BB Aytona Aug 2021
BB Aytona Aug 2021
HISTORY
First blood transfusion: 1492, ________________
Braxton Hicks: recommend Sodium phosphate as blood preservative
Karl Landsteiner: discover the ABO blood group system
Hustin: uses sodium citrate as an anticoagulant
Lewisohn determined the minimum amount of citrate needed for anticoagulation and demonstrated its nontoxicity in small
amounts
Rous and Turner: introduced the citrate dextrose preservative
Dr. Charles Drew: director of first American Red Cross blood bank
Loutit and Mollison: introduced the ACD preservative
Gibson: introduced Citrate Phosphate Dextrose preservative
BASIC GENETICS
Study of transmission of inherited characteristics
Important in the study of antigen inheritance and inherited disorders
Normal Number of Human chromosome: 46 (1 pair of 23 chromosome coming from each parent)
Gene: A segment of DNA arranged along the chromosome at a specific position called locus. Gene at a specific locus that
differ in their nucleotide sequence are called alleles
Dosage effect: Presence of homozygous genotype can express itself with more antigen than the heterozygous
genotype
Genotype: Total genetic composition of an individual, representing maternally and paternally derived genes. It is the
complement of DNA that is inherited.
Phenotype: Detectable or expressed characteristics of genes
Most of the antigens in the various blood group system generally follow straightforward inheritance patterns, usually
CODOMINANT nature.
Autosomal dominant traits are routinely encountered in the blood bank, as most blood group genes are codominant and
are on autosomal chromosomes
Population genetics Concerning genetic traits in large numbers of individuals
Cellular genetics Pertains to the cellular organization of genetic material
Molecular genetics Based on the biochemistry of genes and the structures that support them
Gregor Mendel The father of genetics. The one who postulated the law of inheritance
Law of independent or The first mendel law
random segregation
Law of independent State that genes for different traits are inherited separately from each other. This allows for all
assortment possible combinations of genes to occur in the offspring
Autosomal refers to traits that are not carried on the sex chromosomes.
Recessive trait carried by either parent or both parents but is not generally seen at the phenotypic level unless both
parents carry the trait
Heterochromatin Stains as dark bands
Achromatin stains as light bands and consists of highly condensed regions that are usually not transcriptionally
active
Eurochromatin the swollen form of chromatin in cells, which is considered to be more active in the synthesis of RNA
for transcription
Human chromosomes Humans have a complement of 46 chromosomes arranged into23 pairs; one member of each pair is
inherited from the father and the other from the mother. Each of the members of one chromosome
pair is referred to as a chromosome homologue. Of the pairs, 22 are called autosomes; the
remaining pair represents the sex chromosomes of which males have an X and a Y and females have
two Xs
Meiosis Meiosis is the process of cell division unique to gametes (ova and sperm). In contrast to mitosis, the
process of meiosis produces four gametes with genetic variability. This results in four unique, rather
than two identical, daughter cells.
Mitosis Is the process of replication in nucleated body cells (except ova and sperm cells).
Transcription the cellular process by which one strand of duplex DNA is copied into RNA
Translation the cellular process by which RNA transcripts are turned into proteins and peptides, the functional
molecules of the cell
Mixed-field agglutination may look like small to large agglutinates with unagglutinated cells. Mixed-
CAUSES: receiving non-ABO-type specific RBCs, ABO subgroups (A3),and bone marrow or hematopoietic stem cell transplantation
ABO MATING
AxA AA x AA A (AA)
Example: both parents are blood type A AA x AO A (AA or AO)
AO x AO A ( AA or AO) or O (OO)
Possible outcome: A, B , AB ,O
I. A-SUBGROUPS
- A1 and A2 describe by Von Dungern
ANTIGEN PRESENT Anti-A ANTI-A1 Lectin
A1 - 80% of the A population
A2 20% of the A population
NOTE: 1-8% of A2 produces anti A1 , 22 -35% of A2B produces Anti-A1
NOTE: The very potent gene A1 creates between 810,000 and 1,170,000 antigen sites on the adult A1 RBC, whereas inheriting an
A2 gene results in production of only 240,000 to 290,000 antigen sites on the adult A2 RBC
Source of Anti-A1 lectin: from plant Dolichos biflorus
III. B Subgroups
PHENOTYPES DESCRIPTION
B3 Mixed field agglutination with anti-B and or anti-AB
Bx Agglutination with Anti-AB (wk /0 with anti-B)
Bm No agglutination with anti-B and anti-AB, secretors demonstrates quantities of B substances
in saliva
Bel No agglutination with anti-B and anti-AB, secretors contain only H substance and no B
substance in saliva
Bandeiraea simplicifolia Source of anti-B lectin. Used to agglutinates B cells that have been enzyme pretreated
ANTI-AB
1. used to identify weak subgroups of A and B
2. Has a higher titer compared to Anti-A or Anti-B alone
ACQUIRED ANTIGENS
Acquired A antigen Reported in persons of type O or B in association with severe infections caused by Proteus
mirabilis
Tn-activated erythrocytes c
Acquired B antigen Associated with conditions : EPIC
E.Coli 086 infection, Proteus vulgaris, Intestinal obstruction, Carcinoma of colon
Occurs only on Group A individual, and maybe mistyped as Group AB in forward grouping
TECHNICAL ERRORS
- Incorrect or inadequate identification of blood specimens, test, tubes, or slides
- Cell suspension either too heavy or too light
- Clerical errors or incorrect recording of results
- A mix-up in samples
- Missed observation of hemolysis
- Failure to add reagents and/or sample
- Uncalibrated centrifuge
- Overcentrifugation or undercentrifugation
- Contaminated reagents
- Warming during centrifugation
REMEMBER
Serum and antiserum should always be added first, followed by the patient or reagent RBCs to avoid both reagent contamination
and potential omission of either patient sample or reagent.
DISCREPANCIES
Group I Causes
Weakly reacting or Newborns
missing antibodies Elderly patients
Patients with leukemia demonstrating hypogammaglobulinemia
-Most common Patient with immunodeficiency
-discrepancies on Patient with bone marrow transplantations
reverse typing Patient taking immunosuppressive drugs
REMEDY
Obtaining patient clinical history may immediately resolve this type of discrepancy.
An auto control and O cell control must always be tested concurrently with the reverse typing
when trying to solve discrepancy
incubating the patient serum with reagent A1 and B cells at room temperature for approximately
15 to 30 minutes or by adding one or two drops more plasma or serum to the test.
Group II Causes
Weakly reacting or Subgroups of A and B
missing antigens Leukemias
REMEDY
The agglutination of weakly reactive antigens with the reagent antisera can be enhanced by
incubating the test mixture at room temperature for up to 30 minutes, which will increase the
association of the antibody with the RBC antigen.
RBCs can also be pretreated with enzymes and retested with reagent antisera.
For acquired B
a.check for secretor status only A substance is secreted in acquired B
b.treating the RBC with acetic anhydride reacetylates the surface molecules, then markedly
decreases the reactivity of the cells tested with anti-B (note: normal B cell reactivity is not
affected by acetic anhydride)
Acquired B antigen is also not agglutinated when reacted with anti-B that has a pH
greater than 8.5 or less than 6
In cases of Antibodies to low incidence antigens , repeating the forward type, using antisera
with a different lot number will resolve the problem
Group III Causes
Protein or plasma in cord blood samples
abnormalities High level of globulin : MM, WM, plasma cell dyscracias
High level of fibrinogen
-discrepancies on Plasma expanders such as Dextran and polyvinylpyrrolidone
both forward and Rouleaux
reverse
REMEDY
8x
For rouleaux =
Saline replacement technique - serum is removed and replaced by an equal volume of saline
a. Rouleaux = will free the cells in the case of rouleaux formation
b. True Agglutination = clumping will still remain after the addition of saline
Group IV Causes
Miscellaneous Polyagglutination
problems Cold reactive autoantibodies
Unexpected ABO isoagglutinins ( e.g., Anti-A1 from A2, Anti-H from A1B individual)
-discrepancies on Unexpected non-ABO alloantibodies
both forward and Circulating RBCs of more than one ABO group due to RBC transfusion or marrow/stem cell transplant
reverse
REMEDY
Cold auto antibodies = perform DAT test, then
a. s RBCs could be incubated at 37°C for a short period, then washed with saline at 37°C
three times and retyped. If this is not successful in
RBCs can be treated with 0.01 M dithiothreitol (DTT) to disperse IgM-related agglutination. As
for the serum, the reagent RBCs and serum can be warmed to 37°C for 10 to 15 minutes,
mixed, tested, and read at 37°C
b. a cold autoabsorption (patient cells with patient serum) could be performed to remove the cold
autoantibody from the serum
Chimerism presence of two cells population in an individual. True chimerism occurs only in twins and is rarely
found
BGSS Blood group specific soluble(BGSS) substances present in the plasma, which sometimes occurs with certain
diseases, such as carcinoma of the stomach and pancreas. Excess amounts of BGSS substances will neutralize
the reagent anti-A or anti-B, leaving no unbound antibody to react with the patient cells and yields a false-
negative or weak reaction in the forward grouping
This substance is a viscous mucopolysaccharide material present on cord blood cells that may cause the red
jelly
CIS AB inheritance of both AB genes from one parent carried on one chromosome and an O gene inherited from the
other parent that results in the offspring inheriting three ABO genes instead of two.
ABO DISCREPANCIES BETWEEN FORWARD AND REVERSE TYPING (Harmening)
FORWARD REVERSE
GROUPING GROUPING
Anti Anti-B A1 B O Auto Possible Cause RESOLUTION
-A Cells cells cells Control
-Group O newborn or Check age and diagnosis
0 0 0 0 0 0 elderly patient of patient and immunoglobulin levels; if
-Patient may have possible incubate at RT for 30 min or at
4°C for 15 min; include group O and
agammaglobulinemia/Hypo
autologous cells at 4°C
gammaglobulinemia
-patient may be taking
immunosuppressive drugs
4+ 0 1+ 4+ 0 0 -Subgroup of A: probable React patient cells with anti-A1 lectin,
A2 with Anti-A1 test serum against additional
A1, A2, and O cells; run autocontrol
TERMINOLOGIES OF Rh System
1.Fisher-Race (DCE)
-based on the theory that antigen of the systems were produced by three closely linked set of alleles, each gene was responsible for
producing a product
Fisher race antigens: D, C ,E ,c, e
Rh null =
Rh ANTIBODIES
They are immune antibodies
Do not bind complement
Causes extravascular hemolysis
Number one cause of HDN (previously)
Causes delayed HTR
UNUSUAL PHENOTYPES Cw , f(ce), rhi(Ce) , G , Hr0, Rh:23, Rh:30, Rh:40 , e variants, V, Vs, Rh43
The f antigen is expressed on the RBC when both c and e are present on the same
haplotype. It has been called a compound antigen
G is an antigen present on most D-positive and all C-positive RBCs.
