PAPER- 01

Q1) Minimum sea temperature of 27 C is needed for the development of a storm, sea must be warm up to a depth of:

a) 10m
b) 30m
c) 50m
d) 70m

Q2) The effect of Tropical Easterly Jet stream on Jets is less compared to Sub-Tropical Jet streams because:

a) It is observed at 39,000 ft and above

b) It is observed at 39,000 ft and above; and a wind speed of 60-90kts
c) Wind speed of 60-90 kts
d) Observed over Southern Peninsula

Q3) Maximum strength of Low level jet in upper charts is observed at:

a) 850 Hpa
b) 700 Hpa
c) 600 Hpa
d) 500 Hpa

Q4) ISOL is associated with clouds:

a) ST
b) SC
c) CU
d) CB

Q5) When no clouds and visibility is 8km, clouds in METAR are reported as:

a) CAVOK
b) SKC
c) NSC

Q6) Allard’s Law is used for computing:

a) Location of observer
b) Met visibility
c) Runway Visual Range

Q7) For formation is likely when RH is:

a) 20% and wind speed is 5 kts

b) 100% and wind speed is 3 kts
c) 100% and wind speed is 25 kts
d) 20% and wind speed is 2 kts

Q8) In an infra-red satellite cloud picture, bright patches with well defined boundaries indicated:

a) AS, AC
 b) CU, SC
c) CU, CI
d) CB

Q9) Mascarene high is located in:

a) Bay of Bengal
b) Arabian sea
c) Indian ocean
d) Pacificocean

Q10) In a Tropical Storm, the strongest winds and heavy precipitation are observed in the:

a) Wall cloud region

b) Eye
c) Outer storm area
d) Center

Q11) SIGMETs are issued at intervals of:

a) 3 hours
b) 6 hours
c) 4 hours
d) No specific interval

Q12) Lines joining areas of equal rainfall is:

a) Isogens
b) Isotherms
c) Isotachs
d) Isohyets

Q13) When the environmental lapse rate is lesser than the saturated lapse rate, the atmosphere is said to be:

a) Conditionally Unstable
b) Absolutely Unstable
c) Neutral
d) Absolutely Stable

Q14) When the visibility reaches between 1000-2000M due to presence of water particles in the atmosphere, it is called:

a) Fog
b) Haze
c) Mist

Q15) In a westward moving monsoon depression, heavy rains are expected:

a) In NE quadrant
b) In NW quadrant
c) In SW quadrant
Q16) When dry bulb and dew point temperatures recorded at Srinagar airport are -0.5 deg C and -9.0 deg C respectively,
then it will be reported in METAR as:

a) -0.5 deg C / -9.0 deg C

b) -0.5 deg C / -9.0
c) M 00/ M 09

Q17) Height of freezing level during monsoon season over Delhi is near:

a) 850 mb
b) 700 mb
c) 500 mb

Q18) Squalls are distinguished from gusts by their:

a) Longer duration
b) Shorter duration
c) Lower wind speeds

Q19) Coriolis force is maximum:

a) Near the equator

b) Near the poles
c) At 45 deg N

Q20) Cloudy nights are:

a) Warmer than clear nights

b) Warmer than clear days
c) Cooler than clear nights

Q21) In METAR, if the sky is clear and visibility more than 10 km then the cloud group can be replaced by the
abbreviation:

a) SKC
b) NO SIG
c) CAVOK

METAR VIDP 270300Z 30020KT 0500 R28/1200 R10/1100 R27/1000 FG FEW200 10/10 Q1009 BECMG 1500BR=

Q22) The above METAR reports visibility as:

a) 1200 m
b) 1100 m
c) 500 m

Q23) Norwesters are:

a) Systems moving from west to east

b) A weather phenomena associated with NE monsoon
c) Violent thunderstorms during summer months over NE India
Q24) Mixing ratio is the ratio of:

a) Mass of water vapour to the mass of dry air

b) Mass of water vapour to the volume of dry air
c) Volume of water vapour of the volume of dry air

Q25) A rapid fall of pressure occurring for last 6 hours over a station is generally associated with:

a) Clear weather
b) Approach of cyclonic storm
c) Formation of fog

Q26) Winds during movement of active western disturbance across NW India in January at 300 hPa over Delhi is:

a) Westerly
b) Easterly
c) Northerly

Q27) SPECI is issued when visibility crosses:

a) 700M
b) 1400M
c) 3000M

Q28) The eye region of the very severe cyclonic storm is associated with:

a) Torrential heavy rainfall

b) Strong winds
c) Calm wind and fair weather

Q29) Normally the pressure value at 1600hrs local time at a station:

a) Is greater than the pressure value at 1000 hrs local time

b) Is less then the pressure value at 1000hrs local time
c) Is equal to pressure value at 1000hrs local time

Q30) fog frequencies are higher over

a) Kolkata
b) Mumbai
c) Lucknow

Q31) Tamil Nadu experiences high rains during:

a) January
b) July
c) October

Q32) Tropical cyclones over sea which forms at far from the coast are mainly tracked by:

a) Satellite
b) Coastal observations
 c) NWP models

Q33) when moist air steadily blows across a mountain range, clouding and precipitation will be:

a) More over the leeward side of the mountain

b) More over the top of the mountain
c) More on the windward side of the mountain

Q34) In break monsoon conditions the axis of the monsoon through at mean sea level is:

a) In its normal position

b) To the south of its normal position
c) To the north of its normal position

Q35) If the surface air temperature is 30 deg C the temperature at 2 km. ( assuming dry adiabatic lapse rate prevailing
upto 2 Kilometers from the surface) is about

a) 18 deg C
b) 10 deg C
c) 42 deg C

Q36) Warm and moist air moving over a cold ground gives rise to:

a) Thunder clouds
b) Fog and stratus
c) Frontal clouds

Q37) An isothermal atmosphere is:

a) Stable
b) Unstable
c) Neutral

Q38) fronts are associated with

a) Tropical cyclone
b) Monsoon depression
c) Extra tropical low

Q39) The thermal wind is:

a) The wind that blows because of thermals.

b) The wind which must be added vectoraly to the geostrophic wind at the lower level in order to obtain the
geostrophic wind at the upper level.
c) The ward wind that blows down the hill on the leeward side.

Q40) A cold front defined as:

a) A ridge of high pressure

b) Loading edge of advancing warm air
c) loading edge of advancing cold air
Q41) Normal winds at 200mb at Delhi in January are:

a) westerlies
b) easterlies
c) southerlies

Q42) Sigment is issued for:

a) Fog
b) Heavy Rain
c) Active thunderstorm area

Q43) A Jet Stream wind is:

a) 40 kt or more
b) 60 kt or more
c) Not more than 100 knot

Q44) Easterly jet over India is seen in:

a) Northest monsoon season

b) Pro- monsoon season
c) Southwest monsoon season

Q45) Radio-Sonde is used to measure:

a) Amount of cloud and its speed

b) Wind at various pressure levels
c) The temperature and humidity at various pressure levels.

