REVIEW QUESTIONS FOR PRC LICENSURE EXAMINATION IN AGRICULTURE

CROP PROTECTION
Section 1. Problem in Insecticide Calculation
1. If Insecticide X contains the active ingredient imidacloprid at 300 g/ liter of the formulated product, what percentage of the
product is its active ingredients?
A. O.3 C. 30
B. 3 D. 300
2. Insecticide Y have 3% active ingredients. Express the concentration of Insecticides Y in parts per million.
A. 300 C. 30,000
B. 3000 D. 300,000
3. During serve corn borer infestation, Furadan 3G should be applied at 33.3 kg/ha. How much of the product is needed for
15,000 m2 of corn in case of corn borer infestation?
A. 133.3 kg C. 99.99 kg
B. 49.95 kg D.33.33 kg
4. If 33.3 kg Furadan 3G had been used and it has 30 g Carbofuran active ingredients/kg, how much kilograms of Carbofuran
was applied?
A. 0.5 C. 1
B. 5 D. 10
5. At the application rate of 33.3 kg Furadan 3G/ha, how much would be applied per plant if there were 75,000 plants in the
15,000 m2 farm?
A. 1.07 g C. 1.6 g
B. 0.67 g D.7.5 g
6. How much of confidor SL 100 is needed to prepare a 2,500 liters of spray solutions if the dilutions rate 25 ml/100 L of
water?
A. 625 ml C. 6.35 ml
B. 62.5 ml D. 250 ml
7. If the only available packaging in a farmer’s favorite store is 250 ml bottle of Confidor SL 100, how many bottles should the
farmer buy if the needs 2.25 liters?
A. 7 C. 9
B. 8 D. 10
8. Confidor SL 100 costs P 750 per 250 ml bottle. How much does a mango farmer ha to pay for 2.25 liters of Confidor SL
100?
A. P7, 500 C. P6,250
B. P6, 500 D. P6, 750
9. Sumicidin 3EC has to be mixed at 5 tbsp/16 liter water. What is the dilution rate of Sumicidin 3EC to water?
A. 5:16 C. 50:16
B. 25: 16 D. 1:320
10. If Sumicidin 3EC has to be mixed at 5 tbsp/ 16 L water, what is the percentage of Sumicidin 3EC in the spray solution?
A. 0.31 C. 8
B. 5 D. 32
11. At the seedling stage of the rice plant, insecticides M should be applied at 19:16 loads li-sprayer loads per hectare. How
many liters of spray solution have to be prepared for a 1.25 hectare rice farm at seedling stage?
A. 304 C. 380
B. 19 D. 16
12. As seedling stage of the rice plants, recommendation calls for 40 ml of insecticide M per sprayer load with spray volume of
19 sprayer loads per hectare. At vegetative stage, rate application is 30 ml of insecticide M per sprayer load and spray
volume of 31 sprayer loads per hectare. How much more insecticides M is needed in spraying a hectare. How much more
insecticide M is needed in spraying a hectare at vegetative than at seedling stage?
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 A. 120 ml C. 17 ml
B. 10 ml D. 170 ml
13. A carbonate insecticide, effective against thrips, has 500 g Methiocarb per kg formulated product. What is the concentration
in percent of the formulated product?
A. 5 C. 0.5
B. 50 D. 31.25
14. For serve infestation, a pyrethroid insecticide with 25% active ingredient should be used at 5 tbsp/ 16 liter of water. What is
the concentration in percent of the spray solution?
A. 0.025 C. 0.075
B. 0.05 D. 0.08
15. If 150 liters of the spray solution should be prepared, how many kilograms of the formulated product are needed with the
recommendation that it has to be applied at 5 tbsp. /16 liters of water?
A. 4.7 C. 0.47
B. 0.5 D. 15
16. A slurry, good for the 1 kg of seeds, is prepared by mixing 12.5 ml of Insecticide ST in 10 ml of water. How much of the
slurry is needed for 4.5 tons of seeds?
A. 101.25 L C. 1.25 L
B. 10.12 L D. 1.21 L
17. How much water is needed in the preparation of slurry for 4.5 tons of seeds if the dilution rate is 12.5 ml of insecticide ST
per 10 ml of water per kilogram of seeds?
A. 54 L C. 450 L
B. 45 L D. 102 L
18. If a farmer used 360 ml of Insecticide ST would he need to treat 20 kg seeds enough for plant a hectare given a dilution rate
of 12.5 ml of Insecticide ST in 10 ml of water?
A. 25 ml C. 20 ml
B. 10.5 ml D. 250 ml
19. A farmer used 360 ml of Insecticides Y in his farm. He followed the recommendation dosage of 3 tbsp/16 liters and spray
volume of 160 liters per hectare. Where is the area of this farm?
A. 1.02 C. 1.12
B. 1.2 D. 1.45
20. What is the rate of application in amount of formulated product per hectares if the recommended dosage is 3 tbsp/16 liters
of water with spray volume of 160/ha?
A. 35 ml/ha C. 300 ml/ha
B. 350 ml/ha D. 30 ml/ha
21. What is the rate of application in terms of g ai/ha if insecticides Y which has 2.5% active ingredient, has to be diluted at 4
tbsp/ 16 li of water and applied at 240 li/ha?
A. 5 C. 15
B. 10 D. 20
22. Insect pest to be controlled: leafhopper of eggplant
Labor cost: P 250.00/man day

Insecticides EC Insecticides WP

Types of Formulation emulsifiable wettable powder

Concentrate
Recommended rate 1.25 L/ha 1.75 kg/ha
Insecticides cost P980/L P 750/kg
Required man-days for
application/ha 2 3
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Considering insecticides and labor costs, how much would he save if he used the wettable powder rather than the emulsifiable
concentrate?
A. P287.50 B. P320.00 C. 337.50 D. P180.00
23. How much of Insecticides G is needed for 1.75 hectares eggplant farm if the recommended rate of application is 6
kg/ha/application?
A. 10 kg C. 17.5 kg
B. 10.5 kg D. 15 kg
24. Consider the following information:
Insect pest to be controlled: leafhopper of eggplant
Area to be controlled: 1.75 ha
Labor cost: P250.00/man day

Insecticide G Insecticide EC Insecticide WP

Types of formulation Granule Emulsifiable wettable

concentrate powder
Recommended rate 6 kg/ha 1.25L/ha 1.5 kg/ha
Insecticides costs P160/k P980/L P750/kg
Required man-days for
application/ha 3 2 2
Interval of application every every every
30 days 2 weeks 2 weeks

Which formulation is the cheapest to use in the long run?

A. Granule C. wettable powder
B. Emulifiable concentrate D. b & c
25. At spray volumes of 240 L/ha, a molluscicide should be diluted at 70 and 100 ml/16 liters of water, respectively. Which of
the spray volumes would require less of the molluscicide?
A. 176 L/ha C. a & b
B. 240 L/ha D. it depends
26. Among the invertebrates, only insects have this characters?
A. Segmentation C. Antennae
B. Wings D. 3 pairs of jointed legs
27. From which character was the name “Anthropoda” derived?
A. Segmentation C. Antennae
B. Wings D. Jointed legs
28. Which of these is important in distinguishing damselflies from dragonflies?
A. Legs C. Eyes
B. Cerci D. Antennae
29. Which of these is important in distinguishing beetles from earwigs?
A. Wings C. Eyes
B. Cerci D. Antennae
30. In insect, where are the cerci located?
A. Head C. Abdomen
B. Thorax D. Legs
31. In insects, where are the wings found?
A. Head C. Abdomen
B. Thorax D. Thigh
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32. In insect, where are the genitalia found?
A. Head C. Abdomen
B. Thorax D. Hindleg
33. In caterpillars, where are the prolegs/psuedolegs located?
A. Head C. Abdomen
B. Thorax D. Pseudo thorax
34. Which of the following is used to enclose the styles in insects with piercing-sucking mouthtype?
A. Labium C. Labrum
B. Hypopharynx D. Epipharynx
35. Where would least likely find insects?
A. North Pole C. Laguna Lake
B. Mt. Makiling D. Sulu Sea
36. Which of the following is NOT a characteristics of arthropods?
A. Radial symmetry C. Jointed legs
B. Exoskeleton D. Segmented body
37. Which of the following pests is NOT an arthropods?
A. Santol gall mite C. Melon fruit fly
B. Golden apple snail D. Corn earworm
38. Which of the following rice pests possess chewing type of mouthparts during the destructive stage?
A. Green leafhopper C. Stemborer
B. Rice bug D. Brown planthopper
39. Which is NOT true of ALL insects?
A. They have antennae C. They have three body
B. They have wings D. They have three pairs of legs
40. This sensory organ is NOT found among insects.
A. Mouthparts C. Chelicera
B. Antenna D. Eye
41. The first segment of the insect antenna
A. Scape C. Flagellum
B. Pedicel D. Clavola
42. The second segment of the insect antenna
A. Scape C. Flagellum
B. Pedicel D. Clavola
43. In the piercing-sucking type of mouthparts, this component cannot be inserted into the host plant, hence it bends when the
insect is feeding
A. Labrum C. Maxilla
B. Mandible D. Labuim
44. In the chewing types of mouthparts, this component cuts and grinds the food
A. Labrum C. Maxilla
B. Mandible D. Labium
45. In the chewing type of mouthparts, this component is immediately behind the mendible, and it holds and pushes the food
into the mouth
A. Labrum C. Maxilla
B. Mandible D. labium
46. This body regions the legs and the wings of the insect
A. Head C. Abdomen
B. Thorax D. Cephalothorax
47. The basal segment of an insect leg
A. Trochanter C. Tarsus

