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1. REAL NUMBERS
1. The prime factor of 2×7×11×17×23+23 is ____
2. A Physical Education Teacher wishes to distribute 60 balls and 135
bats equally among a number of boys. The greatest nu-mber
receiving the gift in this way are___
3. The Values of X and Y in the given figure are ____
4
3
Y
X
7

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4. If the LCM of 12 and 42 is 10m+4, then the value of 'm' is ____

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5. π is ____
6. log20152015 = ____
7. The reciprocal of two irrational numbers is ____
8.
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The decimal expansion of 17/18 is ____
9. 2.547 is ____
K
27
10. Decimal expansion of number has ____
2×5×7
11. The decimal expansion of 189/125 will terminate after ____
A

12. If a = 23×3, b = 2×3×5, c = 3n×5and LCM

(a, b, c) = 23×32×5, then n = ____
13. If n is any natural number, then 6n-5n always ends with ____
S

14. If log216= x then x= ____

15. The standard base of a logarithm is ____
16. If log102=0.3010, then log108 = ____
17. log10 0.01 = ____
18. The exponential form log4 64 = 3 is ____
19. log 15 = ____
20. The prime factorization of 216 is ____
21. HCF of 4 and 19 is ____
22. LCM of 10 and 3 is ____
23. If the HCF of two numbers is '1' , then the two numbers are called
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____
24. If the positive numbers a and b are written as a = x5y2, b = x3y3
where x and y are prime numbers then the HCF(a, b) = ____; LCM
(a,b) = ____
25. The product of two irrational numbers is ____
26. 43.1234 is ____ number.
27. log ap.bq = ____
28. If 53 =125, then the logarithm form ____
29. log 7343 = ____

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ANSWERS

H
1) 23; 2) 15; 3) X = 21, Y = 84; 4) 8;
5) An irrational number; 6) 1; 7) Always an irrational number;
8) 2.125; 9) A rational;
S
10) non-terminating but repeating; 11) 3 places of decimal; 12) 2;
13) 1; 14) 4; 15) 10; 16) 0.9030; 17) − 2; 18) 43 = 64; 19) log3 +
log 5; 20) 23×33; 21) 1; 22) 30; 23) Co-Primes; 24) [x3y2; x5y3];
K
25) Sometimes rational, Some times irrational; 26) a rational
number; 27) plog a+q logb; 28) log5125 = 3; 29) 3.
A
S

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2. SETS
1. The symbol for a Universal Set is____
2. If A = {a, b, c}, the number of subsets of A is ____
3. The set builder form of A∩B is ____
4. For every set A, A∩φ = ____
5. Two Sets A and B are said to be disjoint if ____
6. The Shaded region in the adjacent figure is ____
µ
A B

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H
7. A = {x: x is a circle in a give plane} is ____
8. n (A∪B) = ____
9. If A is subset of B, then A–B = ____
10.
11.
S
If A = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5} then the cardinal number of A is ____
A = {2, 4, 6, 8, 10}, B = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5} then
B–A = ____
K
12. If A⊂B then A∩B = ____
13. If A⊂B then A∪B = ____
14. The shaded region in the given figure represents ____
A

A B µ
S

15. The Symbol for null set is = ____

16. Roster form of { x: x∈N, 9≤ x≤ 16} is _____
17. If A⊂B and B⊂A then ____
18. If A⊂B and B⊂C then ____
19. A∪φ = ____
20. The Set theory was developed by ____
21. If n(A) = 7, n(B) = 8, n(A∩B) = 5 then n(A∪B) = ____
22. A set is a ____ collection of objects.
23. Every set is ____ of it self.
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24. The number of elements in a set is called the ____ of the set
25. A = { 2, 4, 6, ……}, B = {1, 3, 5, ……..} then n(A∩Β)= ____
26. A and B are disjoint sets then A–B = ____
27. If A∪B = A∩Β then = ____
28. A = { x: x2 = 4 and 3x = 9 } is a ____ set
29. A = {2, 5, 6, 8} and B = {5, 7, 9, 1} then A∪B = ____
30. If A⊂B, n(A) = 3, n(B) = 5, then n(A∩Β) = ____
31. If A⊂B, n(A) = 3, n(B) = 5, then n (A∪B) = ____
32. A, B are disjoint sets then (A–B)∩ (B–A) = ____
33. A = {1, 2, 3, 4} and B = {2, 4, 6, 8} then B – A = ____
34. Set builder form of A∪B is = ____

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H
ANSWERS

1) µ; 2) 8; 3) {x:x∈A and x∈B}; 4) φ;

5) A∩Β = φ; 6) A∩B; 7) Infinite Set;
S
8) n(A)+ n(B)– n(A∩B); 9) φ; 10) 5;
11) {1, 3, 5}; 12) Α; 13) B; 14) Α–B;
15) φ; 16) {9, 10, 11, 12, 13, 14, 15, 16}; 17) A = B; 18) A⊂C;
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19) A; 20) George Cantor ; 21) 10; 22) Well defined;
23) Subset; 24) cardinal number; 25) 0; 26) A; 27) A = B; 28) Null
Set;
A

29) {1, 2, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9}; 30) 3; 31) 5;

32) φ; 33) {6, 8}; 34) {x: x∈A or x∈B}
S

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3. POLYNOMIALS
1. The graph of the polynomial f(x) = 3x –7 is a straight line which
intersects the x- axis at exactly one point namely ____
2. In the given figure , the number of zeros of the polynomial f(x) are
____
Y

f(x)

