20 Problems/Multiple Choice Questions

starting from room temperature required to double the reaction rate for a
value of Q equal to (i) 100 kJ mol–l and (ii) 200 kJ mol–l.
Answer: (i) ~5°C, (ii) ~2.5°C.
2.7 Find the activation energy from an Arrhenius plot for a reaction that
requires the following times for completion at the indicated temperatures:

Temperature, K Time, s
600 9360
700 27.5
800 0.73
900 0.01
Answer: ~200 kJ mol–l.
2.8 A reaction takes 500 min at 10°C for completion. It takes 1 min at 80°C.
Find the time it would take at 40°C.
Answer: 25 min.
2.9 The vibrations of atoms in a solid can be considered as elastic waves. The
limiting wavelength of the elastic waves can be taken to be the interatomic
spacing, which has a value of about 10–10 m. Estimate in order of
magnitude the velocity of elastic waves in a solid above room temperature.
Answer: 1 km s–l.
2.10 In Eq. (2.12), show that (dDS/dn) ® ¥, as n ® 0. Explain why it is very
difficult to remove the last traces of impurities during purification of a
material.
2.11 A reaction with activation energy equal to 100 kJ mol–l takes 50 min for
completion at 300 K. At what temperature will it be complete in 5 min?
Answer: 318.3 K.

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. The number of ways of arranging 6 Ni atoms and 6 Cu atoms on 12

atomic sites are
A. 432 B. 924 C. 12870 D. 36
2. The number of ways of arranging 7 white spheres and 7 black spheres on
15 sites are
A. 3432 B. 12870 C. 51480 D. none of these
3. The entropy of mixing of 0.4 mole of Au atoms, 0.4 mole of Ag atoms and
0.2 mole of Cu atoms on one mole of sites in J mol–1 K–1 is
A. 8.77 B. 5.76 C. 5.59 D. 4.16
 Multiple Choice Questions/Answers 21

4. The entropy of mixing of 0.5 mole of Ni atoms and 0.49 mole of Cu

atoms on 1 mole of sites in J mol–1 K–1 is
A. 5.76 B. 5.79 C. 5.85 D. 6.17
5. The slope of the Gibbs energy G versus T curve at 0 K and constant
pressure is
A. 0 B. H0 C. S0 D. –H
6. The thermal energy at room temperature per mode of oscillation of one
mole of atoms is
A. 2.49 kJ B. 7.48 kJ C. 1.24 ´ 10–20 J D. 4.14 ´ 10–21 J
7. The free energy change during melting of ice at 0°C is equal to
A. enthalpy of melting–entropy of melting
B. 0 C. 273
D. can’t say without more data
8. The entropy becomes zero at 0°C for a
A. pure element B. perfect crystal
C. random solid solution D. none of these
9. The number of atoms in one mole of an elemental crystal possessing
energy equal to or greater than 1 eV at 1000°C is
A. 0 B. 1.1 ´ 10–4 C. 6.67 ´ 1019 D. 6.02 ´ 1023
10. A reaction takes 500 min at 10°C and 25 min at 40°C for completion. The
activation energy for the reaction in kJ/mol is
A. 73.5 B. 33.4 C. 96.49 D. 100
11. A reaction takes 500 and 1 min respectively at 10° and 80°C. The time it
would take at 50°C is
A. 25 min B. 15 min C. 10 min D. 6 min
12. The rate of a thermally activated reaction is 5 at 5°C and 10 at 10°C. Its
rate at 20°C in the same units is
A. 14.1 B. 20 C. 37.3 D. 40
13. The temperature increase from 25°C required to triple a reaction rate is
10°C. The activation energy (kJ mol–l) for the reaction is
A. 0.8 B. 53 C. 106 D. 84

Answers

1. B 2. C 3. A 4. D 5. A
6. A 7. B 8. D 9. C 10. A
11. C 12. C 13. D
 Problems/Multiple Choice Questions 49

3.29 Explain with a neat sketch why a (100) reflection is not possible from an
FCC crystal.
3.30 A Debye-Scherrer pattern is obtained from an FCC crystal with
a = 3.61 Å. X-rays of wavelength equal to 1.54 Å are used. Determine the
Miller indices of the planes with the lowest and the highest Bragg angles
in this pattern.
Answer: {111} and {420}.
3.31 Only two reflections are observed on the powder pattern of a cubic crystal
at Bragg angles of 34.06° and 65.51°. Chromium Ka radiation is used.
Determine the crystal structure (if possible) and the lattice parameter.
Show that the third and higher reflections cannot occur.
Answer: DC, 3.56 Å.
3.32 The entry point and the exit point of x-rays on a powder pattern taken
from a cubic material could not be distinguished. Assuming one of the
points to be the exit point, the following S values were obtained: 311.95,
319.10 and 335.05 mm. The camera radius is 57.3 mm. Molybdenum Ka
radiation was used. Determine the structure and the lattice parameter of the
material.
Answer: DC, 5.66 Å.
3.33 The first two reflections as seen in the powder photograph of a cubic
material have S values of 90.1 and 154.7 mm, respectively. As the film
between these two reflections was torn, it was not clear whether an
additional line was present between the two observed lines. Determine, if
possible, the crystal structure and the lattice parameter. The third and the
fourth reflections as seen in the torn film have S values of 188.4 and
199.8 mm. The camera radius is 57.3 mm. Cobalt Ka radiation was used.
Answer: FCC, 4.05 Å.
3.34 In the damaged powder film of a cubic material, the locations of only the
first two pairs of lines could be accurately measured. They had S values of
24.95 and 40.9 mm. The camera radius is 57.3 mm. Molybdenum Ka
radiation was used. If possible, determine the crystal structure and the
lattice parameter of the material. The third pair of lines in the damaged
film was estimated to have an S value of about 49 mm. Determine whether
this confirms your conclusion or not.
Answer: DC, 5.66 Å.

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. The space lattices with two lattice parameters belong to the crystal systems
A. tetragonal B. rhombohedral C. hexagonal D. triclinic
50 Multiple Choice Questions

2. The number of lattice points in the rhombohedral unit cell is

A. 8 B. 4 C. 2 D. 1
3. There is no end-centred orthorhombic lattice
A. as it violates the definition of a space lattice
B. as it can be represented by a simple orthorhombic unit cell
C. as it can be represented by a simple monoclinic unit cell
D. the question is wrong
4. The effective number of lattice points in the unit cell of end-centred
monoclinic lattice is
A. 1 B. 2 C. 4
D. can’t be found unless the angle b is given
5. There is no end-centred cubic space lattice, because
A. it can be represented by the simple cubic lattice
B. it can be represented by the simple orthorhombic lattice
C. it violates the cubic symmetry
D. none of these
6. The unit cell with three lattice parameters is
A. tetragonal B. orthorhombic C. monoclinic D. triclinic
7. A unit cell has a = 5 Å, b = 8 Å, c = 3 Å, a = 90°, b = 65° and g = 54°.
The space lattice for this unit cell is
A. orthorhombic B. monoclinic C. rhombohedral D. triclinic
8. The number of Bravais space lattices with two lattice points are
A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5
9. The tetragon has
A. 4 faces B. 12 edges C. 6 corners D. 8 edges
10. The minimum number of ions in the unit cell of an ionic crystal with FCC
space lattice is
A. 4 B. 8 C. 12 D. 16
11. The atomic diameter of an FCC crystal (lattice parameters is a) is
A. a 2/2 B. a 2/4 C. a 3/4 D. a/2
12. If the radius of an atom in a simple cubic crystal is r, the body diagonal of
the unit cell is
A. r 3 B. 2r 3 C. 4r / 3 D. 3r/4

13. The number of unit cells in 1 m3 of FCC nickel (rNi = 1.243 Å) is

A. 2.3 ´ 1028 B. 4.2 ´ 1028 C. 6.5 ´ 1028 D. 18.4 ´ 1028
14. The acute angle between [101] and [101] directions in a tetragonal crystal
with c/a = 1.5 is
A. 90° B. 67.38° C. 56.30° D. 33.69°
 Multiple Choice Questions 51

15. The angle between [111] and [112] directions in a cubic crystal is
A. 0° B. 45° C. 90° D. 180°
16. The number of members in the family <123> in a cubic crystal are
A. 8 B. 12 C. 24 D. 48
17. The (1 11) plane is parallel to
A. (111) B. (11 1) C. (1 11) D. (11 1)
18. The Miller indices of a plane in an orthorhombic unit cell (a : b : c =
1 : 2 : 3) making intercepts of 3, 2, 1 Å on a, b, c, axes are
A. (931) B. (139) C. (321) D. (123)
19. The four non-parallel body diagonals of a cube have Miller indices
A. [111], [111], [1 11], [11 1] B. [111], [1 1 1], [1 11], [11 1]
C. [1 1 1], [1 1 1], [11 1], [1 11] D. [1 11], [11 1], [1 11], [111]

20. The Miller indices of the line of intersection of a (1 11) and a (1 10)
plane are
A. [1 10] B. [110] C. [1 10] D. [1 11]
21. If the interplanar spacing obtained from the second reflection of a DC
crystal is 1.81 Å, the lattice parameter is
A. 0.905 Å B. 2.56 Å C. 3.62 Å D. 5.12 Å
22. The first S value on the powder pattern of an FCC crystal (a = 4.05 Å)
taken with a camera of radius 57.3 mm using cobalt Ka radiation of
1.79 Å is
A. 45 mm B. 51 mm C. 72.8 mm D. 90.0 mm.
23. The second order reflection from (200) planes coincides with the first
order reflection from
A. (100) B. (200) C. (400) D. none of these
24. The interplanar spacing of the first reflecting plane (lowest q) in an FCC
crystal
A. a 3 B. a/ 3 C. a / 2 D. a
25. The first reflection from polonium powder (SC) occurs at Bragg angle of
28.7°. The fourth reflection is at Bragg angle
A. 57.4° B. 114.8° C. 73.8° D. none of these
26. If the first reflection from a BCC crystal has a Bragg angle q of 22.2°, the
second reflection will have a q of
A. 32.3° B. 25.9° C. 38.1° D. 44.4°
27. No reflection will be observed from a DC crystal (a = 3 Å) if the
wavelength of x-rays is greater than
A. 3.0 Å B. 3.25 Å C. 3.37 Å D. 3.46 Å
52 Source for Experimental Data/Suggestions for Further Reading

28. If the first reflection from a FCC crystal has a Bragg angle q of 21.5°, the
second reflection will have an angle q of
A. 18.5° B. 25° C. 31.2° D. 36.8°
29. The first three reflecting planes of silicon (DC) are
A. 111, 200, 220 B. 110, 200, 211
C. 111, 220, 311 D. 100, 110, 111
30. Using X-rays of 2.29 Å, the first two reflections have Bragg angles of
34.06° and 65.51°. The Bragg angle for the third reflection is
A. 68.1° B. 75.9° C. 89.9° D. reflection absent
31. The Miller indices of the fifth reflection in an FCC crystal is
A. 331 B. 222 C. 311 D. 400

Answers

1. A, B, C 2. D 3. D 4. B 5. C
6. B 7. D 8. D 9. B 10. B
11. A 12. B 13. A 14. B 15. C
16. D 17. B 18. B 19. A, C 20. B, C
21. D 22. D 23. C 24. B 25. C
26. A 27. D 28. B 29. C 30. D
31. B

Source for Experimental Data

P. Villars and L.D. Calvert, Pearson’s Handbook of Crystallographic Data for

Intermetallic Phases, Vols. 1–3, American Society for Metals, Metals Park, Ohio
(1985).