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 B. Cerci D. Coxa
48. The opening to the respiratory system of an insect
A. Tympanum C. Spiracle
B. Cerci D. Hypopharynx
49. This body regions bears the genitalia and visceral organs of the insect
A. Head C. Abdomen
B. Thorax D. Cephalothorax
50. The 2 pairs of insect wings, when present, are located in
A. The prothorax and mesothorax
B. The mesothorax and metathorax
C. The prothorax and metathorax
D. All segments of the throrax
51. Termites have this type of antenna.
A. Geniculate C. Filiform
B. Moniliform D. Lamellate
52. This type of antenna is found among scarabaeid beetles.
A. Bipectinate C. Filiform
B. Clavate D. Lamellate
53. The setaceous type of antennae is found among
A. Butterflies C. Dragonflies
B. Grasshopper D. Houseflies
54. The aristate type of antennae is found among
A. Butterflies C. Dragonflies
B. Grasshopper D. Houseflies
55. This elbow-like type of antennae found among ants
A. Geniculate C. Lamellate
B. Clavate D. Plumose
56. This type of antennae is found among mosquitoes
A. Geniculate C. Lamellate
B. Clavate D. Plumose
57. Preying mantis uses this types of forelegs to catch its prey
A. Grasping C. Walking
B. Clinging D. Digging
58. Headlice use this type of legs to anchor the young themselves on the host
A. Grasping C. Walking
B. Clinging D. Digging
59. In what type of insect development is the young stage known as a naiad?
A. Ametabolous C. Paurometabolous
B. Hemimetabolous D. Holometabolous
60. What type of insect development has larval and pupal stages?
A. Ametabolous C. Paurometabolous
B. Paurometabolous D. Holometabolous
61. The pest population density where the cost of control is much higher than the expected cost of harvest of the protection
crop.
A. Economic injury level C. Equilibrium level
B. Economic threshold level D. Damage level
62. A modern approach to minimize damage by pests with ultimate goal of population management rather than eradication
A. Integrated pesticide management
B. Integrated pest management

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 C. Pest control strategies
D. Pesticide management
63. A control method whereby synthetic substances or bioactive plant products management used to combat pest population
A. Use of resistant varieties C. Chemical control
B. Cultural control D. Biological control
64. An unwanted organism which competes with man for food and shelter or threatens their health, comfort or welfare
A. Pest C. Weed
B. Insect D. Pathogen
65. A serious pest species that occurs perennially & regularly limits crop productivity
A. Occasional pest C. Potential pest
B. Key pest D. Destructive pest
66. A pets that occurs at infrequent intervals and causes economic damage only at a certain time and place
A. Occasional pest C. Chronic pest
B. Key pest D. Potential pest
67. A kind of pest that has no significant damage under prevailing agro-ecosystem but might bring about damage with a change
in crop and cultural practices
A. Occasional pest C. Potential pest
B. Key pest D. Chronic pest
68. The relative amount of horrible qualities in plants that have influences the ultimate degree of damage by the pest.
A. Host plant resistance C. Tolerance
B. Insecticides resistance D. Antibiotics
69. The man- directed control of insect pest by employing the use of natural enemies
A. Mechanical control C. Biological control
B. Cultural control D. Autocidal control
70. A control method that utilizes suitable agronomic practices to reduce pest population
A. Mechanical control C. Biological control
B. Cultural control D. Genetic control
71. The farm given for crop destruction, injury or loss of value caused by the feeding activity of different pests.
A. Characteristics damage C. Threshold
B. Pest infestation D. Damage indicator
72. A kind of damage caused by the feeding of an insect through the removal of plant sap or plant in contrast with the damage
caused by the diseases-transmitting insects.
A. Indirect damage C. Damaged indicator
B. Direct damage D. Action method
73. The pest density at which artificial control measures should be applied to prevent pest population increase or pest outbreak
A. Economic injury level C. Economic threshold level
B. Equilibrium level D. Station level
74. An insect which carries and transmits a disease causing organism to a plan.
A. Predator C. Vector
B. Parasite D. Symbionts
75. A toxic substances which readily available and kills pest instantly
A. Insecticide C. Rodenticide
B. Pesticides D. Weedicide
76. An insect that feed on a number of unrelated species of plants
A. Polyphagous insect C. Monophagous insect
B. Phytophagous insect D. Entomophagous insect
77. A biological control agent that consumes many preys in its lifetime
A. Parasite C. Predator
B. Vector D. Symbionts

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78. The collective terms for parasitic and predatory insects
A. Phytophagous insect C. Polyphagous insect
B. Entomophagous insect D. Phagocytic insects
79. A biological control organism that lives inside the body of its host and consumes only one host to complete its life cycle
A. Parasite C. Vector
B. Predator D. Pathogen
80. The symptom of Stemborer damage during the reproductive stage of the rice plant characterized by the appearance of
whole panicles of unfilled grains
A. Deadheart C. Wilting
B. Whitehead D. Mosaic
81. The symptom of yellowing and wilting of the youngest leaf as a result of feeding by the Stemborer larvae during the
vegetative stage of the rice plant
A. Deadheart C. Leafrolling
B. Whitehead D. Rotting
82. The growth stage/s of the rice plant that is/are preferred by the rice bug
A. Negative stage C. Milk stage
B. Soft dough stage D. Both B & C
83. The most destructive avian pest that attacks rice and other small grains
A. Philippine weaver C. Philippine oriole
B. Philippine eagle D. Philippine bird
84. A vertebrate pest which is a perennial problem in crop production and which usually demands a unified, coordinated and
sustained community action for its effective control
A. Birds C. Rodents
B. Snakes D. Crocodile
85. A serious pest of corn that attacks all parts of the plants except the roots
A. Cutworm C. Corn-semi-looper
B. Cornstalk D. Corn-borer
86. A Homopteran insect pest that transmits the tungro virus
A. Brown planthopper C. Whitebacked planthopper
B. Green leafhopper D. Zigzag leafhopper
87. Substances, such as sex pheromones, that lure insect and can be used as a means of control
A. Anti-feedants C. Attractants
B. Repellants D. Chemo-sterilants
88. A group of rodenticides that are slow-acting and are usually referred to as anti-coagulants rodenticides
A. Insecticides resistance C. Insecticides threshold level
B. Overdose D. Insecticides mismanagement
89. The ability of populations of pest to survive doses of an insecticide which are normally lethal
A. Insecticide resistance C. Insecticide threshold level
B. Overdose D. Insecticide mismanagement
90. Synchronous planting is an example
A. Mechanical control C. Chemical control
B. Biological control D. Cultural control
91. The physical removal of insect pests from the infestation plants is a
A. Mechanical control C. Chemical control
B. Biological control D. Cultural control
92. The ability of a plant variety of withstand infestation and to support insect population that would otherwise damage
susceptible plants
A. Antibiosis C. Tolerance
B. Host evasion D. Non-preference

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 93. Includes all adverse effects exerted by the plant on the insect’s survival, development and reproduction
A. Antibiosis C. Tolerance
B. Host evasion D. Non-preferences
94. The toxic component of a pesticides
A. Diluent C. Active ingredient
B. Insert ingredients D. Surfactant
95. An insecticides that absorbed by the translocated in the plant and the insect acquire the poison through feeding
A. Contact insecticide C. Systemic insecticides
B. Stomach insecticides D. Surfactant
96. A liquid pesticides formulation that does not dissolved in water but is dissolved in organic solvents
A. Emulsifiable concentrate C. Aqueous concentrate
B. Dust D. Aerosol
97. A solid pesticides formulation applied undiluted where the active ingredient is combined with inert ingredients such as clay
to form particles about the size of course sugar
A. Dust C. Wettable powder
B. Water soluble powder D. Granule
98. Pesticide category symbolized by a red band and skull and crossbones
A. Category I C. Category III
B. Category II D. Category IV
99. Which is not an expression of active unit in pesticides labels?
A. Percent C. ml or g/liter
B. g/kg D. ppm
100. A usually accepted name given a pesticides by an appropriate professional organization
A. Trade name C. Propriety name
B. Common name D. Brand name

Section 2. Bacteriology

1. The shape of majority of plant of plant pathogenic bacteria

A. Sheprical C. helical
B. Rod-shape D. Filementous
2. Development the subsatge condenser for the microscope
A. Leewenhoek C. Abbe
B. Pasteur D. Hooke
3. Showed that fire blight of pear and twig blight of apple were caused by a bacterium
A. Erwin Frank Smith C. Martinus Willem
B. Demetri Iwanowski D. Thomas Jonathan Burrill
4. Causal agent of crown gall
A. Rhizobium Trifolii C. Pseudomonas syrinage pv. savastanoi
B. Agrobacterium tumefaciens D. Agrobacterium rhizogenes
5. Not among the five genera of phytopathogenic bacteria
A. Bacterium C. Pseudomonas
B. Xanthomonas D. Erwinia
6. Causal agent of soft rot of vegetables
A. Psuedomonas solanacearum C. Xanthomonas campestris pv. Campestris
B. Pectoberium carotovorum D. Pseudomonas synigae
7. Causal agentof bacterial wilt of tomato
A. Pectobacterium carotovorum C. Ralstonia solanacearum
B. Xanthomas vesicatoria D. Pseudomonas synringae pv. syrinage

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8. Causal agent of bacteria blight of rice
A. Xanthomonas oryzae pv. oryzicola C. Earwinia carotovora
B. Xanthomonas oryzae pv. oryzea D. Eawinia stewartii
9. Causes fire blight of apple pears
A. Erarwinia amylovora C. Earwinia carotovora
B. Earwinia chrysanthemi D. Earinia stewartii
10. Not found in the cell envelope of Gram positive bacteria
A. Inner cytoplasmic C. Peptidoglycan layer
B. Outer membrane D. Periplasmic space
11. Antibiotic that interferes with peptidogylycan synthesis and thereby prevents cell wall synthesis in growing bacteria cells
A. Kanamycin C. Penicillin
B. Cycloheximide D. Streptomycin
12. Bacterial surface appendage responsible for motility
A. cilia C. flagella
B. fimbriae D. pili
13. Main means of reproduction bacteria
A. budding C. binary fission
B. spore formation D. transverse fission
14. Missing in mollicutes
A. cell membrane C. cell wall
B. cytoplasm D. ribosomes
15. Flagellation pattern characterized by the presence of the a single flagellum
A. Peritrichloric C. amphitrichous
B. Monotrichous D. ploytrcihous
16. The genetic material of bacteria
A. hydrochloric acid C. phosphatidic acid
B. ribonucleic acid D. deoxyribonucleic acid
17. Where protein synthesis occurs
A. lysosome C. mesosomes
B. ribosome D. chromosome
18. Contains the genetic material
A. Mesosome C. ribosome
B. Chromosome D. lysosome
19. Where cellular respiration occurs in bacteria
A. cell membrane C. mitochondria
B. chloroplast D. ribosome
20. Five-carbon sugar component of DNA
A. Ribose C. maltose
B. deoxyribose D. dextrose
21. the two purine nucleotides in DNA
A. adenine and thymine C. cytosine and guanine
B. adenine and guanine D. arginine and guanine
22. The two pyrimidine nucleotides in RNA
A. Cytosine and thymine C. adenine and thymine
B. Cytosine and uracil D. adenine and uracil
23. Provides structural integrity to the cell
A. cell wall C. cell membrane
B. cytoplasm D. nucleus

