SAMPLE PAPER (2022-23)

CHEMISTRY THEORY
(043)
MM:70 Time: 3 hours
General Instructions:
Read the following instructions carefully.
a) There are 35 questions in this question paper with internal choice.
b) SECTION A consists of 18 multiple-choice questions carrying 1 mark each.
c) SECTION B consists of 7 very short answer questions carrying 2 marks each.
d) SECTION C consists of 5 short answer questions carrying 3 marks each.
e) SECTION D consists of 2 case- based questions carrying 4 marks each.
f) SECTION E consists of 3 long answer questions carrying 5 marks each.
g) All questions are compulsory.
h) Use of log tables and calculators is not allowed

SECTION A

The following questions are multiple-choice questions with one correct answer. Each
question carries 1 mark. There is no internal choice in this section.

1. The major product of acid catalysed dehydration of 1-methylcyclohexanol is:

a. 1-methylcyclohexane
b. 1-methylcyclohexene
c. 1-cyclohexylmethanol
d. 1-methylenecyclohexane

2. Which one of the following compounds is more reactive towards SN1 reaction?
a. CH2=CHCH2Br
b. C6H5CH2Br
c. C6H5CH (C6H5)Br
d. C6H5CH(CH3) Br

3. KMnO4 is coloured due to:

a. d-d transitions
b. charge transfer from ligand to metal
c. unpaired electrons in d orbital of Mn
d. charge transfer from metal to ligand

1
4. Which radioactive isotope would have the longer half- life 15O or 19O? (Given rate
constants for 15O and 19O are 5.63x 10-3 s-1 and k = 2.38 x 10-2s-1 respectively.)

a. 15O
b. 19O
c. Both will have the same half-life
d. None of the above, information given is insufficient

5. The molar conductivity of CH3COOH at infinite dilution is 390 Scm2/mol. Using the
graph and given information, the molar conductivity of CH3COOK will be:

a. 100 Scm2/mol
b. 115 Scm2/mol
c. 150 Scm2/mol
d. 125 Scm2/mol

*FOR VISUALLY CHALLENGED LEARNERS

*5. What is the molar conductance at infinite dilution for sodium chloride if the molar
conductance at infinite dilution of Na+ and Cl- ions are 51.12 × 10-4 Scm2/mol and
73.54× 10-4 Scm2/mol respectively?

a. 124.66 Scm2/mol
b. 22.42 Scm2/mol
c. 198.20Scm2/mol
d. 175.78 Scm2/mol

2
6. For the reaction, A +2B  AB2, the order w.r.t. reactant A is 2 and w.r.t. reactant B.
What will be change in rate of reaction if the concentration of A is doubled and B is
halved?

a. increases four times

b. decreases four times
c. increases two times
d. no change

7. Arrange the following in the increasing order of their boiling points:

A : Butanamine, B: N,N-Dimethylethanamine, C: N- Etthylethanaminamine

a. C<B<A
b. A<B<C
c. A<C<B
d. B<C<A

8. The CFSE of [CoCl6]3- is 18000 cm-1 the CFSE for [CoCl4]- will be:
a. 18000 cm-1
b. 8000cm-1
c. 2000 cm-1
d. 16000 cm-1

9. What would be the major product of the following reaction?

C6H5 -CH2-OC6H5 + HBr  A + B

a. A= C6H5CH2OH , B= C6H6
b. A=C6H5CH2OH ,B= C6H5Br
c. A=C6H5CH3 ,B= C6H5Br
d. A=C6H5CH2Br , B= C6H5OH

10. Which of the following statements is not correct for amines?

a. Most alkyl amines are more basic than ammonia solution.
b. pKb value of ethylamine is lower than benzylamine.
c. CH3NH2 on reaction with nitrous acid releases NO2 gas.
d. Hinsberg’s reagent reacts with secondary amines to form sulphonamides.

11. Which of the following tests/ reactions is given by aldehydes as well as ketones?
a. Fehling’s test
b. Tollen’s test
c. 2,4 DNP test
d. Cannizzaro reaction

3
12. Arrhenius equation can be represented graphically as follows:

The (i) intercept and (ii) slope of the graph are:

a. (i) ln A (ii) Ea/R
b. (i) A (ii) Ea
c. (i)ln A (ii) - Ea/R
d. (i) A (ii) -Ea

*FOR VISUALLY CHALLENGED LEARNERS

*12. The unit of rate constant for the reaction

2A + 2B → A2B2
which has rate = k [A]2[B] is:
a. mol L-1s-1
b. s-1
c. mol L-1
d. mol-2 L2 s-1

13. The number of ions formed on dissolving one molecule of FeSO4.(NH4)2SO4.6H2O

in water is:

a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
d. 6

14. The oxidation of toluene to benzaldehyde by chromyl chloride is called

a. Etard reaction
b. Riemer-Tiemann reaction
c. Stephen’s reaction
d. Cannizzaro’s reaction

15. Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R)

4
 Assertion (A): An ether is more volatile than an alcohol of comparable molecular
mass.
Reason (R): Ethers are polar in nature.
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true but R is false.
d. A is false but R is true.

16. Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R)

Assertion (A): Proteins are found to have two different types of secondary
structures viz alpha-helix and beta-pleated sheet structure.
Reason (R): The secondary structure of proteins is stabilized by hydrogen
bonding.
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true but R is false.
d. A is false but R is true.

17. Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R)

Assertion : Magnetic moment values of actinides are lesser than the

theoretically predicted values.
Reason : Actinide elements are strongly paramagnetic.
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true but R is false.
d. A is false but R is true.

18. Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R)

Assertion (A): Tertiary amines are more basic than corresponding secondary
and primary amines in gaseous state.
Reason (R): Tertiary amines have three alkyl groups which cause +I effect.
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true but R is false.
d. A is false but R is true.

SECTION B

5
This section contains 7 questions with internal choice in two questions. The following
questions are very short answer type and carry 2 marks each.

19. A first-order reaction takes 69.3 min for 50% completion. What is the time needed for
80% of the reaction to get completed?
(Given: log 5 =0.6990, log 8 = 0.9030, log 2 = 0.3010)

20. Account for the following:

a. There are 5 OH groups in glucose
b. Glucose is a reducing sugar

OR

What happens when D – glucose is treated with the following reagents

a. Bromine water
b. HNO3

21. Give reason for the following:

a. During the electrophilic substitution reaction of haloarenes, para
substituted derivative is the major product.
b. The product formed during SN1 reaction is a racemic mixture.

OR

a. Name the suitable alcohol and reagent, from which 2-Chloro-2-methyl

propane can be prepared.
b. Out of the Chloromethane and Fluoromethane , which one is has higher
dipole moment and why?

22. The formula Co(NH3)5CO3Cl could represent a carbonate or a chloride. Write the
structures and names of possible isomers.

23. Corrosion is an electrochemical phenomenon. The oxygen in moist air reacts as

follows:

O2(g) + 2H2O(l) + 4e– → 4OH– (aq).

Write down the possible reactions for corrosion of zinc occurring at anode, cathode, and
overall reaction to form a white layer of zinc hydroxide.

24. Explain how and why will the rate of reaction for a given reaction be affected when
a. a catalyst is added
b. the temperature at which the reaction was taking place is decreased

25. Write the reaction and IUPAC name of the product formed when 2-Methylpropanal
(isobutyraldehyde) is treated with ethyl magnesium bromide followed by hydrolysis.

6
 SECTION C

This section contains 5 questions with internal choice in two questions. The following
questions are short answer type and carry 3 marks each.

26. Write the equations for the following reaction:

a. Salicylic acid is treated with acetic anhydride in the presence of conc.
H2SO4
b. Tert butyl chloride is treated with sodium ethoxide.
c. Phenol is treated with chloroform in the presence of NaOH

27. Using Valence bond theory, explain the following in relation to the paramagnetic
complex [Mn(CN)6]3-
a. type of hybridization
b. magnetic moment value
c. type of complex – inner, outer orbital complex

28. Answer the following questions:

a. State Henry’s law and explain why are the tanks used by scuba divers
filled with air diluted with helium (11.7% helium, 56.2% nitrogen and
32.1% oxygen)?
b. Assume that argon exerts a partial pressure of 6 bar. Calculate the
solubility of argon gas in water. (Given Henry’s law constant for argon
dissolved in water, KH = 40kbar)

29. Give reasons for any 3 of the following observations:

a. Aniline is acetylated before nitration reaction.
b. pKb of aniline is lower than the m-nitroaniline.
c. Primary amine on treatment with benzenesulphonyl chloride forms a
product which is soluble in NaOH however secondary amine gives product
which is insoluble in NaOH.
d. Aniline does not react with methyl chloride in the presence of anhydrous
AlCl3 catalyst.

30. a. Identify the major product formed when 2-cyclohexylchloroethane

undergoes a dehydrohalogenation reaction. Name the reagent which is
used to carry out the reaction.
b. Why are haloalkanes more reactive towards nucleophilic substitution
reactions than haloarenes and vinylic halides?

OR

a. Name the possible alkenes which will yield 1-chloro-1-methylcyclohexane

on their reaction with HCl. Write the reactions involved.
b. Allyl chloride is hydrolysed more readily than n-propyl chloride. Why?

7
 SECTION D

The following questions are case-based questions. Each question has an internal
choice and carries 4 (1+1+2) marks each. Read the passage carefully and answer the
questions that follow.

31. Strengthening the Foundation: Chargaff Formulates His "Rules"

Many people believe that James Watson and Francis Crick discovered DNA in the
1950s. In reality, this is not the case. Rather, DNA was first identified in the late
1860s by Swiss chemist Friedrich Miescher. Then, in the decades following
Miescher's discovery, other scientists--notably, Phoebus Levene and Erwin
Chargaff--carried out a series of research efforts that revealed additional details
about the DNA molecule, including its primary chemical components and the ways
in which they joined with one another. Without the scientific foundation provided
by these pioneers, Watson and Crick may never have reached their
groundbreaking conclusion of 1953: that the DNA molecule exists in the form of a
three-dimensional double helix.
Chargaff, an Austrian biochemist, as his first step in this DNA research, set out to
see whether there were any differences in DNA among different species. After
developing a new paper chromatography method for separating and identifying
small amounts of organic material, Chargaff reached two major conclusions:
(i) the nucleotide composition of DNA varies among species.
(ii) Almost all DNA, no matter what organism or tissue type it comes from maintains
certain properties, even as its composition varies. In particular, the amount of
adenine (A) is similar to the amount of thymine (T), and the amount of guanine (G)
approximates the amount of cytosine (C). In other words, the total amount of
purines (A + G) and the total amount of pyrimidines (C + T) are usually nearly
equal. This conclusion is now known as "Chargaff's rule."
Chargaff’s rule is not obeyed in some viruses. These either have single- stranded
DNA or RNA as their genetic material.

