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JEE Advanced Sample Paper Part I 2

This document provides instructions for a sample JEE Advanced exam paper. It consists of 3 sections for each of the 3 parts (Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics). Section 1 has 10 multiple choice questions with a single correct answer. Section 2 has 5 multiple choice questions where there can be one or more correct answers. Section 3 has 5 questions where the answer is a single digit integer from 0-9. The marking scheme awards points for correct answers in each section. The document then provides an example Physics section with 10 multiple choice questions in Section 1 format and 5 questions in Section 2 format.

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Bhavesh Chamaria
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© © All Rights Reserved
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
0% found this document useful (0 votes)
62 views

JEE Advanced Sample Paper Part I 2

This document provides instructions for a sample JEE Advanced exam paper. It consists of 3 sections for each of the 3 parts (Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics). Section 1 has 10 multiple choice questions with a single correct answer. Section 2 has 5 multiple choice questions where there can be one or more correct answers. Section 3 has 5 questions where the answer is a single digit integer from 0-9. The marking scheme awards points for correct answers in each section. The document then provides an example Physics section with 10 multiple choice questions in Section 1 format and 5 questions in Section 2 format.

Uploaded by

Bhavesh Chamaria
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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Sample Papers

JEE Advanced
PAPER - 1

Maximum Marks: 180


Important Instruction:

A. General: 1. This booklet is your Question Paper.


2. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cameras, cellular phones, pagers and
electronic gadgets are NOT allowed inside the examination hall.
3. Using a black ball point pen to darken the bubbles.

B. Question Paper Format :


The question paper consists of three parts (Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics).
Each part consists of three sections.
Section 1.Contains 10 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which
ONLY ONE is correct.
Section 2.Contains 5 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which
ONE or MORE are correct.
Section 3.Contains 5 questions. The answer to each question is a single–digit integer, ranging from 0 to 9
(both inclusive)

C. Marking Scheme: For each question in Section 1, you will be awarded 2 marks if you are darken the bubble
corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles are darkened. No negative marks will be
awarded for incorrect answers in this section.
For each question in Section 2, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken all the bubble(s) corresponding to only
the correct answer(s) and zero mark if no bubbles are darkened. In all other cases, minus one (–1) mark will be
awarded.
For each question in Section 3, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to only the
correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles are darkened. In all other cases, minus one (–1) mark will be awarded.
PART – A (PHYSICS)
SECTION – 1
This section contains 10 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (a), (b), (c), (d) out of which only
one is correct.

1. A rectangular loop of sides of length ‘ℓ’ = 2m and ‘b’ = 0.5m is placed in X – Y plane inside a uniform but time
varying magnetic field of strength 𝐵⃗ = 20t𝑖̂ + 10t2𝑗̂ + 50𝑘̂ where t is time elapsed. The magnitude of induced e.m.f at
time t is :
(a) 20 + 20 t (b) 20 (c) 20 t (d) zero

2. Two identical conducting rings P & Q of radius R are in pure rolling over a horizontal conducting plane with same
speed (of center of mass) ‘v’ but in opposite direction . A constant magnetic field B is present pointing into the plane
of paper. Then the potential between the highest points of two rings, is :

(a) zero (b) 2 Bvr (c) 4 Bvr (d) 8Bvr

3. A rectangular loop of sides ‘a’ and ‘b’ is placed in XY plane. A very long wire is also placed in XY plane such that side
of length ‘a’ of the loop is parallel to the wire. The distance between the wire and the nearest edge of the loop is ‘d’.
The mutual inductance of this system is proportional to :
(a) a (b) b (c) 1/d (d) current in wire

4. An infinite long straight conducting cylindrical shell of radius a is surrounded by a thin coaxial infinite conducting
cylindrical shell of radius b. Assuming current flows uniformly through the cylindrical shell and returns through the
outer shell, the inductance per unit length for this arrangement is
2𝜇0 𝑏 𝜇0 𝑏 𝜇0 𝑏 𝜇0 𝑏
(a) ln ( ) (b) ln ( ) (c) ln ( ) (d) ln ( )
π a π a 2π a 4π a