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24. Regulates the transport of materials into and out of the cell
A. cell wall C. cell membrane
B. cytoplasm D. nucleus
25. Type of ribosomes present in a bacterial cell
A. 80S C. 30S
B. 50S D. 70S
26. Filamentous bacteria
A. Bacillus C. Sterptomyces
B. Clostridium D. Earwinia
27. Bacteria devoid of cell wall
A. Mollicutes C. Firmicutes
B. Gracilicutes D. Mendosicutes
28. The building blocks of proteins
A. fatty acids C. Firmicutes
B. peptides D. Mendosicutes
29. The building blocks of polysaccharides
A. Disasaccharides C. monosacchararides
B. Glucose D. carbohydrates
30. Metabolic pathway that converts glucose to pyruvate
A. Glycolysis C. hydrolysis
B. Gluconeogenesis D. photosynthesis
31. Also called the Citric Acid Cycle
A. ketoglutaric acid cycle C. tricarboxylic acid cycle
B. fumaric acid cycle D. succinic acid cycle
32. Organism that can use carbon dioxide as their sole principle source of carbon
A. autothrops C. heterothrops
B. lithotrops D. organotrops
33. Organism that use reduced, performed organic molecules as carbon source
A. autotrops C. heterotrops
B. prototrops D. auxotrops
34. A micronutrient that is needed by the bacteria in small amount
A. Carbon C. nitrogen
B. Manganese D. phosphorus
35. A stage in the bacterial growth phase characterized by the exponential
A. lag phase C. stationary phase
B. logarithmic phase D. death phase
36. The basic unit bacterial classification
A. Kingdom C. Pathovar
B. Family D. Biovar
37. A group with a pathogen species that effects a set of different varieties
A. species C. bacteriophage
B. race D. macrophage
38. A virus that infects bacteria
A. prophage C. bacteriophage
B. baculovirus D. macrophage
39. the sequence of events that give rise to desease
A. pathogenesis C. saprogenesis
B. disease cycle D. pathogen cycle

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40. Stage of pathogenesis that involves that transfer of the inoculum from a source into the infection court
A. penetration C. infection
B. establishment D. inoculation
41. Openings in the epidermis by the two specialized epidermal cells
A. Stomates C. lenticels
B. Hydathodes D. nectaries
42. Natural openings in the stem and root surface
A. stomates C. lenticels
B. hydathodes D. nectaries
43. External secretory structure where water from the interior of the leaf is discharged to the leaf surface
A. stomates C. lenticels
B. hydathodes D. nectaries
44. Extrafloral structure that secrete a surgary liquid
A. stomates C. lenticels
B. hydathodes D. nectaries
45. A microbial product other than an enzymes which causes obvious damage to plant tissues, and which reasonable is known
with reasonable confidence to be involved in disease development
A. phytoalexin C. cutin
B. giberillin D. suberin
46. Hyperauxiny is the accumulation of usually high concentration of
A. cytokinin C. ethylene
B. giberillin D. indole acetic acid
47. Hormone involved in fruit ripening
A. cytokinin C. ethylene
B. giberillin D. indole acetic acid
48. Clustering of roots, flowers, fruits or twigs around a common focus
A. hyperthropy C. hyperplasia
B. epinasty D. fasciation
49. A plant overgrowth due to abnormal cell enlargement
A. hyperthropy C. hyperplasia
B. epinasty D. fasciation
50. A plant overgrowth due to increase cell division
A. hyperthropy C. hyperplasia
B. epinasty D. fasciation
51. Yellowing caused by some factor other than light, such as infection by a virus or a mycoplasma
A. gummonis C. cholorosis
B. cholorophyllosis D. Variegation
52. Caused by hypertrophy and hyperplasia of meristematic and parenchymatous tisues
A. canker C. scab
B. gall D. blight
53. A general necrosis caused by the rapid growth and advance of the causal bacterial through leaves and stems
A. wilt C. blight
B. blast D. rot
54. Overgrowth of the protoplast of adjacent living parenchymatous cells, which parotrude into xylem vessels through pits
A. Gums C. abscission
B. tyloses D. cork layers
55. The severity of bacterial leaf blight in hybrid rice seeds production has been hastened by the clipping of the flag leaf of one of
the parents. Why is this so?
A. Clipping produces wounds that serve as bacterial entry points

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 B. Clipping disrupts physiological processes in the plant
C. Clipping reduces photosynthetic rate
D. All of the above
56. Potato scab is caused by the pathogen
A. Ralstonia solanacearum C. Erwinia amylovora
B. Xylella fastidiosa D. Streptomyces scabies
57. A common media used for bacterial isolation is
A. PDA C. PDPA
B. TZCA D. none of the above
58. Bacterial isolation can be accomplished using the
A. Bearmann Funnel Technique
B. Tissue Planting Technique
C. Streak Plate Method
D. Slide Culture Technique
59. Which of the following crops can be possible host for Ralstonia solanacearum?
A. Banana C. rice
B. Poatato D. eggplant
60. The soft rot bacteria produces___________ which makes it able to degrade the middle lamella and cause lysis of the cell
contents.
A. Peroxidasses C. pacetinases
B. Catalase D. amylase
61. Type of flagellation of Earinia species
A. monotrichanous C. lopotrichous
B. pentrichous D. amphitrichous
62. Common bacterial plant pathogen in the Phillipines that produced yellow and mucoid colonies in ordinary culture nedia.
A. Pseudomonas C. Ralstonia
B. Xanthomonas D. Agrobacterium
63. Common isolation method of bacterial plant pathogen from plant tissues
A. streaking C. staining
B. tissue planting D. baiting
64. Causal agent of bugtok and moko diseases of banana.
A. Fusarium oxyporum C. Fusarium oxysporum
B. Pectobacterium carotovorum D. Ralstonia solanacearum
65. Citrus greening or motting is now believed to be caused by a:
A. Phytoplasm C. fungus
B. bacterium D. virus

Section 3. MYCOLOGY

1. Fungal mycelium appearing on rotten frit is a

A. Symptom C. pathogen
B. Sign D. disease
2. Mummification of fruits is an example of
A. sign C. symptom
B. suscept D. host
3. A disease plant is an
A. pathogen C. suscept
B. parasite D. abiotic

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4. May not cause disease in plants
A. Abiotic factor C. Infectious agent
B. Parasites D. worms
5. The corn disease incited by Bipolaris maydis may be controlled by
A. Insecticides C. fungicides
B. Antibiotic D. miticides
6. Aflatoxin is formed by
A. Aspergillus flavus C. Aspargillus scabies
B. Aspergillus rhizopus D. Aspargillus ipomeae
7. Fungi in the Philippines reproduced mainly by forming
A. sexual spores C. mycelia
B. asexual spores D. endosperm
8. Fungal pathogen are often isolated by
A. Serial dilution C. spore trappling
B. Tissue planting D. Bearmann funnel
9. Quiescent or latent infection is often associated with
A. soft rot disease C. bligths
B. die-back D. anthracnose
10. Bacteria cannot enter the host plant through
A. Stomata C. lenticels
B. Hydathodes D. infact host surface
11. Group of microorganism that can directly penetrate the intact host surface
A. fungi C. viruses
B. bacteria D. viriods
12. Fungal structure used for attachment to the host surface
A. penetration peg C. haustorium
B. germ tube D. appression
13. Some fungal pathogens from this structure to obtain nutrients from host
A. Germ tube C. infection hypa
B. Sporeling D. haustrium
14. In the absence of plants in field, fungal pathogens will not survive in
A. Plant debris C. seeds
B. Soil D. human beings
15. Characteristics of fungi
A. Eukaryotic C. chorophyllous
B. Prokaryotic D. photosynthetic
16. Not source of pathogen inoculum
A. soil C. plant debris
B. infected D. uninfected plant
17. The presence of different nuclei in the same mycelium is
A. heterotrophism C. heterokarysis
B. hermaphrodite D. heterothallism
18. Example of sexual spores are
A. Zoospores C. chlamydospores
B. Uredospores D. ascospores
19. Examples of asexual spores are
A. Teliospores C. oospores
B. Zygospores D. conidia

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20. The walls of fungi generally contain
A. Chitin C. chitin and glucan
B. Glucan D. pectin
21. Clearly demonstrate that fungi are cause, and not the result of plant disease
A. De bary C. Kuhn
B. Prevost D. Burril
22. Dean of Filipino Plant Pathogenesis
A. Gonzales C. Teodoro
B. Ocfemia D. Orillo
23. A common symptom of disease caused by fungi
A. Mosaic C. spot
B. Sarcody D. yellowing
24. Signs that do not indicate fungal infection
A. Mycelial tuffs C. sclerotia
B. Aflatoxin D. gummosis
25. Fungi like Aspergillus flavus and A. parasiticus inflecting cereal and legume seeda produced a carcinogenic toxin which is
A. mycotoxin C. fomonisin
B. aflatoxin D. tabtoxin
26. Which among the following phly belongs to the kingdom of true fungi
A. Oomycota C. Myxoymycota
B. Zygomycota D. Plasmodiophoromycota
27. Fungi belonging to Class Oomycetes are commonly called the
A. Rust fungi C. powdery mildew fungi
B. Plasmadiophoroid fungi D. downy mildewfungi
28. A known non-spore forming fungus is
A. Fusarium C. Rhizoctonia
B. Aspergillus D. Phyricularia
29. The sexual stage of fungi is also known as the
A. Pleomorph stage C. teliomorph stage
B. Anamorph stage D. holomorph stage
30. A fungus inocula that initiate rust disease outbreak in the tropics are the
A. Uredospores C. basidiospores
B. Teliospores D. aesciospores
31. A fungal merely covering the surface of the plant without necessarily parasitizing it
A. Sooty mold C. powderly mold
B. Slime mold D. grey mold
32. A group of substances secreted by pathogens that interfere with the permeability of protoplast membrane
A. enzymes C. toxins
B. growth regulators D. suppressors
33. Fungi that only produced asexually
A. Ascomycetes C. Deuternycetes
B. Zygomycetes D. Basidiomycetes
34. In a life cycle of physical of typical myxomycete, the muxamoeba are usually formed during
A. Dry condition C. hot condition
B. Humid condition D. sunny condition
35. The naming of newly discovered fungal species is based commonly on
A. Location C. distinct structural character
B. Host D. well-known mycologist

