ENVIRONMENT 11

1. If the total hardness of water is greater than its total alkalinity, the carbonate hardness will be
equal to
(1) total alkalinity (2) total hardness
(3) non-carbonated hardness (4) total hardness, total alkalinity
Ans. (1) :
If the total hardness of water is greater than its total alkalinity, the carbonate hardness will be
equal to the total alkalinity.
NCH = TH-CH
CH= [T.H, Alkalinity] minimum
If = T.H.> Alkalinity
Then CH Alkalinity
Where,
TH= Total hardness
CH= Carbonate hardness
NCH= Non carbonate hardness

2. Group I gives a list of water quality parameters and Group II gives the list of titrants:
Group I Group II
A. Alkalinity 1. N/35.5 AgNO3
B. Hardness 2. N/40 Na2S 2O3
C. Chloride 3. N/50H2SO4
D. Dissolved oxygen 4. N/50 EDTA
A B C D
(1) 1 2 3 4
(2) 3 4 1 2
(3) 2 1 4 3
(4) 4 3 2 1
Ans. (2): A. Alkalinity N/50 H2SO4
B. Hardness N/50 EDTA
C. Chloride N/35.5 AgNO3
D. Dissolved oxygen N/40 Na₂S₂O

3. Critical dissolved oxygen (D.O) deficit occurs in which one of the following zones of
pollution of 'oxygen sag curve' in case of self-purification of natural streams?
(1) Zone of recovery
(2) Zone of active decomposition
(3) Zone of degradation
(4) Zone of clear water
Ans. (2) Critical deficit occur at critical time (tc) which fall in the zone of active decomposition.
Zone-I: Zone of degradation decomposition
Zone-II: Zone of active
Zone-III: Zone of recovery
Zone-IV Zone of clear water

4. The screening units provided before the wet well should conform to
(1) IS 6280 (2) IS 3370
(3) IS 4111 (4) IS 10500
Ans. (1)
Is 6280-+Screening units provided before the wet well should conforms

5. Alum as a coagulant is found to be most effective when pH range of water is:

(1) 2 to 4 (2) 4 to 6
(3) 6 to 8 (4) 8 to 10
Ans. (3):
Alum as a coagulant is found to be most effective when pH range of water is 6 to 8.

6. A city supply of 15000 cubic meter of water per day is treated with chlorine dosage of 0.5
ppm. For this purpose, requirement of 25% bleaching powder per day would be (c) 30 kg
(1) 300 kg (2) 75 kg
(3) 30 kg (4) 7.5 kg
Ans. (3): Bleaching power required to chlorinate 15000 m³ water
15000× 0.5 ×10−3
¿ =30 kg
0.25

7. A 2% solution of sewage sample is incubated for five days at 20°C. The depletion of oxygen
was found to be 3 ppm. The BOD of raw sewage will be:
(1) 150 ppm (2) 200 ppm
(3) 300 ppm (4) 250 ppm
Ans. (1)
Given (Initial DO - final DO) = 3ppm
The BOD is calculated as
BOD (initial DO-final DO)× dilution factor
vol. of diluted sample 100
Dilution factor= = =50
vol . of undiluted sewage sample 2
BOD = 3 × 50 =150 ppm

8. The correct statement of comparison of ultimate BOD (BODu), COD, Theoretical Oxygen
Demand (ThOD) and 5-day BOD (BOD)5 is:
(1) BODu > COD > ThOD > BOD5
(2) COD > ThOD > BODu > BOD5
(3) ThOD > COD > BODu > BOD5
(4) COD > BODu > BOD5 > ThOD
Ans. (3):
ThOD > COD > BODu > BOD5
It show ability of O2 oxygen in sewage is 95% that in distill water

9. As per Environmental Protection Act, 86, noise level in the industrial area during day should
not be more than :
(1) 75 dB (2) 65 dB
(3) 45 dB (4) 55 dB
Ans. (1):
Sound pollution Day Night
Commercial area's 65dB 55 dB
Residential area's 55 dB 45 dB
Silence 50 dB 40 dB

HM 11
1. The force exerted by a jet on a vane is determined by
(1) Energy conservation principle (2) Momentum principle
(3) Continuity principle (4) None of these
Ans: (2)
Sol: Force exerted by a water jet on a bucket of pelton wheel (or) series of vanes mounted on
fixed axis wheel is determined by "Impulse momentum" Principle.