For transfusion purposes, it is not necessary to discriminate anti-D and anti-C from anti-G,
as the patient would receive D-negative and C-negative blood regardless if the antibody is
anti-D, anti-C, or anti-G.
Rh43, also known as the Crawford antigen, is a low-prevalence antigen on a variant Rhce
protein
RH TYPING REAGENTS
Saline reactive reagents Saline reactive reagents, which contain IgM immunoglobulin, were the first typing reagents available
to test for the D antigen
Saline anti-D has the advantage of being low-protein based and can be used to test cells that are
already coated with IgG antibody, as in patients who have autoantibodies binding to their RBCs
The primary disadvantages of saline typing reagents are their limited availability, cost of production,
and lengthy incubation time. Because saline anti-D is an IgM immunoglobulin, it cannot be used for
weak D typing.
High protein Anti-D High-protein anti-D reagents (poly-specific reagent) were developed that consisted primarily of IgG
reagents anti-D. Human plasma containing high-titer D-specific antibody was used as the raw material.
Potentiators of bovine albumin and macromolecular additives, such as dextran, were added to the
source material to optimize reactivity
Advantages: reduced incubation time, ability to perform weak D and slide typing with the same
reagent
Chemically modified Rh Chemically modified Rh typing reagents alter the IgG anti-D molecule by breaking the disulfide
typing reagents
Can be used for both slide and tube testing and do not require a separate, manufactured Rh
control as long as the samples type as A, B, or O.
When samples test AB Rh-positive or when the Rh test is performed by itself, a separate saline
control or 6% to 8% albumin control must be used to ensure the observed reactions are true
agglutination and not a result of spontaneous agglutination.
Rh monoclonal these reagents are not human-derived, they lack all potential for transmitting infectious disease.
antibodies reagents These reagents are derived from single clones of antibody-producing cells
It is prepared by hybridoma technology
LEWIS ANTIGENS
Cord blood and red cells from newborn /infants phenotype as Le(a-b-)
Decrease in expression on red cells from many pregnant women
Lea and Leb are NOT antithetical
Le(a+b ) RBCs are from ABH nonsecretors and Le(a b+) RBCs are from ABH secretors. Individuals with the Le(a b )
RBC phenotype are either secretors or nonsecretors.
The Le(a b ) phenotype is found more frequently among Africans.
The Le(a+b+) phenotype is rare among whites and Africans but is more frequent among Asians
In children who inherit both Le and Se genes, the transformation can be followed from the Le(a b ) phenotype at birth
to Le(a+b ) after 10 days to Le(a+b+) and finally to Le(a b+), the true Lewis phenotype, after about 6 years.
In contrast, children who inherit Le and sese genes phenotype as Le(a b ) at birth and transform to Le(a+b ) after 10
days; the Le(a+b ) phenotype persists throughout life
LEWIS ANTIBODIES
-Anti-Lea(most common) , Anti-Leb
-Naturally occurring antibody
-IgM in nature
-easily neutralized by plasma
-Can bind complement and rarely can cause HTR if anti-Lea
GENOTYPE SUBSTANCE(SECRETION) REDCELL PHENOTYPE ANTIBODY PRESENT
ABH lele sese none ABH (Le a-b-) Anti-Lea , Anti-Leb
ABH lele SeSe ABH ABH (Le a-b-) Anti-Lea , Anti-Leb
ABH LeLe sese Lea ABH (Le a+b-) Anti-Leb
ABH LeLe SeSe ABH, Lea , Leb ABH (Le-b+) None
ISBT 003 P: P1PK BLOOD GROUP SYSTEM
The P blood group was introduced in 1927 by Landsteiner and Levine.
In their search for new antigens, they injected rabbits with human RBCs and produced an antibody, initially
called anti-P, that divided human RBCs into two groups: P+ and P .
P1 Antigen Poorly expressed at birth and may take up to 7 years to be fully expressed
It deteriorates rapidly on storage - older RBCs used as control for typing reagents can lead to
false negative result
P1 substance has been identified in Hydatid cyst fluid, Lumbricoides terrestris(common earth
worm) and Ascaris suum
P1 like antigen has been found on : plasma, droppings of pigeon and turtledoves, eggwhite of
turtle doves
Blacks have a stronger expression of P1 than whites
Pk The Pk antigen is a marker of apoptosis in germinal center B cells,Burkitt lymphoma, and
lymphoblastic leukemia
Anti-P Naturally occurring alloantibody in sera of all Pk individuals
testing
Auto Anti-P specificity is found as an IgG autoantibody in patient with Paroxysmal
cold hemoglobinuria
Anti-P1 Common, naturally occurring IgM antibody in the sera of P2 individuals
Anti-P1 is usually IgM; IgG forms are rare. HDFN is not associated with anti-P1
Strong anti-P1 was observed in individuals infected with Echinoccocus granulosus
Strong antibodies to P1 have also been found in patients with fascioliasis (bovine liver fluke
disease) and in bird handlers
Anti- PP1Pk Originally called as Anti- Tja,was first described in the serum of Mrs. Jay, a p individual with
adenocarcinoma of the stomach
produced by p individuals early in life without RBC sensitization and reacts with all RBCs except
those of the p phenotype
Reacts over a wide thermal range ( both IgM and IgG)
Associated with spontaneous abortions in early pregnancy
Has potential to cause severe HTRs and HDFN.
Anti-Pk Isolated from some examples of Anti- PP1Pk by selective adsorption with P1 Cells
Associated with billiary cirrhosis and autoimmune hemolytic anemia
Disease association
The P system antigens also serve as receptors for P-fimbriated uropathogenic E. coli a cause of urinary tract infections. The Pk
antigen is a receptor for Shiga toxins, which cause Shigella dysentery and E. coli associated hemolytic uremic syndrome. In
addition, P is the receptor of human parvovirus B19. Pk provides some protection against HIV infection of peripheral blood
mononuclear cells
Disease Associations
Glycophorin A may serve as the receptor by which certain pyelonephritogenic strains of E. coli gain entry to the urinary tract
The malaria parasite Plasmodium falciparum appears to use alternative receptors, including GPA and GPB
intravascular hemolysis
Production of autoanti-I may be stimulated by microorganisms carrying I-like antigen on their
surface
Patients with Mycoplasma pnuemoniae often develop strong cold agglutinins with I
specificity as a cross-reactive response to Mycoplasma antigen
Listeria monocytogenes organism from a patient with cold autoimmune hemolytic anemia has
been reported to absorb anti-I and stimulate its production in rabbits
It is associated with cold agglutinin disease
Anti-i autoanti-i is not seen as a common antibody in healthy individuals.
Reacts best with saline-suspended cells at 4°
Most autoanti-i are IgM
IgG anti-i has also been described and has been associated with HDN
Potent examples are associated with: INFECTIOUS MONONUCLEOSIS
Anti-IT Naturally occurring antibody among Melanesians, coastal residents of Papua new Guinea,
Yayoma, and Venezuela
Examples of IgM and IgG anti-IT reacting preferentially at 37°C have also been found in
patients with warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia, with a special association with
lymphoma
I and i antigens reactivity
Phenotype Anti-I Anti-i Anti-IT
Adult I RBC Strong -/Weak -/Weak
Cord RBC -/Weak Strong Strong
Adult i RBC -/Weak Strong -/Weakest
Disease Associations
Anti-I associated with cold agglutinin disease and M. pneumoniae, and anti-i is associated with infectious mononucleosis.
Conditions associated with increased i antigen on RBCs include those with shortened marrow maturation time or
dyserythropoiesis: acute leukemia, hypoplastic anemia, megaloblastic anemia, sideroblastic anemia, thalassemia, sickle cell
disease, paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH), and chronic hemolytic anemia
Chronic dyserythropoietic anemia type II or hereditary erythroblastic multinuclearity with a positive acidified serum test
(HEMPAS) is associated with much greater i activity
In Asians, the i adult phenotype has been associated with congenital cataracts
ISBT(008) DUFFY BLOOD GROUP SYSTEM
The Duffy blood group system was named for Mr. Duffy, a multiply transfused hemophiliac who in 1950 was found to
have the first described example of anti-Fya.
Fya and Fyb Identified on fetal red cells as early as 6 weeks gestational age and are well developed at
birth
Destroyed by common proteolytic enzymes
Fyx an inherited weak form of Fyb that reacts with some examples of anti-Fyb
Fy6
Is an important for invasion for P.vivax and P.knowlesi
Anti-Fya and anti-Fyb Usually IgG and react best at the antiglobulin phase
Activity is enhanced in a low ionic strength solution
Do not react with enzyme treated cells
Anti-Fya and anti-Fyb have been associated with acute and delayed HTRs
Associated with hemolytic transfusion reactions, not often severe
Anti-Fya is the most common antibody found in Duffy BGS
Some examples of anti-Fya and anti-Fyb show dosage effect
Fy3 antigen and Anti found in the serum of an Fy(a b )
fy3 Unlike Fya and Fyb, the Fy3 antigen is not destroyed by enzymes.
Fy(a-b-) -resist infection in vitro by the monkey malaria organism Plasmodium knowlesi and Plasmodium vivax
-has been linked to lower neutrophil counts, susceptibility to infection, renal disease, and reduced graft survival
following renal transplantation
Jk (a+b-) 23 57 23
Jk (a+b+) 49 34 50
Jk (a-b+) 23 9 27
Jk (a-b-) Exceedingly rare Exceedingly rare <0.1-0.9
Note! Jk(a-b-) or the null phenotype- lack Jka , Jkb, and common Jk3 antigen, although very rare, this phenotype is most
abundant among Polynesian, and is identified in Filipinos, Indonesian, Chinese, and Japanese . It also resist lysis to 2M urea
KELL ANTIGENS
Excluding ABO, K is rated second only to D in terms of immunogenicity
The K antigen can be detected on fetal RBCs as early as 10 weeks and is well developed at birth.