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36. Non-parasitic fungi which are present on plant parts with deposits of insects, particularly aphids and scale insects.
A. Downy mildew fungi C. sooty mold fungi
B. Powdery mildew fungi D. slime molds
37. Growth of germ towards host or substances may be due to chemicals. This condition is
A. thigmotropism C. chemotropism
B. phototropism D. aerotropism
38. Phylogenetic classification of fungi is based on
A. Character sets C. hyphal arrangement
B. Ultrastructural sets D. evolutionary relationship
39. A subgroup within a species usually characterized by the common possession of a single or few new characters
A. Biotype C. strain
B. Race D. formae species
40. A fungal insect parasite
A. Metarrhizium C. Gilmaniella
B. Curvularia D. Choanepora
41. The most common infectious agent of plant disease
A. bacteria C. nematodes
B. fungi D. phanerogams
42. Sigatoka is a fungal disease of
A. mango C. citrus
B. banana D. rice
43. The causal agent of mango anthracnose is
A. Lasiodiplodia theobromae
B. Sphaceloma fawcetti
C. Diplodia natalensis
D. Colletotrichum gloeosporioides
44. Peronosclerospora Philippines is the causal agent of
A. downy mildew of corn C. downy mildew of crucifer
B. downy mildew of grapes D. downy mildew of cucurbits
45. The causal agent of corn rust is
A. Uromyces phaseoli C. Puccina polysora
B. Bipolaris maydis D. Ustilago maydis-zeae
46. Gibberella fujikuroi is the causal agent of
A. rice blast C. rice sheath blight
B. bakanae of rice D. brown spot
47. Rice fungal disease that caused the Bengal famine in 1943
A. rice blast C. brown spot
B. rice tungro D. sheath blight
48. Fungal disease that destroyed that the coffee industry of Batangas
A. rust C. Fusarium wilt
B. twig blight D. Sclerotium rot
49. Fungal pathogens that do not produced any spores
A. Oidium and Clasdosdium
B. Rhizoctonia and Sclerotium
C. Fusarium and Helminthosporium
D. Calletotrichum and Gloeosporium
50. Which is not in Koch’s postulates?
A. association C. inoculation
B. isolation D. colonization

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 51. Effective seed treatment fungicide against corn downy mildew
A. mancozeb C. captan
B. metalaxyl D. benomyl
52. Color band of highly toxic pesticides
A. Blue C. yellow
B. Red D. green

Section 4. NEMATOLOGY
1. The only plant pathogen belonging to animal kingdom
A. aphids C. nematodes
B. earthworms D. mole crickets
2. This nematodes is known as the root knot nematodes and is considered as the most destructive to worldwide agriculture.
A. Meloidogyne C. Trichodorus
B. Xiphinema D. Radopholus
3. This nematode is known as the burrowing nematode and is a major parasite of bananas and plantains causing the “topping
disease”.
A. Meloidogyne incognita C. Trichodorus primitivus
B. Xiphinema index D. Radopholus similis
4. Some nematodes are able to transmit plant viruses. What role do these nematodes paly in disease development?
A. Incitants C. Pathogens
B. Vector D. Parasites
5. Some nematodes alter host physiology, rendering a resistant crop susceptible to innovation of fungal or bacterial pathogens.
What role do these nematodes play in disease development?
A. Incitants C. Pathogens
B. Vectors D. Parasites
6. For annual crops, the maximum number layer covering the nematode parasites can be recovered during.
A. Fallow period C. Flowering stage
B. Vegetative stage D. Near harvest stage
7. This is outer non-cellular layer covering the nematode body and is shed-off during molting.
A. exoskeleton C. endoskeleton
B. skin D. cuticle
8. This/These feeding structure/s distinguish/es plant parasitic from non-plant parasitic nematodes.
A. stylet C. mural tooth
B. denticles D. all of the above
9. For the root and cyst nematodes, this is also known as the infective stage
A. adult female C. 2nd stage juvenile
B. 1 stage juvenile
st D. 4th stage juvenile
10. Where are eggs of root-knot nematodes deposited?
A. Inside body of females C. outside the root
B. In a gelatinous matrix D. migration path
11. What is the typical life cycle of Meloidogyne incognita?
A. migratory ectoparasite C. migratory endoparasite
B. sedentary ectoparasite D. sedentary endoparasite
12. Which of the following root symptoms should raise suspicion of a nematode problem?
A. galls or swelling C. leaf spot
B. wilting D. chlorosis
13. Which of the following is not typical of nematode injury to plants?
A. mechanical damage to cells
B. death of plants
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 C. virus transmission
D. death of cells
14. Plant parasitic nematodes are diagnosed by examining
A. soil and roots C. fruits
B. leaves D. stems
15. The typical number of juvenile stages in the life cycle of a nematode is
A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5
16. Nematodes which produce eggs that hatch after being laid are called
A. parthenogenetic C. oviparous
B. hermaphroditic D. ovoviviparous
17. Nematode species which require the presence of both females and males for reproduction to occur are called
A. amphimitic C. hermaphroditic
B. parthenogenetic D.ovoviviparous
18. Process of reproducing from eggs without fertilization by sperm cells is called
A. amphimictic C. hermaphroditic
B. parthenogenetic D. oviparous
19. Possessing both functional male and female reproductive organs is
A. amphimictic C. hermaphroditic
B. parthenogenetic D. none of the above
20. In some genera of plant parasitic nematodes like Meloidogyne, Globodera, Heterodera, etc., males and females have entirely
different morphology. How is this phenomenon called?
A. sexual degeneration C. sexual diversity
B. sexual mutation D. sexual dimorphism
21. If juveniles and adults are motile and outside of roots during life cycle stages a plant parasitic nematode is a /an
A. migratory ectoparasite C. direct parasite
B. migratory endoparasite D. indirect parasite
22. If juveniles and adults are motile during all life cycle stages but may be either within or inside of roots a plant parasitic
nematode is a /an
A. migratory ectoparasite C. direct parasite
B. migratory endoparasite D. indirect parasite
23. If an infective stage juvenile enters a root, takes up a feeding site and remains at that site a plant parasitic nematode is a /an
A. direct parasite C. sedentary endoparasite
B. indirect parasite D. sedentary ectoparasite
24. Education, quarantine, using certified planting materials, checking suspect materials before planting, and cleaning equipment,
are examples of what type of management of plant parasitic nematodes
A. prevention C. eradication
B. protection D. immunization
25. Crop rotation, using resistant varieties, fallowing, using cover crops, and varying the date of planting and harvest are examples
of what type of management of plant parasitic nematodes
A. biological C. physical
B. cultural D. chemical
26. The most widely used category of chemicals for management of plant parasitic nematodes has traditionally been
A. mebendazoles C. fumigants
B. carbamates D. natural products
27. A broad spectrum gaseous chemical used for management of plant parasitic nematodes that is thought to be damaging to the
ozone layer is
A. metam-sodium C. methyl bromide
B. carbamate D. all of the above

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28. The practice of incorporating fresh plants or plant materials onto the soil as a mean to control plant parasitic nematodes is
called
A. biological control C. fallowing
B. biofumigation D. organic fertilization
29. What is the main compound present in some species of Tagetes that repels and/ or suppress certain plant parasitic
nematodes?
A. alpha terthienyl C. isothiocyanate
B. beta-ocimene D. all of the above
30. What is the practice of leaving the farm unplanted for certain period, thus, depriving the nematodes of their hosts which brings
their population into a significantly low level?
A. crop rotation C. sanitation
B. fallowing D. solarization
31. The following are except for one are responsible for nematode control by incorporating fresh chicken dung into infested soils.
A. It harbors lots of microorganisms that may be parasitic to nematodes
B. It generates heat during decomposition
C. It increases soil fertility
D. It imparts toxic compounds
32. In the Philippines, BIOACT and BIOCON are commercial products of a fungus that parasitizes Meloidogyne spp., Radopholus
similis, Rotylenchulus reniformis, etc. What is that fungus?
A. Paecilomyces lilacinus
B. Verticillium chlamydosporium
C. Arthrobotrys oligospora
D. Rhizoctonia solani
33. What is the common pattern of nematode spatial distribution in a field?
A. random C. uniform
B. patchy D. none of the above
34. Which of the following facilities long-distance spread of nematodes?
A. water
B. drainage
C. infected seeds/ bulbs/ corms
D. soil particles adhering on farm equipment
35. In what order does the most of the important genera of plant parasitic nematodes belong?
A. Triplonchida C. Tylenchida
B. Dorylaimida D. Aphelenchida
36. What is the most preferred site for root penetration of infective stage of Meloidogyne spp.?
A. root cap C. zone of differentiation
B. zone of elongation D. zone of maturation
37. What soil texture is generally most preferred by plant parasitic nematodes?
A. sandy C. silty
B. clayey D. muddy
38. Which life stage of the nematode will not be killed by a systemic nematicide?
A. eggs C. females feeding inside the roots
B. juveniles D. Females feeding on the root surface
39. Hot water treatment is a very practical method of controlling nematodes that are possibly harbored by planting materials, thus
preventing their introduction to a new locality. The following planting materials can be subjected to this procedure EXCEPT for
A. seed potato C. rice seeds
B. banana corm D. onion bulb
40. In nematology, a variety is said to be resistant if it
A. Produce good yield despite of high level of nematode infestation

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 B. Suppresses the multiplication of nematodes
C. Supports multiplication of nematodes
D. Leaves of plants appear normal
41. A variety is said to be tolerant if
A. Produce good yield despite of high level of nematode infestation
B. Suppress the multiplication of nematodes
C. Does not show symptoms
D. Low levels of nematode population
42. The permanent nurse cells induced by ROOT KNOT NEMATODES in roots are called
A. galls C. giant cells
B. syncytia D. nodules
43. The permanent nurse cells induced by CYST NEMATODES in roots are called
A. root galls C. giant cells
B. syncytia D. root nodules
44. Tylenchulus semipenetrans is the most widespread and serious nematode pest of citrus in the Philippines. What citrus disorder
is caused by this nematode?
A. citrus decline C. toppling disease of citrus
B. citrus tristeza D. citrus root rot
45. Which of the following is NOT true about the nature of plant parasitic nematodes?
A. Worm-shaped except for females of some genera may infect a single host
B. Two or more species/ genera may infect at a single host
C. Parasitizes plants but in their absence, may feed on soil fungi and bacteria
D. Needs a thin film of water for movement
46. Consider the disease complex situation between Pratylenchus sp. (a nematode) and Fusarium sp. (a soilborne fungal
pathogen) illustrated below. Which of the statements below is NOT correct?

