29/04/2021 SSR-G1

CODE-A1

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

MM : 180 UNIT TEST SERIES Time : 1½ Hrs.

for JEE (Main & Advanced)- 2022

Test – 1

Topics covered
Physics : Electric Charges and Field

Chemistry : Solid State, Solution

Mathematics : Relations and Functions

Instructions :

(1) Duration of Test is 1½ hrs.

(2) The Test booklet consists of 45 questions. The maximum marks are 180.

(3) There are three parts in the question paper consisting of Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics
having 15 questions in each part of equal weightage. Each part has two sections.

(i) Section-I : This section contains 12 multiple choice questions which have only one correct
answer. Each question carries 4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.

(ii) Section-II : This section contains 3 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a numerical
value ranging from 00 to 99 without being given any option. Each question carries
4 marks for correct answer and there is no negative marking for wrong answer.

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Second Step for JEE (Main & Advanced)- 2022 Unit Test-1 (SSRG1_Code-A1)

SECTION - I 6. A dipole with dipole moment P is aligned with

Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains uniform external electric field E. The work
12 multiple choice questions. Each question has done by an external agent to rotate the dipole
4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY
by 180° so that finally dipole moment is
ONE is correct.
opposite to the electric field E is
1. An electric dipole with dipole moment
 (1) PE (2) 2PE
p= 2 × 10−6 iˆ C-m is kept in a region with
PE
electric field 100 N/C iˆ . The magnitude of (3) (4) Zero
2
torque due to electrostatic force on the dipole
is 7. Two particles P and Q have charges +1.0 µC

(1) 2 × 10–4 N-m (2) 10–4 N-m and –1.0 µC and their separation is 2.0 cm.
The dipole moment of system is
(3) 3 × 10−4 N-m (4) 0 N-m
(1) 0.01 µC m
2. The magnitude of electrostatic force between
two particles separated by distance 1 cm and (2) 0.02 µC m
carrying charge 2 µC each, will be
(3) 0.03 µC m
(1) 360 N (2) 240 N
0.03
(4) µC m
(3) 120 N (4) 36 N 2
3. Which of the following cannot be the charge on 8. In the figure, charges at A and B are kept fixed.
a particle ?
The value of x for which coulomb force
(1) –3.2 × 10–19 C experienced by charge C will be maximum, is
(2) 4.8 × 10–19 C
(3) 1.2 × 10–19 C
(4) 1.6 × 10–19 C
4. The dipole moment of an electric dipole is
(1) a (2) 2a
3.0 × 10–6 C-m. The dipole is initially aligned
with a uniform external electric field of 2 × 103 a
(3) Zero (4)
N/C in stable equilibrium position. The work 2
done to turn the dipole by 90°, will be
9. The dipole moment of the configuration shown
(1) 3 × 10–3 J (2) 6 × 10–3 J
in the figure is
(3) 9 × 10–3 J (4) 1.2 × 10–2 J
5. Electric field at point P (2 m, 1 m, 2 m) due to
a point charge 5.0 µC placed at the origin will
be

5
(1) [10 iˆ +5 ˆj + 10 kˆ ] × 103 N/C
3
(1) 3 × 10−7 C m
(2) (2iˆ + ˆj + 2kˆ ) N/C
(2) 2 × 10–7 C m
(3) [5iˆ + jˆ + 5kˆ ] × 103 N/C
(3) 3 × 10–7 C m
1
(4) [10iˆ + 5jˆ + 10kˆ ] × 103 N/C
3 (4) 7 × 10−7 C m

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Unit Test-1 (SSRG1_Code-A1) Second Step for JEE (Main & Advanced)- 2022

10. 4.0 µC and –1.0 µC charges are kept fixed at 13. The electric field components in a region of
A and B as shown. Find x if a charged particle space is given as
at C experiences no net coulomb force.
Ex = 200, Ey = 0, E3 = 0.