5. Dielectric slab of area A passes between the capacitor plates of area 2A with a constant speed v. The variation of
current (i) through the circuit as function of time (t) can be qualitatively represented as (the length of dielectric slab is
half the length of the capacitor plates)

6. In the circuit shown below, all three voltmeters are identical and ideal. Each resistor has the same given resistance
R. Voltage V is also given to be 9V. Find the reading of voltmeter V3 (in volts).
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

𝐵0
⃗ =
7. A charged particle of specific charge α moves with a velocity v = v0i in a magnetic field 𝐵 (𝑗̂ + 𝑘̂). Then the
√2
(specific charge = charge per unit mass)
(a) path of the particle is a helix
(b) path of the particle is a parabola
π π𝑣0
(c) distance moved by the particle in time t = is
𝐵0 𝛼 𝐵0 𝛼
π 𝑣0 𝑣0
(d) velocity of the particle after time t = is ( 2 𝑖̂ + 𝑗̂)
𝐵0 𝛼 2
8. A collar of mass 10 kg is released from rest from position A, when spring is in natural length and slides along a
rough vertical fixed rod. The block comes to rest at point B, 4 m below the point A. The spring constant of spring is
100 N/m and natural length of spring is 3 m. Find work done by friction (‘O’ is a fixed point)

(a) – 100 J (b) – 200 J (c) – 300 J (d) – 400 J


9. Inside a smooth spherical cavity, particles A can slide freely. The block having this cavity is moving horizontally with
constant acceleration a0 = 10 m/s2.

The particle is released from rest (w.r.t. block) from its initial position as shown in the figure. The angle θ with the
horizontal, when the particle will have maximum speed with respect to the block is
(a) 30° (b) 45° (c) 60° (d) 90°
10. In the circuit shown in figure current in the circuit is

(a) 1.27 A (b) 2.23 A (c) 4.26 A (d) 3.87 A

SECTION – 2

This section Contains 5 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which
ONE or MORE are correct.
11. A conducting loop of resistance R and radius ‘r’ has its center at the origin of the co-ordinate system in a magnetic
field of induction B. When it is rotated about Y-axis through 90°, net charge flown in the coil is directly proportional
to

(a) R (b) B (c) r2 (d) r

12. In the connection shown in the figure the switch K is open and the capacitor is uncharged. Then we close the
switch and let the capacitor charge up to the maximum and open the switch again. Then (Use the following data : V0
= 30 V, R1 = 10 kΩ, R2 = 5kΩ)

(a) the current through R1 immediately after closing the switch is 3 mA


(b) the current through R2 immediately after the switch was closed in 2 mA
(c) the current through R2 immediately after reopening the switch 2 mA
(d) the current through R1 immediately after reopening the switch is zero

13. A heavy homogenous cylinder has mass m and radius R. It is accelerated by a force F which is applied to the
cylinder. The coefficient of static friction is sufficient for the cylinder to roll without slipping then
2F
(a) The frictional force is
3
2F
(b) The acceleration of the centre of the cylinder is (R + r)
3mR
F
(c) It is possible to choose ‘r’ so that acceleration of centre of cylinder is greater than
m
(d) The direction of frictional force is always opposite to F

14. In the given R – C circuit switch S is closed at t = 0 and the variation of potential drop across the resistor (VR) and
across capacitor (VC) is represented by given plot, then :

(a) 2V0 =2V1 + V2 (b) 2V0 =V1 + V2


(c) curve I is for VC and II is for VR (d) curve I is for VR and II is for VC

15. In the L – R circuit shown in the figure, the key K is closed at time t = 0.

(a) the current through R1 decreases with time, t


(b) the voltage difference across L increases with t
1 𝐸2
(c) the magnetic energy stored, in the steady state, equals L
2 𝑅22
E E
(d) the total current through the battery is + , in steady state
𝑅1 𝑅2

SECTION – 3

This section Contains 5 questions. The answer to each question is a single–digit integer, ranging from 0 to 9
(both inclusive)
16. A uniformly wound solenoidal coil of self-inductance 1.8 × 10−4 henry and resistance 6 ohm is broken up into
two coils having lengths in the ratio 1 : 2. These identical coils are then connected in parallel across a 12 volt battery
of negligible resistance. The steady state current through the battery is . . . . . . ampere.