A. Pratylenchus is the more important pathogen

B. Pratylenchus broke-down the resistance of the plant to Fusarium
C. It would be necessary to control both Fusarium and Pratylenchus.
D. It would be enough to control only Pratylenchus

Section 5. General Plant Virology

1. Which of the following methods primarily determines a biological property of a plant virus?
A. ease of inoculation
B. shape and size of its particle
C. positive reaction of certain stains
D. positive reaction of certain hosts
2. A plant virus is not stable when
A. its infectivity is retained even with harsh environments
B. it infects only one host
C. it has a vector
D. it has a wide host range

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3. In polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis, the smaller/ shorter species of proteins and nucleic acids
A. occupy the upper (top) part of the gel
B. occupy the bottom part of the gel
C. remain stationary
D. occupies the middle part of the gel
4. Which of the following is true of non-persistent viruses?
A. infects and multiplies in specific tissues/cells of the host
B. is transmitted by both aphids and leafhoppers
C. its vectors loss the ability to transmit them after molting
D. its vectors do not loss the ability to transmit the virus after molting
5. A plant infected with a virus and shows severe symptoms, high virus concentration in it but shows no significant reduction in its
yield is considered
A. Susceptible C. tolerant
B. Resistant D. semi-tolerant
6. In general, plants infected with persistent viruses shows symptoms that are mostly
A. dwarfing/stunting and mosaics/mottles
B. dwarfing/stunting and leaf curls/cupping
C. dwarfing/stunting and yellowing/chlorosis
D. dwarfing/stunting and leaf fall
7. Who among the scientists named below is considered the Father of Virology?
A. Berkeley C. Newton
B. Beijerinck D. Galileo
8. The shape of the virus particle is a stable characteristic. Which of the following is not known shape of the plant viruses?
A. rod C. geminae
B. spherical D. triangle
9. An example of a rod shaped plant virus is
A. tobacco mosaic C. banana bunchy to
B. rice tungro D. citrus tristeza virus
10. A virus is different from viroid in that the viroid is composed of
A. single stranded circular RNA and a protein coat
B. single stranded RNA alone with extensive base pairing
C. single stranded DNA alone with extensive base pairing
D. single stranded circular DNA and a protein coat
11. Pioneering experiments that laid the foundations of virology as a discipline of biology were those by
A. Shepherd and co-workers
B. Stanley, Markham and Smith
C. Schramm, Frankael-Conrat and Williams
D. Mayer, Iwanowski and Beijerinck
12. The early works on plant diseases due to viruses were based on the simple fact that they are
A. very infectious and cause mosaic/mottle symptoms
B. very infectious and very small
C. are transmitted by aphids
D. associated with leafhoppers
13. The plant viruses have been labeled as genetic parasites in that they….
A. take over the genetic machinery of their host cells for their own reproduction
B. allow continuous and uncontrolled division of their host cells
C. take over the DNA of their host cells and package it as their own
D. use the enzymes of the host for their assembly into particles

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14. The most important group of vectors of plant viruses, both in terms of number of the viruses they transmit and the economic
importance of the diseases these viruses cause, is the
A. hoppers C. aphids
B. whiteflies D. Beetles
15. A number of economically important virus diseases have been ravaging crops in the Philippines. Which of the following is not a
virus disease?
A. rice tungro C. abaca/banana bunchy to
B. papaya ring spot D. coconut cadang-cadang
16. Virus genome organization means the arrangement of the
A. nucleic acid with its protein coat
B. amino acids in all its coat proteins
C. various genes along the whole nucleic acid strand
D. sugars with its coat protein
17. In plant viruses having a double stranded nucleic acid genomes, which of the following is/are not true?
A. strands are held together by hydrogen bonds
B. strands are in opposite polarities
C. thymine or uracyl pairs with adenine
D. strands are held together by nitrogen bonds
18. Which of the following would contribute highly to a fast characterization of a plant virus? It being
A. a virus with known physical properties in vitro
B. transmitted only by certain species of a vector
C. infects specialized cells of its host
D. easily mechanically transmitted
19. The biological properties of a virus are reflected through infectivity assays. In this type of assay…
A. only purified viruses can be tested
B. both purified and viruses in sap can be tested
C. only infectious particles cause infections
D. both infectious and non-infectious particles necessary for infection
20. Plant viruses with genomes, whether composed of one or more than one strand, enclosed in a single coat protein is a
A. helper virus C. monocomponent virus
B. dependent virus D. satellite virus
21. From the site of inoculation, plant viruses spread through the plant in a slow cell-to-cell spread through the
A. stomata C. plasmodesmata
B. xylem D. phloem
22. Which of the following is a barrier to virus movement through the plant
A. movement from the first infected cell
B. movement out of parenchyma cells into vascular tissues
C. movement out of the vascular tissue into the parenchyma of an invaded leaf
D. movement out of the stylet of the vector among epidermal cells of the plant
23. The survival and spread of certain plant viruses depend on
A. amount of virus produced in infected tissues
B. its degree of stability
C. persistence in its vector
D. all of the above
24. Which virus would most likely survive?
A. a virus that kills its host plants with a rapidly developing
B. a virus that causes only mild or moderate disease that allows the plant to survive and reproduce effectively
C. a virus that will not infect and cause any disease
D. a virus not does not replicate in plants

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25. Which of the following would not contribute to plant virus disease epidemics
A. presence of active and mobile vectors
B. planting of susceptible hosts
C. monocropping
D. multicropping
26. Roguing as a virus disease control strategy is worthwhile or effective if disease spread
A. is occurring rapidly relative to the lifetime of the crop
B. is occurring slowly relative to the lifetime of the crop
C. is occurring simultaneously on several hosts
D. is occurring at random
27. A seed infected with a virus is an important source of infection since the seed introduces
A. the virus into the crop at a very early stage
B. a concentrated foci of infection throughout the crop
C. the virus into the crop at all stages of the crop
D. the virus into the crop at a late stage
28. When a virus preparation is treated with mild alkali (0.3 M NaOH), the following biomolecules would be are expected to be
cleaved…
A. Proteins C. RNAs
B. DNAs D. polysaccharides
29. A virus preparation which is not so pure (i.e. contains host components) when used to immunize a rabbit, the rabbit will
A. produce antibodies against the virus
B. produce antibodies of the host plant component only
C. produce antibodies to both the virus and host component
D. not produce any antibody
30. Which of the following is a form of susceptible response by the plant to a virus infection?
A. production of local lesions
B. relatively fast appearance of severe symptoms
C. slow virus multiplication and spread in it
D. slow appearance of symptoms
31. Which of the following is true of a virus as an antigen?
A. induces the production of antibodies and reacts specifically to the antibodies
B. should react to all antibodies produced
C. induces only the production of antibodies in a warm-blooded animal
D. not recognized by antibodies in immunized animals
32. The early definitions of a virus mentioned which of the following characteristic?
A. as obligate parasites
B. possession of RNA as genome
C. smaller than the pore size of bacterial filters
D. cause mosaic symptoms
33. The virus capsid are made up of subunits called
A. coat proteins C. polypeptides
B. amino acids D. capsomeres
34. DNA and RNA are the two types of nucleic acids in viruses. These nucleic acids can best be differentiated on which of the
following?
A. nitrogen bases C. phosphate groups
B. sequence D. length
35. The main components of plant viruses are
A. DNA + glycoprotein + lipids
B. Transfer RNA + protein + lipids

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 C. glyconucleoprotein + lipids
D. either DNA or RNA + protein
36. The structural component of plant viruses is the one assembled to be the capsid while the nonstructural proteins are those
that…
A. protect the nucleic acid genome
B. mediate replication of the genome
C. determine the type of relationship with its vector
D. protect another protein
37. Which of the following mediates the synthesis of RNA from a viral RNA template?
A. DNA dependent DNA polymerase
B. DNA dependent RNA polymerase
C. RNA dependent RNA polymerase
D. RNA dependent DNA polymerase
38. The study of the reaction of the antibody and antigen in vitro is called
A. Immunology C. serology
B. Hematology D. virology
39. Which of the following fungus is not known to include species as vectors of plant viruses?
A. Olpidium spp. C. Spongaspora spp.
B. Phytophthora spp. D. Plasmodiophora spp.
40. With the use of insecticides to control a persistently transmitted plant virus, the following is/are not expected effect/s
A. reduction of total inoculum
B. reduction of disease spread
C. reduction of total insect vector population
D. no reduction of disease spread
41. Which of the following should not be considered in identifying or classifying a plant virus
A. genomic organization C. shape of particle
B. type of nucleic acid D. organization of protein
42. A persistently transmitted virus
A. induces foliar symptoms such as mosaic, stunting or dwarfing
B. is lost by the vector after a few seconds to minutes of vector probing/feeding
C. usually has no latent period
D. has a long latent period
43. A virus that does not persist in its insect vector
A. infects specialized cells such as those in the vascular system
B. is transmitted after several hours to a few days of vector probing/feeding
C. is not lost after molting of the vector
D. is lost after molting of the vector

Section 6. Management of Plant Diseases

1. Integrated Pest Management does not encourage

A. Combination of two or more control measures
B. Optimization of control methods
C. Utilization of natural mortality factors
D. Frequent, non-judicious use of pesticides
2. Refers to the ability to endure pest attack without suffering from significant loss of yield
A. tolerance C. non-preference
B. antibiosis D.hypersensitive

