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2012exam2 With Notes

1. This document provides instructions and information for an exam being administered in multiple sections and forms. It details how to properly fill out the scantron form with student information and provides a statement of academic integrity to sign. 2. The exam contains 34 multiple choice questions covering topics like complementation testing in mutants, mapping genes using chromosomal rearrangements in Drosophila, and the effects of different aneuploidies and chromosomal rearrangements. 3. Students are instructed to choose one answer per question and are notified that exam booklets will be collected after the exam but scores can be viewed later.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
60 views

2012exam2 With Notes

1. This document provides instructions and information for an exam being administered in multiple sections and forms. It details how to properly fill out the scantron form with student information and provides a statement of academic integrity to sign. 2. The exam contains 34 multiple choice questions covering topics like complementation testing in mutants, mapping genes using chromosomal rearrangements in Drosophila, and the effects of different aneuploidies and chromosomal rearrangements. 3. Students are instructed to choose one answer per question and are notified that exam booklets will be collected after the exam but scores can be viewed later.

Uploaded by

Lilly
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
You are on page 1/ 15

BI206/216/282 – Exam 2 Page 1

March 8, 2012 Form 0


YOUR NAME:_______________________
YOUR TF’s NAME: ________________________

THIS IS EXAM FORM “O”

Remember to fill out your computer form properly. Please include:

a) Name (Last Name First name) omit middle initials

b) ID number

c) Course Code
Fill in “Special Code” Box 0 to indicate your section:
BI 206 –0
BI 216 –1
BI 282 –2

d) Form Code
Fill in “Special Code” Box 1 as 0 for Form 0

e) TF Code
Fill in “Special Code” Box 2 to indicate your TF:

Cody DesJardins – 0
Tristan Lubinski – 1
Sarah Sullivan –2

Mike Pieck –3
Sanda Zolj –4

Be sure that you have answered 34 questions and that you have given one answer only
per question. For each question only one answer is correct. So please choose the
best answer from the ones provided. Please write your name on this booklet. Exam
booklets will be collected at the end of the exam, but you will have the opportunity to see
you exam booklet and score sheet at a later date.

Prior to completing this exam, please read the following statement and sign the top of
your scantron.
“I pledge that I have neither given nor received unauthorized assistance on this exam. I
understand if I am charged with cheating, my name will be submitted to the CAS Dean
for disciplinary action.”
BI206/216/282 – Exam 2 Page 2
March 8, 2012 Form 0
1. Which of following types of mutants could be used in a complementation test?
I. A deletion mutant
II. A mutant allele dominant to wild type
III. A single base mutation that causes a premature stop codon

A. I
B. II
C. III
D. I and III
E. all of the above

2. Five overlapping deletion mutants were isolated in the rII A gene of bacteriophage
T4. All pair wise crosses were performed and progeny were scored for the ability to
produce wild-type recombinants. In the following table, “+” means wild-type progeny
produced;
“–” means no wild-type progeny recovered.

1 2 3 4 5
1 – + – – –
2 – + + –
3 – + +
4 – –
5 –

Three point mutants (6, 7 and 8) are isolated and crossed to all of the deletion mutants.
Mutant 6 fails to recombine with deletions 2 and 5; mutant 7 fails to recombine with
deletions 4, 5 and 1; and mutant 8 fails to recombine with deletions 1 and 3.

Which point mutant is in the middle of the other two?

A. Mutant 6
B. Mutant 7
C. Mutant 8
BI206/216/282 – Exam 2 Page 3
March 8, 2012 Form 0
3. Assume four strains (A-D) of pure-breeding stippled lettuce have been isolated.
Given the results of the following crosses:

A x C = stippled
A x B = wild type
A x D = wild type
B x C = wild type
B x D = stippled
C x D = wild type

What are the complementation groups for genes A-D?


A. Two groups: A,B and D,C
B. Two groups: A,C and B, D
C. Two groups: A,D and C,B
D. Two groups: A,B,C and D
E. Each mutant is in its own complementation group

4. You have identified two different strains of bacteriophage that T4 fail to


complement for the rIIA gene. After screening through billions of progeny generated by
co-infection into an E. coli B strain you never find a wild-type recombinant. What would
you conclude about the locations of the mutations in the two different T4 strains?
A. They are in different locations of the gene.
B. They are in the same genetic location.

