CSSGB

Number: CSSGB
Passing Score: 800
Time Limit: 120 min
File Version: 1

CSSGB

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885CB989129A5F974833949052CFB2F2
Exam A

QUESTION 1
A Lean Principle that addresses efficiency by the process worker is called ____________________?

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A. Visual Factory
B. Supervising
C. Training
D. Standardizing

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 2
While management of a company must set the stage for all improvement efforts, which of these 5S’s is primarily driven by management?

A. Straighten
B. Sort
C. Shine
D. Sustain

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

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885CB989129A5F974833949052CFB2F2
QUESTION 3
The use of Kanbans work best with pull systems for determining the timing of which products or services are produced.

A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 4
The Lean Principle action in the 5S approach that deals with having those items needed regularly at hand and those items need less regularly stored out of the way
is known as ___________.

A. Shining
B. Standardizing
C. Sustaining
D. Sorting

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 5
When it comes to Control one of the most effective means of eliminating defects is to _________________ .

A. Train personnel often and thoroughly

B. Keep a Six Sigma project going on the process at all times
C. Design defect prevention into the product
D. Have each process consist of no more than five steps

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)

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Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 6
Which statement(s) describe an undesirable situation when implementing SPC?

A. The lower Control Limit for the R chart is equal to zero

B. Attempt to use SPC for tracking transaction times at a warehouse
C. A process is in Statistical Control before implementation of SPC
D. The Control Limits are wider than the customer specification limits

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 7
If a process has Outliers which pair of charts is most preferable if subgroups will exist for the Continuous Data?

A. Individual—Moving Range
B. Xbar-R Charts
C. Xbar-S Charts
D. nP and P Charts

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 8
After a Belt has put data through the smoothing process which chart would be used to look for trends in the data?

A. Moving Average Chart

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B. Multi-Vari Chart
C. X bar Chart
D. Pareto Chart

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 9
A Belt will occasionally do a quick experiment referred to as an OFAT which stands for ____________________.

A. Only a Few Are Tested

B. Opposite Factors Affect Technique
C. One Factor At a Time
D. Ordinary Fractional Approach Technique

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 10
The Regression Model for an observed value of Y contains the term ?o which represents the Y axis intercept when X = 0.

A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 11

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Which statement(s) are true about the Fitted Line Plot shown here? (Note: There are 2 correct answers).

A. When Reactant increases, the Energy Consumed increases.

B. The slope of the equation is a positive 130.5.
C. The predicted output Y is close to -18 when the Reactant level is set to 6.
D. Over 85 % of the variation of the Energy Consumed is explained by the Reactant via this Linear Regression.

Correct Answer: CD
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 12
The actual experimental response data varied somewhat from what a Belt had predicted them to be. This is the result of which of these?

A. Inefficiency of estimates
B. Residuals
C. Confounded data
D. Gap Analysis

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 13
The generation of a Regression Equation is justified when we _____________. (Note: There are 4 correct answers).

A. Expect the relationship to be Linear between the output and inputs

B. Know that there is a non-linear relationship between output and input(s)
C. Need to understand how to control a process output by controlling the input(s)
D. Experience several process defects and have no other way to fix hem
E. When it is very expensive or too late to measure the output

Correct Answer: ACDE

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Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 14
Select all the statements that are true after reviewing the Capability Analysis shown here. (Note: There are 4 correct answers).

A. The process is out of Control.

B. The process is properly assumed to be a Normal process.
C. The Mean of the process moving range is 1.78.
D. This Capability Analysis used subgroups.
E. Majority of the dimensional values are outside of the tolerance than within.

Correct Answer: BCDE

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 15
A primary benefit of using a Multi-Vari Chart is it provides a visual presentation of two-way interactions.

A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 16
__________ Distributions occur when data comes from several sources that are supposed to be the same yet are not.

A. Skewed
B. Bimodal

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C. Gaussian
D. Tri-peaked

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 17
To draw inferences about a sample population being studied by modeling patterns of data in a way that accounts for randomness and uncertainty in the
observations is known as ____________________.

A. Influential Analysis
B. Inferential Statistics
C. Physical Modeling
D. Sequential Inference

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 18
For a Normal Distribution the Mean, Median and Mode are the same data point.

A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 19

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Hypothesis Testing can save time and help avoid high costs of experimental efforts by using existing data.

A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 20
It is a Type II error if we decide to reject the Null Hypothesis when it is actually true.

A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 21
A Belt experienced an Alpha of .05 and a Beta of .10 and knew these are the most common risk levels when running a Statistical test.

