Test - 1 Online Test for AIATS JEE (Main)-2017

04/10/2015 JEE Main-2017

(AIATS)

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, Plot No.-4, Sec-11, MLU, Dwarka, New Delhi-110075
Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472

All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main)-2017

Online Test-1
Time : 3 hrs. Max. Marks: 360

Topics covered in various subjects :

Physics : Units and Measurement, Motion in a Straight line

Chemistry : Some basic Concepts of Chemistry, Structure of Atom, Classification of Elements and Periodicity
in Properties
Mathematics : Sets, Relations and Functions (XI syllabus)

Instructions :
(i) Duration of Test is 3 hrs.
(ii) The Test booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 360.
(iii) There are three parts in the question paper A, B, C consisting of Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics having
30 questions in each part of equal weightage. Each question is allotted 4 (four) marks for each correct response.
(iv) One fourth (¼) marks will be deducted for indicating incorrect response of each question. No deduction from the total
score will be made if no response is indicated for an item in the answer sheet.
(v) Pattern of the Questions : Section – I : Multiple Type Objective Questions (Straight Objective Type Questions);
Section – II : Assertion – Reason Type Questions

PART - A
PHY
(PHY SICS
PHYSICS
SICS)

SECTION - I
Straight Objective Type Questions
This section contains 25 multiple choice questions numbered 1 to 25. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and
(4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

Choose the correct answer :

1. A body freely falling from rest, has a velocity v after it falls through a distance h. The distance it has to fall down
further for its velocity to become double is
(1) h
(2) 2h
(3) 3h
(4) 4h
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2. A particle is projected from ground in vertical direction at t = 0. At t = 0.8 s, it reaches h = 14 m. It will again
come to same height at t equal to
(g = 10 m/s2)
(1) 2 s

14
(2) s
5

(3) 3 s

7
(4) s
2

3. The displacement x and time of travel t for a particle moving on a straight line are related as t =  x  1 x – 1 .
Its acceleration at time t is

1 1
(1) –
x x2

1 t2
(2) –
x x3

t2
(3) –
x3

t
(4) –
x2

4. From a tower of height H, a particle is thrown upwards with a speed u. The time taken by the particle to hit the
ground, is n times that taken by it to reach the highest point of its path. The relation between H, u and n is
(1) 2gH = n2u2
(2) gH = (n – 2)2u2
(3) 2gH = nu2 (n – 2)
(4) gH = (n – 2)u2
5. Figure shows position time graph of two cars A and B. Lines are parallel

x (m) A
B

5
t (s)
(1) Car A is faster than car B
(2) Car A always leads car B
(3) Both cars are moving with different velocity
(4) Both cars have positive acceleration
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6. A ball is dropped from top of a building. The ball takes 0.5 s to fall past the 3 m height of a window some distance
from the top of a building. If the speed of the ball at the top and at the bottom of the window are VT and VB
respectively, then (g = 9.8 m/s2)

(1) VT + VB = 12 m/s

(2) VBVT = 1 m/s

(3) VT – VB = 4.9 m/s

VB
(4) V  1 m/s
T

7. A particle start from rest with uniform acceleration a. Its velocity after n second is v. The displacement of the
particle in last 2 second is

2v  n – 1
(1)
n

v  n – 1
(2)
n

v  n  1
(3)
n

2v  2n  1
(4)
n

8. For a particle moving along x-axis, acceleration is given as a = 2v2. If the speed of particle is v0 at

x = 0, find speed as a function of x.

(1) v = v0ex

(2) v = v0e2x

(3) v = v0lnx

(4) v = 2v0lnx

9. A police jeep is chasing a pickpocket on a straight road. The jeep is going at uniform speed v. The pickpocket
rides on a motorcycle when jeep is at a distance d away. The motorcycle starts with an acceleration a. The
pickpocket will be caught if

(1) v  2ad

(2) v  2ad

(3) v = ad

(4) v < ad

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10. A particle starts from point A and travels along the solid curve as shown. Find approximately the position B of
the particle such that the average velocity between the positions A and B has the same direction as the
instantaneous velocity at B.
y

A
4m

2m

x
0 2m 4m 6m
(1) (1, 2)

(2) (3, 4)
(3) (5, 3)

(4) (5, 4)
11. A balloon is rising with constant acceleration 2 m/s2. Two stones are released from the balloon at the interval of
2 second. Find out the distance between the two stones 1 second after the release of second stone.
(1) 48 m

(2) 24 m
(3) 12 m

(4) 6 m

12. A particle retards from a velocity v0 while moving in a straight line. If the magnitude of retardation is directly
proportional to the square root of the speed of the particle, find its average velocity for the total time of motion.

v0
(1)
3

2v 0
(2)
3

(3) v0

4v 0
(4)
3

13. A particle slows down from a speed v0 while moving in a straight line. If the retardation is directly proportional to
the speed of the particle, displacement as a function of time is

( = proportionality constant)
(1) v0(1 + et)

v0
(2) (1 – et)


v0
(3) (1 – e–t)


(4) Zero

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14. The acceleration time graph of a particle moving along x-axis is shown in the figure. If the particle starts with
velocity 3 m/s at t = 0, the velocity of particle at t = 4 s
–2
a (ms )

0
t (s)
(1) 20 m/s 4 8

(2) 25 m/s

(3) 29 m/s
(4) 27 m/s

15. The velocity time graph is shown. What will be the corresponding x - t graph?

v (m/s)

45°
t (s)
x 0 4
(1)

t
0 4

(2) x

t
0 2

(3) x

t
0 4
x
(4)

t
0 4
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
16. Power delivered by a force is given by P = e–Bt , where t is the time. Find the dimensional at formula for 

and .