5. Which of the following are structural requirements for a chromosome to be


maintained correctly from generation to generation?
I. origins of replication
II. one centromere
III two telomeres

A. I
B. II
C. III
D. I and III
E. all of the above
BI206/216/282 – Exam 2 Page 4
March 8, 2012 Form 0
6. Which of the following observations give(s) support to the idea that alterations in
chromatin structure correlate with changes in gene expression?
I. position effect variegation
II. the observation that bacterial DNA is not organized into chromatin
III. formation of Barr bodies in mammals

A. I
B. II
C. III
D. I and III
E. all of the above

7. One of the functions of a centromere is to hold sister chromatids together. The other
function is to:

A. allow easy karyotyping


B. maintain proper chromosome arm length is maintained
C. ensure to proper chromosome segregation
D. initiate chromosome replication
E. All of the choices are correct

8. For which of the following genotypes will a Barr body not be seen?

A. XO human
B. XX human
C. XXY human
D. XXX human
E. XX fruitfly

9. The human trisomy XXX results in a fairly normal phenotype especially when
compared to aneuploids of autosomes. Which is the probable reason why?

A. The X has encodes virtually no genes


B. The X is a very small chromosome
C. Humans can degrade the extra X chromosome
D. Mammals can tolerate three active X chromosomes in a cell
E. Two of the three X chromosomes will be inactivated into heterochromatin
BI206/216/282 – Exam 2 Page 5
March 8, 2012 Form 0
10. A series of chromosomal mutations in Drosophila were used to map the javelin
mutation that affects bristle shape and henna that effects eye pigmentation. Both javelin
and henna are recessive and they map to regions 65 of Drosophila polytene
chromosomes. (A diagram of the chromosome banding pattern for region 65 is shown
below.)
A B C D E F
1-2 3-4 5 6 1-2 3 4 1234 1-2 3 4 1-2 3-4 1-2 3 4 5 6

The chromosomal breakpoints for 4 rearrangements are indicated on the table below.

strain breakpoints
deletion A region 65 A2-3; region 65 D2-3
deletion B region 65 C2-3; region 65 E4-F1
inversion A region 65 A6; region 82 A1
inversion B region 65 B4; region 98A3

Flies with a chromosome containing one of these four rearrangements (deletions or


inversions) were mated to flies homozygous for both javelin and henna). The
phenotypes of the F1 are shown below:
rearrangement parent F1 phenotype
deletion A javelin and henna
deletion B henna
inversion A javelin
inversion B WT

Where is the most likely location of the henna gene?


A. between region 65 A2-3 and region 65 D2-3
B. between region 65 C2-3 and region 65 E4-F1
C. between region 65 A2-3 and region 65 E4-F1
D. between region 65 C2-3 and region 65 D2-3
E. at 65A6
BI206/216/282 – Exam 2 Page 6
March 8, 2012 Form 0
11. Which of the following types of chromosomal rearrangement involves two different
chromosomes:

A. inversion
B. duplication
C. deletion
D. translocation

(12. and 13.) Two haploid yeast strains were mated and sporulated. One strain was
carried the linked genetic markers ura3 and arg9 located on opposite sides of their
centromere. The other strain was wild type for the two genes, URA3 and ARG9, but had
an inversion of a region between both genes that included the centromere, but did not
include either gene.

12. This type of inversion is called:

A. Paracentric
B. Metacentric
C. Pericentric
D. Telocentric
E. Syntenic

13. Based on the information in the above question, what would be the phenotype of
the resulting tetrad if a single crossover occurs between URA3 and the inversion
breakpoint closest to it? (Assume that any chromosomal deficiencies or duplications will
be lethal.)

A. 2 Ura– Arg– and 2 Ura+ Arg+


B. 1 Ura– Arg– ; 1 Ura+ Arg+ ; and two dead spores
C. 1 Ura– Arg– ; 1 Ura+ Arg+; 1 Ura+ Arg–; 1 Ura– Arg+
D. 2 Ura+ Arg– and 2 Ura– Arg+
E. 3 Ura+ Arg+ and on dead spore
BI206/216/282 – Exam 2 Page 7
March 8, 2012 Form 0
14. The picture on the right diagrams the
metaphase alignment of chromosomes from a
translocation heterozygote. For simplicity, the 1 2
drawing does not show sister chromatids.

During meiosis I, which centromeres commonly 4 3


segregate together to result in the production of
unbalanced gametes:
A. 1 and 2 together; 3 and 4 together
B. 2 and 3 together; 1 and 4 together
C. 1, 2 and 3 together; 4 by itself
D. all 4 chromosomes need to segregate together into one cell
E. 1 and 3 together; 2 and 4 together

15. You would like to create new hybrid strains between various cereal grains of
different ploidies. Which of the following crosses will yield a fertile hybrid?
A. hexaploid X diploid
B tetraploid X diploid
C. hexaploid X tetraploid
D. octaploid X diploid
E. pentaploid X triploid

16. Which of the following pairs of family members would typically have the mostly
closely related mitochondrial genomes?