Kell blood group antigens are found only on RBCs
Kell antigen expression is dependent upon the presence of the Xk protein
The absence of Xk results in McLeod syndrome. It is also associated with CGD(Chronic granulomatous disease)
The prevalence of K antigen is low, and the chance of receiving a K+ unit is small
-Depressed Kell antigens are seen on RBCs with the rare Gerbich-negative phenotypes Ge: 2, 3, 4 and Ge: 2, 3, 4.
-Patients with autoimmune hemolytic anemia, in which the autoantibody is directed against a Kell antigen, may have depressed
expression of that antigen.
Phenotypes Whites Black
K-k+ 91.0 96.5
K+k+ 8.8 3.5
K+k- 0.2 <0.1
Kp (a+b-) <0.1 0
Kp(a+b+) 2.3 Rare
Kp (a-b+) 97.7 100
Js (a+b-) 0 1
Js (a+b+) Rare 19
Js (a-b+) 100 80
KELL ANTIBODIES
Anti- K
Outside of the ABO and Rh antibodies, anti-K is the most common antibody seen in the blood bank
Anti-K was identified in 1946 in the serum of Mrs. Kelleher.
Usually an IgG antibody reactive in the antiglobulin phase
Naturally occurring IgM examples of anti-K are rare and have been associated with bacterial infections
Implicated in severe hemolytic transfusion reaction
Associated with severe hemolytic disease of newborn
OTHERS
Kx antigen Kx is present on all RBCs except those of the rare McLeod phenotype. Ko and Kmod phenotype RBCs have
increased Kx antigen
K0 phenotype Ko RBCs lack expression of all Kell antigens.
Anti -Ku -Ku has caused both HDFN
and HTRs
McLeod Rare phenotype with decreased Kell system antigen expression and abnormal RBC morphology,
Phenotype which has been associated with X-linked CGD, which is rare disorder affecting only males
McLeod phenotype RBCs lack Kx and the Kell system highprevalence antigen, Km, and have
marked depression of all other Kell antigens
Individuals develop a slow, progressive form of muscular dystrophy
Findings: hemolytic anemia, reticulocytosis, bilirubinemia, splenomegaly, and acanthocytosis
Antibodies:
Anti- CROM antibodies are described as predominantly IgG1, red cell stimulated, and
reactive in IAT
CROM antibodies are rarely observed, with majority examples are on black individuals
ISBT 022 KNOPS Antigens: Kna ,Knb , McC (Mccoy) , SIa , and Yka(York)
Alleles for the KN blood group have been located on chromosome 1, with the antigens
residing on complement receptor 1 (CR1)
Antibodies:
KN antibodies are characterized as IgG, red cell stimulated, and reacting weakly and variably
at the IAT phase, viewed to be of little clinical importance NO HDN AND HTR
ISBT 023 INDIAN Antigens: Ina , Inb
IN antigens are carried on the hematopoietic isoform of the CD44 marker, which is known
for its immune adhesion properties
Antibodies:
IN antibodies are characterized as IgG, red cell stimulated ,and reactive in IAT
ISBT 024 Ok The OK antigens are carried on CD147, or basigin, a member of the immunoglobulin
superfamily that mainly functions as receptors and adhesion molecules
Basigin is a receptor essential for invasion by Plasmodium falciparum
Oka is well developed on RBCs from newborns and is resistant to treatment with ficin and
papain, DTT, and glycine-acid EDTA
ISBT 025 RAPH The only antigen in the Raph system is MER2
It was shown that MER2 is located on CD151, a tetraspanin, which appears to be essential
for the assembly of basement membranes in the kidney and skin
Three examples of alloanti-MER2 were found in Jews originating from India and living in
Israel; two were related. All three had end-stage renal disease
ISBT 026 JOHN JMH is a high-prevalence antigen
MILTON HAGEN Anti-JMH is usually IgG (predominantly IgG4 in acquired JMH-negative people).
ISBT 029 GILL The ISBT Gill system symbol is GIL and number 029. There is only one antigen, GIL.
This antigen is found on the glycerol transporter aquaporin 3 (AQP3), a member of the
major intrinsic protein family of water and glycerol channels
ISBT 030 RHAG The Rh-associated glycoprotein (RhAG) does not have Rh blood group antigens; however, its
presence in a complex with the Rh proteins is essential for Rh antigen expression
Absence of RhAG due to inactivating mutations in RHAG results in the Rhnull phenotype;
some missense mutations in RHAG result in the Rhmod phenotype.
Four antigens have been assigned to the RHAG system: Duclos (high prevalence), Ola (very
rare, low prevalence), the high prevalence DSLK (for Duclos-like), and RHAG4
ISBT 031 FORS In 1987, the Forssman glycosphingolipid was first thought to be a subgroup of A called Apae
The ISBT symbol is FORS and the number 31; there is only one antigen, FORS1
The GBGTI gene produces glycosyltransferase, which causes the formation of the Forssman
glycolipid by the addition of N-acetylgalactosamine (GalNAc) to the P antigen.
Healthy and malignant human tissue such as gastric and colonic mucosa, lung, and kidney
have been reported to express the Forssman glycolipid
The Forssman glycolipid can serve as a receptor for pathogens such as Escherichia coli,
making one believe that human cells that express the FORS1 may have an increased
susceptibility to E. coli infection.
ISBT 032 JR Jra is a high-prevalence antigen in most populations; the Jr(a ) phenotype is found more
commonly in Japanese
The gene ABCG2 is located on chromosome 4 at position 4q22.1. The encoded protein,
ABCG2, is a member of the adenosine triphosphate (ATP) binding cassette transporters
broadly distributed throughout the body. It is involved in multidrug resistance in tumor cells,
presenting a problem in chemotherapy
Anti-Jra is usually IgG
ISBT O33 LAN There is only one antigen, Lan, with an occurrence of greater than 99% in all populations.
The Lan phenotype occurs in about 1 in 20,000 people.
The Lan gene, ABCB6, located on chromosome 2 at position 2q36, encodes another of the
ATP-binding cassette transporters.4 ABCB6 functions in heme synthesis with the ATP-
dependent uptake of heme and porphyrins into mitochondria.
Anti-Lan is considered clinically significant; the first anti-Lan caused an immediate HTR. Lan
RBCs should be selected for transfusion
ISBT 035 CD59 CD59 is a GPI-linked complement-regulatory glycoprotein also known as the membrane
inhibitor of lysis (MIRL).
CD59 plays a key role in protecting against complement regulated hemolysis by binding to
C8 and C9 thus interfering with the formation of the membrane-attach complex (MAC).
Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH) is an acquired hemolytic anemia caused
by a mutation in the GPI-linker gene. PNH patients are deficient in all GPI-linked proteins,
including CD59.
Note! ADDENDUM High Incidence antigens- occurring 99% of the population
Ex: Augustine (Ata) ,Crome (Cra) , Ena, Gerbich, Gregory (Gya) , Holley (Hy),
Jacobs (Jra), Joseph (Joa), Langereis (Lan) , and Vel (Ve)
*Augustine ,Cromer, and Joseph are phenotypes predomoninant in blacks
LUKE(LKE) Antigen Associated with lymphoma, and metastasis in renal carcinoma
Decreased expression of the LKE is seen in individuals with the Se gene with secretors having a 3-
to 4-fold decreased risk of E.coli infections
it was thought to be phenotypically related to P Blood group syste, because the antibody reacted
with all RBCs except 2% of P1 and P2 phenotypes and those having the rare p and Pk
phenotypes. All individuals with the p and Pk phenotype are Luke .
Antibodies are IgM and is not associated with HTR and HDN
SDa Sda = The Sda antigen is a high-prevalence antigen named for Sid, who was the head of the
maintenance department at the Lister Institute in London. The soluble form of Sda is Tamm-
Horsfall glycoprotein found in urine. The antigen is not expressed on RBCs of newborns but
is in their saliva, urine, and meconium
Anti-Sda is usually an IgM agglutinin that is reactive at room temperature, but it can be detected
in the indirect antiglobulin test and does not react with cord RBCs. Reactivity is described as
small, refractile (shiny) agglutinates in a sea of free RBCs.
Bennett goodspeed a, Bgb, and Bgc) was given to HLA class I antigens that are detectable on
Note!
Low incidence Antigens- occurs less than 1% of the population
Ex: Wright blood group system, Swann (Swa), Mta, and Tra
Private antigen: an antigenic characteristic of the red blood cell membrane that is unique to an individual
or a related family of individuals and therefore is not commonly found on all cells( usually <1% of
population)
Ex: anti-Ch/Rg , Anti-Kn, Anti-Yk (york) , Anti-Cs (Cost), Anti-JMH , and Anti-Mccoy
When an uncommon antibody is detected, understanding antigen and antibody characteristics and how they relate to frequency,
ethnicity, enzymes, and chemical treatments is critical in the identification process
ANTIBODY CHARACTERISTICS
Naturally Occuring LIPMAN! - Lewis, I, P, MNs, AB, Lutheran
Clinically significant ABO, Rh, Kell, Duffy, Kidd, SsU
Warm antibodies Rh, Kell, Duffy, Kidd
Cold antibodies LIPMAN Lewis, I, P, MNs, AB, Lutheran
React only in AHG Kell, Duffy, Kidd
Can react in any phase of testing Lewis
Enhanced by enzyme Kidd, Lewis, I, Rh, P
Destroyed by enzyme MN, Duffy, Ch, Yt
Enhanced by acidification M
Dosage Effect Kidd, Rh, Duffy, MN, Lutheran*(rare)
Bind Complement P, I, Lewis, ABO, Kidd
Most common cause of DHTR Kidd
POLYAGGLUTINATION
An agglutination altered by RBCs by a large proportion of ABO compatible adult human sera
ACQUIRED: MICROBIALLY-ASSOCIATED
T polyagglutination Neuraminidase which is produced by bacteria such as pneumoccoci,
C.perfringens and V.cholerae and viruses such as influenza
Th polyagglutination Weaker neuraminidase enzyme : Clostridia, Bacteroides, E.coli, and Proteus
Tk polyagglutination Endo Beta galactosidases And Exo Beta galactosidases : B.fragilis,
S.marcescens, A.niger, and C.albicans
Tx polyagglutination Unidentified bacterial or viral infection
Acquired B polyagglutination E.coli and P.vulgaris
VA polyagglutination Mirobial fucosidase enzyme ; depressed H antigen
Tn Polyagglutination Mutation in the hematopoietic tissue; clone of cells that lack B-3-D-
- it is NON MICROBIALLY ASSOCIATED galactosyltransferase
INHERITED
Cad Inherited autosomal dominant condition, Cad Antigen
Hb M Hyde-Park Reported in south-african family of mixed race
NOR Inherited dominant form of polyagglutination, Norfolk Virginia
HEMPAS/CDA II Hereditary Erythroblastic multinuclearity with a Positive acidified serum
Congenital Dyserythropoietic anemia type II.
