Regulatory Framework for Business Transactions

I-solidary [I-SO]
Preweek Handout Two we-joint [WE-JO]
SOLIDARY
1. A, a minor, B and C wrote and signed a promissory note which states “I promise to pay D P30,000.” At
the maturity date of the note, how much may D validly collect from C if B becomes insolvent?
a. P10,000 debtor- SOLIDARY ---
A-minor --10,00
b. P20,000 MINORITY--can BE SET UP D-creditor---
B-solvent--10,000 [how much D collect to C]
c. P30,000 SOLVENT--
C- 10,000
d. P15,000

2. A, who is domiciled in Lipa City, has an obligation to deliver a 2018 Ltd. Edition Black Fortuner to B,
who is domiciled in Batangas City. A 2018 Ltd. Edition Black Fortuner is located in Tanauan City at the
time of perfection of obligation while another 2018 Ltd. Edition Black Fortuner is located in Tagaytay
City at the agreed date of delivery. Where shall the car be delivered by A to B?
a. Lipa City
b. Batangas City
DOMICILE OF DEBTOR----A- deliver --specific thing
c. Tanauan City
d. Tagaytay City

3. What is the prescriptive period of the right to file an action based on quasi-delict?
a. 10 years
b. 6 years --quasi contract, quasi-delict
c. 5 years
d. 4years quasi-delict (negligence) (culpa-3: criminal, aquillana,tort....)
rescissible contract
4. A has three outstanding due and demandable obligations to B consisting of: (1) Accounts Payable in
the amount of P1,000,000; (2) Notes Payable in the amount of P1,000,000 which is solidary debt with
G; (3) Loans Payable with 10% interest in the amount of P1,000,000; and (4) Mortgage Payable in the
amount of P1,000,000 which is secured by real estate mortgage over A’s land. A paid P1,000,000 to B
and designated the payment to the accounts payable. In which debt shall the payment be applied by B?
a. Accounts payable mortgage-----priority

b. Notes payable
HAVE AGREMENT
c. Loans payable
d. Mortgage payable
JOINT---double divide--silent

5. A, B and C wrote and signed a promissory note which states “We promise to pay D and E P60,000.” At
the maturity date of the note, D indorsed back the promissory note to A. How much obligation is
extinguished and by what mode of extinguishment of obligation?
a. P20,000 by confusion
b. P60,000 by compensation
c. P30,000 by remission
d. P10,000 by merger

6. A has an obligation to deliver a specific cellphone to B but a specific laptop may be substituted in lieu of
the specific cellphone. Who has the right of choice in this type of obligation?
a. A unless there is stipulation to the contrary
b. B unless there is stipulation to the contrary
c. Always A always debtor
d. Always B

7. In which type of delay is consignation the proper legal remedy of the injured party?
a. Mora accipiendi
b. Mora solvendi
c. Mora obligori
d. Mora pactum

8. A has an obligation to pay P100,000 to B but the obligation states that “A will pay the obligation when
his means permit him to do so.” Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
a. The obligation is due and demandable.
b. The obligation is subject to a suspensive condition.
c. The obligation is subject to a resolutory period.
d. The court may fix the suspensive period of the obligation.

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9. A has an outstanding obligation in the amount of P100,000 to C with G serving as guarantor and P
pledging his car to secure the fulfilment of A’s obligation. At the maturity date of the obligation, P paid
P100,000 to C without the knowledge of A. Which of the following is CORRECT?
a. P may only recover from A but only in so far as the payment is beneficial to A. -legal subrication--
b. P cannot recover from A because the payment is without the knowledge or consent of A.
c. P may go after G if A will not be able to reimburse P because of insolvency.
d. P may recover from C in case of non-reimbursement by A based on the principle of unjust
enrichment.