X1
−3 o 1 3 X

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Y1

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3. The number of zeros lying between –2 and 2 of the polynomial f(x)
whose graph in given figure is ____
Y
S y = f(x)

X1
o
−4 −2
K
2 4

Y1
4. The degree of the constant polynomial is ____
5. The zero of p(x) = ax–b is ____
A

6. If α and β are the zeroes of the polynomial 3x2+5x+2,then the value

of α+β+αβ is ____
7. If the sum of the zeroes of the polynomial p(x) = (k2−14) x2−2x−12
S

is 1, then k takes the value (s) ____

8. If α and β are zeroes of p(x) = x2−5x+k and α−β = 1 then the value
of k is ____
9. If α, β, γ are the zeros of the polynomial ax3+bx2+cx+d, then the
value of 1/α+1/β+1/γ is ____
10. If the product of the two zeros of the polynomial x3−6x2+11x−6 is 2
then the third zero is ____
11. The zeros of the polynomial of x3−x2 are ____
12. If the zeroes of the polynomial x3−3x2 + x + 1 are a/r, a and ar then
the value of a is ____
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13. If α and β are the zeroes of the quadratic polynomial 9x2−1, the
value of α2+β2 is ____
14. If α, β, γ are the zeroes of the polynomial x3 + px2 + qx + r then
1/αβ + 1/βγ + 1/αγ is ____
15. The number to be added to the polynomial x2–5x+4, so that 3 is the
zero of the polynomial is ____
16. If α, β are zeroes of p(x) = 2x2–x–6 then the value of α–1+β–1 is
____
17. ____ is the coefficient of the first term of the quotient when
3x3+x2+2x+5 is divided by 1+2x+x2.

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18. If the divisor is x2 and quotient is x while the remainder is 1, then
the dividend is___

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19. The maximum number of zeroes that a polynomial of degree 3 can
have is ____
20. The number of zeroes that the polynomial f(x) = (x–2)2 +4 can have
is ____
S
21. The graph of the equation y = ax2+ bx+ c is an upward parabola, if
____
K
22. If the graph of a polynomial does not intersect the x – axis, then the
number of zeroes of the polynomial is ____
23. The degree of a biquadratic polynomial is ____
A

24. The degree of the polynomial

3
7u 6 − u 4 + 4u 2 + u − 8 is ____
S

2
25. The value of p(x) = x3−3x−4 at x = −1 is ____
26. The polynomial whose zeroes are –5 and 4 is ____
27. If –1 is a zero of the polynomial f(x) = x2–7x–8 then other zero is
____
28. If the product of the zeroes of the polynomial ax3–6x2+11x–6 is 6,
then the value of a is ____
29. A cubic polynomial with the sum, sum of the product of its zeroes
taken two at a time, and the product of its zeroes are 2, –7 and –14
respectively, is ____
30. For the polynomial 2x3–5x2–14x+8, the sum of the products of
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zeroes , taken two at a time is ____

31. If the zeroes of the quadratic polynomial ax2+bx+c are reciprocal to
each other, then the value of c is ____
32. ____ can be the degree of the remainder at most when a biquadrate
polynominal is divided by a quadratic polynomial.

ANSWERS

1) (7/3, 0); 2) 3; 3) 2; 4) 0; 5) b/a; 6) –1; 7) ±4; 8) 6; 9) –c/d; 10) 3;

11) 0, 0, 1;
12) –1; 13) 2/9; 14) p/r; 15) 2; 16) –1/6; 17) 3; 18) x3+1; 19) 3;

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20) 2; 21) a>0;

H
22) 0; 23) 4; 24) 6; 25) –2; 26) x2+x–20; 27) 8; 28) 1;
29) x3–2x2–7x+14; 30) –7; 31) a; 32) 1.
S
K
A
S

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4. PAIR OF LINEAR EQUATIONS IN TWO VARIABLES

1. The point of intersection of the lines represented by 3x–2y = 6, the
Y-axis is ____
2. If x = 2, y = 3 is a solution of a pair of lines 2x–3y+a = 0 and
2x+3y–b+2 = 0, then the relationship between a and b is ____
3. If the units and ten's digit of a two digit number are y and x
respectively, then the number will be in the form of ____
4. The age of a son is one third the age of his mother. If the present age
of mother is x years, then the age of the son after 12 years is ____
5. If the line y = px–2 passes through the point (3, 2), then the value of

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p is ____

H
2 3
6. The value of + when x = 4 and y = 9 is ____
x y
7. If ad≠bc, then the pair of linear equations ax+by = p then and cx+dy
= p has ____ solutions?
S
8. The pair of linear equations 3x+5y = 3, 6x+ky= 8 do not have
solutions if k= ____
K
9. The point of the intersection of the lines x-2 = 0 and y+6 = 0 is ____
10. ____ is the area of the triangle formed by the coordinate axes and
the line x+y = 6.
A

11. The sum of the two digits of a two digit number is 12. The number
obtained by interchanging the two digits exceeds the given number
by 18. the number is ____
S

12. The point (–2, –2) lies in the ____ Quadrant.

13. If the difference between two numbers is 26. One number is three
times the oth-er number, then the two numbers are ____
14. If the system of equations 4x+y= 3 and 8x+2y= 5k has infinite
solutions, then the value of k is ____
15. The system of linear equations x+y= 14 and x–y= 4 are ____
16. If the system of linear equations (k–3) x+3y = k, kx+ky = 12 has
infinite number of solutions then the value of k is ____
17. If the system of linear equations 3x–4y+7 = 0 and kx+3y–5 = 0 has
no solutions then value of k is ____
18. ____ is the condition if the pair of linear equations, a1x+b1y+c1= 0,
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a2x+b2y+c2= 0, has a unique solution?

