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Mock Board-Cdi Dec 2021

The document appears to be a criminology licensure examination containing 27 multiple choice questions testing knowledge of topics related to crime detection and investigation. Some of the questions cover subjects like the legal alcohol limit, drug enforcement agencies, types of drugs, evidence collection, eyewitness identification, criminal profiling, informants, surveillance techniques, traffic accidents, clandestine drug labs, bullet wounds, fire investigation, and heat transfer mechanisms. The exam aims to evaluate a test-taker's understanding of important concepts in criminology.
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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
424 views13 pages

Mock Board-Cdi Dec 2021

The document appears to be a criminology licensure examination containing 27 multiple choice questions testing knowledge of topics related to crime detection and investigation. Some of the questions cover subjects like the legal alcohol limit, drug enforcement agencies, types of drugs, evidence collection, eyewitness identification, criminal profiling, informants, surveillance techniques, traffic accidents, clandestine drug labs, bullet wounds, fire investigation, and heat transfer mechanisms. The exam aims to evaluate a test-taker's understanding of important concepts in criminology.
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
You are on page 1/ 13

Seat No: _____

Republic of the Philippines


PROFESSIONAL REGULATION COMMISSION
Manila

BOARD OF CRIMINOLOGY

CRIMINOLOGY Licensure Examination

CRIME DETECTION AND INVESTIGATION

INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. Mark
only one answer for each item by shading the box corresponding to the letter of
your choice on the answer sheet provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED. Use pencil
no. 2 only.

MULTIPLE CHOICE:

1. How much weight of alcohol in a person’s blood will you presume that he/she
is under the influence of intoxicating liquor?
A. 0.05 percent or less C. .05 to 0.15 percent
B. 0.15 percent or more D. .15 percent to 1.5%

2. Which of the following agency that serves as the implementing arm of the
Board and responsible for the efficient and effective law enforcement of
all the provisions of the Comprehensive Dangerous Drug Act of 2002?
A. Dangerous Drug Board C. Philippine Drug Enforcement Agency
B. Drug Enforcement Unit D. Anti-Narcotics Command

3. In its pure form, it is white and made up of shinu, colorless crystals and
called “snow” in the junkle jargon. A central nervous system stimulant
and to as “the king’s habit”. Which is being described?
A. Opiom C. Marijuana
B. Shabu D. Cocaine

4. Group of drugs that affect the central nervous system, producing perceptual
alterations, intense and varying emotional changes and thought disruption.
Which is being referred?
A. Narcotics C. Depressant
B. Hallucinogens D. Stimulants

5. Within how many period from confiscation or seizure of dangerous drugs, the
same shall be submitted for qualitative and quantitative examination?
A. 24 hours C. 72 hours
B. 48 hours D. 12 hours

6. The Golden triangle is located at the borders of Thailand, Laos and Myanmar.
Which one of the following countries is NOT one of the collective names for
Golden Crescent?
A. Afganistan C. Iraq
B. Pakistan D. Iran

7. Term that pertains to the removal of toxic substances from the body as a
result of abusing drugs is -
A. Cleansing process C. Abstinence
B. Aversion treatment D. Detoxification

1
8. Marijuana also called, marijane or grass or weed is a crude drug made from
cannabis Sativa, a plant that contains a meal altering ingredient. Which one
is NOT an immediate effect of marijuana?
A. Acute panic anxiety reaction – external fear of losing control.
B. Altered sense of time/disorientation
C. Impaired reflexes coordination and concentration
D. Moderate heart beat and pulse rate

9. Generally, witnesses in a trial may offer facts and not opinions as part of
their testimony. However, there are instances when expert opinion is
admitted, and in certain restricted circumstances, even the opinion of non-
expert or lay witnesses can be admitted by the court. Which of the following
BEST identifies an instance when the opinion of non-expert or lay witnesses
can be admitted by the court?
A. Whether two fingerprints are the same
B. Whether the defendant was intoxicated
C. The chemical analysis of a drug
D. Whether the stain found at the scene was human blood

10. An incriminatory statement given by a person outside of the court falling


short of an acknowledgment of guilt is –
A. judicial admission C. judicial confession
B. extra – judicial admission D. extra – judicial confession