Answer the following questions:

a. A segment of DNA has 100 adenine and 150 cytosine bases. What is the
total number of nucleotides present in this segment of DNA?
b. A sample of hair and blood was found at two sites. Scientists claim that the
samples belong to same species. How did the scientists arrive at this
conclusion?
c. The sample of a virus was tested and it was found to contain 20% adenine,
20% thymine, 20 % guanine and the rest cytosine. Is the genetic material
of this virus (a) DNA- double helix (b) DNA-single helix (c) RNA? What do
you infer from this data?

8
 OR

How can Chargaff’s rule be used to infer that the genetic material of an
organism is double- helix or single- helix?

32. Henna is investigating the melting point of different salt solutions.

She makes a salt solution using 10 mL of water with a known mass of NaCl salt.
She puts the salt solution into a freezer and leaves it to freeze.
She takes the frozen salt solution out of the freezer and measures the
temperature when the frozen salt solution melts.
She repeats each experiment.

S.No Mass of the salt Melting point in 0C

used in g
Readings Set 1 Reading Set 2
1 0.3 -1.9 -1.9
2 0.4 -2.5 -2.6
3 0.5 -3.0 -5.5
4 0.6 -3.8 -3.8
5 0.8 -5.1 -5.0
6 1.0 -6.4 -6.3

Assuming the melting point of pure water as 0oC, answer the following
questions:
a. One temperature in the second set of results does not fit the pattern.
Which temperature is that? Justify your answer.
b. Why did Henna collect two sets of results?
c. In place of NaCl, if Henna had used glucose, what would have been the
melting point of the solution with 0.6 g glucose in it?

OR
What is the predicted melting point if 1.2 g of salt is added to 10 mL of
water? Justify your answer.

SECTION E

The following questions are long answer type and carry 5 marks each. Two questions
have an internal choice.

33. a. Why does the cell voltage of a mercury cell remain constant during its

9
 lifetime?
b. Write the reaction occurring at anode and cathode and the products of
electrolysis of aq KCl.
c. What is the pH of HCl solution when the hydrogen gas electrode shows
a potential of -0.59 V at standard temperature and pressure?

OR

a. Molar conductivity of substance “A” is 5.9×103 S/m and “B” is 1 x 10-16

S/m. Which of the two is most likely to be copper metal and why?
b. What is the quantity of electricity in Coulombs required to produce 4.8 g of
Mg from molten MgCl2? How much Ca will be produced if the same
amount of electricity was passed through molten CaCl2? (Atomic mass of
Mg = 24 u, atomic mass of Ca = 40 u).
c. What is the standard free energy change for the following reaction at room
temperature? Is the reaction spontaneous?

Sn(s) + 2Cu2+ (aq) à Sn2+ (aq) + 2Cu+ (s)

34. A hydrocarbon (A) with molecular formula C5H10 on ozonolysis gives two products
(B) and ( C). Both (B) and (C) give a yellow precipitate when heated with iodine in
presence of NaOH while only (B) give a silver mirror on reaction with Tollen’s
reagent.
a. Identify (A), (B) and (C).
b. Write the reaction of B with Tollen’s reagent
c. Write the equation for iodoform test for C
d. Write down the equation for aldol condensation reaction of B and C.

OR

An organic compound (A) with molecular formula C2Cl3O2H is obtained when (B)
reacts with Red P and Cl2. The organic compound (B) can be obtained on the
reaction of methyl magnesium chloride with dry ice followed by acid hydrolysis.
a. Identify A and B
b. Write down the reaction for the formation of A from B. What is this reaction
called?
c. Give any one method by which organic compound B can be prepared from
its corresponding acid chloride.
d. Which will be the more acidic compound (A) or (B)? Why?
e. Write down the reaction to prepare methane from the compound (B).
35. Answer the following:
a. Why are all copper halides known except that copper iodide?
b. Why is the Eo(V /V ) value for vanadium comparatively low?
3+ 2+

c. Why HCl should not be used for potassium permanganate titrations?

10
d. Explain the observation, at the end of each period, there is a slight
increase in the atomic radius of d block elements.
e. What is the effect of pH on dichromate ion solution?

11
 Class: XII
SESSION : 2022-2023
CBSE SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER (THEORY)
SUBJECT: PHYSICS

Maximum Marks: 70 Marks Time Allowed: 3 hours.

General Instructions:

(1) There are 35 questions in all. All questions are compulsory

(2) This question paper has five sections: Section A, Section B, Section C, Section D and
Section E. All the sections are compulsory.
(3) Section A contains eighteen MCQ of 1 mark each, Section B contains seven questions
of two marks each, Section C contains five questions of three marks each, section D
contains three long questions of five marks each and Section E contains two case study
based questions of 4 marks each.
(4) There is no overall choice. However, an internal choice has been provided in section
B, C, D and E. You have to attempt only one of the choices in such questions.
5. Use of calculators is not allowed.

SECTION A

Q. MARKS

NO.

1 According to Coulomb's law, which is the correct relation for the 1

following figure?

(i) q1 q2> 0
(ii) q1 q2<0
(iii) q1 q2 =0
(iv) 1> q1/ q2 > 0

2 The electric potential on the axis of an electric dipole at a distance 1

‘r from it’s centre is V. Then the potential at a point at the same
distance on its equatorial line will be
(i) 2V
(ii) -V
(iii) V/2
(iv) Zero
3 The temperature (T) dependence of resistivity of materials A and 1
material B is represented by fig (i) and fig (ii) respectively.
Identify material A and material B.

(i) material A is copper and material B is germanium

(ii) material A is germanium and material B is copper
(iii) material A is nichrome and material B is germanium
(iv) material A is copper and material B is nichrome

4 Two concentric and coplanar circular loops P and Q have their 1

radii in the ratio 2:3. Loop Q carries a current 9 A in the
anticlockwise direction. For the magnetic field to be zero at the
common centre, loop P must carry
(i) 3A in clockwise direction
(ii) 9A in clockwise direction
(iii) 6 A in anti-clockwise direction
(iv) 6 A in the clockwise direction.

5 A long straight wire of circular cross section of radius a carries a 1

steady current I. The current is uniformly distributed across its
cross section. The ratio of the magnitudes of magnetic field at a
point distant a/2 above the surface of wire to that at a point distant
a/2 below its surface is
(i) 4 :1
(ii) 1:1
(iii) 4: 3
(iv) 3 :4

6 If the magnetizing field on a ferromagnetic material is increased, 1

its permeability
(i) decreases
(ii) increases
(iii) remains unchanged
(iv) first decreases and then increases
7 An iron cored coil is connected in series with an electric bulb with 1
an AC source as shown in figure. When iron piece is taken out of
the coil, the brightness of the bulb will

(i) decrease
(ii) increase
(iii) remain unaffected
(iv) fluctuate

8 Which of the following statement is NOT true about the properties 1

of electromagnetic waves?
(I) These waves do not require any material medium for their
propagation
(ii) Both electric and magnetic field vectors attain the maxima and
minima at the same time
(iii) The energy in electromagnetic wave is divided equally between
electric and magnetic fields
(iv) Both electric and magnetic field vectors are parallel to each other

9 A rectangular, a square, a circular and an elliptical loop, all in the 1

(x-y) plane, are moving out of a uniform magnetic field with a
constant velocity 𝑣⃗ = v𝚤̂.The magnetic field is directed along the
negative z-axis direction. The induced emf, during the passage of
these loops, out of the field region, will not remain constant for
(i) any of the four loops
(ii) the circular and elliptical loops
(iii) the rectangular, circular and elliptical loops
(iv) only the elliptical loops
10 In a Young’s double slit experiment, the path difference at a certain 1
𝟏
point on the screen between two interfering waves is th of the
𝟖
wavelength. The ratio of intensity at this point to that at the centre
of a bright fringe is close to
(i) 0.80
(ii) 0.74
(iii) 0.94
(iv) 0.85

11 The work function for a metal surface is 4.14 eV. The threshold 1
wavelength for this metal surface is:
(i) 4125 Å
(ii) 2062.5 Å
(iii) 3000 Å
(iv) 6000 Å

12 The radius of the innermost electron orbit of a hydrogen atom is 1

5.3×10–11 m. The radius of the n =3 orbit is

(i) 1.01 x 10-10m

(ii) 1.59 X 10-10m

(iii) 2.12 x 10-10m

(iv) 4.77 X 10-10m

13 Which of the following statements about nuclear forces is not 1

true?
(i) The nuclear force between two nucleons falls rapidly to zero as
their distance is more than a few femtometres.
(ii) The nuclear force is much weaker than the Coulomb force.
(iii) The force is attractive for distances larger than 0.8 fm and
repulsive if they are separated by distances less than 0.8 fm.
(iv) The nuclear force between neutron-neutron, proton-neutron
and proton-proton is approximately the same.

14 If the reading of the voltmeter V1 is 40 V, then the reading of 1

voltmeter V2 is
 (i) 30 V (ii) 58 V (iii) 29 V (iv) 15 V

15 The electric potential V as a function of distance X is shown in the 1

figure.

The graph of the magnitude of electric field intensity E as a

function of X is

(i) (ii)

(iii) (iv)

16 Two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other 1
labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions
from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true and R is NOT the correct explanation of
A
 c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false and R is also false

ASSERTION(A):
The electrical conductivity of a semiconductor increases on doping.
REASON:
Doping always increases the number of electrons in the
semiconductor.

17 Two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the 1

other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these
questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true and R is NOT the correct explanation of
A
c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false and R is also false

ASSERTION:
In an interference pattern observed in Young's double slit experiment,
if the separation (d) between coherent sources as well as the distance
(D) of the screen from the coherent sources both are reduced to 1/3 rd,
then new fringe width remains the same.
REASON:
Fringe width is proportional to (d/D).

18 Two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the 1

other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these
questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b Both A and R are true and R is NOT the correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false and R is also false
Assertion(A) :
The photoelectrons produced by a monochromatic light beam incident
on a metal surface have a spread in their kinetic energies.
Reason(R) :
 The energy of electrons emitted from inside the metal surface, is lost
in collision with the other atoms in the metal.

SECTION B

19 Electromagnetic waves with wavelength 2

(i) λ1 is suitable for radar systems used in aircraft navigation.
(ii) λ2 is used to kill germs in water purifiers.
(iii) λ3 is used to improve visibility in runways during fog and mist
conditions.
Identify and name the part of the electromagnetic spectrum to which these
radiations belong.Also arrange these wavelengths in ascending order of their
magnitude.