-Autosomal recessive condition characterized by abnormal RBC membranes, multinucleated
erythroblast in the BM and RBCs that have a second membrane internal and parallel to the
external membrane
Blood transfusion options for person exhibiting polyagglutinables RBCs include WASHED RBC and minor
crossmatch techniques to detect plasma compatible units that do not contain the polyagglutination
LECTIN REAGENTS
Dolichos biflorus. Source of anti-A1 lectin
Ulex europeus Source of anti-H lectin
Bandeiraea simplicifolia. Source of anti B lectin
Iberis amara. Source of anti-M lectin
Vicia graminea. Source of anti-N lectin
ANTIBODY SCREEN
1. TUBE METHOD
Traditional testing method used to detect clinically significant antibodies is the IAT performed in a test tube
Procedure:
1drop of Reagent Known RBC suspension (2 to 5%) + 2 drops Patient plasma --- Incubate wash (3to4x) --
centrifuge and observe for hemolysis or agglutination
This test may include an immediate spin (IS) phase to detect antibodies reacting at room temperature
sensitize any reagent RBCs that possess the target antigen. Enhancement reagent may be added to the test tube prior to
incubation at 37°C to increase the degree of sensitization
Use of the tube test remains popular due to the flexibility of the test system, the availability of required testing
equipment, and the relative low cost
Disadvantages: instability of the reactions and subjective nature of grading by the technologist, the amount of hands-
on time for the technologist, and problems related to the failure of the washing phase to remove all unbound antibody.
Reagents Used
Screen cells/ RBC The RBC reagents /screen cells used in antibody screen testing come from group O individuals who have
reagents been typed for the most common and the most significant RBC antigens.
Enhancement Various enhancement reagents, or potentiators, may be added to the test system prior to the 37°C
reagents incubation phase to increase sensitivity.
Examples are LISS, 22% Albumin, and PEG
AHG reagents AHG reagent (monospecific or polyspecific) is added to/ included in the test system as it allows for
agglutination of incomplete antibodies.
cells, which are Group O Rh-positive RBCs that have been coated with anti-D
2.GEL TECHNOLOGYAND SOLID PHASE TECHNOLOGY
GEL TECHNOLOGY
Controlled centrifugation red cells through dextran-acrylamide gel and appropriate reagents, predispensed in specially
designed microtube
Can do ABO forward and reverse grouping, Rh typing, DAT, Antibody screening, Antibody identification, and Compatibility
testing
A gel card measures approximately 5× 7 centimeters and consists of six microtubes. Each microtube contains predispensed
gel, diluent, and reagents, if applicable.
Major advantage : Standardization
Disadvantage :Need special instrument/ equipment
Centrifugation time : 10 minutes at 910 rpm
Incubation time : 15 minutes
AGGLUTINATION REACTION
4+ Solid band of agglutinated red cells at the top of the gel column. Usually no red cells are visible in the
bottom of the microtube
3+ Predominant amount of agglutinated red cells towards the top of the gel column with a few
agglutinates staggered below the thicker band. The majority of agglutinates are observed in the
tophalf of the gel
2+ Red cell agglutinates dispersed throughout the gel column with few agglutinates at the bottom of the
microtubes.
Agglutinates should be distributed through the upper and lower halves of the gel.
1+ Red cell agglutinates predominantly observed in the lower half of the gel column with red cells also in
the bottom. These reactions may be weak, with a few agglutinates remaining in the gel area above the
red cell pellet in the bottom of the microtube
Mixed Field Layer of red cell agglutinates at the top of the gel column accompanied by a pellet of unagglutinated
cells in the bottom of the microtube
Negative Red cells forming a well-delineated pellet in the bottom of the microtube. The gel above the
red cell pellet is clear and free of agglutinates
SOLID PHASE TECHNOLOGY
Based on solid phase red cell adherence
Plapp and coworkers reported using solid-phase red cell adherence (SPRCA) for detecting RBC antigens and
antibodies.
Can do antibody screening ,antibody identification, and compatibility testing
AFFINITY COLUMN TECHNOLOGY (Gamma React)
Principle of affinity adherence of IgG sensitized erythrocytes to an immunologically active matrix
Can do antibody screening, antibody identification, and compatibility testing
INTERPRETATION OF RESULTS
Positive test result at any phase of testing indicates the need for antibody identification studies. Evaluation of antibody screen
results, including the autologous control if tested at this time, and patient history (i.e., age, sex, race, diagnosis,
pregnancy and transfusion history, current medications, and intravenous solutions) can provide clues and give direction for
identification and resolution of the antibody or antibodies present
IgM Antibodies of the IgM class react best at room temperature or lower and are capable of causing
agglutination of saline-suspended RBCs (immediate spin reaction)
IgG Antibodies of the IgG class react best at the AHG phase
Autologous control The autologous control is the patient
the antibody screen
NOTE: A positive antibody screen and a negative autologous control indicates that an alloantibody has been
detected
Multiple antibodies More than one screen cell may be positive when the patient has multiple antibodies, when a single
n more than one screen cell, or
autoantibody
and intravenous solutions may provide valuable clues in antibody identification studies, particularly in complex
cases
REAGENT
An antibody identification panel is a collection of 11 to 20 group O reagent RBCs, with various antigen expression.
CASE NUMBER 1
CASE NUMBER 2
I.PRESERVATIVES
APPROVED PRESERVATIVES SHELF LIFE The loss of RBC viability has been correlated with
Acid citrate dextrose (ACD) 21days the storage lesion, which is associated with
Citrate-phosphate-dextrose(CPD) 21 days various biochemical changes
Citrate-phosphate double dextrose (CP2D) 21days
Citrate phosphate adenine (CPDA-1) 35 days
CPDA-2 42 day
COMPONENTS OF BLOOD PRESERVATIVES
Citrate Acts as anticoagulant, chelates calcium
Dextrose provides energy or glucose to RBC; substrate of
ATP
Citric acid lowers pH thus prevent caramelization
Monobasic sodium Maintains pH during storage; necessary for
phosphate maintenance of adequate levels of 2,3-DPG
Increase ATP levels
Adenine Production of ATP (Improve RBC survival from
21 to 35 days)
II.ADDITIVES
These are preserving solutions that are added to the RBCs after removal
of the plasma with or without platelets.
Additive solutions (100 mL to the packed RBCs prepared from a 450-mL
blood collection) reduce hematocrits from around 65% to 80% to
around 55% to 65% with a volume of approximately 300 to 400 mL.
BENEFITS OF RBC ADDITIVE SOLUTIONS include:
a. Extends the shelf-life of RBCs to 42 days by adding nutrients
b. Allows for the harvesting of more plasma and platelets from the
unit
c. Produces a packed RBC of lower viscosity that is easier to infuse
RBCs stored for 42 days in AS-1, AS-3, or AS-5 demonstrated a mean 24-hour post-infusion survival of greater than 75 percent, the
minimum requirement for satisfactory RBC survival
III.REJUVENATION SOLUTIONS
Used in some blood centers to regenerate ATP and 2,3DPG
with the
solution
Rejuvesol- only FDA approved rejuvenation solution
Components: PIGPA /PIPA (Phosphate, Inosine, Glucose, Pyruvate, Adenine)
Currently, rejuvenated RBCs must be washed before infusion to remove the inosine (which may be toxic) and transfused
within 24 hours or frozen for long-term storage
Stored RBCs regain the ability to synthesize 2,3-DPG after transfusion, but levels necessary for optimal hemoglobinoxygen delivery
are not reached immediately. Approximately 24 hours are required to restore normal levels of 2,3-DPG after transfusion.
The 2,3-DPG concentrations after transfusion have been reported to reach normal levels as early as 6 hours post-transfusion. The rate
of restoration of 2,3-DPG is influenced by the acid-base status of the recipient, the phosphorus metabolism, the degree of anemia,
and the overall severity of the disorder
IV.RBC FREEZING
RBC freezing is primarily used for autologous units and the storage of rare blood types.
Frozen RBC Shelf life : 10 years (longest shelf life )
Commonly uses Glycerol , a freezing agent
Advantage High Glycerol (40% Weight per vol) Low Glycerol(20% Weight per vol)
1. Initial freezing temperature 80°C 196°C
2. Need to control freezing rate No Yes
3. Type of freezer Mechanical Liquid nitrogen
4. Maximum storage temperature 65°C 120°C
5. Shipping requirements Dry ice Liquid nitrogen
6. Effect of changes in storage Can be thawed and refrozen Critical
temperature
Advantages Disadvantages
1.Long-term storage (10 years) 1. A time-consuming process
2.Maintenance of RBC viability and function 2. Higher cost of equipment and materials
3. Low residual leukocytes and platelets 3. Storage requirements ( 65°C)
4. Removal of significant amounts of plasma proteins 4. Higher cost of product
DEGYLCEROLIZATION
Removal of glycerol from a unit of red blood cells after thawing has been performed; required to return the cells to a normal
osmolality
Blood unit is exposed to decreasing osmolarity, from hypertonic solution then followed by isotonic solution
The thawing process takes approximately 45 minutes and involves immersing units into a 30° to 37°C water bath and washing
the RBCs with solutions of decreasing osmolarity (e.g., 12% NaCl, 1.6% NaCl, 0.9% NaCl, with 0.2% dextrose)
Shelf-Life /Expiration date: 24HOURS
Deglycerolized blood product should ensure 80% RBC MASS RECOVERY
Glycerol must be removed to a level of less than 1% residual.
Measure the osmolarity of the unit using an osmometer. The osmolarity should be about 420 mOsm (maximum 500 mOsm).