Suggestions for Further Reading

B.D. Cullity, Elements of X-ray Diffraction, Addison Wesley, Reading, Mass.

(1978).
C. Hammond, The Basics of Crystallography and Diffraction, Oxford University
Press, Oxford (2001).
78 Problems/Multiple Choice Questions

4.9 The potential energy W for the formation of a bond between two univalent
ions is given by Eq. (4.4). A¢ = 1.13 ´ 1011 in appropriate SI units. The
equilibrium spacing r0 = 2.50 Å. Find the value of the constant B, given
m = 9.
Answer: 4.92 ´ 10–105 J m9.
4.10 The potential energy W of a system of two atoms varies as a function of
their distance of separation r as follows:
W = –A/r n + B/r m
Show that at equilibrium
(i) r = r0 = (mB/nA)1/(m – n),
(ii) the energy of attraction is m/n times the energy of repulsion, and
(ii) the bond energy W0 = A/r0n (m – n)/m.
4.11 Calculate the enthalpy of atomization of copper and tungsten from the
bond energy values given in Table 4.9.
Answer: 338.4 kJ mol–1; 849.2 kJ mol–1.
4.12 Explain why the bond lengths in Table 4.11 increase with increasing
atomic number, in spite of the increase in the bond energy.
4.13 Make a plot of the melting points and the boiling points of materials of
different bonding characteristics as a function of their bond energy.
4.14 Compare the values of the dipole moments given in Table 4.10 with the
electronegativity differences of the appropriate atoms and give reason for
any correlation you notice.
4.15 Explain why the increasing trend of melting and boiling points in
Table 4.12 shows a reversal after silicon, even though the bond energy
continues to increase.
4.16 The fraction of ionic character of a bond in a compound AB is given by
fionic = 1 – exp [–(XA – XB)2/4]
where XA and XB are the electronegativities of the elements A and B.
Calculate the fraction of ionic character of (i) GaAs, (ii) ZnS, and
(iii) AgCl.
Comment on the trend you observe.
Answer: (i) 0.04 (ii) 0.18 (iii) 0.26.

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. When the quantum number l = 3, the quantum number ml takes the

following number of values
A. 6 B. 10 C. 7 D. 14
 Multiple Choice Questions 79

2. The order of increasing energy of orbitals in the sixth row of the Periodic
Table is
A. 6s4f 5d6p B. 6s6p4f 5d C. 6s6p6d6f D. 6s5f 5d6p
3. If an electron transition occurs across the energy gap in GaAs of 1.43 eV,
the radiation emitted or absorbed has a wavelength (Planck’s constant =
6.626 ´ 10–34 J s; velocity of light = 2.998 ´ 108 m s–1)
A. 86.7 Å B. 12400 Å C. 8670 Å D. 13890 Å
10 1
4. Nickel, which is to the left of Cu (3d 4s ) in the first transition series, has
an outer electron configuration
A. 3d94s1 B. 3d84s2 C. 3d114s1 D. 3d104s2
5. If there are six electrons in the d orbital of a transition metal, the number
of unpaired electrons are
A. 6 B. 5 C. 4 D. 0
–1
6. The electron affinity of He in kJ mol is
A. 369 B. –704 C. 86 D. 0
–1
7. Primary bonds have energy range in kJ mol
A. 1000–5000 B. 100–1000 C. 10–100 D. 1–10
8. If the Fe–Fe bond length is 2.48 Å, the radius of the iron atom is
A. 2.48 Å B. 1.75 Å C. 1.43 Å D. 1.24 Å
9. The tetrahedral bond angle of (sp3) bonds is
A. 90° B. 99° C. 104° D. 109.5°
–1
10. If copper has bond energy of 56 kJ mol of bonds, the enthalpy of
atomization of copper in the same units is about
A. 56 B. 112 C. 336 D. 672
11. Thermal expansion of materials arises from
A. strong bonds C. thermal vibrations
B. weak bonds D. asymmetry of potential energy curve
12. Hydrogen bonds are stronger than
A. van der Waals bonds C. ionic bonds
B. metallic bonds D. covalent bonds
13. If the radius of anion is ra and of cation is rc, the bond length is
A. (rc + ra) B. 3 (rc + ra) C. 3 /2 (rc + ra) D. ra – rc
80 Suggestions for Further Reading

Answers

1. C 2. A 3. C 4. B 5. C
6. D 7. B 8. D 9. D 10. C
11. D 12. A 13. A

Suggestions for Further Reading

M.F.C. Ladd, Structure and Bonding in Solid State Chemistry, Ellis Horwood,
Chichester, UK (1979).
L. Pauling, The Nature of the Chemical Bond, Cornell University Press, Ithaca
(1960).
H.H. Sisler, Electronic Structure, Properties and the Periodic Law, Reinhold
Publishing Corporation, New York (1963).
116 Problems/Multiple Choice Questions

5.35 Calculate the density and packing efficiency of the NaCl crystal.
Answer: 2230 kg m–3, 0.66.
5.36 List the space lattice, basis, number of ions of each type in the unit cell,
and lattice parameter-ionic radii relationships for the cubic ionic crystals
MgO and CsCl. The cation-to-anion ratios are 0.59 and 0.91, respectively.
5.37 Distinguish between thermoplastics and thermosets, using any three of
their characteristics.
5.38 On the basis of their structure, describe how elastomers are different from
the other long-chain polymers.
5.39 List the factors that promote noncrystallinity in long-chain polymers.

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. In the DC unit cell of silicon (a = 5.43 Å), the number of atoms per metre
along the body diagonal are
A. 8.5 ´ 109 m–l B. 2.1 ´ 109 m–1
C. 2.6 ´ 10 m
9 –1
D. 1.84 ´ 109 m–1
2. The average distance between atoms along the body diagonal of the DC
crystal is
A. a 3/4 B. a 3/8 C. a 3/2 D. a 3
3. If the lattice parameter of Si = 5.43 Å and the mass of Si atom is 28.08 ´
1.66 ´ 10–27 kg, the density of silicon in kg m–3 is
A. 2330 B. 1115 C. 3445 D. 1673
4. The close packed direction in Ge crystal is
A. [100] B. [110] C. [111] D. none of these
5. The lattice parameter of GaAs (radius of Ga = 1.22 Å, As = 1.25 Å) is
A. 5.635 Å B. 5.704 Å C. 5.774 Å D. 4.94 Å
6. In cubic ZnS (II-VI compound), if the radii of Zn and S atoms are 0.83 Å
and 1.74 Å, the lattice parameter of cubic ZnS is
A. 11.87 Å B. 5.94 Å C. 5.14 Å D. 2.97 Å
7. The number of atoms along the body diagonal of the diamond cubic unit
cell is
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
8. The close packed directions that lie on a (111) plane of an FCC crystal are
A. [101], [110], [0 1 1] B. [11 1], [1 11]
C. [100], [0 10], [00 1] D. [10 1], [1 10], [011]
 Multiple Choice Questions 117

9. An elemental crystal has a density of 8570 kg m–3. The packing efficiency

is 0.68. If the closest distance between neighbouring atoms is 2.86 Å, the
mass of one atom is (1 amu = 1.66 ´ 10–27 kg)
A. 186 amu B. 93 amu C. 46.5 amu D. 43 amu
10. Tick the close-packing arrangements in the following:
A. ¼ ABABABA ¼ B. ¼ABCABCABCA¼
C. ¼ ABABCBCABC¼ D. ¼ACCBCABCABC¼
11. The packing efficiency of a simple cubic crystal with an interstitial atom
exactly fitting at the body centre is
A. 0.52 B. 0.68 C. 0.73 D. 0.91
12. The basis of Zn crystal (HCP) contains (l.p. = lattice point)
A. 1 Zn atom/l.p. B. 2 Zn atoms/l.p.
C. 4 Zn atoms/l.p. D. none of these
13. Sb has a hexagonal unit cell with a = 4.307 Å and c = 11.273 Å. If its
density is 6697 kg m–3 and its atomic weight is 121.75 amu, the number of
atoms per unit cell (hexagonal prism) is (1 amu = 1.66 ´ 10–27 kg)
A. 3 B. 6 C. 12 D. 18
14. The atomic fraction of tin in bronze (FCC) with a density of 7717 kg m–3
and a lattice parameter of 3.903 Å is (at.wt. Cu = 63.54, Sn = 118.7;
1 amu = 1.66 ´ 10–27 kg)
A. 0.01 B. 0.07 C. 0.10 D. 3.8
15. The diameter of the largest sphere that fits the void at the centre of a cube
edge of a BCC crystal of lattice parameter a is
A. 0.293a B. 0.414a C. 0.134a D. 0.336a
16. Expressed as a function of atom radius r, the radius of the void at the
midpoint of the edge of a BCC crystal is
A. 0.36r B. 0.414r C. 0.15r D. 0.19r
17. Assuming the ideal c/a ratio for HCP Ti, the radius of the largest sphere
that will fit interstitially in Ti (a = 2.95 Å) is
A. 0.53 Å B. 0.61 Å C. 0.66 Å D. 1.22 Å
18. An octahedron has
A. 8 corners B. 8 faces C. 8 edges D. 12 edges
19. The number of tetrahedral voids in HCP unit cell (hexagonal prism) is
A. 4 B. 6 C. 8 D. 12
20. In Hume-Rothery rules for extensive solid solubility, the atomic diameter
of the solute and the solvent atoms should not differ by more than
A. 50% B. 15% C. 2% D. 0%
118 Multiple Choice Questions