10. Which of the following obligations is due and demandable?

a. Obligation with a suspensive condition
b. Obligation in diem
c. Obligation ex die
d. Obligation payable as soon as possible

11. What is the status of oral contract of lease of public streets or thoroughfares entered by a city
government with private market stallholders at a monthly rental of P500? outside commerce of men
a. Unenforceable
b. Rescissible
c. Voidable
d. Void

12. Which of the following executory contracts is NOT required to be in writing to be enforceable under the
Statute of Fraud?
a. Contract of sale of a condominium unit at a price of P400
b. Contract for a piece of work of a furniture at a price of P500
c. Contract of guaranty
d. Contract of lease of land for a period of two years at a monthly rental of P300

13. A, an illiterate, borrowed P100,000 from B. Aside from that, A mortgaged his land to B which the latter
accepted to secure the payment of the loan. B prepared a deed of sale with a right to repurchase of the
land at a price of P100,000 which A signed after B explained that such document evidenced their true
agreement. What is the proper legal remedy available to A?
a. Action for reformation of instrument
b. Action for rescission of contract
c. Action for annulment of contract
d. Action for declaration of nullity of contract

14. Which of the following contracts is perfected by the delivery of the subject matter of the contract?
a. Contract of sale
b. Contract of partnership
c. Contract of pledge
d. Contract of real estate mortgage

15. A delivered a specific calculator to B so that the latter will be able to use it for a period of one month
without any rental payment. In case of doubt in the incidental circumstance of this contract, how shall it
be interpreted? commonatum
a. It shall be interpreted in favor of greatest reciprocity of interest.
b. It shall be interpreted in such a manner to make the contract null and void.
c. It shall be interpreted in favor of least transmission of rights.
d. It shall be interpreted in favor of the beneficiary B.

16. A, an insane sold his specific laptop to B at a price of P10,000. After obtaining knowledge of the
contract, C, a childhood friend of A, filed an action before the court for annulment of the contract of
sale. What principle of contract is violated by the filing of such action?
a. Mutuality of contract
b. Relativity of contract you are fillinf by
c. Liberality of contract
d. Legality of contract

17. A delivered P1,000 cash to B as a contract of deposit which the latter thought to be a contract of loan.
What is the proper legal remedy on the part of the injured party? w/out- consent----void
a. Action for reformation of instrument
b. Action for rescission of contract
c. Action for annulment of contract
d. Action for declaration of nullity of contract

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18. A sold in writing an authentic Coach Bag at a price of P10,000 to B. At the time of delivery of the bag, A
delivered a counterfeited Coach Bag to B with a price of P7,400 only. What is the proper legal remedy
on the part of B?
a. Action for rescission of rescissible contract by reason of lesion of more than ¼ the value of the
authentic bag
b. Action for damages for breach of contract by reason of fraud in the performance of contract
c. Action for annulment of voidable contract by reason of dolo causante.
d. Action for declaration of nullity of contract by reason of illegality of contract.

19. A borrowed P10,000 from B. B filed an action to collect a sum of money against A which resulted to the
issuance of writ of attachment. The cellphone of A is the first to be attached by the sheriff. Afterwards,
A orally sold and delivered his laptop to C at a price of P5,000. Payment of the price will happen after
one week from the perfected of contract. What is the status of contract of sale of laptop?
a. Rescissible
b. Voidable after attched
c. Perfectly valid
d. Unenforceable

20. Under the New Civil Code of the Philippines, what is the moment of perfection of contract entered into
through telegram?
a. The contract is perfected from the moment the acceptance is declared or made.
b. The contract is perfected from the moment the offeree transmits the notification of acceptance
to the offeror.
c. The contract is perfected from the moment that the notification of acceptance is in the hands of
the offeror.
d. The contract is perfected from the moment the offeree’s acceptance comes to the knowledge of
the offeror. cognitive theory

21. S sold a residential condominium unit to B at an instalment price of P6,000,000 payable in 50 years at a
monthly rental of P10,000 per month. After payment of several instalments totalling P1,200,000, B
defaulted in the payment of remaining instalments which resulted to the cancelation of the contract of
sale after the lapsing of the grace period prescribed by law. What is the amount of cash surrender value
to be received by B from S as a result of cancellation?
a. P600,000
b. P900,000
75%---
c. P840,000
d. P960,000

22. In which of the following instances are the goods still in transit which will allow the unpaid seller to
exercise his right of stoppage in transitu in case of insolvency of the buyer?
a. If the buyer obtains delivery of the goods before arrival at the appointed destination.
b. If the carrier or other bailee acknowledges to the buyer or his agent, that he is holding the goods
in his behalf, after arrival of the goods at their appointed destination.
c. If the carrier or other bailee wrongfully refuses to deliver the goods to buyer or his agent.
d. If the goods are rejected by the buyer, and the carrier or other bailee continues in possession of
them, even if the seller has refused to receive them back.