Q46) Tropopause is lowest over:

a) Polar areas
b) Mid latitudes
c) Tropics

Q47) The rate of fall of pressure with height in ward air mass will be:

a) The same as in a cold airmass

b) More than in a cold airmass
c) Less than in a cold airmass

Q48) Warm air advection gives rise to:

a) Veering of wind with height

b) Backing of wind with height
c) No change in wind direction with height

Q49) Severe tropical cyclones in Bay of Bengal are most frequent in:

a) S/W Monsoon Season

 b) Pre-Monsoon Season
c) Post-Monsoon Season

Q50) Wind speed in a tropical cyclone:

a) is between 27 and 35 knots

b)isnot more than 50 knots

c) exceeds 33 knots

Q51) In a cyclone in Northern hemisphere, around the low pressure center:

a) Wind blows in an anti clockwise direction

b) Wind blows in a clockwise direction
c) Wind are calm

Q52) If an altimeter reads aerodrome elevation at ground level, then the sub-scale must have been set to:

a) QNH
b) QNE
c) QFE

Q53) Density of moist air is:

a) Higher than dry air

b) lower than dry air
c) equal to dry air

Q54) Lines of constant wind speed drawn on weather charts are called:

a) Isobars
b) Isotachs
c) Isogons

Q55) In geostrophic wind the following factors are important:

a) Pressure gradient force and Corriolis force

b) Pressure gradient force and centrifugal force
c) Centrifugal force and corriolis force

Q56) TREND type landing forecast is valid for

a) Nine Hours
b) Two Hours
c) Four Hours

Q57) What is:

a) AIREP
b) METAR
c) RVR
d) CAVOK
 e) TAF

Q58) The average height of the Tropopause varies from approx.

a) 8 Km at the poles to 16 Km at the equator

b) 12 Km at the equator to 9 Km at the poles
c) 16 Km at the poles to 9 Km at the equator

Q59) The rate of fall of pressure with height in a warm air mass:

a) Will be less than in a cold air mass

b) Will be more than in a cold air mass
c) The same as in a cold air mass

Q60) In the northern Hemisphere, geostrophic wind blows

a) Parallel to the isobars with high pressure to the left

b) Across the isobars from high pressure to low pressure
c) Parallel to the isobars with low pressure to the left

Q61) Under the same condition of pressure and temperature moist air is

a) Lighter than dry air

b) Heavier then dry air
c) Has the same density as dry air

Q62) If the wind above a certain station is reported to be from the north at an altitude of about 3600 ft you would
expect the surface wind to be from:

a) North East
b) North
c) North West

Q63) The solar radiation received by the earth is called

a) Isolation
b) Convection
c) Inversion

Q64) Earth radiates heat energy in the

a) Long Waves
b) Short Waves
c) Very short Waves

Q65) Instrument for recording pressure is called:

a) Anemograph
b) Barograph
c) Hygrograph

Q66) Instrument for recording pressure is called:

 a) 10 C/Km
b) 15 C/Km
c) 5 C/Km

Q67) Any lapse rate less than saturated adiabatic lapse rate is described as

a) Absolutely unstable
b) Conditionally stable
c) Absolutely stable

Q68) At a height of 16 km the temperature over the equator is

a) higher than over the poles

b) nearly the same over the poles
c) less than over the poles

Q69) On the less side of mountains you would normally expect to find

a) Down Drafts
b) Updrafts
c) Bodies and down-drafts

Q70) If you are flying from Bombay to Calcutta holding a constant indicated altitude and experience a drift to the
Starboard side, your actual altitude will be

a) Lower than your indicated altitude

b) the same as the indicated altitude
c) higher than the indicated altitude

Q71) Ice generally forms on an aircraft when

a) The aircraft is flying through cirrus clouds

b) Ice crystals are present in the area of flight
c) Water droplets are present with subfreezing temperature

Q72) High clouds that take the form of hooks ending in small tufts are termed

a) Cirrocumulus
b) Cirrus
c) Altocumulus

Q73) Lines of constant wind speed on weather charts are called

a) Isotachs
b) Isohects
c) Isobars

Q74) Radio bonds is used to determine

a) The base of low clouds over a station

b) The wind at various levels
c) The temperature and humidity at various pressure levels
Q75) When a ward front passes, the surface wind

a) Backs increases
b) Veers and Decreases
c) Veers and Increases

Q76) The density of air

a) Varies directly as pressure and temperature

b) Varies directly as pressure and inversely as temperature
c) Varies inversely as pressure and directly as temperature

Q77) In the Trotosphere density

a) Increase with height

b) Decrease with height
c) Remains nearly

Q78) Norwesters are

a) Depressions in the Bay of Bengal which move towards

b) Violent thunderstorms
c) Western disturbances which affect NW India

Q79) The major constituent of air by weight is

a) Oxygen
b) Nitrogen
c) Carbon di oxide

Q80) Thunderstorm activity is predominant in

a) NE India
b) Central India
c) South Peninsular India

Q81) The altimeter of an aircraft parked at an airfield, indicated a height of 450 ft when the subscale of the instrument
was set to 1013 Mbs. if the QNH at the airfield was 1000 Mbs and a change of pressure of 1 Mb represents a height
change of 27 ft. What is the elevation of the airfield.

a) 99 ft.
b) 549 ft.
c) 530 ft.

Q82) The average height of the troposphere is

a) greatest near equator and minimum near poles

b) greatest near middle latitudes and minimum near equator and poles
c) greatest near poles and minimum near equator

Q83) An adiabatic process is one in which heat content of the system.

 a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) does not change

Q84) Surface wind velocity reaches a maximum of most days at a given station

a) in the afternoon
b) in the early morning hours
c) any time of the day

Q85) The temperature to which moist air must be cooled at its existing pressure and humidity-mixing ratio in order that
it shall be saturated, is called.

a) wet bulb temperature

b) dew point temperature
c) virtual temperature

Q86) In the International Standard Atmosphere

a) means sea level pressure is 1000 mb and temperature is 15 C

b) means sea level pressure is 1013.25 mb and temp is 15 C
c) rate of fall of temp with height is 6.5 C/Km upto 21 Km

Q87) An area on a weather map where isobars are relatively more closely packed, the surface winds are likely to be

a) light and parallel to isobars

b) strong and parallel to isobars
c) strong and blowing across the isobars

Q88) The winds which spiral inward in a counterclockwise direction in the Northern Hemisphere are associated with

a) low pressure area

b) high pressure are
c) turbulence

Q89) Strong wind sheer conditions in the lower levels of the atmosphere are normally associated with

a) thunderstorm
b) amount of moisture present
c) fine weather

Q90) Hail is most likely to fall from a cloud

a) having layers
b) composed of ice crystals
c) having strong vertical development

Q91) The atmosphere may be nearly taken to be dry if the difference between the dry bulb temp and dew point
temperature is

a) 20 deg C
b) 5 deg C
 c) 0 deg C

Q92) Dry air having a temperature of 35 deg C on surface when forced to rise adiabatically by 1 Km would attain a
temperature of

a) 29 deg C
b) 25 deg C
c) 45 deg C
d) 41 deg C

Q93) Advection fog forms on nights characterized by

a) light and most winds; sky clear

b) strong winds; sky cloudy
c) slow passage of relatively warm, moist and stable air over a cool surface

Q94) If an observer stands with his to the wind in the Northern Hemisphere. The low-pressure area will be

a) ahead of him
b) to his left
c) to his right

Q95) A High-intensity, short-duration, showery precipitation is associated with

a) a stratus cloud
b) an altostratus cloud
c) a cumulonimbus cloud

Q96) A squall is a phenomenon characterizing

a) heavy rainfall and downcraft in a thunderstorm

b) the sudden and frequent lighting discharge observed in a thunderstorm
c) the sudden rise of surface wind satisfying the specified criterion of wind speed and duration associated with a
thunderstorm

Q97) The conditions necessary for formation of a thunderstorm are

a) steep lapse rate, strong winds

b) steep lapse rate, adequate supply of moisture
c) shallow lapse rate, adequate supply of moisture