20 A uniform magnetic field gets modified as shown in figure when two 2

specimens A and B are placed in it.

(i)Identify the specimen A and B.

(ii) How is the magnetic susceptibility of specimen A different from
that of specimen B?

21 What is the nuclear radius of 125Fe ,if that of 27 Al is 3.6 fermi?. 2

OR

The short wavelength limit for the Lyman series of the hydrogen
spectrum is 913.4 A0. Calculate the short wavelength limit for the
Balmer series of the hydrogen spectrum.

22 2
A biconvex lens made of a transparent material of refractive index 1.25
is immersed in water of refractive index 1.33. Will the lens behave as a
converging or a diverging lens? Justify your answer.
23 The figure shows a piece of pure semiconductor S in series with a 2
variable resistor R and a source of constant voltage V. Should the value
of R be increased or decreased to keep the reading of the ammeter
constant, when semiconductor S is heated? Justify your answer

OR

The graph of potential barrier versus width of depletion region for an

unbiased diode is shown in graph A. In comparison to A ,graphs B and
C are obtained after biasing the diode in different ways .Identify the
type of biasing in B and C and justify your answer.

24 2
A narrow slit is illuminated by a parallel beam of monochromatic light
of wavelength λ equal to 6000 Å and the angular width of the central
maximum in the resulting diffraction pattern is measured. When the slit
is next illuminated by light of wavelength λ’, the angular width
decreases by 30%. Calculate the value of the wavelength λ’.

25
Two large, thin metal plates are parallel and close to each other. On
their inner faces, the plates have surface charge densities of opposite
signs and of magnitude 17.7 × 10-22 C/m2. What is electric field intensity
E:

(a) in the outer region of the first plate, and

(b) between the plates?

SECTION C

26 Two long straight parallel conductors carrying currents I 1 and I2 are 3

separated by a distance d. If the currents are flowing in the same
direction, show how the magnetic field produced by one exerts an
attractive force on the other. Obtain the expression for this force and
hence define 1 ampere.

27. The magnetic field through a circular loop of wire, 12cm in radius and 3
8.5Ω resistance, changes with time as shown in the figure. The
magnetic field is perpendicular to the plane of the loop. Calculate the
current induced in the loop and plot a graph showing induced current
as a function of time.

28 An a.c. source generating a voltage ε = ε0 sin ωt is connected to a 3

capacitor of capacitance C. Find the expression for the current I flowing
through it. Plot a graph of ε and I versus t to show that the current is
ahead of the voltage by π/2.
OR
An ac voltage V = V0 sin t is applied across a pure inductor of
inductance L. Find an expression for the current i, flowing in the circuit
and show mathematically that the current flowing through it lags behind

the applied voltage by a phase angle of . Also draw graphs of V and
2
i versus t for the circuit.

29 Radiation of frequency 1015 Hz is incident on three photosensitive 3

surfaces A, B and C. Following observations are recorded:
Surface A: no photoemission occurs
Surface B: photoemission occurs but the photoelectrons have zero
kinetic energy.
 Surface C: photo emission occurs and photoelectrons have some
kinetic energy.
Using Einstein’s photo-electric equation, explain the three
observations.
OR

The graph shows the variation of photocurrent for a

photosensitive metal

(a)What does X and A on the horizontal axis represent?

(b)Draw this graph for three different values of frequencies of incident
radiation ʋ1, ʋ 2 and ʋ 3 (ʋ 3>ʋ 2>ʋ1) for the same intensity.
(c) Draw this graph for three different values of intensities of incident
radiation I1, I2 and I3 (I3> I2>I1) having the same frequency.

30 The ground state energy of hydrogen atom is -13.6 eV. The photon 3
emitted during the transition of electron from n=3 to n=1 state, is
incident on a photosensitive material of unknown work function .The
photoelectrons are emitted from the material with the maximum kinetic
energy of 9eV.Calculate the threshold wavelength of the material used.

SECTION D

31 (a)Draw equipotential surfaces for (i)an electric dipole and (ii) two 5
identical positive charges placed near each other.
(b) In a parallel plate capacitor with air between the plates, each
plate has an area of 6 x 10-3m2 and the separation between the
plates is 3 mm.
(i) Calculate the capacitance of the capacitor.
(ii) If the capacitor is connected to 100V supply, what would be the
the charge on each plate?
(iii) How would charge on the plate be affected if a 3 mm thick mica
sheet of k=6 is inserted between the plates while the voltage supply
remains connected ?.
 OR
(a)Three charges –q, Q and –q are placed at equal distances on a
straight line. If the potential energy of the system of these charges
is zero, then what is the ratio Q:q?
(b)(i) Obtain the expression for the electric field intensity due to a
uniformly charged spherical shell of radius R at a point distant r from
the centre of the shell outside it.
(ii) Draw a graph showing the variation of electric field intensity E
with r, for r > R and r < R.

32 (a) Explain the term drift velocity of electrons in a conductor .Hence 5

obtain the expression for the current through a conductor in terms
of drift velocity.

(b) Two cells of emfs E1 and E2 and internal resistances 𝑟 and 𝑟

respectively are connected in parallel as shown in the figure.
Deduce the expression for the
(i) equivalent emf of the combination
(ii) equivalent internal resistance of the combination
(iii) potential difference between the points A and B.

OR

(a) State the two Kirchhoff’s rules used in the analysis of

electric circuits and explain them.
(b) Derive the equation of the balanced state in a Wheatstone
bridge using Kirchhoff’s laws.

33 a) Draw the graph showing intensity distribution of fringes with 5

phase angle due to diffraction through a single slit. What is
the width of the central maximum in comparison to that of a
secondary maximum?
b) A ray PQ is incident normally on the face AB of a
 triangular prism of refracting angle 60 0 as shown in figure.
The prism is made of a transparent material of refractive
index . Trace the path of the ray as it passes through
√
the prism. Calculate the angle of emergence and the
angle of deviation.

OR
a) Write two points of difference between an interference
pattern
and a diffraction pattern.
b) (i) A ray of light incident on face AB of an equilateral glass
prism, shows minimum deviation of 30°. Calculate the
speed of light through the prism.

(ii) Find the angle of incidence at face AB so that the

emergent ray grazes along the face AC.

SECTION E
34 Case Study :
Read the following paragraph and answer the questions.
A number of optical devices and instruments have been
designed and developed such as periscope, binoculars,
microscopes and telescopes utilising the reflecting and refracting
properties of mirrors, lenses and prisms. Most of them are in
common use. Our knowledge about the formation of images by
the mirrors and lenses is the basic requirement for
understanding the working of these devices.
(i) Why the image formed at infinity is often considered most
suitable for viewing. Explain
(ii) In modern microscopes multicomponent lenses are used for
both the objective and the eyepiece. Why?
(iii) Write two points of difference between a compound
microscope and an astronomical telescope
OR
(iii) Write two distinct advantages of a reflecting type telescope
over a refracting type telescope.

35 Case study: Light emitting diode.

Read the following paragraph and answer the questions

LED is a heavily doped P-N junction which under forward bias emits
spontaneous radiation. When it is forward biased, due to recombination of
holes and electrons at the junction, energy is released in the form of
photons. In the case of Si and Ge diode, the energy released in
recombination lies in the infrared region. LEDs that can emit red, yellow,
orange, green and blue light are commercially available. The
semiconductor used for fabrication of visible LEDs must at least have a
band gap of 1.8 eV. The compound semiconductor Gallium Arsenide –
Phosphide is used for making LEDs of different colours.
LEDs of different kinds

(i). Why are LEDs made of compound semiconductor and not of elemental
semiconductors?
(ii) What should be the order of bandgap of an LED, if it is required
to emit light in the visible range?
(iii) A student connects the blue coloured LED as shown in the figure.
The LED did not glow when switch S is closed. Explain why ?

OR
(iii) Draw V-I characteristic of a p-n junction diode in
(i) forward bias and (ii) reverse bias
 SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER
PHYSICAL EDUCATION (048)
SESSION (2022-23)
TIME ALLOWED: 3 HRS MAX. MARKS: 70
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:

1) The question paper consists of 5 sections and 37 Questions.

2) Section A consists of question 1-18 carrying 1 mark each and is multiple choice
questions. All questions are compulsory.
3) Sections B consist of questions 19-24 carrying 2 marks each and are very short
answer types and should not exceed 60-90 words. Attempt any 5.
4) Sections C consist of Question 25-30 carrying 3 marks each and are short answer
types and should not exceed 100-150 words. Attempt any 5.
5) Sections D consist of Question 31-33 carrying 4 marks each and are case studies.
There is internal choice available.
6) Section E consists of Question 34-37 carrying 5 marks each and are short answer
types and should not exceed 200-300 words. Attempt any 3.
(SECTION -A)
Q1. Identify the asana:

a) Paschimottanasana
b) Halasana
c) Vajrasana
d) Dhanurasana
(Question for visually impaired)
Which asana amongst these can be done just after having meals?
a) Bhujangasana
b) Dhanurasana
c) Vajrasana
d) Ardhmatsyendrasana
Q2. A person who likes to learn new things, new concepts and new experiences are
categorized as ____________.
a) Agreeableness
b) Extroversion
c) Conscientiousness
d) Openness
Q3. Cartwheel in gymnastics is an example of _______________
a) Static Equilibrium
b) Dynamic Equilibrium
c) Active Equilibrium
d) Passive Equilibrium