17. For the arrangement of the potentiometer shown in the figure, the balance point is obtained at a distance 75cm
from A when the key k is open. The second balance point is obtained at 60 cm from A when the key k is closed. Find
the internal resistance (in Ω) of the battery E1.

18. A small block slides along a path which is smooth until the block reaches the section of length L = 3m, which
begins at height h = 3m on a flat incline of angle 37°, as shown in the figure. In that section, the coefficient of kinetic
friction is 0.50. The block passes through point A with a speed of √136 m/s. Find the speed (in m/s) of the block as it
passes through point B where the friction ends. (g = 10 m/s2)

19. The two ends of a uniform thin rod of length √2R and of mass 2 kg can move without friction along a vertical
circular path of radius R. The rod is released from the vertical position (ab). The force (in N) exerted by an end of the
10x
rod on the path when the rod passes the horizontal position (cd) is . Then x is ( Neglect the distance between b
√2
and c)
20. A cell of internal resistance 1 Ω is connected across a resistor. A voltmeter having variable resistance G is used to
measure p.d across resistor. The plot of voltmeters reading V against G is shown. What is value of external resistor R
(in ohm)?

PART – B (CHEMISTRY)
This section contains 10 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (a), (b), (c), (d) out of which only
one is correct.

21. Ammonium carbonate decomposes as NH2COONH4(s) ⇌ 2NH3(g) + CO2(g). For the reaction Kp = 2.9 × 10 −5 atm3.
If we start with 1 mole of the compound, the total pressure at equilibrium would be
(a) 0.0766 atm (b) 0.0582 atm (c) 0.0388 atm (d) 0.0194 atm

22. Two weak monobasic organic acids HA and HB have dissociation constants as 3.0 × 10−5 and 1.5 × 10−5,
respectively, at 25°C. If 500 mL of 1M solutions of each of these two acids are mixed to produce 1 L of mixed acid
solution, what is the pH of the resulting solution?
(a) pH = 3.32 (b) pH = 4.32 (c) pH = 2.32 (d) pH = 5.23

23. AgCl dissolved in excess NH3, KCN and Na2S2O3 solutions the complex produce ions
(a) [Ag(NH3)2]+ , [Ag(CN)2]− , [Ag(S2O3)2]−3 (b) [Ag(NH3)2]+2 , [Ag(CN)2]−3 , [Ag4(S2O3)2]+3
(c) [Ag(NH3)2]+2 ; [Ag(CN)2]+ ; [Ag2(S2O3)2]−2 (d) [Ag(NH3)4]+ ; [Ag(CN)4]−3 ; [Ag(S2O3)2]−2

24. Give steps involved in the conversion of 1-iodo 2-methylcylopentane to 1-methylcyclopentanol.


(a) KOH, Hg(OAC)2 and H2O, NaBH4 (b) KOH, NaOH + CaO, Zn
(c) KOH, LiAlH4, Na (d) KOH, NaBH4, Zn

25. Identify product in the reaction


26. Sulphur reacts with chlorine in 1 : 2 ratio and forms X. Hydrolysis of X gives a sulphur compound Y. What is the
hybridization state of central atom in the anion of Y?
(a) sp3 (b) sp (c) sp2 (d) sp2d

27. A metal gives two chlorides ‘A’ and ‘B’. ‘A’ gives black precipitate with NH4OH and ‘B’ gives white. With KI ‘B’ gives
a red precipitate soluble in excess of KI. ‘A’ and ‘B’ are respectively :
(a) HgCl2 and Hg2Cl2 (b) Hg2Cl2, HgCl2 (c) HgCl2 and HgCl (d) none of these