2. The speed ratio of Pelton wheel varies from:

(1) 0.45 to 0.50 (2) 0.6 to 0.7
(3) 0.3 to 0.4 (4) 0.8 to 0.9
Ans: (1)
Speed ratio (4) of pelton wheel varies from 0.4 to 0.5
Bucket wheel tangential velocity (U)
ф=
Theoretical velocity of water jet at inlet of pelton wheel (V ₁)
Where,
V ₁=√ 2 gH
U
ф=
√ 2 gH
Practical range of ф is 0.44 to 0.46
S.no. Turbine Speed Ratio(ф) Flow ratio (ф)
1 Pelton wheel 0.4 to 0.5 0
2 Francis Turbine 0.6 to 0.9 0.15 – 0.30
3 Kaplan & Propeller 1.8 to 2.5 0.7
turbine
3. As per Tygun's formula, the number buckets required for a Peiton wheel, having a jet ratio of
24, is about
(1) 7 (2) 15 (3) 21 (4) 27
Ans: (4)
m 24
Z= +15= +15=12+ 15=27
2 2

4. In a Pelton wheel the depth of the bucket is approximately

(1) 0.5 diameter of jet (2) 0.95 diameter of jet
(3) 1.5 diameter of jet (4) 1.90 diameter of jet
Ans (2)
Dimension of Bucket:
Depth of the bucket = 0.8 d to 1.2d
Radial height = 2d to 3d
Axial width = 3d to 5d

5. The maximum hydraulic efficiency of an impulse turbine is:

1+cosф
(1)
2
1−cosф
(2)
2
1+ sinф
(3)
2
1−sinф
( 4)
2
Where ф = Angle of blade tip at outlet
Ans: (a)

6. Which of the following combination results in the maximum efficiency of a pelton wheel?
1
(1) vane velocity = ×jet velocity and jet deflection = 180°
2
(2) vane velocity = jet velocity and jet deflection = 90°
(3) vane velocity = 2 x jet velocity and jet deflection = 180°
(4) None of the above
Ans: (1)

7. A Francis turbine is
(1) Inward flow reaction turbine (2) Inward flow impulse turbine
(3) Outward flow reaction turbine (3) Outward flow impulse turbine
Ans: (1)
• Francis water turbine is classified as medium head, radial inward flow, medium specific speed
medium discharge and reaction type turbine.
• Kaplan & Propeller turbines are classified as low head, axial flow, high specific speed, high
discharge and reaction type turbines.
Note:
1. Modern Francis turbine is mixed flow turbine i.e radial inward and axial out flow turbine.
2. In inward flow reaction turbine water enters at outer periphery of runner and flows out from
the centre of the runner.
3. In reaction turbine (Francis turbine) part of head is converted into velocity before enters the
runner

8. In a Kaplan turbine runner, the number of blades are generally

(1) 2 to 4 (2) 4 to 8
(3) 8 to 16 (4) 16 to 24
Ans: (2)
Number of blades on runner of a Kaplan turbine = 3 to 6
Note: Francis turbine runner has 16 to 24 blades

9. Discharge through Kaplan turbine is given by:

(1)Q=πDBν f
(2)Q=kπDBν f
π d2
(3)Q= × √2 gH
4
π
( 4)Q= ( D20−D2b ) V f
4
Ans: (4)
Sol: Discharge through Kaplan turbine is given by
π
Q= A f ×V f = ( D 20 – D2b ) V f
4
Where Do= Outer diameter of the runner
Db= Diameter of hub portion of runner

10. Manometric efficiency of a centrifugal pump is give as

g Hm
(1)
V w 2U 2
Hm
(2)
g V w 2U2
V w2 U2
(3)
g Hm
g ×V w 2 U 2
(4)
Hm
Ans: (1)
Manometric head
ղ mano =
Head imparted by impeller
Hm g.Hm
¿ =
U V w 2. U2
V w 2. 2
g