21. The density of the CsCl crystal with ionic radii of Cs+ = 1.65 Å and Cl–
= 1.81 Å is (at.wt. Cs = 132.9, Cl = 35.45; 1 amu = 1.66 ´ 10–27 kg)
A. 4383 kg m–3 B. 3373 kg m–3 C. 2386 kg m–3 D. 6746 kg m–3
22. The fraction of octahedral voids filled by Al3+ ions in Al2O3
(rAl3+/rO2– = 0.43) is
A. 0.43 B. 0.287 C. 0.667 D. 1
23. If the lattice parameter of CsCl is 3.995 Å, the bond length (between
bonding species) is
A. 3.46 Å B. 6.92 Å C. 1.73 Å D. 5.65 Å
24. The packing efficiency of a NaCl crystal (radius of Na+ = 0.98 Å, Cl– =
1.81 Å) is
A. 0.52 B. 0.66 C. 0.68 D. 0.74
25. In ruby, Cr3+ ions substitute for
A. Al3+ ions B. Fe3+ ions C. Mg2+ ions D. O2– ions
26. In CaF2 with the eight-fold cubic coordination, the fraction of voids at the
body centre occupied by Ca2+ ions is
A. 1 B. 0.5 C. 0.25 D. 0
27. The length of an uncoiled polyethylene chain with 500 mers is (C–C bond
length = 1.54 Å)
A. 500 Å B. 770 Å C. 1540 Å D. 1258 Å
28. Apart from three H atoms, the fourth side group in the monomer of
polypropylene is
A. Cl B. CH3 C. C6H5 D. COOCH3
29. The side groups in polyvinyl chloride are
A. H, H, H, H B. H, H, H, Cl C. H, H, CH3, Cl D. H, Cl, Cl, Cl
30. The weight of sulphur in kg required to achieve 5% cross-linking of 68 kg
of polyisoprene is
A. 1.6 kg B. 3.2 kg C. 16 kg D. 32 kg
31. The factors that promote noncrystallinity in polymers are
A. large random side groups B. branching
C. addition of plasticizers D. copolymerization
32. The degree of polymerization in polyethylene is 50,000. The average
molecular weight in amu is
A. 700,000 B. 1,300,000 C. 1,400,000 D. none of these
33. In the PTFE (teflon) monomer, the four side groups are
A. F, F, F, F B. H, H, H, H C. H, H, H, Cl D. H, H, H, CH3
34. The weight in amu of a polyethylene chain with 1000 mers is
A. 28,000 B. 280,000 C. 62,000 D. 42,000
 Sources for Experimental Data/Suggestions for Further Reading 119

35. The minimum number of double bonds required in the monomer for cross-
linking is
A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3
36. The bulkiest side group in the monomer is in
A. teflon B. PVC C. PTFE D. polystyrene
37. The chemical formula of the isoprene molecule is
A. C4H5CH3 B. C3H4CH3Cl C. C4H3Cl D. C2H3CH3

Answers

1. B 2. C 3. A 4. D 5. B
6. B 7. B 8. A, D 9. B 10. A, B, C
11. C 12. B 13. D 14. C 15. C
16. C 17. B 18. B, D 19. D 20. B
21. A 22. C 23. A 24. B 25. A
26. B 27. D 28. B 29. B 30. A
31. A, B, C, D 32. C 33. A 34. A 35. C
36. D 37. A

Sources for Experimental Data

C.A. Harper, Modern Plastics Handbook, McGraw-Hill, New York (2000).

P. Villars and L.D. Calvert, Pearson’s Handbook of Crystallographic Data for
Intermetallic Phases, Vols. 1–3, American Society for Metals, Metals Park,
Ohio (1985).

Suggestions for Further Reading

R.C. Evans, An Introduction to Crystal Chemistry, Cambridge University Press,

Cambridge (1964).
A.F. Wells, Structural Inorganic Chemistry, Clarendon Press, Oxford (1975).
146 Multiple Choice Questions

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. If the vacancy concentration in a crystal doubles itself between 25°C and

31°C, the enthalpy of formation of vacancies (kJ/mole) is
A. 138 B. 87 C. 51 D. 0.7
2. The ratio of vacancy concentration in copper quenched drastically from
1000°C to that slowly cooled to 0°C is (D Hf for Cu is 120 kJ/mole):
A. 1 B. 1.1 ´ 1018 C. 9.2 ´ 10–19 D. 1.2 ´ 10–5
3. The fraction of vacancies in equilibrium close to the melting point of an Al
crystal (m.p. = 660°C and DHf = 68 kJ/mol) is
A. 1.55 ´ 10–4 B. 1.56 ´ 10–5 C. 1.58 ´ 10–4 D. none of these
4. In a CdCl2 crystal, the following point imperfections are energetically
feasible:
A. cation displaced to interstitial site
B. anion displaced to interstitial site
C. one cation and one anion vacancy
D. one cation and two anion vacancies
5. A cation vacancy and an anion vacancy in a crystal of the type AB is
called
A. Schottky defect B. Frenkel defect
C. pair of vacancies D. none of these
6. In ZnyO with y > 1, the defects present are
A. cation interstitials B. anion vacancies
C. cation vacancies D. anion interstitials
7. The t vector is parallel to the b vector in a dislocation of the type:
A. screw B. edge C. mixed D. none of these
8. The line energy of dislocations in BCC iron (a = 2.87 Å) is (shear
modulus of Fe = 80 GN m–2)
A. 2.47 ´ 10–9 J m–1 B. 3.29 ´ 10–9 J m–1
C. 3.29 ´ 10 J m
–12 –1
D. 2.47 ´ 10–12 J m–1
9. The edge component of the Burgers vector of a mixed dislocation line of
B.V. = 1/2 [110] lying along the [112] direction is
A. 1/2 [112] B. 1/6 [112] C. 1/6 [21 1] D. 1/3 [11 1]
10. The Burgers vector of a dislocation in NaCl (a = 5.58 Å) is
A. 5.58 Å B. 4.83 Å C. 3.95 Å D. 2.79 Å
11. No. of missing neighbours of an atom on a {100}-type external surface in
FCC copper is
A. 4 B. 3 C. 2 D. 0
 Sources for Experimental Data/Suggestions for Further Reading 147

12. The stacking which has a stacking fault in the following is

A. …ABCABABCABABCAB…
B. …ABCABABCABCABC…
C. …ABABABCABABABCABABABC…
D. …ABCABCABABCABCABABCABCAB…
13. The stackings with the closest packing of equal-sized spheres are
A. …ABBA… B. …ABCCAB…
C. …ACBACB… D. …ABABCABABC…
14. The local stacking arrangement at a stacking fault in a HCP crystal
A. …ABCABABC… B. …ABABCABABAB…
C. …ABABCABABC… D. …ABCABABCABABC…
15. The tilt angle of a tilt boundary in BCC iron (a = 2.87 Å) with edge
dislocations 7500 Å apart is
A. 0.04° B. 0.2° C. 0.02° D. 0.33 rad
16. The maximum possible decrease in energy during grain growth in Cu
(grain boundary energy = 0.5 J m–2) of initial grain diameter of 0.3 mm is
A. 0.5 kJ m–3 B. 2.5 kJ m–3 C. 5 kJ m–3 D. 10 kJ m–3

Answers

1. B 2. B 3. A 4. A, D 5. A
6. A 7. A 8. A 9. D 10. C
11. A 12. B 13. C, D 14. B 15. C
16. C

Source for Experimental Data

Institute of Metals, London, Dislocations and Properties of Real Materials

(1985).

Suggestions for Further Reading

J.P. Hirth and J. Lothe, Theory of Dislocations, McGraw-Hill, New York (1984).
A. Kelly, G.W. Groves and P. Kidd, Crystallography and Crystal Defects, John
Wiley, Chichester, UK (2000).
 Problems/Multiple Choice Questions 175

(i) Make an approximate sketch of the phase diagram showing

temperatures, compositions and phases.
(ii) Write down the invariant reactions, giving their names.
(iii) How much a and Ti2Co are present in a 6 wt.% Co alloy at room
temperature?
Answer: (iii) 0.86, 0.14.
7.25 The data on the gold–lead phase diagram are given below. Melting point
of Au = 1063°C, Melting point of lead = 327°C. At 434°C, Au, liquid of
43 at.% Pb and Au2Pb are in equilibrium. At 253°C, Au2Pb, liquid of 74
at.% Pb and AuPb2 are in equilibrium. At 222°C, AuPb2, AuPb3 and
liquid of 82 at.% Pb are in equilibrium. At 212°C, AuPb3, Pb and liquid
of 84 at.% Pb are in equilibrium. Draw the phase diagram on a graph
paper using a suitable scale. Write down the invariant reactions, giving
the name of each.
7.26 In the Fe–Fe2Nb system, at 1373°C, d of 3% Nb, liquid of 12% Nb and
e of 27% Nb are in equilibrium. At 1210°C, g of 1% Nb, d of 1.5% Nb
and e of 27% Nb are in equilibrium. At 961°C, g of 0.4% Nb, a of 0.7%
Nb and e of 27% Nb are in equilibrium. All compositions are in
atomic%. The melting point of Fe is 1535°C and of Fe2Nb (33.3 at.%
Nb) is 1627°C. The e phase is stable over a composition range of 27 to
33.3 at.% Nb,
(i) Draw an approximate phase diagram for this system.
(ii) Write down the invariant reactions in the system, giving their names.
(iii) What is the fraction of a in an alloy with 10% Nb at 960°C?
Answer: (iii) 0.65.
7.27 The Al–Si phase diagram is of the simple eutectic type. At 577°C, solid
Al with 1.5% Si dissolved in it, solid Si and liquid of 12.5% Si are in
equilibrium. An aluminium wire is welded to a silicon substrate. Just
below the weld inside the substrate, the microstructure shows 2% of a
eutectic-like mixture. What is the composition at this location?
Answer: 98.28% Si.