23. S sold his lot with an area of 100 SQM to B at a selling price of P1,000 per SQM. After delivery of the
lot, B discovered that the actual area is only 91 SQM. What is the legal remedy available to B?
a. B may ask for proportionate reduction of price and must pay P91,000 only. quanti minoris
b. B can ask for cancellation of the contract of sale.
c. Either A or B.
d. Neither A nor B.

24. A, B, and C are co-owners of a rural lot with an area of 1,000 SQM in the ratio of 6:1:3, respectively.
The co-owned lot is bounded by farm lots of D and E with an area of 50 SQM and 75SQM, respectively.
A sold his share of the co-owned lot to F. Who shall have the preferred right to repurchase the lot sold
by A to F?
a. B because his share in the co-owned lot is smaller.
b. B and C with an area of 150 SQM and 450 SQM, respectively
c. D because his adjoining rural lot has smaller area.
d. E because his adjoining rural lot has larger area.

25. What is the prescriptive period of the right to file an action based on breach of warranty of sale of
immovable against non-apparent and unregistered burden or servitude?
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 a. 40 days from the date of contract of sale or from the discovery of burden
b. 6 months from the date of contract of sale or from the discovery of burden
c. 1 year from the date of contract of sale or from the discovery of burden
d. 3 days from the date of contract of sale or from the discovery of burden

26. A and B are legally married and their property regime is governed by absolute community of property. A
orally sold his specific cellphone to B at a price of P500 with a book value of P800 after B pointed a gun
to A. Delivery of the specific cellphone will happen after three years. What is the status of the contract
of sale?
a. Rescissible
b. Voidable
c. Unenforceable
d. Void

27. B rented the specific truck of S. After the end of the contract, S sold the property to B. As a result of
sale, B continues to have possession of the property. What type of constructive delivery is present in
this contract of sale?
a. Traditio clavium
b. Traditio longa manu
c. Traditio brevi manu
d. Traditio constitutum possessorium

28. A borrowed P100,000 from B and mortgaged his house to secure the payment of the loan. The contract
of real estate mortgage is not notarized and not registered with Registry of Deeds. The contract of real
estate mortgage provides that A is prohibited from selling the mortgaged house and in case of default
of A at the maturity date of the loan, B will become the automatic owner of the mortgaged house. Which
of the following statements is CORRECT?
a. A may still sell the house to third person despite the prohibition in the contract of real estate
mortgage.
b. B becomes the owner of the mortgaged house upon default of A.
c. The contract of real estate mortgage is null and void because of the stipulation of pactum
commissorium which is contrary to law and public policy.
d. The contract of real estate mortgage is unenforceable because it is not in public document and
not registered with Registry of Deeds

29. P borrowed P1,000 from C. P pledged and delivered his specific cellphone to C as collateral for the
loan. The contract of pledge provides that C may recover the deficiency as a result of foreclosure sale.
P failed to pay his obligation at the maturity date which prompted C to sell the pledged cellphone at
public auction. The cellphone was sold at a price of P900. Which of the following statements is
CORRECT?
a. The contract of pledge is extinguished but the contract of loan is extinguished up to P900 only.
b. Pledgee P may still recover the deficiency of P100 because there is stipulation to that effect.
c. The contract of pledge is not extinguished.
d. Both contract of pledge and contract of loan are extinguished by the public sale.

30. D borrowed P100,000 from C and entered into a chattel mortgage involving his land to secure the
payment of his loan. D failed to pay the loan at maturity date. Which of the following statements is
CORRECT? real property
a. The contract of chattel mortgage is null and void in so far as the contracting parties are
concerned because the subject matter is a land.
b. C cannot foreclose the chattel mortgage over the land because the subject matter must be a
movable property.
c. C may still foreclose the chattel mortgage on the land on the basis of doctrine of estoppel.
d. Third person directly affected by the contract of chattel mortgage is not allowed to file an action
for declaration of nullity because of relativity of contract.