19. The sum of the numerator and the denominator of a fraction is 12. If
the denominator is increased by 3, the fraction becomes 1/2. then the
fraction is ____

x+y x−y
20. If = 2& = 6, then value of y is
xy xy ____
21. Two angles are complementary. The larger angle is 3 degrees less
than twice the measure of the smaller angle. The measure of each
angle is ____ and ____
22. The value of y when x = –1/2 that satisfies

I
H
2 3
the equation + = 5 is ____
x y
23. The length and breadth of a rectangle are x, y respectively. The area
S
of the rectangle gets reduced by 9 square units, if its length is
reduced by 5 units and breadth is incre-ased by 3 units. Then the
equation we get is ____
K
24. The larger of two supplementary angles exceeds the smaller by 20
degrees. Then the angles are ____ and ____
25. ____ is the value of 'a' so that the point (2, a) lies on the line
A

represented by 4x–y= 3?
ANSWERS
S

x
1) (0, –3); 2) 3a = b; 3) 10x+y; 4) + 12 ; 5) 4/3; 6) 2 or –2;
3
7) unique solution;
8) k = 10; 9) (2, –6); 10) 18; 11) 57;
12) 3rd quadrant; 13) 39, 13; 14) 6/5;
15) consistent; 16) 6; 17) –9/4;

18) a1 b1
≠
; 19) 5/7; 20) 1/4; 21) 31
a2 b2 degrees and 59 degrees; 22) 1/3;
23) (x–5) (y+3)=(xy–9); 24) 100 degrees, 80 degrees; 25) a = 5.
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6. PROGRESSIONS
1. The nth term of G.P is an= arn-1 where ‘r’ represents ____
2. The nth term of a G.P is 2 (0.5)n-1 then r ____
3. In the A.P 10, 7, 4 ---- –62, then 11th term from the last is ____
4. ____ term of G.P 1/3, 1/9, 1/27 ---- is 1/2187
5. n–1, n –2, n –3, ---- an = ____
6. In an A.P a = –7, d = 5 then a18 = ____
7. 2 + 3 + 4 + ----- + 100 = ____
8. –1, 1/4, 3/2 ----- S81 = ____

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9. In G.P, 1st term is 2, common ratio is –3 then 7th term is ____

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10. 1, –2, 4, –8, ----- is a ____ Progression.
11. Common difference in 1/2, 1, 3/2 ----- is ____
12. √3, 3, 3√3 is a ____ S
13. a=1/3, d= 4/3, the 8th term of an A.P is___
14. Arithmetic progression in which the common difference is 3. If 2 is
added to every term of the progression, then the common difference
K
of new A.P. is ____
15. In an A.P. first term is 8, common difference is 2, then ____ term
becomes zero
A

16. 4, 8, 12, 16, ----- is ____ series.

17. Next 3 terms in series 3, 1, –1, –3 are ____
18. If x, x+2 & x+ 6 are the terms of G.P. then x is ____
19. In G.P. ap+q= m, ap – q= n. Then ap = ____
S

20. In 3+6+12+24 -----. Progression, the nthterm is ____

21. a12 = 37, d = 3, then S12 = ____
22. In the garden, there are 23 roses in the first row, in the 2nd row there
are 19. At the last row there are 7 trees, ____ rows of rose trees are
there in the garden.
23. From 10 to 250, ____ multiples of 4 are there.
24. The taxi takes Rs. 30 for 1 hour. After for each hour Rs. 10, for each
hour. how much money can be paid & how it forms ____
progression
25. The sum of first 20 odd numbers is ____
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26. 10, 7, 4, ----- a30 = ____

27. 1+ 2+3+4+ ----- +100 = ____
28. In the G.P 25, –5, 1, –1/5 ----- r = ____
29. The reciprocals of terms of G.P will form ____
30. If –2/7, x, –7/2 are in G.P. Then x = ____
31. 1 + 2 + 3 + ----- + 10 = ____
32. If a, b, c are in G.P, then b/a = ____
33. x, 4x/3, 5x/3, ..a6 = .____
34. In a G.P a4 = ____
35. 1/1000, 1/100, 1/10, 1 ----- are in ____

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36. The 10th term from the end of the A.P;
4, 9, 14 ----- 254 is ____

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37. In a G.P. an–1 = ____
38. In a A.P. Sn–Sn–1 = ____
39. 1.2 + 2.3 + 3.4 + ------ 5 terms = ____
S
40. In a series a n = n(n + 3) ,a17 = ____
n+2
K
41. In –3, –1/2, 2 -----. A.P. then nth term ____
42. a3 = 5 & a7 = 9, then the A.P. is ____
43. The nth term of the G.P. 2(0.5)n-1, then the common ratio = ____
A

