money and spend it
lavishly. Write a speech in 120–150 words to be delivered in the morning
assembly about the importance of saving in one’s life. 5 Marks
Ans: When I was a kid, I was content with a few TV shows and enough pocket
money to purchase a few chocolates once a week. However, peer pressure and
the urge to keep up with shifting trends have led the average adolescent's costs to
rise. We all know how much money we waste in shopping malls and video game
arcades. However, there are no real rewards to these endeavours; they really cost
us time and money. We should use the money our parents give us properly, either
by saving it for later or investing it in something that will benefit us in the long
term.In reality, this will enable us to be more frugal and manage our funds better
when we start working one day.
SECTION-C
Grammar 20 Marks
10.Choose the appropriate options from the ones given below to complete the
following passage. Write the answers in your answer sheet against the
correct blank numbers. 4 Marks
As a young boy I (a) ……… …….. to play on the ground near my home. At
the (b)……………... end of the ground was a library. I had often seen people
walk in and out of it (c)……………….. books in their hands. One evening, I
walked in and politely asked the librarian (d)…………….. a book.
(a) (i) was (ii) used (iii) are (iv) had
Ans: ii) used
(b) (i) far (ii) near (iii) off (iv) hind
Ans: i) far
(c) (i) carried (ii) carrying (iii) carries (iv) carry
Class X English www.vedantu.com 10
Ans: ii) carrying
(d) (i) for (ii) him (iii) about (iv) to
Ans: i) for
11. Rearrange the following words/phrases to form meaningful sentences.
The first one has been done for you. 4 Marks
watching TV / on exercise / while you are / the following ways / The American
Council / suggests / to exercise
The American Council on exercise suggests the following ways to exercise
while you are watching TV.
(a) the remote / the channel / to change / get up / from the couch / i nstead of
using
Ans: Get up from the couch to change the channel instead of using the remote
(b) the room during / Walk up / the stairs / or around / and down /
commercial breaks \
Ans: Walk up and down the stairs or around the room during commercial breaks
(c) a treadmill / use / you watch / while / you can / TV
Ans: You can use a treadmill while you watch TV
(d) resistance band / while watching / use a / television
Ans: Use a resistance band while watching television
12. The following passage has not been edited. There is one error in each line.
Write the incorrect word and the correction in your answer sheet against
the correct blank number. Underline the correct word supplied by you. The
first one has been done for you as an example. 4 Marks
Incorrect Correct
One morning I finished one business at the one some
bank
and was returning in pick my motorbike a
which I had left
Class X English www.vedantu.com 11
in the parking lot outside. Suddenly he b
realised that I had
lost the bike key. Upset I searched about it c
in the bank. A bank
employee tried to help me find it, and in d
vain
Ans.
Incorrect Correct
One morning I finished one business at the one some
bank
and was returning in pick my motorbike a in to
which I had left
in the parking lot outside. Suddenly he b he I
realised that I had
lost the bike key. Upset I searched about it c about for
in the bank. A bank
employee tried to help me find it, and in d and but
vain
13. Study the notes given below and complete the paragraph that follows by
filling in the blanks suitably. 4 Marks
NOTES
-Octopush – underwater hockey game
- created by a group of English divers
- aim was to keep scuba diving club busy in winter
- each team – 8 players – battle for a lead puck with a pusher
Octopush (a) …………. hockey game. It (b)………….. a group of English
divers. The game (c)…………. keeping the local scuba club busy during the
winter months. The original rules required 8 players (d)……………… a lead
puck with a small stick called pusher.
Class X English www.vedantu.com 12
Ans: a) is an underwater
b) was created by
c) aimed at
d) to battle for
14. Read the conversation given below and complete the paragraph that
follows. 4 Marks
Reena: I called you yesterday. Where were you?
Arya: I went to visit my grandmother. Why did you call?
Reena: I called to tell you that our results will be out next week.
Arya: Are you sure?
Reena: I saw the news in yesterday’s newspaper.
Reena told Arya that (a)…………… and asked her where she had been. Arya
told her that (b) ………………grandmother and enquired why she had
called. Reena told her that she (c) …………….results would be out next
week. When Arya asked whether she was sure Reena told her (d)
……….…newspaper.
Ans: a) she called her yesterday
b) she went to visit
c) wanted to tell her that the results were out
d) that she saw the news in the newspaper
SECTION D
Literature 25 Marks
15. (A) Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow by
choosing from the given alternatives. 3 Marks
Stand in the desert. Near them, on the sand,
Half sunk, a shattered visage lies, whose frown,
And wrinkled lip, and sneer of cold command,
Tell that its sculptor well those passions read
Class X English www.vedantu.com 13
(a) The person described here is …………..
(i) P B Shelley (ii) Ozymandias (iii) the sculptor (iv) None of the above
Ans: ii) ozymandias
(b) The face expresses ………………
(i) calmness (ii) anger (iii) indifference (iv) love
Ans: ii) anger
(c) The word, ‘visage’ in the above lines means ……………..
(i) vision (ii) legs (iii) lips (iv) face
Ans: iv) face
(B) Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow.
3 Marks
At least, that was what I thought then. Now I knew that Sebastian Shultz,
the boy from the game, really did exist. I’d seen the proof in the newspaper.
(a) What had Michael thought earlier?
Ans: Michael thought the boy Sebastian Shultz was a part of the game.
(b) Why is Sebastian Shultz called ‘the boy from the game’?
Ans: Sebastian Shultz is called the boy of the game because that is where Michael
met him.
(c) What had Michael seen in the newspaper?
Ans: Michael had seen an article titled ‘Miracle Recovery’ which spoke about
Sebastian Shultz’s recovery from coma.
(C) Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow.
3 Marks
‘Shall Caesar send a lie?
Have I in conquest stretch’d mine arm so far,
To be afraid to tell graybeards the truth?
Decius, go and tell them Caesar will not come’.
(a) Why has Decius come to Caesar’s place?
Ans: Decius went to the palace of Caesar to bring him to the Senate.
(b) What message does Caesar give him?
Class X English www.vedantu.com 14
Ans: Caesar instructed Decius not to go to the Senate that day to tell the members.
(c) Who are the ‘Graybeards’ referred to here?
Ans: 'Graybeards' means the senior majority in the Senate.
16. Answer any three of the following questions in 50−60 words each.
6 Marks
(a) Why had Michael and his father gone to the computer fair?
Ans: The father of Michael was a fan of the computer. He would purchase the
latest devices that would be up to date. His father recently purchased a
sophisticated computer. Michael shared this passion with his father about games
and gizmos. They went the computer fair as such aficionados.
(b) Why does Lavinia feel that the Ouija Board would help her husband?
Ans: The board of Ouija would allow Lavinia to create historical novels without
the trouble to look over heavy volumes of history. He could simply summon and
collect knowledge from the spirits of Helen of Troy, Napoleon or William the
conqueror.
(c) How did the mariners reach the land of ice and snow?
Ans: After a storm, the tranquil seas became 'tyrannical' and 'wild.' The winds of
the narrative propelled the ship towards the snow and ice.
(d) How does Brutus convince the Romans that Caesar deserved his death?
Ans: Brutus says that the slaughter of Caesar is done, taking into account the
interests of the individuals. He claims his Rome love is considerably stronger than
his Caesar love. He would prefer to see Caesar alive to see his compatriots free.
According to Brutus, his desire blinded Caesar and thus harmed Rome. It had to
be stopped at any cost, therefore.
17. Patol Babu always remembered the words of his mentor that one has to
accept whatever is offered and make the best of any opportunity. Write a
letter to a friend telling him about the value of hard work and the art of
putting in your best. Write the answer in 120–150 words. 5 Marks
Ans: Letter
234, Shanti Nivas
Gokhale Road
Class X English www.vedantu.com 15
Thane
Dear Sujata,
Since I heard about you, it's been aeons. I was thinking about you yesterday and
how much I and you would have liked to talk about it while reading the narrative
of Satyajit Ray titled "Patol Babu, Film Star." This led me to write you this letter.
The guy is a small actor in the narrative, and his instructor gives him a crucial tip:
no humiliation plays a part in little matters. It hit a chord in my heart; it meant no
chance should be turned away regardless of how tiny this might appear. On the
same virtue I've always advised you. Recall how I rebuked you for downgrading
VJTI's seat?
I hope via this episode you learned something meaningful. Remember, not always
knocking chances at our doors. Make sure your life is taken advantage of. What
are your thinking? What are your thoughts?
Yours truly,
Akshaya
18. Answer the following in 120–150 words. 5 Marks
As the wedding guest, make a diary entry of your observations about the
ancient mariner.
Ans: Diary Entry
Dear Diary,
Date: August 5,2013
Time: 11:00 PM
I had an excellent experience today. When my two friends and I were on the way
to attend the wedding reception for my cousin, we were caught by a rather odd
individual. He continued on telling us his storey of resentment, in spite of our
protestations. With tanned arms and glowing eyes, he appeared aged unnaturally
and the storey he told us seemed too strange to be true. He stated he was a sailor
who shot an innocent albatross who led the ship clear of the dangerous ice. This
unsatisfactory action angered the strong, albatross-loving spirit. His actions led
to his crewmates' death. He experiences a lot of anguish that is only alleviated
when he tells someone about it. I learned a great lesson after my meeting with
him: Don't ever injure your hand.
xyz
Class X English www.vedantu.com 16
Or
What problems did Helen, the ghost, cause in John Hallock’s life?
Ans: Helen turned to John for help with her issues. As a result, she expressed
her willingness to assist John in the creation of a ghost storey. She demanded
John's assistance in exchange. John had to urge the community to quit using
Ouija boards. As a result, John and Helen agreed to assist each other. However,
John's wife hosted a Ouija board party at her home. It was an outright betrayal
of John's pledge. So, as the celebration was going on, Helen showed up and
accused John of being a traitor. Everyone misinterpreted it, and John felt
humiliated as everyone blamed him for falling in love with Helen. John's wife
had told him that she was about to leave his house and divorce him. His
domestic servant was also planning to depart. John was already under a lot of
stress since the publisher was pressuring him to create a ghost storey, and he
couldn't think of anything to write. As a result, we may conclude that Helen was
the source of John Hallock's many issues.
Class X English www.vedantu.com 17
CBSE Class X
English (Communicative)
Previous Year Question Paper 2014
Series: HRS Code no. 1/1
● Please check that this question paper contains 12 printed pages.
● Code number given on the right hand side of the question paper should
be written on the title page of the answer-book by the candidate.
● Please check that this question paper contains 17 questions.
● Please write down the Serial Number of the question before
attempting it.
● 15 minutes time has been allotted to read this question paper. The
question paper will be distributed at 10.15 a.m. From 10.15 a.m. to
10.30 a.m., the students will read the question paper only and will not
write any answer on the answer-book during this period.
SUMMATIVE ASSESSMENT - II
ENGLISH (Communicative)
Total Allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 80
General Instructions :
1. The Question paper is divided into four sections :
Section A — Reading 15 marks
Section B — Writing 20 marks
Section C — Grammar 15 marks
Section D — Literature + Value Based Question (25+5)=30 marks
2. All questions are compulsory.
3. You may attempt any section at a time.
Class X English www.vedantu.com 1
4. All questions of that particular section must be attempted in the correct order.
SECTION-A
1. Read the passage given below: 8 Marks
The Perfect Dog
1. In the summer of 1967, when I was 10 years old, my father caved into
my persistent pleas and took me to get my own dog. Together we drove
in the family station wagon far into the Michigan countryside to a farm
run by a rough-hewn women and her ancient mother. The farm
produced just one commodity-dogs. Dogs of every imaginable size and
shape and age and temperament. They had only two things in common:
each was a mongrel of unknown and distinct ancestry, and each was free
to a good home.
2. I quickly decided the older dogs were somebody else's charity case. I
immediately raced to the puppy cage. "You want to pick one that's not
timid," my father coached. "Try rattling the cage and see which ones
aren't afraid."
3. I grabbed the chain-link gate and yanked on it with a loud clang. The
dozen or so puppies reeled backward, collapsing on top of one another
in a squiggling heap of fur. Just one remained. He was gold with a white
blaze on his chest, and he charged at the gate, yapping fearlessly. He
jumped up and excitedly licked my fingers through the fencing. It was
love at first sight.
4. I brought him home in a cardboard box and named him Shaun. He was
one of those dogs that gives dogs a good name. He effortlessly mastered
every command I taught him and was naturally well behaved. could
drop a crust on the floor and he would not touch it until I gave the okay.
5. Relatives would visit for the weekend and returned home determined to
buy a dog of their own, so impressed were they with Shaun-or "Saint
Shaun," as I came to call him. Born with the curse of an uncertain
lineage, he was one of the tens of thousands of unwanted dogs in
America. Yet by some stroke of almost providential good fortune, he
became wanted. He came into my life and I into his-and in the process,
he gave me the childhood every kid deserves.
6. The love affair lasted fourteen years, and by the time he died I was no
longer the little boy who had brought him along on that summer day. I
Class X English www.vedantu.com 2
was a man, out of collage and working across the state in my first real
job. Saint Shaun had stayed behind when I moved on. It was where he
belonged. My parents, by then retired, called to break the news to me.
My mother would later tell me, "In fifty years of marriage, I've only seen
your father cry twice. "The first time was when we lost Mary Ann"-my
sister, who was stillborn. "The second time was the day Shaun died."
7. Saint Shaun of my childhood. He was perfect dog. At least that's how I
will always remember him. It was Shaun who set the standard by which
I would judge all other dogs to come.
(Marley and Me by John Groan)
1.1. Complete the following statements: 6 Marks
a) The dog farm was run by ....................
Ans: a rough-hewn woman and her ancient mother
b) The author did not want an old dog because ....................
Ans: older dogs were somebody else's charity case
c) He fell in love with the dog the moment the latter
Ans: jumped up and excitedly licked the author's fingers through the fencing
d) Shaun became so obedient that he .................... until the author allowed
him.
Ans: would not touch the crust dropped on the floor
e) After visiting them their relatives wanted .................... .
Ans: to buy a dog of their own
f) When Shaun died even ....................
Ans: the author's father cried
1.2. Find words from the passage which mean the same as the following:
2 Marks
a) urgent request (para 1)
Ans: Please.
b) falling (para 3)
Ans: Collapsing.
Class X English www.vedantu.com 3
2. Read the following passage: 7 Marks
It's Beginning to Bite
In these trying times, when buying ordinary food stuff can burn a hole in your
pockets, comes the news that can actually help us save some hard cash when
we go out to shop the next time. According to a Stanford University study, the
first of its kind in the world, there is no evidence to suggest that there are more
nutritional benefits from expensive organic food than those grown by
conventional methods. The researchers add that there is no difference in
protein and fat content between organic and conventional milk and the
vitamin count is similar in both types. The only benefit is that organic foods
are not contaminated with pesticides but then before you chew on the plate of
organic okra with roti made from organic wheat, they are not 100% pesticide
free either. In India, organic food has been growing at 20-22% and the export
market is valued at Rs. 1,000 crore. Obviously, the study is not good news for
that sector and for people who are big on organic food.
In India, eating organic food is more of a style statement than due to health
worries because the stuff is expensive. But people who can, do indulge in not
only organic vegetables but even organic eggs laid by 'happy hens', who are
allowed to roam around freely whereas 'unhappy hens' are kept in coops. Then
there are companies that have installed music channels in their cowsheds and
the milk from those sheds are sold at a marked up price since it has more
nutritional value because the animals are happy thanks to lilting 24×7 music.
We don't know yet any farmer using music to improve his crop quality, but
then you never know : plants are known to respond to music.
Why such pickiness about food ? These days, the huge number of TV shows
and articles that we see and read on food provide bread and butter for the
specialist. But instead of decoding food, its sources and what has gone into
growing it, isn't it much better to enjoy what's on the plate ?
(Adapted from The Hindustan Times)
I. Complete the statements given below by choosing the correct options from
those that follow:
A. According to a Stanford University study, organic food in relation to
conventional food is________.
1. less nutritious
2. more nutritious
3. very conventional
Class X English www.vedantu.com 4
4. as nutritious
Ans: (4) as nutritious
B. The study will not be welcomed by _________.
1. farmers of conventional food
2. makers of pesticides
3. all sectors
4. exporters of organic food
Ans: (4)exporters of organic food
C. We can save some hard cash by _________.
1. buying organic food
2. not buying organic food
3. going to the shop
4. not buying food with pesticides
Ans: (4) not buying organic food
D. Music channels are installed in the cowshed because the _________.
1. cows then give more milk
2. milk is sold at a higher price
3. milk becomes more pure
4. workers becomes happy
Ans: (2) milk is sold at a higher price
E. In the second paragraph, the author's attitude to the people who eat food
sourced from 'happy' animals is that he _________.
1. is happy with them
2. is unhappy with them
3. is laughing at them
4. wants crops to be grown similarly
Ans: (3) is laughing at them
Class X English www.vedantu.com 5
F. One benefit of organic food is that __________.
1. it is fashionable to eat
2. only rich people can afford it
3. it is less contaminated with pesticides
4. even poor people can afford it
Ans: (3) it is less contaminated with pesticides
G. The word 'contaminated' means ________.
1. adulterated
2. for adults
3. containing
4. not healthy
Ans: (1) adulterated
SECTION-B
3. Imagine you are Gitika. Road the following conversation and write a
suitable message for your mother in 50-60 words: 3 Marks
Ankita : Hi, didi ! I'm Ankita on the line. Is aunty at home?
Gitika : No, she has gone to visit my grandparents. Is there any problem?
Ankita : No, I just wanted to inform her that we have a special havan
tomorrow at 9 a.m. at our place. My mother has specially invited all of you.
Gitika : Okay, Thanks ! I'll inform her and we will definitely come.
Ans: MESSAGE
March 11, 2014
2 p.m.
Dear mom,
When you're at Grandma's place, Ankita called. She asked all of us to a
special havan at their home tomorrow at 9 a.m. on behalf of her mom. I
assured her that we would surely be attending the ceremony.
Class X English www.vedantu.com 6
Gitika
4. Your maid has 4 children ‒ 3 daughters and 1 son. All her daughters work
as maids to earn money, while the son goes to a school and gets everything he
desires. You feel pity for the girls and sad at the way our society treats girls.
Write a diary entry in 50‒60 words. 3 Marks
Ans: Diary Entry
Friday, 7 March 2014
10 a.m.
Dear diary,
I recently found out that our housekeeper has three daughters, who are all
illiterate. Women in our country are in such a bad situation! I feel so sad for
them. It hurts me to live in a nation where women's schooling is deemed
unimportant. I'm not sure if this attitude will ever shift. All I can do is hope
that things work out for the best!
XYZ
5. Last year your school appointed a new T.G.T. who came to teach you
English in class 9. You are very impressed with her. Write a description of
your T.G.T. (English) in about 100 words. You may use the clues given below:
4 Marks
• qualification, college/university
• personality
• attitude towards students
• manner of teaching
• problem solving
• course punctuality
• weak students
Ans: My Favourite Teacher
Class X English www.vedantu.com 7
Ms. Rita Raman, our English teacher, is one of the greatest teachers I have ever
found. She received her B.Ed. degree from the Delhi University and graduated from
Hindu College. She's extremely kind and lovely. Her lessons are really fascinating.
It encourages students to talk and express their ideas rather than providing a boring
lecture. The students are not scared to get close to her. Mrs. Raman's finest thing is
her timeliness. She completes the curriculum on time. Ms. Raman focuses on the
weaker kids and encourages them to study hard. She's a great person, indeed my
favourite teacher.
6. Your city was inundated by the recent rains causing extensive water logging,
traffic snarls and ugly jams. The life of the common man was completely
disrupted. You have decided to write an email to the editor of a local daily
describing the condition of the city. Make suggestions for improvement. As
Renu/Rohit, write this email in 120-150 words. 5 Marks
Ans: From: [email protected]
To: [email protected]
Date: 7 March 2014
Subject: Water logging due to rains in the city
Sir,
I read your news paper frequently and would like to use one of its sections to
draw attention to the recent rains' impact on water trapping and traffic
problems in the city The typical man's life was significantly disrupted as local
transportation systems were interrupted. The city's poor sewage system has
swamped several automobiles. The slope of the roads is incorrect, and the
outflows are insufficient to avoid the inundated highways. Officials must
enhance the sewage system, as well as the highways and overpasses, in order
to improve the situation. A system similar to Delhi's Metro tram must be
implemented first.
It is past time for the relevant officials to take prompt action to improve the
condition. By taking the appropriate precautions, local officials can ensure
that the ordinary man's life is not entirely disrupted by severe rains.
I hope you will publish my message in your prestigious publication in order
to raise the current situation to the notice of the appropriate officials.
Yours sincerely,
Renu
Class X English www.vedantu.com 8
7. You are Amit/Anita, Head Boy/Head Girl of your school. You have been
asked by your principal to deliver a speech in the morning assembly on
'Importance of Punctuality in a student's life'. Write your speech in about 120
words. 5 Marks
Ans: Importance of Punctuality in a Student's Life
Good morning, friends, teachers,and everyone present over here. Today, I’m here
to deliver a speech on the importance of timeliness in the life of a student.
A student must acquire knowledge, master new abilities and ultimately show what
he learns in the different evaluations. It's time to submit assignments and project in
a specific time period. Time is important. Only when the youngster comes to school
and attends his courses at the right time will he learn everything the curriculum has
to offer. He must be kept up to speed on his work and preparedness for the
examinations by regular study and review. He can also take additional classes and
hobbies classes as a competent time manager. In addition, he will surely have time
to enjoy playing and leisure.
We all know that “time and tide wait for none.” Thus we need to be punctual, and
maximise our student life from each minute!
Thank you
SECTION-C
8. Complete the paragraph given below by filling in each of the blanks with
the help of the options that follow: 3 Marks
The butter (a) __________ melted. Onions and vegetables are (b) __________
in it for 3 minutes. Flour and stock are added. It is brought to a boil while (c)
__________ continuously.
(a) (i) be (ii) is (iii) are (iv) being
Ans: (ii) is
(b) (i) fried (ii) fry (iii) fries (iv) frying
Ans: (i) fried
(c) (i) stir (ii) stirring (iii) stirs (iv) stirred
Ans: (ii) stirring
Class X English www.vedantu.com 9
9. Complete the news items given below by choosing the correct options from
those that follow: 3 Marks
a) 15-year-old Ram ____________________ against robbers last night.
i) fights single-handedly
ii) fought single-handed
iii) will fight single-handed
iv) has fought single-handed
Ans: ii) fought single-handed
b) Delhi High Court ____________________ kite flying in urban areas is
illegal.
i) declaring that
ii) has declared that
iii) declares that
iv) will declare that
Ans: (iii) declares that
c) A killer whale thrashed a trainer killing him ____________________ a
shocked crowd.
i) at front of
ii) in view off
iii) at the back of
iv) in front of
Ans: (iv) in front of
10. Rearrange the following words and phrases to form meaningful sentences
3 Marks
a) one of / that of reading / known to / is / greatest / the / pleasures / man
/
Ans: One of the greatest pleasures known to man is that of reading.
Class X English www.vedantu.com 10
b) a rich variety / adventure and wisdom / the / world of books / has / of
/
Ans: The world of books has a rich variety of adventure and wisdom.
c) own / you / book / convenience / can enjoy / a / at your /
Ans: You can enjoy a book at your own convenience.
11. In the passage given below, one word has been omitted in each marked line.
3 Marks
Write the missing word along with the word that comes before and the word
that comes after it. Ensure that the word that forms your answer is underlined.
The first one is done as an example. Kite flying was a popular sport that time
e.g. sport at that and while the girls knitted and sewed we boys climbed over
the roofs enter (a) _______ _______ _______ the competition. We limited
pocket-money (b) _______ _______ _______ and was not enough to buy all the
(c) _______ _______ _______ material needed to make our kites.
Ans: (a) roofs to enter
(b) we had limited
(c) and that was
12. Read the conversation given below and complete the paragraph that
follows. 3 Marks
Jatin : Will you come with me to watch a movie tonight?
David : I would have but I need to finish my English homework.
Jatin : Then I shall ask Ravi.
Jatin asked David if he would (a) _______________. David replied that he
would have but (b)
_______________. Jatin then said (c) _______________.
Ans:
a) go with him to watch a movie that night
b) he needed to finish his English homework
Class X English www.vedantu.com 11
c) that he should ask Ravi
SECTION -D
13. a) Read the extract given below and answer briefly the questions that
follow 3 Marks
He holds him with his skinny hand,
"There was a ship," quoth he.
a. Who does 'He' refer to in the above extract?
Ans: 'He' refers to the mariner in 'The Rime of the Ancient Mariner.'
b. What do we know about the speaker's feelings?