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. The maximum number of co-existing in a C-component system is

A. C – P + 2 B. P(C – 1) C. F – C + 2 D. C + 2
2. In a single-component system, the maximum number of phases that can
coexist in equilibrium is
A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5
176 Multiple Choice Questions

3. The degree of freedom when ice, water and water vapour co-exist in
equilibrium is
A. 1 B. triple pt C. 0 D. –1
4. The degrees of freedom, when FCC iron and BCC iron co-exist in
equilibrium, are
A. 2 B. 1 C. 0 D. –1
5. The phase boundary between alpha and (alpha + beta) regions is called
A. liquidus B. solidus C. solvus D. none of these
6. The reaction that yields two solid phases on cooling a single solid phase is
called
A. eutectoid B. peritectoid C. eutectic D. congruent
7. If one solid phase splits into two solid phases on heating, the reaction is
A. eutectic B. peritectic C. eutectoid D. peritectoid
8. The reaction that, on heating one solid phase, yields another solid phase
plus one liquid phase is called
A. eutectic B. eutectoid C. peritectic D. peritectoid
9. If alpha of 82% B and liquid of 57% B are in equilibrium in an alloy of
73% B, the fraction of liquid is
A. 0.36 B. 0.64 C. 36% B D. 0
10. If the fraction of liquid with 57% B, which is in equilibrium with solid of
82% B, is 0.7, the overall composition is
A. 0.3 B. 74.5% B C. 64.5% B D. 25% B
11. In the eutectic phase diagram of Ag–Cu system, the solubility limit at
500°C of copper is 3% in the Ag-rich phase and of Ag is 2% in the
Cu-rich phase. In sterling silver (92.5% Ag –7.5% Cu), the per cent of
copper in the Ag-rich phase at 500°C is
A. 95.26 B. 4.74 C. 3 D. 98
12. The eutectic mixture in a Pb–Sn solder alloy should be 90%. At the
eutectic temperature, alpha of 19% Sn, liquid of 62% Sn and beta of 97%
Sn are in equilibrium. The possible compositions of the solder alloy are
A. 57.7% Sn B. 61% Sn C. 65.5% Sn D. 66.3% Sn
13. The fraction of pearlite in a 0.55% C steel is
A. 0.55 B. 0.31 C. 0.69 D. 0
14. At 30°C, hot chocolate (liquid) with 35% chocolate and 65% vanilla
transforms to chocolate ripple (eutectic mixture of vanilla containing 10%
chocolate and chocolate containing 5% vanilla). Just below 30°C, the
fraction of chocolate ripple in a composition with 45% chocolate is
A. 0.17 B. 0.83 C. 0.41 D. 0.59
 Sources for Experimental Data/Suggestions for Further Reading 177

15. Zone refining will be more efficient if the ratio of impurity in the solid to
that in the liquid is
A. 0.01 B. 0.1 C. 0.4 D. ~1.0

Answers

1. D 2. B 3. C 4. B 5. C
6. A 7. D 8. C 9. A 10. C
11. C 12. A, C 13. C 14. B 15. A

Sources for Experimental Data

American Ceramic Society, Phase Equilibria Diagrams (Phase Diagrams for

Ceramists), Columbus, Ohio, Vol. I (1964) to Vol. XI (1993).
T.B. Massalski (Ed.), Binary Alloy Phase Diagrams, Vols. 1–3, ASM
International, Materials Park, Ohio (1990).

Suggestions for Further Reading

W.D. Kingery, H.K. Bowen and D.R. Uhlmann, Introduction to Ceramics, Wiley,
New York (1976), Chap. 7.
A. Prince, Alloy Phase Equilibria, Elsevier, Amsterdam (1966).
F.N. Rhines, Phase Diagrams in Metallurgy, McGraw-Hill, New York (1956).
 Multiple Choice Questions 199

8.18 A steel containing 0.002% N is to be nitrided to yield a nitrogen content

of 0.12% at depth of 4 mm from the surface. The nitriding atmosphere is
equivalent to a surface concentration of 0.35% N. How long is to be the
nitriding process? The steel is BCC (a) at the nitriding temperature of
700°C.
Answer: 53 hr

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. The unit of the diffusion coefficient D is

A. m s–2 B. m–2 s–1 C. m2 s–1 D. m2 s
2. The unit of flux J is
A. atoms m–2 s–1 B. atoms m2 s–1
C. moles m–2 s–1 D. moles m–3 s–1
3. The error function of ¥ is
A. 0 B. –1 C. 1 D. ¥
4. The error function of 0 is
A. –1 B. 0 C. 1 D. ¥
5. For the same diffusion time, the depth of diffusion penetration at 500 and
850°C is in the ratio of 1 : 6. The activation energy for diffusion is
A. 57 kJ mol–l B. 37 kJ mol–l
C. 114 kJ mol–l D. 74 kJ mol–l
6. If D0 = 0.4 ´ 10–4 m2 s–1 and Q = 100 kJ mol–l, to double the depth of
penetration, the initial temperature of 900°C should be increased to
A. 910°C B. 923°C C. 986°C D. 1083°C
7. In a steel, during carburization at 937°C, 0.6% carbon is found at a depth
of 0.2 mm after 1 hr. The time required to get 0.6% C at double this depth
at the same temperature is
A. 60 s B. 1.414 hr C. 2 hr D. 4 hr
8. Among the following elements, the one with the largest diffusion
coefficient in steel at l000°C is
A. Mn B. W C. Ni D. C
9. The fastest diffusing species in Fe is
A. H B. Ni C. C D. W
10. If the diffusion jump distance is 1.5 Å, the theoretical value of D0 in m2 s–1
is approximately
A. 1.5 ´ l03 B. 1.5 ´ 10–3 C. 2.25 ´ 10–7 D. 2.25 ´ 107
200 Sources for Experimental Data/Suggestions for Further Reading

11. If the enthalpy of motion of a vacancy is 100 kJ mol–1, the time that a
vacancy takes to jump to an adjacent site at 25°C is about
A. 3 ´ 1017 s B. 2 ´ 1026 s C. 1013 s D. 3 ´ 104 s
12. The units of the ratio s /D (= ne2z/kT) are
A. A2 m–3 J–1 B. C2 m–3 J–1 C. C2 m–3 J D. V2 A–2 m–3 J

Answers

1. C 2. A, C 3. C 4. B 5. D
6. D 7. D 8. D 9. A 10. C
11. D 12. B

Source for Experimental Data

E.A. Brandes, Smithells Metals Reference Book, Butterworths, London (1983).

Suggestions for Further Reading

J. Crank and G.S. Park, Diffusion in Polymers, Academic Press, New York
(1968).
W.D. Kingery, H.K. Bowen and D.R. Uhlmann, Introduction to Ceramics, Wiley,
New York (1976), Chap. 6.
P.G. Shewmon, Diffusion in Solids, McGraw-Hill, New York (1963).
 Multiple Choice Questions 235

9.28 At any instant of time, the grain growth, i.e., the rate of increase of the
grain radius with time, dr/dt, is proportional to the grain boundary energy
stored per unit volume of the material. Show that the radius of spherical
grains increases as the square root of time.

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. For a spherical particle of radius r, the volume-to-surface area ratio is

A. 3/r B. r/3 C. 3r D. p r/3
2. If the interfacial energy increases by 10%, the homogeneous nucleation
barrier for a spherical particle increases by
A. 10% B. 21% C. 33% D. 100%
3. If the nucleation barrier at 10°C of supercooling is 10–17 J, at 20°C of
supercooling, it is
A. 2 ´ 10–17 J B. 4 ´ 10–17 J C. 2.5 ´ 10–18 J D. 5 ´ 10–18 J
4. If the product phase completely wets a nucleating agent, the nucleation
barrier as a fraction of homogeneous barrier is
1 1
A. 1 B. C. D. 0
2 4
5. If the product phase does not wet at all the parent phase, the contact angle
between the two phases is
A. 0° B. 45° C. 90° D. 180°
6. When the contact angle is 60°, the heterogeneous nucleation barrier
expressed as a fraction of the homogeneous barrier is
1 1 1
A. B. C. D. none of these
2 4 8
7. As compared to the nucleation-rate maximum, the growth-rate maximum
is at
A. a higher temperature
B. a lower temperature
C. the same temperature
D. the temperature of maximum transformation rate
8. Fine grain sizes are obtained by
A. slow cooling B. increasing nucleation rate
C. decreasing growth rate D. fast cooling
9. During pearlitic transformations
A. new phases form B. crystal structures change
C. compositions of phases change D. there is no diffusion
236 Multiple Choice Questions

10. The hardness of martensite in a steel is a function of

A. C content B. cooling rate C. Ni content D. nose location
11. Martensitic transformations
A. are diffusion-controlled
B. are shear processes
C. yield two products of different compositions
D. yield a hard product in steels
12. The c/a ratio of martensite depends on the concentration of
A. Ni B. Mn C. C D. N
13. Bainite has
A. the same morphology as austenite
B. a non-lamellar morphology of ferrite and cementite
C. the coarsest morphology among all the products from austenite
D. none of these
14. During overageing, hardness
A. decreases B. increases
C. is constant D. increases abruptly
15. Overageing refers to
A. ageing above room temperature
B. ultrafine precipitate size
C. long ageing times
D. coarsening of precipitate particles
16. The maximum temperature up to which tungsten (m.p. = 3410°C) can be
cold worked is approximately
A. 0°C B. 27°C C. 1200°C D. 1940°C
17. Lead melts at 327°C. It is hot rolled at
A. –273°C B. –200°C
C. room temperature D. none of these
18. The free energy decrease during recrystallization comes mainly from
A. excess point defects
B. excess dislocations
C. grain boundaries
D. lower energy of the new crystal structure
19. The recrystallization rate increases with
A. increasing amount of cold work
B. higher working temperature
C. higher annealing temperature
D. decreasing initial grain size
20. Grain growth occurs in the temperature range
A. 0.2–0.3 Tm B. < 0.4 Tm C. 0.4–1.0 Tm D. >Tm
 Sources for Experimental Data/Suggestions for Further Readin 237

Answers

1. B 2. C 3. C 4. D 5. D
6. D 7. A 8. B, C, D 9. A, B, C 10. A
11. B, D 12. C 13. B 14. A 15. D
16. C 17. C 18. B 19. A, C, D 20. C

Sources for Experimental Data

ASM International, Metals Handbook, 10th ed., Vol. 1—Properties and

Selection: Iron, Steels and High Performance Alloys, Materials Park, Ohio
(1990).
W.D. Kingery, H.K. Bowen and D.R. Uhlmann, Introduction to Ceramics, Wiley,
New York (1976), Chaps. 8–10.

Suggestions for Further Reading

W.D. Kingery, H.K. Bowen and D.R. Uhlmann, Introduction to Ceramics, Wiley,
New York (1976), Chaps. 8–10.
V. Raghavan, Solid State Phase Transformations, Prentice-Hall of India, New
Delhi (1987).
 Problems/Multiple Choice Questions 257

10.12 Derive the result given in Eq. (10.20).

10.13 Using Eq. (10.20), show that the stress t as a function of time t at
constant strain in the stress-relaxation experiment decays exponentially
as t = t0 exp (–t/tr), where t0 is the initial stress.
10.14 Sketch the time-strain curve for anelastic behaviour and compare it with
the time-strain curve in the Voigt–Kelvin element. What do you deduce
from this?
10.15 Explain how the four constants corresponding to the linear combination
of the Maxwell and the Voigt–Kelvin elements can be determined from a
strain-time experiment at constant stress.
10.16 Calculate the Young’s modulus of a composite containing 60 vol% of
glass fibre (Y = 70 GN m–2) in a matrix of epoxy resin (Y = 3 GN m–2)
under isostress conditions.
Answer: 7.0 GN m–2.