31. He refers to the person or persons, natural or juridical, appointed as such by the rehabilitation court
pursuant to FRIA and which shall be entrusted with such powers and duties including among others to
monitor the operations and the business of the debtor to ensure that no payments or transfers of
property are made other than in the ordinary course of business.
a. Rehabilitation receiver
b. Conservator
c. Liquidator
d. Provisional director
32. An individual debtor possesses sufficient property to cover all his debts but he foresees the
impossibility of meeting them when they respectively fall due. What is the proper petition that must be
filed by such insolvent individual debtor?
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 a. File a petition for rehabilitation
b. File a petition for voluntary liquidation
c. File a petition for declaration of state of suspension of payments
d. File a petition for involuntary liquidation

33. An insolvent individual debtor made a proposal in his petition for the settlement of his obligations the
payment of which is suspended by the suspension order issued by the Regional Trial Court. What is the
required vote by the creditors affected for the approval of such proposal of insolvent individual debtor?
a. 4/5 of the creditors voting to unite upon the same proposition and the claims represented by
said majority vote amount to at least 3/5 of the total liabilities mentioned in the petition.
b. 3/5 of the creditors voting to unite upon the same proposition and the claims represented by
said majority vote amount to at least 2/3 of the total liabilities mentioned in the petition.
c. 1/3 of the creditors voting to unite upon the same proposition and the claims represented by
said majority vote amount to at least 4/5 of the total liabilities mentioned in the petition.
d. 2/3 of the creditors voting to unite upon the same proposition and the claims represented by
said majority vote amount to at least 3/5 of the total liabilities mentioned in the petition.

34. An individual debtor has liabilities exceeding P500,000 but his assets are not sufficient to cover his
liabilities. What is the proper petition that must be filed by such insolvent individual debtor?
a. File a petition for rehabilitation
b. File a petition for voluntary liquidation
c. File a petition for declaration of state of suspension of payments
d. File a petition for involuntary liquidation

35. What is the quantitative threshold before any creditor or group of creditors may file a petition for
involuntary liquidation of an insolvent individual debtor?
a. Claim of at least P500,000
b. Claim of at least P1,000,000
c. Claim of at least P5,000,000
d. Claim of at least P25,000,000

36. It refers to the order included in the Commencement Order issued by the Regional Trial Court in a
rehabilitation proceedings which has the effect of suspending all actions or proceedings, attachments ,
in court or otherwise, for the enforcement of claims against the insolvent debtor.
a. Stay or Suspension order
b. Liquidation order
c. Freeze order
d. Injunction order

37. Which of the following cases is NOT stayed by the suspension order issued by the Rehabilitation
Court?
a. Civil action to collect unpaid taxes pending before Municipal Trial Court
b. Judicial foreclosure of real estate mortgage involving the land of the corporation pending before
Regional Trial Court
c. Criminal action against the corporate officer pending before Municipal Trial Court
d. Civil action for damages involving corporate tort pending before Regional Trial Court

38. What is the quantitative threshold before any creditor or group of creditors may file a petition for
involuntary corporate rehabilitation of an insolvent corporation?
a. Claim of at least P1,000,000 or at least 25% of subscribed capital stock, whichever is higher
b. Claim of at least P500,000 or at least 10% of subscribed capital stock, whichever is higher
c. Claim of at least P10,000,000 or at least 15% of subscribed capital stock, whichever is higher
d. Claim of at least P5,000,000 or at least 20% of subscribed capital stock, whichever is higher

39. What is the required vote by the creditors affected by the rehabilitation of a corporation for the approval
of the proposed rehabilitation plan?
a. Approval by at least 2/3 of all classes of creditors whose rights are affected.
b. Approval by at least 1/3 of all classes of creditors whose rights are affected.
c. Approval by all classes of creditors whose rights are affected.
d. Approval by at least ¼ of all classes of creditors whose rights are affected.

40. It is a type of rehabilitation wherein the insolvent debtor and its creditors already negotiated and
prepared the rehabilitation plan before they file a verified petition to the court for the approval of such
plan.
a. Voluntary court-supervised rehabilitation
b. Involuntary court-supervised rehabilitation
c. Out-of court or informal rehabilitation
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 d. Pre-negotiation rehabilitation

41. Which of the following is NOT a warranty of a qualified indorser of negotiable instrument?
a. That all prior parties had capacity to contract.
b. That the instrument, is at the time of his indorsement, is valid and subsisting. for general endorser
c. That the instrument is genuine and in all respects what it purports to be.
d. That he has good title to the instrument.