44. In 4, –8, 16, –32 then the common ratio is ____

S

n
45. The nth term t n = then t4 = ____
n +1
46. In an A.P, l = 28, Sn = 144 & total terms are 9, then the first term is
____
47. In an A.P 11th term is 38 and 16th term is 73, then common
difference of A.P is ____
48. In a garden there are 32 rose flowers in first row and 29 flowers in
2nd row and 26 flowers in 3rd row, then ____ rose trees are there in
the 6th row.
49. In –5, –1, 3, 7 ------. Progression, then 6th term is ____

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50. In Arithmetic progression, the sum of nth terms is 4n–n2, then first
term is ____

ANSWERS

1) Common ratio; 2) 0.5; 3) –32; 4) 7;

5) 0; 6) 78; 7) 5049; 8) 3969; 9) 1458;
10) GP; 11) 1/2; 12) GP; 13) 29/3; 14) 3; 15) 5th term;
16) Arithmetic; 17) –5, –7, –9; 18) 2; 19) mn ; 20) 3.2n–1; 21) 246;
22) 9; 23) 60; 24) Arithmetic progression; 25) 400; 26) –77;
27) 5050; 28) –1/5 ;

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29) Geometric Progression; 30) ±1;

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31) 55; 32) c/b ; 33) 8x/3; 34) ar3;
35) G.P.; 36) 209; 37) arn-2; 38)an; 39) 70; 40) 340/19; 41)
1/2(5n–11); 42) 3, 4, 5, 6, 7; 43) 0.5; 44) –2; 45) 4/5; 46) 4;
S
47) 7; 48) 17; 49) 15; 50) 3.
K
A
S

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7.COORDINATE GEOMETRY
1. For each point on X-axis, Y-coordinate is equal to ____
2. The distance of the point (3, 4) from X-axis is ____
3. The distance of the point (5, −2) from origin is ____
4. The point equidistant from the points (0, 0), (2, 0) and (0, 2) is ____
5. If the distance between the points (3, a) and(4,1) is √10, then the
value of a is___
6. If the point (x, y) is equidistant from the points (2, 1) and (1, −2)
then ____
7. The closed figure with vertices (−2, 0), (2, 0), (2, 2), (0, 4) and (−2,

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2) is a ____
If the coordinates of P and Q are (acosθ, bsinθ) and (−asinθ, bcosθ)

H
8.
then OP2 + OQ2 = ____
9. In ____ quadrant does the point (−3, −3) lie?
10. If the distance between (k, 3) and (2, 3) is 5 then the value of k is
____
S
11. ____ is the condition that A, B, C are the successive points of a line.
K
12. The coordinates of the point, dividing the join of the point (5, 0) and
(0, 4) in the ratio 2:3 internally are ____
13. If the point (0, 0), (a, 0) and (0, b) are colinear then ____
14. The coordinates of the centroid of the triangle whose vertices are (8,
A

−5), (−4, 7) and (11, 13) are ____

15. The coordinates of vertices A, B and C of the triangle ABC are (0, −
1), (2, 1) and (0, 3). the length of the median through B is ____
S

16. The vertices of a triangle are (4, y), (6, 9) and (x, 4). The coordinates
of its centroid are (3, 6). The values of x and y are ____
17. If a vertex of a parallelogram is (2, 3) and the diagonals cut at (3, −
2). ____ is the opposite vertex.
18. Three consecutive vertices of a parallelogram are (−2, 1), (1, 0) and
(4, 3). The fourth vertex is ____
19. If the points (1, 2), (−1, x) and (2, 3) are collinear then the value of x
is ____
20. If the points (a, 0), (0, b) and (1, 1) are collinear the 1/a+1/b ____
21. The coordinates of the point of intersection of X-axis and Y-axis are
____
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22. For each point on Y-axis, X-coordinate is equal to ____

23. The distance of the point (3, 4) from Y-axis is ____
24. The distance between the points (0, 3) and (−2, 0) is ____
25. The opposite vertices of a square are (5,−4) and (−3, 2). The length
of its diagonal is ____
26. The distance between the points (acosθ + bsinθ, 0) and (0, asinθ −
bcosθ) is ____
27. The coordinates of the centroid of the triangle with vertices (0, 0),
(3a, 0) and (0, 3b) are ____
28. If OPQR is a rectangle where O is the origin and P(3, 0) and R (0,
4), then the coordinates of Q are ____

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29. If the centroid of the triangle (a, b), (b, c) and (c, a) is 0 (0, 0) then
the value of a3 + b3 + c3 is ____

H
30. If (−2, −1), (a, 0), (4, b) and (1, 2) are the vertices of a parallelogram
then the value of a and b are ____
31. The area of the triangle whose vertices are (0, 0), (a, 0) and (0, b) is
____
S
32. One end of a line is (4, 0) and its middle point is (4, 1), then the
coordinates of the other end ____
K
33. The distance of the mid point of the line segment joining the points
(6, 8) and (2, 4) from the point (1, 2) is ____
34. The area of the triangle formed by the points (0, 0), (3, 0) and (0, 4)
A

is ____
35. The coordinates of the mid point of the line segment joining the
points (x1, y1) and (x2, y2) are ____
S

36. The distance between the points

(acos250, 0) and (0, acos650) is ____
37. The line segment joining points (−3, −4) and (1, −2) is divided by Y-
axis in the ratio ____
38. If A (5, 3), B (11, −5) and P (12, y) are the vertices of a right angled
triangle if right angled at p, then y is ____
39. The perimeter of the triangle formed by the points (0, 0), (1, 0) and
(0, 1) is ____
40. The coordinates of the circumcentre of the triangle formed by the
points 0(0, 0), A(a, 0) and B (0, b) is ____