Ans: The speaker is eager to tell his story to the wedding guest.
c. Why is his hand called 'skinny'?
Ans: His hand is called skinny because the mariner is an old man.
b) Read the extract given below and answer briefly the questions that follow:
3 Marks
It all started a month ago. Dad and I had spent the entire Saturday
afternoon at the Computer Fair.
1. Who does 'I' in the extract refer to?
Ans:. 'I' refers to Michael.
2. What started a month ago?
Ans: The whole story of Michael meeting Sebastian started a month
ago
3. What does the speaker have a keen interest in?
Ans: The speaker has a keen interest in computers and computer
games.
Class X English www.vedantu.com 12
c) Read the extract given below and answer briefly the questions that
follow: 3 Marks
Good countrymen, let me depart alone,
And, for my sake, stay here with Antony:
1. Identify the speaker of the above lines.
Ans: The speaker of the above lines is Brutus.
2. When and where were the above lines spoken?
Ans: The lines mentioned above were mentioned when Brutus spoke at
the burial of Caesar. When Brutus was ready to leave the chair, he said
these remarks.
3. Bring out the irony in the above extract.
Ans: It is ironic that Brutus encourages the populace to listen to Antony
for Brutus' sake, because Brutus was involved in Caesar's assassination,
and Antony exacted Caesar's vengeance by uncovering Brutus' scheme.
14. Answer any two of the following questions in 30‒40 words each: 6 Marks
1. Why did John's wife get angry with him? What did she decide to do?
Ans: John's wife became enraged with him because she suspected he was
having an affair with Helen and concealing it from her. After what transpired
at the Ouija Board party, she felt deceived. She decided to abandon John and
return to her grandma. She informed John that she was leaving and that her
lawyer would contact him later.
2. Why did the poet throw the log at the snake?
Ans: When the poet saw the snake was about to disappear as he turned his
back, he struck him with a wood in protest. The poet had been captivated by
the snake's beauty, and he did not want him to return to "that horrid black
hole."
3. How did nature foretell Caesar's death?
Ans: Nature foretold Caesar's demise by showing a number of unpleasant
portents. In the meantime, there was thundering and lightning and Caesar's
wife cried thrice in her dream, "Help ho! Caesar is assassinated!” Caesar's wife
saw a lioness charging through the roads, the dead emerging from their coffins,
Class X English www.vedantu.com 13
armies clashing in the skies, and the Senate bathed in red. Another foreboding
sign was that when the priests examined the intestines of an animal for
sacrifice, as Caesar directed, they found the heart had been removed.
15. Now let it work. Mischief thou art afoot. Take thou what course thou wilt!
Antony seeks justice by getting the mob to kill the conspirators. But to correct
a wrong, one cannot commit another wrong. Write a speech for the school
assembly on ‒ the ends do not justify the means. (120-150 words) 5 Marks
Ans: The Ends do not Justify the Means
All of you have a wonderful morning. Today, I'd like to speak briefly about the
topic 'Ends do not justify the methods.'
We are all so focused on reaching our goals that we rarely stop to consider the ways
by which we will do it. Until and unless the path to achievement is fair and
legitimate, the ultimate result will be unjust. In order to get excellent grades,
students frequently use unscrupulous tactics during exams. But don't you believe
that an honest zero is preferable to a dishonest hundred? It is also possible that if
we made one mistake, we will wind up committing many others in order to correct
the first. I'd want to conclude my speech by reminding all of my friends that we
must be cautious about the methods we use to achieve our goals.
Thank you.
Attempt either Part (A) or Part (B)
PART-A
Answer the following questions in 120‒150 words:
16. How did the air raids disrupt the Dutch public life? 5 Marks
Ans: Anne's story paints a picture of the unanticipated agony inflicted on the Dutch
people as a result of the air assaults. Fearful ladies, shaking houses, raging diseases,
and individuals mercilessly pursued by hunger were all typical events at the period.
People would have to wait in line to buy vegetables and other products, physicians
would be unable to visit their patients, and vehicles would be stolen. Burglaries and
thefts had grown commonplace. Youngsters broke windows and stole whatever
they could get their hands on. People did not dare to leave the house even for five
minutes for fear of returning to discover all of their things gone. Newspapers were
flooded with announcements offering rewards for the recovery of stolen
typewriters, Persian carpets, electronic clocks, textiles, and other items. Electric
Class X English www.vedantu.com 14
clocks on street corners were decommissioned, and public phones were stripped
down to the last wire. Morale was poor among the Dutch, and everyone was going
hungry. Unless it was ersatz coffee, a week's food ration lasted no more than two
days. Men were transported to Germany, children were ill or malnourished, and
everyone wore old clothing and worn-out shoes. Even on the illicit market,
commodities were costly.
PART-B
16. Attempt a character sketch of Anne Frank. 5 Marks
Ans: Anne Frank, the author of The Diary of a Young Girl, is a young woman. She
appears as a fun yet contemplative adolescent forced to live in exceptional and
difficult circumstances. Anne appears to mature from an impudent and rebellious
little girl into an emotionally autonomous young lady throughout the course of The
Diary. Despite having a loving family and many friends, Anne is unable to express
her feelings to any of them. She instead consults her journal for this reason. She has
a strained connection with her mother, whom she perceives to be less than her ideal
mother. She has a close relationship with her father. But, in her opinion, even he
falls short of providing her with the emotional support she need. She has a
rebellious attitude, wishes to be treated like an adult, and wishes to create a name
for herself in the world.
Accounts of Jewish hardship make Anne resentful of her own good fortune.
Nonetheless, she adheres to her principles of honesty, hard effort, and self-
improvement, as well as her belief that humans are fundamentally good.
Or
Attempt a character sketch of Otto Frank, Anne's father. 5 Marks
Ans: Anne's father was Otto Frank. He had an extraordinary mental presence and
a passionate protective sense for his family; he was a soothing and considerate
figure in their life. In The Diary, Anne described her father fondly, referring to him
as the "most charming father." She saw him as the driving force in her life, but he
fell short of the ideal she had envisioned for him. He did, however, take a genuine
interest in his daughters' lives and schooling, serving as a rock of support for them
and offering an example of being normal and cheerful in the face of exceptional
circumstances. Otto Frank was a thrifty man who always placed the needs of others
first. He was a level-headed man who handled difficult issues with tact and
tolerance in the secret annex while being courteous to everyone around him,
regardless of age.
Class X English www.vedantu.com 15
Attempt either Part (A) or Part (B)
PART-A
Answer the following questions in 120‒150 words:
16. Describe the progress made by Helen Keller during the two years she spent
at Wright-Humason School for the Deaf in New York city. 5 Marks
Ans: Helen's development in lip-reading and speaking at the Wright-Humason
School for the Deaf in New York City fell well short of her own and her teachers'
expectations. Helen aspired to talk like other people, and her professors felt she
could do it, but she fell short of her objective. She worked hard and honestly, but
Helen speculated that she had probably set her sights too high, and so
disappointment was unavoidable. She still saw arithmetic as a stumbling block and
relied on guessing. When she wasn't guessing answers, she would leap to
conclusions, which exacerbated her problems more than they should have. Despite
these setbacks, she followed her other courses with zeal and came to love studying
physical geography. It delighted her so much that she considered her two years in
New York to be one of true delights.
PART-B
17. Attempt a character sketch of Mr. Gilman as a teacher. 5 Marks
Ans. Mr. Gilman oversaw the Cambridge School for Young Ladies. He was the
only instructor, aside from Frau Grote, who had mastered the finger alphabet to
help Helen with her academics. Mr. Gilman taught her English literature for a
portion of the year. Mr. Gilman's broad perspectives on history and literature, as
well as his astute explanations, made Helen's work easier and more enjoyable. Mr.
Gilman used the manual alphabet to read all of the documents to her. He sat next to
her, reading the exam papers sentence by sentence. He explained what she had
written to her so she could make the required modifications. Mr. Gilman was the
one who provided Helen, candidate No.233's written work to the examiners along
with the certificate indicating she had written the papers. He did, however, feel
Helen was overworked, notwithstanding Miss Sullivan's opinion. Helen's mother
eventually dropped her from school owing to a disagreement between the two
teachers. Mr. Gilman had assisted Helen, but he had misjudged her ability to work
hard.
Or
It was her determination that helped Helen Keller get admission to Radcliffe
College. Comment. 5 Marks
Class X English www.vedantu.com 16
Ans. The path to admission to Radcliffe College was riddled with impassable
obstacles, but Helen's optimism and resolve to achieve at whatever cost aided in
smoothing the way. She was met with unexpected obstacles ranging from not
having several books stamped in time to begin courses to a lack of necessary gear
for parts of her studies to issues with special education in the classroom. Miss
Sullivan, too, seemed to fall short in providing her with all of the materials she
needed for her preparation. Every subject, she adds, had its challenges, and she
would occasionally lose her bravery and expose her sentiments. But the
impediments began to fade, and she set forth with fresh vigour. Despite the fact that
her work was extremely slow and she had to read the examples over and again, she
blames no one for the difficulties that the tests placed in her path. She was relieved
to know that she had triumphed over all of her challenges.
Class X English www.vedantu.com 17
CBSE Class 10
English
Previous Year Question Paper 2014
Series: HRS/1 Code no. 1/1/1
● Please check that this question paper contains 12 printed pages.
● Code number given on the right hand side of the question paper should be
written on the title page of the answer-book by the candidate.
● Please check that this question paper contains 17 questions.
● Please write down the Serial Number of the question before attempting
it.
● 15 minutes time has been allotted to read this question paper. The question
paper will be distributed at 10.15 a.m. From 10.15 a.m. to 10.30 a.m., the
students will read the question paper only and will not write any answer on
the answer script during this period
SUMMATIVE ASSESSMENT - ll
ENGLISH (Communicative)
Time Allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 80
General Instructions:
1. The question paper is divided into four sections.
Section A- Reading 15 Marks
Section B- Writing 20 Marks
Section C-Grammar 15 Marks
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Section D- Literature + Value Based Question 25+5 Marks
2. All questions are compulsory
3. You may attempt any section at a time.
4. All questions of that particular section must be attempted in the correct order.
SECTION - A
(Reading) 15 Marks
1. Read the passage given below: 8 Marks
The Perfect Dog
1. In the summer of 1967, when I was 10 years old, my father caved into my
persistent pleas and took me to get my own dog. Together we drove in the
family station wagon far into the Michigan countryside to a farm run by
a rough-hewn woman and her ancient mother. The farm produced just
one commodity-dog. Dogs of every imaginable size and shape and age and
temperament. They had only two things in common: each was a mongrel
of unknown and distinct ancestry, and each was free to a good home.
2. I quickly decided the older dogs were somebody else's charity case. I
immediately raced to the puppy cage, You want to pick one that's not
timid," my father coached. "Try rattling the cage and see which ones
aren't afraid."
3. I grabbed the chain-link and yanked on it with a loud clang. The dozen
or so puppies reeled backward, collapsing on top of one another in a
squiggling heap of fur. Just one remained. He was gold with a white blaze
on his chest, and he charged at the gate, yapping fearlessly. He jumped
up and excitedly licked my fingers through the fencing It was love at first
sight.
4. I brought him home in a cardboard box and named him Shaun. He was
one of those dogs that gives dogs a good name. He effortlessly mastered
every command 1 taught him and was naturally well behaved. I could
drop a crust on the floor and he would not touch it until I gave the okay.
Class X English www.vedantu.com 11
5. Relatives would visit for the weekend and returned home determined. to
buy a dog of their own, so impressed were they with Shaun-or "Saint
Shaun, as I came to call him. Born with the curse of an uncertain lineage,
he was one of the tens of thousands of unwanted dogs in America. Yet by
some stroke of almost providential good fortune, he became wanted. He
came into my life and I into his-and in the process, he gave me the
childhood every kid deserves.
6. The love affair lasted fourteen years, and by the time he died I was no
longer the little boy who had brought him along on that summer day. I
was a man, out of college and working across the state in my first real
job. Saint Shaun had stayed behind when I moved on. It was where he
belonged. My parents, by then retired, called to break the news to me.
My mother would later tell me, “In fifty years of marriage, I've only seen
your father cry twice. The first time was when we lost Mary Ann"- my
sister, who stillborn. "The second time was the day Shaun died."
7. Saint Shaun of my childhood. He was a perfect dog. At least that's how I
will always remember him. It was Shaun who set the standard by which
I would judge all other dogs to come.
(Marley and Me by John Grogan)
1.1 Complete the following statements: 6 Marks
(a) The dog firm was run by……… .
Ans: a rough-hewn woman and her ancient mother.
(b) The author did not want an old dog because………… .
Ans: older dogs were somebody else's charity case.
(c) He fell in love with the dog the moment the latter………. .
Ans: jumped up and excitedly licked the author's fingers through the fencing.
(d) Shaun became so obedient that he……….. until the author allowed him.
Ans: would not touch the crust dropped on the floor.
(e) After visiting them their relatives wanted ....….… .
Ans: to buy a dog of their own.
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(f) When Shaun died even………. .
Ans: the author's father cried.
1.2 Find words from the passage which mean the same as the following:
2 Marks
(a) urgent request (para 1)
Ans: please
(b) falling (para 3)
Ans: collapsing
2. Read the following passage: 7 Marks
It's Beginning to Bite!
In these trying times, when buying ordinary food stuff can burn a hole in your
pockets, comes the news that can actually Help us save some hind cash when we
go out to shop the next time. According to Stanford University study, the first
of its kind in the world, there is no evidence to suggest that there are more
nutritional benefits from expensive organic food than those grown by
conventional methods. The researchers add that there is no difference in
protein and fat content between organic and conventional milk and the vitamin
count is similar in both types The only benefit is that i organic foods are not
contaminated with pesticides but then before you chew on that plate of organic
okra wit made from organic wheat, they are not 100% pesticide free either In
India, organic food has been growing at 20-22% and the export market is
valued at Rs. 1,000 crore. Obviously, the study is not good news for that sector
and for people who are big on organic food.
In India, eating organic food is more of a style statement than due to health
worries because the stuff is expensive. But people who can, do indulge in not
only organic vegetables but even organic eggs laid by 'happy hens", who are
allowed to roam around freely whereas 'unhappy hens' are kept in coops. Then
there are companies that have installed music channels in their bowsheds and
the milk from those sheds are sold at a marked up price since it has more
nutritional value because the animals are happy thanks to lilting 24×7 music.
We don't know yet any farmer using music to improve his crop quality, but
then you never know plants are known to respond to music.
Class X English www.vedantu.com 11
Why such pickiness about food? These days, the huge number of TV shows and
articles that we see and read on food provide bread and butter for the specialist.
But instead of decoding food, its sources and what has gone into growing it, isn't
it much better to enjoy what's on the plate?
(Adapted from The Hindustan Times)
(a) According to a Stanford University study, organic food in relation to
conventional food is
(i) less nutritious
(ii) more nutritious
(iii) very conventional
(iv) as nutritious
Ans: Option (iv) as nutritious
(b) The study will not be welcomed by
(i) farmers of conventional food
(ii) makers of pesticides
(iii) all sectors
(iv) exporters of organic food
Ans: Option (iv) exporters of organic food
(c) We can save some hard cash by
(i) buying organic food
(ii) not buying organic food
(iii) going to the shop
(iv) not buying food with pesticides
Ans: Option (ii) not buying organic food
(d) Music channels are installed in the cowshed because the
(i) cows then give more milk
Class X English www.vedantu.com 11
(ii) milk is sold at a higher price
(iii) milk becomes more pure
(iv) workers become happy
Ans: Option (ii) milk is sold at a higher price
(e) In the second paragraph, the author's attitude to the people who eat food
sourced from 'happy animals is that he
(i) is happy with them
(ii) is unhappy with them
(iii) is laughing at them
(iv) wants crops to be grown similarly
Ans: Option (iii) is laughing at them
(f) One benefit of organic food is that
(i) it is fashionable to eat
(ii) only rich people can afford it
(iii) it is less contaminated with pesticides
(iv) even poor people can afford it .
Ans: Option (iii) it is less contaminated with pesticides
(g) The word 'contaminated' means
(i) adulterated
(ii) for adults
(iii) containing
(iv)not healthy
Ans: Option (i) adulterated
SECTION - B
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(Writing) 20 Marks
3. You are Geet / Geeta, Head Boy / Head Girl, Vanskriti School, Shimla. Your
school is going to organise a trip to Leh-Ladakh during the summer vacation.
Write a notice in 50-60 words for the school notice board giving the details of
the trip. Imagine all the details. 3 Marks
Ans: Notice Writing
Vanskriti School, Shimla
Notice
School Trip to Shimla
7 March 2014
The school has organised a trip to Leh Ladakh for classes 6 to 12. The duration of
the trip will be for 1 month, starting from 1 June 2014 to 30 June 2014. Five
teachers will accompany the students. Interested students are required to submit
an amount of Rs 6000 to cover the cost of the transport, boarding, lodging and
food. They can give their names along with the mentioned amount of money to the
undersigned by 30 May 2014.
Geet
Head Boy
4. You are Sumit, a student of class X. Your father has been transferred to
another city resulting in a change of school for you. You have been attending
your new school for a week now. Write a diary entry in 50-60 words on your
thoughts and feelings about your old school and new school. 3 Marks
Ans: Diary Writing
Sunday, 12 November 2014
11 p.m
Dear Diary,
Class X English www.vedantu.com 11
Today was the first day at my new school that I felt at ease and content.
I was really dissatisfied after moving to a new location and a new school in the
middle of the school year. I was very homesick for my former school, the familiar
professors, and my classmates. However, when I stumbled down the steps at school
today, my new classmates went out of their way to assist me. They brought me to
the emergency hospital, completed my written work, and fed me because I had
injured my right hand. I had the impression of being encircled by well-wishers and
friends.
Now I am confident that I will enjoy my time at the new school.
Sumit
5. Given below are notes on the life of Ustad Rahi Khan. Write a biographical
sketch of his in about 100 words: 4 Marks
Born-March 21, 1926 in Sitapur, U.P.
His ancestors-famous musicians
At the age six-moved to Varanasi
Received training-under Ustad Amir Ali Khan a sitar player
Started performing at the age of 14
Performed in India and abroad
Awarded Padam Shri in 1967
Established a music school at Varansi
Died-August 21", 2004
One of the best examples of Hindu-Muslim Unity.
Ans: Ustad Rahi Khan was born in Sitapur, Uttar Pradesh, on March 21, 1926. His
forefathers were well-known musicians. At the age of six, he went to Varanasi. Ustad
Amir Ali Khan, a legendary sitar musician, was his mentor. He began performing
when he was fourteen years old. He has given several performances in India and
overseas. In 1967, he received the Padam Shri award. In Varanasi, he founded a
music school. On August 21, 2004, he passed away. His life is a shining example of
Hindu–Muslim harmony.
Class X English www.vedantu.com 11
6. You are Ankita. You recently attended a seminar on Effective Listening Skills
and found it to be of great value. Write an email to your friend, Anita 120-150
words, giving details of the seminar and sharing what you learnt in the seminar.
You can use the points given below: 5 Marks
● Venue and participants
● Listening is as important as speaking Listening-a tool in good
communication
● Builds concentration
● Important for a student
Ans: Email
From: [email protected]
To: [email protected]
Date: 28th March 2014
Subject : Seminar on Effective Learning skills
I hope this email finds you in excellent wellbeing. I just attended a lecture on
'Effective Learning Skills,' and I'd like to tell you about it.
This weekend, our school had organised a lecture. For the first time, I had such an
experience, and it was fantastic. Students from the ninth grade were permitted to
attend the seminar. The lecture went into great length regarding the importance of
listening in the life of a student.
It emphasised the importance of listening in developing communication skills. We,
the pupils, pay close attention to what is being said. Now I realise that listening is
just as essential as speaking. Communication necessitates the ability to listen. It not
only increases our attention and memory, but it also improves our learning capacity.
Building communication skills is unavoidable.
When I meet you, I'll surely tell you more about it. I am confident that you would
have thoroughly loved the seminar as much as I did. For the time being, I've revealed
enough. Take care.
Love,
Class X English www.vedantu.com 11
Ankita.
7. Write an article in about 120 words on "River pollution. You may use the
clues given below: 5 Marks
● rivers, biggest source of water
● victims of pollution
● industrial waste
● city waste drained into them
● religious ceremonies-idol immersion
● garlands and flowers.
● ashes after cremation poured into rivers
Ans: River Pollution
By Rahul
The largest source of freshwater is rivers. The reality that rivers are our only source
of survival is undeniable. However, it is really unfortunate that virtually all rivers
are becoming progressively polluted, and therefore ruined, as a result of our lack of
knowledge and accountability.
The untreated sewage and garbage from industries, as well as religious activities, is
a major source of river pollution. Idol immersion and religious garbage disposal are
also dumped into rivers, contaminating them.
We are completely oblivious to the reality that river pollution is a fatal menace to
both humans and the environment.
The ongoing contamination of rivers has already disrupted the natural equilibrium,
resulting in biodiversity loss. Without a doubt, it is critical to halt river pollution as
soon as possible in order to ensure the health of all living things on the planet. The
government should take up the work right away and take the necessary steps to
address the issue.
SECTION – C
Class X English www.vedantu.com 11
(Grammar) 15 Marks
8. Complete the paragraph given below by filling in each of the blanks with one
word only with the help of options that follow: 3 Marks
While peeling the sweat lime and oranges (a)………. careful so that the
segments are not mashed. The lettuce leaves are (b)………. pieces. They are
kept in içe-cold water (c)……….. ten minutes
(a) (i) was (ii) is (iii) be (iv) will
(b) (i) broken (ii) break (iii) breaks (iv) broke
(c) (i) with (ii) for (iii) on (iv) during
Ans.
(a) (iii) be
(b) (i) broken
(c) (ii) for
9. Complete the paragraph given below by filling in the blanks with the help of
option that follows: 3 Marks
The rapid changes that India (a)…………… over the last few decades have been
welcomed by (b)………………… .It is an enthusiasm which (c)…… .
(a)
I. is enduring
II. was endure
III. has been enduring
IV. will endure
Ans. (iii) has been enduring
(b)
I. most of us
Class X English www.vedantu.com 11
II. many of them
III. few of people
IV. the lot of people
Ans: (i) most of us
(c)
I. should be kept alive
II. have been kept alive
III. will be keeping alive
IV. will be enlivened
Ans: (i) should be kept alive
10. Rearrange the following words / phrases to form meaningful sentences.
3 Marks
(a) more than / are child workers/ the Indian population / five per cent of/
Ans: More than five percent of the Indian population are child workers.
(b) engaged in agriculture/tens of thousands / are chiefly/
Ans: Tens of thousands are chiefly engaged in agriculture.
(c) work/in urban areas/many of industries/in a variety/
Ans: Many work in a variety of industries in urban areas.
11. In the passage given below there is an error in each line. Write the error
and the correction in your answer sheet. 3 Marks
Statements Error Correction
You recently ask me to submit a short e.g. ask asked
report
Class X English www.vedantu.com 11
in the progress made so far in the (a)…….. ………..
Literacy Project. Initially adults were (b)…….. ………..
reluctance
to learn. Gradually they overcome their (c)…… ………..
inhibitions.
Ans:
Statements Error Correction
You recently ask me to submit a short e.g. ask asked
report
in the progress made so far in the (a) in on
Literacy Project. Initially adults were
reluctance (b) reluctance reluctant
to learn. Gradually they overcome their
inhibitions. (c) overcome overcame
12. Read the conversation given below and complete the paragraph that
follows: 3 Marks
Jatin: Could you lend me your book, David?
David: I would have but I need to finish my revision for class test tomorrow.
Jatin: Give me your notes then.
Jatin asked David if he could (a)………………… David replied that he would
have but he needed to (b)………… . Jatin then asked (c)……………… .
Ans:
(a) lend him his book
(b) finish his revision for class test the next day
Class X English www.vedantu.com 11
(c) for his notes
SECTION - D
Literature + Value Based Question 25+5=30 Marks
13. (A) Read the extract given below and answer briefly the questions that
follow: 3 Marks
“…...its sculptor well those passion
Which yet survive, stamped these lifeless things,
The hand that mocked them and the heart that fed
a. What do "lifeless things" refer to ?
Ans: The fractured portion of Ozymandias' statue is referred to as the "lifeless
creature" in the preceding line.
b. How do we know that he was a good sculptor?
Ans: We know he is a great sculptor since he grasped Ozymandias' sentiments and
represented them perfectly in the statue.
c. How did the heart feed the passions?
Ans: Ozmandias' heart awakened his desire via the sculpture on his face expressions
of the icy command sneer, the frown, and wrinkled lip, to increase his scary aspect,
amplify the magnificent look, and command respect.