Q98) A “mature” thunderstorm has

a) strong updraft only

b) strong downdraft only
c) strong updrafts and downdrafts

Q99) A dry air parcel from the surface level with a temperature of 35 deg C is lifted adiabatically to a height of 1 km. its
temperature at this level will be

a) 30 deg C
b) Same as the surface temperature, since in an adiabatic process no heat is allows to enter or leave the system.
 c) 25 deg C

Q100) Aircraft icing is most favoured in the cloud regions which have temperature :

a) ranging between 15 deg C to 40 deg C

b) ranging between 0 deg C to 15 deg C
c) below – 40 deg C

Q101) Hails is the

a) solid precipitation which commonly occurs over the mountains region during winter
b) frozen or partly frozen rain falling from sheet type of clouds
c) solid precipitation falling from a deep convective cloud

Q102) Mountain waves are:

a) the waves generated on the windward side of the mountain when there is strong wind flowing parallel to the
ridge.
b) the waves generated on the leeward side of the mountain when there is strong wind flowing parallel to the
ridge.
c) the waves generated on the leeward side of the mountain when there is a strong wind flow perpendicular to the
ridge.

Q103) The southwest monsoon period in the Indian climatological classification extends from

a) May to September
b) June to October
c) June to September

Q104) Norwesters are:

a) the Western disturbances which effect Northwest India

b) Severe thunderstorms which occur over Northeast India During hot weather period
c) Severe thunderstorms which occur over Peninsula during hot weather period

Q105) Fronts are characteristic of:

a) Tropical cyclones
b) Extra Tropical depressions
c) Monsoon Depressions

Q106) In a mature tropical cyclone the centre and the area 10 – 20 km around it is characterized by

a) moderate winds and heavy rain

b) hurricane force winds, fierce squalls and very heavy rain
c) calm wind, little clouding and practically no rainfall

Q107) The tropical cyclones are most frequent over the Indian seas in the:

a) winter months
b) postmonsoon months
c) monsoon months
Q108) A monsoon depression is located over the head of the Bay of Bengal South of Calcutta. The most likely surface
wind at Calcutta is

a) Westerly 25 Knots
b) Easterly 25 Knots
c) Southerly 25 Knots

Q109) Duststorms usually occur over Northwest India during

a) the post – monsoon period

b) the winder period
c) the pre-monsoon period

Q110) Delhi reports rainfall on a day in the month of January. You would infer that the rainfall is associated with

a) A low pressure area moving from East to West in the neighborhood of Delhi.
b) A Western disturbance moving from West to East in the neighborhood of Delhi
c) The rainfall report might be wrong as Delhi gets rainfall only in the monsoon season

Q111) In the month of July Calcutta reports surface visibility as 500 meters in the morning synop. You would infer the
low visibility due to:

a) fog
b) heavy rain
c) low cloud

Q112) AIREP is the code name given to

a) Aircraft Meteorological Reports Originated by Aircraft in Flight.

b) Current Weather Report is transmitted by ATC to the Aircraft in flight
c) Meteorological Reports Broadcast for Aircraft Operation

Q113) The upper air temperature and dew point observations are taken by:

a) Pibal Station
b) Radiosonde Station
c) Rawin Station

Q114) Flying at height of 30,000 from Calcutta to Delhi in the month of January you are most likely to encounter.

a) very strong head winds

b) very strong tail winds
c) moderate southerly winds

Q115) A constant pressure chart is one on which

a) lines of constant pressure, called isobars, are drawn

b) lines of constant height of the isobaric surface are drawn
c) routs along which an aircraft should fly at constant pressure is shown
 PAPER 2

Q1) SIGMENT is originated by

a. Meteorological Watch Office (MWO)

b. Air Traffic Control (ATC)
c. Flight Information Centre (FIC)

Q2) The thermal wind is

a. the wind that blows because of thermals

b. The warm wind that blows down the hills on the leeward side
c. The wind which must be added vectorially to the Geostrophic wind at the lower level in order to obtain the
Geostrophic Wind at the upper level

Q3) The stratosphere is

a. a layer of the atmosphere where most of the Weather activity occurs

b. The highest layer of the atmosphere
c. An upper atmospheric layer characterized by temperature inversion and stability
d. None of the above

Q4) Assuming the water vapour content of the atmosphere to be constant throughout on a sunny day, the relative
humidity will very as follows:

a. it is maximum in the morning hours, minimum in the afternoon and then again rises,
b. it is minimum in the morning, maximum in the afternoon and then again falls.
c. Since there is no change in the water vapour content of the atmosphere, the relative humidity will also not have
any variation during the day.

Q5) An air parcel is at a temperature of 30 deg C and a pressure of 1000 Mb. it is cooled till it gets saturated without
changing the water vapour content of the parcel and its pressure. The temperature at this stage is observed to be 20 deg
C. This temperature of 20 deg C

a. the potential temperature of the air parcel.

b. The due point temperature
c. The wet bulb temperature

Q6) The air temperature at the surface level is 32 deg C and that at 1.5 km height above the surface is 33 C as recorded
in a particular sounding of the atmosphere. Identify the correct situation(s) from the following:

a. The atmospheric layer surface – 1.5 km level is unstable

b. The layer is stable
c. The layer is conditionally unstable
d. The layer is an isothermal layer.

Q7) A barometer indicates a pressure of about 1000-Mb at a station situated very close mean sea level. The
barometer is taken to a height of 3 km immediately above. It will indicate a pressure of around:

a. 500 Mb
b. 300Mb
 c. 700Mb

Q8) Gradient wind is the wind:

a. which flows parallel to the curved isobars

b. which flows parallel to the straight isobars
c. which flows across the isobars from high pressure to low pressure against the pressure gradient.

Q9) Altostratus is:

a. a low cloud of sheet type

b. a medium cloud of sheet type
c. a cloud of a large vertical growth
d. a high cloud of sheet type

Q10) A high pressure area is usually associated with

a. Fine weather
b. Thunderstorms
c. Strong Winds

Q11) The conditions necessary for the formation of a thunderstorm area

a. steep lapse rate, strong winds

b. steep lapse, adequate supply of moisture
c. shallow rate, adequate supply of moisture

Q12) Cold front is normally associated with

a. Cb clouds with frequent precipitation in the form of showers

b. Ci, Cs As & St type of clouds & steady precipitation
c. Fine Weather

Q13) Flying at 25,000 feet from Bombay to Delhi on normal day in July, you would expect

a. Easterly Winds
b. Westerly Winds
c. Northerly Winds
d. Southerly Winds

Q14) During winter season, fog will be more frequent in

a. Assam
b. Rajasthan
c. Bihar

Q15) A Radio Sonde is used to determine

a. The direction and speed of winds at various upper level.

b. The temperature and humidity at various levels
c. The heights of the clouds over the station
Q16) If the altimeter reads aerodrome elevation at ground level then the subscale must have been set to

a. QFE
b. QNE
c. QNH

Q17) SIGMENT is issued for

a. Severe line squall

b. gusty winds
c. heavy rains

Q18) SPECI is a weather report issued

a. whenever specially requested for

b. only when thunderstorm is expected
c. as soon as the specified criteria of a Meteorological condition is satisfied.

Q19) In India volmet broadcasts are made by

a. all class I met offices

b. Met Watch offices
c. Only Bombay & Calcutta met offices.

Q20) atmosphere pressure at a pt may be defined as

a. The force exerted on a unit area due to the weight of the atmosphere above it.
b. is the force of the atmosphere above the pt.
c. Weight of the atmosphere on a pt.