Deglycerolization
High glycerol 12%NaCl 1.6%NaCl 0.9%NaCl with 0.2% dextrose
* An exception to this rule is a donor with sickle trait in which RBCs would hemolyze upon
suspension in hypertonic solution, the 1.6% NaCl should be omitted
Low glycerol 45%NaCl in 15%mannitol 0.9%NaCl
VI.BLOOD SUBSTITUTES
Blood Substitutes
Current research on blood substitutes is focused on two areas: hemoglobin-based oxygen carriers (HBOCs) and
perfluorocarbons(PFCs).
Perfluorocarbons are synthetic hydrocarbon structures in which all hydrogen atoms have been replaced with fluorine. They are
chemically inert, are excellent gas solvents, and carry O2 and CO2 by dissolving them. Because of their small size (about 0.2 um
in diameter), they are able to pass through areas of vasoconstriction and deliver oxygen to tissues that are inaccessible to RBCs.
VII.PLATELET PRESERVATION
Platelets are stored at 20°C to 24°C with maintaining continuous gentle agitation throughout the storage period of 5 days.
Agitation has been shown to facilitate oxygen transfer into the platelet bag and oxygen consumption by the platelets
The positive role for oxygen has been associated with the maintenance of platelet component Ph
Maintaining pH was determined to be a key parameter for retaining platelet viability in vivo when platelets were stored at 20°C
to 24°C
When the bicarbonate buffers are depleted during platelet concentrate storage, the pH rapidly falls to less than 6.2, which is
associated with a loss of platelet viability. In addition, when pH falls below 6.2, the platelets swell and there is a disk-
to-sphere transformation in morphology that is associated with a loss of membrane integrity. The platelets then
become irreversibly swollen, aggregate together, or lyse, and when infused, will not circulate or function. This change is
irreversible when the pH falls to less than 6.2.
DONOR SCREENING
DONATION PROCESS
1. Donor registration
2. Interview and physical exam
3. Donor selection and blood collection
DONOR BLEEDING
Needle insertion:
6. Individuals with a history of dengue or chikungunya virus: defer for 6 months following full recovery
from infection
7. Individuals with tuberculosis: defer for 2 years following confirmation of cure
8. Small pox vaccination
-14 to 21 days or until the scab has fallen off
9. there is no deferral for toxoids or killed or synthetic viral, bacterial, or rickettsial vaccines such as
diphtheria, hepatitis A, hepatitis B, influenza, Lyme disease, pneumococcal polysaccharide, polio
injection (Salk), anthrax, cholera, pertussis, plague, paratyphoid, rabies, Rocky Mountain spotted fever
,tetanus, or typhoid injection if the donor is symptom-free and afebrile
10. men who have sex with men = 12 months or indefinite
MALARIA AABB:
DEFERRAL a. 1year travelers to endemic areas
b. 3 years- Immigrants, refuges, citizens who resided on endemic areas, and diagnosed/infected
with malaria
PHILIPPINES:
a. <6 months : 6 months
b. >6months/ Resident: 1 year
c. Infected : 3 years
Blood Donation Whole Blood Donation
Frequencies a. AABB : 8weeks/ 2 month
b. PHL: 12 weeks/ 3 months
Hemapheresis- 2days
APHERESIS/ HEMAPHERESIS
Apheresis (plural aphereses; from the ancient Greek aphairesis
from the body and passed through an apparatus that separates out one (or more) particular blood constituent. It then returns
CELLULAR LOSS
20% to 29% A platelet donor typically experiences an acute fall in platelet count of __ following apheresis donation
3% Typically, a drop in hematocrit of __ and a fall in platelet count of 22% occur after each granulocyte donation.
METHODS OF CENTRIFUGATION
The donor or patient remains attached to the apheresis instrument for the duration of the procedure; the amount of time for a particular
procedure can range from 45 to 120 minutes. Collection of hematopoietic progenitor cells takes considerably longer.
Intermittent flow centrifugation Requires only one venipuncture, in which blood is withdrawn and reinfused
through the same needle. Once the desired component is separated, the
remaining components are reinfused to the donor, and one cycle is complete
Continous flow centrifugation Procedures withdraw, process, and return the blood to the individual
simultaneously.
Two venipuncture sites are necessary
Membrane filtration Membrane separators are typically composed of bundles of hollow fibers or flat
plate membranes with specific pore sizes
As whole blood flows over the fibers or membrane, plasma passes through the
pores and is collected, while the remainder of the cellular components is
returned to the donor.
DOUBLE RBC PHERESIS
Criteria Male Female
Weight
Height
Hematocrit
DONATION FREQUENCY
APHERESIS COMPONENT FREQUENCY OF DONATION
COLLECTED
Double RBC 16 Weeks
Plasma(frequent) Every 48 hours (no more than two times in 7 days)
Plasma (Infrequent) Every 4 weeks (no more than 13 times a year)
Platelet single apheresis Every 2 days (no more than 2 times in 7 days; no more than 24 times in 12 months)
Granulocytes Every 2 days
ADDITIONAL INFORMATION
Donor Criteria for a. Serum total protein should be at least 6g/dl
plasmapheresis b. If the donor weighs 50 to 80 kg = not more than 500ml WB should be removed at one time
c. If the donor weights more than 80 kg = not more than 600ml WB should be removed at one time
d. FDA guidelines recommend 12 L (14.4 L for donors weighing more than 175 pounds) as the maximum
allowable plasma volume donated per year
Donor criteria for Donor selection criteria for the plateletpheresis donor are the same as for whole blood donation, with two
Plateletpheresis additional requirements.
1. The platelet count must be at least 150,000/uL or 150x109/L
2. Donor should not take medications that interfere with platelet function
a. Aspirin 48 hours deferral
b. Feldene -48 hours deferral
c. Clopidogrel (Plavix), ticlopidine (Ticlid), ticagrelor (Brilinta), vorapaxar (Zontivity), and
prasugrel (Effient) = 14 days deferral
6 to 8 units derived
platelets (random-donor platelets)
Hydroxyl ethyl starch A common sedimentating agent. It enhances the separation of the white cells from the red cells during
centrifugation, which increases the amount of leukocytes collected and decreases the amount of red cell
contamination in the final product for leukapheresis
Physician A qualified, licensed ____ must be responsible for all aspects of the apheresis program.
Operators of Operators of apheresis instruments may be medical technologists (clinical laboratory scientists), nurses, or
apheresis technicians trained on the job and should be friendly and outgoing
Therapeutic pheresis The rationale of therapeutic apheresis (TA) is based on the following:
mechanisms.
Therefore, therapeutic apheresis, like donor apheresis, involves the removal of a specific blood component,
with return of the remaining blood constituents to the patient
The effectiveness of TPE is related to the volume of plasma removed and the concentration of the
pathological substance in the blood. Apheresis is most efficient at removing the substance at the
beginning of the procedure and least efficient at the end
Therapeutic plasma The removal and retention of the plasma, with return of all cellular components to the patient. This is the
exchange (TPE) most common TA procedure performed. The purpose is to remove the agent in the plasma, such as an
antibody, toxin, or abnormal protein, that is causing the clinical symptoms.
plasma
Therapeutic Therapeutic plateletpheresis can be used to treat patients who have abnormally elevated platelet counts with
plateletpheresis related symptoms.
Therapeutic Therapeutic leukapheresis has been used to treat patients with hyperleukocytosis, defined as a WBC or
leukapheresis circulating blast count of over 100,000/uL. A single procedure should reduce the WBC count by 30% to 60%
Therapeutic
erythrocytapheresis compatible allogeneic donor RBCs. Commonly performed in patients with sickle cell disease in order
(RBC exchange) to decrease the number of hemoglobin S containing RBCs, thereby treating or preventing the
complications (acute chest syndrome, impending stroke, unrelenting painful crisis) associated with
the disease. The therapeutic goal is to decrease the level of hemoglobin S to less than 30%.
PREVENTION AND MANAGEMENT OF COMMON DONOR REACTIONS
COMMON DONOR REACTIONS COMMONLY ATTRIBUTED PREVENTION/MANAGEMENT
TO
Lightheadedness Anxiety Reassuring conversation
Weakness Hypoglycemia Try any of the following:
Tingling sensation a.
Palpitations
b. Apply cold, wet towels to neck and forehead
c. Have donor breath into paper bag
d. Provide juice even before donation
Last resort: Discontinue donation
Fainting Anxiety Discontinue donation
Hypoglycemia If necessary, administer glucose solution
Provide juice even donation
Position donor in place protected from a possible fall
Convulsion Anxiety or underlying disease Discontinue donation
Elevate feet
Restrain gently to prevent injury
Maintain airway
Reassure after recovering consciousness
Inform about possible involuntary loss of control of urine or
stool during convulsion
Cardiopulmonary emergency Underlying heart disease Ventilation
Cardiopulmonary resuscitation
Transfer donor to emergency medical facility
Hematoma Very fragile veins Discontinue if large
Unskilled phlebotomist Apply pressure to site for at least 15 minutes
Uncooperative donor Apply cold packs
Reassure donor
Jet like pulsating bleeding with Inadvertent puncture of artery Discontinue immediately
bright red blood when deep vein punctures are Apply firm pressure over puncture site (10mins)
attempted Apply dressing on site
Follow up donor for additional care
Shooting pain followed by Inadvertent puncture of median Reassure
numbness and tingling in the nerve or cutaneous branches Apply support to the arm
forearm
BLOOD COMPONENTS
Heavy/Hard spin
a. 5000g for 5mins (packed RBC, Plt. Concentrate)
b. 5000g for 7 mins (cryoprecipitate, cell free plasma)
Light Spin/ soft spin
a. 2000g for 3 minutes (platelet rich plasma)
NOTE
1. Blood Components must be processed within 6 to 8 hours of collection
2. Blood components are prepared using refrigerated centrifuge except platelet concentrate
3. Modified Whole blood = A Fresh Whole Blood (FWB) minus cryoprecipitate and/ or platelets
CRYOPRECIPITATE Indication:
deficiency
Storage -
Shelf-life:
IRADDIATED BLOOD Indication: Essential for patients at risk from TA- GVHD
Recipients of platelets selected for HLA or platelet compatibility
Recipients of donor units from blood relatives
Uses: cesium 137 and cobalt 60 irradiated at 25-35 Gy dose
Expiration: RBC expires 28 days after irradiation or at the end of the storage period, whichever
comes first
Storage temp: 1-
ADDITIONAL INFORMATION
FFP Must be frozen within 8 hours of collection
Store up to 1 year at -18C, or 7 years at -65C (this is less common)
A single unit of FFP or PF24, from whole blood collection, should contain 150 to 250 mL of plasma,
approximately 400 mg of fibrinogen, and 1 unit of activity per mL of each of the stable clotting
factors. FFP also contains the same level (1 unit/mL) of factors V and VIII. FFP or PF24 prepared
from apheresis collections may contain from 400 to 600 mL.