(B) Read the extract given below and answer briefly the questions that follow:
3 Marks
I hadn't the shade of an idea, but at the time that didn't worry me in the least.
You see, I had often been like that before......."
a. Who is 'T? What did he not have an idea about?
Ans: In the excerpt, I am the narrator, John Hallock. He had no idea what the ghost
storey was that his employer had requested him to create.
b. Why was he not worried?
Class X English www.vedantu.com 11
Ans: He was unconcerned since he has been in the same situation previously.
c. What had actually happened earlier to make things right for him?
Ans: Earlier ghosts aided John for writing a good ghost, which eventually made
everything good for him.
14.Answer any two of the following in 30-40 words each 3×2=6 Marks
(a) How did Sebastian Shultz communicate with Michael? What did he say in
his last message?
Ans: Sebastian Shultz connected with Michael by using Michael's printer to deliver
messages. Sebastian begged Michael in his final message if he might make one last
attempt to rescue him. He agreed with Michael that the helicopter was a good idea.
He also recommended that Michael try playing 'War Zone,' and that if it didn't work,
he wouldn't bother Michael again.
(b) What is the dilemma that the poet faces when he sees the snake?
Ans: On seeing the snake, his voice of education and civilisation told him that yellow
snakes are poisonous. But he shaped his thought process and treated him like a guest
and a king in exile. However, as the snake began to return, his rational thinking led
him to kill the serpent. As a result, he struck the snake with a plank of wood.
(c) Why did Calpurnia try to stop Caesar from going to the senate"
Ans: Karpenia was threatened, unfortunately. So she tried to stop Caesar from going
to the Senate, described her terrible dream to Caesar, and told him they pointed to
an ominous omen.
15. "Not that le Caesar less, but I loved Rome more.” 5 Marks
Brutus says this as he justifies to the Romans why Caesar was assassinated by
them. Do you agree with Brutus? Justify your answer in 120-150 words by
giving examples from the play. What values does Brutus display as he says this
line to the Romans?
Ans: Brutus addressed the Romans, pleading for them to trust in his honourable
decision. He persisted in loving Caesar sincerely, but his love for Rome was
Class X English www.vedantu.com 11
considerably stronger than his love for Caesar. As a result, he revolted against his
close buddy Caesar. He liked Caesar's numerous advantages but eventually
condemned his ambitious personality. This, he claimed, was the primary motive for
his involvement in the murder. In his speech, Antonio outperformed Brutus. He is
skilled at managing crowds in order to reveal the emptiness of Brutus' scheme. He
began his lecture by recalling people's terrible acts after death. However, the good
actions they performed are frequently buried with them.
Caesar is an excellent illustration of this contradiction. He asserted that Brutus was
a fine man, and that if his allegation against Caesar was true, Caesar would dig his
own grave. Then he questioned Brutus' argument that if Caesar was truly ambitious,
he would weep with the poor. He also voted no three times. Isn't he the Emperor if
he's ambitious? It also demonstrated their propensity to agitate the audience.
Anthony effectively countered Brutus' case using his superb rhetorical abilities.
Attempt either Part (A) or Part (B)
Part - A
16. Describe in 120-150 words Margot and Anne's relationship with their
parents. 5 Marks
Ans. Despite the fact that they still adored their parents, Margot and Anne had grown
bored of them. They desired to make their own decisions without the supervision of
their parents. Their parents weren't as rigorous and allowed them to read whatever
they wanted, but Margot and Anne were weary of hearing their remarks all day. The
traditional practise of giving them tiny kisses at various hours of the day was also
extremely exhausting for these almost-adult girls. The charming nicknames
appeared to be influenced. They would have given everything to get a break from
their parents. Margot and Anne did not tell their parents about their experiences
because they believed they would be misunderstood. These young ladies were
developing their own set of beliefs, ideas, and principles. As a result, they desired
that their parents recognise their maturity and independence of spirit by treating them
as young adults rather than children.
17. Write a character sketch of Mrs. Van Dann in 120-150 words. 5 Marks
Ans: Mr. Van Daan is one of the main people that seek refuge in Amsterdam's
hidden annexe. He arrives at the annexe to join the Franks family. In Amsterdam, he
Class X English www.vedantu.com 11
worked as a herbalist for Mr. Otto Frank. Van Daan's full name is Hermann Van
Pets, but in her journal, Anne Frank refers to him as Mr. Van Daan. Anne has a more
favourable impression of Mr. Van Daan than she does of his wife, Mrs. Van Daan.
She regards him as bright, a man with strong opinions, and pragmatic. Van Daan's
character does have a fault, according to Anne. He irritates her because he is
conceited. He has a volatile personality. He has the audacity to express himself
honestly. He doesn't care whether his actions generate squabbles or tensions. Mr.
Van Daan does not have a good connection with his wife. He considers her to be
petty and unpleasant. They brawl regularly and openly. Mr. Van Daan used to work
in the meat, sausage, and spice industry. Mr. Van Daan decided to prepare bratwurst
and sausages in the hidden annexe. The kitchen was in a state of disarray. Mr. Van
Daan, dressed in his wife's apron, was chopping meat.
With his bloodied hands, crimson cheeks, and stained apron, he resembled a true
butcher. Mr. Van Daan is up to date on the political situation in Europe. He, like
everyone else, expected the war to finish soon. The conclusion of the war and Hitler's
defeat would bring the end of Jewish persecution, torture, and death. Mr. Van Daan
is caught along with the other members in the hidden annexe and dies in the
Auschwitz death chambers in November 1944.
Or
Attempt a character sketch of Peter in 120-150 word
Ans: Peter van Daan was the van Daans' adolescent son, whose true name was Peter
van Pels. Anne first saw Peter as arrogant, sluggish, and too sensitive, but they
subsequently became great friends. Peter was a shy, timid, and honest young man
who was kind to Anne. During their stay at the annexe, Anne and Peter formed a
romantic affinity, although he did not publicly express his feelings for her. He
enjoyed reading novels, especially those intended for adults. He once hid in the loft
to read one of these books and became so absorbed in it that he forgot to come down
for supper. His father walked up to him and smacked him hard when he discovered
him reading the book. That night, he was refused food, which he hated..He disliked
his parents' authority, but because he was bashful, he never told them. He became
emotionally estranged from them. Later on, he indicated a desire to become a
criminal. Anne was not a fan of it. He wanted to be successful, but he didn't want to
work hard for it, she realised. He was compelled to participate in the 'death march,'
and perished on May 5, 1945.
Class X English www.vedantu.com 11
PART – B
16. How did Helen Keller enjoy her visit to the world fair (120-150 words).
5 Marks
Ans: Helen and Miss Sullivan went to the World Fair with Dr. Alexander Graham
Bell in the summer of 1893. Helen remembers those wonderful days when many of
her childlike fantasies became lovely reality. Every day, Helen travelled across the
world in her mind, seeing numerous wonders from the farthest reaches of the globe,
which included marvels of innovation, treasures of industry and talent, and all the
activities of human existence, which literally went beneath Helen's finger tips. Mr.
Higinbotham, President of the World Fair, gave her permission to touch the exhibits,
and Helen eagerly took in the splendours of the Fair with her fingertips. Everything
captivated her because it felt so real, and she assumed they were angel visions
captured and bound in earthly forms by the artist.
17. Attempt in 120-150 words a character sketch of Miss Sullivan. 5 Marks
Ans: Anne Sullivan was Helen Keller's lifelong teacher and companion. Helen's life
was transformed by her arrival, and the world became more meaningful and full of
things vibrating with life for Helen. Miss Sullivan was highly sensitive, and as a
result, she felt an unexplainable compassion with Helen's joys and desires. She
devised the most engaging and creative methods of tutoring Helen. Miss Sullivan's
sensitivity, intelligence, and kind personality made Helen's first few years of
education the most happy and lovely of her life. She repeatedly gave Helen the
much-needed bravery and hope, and it was only because of her unwavering patience
and tenacity that Helen was able to emerge from her dark and filthy world.
Or
What role did Mr. Gilman play in Helen Keller's life? (120-150 words)
Ans: Mr. Gilman was the president of Radcliffe College, where Helen earned her
bachelor's degree. He was Helen's sole instructor who had mastered the finger
language to help her with her academics. Mr. Gilman taught her English literature
for a portion of the year. Mr. Gilman's wide knowledge of history and literature, as
well as his astute explanations, made Helen's job easier and more convenient. He
read all of the documents to her using the manual alphabet. He sat beside her and
read the exam papers aloud to her, phrase by sentence. He explained what she had
written to her so she could make the necessary modifications. He submitted her
written work to the examiners along with a certificate stating that Helen had written
Class X English www.vedantu.com 11
the papers herself. But he believed Helen was overworked, even though Miss
Sullivan did not. Helen's mother eventually pulled her from school owing to a
disagreement between him and Miss Sullivan. Mr. Gilman did assist Helen, but he
misjudged her ability to work hard.
Class X English www.vedantu.com 11
CBSE Class X
English (Communicative)
Previous Year Question Paper 2015
Series: RLH/1 Set- I
Code no. 1/1/1
● Please check that this question paper contains 11 printed pages.
● Code number gives on the right hand side of the question paper should
be written on the title page of the answer-book by the candidate.
● Please check that this question paper contains 11 questions.
● Please write down the serial Number of the questions before
attempting it.
● 15 minutes time has been allotted to read this question paper.The
question paper will be distributed at 10:15 a.m. From 10:15 a.m. to 10:30
a.m., the students will read the question paper only and will not write
any answer on the answer-book during this period.
SUMMATIVE ASSESSMENT-II
ENGLISH (Communicative)
Time Allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 70
General Instructions:
I. The question paper is divided into three sections:
Section A: Reading 20 Marks
Section B: Writing & Grammar 25 Marks
Section C: Literature 25 Marks
Class X English Communicative www.vedantu.com 1
II. All questions are compulsory.
III. You may attempt any section at a time.
IV. All questions of that particular section must be attempted correct order.
SECTION-A
(Reading) 20 Marks
1. Read the passage given below: 8 Marks
1) The hopping kangaroo is a familiar sight in every snapshot relating to
Australia. Members of the kangaroo family can be as small as a rat or
as big as a man. Kangaroos are found mainly in Australia, Tasmania
and New Guinea. Kangaroos which are big footed marsupials that
evolved in Australia use their short front legs like arms. The mansized
kangaroos of Australia are capable of speeding up to 88 km/hr for
short distances, their means of locomotion being their powerful hind
legs, which carry them over the ground in jumps of 9 m or more at a
time.
2) Weighing around 70 kg they have an average lifespan of around six to
eight years and a maximum lifetime of 20 years. When bothered by
predators kangaroos often head for the water, standing submerged to
the chest, and attempting to drown the attacker by holding him under
water. Another defensive technique is to get their back to a tree and
kick at their adversary with their clawed hind feet, sometimes with
sufficient force to kill a man. Normally shy animals, they alert other
kangaroos to danger by beating on the ground with their hind feet.
This loud alarm signal carries over a long distance.
3) The tail is important for kangaroos. It holds them in balance and
supports them when they sit or fight against other kangaroos. The
kangaroo uses its short legs as arms. With them it scratches itself,
cleans its fur and holds branches when it eats leaves. Kangaroos are
marsupials and the females carry newborns in a pouch in front of their
abdomens. The babies are born small and climb up into the safety of
the pouch. There for the next 225 days or so, they eat, sleep and grow.
Class X English Communicative www.vedantu.com 2
Once they reach full development they leave the pouch. A young
kangaroo that leaves the pouch is called a 'joey'. To keep from getting
too hot the kangaroos take naps in the afternoon and do most of their
grazing at night. But the best stay-cool secret of these creatures is the
spit bath! Kangaroos drool and lick saliva all over their faces and
bodies to cool down.
1.1 On the basis of your reading of the above passage, complete the lost any
following sentences with appropriate words / phrases. 8 Marks
a) When followed by predators kangaroos submerge ________ and
_____________________.
Ans: themselves in water up to the chest; attempt to drown the attacker by
holding him under water.
b) The powerful hind legs help kangaroos to ___________________.
Ans: carry them across the ground/ jump over 9 metres at a time.
c) Kangaroos are mainly found in Australia and are _____________.
Ans: also found in Tasmania and New Guinea / capable of short-distance
speeds of up to 88 km/h.
d) They use their front legs to ______________________.
Ans: scratching themselves, cleaning their fur, and holding branches while
eating leaves are all things they do.
e) Kangaroos warn others of danger by ________________.
Ans: their hind feet were pounding on the earth.
f) The secret of kangaroos to stay cool is ________________.
Ans: spit bath / drool and lick saliva all over their faces and bodies / snooze
in the afternoon and perform most of their grazing at night.
g) They use their tails to_______________________________.
Ans: when they sit or battle with the other kangaroos, they balance and
support themselves.
h) Before becoming ‘joeys’ the young ones stay in the ___________ and
___________________.
Ans: mother’s pouch; eat, sleep and grow there for the next 225 days.
Class X English Communicative www.vedantu.com 3
2. Read the passage given below: 12 Marks
1) It is rare to find someone with a good technical and communication
skills. You can get far ahead of your colleagues if you combine the two
early in your career. People will judge, evaluate, promote or block you
based on your communication skills. Since habits form by repeating
both good and bad forms of communication, learn to observe great
communicators and adopt their styles and traits – in written and
verbal forms. The art of listening and learning from each and every
interaction, is another secret recipe. Develop the subconscious habit
of listening to yourself as you speak and know when to pause.
2) Learning what not to say is probably more important than learning
what to say. As your career develops, you will realize that the wise
speak less. Speak when you have value to add, else refrain. Poorly
constructed e-mails with grammatical errors are acceptable between
friends, but they should be seriously avoided while communicating
formally with your seniors. Avoid any communication in an
emotional state when you might say things you will regret later. One
unnecessary word uttered at the wrong time or place can ruin a
relationship, career or even your life. Such is the power of words. If
such a thing happens, you should immediately apologise, else it may
haunt you for life.
3) Another problem to overcome is speaking too fast. Since our minds
are working faster than our speech, we are inclined to speak fast. This
does not necessarily mean that the person hearing it will get it any
faster. On the contrary, it is always the reverse. So slow down, think
before you speak. “When I get ready to speak to people,” Abraham
Lincoln said, “I spend two-thirds of the time thinking what they want
to hear and one-third thinking what I want to say.” Adding humour
and wit is also essential. But realize that not all jokes are funny and
observe certain boundaries. Never say anything that could offend.
Remember you are not a comedian who must offend as many people
as you can to be witty.
2.1 Answer the following questions briefly. 8 Marks
a. Why is it necessary to have good communication skills?
Class X English Communicative www.vedantu.com 4
Ans: It is essential to have good communication skills since they enable
one to communicate with society and deliver content or messages in a
clear and understandable manner.
b. How can communication skills be developed?
Ans: It primarily necessitates the acquisition of four skills: reading,
writing, speaking, and listening. Observing and adopting the techniques
and features of successful communicators can help you improve your
communication abilities.
c. What according to the writer should be avoided while
communicating?
Ans: He emphasises the importance of being conscious of what one is
saying while talking. Using needless words at the wrong time or place can
alter the meaning of a sentence and even jeopardise a healthy connection.
d. Why should you be careful when you tend to be humorous?
Ans. One should be careful while being humorous because you don't want
to upset anyone who is listening to you.
2.2 Choose the most appropriate meanings of the given words from the
option provided. 4 Marks
a. evaluate
(i) estimate (ii) assume (iii) punish (iv) evolve
Ans. (i) estimate
b. trait
(i) treaty (ii) trail (iii) quality (iv) liberty
Ans. (iii) quality
c. utter
(i) flatter (ii)speak (iii) rot (iv) unique
Ans. (ii) trouble
d. haunt
(i) hunt (ii) chant (iii) trouble (iv) avoid
Ans. (iii) trouble
Class X English Communicative www.vedantu.com 5
SECTION-B
(Writing & Grammar) 25 Marks
3. The tourism industry can bring valuable income to the country. Using your
ideas along with ideas from the MCB unit, Travel and Tourism, write a letter to
the editor of a popular daily on how the government and the public can boost
the development of this industry. Write the letter in 100-120 words. You are
Rama/Ram, 4 Rani Road, Ranchi. 5 Marks
Ans: Letter writing
4,
Rani Road
Ranchi
03 July 2021
The Editor
The Times of India
Delhi
Subject: How to boost the tourism industry
Sir
For tourism to succeed, it, like any other industry, must please its clients. The visitors
are the clients in tourism. In order to attract clients, the sector must address a few
basic issues. The first is the issue of safety. When tourists travel to a new location,
they must feel safe. They should not be concerned about being duped or robbed. Then
there's the transportation system. It must be simple, comfy, and affordable. The
location must also be tidy and have appealing surroundings. The people's hospitality
and friendly behaviour toward tourists can go a long way toward attracting them back
to the area. To do this, both the government and the general population must fulfil
their duties faithfully and diligently.
Your truly
Rama
Or
The youth of different states should be given a chance to meet one another
through national meets and other programmes. Taking ideas from the MCB
Class X English Communicative www.vedantu.com 6
unit, National Integration and your own ideas write an article in 100-120 words
on the topic, Youth and National Integration. You are Ram/Rama.
Ans: Youth and National Integration
By RAMA
Lack of youth integration is one of the key reasons India remains a developing
country. National integration not only improves communication but also creates
opportunities for information exchange. Unwittingly, young people from
different sections of the country are not united due to a variety of elements such
as climate, tradition, and language. We must remember that "united we stand,
divided we fall." As a result, it is critical that all of the country's youth band
together to support national growth. Despite all of these known and unknown
causes, we must remain unified, and the driving force behind this is the sense of
nationalism. It is not only the government's job; it is the obligation of each and
every one of us. No matter where we travel in the world, the only sentence we
must say is "I am an Indian."
We never refer to Dr. Abdul Kalam as a Tamilnadu native; instead, we refer to
him as an Indian. Swami Vivekananda was born in Kolkata, but he was born in
India. Every individual must cultivate a sense of belonging. Our country's kids
make up more than 60% of the population. If they all come together, a new
chapter in history will be written.
4. Write a short story in 150-200 words on the basis of the hints provided.
10 Marks
Ratan was in Goa on a school trip. The teacher asked everyone to play
and remain on the seashore…………..
Ans: Short Story
Ratan was on a school vacation to Goa. Everyone was asked to play and stay on
the beach by the teacher.Ratan and her classmates grumbled at their teacher's
directive, but they eventually agreed to stay on the beach, except for Ratan.
“What fun is it to travel all the way to Goa's beautiful beaches just to play on the
beach? Take a look at how beautiful the blue waters are! She informed her buddy
Payal, "I just feel like I have to take the plunge at all costs!" “But, as the teacher
said, we're not supposed to go there!” If she had answered yes, believe me, I
Class X English Communicative www.vedantu.com 7
would have been the first to jump in,” Payal replied. “Oh, please! Why do we
have swimming classes at our school if they don't want us to swim? Take a look
at how much fun everyone else is having. You know what, whatever happens,
I'm going down there!” Ratan was ecstatic. “Don't be a fool. Even insanity has
its limits.” Payal had been warned. “What if you get yourself into a pickle? And
if our teacher finds us, she'll murder us.” Ratan replied with a cheeky smirk,
"Only if she finds out." When her teacher's back was turned, she rose from the
sand and walked gently towards the beautiful blue sea, ignoring Payal's warning.
She got to the sea's edge, where the waves rolled up and tickled her bare feet. She
started walking in, but before she could move another 10 metres, she was attacked
by a madman riding a water scooter and shoved into the water. As she battled to
regain her breath beneath the waves, the waters didn't appear quite so beautiful.
Or
Hari drove fast. He was already late for office. He had got up late and
it was his first day of work.
Ans: Short Story
Hari drove fast. He was already late for office. He had a poor start to the day. Hari
drove fast. He was already late for office. He'd had a poor start to the day. His
bedroom clock had read nine when he awoke. He had forgotten to charge his
phone, so it had been dead when he found it. In his haste to urge ready, he had
knocked his wrist watch off the dresser, and he had left the house in chaos. "Oh!
after I get home, Sheela goes to reprimand me. Why hadn't she tried to wake me
up earlier?" Hari grumbled to himself as he sped through the morning time of day
on his thanks to work. Under his breath, he cursed the opposite drivers and
everybody else he could consider. "If only I hadn't stayed up late finishing land
the night before." Why did I feel compelled to try and do that?" On the eve of his
first day at work, he chastised himself for being so juvenile on sit up late and finish
watching a movie. it might never be acceptable if he made a negative first
impression. "But all of my cursing isn't visiting help me without delay. As he
approached the office main gates, Hari thought to himself, "Only a miracle can
save me." Only to find his boss standing outside, giving him an unsettling look.
"Mr. Hari!" he murmured, a smile spreading across his face. "You're early, after
all! this is often one in every of the characteristics I explore for in new hires.
Welcome to the office! I hope you've got an exquisite first day!" because the
Class X English Communicative www.vedantu.com 8
adjoining church clock rang eight times, Hari had a vague recall of Sheela
claiming the bedroom clock had stopped.
5. Fill in the blanks choosing the most appropriate options from the ones given
below. Write the answers in your answer-sheet against the correct blank
numbers. 3 Marks
There are four trees in the garden. _______ (a) branches sway the breeze.
The children play ______ (b) the trees. Some of the girls _____ (c) sleeping
in the shade of the trees.
(a) (i) There (ii) Their (iii) Every (iv) An
(b) (i) under (ii) over (iii) above (iv) in
(c) (i) is (ii) was (iii) are (iv) have
Ans: (a) (ii) Their
(b) (i) under
(c) (iii) are
6. The following paragraph has not been edited. There is one error in each
marked line. Write the error and its correction as shown in the example.
4 Marks
Error Correction
I went to the pool then no one. e.g. then when
Was there. The place being quiet. a)
A water was still, and the tiled b)
bottom was so white and clean c)
as a bathtub. I was timid for going in d)
alone.
Ans:
Error Correction
(a) being was
(b) A The
Class X English Communicative www.vedantu.com 9
(c) so As
(d) for About/of
7. Read the dialogue given below and complete the paragraph that follows.
Write the correct answers in your answer-sheet against the correct blank
numbers. 3 Marks
Doctor: Have you got the tests done?
Karna: No, I have not.
Doctor: Get them done today itself.
The doctor asked (a) ______________. He replied that (b) ___________.
The doctor asked ___________.
Ans. (a) if he had got the tests done.
(b) he had on.
(c) him to get the tests done the same day.
SECTION-C
(Literature) 25 Marks
8. Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow.
3 Marks
Were these people pulling his leg? Was the whole thing a gigantic hoax? A
meek harmless man like him and they had to drag him into the middle of the
city to make a laughing stock out of him.'
(a) Who is the speaker?
Ans: Patol Babu is the speaker.
(b) Why does I think that he is being made a ‘laughing stock’?
Ans: Patol babu believed he was being made a laughing stock because he had
been given such a little role in the movie. He only needed to say one word.
(c) What does the word ‘hoax’ mean?
Ans: The term "hoax" refers to a purposeful act of deception or fraud.
Class X English Communicative www.vedantu.com 10
Or
Caesar shall forth; the things that threaten'd me
Ne’er look’d on my back; when they shall see
The face of Caesar, they are vanished.
(a) Where is Caesar planning to go?
Ans: Caesar intends to address the Senate in the Capitol.
(b) What are the ‘things’ that threaten him?
Ans: The 'things' refers to his enemies.
(c) What does the word ‘vanished’ mean?
Ans: The word ‘vanished’ means the act of vanishing.
9. Answer any four of the following questions in 30-40 words each. 8 Marks
(a) Why did the poet have to wait near the water trough? (Snake)
Ans: Because he was the second to arrive, the poet had to wait beside the water
trough. The snake had made its way up to the poet. Because of the snake, the poet
had to wait his time.
(b) What did Sebastian write in the final e-mail he sent to Michael?
Ans: In the final e-mail, Sebastian thanked Michael for saving his life. He thanked
him and said he should keep the games because he had earned them by saving his
life. He also stated that he hoped to see him again.
(c) Why did the wedding guest beat his breast?
Ans: Because he could hear the music and happy sounds at the wedding
signalling the bride's arrival, the wedding guest pounded his breast. The storey of
the Mariner was causing him to be late. The Mariner's dazzling glance kept him
rooted to the spot.
(d) What quality of King Ozymandias does the poem reflect?
Class X English Communicative www.vedantu.com 11
Ans: The king's lofty ideas of his own power and grandeur, which he felt could
be immortalised in stone, are reflected in the poem. However, it turned out to be
wishful thinking, since all that was left of the statue was a massive disaster.
(e) Why did Cassius tell Brutus not to allow Antony to speak on Caesar's
funeral?