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ANSWERS

1) 0; 2) 4; 3) √29; 4) (1, 1); 5) 4, −2;

6) x+3y = 0; 7) pentagon; 8) a2+b2; 9) 3; 10) 7; 11) AB + BC = AC;
12) (3, 8/5); 13) ab = 0; 14) (5, 5); 15) 2; 16) −1, −5; 17) (4, −7);
18) (1, 4); 19) 0; 20) 1;
21) (0, 0); 22) 0; 23) 3; 24) √13; 25) 10;
26) a 2 + b2 ; 27) (a, b); 28) (3, 4);
29) 3abc; 30) a=1, b=3; 31) 1/2ab;

x1 + x 2 y1 + y2

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32) (4, 2); 33) 5; 34) 6; 35) ,
2 2

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36) a; 37) 3:1; 38) 2 or − 4; 39) 2+√2;
40) (a/2, b/2).
S
K
A
S

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8. SIMILAR TRIANGLES
1. The ratio of the corresponding sides of the two similar triangles is
1:3, then the ratio of their areas is ____
2. ∆PQR is formed by joining the mid points of the sides of ∆ABC,
then the ratio of the areas of the ∆PQR and ∆ABC is ____
3. D, E are the mid-points of the sides AB and AC of the ∆ABC. If DE
measures 4 cm, then the side BC measures ____
4. If the side of an equilateral triangle is 8 cm, then its area is ____
5. In the given figure DE//BC, AD = 6 cm, DB=8 cm and AE=9 cm,
then EC = ____

I
A

H
D E
B C

6. In ∆ABC ∠Β=900 then b2 = ____

S
K
A
b
c
A

B a C
7. Two congruent polygons are ____
S

8. In the given figure AD ⊥ BC, then AB2 + CD2 = ____

C
D

B A

9.The length of the diagonal of the square is 5√2 cm, then the area of the
square in cm2 is ____
10. The symbol for 'is similar to' is ____
11. ∆ABC ∼∆PQR, if AB = 3.6, PQ = 2.4 and PR = 5.4, then AC = ____
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12. In the given figure, ∠Q = 900 and ∠S = 900; QS = t, PQ = r QR = P

and PR = q then 1/t2 = ____
q
P
s
t r
R p Q

13. ∆ABC ∼∆PQR, if AB = 6, BC = 4, AC = 8 and PR = 6 then PQ+QR

= ____

I
14. A man goes 7 metres due east and then 24 metres due north, then his
distance from starting point is ____

H
15. If ∆ABC ∼∆DEF, ∠A=500 then ∠E+∠F = ____
16. The side of a rhombus with diagonals 16 cm & 30 cm is ____
17. Basic Proportionality Theorem is also known as ____
S
18. A ladder is placed in such a way that its foot is at a distance of 15
metres from the wall and its top reaches a window 8 m above the
ground. Then the length of the ladder is ____
K
19. ∆ABC ∼∆PQR, if m∠A = 500 and m∠B = 600 then m∠R = ____
20. In the given figure, AC = 13 cm, then the length of the Median BD =
____
A

A
D
S

B C

21. The areas of two similar triangles are 16 cm2 and 25 cm2
respectively. Then the ratio of their corresponding sides is ____
22. In ∆ABC, DE//BC and DE = 1/2BC, then AD:DB = ____
23. In the given figure ∆ACB ∼∆APQ. If AB = 6 cm, BC = 8 cm and
PQ = 4 cm, then AQ = ____

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B
P
A

C Q

24. The relation between a diagonal of a Square and its side is ____
25. In ∆ABC, ∠B=900 and BM is an altitude. then ∆AMB is similar to
____
26. In the rhombus ABCD, AB = 6cm, then AC2 + BD2 = ____

I
27. The area of an equilateral triangle whose height 'h' is ____
28. If the ratio of the medians of two similar triangles is 1:2, then the

H
ratio of their areas is ____
29. In an equilateral triangle ABC, if AD ⊥ ΒC then, 3AB2 = ____
30. The length of the diagonal of a Square is 5√2 cm, then the area of
the square is ____
S
ANSWERS
K
1) 1:9; 2) 1:4; 3) 8 cm; 4) 16 √3cm2; 5) 12 cm; 6) b2 = a2+c2; 7)
similar;
A

8) BD2+AC2; 9) 25; 10) ∼; 11) 1.8;

1 1
12) + 0
S

2 2 ; 13) 10; 14) 25m; 15) 130 ;

p r 16) 17 cm; 17) Thales
Theorem; 18) 17 m; 19) 700; 20) 6.5 cm; 21) 4:5; 22) 1:1; 23) 3
cm; 24) diagonal = √2 . Side; 25) ∆ABC; 26) 144; 27) h2/√3; 28)
1:4; 29) 4ΑD2; 30) 25 cm2

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9. TANGENTS & SECANTS TO A CIRCLE

1. The length of the tangents from a point A to a circle of radius 3 cm
is 4 cm, then the distance between A and the centre of the circle is
____
2. ____ tangents lines can be drawn to a circle from a point outside the
circle.
3. Angle between the tangent and radius drawn through the point of
contact is ____
4. A circle may have ____parallel tangents.
5. The common point to a tangent and a circle is called ____

I
6. A line which intersects the given circle at two distinct points is

H
called a ____ line.
7. Sum of the central angles in a circle is___
8. The shaded portion represents ____
S
O
•
K
9.If a circle touches all the four sides of an quadrilateral ABCD at points
A

P, Q, R, S then AB + CD = ____
10. If AP and AQ are the two tangents a circle with centre O so that
∠POQ =1100 then ∠PAQ is equal to ____
S

11. If two concentric circles of radii 5 cm and 3 cm are drawn, then the
length of the chord of the larger circle which touches the smaller
circle is ____
12. If the semi perimeter of given ∆ΑΒC = 28 cm then AF+BD+CE is
____
C

F E

A D B

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13. The area of a square inscribed in a circle of radius 8 cm is ____ cm2.