(1) ML2T–4, ML2T–2

(2) ML2T–4, M0L0T–1

(3) ML2T0, MLT–2

(4) M0LT–2, M0L0T0

17. Considering density () frequency (f) and velocity (v) as fundamental quantities, dimensions of force is

(1) [f –2v 4]

(2) [fv –2]

(3) [fv 0]

(4) [fv –4]

18. A vernier calliper is used to measure the width and length of a rectangular plate. The measured values are
1.38 cm and 4.02 cm respectively. Uncertainty in the value of area is

(1) 0.06 cm2

(2) 0.03 cm2

(3) 0.12 cm2

(4) 0.003 cm2

19. In a new system of units, unit of mass is taken as 50 kg, unit of length is taken as 100 m and unit of time is
1 minute. What will be weight of a body in this system, if in S.I. system, its weight is 10 N?

(1) 7.2 units

(2) 1.1 units

(3) 7.6 units

(4) 2.7 units

20. The parallax of a far off planet as measured from the two diameter extremes on the equator of the earth is 2.0
minute. If the radius of the earth is 6400 km, the distance of the planet from the earth is

(1) 2.3 × 1010 m

(2) 2.2 × 1010 m

(3) 2.1 × 1010 m

(4) 2 × 1010 m

21. Two resistance R1 and R2 are connected in parallel, find the error in the value of effective resistance if
R1 = (50 ± 2) and R2 (100 ± 3)

(1) 2.3 

(2) 1.6 

(3) 1.4 

(4) 1.2 
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22. The pitch of a screw gauge is 1 mm and there are 100 divisions an its circular scale. When nothing is put in
between its jaws, the zero of the circular scale lies 6 divisions below the reference line, when a wire is placed
between the jaws, 2 linear scale divisions are clearly visible while 62 divisions on circular scale coincide with the
reference line. The diameter of the wire is
(1) 10.28 mm
(2) 2.56 mm
(3) 5.12 mm
(4) 2.62 mm
23. A driver applies the brakes of his car while moving with a speed of 72 km/hr on a straight road through a distance
of 48 m. For what time the driver applies the brakes? Assuming the retardation due to braking is 4m/s2
(1) 1 s
(2) 2 s
(3) 3 s
(4) 4 s
24. The percentage error in the measurement of the radius of the sphere is 1.5%. What would be the percentage error
in the volume of the sphere?
(1) 2%
(2) 3%
(3) 4%
(4) 4.5%
25. ‘pascal-second’ has dimensions of
(1) Force
(2) Energy
(3) Pressure
(4) Coefficient of viscosity

SECTION - II
Assertion – Reason Type Questions

Directions : Questions number 26 to 30 are Assertion-Reason type questions. Each of these questions contains two
statements. Statement-1 (Assertion) and Statement-2 (Reason). Each of these questions also has four alternative
choices, only one of which is the correct answer. You have to select the correct choice.

26. Statement-1 : When velocity of a particle is zero then acceleration of particle must be zero at that instant.
and
dv
Statement-2 : Acceleration is equal to a = v , where v is the velocity at that instant.
dx
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-1
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
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27. Statement-1 : A particle moves in a straight line with constant acceleration. The average velocity of the particle
cannot be zero in any time interval.

and

Statement-2 : For a particle moving in straight line with constant acceleration, the average velocity in a time
u v
interval is , where u and v are initial and final velocity of the particle in the given time interval.
2
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-1

(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1

(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False

(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

28. Statement-1 : A positive acceleration can be associated with a slowing down of the body.

and

Statement-2 : Acceleration always supports the motion

(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-1

(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1

(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False

(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

29. Statement-1 : Zero velocity of a particle does not mean zero acceleration.

and

Statement-2 : The moment at which velocity is zero, its rate of charge may be non-zero.

(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-1

(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1

(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False

(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

30. Statement-1 : Work done by a force on a body can be added to kinetic energy of the body.

and

Statement-2 : By principle of homogeneity, any two physical quantities which are added must have same
dimensions.

(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-1

(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1

(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False

(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

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PART - B
CHEMISTR
(CHEMISTR
CHEMISTRY Y)

SECTION - I
Straight Objective Type Questions
This section contains 25 multiple choice questions numbered 31 to 55. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and
(4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

31. If density of He gas is measured at NTP and it is 0.1784 g/L, then weight of 1 mole of He gas will be

(1) 4 g

(2) 4 u

(3) 8 kg

(4) 2 g

32. One gram of a chloride was found to contain 0.835 gram of chlorine. Its vapor density is 85, the molecular formula
of the compound.