42. Which of the following is a defense that is available against a holder in due course?
a. Fraud in factum
b. Acquisition of instrument by force or duress
c. Illegality of consideration
d. Absence of delivery of complete instrument

43. Which of the following is NOT a requisite of a holder in due course?

a. He holds an instrument that is complete and regular upon its face.
b. He becomes the holder of the instrument after it is overdue, and with notice that it had been
previously dishonored if such was the fact.
c. He takes the instrument in good faith and for value.
d. At the time the instrument is negotiated to him, he has no notice of infirmity in the instrument or
defect in the title of the person of the person negotiating it.

44. Which type of indorsement may prohibit the further negotiation of a negotiable instrument?
a. Conditional indorsement
b. Qualified indorsement
c. Restrictive indorsement
d. Facultative indorsement

45. Which of the following is NOT an element of criminal violation of Batas Pambansa Bilang 22 for
issuance of worthless checks?
a. There must be making, drawing, and issuance of any check to apply for account or for value.
b. There must be knowledge of the maker, drawer, or issuer that at the time of issue he does not
have sufficient funds in or credit with the drawee bank for the payment of the check in full upon
its presentment.
c. There must be intent to commit fraud upon the issuance of worthless check.
d. There must be subsequent dishonor of the check by the drawee bank for insufficiency of funds
or creditor dishonor for the same reason had not the drawer, without any valid cause, ordered
the bank to stop payment.

46. What is the prima facie evidence that the drawer of issuer of check has knowledge that check he issued
has insufficient fund?
a. The making, drawing and issuance of a check payment of which is refused by the drawee
because of insufficient funds in or credit with such bank, when presented within sixty (60) days
from the date of the check.
b. The making, drawing and issuance of a check payment of which is refused by the drawee
because of insufficient funds in or credit with such bank, when presented within thirty (30) days
from the date of the check.
c. The making, drawing and issuance of a check payment of which is refused by the drawee
because of insufficient funds in or credit with such bank, when presented within twenty (20)
days from the date of the check.
d. The making, drawing and issuance of a check payment of which is refused by the drawee
because of insufficient funds in or credit with such bank, when presented within ninety (90) days
from the date of the check.

47. What is the evidence or defense that may be used by the issuer of a worthless check to destroy the
prima facie evidence that he has knowledge of insufficiency of fund of the check?
a. The maker or drawer pays the holder thereof the amount due thereon, or makes arrangements
for payment in full by the drawee of such check within (10) banking days after receiving notice
that such check has not been paid by the drawee.

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 b. The maker or drawer pays the holder thereof the amount due thereon, or makes arrangements
for payment in full by the drawee of such check within (15) banking days after receiving notice
that such check has not been paid by the drawee.
c. The maker or drawer pays the holder thereof the amount due thereon, or makes arrangements
for payment in full by the drawee of such check within (5) banking days after receiving notice
that such check has not been paid by the drawee.
d. The maker or drawer pays the holder thereof the amount due thereon, or makes arrangements
for payment in full by the drawee of such check within (3) banking days after receiving notice
that such check has not been paid by the drawee.

48. In the absence of agreement as to sharing of partnership losses, how shall the losses be distributed to
the partners? id silent agreement
a. It should be divided equally among the partners including the industrial partners.
b. It should be divided proportionately to the capitalist partners in accordance to their capital
contribution ratio.
c. It should be divided in accordance with the profit agreement ratio to the capitalist partners only.
d. It should be divided equally among the capitalist partners only.

49. Which of the following has NO right to inspect the books of the partnership?
a. Nominal partner
b. Limited partner
c. Dormant partner
d. Secret partner

50. Which of the following acts of the partnership may be done by the managing partner alone?
a. Disposition of the goodwill of the business.
b. Confession of judgment.
c. Approval of collecting bargaining agreement.
d. Renunciation of a claim of the partnership.