(All quantities are in S.I. units)

(1) 1 cm (2) 2 cm

(3) 3 cm (4) 4 cm

11. An infinite line of charge with linear density of

charge, λ = 2.0 × 10–6 C/m exists. The
electrostatic force on a point charge of 5.0 mC
at a distance of 50 cm from the line of charge
will be

(1) 18 N (2) 360 N

(3) 9 N (4) 120 N

Find the charge (in pC) enclosed within the
12. A uniform electric field of magnitude E exists
cube shown in the figure
in a region. Electric flux entering a spherical
surface of radius R in that region will be 14. Two fixed, parallel infinite wires of uniform
(1) 4πR2E linear charge density +λ and –2λ respectively

(2) Zero are separated by distance d as shown in

(3) 2πR2E figure. The magnitude of electric field at a point

nλ
(4) πR2E midway between the two will be .
2πε0 d
SECTION - II
Find n
Numerical Value Type Questions: This section
contains 3 numerical value type questions ranging
from 00 to 99. The answer will have to be
appropriately bubbled in the OMR as per the
instructions given. Examples- If the correct answer
to question numbers X, Y and Z (say) are 76, 0 and
9 respectively, then mark 76, 00 and 09 in OMR
respectively.

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
X
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

15. For an electric dipole P iˆ at origin, find the
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Y
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
value of ‘tanδ’ at point A (3, 4). Here ‘δ’ is the
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Z angle made by resulting electric field at point
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
A with +ve x-axis.

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Second Step for JEE (Main & Advanced)- 2022 Unit Test-1 (SSRG1_Code-A1)

SECTION - I 21. For melting snow from sidewalks and roads,

Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains the concept of depression in freezing point is
12 multiple choice questions. Each question has applied. Consider the solutes glucose, NaCl
4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY and MgCl2. If these substances have the same
ONE is correct. cost per gram, the most efficient solute would
be (assume electrolytic salts to be 100%
16. Co-ordination number of a hexagonal close
ionised and M = m)
packed structure in 2 dimension is

(1) 3 (2) 4 (1) Glucose

(3) 6 (4) 8 (2) NaCl

17. Diamond has a zinc blende type structure in (3) MgCl2

which carbon atoms form CCP lattice and (4) Cannot be commented
carbon atoms occupy alternate tetrahedral
22. Which of the following is a covalent solid?
voids. If the edge length of the cube is 3.6 Å
then the radius of the carbon atom is expected (1) NaCl (2) SiO2
to be (approx) (3) H2O(ice) (4) CO2
(1) 0.35 Å (2) 0.68 Å 23. Which of the given statements is incorrect with
(3) 0.78 Å (4) 0.94 Å respect to liquid?

18. A compound formed by elements P and Q (1) Stronger the intermolecular forces, greater is
crystallises in a cubic lattice where P atoms the heat of vaporisation
are at the corners and Q atoms are at body
(2) Weaker the intermolecular forces, greater is
centre and all face centres of the cube.
the vapour pressure
Formula of the compound is
(3) Greater the heat of vaporisation, lesser is
(1) PQ2 (2) PQ3
the boiling point
(3) PQ4 (4) P2Q3
(4) A solvent with greater boiling point is
19. Which of the following is incorrect combination expected to have greater value of Kb
of possible unit cell with axial distances or
24. Which of the following show negative
edge length?
deviation?
Possible unit cell Axial distances
(1) Heptane and octane
(1) Body-centred a=b≠c
(2) Chloroform and acetone
(2) Face-centred a≠b≠c
(3) Acetone and CS2
(3) End-centred a=b≠c
(4) Iodobenzene and chlorobenzene
(4) End-centred a≠b≠c
25. The pink colour of lithium chloride crystal is
20. If a solute X undergoes dimerisation and due to
solute Y undergoes trimerisation, the minimum
(1) Frenkel defect
values of the van’t Hoff factor for X and Y will
be respectively. (2) Metal excess defect

(1) 0.33 and 0.5 (2) 1.33 and 1.5 (3) Metal deficiency defect

(3) 0.5 and 0.33 (4) 0.2 and 0.67 (4) Impurity defect

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Unit Test-1 (SSRG1_Code-A1) Second Step for JEE (Main & Advanced)- 2022

26. The value of abnormal and normal molecular 9 respectively, then mark 76, 00 and 09 in OMR
mass of silver nitrate are 90.00 and 170.0 respectively.
respectively. The percentage of dissociation of
silver nitrate is 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
X
(1) 88.88% (2) 80.00% 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