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. High elastic modulus in materials arises from

A. High strength of bonds
B. Weak bonds
C. Sharp curvature at the minimum potential energy
D. Shallow potential well
2. As we go along a row of the periodic table, if the three-dimensional
network of primary bonds persists, the elastic modulus
A. increases B. remains constant
C. decreases D. decreases sharply
3. As we go down a column of the periodic table, the elastic modulus
A. increases sharply B. increases
C. remains constant D. decreases
4. The change in Young’s modulus of ordinarily-elastic materials between
0 K and melting point is
A. 10–20% increase B. no change
C. 10–20% decrease D. 80–90% decrease
5. Covalent and ionic solids are not suitable as structural components,
because
A. they have weak bonds B. they are ductile
C. they are brittle D. they have high elastic moduli
258 Multiple Choice Questions/Sources for Experimental Data

6. During stretching of an ideal elastomer, its enthalpy

A. increases B. remains constant
C. decreases D. decreases slowly
7. On heating an elastomer under tensile load, it shrinks
A. to maximize the enthalpy B. to maximize the entropy
C. to minimize the free energy D. to avoid breaking
8. On heating a rubber under a tensile force, it
A. shrinks B. expands
C. expands rapidly D. shows no change
9. In BCC iron, residual carbon occupies the midpoints of
A. á100ñ B. á110ñ C. á111ñ D. none of these
10. During cyclic loading, hysteresis loss occurs due to anelastic deformation,
when
A. time for stress reversal is large compared to relaxation time
B. time for stress reversal is small compared to relaxation time
C. time for stress reversal and the relaxation time are about the same
D. none of these
11. The Voigt–Kelvin element is a
A. series combination of a spring and a dashpot
B. parallel combination of a spring and a dashpot
C. a four-parameter model
D. none of these
12. A linear combination of a Maxwell and a Voigt–Kelvin element is a
A. one parameter model B. two parameter model
C. three parameter model D. four parameter model

Answers

1. A, C 2. A 3. D 4. C 5. C
6. B 7. B, C 8. A 9. A 10. C
11. B 12. D

Sources for Experimental Data

K.A. Gschneidner Jr., in Solid State Physics (1964), Vol. 16, p. 275 on Physical
Properties and Interrelationships of Metallic and Semimetallic Elements.
294 Problems/Multiple Choice Questions

11.22 Compute the mean grain diameters in mm, corresponding to ASTM grain
size numbers (i) 3, (ii) 0, and (iii) –2.5.
Answer: 0.125 mm, 0.35 mm, and 0.84 mm.
11.23 A grain size of ASTM 7 in a mild steel is refined to ASTM 14 by the
addition of microalloying elements. Estimate the increase in the yield
strength of the steel.
Answer: 300 MN m–2.
11.24 Two samples of an Fe-3%Si alloy have grain sizes of ASTM 1 and 8
respectively. They have yield strengths of 118 and 207 MN m–2.
Calculate the yield strength of a single crystal of this alloy.
Answer: 8l MN m–2.
11.25 Estimate the yield strength of a cold-worked microalloyed steel from the
following data:
Peierls–Nabarro (tensile) stress for Fe : 35 MN m–2
Solid solution strengthening by Mn and Si : 135 MN m–2
Dislocation density due to cold working : 1014 m–2
ASTM grain size number : 13
Assume that the constant A in the work hardening equation is 10 N m–1.
Answer: 630 MN m–2.
11.26 Describe briefly the main strengthening methods against plastic yield at
low temperatures.
11.27 Reexamine critically the above strengthening methods against plastic
yield for temperatures above 0.4Tm.
11.28 Discuss the role of (i) grain boundaries and (ii) precipitate particles, in
strengthening crystalline materials against yield at low as well as high
temperatures of deformation.

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. As compared to engineering stress-strain curve, the true stress-strain curve

is
A. above and to the left B. below and to the right
C. crosses the engineering curve D. parallel to the engineering curve
2. In a tensile test, the engineering stress corresponding to the maximum load
is called
A. yield strength B. tensile strength
C. UTS D. upper yield stress
 Multiple Choice Questions 295

3. In a tensile test, necking starts at

A. lower yield stress B. upper yield stress
C. ultimate tensile stress D. just before fracture
4. Superplastic materials have an index of strain-rate sensitivity m in the
range of
A. 0 B. 0.1–0.2 C. 0.4–0.9 D. 1.5–2.0
5. The critical resolved shear stress (CRSS) for a polycrystalline copper is
A. m /6 B. m /88,000 C. m /110,000 D. not defined
6. The resolved shear stress for plastic deformation to start in an iron crystal
is (m = shear modulus)
A. m B. m/6 C. m/30 D. m /4700
7. Crystals like diamond and silicon are brittle, because
A. they contain no dislocations
B. they are noncrystalline
C. the stress to move a dislocation is high in them
D. they contain very few dislocations
8. Copper is ductile, because
A. it is a perfect crystal
B. it contains a very high density of dislocations
C. it has glassy structure
D. the stress to move a dislocation in it is low
9. For copper, the yield stress s y and the brittle fracture stress sf are related
as
A. s y > s f B. s f > s y C. s f << s y D. s y = s f
10. The length of the Frank–Read source operating after work hardening to
double the initial yield stress is approximately
A. half B. same as before C. double D. 4 times
11. The yield strength of an annealed copper crystal is 1 MPa. It increases to
9 MPa on cold working to a dislocation density of 2 ´ 1012 m–2. The value
of the constant A in the equation describing the work-hardening effect is
A. 5.66 N m–1 B. 5.66 N m–2
C. 5.72 N m –1
D. 3 ´ 10–13 N m–2
12. The yield stress of 1 MN m–2 of an annealed copper crystal increases to
100 MN m–2 on cold working to a dislocation density of 1014 m–2. If cold
working had been done to a dislocation density of 1012 m–2, the yield
stress would be
A. 109 MN m–2 B. 67 MN m–2 C. 10.9 MN m–2 D. no change
296 Multiple Choice Questions

13. The yield stress of a copper crystal is 100 and 10 MN m–2, when cold
worked to a dislocation density of 3 ´ 1014 and 2 ´ 1012 m–2, respectively.
The yield stress of the softest crystal is
A. 0 MN m–2 B. 2 MN m–2 C. 10 MN m–2 D. 3.33 MN m–2
14. If ASTM grain size number 7 corresponds to grain diameter of 0.03 mm,
ASTM 4 corresponds to
A. 0.24 mm B. 0.085 mm C. 0.011 mm D. 0.004 mm
15. A grain size measured wrongly at a magnification of 300 ´ gave an ASTM
number of 2. The correct grain size number should be
A. –1 B. 5.2 C. 6.0 D. 5.0
16. The mean grain diameter corresponding to ASTM number = – 0.5 is
A. 5 mm B. 0.05 mm C. 0.43 mm D. 0.30 mm
17. The ASTM grain size number of a material which has 28 grains per sq.in.
at a magnification 75 ´ is about
A. 14 B. 7 C. 5 D. 4
18. A mild steel (k = 0.7 MN m–3/2) of 0.03 mm grain diameter is grain
refined to 0.003 mm. The increase in yield strength (MN m–2) will be
about
A. 275 B. –275 C. –0.00275 D. 8.1
19. The yield stresses of an Fe-4%Si alloy at grain sizes of 0.015 and
0.045 mm are 214 and 147 MN m–2. The yield stress of a single crystal is
A. 55.5 MN m–2 B. 120 MN m–2 C. 80 MN m–2 D. 360 MN m–2
20. The yield stresses of both Au and Ag single crystals are 0.7 MPa. The
yield stress of a 50 : 50 solid solution is
A. 0.7 MPa B. > 0.7 MPa C. < 0.7 MPa D. 0
21. The radii of copper, zinc and tin are 1.28, 1.31 and 1.51 Å respectively. As
compared to zinc, tin in copper will produce a strengthening effect that is
A. large B. small C. very small D. same
22. When the inter-precipitate spacing increases from 200 to 2000 Å, the ratio
of the new yield strength to the initial strength is
A. 10 B. 1 C. 0.1 D. none of these
23. The methods to increase the yield strength of a crystalline material are
A. grain refinement B. annealing
C. solute additions D. precipitation hardening
24. The most desirable method of increasing the yield strength of mild steel is
A. grain refinement B. cold working
C. solute additions D. precipitation hardening
 Sources for Experimental Data/Suggestions for Further Reading 297

25. If the melting point of polyethylene is 140°C, it will not creep at

A. room temperature B. 0°C
C. –60°C D. –196°C
26. With melting points given in brackets, tick those materials which will
creep significantly at 180°C
A. Pb (327°C) B. Cu (1084°C) C. Al (660°C) D. W (3410°C)
27. TD (thoria dispersed) nickel has adequate creep resistance up to 0.7 Tm
because
A. thoria has a high melting point
B. thoria does not dissolve in nickel
C. nickel has a high melting point
D. nickel gets work hardened during service

Answers

1. A 2. B, C 3. C 4. C 5. D
6. D 7. C 8. D 9. B 10. A
11. A 12. C 13. B 14. B 15. B
16. C 17. C 18. A 19. A 20. B
21. A 22. C 23. A, C, D 24. A 25. D
26. A, C 27. B

Sources for Experimental Data

ASM International, Metals Handbook, 10th ed., Vol. 1, Irons and Steels and
High Performance Alloys: Specialty Steels and Heat Resistant Alloys,
pp. 755–1003, Materials Park, Ohio (1990).
A. Kelly and R.B. Nicholson, Strengthening Methods in Crystals, Elsevier,
Amsterdam (1971).

Suggestions for Further Reading

R.W.K. Honeycombe, Plastic Deformation of Metals, Edward Arnold, London

(1984).
W.D. Kingery, H.K. Bowen and D.R. Uhlmann, Introduction to Ceramics, John
Wiley, New York (1976), Chap. 14.
 Problems/Multiple Choice Questions 313

12.11 A heat treated steel chisel and a glass window pane are both brittle.
Explain why the chisel is strong and the window pane is weak.
12.12 Suggest one of the following alloys for use as a container for liquid
oxygen in a rocket, giving your reasons for the choice: mild steel, copper
and austenitic stainless steel.
12.13 When a sodium silicate glass is immersed in a lithium nitrate bath at
260°C for a few minutes, cracks develop on the surface. Why?
12.14 A sample of borosilicate glass contains two cracks: a surface crack of
1 mm deep and an inner crack of 1.8 mm long. Both the cracks
are normal to the tensile axis. Determine which one will propagate
first on increasing the applied load and at what stress? Y = 65 GN m–2;
g = 0.5 J m–2.
Answer: Surface crack at 144 MN m–2.
12.15 A sheet of glass, with Y = 70 GN m–2 and g = 0.5 J m–2, has an internal
crack of length equal to 2 mm. A surface crack of 0.8 mm depth is
introduced by scratching the surface with a sharp tool. Adsorption at the
surface lowers the surface energy by 50%. Determine which crack will
propagate first, on increasing the applied stress and at what value of the
stress?
Answer: Surface crack at 118 MN m –2.
12.16 Estimate the fracture strength of a sodium silicate glass with Y = 70 GN
m–2 and g = 0.5 J m–2. A number of cracks are present both inside and on
the surface of the glass, varying in size from 1 to 5 mm. How will the
fracture strength change, if the glass is dipped in (i) HF solution, and
(ii) LiNO3 solution?
Answer: 67 MN m –2.