14. Number of circles passing through 3 collinear points in a plane is
____
15. In the figure ∠BAC ____
A

O
600
B C

16. If the sector of the circle made at the centre is x0 and radius of the
circle is r, then the area of sector is ____

I
17. If the length of the minute hand of a clock is 14 cm, then the area

H
swept by the minute hand in 10 minutes ____
18. If the angle between two radii of a circle is 1300, the angle between
the tangents at the ends of the radii is ____
S
19. If PT is tangent drawn from a point P to a circle touching it at T and
O is the centre of the circle, then ∠OPT+∠POT is ____
20. Two parallel lines touch the circle at points A and B. If area of the
K
circle is 25πcm2, then AB is equal to ____
21. A circle have ____ tangents.
22. A quadrilateral PQRS is drawn to circumscribe a circle. If PQ, QR,
A

RS (in cm) are 5, 9, 8 respectively, then PS (in cms) equal to ____

23. From the figure ∠ACB = ____
D
S

A B

• C •

24. PA and PB are tangents to the circle with centre O touching it at A

and B respectively. If ∠APO = 300, then ∠POB ____
25. Two concentric circles of radii a and b where a>b are given. The
length of the chord of the larger circle which touches the smaller
circle is ____
26. From the figure, the length of the chord AB If PA = 6 cm and ∠POB
= 600 ____
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A 6c
m
600 P

27. Two circles of radii 5 cm and 3cm touch each other internally. The
distance between their centres is ____
28. The lengths of tangents drawn from an external point to a circle are
____

I
ANSWERS

H
1) 5 cm; 2) 2; 3) 90°; 4) 2; 5) Point of contact; 6) Secant line; 7)
360°; 8) Minor segment; 9) BC + AD; 10) 70°; 11) 8 cm; 12)
28cm; 13) 128;14) 1; 15) 30°;
S
x

16) × πr 2 17) 102 2 sq.cm; 18) 50°;
K
360 ; 3 19) 90°; 20) 10cm; 21)
Infinitely many; 22) 4cm; 23) 90°; 24) 65°; 25) 2 a 2 − b2 ; 26) 6cm;
27) 2cm; 28) equal.
A
S

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11. TRIGONOMETRY
1. In the following figure, the value of cot A is ____
C

5 12

A 13 B
2. If in ∆ABC, ∠B = 900, AB = 12 cm and

I
BC= 5cm then the value of cosc is ____

H
b
3. If cot θ = then the value of
a S
cos θ + sin θ
is _____
cos θ − sin θ
K
4. The maximum value of sinθ is ____
5. If A is an acute angle of a ∆ABC, right angled at B, then the value of
sin A+cos A is ____
A

2 tan 30 0
6. The value of is _____
1 + tan 2 300
If sinθ = 1/2, then the value of (tanθ + cotθ)2 is ____
S

7.
8. If sinθ−cosθ = 0 then the value of sin4θ + cos4θ is ____
9. If θ = 450 then the value of

1 − cos 2θ
is _____
sin 2 θ
10. If tanθ = cotθ, then the value of Secθ is ____
11. If A+B = 900, cotB = 3/4, then tan A is equal to _____
12. If sin (x−200) = cos (3x−10)0. Then x is ____
13. The value of 1+tan50cot850 is equal to___

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14. If any triangle ABC, the value of sin is

B+C
____
2
15. If cosθ = a/b, then cosecθ is equal to ____
16. The value of cos200cos700− sin200sin700 is equal to ____
17. The value of tan50tan 250tan450tan650tan 850 is ____
18. If tanθ + cotθ = 5 then the value of
tan2θ + cot2θ is ____
19. If cosecθ = 2 and cotθ = √3p where θ is an acute angle, then the
value of P is ____

I
H
1 + sin A
20. is equal to ____
1 − sin A
21. If cosecθ−cotθ = 1/4 then the value of cosecθ + cotθ is ____
sin 450+ cos 450 = ____
22.
23.
S
2tan2450+ cos2300−sin2 600 = ____
24. sin (900−A) = _____
K
25. If sinA=cosB then, the value of A +B =

m+n
26. If sec θ = then sinθ =
A

2 mn
27. In the figure, the value of secA is ____
C
S

5 12

A 13 B

28. If sin2A=1/2, tan2450, where A is an acute angle then the value of A

is _____
29. The maximum value of 1/secθ, 00 <θ<900 is _____
30. sin θ2 is equal to _____
2

1 − cos θ

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31. If cotθ=1 then 1 + sin θ = _____

cos θ
32. Sec2θ−1 = ____
33. If secθ + tanθ = p, then the value of secθ − tanθ = _____
34. The value of sinA or cosA never exceeds _____
35. sec (900− A) = _____