Ans: Cassius tells Brutus not to let Antony speak at Caesar's funeral because he
is afraid Antony will use his outstanding oratorical skills to turn the crowds
against the conspirators and wreck all of their intentions.
10. How does the lesson, ‘A Shady Plot remind us that man has no right
to invoke supernatural powers through Ouija boards, Tarot cards, etc
to solve his problems and that one should face life boldly and overcome
difficulties using wit and intelligence.Write in 80-100 words. 4 Marks
Ans: Ouija boards and tarot cards are appendages employed by those that don't
understand how to face life's adversities and depend upon such supernatural
paraphernalia to understand life. A Shady Plot shows us how such things can
backfire and exercise caution in invoking powers over which they do not have
any control. People should not rely on superstitions to solve their difficulties, such
as Tarot Cards and Ouija Boards, because superstitions bring unnecessary
complications. John Hallock's dependency on Ouija stunted his creativity. He
couldn't conceive creative ideas of his own. He is unable to expose his
relationship with Helen as a result of his incapacity to do so. The ghost, the
shadows of divorce, loomed large over his relationship along with his wife,
Lavinia. Things only became crystal clear after Lavinia threw away the
gameboard. His wife and maid returned to him when the misunderstandings were
resolved. The ghost was not a threat to the wife. To conclude, a person gifted with
wit and intelligence should use them to fix his problems to possess much better
control over his life.
Or
Respect for all forms of life is an essential value. Unmindful destruction of
nature and its creatures deserves just punishment. Write in 80-100 words
this essential value as brought out in the poem, “The Rime of the Ancient
Mariner'.
Class X English Communicative www.vedantu.com 12
Ans: A fundamental value is respect for all forms of life. The indiscriminate
devastation of nature and its species is justly punished. With regard to the poem,
it's a true statement. 'The Rime of the Ancient Mariner' is a poem by William
Shakespeare. The seamen in this poem were thrown in the wrong way by a
tyrannous storm. There were just icebergs to be seen, with no trace of any living
creature. A bird, an albatross, paid them a visit one day. Its arrival resulted in a
significant change in the weather. He was also called and fed by the seamen. He
had been coming to them every day at 9.00 a.m. for nine days to eat and play with
them. However, the ancient mariner accidentally killed the albatross with his bow
and arrow one day. He committed the deed without thinking about it. The
conditions of all the sailors were deteriorating as a result of his crime. The
weather changed, and despite their need, they were unable to drink the water since
the water that around them was filthy and full of slimy critters. As a result, all of
the sailors, near the end, draped the dead albatross around the Ancient Mariner's
neck and removed the Cross locket. They did this to remind him of the
transgression he had committed. As a result, we must ponder before doing
anything wrong, otherwise God will punish us.
11. Attempt the following in 150-200 words. 10 Marks
Bring out the importance of the diary in Anne's life.
Ans: Anne's diary is recognised as a priceless and accurate account of the period.
The diary is extremely informative and provides invaluable insight into Anne's
life, times, and struggles. It is, in fact, one of the few authentic historical reports
that has survived. It's an uncommon insight from the perspective of a child. We
learn through Anne's diary that she does not shoulder the weight of sobbing to
protect a full family from the war's unfathomable horrors. The impact of the
Holocaust on a single girl is depicted in Anne's diary, which personalises this vast
historical disaster. Anne's once innocent perspective changed dramatically as she
became preoccupied with questions about who she was and what she wanted to
become. Anne was forced to grow up and come to grips with her own identity as
a member of her family, a Jew, and a young woman in a frightening and terrifying
world as a result of the Holocaust.
Or
Class X English Communicative www.vedantu.com 13
Why does Anne call herself “a bundle of contradictions'?
Ans: Anne refers to herself as a "bundle of contradictions."She claims to have
two personalities. Her effusive joy is shared by half of the group. Everything is
made fun of, and everything is taken lightly. The opposite half, or self, is far
superior, being "deeper and purer." The first side, i.e. the surface side, is always
eager to exert dominance over the better self. Anne had tried and failed countless
times to push the superficial side aside.One side contained her exuberant
cheerfulness, her flippancy, the enjoyment in her life and specifically, her ability
to understand the lighter side of things. This side would lead her to understand
flirtations, a kiss, an embrace and even off-colour jokes. the opposite side of her
was purer, deeper and finer, subsumed under the lighter side of her. She may well
be an amusing clown for a day and a profound thinker but the previous was
always a diversion, a comic book interlude, soon to be forgotten, which the
majority hardly knew. Her lighter and more superficial side always stole an
advance the deeper side.
Or
What was the incident of the Frost King? How did it affect Helen?
Ans: Helen Keller published a storey called "The Frost King" which she claimed
to have written herself. Helen's teacher, Anne Sullivan, had said that the fall
leaves were "painted ruby, emerald, gold, crimson and brown" and Helen had
envisioned fairies executing the work, according to her own storey. She
composed a narrative about a lot of jewels that had melted in the sun and covered
the leaves while being delivered by fairy servants. Helen gave the storey to Mr.
Anagnos, the director of the Perkins Institution for the Blind, as a birthday
present, and he had it published in "The Mentor" the Perkins Alumnae magazine.
Helen's storey "Frost Fairies" was reportedly taken from Margaret Camby's book
"Birdie and his Fairy Friends." Helen said she had no recollection of reading or
hearing the book read to her, although sections from her letters from the same
period, which she refers to as "dreams" closely reflect other occurrences in the
book. Margaret Camby's narrative had not been read to Helen, according to both
Miss Sullivan and Helen. Further research revealed that Mr. Hopkins, with whom
Helen had spent a few years earlier, had a copy of the book in her hands and had
told Helen some of the stories from it when Miss Sullivan was away. Helen seems
to have preserved so much of the narrative in her head that she was able to retell
Class X English Communicative www.vedantu.com 14
it after so many years. Helen is therefore guilty of plagiarism, albeit innocently
and unintentionally.
Or
Write a character sketch of Bishop Brooks as he appears in Helen Keller's –
The Story of My Life.
Ans: Keller was aware that Bishop Brooks was one of the geniuses. Keller had
taught her about religion and God since she was a youngster, according to him.
When she was perplexed as to why there were so many religions, he clarified that
there was only one universal religion, religion of love. Remember that the
possibilities of good are greater than the possibilities of evil, and you have the
"Key to Heaven." "Love your heavenly" father with all of your heart and soul,
love every child of God as much as you can, and remember that the possibilities
of good are greater than the possibilities of evil." Bishop Brooks did not instil in
her any particular faith or dogma. She was a person who held all religions in high
regard. He left an indelible impression on her, namely, God's fatherhood and
man's brotherhood. These, he believed, are universal truths.
Class X English Communicative www.vedantu.com 15
CBSE Class 12
English Summative Assessment II
Previous Year Question Paper 2016
Series: JSR Set- 1
Code no. 1/1
● Please check that this question paper contains 8 printed pages.
● Code number given on the right hand side of the question paper should be
written on the title page of the answer-book by the candidate.
● Please check that this question paper contains 11 questions.
● Please write down the Serial Number of the question before attempting
it.
● 15 minute time has been allotted to read this question paper. The question
paper will be distributed at 10.15 a.m. From 10.15 a.m. to 10.30 a.m., the
students will read the question paper only and will not write any answer on
the answer-book during this period.
SUMMATIVE ASSESSMENT - II
ENGLISH (Communicative)
Time Allowed : 3 hours Maximum Marks: 70
General Instructions :
1. The question paper is divided into three sections :
Class X English Communicative www.vedantu.com 1
Section A : Reading 20 Marks
Section B : Writing and Grammar 25 Marks
Section C : Literature 25 Marks
2. All questions are compulsory.
3. You may attempt any section at a time.
4. All questions of that particular section must be attempted in the correct order.
SECTION -A
(Reading) 20 Marks
1. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow
8 Marks
One of the greatest advances in modern technology has been the invention of
computers. They are widely used in industries and in universities. Now there is
hardly any sphere of human life where computers have not been pressed into
service of man. We are heading fast towards the day when a computer will be
as much part of man’s daily life as a telephone or a calculator.
Computers are capable of doing extremely complicated work in all branches of
learning. They can solve the most complex mathematical problems or put
thousands of unrelated facts in order. These machines can be put to varied uses.
For instance, they can provide information on the best way to prevent traffic
jams. This whole process by which machines can be used to work for us has
been called ‘automation’. In the future ‘automation’ may enable human beings
to enjoy more leisure than they do today. The coming of automation is bound
to have important social consequences.
Class X English Communicative www.vedantu.com 2
Some years ago an expert on automation, Sir Leon Bagrit, pointed out that it
was a mistake to believe that these machines could ‘think’. There is no
possibility that human beings will be “controlled by machines”. Though
computers are capable of learning from their mistakes and improving on their
performance, they need detailed instructions from human beings to operate.
They can never, as it were, lead independent lives or “rule the world” by
making decisions of their own.
Sir Leon said that in future, computers would be developed which would be
small enough to carry in the pocket. Ordinary people would then be able to use
them to obtain valuable information. Computers could be plugged into a
national network and be used like radios. For instance, people going on holiday
could be informed about weather conditions. Car drivers can be given
alternative routes when there are traffic jams. It will also be possible to make
tiny translating machines. This will enable people who do not share a common
language to talk to each other without any difficulty or to read foreign
publications.
(a) What is the greatest advancement in modern technology ? 1 Mark
Ans: The greatest advancement in modern technology is the invention of computers.
Computers are widely used in the universities and institutions. Nowadays computers
have evolved to an extent that robots have taken the role of human beings.
(b) What complicated works are computers capable of doing ? 1 Mark
Ans: Computers can solve the most complex mathematical problems or put
thousands of unrelated facts in order. They can also help the tourists and also
translate languages.
(c) Write one use of computers. 1 Mark
Ans: Computers are capable of doing extremely complicated work in all branches
of learning. They can solve the most complex mathematical problems or put
thousands of unrelated facts in order.
Class X English Communicative www.vedantu.com 3
(d) Explain automation. 1 Mark
Ans: Computers can provide information on the best way to prevent traffic jams.
This whole process by which machines can be used to work for us has been called
‘automation’.
(e) Why can’t computers lead independent lives or rule the world ? 1 Mark
Ans: Computers can't lead independent lives or rule the world. Though computers
are capable of learning from their mistakes and improving on their performance,
they need detailed instructions from human beings to operate.
(f) How would computers as translating machines help people ? 1 Mark
Ans: Computers as translating machines can help people of different languages to
communicate with each other easily and read foreign publications which are of other
languages.
(g) What was the prediction of Sir Leon about computers in the future ?
1 Mark
Ans: Sir Leon said that in future, computers would be developed which would be
small enough to carry in the pocket. Ordinary people would then be able to use them
to obtain valuable information. Computers could be plugged into a national network
and be used like radios.Sir Leon predicted that computers would be developed small
enough to carry in the pocket.
(h) How can computers help people going on holiday ? 1 Mark
Ans: People going on holiday could be informed about weather conditions. Car
drivers can be given alternative routes when there are traffic jams.
2. Read the passage given below.
1. Why does a person become overconfident ? The reason lies in over assessment
of his capabilities. Sometimes people over assess their competence and jump
into situations that are beyond their control.
Class X English Communicative www.vedantu.com 4
2. Napoleon Bonaparte who became Emperor of France would say that the
word ‘impossible’ was common only amongst fools. The overconfident
Napoleon invaded Russia in the winter of 1812. This proved to be a big disaster.
3. Overconfidence generally leads people into misadventures, endangering their
chances in life. It is wisely said that any achievement is a result of two factors-
one’s personal planning and support from the external world. People take into
account only their planning, generally ignoring external factors. As a result
they are unable to foresee future developments. Hence, a great risk of failure.
4. Then there is the question : how can one manage overconfidence ? The
formula is very simple. Before taking a decision, discuss the matter with other
informed people with an objective mind and when it is proved that you are
about to go off the path, accept reality and say without delay, “I was wrong”.
5. Overconfidence is a flaw characterizing people who lack the virtue of
modesty. Modesty makes you a realist; you become a person who is cut down
to size. People of this kind become very cautious; before taking an action they
assess the whole situation. They adopt a realistic approach.
6. Overconfident people live within their own thoughts. They know themselves
but they are unaware of others. Living inside their own cell they are unable to
make use of the experiences of others. This kind of habit is highly damaging to
all concerned.
7. There is a saying that the young man sees the rule and the old man sees the
exception. With a slight change, I would like to say that the overconfident
person sees the rule and the confident person sees the exception. Overconfident
people are always at risk. It is said that taking risks is good but it must be well
calculated otherwise it becomes very dangerous.
2.1 Answer the following questions : 2x4=8 Marks
(a) Why does a person become overconfident ? 2 Marks
Ans: Overconfidence is a flaw characterizing people who lack the virtue of
modesty. Modesty makes you a realist; you become a person who is cut down to
Class X English Communicative www.vedantu.com 5
size. Sometimes people over assess their competence and jump into situations that
are beyond their control. Because of this overassessment a person becomes
overconfident.
(b) What does overconfidence generally lead people into ? 2 Marks
Ans:Overconfidence generally leads people into misadventures, endangering their
chances in life. People take into account only their planning, generally ignoring
external factors. As a result they are unable to foresee future developments. Hence,
a great risk of failure.
(c) How can one manage overconfidence ? 2 Marks
Ans:One can manage overconfidence before making a decision by discussing the
matter with other informed people with an objective mind and when it is proved that
you are about to go off the path, accept reality and say without delay, “I was wrong”.
(d) What kind of person does ‘modesty’ make you ? 2 Marks
Ans: Overconfidence is a flaw characterizing people who lack the virtue of modesty.
Modesty makes a person realist. One can become a person who cuts down to size.
People of this kind become very cautious; before taking an action they assess the
whole situation. They adopt a realistic approach.
2.2 Find meanings of the words given below with the help of the options that
follow : 1x4=4 Marks
(a) Misadventure (Para 3) 1 Mark
(i) Mishap
(ii) Unlucky
(iii) Unhappy
(iv) Unpleasant
Ans: (i) Mishap
(b) Endangering (Para 3) 1 Mark
Class X English Communicative www.vedantu.com 6
(i) Reckless
(ii) Imperil
(iii) Risky
(iv) Threatening
Ans: (ii) Imperil
(c) Assess (Para 5) 1 Mark
(i) Assemble
(ii) Acquire
(iii) Evaluate
(iv) Accept
Ans: (iii) Evaluate
(d) Objective (Para 4) 1 Mark
(i) Obedient
(ii) Servile
(iii) Honest
(iv) Impartial
Ans: (iv) Impartial
SECTION - B
(Writing and Grammar) 25 Marks
Class X English Communicative www.vedantu.com 7
3. You feel that the ‘Clean India Campaign’ has not been as effective as you
thought it should have been. As Ankit/Ankita, write an article in 100-120 words
discussing the reasons for this. Also highlight the measures that a common man
and a student can take to make it a success.
Ans: Clean India Campaign
By Ankit Shah
The Government of India formally launched the Clean India Campaign on October
2nd 2014. This campaign is said to be India's biggest ever cleanliness drive. Since
the Clean India campaign seemed wildly ambitious, the reality is far from the truth
as day by day, many children and old aged people face health issues because of this.
The main reason this campaign hasn't been productive is the lack of strict rules or
severe penalties. Another fact is that citizens seem to be illiterate or uninformed
about the importance of cleanliness. It is highlighted in the recent surveys that the
quality of waste management, garbage disposal, general sanitation, and cleanliness
remains poor across India. As a solution to make this campaign successful, more and
more companies should participate. And as students, we should encourage people to
participate in specific campaigns and increase enthusiasm in the citizens of India
regarding this campaign.
Or
Influence of friends can have both positive and negative impacts on the
students. Write a letter to the editor of a national daily in 100-120 words
discussing how we can make it more positive and productive. You are
Arun/Aruna 24 Mall Road Chennai.
Ans: Sector 16,
Kamal Chowk,
21st June 2021,
The Editor,
The Hindustan Times,
Class X English Communicative www.vedantu.com 8
Subject - Impact of influence of friends on students
Dear Ma’am,
Through the column of your renowned newspaper, I would like to highlight how we
can make the influence of friends more productive and positive in a student’s life.
We are all aware that friendship is the most valuable relationship in this world. It is
a companionship that is born between two unknown people. Friendship is the only
relationship that we make of our own choice other than family, which is a blessing
by God. As a student, we meet several people of our age and sometimes the influence
of people can be in a positive way or in a negative way because peers play a very
important role in everyone's life. Usually, schools or colleges of students are
considered as a second home. Whatever we learn in our life is because of our school
teachers and our friends that we make that influence our behaviour a lot. But
friendship is something that releases all our stress whether we are in a problem or
not. Friends are the ones who are always standing beside us. Sometimes the bond
between friends is so beautiful that we feel more comfortable sharing things with
friends rather than our parents and true friends always show us the right path no
matter what.
As it is said that too many cooks spoil the broth, I feel that books and friends should
be few and good. We need to make friendship more productive and positive. This
can be done through making use of our time with friends in a productive manner,
encouraging and supporting each other, learning from each other, and positively
taking up some projects and social work.
I request you to publish this letter in your prestigious newspaper so kids will learn
the way to form friendly relationships productive and positive and successively a
way to be from negative peer pressure.
Yours Sincerely,
Aruna
4. Write a story in 150-200 words based on the input given below :
Class X English Communicative www.vedantu.com 9
They started a trek to the peak of the mountain - supposed to be a very hard
journey - a five - day long trek - when they started..... 10 Marks
Ans: They started a trek to the peak of the mountain. It was supposed to be a difficult
journey, but all were quite excited about it. Everyone wanted to enjoy their trekking
since they had a very hectic semester. It was a five-day-long trek and they informed
their parents about the same. They promised to call their parents as soon as they
arrived but they forgot to do so. On the second day after covering a few miles, people
started calling their names but they ignored and carried on with trekking. Suddenly
it started raining heavily and realised that the people might have been warning them.
Somehow after a few difficulties, they reached the first camp and decided to take
some rest there. Later than sooner they realised that their parents must be worried
about them. Then they tried to contact their parents who scolded and explained to
them how worried they were after hearing the news of tremendous rainfall and lack
of communication on their part. Everyone apologised and enjoyed the rest of their
trekking journey. They started a trek to the peak of the mountain. it had been alleged
to be a troublesome journey, however, everybody was quite excited concerning it.
Or
He opened the factory door - peeped inside - some light - last shift over - could
be thieves.....
Ans: Shamu, the watchman of the Satellite factory, sat on his chair. He had night
duty and so he was quite alert. Suddenly he heard some murmuring in the factory.
Gathering his courage, he walked towards the door, with his stick, silently but
quickly. As he opened the door and peeped inside, he saw some light and heard some
noises. He was alarmed after the last shift which was an hour ago, he himself had
checked the factory after everyone left. He thought that it could be thieves. He
checked in between the desks, hiding himself and going towards the torch lights.
When he reached near the lights, he saw men with muffled faces, inside the factory
searching for something. Their faces were covered and Shamu understood that his
doubt was correct. He ran silently towards the main gate and took the gate’s lock
with him. Very cleverly he used the lock and locked the thieves inside the factory
and called the police immediately. Once the police reached and arrested them, he
Class X English Communicative www.vedantu.com 10
was informed that there was a bounty of thirty thousand rupees on them. Thus,
Raghu’s bravery and courage fetched him thirty thousand rupees.
5. Complete the following paragraph by filling in the blanks with the help of
the given options : 1x3=3 Marks
Reading a novel or short story (a)________ second language could
dramatically (b)_____________ physiological responses to emotions such
(c)______________ smiling.
(a) (i) of (ii) in (iii) from (iv)at
(b) (i)reduce (ii) reduces (iii) reduced (iv) reducing
(c) (i)like (ii) similar to (iii) as (iv) alike
Ans:
(a) (ii)In
(b) (i)Reduce
(c) (iii)as
6. The following paragraph has not been edited. There is one error in each
line. Write the error and its correction as shown in the example.
½ x 8=4 Marks
Error Correction
One day a wonderful plate fullin gold eg. in of
fell from Heaven into a courtyard of
a temple at Benaras; so on the
plate these words were inscribe.
Class X English Communicative www.vedantu.com 11
A gift from Heaven to he who
loves better”. The priests at once
made a announcement that every
-day at noon, all which would like
to claimed the plate should come.
Ans: Error Correction
(a) a the
(b) at in
(c) inscribe inscribed
(d) he him
(e) priests priest
(f) a an
(g) which who
(h) claimed claim
7. Rearrange the following words and phrases into meaningful sentences. The
first one has been done as an example. 1x3=3 Marks
detective / below / go / written / through the / story
Go through the detective story written below.
(a) can be/two/ blamed / persons / the murder / for
(b) to the/ there are / culprit / many clues / real / pointing
(c) the /find/ murderer / who / real / out / is
Class X English Communicative www.vedantu.com 12
Ans: (a) Two persons can be blamed for the murder.
(b) There are many clues pointing to the real culprit.
(c) Find out who is the real murderer.
SECTION - C
(Literature : Textbook and Long Reading text) 25 Marks
8. Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow:
1x3=3 Marks
“Oh, oh, oh, oh, oh ...” Patol Babu began giving the exclamation a different
inflection each time he uttered it. After doing it a number of times he made
an astonishing discovery.
(a) Why did Patol Babu repeat the word, ‘oh’ over and over again ? 1 Mark
Ans: Patol Babu repeated the word ‘oh’ over and over again because he wanted to
make the most out of the opportunity had received, and squeeze every last drop of
meaning out of the role that he was given.
(b) What ‘astonishing discovery’ did he make ? 1 Mark
Ans: Patol Babu made an astonishing discovery of the same exclamation; he
carried different shades of meaning whenever he spoke in different ways.
(c) What does the word ‘uttered’ mean ? 1 Mark
Ans: The word ‘utter’ means ‘saying something’.
Or
“They that have done this deed are honourable :
What private griefs they have, alas, I know not,
Class X English Communicative www.vedantu.com 13
That made them do it”:........................
(a) Who is the speaker ? 1 Mark
Ans: Mark Antony is the speaker of the following line.
(b) What deed have ‘they’ done ? 1 Mark
Ans: ‘They’ have done a deed of killing Julius Caesar.
(c) What does the word ‘griefs’ mean ? 1 Mark
Ans: The word ‘griefs’ refers to sorrow.
9. Answer any four of the following in 30-40 words each : 2x4=8 Marks
(a) What does the poet compare the snake’s drinking habits to? Why?
2 Marks
Ans: The poet compares the snake's drinking habit to the cattle drinking water
because the snake lifted his head while drinking water as cattle do and looked at the
poet vaguely as cattle do.
(b) What sort of person was Michael’s dad ? 2 Marks
Ans: Michael's dad was a passionate person and he was curious about new
technologies. He was very much passionate about computers. He couldn't resist any
new gadget that came on the market and visited the market whenever something new
was launched.
(c) Why does Brutus kill Caesar ? 2 Marks
Ans: Brutus killed Caesar because he felt that Caesar was too ambitious to be the
King of Rome. He believes that Rome will not benefit from his ambitious nature,
and making him the king will give him so much power that the Senate will not be
able to temper his authority.
(d) Why is John’s wife angry and what does she decide to do ? 2 Marks
Class X English Communicative www.vedantu.com 14
Ans: John's wife is angry because she feels that he is cheating on her with another
woman named Helen. She decided to leave John's house and go back to her
grandmother. She also decided to send John a court notice.
(e) Why were the mariners angry with the Ancient Mariner ? 2 Marks
Ans: The Mariners were angry with the ancient Mariner because he had killed the
albatross, which was considered a good omen and brought bad luck to the sailors.
10. Answer the following in 80-100 words : 4 Marks
Who was Mr. Pakrashi and how did he instil the value of being true to one’s
work in Patol Babu ?
Ans: Mr. Prakashi was the guru and mentor of Patol Babu. He always told Patol
Babu whatever small part he was offered he should never consider it below his
dignity to accept it. As an artist, his aim should be to make the most out of the
opportunity and squeeze the last drop of the meaning of his lines. When Patol Babu
was given only a single dialogue ‘oh’ to utter, he thought of quitting. But when the
words of wisdom from Mr. Prakashi echoed in his ears, he accepted the role. He did
it so well that everyone was praising him. He did it with commitment and perfection.
Or
Keeping in mind the poem, ‘Snake’, write out a speech for the morning
assembly on the topic, ‘Snakes - a beautiful creation of God, an object of our
love and not hatred.
Ans: Good morning everyone, today I'm here to talk about snakes- a beautiful
creation of God, An object of our love and not hatred.