Can store for up to 24 hours at 1-6C after thawing at 37 C
-6C for up to 5 days after thawing. Thawed Plasma
products have reduced FVIII and FV levels. Provides a readily available source of plasma without
needing to thaw (Thawing takes ~20-30 min)
Platelet product
Single donor Platelet Random donor platelet
Prepared from apheresis Prepared from Whole blood
Contains at least 3 × 1011 platelets Contains at least 5.5 × 1010 platelets
(equivalent to 6 to 8 RDP)
Plasma content: 300ml Plasma content: 40-70ml
Can raise platelet count by Can raise platelet count by
Note! Platelet percent component retention should be at least 85%
Note! Pla
Component Shelf-life
At room temp with 5 days
agitation
2 days
Frozen platelet 2 years
Pooled 4 hours
In an open system 4hours
Washed platelets 4 hours
Frozen platelets Platelets are collected by apheresis, the cryopreservative dimethyl sulfoxide (DMSO) is added, and the
platelets are frozen at 80°C. The frozen platelets can be stored for up to 2 years. Prior to transfusion, the
platelets are thawed and centrifuged to remove the DMSO
Cryopoor plasma or The supernatant remaining from the production of cryoprecipitate.
cryoprecipitate It is relatively deficient in high molecular weight forms of vWF but retains normal levels of the
plasma vWF-cleaving metalloprotease ADAMTS 13
Cryo-poor plasma must be refrozen within 24 hours and stored at 18°C or colder for 1 year from
the time of collection. This product still contains albumin; factors II, V, VII, IX, X, XI; and
ADAMTS13
Used to treat patient with TTP
PRE-TRANSFUSION TESTING
identification and Pretransfusion testing begins and ends with the proper _______ of the patient sample
collection
clerical error A major cause of transfusion-associated fatalities is _____ resulting in incorrect ABO groupings and
transfusion of ABO incompatible blood. Clerical error is the greatest threat to safe transfusion therapy. The
most common cause of error is misidentification of the recipient
Disadvantage of using Serum or plasma may be used for pretransfusion testing. Disadvantages to using plasma include the
plasma possible formation of small fibrin clots, which may be difficult to distinguish from true agglutination
10ml About ___ of blood is usually sufficient for all testing procedures if there are no known serologic problems.
2 to 5% A ___ saline suspension of RBCs is used for most serologic testing procedures
7 days Both donor and recipient samples must be stored for a minimum of ___ following transfusion
O Rh-negative packed In extreme emergencies, when there is no time to obtain and test a pretransfusion sample, group __ can
cells be used
COMPATIBILITY TESTING
Serologic aspect of pretransfusion testing; it includes every serologic facet, beginning with donor blood and ending with the
recipient blood sample
1. Identification of the patient and donor and collection of appropriate samples for testing
2. Testing of the donor blood sample
3. Testing of the patient sample and review of past blood bank records
4. Selection of appropriate donor units
5. Crossmatching
6. Re-identification of the patient before infusion of blood
An Rh control is indicated when spontaneous agglutination of red blood cells is suspected, such as in patients
typing as AB-positive
In Rh typing, If the diluent Control is used in parallel and gives a positive result, then result of the Rh typing test is invalid. In
determine whether uptake of
autoantibodies or alloantibodies (if the recipient has been recently transfused) is responsible for the positive control. If the DAT
is positive, accurate Rh typing can sometimes be performed using saline-active or chemically modified Rh blood typing serum
with an appropriate diluent or 8% albumin control
The test for weak D is unnecessary when testing transfusion recipients
t of the antibody
screening test is to detect as many clinically significant unexpected antibodies as possible
There is no need to provide antigen-negative RBCs for patients whose sera contain antibodies that are reactive only below 37°C,
because these antibodies are incapable of causing significant RBC destruction in vivo.
No compatibility testing is required for the transfusion of platelets, thawed plasma, and cryoprecipitate. Either a current or a
historical ABO grouping is sufficient
CROSSMATCHING
The Purpose of crossmatch is a final check of ABO compatibility and, to a lesser extent, detection of unidentified
Part of compatibility testing, and it is the final step of pretransfusion compatibility testing
It is a final check of ABO compatibility between donor and patient
It may detect the presence of an antibody
Computer crossmatch = This is applicable when at least two determinations of th group have been
made, at least one on a current sample, and there are no unexpected antibodies
Blood donor and recipient samples used in cross-matching must be stored for a minimum of _____ day
Example Question
Predict compatibility or incompatibility for the following situation. Assume that the patient has a negative antibody screen and auto-
control
Patient: Group B positive Donor Group O positive
a. Compatible major side crossmatch
b. Compatible minor side crossmatch
c. Incompatible major side crossmatch
d. Not enough information to predict
PHASES OF CROSSMATCHING
B. Incubation Phase
Done
Usage of enhancement media such as: LISS -> 15 minutes (5 to 15minutes)
Detection of clinically significant antibodies such as IgG
The antiglobulin crossmatch procedure begins in the same manner as the immediate spin crossmatch, continues to a
37°C incubation, and finishes with an antiglobulin test
Several enhancement media may be applied to boost antigen-antibody reactions. These may include albumin, low ionic
strength solution (LISS), polyethylene glycol, and polybrene
An autocontrol, consi
crossmatch test. Although current AABB Standards no longer requires an autocontrol, some technologists still find it
useful
Possible reasons for incompatibilities include the following:
a)
b) Alloantibody to a low-incidence present is on the donor unit red blood cells
c) Warm-
d) Donor unit has a positive direct antiglobulin test (DAT).
COMPUTER CROSSMATCH
ABO compatibility can be verified electronically via a validated, on-site computer system provided acceptable criteria
have been met.
Electronic crossmatching eliminates the need for a serologic crossmatch, which reduces sample volume requirements
and testing time
Additional benefits of using the computer crossmatch include annual savings, reduced sample requirements, reduced
handling of biological materials, and elimination of false reactions associated with the immediate spin crossmatch.
The computer crossmatch compares recent ABO serologic results and interpretations on file for both the donor and the
recipient being matched and determines compatibility based on this comparison.
This is applicable when at lea
least one on a current sample, and there are no unexpected antibodies
Zeta potential
The difference in charge density between the inner and outer layers of the ionic cloud that surrounds red blood cells in an
electrolyte solution.
Natural RBC repulsive effect, can be reduced using potentiators for better Antigen-Antibody binding
PAK PAG BINASA MO TO!
Blood components are infused slowly for the first 10 to 15 minutes while the patient is observed closely for signs of a
transfusion reaction
The blood components should then be infused as quickly as tolerated, or at most within 4 hours
Massive transfusion is arbitrarily defined either as the administration of 8 to 10 RBC units to an adult patient
in less than 24 hours, or as the acute administration of 4 to 5 RBC units in 1 hour.
The
transfusion to detect signs of transfusion reaction
Delayed hemolytic transfusion diagnosed 5 to 10 days after transfusion
Intravenous fluid- only (0.9%) isotonic saline or 5% albumin should be used to dilute blood components
Blood filters
First generation fliters 170-260 microns pore size
Screen filter
Standard blood filter- removes gross debris, used for all blood components
Second generation filters 20-40 microns pore size
Micropore screen filter
Removes 75-90% of leukocytes; used only for red blood cells
Third generation filters Adhesion
An adsorption filter; removes 99 to 99.9% of leukocytes; used for both red blood cells
and platelets
Made of polyester or cellulose acetate and will produce a 2- to 4- log reduction of
WBC (<5x106) or platelets, or both
Blood warmers
-
Speed of infusion
-about 200ml blood /hr
-infusion must be completed within 4 hours
A transfusion reaction is defined as any transfusion-related adverse event that occurs during or after the transfusion of whole
blood, blood components, or human-derived plasma products.
A transfusion reaction with signs or symptoms presenting during or within 24 hours of transfusion is defined as an acute
transfusion reaction
A transfusion reaction with signs or symptoms presenting after 24 hours of transfusion is defined as a delayed transfusion
reaction
The definition of a DHTR includes a positive DAT 24 hours to 28 days after transfusion with either a positive eluate or a newly
identified alloantibody in the plasma or serum and evidence of hemolysis (Harmening, 7th edition)
Immediate Delayed
Immunologic Non-Immunologic Immunologic Non-Immunologic
IHTR TACO Post transfusion purpura TA-hemosiderosis
Febrile non hemolytic TR Bacterial contamination TA-GVHD Disease transmission
Allergic/ Anaphylactic DHTR
TRALI
Sign and Symptoms : Fever(most common), chills, flushing , nausea. Dyspnea, chest pain, flank pain, pain
at infusion site, hypotension, shock, hemoglobinemia, hemoglobinuria, DIC, renal failure
Prevention: -Avoid human or clerical error, use a well written procedure manuals, use highly trained clinical
and laboratory staff
FNHTR Cause: Anti-leukocyte antibody
-Another mechanism is closely related to platelet storage changes, which involve the production and release
of biologically active cytokines by the white cells present in the component during storage
Anaphylactic/ Cause: Attributed to IgA deficiency or absolute IgA deficiency (IgA levels less than 0.05 mg/dL) in patients
anaphylactoid who have developed anti-IgA antibodies by sensitization from transfusion or pregnancy
transfusion
reaction Sign and Symptoms: Bronchoconstriction (wheezes), angioedema (periorbital edema, tongue swelling),
gastrointestinal symptoms (diarrhea), and cardiovascular instability (hypotension, cardiac arrhythmia, loss of
consciousness, shock,cardiac arrest). Anaphylaxis can range from mild urticaria (hives) and pruritus
to severe shock and death.