11. A person who is turned to be a state witness is considered acquitted


or –
A. dismissed C. guilty
B. exonerated D. adjudged

12. What is the physical evidence that linked the suspect to the crime
scene or offense?
A. Associative Evidence C. Tracing evidence
B. Circumstantial evidence D. Corpus Delicti

13. PEMS Neil Bal-ot has been assigned to supervise a group of police
officers, both in automobiles and on foot, who will be conducting a
surveillance of a subject. During his instruction, the senior officer would
be MOST correct if he made which of the following statements?
A. If at all possible, avoid surveillance of a subject from an automobile
parked in a restricted area
B. When two officers are conducting and extended surveillance from an
automobile, both officers should remain in the front seat
C. An officer conducting a surveillance should never give the appearance of
a person who is impatiently waiting for someone
D. If the subject of the surveillance approaches the officer, the officer
should avoid looking at the subject at all costs

14. The accuracy of identification by eyewitness depends on the following


factors:
1. Ability of the witness to observe distinct appearance of
suspect
2. Visibility condition when the crime was committed
3. Degree of intelligence of the witness
4. Lapse of time in filing the case
A. 1 & 3 is correct C. 1 & 4 is correct
B. 3 & 4 is correct D. 1 & 2 is correct

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15. While it is extremely difficult to generalize with total accuracy
about males who commit rapes of women, some fairly accurate profile
information can be identified. For instance, a rapist who is somewhat
narcissistic and is skillful in exploiting the generosity of female victims
is most typically known as –
A. An assaultive rapist C. A sadistic rapist
B. A sexually inadequate rapist D. A predatory rapist

16. A person who provides information to the investigator on a regular who


is either paid regularly or in a case to case basis is identified as -
A. Informant C. Informer
B. Infiltrator D. Sabouter

17. Which of the following is the FIRST duty of a surveillant?


A. Record all activities taking place in the subject area
B. Move the observation post when necessary
C. Relieve another surveillant
D. Observe the target

18. A bank has been at gunpoint, and the robbers have been fled in a late
model sedan. Some distance from the scene of the robbery, the getaway car is
found. The prober would be most correct if he directed the crime scene unit
to pay particular attention to and look for fingerprint impressions –
A. On the steering wheel
B. On the rearview mirror
C. On the radio dials
D. On the outside surface of the trunk area

19. As a police investigator, if you are dealing with a double-crosser


informant, the best practice to counter it is to -
A. reveal information about facts already known
B. use third degree interrogation
C. give him false information that will lead to his capture
D. request him to voluntary undergo polygraph examination

20. Evidence that will prove the existence of a fact that specific loss or
injury was sustained as a result of the crime. What is being told?
A. Corpus Delicti C. Prima-facie
B. Associative D. Mens rea

21. The technique of covertly observing a person or a place in order to


gather information that is criminal in nature. What is being characterized?
A. Surveillance C. Casing
B. Roping D. Elicitation

22. What informant who moves around the centers of criminals, group or
syndicate and delights the police about bits of information?
A. False informant C. Double – crosser informant
B. Mercenary informant D. Self – aggrandizing informant

23. In the chain of event in traffic accident what is the first action
taken by a traffic unit to escape from collision course or otherwise avoid
hazard?
A. State of evasive action C. Point of no escape
B. Point of possible perception of hazard D. Final position

24. Any facility used for the illegal manufacture of any dangerous drugs and
or controlled precursor and essential chemical is called -
A. Chemical laboratory C. Controlled precursor laboratory
B. Clandestine laboratory D. Chemical Diversion Lab.