51. A, B, C, D and E are partners in ABCDE Partnership with capital contribution ratio of 5:4:3:2:1,
respectively. No one is appointed as managing partner in Articles of Co-Partnership. The partners held
a meeting to determine its supplier. A and B voted in favor of SM while C, D and E voted in favor of
Ayala. Who shall be considered the supplier of the partnership?
A. Both SM and Ayala because they are both selected by the partners.
B. SM because it is the supplier selected by the partners having controlling interest.
C. Ayala because it is the supplier selected by majority of the partners.
D. Neither SM nor Ayala because selection of supplier requires unanimity of the partners.

52. Which of the following is the right of an assignee of a partner’s interest?

a. Right to participate in the management of the partnership
b. Right to vote in the selection of the managing partner
c. Right to the share in net income of his assignor
d. Right to inspect the partnership book and demand audited financial statements of the
partnership

53. Which of the following instances will NOT automatically dissolve a general partnership?
a. Insolvency of any partner
need court order
b. Insanity of any partner
c. Death of any partner
d. Civil interdiction of any partner

54. Which of the following may NOT be contributed by a pure limited partner?
a. Money
b. Movable property
c. Labor or service
d. Intangible asset

55. It is the change in the relation of the partners caused by any partner ceasing to be associated in the
carrying on of the business.
a. Partnership liquidation
b. Partnership incorporation
c. Partnership termination
d. Partnership dissolution

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56. Which of the following claims shall be paid LAST in the liquidation of general partnership?
a. Those owing to partners in respect of profits.
b. Those owing to the creditors other than partners.
c. Those owing to partners in respect of capital.
d. Those owing to partners other than capital and profits.

57. Which type of partner may be excluded by the injured partner in case he engaged in another business
without express permission of the partnership?
a. Industrial partner
b. Capitalist partner ---kahit ---di pwedeng tagatagin
c. Limited partner
d. All of them

58. In which type of corporate acts may a non-voting preferred stockholders disqualified from participating?
a. Merger or consolidation of corporations
b. Distribution of stock dividends dissoulution
c. Increase or decrease of capital stock
d. Sale of all or substantially all of corporate property

59. Which type of corporation is allowed to issue no-par value common shares?
a. Public utility
b. Insurance company
c. Educational institution
d. Banks

60. Which type of corporate officer is required to be a director of the corporation?

a. Secretary
b. Vice-President
c. Treasurer
d. President or chairman

61. Equitable-PCI Bank and BDO Unibank entered into business combination which will result to BDO
Unibank absorbing all the net assets of Equitable-PCI Bank. What type of business combination is
present in this case?
a. Consolidation
b. Merger
c. Dissolution
d. Spin-off

62. Which of the following companies may be incorporated as a close corporation?

a. Mining companies
b. Oil companies
c. Stock exchange
d. Review school

63. It refers to the right of the stockholder to demand the fair market value of his stocks in case he dissents
in particular corporate acts provided by the Corporate Code.
a. Preemptive right
b. Appraisal right
c. Right of first refusal
d. Protective right

64. What is the required vote for the revocation of the power given to the Board of Directors to amend the
By-Laws of the Corporation?
a. At least majority vote of the outstanding capital stock -revoke
b. At least 2/3 vote of the outstanding capital stock deligate
c. At least majority vote of Board of Directors and ratification by at least majority vote of the
outstanding capital stock
d. At least majority vote of Board of Directors and ratification by at least 2/3 vote of the outstanding
capital stock
65. Which of the following matters must be provided in the Articles of Incorporation of the Corporation?
a. Denial of preemptive right
b. Creation of executive committee
c. Provision for compensation of directors
d. Entries to be made in the stock and transfer book

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66. ABC Co. is a proposed corporation with authorized capital stock of P60,000 and actual subscribed
capital stock of P32,000. What is the minimum paid up capital of this corporation?
a. P5,000
b. P8,000 none---higher ---old----new 0
c. P3,750
d. P7,500

67. Which of the following right is NOT available to unpaid subscribed stock which is NOT yet delinquent?
a. Right to dividends
b. Right to vote in election of directors
c. Right to inspect books of the corporation
d. Right to certificate of stock

68. Which of the following right is still available to delinquent subscribed stock?
a. Right to dividends offset
b. Right to vote in election of directors
c. Preemptive right
d. Appraisal right

69. Which of the following is an attribute of a private corporation?

a. It is created by mere consent.
b. It enjoys the right of succession.
c. The owners are liable up to the extent of their separate assets.
d. It has a personality which is not separate and distinct from its owners.