Two significant features distinguish anaphylactic and anaphylactoid reactions from other types
of transfusion reactions:
1. Fever is absent
2. Clinical signs and symptoms occur after transfusion of just a few milliliters of plasma or plasma-containing
blood components
Signs and Symptoms: Chills, fever, non-productive cough, acute respiratory distress including dyspnea,
cyanosis, bilateral pulmonary edema on chest x-ray, severe hypoxemia, tachycardia, hypotension
Prevention and Treatment: Use of proper donor selection and Use of leukopoor RBCs unit
Transfusion Cause: Iatrogenic (physician-induced)
associated with
Circulatory Signs and Symptoms: It presents as congestive heart failure during or shortly after transfusion. Signs and
overload (TACO) symptoms can include dyspnea, orthopnea, cyanosis, tachycardia, elevated blood pressure, pulmonary
edema, jugular venous distention, pedal edema, and headache
The laboratory assay of brain natriuretic peptide (BNP), consisting of the measurement of a peptide
secreted from the ventricles in response to increased filling pressures and a marker of congestive heart failure,
may be used to aid in the diagnosis of TACO. A post-transfusion to pretransfusion BNP ratio of 1.5, with a
post-transfusion level equal or greater than 100 picograms per milliliter as a cutoff point, provides
a sensitivity of 81% and a specificity of 89% for diagnosis of TACO.
TACO is the second most common cause of transfusion related deaths reported to the FDA, and the incidence
appears to be increasing (Harmening, 7th edition)
Common sources of bacterial contamination are from donor skin or from asymptomatic donor blood.
Platelets have been the most frequent source of septic transfusion reactions because room temperature
storage promotes bacterial growth.
Yersinia enterocolitica According to CDC, it is the Most common cause of death by bacterial
contaminated blood components
Most common isolate found in RBC units
Pseudomonas spp. Second most common isolate found of RBC units
Propionobacterium acnes Common isolate of human skin, was the most common bacterial
contaminants in RBC
Bacillus cerues, Most frequently recovered from donated blood and contamination of
Staphylococcus epidermidis platelet
*Staphylococcus epidermidis or Staphylococcus aureus are the most
common bacterial contaminants of blood (Harmening, 7th edition)
Staphylococcus aureus accounts for the greatest number of deaths due to blood product contamination
reported to the FDA from FY2011 to 2015, all of which were platelet products (Harmening, 7th edition)
Signs and Symptoms: Fever, rigor,chills, hypotension, tachycardia, shock, DIC, hemoglobinuria,
hemoglobinuria, renal failure
NOTE:
1. Brown plasma, purple plasma, Clots, and Hemolysis ,blood unit should not be used for transfusion because
they are signs of bacterial contamination
2. Green color plasma in blood unit is usually associated with biliverdin
Transfusion-related Cause:
adverse events -Mechanical damage through infusion of blood in small bore needle
during massive -Thermal trauma
transfusion and -osmotic or chemical change by addition of hypotonic or hypertonic solutions or drugs
Physical, or -Citrate toxicity
Chemical Hemolysis -Potassium toxicity
during transfusion
NOTE:
1. Massive transfusion is defined as the replacement of one total blood volume in 24 hours or the
replacement of 50% of the blood volume in 3 hours
2. The chief metabolic effects of transfusion involve citrate toxicity and hyperkalemia (increased
potassium).
3. Citrate toxicity can cause hypocalcemia and hypomagnesemia. In addition, metabolic alkalosis can
develop from bicarbonate produced from citrate metabolism.
4. Hyperkalemia is very uncommon in massive transfusion in adults, but it is of special concern in
neonatal transfusions, especially in premature infants
5.
units (less than 7 10 days old)
Signs and Symptoms: Asymptomatic, hemolgobinuria, DIC and renal failure (rare)
1. Citrate toxicitiy: Hypocalcemia, Tingling of lips or fingertips, Twitching or tremors, Shivering, Muscle
contractions (carpopedal spasms involving hands or feet), EKG abnormalities: prolonged QT interval
2. Potassium toxicity: Muscular weakness, , EKG abnormalities: peaking of
T waves, prolonged P-R interval, Ventricular fibrillation,Cardiac arrest
Signs and symptoms: Fever, decreased haptoglobin level, mild jaundice, flu-like symptoms, pallor
Signs and Symptoms: Profound self-liming thrombocytopenia, generalized purpura, bleeding. PTP is a
self-limiting syndrome with the platelet count usually returning to normal within 2 weeks
Prevention and Treatment:
1. Difficult to prevent
2. Clinicians should have thorough patient history and history of adverse reactions on previous
transfusion
Iron overload / Cause: Iron overload is a delayed, nonimmune complication of transfusion, presenting with multiorgan
Transfusioninduced (i.e., liver, heart, endocrine organs) damage secondary to excessive iron accumulation
Hemosiderosis
-Population at risk: sickle cell anemia, hemoglobinopathies, thalassemia, patient who are transfusion
dependent
Note: Each unit of red blood cells contains approximately 250 mg of iron. After 10 to 15 red cell
transfusions, excess iron is present in the liver, heart, and endocrine organs
Signs and Symptoms: Muscle weakness, weight loss, mild jaundice, fatigue, cardiac arrhythmias, mild
diabetes, and multi-organ failure
the face and a lacy red rash when occurring on the trunk and limbs.
17. Common sources of bacterial contamination include donor skin and blood. Less common
sources are the environment and disposables
18. Most cases of babesiosis are asymptomatic. Symptomatic patients usually develop a malaria-
type illness characterized by fever, chills, lethargy, and hemolytic anemia
19. Currently there is no screening test for blood donors with Babesiosis.
20. rs
stained with Giemsa or Wright stain may be examined for the characteristic C- or U-shaped
trypomastigote
21.
immunofluorescence, and ELISA.
22. The test, called the Abbott Prism Chagas, is highly sensitive and specific for the detection of
antibodies to T. cruzi
23. Plasmodium can survive in blood components stored at room temperature or 4°C for at least a week,
and deglycerolized RBCs can transmit disease
24. Some individuals have a natural immunity to certain species of malaria, caused by a
genetic alteration in their RBCs. These include persons who have sickle cell anemia or
trait, G6PD deficiency, or RBCs that lack the Duffy blood group antigen
25. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD) is one of the transmissible spongiform encephalopathies (TSE).
These are rare diseases characterized by fatal neurodegeneration that results in spongelike lesions
in the brain.
TRANSFUSION REACTION INVESTIGATION
During transfusion reactions
RHOGAM or RhIg
Rh-immune globulin (RhIg) is a solution of concentrated anti-Rho(D).
Prepared from pooled human plasma of patients who have been hyperimmunized and contains predominantly IgG anti-D
RhIg has two primary uses: treatment of ITP and prevention of Rh hemolytic disease of the newborn.
RhIg should be administered ___ hours after childbirth
The administered RhIG attaches to the fetal Rh-positive RBCs in the maternal circulation. The antibody-coated RBCs are
removed by the macrophages in the maternal spleen.
There is no risk of transmission of the viral diseases hepatitis A and B and HIV with the administration of RhIG
Full-dose Micro-dose
Contains 300ug of Anti-D Contains 50 ug anti-D
Protects up to 30ml of D+ Whole blood Protects up to 5ml of D+ Whole blood
dose (300 ug) is During the first 12 weeks of pregnancy, a 50-ug dose
indicated for abortion or miscarriage in D-negative of RhIg is indicated for D-negative females for abortion
women or miscarriage , or ectopic pregnancies
Computation!!
NOTE: A Kleihauer-Betke test or flow cytometry is used to quantitate the number of fetal Rh-
circulation as a result of a fetomaternal hemorrhage.
Problem: Kleihauer betke reveals 3% fetal cells. Determine the RhIg vials
Formula: Volume of fetomaternal hemorrhage (ml)
30
2. Alternative formula for the Volume of FMH = # of fetal cells x Maternal blood volume
Number of Maternal cells
Cordocentesis / Using high-resolution ultrasound with color Doppler enhancement of blood flow, the umbilical vein is
Percutaneous visualized at the level of the cord insertion into the placenta. A spinal needle is inserted into the
Umbilical cord Blood umbilical vein, and a sample of the fetal blood is obtained
sampling (PUBS) The fetal blood sample can then be tested for hemoglobin, hematocrit, bilirubin, blood type,
direct antiglobulin test (DAT), and antigen phenotype and genotype.
MCA-PSV The measurement of the fetal middle cerebral artery peak systolic velocity (MCA-PSV) with color Doppler
ultrasonography can reliably predict anemia in the fetus.
MCA-PSV is noninvasive and poses no adverse effects for the fetus.
Cordocentesis, intrauterine transfusion, and amniocentesis have several risks, including infection, premature labor,
and trauma to the placenta, which may cause increased antibody titers because of antigenic challenge to the mother through
fetomaternal hemorrhage
Exchange Transfusion Removal of infant RBCs coated with maternal antibody and replacement with antigen
negative RBCs
The use of whole blood or Performed in neonatal period
equivalent to replace the
Exchange transfusions are used primarily to remove high levels of unconjugated bilirubin and
Exchange transfusion is rarely
thus prevent kernicterus. Premature newborns are more likely than full-term infants to require
required because of advances in
phototherapy and the use of exchange transfusions for elevated bilirubin because their livers are less able to conjugate
IVIG. bilirubin.
Other advantages of exchange transfusion include the removal of part of the circulating
maternal antibody, removal of sensitized RBCs, and replacement of incompatible RBCs with
compatible RBC
SELECTION OF RBCs
Fresh as possible(less than 5 or 7days old), Group O negative or group specific , CMV negative, Hgb
S negative ,irradiated
PHOTOTHERAPY After delivery, the neonate can develop hyperbilirubinemia of unconjugated bilirubin. Phototherapy at
460 to 490 nm is used to change the unconjugated bilirubin to isomers, which are less lipophilic and
less toxic to the brain. In infants with mild-to-moderate hemolysis or history of intrauterine transfusion,
phototherapy is generally sufficient
Aliquotted red cell is the product most often transfused during the neonatal period or in infants younger than 4 months of
age.
The anticoagulant most often used for neonate transfusions is CPDA-1.
group O Rh-negative Blood for intrauterine transfusion must be compatible with maternal antibodies capable of crossing
the placenta. If the ABO and Rh groups of the fetus have been determined, group specific blood could be
given provided that there is no fetomaternal ABO or Rh incompatibility. If the ABO and Rh groups of the
fetus are not known, then _____ RBCs should be selected for the intrauterine transfusion
Neonatal transfusion Blood for an exchange or regular transfusion of a neonate (younger than 4 months of age) should be
or AHG
Compliance programs evaluate how effectively the facility meets regulatory and accreditation requirements by detecting
errors, deficiencies, and deviations
Compliance also called surveys or assessments
inspections applicable requirements and are usually conducted every 2 years
Quality management Activities of the management function that determine the quality policy
The fundamental components of quality management are quality control (QC), quality assurance
(QA), and the quality management system (QMS).