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. In the Griffith equation, the fracture stress is proportional to

A. Öc B. l/Öc C. l/c D. 1/2c
2. The fracture strength of borosilicate glass (Y = 65 GN m–2; g = 0.5 J m–2)
with a surface crack of 1 mm deep and with the crack faces parallel to the
tensile axis is
A. 144 MN m–2 B. 203 MN m–2 C. ~Y/6 D. 0
3. If the surface crack causing fracture in a brittle material is made twice as
deep, the fracture strength will
A. decrease by a factor of Ö2 B. decrease by a factor of 2
C. decrease by a factor of 4 D. not change
314 Multiple Choice Questionsa/Suggestions for Further Readin

4. A silicate glass has a relatively low fracture strength, because

A. the Young’s modulus of glass is low
B. the cracks propagate, before Griffith criterion is satisfied
C. plastic deformation during crack propagation causes fracture
D. the cracks are sharp and propagate as soon as Griffith condition is met
5. In brittle materials with atomically sharp cracks, the stress concentration at
the tip of the crack is a factor of
A. 2 B. 200 C. 5000 D. 106
6. Liberty ships in World War II failed by brittle fracture due to:
A. going above the ductile-brittle transition temperature
B. going below the ductile-brittle transition temperature
C. glass superstructure
D. defective riveting
7. The residual stresses in the interior of a tempered glass are
A. nil B. tensile
C. compressive D. highly compressive
8. An ion-exchange method of strengthening will be effective for a sodium
silicate glass if it is dipped in
A. LiNO3 B. NaNO3 C. KNO3 D. none of these
9. Tick the methods that improve fatigue resistance of materials
A. fine grain size B. shot peening
C. polishing the surface D. decarburizing a steel
10. The fatigue strength of mild steel is
A. equal to its tensile strength B. more than its tensile strength
C. equal to its yield strength D. lower than its yield strength

Answers

1. B 2. C 3. A 4. D 5. B
6. B 7. B 8. C 9. A, B, C 10. D

Suggestions for Further Reading

F.A. McClintock and A.S. Argon (Eds.), Mechanical Behavior of Materials,

Addison-Wesley, Reading, Mass. (1966), Chaps. 15–17.
A.S. Tetelman and A.J. McEvily, Jr., Fracture of Structural Materials, John
Wiley, New York (1967).
330 Problems/Multiple Choice Questions

13.5 What is the potential difference that is observed, when a standard zinc
electrode is connected to the calomel reference electrode whose potential
is + 0.334 V?
Answer: 1.094 V.
13.6 Calculate the ampere-hour required to plate out one mole of copper from
a copper sulphate solution.
Answer: 53.61 A hr.
13.7 Calculate the cupric ion concentration in the elecrolyte that is required to
make the potential of copper to become equal to that of the standard zinc
electrode. Is this potential likely to be realized in practice? Explain.
Answer: 1.0 ´ 10–37.
13.8 1 mm thick layer of nickel is to be plated on a steel article. What is the
current density required to do this in one hour?
Answer: 8130 A m–2.
13.9 Why is tin preferred to zinc on a steel food can? Why is enamelling
preferred to paint on a steel refrigerator body?
13.10 Show how rust, Fe(OH)3, can form in a galvanic cell, where iron is the
anode and the cathode reaction is as given in Eq. (13.5).
13.11 Which of the following coatings is expected to protect iron even if the
coating has cracks: Polyethylene, enamel, Zn, Ni, Sn and Pb? Give a
reason for your answer.
Answer: Zn.

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. For a protective oxide layer to form, the ratio of the volume of oxide
formed to that of metal consumed should be
A. < 1 B. 1 C. > 1 D.  1
2. The keys to good oxidation resistance of an oxide film are
A. low electrical conductivity B. low electrical resistivity
C. continuous oxide film D. porous oxide film
3. In parabolic rate of oxidation, the oxide thickness is proportional to
A. t1/2 B. t C. t2 D. none of these
4. Tick the elements added to iron to improve its oxidation resistance
A. zinc B. chromium C. magnesium D. aluminium
5. If the activation energy for oxidation is 100 kJ/mol, the ratio of oxidation
rates at 800 and 500°C is
A. 8270 B. 78 C. 1.0 D. 0.031
 Sources for Experimental Data/Suggestions for Further Reading 331

6. The standard potential of a zinc electrode is –0.76 V, its potential at 300 K

at a zinc ion concentration of 0.001 in the electrolyte is (F = 96490 C/mol)
A. –0.85 V B. –0.67 V C. –0.72 V D. 0 V
7. The potential of a galvanic cell of copper (potential of +0.34 V) and
aluminium (potential of –1.66 V) is
A. 2.00 V B. –1.32 V C. 1.32 V D. 0 V
8. The peak in corrosion rate of martensite occurs when
A. in untempered condition B. tempered at 800°C
C. tempered at about 400°C D. in spherodized state
9. Pore-free coating is required when
A. coating is noble with respect to the protected metal
B. coating is base with respect to the protected metal
C. coating has the same potential as the protected metal
D. none of these
10. For cathodic protection at a current density of 10 mA m–2, the quantity of
zinc (atomic weight = 65.4) required per m2 of ship hull per year is
(F = 96490 C/mol)
A. 0.1 kg B. 0.2 kg C. 107 kg D. 213 kg

Answers

1. C 2. A, C 3. A 4. B, D 5. B
6. A 7. A 8. C 9. A 10. A

Source for Experimental Data

S. Lamb (Ed.) Practical Handbook of Stainless Steels and Nickel Alloys, ASM
International, Materials Park, Ohio (1999).

Suggestions for Further Reading

D.A. Jones, Principles and Prevention of Corrosion, Prentice-Hall, Englewood-

Cliffs, New Jersey (1996).
J.C. Scully, The Fundamentals of Corrosion, Pergamon, Oxford (1975).
 Multiple Choice Questions 351

14.16 Explain why aluminium used in long distance transmission lines cannot
be strengthened by solid solution.

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. The SI units of electrical conductivity are

A. kg–1 m–3 s3 A2 B. kg m3 s–3 A–2 C. ohm m D. ohm–l m–3
2. The correct order of increasing resistivity of the following is
A. nickel, doped silicon, sodium silicate, pure silica
B. doped silicon, pure silica, nickel, sodium silicate
C. pure silica, doped silicon, sodium silicate, nickel
D. nickel, pure silica, doped silicon, sodium silicate
3. Volt in SI units is
A. W A B. N m2 s–1 A–1 C. kg m2 s–3 A–1 D. ohm A–1
4. The degeneracy of the quantum states with (nx2 + ny2 + nz2) = 6 is
A. 8 B. 12 C. 24 D. 48
5. The energy level difference between two successive levels for the lowest
energy free electrons is in order of magnitude
A. 1 eV B. 10–33 J C. 10–23 J D. 10–19 J
6. In a metal of 1 cm ´ 1 cm ´ 1 cm, the lowest energy free electron has a
wavelength of
A. 0.5 cm B. 1 cm
C. 2 cm D. need Fermi energy to compute
7. The probability of finding a free electron in Ag at 300 K at an energy level
1.01EF is given by (EF for Ag = 5.5 eV)
A. 0.5 B. 0.11 C. 0.005 D. 0
8. If the Fermi energy of silver is 5.5 eV, the wave number of the fastest
electron at 0 K has the magnitude (in m–l)
A. 0.85 ´ 1010 B. 7.54 ´ 1010 C. 1.20 ´ 1010 D. 0.19 ´ 1010
9. The Fermi level for Cu is 7 eV. The maximum velocity of free electrons at
0 K is
A. 1570 km s–1 B. 1110 km s–1 C. 860 km s–1 D. 0 km s–1
10. The acceleration (m s–2) of a free electron in an electric field of
100 V m–1 is
A. 1.76 ´ 103 B. 1.1 ´ 1013 C. 1.76 ´ 1013 D. 1.1 ´ 1032
352 Multiple Choice Questions

11. The Fermi level EF depends on the length L of a linear solid as

A. l/L2 B. l/L3
C. l/L D. is independent of L
12. At 0 K, the probability of finding an electron at energy level E is unity,
when
A. E  EF B. E < EF C. E > EF D. E  EF
13. The classical equation for the kinetic energy can be used for the free
electrons, because, as compared to the velocity of light, their velocity is
A. more B. slightly less C. much less D. zero
14. The probability of occupation by a free electron of the energy level 3.5 eV
at room temperature in Cu is (EF for Cu = 7 eV)
A. 0 B. 0.5 C. 1 D. exp (–134.6)
15. The collision time for electron scattering in pure Ag (EF = 5.5 eV) at
300 K is 10–14 s. The mean free path of electrons is
A. 19.4 mm B. 1.39 ´ 10–8 m C. 3.3 ´ 10–8 m D. none of these
16. If the collision time for electron scattering in copper is 10–9 s at 4 K, the
conductivity of copper in units of ohm–1 m–1 is
A. 2.4 ´ 1012 B. 9.6 ´ 107 C. 4.8 ´ 107 D. 1.04 ´ 10–8
17. The number of degenerate quantum states corresponding to 9 for the sum
of the squares of the quantum numbers nx, ny and nz in the free electron
model is
A. 32 B. 6 C. 30 D. 24
18. The probability of occupation of an energy level E, when E – EF = kT, is
given by
A. 0.73 B. 0.63 C. 0.27 D. 0.5
19. The resistivity of pure copper at 300 K is 2 ´ 10–8 ohm m and that of
a copper-3% nickel alloy at 300 K is 5 ´ 10–8 ohm m. The impurity
scattering effect for 1 per cent of nickel in copper is
A. 5 ´ 10–8 ohm m B. 3 ´ 10–8 ohm m
–8
C. 10 ohm m D. 7 ´ 10–8 ohm m
20. The error in measurement of resistance per kelvin with manganin
(temperature coefficient of resistance of 20 ´ 10–6 K–1) is
A. 0.04% B. 0.08% C. 0.00002 D. nil
21. The unit of electrical conductivity is
A. ohm m B. mho–1 m–1 C. m–3 C–2 s–1 kg–1 D. ohm–1 m–1
22. To increase the mechanical strength of an Al conductor, we can use
A. solute strengthening B. cold working
C. doping D. steel reinforcement
 Multiple Choice Questions 353