Irrigation 11
1. Which is NOT a method of controlled flooding in irrigation methods?
(1) Contour (2) Ring basin
(3) Check basin (4) Border strip
Ans. (1)
Contour farming is adopted in hilly areas where the land has steep slope. Here, the land is
divided into series of horizontal strips which are known as terraces. Small bounds are provided at
the end of each terrace to held water up to the required depth. Controlled flooding are sub-
divided into following types
• Free flooding • Basin method
• Check flooding • Border flooding
• Zig - Zag method

2. In border strip method of irrigation, the width of strip is

(1) 5-10 m (2) 10-20 m
(3) 20-30 m (4) 25-30 m
Ans. (2):
Border strip method-Land to be irrigated is divided into series of long narrow strips about 10 to
20 m wide and 100 to 300 m long separated from each other by low levels or bunds and each
strip is supplied water by the field channel.

3. If the optimum depth of kor watering for a crop is 15.12 cm, the outlet factor for the crop for
four weeks period in hectare/cumec is
(1) 1200 (2) 1400
(3) 1600 (4) 1800
Ans : (3)
8.64 × B
D=
∆
D= duty is hectare/cumec
Δ = kor depth of water in 'm'
B = base period in days = 4 week = 28 days
8.64 × 28
D= =1600 hectare /cumec
0.1512

4. Consider the following data for irrigation water:

Concentration Milli-equivalents per litre
1 Na+ 24
2 Ca++ 3.6
3 Mg ++
2
The Sodium-Absorption Ratio (SAR) is nearly
(1) 13.1 (2) 14.3
(3) 15.5 (4) 16.7
Ans. (b)
Sodium-Absorption Ratio (SAR) is an irrigation water quality parameter used in the management
of sodium-affected soils. The formula for calculating the sodium adsorption
ratio (SAR) is
¿
24 24
SAR= =

√
3.6+2
2
SAR=14.34
5.6
2 √
SAR= Sodium Absorption Ratio
SAR table
0 -10 - Low Sodium water
10 -18 - Medium Sodium water
18-26 -High Sodium water
>26-Very High Sodium water

5. If the discharge in a canal equals to 70m3/s with its silt factor √2, the velocity of flow in canal
as per Lacey's theory is:
(1) 0.5m/s (2) 0.75m/s
(3) 1.0m/s (4) 1.25m/s
Ans: (3)

( )
2 1
Qf 6
Velocity as per Lacey ' s theory V =
140
Q-discharge, V-velocity in m/sec
f = silt factor

[ ]
1
70 × ( √2 ) 6
V= =1m/s
140

6. Garret's diagram is based on

(1) Kennedy's Theory (2) Lacey's Theory
(3) Khosla's Theory (4) Blight's Theory
Ans. (1):
Garret's diagram gives the graphical method of designing the channel dimensions based on
Kennedy's theory.
•The diagram has discharge plotted on the abscissa.
•The discharge lines are curved and bed width lines are shown dashed.

7. If the level of canal bed and high flood level of river have the RL of 242.0 m and 240.0 m
respectively, than this type of cross drainage work is called as
(1) Aqueduct (2) Syphon
(3) Syphon aqueduct (4) Super passage
Ans : (1)
Generally, when a river crosses a canal then a cross drainage work is made there. If the level of
canal bed and high flood level of river have the RL's of 242 m and 240 m, then this type of cross
drainage work is called aqueduct

8. Seepage through foundation in an earthen dam is controlled by providing

(1) rock toe (2) horizontal blanket
(3) impervious cutoff (4) chimney drain
Ans: (3)
Seepage through foundation of earthen dam is controlled by providing impervious cutoff.

9. A gravity dam is to be designed using stone masonry (Specific gravity 2.25) to store water to a
height of 30.0m by middle third rule (uplift coefficient 0.4). The base of dam should have
minimum width of
(1) 22m (2) 18m
(3) 14m (4) 50m

Ans: (1) Minimum base width of dam is calculated from the following two criteria:
H
(i) B ≥ ( stability against sliding)
μ( Sc−C)
H
(ii) B ≥ (stability against tensile failure)
μ( Sc−C)
Where,
H= Height of water table
μ= coefficient of friction
Sc.= specific gravity of dam material
C = uplift coefficient.
Here,
H= 30 m, Sc.= 2.25, C= 0.4
H 30
B≥ → ≥ 22 m
√ Sc−C √ 2.25−0.4
hence minimum base width should be 22m.