Page 1 of 6
Q4. Slow twitch fibres are ____________ in colour.
a) White
b) Red
c) Transparent
d) Brown
Q5. Jumping on the spot is an example of _______________
a) Iso-metric
b) Iso-tonic
c) Iso-kinetic
d) Iso-kinesthetic
Q6. Take-off in Long jump is an example of _______________ strength.
a) Explosive strength
b) Maximum strength
c) Strength endurance
d) Static strength
Q7.. The amount of oxygen which can be absorbed and consumed by the working
muscles from the blood is called __________________
a) Oxygen Uptake
b) Oxygen Intake
c) Oxygen Transport
d) Vital capacity
Q8. In Law of Acceleration, acceleration of an object is inversely proportionate to its
_________________
a) Force
b) Mass
c) Speed
d) Size
*Q9. Given below are the two statements labeled Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Assertion: Intrinsic motivation has long term benefits.
Reason: As factors behind it are naturally pursuing actions that provide fun, pleasure,
fulfillment or challenge
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
d) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Q10. Carbohydrates which are soluble in water and crystalline in structure.
a) Simple
b) Complex
c) Compound
d) Complicated
Q11. Which amongst these is not a micro mineral?
a) Iodine
b) Magnesium
c) Iron
d) Copper
Page 2 of 6
Q12. Which asana is helpful in increasing height?
a) Sukhasana
b) Tadasana
c) Bhujangasana
d) Vajrasana
*Q13. How many byes will be given if there are 17 teams?
a) 1
b) 8
c) 15
d) 12
* Q14. How many matches will be played in the knockout tournaments first round if there
are 15 teams?
a) 8
b) 7
c) 5
d) 6
Q15.Watching others play and enjoy which in turn motivates the Child with special need to
participate is a part of which kind of strategy?
a) Mental
b) Physical
c) Psychological
d) Social
*Q16. Match the following:
I. Garudasana. 1.Round shoulder
II. Gomukhasana. 2. Lordosis
III. Chakrasana. 3. Bow legs
IV. Naukasana. 4. Knock knees

a) I-3,II-4,III-1,IV-2
b) I-1,II-3,III-4,IV-2
c) I-4,II-2,III-1,IV-3
d) I-2,II-3,III-4,IV-1
*Q17. Match the following:
I. Chair stand test. 1. Lower Body strength
II. Arm curl test. 2. Aerobic Endurance
III. Back scratch test. 3. Upper body strength
IV. Six minute walk test. 4. Upper body flexibility

a) I-1,II-3,III-4,IV-2
b) I-2,II-3,III-1,IV-4
c) I-1,II-3,III-2,IV-4
d) I-2,II-3,III-4,IV-1
Q18. Weakening of bones due to loss of bone density and improper bone formation is
known as_______
a) Amenorrhea
b) Anorexia Nervosa
c) Osteoporosis
d) Lordosis

Page 3 of 6
 (SECTION B)
Q19. List down any four effects of exercise on the muscular system. (0.5*4)
Q20.List down any four benefits of self talk by athletes in sports (0.5*4)
Q21. List down any four advantages of fartlek training method. (0.5*4)
Q22. Explain any two types of soft tissue injuries with help of examples. (0.5*4)
Q23. Write down the objectives and administration of the flamingo test. (1+1)
*Q24. What should be the basic nutrient in a weightlifter’s diet and why? (1+1)

(SECTION C)
*Q25.Create a mind map including any six advantages of physical activities for children
with special needs. (0.5X6=3)
Q26. What are carbohydrates? Differentiate between its types. {1+ (0.5*4)}
Q27. Define bye. Explain the rules of giving bye with help of an example. (1+2)
*Q28. Make a table explaining any three personalities from Big five theory and their
characteristics. (1+1+1)
Q29.. Explain any three physiological factors determining strength. (1+1+1)
Q30. What is the meaning of female athletes Triad? Explain any two in brief. (1+ 2)

(SECTION D)

*31.

On the basis of above given fixture answer the following questions: (4X1=4)
a) total number of matches in 2nd round are ________
b) What is the formula for calculating the total number of matches?
c) The fourth round in this case can also be called as_______________
d) What is the formula for calculating the number of byes
OR
The formula for calculating number of rounds is __________
(Question for visually impaired)

List down any four committees working during conduct of a competition and briefly
explain their role.
Page 4 of 6
Q32. The teachers as well as coaches always make their best efforts to improve the
performance of their students in various competitive games and sports. They can help to
improve the performance of students if they have adequate knowledge of biomechanics.
(4X1=4)

a) The more force one exerts on the downward bounce, the higher the ball bounces
into the air. Which law is this statement being referred to?
b) Among the above given pictures, Newton’s 3rd law is depicted in________
c) Newton’s second law is also known as____________________
d) The study of human body and various forces acting on it is___________
OR
A high jumper can jump higher off a solid surface because it opposes his or her
body with as much force as he or she is able to generate. This example refers to
which law of motion?

(Question for visually impaired)

What is equilibrium? Explain its types along with the factors increasing equilibrium. (1+4)

Q33. In relation to the pictures, answer the following questions.

a. What is the mission of the first organization?

b. What is the Motto of the first organization?
c. Until 1965 the games in the second picture were known as _______
d. Second picture games are conducted after every __________years.
(Question for visually impaired)
Write a brief note on Paralympics including its origin, describing the various categories
and criteria..
Page 5 of 6
 (SECTION E)

Q34. List down any four asanas used for prevention of asthma. Explain the procedure for
administration of any one of them with help of a stick diagram. (2+2+1)
*Q35. Make a table of test items listed under fitness test by SAI (Age group 9-18 yrs )
along with the objectives of conducting them. Explain the administration of any one of
them. (4+1)
Q36. Define flexibility along with its types. Explain any two methods used to develop
flexibility. (2+3)
Q37. Define Projectile and explain any two factors affecting projectile with help of
examples from sports. (1+4)

Page 6 of 6
 SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER (2022-23)
ENGLISH – CORE (301)
CLASS-XII
Time allowed: 3 Hrs. Maximum Marks: 80
General Instructions:
1. 15-minute prior reading time allotted for Q-paper reading.
2. The Question Paper contains THREE sections-READING, WRITING and LITERATURE.
3. Attempt questions based on specific instructions for each part. Write the correct question
number in your answer sheet to indicate the option/s being attempted.

Section A: READING SKILLS (20 marks) Marks

I Read the passage given below. 10

Ghost nets aren’t supernatural, but they are legitimately scary. A ghost net is a fishing net that’s
been lost or abandoned in the ocean. They are one particularly appalling part of the global ghost
fishing problem, which includes fishing gear abandoned in the water. Any net or line left in the
1 ocean can pose a threat to marine life. Just because a net is no longer used by fishers doesn’t
mean it stops working. These nets continue to trap everything in their path, presenting a major
problem for the health of our oceans and marine life.
Ghost nets entangle sea turtles, dolphins and porpoises, birds, sharks, seals and more, apart from
catching fish. The nets keep animals from moving freely, cause injuries and keep mammals and
birds from rising to the surface for air. Since hundreds of animals can be caught in a single net,
2
this threat is monumental. The ghost nets harm coral reefs too—breaking corals, exposing them
to disease and even blocking the reefs from needed sunlight.
Ghost nets are also a major contributor to the ocean plastics’ crisis. Most modern nets are made
of nylon or other plastic compounds that can last for centuries. According to a 2018 study in
Scientific Reports, ghost nets make up at least 46 percent of the Great Pacific Garbage Patch.
3
Those abandoned fishing lines and nets that do breakdown never go away; they just become
smaller pieces of plastic. Marine animals mistake this microplastic for food and eat it, which can
harm internal organs, keep them from eating and expose them to toxic chemicals.
Exorcising ghost nets from our oceans will require commitment, cooperation and innovation.
Many groups are working to remove ghost nets from the sea and are collaborating with local
fishers and governments around the world to identify target areas and remove as many nets as
4 possible. In 2015, a single World Wildlife Fund for Nature (WWF)-led mission in the Baltic Sea
hauled up 268 tons of nets, ropes and other material.
To stop these nets from becoming ghosts in the first place, conservation organisations advocate
for fishing gear that can be traced to its owner so anyone dumping nets can be fined and
refundable deposits on nets to encourage returning or recycling rather than littering. Tools like
sonar reflectors that can make ghost nets easier to find and working with small-scale fisheries to
5
develop more sustainable fishing gear and practices are other suggestions. It is only by attacking

Page 1 of 15
 this problem from all sides, together with conservation partners, fishers and supporters, can we
banish ghost nets and protect our oceans.
(437 words)
Adapted—https://www.worldwildlife.org/stories/our-oceans-are-haunted-by-ghost-nets-why-that-s-scary-and-
what-we-can-do—24

Based on your understanding of the passage, answer the questions given below. 1x10
i Complete the sentence by choosing an appropriate option. 1
Ghost nets have been named so because they

A. cause much harm to the marine life.

B. are functional though not in use by fishers.
C. are not owned by anyone.
D. act as a snare for all animals in oceans.

ii Comment on the writer’s reference to the ghost nets in paragraph one, as a health 1
problem for the oceans.

iii List the two ways being entangled in a ghost net is likely to impact a walrus. 1
(Clue: Think about the type of animal a walrus is)

iv Select the option that conveys the opposite of ‘negligible’, from words used in 1
paragraph two.
A. unimpressive
B. monumental
C. exposing
D. threat

v The writer would agree with the given statements based on paragraph three,EXCEPT: 1
A. Most ghost nets take a few years to completely disintegrate.
B. Ghost nets contribute to the Great Pacific Garbage Patch.
C. Most ghost nets provide nutrition to marine animals, upon disintegration.
D. Ghost nets can curtail freedom of marine animals.

vi Some records share that fishing nets used to be made of common rope using natural 1
fibres, prior to the 1960s. Based on your understanding of paragraph three, list one
major advantage that these had over the fishing nets being used in present times.

vii Why is it fair to say that commitment and innovation have to go hand-in-hand to rid 1
the oceans of ghost nets?

viii Complete the given sentence with an appropriate inference, with respect to the 1
following:
The writer quotes the example of the WWF-led mission in the Baltic Sea (Paragraph 4),
in order to........................................................................................................................

Page 2 of 15
ix How can the solutions, suggested in paragraph five, best be described? 1
A. practical
B. presentable
C. popular
D. prejudiced

x Select the most suitable title for the above passage. 1

A. The Scary Side of Ghost Nets
B. Ghost Nets – A Result of Human Dominance
C. Ghost Nets – A Menace to Marine Life
D. Ways to Tackle the Problem of Ghost Nets

II Read the passage given below. 10

It is generally accepted that leadership development should be a part of the education system's
responsibility for preparing individuals to participate in a democratic and progressive society.
Many schools, colleges and universities, across nations, provide their students with leadership
1 courses, curricular programs and co-curricular programs that are designed to develop students’
formal knowledge about leadership as well as opportunities and experiences to develop students
as leaders and actually practise leadership. Yet, only a handful of studies have sought to
understand leader development from the students’ point of view, with students describing their
own experiences and what they learned from them in their own words.

A 2014 descriptive study sought to understand student leadership with research through key
events via the following research questions:
Research Question 1: What key events do student leaders in college, report as significantly
impacting their development as a leader?
Research Question 2: What lessons do student leaders in college, report learning as a result of
2
the key events they have experienced?
Research Question 3: Are certain key events more likely to be linked to particular lessons?
Approximately 130 students were contacted and the 72 interested, were interviewed. Two
members of the research team were present for each 15–45-minute interview. One member
served as the primary interviewer while the second ran the audio equipment.
The results for lessons learned (Table 1), were varied, but there were a few that were frequently
quoted.

Page 3 of 15
 This study described the rich array of leadership lessons that students are learning through their
3 experiences. It revealed that student leaders are learning foundational leadership skills and
competencies that have positively impacted how to accomplish work, how to work with others
and how to be both supported by and support others.