70. When does the juridical personality of a private corporation commence?

a. From the moment of execution of contract among the incorporators of the corporation.
b. From the moment of submission of articles of incorporation by the incorporators to the
Securities and Exchange Commission.
c. From the moment of obtaining consent among the incorporators.
d. From the moment of issuance by Securities and Exchange Commission of Certificate of
Registration.

71. What is the effect of the failure of a private corporate to renew its corporate term within the deadline set
by the Corporation Code of the Philippines?
a. It will make such private corporation a de facto corporation.
b. Such private corporation will be liable for fine before it may be able to renew its corporate term.
old c. Such private corporation is ip so facto dissolved by operation of law. the corporation may file a petition for revival of
d. Such failure will be a ground for court-ordered corporate dissolution. corporation existence---new

72. ABC Co. fails to comply with the minimum Filipino ownership as prescribed by the Constitution. Who
has the legal standing to question the juridical personality of such corporation?
a. Any creditor of such corporation through an ordinary civil action.
b. The state through special civil action called quo warranto proceedings filed by Solicitor General.
c. Any stockholder of such corporation through a criminal action.
d. Any prospective investor through an administrative action filed before Securities and Exchange
Commission.

73. Which of the following is NOT a valid consideration for the issuance of shares of stocks of a
corporation?
a. Future services
b. Intangible property
c. Previously incurred indebtedness
d. Amounts transferred from unrestricted retained earnings

74. What is the period for the submission of the by-laws of the corporation in case it is not attached to the
articles of incorporation submitted to Securities and Exchange Commission?
a. Within 30 days from the submission of articles of incorporation to the Securities and Exchange
Commission
b. Within 20 days from the issuance of Securities and Exchange Commission of the Certificate of
Incorporation
c. Within 15 days from the end of the fiscal year of the corporation

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 d. Within 30 days from the issuance of Securities and Exchange Commission of the Certificate of
Incorporation ---old, at the same time the Article of inc is submitted ]

75. As a general rule, what is the maximum surplus profits that can be retained by a stock corporation?
a. 50% of paid up capital
b. 100% of paid up capital ---actual invested
c. 50% of authorized capital stock
d. 100% of authorized capital stock

76. In which type of corporation is foreign ownership prohibited by 1987 Constitution?

a. Mass media
b. Advertising company
c. Public utility
d. Educational institution

77. Which of the following corporate act may be delegated to the executive committee?
a. Distribution of stock dividends
b. Investment of corporate funds to other business
c. Amendment, repeal or adoption of corporate by-laws
d. Approval of compensation scheme of employees

78. What is quorum necessary for validity of meeting of General Assembly in ordinary cooperative?
a. At least 5% of all the members entitled to vote
b. At least 25% of all the members entitled to vote
c. At least majority of all the members entitled to vote
d. At least 2/3 of all the members entitled to vote

79. It is a type of cooperative that promotes and undertakes savings and lending services among its
members. It generates a common pool of funds in order to provide financial assistance to its members
for productive and provident purposes.
a. Cooperative bank
b. Insurance cooperative
c. Service cooperative
d. Credit cooperative

80. How many years must a single-line cooperative operate before it may transform into a multi-purpose
cooperative?
a. At least 2 years
b. At least 1 year
c. At least 3 years
d. At least 4 years

81. It is the highest highest policy-making body of the cooperative and shall exercise the powers of the
Cooperative as stated in the Cooperative Code.
a. Board of Directors
b. Executive Committee
c. General Assembly
d. Board of Members

82. Which of the following is a ground for involuntary dissolution of a cooperative through an order by a
competent court after hearing?
a. Insolvency ---need of RTC
b. Willful failure to operate on a cooperative basis
c. Failure to meet the required number of members of the cooperative
d. Having obtained its registration through fraud

83. What is the required vote for the merger of two or more cooperative into a single cooperative?
a. At least ¾ of all the members with voting rights
b. At least 2/3 of all the members with voting rights
c. At least majority of all the members with voting rights
d. At least 25% of all members with voting rights

84. What is the maximum par value of a share in a cooperative?

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 a. P5
b. P100
c. P10
d. P1,000 @ IRR