ANSWERS

1) 5/12; 2) 5/13; 3) b+a/b−a; 4) 1;

I
5) greater than one; 6) sin 600; 7) 16/3;
8) 1/2; 9) 1; 10) √2; 11) 3/4 ; 12) 300;

H
13) sec250; 14) cosA/2; 15) b2 − a 2 / b ;
16) 1; 17) 1; 18) 23; 19) 1; 20) secA + tanA; 21) 4; 22) √2; 23) 2;
24) cos A;
S
25) 900; 26) m−n/m+n ; 27) 13/5;
28) 150; 29) 1; 30) 1; 31) √2 + 1;
K
32) tan2θ; 33)1/p; 34) 1; 35) cosecA.
A
S

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12. APPLICATIONS OF TRIGONOMETRY

1. If the angle of elevation of the top of a tower at a distance of 500 m
from the foot is 300. Then the height of the tower is ____
2. A pole 6m high casts a shadow 2√3m long on the ground, then sun’s
elevation is ____
3. The height of the tower is 100m. When the angle of elevation of sun
is 300, then shadow of the tower is ____
4. If the height and length of the shadow of a man are the same, then
the angle of elevation of the sun is ____
5. The angle of elevation of the top of a tower, whose height is 100m,

I
at a point whose distance from the base of the tower is 100m is ____

H
6. The angle of elevation of the top of a tree height 200√3 m at a point
at distance of 200m from the base of the tree is ____
7. A lamp post 5√3 m high casts a shadow 5m long on the ground. The
sun’s elevation at this moment is ____
S
8. The length of shadow of 10m high tree if the angle of elevation of
the sun is 300 ____
K
9. If the angle if elevation of a bird sitting on the top of a tree as seen
from the point at a distance of 20m from the base of the tree is 600.
Then the height of the tree is ____
A

10. The tops of two poles of height 20m and 14m are connected by a
wire. If the wire makes an angle of 300 with horizontal, then the
length of the wire is ____
S

11. The ratio of the length of a tree and its shadow is 1:1/√3. The angle
of the sun’s elevation is ____ degrees.
12. If two towers of height h1 and h2 subtend angles of 600 and 300
respectively at the mid-point of the line joining their feet, then h1: h2
is ____
13. The line drawn the eye of an observer to the object viewed is called
____
14. If the angle of elevation of the sun is 300, then the ratio of the height
of a tree with its shadow is ____
15. From the figure θ = ____
16. The angle of elevation of the sun is 450. Then the length of the
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shadow of a 12m high tree is ____

17. When the object is below the horizontal level, the angle formed by
the line of sight with the horizontal is called ____
18. When the object is above the horizontal level, the angle formed by
the line of sight with the horizontal is called ____
19. The angle of depression of a boat is 60m high bridge is 600. Then
the horzontal distance of the boat from the bridge is ____
20. The height or length of an object can be determined with help of
____

ANSWERS

I
1) 500√3; 2) 600; 3) 100√3m; 4) 450;

H
5) 450; 6) 600; 7) 600; 8) 10√3m;
9) 20√3m; 10) 12m; 11) 600; 12) 3:1;
13) Line of sight; 14)1: √3; 15) 600;
S
16) 12m; 17) Angle of depression;
18) Angle of elevation; 19) 20√3m;
K
20) Trigonometric Ratios.
A
S

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13. PROBABILITY
1. The probability of getting king or queen card from the play cards (1
deck) ____
2. Among the numbers 1, 2, 3….15 the probability of choosing a
number which is a multiple of 4 is ____
3. Gita said that the probability of impossible events is 1, Pravallika
said that probability of sure events is 0 and Gowthami said that the
probability of any event lies in between 0 & 1. In above with whom
you will agree ____

I
4. The probability of a sure event is ____

H
5. If a die is rolled then the probability of getting an even number is
____
6. P(E) = 0.2 then P( E ) ____
S
7. No of playing cards in a deck of cards is ____
8. In a single throw of two dice the probability of getting distinct
number is ____
K
9. A card is pulled from a desk of 52 cards, the probability of obtaining
a club is ____
10. P(x) + P(x) = _____
A

11. P(E)=1/2 then P (not E) = ____

12. If two dice are rolled at a time then the probability that the two faces
show same number is ____
S

13. If three coins are tossed simultaneously then the probability of

getting at least two heads is ____
14. ____ is probability that a leap year has 53 mondays.
15. A number is selected from numbers 1
to 25. The probability that it is prime is
16. R = Red, Y = yellow, from the figure, the probability to get yellow
colour ball is ____

R Y

R Y R

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17. A game of chance consists of spinning an arrow which comes to rest

at one of the number 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8 and these are equally likely
outcomes the possibilities that the arrow will point at a number
greater than 2 is ____

8 1
7 2

6 3
5 4

I
H
18. When a die is thrown once, the possible number of outcomes is ____
19. The probability of an event lies between ____ and ____
20. If two events have same chances to happen then they are called ____
21.
S
In a single throw of two dice, the probability of getting distance,
numbers is ____
K
22. P(E) = 1 then P(E) = ____
3
23. “The book on games of chance” was written by ____
A