(295 words)
Adapted-
https://www.researchgate.net/publication/264696744_Key_Events_in_Student_Leaders'_Lives_and_Lessons_Learn
ed_from_Them

Based on your understanding of the passage, answer the questions given below. 1x10
i Does the following statement agree with the information given in paragraph 1? 1

The researcher believes that educational institutions have ideal resources to study
impact of leadership skills on young adults.

Select from the following:

True - if the statement agrees with the information

False - if the statement contradicts the information
Not Given - if there is no information on this

Page 4 of 15
 ii Do you think the researchers of the study aimed to change the students’ outlook 1
towards the development of leadership skills, directly or indirectly? Support your
answer with reference to the text.

iii Select the option that displays the most likely reason for including Research Question 3 1
in the 2014 study.
In order to find out if...
A. learning opportunities shape students’ overall personality.
B. leadership lessons are the result of the designed learning opportunities.
C. all learning opportunities cater to a specific lesson.
D. certain lessons are common in more than one learning opportunity.

Iv Complete the sentence based on the following statement. 1

More than 50% of the identified student respondents were keen to participate in the
2014 study.

We can say this because .

v Select the option that displays the key event designed with “Balancing Roles” (Table 1) 1
as the objective.

A. Students will be able to debate the issue at hand, with different teams.
B. Students will be able to manage the responsibilities of a mentor, planner
researcher and presenter.
C. Students will be able to surmount minor problems and focus on the final
goal.
D. Students will be able to explain concepts and clarify them for peers.

vi Complete the given sentence by selecting the most appropriate option. 1

The 2014 study attempts to understand student leadership by focussing on .

A. experiences that shaped students’ overall personality.

B. lessons gained by students as they grew up.
C. relationship of key events with particular lessons.
D. students in leadership roles.

vii The lessons for ‘Individual competencies’ had a range of responses. 1

Give one reason why having the least number of responses for ‘Decision Making’, is a
matter that needs attention.

viii Complete the given sentence by selecting the most appropriate option. 1

The concluding sentence of the text makes a clear case for by listing it
as a core competency for student leadership.

A. collaboration
B. flexibility

Page 5 of 15
 C. hard work
D. observation

ix Complete the sentence appropriately with one/ two words. 1

In the context of “Working with Others” in Table 1, the lesson of ‘Conflict’ refers to
.

x Based on the reading of the text, state a point to challenge the given statement. 1

When theoretical knowledge about leadership suffices, it is a waste of funds by

educational organisations, to organise leadership camps and programmes.

III SECTION B – CREATIVE WRITING SKILLS 20

All the names and addresses used in the questions are fictitious. Resemblance, if any, is purely coincidental.
1. Attempt ANY ONE from A and B given below. 5
A You are Josely Mathew, the President of the school book club. The club is organising a
drive for promoting reuse of study materials and books. Draft a notice in about 50
words, for the school notice board, addressing students of classes X-XII, informing them
about this drive and urging them to contribute to the endeavour. Mention how the
donated books would would benefit a charitable cause.

OR
B As the House Captain of A.B.M Public School, Telangana, draft a notice in not more than
50 words for the school notice board, informing House members from X-XII about the
change in topic and submission dates for Round 1 of ‘Discovery’ - the upcoming Inter-
House Reasearch-based Paper Presentation Competition. Do not forget to issue an
apology for the above. You are Kruthika Reddy.

2. Attempt ANY ONE from A and B given below. 5

A You are Dr. Suchitra Mukherjee. You have received an invitation from the Director,
Health Services, Kharagpur, W.B, to preside over a gathering of leading medical
practitioners attending a workshop on mental wellness on 09 November, 2023 at 11
a.m. in the Public Hospital, Jammu, J & K. Respond to accept the invitation in about 50
words.

OR
B Draft an invitation in about 50 words, on behalf of your aunt, Meghna Menon, which she
has to share to invite prior work colleagues to the inaugural event of her own
investment consultancy firm, in the Acer mall, Kozhikode, Kerala.

3. Attempt ANY ONE from A and B given below. 5

A You are Minu Sen, an intern in a software company in Hyderabad. You feel that the
growing relationship of companies with non-profit organisations have made Corporate
Social Responsibility (CSR) the buzzword today. Your own involvement in one such
project for your company has convinced you that CSR looks beyond the company profits
and focuses on benefiting the greater community.

Page 6 of 15
 Write a letter to the editor of a national daily in about 120-150 words, sharing your
opinion about CSR and its advantages and provide suggestions to make it an integral
part of every organisation. Use the given cues along with your own ideas to compose
this letter.

OR
B You are Minu Sen, employed as an Asst. Manager for Corporate Social Responsibility
(CSR) in your current company in Hyderabad. You saw the given advertisement in the
newspaper and wish to apply for the position advertised.

Write a a letter to Credit Sage Pvt. Ltd. along with your bio-data, expressing your interest
in the situation vacant.

4. Attempt ANY ONE from A and B given below. 5

Page 7 of 15
A The construction sector is believed to be quite hazardous and has the maximum
number of fatal work injuries because apart from other causes, stakeholders in this
sector tend to ignore safety regulations.
As a columnist for an e-zine, draft an article in about 120-150 words, on the theme of
the importance of worker safety in construction zones. Explore possible reasons for the
prevailing situation and include suggestions for addressing it. Support your ideas with
cues given below.

OR
B The construction sector is believed to be quite hazardous and has the maximum
number of fatal work injuries. A safety fair was organised by ‘Building Safely’, an NGO
in Mysuru, Karnataka with the overarching theme pertaining to the importance of
worker safety in construction zones. You were asked to cover this event as the junior
correspondent of a local daily. Write a report covering this event in about 120-150
words. Support your ideas with outline cues given below, to craft your newspaper
report.

SECTION C - LITERATURE 40

IV Read the given extracts to attempt the questions with reference to context.
1 Attempt ANY ONE of two extracts given. 1*6=6
1.A It is in the news that all these pitiful kin
Are to be bought out and mercifully gathered in
To live in villages, next to the theatre and the store,
Where they won’t have to think for themselves anymore,
While greedy good-doers, beneficent beasts of prey,
Swarm over their lives enforcing benefits
That are calculated to soothe them out of their wits,
And by teaching them how to sleep they sleep all day,
Destroy their sleeping at night the ancient way.

(A Roadside Stand)
i. What is the tone of the poet in the above lines? 1
(i) aggressive
(ii) tolerant

Page 8 of 15
 (iii) sarcastic
(iv) resigned
(v) sentimental
Choose the most appropriate option.
A. Only (i)
B. (ii) and (iii)
C. (i), (iv) and (v)
D. Only (iii)

ii. Identify the phrase from the extract, that suggests the following: 1

No one bothers to take ‘their’ consent before pushing the promise of a better life, their
way.

iii. What quality of the villagers can be inferred through these lines? 1

A. gullible
B. futuristic
C. hypocritical
D. ambitious

iv. Complete the following analogy correctly. Do NOT repeat from used example. 1

greedy good doers: alliteration :: ................................... oxymoron

v. On the basis of the extract, choose the correct option with reference to (1) and (2) 1
given below.
(1) The city dwellers make promises for the betterment of the villagers.
(2) The city dwellers have ulterior motives.

A. (1) is true but (2) is false.

B. (2) is true but (1) is false.
C. (2) is the reason for (1).
D. Both (1) and (2) cannot be inferred from the extract.

vi. Fill the blank with an appropriate word, with reference to the extract. 1

‘… calculated to soothe them out of their wits’ implies that ‘them’ are being .
OR
1.B A thing of beauty is a joy forever
Its loveliness increases, it will never
Pass into nothingness; but will keep
A bower quiet for us, and a sleep
Full of sweet dreams, and health, and quiet breathing.
Therefore, on every morrow, are we wreathing
A flowery band to bind us to the earth
(A Thing of Beauty)

Page 9 of 15
i. Choose the option that displays the same poetic device as used in the first line of the 1
extract.
A. I’m as happy as I can be.
B. Life is a roller coaster ride.
C. Nature is God’s gift to us.
D. The dazzling divas enchanted all.

ii. What does the phrase ‘a bower quiet’ indicate? 1

A. serenity
B. morality
C. superiority
D. diversity

iii. The benefits of a thing of beauty for humans include . 1

(i) healthy body
(ii) calm mind
(iii) struggle-free life
(iv) better relationships
(v) hope to carry on

Choose the most appropriate option.

A. Only (v)
B. (i), (ii) and (v)
C. (i), (iii) and (iv)
D. (ii) and (iv)

iv. Answer in ONE word. 1

When the poet says that ‘a thing of beauty’ will never pass into nothingness, he means
that it is .

v. On the basis of the extract, choose the correct option with reference to the two 1
statements given below.
(1) We are surrounded by beautiful things.
(2) Beautiful things provide us joy.

A. (1) can be inferred from the extract but (2) cannot.

B. (2) can be inferred from the extract but (1) cannot.
C. Both (1) and (2) can be inferred from the extract.
D. (2) is the reason for (1) and can be inferred from the extract.

vi. Which of the following is an apt title for the extract? 1

A. Full to the Brim with Joy
B. Beauty Galore
C. Live Life King Size

Page 10 of 15
 D. Hope Floats

2 Attempt ANY ONE of two extracts given. 1*4=4

2.A DERRY: You’re ... peculiar. You say peculiar things. You ask questions I don’t
understand.
MR LAMB: I like to talk. Have company. You don’t have to answer questions. You don’t
have to stop here at all. The gate’s open.
DERRY: Yes, but...
MR LAMB: I’ve a hive of bees behind those trees over there. Some hear bees and they
say, bees buzz. But when you listen to bees for a long while, they humm. ... and hum
means ‘sing’. I hear them singing, my bees.
DERRY: But....I like it here. I came in because I liked it ..... when I looked over the wall.
MR LAMB: If you’d seen me, you’d not have come in.
DERRY: No.

(On the Face of It)

i. List the playwright’s purpose of using ellipses (…) in this extract. 1

ii. Select the option that best describes Derry and Mr. Lamb in the extract.
1
A. Derry: introvert; Mr. Lamb: friendly
B. Derry: fearful; Mr. Lamb: domineering
C. Derry: friendly; Mr. Lamb: weird
D. Derry: open minded; Mr. Lamb: charming

iii. Which of the following best summarises Mr. Lamb’s attitude towards the bees? 1
A. Beauty is being true to yourself.
B. There is a kind of beauty in imperfection.
C. Beauty is the promise of happiness.
D. The beauty of the world lies in the details.

iv. Derry says, “I came in here because I liked it ….” What was the one significant thing 1
Derry might have liked about the place, as per the extract?
OR
2.B Students on Ice, the programme I was working with on the Shokalskiy, aims to do
exactly this by taking high school students to the ends of the world and providing them
with inspiring educational opportunities which will help them foster a new
understanding and respect for our planet. It’s been in operation for six years now,
headed by Canadian Geoff Green, who got tired of carting celebrities and retired, rich,
curiosity-seekers who could only ‘give’ back in a limited way. With Students on Ice, he
offers the future generation of policy-makers a life-changing experience at an age
when they’re ready to absorb, learn, and most importantly, act.