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3. Pest control method that includes tactics causing pests to contribute to the destruction of their own species
A. Autocidal Control C. Behavioral Control
B. Biological Control D. Genetic control
4. It is a type of host resistance where insects exhibit abnormal development when they feed on resistant host.
A. Non-preference C. Antibiosis
B. Tolerance D. Horizontal resistance
5. Refers to the control of pest by living organisms under either natural or artificial circumstances.
A. Cultural Control C. Behavioral Control
B. Biological Control D. mechanical control
6. Refers to pest whose population equilibrium is always above the economic threshold level.
A. Key pests C. Potential pests
B. Occasional pests D. Minor pests
7. Refers to the level of pest population or injury, which indicates potential danger.
A. Economic Threshold Level
B. Economic Injury Level
C. Warning Threshold Level
D. Action Threshold Level
8. Principle of crop protection where the host is manipulated to resist pest attack
A. Protection C. Immunization
B. Host evasion D. Avoidance
9. Interaction between two organisms where both are adversely affected is called
A. competition C. amensalism
B. parasitism D. symbiosis
10. It is a phase in the sequential development of crop protection (according to Smith, 1969) which is characterized by serious pest
outbreaks due to excessive use of pesticides and finally the collapse of pest control program
A. Crisis Phase C. Exploitation Phase
B. Integrated Pest Control D. Disaster Phase
11. Which of the following is an autotroph?
A. weed C. insect pest
B. plant pathogen D. parasite or predator
12. Which of these are density-independent mortality factors
A. parasites C. food supply
B. predators D. drought
13. A concoction of lime, copper sulfate and water which had been accidentally found to possess fungicidal activity
A. lime sulfur C. copper fungicide
B. Bordeaux mixture D. Paris Green
14. The principle of pest exclusion means
A. getting rid of a pest once it is introduced in an area
B. killing pest inside host
C. keeping pest away from the host
D. shielding host from pest through physical or chemical means
15. It refers to the population or injury level of pest where a pest control method should be initiated in order to prevent significant
economic loss
A. economic injury level (EIL) C. warning threshold level
B. economic threshold level D. damage threshold level
16. The following attributes of modern agriculture aggravates pest and disease problems
A. continuous monoculture
B. use of high yielding varieties (HYVs)
C. excessive use of chemical inputs

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 D. all of the above
17. Legal actions intended to exclude potential pests and to prevent spread of those already present
A. eradication C. suppression
B. containment D. quarantine
18. Which of the following is not an insecticide
A. Endrin C. Cypermethrine
B. Malathrin D. Permithrin
19. Which of the following is a systemic fungicide
A. Metalaxyl C. Mancozeb
B. Captain D. Chlorothalonil
20. Which of the following crop is a heavy user of fungicide worldwide
A. Grape C. Banana
B. Apple D. Citrus
21. Which of these pesticide groups is excessively used in the Philippines
A. Fungicide C. Herbicides
B. Insecticides D. Nematicides
22. Effective physical pest control action
A. Bagging C. Herding
B. Hand picking D. Flooding
23. It is a biological control product against pests
A. Katol C. Methyl Eugenol
B. Dipel D. Off
24. It is a biological control product against weed
A. Dipel C. Kodiak
B. Gallex D. Devine
25. Which of the following is a contact herbicide
A. 2-4 D C. Paraquat
B. Glyphosate D. Butachlor
26. Physical pest control method required to eliminate fruit flies on mango and papaya for export to Japan.
A. Fungicides C. Herbicides
B. Insecticides D. Nematicides
27. Which of these pesticide groups is excessively used worldwide?
A. Fungicides C. Herbicides
B. Insecticides D. Nematicides
28. Sustainable agriculture shall mean any method or practice that aims to make agriculture:
A. economically viable C. socially just
B. ecologically sound D. all of the above
29. A phase in the development of crop protection which is characterized by the use of traditional varieties and natural pest control
methods.
A. Disaster phase C. Exploitation phase
B. Crisis phase D. Subsistence Phase
30. A recommendation calls for 1 gm active ingredient (a.i.) of metalaxyl per kg of corn seeds. If Apron 50 SD (formulated product)
contains 50% metalaxyl, how much Apron 50 SD per 100 li of water, what is the concentration or strength of the finished spray
in ppm?
A. 100 C. 500
B. 1000 D. 5000
31. If Sevin 50 WP is recommended for leafhopper control at the rate of 100 gm Sevin 50 WP per 100 li of water, what is the
concentration or strength of the finished spray in ppm?
A. 100 C. 500

Page 25 of 38
 B. 1000 D. 5000
32. Given the application rate of 100 gm Sevin 50WP per 100 liter of water, what is the concentration or strength of the finished
spray in percent a.i.?
A. 0.01 C. 0.05
B. 0.10 D. 0.005
33. Given the application rate of 100 gm Sevin 50WP per 100 liter water, what is the recommended rate of application in table spoon
(tbs) per 16 liters of water (1 tbsp=10g)?
A. 1.6 tbs C. 16 tbs
B. 3 tbs D. 6 tbs
34. The interaction between two organisms where one party is benefited while the other is adversely affected is called.
A. competition C. amensalism
B. parasitism D. mutualism
35. A type of cultural practice which tend to reduce both the initial pest population or sources of infestation and reproductive ability of
the pests.
A. crop rotation C. tillage
B. pruning D. furrowing
36. The principle of immunization is achieved through
A. providing chemical or physical barrier
B. application of pesticides
C. improving the nutrition of the host
D. pruning infected plant parts
37. The discovery of DDT is considered as one of the major events in the history of crop protection. When was DDT discovered?
A. 1959 C. 1935
B. 1937 D. 1939
38. It is considered as pest of quarantine interest in Palawan
A. Mango seed weevil
B. Mango pulp weevil
C. Mango weevil
D. Asiatic Palm weevil
39. A rite traditionally performed by the Romans to appease the goddess associated with cereal rust disease is
A. Robigus C. Robigalion
B. Robigalia D. Robicon
40. Comprises the total complex of organism in a cropped area together with all aspects of the environment as modified by the
activities of man.
A. Ecosystem C. agroecosystem
B. Pathosystem D. crop system
41. The study of disease development in plant populations is called ________.
A. Epidemiology C. Phytopathology
B. Etiology D. Endemicity
42. Which of the following is a factor involved in disease production?
A. plant susceptibility and pathogen virulence
B. duration and intensity of various environmental factors
C. intervention measures by man
D. all of the above
43. An epidemic is more likely to occur when
A. there is monocropping of a single variety over a wide area
B. plants are predisposed by excessive fertilization or injuries
C. the environment is favorable for disease development
D. all of the above

Page 26 of 38
44. The prevention of a new pathogen from being introduced into a locality where it is currently unknown to occur is the principle of
A. Protection C. Eradication
B. Exclusion D. Immunization
45. Establishment of physical or chemical barriers to avoid contact of the pathogen and the crop is the principle of
A. Exclusion C. Protection
B. Eradication D. Immunization
46. The principle that aims to eliminate pathogens that have become established in an area
A. Exclusion C. Protection
B. Eradication D. Immunization
47. Modification of certain physiological features of the host so that it can repel infection, as in breeding for disease resistance
A. Exclusion C. Protection
B. Eradication D. Immunization
48. A highly effective fungicide accidentally discovered by Pierre Marie Alexis Millardet in October 1982 is
A. Bordeaux mixture C. Copper chloride
B. Copper sulfate D. Mancozeb
49. Rice tungro can be effectively managed by application of insecticide. In this case, disease management is achieved through
A. Reduction in the initial amount of inoculum
B. Reduce in the rate of inoculum production
C. Controlling the vector
D. All of the above
50. An air pollutant is any factor mediated by the atmosphere that causes an unwanted effect. Which is not an air pollutant?
A. Ethylene C. Cement dust
B. Nitrogen oxide D. Chicken dung
51. The presence of ooze from the infected tissue is a sign of __________infection.
A. Fungal C. Nematode
B. Bacterial D. Virus
52. The presence of this bodies i9n the nucleus or cytoplasm of the cell of an infected plant may indicate viral infection.
A. Fat bodies C. Starch inclusions
B. Inclusion bodies D. Antibodies
53. The Components of the disease pyramid are
A. Pathogen, host, environment, time
B. Pathogen, host, environment, time, human intervention
C. Pathogen, host, environment
D. Pathogen, host, environment, time, resources
54. The famous downy mildew of corn (Peronosclerospora philippinensis) can be effectively controlled by
A. Rouging C. Detasseling
B. Seed treatment with Apron D. Good fertilization
55. In diseases assessment, this is the proportion of plant units diseased in relation to the total number of units examined.
A. Severity C. Incidence
B. Yield loss D. Spread
56. This is a phenomenon where the pathogen spreads to and affects many individuals within the population over a relatively large
area within a short period of time.
A. Plague C. Epidemiology
B. Epidemic ` D. Pandemic
57. The widespread distribution of clubroot disease of cabbage in the Mountain Province can be attributed to
A. Wet and humid condition in the area
B. The poor fertility of the soil
C. The elevation of the farms

Page 27 of 38
 D. None of the above
58. Coconut planting materials from the Bicol region are subjected under quarantine to manage this disease.
A. Coconut bud rot C. Cadang-cadang disease
B. Bunchy top D. Bugtok
59. Following the field can control diseases in crops by
A. Reducing the rate of disease spread
B. Reducing the amount of initial inoculum
C. Both A and B
D. Reducing the symptom expression
60. Some diseases may not be visible when the fruit is still unripe but begin to manifest its symptoms when ripening has
commenced. This exemplified by
A. Stem end rot of avocado C. Soft rot of carrots
B. Scab of citrus D. Fruit blotch of watermelon
Section 7. Weed Science

1. A grassy weed capable of producing contractile and arrested shoot growth when subjected to extremely dry condition
A. Large crab grass C. Mudgrass
B. Itch grass D. Snodgrass
2. Damage caused by weeds is generally not visible or noticeable because:
A. Weeds seldom cause total crop failure
B. Weeds are always associated with domestic animals
C. It is not easy to see and count weeds
D. Weeds are hard to control
3. Which weed species does not belong to the group;
A. Eleusine indica
B. Paspalum distichum
C. Monochoria vaginalis
D. Rottbeollia cochinchinensis
4. Broad leaf weeds are those with expanded leaf blades which include:
A. Amarathum spinosus
B. Monochoria vaginalis
C. Rottboellia cochinchinensis
D. A and B
5. Vegetative production is common among weeds. Identify which vegetative propagule is a applicable to Pistia stratiotes or water
lettuce:
A. Rhizome C. Off shoot
B. Bulb D. Tuber
6. Not all weeds are destructive, some are useful to man in terms of:
A. Providing food and cover for wild life
B. Source of prohibited drugs
C. Makes the soil acidic
D. Source of pathogenic microorganism
7. Weeds can also cause losses in terms of its effects on water management such as:
A. Serves as barrier for inland waterways and harbors
B. Active evaporation
C. Serves as growth medium
D. Harbors fishes and crabs