Quality System Organizational structure, procedures, processes, and resources needed to implement quality
management
Quality Assurance Planned, systematic activities implemented within the quality system to provide confidence that
requirements for quality will be fulfilled
Quality Control Operational techniques and activities used to fulfill the requirements for quality Operational techniques
and activities used to fulfill the requirements for quality
medical director The ____ is responsible for review, approval, and signing the Quality control plan before patient testing
and reporting of results commences
Quality management The QMS essentials are in a logical order that can be explained as follows for any new or changed
essentials product or service. The blood center or transfusion service organization develops its mission, vision,
values, goals, and objectives around the products and services it plans to offer
2. Customer focus Although both blood centers and transfusion services work on behalf of patients, the real customer
of these facilities is the entity or person who receives and must be satisfied with a product or service
a. For blood centers the customers are the donors
b. For transfusion services, the customers are the physicians and nurses
-Physicians want the blood transfusions they order to occur in a timely manner
-Nurses want the correctly issued blood components in a timely manner for administration
to patients
3. Facilities and safety In hospitals, the Joint Commission mandates an environmental control program that addresses all
significant environmental issues for facility management and maintenance, such as temperature
control, electrical safety, fire protection, and so forth
-any blood bank that performs irradiation of blood components must also have a radiation safety
program and document appropriate training.
4. People Quality begins and ends with people.
Rather, a quality problem is almost always due to a faulty process
5. Purchasing and In hospital-
inventory responsible for vendor contracts and purchasing decisions.
6. Equipment Before putting equipment into operation, the blood bank needs a process to ensure that installation,
operational, and performance qualifications for the piece of equipment have been met. Installation
qualification demonstrates that the equipment is correctly installed; operational qualification ensures
the equipment operates as intended; and performance qualification evaluates the personnel.
7. Process -A process can be defined as a set of interrelated resources and activities that transforms inputs
Management / into outputs
Control -Process control is a set of activities that ensures a given work process will keep operating in a
state that is continuously able to meet process goals without compromising the process itself
-Total process control is the evaluation of process performance, comparison of actual performance to
a goal, and action taken on any significant difference
8. Flow charts is a sequential flow of the elements of total process control. An effective tool for understanding any
process is the flowchart.
9. Standard operating provide instructions for each activity in the larger process
procedures (SOPs)
10. Documents Are approved information contained in a written or electronic format.
11. Records capture the results or outcomes of performing procedures and testing on written forms or electronic
media, such as manual worksheets, instrument printouts, tags, or labels
12. Assessments
requirements at a single point in time. Internal and external assessments are used for measuring
and monitoring performance and identifying opportunities for improvement
13. Internal audit A very effective assessment tool
14. LEAN a process improvement methodology that helps to identify non-value-added activities that are
considered waste.
Adverse reaction Complications that occurred to the donor during or after the donation process or to the recipient of
transfused blood components
Complaint Expression of dissatisfaction from internal customers (physicians, employees) or external customers
(donors, patients)
Discrepancy Difference or inconsistency in the outcomes of a process, procedure, or test results
Error Nonconformance attributable to a human or system problem, such as a problem from failure to follow
established procedure or a part of a process that did not work as expected
Postdonation The receipt of information (call or information letter) from a donor with additional details regarding his or
her donation, such as subsequent illness or neglecting to mention an illness or medication
Hypotension during Hypotension may also occur during an apheresis procedure due to a vasovagal reaction, particularly in
apheresis apheresis donors
Factors that have been associated with vasovagal reactions in apheresis donors include younger age and the
sex of the donor.
Teenaged donors have higher vasovagal reaction rates compared with adults, and female donors have a
higher incidence of these reactions than male apheresis donors.
Insertion of large IV In plasmapheresis, Insertion of a rather large intravenous catheter can lead to bleeding, lung puncture
catheter (depending on the site of catheter insertion), and if the catheter is left in too long, infection.
Therapeutic pheresis The TA procedure is classified according to the blood component removed: a cytapheresis procedure may
(TA) be used to selectively remove RBCs, WBCs, or platelets; a plasmapheresis procedure is used to remove
plasma when the pathological substance is found in the circulation. Therapeutic apheresis has become an
accepted and standard therapy for many hematologic, neurological, renal, metabolic, autoimmune, and
rheumatic diseases, among others
Categories of TA Category I Apheresis is a first-line treatment, alone or in conjunction with other therapies
Category II Apheresis is a second-line treatment, alone or in conjunction with other therapies
Category III The optimal role for apheresis has not been established. Treatment should be
individualized based on clinical evaluation and assessment of the anticipated risks and
benefits
Category IV Apheresis is reported as either of no benefit or harmful in these conditions. Clinical
applications should be undertaken only under an approved research protocol.
Plasmapheresis Therapeutic plasma exchange (TPE) is the removal and retention of the plasma, with return of
(Plasma exchange) all cellular components to the patient
This is the most common TA procedure
The purpose is to remove the agent in the plasma, such as an antibody, toxin, or abnormal protein,
that is causing the clinical symptoms
It is also used to replace a normal factor or substance that may be missing or deficient in the
The effectiveness of TPE is related to the volume of plasma removed and the concentration of the
pathological substance in the blood. Apheresis is most efficient at removing the substance
at the beginning (first portion) of the procedure and least efficient at the end.
TPE show that a one-volume exchange should reduce the unwanted plasma component to
approximately 30% of its initial value
For abnormal IgM TPE can be an effective therapeutic tool, since IgM antibodies tend to be located
primarily in the intravascular space
TPE performed to remove IgG antibodies is most effective when combined with immunosuppressive
drugs.
Therapeutic Therapeutic plateletpheresis can be used to treat patients who have abnormally elevated platelet
plateletpheresis counts with related symptoms
The preferred method for lowering the platelet count is medication; however, therapeutic
apheresis may be indicated during an acute event to rapidly reduce the platelet count until
pharmacological therapy takes effect.
In this procedure, platelet count will be decreased by 30% to 60%.
Therapeutic Used to treat patients with hyperleukocytosis, defined as a WBC or circulating blast count of over
leukapheresis 100,000/uL.
These elevated WBC levels place the patient at risk for complications associated with leukostasis
including organ dysfunction due to the formation of microthrombi in the pulmonary and cerebral
microvasculature
A single procedure should reduce the WBC count by 30% to 60%; however, more than one
procedure may be necessary due to rapid mobilization of cells from the extravascular
compartment.
To achieve an adequate reduction in the WBC count, up to 1 L of fluid may be removed,
necessitating the use of a replacement fluid
Erythrocytapheresis Removes a large number of RBCs plasma and platelets
(Red Blood Cell along with compatible allogeneic donor RBCs
Exchange) The procedure is most commonly performed in patients with sickle cell disease in order to
decrease the number of hemoglobin S containing RBCs, thereby treating or preventing the
complications (acute chest syndrome, impending stroke, unrelenting painful crisis) associated with
the disease.
The therapeutic goal is to decrease the level of hemoglobin S to less than 30%. This usually
accomplished with a single red blood cell exchange procedure, requiring from 6 to 10 RBC units,
blood cell volume
The donor RBCs selected for transfusion should be ABO- and Rh-compatible, relatively fresh (less
than 10 days is preferable to allow maximum in vivo survival), leukocyte-reduced, and negative
for hemoglobin S (donor does not have sickle cell trait).
Other indications:
- Treatment of overwhelming malaria or Babesia infections. A 1.5- to 2-volume red blood
cell exchange should significantly decrease the parasite load
- Can be used to remove incompatible
In TA, fluid must be replaced to maintain appropriate intravascular volume and oncotic pressure
Fluid Replacement
for TA LISTS OF FLUID REPLACEMENT
5 % Human serum albumin (HSA) The most common replacement fluid
Crystalloid (NSS) Used for up to one third of the replacement volume
FFP Contains all the constituents of the removed plasma and thus would
appear to be the optimal replacement fluid for TPE procedures
Usually reserved for treatment of thrombotic thrombocytopenic
purpura (TTP) and related disorders
Used for patients with a preexisting coagulopathy (severe liver disease)
or on those who are scheduled to undergo an invasive procedure (such
as a pretransplant antibody reduction)
May cause citrate toxicity is because of the combined effects of the
anticoagulant in the FFP and the citrate used in the apheresis procedure
itself.
Associated with allergic reaction
HPCs collection HPCs (Hematopoietic progenitor cells), also known as peripheral blood stem cells (PBSCs), are more
through Leukapheresis frequently harvested from peripheral blood by leukapheresis
Because few HPCs are in circulating blood (0.05%), numerous days would be required to collect
sufficient quantities for a successful transplant. How from the
marrow to the peripheral blood with cytokines, the number of leukapheresis procedures can usually
be reduced to one or two
The donors receive the cytokine analog, granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF)
filgrastim to stimulate the release of more HPCs into the peripheral blood. Less commonly,
granulocyte-macrophage colony-stimulating factor (GM-CSF) is used. The usual dose of
either cytokine analog is 10 g per kilogram of body weight per day (10 g/kg/day).
HPCs express the cell surface glycoprotein CD34, and measurement of CD34+ cells in the peripheral
blood prior to collection is typically performed to ensure adequate mobilization has occurred
HES (Hydroxylethyl A common RBC sedimenting agent used to facilitate leukocyte withdrawal during leukapheresis.
starch) During centrifugation of whole blood, granulocytes are found in the buffy coat between the RBC
and plasma layers.
Adding the red cell sedimenting agent, hydroxyethyl starch (HES), allows better separation of layers,
resulting in an improved yield with reduced RBC contamination. It enhances the separation of the
white cells from the red cells during centrifugation, which increases the amount of leukocytes
collected and decreases the amount of red cell contamination in the final product
it allows better separation of layers, resulting in an improved yield with reduced RBC contamination.
Fatalities associated Rare fatalities occurring during therapeutic apheresis procedures have been reported. The majority of
with apheresis these have been caused by circulatory (cardiac arrest or arrhythmia) or respiratory complications (acute
pulmonary edema or adult respiratory distress syndrome
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