(3) 60.00% (4) 46.7% 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Y
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
27. Value of Kb depends upon
(1) Nature of solute 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Z
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
(2) Degree of dissociation of solute
(3) Nature of solvent 28. The radius of Ag+ ion is 126 pm while that of I–
(4) Molar mass of solute ion is 216 pm. The co-ordination number of
SECTION - II Ag+ in AgI is expected to be
Numerical Value Type Questions: This section 29. Number of third nearest neighbours in FCC
contains 3 numerical value type questions ranging unit cell is
from 00 to 99. The answer will have to be 30. Two liquids P and Q form an ideal solution at
appropriately bubbled in the OMR as per the 300 K, the vapour pressure of a solution of 1
instructions given. Examples- If the correct answer mole of P and x mole of Q is 550 mm. If the
vapour pressure of pure P and pure Q are 400
to question numbers X, Y and Z (say) are 76, 0 and
mm and 600 mm respectively, then x is

SECTION - I 35. If a function f : [0, ∞) → [0, ∞) is defined as

Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains x2
12 multiple choice questions. Each question has f (x) = , then function f is
4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE x +1
is correct. (1) Many-one into (2) Many-one onto
31. If n(A) = 4, then total number of reflexive (3) One-one into (4) One-one onto
relations that can be defined on the set A is
36. Which of the following functions is odd ?
(1) 216 (2) 24
(3) 212 (4) 28 (
(1) f ( x ) = ln x + x 2 + 1 )
32. The function f : R → R defined as
 (2007)x + 1 
f(x) = (x – 2) (x – 3) (x – 4) is (2) f ( x ) = x  x 
 (2007) − 1 
(1) One-one but not onto
(2) Bijective (1 + e x )2
(3) f ( x ) =
ex
(3) Onto but not one-one
(4) Neither one-one nor onto  2 – sin x 
) x 2 + ln 
(4) f ( x= 
 2 + sin x 
33. Which one of the following function is a bijective
function on the set of all real numbers? 37. The function f(x) = cos x + {x} (where {.} denotes
(1) e| x | (2) x3 + x2 – x + 6 the fractional part function) is

(3) x2 + 3x + 2 (4) x3 – x2 + 5x + 4 (1) Periodic with period 1

8− x (2) Periodic with period π
34. Range of the function f (x ) = Px − 4 is

(1) {1, 3} (2) {1, 2, 3} (3) Periodic with period 2π

(3) {2, 3, 4} (4) {3, 4, 5} (4) Not periodic

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Second Step for JEE (Main & Advanced)- 2022 Unit Test-1 (SSRG1_Code-A1)

38. If g(x) = x2 + 2x + 1 and g(f(x)) = 4 (x2 + 2x + 1) 42. Let f(x) = {x} + {–x}. Then which of the following
then f(x) can be options is true? (where {.} represents fractional
part function)
(1) 2x + 1 (2) 2x – 1
(1) f is a periodic function with no fundamental
(3) 2x + 3 (4) 2x – 3 period
(2) f is one-one function
9 x − 9− x
39. The inverse of the function f ( x ) = is
9 x + 9− x (3) f is periodic with fundamental period 1

(assuming the domain and codomain for which (4) Range of f is {–1, 0, 1}
inverse exists) SECTION - II
Numerical Value Type Questions: This section
 1+ x 
(1) log9   contains 3 numerical value type questions ranging
 1− x 
from 00 to 99. The answer will have to be
1  1+ x  appropriately bubbled in the OMR as per the
(2) log9  
4  1− x 
instructions given. Examples- If the correct answer to
1  2x  question numbers X, Y and Z (say) are 76, 0 and 9
(3) log9  
4  2x − 1 respectively, then mark 76, 00 and 09 in OMR

1  1+ x  respectively.
(4) log9  
2  1− x 
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
40. Which of the following function is a periodic
X
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

function? (where [.] and {.} denote the greatest 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

integer function and fractional part function
Y
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

respectively) 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Z
(1) f(x) = {sin{x}} 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

(2) f(x) = sin([x]) 43. If A = {α, β, γ}, then the number of binary

(3) f(x) = |log[x]| operations that can be defined on A is 3N then N

equals
(4) f(x) = sin2x + {x}
44. Total number of ordered pairs in universal
αx
41. Let f ( x ) = . Then for what value of α is relation for the set B = {α, β, γ, δ} is
αx − 1
45. If A and B have 5 and 4 elements respectively,
4x
f ( f ( x )) = ?
2 x +1 then number of onto functions from A to B is N
(1) 2 (2) – 2
N
then equals
(3) 4 (4) 1 10

  

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