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25. Bullet that spin through the air after being discharged from a
firearm eventually lose their velocity and ultimately their spin. When this
happens that start to tumble end over end. If at this point the bullet
should happen to strike a victim, the resulting wound is known as –
A. A key hole wound C. A head over heels wound
B. A flapjack wound D. A blunt blast wound

26. A pattern of deep cracking on the surface of a material that has been
burned indicative of the point of origin of fire. What is being hinted?
A. Pavement marking C. Alligatoring
B. Charring D. Burning

27. Heat transfer can either be conduction, convection or by radiation.


What term that describes the transfer of heat within a solid material from
hotter to cooler parts due to direct contact between to material?
A. Conduction C. Convection
B. Oxidation D. Radiation

28. What is the constant temperature at which the vapor pressure of the
liquid is equal to the atmospheric pressure?
A. Flash point C. Boiling point
B. Ignition temperature D. Fire point

29. In cases of fire accident or tragedy, deaths is usually caused by –


A. burns C. asphyxiation
B. stroke D. shock

30. There are four methods of extinguishing fire. When a high wind has an
extinguishing effect on a fire, the most probable extinguishing method is –
A. cooling C. separation
B. smothering D. chemical chain reaction

31. Which of the following fire extinguishing agent is the most effective
in cooling the burning material below its ignition temperature?
A. H2O C. Dry chemical
B. CO2 D. Dry powder

32. The burning of low-grade heavy oils or resinous or tarry materials


with sufficient air forms lamp black commonly known as -
A. soot C. black bone
B. used petroleum D. black iron

33. The spread of fire from floor to floor in the same building is usually
the result of -
A. fires burning through floors C. open stairways or shafts
B. failure to look of fire doors D. external exposures through windows

34. When testifying in court, a police officer should recognize that


his/her testimony may be judged not only on what is verbally communicated
but also on what is communicated nonverbally. It is generally believed that
nonverbal messages comprise approximately what percentage of a message’s
content?
A. 15% C. 75%
B. 45% D. 90%

35. A person who suffers from a compulsive desire to set things to fire
or to incendiarism is referred to as -
A. Pedophilia C. Kleptomaniac
B. Pyromania D. Dipsomaniac
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36. How will you classify a combustion that involves burning of metals?
A. Class A C. Class C
B. Class B D. Class D

37. Every device which is self propelled and every vehicle which is
propelled by electrical power obtained from overhead trolley wires, but not
operated upon rails is known as -
A. Skating C. Tricyle
B. Bicycle D. Motor vehicles

38. In police undercover buy operations of illegal drugs, which of the


following would generally be LEAST correct?
A. The undercover police officer has more experience than the drug dealer
B. In such operation, the drug dealer values drugs, money and his/her
freedom
C. The drug dealer wants the undercover’s money more than the police want
the drugs
D. The location of the meet with the drug dealer should be studied before
the actual meet

39. The color of the smoke can be a basis in determining the accelerant
used in a fire. What color of the smoke will indicate the presence of
phosphorous?
A. Black C. White
B. Reddish brown D. Gray

40. In general, the most important piece of evidence left at the scene of
a robbery is –
A. Weapons dropped by a robber
B. The visual identification of the robber by any victims or witnesses
C. Tire marks left by a getaway car
D. Pieces of rope used by a robber to restrain victims

41. Proving that an arson of a building has occurred is difficult mainly


because –
A. Arsonist are extremely clever criminals and go out of their way not to
discuss their criminal activities
B. Most police departments do not have a specialized unit to deal with such
crimes
C. Much of the evidence is consumed by the fire
D. Firefighters of necessity unintentionally destroy the evidence while
attempting to fulfill their primary duty of extinguishing the fire

42. A combustible material that generates heat because of internal


chemical action of eventually ignites without any exposure to fire, spark
of heat.
A. combustion C. Spontaneous combustion
B. Burning D. Ignition

43. Mr. Weng collets a rag, soak it with gasoline and place it on the
wooden wall of the house of Mr. Wong. When Mr. Weng was about to set fire to
the rag, he was bothered by his conscience thus, he gets back the rag and
left the place. What crime, if any, did Weng committed?
A. Attempted Arson C. Consummated arson
B. Frustrated arson D. None

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44. What document shall be prepared by an investigator from the result of
the succeeding investigation submitted everytime or whenever any development
is accomplished?
A. Initial or advanced report C. Final or closing report
B. Progress of follow-up report D. Spot report

45. Which of the following is a conclusive sign of death?


A. Dry mouth C. Cessation of circulation
B. Cessation of respiration D. Cooling of the body

46. A method of therapy on alcoholism that is based on conversion and


fellowship is -
A. Aversion method C. Program of Alcoholic Anonymous
B. Psychotheraphy method D. None