FM TEST 11
1 Match List-I (Fluid properties) with List-II (Related terms) and select the correct answer from
the options given below the lists:
List-I List-II
A. Capillarity 1.Cavitation
B. Vapour pressure 2. Density of water
C. Viscosity 3. Shear forces
D. Specific gravity 4. Surface tension
(1) A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3
(2) A-1, B-4, C-3, D-2
(3) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
(4) A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2
Ans. (4):
Capillarity is due to surface tension. Vapour pressure is due to cavitation. Viscosity is because of
shear force. Specific gravity is related to density.

2. In a sample of water an increase in pressure by 18 MPa caused 0.5% reduction in the volume.
The bulk modulus of elasticity for this sample in MPa is
(1) 3.6 (2) 360
(3) 3600 (4) 0.36
Ans. (3):
dP 18
Bulk modulus( K )= =
( ) ( )
dV
V
0.5
100
K=3600 MPa

3. A dimensionless group formed variables ρ , w, μ and D is

(1) ρ w/D2 (2) ρ wD2 /µ
(3) μD ρ w
2
(4) ρ wμD
Ans. (2)
Dimension of each variable are
ρ = kg/m³ = ML-3, W =1/second = T-1
μ=N-sec/m2 = ML-1 T-1, D = meter =L
ρw D 2 [ M L ] × [ T ] × [ L ]
−3 −1 2
⁖ =
μ [ M L−1 T −1 ]
= [M0 L0 T0]
This is the dimensionless with the variables

4. Centre of pressure of an inclined plane surface is:

I G .sin 2 θ
(1) +x
Ax
I G . sinθ
(2) + x̅
Ax̅
L . sin 2 θ
(3) G −x̅
Ax̅
2
I . sin θ
(4) G 2 + x̅
A x̅
Where symbols have their usual meanings.
Ans: (1)
Centre of pressure is calculated by using the "principle of moments" which states that the
moment of resultant force about an axis is equal to the sum of moments of the components about
same axis.
 LG
h̅ = +x
Ax̅ ̅
For an inclined surface with angle of inclination with horizontal is 0
I G si n2 θ
h̅ = + x̅
Ax̅

5. An oil of specific gravity 0.9 contained in a vessel. At a point the height of oil is 40 m and for
the density of water 1000 kg/m³, the corresponding height of water at the point will be:
(1) 28 m (2) 32 m
(3) 36 m (4) 40 m
Ans. (3)
Given
Goil = 0.9 or ρ oil = 900 kg/m³, hoil = 40 m
Gwater or ρ water-1000 kg/m³, hwater =?
∴Pressure due to oil column height Pressure due to water column height
−ρ oil × g × h oil=ρ water × g ×h water
ρoil 900
−h water = ×hoil= × 40
ρwater 1000
−h water =36 mh

6. Venturimeter (V), flow nozzle (N) and orifice meter (0) arranged in increasing order of co
efficient of discharge are
(1) V, N, O (2) N,O,V
(3) O, N,V (4) O,V,N
Ans. (3):
Measuring device Cd
Orifice 0.62 to 0.65
Venturimeter 0.96 to 0.98
Rota meter and elbow meter 0.56 to 0.88.
Increasing order of coefficient of discharge for venturimeter (V), flow nozzle (N) and orifice
meter (O).

7. In steady Laminar flow of a liquid through a circular pipe of internal diameter D, carrying a
constant discharge, the hydraulic gradient is inversely proportional to
(1) D (3) D-2
(2) D -4
(4) D-6
Ans: (3)
For steady laminar flow
 32 uVL
hf = 2
yD
Hydraulic gradient i.e.

h f / L=
32u
( Q
π D2 /4 )
y D2
32 uQ hf 1
h f / L= , ∝ 4
( )
32uQ L D
y 4
π D /4
→Hydraulic gradient inversely proportional to 'D-4

8. In a laminar flow through a circular pipe of diameter 20 cm, the maximum velocity is found to
be 1m/s. The velocity at a radial distance of 5 cm from the axis of the pipe will be
(1) 0.25m/s (2) 0.50m/s
(3) 0.75m/s (4) 1.0 m/s
Ans: (3)
We know for Laminar flow through a circular pipe,