Snakes are one of the most beautiful creations of God. Snakes belong to the reptile
family and are present in almost every corner of the world. There are more than 3000
varieties and species of snakes in this world. However, people are afraid of snakes
because they think snakes are poisonous. This is unfortunate because the average
snakes that turn up in the backyard or forest are usually not deadly. This
Class X English Communicative www.vedantu.com 15
misconception keeps us bound to our rudimentary thinking. In India, snakes are
considered Religious. But many people think that they should kill them because
these creatures are harmful. But these creatures have every right to cook, exist in
harmony with humanity. We must respect and protect the right of living creatures
and not prove our superiority over them by restoring or harming them.
11. Answer the following question in 150-200 words : 10 Marks
There were many reasons for Helen Keller’s embittered childhood. What were
they and how were they overcome ?
Ans: Helen suffered from disease when she was nineteen months old. This took
away her ability to see and hear her condition made her extremely dependent on her
mother, and she used crude sign language to communicate her wants. Gradually she
realized that she was a different person from others. When she was unable to
understand what others spoke, her frustration and anger grew. When her sister was
born, Helen thought of her as an intruder who had taken her place in her mother's
life. She became very rude and an unruly child due to her inability to communicate.
She led her life in a dark and silent world until Miss Sullivan came to enlighten her
world. Sullivan was the embodiment of love, understanding, patience and
perseverance. With the help of this gifted teacher, Helen was able to overcome all
her shortcomings and was able to educate herself, heal and learn to communicate
with others with the help of Miss Sullivan who worked hard with her to gain
confidence and not consider herself as a burden. Helen learnt to see her with her
fingers. Also, she learned to read and write, which enabled her not to feel defeated
in life. Helen and Sullivan dramatically changed the world's perception of people
with disabilities.
Or
Helen’s struggle has become a source of inspiration for all less fortunate.
Comment.
Ans: The less fortunate admire Helen and take inspiration from struggles in her life.
She overcame the adversity of being blind and deaf with the able assistance and went
Class X English Communicative www.vedantu.com 16
on to become the torchbearer for millions with a handicap. Helen had an undying
spirit due to which she never dwelt on her disability. Her determination, her small
and steady steps towards her destination enabled her to achieve whatever she aspired
for. Her high aspirations gave the world a lesson of optimism and positivity. Her
entire life is an inspiration for everyone. Helen’s persistent efforts enabled her to
become a world-renowned activist who strived for the betterment of others. Her
eagerness to know more about life made her live a meaningful life. Helen Keller is
a symbol of the indomitable human spirit, a legend of the world. As Helen, herself
said, “Faith is the strength by which a shattered world shall emerge into the light”.
Or
Anne’s relationship with her mother was never simple. What created the
tension and discord ? Why ?
Ans: There were certainly a few reasons for the discord and tension between Anne
and her mother. For one, Anne hated the long "dreadful sermons" her mother (Edith)
subjected her to whenever she misbehaved. Anne's relationship with her mother was
not good. Anne thinks that her mother always used to support Margot rather than
supporting her. Also, she thought of herself as a mentally mature girl and didn't wish
to share anything with her mother. Moreover, Anne loved her father Mr Otto Frank
very much as compared to anyone else in her life. In this context, she says "I can
even imagine my mother dying one day. But I can't imagine living without my
father'. Also, Anne usually used to pray with her father. But one day when her mother
wanted to do so with Anne, she sent her mother cowardly and after that, she
apologized to her only on Pim's advice. But on the side of her mother, the story was
entirely different. She always used to support Anne even when Mrs Van Dan scolds
Anne for being playful. One gets the impression that Anne and Edith could well
have worked out their differences had they been given the proper time and space.
Or
Anne’s father was close to her. What did she like about him ? Why ?
Ans: Anne describes her father as the best father in the world. In her diary, Anne,
his father Otto Frank, was caring, gentle, modest and a peacemaker who wanted the
Class X English Communicative www.vedantu.com 17
best for his daughter. He was more tolerant towards any and gave her more freedom
and he learned. The quality of self-control from her father. She always tried to live
up to his expectations and obey him. Anne thought of her father as more supporting
and liberal than her mother. She felt a special connection with him and continually
tried to. Impress him by living up to his. And we believe that her mother was very
sentimental and critical when she wanted her to be more affectionate and accepting.
Edit was usually the voice of reason and the one to defuse fights. During their stay
at the annexe, many said that her father was nicer to her than her mother. Her father
knew that there was an absence of good understanding between the mother and the
daughter. He was aware that she disapproved of a majority of things that her mother
said or suggested. Edith suffers more from this then and in fact, as a mother she was
relieved to know her daughter at least trusted her father.
Class X English Communicative www.vedantu.com 18
CBSE Class 12
English Summative Assessment II
Previous Year Question Paper 2016
Series: JSR Set- 1
Code no. 1/1
● Please check that this question paper contains 8 printed pages.
● Code number given on the right hand side of the question paper should be
written on the title page of the answer-book by the candidate.
● Please check that this question paper contains 11 questions.
● Please write down the Serial Number of the question before attempting
it.
● 15 minute time has been allotted to read this question paper. The question
paper will be distributed at 10.15 a.m. From 10.15 a.m. to 10.30 a.m., the
students will read the question paper only and will not write any answer on
the answer-book during this period.
SUMMATIVE ASSESSMENT - II
ENGLISH (Communicative)
Time Allowed : 3 hours Maximum Marks: 70
General Instructions :
1. The question paper is divided into three sections :
Class X English Communicative www.vedantu.com 1
Section A : Reading 20 Marks
Section B : Writing and Grammar 25 Marks
Section C : Literature 25 Marks
2. All questions are compulsory.
3. You may attempt any section at a time.
4. All questions of that particular section must be attempted in the correct order.
SECTION -A
(Reading) 20 Marks
1. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow
8 Marks
One of the greatest advances in modern technology has been the invention of
computers. They are widely used in industries and in universities. Now there is
hardly any sphere of human life where computers have not been pressed into
service of man. We are heading fast towards the day when a computer will be
as much part of man’s daily life as a telephone or a calculator.
Computers are capable of doing extremely complicated work in all branches of
learning. They can solve the most complex mathematical problems or put
thousands of unrelated facts in order. These machines can be put to varied uses.
For instance, they can provide information on the best way to prevent traffic
jams. This whole process by which machines can be used to work for us has
been called ‘automation’. In the future ‘automation’ may enable human beings
to enjoy more leisure than they do today. The coming of automation is bound
to have important social consequences.
Class X English Communicative www.vedantu.com 2
Some years ago an expert on automation, Sir Leon Bagrit, pointed out that it
was a mistake to believe that these machines could ‘think’. There is no
possibility that human beings will be “controlled by machines”. Though
computers are capable of learning from their mistakes and improving on their
performance, they need detailed instructions from human beings to operate.
They can never, as it were, lead independent lives or “rule the world” by
making decisions of their own.
Sir Leon said that in future, computers would be developed which would be
small enough to carry in the pocket. Ordinary people would then be able to use
them to obtain valuable information. Computers could be plugged into a
national network and be used like radios. For instance, people going on holiday
could be informed about weather conditions. Car drivers can be given
alternative routes when there are traffic jams. It will also be possible to make
tiny translating machines. This will enable people who do not share a common
language to talk to each other without any difficulty or to read foreign
publications.
(a) What is the greatest advancement in modern technology ? 1 Mark
Ans: The greatest advancement in modern technology is the invention of computers.
Computers are widely used in the universities and institutions. Nowadays computers
have evolved to an extent that robots have taken the role of human beings.
(b) What complicated works are computers capable of doing ? 1 Mark
Ans: Computers can solve the most complex mathematical problems or put
thousands of unrelated facts in order. They can also help the tourists and also
translate languages.
(c) Write one use of computers. 1 Mark
Ans: Computers are capable of doing extremely complicated work in all branches
of learning. They can solve the most complex mathematical problems or put
thousands of unrelated facts in order.
Class X English Communicative www.vedantu.com 3
(d) Explain automation. 1 Mark
Ans: Computers can provide information on the best way to prevent traffic jams.
This whole process by which machines can be used to work for us has been called
‘automation’.
(e) Why can’t computers lead independent lives or rule the world ? 1 Mark
Ans: Computers can't lead independent lives or rule the world. Though computers
are capable of learning from their mistakes and improving on their performance,
they need detailed instructions from human beings to operate.
(f) How would computers as translating machines help people ? 1 Mark
Ans: Computers as translating machines can help people of different languages to
communicate with each other easily and read foreign publications which are of other
languages.
(g) What was the prediction of Sir Leon about computers in the future ?
1 Mark
Ans: Sir Leon said that in future, computers would be developed which would be
small enough to carry in the pocket. Ordinary people would then be able to use them
to obtain valuable information. Computers could be plugged into a national network
and be used like radios.Sir Leon predicted that computers would be developed small
enough to carry in the pocket.
(h) How can computers help people going on holiday ? 1 Mark
Ans: People going on holiday could be informed about weather conditions. Car
drivers can be given alternative routes when there are traffic jams.
2. Read the passage given below.
1. Why does a person become overconfident ? The reason lies in over assessment
of his capabilities. Sometimes people over assess their competence and jump
into situations that are beyond their control.
Class X English Communicative www.vedantu.com 4
2. Napoleon Bonaparte who became Emperor of France would say that the
word ‘impossible’ was common only amongst fools. The overconfident
Napoleon invaded Russia in the winter of 1812. This proved to be a big disaster.
3. Overconfidence generally leads people into misadventures, endangering their
chances in life. It is wisely said that any achievement is a result of two factors-
one’s personal planning and support from the external world. People take into
account only their planning, generally ignoring external factors. As a result
they are unable to foresee future developments. Hence, a great risk of failure.
4. Then there is the question : how can one manage overconfidence ? The
formula is very simple. Before taking a decision, discuss the matter with other
informed people with an objective mind and when it is proved that you are
about to go off the path, accept reality and say without delay, “I was wrong”.
5. Overconfidence is a flaw characterizing people who lack the virtue of
modesty. Modesty makes you a realist; you become a person who is cut down
to size. People of this kind become very cautious; before taking an action they
assess the whole situation. They adopt a realistic approach.
6. Overconfident people live within their own thoughts. They know themselves
but they are unaware of others. Living inside their own cell they are unable to
make use of the experiences of others. This kind of habit is highly damaging to
all concerned.
7. There is a saying that the young man sees the rule and the old man sees the
exception. With a slight change, I would like to say that the overconfident
person sees the rule and the confident person sees the exception. Overconfident
people are always at risk. It is said that taking risks is good but it must be well
calculated otherwise it becomes very dangerous.
2.1 Answer the following questions : 2x4=8 Marks
(a) Why does a person become overconfident ? 2 Marks
Ans: Overconfidence is a flaw characterizing people who lack the virtue of
modesty. Modesty makes you a realist; you become a person who is cut down to
Class X English Communicative www.vedantu.com 5
size. Sometimes people over assess their competence and jump into situations that
are beyond their control. Because of this overassessment a person becomes
overconfident.
(b) What does overconfidence generally lead people into ? 2 Marks
Ans:Overconfidence generally leads people into misadventures, endangering their
chances in life. People take into account only their planning, generally ignoring
external factors. As a result they are unable to foresee future developments. Hence,
a great risk of failure.
(c) How can one manage overconfidence ? 2 Marks
Ans:One can manage overconfidence before making a decision by discussing the
matter with other informed people with an objective mind and when it is proved that
you are about to go off the path, accept reality and say without delay, “I was wrong”.
(d) What kind of person does ‘modesty’ make you ? 2 Marks
Ans: Overconfidence is a flaw characterizing people who lack the virtue of modesty.
Modesty makes a person realist. One can become a person who cuts down to size.
People of this kind become very cautious; before taking an action they assess the
whole situation. They adopt a realistic approach.
2.2 Find meanings of the words given below with the help of the options that
follow : 1x4=4 Marks
(a) Misadventure (Para 3) 1 Mark
(i) Mishap
(ii) Unlucky
(iii) Unhappy
(iv) Unpleasant
Ans: (i) Mishap
(b) Endangering (Para 3) 1 Mark
Class X English Communicative www.vedantu.com 6
(i) Reckless
(ii) Imperil
(iii) Risky
(iv) Threatening
Ans: (ii) Imperil
(c) Assess (Para 5) 1 Mark
(i) Assemble
(ii) Acquire
(iii) Evaluate
(iv) Accept
Ans: (iii) Evaluate
(d) Objective (Para 4) 1 Mark
(i) Obedient
(ii) Servile
(iii) Honest
(iv) Impartial
Ans: (iv) Impartial
SECTION - B
(Writing and Grammar) 25 Marks
Class X English Communicative www.vedantu.com 7
3. You feel that the ‘Clean India Campaign’ has not been as effective as you
thought it should have been. As Ankit/Ankita, write an article in 100-120 words
discussing the reasons for this. Also highlight the measures that a common man
and a student can take to make it a success.
Ans: Clean India Campaign
By Ankit Shah
The Government of India formally launched the Clean India Campaign on October
2nd 2014. This campaign is said to be India's biggest ever cleanliness drive. Since
the Clean India campaign seemed wildly ambitious, the reality is far from the truth
as day by day, many children and old aged people face health issues because of this.
The main reason this campaign hasn't been productive is the lack of strict rules or
severe penalties. Another fact is that citizens seem to be illiterate or uninformed
about the importance of cleanliness. It is highlighted in the recent surveys that the
quality of waste management, garbage disposal, general sanitation, and cleanliness
remains poor across India. As a solution to make this campaign successful, more and
more companies should participate. And as students, we should encourage people to
participate in specific campaigns and increase enthusiasm in the citizens of India
regarding this campaign.
Or
Influence of friends can have both positive and negative impacts on the
students. Write a letter to the editor of a national daily in 100-120 words
discussing how we can make it more positive and productive. You are
Arun/Aruna 24 Mall Road Chennai.
Ans: Sector 16,
Kamal Chowk,
21st June 2021,
The Editor,
The Hindustan Times,
Class X English Communicative www.vedantu.com 8
Subject - Impact of influence of friends on students
Dear Ma’am,
Through the column of your renowned newspaper, I would like to highlight how we
can make the influence of friends more productive and positive in a student’s life.
We are all aware that friendship is the most valuable relationship in this world. It is
a companionship that is born between two unknown people. Friendship is the only
relationship that we make of our own choice other than family, which is a blessing
by God. As a student, we meet several people of our age and sometimes the influence
of people can be in a positive way or in a negative way because peers play a very
important role in everyone's life. Usually, schools or colleges of students are
considered as a second home. Whatever we learn in our life is because of our school
teachers and our friends that we make that influence our behaviour a lot. But
friendship is something that releases all our stress whether we are in a problem or
not. Friends are the ones who are always standing beside us. Sometimes the bond
between friends is so beautiful that we feel more comfortable sharing things with
friends rather than our parents and true friends always show us the right path no
matter what.
As it is said that too many cooks spoil the broth, I feel that books and friends should
be few and good. We need to make friendship more productive and positive. This
can be done through making use of our time with friends in a productive manner,
encouraging and supporting each other, learning from each other, and positively
taking up some projects and social work.
I request you to publish this letter in your prestigious newspaper so kids will learn
the way to form friendly relationships productive and positive and successively a
way to be from negative peer pressure.
Yours Sincerely,
Aruna
4. Write a story in 150-200 words based on the input given below :
Class X English Communicative www.vedantu.com 9
They started a trek to the peak of the mountain - supposed to be a very hard
journey - a five - day long trek - when they started..... 10 Marks
Ans: They started a trek to the peak of the mountain. It was supposed to be a difficult
journey, but all were quite excited about it. Everyone wanted to enjoy their trekking
since they had a very hectic semester. It was a five-day-long trek and they informed
their parents about the same. They promised to call their parents as soon as they
arrived but they forgot to do so. On the second day after covering a few miles, people
started calling their names but they ignored and carried on with trekking. Suddenly
it started raining heavily and realised that the people might have been warning them.
Somehow after a few difficulties, they reached the first camp and decided to take
some rest there. Later than sooner they realised that their parents must be worried
about them. Then they tried to contact their parents who scolded and explained to
them how worried they were after hearing the news of tremendous rainfall and lack
of communication on their part. Everyone apologised and enjoyed the rest of their
trekking journey. They started a trek to the peak of the mountain. it had been alleged
to be a troublesome journey, however, everybody was quite excited concerning it.
Or
He opened the factory door - peeped inside - some light - last shift over - could
be thieves.....
Ans: Shamu, the watchman of the Satellite factory, sat on his chair. He had night
duty and so he was quite alert. Suddenly he heard some murmuring in the factory.
Gathering his courage, he walked towards the door, with his stick, silently but
quickly. As he opened the door and peeped inside, he saw some light and heard some
noises. He was alarmed after the last shift which was an hour ago, he himself had
checked the factory after everyone left. He thought that it could be thieves. He
checked in between the desks, hiding himself and going towards the torch lights.
When he reached near the lights, he saw men with muffled faces, inside the factory
searching for something. Their faces were covered and Shamu understood that his
doubt was correct. He ran silently towards the main gate and took the gate’s lock
with him. Very cleverly he used the lock and locked the thieves inside the factory
and called the police immediately. Once the police reached and arrested them, he
Class X English Communicative www.vedantu.com 10
was informed that there was a bounty of thirty thousand rupees on them. Thus,
Raghu’s bravery and courage fetched him thirty thousand rupees.
5. Complete the following paragraph by filling in the blanks with the help of
the given options : 1x3=3 Marks
Reading a novel or short story (a)________ second language could
dramatically (b)_____________ physiological responses to emotions such
(c)______________ smiling.
(a) (i) of (ii) in (iii) from (iv)at
(b) (i)reduce (ii) reduces (iii) reduced (iv) reducing
(c) (i)like (ii) similar to (iii) as (iv) alike
Ans:
(a) (ii)In
(b) (i)Reduce
(c) (iii)as
6. The following paragraph has not been edited. There is one error in each
line. Write the error and its correction as shown in the example.
½ x 8=4 Marks
Error Correction
One day a wonderful plate fullin gold eg. in of
fell from Heaven into a courtyard of
a temple at Benaras; so on the
plate these words were inscribe.
Class X English Communicative www.vedantu.com 11
A gift from Heaven to he who
loves better”. The priests at once
made a announcement that every
-day at noon, all which would like
to claimed the plate should come.
Ans: Error Correction
(a) a the
(b) at in
(c) inscribe inscribed
(d) he him
(e) priests priest
(f) a an
(g) which who
(h) claimed claim
7. Rearrange the following words and phrases into meaningful sentences. The
first one has been done as an example. 1x3=3 Marks
detective / below / go / written / through the / story
Go through the detective story written below.
(a) can be/two/ blamed / persons / the murder / for
(b) to the/ there are / culprit / many clues / real / pointing
(c) the /find/ murderer / who / real / out / is
Class X English Communicative www.vedantu.com 12
Ans: (a) Two persons can be blamed for the murder.
(b) There are many clues pointing to the real culprit.
(c) Find out who is the real murderer.
SECTION - C
(Literature : Textbook and Long Reading text) 25 Marks
8. Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow:
1x3=3 Marks
“Oh, oh, oh, oh, oh ...” Patol Babu began giving the exclamation a different
inflection each time he uttered it. After doing it a number of times he made
an astonishing discovery.
(a) Why did Patol Babu repeat the word, ‘oh’ over and over again ? 1 Mark
Ans: Patol Babu repeated the word ‘oh’ over and over again because he wanted to
make the most out of the opportunity had received, and squeeze every last drop of
meaning out of the role that he was given.
(b) What ‘astonishing discovery’ did he make ? 1 Mark
Ans: Patol Babu made an astonishing discovery of the same exclamation; he
carried different shades of meaning whenever he spoke in different ways.
(c) What does the word ‘uttered’ mean ? 1 Mark
Ans: The word ‘utter’ means ‘saying something’.
Or
“They that have done this deed are honourable :
What private griefs they have, alas, I know not,
Class X English Communicative www.vedantu.com 13
That made them do it”:........................
(a) Who is the speaker ? 1 Mark
Ans: Mark Antony is the speaker of the following line.
(b) What deed have ‘they’ done ? 1 Mark
Ans: ‘They’ have done a deed of killing Julius Caesar.
(c) What does the word ‘griefs’ mean ? 1 Mark
Ans: The word ‘griefs’ refers to sorrow.
9. Answer any four of the following in 30-40 words each : 2x4=8 Marks
(a) What does the poet compare the snake’s drinking habits to? Why?
2 Marks
Ans: The poet compares the snake's drinking habit to the cattle drinking water
because the snake lifted his head while drinking water as cattle do and looked at the
poet vaguely as cattle do.
(b) What sort of person was Michael’s dad ? 2 Marks
Ans: Michael's dad was a passionate person and he was curious about new
technologies. He was very much passionate about computers. He couldn't resist any
new gadget that came on the market and visited the market whenever something new
was launched.
(c) Why does Brutus kill Caesar ? 2 Marks
Ans: Brutus killed Caesar because he felt that Caesar was too ambitious to be the
King of Rome. He believes that Rome will not benefit from his ambitious nature,
and making him the king will give him so much power that the Senate will not be
able to temper his authority.
(d) Why is John’s wife angry and what does she decide to do ? 2 Marks
Class X English Communicative www.vedantu.com 14
Ans: John's wife is angry because she feels that he is cheating on her with another
woman named Helen. She decided to leave John's house and go back to her
grandmother. She also decided to send John a court notice.
(e) Why were the mariners angry with the Ancient Mariner ? 2 Marks
Ans: The Mariners were angry with the ancient Mariner because he had killed the
albatross, which was considered a good omen and brought bad luck to the sailors.
10. Answer the following in 80-100 words : 4 Marks
Who was Mr. Pakrashi and how did he instil the value of being true to one’s
work in Patol Babu ?
Ans: Mr. Prakashi was the guru and mentor of Patol Babu. He always told Patol
Babu whatever small part he was offered he should never consider it below his
dignity to accept it. As an artist, his aim should be to make the most out of the
opportunity and squeeze the last drop of the meaning of his lines. When Patol Babu
was given only a single dialogue ‘oh’ to utter, he thought of quitting. But when the
words of wisdom from Mr. Prakashi echoed in his ears, he accepted the role. He did
it so well that everyone was praising him. He did it with commitment and perfection.
Or
Keeping in mind the poem, ‘Snake’, write out a speech for the morning
assembly on the topic, ‘Snakes - a beautiful creation of God, an object of our
love and not hatred.
Ans: Good morning everyone, today I'm here to talk about snakes- a beautiful
creation of God, An object of our love and not hatred.
Snakes are one of the most beautiful creations of God. Snakes belong to the reptile
family and are present in almost every corner of the world. There are more than 3000
varieties and species of snakes in this world. However, people are afraid of snakes
because they think snakes are poisonous. This is unfortunate because the average
snakes that turn up in the backyard or forest are usually not deadly. This
Class X English Communicative www.vedantu.com 15
misconception keeps us bound to our rudimentary thinking. In India, snakes are
considered Religious. But many people think that they should kill them because
these creatures are harmful. But these creatures have every right to cook, exist in
harmony with humanity. We must respect and protect the right of living creatures
and not prove our superiority over them by restoring or harming them.
11. Answer the following question in 150-200 words : 10 Marks
There were many reasons for Helen Keller’s embittered childhood. What were
they and how were they overcome ?
Ans: Helen suffered from disease when she was nineteen months old. This took
away her ability to see and hear her condition made her extremely dependent on her
mother, and she used crude sign language to communicate her wants. Gradually she
realized that she was a different person from others. When she was unable to
understand what others spoke, her frustration and anger grew. When her sister was
born, Helen thought of her as an intruder who had taken her place in her mother's
life. She became very rude and an unruly child due to her inability to communicate.
She led her life in a dark and silent world until Miss Sullivan came to enlighten her
world. Sullivan was the embodiment of love, understanding, patience and
perseverance. With the help of this gifted teacher, Helen was able to overcome all
her shortcomings and was able to educate herself, heal and learn to communicate
with others with the help of Miss Sullivan who worked hard with her to gain
confidence and not consider herself as a burden. Helen learnt to see her with her
fingers. Also, she learned to read and write, which enabled her not to feel defeated
in life. Helen and Sullivan dramatically changed the world's perception of people
with disabilities.
Or
Helen’s struggle has become a source of inspiration for all less fortunate.
Comment.
Ans: The less fortunate admire Helen and take inspiration from struggles in her life.