Q21) The force on a unit area on the surface of the earth exerted by the weight of atmosphere, above is called:

a. Atmosphere, pressure
b. Isobars
c. Isogonals

Q22) Mark the correct statement.

a. Atmosphere pressure decrease with ht.

b. Atmosphere pressure increases with ht.
c. Atmosphere pressure remains constant irrespective of ht.

Q23) The atm. Pressure decreases with ht at the following rate:

a. 1 mb for every 27’

b. 1 mb for every 40’
c. 1 mb for every B mtrs.
d. 1 mb for 27 mtrs
e. 1 mb for 30’

Q24) The pressure decreases rapidly with the height in:

 a. Cold Air
b. Ward Air
c. At same rate

Q25) The lowest temp. in Tropopause exists over:

a. Pole
b. 45 deg lat
c. Equator

Q26) In a standard atmosphere MSL pressure is

a. 992 mbs
b. 1003.2 mbs
c. 1013.2 mbs
d. 993.2 mbs

Q27) In a standard atmosphere MSL temp is:

a. 10 deg C
b. 15 deg C
c. 50 deg C
d. 59 deg C

Q28) In a standard atmosphere the lapse rate is

a. 5.6 deg C/km

b. 6.5 deg C/km
c. 1.97 deg C/km
d. 2.98 deg C/km

Q29) The rate at which an ascending parcel of dry air cools is called.

a. SALR
b. DALR
c. ELR

Q30) D.A.L.R. Means:

a. The rate at which an ascending parcel of air cools

b. The rate at which temp falls with ht.
c. The rate at which ascending parcel of saturated air cools.

Q31) The rate at which as ascending parcel of Saturated air cools is called.

a. SALR
b. DALR
c. ELR

Q32) The dry air is said to be stable if

a. ELR > DALR

 b. ELR = DALR
c. ELR > DALR
d. DALR > SALR

Q33) The saturated air is said to be stable if:

a. ELR < SALR

b. ELR > DALR
c. ELR = DALR
d. ELR > SALR

Q34) The dry air is said to be instable if:

a. DALR < ELR

b. DALR > SALR
c. DALR = ELR
d. DALR < SALR

Q35) The saturated air is said to be instable if

a. ELR = SALR
b. ELR < SALR
c. ELR > SALR

Q36) If the value of ELR is between DALR & SALR the atmosphere said to be:

a. Stable
b. Unstable
c. Conditionally Stable

Q37) If the atm. Temp. on the ground is 10 C. What will be the temp. Of ascending parcel of dry air after reaching 5000’

a. 0 deg.
b. – 05 deg.
c. -2.5 deg
d. 05 deg

Q38) If the atm. Temp. on the ground is 10 C. What will be the temp of ascending parcel of dry air after reaching 5000’

a. 6 deg.
b. -06 deg
c. -2.5 deg
d. 2.5 deg

Q39) If the ground level temp on 90 F. What will be the temperature of ascending dry parcel of air after reaching 10,000.

a. 36 C
b. 60 F
c. 70 F

Q40) If the atm. Temperature on the ground level is 15 C, what will be the temperature of ascending parcel of saturated
air after reaching 5000.
 a. 7.5 C
b. -7.5 C
c. 0 deg
d. 5C

Q41) If the air temp. on the ground 10 C, what will be the temperature of ascending parcel of saturated air after
reaching 7 km.

a. -25 C
b. -60 C
c. -15 C

Q42) If the ground level temperature is 90 F, what will be the temperature of ascending saturated parcel of air after
reaching 10,000.

a. 63 F
b. 0 deg.
c. 36 F

Q43) Mark the correct statement

a. Dry air is lighter than moisture.

b. Dry air is heavier than moisture
c. Dry air has greater density than moisture
d. Moist air has greater density than dry air.

Q44) The close relationship between height and pressure is made use in construction of

a. Altimeter
b. A S I
c. V S I

Q45) Altimeter always measure the height of a

a. Above AMSL
b. Above datum level of 1013.2 mbs
c. Above datum level at which its sub-scale has been set to

Q46) Two a/c flying at the same indicate altitude with their sub-scale altimeter set to 1013.2 mbs. One is flying over cold
air mass and other on warm air mass which of the two has greater altitude.

a. AC flying over warm air mass will have greater altitude.

b. AC flying over cold air mass have greater altitude.
c. AC flying over cold air mass have same altitude.

Q47) AC flying from high to low pressure area, its altitude will read

a. Too high
b. Too low
c. Same height

Q48) AC flying from low to high pressure, altitude, reads

 a. Too high
b. Too low
c. Same height

Q49) The atmosphere pressure at an aerodrome at any time is

a. Q F E
b. Q N E
c. Q F E
 PAPER 3

Q1) The atmosphere pressure at the aerodrome reduced to MSL taking into consideration that ISA atmospheric
consideration that ISA atmospheric condition exists between station and

a. Q F E
b. Q N H
c. Q F E

Q2) The atmospheric pressure at the aerodrome reduced to MSL taking into consideration that ISA atmospheric
condition exists between station and sea level is

a. Q F E
b. Q N H
c. Q F E

Q3) An altitude in ISA at which the prevailing density exists is called:

a. Pressure altitude
b. Density altitude
c. Flight level

Q4) An altitude in stand atm, at which the prevailing density exists is called

a. Pressure altitude
b. Density altitude
c. Flight level

Q5) Surfaces of constant atmospheric pressure which are related to stand atmospheric pressure of 1013.2 mbs and are
separated by specific pressure interval is called.

a. Pressure altitude
b. Density altitude
c. Flight altitude

Q6) Pressure altitude may be defined as:

a. An altitude in the stand, atmosphere at which is prevailing pressure occurs.

b. An altitude in the stand, atmosphere at which the prevailing pressure occurs.
c. An altitude in the stand, atmosphere at which the prevailing density occurs.

Q7) Density altitude may be defined as:

a. An altitude in a stand, atmosphere at which the prevailing pressure occurs.

b. The altitude in a stand, atmosphere at which the prevailing density pressure occurs.
c. Surfaces of constant, atmosphere pressure which are related to standard sea level datum of 1013.2.

Q8) Flight level may be defined as

a. The altitude in a stand atmosphere at the prevailing density occurs.

b. The altitude in a stand, atm. At which the prevailing density occurs.
c. Surface of constant. Pressure which are related to standard datum of 1013.2 mbs.
Q9) An altitude in the vicinity of an aerodrome at or below which the vertical position of an aircraft is controlled with
references to QNH is

a. Transition altitude
b. Transition level
c. Transition layer

Q10) The lowest level above transition altitude is called

a. Transition altitude
b. Transition level
c. Transition layer

Q11) A air space between transition altitude and transition level is called

a. Transition altitude
b. Transition level
c. Transition layer

Q12) The transition altitude may be defined as

a. The altitude in the vicinity of an aerodrome, at or below which the vertical position of a is controlled with
references to QNH.
b. The lowest flight level above the transition altitude.
c. The air space between transition altitude and transition level.

Q13) The transition level may be defined as

a. The altitude in the vicinity of an aerodrome at or below which the vertical position, of a is controlled with
reference to QNH.
b. The lowest flight level over transition altitude.
c. The air space between transition altitude and transition level.

Q14) The transition layer may be defined as

a. The altitude in vicinity of an aerodrome, at or below which the vertical position of a is controlled with reference
to QNH.
b. The lowest Flight level over transition altitude.
c. The air space between transition altitude and transition levels.