28. True or False


S1 : Interstitial compounds have high melting points, higher than those of pure metals.
S2 : Permanganate titration in presence of hydrochloric acid are unsatisfactory.
S3 : KMnO4 does not act as an oxidizing agent in strong alkaline medium.
S4 : KMnO4 on heating in a current of H2 gives MnO.
(a) T T F T (b) T F F T (c) T F T T (d) F F T F

29. During the electrolysis of AgNO3, the volume of O2 formed at STP due to passage of 2A of current for 965 s is
(a) 0.112 L (b) 0.224 L (c) 11.2 L (d) 22.4 L

30. The maximum amount of BaSO4 predicated of moving 20 ml, of 0.5 M BaCl2 with 20 mL of 1M H2SO4 is:
(a) 0.25 mole (b) 0.5 mole (c) 1 mole (d) 0.01 mole

SECTION: 2
This section Contains 5 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which
ONE or MORE are correct.

31. Identify the correct statement(s)


(a) Gypsum contains a lower percentage of calcium than plaster of Paris
(b) Gypsum is CaSO4 ∙ 2H2O
(c) Plaster of Paris is obtained by hydration of gypsum
(d) Gypsum is obtained by hydration of plaster of Paris

32. Consider the following statements


S1 : Generally square planar complexes show geometrical isomerism but do not exhibit optical isomerism because
they do not possess plane of symmetry
4
S2 : ∆t = ∆0
9

S3 : In octahedral complexes each electron entering the t2g orbtials stabilizes the complex ion by 0.4∆0 and each
electron entering the eg orbital destabilizes the complex by an amount of 0.6∆0
(a) S1 and S3 are correct (b) S2 and S3 are correct
(c) S1 is incorrect (d) S2 and S3 are incorrect

33. Select the correct statements(s) with respect to oxides and oxoanions of transition metals.
(a) Among oxides of chromium, CrO is basic, Cr2O3 is amphoteric and CrO3 is acidic
(b) No higher oxides of iron above Fe2O3 are found
(c) Ti, V, Cr and Mn form oxides MO and their correct increasing order of acidic character is
MnO < CrO < VO < TiO.
(d) Vandium (V) oxide does not react with acids but reacts with alkalies only.

34. 0.1 mol of KMnO4 in acidic medium can oxidise


(a) 0.5 mol of Mohr’s salt (b) 0.25 mol of FeC2O4
(c) 0.25 mol of H2C2O4 (d) 0.025 mol of ferric alum

35. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?


(a) Ethyne gas is more soluble in acetone than in water.
(b) CH3F is more polar than CD3F due to deuterium (D) being less electronegative than hydrogen (H)
(c) Silyl isocynate (SiH3NCO) is linear in shape while methyl isocynate (CH3NCO) is bent in shape.
(d) All of these

SECTION: 3

This section Contains 5 questions. The answer to each question is a single–digit integer, ranging from 0 to 9
(both inclusive)

36. Which of the following mentioned positions in the given compound is more reactive towards electrophilic
substitutions?

37.

Double bond equivalent (degree of unsaturation) of (A) is :

38. k = 4.95 × 10−5 S cm−1 for a 0.001 M solution. The reciprocal of the degree of dissociation of acetic acid, if ∧0𝑚 for
acetic acid is 400 S cm−2 mol−1 is:
39. How many EDTA (ethylenediamietetra acetic aicd) molecules are required to make an octahedral complex with
Ca2+?