85. What is the maximum limit on the share ownership of a member in a cooperative?
a. 10% of the share capital of the cooperative
b. 5% of the share capital of the cooperative
c. 25% of the share capital of the cooperative
d. 20% of the share capital of the cooperative

86. What is the required vote for the removal of the director or officer of a cooperative?
a. At least ¾ of all the members with voting rights
b. At least 2/3 of all the members with voting rights
c. At least majority of all the members with voting rights
d. At least 25% of all members with voting rights

87. A cooperative is intended to be established with authorized capital stock of P100,000 and actual
subscribed capital stock of P40,000. What is the minimum paid up capital of this proposed cooperative?
a. P5,000
=40,000 X 25% , OR 15,000 WHICH EVER IS HIGHER
b. P10,000
c. P15,000
d. P25,000

88. Which of the following is NOT insured by Philippine Deposit Insurance Corporation?
a. Certificate of time deposit
b. Investment in government bonds
c. Savings deposit
d. Demand or checking account

89. What is the prescriptive period provided by law to depositors to file their claim before Philippine Deposit
Insurance Corporation from its takeover of the closed bank?
a. Two years
b. Three years
c. Four years
d. Five years

90. Under Republic Act No. 6426 also known as Foreign Currency Deposit Act of the Philippines, what is
the ONLY exception provided by such law from the absolute confidentiality of foreign currency deposit?
a. Upon written permission or consent in writing by the depositor.
b. In cases of impeachment of the President, Vice President, members of the Supreme Court,
members of the Constitutional Commission (Commission on Elections, Civil Service
Commission and Commission on Audit) and the Ombudsman for culpable violation of the
Constitution, treason, bribery, graft and corruption, other high crimes or betrayal of public trust.
c. Upon order of a competent court in cases of bribery or dereliction of duty of public officials.
d. In cases where the money deposited or invested is the subject matter of the litigation.

91. Which of the following is NOT protected by Republic Act No. 1405 also known as Bank Secrecy Law?
a. Investment in government bonds
b. Certificate of time deposit
c. Demand account
d. Money market placement

92. What is the amount of covered transaction in so far as jewelry dealers are concerned for purposes of
reporting to Anti-Money Laundering Council?
a. A transaction exceeding P500,000
b. A transaction exceeding P1,000,000
c. A transaction exceeding P5,000,000
d. A transaction exceeding P100,000

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93. Which of the following companies is EXEMPTED by Anti Money Laundering Law from reporting
reportable and suspicious transactions to Anti-Money Laundering Council?
a. Casino
b. Remittance companies
c. Auditing firm rendering assurance engagement
d. Holding companies

94. Under Unclaimed Balances Law, what is the minimum period of dormancy of the deposit in a bank to
be considered unclaimed balances?
a. At least 1 year
b. At least 10 years
c. At least 3 years
d. At least 5 years

95. It is the only bank allowed to exercise the powers of investment house and to invest in non-allied
enterprises.
a. Commercial bank
b. Rural bank
c. Thrift bank
d. Universal bank

96. Under Circular No. 425 of 2004 issued by Monetary Board of Bangko Sentral ng Pilipinas, what is the
maximum limit of loan to be granted by a bank to a single borrower?
a. 25% of net worth of the bank
b. 20% of net worth of the bank
c. 10% of net worth of the bank
d. 15% of net worth of the bank

97. Under the Central Bank Act, who shall be appointed as the receiver of a banking institution in case the
conservatorship of a bank is converted into receivership?
a. Monetary Board of Bangko Sentral ng Pilipinas
b. Supervising Officer of Bangko Sentral ng Pilipinas
c. Office of Government Corporate Counsel
d. Philippine Depositor Insurance Corporation

98. Who is primarily liable to the notes and coins which are considered legal tender in the Philippine
jurisdiction?
a. Bangko Sentral ng Pilipinas
b. Government of the Republic of the Philippines
c. Landbank of the Philippines
d. Development Bank of the Philippines

99. A commissioned B to paint his garden. Who owns the painting and the copy right on the painting,
respectively?
a. Both A
b. Both B
c. A and B, respectively
d. B and A, respectively

100. Which of the following may be protected by patent registration?

a. Programs for computers
b. Methods for treatments of the human body
c. Aesthetic creations
d. Microbiological process

-Nothing Follows-

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