(1) MCl4

(2) MCl5

(3) MCl6

(4) MCl

33. A gas mixture contains 50% He and 50% methane by volume. What is the percentage by mass of methane in
20 g of the mixture.

(1) 19.97%

(2) 20.05%

(3) 80.03%

(4) 75%

34. Mass of CaO required to neutralize 852 g of P4O10 approximately

(1) 1 kg

(2) 2 kg

(3) 1.5 kg

(4) 3 kg

35. A student performs a titration with different burettes and finds titre values of 25.2 mL, 22.25 mL and
25.0 mL. The number of significant figures in average titre value is

(1) 3

(2) 4

(3) 2

(4) 1
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36. The ratio of the radius of Li++ ion in 3rd energy level to that of He+ ion in 2nd energy level is

3
(1)
2

2
(2)
3
(3) 1 : 3
(4) 3 : 1
37. Which of the following radiation have maximum wavelength?
(1) Balmer
(2) X-ray
(3) Lyman
(4) Paschen
38. In hydrogen atom which of the following transitions should be associated with highest absorption of energy?
(1) n = 1 to n = 4
(2) n = 2 to n = 3
(3) n = 4 to n = 1
(4) n = 3 to n = 2
39. Which set of quantum number is not consistent with the quantum mechanical theory?

1
(1) n = 2, l = 1, m = 1, s =
2

1
(2) n = 4, l = 3, m = 2, s = –
2

1
(3) n = 3, l = 2, m = 3, s =
2

1
(4) n = 4, l = 3, m = 3, s =
2
40. An electron beam can undergo diffraction by crystals. Through what potential should a beam of electron be
accelerated. So that its wavelength becomes equal to 1.54 Å

(1) 63.24 V
(2) 50 V
(3) 90 V
(4) 100 V
41. Which of the following orbital is not possible?
(1) 2s
(2) 2p
(3) 3f
(4) 3d
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42. Which of the following is the period number of the element whose atomic number is 98?
(1) 4
(2) 7
(3) 5
(4) 6

⎛ z2 ⎞
43. Energy of an electron is given by, E = –2.178 × 10–18J ⎜ 2 ⎟ wavelength of light required to excite an electron
⎝n ⎠
in an hydrogen atom from level n = 1 to n = 2 will be
(1) 1.214 × 10–7 m
(2) 2.816 × 10–7 m
(3) 6.500 × 10–7 m
(4) 8.500 × 10–7 m
44. Which one of the following set of ions represents a collection of isoelectronic species?
(1) N3 –, O– – , F–, S– –
(2) Li+, Na+, Mg++, Ca++
(3) K+, Cl–, Ca++, Sc3+
(4) Ba++, Sr++, K+, Ca++
45. For d-electron orbital angular momentum is

⎛ h ⎞
(1) 6⎜ ⎟
⎝ 2 ⎠

⎛ h ⎞
(2) 2⎜ ⎟
⎝ 2 ⎠

h
(3)
2

⎛ h ⎞
(4) 2 ⎜ ⎟
⎝ 2 ⎠
46. Bohr model can explain
(1) The spectrum of hydrogen atom only
(2) Spectrum of an atom or ion containing one electron only
(3) The spectrum of hydrogen molecule
(4) The solar spectrum
47. Consider the ground state of chromium atom(z = 24). The number of electrons with azimuthal quantum number
l = 1 and 2 are respectively.
(1) 16 and 4
(2) 12 and 5
(3) 12 and 4
(4) 16 and 5
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48. The correct order of second ionization potential of carbon, nitrogen, oxygen and fluorine is
(1) C > N > O > F
(2) O > N > F > C
(3) O > F > N > C
(4) F > O > N > C
49. Which of the following is the smallest in size?
(1) N3 –
(2) O– –
(3) F–
(4) Na+
50. The first ionization potential of Na is 5.1 eV. The value of electron gain enthalpy of Na+ will be
(1) – 2.55 eV
(2) – 5.1 eV
(3) – 10.2 eV
(4) + 2.55 eV
51. Which of the following has the maximum number of unpaired electrons?
(1) Mg+ +
(2) Ti3 +
(3) V3 +
(4) Fe+ +
52. The density (in gm mL–1) of a 3.60 M sulfuric acid solution that is 29% H2SO4 by mass will be
(1) 1.45
(2) 1.64
(3) 1.88
(4) 1.22
53. Number of atoms in 558.5 gm Fe (at.wt. = 55.86) is
(1) Twice that in 60 gm carbon
(2) 6.023 × 1024
(3) Half that in 8 gm He
(4) 558.5 × 6.023 × 1023
54. Which element has highest value of 2nd I.E.?
(1) Li
(2) Be
(3) N
(4) F

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55. Which of the following atom/ion have equal energy for 2s and 2p orbital?

(1) He

(2) Li

(3) N

(4) H

SECTION - II
Assertion – Reason Type Questions

Directions : Questions number 56 to 60 are Assertion-Reason type questions. Each of these questions contains two
statements. Statement-1 (Assertion) and Statement-2 (Reason). Each of these questions also has four alternative
choices, only one of which is the correct answer. You have to select the correct choice.

56. Statement-1 : The first ionization energy of Be is greater than that of B.

and

Statement-2 : 2p orbital is lower in energy than 2s.