A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 22
Inferential Statistics is largely about Significance. There are both Practical and _______________ Significance to consider during an analysis of data in a Lean Six

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Sigma project.

A. Problematic
B. Impractical
C. Usable
D. Statistical

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 23
The Central Limit Theorem helps us understand the ___________ we are taking and is the basis for using sampling to estimate population parameters.

A. Analysis
B. Kurtosis
C. Risk
D. Route

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 24
Hypothesis Tests determine the probabilities of differences between observed data and the hypothesis being solely due to _________ based on the result of the P-
values.

A. Human error
B. Measurement error
C. Shift differences
D. Chance

Correct Answer: D

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Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 25
When a Belt is analyzing sample data she should keep in mind that 95% of Normally Distributed data is within +/- 2 Standard Deviations from the Mean.

A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 26
The Standard Deviation for the distribution of Means is called the ___________ and approaches zero as the sample size reaches 30.

A. Standard Error
B. Mean Deviation
C. Mean Spread
D. Mean Error

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 27
Due to excessive pollution, GREEN Solutions Inc. is considering subsidizing public transportation to work for its employees. According to the manager it takes an
average weekday commute of 39 minutes with a Standard Deviation of 7 minutes for the employees to get to work while they use their personal vehicles for their
office commute while the management set a policy of not more than 40 minutes for their daily one-way commute. A survey conducted one day on 70 employees
showed an average of 34 minutes commuting time using the metro public transportation system with a Standard Deviation of 21 minutes. Assuming a Normal
Distribution for the commute times by either personal or public transportation, which of these is true?

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A. The probability that they would arrive on time using personal vehicles is much higher than using the metro public transportation system (MPTS)
B. The probability that they would arrive on time using the MPTS is much higher than using their personal vehicles
C. The two probabilities are about the same excepting in one case the consistency is higher than the other
D. We need to compile more data around weekends to incorporate for traffic differences
E. When Standard Deviation is higher the probability goes down and so the MPTS is worse

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 28
According to a manager it takes an average weekday commute of 39 minutes with a Standard Deviation of 7 minutes for the employees to get to work while they
use their personal vehicles for their office commute while the management set a policy of not more than 40 minutes for their daily one-way commute. A survey
conducted one day on 70 employees showed an average of 34 minutes commuting time using the metro public transportation system with a Standard Deviation of
21 minutes. If the Standard Deviation is uncontrollable then the other option to increase the probability of coming in on time via personal vehicles to work could be
____________?

A. Increase the average time of commute

B. Maintain the average time of commute and change route to work
C. Reduce average commute time to work by departing earlier
D. Change policy at work and request for flexible times based on location

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 29
Which of the following is used to test the significance for the analysis of a Variance Table?

A. t Test
B. F Test
C. Chi Square Test

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D. Acid Test

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 30
Non-parametric testing is done when which of these are applicable? (Note: There are 3 correct answers).

A. When the traditional t tests don’t produce the results we need

B. A Hypothesis Test for the Median of the population is in question
C. It does not require data to come from Normally Distributed populations
D. They look at the Median rather than the Mean of populations
E. When there are no parameters to measure in the process

Correct Answer: BCD

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 31
The Mann-Whitney Test is used to test if the Means for two samples are different.

A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 32
Contingency Tables are used to perform which of these functions?

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A. Illustrate one-tail proportions
B. Analyze the "what if" scenario
C. Contrast the Outliers under the tail
D. Compare more than two sample proportions with each other

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 33
The perfect sample size is the minimum number of data points required to provide exactly 6% overlap or risk if one wants a 95% confidence level.

A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 34
It is a Type I error if we reject the Null Hypothesis when it is actually true.

A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 35

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Having an Alpha of .05 and a Beta of .10 are the most common risk levels when running a Statistical test.

A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 36
A 1-Sample t-test is used to compare an expected population Mean to a target.

A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 37
Unequal Variances can be the result of differing types of distributions.

A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 38
Contingency Tables are used to do which of these? (Note: There are 2 correct answers).

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A. Illustrate one-tail proportions.
B. Compare more than two sample proportions with each other.
C. Contrast the Outliers under the tail.
D. Analyze the "what if" scenario.
E. Applicable to data that is Attribute in nature

Correct Answer: BE
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 39
Training cost is $4,000 and a project required an initial investment of $30,000. If the project yields monthly savings of $2,000 beginning after 3 months, what is the
payback period in months (before money costs and taxes)?