Q15) The breadth of transition level is always:

a. 1000’
b. 1500’
c. 500’

Q16) When the visibility is reduced to less than 2000 meters but not less than 1000

meters due to presence of dust particles in the atmosphere is called.

a. Mist
b. Haze
 c. Fog

Q17) When the visibility is reduced to less than 2000 meters but not less than 1000 meters due to presence of moisture
in the atmosphere is called.

a. Mist
b. Haze
c. Fog

Q18) When the visibility is reduced to less than 1000 meters in the atmosphere due to the presence of water particles:

a. Mist
b. Haze
c. Fog

Q19) Haze may be defined as:

a. When the visibility is reduced less than 2000 meters but not less than 1100 meters due to presence of water
particulars in the atmosphere.
b. When visibility is reduced to less than 2000 meters but not less than 1000 m due to presence of dust particles in
the atmosphere.
c. When visibility is reduced to less than 1000 m due to presence of water particles in the atmosphere.

Q20) Mist may be defined as:

a. When the visibility is reduced less than 2000 meters but not less than 1000 m due to presence of water particles
in the atmosphere.
b. When visibility is reduced to less than 2000 meters but not less than 1000 m due to presence of dust particles in
the atmosphere.
c. When visibility is reduced to less than 1000 m due to presence of water particles in the atmosphere.

Q21) Fog may be defined as

a. When the visibility is reduced less than 2000 meters but not less than 1000 m due to presence of water particles
in the atmosphere.
b. When the visibility is reduced to 2000 meters.
c. When visibility is reduced to less than 1000 m due to presence of water particles in the atmosphere.

Q22) R.V.R. is always taken when visibility falls below:

a. 2000 meters
b. 1000 meters
c. 1500 meters

Q23) Radiation fog forms

a. Over land
b. Over sea
c. May from during day

Q24) The formation of radiation fog depends upon

 a. Heating of the earth during day.
b. Radiation cooling of earth at night.
c. Advection of warm air from sea to colder land

Q25) For formation of Radiation Fog.

a. There should be sufficient moist in atmosphere

b. Sky should be cloudy
c. There should be strong wind

Q26) Radiation fog forms over N. Part of India during

a. May to June
b. Jan to March
c. Oct to Nov

Q27) Advection fog forms:

a. During Night only

b. During day time only
c. During any time of day or night

Q28) The life cycle of CB is usually

a. 7 to 8 hours
b. 2 to 3 hours
c. only 1 hour

Q29) The life cycle of CB clouds consisting of

a. 2 stages comprising formation, mature and dissipating

b. Only formation stage
c. Only formative and dissipating stages

Q30) The activity of CB cloud is severest for

a. 2 hours
b. 30 to 45 minutes
c. 3 to 4 hours

Q31) The cloud, which is composed of ice crystals and is white in colour having feather like appearance

a. CI
b. CS
c. NS
d. AC

Q32) The condensation trail occurs in

a. CI
b. CS
c. AO
 d. ST

Q33) Drizzle occurs with

a. AS
b. CS
c. AC
d. ST

Q34) Showers occurs with

a. CU
b. CB
c. AB
d. AC

Q35) The most dangerous clouds for aviation are

a. CB
b. CU
c. ST
d. AC

Q36) The air mass which originated from land areas located in the lower latitude are:

a. Warm & Dry

b. Warm & Moist
c. Cold & Dry
d. Cold & Moist

Q37) The air mass which originates from land area located in lower latitude is called.

a. Tropical maritime
b. Tropical Continental
c. Equational maritime

Q38) The air mass which originates from sea area located in lower latitude is

a. Warm & Dry

b. Warm & Moist
c. Cold & Dry
d. Cold & Moist

Q39) The air mass which originated from land area located in polar region.

a. Warm & Dry

b. Warm & Moist
c. Cold & Dry
d. Cold & Moist

Q40) The air mass which originates from sea area located in polar region
 a. Warm & Dry
b. Warm & Moist
c. Cold & Dry
d. Cold & Moist

Q41) The ratio between the amount of water vapour present in the given sample of air to the amount of water vapour
that this sample of air can hold at the same temperature is

a. Humidity
b. Relative Humidity
c. Dew point

Q42) If an observer stands with his back to the wind in S – Hemisphere

a) Low experts to his left

b) Low experts to his right
c) High experts to his right
d) High experts to his left

Q43) Katabatic winds occur

a) During day only

b) Any time of day or night
c) At night only.

Q44) Anabatic wind occurs:

a) During day only

b) Any time of day or night
c) At night only.

Q45) The wind that blows from sea to land during day (evening)

a) Sea breeze
b) Land breeze
c) Anabatic breeze

Q46) The wind that blows from land to sea during night

a) Sea breeze
b) Land breeze
c) Fohn breeze

Q47) Mark the correct statement:

a) The wind blow clock around a low in a N- Hemisphere

b) The wind blow clock wise around low in a S - Hemisphere
c) The wind blow anti clock wise around low in a N - Hemisphere
d) The wind blow anti clock wise around low in a S - Hemisphere

Q48) The deep low is known as:

 a) Cyclone
b) Depression
c) Trough
d) Ridge

Q50) Mark the correct statement:

a) Trough has a frontal characteristics

b) The axis of trough is known on line of discontinuity
c) After crossing the axis of trough winds veer
d) After crossing the axis of trouble winds back.
 Paper 4

Q1) The high pressure is known as:

a) Anticyclone
b) Trough
c) Col.

Q2) Normally fair weather is associated with:

a) Low
b) High
c) Col

Q3) Bad weather is associated with:

a) Low
b) High
c) Col

Q4) A region between two highs and too lows is known as:

a) Trough
b) Ridge
c) Col

Q5) A bad weather may be associated with:

a) Low
b) High
a) Col

Q6) The resultant wind that blows under the influence of pressure gradient and geostrophic force and cyclosetrophic
force due curvature of isobars is called:

a) Gradient wind
b) Geostrophic wind
c) Corilolis wind

Q7) Geostrophic wind is:

a) The resultant wind that blows under the influence of pressure and geostrophic force.
b) The resultant wind that blows under the influence of pressure, gradient geostrophic force and cyclostrophic
force due curvature of isobars.
c) The resultant wind that blows under the influence of pressure, gradient geostrophic force and cyclostrophic
force along straight isobars.

Q8) Units used for measuring atms, pressure are:

a) Lbs/inch
 b) MBs
c) Inches of lgs
d) Dynes / Sec / Seo

Q9) Units used for measuring visibility

a) NM
b) SM
c) Kilometers / Meters
d) Feet

Q10) The cloud base is reported in:

a) Meters
b) Feet
c) Kilometers
d) Miles

Q11) During the month of Jan – Feb ( winder month) rainfall occurs:

a) Over southern tip of India (Central part of India)

b) Radiation Fog occurs in Southern part of country
c) In Bengal & Bihar

Q12) During the month of Jan – Feb

a) Radiation Fog occurs over Northern & Central part of India.

b) Radiation Fog occurs in Southern part of country
c) Activity of Radiation Fog increases after the passage of WD in Northern India.