(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-1

(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1

(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False

(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

57. Statement-1 : An element has variable equivalent mass.

and

Statement-2 : The valency of element is variable.

(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-1

(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1

(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False

(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

58. Statement-1 : p orbital is dumbell shaped.

and

Statement-2 : Electron present in p-orbital can have any one of the three value of magnetic quantum number
i.e., 0, + 1 or –1.

(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-1

(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1

(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False

(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

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59. Statement-1 : Specific gravity is dimensionless quantity.

and

Statement-2 : Specific gravity is relative density of a substance, measured with respect to density of water at 4°C.

(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-1

(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1

(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False

(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

60. Statement-1 : There are two spherical nodes in 3s orbital.

and

Statement-2 : There is no planar node in 3s orbital.

(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-1

(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1

(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False

(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

PART - C
MA
(MA THEMA
MATHEMA TICS
TICS)
THEMATICS

SECTION - I
Straight Objective Type Questions
This section contains 25 multiple choice questions numbered 61 to 85. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and
(4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

61. If A = {} and S1:   P(A), S2:   P(A), S3: {}  P(A), S4: {}  P(A), then correct order for S1, S2, S3 and
S4 is

(1) T F T F

(2) T T F T

(3) T T T F

(4) T T T T

62. Let A = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6} then the number of ordered pair of subsets B and C of A such that B and C have exactly
1 element common is

(1) 3.26

(2) 2.36

(3) 5.35

(4) 6.26

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63. Which of the following relations is not a function?

(1) R = {(a, b) : a, b R, a2 + b2  0}

(2) R = {(a, b) : a  I, b x, a2 = b + 1}

(3) R = {(a, b) : a  N, b W, b = a + 1}

(4) R = {(a, b) : a, b  R, a =log b}

64. Let f be a real valued function such that f (x + T) = f(x – T) and f(2T + x) = f(2T – x) for some T is valid for all

x  R, then

(1) f(0) = f(4T)

(2) f(0) = f(2T)

(3) f(0) = f(6T)

(4) f(0) = f(T)

65. The number of solution of the equation {x} + { 2x} + {3x} + {4x} = {10x} in [0, 5] is (where {.} is fractional part
function

(1) 1

(2) 4

(3) 6

(4) 10

⎛ 1⎞
66. If the function f satisfies f(x + y) = f(xy) x, y R and f ⎜ ⎟ = 2, then f(2015) is equal to
⎝2⎠

1
(1)
2015

(2) 2015

1
(3)
2

(4) 2

67. The number of orders pairs (x, y) satisfying min (|x + y|, |x – y|) = 1 and |y| = [x] – x is (where [.] is GIF)

(1) 0

(2) 1

(3) 2

(4) Infinite

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68. The number of solution of the equation [x]2 = x + 2{x} is

(1) 2

(2) 3

(3) 4

(4) 5

69. Range of the function f(x) = | x | – { x } is

⎡1 ⎞
(1) ⎢ ,  ⎟
⎣2 ⎠

(2) (0, )

(3) [0, 

⎛1 ⎞
(4) ⎜ ,  ⎟
⎝2 ⎠

70. If A = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10}, B = {1, 2, 3, 5, 7}, C = {2, 3, 6, 8, 9}, then number of relation from A to B
which are also from B to C is

(1) 215

(2) 220

(3) 25

(4) 210

71. If f(x) = 7x + 5x + 4(7–x + 5–x) + 3, then its range is

(1) [11, )

(2) [13, )

(3) (–, )

(4) (0, )

72. The domain of the function f(x) = x – 3  2 x – 4 – x – 3 – 2 x – 4 is

(1) [4, )

(2) [0, )

(3) [5, )

(4) [–, )

73. If Df represents domain of function f, thenDf.g = Df Dg implies

(1) f = g

(2) Df = Dg

(3) f.g = f + g

(4) f.g = f – g

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74. The solution set of the equation logx2.log2x2 = log4x2 is

(1)  2,– 2

(2) 2 2 ,2– 2 

(3)   1 2
4
,2

(4)  
1
2
,2

1 1
1–loga y
75. If y  a 1–loga x and z  a , then logax is equal to

1
(1) 1  log z
a

(2) log⎛ a ⎞ a
⎜z⎟
⎝ ⎠

⎛a⎞
(3) loga ⎜ ⎟
⎝z⎠

1
(4) log z – 1
a

76. If n(A) = 6, n(B) = 4 and A and B have 2 elements in common, then number of relations from A to B is

(1) 224
(2) 222

(3) 220
(4) 28

77. Which of the following is true?

(1) R × (Pc Qc)c = (R × P)  (R × Q)

(2) (A – B) × (B – A) = (A × B) – (A  B) × (A B)

(3) A – (A – B) = B
(4) (A × B) – (C × D) = (A – C) × (B – D)

78. The range of the function f(x) = log(1 – log10(x2 – 5x + 16))

(1) (0, )

(2) (–, 0)
(3) (0, 1)