(Journey to the End of the Earth)

i. Complete the sentence appropriately, with reference to the extract. 1
The writer refers to the educational opportunities as ‘inspiring’ because .

Page 11 of 15
ii. Which of the following would NOT be ‘a life changing experience’? 1
A. Being given the lead role in a play.
B. Going on an adventure trip.
C. Playing a video game.
D. Meeting a great leader, you admire.

iii. Select the most suitable title for the given extract. 1
A. Adventure with a Mission
B. Adventure – The Spice of Life
C. The Wanderlust
D. Students of the Future

iv. Why does the writer refer to ‘act’ as more important than ‘absorb’ or ‘learn’? 1

3 Attempt ANY ONE of two extracts given. 1*6=6

3.A A girl from the countryside, she hadn’t gone through all the stages of worldly
experience that generally precede a position of importance and sophistication that she
had found herself catapulted into. She never quite recovered from the terror she felt
that day. That was the end of a brief and brilliant acting career — the legal adviser,
who was also a member of the Story Department, had unwittingly brought about that
sad end. While every other member of the Department wore a kind of uniform —
khadi dhoti with a slightly oversized and clumsily tailored white khadi shirt — the legal
adviser wore pants and a tie and sometimes a coat that looked like a coat of mail.
Often, he looked alone and helpless …
(Poets and Pancakes)
i. Select the option that completes the given sentence appropriately. 1
‘Stages of worldly experience’ in the given context would refer to .
A. good education to gain knowledge.
B. situations that require one to be street smart.
C. smaller, not so important roles in acting.
D. training in soft skills.

ii. Select the suitable word from the extract to complete the following analogy: 1
sealed: closed :: propelled:

iii. Select the correct option to fill in the blank. 1

The harm done to the actress was a/an

A. well-planned act.
B. unintentional act.
C. act of jealousy.
D. act of male dominance.

iv. Based on the above extract, choose the statement that is TRUE for the legal adviser. 1

Page 12 of 15
 A. He disliked the actress from the countryside.
B. He acted after thinking through things carefully.
C. He did not gel well with others in the Department.
D. He was always dressed smartly.

v. Identify the textual clue that allows the reader to infer that the writer is sympathetic 1
towards the professional fate of the actor. (Clue: a phrase)

vi. Complete the sentence with an appropriate explanation, as per the extract. 1
The writer uses the word ‘uniform’ to refer to the outfits of the Department members
because just like a uniform .

OR
3.B Some might make quite extravagant claims for it as being, in its highest form, a source
of truth, and, in its practice, an art. Others, usually celebrities who see themselves as
its victims, might despise the interview as an unwarranted intrusion into their lives, or
feel that it somehow diminishes them, just as in some primitive cultures it is believed
that if one takes a photographic portrait of somebody then one is stealing that
person’s soul.
(The Interview)
i. What is the most likely reason some people consider the practice of interview to be an 1
art?
This could be because it requires-
A. fluency of words.
B. sensitive and careful handling.
C. creativity and imagination.
D. probing and focusing on details.

ii. Rewrite the sentence by replacing the underlined phrase with its inference. 1
Celebrities feel that an interview diminishes them.

iii. On the basis of the extract, choose the correct option with reference to the two 1
statements given below.
(1) Celebrities don’t consent to be interviewed.
(2) Interviews intrude the privacy of celebrities.

A. (1) Can be inferred from the extract but (2) cannot.

B. (1) cannot be inferred from the extract but (2) can.
C. (1) is true but (2) is false.
D. (2) is the reason for (1).

iv. Rationalise, to support the given opinion: 1

To say that an interview, in its highest form, is a source of truth, is an extravagant
claim.

Page 13 of 15
v. Replace the underlined word with its antonym from the extract. 1
Some celebrities hate the idea of having to give an interview because it makes them
feel like supporters.

vi. The author’s views on interview, in the extract, can best be described as statements 1
based on .
A. facts
B. hypothesis
C. beliefs
D. superstitions

V Answer ANY FIVE of the following in about 40-50 words each. 5*2=10
i. “You realise the true value of a thing only on losing it.” Comment on this statement in 2
the light of the story, The Last Lesson.

ii. State the common issue faced by most of the aged in the current times, with reference 2
to the poem My Mother at Sixty-six.

iii. What do we come to know about the author of Lost Spring, Anees Jung, through her 2
interactions with Saheb and Mukesh?

iv. Give two reasons why, according to Pablo Neruda, is ‘keeping quiet’ essential to 2
attaining a better, more peaceful world. (Keeping Quiet)

v. If the Christmas spirit is about selflessness, forgiveness and becoming 'better' versions 2
of ourselves amongst other things, Edla Willmansson is the epitome of this spirit.
Justify with two points of evidence from The Rattrap.

vi. How can we say that marriage was a compromise for Aunt Jennifer? Support your 2
response with two justifications. (Aunt Jennifer’s Tigers)

VI Answer ANY TWO of the following in about 40-50 words each. 2*2=4
i. ‘It’s easy to judge others and give advice, but much more difficult to apply it to 2
ourselves.’ Elaborate with reference to the character of Sam in The Third Level.

ii. Comment on any one aspect of the writing style of the author, Kalki in The Tiger King. 2

iii. How do we know that Dr. Sadao was conscientious as well as loyal? (The Enemy) 2

VII Answer ANY ONE of the following in about 120-150 words. 1*5=5
i. The prose selections, Deep Water and Indigo, bring out the importance of overcoming 5
fear, in order to be able to lead our lives successfully.
Imagine yourself to be a motivational speaker who has to address high school
students. Write this address in 120 – 150 words elaborating on occurrences from the
two texts to inspire your audience and to convince them about the importance of
overcoming fear.

Page 14 of 15
 You may begin like this …
Good morning, students!
We all know what it’s like to be afraid. Fear is our body’s natural response to a perceived threat or danger.
But when …
OR
ii. ‘Their mother sighed.
Sophie watched her back stooped over the sink and wondered at the incongruity of the 5
delicate bow which fastened her apron strings.’
The prose selection, Going Places includes this telling comment about Sophie’s
mother.
In Aunt Jennifer’s Tigers, we are told that -
‘The massive weight of Uncle’s wedding band
Sits heavily upon Aunt Jennifer’s Hand.’

Imagine a conversation between Sophie’s mother and Aunt Jennifer. Create this
exchange with reference to the two extracts given above.

You may begin the conversation like this …

Sophie’s mother: Your embroidery is so beautiful. Do you love tigers?

VIII Answer ANY ONE of the following in about 120-150 words. 1*5=5
i. On returning home, Tishani Doshi writes her thoughts reflecting on how her decision
to enrol for the Students on Ice programme has been the single most important
decision of her life that has completely transformed her.
Imagine yourself to be Tishani and express these thoughts.
You may begin like this:
I can’t thank my stars enough for having cashed in on the opportunity of...........

OR
ii. Both Bama and Zitkala Sa experienced the harsh reality of discrimination in their 5
childhood. Instead of letting it pull them down, they both found a way to overcome it.
You wish to include a cameo* of both in your upcoming blog post.
As a part of the research, compare and contrast the experiences faced by the two and
their response/s to these experiences, in 120-150 words. [Clue: Include the similarities and
differences in the discrimination they faced - their feelings - determination to overcome – success]

*a short description that neatly encapsulates someone or something

Page 15 of 15
 Sample Question Paper 2022-23
CLASS XII
BIOLOGY (044)
Maximum Marks: 70 Time: 3 hours
General Instructions:
(i) All questions are compulsory.
(ii) The question paper has five sections and 33 questions. All questions are compulsory.
(iii) Section–A has 16 questions of 1 mark each; Section–B has 5 questions of 2 marks each;
Section– C has 7 questions of 3 marks each; Section– D has 2 case-based questions of 4
marks each; and Section–E has 3 questions of 5 marks each.
(iv) There is no overall choice. However, internal choices have been provided in some
questions. A student has to attempt only one of the alternatives in such questions.
(v) Wherever necessary, neat and properly labeled diagrams should be drawn.

SECTION - A
Q.N
Question Marks
o.
1
1. An infertile couple was advised to undergo In vitro fertilization by the doctor. Out of
the options given below, select the correct stage for transfer to the fallopian tube for
successful results?
(a) Zygote only
(b) Zygote or early embryo upto 8 blastomeres
(c) Embryos with more than 8 blastomeres
(d) Blastocyst Stage
1
2. Given below are four contraceptive methods and their modes of action. Select the
correct match:

S. No. Method S. No Mode of action

a) Condom (i) Ovum not able to reach Fallopian
tube
b) Vasectomy (ii) Prevents ovulation
c) Pill (iii) Prevents sperm reaching the cervix
d) Tubectomy (iv) Semen contains no sperms

(a) a)–(i) b)–(ii) c)– (iii) d)–(iv)

(b) a)–(ii) b)–(iii) c)–(iii) d) – (i)
(c) a)–(iii) b)–(iv) c)–(ii) d)–(i)
(d) a)–(iv) b)–(i) c)– (iii) d)–(ii)

1
 1
3 Which of the following amino acid residues will constitute the histone core?
(a) Lysine and Arginine
(b) Asparagine and Arginine
(c) Glutamine and Lysine
(d) Asparagine and Glutamine

1
4 Evolutionary convergence is development of a
(a) common set of functions in groups of different ancestry.
(b) dissimilar set of functions in closely related groups.
(c) common set of structures in closely related groups.
(d) dissimilar set of functions in unrelated groups.

5. Apis mellifera are killer bees possessing toxic bee venom. Identify the treatment and 1
the type of immunity developed from the given table to treat a person against the
venom of this bee.