24. Getting “7” when a single die is throw is an example of ____

25. The probability of a baby born either boy (or) girl is ____
26. When a die is thrown the event of getting numbers less than or equal
S

to 6 is an example ____ event

27. If a card is drawn from a pack the probability that it is a king is ____
28. The probability of an event that cannot happen is ____
29. The probability of an event is 1.5. Is it true (or) false ____
30. If a two digit number is chosen at random that the probability that
the number chosen is a multiple of 3 is ____
31. A number is selected at random from the numbers 3, 5, 5, 7, 7, 7, 9,
9, 9, 9. Then the probability that the selected number is their average
is ____
32. If a number X is chosen from the number 1, 2, 3 and a number Y is
selected from the numbers 1, 4, 9 then p(xy<9) is ____

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33. A card is drawn dropped from a pack of 52 playing cards the

probability that it is an ace is ____
34. Suppose you drop a die at random on the rectangular region shown
in the figure what is the probability that it will land inside the circle
with diameter m ____
3m

2m

I
ANSWERS

H
1) 1/13; 2) 1/5; 3) Gowthami; 4) 1; 5) 1/2;
6) 0.8; 7) 52; 8) 5/6; 9) 1/4; 10) 1;
11) 1/2; 12) 1/6; 13) 1/2; 14) 2/7; 15) 9/25; 16) 2/5; 17) 3/4; 18) 6;
S
19) 0, 1; 20) equally likely events; 21) 62 = 36; 22) 2/3; 23)
J.Cardon; 24) impossible; 25) 1/2; 26) sure; 27) 1/13; 28) 0; 29)
false; 30) 1/3; 31) 3/10; 32) 5/6; 33)1/13; 34) 11/84.
K
A
S

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14. STATISTICS
1. The 'h' indicates in mode

 f − f0 
Mode = l +  ×h is ____
 2 f1 − f0 − f1 

2. Mid values are used in calculating ____

3. Mean of 23, 24, 24, 22 and 20 is ____

∑fx = 1390, ∑ f i = 35 then mean x ____

I
4. i i

H
5. ____ is based on all observations?
6. If the mode of the following data is 7, then the value of 'k' in 6, 3, 5,
6, 7, 5, 8, 7, 6, 2k+1, 9, 7, 13 is ____
7. The data arranged in descending order has 25 observations. ____
observation represents the median.
S
A. M. of 6, −4, 2 ,1 1 , −7 is ____
K
8.
3 4 6
9. Median of 17, 31, 12, 27, 15, 19 and 23 is ____
10. A. M. of 1, 2, 3, ......., 10 is ____
A

11. Range of 1, 2, 3, 4, ......., n is ____

12. For the given data with 50 observations 'the less than ogive' and 'the
more than 'ogive' intersect at (15.5, 20). The Median of the data is
S

____
n2
13. The Mean of first 'n' odd natural numbers is . then n = ____
81
14. A. M of 1, 2, 3, ........, n is ____
15. If the mean of 6, 7, x, 8, y, 14 is 9, then x = ____
16. The A.M. of 30 students is 42. Among them, two students got zero
marks. Then A.M. of the remaining students is ____
17. Marks 10 20 30
Number of students 5 9 3

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From the above data the value of median is ____

18. Data having one Mode is called ____
19. A.M. of 1, 2, 3, ........, n is ____
20. Sum of all deviations taken from A.M. is ____
21. Mode of A, B, C, D, ......., Z is ____
22. Mean of first 5 Prime numbers is ____
23. The observation of an ungrouped data in their ascending order are
12, 15, x, 19, 25. If the Median of the data is 18, then x = ____
24. A.M. of a-2, a, a+2 is ____
25. Median of 1, 2, 4, 5 is ____
26. Class mark of the class 'x-y' is ____

I
27. L. C. F curve is drawn by using ____and the corresponding
cumulative frequency.

H
28. The modal class for the following distribution is ____

x f
below 10 3
S
below 20 12
K
below 30 27
below 40 57
below 50 75
A

below 60 80

29. If the A. M of x, x+3, x+6, x+9 and x+12 is 10, then x = ____
S

30. If 35 is removed from the data 30, 34, 35, 36, 37, 38, 39, 40. then
the Median increases by ____
31. Range of first 10 Whole numbers is ____
32. Construction of Cumulative frequency table is useful in determining
the ____
33. Exactly middle value of data is called ___
34. In the formula of Mode

 f1 − f0  represents ____
=l+  × h, f 0
 2 f − f 0 − f 2 

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n 
 − cf 
35. Median M =l+2
 f
×n

; 'l' represents ____
 

36. The term ''ogive'' is derived from ____

37. Range of the data 15, 26, 39, 41, 11, 18, 7, 9 is ____
38. The Mean of first 'n' natural number is ____
39. Median of first 'n' natural number is ____

ANSWERS

1) Length of the Class Interval;

2) Arithmetic Mean; 3) 22.6; 4) 39.71;

I
5) Mean; 6) 3; 7) 13th; 8) 0.55; 9) 19;

H
10) 5.5; 11) n-1; 12) 15.5; 13) 81;

n +1
14) 15) x + y = 19; 16) 45; 17) 9;
2
S
n +1
K
18) unimodal data; 19) ; 20) 0;
2
21) no mode; 22) 5.6; 23) 18; 24) a;
A

x+ y
25) 3; 26) ; 27) upper boundary; 28) 30 - 40; 29) 4; 30) 0.5;
2
31) 9;
S

32) Median; 33) Median; 34) frequency of preceding modal class;

35) lower limit of Median class; 36) ogee; 37) 34;

n +1 n +1
38) ; 39) .
2 2

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