(4) (2, 3)
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79. Let f(x) = |x –1| then S1: f(x2) = (f(x))2, S2: f(x + y) = f(x) + f(y), S3: f(|x|) = |f(x)| which of the S1, S2, S3 is true?
(1) Only S1
(2) Only S3
(3) S1 and S3
(4) None of these

x – 1 when x is odd natural number then

2
80. If a function is defined as f(x) = , range of f(x) is
–x
when x is even natural number then
2
(1) All real numbers
(2) All integers
(3) Not all integers
(4) A finite set

f (x) ⎛ f 2 x ⎞
81. If f(xy) = x, y  R, x, y  0, then range of ln ⎜ ⎟ is
y ⎝ f  x  1 ⎠
2

(1) [0, )
(2) (0, )
(3) [1, )
(4) [2, )

⎡ 1⎤ ⎡ 2⎤
82. If f ( x )   x   ⎢ x  ⎥  ⎢ x  ⎥ – 3 x  15 and f(x + k) = f(x)  x  R, then minimum positive value of k is
⎣ 3⎦ ⎣ 3⎦
(1) 1

1
(2)
2

1
(3)
3
(4) Data insufficient
83. The number of solution of the equation 2e–|x| = sgn (1–|x|) is
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 0
84. If A = {a, b, c, d} and B = {p, q, r}, then number of relations from A to B which are not function is
(1) 4096
(2) 1064
(3) 2028
(4) 4015

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85. If n(A) = 20, n(B) = 25, then number of elements in the range of  AB    B A  is

(1) 23

(2) 21

(3) 45

(4) 46

SECTION - II
Assertion – Reason Type Questions

Directions : Questions number 86 to 90 are Assertion-Reason type questions. Each of these questions contains two
statements. Statement-1 (Assertion) and Statement-2 (Reason). Each of these questions also has four alternative
choices, only one of which is the correct answer. You have to select the correct choice.

86. Statement-1 : A relation from A to B is called a function only when each element of A pairs with only one element
of B.

and

Statement-2 : For a relation from A to B to be a function domain of the relation must be A and range must be B.

(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-1

(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1

(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False

(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

87. Statement-1 : The function f ( x )   x    – x  and g(x) = log{x} + {–x} (x2 – 2x), where [ ] and { } are GIF and

fractional part function, have same domain.

and

Statement-2 : If two interconvertible function have same domain, then they have same range also.

(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-1

(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1

(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False

(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

88. Statement-1 : If f(x + y) = f(x) + f(y) – 2xy + 2, x, y  R, then f(x) + f(–x) = –2(x2 + 2).

and

Statement-2 : f(0) = – 2.

(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-1

(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1

(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False

(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

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 e2 x – 1 ln3 1  x   x 2 – 5 x  6 
89. Statement-1 : If f ( x )  , then its domain is (–, 0) (1, 2)  (2, 3).
 sgn 1– x    x 2 – 2x 
and

Statement-2 : For f ( x )  g  x  , Df = {x : g(x)  0}.

(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-1
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
90. Statement-1 : Every set has a unique universal set.
and
Statement-2 : If S = {1, {2}, 3, {4}, 5, {6}} and A = {{2}, {4}} then A  S.
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-1
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

  

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Test - 1 [Answers & Hints] Online Test for AIATS JEE (Main)-2017

04/10/2015 AIATS JEE

(Main)-2017

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, Plot No.-4, Sec-11, MLU, Dwarka, New Delhi-110075
Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472

All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main)-2017

Online Test-1
ANSWERS

Physics Chemistry Mathematics

1. (3) 31. (1) 61. (4)
2. (4) 32. (1) 62. (2)
3. (2) 33. (3) 63. (1)
4. (3) 34. (1) 64. (1)
5. (2) 35. (1) 65. (3)
6. (1) 36. (1) 66. (4)
7. (1) 37. (4) 67. (3)
8. (2) 38. (1) 68. (3)
9. (1) 39. (3) 69. (3)
10. (3) 40. (1) 70. (4)
11. (1) 41. (3) 71. (1)
12. (1) 42. (2) 72. (1)
13. (3) 43. (1) 73. (2)
14. (4) 44. (3) 74. (2)
15. (3) 45. (1) 75. (2)
16. (2) 46. (2) 76. (1)
17. (1) 47. (2) 77. (1)
18. (1) 48. (3) 78. (2)
19. (1) 49. (4) 79. (4)
20. (2) 50. (2) 80. (2)
21. (4) 51. (4) 81. (2)
22. (2) 52. (4) 82. (3)
23. (4) 53. (2) 83. (2)
24. (4) 54. (1) 84. (4)
25. (4) 55. (4) 85. (2)
26. (4) 56. (3) 86. (3)
27. (4) 57. (1) 87. (4)
28. (3) 58. (2) 88. (1)
29. (1) 59. (1) 89. (4)
30. (1) 60. (2) 90. (4)
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Online Test for AIATS JEE (Main)-2017 Test - 1 [Answers & Hints]

Hints and Solutions

PART - A
PHY
(PHY SICS
PHYSICS
SICS)