Page 28 of 38
8. Some weed species can caused hazard to human health as well as livestock. This aquatic weed serves as host habitat to
mosquitos carrying the parasite responsible for rural filariasis and encephalomyelitis:
A. Pistia stratiotes (water lettuce)
B. Amaranthus spinouse (Spiny amaranth)
C. Imperata cylindrical (cogon)
D. Monochoria vaginalis (water lily)
9. Some weeds are toxic to human and livestock. This species cause diarrhea resulting to death of animals :
A. Tridax procumbens
B. Chromolaena odorata
C. Portulaca oleracea
D. Eleusine indica
10. Annual weeds like Amarathus and Sphenoclea reproduce mainly by seeds and complete its life cycle in:
A. One cropping season C. One month
B. One year D. One week
11. Perennial weeds are also called “evergreen” and reproduce by seeds and vegetative propagules. Water lettuce is an aquatic
perennial that reproduce by:
A. Stolon C. Off-shoot
B. Rhizome D. Tubers
12. Grassy weeds (Poaceae) look similar to sedges except that their stem called culm is:
A. Triangular C. Polyhedral
B. Cylindrical D. Shapeless
13. The hairy membranous outgrowth in between leafsheath and leaf blade in grasses is called:
A. Leaf blade C. Ligule
B. Petiole D. Angular
14. Seeds dispersal though water run-off is common among weeds because of:
A. Light weight and possess oily film to enable them to float
B. Impermeable to water
C. Sometimes possessing swimmerets
D. Active swimmers
15. Allelophaty in weeds-crop association means:
A. Weeds secreting substances that may stimulate or related the growth of the associated crop:
B. Weeds grow taller than the crop hence competing for source of light
C. Weeds harbors insects that in turn destroy the association crop
D. Weeds as alternate host to pathogen
16. Weeds adapt to the growing condition of the area. This turf grass was introduce to Southeast Asia as a turf grass but growing
luxuriantly as a weed:
A. Echinochloa colona C. Eleusine indica
B. Cynodon dactylon D. Digitaria spp.
17. The most competitive stage of the weed plants is:
A. Manure stage C. Juvenile stage
B. Seedling stage D. Early stage
18. Which among the following weed species is an example of a monocotyledonous broadleaf?
A. Bidens pilosa C. Monochoria vaginalis
B. Imperata cylindrical D. Sphenoclea zeylancia
19. The measure of the adaptive potential of a weed that enables it to survive in an environment which is continuously disturbed by
man is referred to as:
A. Adaptability C. Phenology
B. Persistence D. Sociability

Page 29 of 38
20. The following weed species reproduce asexually except:
A. Cyperus rotundos C. Pistia stratiotes
B. Fimbristylis littoralis D. Paspalum distichum
21. In weed sampling, a student determined the density and biomass of weeds in a corn area. If he is to compute for the Summed
Dominance Ratio of all weeds found in the area, he should:
A. Get the sum of the relative values of density and biomass
B. Get the sum of the relative value of density and biomass then divide it by 3.
C. Determine the sum of density and biomass and divide the sum by 2.
D. Determine the sum of the relative values of density and biomass then divide the sum by 2.
22. A weed which germinates, grows vegetatively, produce seeds and is able to live from year to year is:
A. Annual weed C. Monocot weed
B. Dicot weed D. Perennial weed
23. Cyperus rotundus is able to persist because:
A. It reproduces asexually
B. The seed has pappus, which enables it to be disseminated by air.
C. Its seeds have long viability period
D. None of the above
E. All of the above
24. Which of the following weeds could be found in lowland rice areas?
A. Bulrush C. Tropic ageratum
B. Dayflower D. Spragle top
25. Weeds found in temperate areas differ from those in the tropics because of:
A. Difference in soil condition
B. Difference in crops grown
C. Different in climatic conditions
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
26. Which among the following weeds is a sedges?
A. Beggarstick C. little iron weed
B. Bulrush D. Speading dayflower
27. It was observed in indigenous people’s communities that some weeds are removed and controlled at once but others are left to
grow with the crop for quite sometimes. This is practiced because:
A. The removed weeds are hard to control while those retained are easier to control.
B. The removed weeds are perennial while those retained are annuals.
C. The removed weeds are aggressive while those retained are not.
D. The removed weeds are harmful to them while those retained are of some use to them.
28. Weeds with complete plant parts should be collected for a herbarium because:
A. It would facilitate easier identification of the weed.
B. It would provide a good specimen
C. It would be a good practice to do so.
D. It would be attacked by molds
29. In the crop production, the primary reason why weed is considered as a pest is:
A. It is able to harbor other organisms.
B. It is able to significantly lower the quantity and quality of products.
C. It produces seeds and vegetative propagules.
D. It annoys human
30. Seeds dormancy is an important adaptive mechanism of weed is considered as a pest is:
A. It permits more weeds to germinate only when environmental conditions in the farm would give a greater chance for its
survival.

Page 30 of 38
 B. It permits germination of the weeds after the crop has been established.
C. It removes the capacity of the weeds to reproduce asexually.
D. It prevents the weed seeds under the soil from decaying.
31. A grass is a weed which:
A. Has a hollow sometimes solid cylindrical culm, distinct nodes and internodes, leaves that are arranged alternately and
arises from the nodes.
B. Has long, narrow and thin leaves.
C. Has triangular culm, no distinct nodes and internodes and leaves that are arranged in a rosette manner.
D. None of the above
E. All of the above
32. The primary propagule for reproduction of Imperata cylindrical is:
A. Tuber C. Rhizome
B. Stolon D. Seed
33. The period or stage in the life cycle of the crop where weeds presence could affect yield of the crop is referred to as:
A. Critical density of weed competition
B. Critical threshold density
C. Critical period of weed competition
34. Annual weeds are known to be present in the farm every season in spite of good control measures because:
A. They happen to thrive in there
B. They have enormous amount of seeds in the soil
C. Their seeds are not dormant
D. They have vegetative propagules in the soil
35. Most weeds belonging to Asteraceae family like Vernonia cinerea are easily carried by wind from one place to another due to:
A. Seed appendages like pappus
B. Seeds enclosed in burrs
C. Seeds covered by an oily film
D. Seeds being dormant
36. Which among the following best describes a weed in relation to crop production
A. It is a product of natural selection
B. It is a pest at a particular situation
C. It is a plant without any use nor function
D. It is a plant whose virtues have not yet been discovere
37. Poisoning specimens for herbarium collection menas:
A. Putting it in an oven or under the sun to dry.
B. Dipping it in a solution that would inhibit pest attack.
C. Flattening the specimen by putting any heavy object on top.
D. Cutti8ng it into small parts to facilitate drying
38. The best time to collect weeds is during
A. Lunch time C. Late in the afternoon
B. Mornings D. None of the above
39. It refers to the number of weeds in a given unit area:
A. Biomass C. Frequency
B. Density D. Summed dominance ratio
40. It refers to the amount of organic matter produced per unit area:
A. Biomass C. Frequency
B. Density D. Summed dominance ratio
41. Which among the following is a perennial weed?
A. Ageratum conyzoides C. Paspalum distichum
B. Cyperus iria D. Synedrella nodiflora

Page 31 of 38
42. 2,4-D is an old herbicide that can effectively control broadleaf weeds. 2,4-D stands for:
A. 2,4-dichloro acetic acid
B. 2,4-dichlolro benzoic acid
C. 2,4-dichloro phenoxy acetic acid
D. 2,4-dichloro phenol acetic acid
43. Identification of weeds at the seedling stage is quite difficult because:
A. Weeds belonging to the same family are very similar in appearance at this stage.
B. Weeds cannot be easily seen due to their small size.
C. Weeds do not grow at this time.
44. Which among the following factors is always important for weed germination?
A. Light C. Temperature
B. Amount of photosynthesis D. Water
45. Seeds of Cenchrus echinatus are easily disseminated by man and animals because:
A. Their seeds are light and numerous
B. Their seeds are enveloped by a thin and ily membrane
C. Their seed have bur
D. Their seeds are connected to a pappus.
46. Which among the following weed species is a sedges?
A. Ageratum conyzoides C. Paspalum conjugatum
B. Cyperus iria D. Sphenoclea zeylanica
47. Which among the following weed species is a woody perennial weeds?
A. Commelina diffusa C. Pistia stratiotes
B. Chromolaena odorata D. Rottboellia cochinchinensis
48. Which among the following weeds are species reproduces by seed alone?
A. Commelina diffusa C. Pistia stratiotes
B. Chromolaena odorata D. Syphenoclea zeylanica
49. Which among the following weeds are spread easily by wind?
A. Echinochloa glabrescens C. Tridax procumbens
B. Mimosa pudica D. Sphenoclea zeylanica
50. The tubers of Cyperus rotundus would remain dormant if:
A. There is continuous cultivation
B. Cyperus rotundus plants are left intact
C. Herbicide are not applied
D. The area where they are planted is weeded
51. Which sampling parameter describes how often a weed is found in a sampling area?
A. Biomass C. Frequency
B. Density D. Summed dominance ratio
52. Pistia stratiotes is able to reproduce through seeds and vegetatively through:
A. Bulb C. Off-shoot
B. Corn D. Tuber
53. The following are weeds found in upland areas except:
A. Barnyard grass C. Spindle top
B. Goose grass D. Spiny amaranth
54. A monocot weed id one with:
A. Fibrous root system and leaves having parallel venation
B. Taproot system and leaves having netted venation
C. Fibrous root system and leaves with netted venation
D. Taproot system and leaves having parallel venation