A. father and daughter


B. mother and son
C. nephew and paternal aunt
D. niece and maternal uncle
E. grandchild and maternal grandmother

17. Which of the following are known to result in Down Syndrome?


I. maternal non-disjunction of chromosome 21
II. inactivation of chromosome 21 by conversion into heterochromatin
III. translocation of chromosome 21 onto chromosome 14

A. I
B. II
C. III
D. I and III
E. all of the above
BI206/216/282 – Exam 2 Page 8
March 8, 2012 Form 0
(18. – 19.) The rosy (ry) gene of Drosophila encodes an enzyme called xanthine
dehydrogenase. Flies homozygous for ry mutations exhibit a rosy eye color.
Heterozygous females were made that had ry41 Sb on one homolog and Ly ry564 on the
other homolog, where ry41 and ry564 are two independently isolated alleles of ry. Ly
(Lyra [narrow] wings) and Sb (Stubble [short] bristles) are dominant markers to the left
and right of ry, respectively. Below is a diagram showing a map of this female’s
homologs showing relative gene and allele order.

These females are now mated to males homozygous for ry41 and wild type for Lyra and
Stubble.

18. If wild-type eye color progeny are found from this cross, what is the likely Lyra and
Stubble phenotype?

A. Wild-type for both Lyra and Stubble


B. Wild-type for Lyra and mutant for Stubble
C. Mutant for Lyra and wild type for Stubble
D. mutant for both Lyra and Stubble

19. Regarding the female flies described above, which statement is true?

A. ry41 and ry564 complement each other


B. ry41 and ry564 are unlinked
C. ry41 and ry564 are mutations at the exact same base of DNA
D. ry41 and ry564 fail to complement
BI206/216/282 – Exam 2 Page 9
March 8, 2012 Form 0
20. Humans have 22 pairs of autosomes while chimpanzees have 23 pairs. Humans
and chimpanzees share >98% of their DNA sequences. When comparing the structures
of the autosomes found in humans and chimpanzees, the only difference in chromosome
structure is that humans have an extra metacentric chromosome, while chimpanzees
have two acrocentric chromosomes instead. It has been suggested that the human
metacentric chromosome is a fusion of the two chimpanzee acrocentric chromosomes.
Which of the following statements provide(s) evidence in support of this
conclusion?

I. Each arm of the human chromosome is syntenic to one of the chimpanzee


chromosomes
II. Large portions of the human chromosome have banding patterns similar to the
chimpanzee chromosomes
III. Similar genetic diseases map to the human chromosome and to one of the
chimpanzee chromosomes
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. I and III
E. all of the above

21. An Hfr strain that is hisE+ and pheA+


was mated to a strain that is hisE– and
pheA–. The mating was interrupted and the
percentage of recombinants for each gene
was determined by streaking on media that
lacked either histidine or phenylalanine. The
results at right were obtained.
Time in minutes
Which gene is closer to the site of F plasmid integration?
A. hisE+
B. pheA+
C. They two genes are at the same location
D. Cannot be determined from this experiment.
BI206/216/282 – Exam 2 Page 10
March 8, 2012 Form 0
22. Let’s suppose a researcher mated six different Hfr strains that were thr+ leu+ tons
strr azis lac+ gal+ pro+ met+ to an F – strain that was thr– leu– tonr strs azir lac– gal– pro–
met–, and obtained the following results:

Strain Order of Gene Transfer


s s
1 ton azi leu+ thr+ met+ strr
2 leu+ azis tons pro+ lac+ gal+
3 lac+ gal+ strr met+ thr+ leu+
4 leu+ thr+ met+ strr gal+ lac+
5 tons pro +
lac +
gal +
strr met+
6 met+ strr gal+ lac+ pro+ tons

Beginning (and ending) with tons what is the gene order of the E. coli chromosome?

A. tons azis leu+ thr+ met+ strr gal+ lac+ pro+ tons
B. tons leu+ lac+ thr+ met+ azis pro+ gal+ strr tons
C. tons azis gal+ lac+ leu+ met+ pro+ strr thr+ tons

23. In yeast, a haploid petite mutant also carries a mutant gene that requires the
amino acid histidine for growth. The petite his– strain is crossed to a wild-type his+ strain
to yield the following tetrad:
1 spore: wild type and his–
1 spore: wild type and his+
1 spore: petite and his–
1 spore: petite and his+

What can you conclude about the location(s) of the petite mutation and his- mutation?