1. Answer (3)

4v2 = 2g(h + h) u=0

h
4v2 = 2gh + h2g
V
4(2gh) = 2gh + h'2g h
6gh = 2gh 2V

h = 3h

2. Answer (4)

1
h= gt1t2
2

14 = 5 (0.8) t2

14 7
t2 =  second
4 2

3. Answer (2)

t2 = x2 – 1

2t = 2xv

t dv 1 t2
v= acceleration a =  – 3
x dt x x

4. Answer (3)
Let t = time taken to hit the ground

1 2 u
–H = ut – gt
2 0

gt2 – 2ut – 2H = 0
H
2u  4u 2  8gH
t=
2g
u
let t' = time taken to reach highest point =
g
t = nt'
t2 = n2t'2  2gH = nu2(n – 2)

5. Answer (2)

Position of A is greater than B and Vrel = 0

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6. Answer (1)

VB  VT
Vav =
2 3m

⎛ VB  VT ⎞
3= ⎜ ⎟t
⎝ 2 ⎠

or VB + VT = 3 × 2 × 2 = 12 m/s

7. Answer (1)
V = na  (i)

1 2 a 2
Sn = an S = (n – n2 + 4 + 4n)
2 2

1
Sn – 2 = a(n – 2)2
2

2v 
= –1  n 
n

2v  n – 1
=
n

8. Answer (2)

dv
a = 2v2 or v = 2v2
dx

V V
dv
∫ v
 2dx ∫
 v = v0e2x
V0 V 0

9. Answer (1)

Let pickpocket is caught at time t.

1 2
S motorcycle = at ...(i)
2

Distance moved by jeep during the interval

S + d = vt ...(i)

1 2
at + d = vt
2

v  v 2 – 2ad
or, t =
a

For t to be real and positive v2  2ad  v  2ad

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10. Answer (3)

y
A

B
3

x
5

11. Answer (1)

Acceleration of balloon = 2 m/s2
Let at t = 0, y = 0 when the first stone is released

1 9
According to question, y1 = gt12 = g
2 2

g 2
For 2nd stone, y2 = ut2 + t
2 2
2nd stone is released after 2 s, y = – 4 m

g
Position of 2nd stone from origin = (– 4 + – 4) m
2

g g
Distance between two stones = ×9– × 1 + 8 = 48 m.
2 2
12. Answer (1)

a = –k v
3
2v 0 2
or v dv = kds  S =
3k

dv dv
Again
dt
= –K v  ∫ v ∫
 – kdt

v0
t= ×2
k

S v0
Vav = =
t 3

13. Answer (3)

dv
a = –v =
dt

V t
dv
∫ v
 –  ∫ dt v = v0e–t
V0 0

∫ vdt   1– e 
v0 – t
S=
0

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14. Answer (4)

8 – a0 8
tan =  a0 = 4 m/s2
4 8

Change in velocity

1
vf – vi = × 12 × 4 = 24 m/s
2

Vf = Vi + 24 = 27 m/s
15. Answer (3)

dv
a= = –1 x (m)
dt

v = 4 – t 8

dx
 =4–t
dt
0 4
t (s)

t2
x = 4t –
2

16. Answer (2)

t = M0L0T0  B = M0L0T–1

ML2T–3 = × M0L0T0   = ML2T–4

17. Answer (1)
MLT–2 = MaL–3a+cT–b–c
 a = 1, b = –2, c = 4
F = f –2v4
18. Answer (1)
A = 1.38 × 4.02 = 5.55 cm2
lmin = 4.02 – 0.01 = 4.01 cm
Wmin = 1.38 – 0.01 = 1.37 cm
Amin = 4.01 × 1.37 = 5.49 cm2
Amax = 4.08 × 1.39 = 5.60 cm2
A = 0.06 cm2
19. Answer (1)
Let 10 N = x units
10 [M1L1T1–2] = x [M2L2T2–2]

⎡ M L ⎛ T ⎞ –2 ⎤
1 1 1
x = 10 ⎢ M . L . ⎜ T ⎟ ⎥
⎣⎢ 2 2 ⎝ 2 ⎠ ⎦⎥
 x = 7.2 units
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20. Answer (2)

 P
Planet

B
Earth

From parallax

AB 2  6400
BP =  km = 2.2 ×1010m
Q 
5400

0
⎛ 1 ⎞ 
Angle of parallax Q = 21 = 2 × ⎜ ⎟  rad.
⎝ 60 ⎠ 5400

21. Answer (4)

R1R2 100 50  100

R=   
R1  R2 3 50  100

1 1 1 R R1 R2
    
R R1 R2 R 2
R12 R22

⎡ R1 R2 ⎤
 R ± R2 ⎢ 2  ⎥
⎣ R1 R22 ⎦

100 100 ⎡ 2 3 ⎤
 
3 ⎢⎣ 50  50 100  100 ⎥⎦
=
3

11
= 
9

= 1.2 
22. Answer (2)

1 mm
LC =  0.01 mm
100

e = n(LC) = 6 × 0.01 = + 0.06 mm

Linear scale reading = 2 × (1 mm) = 2 mm
 Measured reading = 2 + 0.62 = 2.62 mm
True reading = 2.62 – 0.06 = 2.56 mm
23. Answer (4)

1 2
48 = 20t – 4t t = 4 s
2
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24. Answer (4)