47. Preliminary investigation of cases involving dangerous drugs shall be


terminated within a period of –
A. 15 days C. 45 days
B. 30 days D. 60 days

48. Number and identity of people who have handled the evidence between
the times of the commission of the offense until the ultimate disposition of
the case can be known in the process called –
A. Chain of custody C. Tracing evidence
B. Transfer of evidence D. Preservation of evidence

49. A man testified that he saw a gay named Mr. Bean leaving the place
before it was burned. The man’s testimony can be classified as-
A. Direct evidence C. Indirect evidence
B. Commulative evidence D. Corroborative evidence

50. After the completion of the search, effort must be made to determine
from the appearance of the place and object what actually occurred and what
the circumstances of the crime. Which is being narrated?
A. Mental reconstruction of the crime C. Admission
B. Background investigation D. Modus operandi

51. A written order of the court or any other competent authority


consigning an offender to a jail or prison for confinement.
A. Mittimus C. Subpoena
B. Commitment order D. Letter of invitation

52. A technique that is useful aid in investigation otherwise known as


instrumental detection of deception.
A. Truth serum test C. Fingerprint test
B. Ballistics tests D. Polygraph test

53. Any event that results in an unintended injury or property damage


attributed directly or indirectly to the action of motor or its load.
A. Motor vehicle accident
B. Motor transportation damage or injury
C. Motor vehicle non traffic accident
D. Non motor vehicle traffic accident

54. PMSg Manlalamang not being authorized by judicial order enters the
house of Ms. Pining Garcia, against her will. What crime was committed?
A. Trespass to dwelling C. Unlawful search
B. Illegal entry D. Violation of domicile

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55. The main reason why both traffic officers and signal lights are used
on some intersection is that -
A. To discourage motorist from “jumping signals”
B. To make the traffic flow fast
C. Greater safety of the pedestrian and motorist is effected.
D. So that officer can stop and start traffic as necessity demands.

56. Which of the following is the BEST definition of the term “Right of
way”?
A. The personal right to move from one place to another.
B. A way of place open to the motorist and pedestrian
C. The privilege of the immediate use of a particular section of the
highway.
D. The right of a vehicle to occupy a space which at that time is occupied
by another vehicle.

57. From among the following measure one is the most effective in police
campaign directed at a no parking regulations.
A. Written warning C. Verbal warning
B. Citation D. Arrest

58. An accusation in writing charging a person with an offence subscribed by the


prosecutor and filed to court.
A. Complaint C. Deposition
B. Information D. Blotter

59. When may a driver of a vehicle NOT overtake or pass another vehicle
proceeding in the same direction?
1. When at any railway grade crossing
2. When at any intersection of highways
3. When approaching the crest of a grade
4. When approaching upon a curve in the highway
5. When on a highway having two or more lanes for movement of traffic in
one direction
A. 1 and 2 only C. 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

60. Which of the following types of accidents is MOSTLY reduced by the


installation of traffic lights?
A. Cross traffic accident
B. Misunderstanding between motorist and traffic officer.
C. Accidents of confusion
D. Accidents of decision of right of way

61. Evidence should not only be related to the facts in issue but also that
not excluded by the law. Which evidence in hinted?
A. Relevant evidence C. Credible evidence
B. Material evidence D. Competent evidence

62. The use of one or more electrical appliances or devices which draw or
consume electrical current beyond the designated capacity of the existing
electrical system.
A. Over loading C. Self-closing door
B. Jumper D. Oxidizing material

63. In an expressway with a fast and slow lane or in any divided roadway,
a driver may overtake another vehicle___.
A. By passing on either lane
B. If the lead car slows down
C. If the driver of the lead car allows him to
D. By passing only to the left of the overtaken vehicle
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64. A type of a question which suggest to the person the answer which the
interviewer desires is called -
A. Direct question C. Relevant question
B. Leading question D. Misleading question

65. Which document is considered ancient?


A. A document 5 years before and after
B. Document more than 20 years old.
C. Document made during the ancient time
D. Document more than 30 years old

66. Which of the following does NOT belong to the type of detainees?
A. Undergoing investigation C. Awaiting final judgment
B. Awaiting or undergoing trial D. For safe keeping