Remedy Immunity
(a) Inactivated proteins Active
(b) Proteins of the venom Passive
(c) Preformed antibodies Passive
(d) Dead micro-organisms Active

6. Interferons are most effective in making non-infected cells resistant against the 1
spread of which of the following diseases in humans?
(a) ascariasis
(b) ringworm
(c) amoebiasis
(d) AIDS

7. Which of the following water samples in the table given below, will have a higher 1
concentration of organic matter?

Water Sample Level of pollution Value of BOD

(a) High High
(b) Low Low
(c) Low High
(d) High Low

2
8. The figure below shows the structure of a plasmid. 1

A foreign DNA was ligated at BamH1. The transformants were then grown in a
medium containing antibiotics tetracycline and ampicillin.
Choose the correct observation for the growth of bacterial colonies from the given
table

Medium with Tetracycline Medium with Ampicillin

(a) Growth No growth
(b) No growth Growth
(c) No growth No Growth
(d) Growth Growth

9. Swathi was growing a bacterial colony in a culture flask under ideal laboratory 1
conditions where the resources are replenished. Which of the following equations will
represent the growth in this case?
(Where population size is N, birth rate is b, death rate is d, unit time period is t, and
carrying capacity is K).
(a) dN/dt = KN
(b) dN/dt = r N
(c) dN/dt = r N(K-N/K)
(d) dN/dt = r N(K+N/K)

10. Sea Anemone gets attached to the surface of the hermit crab. The kind of population 1
interaction exhibited in this case is
(a) amensalism.
(b) commensalism.
(c) mutualism.
(d) parasitism.

3
11. Which of the following food chains is the major conduit for energy flow in terrestrial 1
and aquatic ecosystems respectively?

Terrestrial Ecosystem Aquatic Ecosystem

(a) Grazing Grazing
(b) Detritus Detritus
(c) Detritus Grazing
(d) Grazing Detritus

12 Which of the following is an example of ex situ conservation? 1

(a) Sacred Groves
(b) National Park
(c) Biosphere Reserve
(d) Seed Bank

Question No. 13 to 16 consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these
questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true but R is false.
D. A is False but R is true.

13. Assertion: Apomictic embryos are genetically identical to the parent plant. 1
Reason: Apomixis is the production of seeds without fertilization.

14. Assertion: When white eyed, yellow bodied Drosophila females were hybridized with 1
red eyed, brown-bodied males; and F1 progeny was intercrossed, F2 ratio deviated
from 9 : 3 : 3 : 1.

Reason: When two genes in a dihybrid are on the same chromosome, the
proportion of parental gene combinations is much higher than the non-parental type.

15. Assertion: Functional ADA cDNA genes must be inserted in the lymphocytes at the 1
early embryonic stage.

Reason: Cells in the embryonic stage are mortal, differentiated and easy to
manipulate.
1
16. Given below is the Age Pyramid of population in one of the states in India as per
2011 census. It depicts the male population on the left hand side, female population
on the right hand side, newborns towards the base and gradually increasing age
groups as we move from base to the top, with the oldest population at the top. Study

4
 this pyramid and comment upon the appropriateness of the Assertionand
theReason.

Assertion: It is a stable population.

Reason: The pre-reproductive and reproductive individuals are almost in equal
numbers and the post-reproductive individuals are relatively fewer.

SECTION - B

17. In the figure given below, parts A and B show the level of hormones which influence
2
the menstrual cycle. Study the figure and answer the questions that follow:

(a) Name the organs which secrete the hormones represented in parts A and B.
(b) State the impact of the hormones in part B on the uterus of the human female
during 6 to 15 days of menstrual cycle?
A true breeding pea plant, homozygous dominant for inflated green podsis crossed
18. 2
with another pea plant with constricted yellow pods (ffgg). With the help of punnett
square show the above cross and mention the results obtained phenotypically and
genotypically in F1 generation?
19 During a field trip, one of your friend in the group suddenly became unwell, she 2
started sneezing and had trouble in breathing.
Name and explain the term associated with such sudden responses. What would
the doctor recommend for relief?

5
20 CTTAAG  2
GAATTC 
(a) What are such sequences called? Name the enzyme used that recognizes
such nucleotide sequences.
(b) What is their significance in biotechnology?
21 (a) Given below is a pyramid of biomass in an ecosystem where each bar 2
represents the standing crop available in the trophic level. With the help of an
example explain the conditions where this kind of pyramid is possible in
nature?

(b) Will the pyramid of energy be also of the same shape in this situation? Give
reason for your response.
OR
(a) Draw a pyramid of numbers where a large number of insects are feeding on
the leaves of a tree. What is the shape of this pyramid?
(b) Will the pyramid of energy be also of the same shape in this situation? Give
reason for your response.
SECTION - C

22 Explain the functions of the following structures in the human male reproductive 3
system.
(a) Scrotum
(b) Leydig cells
(c) Male accessory glands

23 State the agent(s) which helps in pollinating in the following plants. Explain the 3
adaptations in these plants to ensure pollination:
(a) Corn
(b) Water hyacinth
(c) Vallisneria
24 3
(a) Identify the polarity of x to x’ in the diagram below and mention how many more
amino acids are expected to be added to this polypeptide chain.

6
 (b) Mention the codon and anticodon for alanine.
(c) Why are some untranslated sequences of bases seen in mRNA coding for a
polypeptide? Where exactly are they present on mRNA?

25 (a) How is Hardy-Weinberg's expression “(p2 + 2pq+q 2) = 1”derived? 3

(b) List any two factors that can disturb the genetic equilibrium.
3
26 Highlight the structural importance of an antibody molecule with a diagram. Name
the four types of antibodies found to give a humoral immune response, mentioning
the functions of two of them you have studied.
OR
(a) Explain the Life cycle of Plasmodium starting from its entry in the body of female
Anopheles till the completion of its life cycle in humans.
(b) Explain the cause of periodic recurrence of chill and high fever during malarial
attack in humans.

27 Carefully observe the given picture. A mixture of DNA with fragments ranging from 3
200 base pairs to 2500 base pairs was electrophoresed on agarose gel with the
following arrangement.  

 
(a) What result will be obtained on staining with ethidium bromide? Explain with
reason. 
(b) The above set-up was modified and a band with 250 base pairs was obtained at
X.

7
 What change(s) were made to the previous design to obtain a band at X? Why did
the band appear at the position X?
28 (a) There was loss of biodiversity in an ecosystem due to a new construction 3
project in that area. What would be its impact on the ecosystem? State any
three.
(b) List any three major causes of loss of biodiversity?

SECTION - D
Q.no 29 and 30 are case based questions. Each question has subparts with internal choice in one
subpart.
29 Study the Pedigree chart given below and answer the questions that follow: 4

(a) On the basis of the inheritance pattern exhibited in this pedigree chart, what
conclusion can you draw about the pattern of inheritance?
(b) If the female is homozygous for the affected trait in this pedigree chart, then
what percentage of her sons will be affected ?

8
 (c) Give the genotype of offsprings 1,2,3 and 4 in III generation.
OR
(c) In this type of inheritance pattern, out of male and female children which one
has less probability of receiving the trait from the parents. Give a reason.
30. The data below shows the concentration of nicotine smoked by a smoker taking 10 4
puffs/ minute.

(a) With reference to the above graph explain the concentration of nicotine in blood
at 10 minutes.
(b) How will this affect the concentration of carbon monoxide and haembound
oxygen at 10 minutes?
(c) How does cigarette smoking result in high blood pressure and increase in heart
rate?
OR
(c) How does cigarette smoking result in lung cancer and emphysema?

SECTION - E

31 Trace the events from copulation to zygote formation in a human female. 5

OR

Trace the development of a megaspore mother cell to the formation of mature

embryo sac in a flowering plant.

32. Observe the segment of mRNA given below. 5

9
 (a) Explain and illustrate the steps involved to make fully processed hnRNA?
(b) Gene encoding RNA Polymerase I and III have been affected by mutation in a
cell. Explain its impact on the synthesis of polypeptide, stating reasons.
OR
Study the schematic representation of the genes involved in the lac operon given
below and answer the questions that follow:

(a) The active site of enzyme permease present in the cell membrane of a
bacterium has been blocked by an inhibitor, how will it affect the lac operon?
(b) The protein produced by the i gene has become abnormal due to unknown
reasons. Explain its impact on lactose metabolism stating the reason.
(c) If the nutrient medium for the bacteria contains only galactose; will operon be
expressed? Justify your answer.

33. Oil spill is a major environmental issue. It has been found that different strains of 5
Pseudomonas bacteria have genes to break down the four major groups of
hydrocarbons in oil. Trials are underway to use different biotechnological tools to
incorporate these genes and create a genetically engineered strain of Pseudomonas
- a ‘super-bug’, to break down the four major groups of hydrocarbons in oil. Such
bacteria might be sprayed onto surfaces polluted with oil to clean thin films of oil. 
(a)  List two advantages of using bacteria for such biotechnological studies?
(b) For amplification of the gene of interest PCR was carried out. The PCR was run
with the help of polymerase which was functional only at a very low
temperature. How will this impact the efficiency of the PCR? Justify.
(c) If such bacteria are sprayed on water bodies with oil spills, how will this have a
positive or negative effect on the environment? Discuss.

OR
Insects in the Lepidopteran group lay eggs on maize crops. The larvae on hatching
feed on maize leaf and tender cob. In order to arrest the spread of three such
Lepidopteran pests, Bt maize crops were introduced in an experimental field.
A study was carried out to see which of the three species of lepidopteran pests was

10
most susceptible to Bt genes and its product.
The lepidopteran pests were allowed to feed on the same Bt-maize crops grown on
5 fields (A-E).
The graph below shows the leaf area damaged by these three pests after feeding on
maize leaves for five days.

Insect gut pH was recorded as 10, 8 and 6 respectively for Species I, II and III
respectively.

(a) Evaluate the efficacy of the Bt crop on the feeding habits of the three species of
stem borer and suggest which species is least susceptible to Bt toxin.
(b) Which species is most susceptible to Bt-maize, explain why?
(c) Using the given information, suggest why similar effect was not seen in the
three insect species?