Page 32 of 38
55. More than 95% of the weeds that infest crops come from
A. Neighboring farms through irrigating water
B. Neighboring farms brought by wind
C. The soil
D. All of the above
56. Which of the following affect the degree of weed-crop competition?
A. Competing ability of the dominant weeds species
B. Competing ability of the crop
C. Crop spacing all of the above
D. All of the above
57. Which of the following reproduce by rhizomes and seeds?
A. Cogon grass C. Purple nutsedge
B. Bermuda grass D. All of the above
58. Weed seeds are disseminated by
A. Wind C. Small animals
B. Human beings D. All of the above
59. Allelopathic plants are those that secrete substance
A. That enhance or inhibit germination and growth of neighboring plants
B. That inhibit germination and growth of other plants
C. That prevent the flowering of neighboring plants
D. All of the above
60. Weeds compete with crop plants for
A. Space C. Solar radiation
B. Soil nutrients and water D. All of the above
61. Which of the following can be used as biocontrol agents of weeds?
A. Insects C. Sheep
B. Plant pathogen D. All of the above
62. Which of the following can be considered cultural weed control?
A. Through land preparation
B. Interrow cultivation
C. Use of high quality crop seeds
D. All of the above
63. An effective biological control agent of weeds should
A. Feed and reproduce on the specific problems weed species
B. Feed on several weed species
C. Reproduce faster than the problem weed species
D. A and C
64. Interspecific weed competition is
A. Competition between the same weed species
B. Competition between different weed species
C. Competition between the crop and the weeds
D. All of the above
65. Once a crop is infested with weeds, significant yield reduction
A. Will surely occur
B. Will surely not occur
C. Will occur if population has reached a level that cannot be tolerated by the crop
D. All of the above
66. Mulching with organic materials is a desirable method of weed control because it
A. Inhibits weed growth C. Softens the soil

Page 33 of 38
 B. Helps in conserving the soil D. None of the above
67. Which of the following weed control methods can be effectively used in transplanted irrigated rice?
A. Through land preparation
B. Use of high quality seeds
C. Flooding
D. All of the above
68. Interrow cultivation with animal-drawn native plows is a common weed control method in dryland crop but
A. It does not provide effective control along crop rows
B. It may injure the roots of the crop
C. It cannot be done when the soil is too wet
D. All of the above
69. Integrated weed management is the use of appropriate control methods that
A. Compliment or supplement each other
B. Is ecologically and socially accepted
C. Is cost effective
D. All of the above
70. Perennial weeds are more difficult to control than annuals because
A. They are able to reproduce asexually and sexually
B. Their vegetative organs are mostly found under the ground
C. They are able to regrow once they are cut
D. All of the above
71. Weeds are plants
A. That are out of place C. That are desirable
B. Whose harmful effects greatly outweigh their D. All of the above
72. Which of the following are benefits that may be derived from plants that may be considered weeds in crop?
A. Biological filters
B. Possible source of germplasm for domesticated plants
C. Act as soil binders in rolling areas and minimize erosion
D. All of the above
73. Which of the following growth stages of weeds of weeds are most vulnerable to control measures?
A. Seedling stage C. Tillering stage
B. Flowering stage D. All of the above
74. Which of the following information should help in effectively managing weeds?
A. Factors affecting germination
B. Number of days to flowering
C. Rate of growth of weed
D. All of the above
75. Factors that determine the weeds distribution and abundance include
A. Climate C. Rainfall
B. Edaphic D. all of the above
76. The following weed species are predominant in transplanted irrigated lowland rice except
A. Barnyard grass C. Cogon grass
B. Pickerel weed D. goose weed
77. Cover cropping is a desirable weed control method in plantation tree crops Leguminous plant species used for this purpose
include
A. Calopogonium mucunoides
B. Centrucema pubescens
C. Pueraria phaseoliodes
D. All of the above

Page 34 of 38
78. 2,4-D is a
A. Selective postemergence translocated herbicide
B. Nonselective postemergence herbicide
C. Selected contact herbicide
D. All of the above
79. Importance parts of the knapsack sprayer are
A. Tank C. Nozzle
B. Pump assembly D. all of the above
80. The types of spray nozzle commonly available in the Philip[pines are
A. Cone type C. Defecting type
B. Fan type D. A and B
81. The volume of spray solution delivered per unit area
A. Increase with higher pressures
B. Increase with larger nozzle size
C. Decrease with faster speed of travel
D. All of the above
82. The spray nozzle
A. Transforms the herbicide solution into fine droplets
B. Mixes the herbicide and water in the tank
C. Guides the herbicide solution to target plants
D. All of the above
83. In an Emulsifiable concentrate herbicide formulation, the active ingredient is
A. Not soluble in organic solvents
B. Not soluble in water but soluble in organic solvents
C. Soluble in organic solvents but not in water
D. All of the above
84. Selective herbicide
A. Kill the weeds but not the crop
B. Kill the weeds and inhibit crop growth
C. Kill some plants but not others
D. A and C.
85. A postermergence herbicide is applied
A. After land preparation
B. Before land preparation
C. After the weeds or crops have emerged
D. All of the above
86. If the rate of application of a powder herbicide containing 50% active ingredient is 0.5 kg active ingredient/ha, the weight of
formulated pr4oduct needed for 1 hectare is
A. 250g C. 150g
B. 500g D.1000g
87. The recommended rate of application of a liquid herbicide containing 20% active ingredient/liter is 1.0 kg ai/ha. If the delivery of
a 16-liter knapsack sprayer that will be used is 400 1/ha, the volume of the herbicide needed for each tank load of solution is
A. 200 ml C.100 ml
B. 100 ml D. 400 ml

Page 35 of 38
 Answer to Questions in Crop Protection:
Section 1. Problems in Insecticide calculation

1. C 6. A 11. C 16. A 21. C

2. C 7. C 12. D 17. B 22. C
3. B 8. D 13. B 18. D 23. B
4. C 9. D 14. D 19. B 24. A
5. B 10. A 15. C 20. C 25. B

26. D 41. A 56. D 71. B 86. B

27. D 42. B 57. A 72. A 87. C
28. C 43. D 58. B 73. C 88. B
29. B 44. B 59. B 74. C 89. A
30. C 45. C 60. D 75. B 90. D
31. B 46. B 61. A 76. A 91. A
32. C 47. D 62. B 77. C 92. C
33. C 48. C 63. C 78. B 93. A
34. A 49. C 64. A 79. A 94. C
35. A 50. B 65. B 80. B 95. C
36. A 51. B 66. A 81. A 96. A
37. B 52. D 67. C 82. D 97. D
38. C 53. C 68. A 83. A 98. A
39. B 54. C 69. C 84. C 99. D
40. C 55. A 70. B 85. A 100. B

Section 2. Bacteriology

1. B 11. C 21. B 31. C 41. A 51. C 61. B

2. C 12. C 22. B 32. A 42. C 52. B 62. B
3. D 13. C 23. A 33. C 43. B 53. C 63. A
4. B 14. C 24. C 34. C 44. D 54. B 64. D
5. A 15. B 25. D 35. B 45. B 55. A 65. B
6. B 16. D 26. C 36. D 46. D 56. D
7. C 17. B 27. A 37. B 47. C 57. C
8. B 18. B 28. D 38. C 48. D 58. C
9. A 19. A 29. C 39. A 49. A 59. D
10. B 20. B 30. A 40. D 50. C 60. C

Section 3 Mycology

1. B 11. A 21. A 31. A 41. B 51. B

2. C 12. D 22. B 32. C 42. B 52. B
3. C 13. D 23. C 33. C 43. D
4. D 14. D 24. D 34. B 44. A
5. C 15. A 25. B 35. C 45. C
6. A 16. D 26. B 36. C 46. B

Page 36 of 38
 7. B 17. C 27. D 37. C 47. C
8. B 18. D 28. C 38. D 48. A
9. D 19. D 29. B 39. A 49. B
10. D 20. C 30. A 40. A 50. D

Section 4. Nematology

1. C 11. D 21. A 31. C 41. A

2. A 12. A 22. B 32. A 42. C
3. D 13. B 23. C 33. B 43. B
4. B 14. A 24. A 34. C 44. A
5. A 15. C 25. B 35. C 45. C
6. D 16. C 26. C 36. B 46. C
7. D 17. A 27. C 37. A
8. A 18. B 28. B 38. A
9. C 19. C 29. A 39. A
10. B 20. D 30. B 40. B

Section 5. General Plant Virology

1. D 11. D 21. C 31. A 41. D

2. B 12. B 22. A 32. C 42. D
3. B 13. A 23. D 33. D 43. D
4. C 14. C 24. B 34. A
5. C 15. D 25. D 35. D
6. C 16. C 26. B 36. B
7. B 17. D 27. A 37. C
8. D 18. D 28. C 38. A
9. A 19. C 29. C 39. B
10. B 20. C 30. B 40. D

Section 6. Management of Plant diseases

1. D 11. A 21. B 31. C 41. A 51. B

2. A 12. D 22. D 32. C 42. D 52. B
3. A 13. B 23. B 33. A 43. D 53. B
4. C 14. C 24. D 34. B 44. B 54. B
5. B 15. B 25. C 35. B 45. C 55. C
6. A 16. D 26. B 36. C 46. B 56. B
7. C 17. D 27. C 37. D 47. D 57. A
8. C 18. B 28. D 38. B 48. A 58. C
9. A 19. A 29. D 39. B 49. C 59. B
10. D 20. B 30. A 40. C 50. D 60. A

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Section 7. Weed Science

1. A 11. C 21. D 31. A&B 41. C 51. C 61. D 71. D 81. D

2. A 12. B 22. D 32. C 42. C 52. C 62. D 72. D 82. A
3. C 13. C 23. A 33. D 43. A 53. A 63. D 73. A 83. B/C
4. D 14. A 24. A&D 34. B 44. D 54. A 64. B 74. D 84. D
5. C 15. A 25. C 35. A 45. C 55. C 65. C 75. D 85. C
6. A 16. B 26. B 36. B 46. B 56. D 66. D 76. C 86. D
7. A 17. B 27. D 37. B 47. C 57. C 67. D 77. D 87. A
8. A 18. C 28. A 38. C 48. D 58. D 68. D 78. A
9. B 19. B 29. B 39. B 49. C 59. A 69. D 79. D
10. A 20. B 30. A 40. A 50. B 60. D 70. D 80. D

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