( )
2
r
u=v max 1− 2
R

u=
[ ( 0.10 )2 ]
( 0.10 )2−( 0.05 )2
=0.75 m/ s

9. Discharge formula for triangular weir is :

8
( 1 ) C d √ 2 g H 5 /2
15
8
(2) C d √ 2 g H
3 /2
15
8
( 3 ) Cd √ 2 g H 1/ 2
15
8
( 4 ) Cd √ 2 g H
15
Ans : (1)
Where symbols have their usual meanings.
8
Discharge through a triangular weir (Q) C d √ 2 g H 5 /2
15
3
2
Discharge through a rectangular weir (Q)→ Cd B √ 2 g H 2
3
2
[
Discharge through a cipolletti weir (Q) → C d √ 2 g H B+
3
1 /2 4H
5 ]
Hydrology T11
1. Which of the following is/are correct incorrect ?
(i) The rain gauge must be surrounded by an open area whose size should be 5.5m x 5.5m
(ii) The rain gauge should be kept 30 m or twice the height of obstruction.

(1) only (i)

(2) (i) and (i) both
(3) Only (11)
(4) None
Ans (4)

2. Which is the recording type rain gauge adopted by IMD ?

(1) float type rain gauge.
(2) Tipping bucket type rain gauge
(3)Weighing bucket type ruin gauge
(4)Is rain gauge type
Ans (1)

3.The direct run off hydrograph of a basin can be approximated as a triangle with base period of
80 hours and a peak flow of 200 m³/s occurring at 16th hour if the area of the basin is 1440 km²
the depth of run off indicated by the hydrograph will be
(1) 1cm (2) 2 cm (3) 10 cm (4) 20 cm
Ans (2)

4. The rainfall of five successive day were measured as as 100mm, 90 mm, 70 mm 50 mm and
30 mm respectively. If the infilteration index or the storm loss rate for the catchment area is
earlier estimated as 40mm/day, the total surface runoff will be
(1) 110mm (2)130 mm (3)150 mm (4) 180 mm
Ans (3)

5.Horton's infiltration capacity is given as

(1) f = fo +[fc-fo] e-kt (2) f = fo -[fc+fo] e-kt
(3) f = fo- [fc-fo] e-kt (4) f = fc + [fo-fc] e-kt
Ans (4)

6. A flood of certain magnitude has a return period of 25 years. The probability of exceedance is
(1) 4% (2) 12% (3) 16% (4) 32%
Ans (1)

7. In flood routing procedure, The Coefficients of the Muskingum equation. Co, C1 and e2 are
determined. If the Co=0.3 and C₂ = 0.5, what is the value of C1 ?
(1) 0.2 (2) 0.02 (3) Q!23vgft0.3 (4)0.1
Ans (1)

8. 70% index of wetness mean.

(1) Rain excess of 70% (2) Rain deficiency of 70%
(3) Rain deficiency of 30% (4) Rain excess of 30%
Ans (3)

9.The Ryve's formula to determine the design discharge from catchment is given by (constant
depending on nature of the catchment and location = C; catchment area in square kilometers =A)
(1) CA3/2 (2) CA2/3
(3) AC3/2 (4) AC2/3
Ans (2)

Bridge T11

1. In Bridge, odd number of spans provided to take Care of

(1) Small opening provide in centre of length of a bridge
(2) Large opening provide at end of bridge structure
(3) Easy Construction of Bridge
(4) Large opening provide in centre of length of bridge.
Ans (4)

2. Abutment with return wing wall is also referred as

(1) U- abutment (2) T-abutment
(3) C- abutment (4) All the above
Ans (1)

3. Constant for maximum depth of scour at sharp or severe bend is

(1)1.75 (2) 1.50
(3)2 (4)1.27
Ans (1)

4. A skew bridge should be restricted to

(1)30 (2)45
(3)15 (4)60
Ans (1)

5. The central verge on bridge shall not be less than

(1) 1.2 m (2) 1.5 m
(3) 3m (4) 2.5 m
Ans (1)

6. The depth of in the range of pen pneumatic caission.

(1) 120 to 350m (2) 12 to 35 m
(3) 50 to 100 m (4)7 to 12 m
Ans (2)

7. Hingless or fixed arch is adopted where

(1) The Foundations are likely to yield (2) hard unyielding soil is available
(3) Both A and B. (4)None
Ans (2)

8. Bascule bridge is
(1) Rigid frame bridge (2) simple bridge
(3) Cantilever bridges. (4)movable span super-structure
Ans (4)

9.The total train length of class A loading is

(1) 15.4 m (2)18.4 m
(3) 20.4 m (4) 20 m
Ans (3)

Estimation and costing

1. Is code used for plinth area calculation is

(1) IS 3861: 2002 (2) IS 4131: 2002
(3) IS 5512 (4) IS 2430
Ans (1)

2.________method is most accurate in approximate estimation method.