23. High conductivity aluminium should not have

A. steel rod reinforcement
B. solute atoms such as Cu, Ag and Au
C. high dislocation density
D. dissolved impurities
24. The electrical resistivity of very pure silver near 0 K is
A. not measurable B. below 10–20 ohm m
C. very low but measurable D. very high
25. Tick the materials with the approximately correct superconducting
transition temperature given in brackets
A. Sn (4 K) B. Nb3Ge (23 K)
C. Y–Ba–Cu oxide (90 K) D. Y–Ba–Cu oxide (300 K)
26. The magnetization of a superconductor is
A. 0 B. –B C. –1 D. –H
27. The atoms that are located at the body centres of the cubic unit cells of the
YBa2Cu3O7-x superconductor are
A. Y B. Ba C. Cu D. O
28. The first measured Tc in a ceramic superconductor by Bednorz and
Mueller was
A. 4 K B. 23 K C. 34 K D. 90 K
29. The following microstructural features can improve Jc in a superconductor
A. dislocation tangles B. grain boundaries
C. fine precipitates D. low test temperature
30. Explosive forming of a ceramic superconductor causes
A. Jc to increase B. Tc to increase
C. plastic deformation D. brittle fracture of the ceramic
31. Cold working of oxide superconductors is possible with
A. high hydrostatic pressure B. moderate tensile stress
C. large tensile force D. none of these
32. Switching times with a Josephson junction are in order of magnitude
A. 10–2 ns B. 0.1 ms C. 10–15 s D. 1 ms
33. The room temperature electrical resistivity (ohm-m) of the new oxide
superconductors lies around
A. 10–9 B. 10–5 C. 107 D. 1018
34. The critical current density Jc that a superconductor can carry depends on
A. T with respect to Tc B. dislocation density
C. precipitate distribution D. none of these
354 Sources for Experimental Data/Suggestions for Further Reading

Answers

1. A 2. A 3. C 4. C 5. B
6. C 7. B 8. C 9. A 10. C
11. D 12. A, B 13. C 14. C 15. B
16. A 17. C 18. C 19. C 20. C
21. D 22. D 23. B, C, D 24. C 25. A, B, C
26. D 27. A, B 28. C 29. A, B, C 30. A, C
31. A 32. A 33. B 34. A, B, C

Sources for Experimental Data

G.W.A. Dummer, Materials for Conductive and Resistive Functions, Hayden

Book Co., New York (1971).
Metals Handbook, 10th ed., Vol. 3, Special Purpose Materials, ASM
International, Materials Park, Ohio (1990), pp. 804–1024.

Suggestions for Further Reading

C. Kittel, Introduction to Solid State Physics, Wiley, New York (1976), Chaps. 6
and 12.
L.E. Murr, A.W. Hare and N.G. Eror, Introducing the Metal Matrix High
Temperature Superconductor, in Advanced Materials and Processes, ASM
International, Materials Park, Ohio (1987), Vol. 145(10), pp. 36–44.
 Problems/Multiple Choice Questions 387

15.13 Calculate the drift velocity of an electron moving in a germanium crystal

in a field of gradient 1 kV m–1.
Answer: 390 m s–1.
15.14 5 g of n-type silicon doped with arsenic of conductivity 10 ohm–1 m–1 is
melted with 5 g of p-type silicon doped with aluminium having the same
conductivity. What is the conductivity of the resulting material?
Answer: 3.2 ohm–1 m–l.
15.15 The equilibrium current across an unbiased p-n junction is 10 mA.
Calculate the current when the junction is (i) forward biased by 0.1 V,
and (ii) reverse biased by 0.1 V.
Answer: 479 mA, 10 mA.
15.16 A transistor has a collector current of 5 mA, when the emitter voltage is
20 mV. At 30 mV, the current is 30 mA. Calculate the current, when the
emitter voltage is 40 mV.
Answer: 180 mA.
15.17 A CdTe photoconductor responds to a glowing cigarette. Explain why
this is so.
15.18 Determine the wavelength of the light from a GaAs laser, assuming that
the radiative transition occurs between the bottom of the conduction band
and the top of the valence band.
Answer: 8670 Å.

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. The first reflection of free electrons in a BCC crystal occurs at the

following value of k
A. 2/a B. pa/Ö2 C. p /a D. Ö2 p /a
2. If an electron is moving at 60° to the (100) plane in a cubic crystal of lattice
parameter a, the wave number k at the critical diffracting condition is:
A. p /a B. 2p /a C. Ö2 p/a D. 2/Ö3 ´ p /a
3. The first Brillouin zone in Cu is bounded by planes of the type
A. 100, 110 B. 111 C. 111, 220 D. 111, 200
4. The energy gap in diamond is
A. 5.4 eV B. 2–3 eV C. 1.1 eV D. 0.08 eV
–1
5. The field gradient (V m ) required to accelerate an electron in cubic
diamond (Eg = 5.4 eV; a = 3.57 Å) over a distance equal to the atomic
radius is
A. 7 ´ 1010 B. 3.5 ´ 1010 C. 5.4 D. 1.5 ´ 1010
388 Multiple Choice Questions

6. The fraction of electrons excited across the energy gap in Ge (Eg = 0.7 eV)
at room temperature is
A. 0 B. l.7 ´ 10–12 C. 2 ´ 10–12 D. 1.3 ´ 10–6
7. During an electron transition across the energy gap in Si,
A. the momentum of the electron changes
B. the direction of motion of the electron changes
C. the potential energy of the electron changes
D. the kinetic energy of the electron remains constant
8. The energy gap in divalent metals is
A. very small B. fairly small C. zero D. large
9. If the electron positions corresponding to the standing wave solutions in
Ge (energy gap = 0.7 eV) differ by 1.22 Å, the field gradient in V m–1
required to promote an electron to the conduction band is
A. 0.85 ´ 1010 B. 0.57 ´ 1010 C. 106 D. 0.7
10. Pure silicon at 0 K is an
A. intrinsic semiconductor B. extrinsic semiconductor
C. metal D. insulator
11. The temperature at which the resistivity of pure diamond will equal that of
pure Si at room temperature is
A. above m.p. of diamond B. 3000 K
C. 300 K D. can’t be estimated without data
12. Ignoring variation in mobilities, the temperature at which pure Si will have
the same conductivity as pure Ge at 300 K is
A. 190 K B. 300 K C. 470 K D. 1470 K
13. The resistivity of pure silicon at 0°C is 3000 ohm m. The intrinsic carrier
density per cubic metre is ( me = 0.14 and m h = 0.05 m2 V–1 s–1)
A. 1.095 ´ 1016 B. 2.19 ´ 1016 C. 1018 D. zero
14. In an extrinsic semiconductor, in the region where mobility variation with
temperature is evident, the slope of log(conductivity) vs. l/T plot is
A. positive B. negative C. 0 D. infinity
15. The two most common doping elements in Si are
A. P B. B C. Sb D. Bi
16. The majority charge carriers in p-type Ge are
A. free electrons B. ions
C. holes D. conduction electrons
17. The temperature at which 50% of holes become available for conduction in
B-doped Si (ionization energy = 0.045 eV) is
A. 52°C B. 104°C C. 377°C D. 480°C
18. If the drift velocity of holes under a field gradient of 100 V m–1 is
5 m s–1, their mobility (in the same SI units) is
A. 0.05 B. 0.5 C. 50 D.500
 Multiple Choice Questions 389

19. Tick the value of energy gap of Si in the following:

A. 0.08 eV B. 0.66 eV C. 1.1 eV D. 5.4 eV
20. For silicon doped with B,
A. ne  nh B. nh  ne C. nh  ni D. nh = ne
21. Electron and hole mobilities in Si are 0.14 and 0.05 m2 V–1 s –l. The
electrical resistivity in ohm-m at 300 K of Si doped with B of
concentration equal to 1026 m–3 is (ionization energy of B = 0.045 eV)
A. 1.4 ´ 105 B. 2.55 ´ 10–6 C. 7.14 ´ 10–6 D. 1.25 ´ 10–6
22. Electron and hole mobilities in Si are 0.14 and 0.05 m2V–1s–1. 10 g of
n-type Si doped with As is melted with x g of p-type Si doped with Al,
both of the same dopant concentration, to yield Si of intrinsic conductivity.
x is equal to
A. 28 B. 10 C. 3.6 D. 1.8
23. The temperature at which 20% of the donor electrons are excited into
the conduction band in phosphorus-doped silicon (ionization energy
= 0.044 eV) is
A. 44°C B. –2°C C. 737°C D. 1022°C
24. Metallurgical grade Si has a purity of about
A. 99% B. 99.99% C. 99.999% D. 99.9999%
25. During purification of Si, the liquid that is produced by dissolving silicon
in HCl is
A. SiCl4 B. SiH2Cl2 C. SiHCl3 D. SiH4
26. Trichlorosilane is
A. SiHCl3 B. SiH2Cl2 C. SiH3Cl D. SiCl3
27. The quality of oxide on Ge is
A. excellent B. satisfactory C. unsuitable D. water soluble
28. As compared to the CZ method of crystal growth, the FZ method has the
following advantages:
A. larger diameter crystals can be grown
B. uniform doping is possible
C. oxygen contamination does not occur
D. incorporation of substitutional carbon is an advantage
29. To reduce the dopant concentration gradient along the grown crystal to a
minimum in the CZ process, the ratio cl /cs (c is concentration of dopant in
liquid or solid) should be
A. very low B. very high C. 0 D. near unity
30. As compared to Si, the electron mobility in GaAs is
A. slower by about five times B. same
C. faster by about six times D. faster by about 200 times
390 Multiple Choice Questions

31. The two common orientations during Si single crystal growth is

A. á111ñ á100ñ B. á110ñ á001ñ
C. á111ñ á101ñ D. á100ñ á001ñ
32. For lasing action, the energy gap of a semiconductor should be
A. direct gap B. indirect gap C. negative gap D. gap ³ 5 eV
33. GaAs has an energy gap of 1.43 eV. The wavelength of the radiation
emitted during an electronic transition in GaAs will be in the
A. visible range B. ultraviolet range
C. infrared region D. far ultraviolet region
34. In the Czochralski method, the temperature T at the liquid-seed crystal
interface is
A. = Tm B. < Tm C. > Tm D. none of these
35. If the activation energy for oxidation of Si is 120 kJ mol–l, the ratio of
oxidation rates at 1300 and 1100°C is
A. 3.8 B. 1.0 C. 7.5 D. 1.7
36. The thickness of the oxide layer grown on a wafer is 400 Å after 4 min.
After 16 min at the same temperature, it is
A. 6400 Å B. 1600 Å C. 800 Å D. 400 Å
37. The thickness of the SiO2 layer grown on a Si wafer is 400 Å after 5 min
at 1100°C. The thickness will be double after
A. 10 min B. 20 min C. 7.07 min D. 3.54 min
38. The typical temperature used for oxidation of a Si wafer is
A. 400°C B. 700°C C. 1100°C D. 1400°C
39. The advantages of ion-implantation over diffusion doping are
A. it is a low temperature process
B. point imperfections are not produced
C. shallow doping is possible
D. gettering is possible
40. The following can be grown epitaxially on Si without creating significant
distortion or imperfections
A. Si of a different doping B. SiO2
C. GaAs D. none of these
41. The grown single crystal generally contains
A. tilt boundaries
B. dislocation loops due to vacancy condensation
C. twin boundaries
D. grain boundaries
42. The segregation coefficient, k = cs /cl, for oxygen in silicon
A. 0.00001 B. 0.0004 C. 0.0002 D. 1.25
 Multiple Choice Questions/Answers 391