She overcame the adversity of being blind and deaf with the able assistance and went
Class X English Communicative www.vedantu.com 16
on to become the torchbearer for millions with a handicap. Helen had an undying
spirit due to which she never dwelt on her disability. Her determination, her small
and steady steps towards her destination enabled her to achieve whatever she aspired
for. Her high aspirations gave the world a lesson of optimism and positivity. Her
entire life is an inspiration for everyone. Helen’s persistent efforts enabled her to
become a world-renowned activist who strived for the betterment of others. Her
eagerness to know more about life made her live a meaningful life. Helen Keller is
a symbol of the indomitable human spirit, a legend of the world. As Helen, herself
said, “Faith is the strength by which a shattered world shall emerge into the light”.
Or
Anne’s relationship with her mother was never simple. What created the
tension and discord ? Why ?
Ans: There were certainly a few reasons for the discord and tension between Anne
and her mother. For one, Anne hated the long "dreadful sermons" her mother (Edith)
subjected her to whenever she misbehaved. Anne's relationship with her mother was
not good. Anne thinks that her mother always used to support Margot rather than
supporting her. Also, she thought of herself as a mentally mature girl and didn't wish
to share anything with her mother. Moreover, Anne loved her father Mr Otto Frank
very much as compared to anyone else in her life. In this context, she says "I can
even imagine my mother dying one day. But I can't imagine living without my
father'. Also, Anne usually used to pray with her father. But one day when her mother
wanted to do so with Anne, she sent her mother cowardly and after that, she
apologized to her only on Pim's advice. But on the side of her mother, the story was
entirely different. She always used to support Anne even when Mrs Van Dan scolds
Anne for being playful. One gets the impression that Anne and Edith could well
have worked out their differences had they been given the proper time and space.
Or
Anne’s father was close to her. What did she like about him ? Why ?
Ans: Anne describes her father as the best father in the world. In her diary, Anne,
his father Otto Frank, was caring, gentle, modest and a peacemaker who wanted the
Class X English Communicative www.vedantu.com 17
best for his daughter. He was more tolerant towards any and gave her more freedom
and he learned. The quality of self-control from her father. She always tried to live
up to his expectations and obey him. Anne thought of her father as more supporting
and liberal than her mother. She felt a special connection with him and continually
tried to. Impress him by living up to his. And we believe that her mother was very
sentimental and critical when she wanted her to be more affectionate and accepting.
Edit was usually the voice of reason and the one to defuse fights. During their stay
at the annexe, many said that her father was nicer to her than her mother. Her father
knew that there was an absence of good understanding between the mother and the
daughter. He was aware that she disapproved of a majority of things that her mother
said or suggested. Edith suffers more from this then and in fact, as a mother she was
relieved to know her daughter at least trusted her father.
Class X English Communicative www.vedantu.com 18
CBSE Class 10
English (Communicative)
Previous Year Question Paper 2017
Series: HRK Set- 1
Code no. 1/1
● Please check that this question paper contains 8 printed pages.
● Code number given on the right hand side of the question paper should
be written on the title page of the answer-book by the candidate.
● Please check that this question paper contains 11 questions.
● Please write down the Serial Number of the question before
attempting it.
● 15 minute time has been allotted to read this question paper. The
question paper will be distributed at 10.15 a.m. From 10.15 a.m. to
10.30 a.m, the students will read the question paper only and will not
write any answer on the answer-book during this period
SUMMATIVE ASSESSMENT-II
ENGLISH (COMMUNICATIVE)
Time Allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 70
General Instructions:
1. The Question paper is divided into three sections :
Section A — Reading 20 marks
Section B — Writing and Grammar 25 marks
Class X English(C) www.vedantu.com 1
Section C — Literature 25 marks
2. All questions are compulsory.
3. You may attempt any section at a time.
4. All questions of that particular section must be attempted in the correct
order.
SECTION - A
(Reading) 20 Marks
1. Read the passage carefully : 8 Marks
I was born in the small but beautiful mountain village of Nakuri near
Uttarkashi in Garhwal, with the gurgling, playful Bhagirathi river flowing
nearby. My parents were a hard-working and extremely self-contained
couple. Even though our family was poor, barely managing the essentials,
my father taught us how to live and maintain dignity and self-respect — the
most treasured family values till today. At the same time my parents also
practised the creed, ‘‘Kindness is the essence of all religion.’’ They were
large-hearted, inviting village folk passing by to have tea at our home, and
gave grain to the sadhus and pandits who came to the house. This
characteristic has been ingrained in me so deeply that I am able to reach out
to others and make a difference in their lives — whether it is in my home, in
society or at the workplace.
I was the third child in the family — girl, boy, girl, girl and boy in that order
— and quite a rebel. I developed a tendency to ask questions and was not
satisfied with the customary way of life for a girl-child. When I found my
elder brother, Bachchan, encouraging our youngest brother, Raju, to take
up mountaineering I thought, why not me ? I found that my brothers were
always getting preferential treatment and all opportunities and options were
open to them. This made me even more determined to not only do what the
boys were doing, but to do it better.
The general thinking of mountain people was that mountaineering as a sport
was not for them. They considered themselves to be born mountaineers as
they had to go up and down mountain slopes for their daily livelihood and
even for routine work. On the other hand, as a student, I would look
Class X English(C) www.vedantu.com 2
curiously at foreign backpackers passing by my village and wonder where
they were going. I would even invite them to my house and talk to them to
learn more about their travels. The full significance of this came to me later
when I started working. The foreigners took the trouble to come all the way
to the Himalayas in order to educate themselves on social, cultural and
scientific aspects of mountaineering, as well as to seek peace in nature’s
gigantic scheme of things.
1.1 Answer the following questions : 1×8= 8 Marks
a. What does the author tell us about the financial condition of her
parents?
Ans: The author tells that her parents were poor, and could barely manage the
essentials.
b. What is the most treasured value of the author’s family ?
Ans: To (live and ) maintain dignity and self respect is the most treasured
value of the author's family.
c. Give an example to show that the author’s parents were very
hospitable.
Ans: The author's parents invited passing village folk to tea at their home and
gave grain to sadhus and pandits who came to the house, demonstrating their
hospitality.
d. What kind of girl was the author ?
Ans: The author was a rebel; she developed a tendency to ask questions and
was not satisfied with the customary way of life for a girl child.
e. How do you know that the author’s parents discriminated between
sons and daughters ?
Ans: The author's brothers were always getting preferential treatment and all
opportunities and options were available to them, proving her parents
discriminated between sons and daughters.
f. Why do the mountain people consider themselves to be born
mountaineers?
Ans: Mountain people had to go up and down mountain slopes for their daily
Class X English(C) www.vedantu.com 3
livelihood and even for routine work- that's why they consider themselves to
be born mountaineers.
g. Why would the author invite foreign mountaineers to her house?
Ans: The author invited foreign mountaineers to her home for conversation
and to learn more about their adventures.
h. Why were foreigners drawn to the Himalayas ?
Ans: Foreigners were drawn to the Himalayas because they could learn about
the social, cultural, and scientific aspects of mountaineering while also
seeking peace in nature's vast scheme of things.
2. Read the passage carefully : 12 Marks
1. One would imagine that at the very sight of the panther, deer, antelopes,
and its other prey would just run for their lives. Nothing of the sort. They
all stand their ground and make such a loud noise that the panther is left
with no other choice except to leave quietly. I have seen a tiny chital baby
standing in the middle of an opening in the forest, stamping its feet on the
ground and shooing away a tiger. With the white of its erect tail showing, it
kept up its shrill call until the tiger made itself scarce. No tiger in its senses
would attempt to catch such an impertinent brat, just as you would not
dream of catching an offending crow cawing away in your verandah.
2. While the panther sticks to cover and hugs the edge of the forest, the
game animals, on the other hand, like to assemble right out in open vast
grazing grounds. Open spaces which the panther carefully avoids, are what
the game animals deliberately seek.
3. It is difficult to describe the pandemonium kicked up by various animals
when they spot or suspect a panther around. The chital strikes a shrill note,
the kakar emits a deafening bark and the sambar rings a bell. The
peacock on its perch, the jungle fowl on the ground, and the monkey on
treetops, all join in the chorus of condemnation of the panther. They curse
the panther in their own inimitable language. The resulting confusion of
sounds is so irritating to the sharp ears of the panther that it is left with no
other option except to go away.
4. The panther has thus to deal with its ever alert and watchful associates
Class X English(C) www.vedantu.com 4
who show no mercy and expect none. It is a fight between finesse and flight,
between clever attack and skilful defence.
5. Contrary to the common belief, the panther never springs upon its prey.
It stalks as close to its victim as it can manage, and then makes the final
dash by rushing at it at a lightning speed.
2.1 Answer the following questions : 2×4= 8 Marks
(a) What strategy do animals like deer, antelopes, etc adopt to drive away
the panther ?
Ans: To drive away the panther, animals like deer, antelopes etc stand their
ground and make such a loud noise that the panther leaves quietly. It is left
with no other choice
(b) How do the panther and the game animals (deer, antelopes, etc) react
to open spaces ?
Ans: Panther carefully avoids the open spaces. Game animals (deer, antelopes,
etc) deliberately seek open spaces, and like to assemble right out in open vast
grazing grounds.
(c) What effect does the loud noise made by birds and animals have on
the panther ?
Ans: The loud noise made by birds and animals with the resulting confusion
of sounds is so irritating to the sharp ears of the panther, it is left with one
option only. It goes away.
(d) How does the panther kill its prey ?
Ans: The panther stalks its prey as closely as it can. It then makes a final dash
at its prey, rushing at it with lightning speed, and kills it.
2.2 Find the meanings of the words given below with the help of the options
that follow : 4 Marks
(a) shrill (Para 1)
(i) rude
(ii) high
(iii) offensive
Class X English(C) www.vedantu.com 5
(iv) terrible
Ans: (ii) High
(b) deliberately (Para 2)
(i) immediately
(ii) cleverly
(iii) intentionally
(iv) naughtily
Ans: (iii) Intentionally
(c) condemnation (Para 3)
(i) disapproval
(ii) dismissal
(iii) revenge
(iv) annoyance
Ans: (i) Disapproval
(d) associates (Para 4)
(i) rivals
(ii) neighbours
(iii) superiors
(iv) partners
Ans: (i) Rivals
SECTION - B
(Writing and Grammar) 20 Marks
3. Many students from different parts of the country come to Delhi to study.
Class X English(C) www.vedantu.com 6
Finding affordable accommodation is the main problem faced by them.
Landlords charge exorbitant rents and in some cases refuse to rent rooms
to them because of their different food habits and culture. The hostel
facility provided by educational institutions is too inadequate to meet the
demand. Write a letter in 100 – 120 words to the editor of a local daily
drawing the attention of the authorities and requesting them to take
appropriate action. You are Raman / Raveena, 12, Station Road, Delhi.
5 Marks
Ans:
The Editor
The Times of India
Kasturba Gandhi Marg
New Delhi
Subject: Student’s smooth stay in the city
Sir,
I would be grateful if you could provide me with a small place in your prestigious
newspaper's column to convey my worry about the inadequate facilities for
students arriving in Delhi from all over the cities.
The importance of education cannot be overstated. Students in small cities do
not have as many options for education as those in Delhi. As a result, students
from all over the country flock to Delhi to study. However, finding a suitable
accommodation becomes difficult for them in this situation. Rents are
skyrocketing. Exorbitant rents are demanded by landlords. They are not
subjected to any form of verification or checks.
To make matters worse, the state of dorms in educational institutions is
appalling. They, too, lack appropriate resources. Authorities' indifference and
negligence rendered them ineffective. Other issues include unswept floors and
unsanitary environments. This problem is the need of most attention must be
addressed and corrected right away.
As a result, I urge the authorities to take quick action to resolve the problem so
that students can enjoy a safe and comfortable stay in the city.
Thank you
Class X English(C) www.vedantu.com 7
Yours Truly
Raman/Raveena
Or
Accidents happen when people violate traffic rules. Careless drivers cause
suffering to themselves and to others. Write an article in 100 – 120 words
on ‘‘Safe Driving’’. 5 Marks
Ans: “Safe Driving”
by XYZ
When people break the laws of the road, accidents occur. And, unlike
applauding, it only takes one hand to rid the world of many lives. If someone is
driving in blatant disregard of traffic rules, he surely is a danger to himself-
though Sadly he poses a danger to all that find themselves on the same road as
he.
Traffic rules are regarded with distaste in the unruly Indian roads. For instance,
most people wear helmets only near traffic pickets- as if they are humoring the
police so as not to get a ticket and not for their safety. The underlying current
that is still relevant is the ignorance and twisted attitude wreaking havoc, day in
and day out on our roads. The driver assumes himself safe between international
safety standards and speeds through the lives of pedestrians and pavement
dwellers- succumbing to a heavier vehicle finally, perhaps.
Our roads are not racecourses, neither for ‘kicks’ nor for making up for lost time.
Jumping signals, not following speed limits, not wearing seat belts, driving under
the influence of alcohol, drugs, social media or phone conversation are common
crimes and commonly answered with lives too.
4. Write a story in 150 – 200 words based on the input given below:
10 Marks
Travelling in metro — tunnel — lights went out — general panic — pushing
and shoving — screams — phone flashlights switched on — an old man ........
Ans: Yesterday was the turning point and rather a very crucial and significant
day of my life. I came to the place of my friend because in Noida I had an
interview. I went out shopping with her after the interview. We were travelling
Class X English(C) www.vedantu.com 8
in the metro and had just passed through a tunnel. Suddenly lights went out and
it was dark due to some technical fault. All of them were panic. People began to
push each other. Women and children screamed because it was pitch black
everywhere. Some people have turned on flashlight phones and attempted to help
the public. After a few minutes, I was relieved, but suddenly I found an old man
covered in a blanket. He didn't appear to be a nice guy in any way. He was
standing before me, I wasn't really comfortable seeing him. I realised he had
been a pickpocketer within seconds. When the next station arrived, I caught him
red handed, and we turned him over to the officer who was on the scene..
Everyone liked my presence, but I was very tired, as I needed to go to the police
station and have been waiting for the inquiry for nearly 2 hours.
Or
Mrs. Madhu alone in house — had lunch — watching favourite serial —
doorbell rang — opened door — a sadhu ........
Ans: In the month of June, it was a hot afternoon. Mrs. Madhu was alone in her
home. She had her lunch and sat down to watch her favourite show when the
doorbell rang. She got up sluggishly and opened the door, thinking it was her
maid. It was not, however, her maid. Instead, a sadhu stood outside. He was an
elderly gentleman with a grey beard. He was carrying a bag on his shoulders. He
requested a glass of water because he was extremely thirsty. Mrs. Madhu was at
a loss for what to do. Then she reasoned that an old sadhu couldn't hurt her. As
a result, she went inside to fetch a glass of water. The sadhu was not present
when she emerged. She went outside and looked around, but he was nowhere to
be found. She was taken aback, but she went inside, locked the door, and sat in
front of the TV to watch the serial again. But she didn't feel at ease. Something
was wrong. She couldn't make any sense of what was going on. She had the
impression that she was not alone. She turned around to find the sadhu standing
behind her, much to her surprise. She was frightened. She wished she could
scream and yell into oblivion, but she couldn't. The sadhu had a strange
expression on his face. He demanded that she hand over the keys. She was at a
loss for what to do. The doorbell rang once more. This was her opportunity to
save herself. She pushed the sadhu out, opened the door, and began yelling. She
was wondering where she had gotten the courage to hit a man. Soon after, the
neighbours gathered and apprehended the sadhu. Then they called the cops and
surrendered him to them. Mrs. Madhu made a vow to herself that she would
never trust a stranger. It was a terrible afternoon that haunted her for several days
after.
Class X English(C) www.vedantu.com 9
5. Complete the following paragraph by filling in the blanks with the help
of the give options: 1×3= 3 Marks
During (a)_____________ hottest part of the year, many of our city streets
seem to be on fire (b)_________________ masses of Gulmohar flowers.
This (c) ______________ one of the most beautiful trees.
(a) (i) a (ii) the (iii) an (iv) some
(b) (i) from (ii) by (iii) with (iv) over
(c) (i) is (ii) was (iii)are (iv) be
Ans: (a) the
(b) with
(c) is
6. The following paragraph has not been edited. There is one error in
each line. Write the error and its correction as shown in the example.
1×4= 4 Marks
Error Correction
Neil Armstrong was the commander for Apollo 11 e.g. for of
He was the first to walk over (a) _______ ________
the moon. What many people do not knew (b) _______ ________
is that unlike most of their fellow (c) _______ ________
astronauts, he was the civilian (d) _______ ________
and not part of the military.
Ans: Error Correction
e.g. for of
(a) over on
Class X English(C) www.vedantu.com 10
(b) knew know
(c) their his
(d) the a
7. Rearrange the following words / phrases to form meaningful sentences.
The first one has been done as an example. 1×3= 3 Marks
poverty / the village people / from / most / suffer / of
Most of the village people suffer from poverty.
(a) in rural areas / is / employment opportunities / there / of / lack /
Ans: In rural areas there is lack of employment opportunities.
(b) come to cities / in / people / so / of work / search /
Ans: So in search of work people come to cities
(c) appalling conditions / cities / they / in / live / in /
Ans: They live in cities in appalling conditions.
SECTION – C
(Literature: Textbook and Long Reading Text) 25 Marks
8. Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow :
1×3= 3 Marks
It all started a month ago. Dad and I had spent the entire Saturday
afternoon at the Computer Fair.
(a) Who is the speaker ?
Ans: The speaker was Michael Dawson, the narrator in ‘Virtually True’
written by Paul Stewart.
(b) Why had the speaker and his father gone to the Computer Fair ?
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Ans: The speaker and the father had gone to the computer fair because his
father was obsessed with new technology and gadgets or gizmos and wanted
to buy something new for his collection.
(c) What does the word ‘entire’ mean ?
Ans: ‘Entire’ refers to the whole time.
Or
Ah ! Well-a-day ! What evil looks
Had I from old and young !
Instead of the cross, the Albatross
About my neck was hung.
(a) Why did the speaker have evil looks from the mariners ?
Ans: The speaker had ever looks from the mariners because they held him
responsible for their suffering
(b) Why did they hang the Albatross around the speaker's neck?
Ans: They hung the Albatross around his neck as a mark of his sin and guilt.
They did so out of a sense of revenge.
(c) What does the word evil mean ?
Ans: The word evil means wicked or cruel.
9. Answer any four of the following questions in 30 – 40 words each:
2×4= 8 Marks
(a) How did Patol Babu initially react to the role allotted to him ?
Ans: Patol Babu was overjoyed and excited to be cast as a pedestrian in a film.
But when he got his dialogue 'Oh' written on paper, he felt a sudden throbbing
in his heart. He had anticipated a longer scene with more dialogue.
(b) What kind of woman is Lavinia ?
Ans: Lavinia was a sharp woman who devoured any new information that
Class X English(C) www.vedantu.com 12
came her way. She bought a ouija board because she thought it was the luckiest
and most daring thing she'd ever done. She was a strong woman who
disregarded her husband's request not to use the ouija board. Her husband
thought she was extremely timid. As a result, he was concerned that she would
faint upon seeing the ghost. When she came face to face with the ghost, she
simply smiled, proving him wrong.
(c) What was the aim of the game Dragonquest ?
Ans: In the game Dragonquest, the player was tasked with rescuing the
beautiful princess Aurora and stealing the Dragon's treasure from his castle,
where she was imprisoned. In a twisted version of the game, though, it was
Sebastain Shulz who needed rescuing from the dragon’s lair and he was
dressed as a night himself (and knew his way around).
(d) How does Decius Brutus interpret Calpurnia’s dream ?
Ans: Calpurnia's dream was interpreted by Decius Brutus as a fortunate
vision. Caesar will be an inspiration to the Romans. Rome will be revitalised.
His blood stains would be preserved as a relic.
(e) What do the expressions on Ozymandias’ face reveal about him ?
Ans: The expressions on Ozymandias' face are frowning and sneering. They
made him appear powerful and absolute ruler-like. His facial expression
conveyed that he was arrogant and despised his subjects.
10. Answer the following question in 80 – 100 words : 4 Marks
Whenever we act against the voice of our conscience, the result is
suffering. Explain with reference to the poet’s action against the snake and
its consequences.
Ans: When we act against the voice of our conscience, we suffer as a result. Poet's
inner voice advised him to treat the snake as if it were a guest. He wished for
peaceful coexistence with other species. But, ignoring the voice of his conscience
and without thinking about the consequences of his actions, he struck the snake.
He quickly regretted his careless action. His conscience pricked him for killing
the snake unnecessarily, despite the fact that it had not harmed him in any way.
He was overcome by a sense of sin and guilt. He desired to make amends and beg
forgiveness.
Class X English(C) www.vedantu.com 13
Or
Dedication and hard work are essential for success. Explain how these
qualities enable Patol Babu to perform his small role to perfection.
Ans: Patol babu embodied dedication and hard work. He was able to get a single
monosyllabic word, 'Oh,' to speak, but he added numerous special touches to
make it more authentic. He requested a newspaper to read while walking in order
to appear as an absent-minded stranger. To make his line more effective, he
planned the ratio of emotions he would express. He even planned his steps so that
he would collide with the actor at the appropriate time. He went to such lengths
to deliver a flawless shot.
11. Answer the following question in 150 – 200 words : 10 Marks
What does Anne’s diary reveal about the steadily worsening economic and
social conditions during the war ?
Ans: Anne's diary reveals a lot about the economic and social conditions that
were deteriorating day by day during the war. Burglaries, thefts, and breaking
and entering were all common occurrences. There was a scarcity of food, so
people had to wait in long lines for vegetables and other items. Little kids would
break the windows and steal whatever they could get their hands on. People wore
ripped and worn-out clothes because they lacked proper clothing. Men were
being deported to Germany. People were becoming ill, but doctors were unable
to attend to them because their vehicles were stolen the moment they turned their
backs. In the absence of proper food, children were malnourished or sick. There
was chaos everywhere. Prices for a variety of items had risen. The black market
was in full swing. Due to scarcity, even police officers and night watchmen had
become involved in thefts and burglaries. Because wages had been frozen,
almost everyone had begun to deceive others. As a result, the combination was
deteriorating.
Or
What is your impression of Peter ?
Ans: Peter Van Daan was the Van Daans' adolescent son, whose real name was
Peter Van Pets. Anne initially thought Peter was obnoxious, lazy, and overly
sensitive, but they later became close friends. Peter was a quiet, timid, and honest
young man who was kind to Anne. Anne and Peter developed a romantic
Class X English(C) www.vedantu.com 14
attraction during their time in the Annexe, but he was unable to express his
feelings openly. He enjoyed reading books, especially those intended for adults.
He once hid in the loft to read one of these books and became so engrossed in it
that he forgot to come down for dinner. His father came up to him and smacked
him hard when he discovered him reading the book. That night, he was refused
dinner, which he resented. He didn't like his parents' domineering demeanour,
but because he was shy, he never told them. They provided him with emotional
relief. Later on, he expressed a desire to become a criminal. Anne was not a fan
of it. He wanted to be successful, but he didn't want to work hard for it, she
realised. He was forced to participate in the "death march" and died on May 5,
1945.
Or
Helen did not confine herself to acquiring knowledge, but also enjoyed
herself by taking part in outdoor activities. Elaborate.
Ans: Helen Keller wrote about her love of the country and outdoor sports like
sailing and canoeing in her 1903 autobiography, 'The Story of My Life.' She
preferred them in the moonlight. She had taken riding lessons as a student at
Wright-Humason School. Her favourite outdoor activities included camping
trips, walks in a fragrant garden, and tandem bicycle rides. But rowing in her
canoe was even more enjoyable for Keller. She learned to swim and row when
she was very young, and as an adult, she practically lived in her canoe during the
summers. Nothing gave her more pleasure than taking her friends out for a
row.Rowing by the scent of water grasses and lilies, as well as bushes growing
on the shore, gave her pleasure. When the oars were evenly poised, she could
feel the resistance of the water and tell when she would pull against the current.
She enjoyed battling the wind and waves. It was thrilling for her to go skimming,
lightly over glistening, tilting waves, and to feel the water's steady, imperious
surge.
Or
Which traits of Helen’s character appeal to you most ? Give a reasoned
answer.
Ans: Helen Keller's tenacity is without a doubt her most remarkable quality. We
see her showing that trait many times in her autobiography, ‘The Story of My
Life,' as she continues to learn, read, write, and finally talk to convey herself,
despite failure following her at every step. She never abandons her desire of
attending college, continues to see and hear girls her age, and, most significantly,
Class X English(C) www.vedantu.com 15
resumes writing after the humiliating accusation of plagiarism. Humanity is
another endearing trait. It shows in her love for fellow human beings
downtrodden by poverty and differently abled children- whose causes she
championed in later life. Her love of dogs and nature, as well as her lovely and
loving personality and rustic tendencies, are all manifestations of that trade. Her
obstinacy, on the other hand, shines brightly.. Her never say never spirit are what
drew the sympathies of her most illustrious admirers, men like Mark Twain and
Alexander Graham Bell. Her unwavering will to learn, speak, and attend college
despite her companions' criticism and laughter, and to complete her degree at the
Cambridge School in the time allotted three years, all point to this that she never
give up on becoming equal to normal people all manner of things is another
instance, and the fact that she succeeded is one solace to anyone who find himself
disadvantaged in life. Her unquenchable curiosity is one inspiring trait. All that
she learned and tried to learn are brazen examples. Her strength of will and
character shine in her successes. That iron will is Helen Keller’s relic for
humanity, a gift unto all that don't bow to their circumstances and challenge them.