(1) Revised estimate (2) Detailed estimate
(3) Typical plinth area method (4) Cubical
Ans (4)

3.Work charged establishment is taken as

(1) 2 ½ to 2 % of estimated cost (2) 1 to 1 ½ % of estimated cost
(3) 8 % of estimated cost (4) None of the above
Ans (1)

4.Schedule of rates prepared by

(i) PWD (ii) CPWD
options:
(1) Only I (2) Only Both i and ii
(3) Only ii (4) None
Ans ()

5.If the dimensions is measure more than 25 m it is measured upto

(1) 0.1 m (2) 0.01
(3) 0.5m (4)0.05
Ans (1)

6. Rain water pipe or plain pipe measured in

(1) Numbers (2) Running mem meter
(3) A and B (4) None
Ans (2)

7. Envelope opening sequence in tender is

(1) Envelope → Envelope 2 → Envelope 3→ Envelope 3
(2) Envelope 4 → Envelope1→ Envelope 2 → Envelope 3
(3) Envelope 4→ Envelope 3 → Envelope 2→Envelope 1
(4) Envelope 4 → Envelope 1 →Envelope3 →Envelope 2
Ans (2)

8. Fixed declining balance (FDB) is equal to

(1) FDB=1-(Cs/Cn ) 1/n (2) FDB=[1-(Cs/Cn )] 1/n
(3) FDB= 1-(Cs/Cn ) n (4) FDB=(Cs/Cn ) n
Ans (1)

9. Capitalised value (C.P) is equal to

(1) C.P =Gross income X Y.P
(2) C.P =Gross income
(3) C.P = net income X Y.P
(4) C.P = net income
Ans (3)

Tunnel T11

1. The best section of tunnel suitable for majority of conditions is

(1) Poly-centric section. (2) Circular section.
(3) Horse- shoe section. (4) None of the above.
Ans (1)

2. Horse-shoe section of tunnel is Suitable in

(1) Soft rock. (2) hard rock
(3) cohesive soil (4) All the above
Ans (1)

3.Shield method of tunneling. restricted to is

(1)Rectangular Sections (2) Circular sections.
(3) elliptical sections (4) segmental cross sections.
Ans (2)

4. Nitrate explosives is
(1) slow acting and high strenght explosives
(2) fast acting and high strenght explosives
(3)fast acting and low strenght explosives
(4) slow acting and high strengh explosives Tow
Ans (4)

5.Light ground, quantity of explosives required

(1) 4 kg/m³ of solid rock (2) kg/m³ of solid rock 6
(3)2 kg/m³ of of solid rock. (4) 8 kg/m³ of solid rock
Ans (3)

6 .Total number of faces available for attack are

(1)2 (2) 2N
(3) 2N+ 2 (4) 2N-2
Ans (3)

7.Heading and bench method of tunnelling used when

(1) tunnel section is very small and quality of rock is not satisfactory.
(2) tunnel section is very large and quality of rock is not satisfactory.
(3) tunnel section is very large and quality of ruck is satisfactory
(4) None of the above
Ans (2)

8. fore- poling method is now replaced by.

(1) compressed air tunnelling method
(2) full face method of tunnelling.
(3) shield method of tunneling
(4) Needle beam method of tunnelling
Ans (1)

9.(i) Quantity of ventilation required in working area is minimum of 8.4 m or 300 feet3 of fresh
air per man per minute
(ii)Volume of air required by compressed air is provided 20 feets3 free air per min for each
square feet of face area which of the above is/are correct.
Which of the above is/are incorrect ?
(1) Both i and ii (2) only (i)
(3) Only I (4) only none of the above.
Ans (4)