Let radius of this sphere = r ± r

r
 100  1.5%
r
r
 0.015
r
4 3
Volume v = r
3
v r v
3  = 0.045
v r v
percentage of error = 4.5%
25. Answer (4)
26. Answer (4)
27. Answer (4)
28. Answer (3)
29. Answer (1)
30. Answer (1)

PART - B
CHEMISTR
CHEMISTRY
(CHEMISTR Y)

31. Answer (1)

Weight of 1 mole of He = d at NTP × 22.4
= 0.1784 × 22.4
=4g
32. Answer (1)
Mass of metal chloride = 1 g
Mass of chlorine = 0.855 g
Mass of metal = 1 – 0.835 = 0.165
0.165  35.5
Eq. mass of metal = = 7.01
0.835
2× VD
Valency of the metal = =4
E+33.5
2  85
=
7.01  53.5
Formula = MCl4
33. Answer (3)
V  mole  ratio of mole = 1:1
16
 percent of CH4 =  100 = 80%
20
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Online Test for AIATS JEE (Main)-2017 Test - 1 [Answers & Hints]

34. Answer (1)

6CaO + P4O10  2Ca3 (PO4)2
1 mole of p4O10 neutralizes 6 moles of CaO
 3 mole of p4O10 naturalizes 18 mole of CaO
Mass of Cao = 18 × 56
= 1008 g
= 1.008 kg
35. Answer (1)

25.2  25.25  25.0

Average titre value =
3

75.45
=
3

75.4
=
3
= 25.1
(In addition, result is reported up to least place of decimal).
36. Answer (1)

2
n2 r1 z2 ⎛ n1 ⎞
r  r = 
z 2 zn ⎜⎝ n2 ⎟⎠

r1 3
 r2 = 2

37. Answer (4)

38. Answer (1)
n = 3 to n = 2

⎛ 1 1 ⎞
E = E0 × z2 ⎜ n2 – n2 ⎟
⎝ L H⎠

39. Answer (3)

The electron is a well defined co-relation between n, l, m and s quantum numbers in an atom
l = (n – 1), m will be if n = 3 m cannot be 3
40. Answer (1)

h 150
= = 1.54 =
2eVm V

 V = 63.24 V
41. Answer (3)
42. Answer (2)

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43. Answer (1)

⎛ 1 1 hc ⎞
E = 2.178 × 10–18 ⎜ – = ⎟
⎝ 12 22  ⎠

6.62  10 –34  3  108  4

or  = = 1.214 × 10–7 m
2.17  10 –18  3

44. Answer (3)

K+, Cl–, Ca+ + and Sc3 + have 18 electrons.
45. Answer (1)
b
Orbital angular momentum l = 2 = l l  1
2

or 6 h/2
46. Answer (2)
47. Answer (2)
Cr  1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s1 3d5
When l = 1, p-subshell
Number of electrons = 12
When l = 2, d-subshell = 5 electrons
48. Answer (3)
49. Answer (4)
50. Answer (2)
51. Answer (4)
Fe+ +  [Ar] 3d6 = 4 unpaired electron.
52. Answer (4)
Mass of 3.6 mole H2SO4 = 3.6 × 98 = 352.8 g
Mass of solution = 1216 g
mass 1216
d= = = 1.216 g/mol
volume 1000
= 1.22 g/mol
53. Answer (2)

558.5
= 10 mol
55.8
54. Answer (1)
55. Answer (4)
56. Answer (3)
57. Answer (1)
58. Answer (2)
59. Answer (1)
60. Answer (2)
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Online Test for AIATS JEE (Main)-2017 Test - 1 [Answers & Hints]

PART - C
MA
(MA THEMA
MATHEMA TICS
THEMATICS
TICS)

61. Answer (4)

P(A) = { , {}} so all statements are correct
62. Answer (2)
6 × 3 × 3 × 3 × 3 × 3 = 2.36
63. Answer (1)
a2 + b2  0  a = b = 0  Domain is not R so not a function
64. Answer (1)
f(x + T) = f(x – T)
 f(x + 2T) = f(x)
and f(x) = f(x – 2T)
 f(x + 2T) = f(x – 2T)
 f(x + 4T) = f(x)
 f(0) = f(4T)
65. Answer (3)
{x} + {2x} + {3x} + {4x} = {10x}
 [x] + [2x] + [3x] + [4x] = [10x]
which is satisfied only when x I
66. Answer (4)
f(x + y) = f(xy)
Replace y by –x
 f(0) = f(–x2)
Replace x2 by –x
 f(x) = f(0) = constant
 f(2015) = 2
67. Answer (3)
x – y = –1

x–y=1

x +y = 1

x – y = –1

If |x + y|  |x – y| then |x + y| = 1
x+y=±1  xy  0
 2nd and 4th Quadrant
If |x + y|  |x – y| then |x – y| = 1
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x–y=±1
 xy  0
 1st and 3rd quadrant
Hence only 4 points satisfy the condition
(1, 0), (–1, 0), (0, 1) (0, –1) and for |y| = – {x}
 x  I and y = 0
So the common solution are (1, 0), (–1, 0)
68. Answer (3)
[x]2 = [x] + 3 {x}

 x 2 –  x 
 {x} =  [0, 1)
3
 [x]2 – [x]  0 and [x]2 – [x] < 3
 [x]  (–, 0]  [1, )