67. Process by which the Police Officer practically induces the would be
defendant into the commission of the offense, and himself becomes a co-
principal. What is being set out?
A. Instigation C. Entrapment
B. Buy-bust operation D. In flagrante Delicto

68. It is conducted as a pre-requisite to grant permits and or licenses by


local governments or other government agencies. What is it?
A. Fire safety inspection C. Fire protection assembly
B. Fire alerting system D. Fire Service

69. Articles or materials which are found in connection with the


investigation and which aid in establishing the identity of the perpetrator or
the circumstances under which the crime was committed or which, in general
assist in the prosecution of the criminal.
A. Material evidence C. Corpus delicti
B. Associative evidence D. Tracing evidence

70. A traffic officer stationed along the route of a parade has been
ordered by his superior to allow no cars to cross the route while the parade
is in progress. An ambulance driver on an emergency run attempts to drive
his ambulance across the route while the parade is passing. Under these
circumstances the traffic police officer should -
A. Ask the driver to wait until the police officer contact his superior.
B. Stop the parade long enough to permit the ambulance to cross
C. Hold up the ambulance in accordance with the superior’s order.
D. Direct the ambulance driver to the shortest detour which will add at
least ten minutes to run.

71. PSSg Jude De Ramos is so patient to obtain accurate and complete


information especially with uncooperative subject. What attribute of an
investigator is being shown by De Ramos?
A. Logical mind C. Perseverance
B. Power of self control D. Discretion

72. When a vehicle running at regulations speed on its lane is being


overtaken, what its driver should NOT do?
A. Accelerate its speed C. Reduce or maintain its speed
B. Keep and maintain its lane D. Allow overtaking vehicles to pass

73. Who among the following shall serve as permanent consultant of the
Dangerous Drug Board?
A. Director of the NBI C. A and B
B. Chief of the PNP D. Director General of PDEA

8
74. While driving on a highway within a residential area, the lady-driver
decided to overtake the vehicle ahead of her. In this instance, the FIRST
thing that she should do is to___.
A. Signal her intention to overtake
B. Apply full pressure to the gas pedal to achieve her desired speed
C. Check whether overtaking lane to the right is clearly visible and free of
oncoming traffic
D. Sound the horn to call the attention of the driver of the vehicle she
wished to overtake

75. Of the following commandments of traffic, which comes FIRST?


A. Safety first C. Observe road courtesy
B. Keep right D. If in doubt, do not overtake

76. The greatest single cause of Taxi cabs traffic accidents is attributed
to –
A. Conversation with the fare C. Unnecessary speed
B. Following too close to other vehicles D. General recklessness

77. Several person were injured as a result of a bus skidding on a wet


pavement. In preparing an accident report, the term “apparently good
condition” should not be used in reference to –
A. The tires C. The brakes
B. An injured passenger D. The operator

78. If rigor mortis leads to approximation of time of death and livor


mortis leads to the determination of position maintained by the body after
death. What is the value of instantaneous rigor (cadaveric spasm)?
A. Sign of death C. Time of death
B. Cause of death D. Kinds of death

79. It is the rapid test performed to establish potential positive result.


What is it?
A. Validity test C. Confirmatory test
B. Preliminary test D. Screening test

80. Any person found in possession of 100 grams of marijuana shall be


punished with:
A. Imprisonment of twenty years and one day to life imprisonment
B. Imprisonment of twelve years and one day to twenty years
C. Life imprisonment to death
D. Life imprisonment

81. This refers to an altered physiological state brought about by


repeated use of a drug over a period of time, necessitating continued use of
the drug to prevent withdrawals.
A. Psychological dependence C. Biological dependence
B. Chemical dependence D. Physical dependence

82. The following are derivates of Opium, EXCEPT-


A. Heroin C. Codeine
B. Morphine D. Cocaine

83. MDMA is the other name for Ecstacy which means-


A. Methylene dioxymethampetamine C. Methyline dioxy-methampetamine
B. Methylene diocximethampetamine D. Metyl diosymentampetamine

84. The rule which governs the principle of whether or not bullet is
inside the body of the victim.
A. Odd-even rule C. Entry and Exit Rule
B. Color coding D. Multiplicity of evidence

9
85. Which among the following is an accurate way of determining the firing
distance?
A. Walkers test
B. Visual observation
C. Firing a series of test shots from various distances
D. The amount of concentration and powder residue or metal traces.