43. The functions of an oxide layer during IC fabrication can be to

A. mask against diffusion or ion-implant
B. insulate the surface electrically
C. produce a chemically stable surface
D. increase the melting point of silicon
44. A negative resist
A. becomes more soluble after UV exposure
B. becomes less soluble after UV exposure
C. gets cross-linked
D. dissolves during acid etching
45. The main difficulty in monolithic integration of Si and GaAs is the
difference in the lattice parameters, which is about
A. 0.1% B. 4% C. 25% D. 100%
46. Electromigration in metallization refers to the diffusion (under the
influence of current) of
A. Al B. Cu in Al–Cu alloy
C. Si D. Na
47. Electromigration in an IC chip refers to
A. grain boundary diffusion of Al in Al interconnections
B. grain boundary diffusion of Cu in Al interconnections
C. diffusion of Si in Al interconnections
D. diffusion of oxygen in Si
48. A transistor has a collector current of 5 mA, when the emitter voltage is
20 mV. At 30 mV, the current is 30 mA. At 50 mV, it is
A. 80 mA B. 180 mA C. 480 mA D. 1080 mA

Answers

1. D 2. D 3. D 4. A 5. A
6. D 7. A, B, C, D 8. C 9. B 10. D
11. D 12. C 13. A 14. A 15. A, B
16. C 17. D 18. A 19. C 20. B, C
21. C 22. B 23. A 24. A 25. C
26. A 27. C, D 28. B, C 29. D 30. C
31. A 32. A 33. C 34. A 35. A
36. C 37. B 38. C 39. A, C, D 40. A
41. B 42. D 43. A, B, C 44. B, C 45. B
46. A 47. A 48. D
 Multiple Choice Questions 409

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. The units of magnetic permeability are

A. A m–1 B. Wb m–2 C. H m–1 D. Wb A–1 m–1
2. In base SI units, tesla is expressed as
A. N A–1 m–1 B. N A–1 m–3 C. kg m–2 s–2 A–1 D. kg s–2 A–1
3. In a paramagnetic material of susceptibility equal to 10–3, the induction in
Wb m–2 at an applied field of 100 kA m–1 is (m0 = 1.257 ´ 10–6 H m–1)
A. 0.1257 B. 0.1258 C. 4p ´ 10–7 D. none of these
4. The net magnetic moment of Fe atom in BCC crystal (a = 2.857 Å) is
2.2 mB (mB = 9.273 ´ 10–24 A m2). The saturation magnetization of Fe at
0 K is
A. 0 B. 1750 kA m–1 C. 1750 A m–l D. 1750 A m–2
5. Gadolinium has a higher saturation magnetization than Co at
A. –273°C B. 25°C C. 290°C D. 769°C
6. The Curie temperature of cobalt is
A. 2000 K B. 1400 K C. 1040 K D. 650 K
7. The total iron loss in a transformer core at 25 Hz and 50 Hz is 250 W and
800 W, respectively. The eddy current loss at 25 Hz is
A. 100 W B. 150 W C. 200 W D. 600 W

8. Using a permalloy core ( mr = 2700), a 19 m long 300 turn coil of a

conductor giving an induction of 7.5 T is to be made. The current in the
coil should be
A. 0 A B. 52 mA C. 7.4 A D. 140 A
9. The ratio of the atomic radius/3d shell radius of Mn, which normally
exhibits antiferromagnetic behaviour, is
A. 1.47 B. 1.63 C. 1.82 D. 1.98
10. The temperature of the antiferromagnetic-to-paramagnetic transition is
called
A. antiferromagnetic Curie temp. B. Curie–Weiss temp.
C. Neel temp. D. Debye temp.
11. The factors that obstruct domain wall motion in Fe are
A. dislocation tangles B. impurity atoms
C. voids D. nonmagnetic inclusions
12. The transition from the ferromagnetic to the paramagnetic state is named
after
A. Curie B. Curie–Weiss C. Neel D. Debye
410 Multiple Choice Questions/Answers

13. The magnetic moment of a ferric ion in nickel–zinc ferrite is

A. 5 B. 0
C. depends on Zn% D. 2.2
14. The saturation magnetization of magnetite with 16 ferric ions and 8 ferrous
ions in the cubic unit cell (a = 8.37 Å) is (mB = 9.273 ´ 10–24 A m2)
A. 1770 kA m–l B. 638 kA m–1 C. 506 A m–1 D. 506 kA m–1
15. If the saturation magnetization of magnetite is 510 kA m–1, that of nickel
ferrite in the same units is (Given: atomic number of Fe = 26; Ni = 28)
A. 255 B. 510 C. 1020 D. 340
16. To make the Mn atom ferromagnetic by alloying, the ratio of its atomic
radius-to-3d radius should be
A. constant B. increased C. decreased D. zero
17. In nickel–zinc ferrite with Zn/Ni atom ratio equal to 3/5, the number of
unpaired electron spins present per Ni0.625Zn0.375Fe2O4 is (assume that zinc
ions push the ferric ions from tetrahedral sites to octahedral sites and
change their spins)
A. 5 B. 3.75 C. 1.25 D. 4.5
18. The garnet crystal used in a microprocessor has the formula
A. YO.Fe2O3 B. Y3Fe5O12 C. YO.6Fe2O3 D. Y2O3.Fe2O3
19. The highest measured energy product in a permanent magnet is about
A. 800 J m–3 B. 80 kJ m–3 C. 400 kJ m–3 D. 400 J m–3
20. The magnetic energy product of Pr2Fel4B alloy is higher than that of a
martensitic carbon steel by a factor of about
A. 1.1 B. 5 C. 100 D. 1000
21. A suitable material for audio and TV transformers is
A. ferrite B. Fe-4% Si C. Fe-30% Ni D. very pure Fe

Answers

1. C, D 2. D 3. B 4. B 5. A
6. B 7. B 8. D 9. A 10. C
11. A, B, C, D 12. A 13. A 14. D 15. A
16. B 17. A 18. B 19. C 20. C
21. A
424 Problems

PROBLEMS

17.1 The electric field strength can be expressed as V m–1 or as N C–1. Express
these in base SI units and show that they are equivalent.
17.2 Derive the units of ae from that of E and the dipole moment.
17.3 Find the capacitance of a layer of Al2O3 that is 0.5 mm thick and
2000 mm2 of surface area. er = 8.
Answer: 2.83 ´ 10–7 F.
17.4 The electronic polarizability of helium is 0.18 ´ 10–40 F m2. Calculate its
relative dielectric constant at 0°C and 1 atm pressure.
Answer: 1.000 055.
17.5 Estimate the shift of the electron cloud with respect to the nucleus in an
argon atom, when a field of 105 V m–1 is applied.
Answer: 5 ´ 10–18 m.
17.6 The dielectric constant of polyethylene is independent of temperature,
while that of polyvinylchloride is not. Explain this difference in
behaviour on the basis of their monomer structures.
17.7 When ice melts into water, the dielectric constant increases, in contrast to
the decrease observed during the melting of HCl. Explain why this is so.
17.8 What is the variation expected in the loss factor in a sodium silicate
glass, when some of the Na+ ions are replaced by Rb+ ions? Explain.
17.9 Compare the hysteresis loops in Figs. 16.4 and 17.6. Explain why there is
a constant saturation induction Bs in Fig. 16.4, and no saturation value of
polarization in Fig. 17.6.

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. The units of relative dielectric constant is

A. dimensionless B. F m–1 C. C V–1 D. F C–1
2. The units of e0 are
A. C m–2 B. H m–l C. F m–l D. dimensionless
3. The capacitance of a capacitor with a layer of Al2O3 (er = 8) of 0.5 mm
thick and 1000 mm2 area is
A. 0.283 mF B. 0.142 mF C. 17 nF D. 3540 pF
4. Expressed in base SI units, the electronic polarizability has the units
A. F m2 B. C V –1 m–2 C. A2 kg–1 s4 D. A kg–1 m–2 s2
 Multiple Choice Questions 425

5. If the electronic polarization of W is 4 ´ 10–7 C m–2, the average

displacement of the electrons relative to the nucleus is (W : at.no. 74,
BCC, a = 3.16 Å)
A. 3.9 Å B. 5.3 ´ 10–19 m C. 10.6 ´ 10–19 m D. 3.9 ´ 10–17 m
6. The shift of the electron cloud with respect to the nucleus of a helium atom
when a field of 105 V m–1 is applied is (ae for He = 0.18 ´ 10–40 F m2)
A. 5.6 ´ 10–18 m B. 6.2 ´ 10–19 m C. l.7 ´ 10–10 m D. l.7 ´ 10–18 m
7. Ionic polarization
A. decreases with temperature
B. increases with temperature
C. may increase or decrease with temperature
D. is independent of temperature
8. With increase in temperature, the orientation polarization in general
A. increases B. decreases C. is constant D. none of these
9. Among the common dielectric materials, the highest dielectric strength is
possessed by
A. mica B. transformer oil
C. PVC D. polyethylene
10. During melting, the relative dielectric constant
A. always increases B. always decreases
C. may increase or decrease D. none of these
11. The fraction of tetrahedral voids occupied by Ti4+ ion in BaTiO3 crystal is
A. 1/2 B. 1/4 C. 1/8 D. none of these
12. In the polarization versus field strength plot for a ferroelectric crystal, Ps
stands for
A. space charge polarization B. saturation polarization
C. spontaneous polarization D. none of these
13. A piezoelectric crystal has a Young’s modulus of 130 GPa. The uniaxial
tensile stress that must be applied to increase its polarization from 550 to
555 C m–2 is
A. 1.171 GPa B. 1171 MPa C. 2600 MPa D. 1.182 GPa

Answers

1. A 2. C 3. B 4. C 5. B
6. A 7. D 8. B 9. A 10. C
11. D 12. C 13. D