⎛ 1– 13 1  13 ⎞
and [x]  ⎜ , ⎟
⎝ 2 2 ⎠

⎛ 1– 13 ⎤ ⎡ 1  13 ⎞
 [x]  ⎜ ,0 ⎥  ⎢1, ⎟
⎝ 2 ⎦ ⎣ 2 ⎠
so [x] = –1, 0 , 1, 2

2 2
 {x} = , 0, 0,
3 3

–1 8
x= , 0, 1,
3 3
69. Answer (3)

|x|  {x}
–2 –1 0 1 2

⎛ 1⎤
 x  ⎜ – ,– ⎥  0,  
⎝ 2⎦

So f(x)  [0, )
70. Answer (4)
R  A × B and R  B × C
 R  ((A × B)  (B × C))
n((A × B)(B × C)) = 2 + 2 + 2 + 2 + 2 = 10
So number of relation = 210
71. Answer (1)
7x + 4.7–x  4 and 5x + 4.5–x  4
So range is [11, )

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72. Answer (1)

f(x) = | 1  x – 4 |  | 1– x – 4 |

 Domain is [4, )
73. Answer (2)
Df.g = Df  Dg = Df  Dg
 Df = Dg
74. Answer (2)

1 1 1
. 
log2 x log2 2 x log2 4 x

1 1
 log x 1  log x   2  log x
2 2 2

 log22x = 2  log2x = ± 2  x = 2 2

75. Answer (2)

⎛ 1 ⎞
⎜ ⎟
⎜⎜ loga ⎛⎜ a ⎞⎟ ⎟⎟
⎝ ⎝ x ⎠⎠
y= a

1 ⎛a⎞ 1
 logay =  loga ⎜ ⎟ 
a
⎛ ⎞ ⎝ x ⎠ loga y
loga ⎜ ⎟
⎝x⎠

1 ⎛a⎞ 1
Similarly logaz =  loga ⎜ ⎟ = log z
⎛a⎞ ⎝y⎠ a
loga ⎜ ⎟
y
⎝ ⎠

⎛a⎞ 1 loga z
 loga ⎜ ⎟  
⎝x⎠ 1 ⎛z⎞
1– loga ⎜ ⎟
loga z ⎝a⎠

loga z –1
 logax = 1– log z – 1  log z – 1
a a

1
=  loga
1– loga z a
z

76. Answer (1)

n(A × B) = n(A) . n(B) = 24
So number of relations = 224
77. Answer (1)
(1) R × (Pc Qc)c = R × (P Q) (R × P)(R × Q)
(2) False
(3) A – (A – B) = A B
(4) False, consider A  C and B = D
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78. Answer (2)

f(x) = log(1 – log10(x2 – 5x + 16))
1 – log10(x2 – 5x + 16) > 0
 0 < log10(x2 – 5x + 16) < 1
f(x) (–, 0)
79. Answer (4)
All are false
80. Answer (2)

1 0
2 –1
3 1
4 –2 hence range is all integers

81. Answer (2)

1 f 1
y=  f(1) = xf(x)  f(x) =
x x

⎛ f 2 x ⎞ ⎛  x  12 ⎞ ⎛ 1⎞
2
ln ⎜ 2 ⎟  ln ⎜ ⎟ = ln ⎜ 1  ⎟
⎝ f  x  1 ⎠ ⎝ x2 ⎠ ⎝ x⎠

1
= 2ln 1 
x
So range is (0, )
82. Answer (3)
f(x) = [3x] – 3x + 15 = –{3x} + 15
 f(x + k) = –{3(x + k)} + 15
f(x) = f(x + k)  {3x + 3k} = {3x}
1
 3kI  kmin =
3
83. Answer (2)

1
–1 1
–1
84. Answer (4)
Number of relation = 212
Number of function = 34
So Number of relations which are not funciton
= 212 –34 = 4015
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Online Test for AIATS JEE (Main)-2017 Test - 1 [Answers & Hints]

85. Answer (2)

n   AB    B A    n  AB 

= n(A) + n(B) –2n(AB)

= 45 – 2x (AB)
So n(AB) = {5,………,45}
So number of elements = 21
86. Answer (3)
By definition
87. Answer (4)
S1 = [x] + [–x]  0  xI
{x} + {–x} > 0 and {x} + {–x}  1 x 
S2 = If Df = Dg and f(x) = g(x)  x Df
then f(x) and g(x) have same range
88. Answer (1)
f(x + y = f(x) + f(y) –2xy + 2
x = y = 0  f(0) = f(0) + f(0) + 2  f(0) = –2
y = –x  f(0) = f(x) + f(–x) + 2x2 + 2
 f(x) + f(–x) = –2(x2 + 2)
89. Answer (4)

e 2 x – 1 ln3  x  1  x – 2  x – 3 
0
 sgn 1 – x   x – 2 x
+ – + + –
–1 0 1 2 3
So domain = (–1, 0)  (1, 2)  (2, 3)
90. Answer (4)
S1 : A natural number set can have whole number set or real number set as its universal set.
and
S2 : If a  A and a  S also then A is subset of S.

  

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