I wish to be one.
Class X English(C) www.vedantu.com 16
10th STD. - CBSE BOARD
DATE : 12.03.2018 English SET - 3 / CODE 1/3
QXHVWLRQ3DSHU SROXWLRQV
ENGLISH
(COMMUNICATIVE)
General Instructions :
(i) The question paper is divided into three sections;
Section A : Reading 20 marks
Section B: Writing and Grammar 30 marks
Section C :Literature 30 marks
(ii) All questions are compulsory.
(iii) You may attempt any section at a time.
(iv) All questions of that particular section must be attempted in the correct order.
SECTION – A
(Reading) [20]
1. Read the passage given below :
Globalization
Globalization is the way to open businesses, improve technological growth, economy, etc, at the
international level for all countries. It is the way in which manufacturers and producers of the products
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or goods sell their products globally without any restriction. It provides huge profits to the
businessmen as they get 1ow cost labour in poor countries easily. It provides a big opportunity
to the companies to„ deal with the worldwide market.
Globalization helps to consider the whole world 'as a single market. Traders are extending
their areas of business by treating the world as a global village. Earlier till the 1990s, there was
a restriction on importing certain products which were already manufactured in India like
agricultural products, engineering goods, food items and toiletries. However, during the 1990s
there was a pressure from. the rich countries on the poor and developing countries to allow them
to spread their businesses by opening their markets. In India the globalization and liberalization
process was started in 1991.
After many years, globalization brought about a major revolution in the Indian market when
multinational brands came to India and started delivering a wide range of quality products at cheap
prices. Prices of good quality products came down because of the cutthroat competition in the
market.
Globalization and liberalization of the businesses in India have flooded the market
with quality foreign products but has affected the local Indian industries adversely to a
great extent resulting in the job loss to poor and uneducated workers. Globalization has
been a bonanza for the consumers, however, a loss to the small-scale Indian producers.
Globalization has had some very positive effects on the Indian consumer in all sectors of society.
It has affected the Indian students and education sector to a great extent by making study books
and a lot of information available over the internet. Collaboration of foreign universities with the
Indian universities has brought about a huge change in the field of education.
Globalization of trade in the agricultural sector has brought varieties of quality seeds which
have disease resistati8e; property. However, it is not good for the poor Indian farmers becausio-
the seeds and agriculltural technologies are costly.
It has brought about a huge revolution in the employment sector by the spread of businesses like
cottage, handloom, carpet, artisan carving, ceramic, jewellery, and glassware etc.
Attempt any eight of the following questions : [20]
(a) What is globalization ?
Ans. Globalization is the way to open business, improve technological growth, economy, etc. at the international
level for all countries.
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(b) Write any two advantages of globalization.
Ans. The two advantages of globalization are it helps to consider the whole world as a single market and
multinational brands came to India to deliver a wide range of quality products at cheap rates.
(c) What was the pressure from the rich countries in the 1990’s?
Ans. During 1990s, there was a pressure from the rich countries on the poor & developing countries to
allow them to spread their business by opening their markets.
(d) What is the effect of multinational brands entering the Indian market ?
Ans. The multinational brands entered the Indian market and started delivering a wide range of quality
products at cheap rates.
(e) How are the prices of quality products affected due to globalization ?
Ans. The prices of good quality products came down because of cutthroat competition in the market.
(f) How have the foreign products affected the local industry adversely ?
Ans. The foreign products resulted in the job loss to poor & uneducated workers affecting the local industry
adversely.
(g) What has been the impact of globalization on the Indian students ?
Ans. Globalization affected Indian students & education sector to a great extent by making study books &
lot of information available over the internet.
(h) Why has globalization had a negative effect on the poor Indian farmer ?
Ans. Globalization in agricultural sector had a negative impact on poor Indian farmer as it bought varieties
of quality seeds which have disease resistance property but these seeds & agricultural technologies are
costly for them.
(i) How has the cottage industry benefited from globalization ?
Ans. Globalization bought a huge revolution as it created employment opportunities people
through cottage industry.
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2. Read the passage given below : [12]
Everybody wants to succeed in life. For some, success means achieving whatever they desire or
dream. For many it is the name, fame and social position. Whatever be the meaning of success, it is
success which makes a man popular.
All great men have been successful. They are remembered for their great
achievements. But it is certain that success comes to those who are sincere,
hardworking, loyal and committed to their goals.
Success has been man's greatest motivation. It is very important for all. Success has a great effect
on life. It brings pleasure and pride. It gives a sense of fullfilment. It means all-around
development. Everybody hopes to be successful in life. But success smiles on those who have a
proper approach, planning, vision and stamina. A proper and timely application of all these
things is bound to bear fruit. One cannot be successful without cultivating these certain basic
things in life. It is very difficult to set out on a journey without knowing one's goals and
purposes. Clarity of the objective is a must to succeed in life. A focused approach with proper
planning is certain to bring success. Indecision and insincerity are big obstacles on the path to success.
One should have the capability, capacity and resources to turn one's dreams into reality. Mere
desire cannot bring you success. The desire should be weighed against factors like capability and
resources. This is the basic requirement of success. The next important thing is the eagerness,
seriousness and the urge to be successful. It is the driving force which decides the success. It is
the first step on the ladder of success.
One needs to pursue one's goals with all one's sincerity and passion. One should
always be in high spirit. Lack of such spirit leads to an inferiority complex which is a big
obstruction on the path to success. Time is also a deciding factor. Only the punctual and
committed have succeeded in life. Lives of great men are examples of this. They had all these
qualities in plenty which helped them rise to the peak of success.
Hard labour is one of the basic requirements of success. There is no substitute for hard labour. It alone
can take one to the peak of success. Every success has a ratio of five percent inspiration and ninety-
five percent perspiration. It is the patience, persistence and perseverance which play a decisive role
in achieving success. Failures are the pillars of success as they are our stepping-stones and we
must get up and start again and be motivated.
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2.1 On the basis of your reading of the passage, answer any four of the following
questions in 30-40 words each : [2 x 4 = 8]
(a) To whom does success come certainly ?
Ans. Success certainly comes to those who are sincere, hardworking, loyal and committed to
their goals.
(b) What are the basic things in life we need to achieve success ?
Ans. The basic things in life we need to achieve success is proper approach, planning, vision &
stamina.
(c) What did great men have in plenty to rise to the peak of success ? Give any two
examples.
Ans. Great men had goal’s with sincerity & passion in plenty to rise the peak success. Time
management, punctuality & commitment are the examples.
(d) What is the one basic requirement of success ?
Ans. Hard labour is one of the basic requirement of success.
(e) Explain : "Failures are pillars of success."
Ans. “Failures are pillars of success” & that can be explained well as it means that failures or
mistakes are our stepping stones & we must get up & start again & be motivated.
2.2 On the basis of your reading of the passage, fill in any two of the following blanks
with appropriate words/phrase : [1 x 2 = 2]
(a) ________________ plays a decisive role in achieving success.
Ans. Patience, persistence & perseverance plays a decisive role in achieving success.
(b) Goals have to be pursued with ________________ and ________________
Ans. Goals have to be pursued with sincerity and passion.
(c) Ratio of success is ________________ inspiration.
Ans. Ratio of success is five percent inspiration.
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2.3 Find out the words from the passage that mean the same as the following :
(any two) [1 x 2 = 2]
(a) endurance (para 2)
(b) obstruction (para 4)
(c) motivation (para 5)
Ans.
(a) endurance (para 2) - Committed
(b) obstruction (para 4) - Obstacles
(c) motivation (para 5) - Spirit
SECTION – B
(Writing) [30]
3. You intend to join coaching classes at International Coaching Center situated in
Raipur. The institute specializes in teaching science to classes XI — XII. Write a letter of
enquiry in 100-120 words addressed to the Administrator incharge of the institute seeking
clarification about the timings, duration, staff, transport and other necessary details for
joining the institute. You are Rajesh/Rajni 2, Library Road Jabalpur. [8]
Ans.
Rajesh / Rajni
2 Library Road
Jabalpur.
18th March 2018
The Administrator Incharge
International Coaching Centre
Raipur.
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Sub : Enquiry regarding XIth & XIIth Science Coaching Batch.
Sir,
With reference to your advertisement in Times of India, dated 17 th March 2018
regarding new batch admissions for XIth & XIIth std science batch, I solicit some
information. I have just completed my 10 th standard from CBSE, Jabalpur and I am
interested in taking admission for this XIth & XIIth science batch course in the morning
session.
Kindly supply me the following details:
(i) Batch timings of the session.
(ii) Duration of the course.
(iii) Staff or faculties information.
(iv) Transportation details.
(v) Documents required for enrollment.
(vi) Any other important information.
I am sending a self – addressed envelope please dispatch the requisite information at the
earliest.
Yours faithfully
Rajesh / Rajni
OR
Two main parks in your locality have suffered from neglect on the part of local authorities, They
have virtually been taken over by undesirable elements. As a result the residents have stopped
going to the parks.
Write a letter in 100-120 words to the editor of a local newspaper expressing your concern about
the problems the neglect has created and suggest measures to reclaim the parks for children. You
are Gautam/Gauri 2, Gobind Enclave, Meerut.
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Ans.
Gautam/Gauri
2,Gobind Enclave
Meerut.
March 14, 2018
The Editor
The Indian Express
Meerut.
Subject: Neglect of Public Parks
Sir,
I am writing to your good self to express my deep concern and anguish over the problem of
neglect of public parks meant for children’s play and recreation. Ever increasing pollution,
contracting open space due to urbanization and industrialization, increasing traffic on roads,
etc. all have contributed to the deterioration of environment and human health. And absence
of open spaces in the modern colonies, townships, and residential areas has further
aggravated the problem.
The worst lots that have been affected are: the young children, and the old people, besides
all age group people. How unfortunate are the growing children! They don’t have any space
left to play and have fun. The few parks there are have been very badly maintained. They
have either been encroached or in such a bad shape, that children fear going there.
The Government must maintain these parks properly. I would also appeal to the people to
adopt the parks in their colonies. Some colonies have really done an excellent job in
maintaining the parks. These parks not only enhance the beauty of the surroundings, but also
are attractive places to have fun and play. I appeal to the concerned authorities to look into
the problem and do the needful. Kindly publish my letter in your esteemed daily.
Yours truly,
Gautam/Gauri.
4. In 200-250 words write a story based on the input given below : [10]
A long wait for the bus — people impatient — a large crowd — a lot of confusion — felt the pocket
being touched — looked around — caught the hand — and………..
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Ans.
Bus Diaries
I decided to travel by bus that day to my office. I entered the bus depot where there was a
long queue & people were waiting for the bus to arrive. Everybody seemed impatient as it
was too long & the bus didn’t arrive. Gradually, large crowd could be seen & it was a busy
way. Many of them looked confused whether to wait for the bus or use another mode of
transport. I was standing in the queue busy listening music in my phone. Suddenly I realised
that the guy standing behind me was trying to stand too close to me. I requested him once to
keep a distance & continued listening music. After a while, I felt somebody tried touching
my pocket hence I turned around & caught the hand of that guy in my pocket. I caught him
red-handed pick-pocketing. We had a small argument there & even public supported me.
Then, I decided to handover this guy to the police officer & deal legally with him.
OR
Two teams — in the playground — whistle blew — match about to begin — the two captains looked
tense — suddenly there was a commotion.
Ans.
Cricket Fever
Once I decided to watch a live cricket match with my friends & fortunately one of my friend got passes
for IPL match in Wankhede stadium. The match was between Chennai Superkings v/s Kolkata Knight
Riders. The audience were settling in the stadium & the teams were preparing themselves. After the
announcements, the two teams entered the playground. The national anthem was done and toss was
conducted by the umpires. The teams decided amongst themselves for batting & bowling. The umpire
blew the whistle & the match was about to begin. Suddenly, there was a commotion from the crowd.
When everybody looked at the seats from the sound could be heard we saw that a parent was trying to
convince their little 8 years old daughter who wanted to wish good luck to M.S. Dhoni, the captain of
Chennai Superkings team. The moment Dhoni came to know this he himself came to her seat, hugged
her, took her wishes & went on the playground. The match began & finally the winners were Chennai
Superkings. Dhoni considered that girl as his lucky charm to win the match.
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5. In the following paragraph one word has been omitted in each line. Write the missing
words in any four lines of the given paragraph, along with the words that come before
and the words that come after it in the space provided. [1 x 4 = 4]
Word Missing Word
before word after
Most the people most of the
are annoyed passwords. (a) ______ ______ ______
They have many remember. (b) ______ ______ ______
On any given day are (c) ______ ______ ______
bound forget them. (d) ______ ______ ______
This creates difficulties the people. (e) ______ ______ ______
Ans.
are annoyed passwords. (a) are annoyed with passwords.
They have many remember. (b) They have many passwords to remember.
On any given day are (c) On any given day they are
bound forget them. (d) bound to forget them.
This creates difficulties the people. (e) This creates difficulties for the people.
6. Rearrange any four of the following word clusters to make meaningful sentences : [1 x 4 = 4]
(a) very exciting / can be / new country / travelling to / a
Ans. Travelling to a new country can be very exciting.
(b) it / a lot of / before / actually requires / the visit / preparation
Ans. It actually requires a lot of preparation before the visit.
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(c) option / is / light / travelling / best / the
Ans. The best option is light travelling.
(d) also need / we / the local weather / in mind / to / keep
Ans. We also need to keep in mind the local weather.
(e) always / enriched / we / return / experience / the / with
Ans. We always return with the enriched experience.
7. Fill in any four of the blanks in the sentences given below choosing the most
appropriate options from the ones that follow, Write the answers in your answer-sheet
against the correct blank numbers : [1 x 4 = 4]
(A) Concentration is (a)______________by alertness.
Ans. Concentration is (a) helped by alertness.
(B) Effective speaking (b)______________on effective listening.
Ans. Effective speaking (b) depends on effective listening.
(C) Economic growth (c)______________attitudes and lifestyle.
Ans. Economic growth (c) changes attitudes and lifestyle.
(D) The environment has always (9.d)______________in control of our destiny.
Ans. The environment has always (d) been in control of our destiny.
(E) They believe that logic (e)______________no place in faith.
Ans. They believe that logic (e) has no place in faith.
(a) (i) help (ii) will help (iii) helps (iv) helped
(b) (i) depends (ii) depend (iii) depended (iv) depending
(c) (i) change (ii) will change (iii) changes (iv) changed
(d) (i) is (ii) be (iii) been (iv) was
(e) (i) has (ii) have (iii) had (iv) having
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SECTION – C
(Literature) [30]
8. Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow: [1 x 4 = 4]
But speak all good you can devise of Caesar,
And say you do it by our permission;
……. ……. ……. …….
(a) Identify the speaker.
Ans. Brutus is the speaker.
(b) Who is being granted permission ?
Ans. Antony is being granted permission.
(c) What is the speaker afraid of ?
Ans. The speaker was afraid that people will choose Caesar as their king.
(d) What opinion do you form of the speaker?
Ans. The speaker seemed to be cunning and generous but he had immense intelligence
and energy too.
OR
"You must make your public happier :
Give them something, sharper, snappier.
We must aim for better billings."
(a) Identify the speaker of the above lines.
Ans. The frog is the speaker of the above lines
(b) Who does 'we' refer to ?
Ans. ‘We’ refers to the frog and the nightingle
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(c) What must be done for 'better billings' ?
Ans. For ‘better billings’ we must be sharp and alert. We should be able to do
something extra-ordinary to get that attention in public.
(d) What trait of the speaker's character is revealed through the above lines ?
Ans. The speaker’s character has been potrayed as arrogant, pompous, haughty, patronizing,
opportunist, condescending and boastful.
9. Answer any four of the following questions in 30-40 words each : [2 x 4 = 4]
(a) How do we know that Michael's father was fascinated by computers ?
Ans. Computers with advance configuration along with a printer, modem, speaker and scanner
fascinated Michael and his dad because both of them were crazy about computers and could
not resist any new gadgets that came in the market. They were crazy about com16 speed CD
ROM, complete with speakers, printer, modem and scanner. They had all the latest computer
games such as Tornado, MeBabash, Black Belt, Kyrene's Kastle –they had played them all.
His father was always the first one to buy any new product related to computer games that
was launched in the market. They often went to Computer Fairs to buy the recently launched
products. They had already in their stock a virtual reality visor and glove, and a handful of
the latest interactive psycho-drive games. All this showed that Michael's father was fascinated
by computers.
(b) Why does the author say that Louisa Mebbin had a "protective elder sister" attitude
towards money ?
Ans. Miss Mebbin was a paid companion of Mrs. Packletide. She was money-minded and saved
each and every penny given to her as tips in same Moscow hotel. She blackmailed Mrs.
Packletide and forced her to buy a cottage for herself. Looking at all these behaviour of her,
the author says that Miss. Mebbin had a "protective elder sister" attitude towards money.
(c) What will Shakespeare's friend realize when he rises on the Day of Judgment ?
Ans. Shakespeare states in his poem "Not Marble Nor The Guilded Monuments " that his friend
would live in memory of people for many years but the monuments erected by the kings to
immortalize themselves would destroy by ravages of time . Now, on the day of judgement
Shakespeare's friend realises that his statement was true . because today after too many years
for the poem to be written Shakespeare's friend is alive in the memory of readers . while the
monuments are erected by the ravages of time
(d) In the poem "Snake", why does the poet say "I have something to expatiate." ?
Ans. The poet says so because he tried to kill the snake though it did not caused any harm to him
but he was feeling guilty for this act and knew that he would have to amend things to be
forgiven for this sin.
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(e) In the story "Shady Plot", why did Helen appear in bits and pieces ?
Ans. In the story 'Shady Plot', Helen appears in bits and pieces. It is so because Helen's a ghost.
She doesn't want to scare anyone. Rather, she would help the struggling writers, who are
trying to find a good story-line, by whispering them new ideas about the story as she also
saw John excessively occupied in considering a story.
10. Answer the following in 100-200 words : [8]
"Patol Babu, Film Star," by Satyajit Ray emphasizes the valuable contribution of a mentor in
changing a negative mind-set into a positive one. Describe how Mr. Pakrashi's advice
helps Patol Babu in performing his role.
Ans. Mr. Prakashi was the mentor and guru of Patol Babu. He always told Patol Babu whatever
small part he was offered he should never consider it below his dignity to accept it. As an
artist his aim should be to make the most of the opportunity and squeeze the last drop of
meaning of his lines. When Patol Babu was given only a single dialogue ‘oh’ to utter, he
thought of quitting. But when the words of wisdom of his mentor echoed in his ears, he
came to term with the small,role. He did it so well that everyone was all praise for Patal
Babu. He did it with committment and perfection.
OR
Time humbles even the greatest of the great. One should cultivate the quality of humility.
Describe how time has reduced the mighty Ozymandias to nothing.
Ans. King Ozymandias considered himself to be the king of kings. He ruled over his empire with
a firm hand. He fed his subjects and regarded them as inferior. He was arrogant and
highly conceited, and believed that no one will ever be able to equal his achievements.
He was so intoxicated with power that the welfare of his people was never his
consideration. He believed himself to be above law and destiny. But now his shattered
statue, half buried in sand, the waste and ruins around prove that the time has levelled
his fame and work. The ruins around the statue bear the testimony to the fact that
nothing lasts forever. This is the true destiny of man. He is insignificant before the
power of time. The poem illustrates the vanity of human greatness. It depicts, that one
must command respect and not demand it. One must never misuse power and might.
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Glorious deeds should be committed to get respect fromposterity. Real power lies in
winning the hearts and not in, ruling the weak and needy. This describes how time has
reduced the mighty Ozymandias to nothing.
11. Answer the following in 200-250 words : [10]
(a) Give a pen sketch of Anne's father as a parent ?
Ans. Otto Frank was Anne's father. He had a remarkable presence of mind and ercely protective
instinct about his family. He was a reassuring and thoughtful gure in their lives. Anne
portrayed her father affectionately in The Diary, referring to him as the ‘most adorable
father’. She considered him to be the driving presence in her life but somehow he fell short
of the ideal that she had envisaged for him. However, he took a genuine interest in his
daughters’ lives and education, being an anchor of support for them and setting an example
of being normal and optimistic even under the most extraordinary circumstances. Otto Frank
was a man of frugal means, always putting the needs of others before him. A levelheaded
man, he exhibited considerable tact and patience in the secret annex taking tough decisions
and being respectful towards everyone around him, irrespective of their age.
OR
Describe the relationship between Anne and Margot ?
Ans. Margot and Anne both had become tired of their parents in spite of the fact that they still
loved them. They wanted to make their own decisions without being chaperoned by their
parents. Their parents were not so strict and let them read everything, but Margot and Anne
were sick and tired of having to listen to their comments all day long. The customary ritual
of giving them little kisses at all hours of the day was also quite tiresome to these girls, who
were almost in the throes of adulthood. The cute nicknames seemed affected. They would
have liked nothing better than to get a break from their parents. Margot and Anne did not
talk about all this to their parents because they felt that their parents would fail to
understand. These young women were growing up with their own set of opinions, ideals and
principles. Therefore, they wanted their parents to acknowledge their maturity and
independence of spirit, taking them as young adults rather than children.
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(b) What are Helen's opinions about examinations ?
Ans. In Helen's opinion, written tests and examinations contributed towards a hurried and nervous
reading of texts without comprehension of what one is reading. One's brain became encumbered
with a plethora of facts and nuggets of information that had little use. Helen observes that her
mind was so full of heterogeneous matter before an exam that she plunged into a state of despair
thinking about how to put all of it into order. Helen refers to examinations as the chief bugbears
of her college life. This is because she had faced them many times and cast them down, yet they
would rise again and take on a menacing shape. This would be until she felt her courage oozing
out at her finger ends. The days before these ordeals took place were spent cramming her mind
with mystic formula and indigestible dates. This unpalatable diet would force her to wish that
books, science and the student herself were buried in the depths of the sea. The person who
thought she was prepared was a favoured being in Helen's opinion because examinations always
left her perplexed and exasperated.
OR
Describe Ms. Sullivan's teaching methods ?
Ans. Miss Sullivan did not believe in formal class-room teaching. She introduced the play-way
method into her teaching making Helen study outdoors. She made Helen actually feel the
nature and its creations. She explained Helen all about earth, poles, mountains, valleys, and
drifts in such a way that she could actually understand and feel the things around her.
This manner of teaching helped Helen to learn things faster. It became much easier for her to
imagine, understand and remember things. Miss. Sullivans had taken Helen by the hand across
the fields where men were preparing the earth for the seed, to the banks of the Tennessee
River. Sitting on the warm grass, she began the first lessons for Helen in the beneficence of
nature. Helen learned how the sun and rain make the ground give life to trees that are not only
pleasant to the sight but also good for food, how birds build their nest and thrive from land to
land. Also, how every creature finds food and shelter. As Helen's knowledge of these things
grew, she felt more and more the delight of the world she lived in. Long before she learned to
do a sum in arithmetic or describe the shape of the earth, Miss Sullivan had taught her to find
the beauty in the fragrant woods, in every blade of grass and in the curves and dimples of her
baby sister's hand. She linked her earliest thoughts with nature and made her attuned to the
beauty that abounds in the world.
www.vedantu.com 16
CBSE Class 10
English (Communicative)
Previous Year Question Paper 2019
Series: JMS/1 Code no.1/1/1
● Please check that this question paper contains 11 printed pages.
● Code number given on the right hand side of the question paper should be
written on the title page of the answer-book by the candidate.
● Please check that this question paper contains 11 questions.
● Please write down the Serial Number of the question before attempting
it.
● 15 minute time has been allotted to read this question paper. The question
paper will be distributed at 10.15 a.m. From 10.15 a.m. to 10.30 a.m., the
students will read the question paper only and will not write any answer on
the answer-book during this period.
ENGLISH (Communicative)
Time Allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 80
General Instructions :
1. The Question paper is divided into three sections :
Section A — Reading 20 Marks
Section B — Writing and Grammar 20 Marks
Section C — Literature 30 Marks
2. All questions are compulsory.
Class X English www.vedantu.com 1
3. You may attempt any section at a time.
4. All questions of that particular section must be attempted in the correct order.
SECTION - A
Reading 20 Marks
1. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow.