A. 10
B. 20
C. 27
D. 33

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 40
Lean Six Sigma’s general approach to solving significant challenges related to a process is called _________________.

A. DOE
B. SIPOC
C. DMAIC
D. FMEA

Correct Answer: C

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Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 41
Those who are trained to the skill levels of a Black Belt are typically utilized to apply Lean Six Sigma methodologies what percentage of their time?

A. 25%
B. 50%
C. 75%
D. 100%

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 42
Cost of Poor Quality (COPQ) can be classified as Tangible (Visible) Costs and Hidden Costs.

A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 43
One of the metrics commonly used in Lean Six Sigma is DPU. This acronym stands for ___________________.

A. Deferred planned usage

B. Defects per unit
C. Decreased production utilization

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D. Downtime per unit

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 44
According to the definition of Rolled Throughput Yield which of these items best describe the purpose of RTY?

A. A function of Y=f(x)
B. Accounts for losses due to rework and scrap
C. Isolates the increase throughput
D. Determines incremental Growth

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 45
The following Business Case is constructed properly.
“In business unit A there are too many flashlight returns and flashlight sales have decreased by 25 percent.”

A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 46
To create standardization of financial benefit calculations project savings are typically based on savings over what period of time?

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A. 6 months
B. 12 months
C. 24 months
D. The remainder of the calendar year
E. The remainder of the fiscal year

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 47
The essence of Lean is to concentrate effort on removing waste while improving process flow to achieve speed and agility at lower cost.

A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 48
Lean removes many forms of ______________ so Six Sigma can focus on reducing _______________.

A. Waste, variability
B. Inventory, defects
C. Waste, cost
D. Movement, variation

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

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Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 49
Which element of waste best describes "the unnecessary movement of materials and/or goods"?

A. Overprocessing
B. Motion
C. Conveyance
D. Correction

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 50
Which element of waste best describes "the cost of an idle resource"?

A. Waiting
B. Motion
C. Inventory
D. Correction

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 51
Lean Enterprise is based on the premise that anywhere work is being done which of these is also occurring?

A. Money is being spent

B. Waste is being generated
C. People are producing value added product

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D. Waste is being eliminated

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 52
When constructing a Fishbone Diagram using the ________ approach is the most classic arrangement.

A. 6M
B. 4M
C. 5M
D. Alphabetical

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 53
The 5 Why Analysis is only useful if the possible independent variable can be broken down into five possible causes.

A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 54
The purpose of a Process Map is to identify the complexity of the process and to assist in identifying critical steps in the process.

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A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 55
The very best way to begin an effort to map a process is to do which of these?

A. Interview the process owner

B. Interview the manager of the department
C. Walk the actual process from beginning to end
D. Take pictures of the factory floor at each shift

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 56
When utilizing Statistics the population is defined as a collection of all the individual data points of interest.

A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 57
When looking at a distribution graph, the Mean is defined as the __________.

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A. Average based on the sample size
B. Aggression measured
C. Total sample size
D. Measurement based off a quarter of the sample size

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 58
The Empirical Rule is important because it provides an estimate of the probability of an event occurring depending on the Standard Deviation from the Mean.

A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 59
The Z score is a measure of the distance in Standard Deviations of a sample data point from the Median of the sample population.

A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 60

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If a Histogram displays two peaks the distribution would likely be _____________.

A. Transformed
B. Multi-skewed
C. Bimodal
D. Bi-attribute

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 61
A Belt gathered the following defect data for a shoe production line and wanted to assemble it into a Pareto Chart. The correct order from left to right in the chart
would be:

Data:
Cutting 38
Forming 17
Stitching 56
Sealing 42

A. Forming, Sealing, Cutting, Stitching

B. Sealing, Stitching, Forming, Cutting
C. Stitching, Sealing, Cutting, Forming
D. Forming, Cutting, Sealing, Stitching

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 62
Measurement error is defined as the effect of all sources of measurement variability that caused an observed or measured value to deviate from the __________.

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A. Standard Deviation
B. Mean
C. Median
D. True value

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 63
The Accuracy of a Measurement System addresses _________________.

A. Stability, Bias & Linearity

B. Repeatability & Reproducibility
C. Stability & Sensitivity
D. Precision & Sensitivity

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 64
The deviation of the measured value from the actual value is known as _____________.

A. Bias
B. Linearity
C. Repeatability
D. Movement

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

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Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 65
A Stable process is a process whose output is consistent over time. A primary tool used to analyze Stability would be a ________________.