Q13) Low humidity & temp is the characteristics of:

a) Winter months
b) Hot weather
c) Monsoon
d) Post Monsoon

Q14) Hot weather is:

a) Jan – Feb
b) March – May
c) June – Sep
d) Oct, Nov, Dec

Q15) During hot weather:

a) WD cause T/S or dust storm over Punjab & Raj.

b) No WD occur in N-Parts of country
c) Track of WD react Northwards as the season advances
d) The track of WD is Southern most in March

Q16) Norwesters occur during

 a) Jan – Feb
b) Mar – May
c) Jun – Sep
d) Oct & Dec

Q17) Norwesters occur during:

a) Winter
b) Hot weather
c) Monsoon
d) Post Monsoon

Q18) Norwesters occur over:

a) Northern India
b) Southern India
c) Central part of the country.
d) Bengal and Bihar, Orissa and Assam

Q19) During hot weather TRS may occur over:

a) Madras
b) Ocean plato
c) Southern tip of India
d) Bay of Bengal

Q20) TRS occurs over India seas:

a) Equatorial Region
b) 10 – 14 deg N
c) 5 – 8 deg N

Q21) Norwesters are

a) Weaker thunder storm

b) Violent thunder storms
c) Similar to cyclones but less active
d) The degree of aviation hazards in the Norwesters, is higher than in a cyclone

Q22) Norwesters normally occur during:

a) Morning hours
b) Afternoon hours
c) Night hours

Q23) The average life of a Norwesters is:

a) 8 – 9 hours
b) 2 – 3 hours
c) 7 hours

Q24) Monsoon period occurs

 a) Jan to Feb
b) March to May
c) June to September
d) Oct to Dec

Q25) The Rainfall over India during monsoon depends on:

a) Higher pressure in Afghanistan

b) Depression that from Bay of Bengal
c) The position of the axis of trough

Q26) The rainfall all over the country occur during the monsoon when:

a) Axis of trough of low pressure is in the southern – most

b) Axis of trough of low pressure is along Himalayas
c) Depression as formed over Bay of Bengal

Q27) It is known to be break in monsoon when:

a) Axis of trough of low pressure is in the southern – most

b) Axis of trough of low pressure is along Himalayas
c) Depression as formed over Bay of Bengal

Q28) In India the monsoon currents are:

a) South – westerly current

b) SE ly current
c) NE ly current
d) Both a & c are correct

Q29) The monsoon advances with:

a) Bay of Bengal currents only.

b) Arabian Sea currents only.
c) Advances as two currents, Bay of Bengal and Arabian Sea currents.

Q30) The SE by trade winds in Southern – Hemisphere are drawn in as S moist currents in N-Hemisphere under the
influence of seasonal Low over NW India and these currents are known as:

a) Monsoon
b) Trade winds
c) Cyclone Winds

Q31) Maximum w/v in a monsoonic low moving from Bay of Bengal along axis of trough occur

a) NE of Low
b) SW Sector of low
c) NW Sector of low
d) SE Sector of low

Q32) Post monsoon weather occurs:

 a) Jan – Feb
b) March – May
c) June – September
d) Oct – Dec

Q33) During post monsoon weather lower pressure occurs over:

a) Bay of Bengal
b) NW India
c) NE India
d) Central India

Q34) During post monsoon higher pressure occurs over:

a) Bay of Bengal
b) NW India
c) NE India
d) Central India

Q35) Post monsoon weather is also known as:

a) NE Monsoon
b) SW Monsoon
c) SE Monsoon
d) Retreating Monsoon Season

Q36) Monsoon weather may also be known as:

a) NE Monsoon weather
b) SW Monsoon
c) SE Monsoon

Q37) TRS may also be occur during………………monsoon weather

a) Post monsoon
b) SW Monsoon
c) NE Monsoon

Q38) Norwesters originate from

a) Chota – Nagpur hills

b) Dacan plato
c) Sub – mountain district
d) Khasi hills

Q39) Summer season the wind of western coast during day is:

a) Easterly
b) Westerly
c) Northerly
d) Southerly
Q40) In Summer season the wind on western coast during night is:

a) Easterly
b) Westerly
c) Northerly
d) Southerly

Q41) In Summer season the wind on Eastern coast during day is:

a) Easterly
b) Westerly
c) Northerly
d) Southerly

Q42) During Summer season the wind on Eastern coast during night is:

a) Easterly
b) Westerly
c) Northerly
d) Southerly

Q43) In summer the wind at Bombay during day is:

a) Easterly
b) Westerly
c) Northerly
d) Southerly

Q44) In summer the wind at Bombay during night is:

a) Easterly
b) Westerly
c) Northerly
d) Southerly

Q45) In summer the wind at Madras during day is:

a) Easterly
b) Westerly
c) Northerly
d) Southerly

Q46) In summer the wind at Madras during night is:

a) Easterly
b) Westerly
c) Northerly
d) Southerly

Q47) An air mass becomes unstable when:

a) Easterly
 b) Westerly
c) Northerly
d) Southerly

Q48) Squall are distinguished from gusts by air:

a) Shorter duration
b) Longer duration
c) Lower wind speed
 Paper 5

Q1) Fronts are found in:

a) A thermal low
b) A mid latitude low pressure area
c) A tropical low pressure area.

Q2) The high pressure area are generally associated with winds which

a) Back and increases

b) Veers and decreases
c) A tropical low pressure area

Q3) When a cold front passes, the temperature

a) Will suddenly rise

b) Will suddenly fall
c) Will remain constant

Q4) When flying in a stable air mass you can expect

a) Commulous types of clouds

b) Stratus types of cloud with smooth flying condition
c) Stratus type of cloud with turbulence

Q5) The atm, pressure at a specific level may be defined as:

a) The pressure exerted by one cubic foot of air at that level.

b) The downward force per unit area exerted by air at that level.
c) The density of air at that level.

Q6) the warm front may be defined as:

a) The leading edge of an advancing cold air.

b) The leading edge of an advancing ward air
c) The ridge of high pressure.

Q7) When sub scale of an altimeter is set to 1013.2 mbs the ht indicated on the altimeter:

a) Is the highest overs sea level

b) Is the highest over the aerodrome level
c) Is the flight level.

Q8) Tropical revolving storm occur:

a) In the Bay of Bengal in Oct / Nov.

b) In the Arabian sea in Oct / Nov.
c) In the North west of India in May / June.

Q9) While avoiding the centre of a cyclone in the Northern Hemisphere advantage can be taken If tail winds by flying to
the:
 a) Left
b) Right
c) North of centre when approaching from any direction.

Q10) With the sub scale set to 1013.2 mbs altimeter indicates:

a) True altitude a.m.s 1.

b) Height above ground
c) Pressure altitude

Q11) If the QNH is higher than 1013.2 mbs the altitude of the Flight level would be:

a) Same as standard
b) Less than standard
c) More than standard

Q12) Pressure altitude at a place when QNH is above 1013.2 mbs is:

a) More than true altitude

b) Less than true altitude
c) Same as true altitude

Q13) A change of pressure of 1 mb in vertical direction at 6kms a.m.s.I. Would correspond be a vertical distance of:

a) 30 ft.
b) Less than 30 Ft
c) More than 30 Ft.