40. When LiNO3 is heated, change in oxidation number of N is _________

PART – C (MATHEMATICS)

41. If x2 – x – 2 is factors of x4 – λx2 – μ, then √(𝜆2 − 𝜇2 ) equals


(a) 1 (b) 3 (c) 5 (d) 7

5
42. The number of solutions of ∑ cos r x = 5 in the interval [0, 2π] is
𝑟=1
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 5 (d) 10

43. If sinxθ + cosxθ≥ 1, 0<θ<π/2, then


(a) x∈ [2, ∞) (b) x ∈ (–∞, 2] (c) x ∈ [–1, 1] (d) x ∈ [–2, 2]

44. The number of real solutions of the equation 271/x + 121/x = 2(81/x )is
(a) one (b) two (c) infinite (d) zero

π 5π 7π
5. If a = sin sin sin , and x is the solution of the equation
18 18 18
y = 2[x] + 2 and y = 3[x - 2], where [x] denotes the integral part of x, then ‘a’ is equal to
1
(a) [x] (b) (c) 2[x] (d) [x]2
[𝑥]

𝛼+𝛽𝜔+𝛾𝜔2 +𝛿𝜔2
46. If 1, ω, ω2 are the three cube roots of unity, then for α, β, γ,δ∈ R, the expression ( β+𝛼𝜔2 +𝛾𝜔+𝛿𝜔 ) is
(a) 1 (b) ω (c) – ω (d) ω−1

𝑥 2 (3𝑥−4)3 (𝑥−2)4
47. The number of positive integral solutions of ≤ 0 is
(𝑥−5)5 (2𝑥−7)6
(a) four (b) three (c) two (d) only one

48. If the equation |sin 𝑥|2 + |sin 𝑥| + b = 0 has two distinct roots in [0, π], then the number of integers in the range
of b is/are equal to
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3

1
49. Set a, b ∈ [–π, π] be such that cos (a – b) = 1 and cos (a + b) = . The number of pairs of a, b satisfying the above
e
system of equation is
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 4

50. The number of solutions of 3 secθ – 5 = 4 tan θ in [0, 4π] must be


(a) 0 (b) 8 (c) 6 (d) 4
SECTION: 2

This section Contains 5 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which
ONE or MORE are correct.

2+i
51. The argument and the principal argument of the complex number , (where i = √−1) are
4i+(1 + 𝑖)2
1 1
(a) tan−1 (–2) (b) – tan−1 2 (c) tan−1() (d) – tan−1( )
2 2

52. The roots of the equation, (x2 + 1)2 = x(3x2 + 4x + 3), are given by
(a) 2 – √3 (b) (–1 + i√3)/2, i = √−1 (c) 2 + √3 (d) (–1 – i√3)/2, i = √−1

53. In a triangle tan A + tan B + tan C = 6 and tan A tan B = 2, then the values of tan A, tan B and tan C are
(a) 1, 2, 3 (b) 2, 1, 3 (c) 1, 2, 0 (d) none of these

54. The common roots of the equations


3 2 1993 1994
z + (1 + i)z + (1 + i) z + i = 0, (where i = √−1) and z +z + 1 = 0 are
2 981
(a) 1 (b) ω (c) ω (d) ω

55. Let a, b, c ∈ R. if ax2 + bx + c = 0 has two real roots A and B where A < –1 and B > 1, then
b c b c
(a) 1 + | |+ <0 (b) 1 – | |+ <0 (c) |𝑐|<|𝑎| (d) |𝑐|<|𝑎|– |𝑏|
a a a a

SECTION: 3

This section Contains 5 questions. The answer to each question is a single–digit integer, ranging from 0 to 9
(both inclusive)

56. Let f(x) = x2 – px + q, p is an odd positive integer and the roots of the equation f(x) = 0 are two distinct prime
10
numbers, If p + q = 35, then the value of f(10) ( ∑ f(r)) – 878 equal to
𝑟=1

57. If f is a function such that f(0) = 2, f(1) = 3 and f(x + 2) = 2f(x) – f(x + 1) for every real x, then f(5 ) – 10 =

3π 2π
58. If tan ( ) + 4 sin ( 11 ) = λ then the value of λ2 - 9 is equal to
11

59. The number of values of x between 0 and 2π that equation sin x + sin 2x + sin 3x = cos x + cos 2x + cos 3x must be

1 1
60. If + = λ, then the value of 3 λ2 -13 must be
cos 290° √3 sin 250°

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