11
 CBSE | DEPARTMENT OF SKILL EDUCATION
ARTIFICIAL INTELLIGENCE (SUBJECT CODE -843)
Blue-print for Sample Question Paper for Class XII (Session 2022-2023)
Max. Time: 2 Hours Max. Marks: 50

PART A - EMPLOYABILITY SKILLS (10 MARKS):

OBJECTIVE TYPE SHORT ANSWER

UNIT QUESTIONS TYPE QUESTIONS TOTAL
NAME OF THE UNIT
NO. QUESTIONS
1 MARK EACH 2 MARKS EACH

1 Communication Skills - IV - - -
2 Self-Management Skills - IV 2 2 4
3 ICT Skills - IV 2 1 3
4 Entrepreneurial Skills - IV 2 2 4
5 Green Skills - IV - - -
TOTAL QUESTIONS 6 5 11
NO. OF QUESTIONS TO BE ANSWERED Any 4 Any 3 07
TOTAL MARKS 1x4=4 2x3=6 10 MARKS

PART B - SUBJECT SPECIFIC SKILLS (40 MARKS):

OBJECTIVE SHORT DESCRIPTIVE/

TYPE ANSWER TYPE LONG ANS. TYPE
UNIT TOTAL
NAME OF THE UNIT QUESTIONS QUESTIONS QUESTIONS
NO. QUESTIONS
1 MARK EACH 2 MARKS EACH 4 MARKS EACH

1 Capstone Project 10 4 2 16
2 Model Life Cycle 8 1 1 10
Story Telling through
3 6 1 2 8
Data
TOTAL QUESTIONS 24 6 5 34
NO. OF QUESTIONS
20 Any 4 Any 3 27
TO BE ANSWERED
TOTAL MARKS 1 x 20 = 20 2x4=8 4 x 3 = 12 40 MARKS

Page 1 of 8
CBSE | DEPARTMENT OF SKILL EDUCATION
ARTIFICIAL INTELLIGENCE (SUBJECT CODE -843)

Sample Question Paper for Class XII (Session 2022-2023)

Max. Time: 2 Hours Max. Marks: 50

General Instructions:
1. Please read the instructions carefully.
2. This Question Paper consists of 21 questions in two sections: Section A & Section B.
3. Section A has Objective type questions whereas Section B contains Subjective type questions.
4. Out of the given (5 + 16 =) 21 questions, a candidate has to answer (5 + 10 =) 15 questions in the
allotted (maximum) time of 2 hours.
5. All questions of a particular section must be attempted in the correct order.
6. SECTION A - OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS (24 MARKS):
i. This section has 05 questions.
ii. Marks allotted are mentioned against each question/part.
iii. There is no negative marking.
iv. Do as per the instructions given.
7. SECTION B – SUBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS (26 MARKS):
i. This section has 16 questions.
ii. A candidate has to do 10 questions.
iii. Do as per the instructions given.
iv. Marks allotted are mentioned against each question/part.

Page 2 of 8
 SECTION A: OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS

Q. 1 Answer any 4 out of the given 6 questions on Employability Skills (1 x 4 = 4 marks)

i. Self-motivation is important because 1

i. It increases individual’s energy and activity.

ii. It directs an individual towards specific goals.
iii. It results in initiation and persistence of specific activities
iv. It affects cognitive processes and learning strategies used for completing similar
tasks.

a). Only i b). Both i and ii c). i, iii and iv d). All of the above

ii. For an entrepreneur, aversion to risk is: 1

a) A failure
b) An opportunity
c) A psychological barrier
An initiative
iii. __________ is the command to select the entire worksheet: 1

a) CTRL + O
b) CTRL + A
c) CTRL + C
d) CTRL + Z

iv. Which of the following factors influence personality? 1

e) Genes
f) Environmental setting
g) Culture
h) All of the above

v. A competent person is 1

i) Self-confident
j) Emotional
k) Dependent
l) Lazy

vi. 1
Which software helps in performing calculations using formulae and in analyzing the data?

a) Microsoft Outlook
b) Comm Central
c) Range
OpenOffice Calc

Page 3 of 8
Q. 2 Answer any 5 out of the given 6 questions (1 x 5 = 5 marks)
i. In Design Thinking, ____ phase involves gathering user feedback on the prototypes 1
you've created as well as obtaining a better understanding of your users.
a) Prototype
b) Test
c) Ideate
d) Empathize
ii. _______ is the first step involved in telling an effective data story. 1
(a) Creating visuals
(b) Adding narrative
(c) Understanding the Audience
(d) Gathering data
iii. Match the following 1
1) Which category? A. (Anomaly Detection)
2) How much or how many? B. (Regression)
3) Which group? C. (Recommendation)
4) Is this unusual? D. (Classification)
5) Which option should be taken? E. (Clustering)

a) 1=D, 2=B, 3=E, 4=A, 5=C

b) 1=C, 2=D, 3=B, 4=E, 5=A
c) 1=D, 2=B, 3=C, 4=E, 5=A
d) 1=E, 2=A, 3=D, 4=C, 5=B
iv. Identify two AI development tools from the following: 1
1) DataRobot 2) Python
3) Scikit Learn 4) Watson Studio
(a) 1 & 2 (b) 2 & 3 (c ) 1 & 3 (d) 1 & 4
v. You want to predict future house prices. The price is a continuous value, and 1
therefore we want to do regression. Which loss function should be used here?
(a) RMSE (b) MSE (c ) Exponential error (d) MAE
vi. The design phase of the AI Model Life Cycle is an ______ process. 1
(a) compact (b) permanent (c ) periodic (d) iterative

Q. 3 Answer any 5 out of the given 6 questions (1 x 5 = 5 marks)

i. Techniques like descriptive statistics and visualisations can be applied to datasets 1
after the original data gathering to analyse the content. To close the gap,
additional data collecting may be required. Identify the stage of this analytic
approach.
(a) Data Requirements
(b) Data Gathering
(c) Data Understanding
(d) Data Preparation
ii. Stories create _______ experiences that transport the audience to another space 1
and time.
(a) unpleasant (b) tedious (c ) repetitive (d) engaging

Page 4 of 8
 iii. In this phase, we define the project's strategic business objectives and desired 1
outcomes, align all stakeholders' expectations as well as establish success metrics.
Identify this phase of the AI Model Life Cycle.
(a) Design (b) Scoping (c ) Evaluation (d) Data Collection
iv. Assertion (A): Stories that combine statistics and analytics are more persuasive. 1
Reason (R): When we talk about data storytelling, we're talking about stories in
which data plays a central role.
Select the appropriate option for the statements given above:
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is False but R is true
v. Which of the following is not a feature of RMSE? 1
(a) It tells about the accuracy of the model.
(b) Higher value means hyper parameters need to be tweaked
(c) Lower RMSE values are not good for the AI model.
(d) RMSE is a measure of how evenly distributed residual errors are.
vi. Once you have got an AI model that's ready for production, AI engineers then ____ 1
a trained model, making it available for external inference requests.
(a) Evaluate (b) Test (c ) Deploy (d) Redesign

Q. 4 Answer any 5 out of the given 6 questions (1 x 5 = 5 marks)

i. Data Validation for human biases is conducted in _________ phase of AI Model Life 1
Cycle.
(a) Scoping (b) Data Collection (c ) Design (d) Testing
ii. Identify the following icons: 1
(a) (b)

iii. Which of the following is a disadvantage of Cross Validation Technique? 1

(a) Cross-validation provides insight into how the model will generalise to a
new dataset.
(b) Cross-validation aids in determining a more accurate model prediction
performance estimate.
(c) As we need to train on many training sets, cross-validation is
computationally expensive.
(d) Cross-validation could result in more precise models.
iv. Hyper parameters are parameters whose values govern the learning process. 1
(a) True (b) False

Page 5 of 8
 v. The steps that assist in finding compelling stories in the data sets are as follows. 1
Arrange them in proper order:
1) Visualize the data.
2) Examine data relationships.
3) Get the data and organise it.
4) Create a simple narrative embedded with conflict.
(a) 1-2-3-4 (b) 2-3-1-4
(c ) 4-1-3-2 (d) 3-1-2-4
vi. Choose the difference between Regression and Classification Loss functions from 1
the following:
(a) Regression functions predict a quantity, and classification functions predict
a label.
(b) Regression functions predict a label, and classification functions predict a
quantity.
(c) Regression functions predict a qualitative value, and classification functions
predict a label.
(d) Regression functions predict a label, and classification functions predict a
qualitative value.

Q. 5 Answer any 5 out of the given 6 questions (1 x 5 = 5 marks)

i. Stories change the way that we interact with data, transforming it from a dry 1
collection of ______ to something that can be entertaining, thought provoking, and
inspiring change.
(a) visuals (b) points (c ) images (d) facts
ii. A good model should have an _____ value less than 180. 1
(a) RMSE (b) MSE
(c ) Focal Loss (d) MAE
iii. Which of the following is incorrect? 1
1) Testing data is the one on which we train and fit our model
basically to fit the parameters
2) Training data is used only to assess performance of model
3) Testing data is the unseen data for which predictions have to be made
a) 1) and 3) only
b) 1) and 2) only
c) 2) and 3) only
d) 1), 2) and 3)
iv. Choose an example of an AI predictive model. 1
(a) YouTube (b) Spam detection
(c ) weather forecast (d) Sentiment Analysis
v. Which of the following are the objectives of the testing team in AI modelling? 1
1) Model Validation
2) Security compliance
3) Understanding data
4) Minimizing bias
a. (1), (2) and (3) b. (2), (3) and (4)
c. (1), (3) and (4) d. (1), (2) and (4)

Page 6 of 8
 vi. If AI techniques are to be applied to a dataset, the data must have a ________. 1
a. association b. relationship
c. pattern d. Either a and b

SECTION B: SUBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS

Answer any 3 out of the given 5 questions on Employability Skills (2 x 3 = 6 marks)

Answer each question in 20 – 30 words.
Q. 6 Why is self-management important? Give one example. 2
Q. 7 Define any two of the following personality disorders 2
a. Paranoid
b. Anti-social
c. Obsessive Compulsive
Q. 8 Mention two steps in which we can save a workbook. 2
Q. 9 What are entrepreneurial skills? 2
Q. 10 Name two qualities of a person with entrepreneurial skills. Explain in a sentence each. 2

Answer any 4 out of the given 6 questions in 20 – 30 words each (2 x 4 = 8 marks)

Q. 11 Define capstone project. 2
Q. 12 Can MSE be a negative value? Give reasons. 2
Q. 13 What is the importance of a narrative in a story? 2
Q. 14 Imagine that you want to create your first app. Create a list of questions you would 2
develop to decompose this task.
Q. 15 Differentiate between training set and test set. 2
Q. 16 “Once the relevant projects have been selected and properly scoped, the next step 2
of the machine learning lifecycle is the Design or Build phase.” Briefly explain this
phase.

Answer any 3 out of the given 5 questions in 50– 80 words each (4 x 3 = 12 marks)
Q. 17 Explain how data storytelling can bring about change using a diagram. 4
Q. 18 Consider the following data 4
x y
44 47
46 48
48 55
50 58
52 49
Regression Equation: 0.7x + 17.8

Calculate the RMSE(Root means Square Error) for the above data.

Q. 19 List the considerations which data scientists have to keep in mind during the testing 4
stage.

Page 7 of 8
Q. 20 Explain the Cross Validation Procedure? In which situation is it better than a Train 4
Test Split?
Q. 21 (a) List the steps of creating an effective data story. 4
(b) Which of the following is a better data story? Give reasons.

Option A:

(Source: https://www.crazyegg.com/blog/data-storytelling-5-steps-charts/)

Option B:

The Digital
Universe is HUGE

Page 8 of 8