86. The first privately paid group to follow-up investigation of crime is


-
A. Road runner C. Bow Street Runner
B. CSI D. SOCO

87. When a police officer finds a tool at the scene of a crime, he should
first of all –
A. Pick it up for closer examination taking care not to jar it
B. Wait until the crime scene has been sketched or photographed and
measurements taken before he collects the evidence
C. Immediately collected and always send it to the crime laboratory for
scientific examination
C. Compare the cutting edge of the tool with the impressions to determine if
this was the tool used in the crime

88. Tool markings are said to be important evidence –


A. Because they identify the specific type of tool that left the marking
B. If the situations are visible to the naked eye or easily collected
C. If they reproduce the Characteristics of a tool found in the possession
of a suspect.
D. None

89. Both impression and striation marks are important traces left by the
criminal at the scene of the crime. Investigators have generally found
striations to be –
A. Of less significance than the impression
B. Better recorded on wood surfaces
C. Best collected and preserved by the use of the film of foil
D. None of these

90. According to Republic Act 4136, the classification of public highways


for traffic purposes is the responsibility of the____.
1. City Council
2. Municipal Board
3. Provincial Board
4. Regional Board
5. Barangay council
A. 1 and 3 only C. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 2 and 4 only D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

91. The primary duty of the first police officer at the scene of a
reported homicide is to –
A. Administer first aid and call for medical assistance if the victim is
still alive
B. Pursue the fleeing suspect
C. Protect the crime scene
D. Obtain information from the witness

92. The fundamental value of the information which an officer present in


the court is affected most by –
A. The techniques used by the defense in cross – examination
B. The ability of the prosecutor to make appropriate objections
C. The thoroughness of the officer’s original investigation
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D. The attentiveness of the prosecutor

93. In many crime trials, primary objective of the defense attorney is


to –
A. Discredit the witness called by the prosecution
B. Prove the innocence of his client
C. Cause the court to doubt the guilt of his client
D. Explain the reason behind his client’s actions

94. The best time for conducting a raid on premises occupied as living
quarters by criminals is –
A. Midnight, because the raiding party can approach unobserved.
B. Around three A.M. because the occupants will probably be asleep
C. Mid-afternoon, because the elements of surprise will be greatest
D. At dawn, because the approach can be made under cover of darkness and the
occupants will be least alert

95. The first duty of a police investigator upon arriving at the scene of an
alleged fatal accident should be to –
A. Determine the cause of death C. Verify that the victim is dead
B. Determine the time of death D. Identify the victim

96. Under the existing guidelines, when you may consider a motor vehicle
as abandoned?
1. When it is left unattended in an area not provided for parking
2. When its driver cannot be immediately located after its engine conked
out while in the parking lot
3. When it is left unattended for one or two days in an area provided for
parking
4. When it was left unattended after 72-hours elsewhere
5. When its owner cannot be located after knowing his identity
A. Only 1 and 3 C. Only 4
B. Only 1, 3 and 5 D. Only 2 and 4

97. In what kind of vehicular traffic accident does car no. 1 is engaged?

A. Collision on road C. Out of the road accident


B. Non- collision on road D. Running off road

98. For an information in a police blotter to be complete, it must___.


A. Comply with the basic principles of report writing
B. Bear the signature of the complaining party
C. Adhere to the standard format prescribed by the existing police
regulations
D. Contain the 5Ws and 1H in report writing

99. In a burglary, assuming that the burglar touched all of the following,
the one most likely to yield a good fingerprint after proper treatment is-
A. The exterior side of a window
B. A dirty window ledge
C. The surface of a mirror
D. The brass-plated handle of an interior door

11
100. In investigation of a rape case, use of ultra violet light is useful
method -
A. Both to locate stains and to establish that they are semen stains
B. To locate strains, but not to establish that they are semen stains
C. Only to establish whether certain stains are semen stains, after they
have been located by some other method.
D. Neither for finding stains nor for determining their nature.

-ooOoo-

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