Q14) If the QNH of a station decreases, heights of different flt level above the station:

a) Decreases
b) Increases
c) Remain constant

Q15) The pressure altitude of a place depends only on the atmospheric:

a) Pressure
b) Temp.
c) Density

Q16) The higher the elevation of a station the difference between QNH, QFE of the station will be:

a) Greater
b) Less
c) Same

Q17) An increase of 1000ft in elevation near the earth is associated with decrease of pressure of:

a) 100 mb
b) 1000 mb
c) 3 mb
d) 33 mb
Q18) Diurnal pressure variation are most pronounced in:

a) Polar region
b) Middle latitude
c) Tropic areas

Q19) The average height of Tropopause over equatorial regions:

a) 8 kms
b) 10 kms
c) 16 kms

Q20) A smooth flight may be expected if the radio sonde observations show:

a) Temperature inversion
b) Lapse rate termed as dry adiabatic
c) Super adiabatic lapse rate

Q21) If an a/c flies at a constant indicated altitude towards an area of over temperature, the altimeter will:

a) Under reads
b) Over reads
c) No change

Q22) In SH around a low pressure area winds blow:

a) In a clockwise direction
b) In an anticlockwise direction
c) Across the isobars towards the centre

Q23) In the NH the direction of the thermal wind is:

a) At right angles to the isotherms from high to low temp.

b) Along the isotherms with low temperature to the left
c) Along the isotherms with low temperature to the right

Q24) The appearance of lenticular clouds enables the pilot to infer the presence of

a) Warm front
b) Cold front
c) Standing waves over mountain regions.

Q25) A fog formed by warm moist air flowing over a cold surface is called:

a) Advection fog
b) Radiation fog
c) Frontal fog

Q26) To avoid a/c. icing in flight in cloudy condition a pilot is advised to be guided by optical phenomenon & fly through
a cloud which is seen to have:

a) Halo
 b) Carona
c) A system of coloured rings called “glory”

Q27) In the Bay of Bengal during the months of July & August tropical depression form:

a) At the head of the bay

b) Central bay
c) South bay

Q28) In India Easterly jet stream is found

a) In the winter months along a lat of 26deg 00 N at 12km.

b) During SW monsoon season at 12km. Near lat 13deg 00 N
c) During NE monsoon season at 16km near lat 25deg N

Q29) During the month of May & June, in India the seasonal low-pressure area lies over:

a) NE India
b) NW India
c) South Bay of Bengal

Q30) During S/W monsoon the upper winds at 40000 ft over south India are:

a) Easterly
b) Westerly
c) South westerly

Q31) cyclonic storms cross Tamil Nadu coast in:

a) October to December
b) May to July
c) February to May

Q32) The surface discontinuity between Polar Easterlies & the temperature westerlies is called?

a) Equatorial front
b) Tropause
c) Polar front

Q33) Westerly disturbances affect the:

a) The southern part of India from November to February

b) Northern part of India from December to March
c) Western part of India from July to September

Q34) The primary reason for difference in climate globally is:

a) Land and water distribution

b) Lapse rate
c) Incoming solar Radiations

Q35) Hoar frost is most likely to form when

 a) Taking off from an airfield with a significant ground inversion
b) Flying in super cooled drizzle.

Q36) In break monsoon conditions the axis of the monsoon through at mean sea level is:

a) In its normal position

b) To the south of its normal position
c) To the north of its normal position

Q37) When break monsoon conditions exists:

a) There will be no rainfall in North India plains

b) There will be heavy rainfall in Himalayan ranges
c) Both a and b

Q38) An isothermal atmosphere is:

a) Stable
b) Unstable
c) Neutral

Q39) Fronts are associated with:

a) Tropical cyclone
b) Monsoon Depression
c) Extra tropical low

Q40) Easterly jet over India is seen in:

a) North east monsoon season

b) Pro-monsoon season
c) Southwest monsoon season

Q41) Severe tropical cyclones in Bay of Bengal are most frequent in:

a) S/W Monsoon Season

b) Pre- monsoon season
c) Post – Monsoon Season

Q42) Lines of constant wind speed drawn on weather charts are called:

a) Isobars
b) Isotachs
c) Isogons

Q43) Earth radiates heat energy in the:

a) Long waves
b) Short waves
c) Very shorth waves

Q44) Ice generally forms on aircraft when

 a) The aircraft is flying through cirrus clouds.
b) Ice crystals are present in the area of flight
c) Water droplets are present with subfreezing temperature

Q45) Lines of constant wind speed on weather charts are called:

a) Isotachs
b) Isohects
c) Isobars

Q46) Norwesters are:

a) Depressions in the bay of Bengal which move towards

b) Violent thunderstorms
c) Western disturbances which affect NW India

Q47) Thunderstorm activity is predominant in:

a) NE India
b) Central India
c) South Peninsular India

Q48) Loo and Andhi are typical weather phenomenon during

a) Post monsoon season

b) Pre-monsoon season
c) SW Monsoon season.

Q49) When WD is passing over Northern part of the country, one may expect:

a) Rainfall and Thundershower

b) Radiation fog
c) Norwesters

Q50) The rains in North and North West India during SW Monsoon is Caused due to:

a) Easterly Current
b) South westerly current
c) Monsoon trough
 PAPER 6

Q1) The ISOL in forecast code means:

a) The individual feature to affect, an area with the minimum spatial coverage less than 50 percent of the area
concerned.
b) The individual feature to affect, an area with the maximum spatial coverage less than 50 percent of the area
concerned.
c) The individual feature to affect, an area with the minimum spatial coverage more than 50 percent of the area
concerned.

Q2) An EMBD CB means:

a) The CB, which is obscured by haze or smoke or cannot be seen due to darkness
b) The CB, within cloud layers and cannot be readily recognized
c) The CB, which is in regenerative during night.

Q3) BR In METAR is:

a) Haze
b) Rainbow
c) Mist

Q4) When winds are variable, the METAR shows

a) VRBL
b) VRB
c) VARB

Q5) NSW is a weather phenomenon

a) Nil significant weather

b) No significant weather
c) No special weather

Q6) When clouds ae 6 OCTAs, they are reported as:

a) SCT
b) BKN
c) OVC

Q7) Shower of rain is given as:

a) SHRA
b) RASH
c) +SHRA

Q8) When CAVOC is reported?

a) Vis is more than 5000 m and no clouds below 1500’

b) Vis is more than 10 km and no clouds below 1500 m
c) Vis is more than 10 km and no Significant clouds below 1500 m
Q9) When code PROB30 is used in a forecast, this indicates:

a) The chances of the occurrence of weather is at 3000ft

b) The probability of forecasted weather is 30%
c) The probability of forecasted weather is within 30 NM

Q10) TEMPO Means

a) Temporary fluctuation should not last more than one hour in each instance and the aggregate covers less than
half period
b) Temporary fluctuation should not last less than one hour in each instance and the aggregate covers less than
half period.
c) Temporary fluctuation should not last less than half an hour in each instance and the aggregate covers less than
half period.

Q11) The heat equator is:

a) Another name for the geographic equator.

b) Coincident with the equatorial trough and ITCZ
c) A line over the land joining places where the summer temperatures are highest.

Q12) Tropical revolving storms usually:

a) Move in a westerly direction before re – curving towards the equator

b) Move in an easterly direction before re – curving towards the equator
c) Do not form within 5 degree of the equator

Q13) What is relative Humidity dependent upon?

a) Moisture content and temperature of the air

b) Temperature of the air
c) Temperature and pressure
d) Moisture content of the air

Q14) what are the indications of a TRS From a great distance?

a) Thick Ci
b) Thick Cb’s
c) Ns
d) Sc

Q15) A characteristic of a stable air mass:

a) Lapse rate of 1deg C/ 100m

b) Rising air slows down and dissipates
c) Lapse rate of 0.3deg C/ 100m
d) Good visibility and showers

Q16) What types of cloud is associated with drizzle?

a) St
b) Cb
 c) Ci
d) Ac

Q17) What cloud type are you least likely to get icing from?

a) Ci
b) Cu
c) St
d) Ns

Q18) A steep pressure gradient is characterized by

a) Isobars close together, strengthened wind

b) Isobars far apart, decreased wind
c) Isobars close together, temperature increasing
d) Isobars far apart, temperature decreasing

Q19) Which of the following would lead to the formation of advection fog?

a) Warm moist air over cold surface, clear night and light winds.
b) Cold dry air over warm surface, clear night and light winds
c) Cold moist air over warm surface, cloud night with strong winds
d) Warm dry air over cold surface, cloudy night with moderate winds.