A. Data Forward Plot

B. Bag Plot
C. Min/Max Plot
D. Time Series Plot

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 66
Conducting a viable Capability Analysis using Attribute Data one must obtain a fairly large sample set to be statistically sound.

A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 67
Examples of a Visual Factory include which of these? (Note: There are 2 correct answers).

A. White outlines on floor for proper inventory placement

B. Documented procedures with a numerical outline
C. Bad/Good indications of gauge readings with red and green outlines
D. Implementing a defect inspection device

Correct Answer: AC
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Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 68
Standardized work instructions apply to which resource in the process of interest?

A. People
B. Machines
C. Supervision
D. Engineering

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 69
The reason(s) for not marking the customer Specification Limits (SL) on a Control Chart is which of these? (Note: There are 4 correct answers).

A. Process control teams should not control a process based on SLs

B. Displaying the SLs on a Control Chart sends a wrong signal toward process control
C. Marking the SLs on a Control Chart is against the principle of charting
D. By marking the SLs, one can confuse the operator as to what limits are critical
E. By using mere Control Limits the process only needs to be in Statistical Control

Correct Answer: ABDE

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 70
SPC charts typically have the most recent data point on the right hand side.

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885CB989129A5F974833949052CFB2F2
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 71
Which of these statements describe an undesirable situation when implementing SPC? (Note: There are 2 correct answers).

A. The lower Control Limit for the R chart is equal to zero

B. The Control Limits are wider than the customer specification limits
C. A process is in Statistical Control before implementation of SPC
D. Attempt to use SPC for tracking transaction times at a warehouse
E. Indication of the specification limits on the Control Chart

Correct Answer: BE
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 72
Six Sigma refers to a process whose output has at least 80% of its data points within +/- 6 Standard Deviations from the Mean.

A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 73

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Training cost $6,500 and a project required an initial investment of $47,500. If the project yields monthly savings of $3,500 beginning after 4 months, what is the
payback period in months, before money costs and taxes?

A. 9.7
B. 15.4
C. 19.4
D. 23.7

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 74
Customers to these decision points as CTQ’s which stands for __________.

A. Cost of the quantity

B. Conscious thought qualities
C. Conspicuous time quandaries
D. Critical-to-quality

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 75
According to the definition of Rolled Throughput Yield which of the following items best describe the purpose of RTY?

A. A function of Y=f(x)
B. Determines incremental Growth
C. Isolates the increase throughput
D. Accounts for rejects and reworks

Correct Answer: D

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Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 76
What is the Cycle Time, in minutes, for a process having a Throughput of 360 units per hour?

A. 0.167
B. 0.333
C. 0.667
D. 1.333

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 77
Which element of waste best describes the cost of a resource being in the queue?

A. Waiting
B. Motion
C. Inventory
D. Correction

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 78
Use of the ________ approach is the most classic arrangement when constructing a Fishbone Diagram.

A. Chronological

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885CB989129A5F974833949052CFB2F2
B. 6M
C. 5M
D. Alphabetical

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 79
When creating a Cause and Effect Diagram the team needs to continually broaden their view as well as drill down until they identify all the potential
______________ impacting their process.

A. Line operators
B. Root Causes
C. Inventory issues
D. Customer requests

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 80
The purpose of a Process Map is to identify the complexity of the process and to record all actions and decision points in the process.

A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

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885CB989129A5F974833949052CFB2F2
QUESTION 81
The FMEA is used to analyze potential source of defects in the process of interest and stands for ________________________.

A. Failure Measure for Effective Automation

B. Failure Modes and Effect Analysis
C. Focused Mental Efforts Analyze
D. Failed Manufacturing Efforts Analyzed

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 82
With the use of Statistics we define the population to be a large enough sample set of data such that you can analyze it and draw conclusions as to all of the data.

A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 83
If the data displayed in a Histogram displays two peaks the distribution would likely be _____________.

A. Transformed
B. Multi-skewed
C. Bi-attribute
D. Bimodal

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

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Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 84
Measurement System Analysis is a procedure used to quantify all ____________ in the method or system used for taking measurements.

A. Totals
B. People involved
C. Variation
D. Summations

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 85
The deviation of the measured value from the actual value regardless of the operator is known as ______________.

A. Linearity
B. Bias
C. Repeatability
D. Movement

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 86
The reported Cpk for a process with an average of 94 units, a spread of 22 units and upper and lower specification limits of 125 and 80 units would be?

A. 0.64
B. 1.27

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C. 1.84
D. 2.12

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

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