A. The petite mutant and the his– mutant are both nuclear
B. The petite mutant is mitochondrial and his– mutant is nuclear
C. The petite mutant is nuclear and his– mutant is mitochondrial
D. The petite mutant and the his– mutant are both mitochondrial

24. A black female cat (XBXB) and an orange male cat (XOY) were mated to each
other and produced a male cat that was calico. Which sex chromosomes did this male
offspring inherit from his mother and father?
A. XB from the mother and Y from the father
B. XB XB from the mother and Y from the father
C. XB from the mother and XO from the father
D. XB from the mother and XOY from the father
E. XB from the mother and XOXO from the father
BI206/216/282 – Exam 2 Page 11
March 8, 2012 Form 0
(25. and 26.) An inversion heterozygote has the following inverted chromosome and a
normal chromosome not shown:

25. In meiosis, if a single crossover between non-sister chromatids occurs between


regions F and G, which structure(s) would be found among the 4 chromatids produced?
I. A chromatid duplicated for regions A-D and deleted for regions K-M
II. A chromatid duplicated for regions K-M and deleted for regions A-D
III. A chromatid with the original inversion and a chromatid with a normal structure.

A. I
B. II
C. III
D. I and III
E. all of the above

26. This type of inversion is called:

A. Paracentric
B. Metacentric
C. Pericentric
D. Telocentric
E. Syntenic

27. Female fruit flies homozygous for the X-linked white-eye allele are crossed to
males with red eyes. On very rare occasions, an offspring arises that is a phenotypically
normal male with red eyes. Assuming these rare offspring are not due to a new mutation
in one of the mother’s X chromosomes that converted the white-eye allele into a red-eye
allele, explain how this red-eyed male arose.
A. Non-disjunction at meiosis I of the male
B. Non-disjunction at meiosis II of the male
C. Non-disjunction at meiosis I of the female
D. Non-disjunction at meiosis II of the female
E. Non-disjunction at either meiosis I or II of the female
BI206/216/282 – Exam 2 Page 12
March 8, 2012 Form 0
28. Turner syndrome occurs when an individual inherits one X chromosome but lacks
a second sex chromosome. If a phenotypically normal couple has a color-blind child
(due to a recessive X-linked allele) with Turner syndrome, where did nondisjunction
occur.
A. spermatogenesis
B. oogenesis
C. either spermatogenesis or oogenesis

29. Arrange the following in increasing order of structural complexity:


a. 100 angstrom fiber
b. nucleosome
c. radial-loop scaffold
d. 300 angstrom fiber
e. DNA helix
A. badce
B. adbce
C. ebadc
D. adebc
E. eadbc

30. The pedigree shown below is for a rare human disease called MELAS that results
in a number of neuromuscular problems. Assume full penetrance.

Where is the most likely location of the mutant gene?


A. X chromosome
B. Y chromosome
C. heterochromatin
D. mitochondrial genome
E. an autosome
BI206/216/282 – Exam 2 Page 13
March 8, 2012 Form 0
31. While conducting field studies on a chain of islands, you decide to karyotype two
phenotypically identical groups of turtles, which are found on different islands. The turtles
on one island have 24 chromosomes, but those on another island have 48 chromosomes
and twice the amount of DNA as those with 24 chromosomes. If mating could occur
between these two groups, what would be the ploidy of the progeny?
A. diploid
B. triploid
C. tetraploid
D. pentaploid
E. hexaploid

32. You are studying the biosynthesis of Compound X in a deep sea organism. You
isolated five mutants that cannot synthesize Compound X. Each mutant is tested for
growth on minimal media containing a different compound (A through E). The results are
shown in the table below. “+” means growth.

Compound added
strain A B C D E X
Wild type + + + + + +
mutant 1 - - - - - +
mutant 2 - - + - - +
mutant 3 - + + - - +
mutant 4 - + + + - +
mutant 5 - + + + + +

Based on this information, which compound is at the beginning of this pathway?


A
B
C
D
E
BI206/216/282 – Exam 2 Page 14
March 8, 2012 Form 0
(33. and 34.) You have found an individual who carries the following two pairs of
chromosomes:

33. This karyotype which type(s) of chromosome rearrangements are present?


A. translocation
B. inversion
C. both a translocation and inversion
D. no chromosome rearrangement

34. You perform a fluorescent in situ hybridization (FISH) with a probe specific to
single copy gene located in region P. If metaphase chromosomes are used, how many
fluorescent spots would be seen in a typical cell?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 6
E. 8

END
question Answer
1 D
2 B
3 B
4 B
5 E
6 D
7 C
8 A
9 E
10 D
11 D
12 C
13 C
14 A
15 A
16 B
17 D
18 D
19 D
20 E
21 A
22 A
23 A
24 D
25 E
26 C
27 D or E
28 A
29 C
30 D
31 B
32 A
33 C
34 C

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