Q20) Which of the following would lead to the formation of steaming fog:

a) Cold air over warm sea

b) warm air over cold sea
c) cold sea near coast
d) warm air over alnd

Q21) Dew point is defined as:

a) the lowest temperature at which evaporation will occur for a given pressure
b) the lowest temperature to which air must be cooled in order to reduce the relative humidity
c) the temperature below which the change of state for a given volume of air will result in absorption of latent
heat
d) the temperature to which moist air must be cooled to reach saturation.

Q22) From which of the following can the stability of the atmosphere be determined?

a) Surface pressure
b) Surface temperature
c) DALR
d) ELR

Q23) Duration of a microbust:

a) 5 mins, 5km
b) 20 mins, 5km
c) 15 mins, 25 km
 d) 45mins, 25 km

Q24) Where is the ozone layer?

a) Ionosphere
b) Stratosphere
c) Tropopause
d) Troposphere

Q25) Where is the most severe weather in a TRS?

a) In the centre of the eye.

b) In the wall of cloud surrounding the eye
c) Within the eye
d) 300km from the eye

Q26) The degree of CAT experienced by an aircraft is proportional to:

a) Intensity of vertical and horizontal wind shear

b) Intensity of solar radiation
c) Stability of the air
d) Height of the aircraft

Q27) Microbursts:

a) Only affect tropical areas

b) Average lifespan 30 mins
c) Typical horizontal dimensions 1 – 3km
d) Always associated with CB clouds

Q28) Where are the fastest winds in a tropical revolving storm?

a) Near the eye

b) In the wall of cloud surrounding the eye
c) To the right of the track
d) To the right of the track in Hurricanes and Cyclones

Q29) The temperature at the surface is 15 deg C, the temperature at 1000m is 13 deg C. Is the atmosphere

a) Unstable
b) Conditionally unstable
c) Stable

Q30) In a METAR you see the coding R16/P1300. What does this imply?

a) RVR assessed to be more than 1300 meters

b) RVR equipment is problematic
c) RVR is improving
d) RVR is varying

Q31) If at 0600 the temperature and dew point were recorded as T=-0.5 and Td=-1.5, how would a METAR record this?
 a) M01, M02
b) M01, M01
c) M00, M01
d) 00, M01

Q32) What is the approximate height of the 250hPa level?

a) 30,000ft
b) 32,000ft
c) 39,000ft
d) 34,000ft

Q33) Comparing the surface wind to the 3000ft wind

a) Surface wind veers and is less than the 3000ft wind

b) Surface wind blows along the isobars and is less than the 3000ft wind
c) Surface wind blows across the isobars and is less than the 3000ft wind
d) Both are the same

Q34) Which of the following METAR’S at 1850UTC will most likely give fog formation over the coming right?

a) 240/04 6000 -RA SCT012 OVC 3000 17/14 Q1002 NOSIG=

b) VRB002 9999 SCT150 17/M08 Q1012 NOSIG=
c) VRB001 8000 SCT280 11/10 Q1028 BECMG 3000
d) VRB002 8000 FEW100 12/09 Q1025 BECMG 0800

Q35) TEMPO TS indicates

a) TS that will last for the entire period indicated

b) TS that will last for a max of 1hr in each instance
c) TS that will last for at least 30 mins
d) TS that will last for less than 30 mins

Q36) Which of the following gives conditionally unstable conditions?

a) 1deg C/100m
b) 0.65deg C/100m
c) 0.49deg C/100m
d) None of the above.

Q37) What is a microburst:

a) Air descending at high speed, the air is colder than the surrounding air
b) Air is descending at high speed; the air is warmer than the surrounding air
c) A small Tropical Revolving storm
d) A small depression with high wind speeds

Q38) moderate ice is most likely to form:

a) 0deg C to -7 deg C
b) -7deg C to -12 deg C
 c) -12deg C to -20deg C
d) -20 deg C to -40 deg C

Q39) Solar radiation heats the atmosphere by:

a) Heating the air directly

b) Heating the surface, this then heats the air in the atmosphere
c) Heating the water vapour in the atmosphere directly
d) Heating the water vapour directly unless there are clouds present

Q40) What happens to the stability of the atmosphere in an inversion? (Temp increasing with height)

a) Absolutely stable
b) Unstable
c) Conditionally stable
d) Conditionally unstable

Q41) What is the gradient of a warm front?

a) 1:50
b) 1:150
c) 1:300
d) 1:500

Q42) What is the effect of a strong low level inversion?

a) Good visibility
b) Calm conditions
c) Turbulence
d) Unstable conditions

Q43) Main TAF’s at large aerodromes are valid for approximately:

a) 1 hour
b) 2 hour
c) 6 hours
d) 24 hours

Q44) RVR Is defined as being:

a) The maximum distance an observer on the runway can see marker boards by day and runway lights by night
b) The maximum distance a pilot in the threshold area at 15ft above the runway can see marker boards by day or
runway lights by night, when looking in the direction of takeoff or landing.
c) The maximum distance in metres a pilot 15ft above the touchdown zone can see marker boards by day and
runway lights by night in the direction of take-off.
d) The distance it would be possible to see an observer 15ft above the runway when standing in the direction of
take-off or landing.

Q45) A forecast trend:

a) Aerodrome and valid for 9hours

 b) Route and valid for 24 hours
c) SPECI and valid for 24 hours
d) Landing and valid for 2 hours

Q46) Where would an anemometer be placed?

a) Close to station, 2m above ground

b) On the roof of the station
c) 10 m above aerodrome elevation on a mast
d) Next to the runway, 1m above ground.

Q47) Fohn winds are:

a) Warm katabatic
b) Cold katabatic
c) Warm descending winds
d) Warm anabatic

Q48) Minimum sea temperature of 27 deg C is needed for the development of a storm, sea must be warm up to a depth
of:

a) 10m
b) 30m
c) 50m
d) 70m

Q49) Allard’s Law is used for computing

a) Location of observer
b) Met visibility
c) Runway visual range

Q50) SIGMET’s are issued at intervals of:

a) 3 hours
b) 6 hours
c) 4 hours
d) No specific interval

Q51) SPECI is issued when minimum visibility falls to:

a) 150m
b) 300m
c) 450m
d) 800m

METAR VABB 052350z 28010KT 4000 +SHRA FEW008 FEW020 CB SCT BKN080 26/24 Q1004 TEMPO 0800 + TSRA

Q52) Reported winds and visibility are:

a) 280/50 kts & 4 kms

b) 30015 kts & 4000m
 c) North – westerly 10 kts & 4 km
d) Westerly 10 kts & 4000m

Q53) Reported weather is:

a) Heavy showers of rain

b) Showers of rain
c) Moderate showers of rain
d) Mild showers of rain

Q54) Visibility is expected to reach

a) 800 m up to 060150z
b) 8000 m up to 060150z
c) 800 m up to 060050z
d) 8000 m up to 060050z

Q55) Diurnal pressure variation in local time

a) Max at 0400 & 1600; min at 1000 & 2200

b) Max at 1000 & 2200; min at 0400 & 1600
c) Max at 0400 & 1000; min at 1600 & 2200
d) Max at 1600 & 2200; min at 0400 & 1000