8 Marks
1. With eager anticipation we awaited the next stage. A tailor was called in to
measure us, five boys and one girl, Mary Lila Rao, for the sports kits. I was
filled with happiness, just like a child who had been given a bag full of candy.
After all, I would be fulfilling my dream to wear a blazer with INDIA written
on it!
2. A week later, we left for Australia. The night before we left I could not sleep.
My small suitcase has been packed with my kit and bedding and I waited for
the sun to rise. Excited by the prospect of what lay ahead, we boarded the train
to Bombay, the first lap or our long journey across the seas to far-off Australia.
When we reached Bombay’s Churchgate station, we were taken by bus to the
Astoria Hotel. It was the first time that I had seen such a grand place, and I
could barely believe my eyes. What was I, a simple village boy doing in such a
different world? While we were at the Astoria, Commander Rekhi, our
manager, showed us how to knot a tie and gave us lessons on table manners.
3. When we reached Santa Cruz, the entire atmosphere at the terminal seemed
unreal–its bright lights, the strange sounds, the rush of people. Except for Mary
Lila Rao, none of us had flown before. I was scared and confused. I had no
bedding and no food. Where would I sleep? What would I eat? How would the
plane take off with so many people, their luggage and other cargo? Would it
crash under so much weight? I followed my companions towards the huge
monster that awaited us, and blindly climbed up the ramp into the cabin. I was
asked to fasten my seatbelt, but naturally I did not know what to do and was
fumbling with the straps when the air-hostess kindly helped me.
4. When the plane started to taxi along the runway, I closed my eyes and prayed
to my God. I had butterflies in my stomach as the plane ascended. And then we
were airborne. When I looked out of the window I saw smoke pouring out of
the engines, and raised an alarm, thinking that the plane was on fire. The air-
Class X English www.vedantu.com 2
hostess calmed me down, patiently explaining that it was only the fuel burning.
I felt very foolish and laughed with relief.
(Adapted from the Autobiography of Milkha Singh)
1.1 Attempt any eight of the following questions on the basis of the passage you
have read. 1×8=8 Marks
(i) Why couldn’t Milkha Singh sleep a night before they left?
Ans: Milkha Singh was not able to sleep the night before they left as he was excited
about what lay ahead in Australia for him.
(ii) How many people had flown earlier?
Ans: Along with Milkha Singh there were four other boys and one girl, Mary Lila
Rao. Nobody had flown before except Mary Lila Rao.
(iii) What made the atmosphere of Santa Cruz seem unreal?
Ans: The entire atmosphere at Santa Cruz appeared unreal because it’s bright lights,
the strange sounds and the rush of the people.
(iv) Give any two reasons responsible for Milkha’s worry or confusion?
Ans: Milkha Singh was confused and scared as he had no bedding and food. He was
confused about where he would sleep and what he would eat as he had brought no
food or bedding with him.
(v) According to him what was a huge monster?
Ans: Milkha Singh refers to the plane as the huge monster. It was his first time flying
and he was scared to travel by plane that is why he refers to it as a “huge monster”.
(vi) Why was he fascinated by the hotel?
Ans: He was fascinated by the hotel as he had never seen such a grand place. Milkha
Singh was a simple village boy, who had never been to such a hotel. It was a different
world for him.
(vii) Why did the air-hostess need to help him?
Ans: Milkha Singh had never travelled by plane. When he was asked to fasten his
seat belt, naturally he did not know what to do. The air-hostess had to help him fasten
his belt.
Class X English www.vedantu.com 3
(viii) Why did he pray to his God?
Ans: When the plane started to taxi along the runway, he prayed for a safe journey
as he was scared to fly.
(ix) Identify and name the figure of speech in para-1?
Ans: Simile is the figure of speech in para-1. Simile is a figure of speech in which
one object is compared to another object of a different kind in order to make a
description more strong or vivid. Simile used in paragraph-1 is “just like a child who
had been given a bag full of candy”.
2. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow.
12 Marks
Peer Pressure
1. Peer pressure is a phenomenon wherein we tend to get influenced by the
lifestyle and the ways of thinking of our peers. Peer pressure can prove
beneficial but it is most often observed to have negative effects.
2. The thought, behaviour and taste in fashion, music, television and other
walks of life of the masses are often seen to have a deep impact on society. We
tend to get influenced by the lifestyle of our peer group. The changing ways of
life of our peers often force us to change our ways of looking at life and leading
it. It’s a human tendency to do what the crowd does. Few have the courage to
resist the peer pressure and be their own selves rather than being one among
the lot. Peer pressure is bound to affect most of us both positively and
negatively. The distinction between positive and negative peer pressure lies in
a thoughtful analysis of the views of the masses. Following your peers blindly
leaves a negative impact on your life while an analytical approach of looking at
peer behaviour can help you act positively. Peer pressure is not always bad. It
can help you analyze yourself and contemplate on your ways of life. Some of the
practices that the masses follow may actually teach you the way of living. You
may be able to change yourself for the better. Looking at what others do, can
help you bring about a positive change in your way of thinking. If you can pick
selectively, peer pressure can actually result in a positive change in your way of
life.
3. Teenage is that phase of life when you are exposed to the world outside. These
are the years when you spend most of your time with your friends. Teenage is
Class X English www.vedantu.com 4
the phase of beginning to become independent in life; the years of forming your
ideals and principles, the years that shape your personality and the years that
introduce you to your own self. As adolescents you often spend most of your
daily time with friends and owing to this, you tend to imitate your friends. The
people around you are bound to influence you. However, the effect of the
influences of the masses is greater during your teen years. Parents have a vital
role to play during this phase of your life. Parents and teachers need to be
careful while dealing with teenagers, as they are most susceptible to succumb
to peer pressure during these years of their life. Teenage individuals need to be
taught to distinguish between the good and the bad, the right and the wrong
and should be taught to be thoughtful in life.
4. A strong support from family, an ability to differentiate between the positive
and the negative and a skill to choose friends from among the peers- this three-
pronged strategy is the best way to keep away from negative peer pressure.
2.1 On the basis of your reading of the passage, answer any four of the following
questions in 30-40 words each: 2×4=8 Marks
(i) How can changing ways of life of our peers affect us?
Ans: The shifting lifestyles of our peers frequently drive us to alter our perspectives
on life and how we lead it. It's a natural human instinct to follow the crowd. As a
result, our peers have a range of effects on our lifestyle.
(ii) What needs courage?
Ans: It takes a lot of courage to not be affected by others and to be one's own self.
It is human nature to be affected by peers, whether positively or negatively. To resist
peer pressure needs courage.
(iii)Name any two factors which can help you gain from peer pressure.
Ans: Two factors which can help you gain from peer pressure:
a) It can help one analyze themself and contemplate on ways of their life.
b) Some of the common behaviours may truly teach you how to live a better life.
You might be able to make a positive difference in your life. Observing what
others do can assist you in making a positive shift in your mindset.
(iv) State any two characteristics of teenage.
Ans: Two characteristics of teenage are:
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a) Teenage is that phase of life when one is exposed to the world outside. These
are the years when we spend most of our time with our friends.
b) Teenage is the phase of beginning to become independent in life; the years of
forming one's ideals and principles, the years that shape our personality and
the years that introduce us to your own self.
(v) Why are teenagers more likely to be affected by peer pressure?
Ans: Peer pressure has a stronger influence on teenagers. They often spend the most
of their daily time with friends as adolescents, and as a result, they tend to copy their
peers. You will undoubtedly be influenced by others around you.
2.2 On the basis of your reading of the passage, fill in any two of the following
blanks with appropriate words/phrases: 1×2=2 Marks
(i) A negative impact on life can be left by ______.
Ans: following your peers blindly.
(ii) A thoughtful analysis of views of masses will lead to ______.
Ans: distinction between negative and positive peer pressure.
(iii)Selective picking can result in ______.
Ans: a positive change in your way of life.
2.3 Attempt any two of the following. Find out the words that mean the same as
under: 1×2=2 Marks
(i) Affected by (Para 1)
Ans: Influenced.
(ii) Difference (Para 2)
Ans: Distinction.
(iii)Give in to (Para 3)
Ans: Succumb.
SECTION - B
Class X English www.vedantu.com 6
(Writing and Grammar) 30 Marks
3. Write a letter in 100-120 words, to the Editor of The Hindu, Chennai
discussing in detail the advantages and disadvantages of ban on crackers. You
are Anu/Anuj, 112, Lawrence Road, Kochi. 8 Marks
Ans:
112,
Lawrence Road
Kochi
XX/xx/xxxx
To,
The Editor
Chennai
Subject: Benefits and disadvantages of ban on crackers.
Sir,
I'm writing this letter to your kind self to express my thoughts on the benefits and
drawbacks of cracker ban. Well, our environment is already severely polluted; loud
noise and hazardous fumes released by crackers add to the pollution. Not only is this
pollution hazardous to humans, but it is also extremely toxic to animals. In terms of
disadvantages, I don't believe there are any, except for individuals who work in the
cracker manufacturing and distribution industry. The government can fix their
problem by requiring cracker makers to exclusively make environmentally friendly
crackers. Nothing is more vital than human health and environmental conservation,
which are inextricably linked to human well-being.
Therefore, I am writing to urge the government to prohibit the use of poisonous
crackers through the publication of your prestigious newspaper. I look forward to
working with you to get my message out to the public and the government.
Your’s truly,
Anu/Anuj
Or
Class X English www.vedantu.com 7
Write an article in 100-120 words on the topic, ‘Increasing Population in the
Cities’. You are Ram/Rama. You may use the following clues: migration from
villages – more jobs – better educational facilities – effect on living conditions –
overcrowding – slums – water and power supply – traffic jams.
Ans: Increasing population in the Cities
By Rama
The worrisome rate at which the population of cities is growing is cause for serious
concern. This, on the other hand, is not happening for no good reason. It is well
recognised that cities have more amenities and possibilities than rural areas, and as
a result, individuals from villages frequently migrate to cities in pursuit of jobs,
higher educational institutions, and medical facilities, among other things.
When the number of people living on the same piece of land increases by a factor of
ten, the quality of that land and environment is bound to suffer. Let us consider the
case of Delhi, India's capital and the country's most promising metropolis.
Due to the continual expansion in population, it has been dealing with a slew of
difficulties, including rising air and water pollution, traffic, and even terrible living
conditions. As a result, the river Yamuna has died, and migration to this metropolis
comes at a cost: the health of its residents is deteriorating by each passing day.
4. Write a short story in 200-250 words, with the help of the cues given below.
Give a suitable title to the story.
It is not always true that slow and steady wins the race–this was discovered by
Rohan/Renu when.... 10 Marks
Ans: Slow and Steady doesn’t always win
By Renu
The phrase "slow and steady wins the race" is well-known, but it is not always true,
as Renu discovered when she rescued her house from burning down by acting
exceedingly quickly. It was Diwali night, and the children in her neighbourhood
were exploding crackers.
After the prayer, Renu also joined the kids to help them burst crackers. As soon as
her neighbour lit a rocket, the bottle in which it was placed lost its balance and the
Class X English www.vedantu.com 8
rocket flew in the direction of Renu's house, it hit a curtain and the fire spread
through the window quickly.
It was Diwali night, and the children in her neighbourhood were exploding crackers.
Renu joined the kids after the prayer to assist them break crackers. When her
neighbour fired a rocket, the bottle in which it was placed became unstable, and the
rocket flew in the direction of Renu's house, where it collided with a curtain and
immediately spread fire through the window.
Or
Rohan/Renu and his/her pet inseparable – one day – long trek – lost their way
– separated from each other – used good sense – reunited – returned safely.
Ans: Friend’s United
Rusty, Renu's pet dog, and she were inseparable. Rusty used to follow Renu
wherever she went. Renu never ate without Rusty by her side, and the two of them
even went for daily walks together. Rusty was Renu's dearest buddy who never
abandoned her. Renu went on a long hike one day, and she brought Rusty along as
usual.
Everything was fine until Renu and Rusty became separated. Rusty was happily
moving around and lost its way when Renu was stopping to tie her shoe laces. Renu
searched furiously for Rusty but was unable to locate him, and as a result, she
became disoriented. Renu was crying, and Rusty was terrified.
Renu soon got up and started to start dropping Rusty's food along the path as she
searched for Rusty. Rusty was a savvy dog that could smell his favourite food from
miles away, she knew. Rusty soon located the first piece of his meal and began
following the trail until he came upon Renu, who was sitting on a rock with an empty
packet. Renu and Rusty were reunited, and they were able to return home safely.
5. Fill in any four of the following blanks choosing the most appropriate
options from the ones given below. 1 x 4 = 4 Marks
A. Politeness is said to (a) ________ one of the important characteristics of a
civilised person.
B. The (b) ________ enemy of politeness is ego.
C. To be a polite person, you (c) ________ to sacrifice your ego.
Class X English www.vedantu.com 9
D. It is difficult (d) ________ an egoist to be polite.
E. Polite actions (e) ________ fine results.
(a) (i) is (ii) be (iii) are (iv) being
(b) (i) less great (ii) more great (iii) greatest (iv) greater
(c) (i) have (ii) had (iii) has (iv) must
(d) (i) by (ii) of (iii) since (iv) for
(e) (i) give (ii) gave (iii) gives (iv) giving
Ans:
A. (a) (ii) be
B. (b) (iii) greatest
C. (c) (i) have
D. (d) (iv) for
E. (e) (i) give
6. In the following paragraph one word has been omitted in each line. Write the
missing word along with the word that comes before it and the word that follows
it. (any four). 1×4=4 Marks
Word before Missing word Word after
In 2018, Indian Women's cricket team a e.g. team played a
T-20 match Pakistani team. (a) ........... ........... ...........
India won toss and (b) ........... ........... ...........
chose field first. The Pakistani team (c) ........... ........... ...........
lost three wickets no time. (d) ........... ........... ...........
The fourth wicket tried level (e) ........... ........... ...........
best to save the match.
Class X English www.vedantu.com 10
Ans: Word before Missing word Word after
(a) match against Pakistani
(b) won the toss
(c) chose to field
(d) wickets in no
(e) tried its level
7. Rearrange any four of the word clusters to make meaningful sentences.
1 x 4 = 4 Marks
(i) stormy / scary / a / was / and / night / dark / it
Ans: It was a dark, scary and stormy night
(ii) to / the visibility / road / drive / on the / was / too poor
Ans: The visibility was too poor to drive on the road.
(iii) way / fallen / obstructing / a / the / tree / was
Ans: A fallen tree was obstructing the way.
(iv) to / the / be / driver / needed / careful / very
Ans: The driver needed to be very careful.
(v) succeed / only / driver / an / would / experienced
Ans: Only an experienced driver would succeed.
SECTION - C
(Literature: Text books and Long Reading Texts) 30 Marks
Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow: 4 Marks
If thou dost bend and pray and fawn for him,
I spurn thee like a cur out of my way
Class X English www.vedantu.com 11
(i) Identify the speaker of the above extract.
Ans: Caesar is the speaker in the extract above.
(ii) Who was bending, praying and fawning?
Ans: It was Metellus Cimber who was bending, praying and fawning.
(iii) In what context have the above words been spoken?
Ans: In the above extract, Publius Cimber, Metellus Cimber's brother, had been
imprisoned, and he begs Caesar to forgive his brother and lift his banishment.
(iv) What do these words reveal about the character of the speaker?
Ans: These words indicate that the speaker is a strong-willed individual who does
not tolerate traitors.
Or
"They will be useful to you, and they can never be to me, But will you do one
thing?" "What?" What do you see up there? said Ali, pointing to be sky.
(i) Identify the person spoken to.
Ans: The Clerk is the person being spoken to.
(ii) What does the word 'They' refer to?
Ans: Five golden guineas are referred to as "they."
(iii) Why did Ali say 'They' can never be useful to him?
Ans: Ali claimed that 'they' could never be useful to him because it was his last day
and he had not been able to put the five guineas to good use, that he had not been
able to buy happiness from them.
(iv) What opinion do you form of Ali on the basis of the given extract?
Ans: According to the extract, Ali was a changed guy who knew the anguish of
separation and longing, as well as the triviality of material things.
9. Answer any four of the following question in 30-40 words each:
2 x 4 = 8 Marks
Class X English www.vedantu.com 12
(i) Why was Nicola not willing to share his 'plans' with the narrator?
Ans: Nicola and his brother were strong and courageous children in the face of
adversity; they were proud, dignified lads with a high sense of self-esteem who did
not want a stranger to sympathise with them or divulge their troubles or personal
life.They were self-assured children who preferred to work hard and earn in order to
solve problems on their own.
(ii) Why was John Hallock eager to burn the Ouija Board?
Ans: As the Ouija Board was the source of all his problems, John Hallock was eager
to burn it. Helen the ghost had visited her to assist her in removing it, and as a result,
his wife began to suspect him of having an affair. To make matters worse, the ladies
who utilised the Ouija Board during the party made Lavinia distrust her husband,
making the situation even worse for John and his marriage. In addition, their
househelp had declared her resignation because she was afraid of the board.
(iii) In what ways had the nightingale's life changed after her arrival in the
Bingle Bog?
Ans: After arriving in the Bingle Bog, the nightingale's life changed dramatically.
She rose to fame as a brilliant singer who had brought relief to the Bingle Bog's
animals by taking on the Sumac Tree and outshining the frog's baritone. However,
her celebrity did not last long as she accepted to participate in the frog's training
plan, which resulted in her not only being tortured but also leading to her sad demise.
(iv) Why did the sailor hail the albatross in 'God's name'?
Ans: The albatross is referred to as the Christian soul in The Rime of the Ancient
Mariner. Because it appeared out of nowhere, it was praised in God's name. The
seafarers thought it was a lifesaver. The icebergs began to break after the albatross
arrived, allowing the ship to go forward.
(v) Miss Mebbin was a clever opportunist. Substantiate with reference 'Mrs.
Packletide Tiger'?
Ans: Miss Mebbin was a brilliant opportunist. Mrs. Packletide's secret of shooting
the tiger and how she had arranged for it by paying a large quantity of money was
well known to her. Mrs. Packletide had missed her target and the old tiger had died
of a heart attack, she also knew. Mrs. Packletide was bullied into buying her the
weekend cottage by Louisa Mebbin, or else she would have told Loona Bimberton
that Mrs. Packletide had shot a goat, not a tiger.
Class X English www.vedantu.com 13
10. Attempt the following question in 100-120 words. 8 Marks
For Mrs. Slater and Mrs. Jordon greed for money is more important than their
love for their father. Comment.
(The Dear Departed)
Ans: Mrs. Slater and Mrs. Jordan's greed for money was more important than their
love for their father, because when Mrs. Slater discovered that her father was lying
almost lifeless in her living room, she made arrangements to move his bureau and
other valuables to her living room before her sister Mrs. Jordan arrived. She did so
in order to keep her prized possessions and avoid sharing them with her sister. Mrs.
Slater and Mrs. Jordan both spent a lot of money on their mourning gowns but didn't
spend much on their father's last rites.
As a result, it has been established that they were exceedingly greedy for their
father's wealth and did not love him.
Or
In what sense can we call Micheal a true gentleman?
(Virtually True)
Ans: Michael was a sweet little guy who enjoyed adventures, war, chases, fights,
confrontations, and violent games. He, like most kids his age, was a computer nerd
who was enthralled by psycho-drive games that allowed him to forget about reality.
He was mature above his years, despite being a little boy.
As a result, when he received an email from one of the characters in the first game
requesting assistance, he decided to finish the game and save the young child.
Michael was unconcerned about himself, and he went into every game with zeal,
fighting to the latter end to save Sebastian. Even though Michael had no idea who
Sebastian was, he agreed to save him regardless of any personal gain. As a result, he
has earned the title of gentleman.
11. Answer the following question in 200-250 words. 10 Marks
In "The Diary of a Young Girl," what opinion did Anne have of the adults who
lived in the Annexe ?
Class X English www.vedantu.com 14
Ans: Anne had a harsh opinion of the grownups who lived in the Annexe in "The
Diary of a Young Girl." She believed that adults should not fight or dispute in the
same way that children do. They have their own opinions, but they never listen to
hers. She thought they were immature and that they had no right to tell her what she
should and shouldn't do. Mrs. and Mr. Van Daan's quarrels pique her interest, and
she says, "I think it's funny that grownups quarrel so readily, so often, and over such
little stuff" (Monday, September 28, 1942). She believes that the adults in the
Annexe constantly offer her unhelpful advice, ideas, and reMarks and jokes about
her because of the time she spends with Peter.Anne believes that adults should
recognise that war has a greater impact on them because "ideals, aspirations, and
treasured hopes build within us, only to be smashed by terrible reality." She believes
that these individuals are to blame for the outbreak of the conflict in the first place.
She is both concerned and sympathetic toward the residents of Annexe. She believed
there was a slim chance they would be able to return to their houses. But, at the same
time, she believes it will be a huge release after living such a horrible life for so long.
She writes feeling forlorn ‘there is little we can do about it’.
Or
Attempt a character sketch of Mrs Edith Frank as described in 'The Diary of a
Young Girl."
Ans: "Anne Marie Frank" is the author of "The Diary of a Young Girl." It's a
collection of Anne Frank's writings from her Dutch-language diary, during the Nazi
occupation of the Netherlands, she kept it with her family for two years. Hollander,
Edith Because of her tumultuous connection with her daughter, Anne, Frank plays a
key part in the novel. Anne's initial animosity and scorn turned into a mature
understanding of their differences over time. Mrs Frank was a shy, introverted
individual who was nervous, unambitious, and emotional. She lacked independence
of spirit, yet she always stood up for her family when necessary. In terms of
personality and outlook, Anne and Mrs Frank were polar opposites. Edith Frank's
ineptness as a mother, who was unable to reach out to her daughter, contributed to
Anne's growing disillusionment with her family. Edith Frank's inability to grasp her
daughter resulted in growing distances between them, as seen by the pointed
reMarks, sarcasm, and rebukes. Anne's weaknesses and flaws as a person harmed
their relationship, and she became estranged from her mother. Mrs Frank was more
sensitive to Margot as a person, attempting to cope with the stress of the secret
annex's impending discovery. She was a calm individual.
Or
Class X English www.vedantu.com 15
In 'The Story of My Life', how did Helen's interaction with Dr. Bell change her
outlook on the world around her?
Ans: Anne's weaknesses and flaws as a person harmed their relationship, and she
became estranged from her mother. Mrs Frank was more sensitive to Margot as a
person, attempting to cope with the stress of the secret annex's impending discovery.
She was a calm individual. Helen has written an autobiography titled The Story of
My Life, which she has dedicated to him. Helen talks about how his compassionate
and tender attitude made her fall in love with him from the first time she met him.
In a time when not everyone was, Dr. Bell was patient and understanding with Helen.
Helen's father wrote to Mr. Anagnos on his advice, and Miss Sullivan was hired as
a teacher as a result. In 1893, Helen and Miss Sullivan were brought to the World's
Fair by Dr. Bell. Helen also paid him a visit at his house and lab. He looks to be a
superb and patient instructor who, through his excellent explanations, could instil
enthusiasm and interest in his students. Helen mentions that Dr. Bell was a poet as
well as a comedian. Dr. Bell's love for children, especially the deaf, was another
charming feature.
Or
Attempt a character sketch of Ms. Anne Sullivan.
Ans: Helen Keller wrote a novel called The Story of My Life. It was first published
in 1903. It's an autobiography about her early life, including her encounters with
Anne Sullivan. It chronicles Helen's first twenty-two years and tells us how, with the
support of her teacher and lifelong companion, Miss Sullivan, she overcame her
difficulties in studying, writing, speaking, and obtaining the benefits of education.
Helen's teacher and frequent companion is Miss Sullivan. Helen's soul is effectively
awakened to light and freedom, and sets her "spirit free." Miss Sullivan has been
described by Whittier as "She is thy spiritual liberator." Miss Sullivan arrived at the
Kellers' house on the third of March, 1887. Helen's life changed dramatically after
that day: from darkness to brightness, from loneliness to camaraderie. Helen's
unhappiness and dissatisfaction were never lost on Miss Sullivan, who was a patient
and kind teacher. She patiently taught Helen how to communicate with her fingers
and then supported her throughout her schooling at all of Helen's institutions. Miss
Sullivan's teaching style was extremely effective. She used a poem or a narrative to
illustrate everything she taught. She also used to take Helen outside and teach her in
the great outdoors. Not only did she assist Helen in learning lessons, but she also
helped Helen form a link with the world she was missing out on. Helen credits Miss
Sullivan with her ability to articulate speech sounds.
Class X English www.vedantu.com 16
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